JARS 50 Met Questions

METEOROLOGY
THE ATMOSPHERE
Composition, extent, vertical division
1. The troposphere is the:
A – part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere
B – part of the atmosphere below the tropopause
C – boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere
D – boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere
Ans: B
2. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called:
A – Tropopause
B – Ionosphere
C – Stratosphere
D – Atmosphere
Ans: A
3. The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on:
A – relative humidity
B – air temperature
C – stability of air
D – dew point
. Ans: B
4. The tropopause is a level at which:
A – vertical currents are strongest
B – water vapour content is greatest
C – pressure remains constant
D – temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
Ans: D
5. The tropopause is lower;
A – south of the equator than north of it
B – in summer than winter in moderate latitudes
C – over the North pole than over the equator
D – over the equator than over the South Pole
Ans: C
6. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the
troposphere?
A – 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
B – 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
C – 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
D – 50% oxygen, 40$ nitrogen and the rest other gases
Ans: A
7. In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?
A – Troposphere
B – Tropopause
C – Stratosphere
D – Stratopause
Ans: A
8. The thickness of the troposphere varies with:
A – latitude
B – longitude
C – rotation of the earth
D – the wind
Ans: A
9. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause:
A – increases and its temperature increases
B – decreases and its temperature increases
C – increases and its temperature decreases
D – decreases and its temperature decreases
Ans: B
10. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from:
A – 85 to more than 200 km
B – 0 to 11 km
C – 50 to 85 km
D – 11 to 50 km
Ans: D
11. Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water
vapour?
A – Troposphere
B – Lower stratosphere
C – Upper stratosphere
D – Ionosphere
Ans: A
12. Which one of the following statement applies to the tropopause?
A – It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
B – It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
C – It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
D – It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
Ans: D
13. The average height of the tropopause at 50oN is about:
A – 14 km
B – 8 km
C – 11 km
D – 16 km
Ans: C
14. The troposphere:
A – has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
B – contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
C – is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
D – reaches the same height at all latitudes
Ans: A
15. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the
northern hemisphere?
A – It remains constant throughout the year
B – It remains constant from north to south
C – It increases from south to north
D – It decreases from south to north
.
Ans: D
16. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?
A – 40 km
B – 8 km
C – 11km
D – 16 km
Ans: D
17. Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight
documentation in the tropics?
A – The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown
B – The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart
C – The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and
therefore not important
D – Tropopause information are of no value
Ans: A
18. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
A - -25oC
B - -75oC
C - -55oC
D - -35oC
Ans: B
19. Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first:
A – 5 km
B – 3 km
C – 8 km
D – 11 km
Ans: A
20. What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere
from a weather stand point?
A – Hydrogen
B – Water vapour
C – Nitrogen
D – Oxygen
Ans: B
21. The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order
of
A – 16 km and -40oC over the poles
B – 16 km and -75oC over the equator
C – 8 km and -40oC over the equator
D – 8 km and -75oC over the poles
Ans: B
22. The troposphere is:
A – deepest over the equator
B – deepest over the poles
C – the same depth all over the earth
D – shallowest over the poles in summer
Ans: A
23. In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere
between mean sea level and a height of 5500m is:
A – 25%
B – 1%
C – 50%
D – 99%
Ans: C
24. Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct?
A – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal
B – The temperature remains constant above and below the tropopause
C – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the
poles
D – The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause
Ans: D
25. Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct
A – The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80oC over the Poles
and approximately -40oC over the equator
B – Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs
C – in the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the Poles
than over the equator
D – The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable
Ans: D
Temperature
1. Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
A – It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions
B – It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
C – It is highest in middle latitudes
D – There is no significant difference with change of latitude
Ans: A
2. Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the
following contribute the most?
A – Absorption and evaporation
B – Solar radiation and conduction
C – Absorption and vaporisation
D – Convection and condensation
Ans: D
3. An outside air temperature of -35oC is measured while cruising at FL 200.
What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
A – 5oC colder than ISA
B – 10oC warmer than ISA
C – 5oC warmer than ISA
D – 10oC colder than ISA
Ans: D
4. A layer can be:
A – unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable
B – stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air
C – unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air
D – stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air
Ans: D
5. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48oC; according
to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350?
A - -56.5oC
B - -50oC
C - -54oC
D - -58oC
Ans: C
6. Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate:
A – exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
B – exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate
C – is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
D – is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate
Ans: B
7. A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of:
A – the passage of cold front
B – nocturnal radiation
C – advection fog
D – cumulus clouds
Ans: B
8. An inversion is a layer of air which is:
A – absolutely unstable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – conditionally stable
Ans: B
9. An inversion is:
A – an increase of temperature with height
B – an increase of pressure with height
C – a decrease of pressure with height
D – a decrease of temperature with height
Ans: A
10. When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
A – stability increases in the layer
B – stability decreases in the layer
C – wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
D – wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern
hemisphere
Ans: A
11. Advection is:
A – the same as convection
B – vertical motion of air
C – the same as subsidence
D – horizontal motion of ai
Ans: D
12. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere:
A – has a fixed value of 2oC/1000 ft
B – has a fixed value of 1oC/100m
C – has a fixed value of 0.65oC/100m
D – varies with time
Ans: D
13. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature:
A – decreases with altitude
B – is almost constant
C – increases with altitude
D – increases at first and decreases afterward
Ans: B
14. An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:
A – increases with height at a constant rate
B – increases with height
C – decreases with height at a constant rate
D – remains constant with heigh
Ans: D
15. Which of the following is a common result of subsidence?
A – Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes
B – CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large sea
C – Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation
D – An inversion over a large area with haze, mist
Ans: D
16. An air mass is called stable when:
A – the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
B – the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height
C – the pressure in a given area is constant
D – the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air
currents
Ans: A
17. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
A – Subsidence
B – Inversion
C – Adiabatic
D – Advection
Ans: B
18. The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of:
A – 0.5oC/100m
B – 2oC/1000 ft
C – 0.65oC/100m
D – 1oC/100m
Ans: D
19. How would you characterise an air temperature of 15oC at the 700 hPa level
over western Europe?
A – Within +/-5oC of ISA
B – High
C – Low
D – 20oC below standard
Ans: C
20. In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15oC and the
temperature at 1000m/AGL is 13oC. This layer of air is:
A – unstable
B – stable
C – a layer of heavy turbulence
D – conditionally unstable
Ans: B
The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100m in the International
Standard Atmosphere is:
A – 0.65oC
B – 1oC
C – 0.5oC
D – variable
Ans: A
21. The radiation of the sun heats:
A – the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present
B – the air in the troposphere directly
C – the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
D – the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
Ans: D
22. From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the
atmosphere be derived?
A – Surface temperature
B – Environmental lapse rate
C – Dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – Pressure at the surfac
Ans: B
23. What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?
A – Stability
B – Instability
C – Clear ice
D – Area of active storms
Ans: A
24. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:
A – winter in the afternoon
B – winter during the night and early morning
C – summer during the night and early morning
D – summer in the afternoon
Ans: D
25. The dry adiabatic lapse rate:
A – has a constant fixed value
B – is greater in summer than in winter
C – is greater during the night than during the day
D – has a variable value
Ans: A
26. The temperature at FL 160 is -22oC. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if
the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
A - -4oC
B - -8oC
C – 0oC
D - +4o
Ans: B
27. The temperature at FL 140 is -12oC. What will the temperature be at FL 110
if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied:
A - -9oC
B - -18oC
C - -6oC
o
D - -15 C
Ans: C
28. The temperature at FL 80 is +6oC. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if
A - +2oC
B - -6oC
C – 0oC
D - -4oC
Ans: D
29. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:
A – clear and winds are strong
B – clear and winds are weak
C – overcast and winds are weak
D – overcast and winds are strong
Ans: B
30. On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum
temperature is reached approximately:
A – at the moment the sun rises
B – half an hour before sunrise
C – half an hour after sunrise
D – one hour before sunrise
Ans: C
31. The temperature at FL 110 is -5oC. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if
A - -3oC
B - +3oC
C – 0oC
D - +7oC
Ans: D
32. The 0o isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a
temperature of -6oC?
A – FL 110
B – FL 20
C – FL 100
D – FL 80
Ans: D
33. A temperature of 15oC is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level.
If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will
the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?
A - +4oC
B - +2oC
C – 0oC
D - -2oC
Ans: B
34. The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry
adiabatic lapse rate in:
A – cumulus
B – freezing fog
C – stratus
D – cirrus
Ans: D
35. Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature under
shelter is 3oC. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If
the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January
3rd to January 4th should be:
A – slightly above +3oC
B – significantly below 0oC
C – slightly below +3oC
D – significantly above +3oC
Ans: C
36. Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature
inversion?
A – Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds
B – Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
C – The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air
over cold air
D – Heating of the air by subsidenc
Ans: A
37. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
A – increases
B – At first it increases and higher up it decreases
C – Remains constant
D – Decreases
Ans: D
A – High
B – Within +/- 5oC of ISA
C – Low
D – Very low
Ans: A
A – High
B – Low
C – Very high
D – Within +/- 5oC of ISA
Ans: D
40. An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature:
A – increases with height more than 1oC/100m,
B – decreases with height more than 1oC/100m
C – increases with height
D – remains constant with height
Ans: C
41. A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after
take off the aircraft’s rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to:
A – low relative humidity
B – a very strong temperature inversion
C – sand/dust in the engines
D – very pronounced downdrafts
Ans: B
42. In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2oC per 100m increase
in altitude. This temperature change is called:
A – environmental lapse rate
B – saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C – dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – normal lapse rate
Ans: A
43. In the disturbed temperate regions:
A – winters are generally mild
B – the weather is mainly governed by travelling frontal depressions
C – the wet season is normally from May to September
D – the surface winds are moderate westerlies
Ans: B
44. Horizontal differences in the mean temperature of a layer are caused by:
A – insulation
B – advection
C – differential heating of the earth’s surface
D – change of air mass
Ans: C
45. Which of the following statements concerning the thermal wind component
(TWC) is true?
A – TWC decreases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases
B – TWC increases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases
C – the greater the TWC, the greater the reduction in the upper wind
D – the greater the TWC, the greater the surface wind
Ans: B
46. Which one of the following describes normal conditions?
A – Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere
B – Temperature increases with height in the troposphere
C – Temperature decreases with height in the stratosphere
D – Temperature decreases at a similar rate in the troposphere as in the
stratosphere
Ans: A
47. For international aviation meteorological purposes, temperature is measured in
degrees:
A – Fahrenheit
B – Celsius
C – Absolute
D – Kelvin
Ans: B
48. If the depth of the troposphere increases, the temperature at the tropopause
must:
A – decrease
B – stay the same
C – increase
D – impossible to say
Ans: A
49. Air at T = +16oC and DP = +4oC is forced from sea level over a 10,000 ft
mountain range and descends back to sea level on the other side. If the
leeward condensation level is observed to be 8,000 ft what will be the final
temperature?
A – 18oC
B – 20oC
C – 22oC
D – 24oC
Ans: C
50. A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So
long as it remains unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel:
A – decreases 0.65oC per 100m
B – remains constant
C – decreases 1oC per 100m
D – becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
Ans: C
51. Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental
lapse rate is
A – greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C – less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse
rate
Ans: A
52. According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere:
A – decreases with altitude
B – is almost constant
C – increases with altitude
D – increases at first and decreases afterward
Ans: B
53. For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
A – environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and
saturated adiabatic lapse rate
B – environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but
less than dry adiabatic lapse rate
C – environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and
D – dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but
greater than environmental lapse rate
Ans: A
54. In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is
greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but les than dry adiabatic lapse rate
– the air mass is described as being
A – conditionally unstable
B – stable
C – unstable
D – absolutely unstable
Ans: A
55. The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is:
A – 2.5oC/1000 ft
B – 3oC/1000 ft
C – 6.5oC/1000 ft
D – 2oC/1000 ft
Ans: D
56. What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere?
A - -20oC
B - -15oC
C - -25oC
D - -30oC
Ans: C
050-01-03 Atmospheric pressure
What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
A – Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
B – Positions with the same temperature at a given level
C – Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
D – Positions with the same relative pressure heights
Ans: A
1. In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100m increase in height:
A – is greater at higher levels than at lower levels
B – remains constant at all levels
C – is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels
D – is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL
Ans: C
2. An isohypse (contour):
A – indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm
B – is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
C – is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
D – indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
Ans: D
3. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:
A – QNE
B – QFE
C – QNH
D – QFF
Ans: D
4. Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?
A – It is higher in winter than in summer
B – It decreases with height
C – It is higher at night than during the day
D – It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m
Ans: B
5. Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal:
A – QFE
B – QFF
C – QNE
D – QNH
Ans: B
What is approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1
hPa at an altitude of 5,500m?
A – 15m (50 ft)
B – 8m (27 ft)
C – 32m (105 ft)
D – 64m (210 ft)
Ans: A
6. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:
A – at height of observatory
B – at a determined density altitude
C – reduced to sea level
D – at flight level
Ans: C
7. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems?
A – 25o – 35o
B – 10o – 15o
C – 55o – 75o
D – 35o – 55o
Ans: C
8. Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees,
then true altitude is increasing
B – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees,
C – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 20 degrees,
D – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees,
Ans: A
9. At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:
A – lower than at the same height in a column of cold air
B – higher than at the same height in a column of cold air
C – the same irrespective of the temperature
D – depends on the relative humidit
Ans: B
10. Which of the following statements is true?
A – High contour values are equivalent to high pressure
B – Low contour values are equivalent to high pressures
C – High contour values are equivalent to low pressure
D – There is no direct relationship between contour values and pressur
Ans: A
11. When flying towards high contour values an aircraft will experience:
A – headwind
B – tailwind
C – port drift
D – starboard drift
Ans: C
12. Contour heights are:
A – true heights AGL
B – true heights AMSL
C – indicated heights above 1013.25 mb
D – do not indicate heights at all
Ans: B
13. When flying from high to low contour values, which of the following is
incorrect?
A – the true height of the aircraft will be falling
B – the pressure altimeter will indicate a constant value
C – the indicated height of the aircraft will be constant
D – the indicated height of the aircraft will only be true if 1013.25 mb is set
Ans: D
14. You are making a long distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising
altitude for the whole flight. Towards the end of your flight, you have
descended. What may be the reason for this?
A – you are approaching a region of high pressure
B – you are approaching a region of low pressure
C – standard pressure has dropped
D – temperature has increased
Ans: B
15. Select the correct statement regarding the wind direction in connection with
the high and low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere:
A – the winds blow counter clockwise around a high and clockwise in a low
B – the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows
C – the winds blow clockwise in a high and counter clockwise in a low
D – the winds blow counter clockwise in both highs and lows
Ans: C
16. If you fly across the isobars towards a region of high pressure in the Northern
Hemisphere you will:
A – drift to the right
B – drift to the left
C – experience no drift but experience a headwind
D – experience no drift but experience a tailwind
Ans: B
According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure
determined from a certain pressure value. Which is this value?
A – 1013.25 hPa
B – 1025.13 hPa
C – Actual QFE
D – Actual QNH
Ans: A
17. If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure
difference of 100 hPa, the distance between the pressure surfaces will change
if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of air change. In which
of the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure
interact to shorten the distance as much as possible?
A – The temperature increases and pressure increases
B – The temperature decreases and pressure increases
C – The temperature increases and pressure decreases
D – The temperature decreases and pressure decreases
Ans: B
18. Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as:
A – Isotherms
B – Isopleths
C – Isobars
D – Isotachs
Ans: C
19. A pressure difference of 10 hPa close to the ground corresponds to a height
difference of:
A – about 50m
B – about 150m
C – about 300ft
D – about 30ft
Ans: C
20. A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:
A – reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in density
B – maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure
C – maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volume
D – reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume
Ans: D
21. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The
air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A – 1016 hPa
B – More than 1016 hPa
C – Less than 1016 hPa
D – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
Ans: B
22. Which of the following statements is correct?
A – Cumulus clouds and a good viability are normally observed in a warm
sector in winter
B – Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm
sector in autumn
C – Normally atmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front,
the air temperature rises
D – At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed
Ans: C
Atmospheric density
1. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density
altitude?
A – When the altimeter has no position error
B – At sea level when the temperature is 0oC
C – At standard temperature
D – When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa
Ans: C
2. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35oC. The air density at this level is:
A – unable to be determined without knowing the QNH
B – greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
C – less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
D – equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
Ans: B
3. What happens if density altitude is 3000 ft at an airport whose elevation is
1000 ft?
A – Take off and landing performance will be unaffected
B – The altimeter will indicate 3000 ft when the aircraft is on the ground
C – Take off and landing performance will be about the same as for an airport
with an elevation of 3000 ft
D – Indicated speed at 50 kt on take off and landing will be higher than in a
standard atmosphere
Ans: C
4. With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere
increases with increasing:
A – relative humidity
B – air pressure
C – stability
D – temperature
Ans: B
International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
1. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere
(ISA) is:
A - -44.7oC
B - -273oC
C - -58.5oC
D - -100oC
Ans: C
2. A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 180
B – FL 160
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
Ans: A
A – FL 100
B – FL 180
C – FL 300
D – FL 390
Ans: A
4. The temperature at 10000 ft in the International Standard Atmosphere is:
A - -20oC
B – 0oC
C - -5oC
D - -35oC
Ans: C
5. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2oC, at what
altitude
will the freezing level be?
A – FL 110
B – FL 130
C – FL 150
D – FL 90
Ans: A
A – FL 300
B – FL 100
C – FL 50
D – FL 390
Ans: C
7. If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15oC warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
A - -30oC
B - -45oC
C - -60oC
D - -15oC
Ans: A
8. In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with
height below 11 km is:
A – 1oC per 100m
B – 0.65oC per 100m
C – 0.5oC per 100m
D – 0.6oC per 100m
Ans: B
9. What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere?
A – 2oC per 1000m
B – 4.5oC per 1000m
C – 3oC per 1000m
D – 6.5oC per 1000m
Ans: D
10. A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions
which of the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 50
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
Ans: D
A – FL 100
B – FL 390
C – FL 300
D – FL 50
Ans: C
12. If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10oC warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
A - +15oC
B - +5oC
C - -10oC
D - -15oC
Ans: B
13. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?
A – At MSL temperature is 15oC and pressure is 1013.25 hPa
B – At MSL temperature is 15oC and the decrease in temperature with height
is 1oC per 100m
C – At MSL temperature is 10oC and the decrease in temperature with height
is 1oC .
Ans: A
14. Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the
ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
A - -44.7oC
B - -273oC
C - -56.5oC
D - -100oC
Ans: C
15. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce
at the rate of:
A - 2oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft after which it will remain constant to
104987 ft
B – 1.98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then rise at 0.3oC per 1000 ft
up to 65617 ft when it will remain constant
C – 1,98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft after which it remains constant to 65617
ft
D – 2oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then increase at 0.3oC per 1000 ft
up to 65617 ft
Ans: C
050-01-06 Altimetry
1. In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 ft. Th
QFE adjustment in Geneva is:
A – 942 hPa
B – 967 hPa
C – 961 hPa
D – 948 hPa
Ans: A
2. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa,
what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the
transition level?
A – It will increase
B – It will decrease
C – It will remain the same
D – It will not be affecte
Ans: B
3. The QNH level at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa.
The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the
QFF?
A – Less than 1009 hPa
B – 1009 hPa
C – More than 1009 hPa
Ans: C
4. An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second
altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be
approximately:
A – 7650 ft
B – 8600 ft
C – 8350 ft
D – 8000 ft
Ans: A
5. The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030
hPa. The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is
the QNH?
A – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B – Less than 1030 hPa
C – 1030 hPa
D – More than 1030 hPa
Ans: D
6. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). The
altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate:
A – 1200 ft
B – 1375 ft
C – 1105 ft
D – 1280 ft
Ans: B
7. 8836. The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200
UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees
C. 20000 (-12) 18000 (-11), 16000 (-10), 14000 (-10), 12000 (-6), 10000 (-2),
8000 (+2), 6000 (+6), 4000 (+12), 2000 (+15), surface (+15).
A – The layer between 16000 and 18000 ft is absolutely unstable
B – The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 ft
C – The temperature at 10000 ft is in agreement with the temperature in the
International Standard Atmosphere
D – Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an
aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude
Ans: D
8. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the
altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate?
A – 1080 ft
B – 700 ft
C – 380 ft
D – 0 ft
Ans: A
9. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ft. What is the
temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH
1013.2 hPa)?
A – ISA + 12oC
B – ISA +/- 0oC
C – ISA +20oC
D – ISA -20oC
Ans: D
The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if:
A – the outside air temperature is standard for that height
B – standard atmospheric conditions occur
C – the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
D – the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
Ans: B
10. Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a
lower altitude than that actually flown?
A – Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude
B – Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
C – Air temperature higher than standard
D – Air temperature lower than standard
Ans: C
11. What pressure is defined as QFE?
A – The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
B – The pressure of the altimeter
C – The pressure at field elevation
D – The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
Ans: C
12. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the
transiktion altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the
altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?
B – It will increase
C – It will remain the same
D – It will decrease
Ans: D
13. An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind
from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude?=
A – It remains constant
B – It increases
C – It decreases
D – Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question cannot be
answered
Ans: C
14. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
A – Elevation and the temperature at the airfield
B – Temperature at the airfield
C – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D – Elevation of the airfield
Ans: D
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?
A – 1005 hPa
B – 995 hPa
C – 1000 hPa
D – 1025 hPa
Ans: C
15. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40oC and the pressure at
sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
A – 20660 feet
B – 19310 feet
C – 21740 feet
D – 18260 feet
Ans: B
16. The QNH at an airfield located 6 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
D – 1022 hPa
Ans: D
17. Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
A – QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
B – QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
C – QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 ft (488m)
D – QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
Ans: C
18. Which statement is true?
A – QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL
B – QNH cannot be 1013.25 hPa
C – QNH is lower than 1013.25 at any time
D – QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.5 hPa
Ans: D
19. When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter
indicates:
A – zero while landing
B – elevation while landing
C – elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International
Standard Atmosphere
D – zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard
Atmosphere
Ans: B
20. The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018
hPa. The air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is
the QFF?
A – More than 1018 hPa
C – 1018 hPa
Ans: A
21. QNH is defined as:
A – The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere
B – The pressure at MSL, obtained using the actual conditions
C – QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
D – QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
Ans: D
22. The QNH is equal to the QFE if:
A – T actual < T standard
B – T actual = T standard
C – T actual > T standard
D – the elevation = 0
Ans: D
23. The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation
from ISA is -15oC below FL 100. What is the true altitude of FL 100?
A – 9740 ft
B – 10160 ft
C – 8640 ft
D – 11460 ft
Ans: C
24. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local
QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying?
A – It is colder than ISA
B – There is insufficient information to make any assumption
C – It is warmer than ISA
D – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
Ans: B
25. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The
air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
B – More than 1016 hPa
C – 1016 hPa
D – Less than 1016 hPa
Ans: D
26. In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be
known?
A – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
B – Temperature at the airfield
C – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D – Elevation of the airfield
Ans: D
27. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 ft. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of
1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1028 hPa
C – 1013 hPa
D – 998 hPa
Ans: B
28. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet;
local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
B – Its average temperature is about ISA
C – It is colder than ISA
D – It is warmer than ISA
Ans: D
29. Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude
to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
A – Cold high
B – Warm depression
C – Cold low
D – Warm high
Ans: C
30. An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason
for this is that:
A – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
B – the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
C – the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
Ans: C
31. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local
QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass
in which the aircraft is flying?
A – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
B – It is colder than ISA
C – It is warmer than ISA
D – There is insufficient information to make any assumption
Ans: B
32. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The
approximate elevation of the airfield is:
A – 120 metres
B – 600 metres
C – 540 metres
D – 160 metres
Ans: D
33. If the QFE at Locarnho (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1000 hPa
C – 1005 hPa
D – 1010 hPa
Ans: C
34. If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?
A – 985 hPa
B – 1025 hPa
C – 990 hPa
D – 1035 hPa
Ans: B
35. An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft. Should this
altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated
would be:
A – 2922 ft
B – 3006 ft
C – 4278 f
D – 4194 ft
Ans: B
36. You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27oC and the pressure at
sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?
A – 15630 feet
B – 15100 feet
C – 16370 feet
D – 16910 feet
Ans: B
37. What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated
50 ft below sea level?
A – QFE equals QNH
B – No clear relationship exists
C – QFE is greater than QNH
D – QFE is smaller than QNH
Ans: C
38. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The
air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
A – Less than 1022 hPa
B – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
D – 1022 hPa
Ans: B
39. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1016 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8m)
A – 1005 hPa
B – 990 hPa
C – 995 hPa
D – 1000 hPa
Ans: B
40. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet,
local QNHY is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A – It is warmer than ISA
B – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
C – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
D – It is colder than ISA
Ans: C
41. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter
reading during the resetting procedure?
A – It will decrease
B – It will remain the same
C – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
D – It will increase
Ans: D
42. (Refer to figure 050-14)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart.
The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
A – Wind speed at A and at B is the same
B – The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
C – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
D – Wind speed at A is higher than at B
Ans: B
43. After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is
still set to 1013.2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level?
A – 2280 feet
B – 660 feet
C – 1200 feet
D – 1740 feet
Ans: B
A – QNH is always lower than QFE
B – QNH is always higher than QFE
C – QNH is always equal to QFE
D – QNH can be equal to QFE
Ans: D
You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby
island with an elevation of 4000 ft is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20C.
What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the
subscale?
A – 4000 ft
B – Less than 0 ft
C – 0 ft
D – More than 0 ft, but less than 4000 ft
Ans: B
45. Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates:
A – the height of the aircraft’s wheels above the runway
B – in standard atmosphere the height of the aircraft above the official airport
elevation
C – the flight level
D – the aircraft’s altitude above the mean sea level
Ans: B
46. Suppose that you are flying at FL 40 and that you reset the altimeter to
reference pressure 993 hPa. The altimeter then indicates:
A – about 3,400 ft
B – about 3,700 ft
C – about 4,300 ft
D – about 4,600 ft
Ans: A
47. In which of the following cases will the altimeter always indicate the airport
elevation when landing?
A – If QFF of the airport is set as reference
B – If QFE of the airport is set as reference
C – If QNH of the airport is set as reference
D – At standard setting
Ans: C
48. A pressure altimeter can indicate different altitudes depending on the setting.
Regardless of setting it can generally be said that it indicates:
A – altitude above mean sea level at +15oC
B – altitude in the standard atmosphere at +15oC
C – altitude corresponding to difference between reference pressure and the
pressure where the instrument is
D – height above terrain
Ans: C
49. If an aircraft, without changing altimeter reference, flies so that the altimeter
all the time indicates the same altitude, this always means that :
A – the actual height above the mean ground level is unchanged
B – the air pressure around the aircraft is unchanged
C – the actual altitude above sea level is unchanged
D – the air pressure at sea level is unchanged
Ans: B
50. At an airport 1700 ft above sea level the temperature reading is +10oC from
the barometer readings made at the same time QFE, QFF and QNH are
computed. Which of the following statements concerning air pressure is
correct?
A – QFF is higher than QNH
B – QFF is equal to QNH
C – QFF is equal to QFE
D – QNH is equal to QFE
Ans: A
When landing at an airport you have correctly set QNH = 1023 hPa as
reference pressure on your altimeter. The altimeter indicates 1200 ft after
landing. Suppose that you change the pressure reference to standard setting
(1013 hPA) what will your altimeter indicate?
A – 0 ft
B – 900 ft
C – 1200 ft
D – 1500 ft
Ans: B
51. What will the altimeter indicate if the actual altitude is to be 10000 ft when the
pressure altitude is 10000 ft at OAT = -30oC?
A – 9000 ft
B – 10,000 ft
C – 11,000 ft
D – 12,000 ft
Ans: C
52. A barometric altimeter always indicates:
A – correct altitude to the terrain below
B – altitude to the set altitude reference
C – standard altitude
D – the dynamic pressure
Ans: B
53. Suppose that you want your altimeter on landing to indicate airport elevation
which of the following pressures will you use as reference?
A – Standard (1013.25)
B – QFE
C – QFF
D – QNH
Ans: D
54. A pressure altimeter indicates:
A – actual altitude above MSL
B – actual altitude above the terrain below
C – the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the actual atmosphere
D – the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the standard atmosphere
Ans: D
55. You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your
altimeter setting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a
minimum a true altitude?
1) Flying from an area of low pressure to that of an area of high pressure
2) Flying from an area of high pressure to that of an area of low pressure
3) Flying from a warm air mass to a cold air mass
4) Flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass
A – 1, 3
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 3
Ans: D
56. At the official measuring level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at
QNH for the airport, should read:
A – the elevation of the airport, but only at standard ISA temperature
B – the elevation of the airport, regardless of temperature
C – zero, regardless of temperature
D – zero, only at standard ISA temperature
Ans: A
57. Which factors below increase density altitude for a given aerodrome:
1) Decreasing air pressure
2) Increasing air pressure
3) Decreasing temperature
4) Increasing temperature
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: B
58. Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest take off run, if the
airports have the same QNH?
A – High temperature and low airport elevation
B – Low temperature and low airport elevation
C – High temperature and high airport elevation
D – Low temperature and high airport elevation
Ans: B
59. On the ground, an altimeter will read ___ if QFE is set and ___ if QNH is set
A – airfield elevation; airfield altitude
B – zero ft; airfield altitude
C – zero ft; airfield height
D – zero ft; airfield elevation
.
Ans: D
60. If flying North with easterly drift, an aircraft’s altimeter will progressively:
A – under-read
B – over-read
C – remain correct
D – impossible to say – it depends on the atmospheric pressure
Ans: B
61. The barometric reading of pressure must be corrected for the following errors:
A – temperature, index, instrument
B – index, temperature, pressure
C – instrument, gravity, temperature
D – instrument, temperature, pressure
Ans: D
A – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
C – Wind speed at A is higher than at B
D – Wind speed at A and at B is the same
Ans: B
A – Wind speed at B is higher than at A
C – Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A
D – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
Ans: D
A – Wind speed at B is higher than at A
C – Wind speed at A and at B is the same
D – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
Ans: D
An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio
altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the
nearest hPa, at that point?
A – 1042
B – 996
C – 1013
D – 1030
65. If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
A – the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSL
B – the conditions must be as in the ISA
C – the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA
D – the airport must be at MSL
Ans: D
66. Pressure altitude is obtained by:
A – setting the altimeter to QFF pressure
B – correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA
C – setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea
level
D – setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure
Ans: D
67. Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa pressure level?
A – FL 300
B – FL 390
C – FL 100
D – FL 50
Ans: B
A – FL 390
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 50
Ans: B
A – FL 100
B – FL 160
C – FL 180
D – FL 390
Ans: C
A – FL 300
B – FL 180
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
Ans: C
A – FL 100
B – FL 50
C – FL 300
D – FL 390
Ans: B
72. You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is
geostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true
altitude will:
A – increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
B – decrease
C – decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route
D – increase
Ans: D
050-02 WIND
050-02-01 Definition and measurement
1. What is the approximate speed of a 40 knot wind, expressed in m/sec?
A – 25 m/sec
B – 15 m/sec
C – 20 m/sec
D – 30 m/sec
Ans: C
What does zone A depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The cold front
Ans: A
3. What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
A – Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
B – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
C – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
D – Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
Ans: D
4. The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because:
A – the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient
force
B – contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the
upper air
C – the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low
pressure system
D – the friction of the air with the earth’s surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force
Ans: A
5. During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anti-cyclonic
conditions, the:
A – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon
B – surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
C – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in
the early afternoon
D – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
Ans: A
6. (Refer to figure 050-10) Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the
routing A-B?
A–2
B–3
C–4
D–1
Ans: B
On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL 300?
A – Zurich-Rome
B – London-Zurich
C – Zurich-Copenhagen
D – Paris-Bordeaux
Ans: A
8. Wind is caused by?
A – Mixing of fronts
B – Horizontal pressure difference
C – Earth rotation
D – Surface friction
Ans: B
What does zone C depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
Ans: C
What wind speed do you expect over Rome at FL 340?
A – 145 kt
B – 30 kt
C – 95 kt
D – 140 km/h
Ans: A
11. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than
parallel to the isobars?
A – Coriolis force
B – Surface friction
C – The greater density of the air at the surface
D – The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
Ans: B
What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?
A – Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas
B – Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing
conditions
C – You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently
D – Your flight will be permanently clear of cloud
Ans: B
What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?
A – Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas
B – Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing
conditions
C – You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently
D – Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds
Ans:
14. What is the approximate speed of a 25 knot wind, expressed in kilometres per
hour?
A – 60 km/h
B – 35 km/h
C – 55 km/h
D – 45 km/h
Ans: D
15. What prevents air from flowing directly from high pressure areas to low
pressure areas?
A – The pressure gradient force
B – Surface friction
C – Katabatic force
D – Coriolis force
Ans: D
16. What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots:
A – 55 kt
B – 50 kt
C – 60 kt
D – 70 k
Ans: B
17. The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:
A – curvature of isobars
B – friction
C – horizontal temperature gradients
D – slope of pressure surfaces
Ans: A
What does zone B depict?
A – A troug
B – A ridge
Ans: D
19. In an area of Converging air in low level:
A – convective clouds can be dissolved
B – stratified clouds can be dissolved
C – clouds cannot be formed
D – clouds can be formed
Ans: D
20. What relationship exists between the wid at 3,000 feet and the surface wind?
A – The wind at 3,000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind
direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface
wind is weaker
B – They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by
friction
C – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern
hemisphere
D – the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern
hemisphere
Ans: A
21. Which of the following statements is NOT-TRUE?
The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in the Northern hemisphere
only
B – The geostrophic force is the same as the Coriolis force
C – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern
hemisphere
D – The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in both hemispheres
Ans: D
Buys Ballots Law implies that:
A – the wind blows anti-clockwise round depressions in both hemispheres
B – the wind blows clockwise round an anti-cyclone in the southern
hemispheres
C – the wind blows clockwise round a depression in the southern hemisphere
only
D – the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern
Hemisphere
Ans: C
A – A gale has an average speed of 33 kts or more
B – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
C – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
D – The more stable the atmosphere, the less turbulence
Ans: D
23. A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of
A – 10 m/sec
B – 40 m/sec
C – 10 km/h
D – 50 km/h
Ans: A
24. In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:
A – direct from high to low pressure areas
B – clockwise around anti-cyclones and cyclones
C – clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anti-cyclones
D – clockwise around anti-cyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones
Ans: D
25. In this question the wind speed with straight isobars (vst), the wind speed
around a high pressure system (vhigh) and the wind speed around a low
pressure system (vlow) in the southern hemisphere are being compared while
pressure gradient and latitude are:
A – vst < vhigh and vst < vlow
B – vst > vhigh and vst < vlow
C – vst < vhigh and vst > vlow
D – vs > vhigh and vst > vlow
Ans: C
050-02-02 Primary cause of wind
1. For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be?
A – greater at 60oN than at 30oN
B – greater at 30oN than at 60oN
C – equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component
D – the same at all latitudes north or south of 15o
Ans: B
2. The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with
straight isobars is (other conditions being the same):
A – always higher
B – higher if curvature is anti-cyclonic
C – always lower
D – higher if curvature is cyclonic
Ans: B
3. What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars
on the weather map are very close together?
A – Strong and parallel to the isobars
B – Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars
C – Strong the flowing across the isobars
D – Moderate and parallel to the isobars
Ans: C
4. In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying
from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
A – Wind from the left
B – Wind from the right
C – Tailwind with no drift
D – Headwind with no drift
Ans: B
5. Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are
A – straight lines and no friction is involved
B – curved lines and no friction is involved
C – straight lines and friction is involved
D – curved lines and friction is involved
Ans: A
6. The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure
system because the:
A – centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
B – centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
C – coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient
D – coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force
Ans: A
7. For the same pressure gradient at 60oN, 50oN and 40oN the speed of the
geostrophic wind will be:
A greatest at 40oN
B – the same at all latitudes
C – greatest at 60oN
D – least at 50oN
Ans: A
8. Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in:
A – falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
B – rising pressure and likely formation of clouds
C – rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
D – falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
Ans: D
9. Under anti-cyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars
the speed of the gradient wind is:
A – less than the geostrophic wind
B – greater than the geostrophic wind
C – the same as the thermal component
D – proportional only to the coriolis force
Ans: B
10. The greater the pressure gradient the:
A – further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
B – closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
C – closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
D – further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
Ans: B
11. Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences
right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft’s true altitude?
A – Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered
B – It increases
C – It remains constant
D – It decreases
Ans: D
12. When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be:
A – strong
B – blowing perpendicular to the isobars
C – changing direction rapidly
D – light .
Ans: A
Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around
high and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart?
A – When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater
and wind velocities are stronger
B – Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars
C – Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature
D – When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by
stationary lenticular clouds
Ans: A
13. Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
A – Pressure gradient force, coriolis force
B – Friction force, pressure gradient force, coriolis force
C – Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, centrifugal force
D – Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force
Ans: A
14. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the
right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is
the centre of low pressure?
A – To the left
B – Behind
C – In front
D – To the right
Ans: C
15. Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
A – At the centre of a high pressure system
B – At the centre of a low pressure system
C – In the transition zone between two air masses
D – Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the
winter months
Ans: C
16. The geostrophic wind depends on:
A – density, earth’s rotation, geographic latitude
B – earth’s rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
C – geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
D – centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
Ans: A
17. The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the:
A – density of the air
B – horizontal pressure gradient
C – curvature of isobars
D – sine of latitude
Ans: B
18. Geostrophic wind:
A – always increases with increasing height
B – veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
C – is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
D – is directly proportional to the density of the air
Ans: C
19. A pressure gradient is said to exist when:
A – two columns of air have different temperatures
B – surface pressure is compared at two different points on the earth’s surface
C – two points at the same level have a different atmospheric pressure
D – two points on the earth’s surface have the same isobar passing through
them
Ans: C
20. The pressure gradient force acts:
A – parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the Northern
hemisphere)
B – perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind it
C – perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure
D – parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure
Ans: C
21. The wind, which blows when the gradient and geostrophic forces are in
balance, is:
A – the gradient wind
B – the coriolis wind
C – the geostrophic wind
D – the surface
Ans: C
22. A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the following conditions:
A – straight and parallel isobars, unchanging pressure field, no friction
B – uniformly curved isobars, constant pressure field, 2000 ft wind
C – circular isobars, slack pressure gradient, no friction
D – parallel isobars, constant pressure field, no friction
Ans: A
23. For a given latitude, which of the following statements is true:
A – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects its speed and
direction
B – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects speed but not
direction
C – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects direction but
not speed
D – none of the above since the geostrophic force is only an apparent force
Ans: C
24. With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?
A – The geostrophic force decreases near the poles
B – The geostrophic force is non-existent at the equator
C – The geostrophic force varies in direct proportion to the wind speed
D – The pressure gradient force is a maximum at the poles
Ans: A
25. The gradient wind:
A – blows across the isobars when there is a surface pressure gradient
B – is the 2000 ft geostrophic wind
C – is the surface wind affected by friction
D – blows parallel to curved isobars due to a combination of the pressure
gradient force, geostrophic force and cyclostrophic force
Ans: D
26. The effect of curved isobars on geostrophic wind speed correction is:
A – greater at high latitudes
B – greater at low altitudes
C – less at high latitudes
D – no effect
Ans: C
27. The gradient wind is:
A – less that the geostrophic wind around a low
B – more than the geostrophic wind around a low
C – less that the geostrophic wind around a high
D – none of the above
Ans: A
28. In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:
A – back and decrease
B – veer and decrease
C – back and increase
D – veer and increase
Ans: A
29. Which of the following statements is untrue?
A – At night the surface wind is lighter in speed and more inclined towards
low pressure
B – Over land, the surface wind is backed by 15o to the isobars and is 2/3
geostrophic speed
C – The steeper the pressure gradient, the less marked the nocturnal effect
D – At night, the wind can be geostrophic down to 1000 ft or less
Ans: B
30. For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50oN
and 30oN the gradient wind speed will be least at latitude:
A – 30oN in an anti-cyclone
B – 50oN in an anti-cyclone
C – 30oN with a cyclonic circulation
D – 50oN with a cyclonic circulation
Ans: D
31. When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface
friction will cause the surface wind to:
A – back and increase
B – back and decrease
C – veer and decrease
D – veer and increase
Ans: B
General circulation
1. Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced
bythe zone of:
A – equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical
convergence zone over central Australia
B – Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass
between south Australia and Antarctica
C – disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous
succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
D – sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts
originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate low pressure
Ans: D
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation,
zone U is in area of:
A – SW trade winds
B – travelling depressions
C – NE trade winds
D – sub-tropical high pressure
Ans: C
Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt-Rome at FL 170:
A – 200/50 kt
B – 230/40 kt
C – 060/50 kt
D – 030/35 kt
Ans: B
4. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the sub-tropical high
pressure belt?
A – 55o – 75o
B – 10o – 15o
C – 35o – 55o
D – 25o – 35o
Ans: D
5. In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10oN and 20oN the
prevailing winds are:
A – NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
B – NE trade winds
C – SE trade winds
D – SW winds throughout the whole year
Ans: B
6. The average slope of a cold front is in the order of:
A – 1:150
B – 1:250
C – 1:500
D – 1:80
Ans: D
zone Y is an area of:
A – SE trade winds
B – NE trade winds
C – travelling low pressure systems
D – sub-tropical high pressure systems
Ans: C
What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL 290:
A – 360/80 k
B – 030/70 kt
C – 190/75 kt
D – 340/90 kt
Ans: A
What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?
A - -55oC
B - -51oC
C - -63oC
D - -47oC
Ans: D
zone T is an area of:
A – NE trade winds
B – SE trade winds
C – travelling low pressure systems
D – sub-tropical high pressure systems
Ans: C
11. You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
A – If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
B – If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
C – If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude
D – If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude
Ans: A
12. Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface
wind in relation to the air pressure in the Northern hemisphere?
A – The wind over land blows parallel to the isobars
B – The wind around a high pressure blows clockwise and slants across the
isobars towards higher pressure
C – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a low and slants across the
isobars towards lower pressure
D – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a high and clockwise around a
low
Ans: C
13. During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the:
A – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
B – surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
C – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in
the mid-afternoon
D – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid-afternoon
Ans: D
Turbulence
1. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
A – Altocumulus lenticularis
B – Stratocumulus
C – Cirrocumulus
D – Nimbostratus
Ans: A
2. Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO
description?
“There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the
aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air
speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0g at the aircraft’s centre
of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about.
Food service and walking are difficult.”
A – Severe
B – Light
C – Moderate
D – Violent
Ans: C
3. What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying
through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
A – Moderate turbulence in NS cloud
B – Severe turbulence in CB cloud
C – Light turbulence in CB cloud
D – Light turbulence in ST cloud
Ans: B
On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most
pronounced:
A – immediately after sunset
B – during the early afternoon
C – during early morning hours before sunshine
D – about mid-morning
Ans: B
4. Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:
A – a high risk of thunderstorms
B – poor visibility at surface
C – smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
D – turbulence at and below the cloud level
Ans: D
5. If a strong wind perpendicular to a ridge decreases or reverses in direction at
medium and high levels the likely result is:
A – travelling rotors with very severe turbulence
B – stationary rotors with very severe turbulence
C – stationary rotors with light turbulence
D – travelling rotors with light turbulence
Ans: A
Variation of wind with height
1. If Paris reports a wind of 08010 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
A – 11020 kt
B – 08015 kt
C – 05020 kt
D – 08005 kt
Ans: A
2. You are flying at 2500 ft/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an
airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would
you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
A – South
B – South-southwest
C – Southwest
D – South-southeast
Ans: D
3. In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes
direction towards the low pressure area because:
A – turbulence is formed and pressure decreases
B – the pressure gradient increases
C – turbulence is formed and pressure increases
D – wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases
Ans: D
4. In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows:
A – from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
B – counter-clockwise around, and towards the centre of, a low pressure area
C – clockwise around, and away from the centre of a low pressure area
D – counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure
area
Ans: B
5. In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by:
A – the imbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the coriolis force
B – centripetal forces
C – frictional forces
D – the curvature of the isobars
Ans: C
A – 16020 kt
B – 22030 kt
C – 25025 kt
D – 22010 kt
Ans: B
7. At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction
changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is
that the wind:
A – veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
B – backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
C – veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
D – backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
Ans: C
8. In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure
distribution is 350/24 over the sea the surface wind would approximate:
A – 340/20
B – 030/20
C – 240/28
D – 030/28
Ans: A
9. The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anti-cyclone
because the:
A – centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
B – centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
C – effect of coriolis is added to friction
D – coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
Ans: B
A – 30025 kt
B – 23030 kt
C – 33025 kt
D – 27020 kt
Ans: C
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground:
A – 14020 kt
B – 16030 kt
C – 19040 kt
D – 17015 kt
Ans: C
12. Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 ft AGL are south westerly while
most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of
difference between these two wind directions?
A – A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes
B – Stronger coriolis force at the surface
C – The influence of warm air at the lower altitude
D – Friction between the wind and the surface
Ans: D
13. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is
parallel to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the left.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
A – Tail wind
B – Head wind
C – Crosswind from the left
D – Crosswind from the right
Ans: C
14. During a descent from 2000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally:
A – veers and decreases
B – backs and decreases
C – veers and increases
D – backs and increases
Ans: B
15. The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on:
A – wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
B – roughness of surface, temperature, local time
C – temperature, local time environmental lapse rate
D – stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
Ans: D
Local winds
1. Which of the folowing is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL 180 in
the northern hemisphere where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude
remains constant?
A – There is a cross wind from the right
B – There is a cross wind from the left
C – There is no cross wind
D – Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question cannot be answered
Ans: C
2. An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000
feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction,
relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from?
A – From the left and slightly on the tail
B – From the right and slightly on the nose
C – From the right and slightly on the tail
D – From the left and slightly on the nose
Ans: D
3. In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows:
A – during the day up from the valley
B – at night up from the valley
C – during the day down from the mountains
D – at night down from the mountains
Ans: D
4. In a land and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:
A – during the day and is stronger than the sea breeze
B – during the night and is weaker than the sea breeze
C – during the day and is weaker than the sea breeze
D – during the night and is stronger than the sea breeze
Ans: B
5. Which of the following is true of a land breeze?
A – It blows from land to water
B – It blows from water to land
C – It blows by day
D – It blows only at noon
Ans: A
6. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
A – backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
B – veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
C – backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
D – veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
Ans: C
7. A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the
Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is
likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?
A – Parallel to the coastline
B – Land to sea
C – Variable
D – Sea to land
Ans: D
8. In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 ft/AGL directly towards the
centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from:
A – about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead
B – right and behind
C – left and behind
D – directly ahead
Ans: C
9. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is
toward the:
A – valley during daylight hours
B – mountain at night
C – mountain during daylight hours
D – valley during daylight as much as at night
Ans: C
10. The sea breeze is a wind from the sea:
A – blowing at night in mid latitudes
B – that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
C – occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
D – occurring only in mid latitudes and in day time
Ans: C
11. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a
large body of water will experience wind:
A – continually from land to water
B – from the water in daytime and from the land at night
C – continually from water to the land
D – from the land in day time and from the water at night
Ans: B
12. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is
parallel to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the right.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
A – Cross wind from the left
B – Cross wind from the right
C – Tailwind
D – Headwind
Ans: B
13. A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:
A – down the slope during the night
B – up the slope during the day
C – down the slope during the day
D – up the slope during the night
Ans: A
14. In the northern hemisphere with an anti-cyclonic pressure system the
geostrophic wind at 2000 ft over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the
surface wind is most likely to be:
A – 075/12
B – 060/18
C – 060/12
D – 045/12
Ans: D
15. The normal maximum height of the sea breeze in mid altitudes is
approximately:
A – 5000 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 500 – 1000 ft
D – 50 ft
Ans: C
16. A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the
Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind
direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?
A – Land to sea
B – Sea to land
C – Variable
D – Parallel to the coastline
Ans: B
17. Sea breezes are most likely to occur when:
A – slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land
temperatures
B – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
C – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies
at night exist
D – a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
Ans: A
050-02-08 Standing waves
1. At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely
to be encountered is:
A – altocumulus lenticularis
B – cirrostratus
C – cirrus
D – cumulus mediocris
Ans: A
2. Standing waves are likely when:
A – wind speeds are uniform with height
B – the atmosphere is uniformly stable
C – the wind direction is at 45o to the ridge of the hills
Ans: D
THERMODYNAMICS
050-03-01 Humidity
1. Relative humidity:
A – is not affected by temperature changes of the air
B – is not affected when air is ascending or descending
C – changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature
remains constant
D – does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of
the air remains constant
Ans: C
2. The dew point temperature:
A – cannot be equal to the air temperature
B – is always lower than the air temperature
C – is always higher than the air temperature
D – can be equal to the air temperature
Ans: D
3. Relative humidity:
A – is higher in cool air than in warm air
B – is higher in warm air than in cool air
C – increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure
constant
D – decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure
constant
Ans: C
Relative humidity depends on:
A – temperature of the air only
B – moisture content and pressure of the air
C – moisture content of the air only
D – moisture content and temperature of the air
Ans: D
4. Which of the following statements is true of th dew point of an air mass?
A – It can be used to estimate the air mass’ relative humidity even if the air
temperature is unknown
B – It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
C – It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass’
relative humidity
D – It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
Ans: D
5. During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12oC and a dew point of +5oC
were measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order
to induce saturation?
A – It must decrease to +6oC
B – It must decrease by 5oC
C – It must decrease to +5oC
D – It must decrease to +7oC
Ans: C
Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?
A – In Central Europe
B – Over the North Sea
C – In the Mediterranean Sea
D – Over the Baltics
Ans: A
7. Dew point is defined as:
A – the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air
will result in the absorption of latent heat
B – the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given
pressure
C – the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the
relative humidity
D – the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at
a given pressure
Ans: D
8. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:
A – dew point and air temperature
B – water vapour weight and dry air weight
C – water vapour weight and humid air volume
D – actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
Ans: D
9. When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative
humidity?
A – It increases up to 100%, then remains stable
B – It increases
C – It remains constant
D – It decreases
Ans: D
10. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative
humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour
in it?
A – It is not influenced by changing water vapour
B – It increases with increasing water vapour
C – It decreases with increasing water vapour
D – It is only influenced by temperature
Ans: B
11. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?
A – Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X
100
B – Ratio between air temperature and dew point temperature X 100
C – Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
D – Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
Ans: A
12. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass
change with varying temperature?
A – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point
remains constant
B – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew
point decreases
C – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point increases
D – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point remains constant
Ans: D
13. The dew point temperature:
A – can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature
constant
B – can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant
C – cannot be equal to the air temperature
D – cannot be lower than the air temperature
Ans: B
14. The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:
A – dew point
B – relative humidity
C – stability of the air
D – air temperature
Ans: D
15. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in:
A – air with low temperature
B – moist air
C – air with high temperature
D – dry air
Ans: D
16. (Refer to figue 050-42)
What does this picture depict?
A – A westerly wave over Central Europe
B – A high pressure area over Central Europe
C – South foehn
D – North foehn
Ans: A
17. What does dew point mean?
A – The temperature at which ice melts
B – The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach
saturation
C – The freezing level (danger of icing)
D – The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour
pressure are the same
Ans: B
Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Zurich airport?
A – TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT
+SHSN W002=
B – TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OV3015=
C – TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500
MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=
D – TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=
Ans: C
Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?
B – Over Scandinavia
C – In the Mediterranean Sea
Ans: B
20. How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by
temperature changes?
A – It increases with increasing temperature
B – It is not influenced by temperature changes
C – It decreases with increasing temperature
D – It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour
Ans: C
21. In a high relative humidity condition, which of the following sets of conditions
is true?
A – High evaporation rate; reduced latent heat absorption; small wet/dry bulb
difference
B – Increased latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate; large wet/dry bulb
difference
C – Small wet/dry bulb difference; high evaporation rate; increased latent heat
absorption
D – Small wet/dry bulb difference; reduced latent heat absorption; low
evaporation rate
Ans: D
22. What is true for the water vapour distribution in the layer between the surface
and the 500 hPa pressure surface in the trade wind belt?
A – The lower part is relatively dry and the upper part is relatively moist
B – The whole layer is relatively dry
C – The whole layer is relatively moist
D – The lower part is relatively moist and the upper part is relatively dry
Ans: D
050-03-02 Change of state of aggregation
050-03-03 Adiabatic processes
1. What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with
fairly
uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains.
When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible.
Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Cirrostratus
Ans: A
Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in
temperate regions?
A – C1, CC
B – SC, NS
C – AS, AC
D – CS, ST
Ans: C
2. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air
conditions?
A – ST, CS
B – CU, CB
C – SC, NS
D – C1, SC
Ans: B
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
castellanus?
A–B
B–D
C–A
D–C
Ans: D
4. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?
A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – SC
Ans: C
5. Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
A – SC
B – C1
C – AS
D – CU
Ans: B
6. Which of the following are medium level clouds?
A – Altostratus and altocumulus
B – Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
C – Cumulonimbus
D – All convective clouds
Ans: A
A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea
level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months.
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
A – 7000 – 15000 ft above ground
B – 100 – 1500 ft above ground
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above ground
D – 15000 – 25000 ft above ground
Ans: C
7. Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from:
A – 500 to 1000 ft
B – 1000 to 2000 ft
C – the surface to 6500 ft
D – 100 to 200 ft
Ans: C
8. Altostratus clouds are classified as:
A – convective clouds
B – low level clouds
C – high level clouds
D – medium level clouds
Ans: D
9. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?
A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – CC
Ans: A
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus
capillatus?
A–D
B–A
C–B
D–C
Ans: A
lenticularis?
A–2
B–1
C–4
D–3
Ans: A
12. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea
level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months.
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
A – 15000 – 35000 ft above the terrain
B – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrain
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrain
D – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain
Ans: A
13. Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
A – Cumulonimbus
B – Cirrostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Altostratus
Ans: A
14. Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types Stratus and
Nimbostratus?
A – Neither cloud type may give precipitation
B – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may
give rain showers
C – Stratus may give rain showers and Nimbostratus may give drizzle, ice
prisms or snow grains
D – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may
give continuously falling rain or snow
Ans: D
15. Altostratus (AS) and Nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you
distinguish between them?
A – The cloud base is higher in AS and precipitation, if any, is light
B – Precipitation falls from AS but not from NS
C – Steady precipitation from AS
D – The sun can be seen through NS
Ans: A
16. Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall?
A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Cirrostratus
D – Cumulonimbus
Ans: B
The cloud most likely to be experienced in square 1E is:
A – CS
B – C1
C – AS
D – CB
Ans: B(Refer to figure 050-34)
The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is:
A – AS
B – CU
C – CB
D – CS
Ans: A
The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is:
A – NS
B – AC
C – AS
D – CB
Ans: A
During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is:
A – ST
B – AC
C – CB
D – CS
Ans: C
The cloud type most applicable to most of square 3B is:
A – SC
B – CS
C – AS
D – NS
Ans: A
The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is:
A – CS
B – CB
C – NS
D – SC
Ans: A
The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is:
A – CS
B – AS
C – CB
D – CU
Ans: B
The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is:
A – ST
B – CS
C – CB
D – SC
Ans: C
24. A cumulus congestus is:
A – a remnant of a CB
B – a cumulus that is of great vertical extent
C – a cumulus with little vertical development
D – a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ
Ans: B
25. A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispensed by:
A – adiabatic cooling due to subsidence
B – absorption of long waved solar radiation in the stratus layer
C – the release of latent heat due to precipitation
D – insulation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level
Ans: D
26. About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another,
dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a
cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white.
Their base, relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their
tops at FL 150. These clouds are:
A – Altocumulus castellanus
B – broken Cumulus humilis
C – towering Cumulus
D – Stratocumulus
Ans: C
27. After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can
the base of these clouds become higher during the day?
A – Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point
temperature at the initial condensation level becomes smaller
B – The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a
warm air mass
C – Because the stability increases
D – Because the surface temperature increases
Ans: D
Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements
resembling large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the
ground are:
A – Altostratus
B – Stratus
C – Stratocumulus
D – Nimbostratus
Ans: C
astellanus?
A–A
B–B
C–C
D–D
Ans: C
29. (Refe to figure 050-01)
astellanus?
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ans: C
050-04-02 Fog, mist, haze
1. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lea to the formation of
advection fog?
A – Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
B – Moist warm air moving over a cold surface
C – Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
D – Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
Ans: B
2. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
A – Dry, warm air passing over warm ground

B – Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
C – The passage of fronts
D – Cold air passing over warm ground
Ans: B
3. Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of
radiation fog?
A – Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
B – Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
C – Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
D – Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
Ans: B
4. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
A – 2000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 5000 ft
D – 10000 ft
Ans: B
5. Frontal fog is most likely to occur:
A – in winter in the early morning
B – in rear of a warm front
C – in summer in the early morning
D – in advance of a warm front
Ans: D
6. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of
steam fog (arctic smoke)?
A – Warm air moving over cold water
B – Cold air moving over warm water
C – The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
D – The coastal region of the sea cools at night
Ans: B
7. At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
A – At sunset
B – Shortly after sunrise
C – Late evening
D – Shortly after midnight
Ans: B
8. The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
A – above 15 kt
B – between 10 and 15 kt
C – between 5 and 10 kt
D – below 5 kt
Ans: D
9. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
A – When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air
B – When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air
C – When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air
D – When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air
Ans: B
10. Freezing fog consists of:
A – frozen water droplets
B – super cooled water droplets
C – frozen minute snow flakes
D – ice crystals
Ans: B
11. Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?
A – It forms slowly and disappears rapidly
B – It forms at night or the early morning
C – It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically
D – It can be formed suddenly by day or night
Ans: D
12. What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
A – Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills
B – High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
C – Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
D – Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the
range
Ans: A
13. The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped
to the dew point, is likely to produce:
A – a cold front
B – radiation fog
C – advection fog
D – good clear weather
Ans: B
14. When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the
weather conditions are most likely to be:
A – unlimited visibility
B – clear and cool
C – high scattered clouds
D – fog or low cloud
Ans: D
15. What wind conditions, occurring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog
at an airport where the temperature is 15oC and the dew point is 14oC?
A – Westerly, 10 kt variable
B – Northerly, 10 kt
C – Calm
D – Easterly, 10 k
Ans: C
16. The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:
A – increasing surface wind speed
B – an increasingly stable atmosphere
C – surface cooling
D – a low level temperature inversion
Ans: A
17. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation
fog?
A – A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming
associated with a sinking air mass
B – A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
C – Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
D – A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
Ans: D
18. Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:
A – that is stable
B – with warm mass properties
C – that is absolutely stable
D – with cold mass properties
Ans: D
19. Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15oC and
dew point of 12oC blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperature of
5oC?
A – Radiation fog
B – Advection fog
C – Steam fog
D – Frontal fog
Ans: B
20. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation
fog?
A – Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air
B – Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air
C – Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air
D – Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air
Ans: A
21. Advection fog can be formed when:
A – cold moist air flows over warmer water
B – cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
C – warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
D – warm moist air flows over a colder surface
Ans: D
22. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
A – Very dry air
B – Little or no cloud
C – Strong surface winds
D – Very low temperatures
Ans: B
23. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with
calm or light wind conditions?
A – Radiation
B – Advection
C – Steam
D – Orographic
Ans: A
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
A–3
B–3
C–1
D–4
Ans: B
25. Which one of the following statements regarding the meteorological
horizontal visibility is the correct one?
A – If the visibility varies in different directions, the visibility in the worst
direction is reported
B – If the visibility varies in different directions, an average value of around
the horizon is reported
C – The visibility is improved when darkness falls, because you distinguish a
point of light more easily than an unlighted mark
D – Fog (FG) is used to describe visibility less than 1000 m except when
qualified by MI, BC, PR or VC
Ans: D
26. For (FG) is defined as being a:
A – viibility of < 1,000m due to any precipitation in the atmosphere
B – visibility of < = 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in
the atmosphere
C – visibility of < 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in
the atmosphere
D – visibility of < 1,000m due to solid or liquid particles suspended in the
atmosphere
Ans: C
27. Mist (BR) is defined as being:
A – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence
of water droplets in the atmosphere
B – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or
liquid particles in the atmosphere
C – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or
liquid particles in the atmosphere
D – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the
presence of water droplets in the atmosphere
Ans: D
28. According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the
presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
A - < 5,000 m
B - < = 5,000m
C - > 5,000m
D - > = 5,000m
Ans: B
29. Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are:
A – high relative humidity, no cloud
B – high relative humidity, little or no cloud
C – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, a strong sea breeze
D – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, little wind (2-8 kts or calm)
Ans: D
A – Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind

B – Radiation fog only forms in valleys (the katabatic effect)
C – Radiation fog only forms when the air is very dry and there is an inversion
D – Radiation fog cannot form over the sea
Ans: D
31. Radiation fog can be dispersed by:
A – insulation
B – strong winds
C – replacement of moist air by drier air
D – all of the above
Ans: D
32. Advection fog is caused by:
A – dry air over a cold surface
B – cold air over a warm moist surface
C – air, cooler by at least 10oC, moving over a moist surface
Ans: C
33. Sea fog:
A – is formed by advection
B – can form a persist with moderate or even strong wind
C – is cleared by change of air mass or less commonly by an increase in wind
strength
Ans: D
34. Advection fog is most likely to form when:
A – cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is
greater than 15 kt
B – cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
C – a mild moist air stream flows over snow covered ground and the wind
speed is less than 10 kt
D – warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind
speed is greater than 15 kt
Ans: C
35. Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
A – frontal fog
B – advection fog
C – no fog at all
D – steaming fog
Ans: D
36. As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is
formed. Which statement is true?
A – Layers of alto cumulus will develop caused by increasing wind speed
B – Low stratus will develop caused by radiation in combination with low
geostrophic wind speed
C – Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speed
D – Stratocumulus will develop caused by insulation
Ans: C
37. Frontal fog can be formed by:
A – cooling at night
B – condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling
C – condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation
D – evaporation of moisture at the surface
Ans: C
38. If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind
speed from 5 kt to 13 kt will most likely:
A – disperse the fog immediately
B – change the radiation fog to advection fog
C – have no effect
D – cause the fog to lift and become low stratus
Ans: D
39. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A – A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
B – A warm moist air mass on the windward side of the mountains
C – An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
D – Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions
Ans: C
40. Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:
A – low pressure systems over sea
B – high pressure systems over land
C – high pressure systems over sea
D – low pressure systems over land
Ans: B
41. The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if
A – air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another
B – the wind is strong
C – the sky is overcast
D – the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate
Ans: A
42. What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog?
A – Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog
is formed by evaporation over the sea
B – Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea
C – Radiation for forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to day
time cooling
D – Radiation for forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind.
Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface
Ans: D
43. What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in
spring time?
A – Radiation fog
B – Frontal fog
C – Advection fog
D – Steaming fog
Ans: C
44. Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG?
A – A layer of 5 feet deep
B – A layer of 10 feet deep
C – A layer of 15 feet deep
D – A layer of 20 feet deep
Ans: A
45. Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a
Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
A – Convection
B – Ground radiation
C – Convergence
D – Orographic lift
Ans: B
46. Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the
formation of advection fog?
A – Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater
than 15 kt
B – Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area
C – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in
excess of 30 kt
D – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed
less than 15 kt
Ans: D
47. Which statement is correct?
A – Fog can be super cooled and can also contain ice crystals
B – Mist and haze consist of water droplets
C – Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics
D – Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility
Ans: A
48. Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?
A – Advection fog
B – Radiation fog
C – Arctic smoke
D – Frontal fog
Ans: B
49. Which is true of advection fog?
A – It can appear suddenly by day or by night
B – It develops slowly and clears fast
C – It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled
D – It usually forms by night and clears by day
Ans: A
050-05 PRECIPITATION
050-05-01 Development of precipitation
1. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:
A – freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
B – a cold front has passed
C – there are thunderstorms in the area
D – a warm front has passed
Ans: A
2. Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely
to fall in mid-latitudes?
A – Hail
B – Moderate rain with large drops
C – Heavy rain with large drops
D – Drizzle
Ans: D
3. How does freezing rain develop?
A – Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
B – Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0oC
C – Through melting of sleet grains
D – Through melting of ice crystals
Ans: B
4. The widest precipitation zone occurs usually:
A – ahead of a warm front
B – ahead of a cold front
C – in rear of a cold front
D – in rear of a warm front
Ans: A
050-05-02 Types of precipitation
1. Freezing precipitation occurs:
A – only in the precipitation of a warm front
B – only in the precipitation of a cold front
C – mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
D – mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
Ans: C
2. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
A – CS
B – NS
C – CB
D – AC
Ans: C
3. With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated?
A – CC
B – AS
C – ST
D – CB
Ans: D
4. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?
A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Cumulus
D – Cirrostratus
Ans: A
Freezing rain occurs when:
A – snow falls into an above freezing layer of air
B – ice pellets melt
C – water vapour first turns into water droplets
D – rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0oC
Ans: D
5. With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated?
A – CB
B – AS
C – SC
D – NS
Ans: A
6. Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing
rain?
A – Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature
below 0oC
B – Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0oC
C – Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm
D – An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0oC through
which rain is falling
Ans: A
7. With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer
months?
A – NS, CC
B – CB, ST
C – SC, AS
D – AS, NS
Ans: C
8. What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?
A – Nimbostratus
B – Cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Cumulus and cumulonimbus
Ans: D
9. Large hail stones:
A – only occur in thunderstorms of mid latitudes
B – are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
C – are entirely composed of clear ice
D – only occur in frontal thunderstorms
Ans: B
10. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from:
A – cluds containing only ice crystals
B – stratified clouds
C – cirro-type clouds
D – convective clouds
Ans: D
11. What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?
A – Nimbostratus
B – Towering cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus
Ans: D
12. Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation?
A – SC
B – CS
C – NS
D – ST
Ans: C
13. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
A – Stratocumulus
B – Cumulonimbus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Stratus
Ans: B
14. With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation most commonly associated?
A – CB
B – ST
C – CC
D – CU
Ans: B
15. With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most
commonly associated?
A – NS
B – AC
C – SC
D – ST
Ans: A
16. The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select
the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
A – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range
between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
B – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are
frequently severe
C – Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are
frequently severe
D – Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than
moderate
Ans: A
17. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from:
A – stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
B – convective clouds with little or no turbulence
C – stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
D – convective clouds with moderate turbulence
Ans: C
18. Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation?
A – C1
B – AS
C – CB
D – NS
Ans: A
19. Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?
A – Heavy rain
B – Drizzle
C – Hail
D – Snow
Ans: D
20. Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced
below CB clouds situated:
A – over the sea in middle latitudes
B – over the sea near the equator
C – in continental interiors near the equator
D – in continental interiors in middle latitudes
Ans: D
21. Super cooled droplets can occur in:
A – clouds, fog and precipitation
B – clouds but not in precipitation
C – precipitation but not in clouds
D – clouds but not in fog
Ans: A
AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
050-06-01 Types of air masses
1. Where does polar continental air originate?
A – The region of the Baltic sea
B – Areas of arctic water
C – Siberian landmass
D – The region of Greenland
Ans: C
What is the classification of the air mass affecting North-Western parts of
France at 0600 UTC?
A – Tropical continental
B – Polar maritime
C – Polar continental
D – Tropical maritime
Ans: D
3. An air mass is unstable when:
A – temperature increases with height
B – temperature and humidity are not constant
C – pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
D – an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
Ans: D
4. What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity
between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its
origin over northern Russia?
A – The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North Russian
air
B – The North Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores
C – The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North Russian air
D – The North Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores
Ans: A
5. In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
A – Arctic maritime air
B – Polar maritime air
C – Tropical continental air
D – Polar continental air
Ans: D
6. An air mass is stable when:
A – pressure is constant
B – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C – the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and
disappears
D – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
Ans: C
Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
A – The Azores region
B – Southern Italy
C – Southern France
D – The southern Balkan region and the Near East
Ans: D
7. In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?
A – Baltic Sea
B – Region of British Isles
C – East of Greenland
D – Black Sea
Ans: C
8. A stable humid warm air mass slowly over rides a cold one. Which one of the
following weather types may originate from this condition?
A – The formation of thunder storms
B – Warm front dissipation
C – The forming of a warm front
D – The forming of a cold front
Ans: C
9. Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone between two
air masses?
A – an unstable low pressure
B – radiation fog
C – a frontal low pressure
D – a ridge of high pressure
Ans: C
10. A stationary front is a front in which:
A – there are never frontal clouds
B – there is no difference in temperature between the two air masses
C – there is no wind on both sides of the front
D – there is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front
Ans: D
Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterised by:
A – fog, poor visibility and layered clouds
B – strong winds, cumulus clouds, good visibility
C – uniform temperature, good visibility
D – continuous rain and freezing temperature
Ans: A
11. An air mass acquires its basic properties
A – by widespread thunderstorms
B – by the influence of jet streams
C – by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having
particular characteristics
D – in the westerlies of the mid latitudes
Ans: C
12. An air mass is stable when
A – lifted air returns to its original level
B – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C – pressure is constant
D – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
Ans: A
13. An air mass is unstable when
A – pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
B – temperature and humidity are not constant
C – an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
D – temperature increases with height
Ans: C
An air mass is:
A – an extensive body of air within which the temperature and humidity in
horizontal planes are practically uniform
B – a large body of air with temperature and humidity constant in the vertical
C – a body of air with a volume of not more than thousand cubic kilometres
D – a large body of air within which the temperature and humidity is uniform
in horizontal and vertical planes
Ans: A
14. An unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of
clouds can be expected?
A – Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversion
B – Stratiform clouds with considerable turbulence
C – Layer like clouds with little vertical development
D – Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
Ans: D
15. An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by
A – stratiform cloud
B – cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation
C – continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud
D – poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels
Ans: B
16. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass
change with varying temperature?
A – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point remains constant
B – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew
point decreases
C – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point increases
D – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point
remain constant
Ans: A
17. Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?
A – Addition of water vapour in the lower layer
B – Cooling by the underlying surface
C – Warming of the air mass from below
D – Advection of colder air aloft
Ans: B
050-06-02 Fronts
1. What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea,
approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
A – Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers
B – Showers and thunderstorms
C – Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS
D – 9 octas CS, AS without precipitation
Ans: A
2. In a warm front occlusion:
A – the warm front becomes a front aloft
B – the warm front overtakes the cold front
C – the warm air is lifted
D – the cold air is lifted
Ans: C
3. Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of
a depression during winter?
A – C1, CS
B – ST with drizzle
C – Fair weather CU
D – CU, CB
Ans: B
4. Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the
summer?
A – Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
B – Mainly layered clouds
C – Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
D – Mainly towering clouds
Ans: D
5. Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet
wind:
A – in the warm sector
B – in front of the warm front
C – behind the cold front
D – at the apex of the wave
Ans: A
6. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in
the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability
of freezing rain the lowest?
A – 9000 feet
B – 12000 feet
C – 5000 feet
D – 3000 feet
Ans: B
7. How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion?
A – The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion;
the warm air mass is above ground level
B – The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the
warm air mass is above ground level
C – The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less
cold air is above ground level
D – The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less
cold air mass is above ground level
Ans: A
8. Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?
A – The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
B – The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of
the front
C – The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
D – The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
Ans: C
In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:
160450Z 23015KT 3000 + RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010
NOSIG =
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG =
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG
25020G40KT TS =
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002
NOSIG =
What do you conclude based on these observations?
A – A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
during late afternoon
B – A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front
C – A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
D – Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
Ans: B
9. Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when
approaching an active warm front at medium to low level?
A – Severe thunderstorms at low altitude
B – Low cloud base and poor visibility
C – Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground
D – High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorm
Ans: B
Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front
characteristics?
A – Ahead of the front
B – Behind the front
C – At the surface position of the front
D – At the junction of the occlusion
Ans: B
10. What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
A – Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin
B – At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front
C – At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB
D – At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km
thickening AS
Ans: B
11. What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central
Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0oC, and freezing rain
starts to fall?
A – Cold occlusions
B – Warm fronts, warm occlusions
C – High level cold fronts
D – Cold fronts
Ans: B
Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross
section to be expected?
A – Track B-C
B – Track B-D
C – Track A-D
D – Track A-E
Ans: B
13. What type of front/occlusion usually moves the fastest?
A – Cold front
B – Warm front
C – Cold occlusion
D – Warm occlusion
Ans: A
This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May
4. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva
Airport?
A – TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN
018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
B – TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG
0810 5000 RA BKN 020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030
BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
C – TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013
25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316
VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100=
D – TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811
23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000
TSRA BKN020CB =
Ans: B
15. During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of
clouds: Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following
are you most likely to encounter?
A – Strong, gusty winds
B – Decreasing temperatures
C – A strong down draught
D – Increasing temperatures
Ans: B
16. In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the
cold air:
A – behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high
altitude
B – in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude
C – behind is colder than the cold air in front
D – behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a
high altitude
Ans: A
17. An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system
of a depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the
depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind
direction is:
A – continuously veering
B – continuously backing
C – initially backing, then veering
D – initially veering, then backing
Ans: B
Where might we find the warmest air?
A–B
B–C
C–A
D–D
Ans: A
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground as an active cold front is passing?
A – It will first increase then decrease
B – It will remain unchanged
C – It will first decrease then increase
D – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Ans: A
19. What characterises a stationary front?
A – The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
B – The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
C – The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
D – The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those
of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front
Ans: B
Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross section
shown on the left?
A – Track B-A
B – Track C-A
C – Track D-A
D – Track B-C
Ans: C
21. When do cold occlusions occur more frequently in Europe?
A – Summer
B – Winter
C – Autumn and winter
D – Winter and spring
Ans: A
What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
A – Approximately constant pressure
B – A drop in pressure
C – Irregular fluctuations
D – A rise in pressure
Ans: D
23. The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:
A – 1/50
B – 1/150
C – 1/300
D – 1/500
Ans: B
24. What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?
A – Cold air slides over a warm air mass
B – Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
C – Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
D – Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
Ans: C
25. What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
A – A low on lee side of a mountain
B – A cold air pool
C – Polar front low
D – Heat low
Ans: C
At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to
east generally, at their most southerly position?
A – Autumn
B – Summer
C – Spring
D – Winter
Ans: D
26. What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical
maritime air, during the summer?
A – Very good (greater than 50 km)
B – Very poor (less than 1 km)
C – Good (greater than 10 km)
D – Moderate (several km)
Ans: D
27. On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching:
A – QFE increases and QNH decreases
B – QFE and QNH increase
C – QFE and QNH decrease
D – QFE decreases and QNH increases
Ans: C
28. In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
A – In the direction of the warm sector isobars
B – In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front
C – In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase
D – In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front
Ans: A
29. How do air masses move at a warm front?
A – Cold air over rides a warm air mass
B – Warm air over rides a cold air mass
C – Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
D – Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
Ans: B
Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar
frontal wave have moved?
A – Position 4
B – Position 3
C – Position 1
D – Position 2
Ans: B
31. What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression
over Central Europe in the summer?
A – BKN CU and CB
B – Fair weather CU
C – Sky clear
D – ST with drizzle
Ans: B
32. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front?
A – It will have increased
C – It will have decreased
D – It will show a small increase or decrease
Ans: C
33. In which of the following situations canfreezing rain be encountered?
A – Ahead of a warm front in the winter
B – Ahead of a cold front in the winter
C – Behind a warm front in the summer
D – Ahead of a cold front in the summer
Ans: A
34. In which main direction does a polar front depression move?
A – Along the front towards the east
B – Along the front towards the west
C – Across the front towards the north
D – Across the front towards the south
Ans: A
35. The polar front is the boundary between:
A – maritime polar aid and continental polar air
B – arctic air and polar air
C – arctic air and tropical air
D – polar air and tropical air
Ans: D
36. What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air
mass over rides a cold air mass?
A – Cumulus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altostratus
D – Cumuloniz
Ans: B
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the
ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
A – It will be decreasing
C – It will be increasing
D – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Ans: C
Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the
straight line A-B?
A–1
B–3
C–2
D–4
Ans: B
38. Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if:
A – the cold air is convectively stable
B – the cold air is convectively unstable
C – the warm air is convectively unstable
D – the warm air is convectively stable
. Ans: C
Read this description:
“After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday
evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside.
The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at
least it has become a little bit warmer.”
Which of these weather phenomena is being described?
A – A warm front
B – A blizzard
C – Weather at the back of a cold front
D – A cold front
Ans: A
39. A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do
you expect?
A – Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within
the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the
cold front
B – Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of
some 24 hours
C – Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the
warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold
front
D – Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The
precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the
arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours
Ans: D
40. After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of
the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately
after a marked change in temperature?
A – A decrease in head wind
B – A backing in the wind direction
C – An increase in tail wind
D- A veering in the wind direction
Ans: D
41. The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead
of a warm front is the:
A – saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
B – saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
C – reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds
D – warm air moving over a cold surface
Ans: B
42. What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?
A – Showers associated with thunderstorms
B – Freezing rain
C – Light to moderate continuous rain
D – Drizzle
Ans: A
43. A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:
A – in an air mass with cold mass properties
B – behind of a stationary front
C – ahead of a cold front
D – at an occluded front
Ans: C
44. Ahead of a warm front:
A – winds back and increase with height
B – wind back slightly but veer on passage and increase with height
C – winds veer and decrease with height
D – winds back and decrease with height
Ans: B
Jets are very rare near occluded front because:
A – the air is too cold across the fronts
B – the air is too warm across the fronts
C – there is not enough pressure difference across the fronts
D – there is not enough temperature difference across the fronts
Ans: D
45. The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:
A – Tropical front
B – Cold front
C – Warm front
D – Polar front
Ans: D
46. If cold air is being “replaced” by warm air, the boundary between the air
masses is called:
A – a warm front
B – a cold front
C – a polar front
D – an arctic front
Ans: A
47. Which one of the following alternatives indicates how an occluded front is
generated?
A – warm air supersedes cold air
B – cold air wedges under warm air
C – a cold front overtakes a warm front and the warm air between the fronts is
lifted
D – a cold front is halted and becomes almost stationary
Ans: C
48. When flying through a cold front in the summer, the following flying weather
may be expected:
A – towering clouds with showery precipitation
B – horizontally extended clouds with drizzle
C – horizontally extended clouds with even tops and bases
D – towering clouds without turbulence
Ans: A
49. The passage of a cold front over a meteorological station will result in:
A – a steady fall in pressure and a backing of the surface wind
B – a steady rise in pressure and a veering of the surface wind
C – a steady fall in pressure and a veering of the surface wind
D – a steady rise in pressure and a backing of the surface wind
Ans: B
50. The mean position of the polar front in the North Atlantic is:
A – from Florida to SW UK in July
B – from Florida to North of the UK in January
C – from north of UK to Newfoundland in July
D – from SW UK to Newfoundland in January
Ans: C
The diagram of the system in annex represents a
A – cold occlusion
B – warm occlusion
C – warm front
D – cold front
Ans: B
A gust front is:
A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
C – characterised by heavy lightning
D – another name for a cold front
Ans: B
52. A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a
depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of
the observer. For this observer the wind:
A – backs
B – veers
C – initially veers, then backs
D – initially backs, then veers
Ans: A
53. An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:
A – the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead
B – the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead
C – the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air
D – the cold air ahead is lifted
Ans: B
54. An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:
A – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm
air at a higher altitude
B – ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude
C – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead
D – at the rear of the occlusion is less cold that the cold air ahead, with the
warm air at a higher altitude
Ans: D
55. At a cold front:
A – warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under it
B – warm air is compressed as cold air rises over it
C – temperature rises owing to increased pressure
D – fog will form from the interaction of cold and warm air
Ans: A
56. At a station at the surface the significant weather with a warm front will come:
A – after the warm sector has passed
B – only at the same time as the front passes
C – after the front has passed
D – mostly before the front passes
Ans: D
57. During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers. This
statement is:
A – not true
B – only true for the passage of a cold front
C – only true for the passage of a warm front
D – true
Ans: D
58. In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:
A – the approach of a warm occlusion
B – backing winds with increasing heights
C – increasing probability for showers
D – the formation of advection fog
Ans: A
The air mass in the warm sector of a polar front is:
A – arctic air
B – polar air
C – tropical air
D – equatorial air
Ans: C
59. The arctic front is the boundary between:
A – arctic air and tropical air
B – polar air and tropical air
C – cold polar air and less cold polar air
D – polar air and arctic air
Ans: D
60. The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and
cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens
and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus
arrives. These phenomena:
A – warm front
B – cold front
C – trade wind front
D – sea breeze front
Ans: A
61. The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport; cirrus, cirrostratus,
altostratus, nimbostratus. This is typical for:
A – the passage of a squall line
B – the passage of a cold front
C – anti-cyclonic weather
D – the passage of a warm front
Ans: D
62. The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus and there is moderate
continuous rain. The area of the system in which you are at this moment is:
A – behind the cold front
B – the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the occlusion
C – the warm sector
D – the high pressure area
Ans: B
63. The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of
fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively
A – arctic smoke and frontal fog
B – advection fog and radiation fog
C – frontal fog and advection fog
D – advection fog and steaming fog
Ans: C
64. The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front
depression is normally lower in winter than in summer is that
A – converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
B – the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter
C – the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the
development of lows
D – the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much
greater in winter
Ans: D
65. The slope and speed of a warm front compared to the slope and speed of a
cold front is in general:
A – smaller and slower
B – greater and faster
C – greater and slower
D – smaller and faster
Ans: A
66. When a front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity:
A – strengthens “upwind” of the mountains
B – decreases when it reaches the mountains
C – is not disturbed by the mountains
D – ceases immediately
Ans: A
67. Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely
to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression?
A – 30 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm
front
B – Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
C – Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
D – 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the
warm front
Ans: D
68. Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal
depression in the northern hemisphere is correct?
A – The precipitation zone of the cold front is in general wider than the
precipitation zone of the warm front
B – The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead
of and behind the cold front
C – While occluding the warm front always becomes a front aloft
D – The wind backs more at the warm front than at the cold front
Ans: B
Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?
A – The warm front overtakes the cold front
B – The cold front becomes a front aloft
C – The warm front becomes a front aloft
D – Both fronts become fronts aloft
Ans: B
050-07-01 Location of the principal pressure areas
1. In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually
predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the
adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
A – Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada
B – Greenland, Azores, NE Canada
C – Iceland, SW USA, Azores
D – Azores, SE USA, SW Europe
Ans: D
2. Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following
statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic
region between 30oN and 65oN. During winter the predominant mean low
pressure system at the surface is usually centred over:
A – USA
B – Iceland/Greenland
C – Siberia
D – Azores
Ans: B
3. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN together with
the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anti-
cyclones at the surface is:
A – Azores, Siberia
B – Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
C – NE Canada, Iceland
D – Greenland, Iberian peninsula
Ans: A
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the
adjacent land areas during mid summer, the predominant pressure systems are:
A – weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
B – Scandinavian high and Azores high
C – Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
D – Azores low and Icelandic high
Ans: C
050-07-02 Anti-cyclone
1. In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land
during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
A – NS
B – TS, SH
C – CB, TS
D – Calm winds, haze
Ans: D
2. If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is
a:
A – cold low
B – warm high
C – cold high
D – warm low
Ans: B
3. The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by:
A – convection
B – subsidence
C – a decrease in temperature
D – a decrease in pressure
Ans: B
4. Subsidence is:
A – vertically upwards motion of air
B – horizontal motion of air
C – vertically downwards motion of air
D – the same as convection
Ans: C
5. The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high
pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called:
A – subsidence inversion
B – friction inversion
C – radiation inversion
D – trade wind inversion
Ans: A
6. A blocking anti-cyclone on the northern hemisphere is:
A – a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN
B – quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone
C – situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions
D – a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
Ans: A
7. What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region
overland in the winter?
A – Thunderstorms
B – A tendency for fog and low ST
C – NS with continuous rain
D – The possibility of snow showers
Ans: B
8. What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a
stationary high
A – Instability
B – Rising air
C – Sinking air
D – Divergence at higher levels
Ans: C
9. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:
A – reaches warmer layers
B – is heated by compression
C – is heated by expansion
D – loses water vapour
Ans: B
10. What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure
area?
A – Convection
B – Convergence
C – Advection
D – Subsidence
Ans: D
11. Polar air moving south will become:
A – increasingly stable
B – increasingly unstable
C – conditionally unstable
D – it depends on the humidity
Ans: B
A blocking anti-cyclone in the northern hemisphere is:
A – quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone
B – a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN
C – situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions
D – a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
Ans: B
12. During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear
skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a
surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an
east/west direction. During:
A – back to NW and strengthen by mid afternoon
B – become southerly to south westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon
C – increase from the north by mid morning becoming calm towards evening
D – veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon
Ans: B
13. When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country)
with an anti-cyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be:
A – from the right
B – from the left
C – a head wind
D – a tail wind
Ans: C
14. You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area.
An anti-cyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind
affecting you, will be:
A – from your right
B – from your left
C – from ahead
D – from behind
Ans: A
050-07-03 Non-frontal depressions
1. Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
A – It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
B – It tends to move round the primary in an anti-cyclonic sense
C – It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
D – It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
Ans: A
2. What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
A – Divergence with lifting
B – Divergence with descending air
C – Convergence with lifting
D – Convergence with descending air
Ans: C
3. With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the
weather likely to be experienced is:
A – strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
B – light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
C – strong wind with subsidence at low levels
D – strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
Ans: A
4. How do you recognise a cold air pool?
A – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a low
pressure area
B – As a high pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)
C – As a low pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)
D – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a high
pressure area
Ans: C
5. What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air
pool?
A – Nothing (CAVOK)
B – Strong westerly winds
C – Fine weather CU
D – Showers and thunderstorms
Ans: D
6. A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of:
A – divergence and subsidence
B – convergence and widespread ascent
C – divergence and widespread ascent
D – convergence and subsidence
Ans: B
7. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal
thermal depression because of:
A – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
B – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
C – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
D – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
Ans: C
8. Which is true of a typical non-frontal thermal depression?
A – It forms over the ocean in summer
B – It forms over land in summer
C – It forms over the ocean in winter
D – It forms over land in winter
Ans: B
9. A cold air pool:
A – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is
under the influence of cold north westerly air stream
B – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime
arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an
extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
C – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
D – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the
middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
Ans: D
10. Cold air pools:
A – only occur in winter
B – can easily be recognised on synoptic surface charts
C – only occur at mid-latitudes
D – are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels
Ans: D
Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes
1. A cold pool:
A – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
B – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime
arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an
extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
C – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the
middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
D – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is
under the influence of cold north westerly air stream
Ans: C
2. Which of the following statements concerning the inter-tropical convergence
zone is true?
A – There are frequent occurrences of CB
B – It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern
hemisphere in January
C – It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
D – It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity
Ans: A
Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? (spacing of the
isobars: 5 hPa)
A – Uniform pressure pattern
B – Cutting wind
C – West wind condition
D – Warm south and condition (Foehn)
Ans: A
(Refer to figure 050-43)
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?
A – Westerly wind
B – Warm southerly wind
C – High pressure
D – Easterly wind
Ans: C
4. With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the
indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over
a period of about ten minutes?
A – Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small
B – Increase rapidly
C – Show strong fluctuations
D – Decrease rapidly
Ans: A
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central
Europe?
A – Westerly waves
B – Uniform pressure pattern
C – Cutting wind
D – Easterly waves
Ans: A
6. Which of the following statements is correct?
A – In winter the Savannah climatic region is governed by the equatorial rains
B – Trade wind seldom extend much above 5000 feet
C – The outflow of air from the Siberian high over northern China and Japan
is initially north westerly
D – The easterly jet stream normally appears at the 200 mb level
Ans: C
zone “x” is an area of:
A – NE trade winds
B – travelling low pressure systems
C – sub-tropical high pressure systems
D – the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
Ans: C
8. In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by:
A – a radiation inversion
B – a layer of unstable air
C – a temperature inversion
D – the tropopause
Ans: C
9. The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are
respectively:
A – 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 30000 feet

B – 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 18000 feet
C – 1000 nautical miles, 5000 to 8000 feet, 30000 feet
D – 200 nautical miles, 5 nautical miles, 18000 feet
Ans: B
10. Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct?
A – Their eye can be well observed by weather satellite
B – They intensify after landfall
C – They move towards the equator
D – They move with a speed of at least 60 kt
Ans: A
Local seasonal weather and wind
The Chinook is a:
A – warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the
Rocky Mountains
B – very cold wind with blowing snow
C – down slope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along
mountain slopes
D – warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
Ans: A
1. What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows
over a certain part of Europe?
A – Bora
B – Foehn
C – Mistral
D – Typhoon
Ans: C
2. Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with
stormy winds from the south (Foehn)?
A – Good visibility, turbulence
B – Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence
C – Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing
D – Icing, huge mass of clouds
Ans: A
3. A dry sand and dust laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large
parts of North West Africa is known as a:
A – Scirocco
B – Harmattan
C – Pampero
D – Khamsin
Ans: B
4. For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a
Harmattan wind?
A – Sand up to FL 150
B – Thunderstorms
C – Dust and poor visibility
D – Hail
Ans: C
5. What are the characteristics of the Bora?
A – It is a warm and moist, south westerly wind experienced in the eastern
Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation
B – It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter fro a north westerly
direction in the Mediterranean
C – It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a table
and downwards to the Adriatic
D – It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that
often carries dust
Ans: C
6. (Refer to figure 050-41)?
Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is
likely to apply?
A – Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe
B – Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe
C – Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps
D – Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter
Ans: B
Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no
precipitation?
A – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south
B – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north
C – Frontal zones
D – Occlusions
Ans: A
7. What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with
Foehn from south?
A – Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps
B – Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
C – Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps
D – Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps
Ans: D
8. The Foehn wind is a:
A – warm anabatic wind
B – cold fall wind
C – warm fall wind
D – cold anabatic wind
Ans: C
9. What is characteristic of the pamperos?
A – Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
B – Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
C – A marked advance of cold arctic air in Northern America
D – A marked advance of cold air in South America
Ans: D
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
A – Mistral
B – Ghibli
C – Bora
D – Scirocco
Ans: C
10. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?
A – Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the
Sun
B – Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
C – Because the Earth’s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the
time of the year
D – Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar
Year
Ans: A
11. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most
rapidly?
A – Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox
B – Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
C – Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice
D – Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice
Ans: A
12. A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of
air over hills or mountains is known as a:
A – Bora
B – Harmattan
C – Mistral
D – Foehn
Ans: D
Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a:
A – warm southerly dust bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa
B – SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the
West African coast south of 15oN
C – NE wind affecting north west Africa during November to April reducing
visibility in rising dust
D – localised depression giving squally winds
Ans: C
14. A Foehn wind occurs on the:
A – leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level
being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side
B – windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
C – windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and
reverse air flow
D – leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture
loss by precipitation from cloud
Ans: D
15. What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain
chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly
wind depending on the weather situation.
A – Foehn
B – Mistral
C – Bora
D – Scirocco
Ans: A
The Bora is a:
A – cold katabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
B – squally warm katabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
C – cold katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
D – cold katabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
Ans: C
16. Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
A – Harmatan
B – Scirocco
C – Chinook
D – Bora
Ans: C
17. 8/8 stratus base 200 ft/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north
of France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What
change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
A – Winter: SCT base 3,000 ft/AGL; summer OVC base 500 ft/AGL
B – Winter: OVC base 500 ft/AGL; summer SCT base 3000 ft/AGL
C – Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 ft/AGL
D – Winter: BKN base 2500 ft/AGL; summer BKN base 3500 ft/AGL
Ans: B
Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the
tropopause during January is approximately:
A – 56000 ft
B – 43000 ft
C – 36000 ft
D – 29000 ft
Ans: A
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade
winds are applicable to zone:
A–t
B–w
C–u
D–v
Ans: B
20. Refer to figure 050-99)
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling
low pressure systems are applicable to zone:
A – s and y
B – t only
C – t and x
D – u and w
Ans: A
21. At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be affected by the
equatorial jet stream?
A – FL 500 from June to August
B – FL 500 from November to February
C – FL 400 during the winter in the northern hemisphere
D – FL 400 during the winter in the southern hemisphere
. Ans: A
22. Considering the North Atlantic between 30oN and 65oN, the mean position of
the polar front during winter extends from:
A – Florida to SW England
B – Newfoundland to Iceland
C – Iceland to Norway
D – NE Canada to Portugal
Ans: A
23. For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will
usually be indicated by:
A – a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and
decreasing
B – rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and
decreases
C – rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and
increasing
D – rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty
Ans: B
24. From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic
moves:
A – towards the south and the speed increases
B – towards the north and the speed increases
C – towards the south and the speed decreases
D – towards the north and the speed decreases
Ans: A
25. In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated
with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located
A – below the tropopause at about 300 hPa
B – above the tropopause at about 100 hPa
C – below the tropopause at about 200 hPa
D – above the tropopause at about 250 hPa
Ans: C
26. Over the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are:
A – frequently observed, in the average 15 per year over the Indian Ocean, but
never over the Bay of Benga
lB – rare, in the average one every two years
C – never observed
D – occasionally observed, in the average 12 per year
Ans: D
27. The air masses that are observed most frequently over western Europe are:
A – polar air and equatorial air
B – arctic air and polar air
C – polar air and tropical air
D – arctic air and tropical air
Ans: C
28. The average position of the polar front in the northern hemisphere is:
A – more southerly during the summer than during the winter
B – more southerly during the winter than during the summer
C – located near 55oN during the whole year
D – located near 65oN during the whole year
Ans: B
29. The easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs:
A – only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx 30000 ft
B – only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45000 ft
C – during the whole year in the southern hemisphere
D – during the whole year in the northern hemisphere
Ans: B
30. The Foehn wind is a:
A – cold katabatic wind
B – warm katabatic wind
C – warm anabatic wind
D – cold anabatic wind
Ans: B
The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the
equator (Gulf of Guinea) is a:
A – SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
B – SW monsoon in summer and NE trade wind in winter
C – NE trade wind in summer and SE trade wind in winter
D – NE monsoon in winter and SE trade wind in summer
Ans: B
31. The SW monsoon starts in the month of:
A – December in southern India to reach Pakistan in May
B – September in Pakistan to reach southern India in November
C – June in southern India to reach Pakistan in July
D – March in southern India to reach Pakistan end of April
Ans: C
32. Tropical revolving storms are NOT formed in:
A – South Indian Ocean
B – Gulf of Bengal
C – Waters around the Philippines
D – South Atlantic Ocean
Ans: D
33. What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?
A – Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps
B – High pressure area over Italy
C – Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean
D – High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean Sea
Ans: C
What type of weather can usually be expected in a polar maritime air mass
over Central Europe in the daytime during summer?
A – Sky clear
B – Continuous rain and poor visibility
C – Drizzle and low stratus
D – Showers and good visibility
Ans: D
34. When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered?
A – Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high
B – In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean
C – In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the
Mediterranean to southern Spain
D – In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central
Africa
Ans: D
35. Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed
between summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL
400 is most correct?
A – The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the
summer. The latitude of the axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is
further south in winter than in summer
B – The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest
speeds moves south in winter
C – The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of
greatest wind speed reduces in winter
D – The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the
winter. The latitude of the axis of greatest wind speed is also further north
in summer than in winter
Ans: A
Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct?
A – It is a north easterly wind over the western part of North Africa with much
dust and sand
B – It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may
reach Europe
C – The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights. This is caused by
the presence of a trade wind inversion
D – It is formed by a strong increase of air pressure over North Africa
Ans: B
36. Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?
A – The jet streams are easterly
B – In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height
C – The wind veers at the passage of a cold front
D – If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected
Ans: B
37. Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europe?
A – Continental tropical warm and continental polar cold
B – Maritime tropical warm and maritime polar cold
C – Maritime tropical warm and continental polar cold
D – Maritime polar warm and continental tropical warm
Ans: B
38. Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe?
A – Tropical air
B – Arctic air
C – Polar air
D – Equatorial air
Ans: D
39. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems during summer?
A – 45o – 75o
B – 35o – 45o
C – 15o – 25o
D – 10o – 15o
Ans: A
40. What is the surface visibility most likely to be in a warm sector of maritime
tropical air during a summer afternoon in western Europe?
A – Very poor (less than 1 km)
B – Moderate (several km)
C – Very good (greater than 50 km)
D – Good (greater than 10 km)
Ans: B
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
050-09-01 Icing
1. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
A – CU
B – SC
C – NS
D – C1
Ans: D
2. You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air
temperature is -25oC. Which of the following statements is true?
A – If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as
CB is unlikely to form in such cloud
B – Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
C – Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
D – In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air
temperature of -5oC
Ans: C
In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft’s
surface?
A - -20oC to -35oC
B - +10oC to 0oC
C – 0oC to -10oC
D - -35oC to -50oC
Ans: C
3. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
A – NS
B – AS
C – SC
D – CS
Ans: D
4. On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5oC. The freezing level
Is at 3000 ft/AGL. At 4000 ft/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which
rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an
inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you
expect icing?
A – Yes, between ground level and 3000 ft/AGL
B – Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 ft/AGL
C – No. flights clear of cloud experience no icing
D – No. absolutely no icing will occur
Ans: A
5. Which of the following conditions is mot likely to cause airframe icing?
A – PE
B – GR
C – SHSN
D - +FZRA
Ans: D
6. A small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most
likely:
A – freeze immediately and create rime ice
B – freeze immediately and create clear ice
C – travel back over the wing, creating rime ice
D – travel back over the wing, creating clear ice
Ans: A
7. In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?
A – Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero
degrees C
B – Flying in dense cirrus clouds
C – Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
D – Flying in heavy drizzle
Ans: A
8. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft
icing is most correct?
A – Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below
minus 12 degrees C
B – Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds
C – A cloud consisting of both super cooled cloud droplets and ice crystals
produces aircraft icing
D – Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud
Ans: C
9. Hoar frost is most likely to form when:
A – flying inside convective clouds
B – taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion
C – flying inside stratiform clouds
D – flying in super cooled drizzle
Ans: B
10. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the
various types of ice on an aircraft?
A – Relative humidity inside the cloud
B – Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
C – Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil
D – Cloud temperature and droplet size
Ans: D
11. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick
profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The
cloud consists of small super cooled droplets. Which of the following
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
A – Aircraft T experiences more icing than S
B – Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
C – Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
D – Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets
Ans: B
12. A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds
and temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
A – Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
B – Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light
icing in clouds
C – A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due
to accumulation of large droplets
D – Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist
of ice crystals
Ans: C
13. Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to
moderate
icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled
cloud droplets?
A – Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
B – Altocumulus and altostratus
C – Stratus and cumulonimbus
D – Altostratus and cirrocumulus
Ans: B
14. Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile:
3000 ft 15oC 6000 ft 8oC 10000 ft 1oC 14000 ft -6oC 18000 ft -14oC 24000
ft -26oC. At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing,
in cloud, greatest?
A – FL 80
B – FL 150
C – FL 180
D – FL 220
Ans: B
15. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is
unable to de-ice nor land?
A – He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability
B – He descends to the warm air layer below
C – He ascends to the cold air layer above
D – He continues to fly at the same altitude
Ans: A
16. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to
occur in a CB?
A – Close to the freezing level
B – Between -20oC and -30oC
C – Between -2oC and -15oC
D – Between -30oC and -40oC
Ans: C
17. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe
airframe icing?
A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus
formation
B – It always occurs in altostratus cloud
C – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will not occur in clear sky conditions
Ans: D
18. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe
airframe icing?
A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus
formation
C – It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will occur in clear sky conditions
Ans: C
19. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:
A – rapidly and do not spread out
B – slowly and do not spread out
C – slowly and spread out
D – rapidly and spread out
Ans: A
20. A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when
the temperature profile:
A – coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – indicates temperatures below -40oC
C – indicates temperatures above 3oC
D – intersects the 0oC isotherm twice
Ans: D
21. The icing in cloud which forms over hills is likely to be more severe than in
the same type of cloud over level terrain because:
A – orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the free
water content of the cloud
B – increases the temperature inside the cloud by forcing the release of latent
heat so causing the air to hold more water vapour
C – enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retailed in the cloud
by the increased upward components
D – adiabatic cooling lowers the freezing level and the water content of the
cloud
Ans: C
22. Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
A – Snowfall
B – Mixed rain and snow
C – Freezing rain
D – Ice pellets
Ans: C
23. An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60.
At what levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest?
A – Between FL 120 and FL 60
B – Between FL 120 and FL 180
C – Between FL 60 and Fl 20
D – At FL 140
Ans: A
For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe
icing are:
A – flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0oC,
resulting in rime ice formation
B – flight into super cooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation
C – flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation
D – flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear
ice formation
Ans: C
24. Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures:
A – between 0oC and -17oC in ST
B – between 0oC and -17oC in AS
C – between 0oC and -23oC in large CU
D – below -40oC in CB
Ans: C
25. In mature CB’s the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological
rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:
A - -23oC to -40oC
B - +5oC to 0oC
C – 0oC to -23oC
D - -40oC to -60oC
Ans: C
26. In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how
would it normally appear?
A – Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -20oC
and 25oC. Appears transparent and tends to take the shape of the surface
on which it freezes
B – Stratiform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -10oC and
–20oC. Appears granular and tends to accumulate forward into the air
stream
C – Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0oC and –
15oC. Appears smooth and tends to spread back over an aircraft wing
D – Stratiform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures well below freezing.
Appears opaque and builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge
Ans: C
27. The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to
be caused by the:
A – relatively slow freezing of small super cooled water droplets and ice
crystals
B – instantaneous freezing of small super cooled water droplets
C – instantaneous freezing of large super cooled water droplets and snow
crystals
D – relatively slow freezing of large super cooled water droplets
Ans: D
28. The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in:
A – icy clouds at high levels
B – super cooled precipitation
C – unstable clouds at medium levels
D – zones where the air temperature is below -15oC
Ans: B
29. What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most
favourable for its formation?
A – Milky granular appearance, forming on leading edges and accumulating
forward into the air stream. Stratiform clouds at temperatures of -10oC to
-20oC are most conducive to its formation
B – Opague rough appearance, tending to spread back over an aircraft surface.
Most frequently encountered in cumuliform clouds at temperatures
slightly below freezing
C – Smooth appearance and builds forward from leading surfaces into a sharp
edge. Most common in cumuliform clouds at temperatures of -20oC to –
25oC
D – Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape of the surface on
which it freezes. Stratiform clouds and temperatures only slightly below
freezing promote its formation
Ans: A
30. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe
airframe icing?
A – It will not occur in clear sky conditions
C – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud
Ans: A
31. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that:
A – temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudes
B – a cold front has passed
C – there are thunderstorms in the area
D – after take-off you can climb to a higher altitude without encountering
more than light icing conditions
Ans: A
050-09-02 Turbulence
A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of
moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary
measures?
A – Increase the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currents
B – Increase the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents, if
aircraft performance parameters allow
C – Decrease the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currents
D – Decrease the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents if
aircraft performance parameters allow
Ans: D
1. The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of
the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe clear air
turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
A – The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out
type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even
impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant
B – The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be
difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort
C – The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing board
(small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity,
but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom
notice anything of this turbulence
D – The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the
passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially
. Ans: A
2. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
A – Large, abrupt changes in altitude or altitude occur but the aircraft may
only be out of control momentarily
B – Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without
appreciable changes in altitude or attitude
C – Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive
control at all times
D – Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage
Ans: C
3. The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to
the:
A – intensity of the solar radiation
B – height of the aircraft
C – stability of the air
D – intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear
Ans: D
4. An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270
and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be
at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by:
A – Climbing
B – Descending
C – Turning right
D – Maintain FL 270
Ans: B
5. The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
identified in flight by:
A – a high pressure centre at high level
B – long streaks of cirrus clouds
C – dust or haze at high level
D – a constant outside air temperature
Ans: B
6. Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is likely to be:
A – two wavelengths down wind and just above the surface
B – approximately one wavelength down wind of, and approximately level
with, the top of the ridge
C – just below the tropopause above the ridge
D – down the lee side of the ride and along the surface
Ans: D
7. Possible severe turbulence will be encountered in mountain waves in:
A – roll cloud
B – lenticular cloud
C – at the crest of the mountain
D – on the windward side
Ans: A
8. Conditions favourable for low-level frictional turbulence are:
A – strong wind, rough terrain, steep lapse rate
B – strong wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate
C – light wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate
D – strong wind, smooth terrain, stable lapse rate
Ans: A
Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level
would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from
Zurich?
A – FL 140
B – FL 160
C – FL 320
D – FL 220
Ans: D
On which of the following routes would you not have to worry about oderate
and/or severe turbulence on the cruising level?
A – Keflavik to Oxlo at FL 220
B – Rome to Frankfurt at FL 320
C – Beirut to Athens at FL 310
D – Madrid to Zurich at FL 280
Ans: A
11. A layer is conditionally unstable if the air:
A – becomes stable by lifting it
B – is stable for satuated air and unstable for dry air
C – is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air
D – is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air
Ans: C
12. Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when:
A – the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated
just above the turbulent layer
B – the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth’s
surface
C – in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation
level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer
D – absolute instability exists at low level
Ans: C
13. The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet
stream is:
A – well below the core
B – close to the core on the side facing the polar air
C – on the tropical side of the core
D – 5000 feet or more above the core
Ans: B
14. Which statement does correspond to the definition of severe turbulence?
A – Aircraft will be damaged and an emergency landing will be absolutely
necessary
B – Difficulty in walking, occupants feel strain against seat belts, loose objects
move about
C – Aircraft gets out of control and crashes
D – Aircraft may be out of control for short periods occupants are forced
violently against seat belts, loose objects are tossed about
Ans: D
Windshear
1. Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to:
A – experience little or no change in speed and direction
B – change in speed but not in direction
C – change in direction but not in speed
D – change significantly in speed and direction
Ans: D
2. Vertical wind shear is:
A – horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
B – vertical variation in the vertical wind
C – vertical variation in the horizontal wind
D – horizontal variation in the vertical wind
Ans: C
3. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered:
A – when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
B – in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts
C – during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
D – near valleys and at the windward side of mountains
Ans: A
4. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest….
A – at the condensation level when there is a stong surface friction
B – at the condensation level when there is no night radiation
C – at the top of the friction layer
D – at he top of a marked surface-based inversion
Ans: D
5. Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night:
A – and early morning only in summer
B – in unstable atmospheres
C – and early morning only in winter
D – in association with radiation inversions
Ans: D
6. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?
A – It results in good visual conditions
B – It promotes extensive vertical movement of air
C – It prevents vertical wind shear
D – It promotes vertical wind shear
Ans: D
7. An important characteristic of wind shear is that:
A – it is encountered most frequently near mountain waves during winter
months
B – it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of
convergence
C – it only occurs with jet streams
D – it is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level
temperature inversion, a jet stream or a frontal zone
Ans: D
8. An additional hazard to aircraft taking-off or landing in or near a thunderstorm
is:
A – extra turbulence
B – wind shear
C – compass error
D – pilot disorientation
Ans: B
In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low
level wind shear?
A – 3B and 3C
B – 3A and 3B
C – 3A and 3C
D – 3B and 3D
Ans: C
10. In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most
likely to occur
A – on the tropical side of the core
B – well below the core
C – close to the core on the polar side
D – 5000 ft or more above the core
Ans: C
11. Where does wind shear occur?
A – At any level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind
direction and/or wind speed
B – Wind shear of any significance occurs only in connection with jet streams
C – Wind shear occurs primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain
waves
D – Wind shear occurs only when there is a strong temperature inversion, or
when the jet stream is associated with a strong depression
Ans: A
12. Vertical wind shear is:
A – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height
B – a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance
C – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal
distance
D – a horizontal shear of vertical wind
Ans: A
050-09-04 Thunderstorms
1. Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?
A – Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes
B – Frontal thunderstorms
C – Thermal thunderstorms
D – Orographic thunderstorms
Ans: B
2. Where is a squall line to be expected?
A – At the surface position of a warm front
B – Behind a cold front
C – In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels
D – In front of an active cold front
Ans: D
3. A microburst phenomenon can arise in the:
A – down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
B – up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
C – down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage
D – up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage
Ans: A
4. Which of the following statements describes a microburst?
A – A high speed down burst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
surroundings
B – A high speed down draft of air with a higher temperature than its
surroundings
C – An extremely strong wind gust associated with a troical revolving storm
D – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
Ans: A
5. What is a microburst?
A – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high
speeds
B – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a high temperature than
the surrounding air
C – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a lower temperature than
the surrounding air
Ans: D
6. A gust front is:
A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
C – characterised by heavy lightning
D – another name for a cold front
Ans: B
7. Continuous up-draughts occur in a thunderstorm during the:
A – dissipating stage
B – mature stage
C – initial stage
D – period in which precipitation is falling
Ans: C
8. At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection
with a CB?
A – From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450
B – From the ground up to about FL 200
C – From the ground up to about FL 100
D – From the base of the clouds up to FL 200
Ans: A
9. What are squall lines?
A – Unusual intensive cold fronts
B – Bands of intensive thunderstorms
C – The surface weather associated with upper air troughs
D – The paths of tropical revolving storms
Ans: B
10. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of:
A – 8 km and 5-15 minutes
B – 4 km and 30-40 minutes
C – 4 km and 1-5 minutes
D – 12 km and 5-10 minutes
Ans: C
11. During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds
characterised by roll clouds most likely to occur?
A – Dissipating stage
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – Cumulus stage and mature stage
Ans: C
12. What are the meteorological pre-requisites, at low level, for thunderstorms
formed by lifting processes over land?
A – Low temperatures, low humidity
B – High air pressure (>1013 hPa), high temperatures
C – High temperatures, high humidity
D – Subsidence, inversion
Ans: C
13. What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
A – Strong steady rain
B – Thunderstorms
C – Fog
D – Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels
Ans: B
14. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for
thunderstorm formation?
A – Stable conditions and high moisture content
B – Unstable conditions and high moisture content
C – Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
D – Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
Ans: B
15. How long does a typical microburst last?
A – About 30 minutes
B – Less than 1 minute
C – 1 to 2 hours
D – 1 to 5 minutes
Ans: D
16. Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land
in moderate latitudes?
A – Occlusion thunderstorms
B – Warm front thunderstorms
C – Cold mass thunderstorms
D – Air mass thunderstorms
Ans: D
17. In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to
warm updrafts?
A – Mid-afternoon
B – Around midnight
C – Early morning
D – Late morning
Ans: A
18. Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at
least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A – An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a “Faradays Cage”,
which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the
result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock
B – An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but
the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be
caused
C – Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew
may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing
D – Aircraft made by composite material cant conduct a lightning and will
therefore very seldom be struck
Ans: C
19. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised
predominantly by down drafts?
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – Anvil stage
Ans: A
20. What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
A – Frequent lightning
B – Roll cloud
C – Continuous updraft
D – Rain or hail at the surface
Ans: C
21. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:
A – dissipating stage
B – cumulus stage
C – mature stage
D – period in which precipitation is not falling
Ans: C
22. In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and
down drafts simultaneously?
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – In all stages
Ans: C
23. A microburst:
A – is always associated with thunderstorms
B – has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C – has a diameter up to 4 km
D- occurs only in tropical area
Ans: C
24. The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterised by:
A – rain starting at surface
B – continuous down draughts
C – frequent lightning
D – continuous up draughts
Ans: D
25. The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country
flight is:
A – cirrus
B – stratocumulus
C – cumulus
D – cumulonimbus
Ans: D
26. Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indictes upper level
instability which may lead to thunderstorm development?
A – Red cirrus
B – AC lenticularis
C – Halo
D – AC castellanus
Ans: D
27. Which thunderstorms generally product the most severe conditions, such as
heavy hail and destructive winds?
A – Warm front thunderstorms
B – Squall line thunderstorms
C – Nocturnal air mass thunderstorms
D – Daytime air mass thunderstorms
Ans: B
Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by:
A – frontal occlusion
B – thermal triggering
C – frontal lifting (warm flood)
D – frontal lifting (cold front)
Ans: B
28. What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A – A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
B – An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
C – Water vapour and high pressure
D – A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
Ans: B
29. In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms
encountered?
A – Sub-tropical
B – Temperate
C – Tropical
D – Polar
Ans: C
30. Thundersorms can occur on a warm front if the:
A – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry
adiabatic lapse rate
B – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the
C – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
D – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
Ans: D
31. In general terms, an intense contour low will indicate:
A – quiet settled weather
B – changeable weather but getting better
C – heavy rain, hail and thunderstorm
D – no change to the weather
Ans: C
32. Which of the following is consered to be one of the conditions necessary for
thunderstorm development?
A – A marked temperature inversion extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
B – ELR less than the DALR extending well above the 0 degree isotherm
C – Instability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
D – Stability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
Ans: C
33. Which of the following conditions are necessary for thunderstorms?
A – Low surface temperatures and high moisture content
B – High moisture content and a trigger action
C – Instability at night
D – Low upper temperatures, and a high 0 degree isother
Ans: B
34. There are two principal types of origin of thunderstorm
A – Air mass thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms
B – Air mass thunderstorms and heat thunderstorms
C – Convection thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms
D – Convection thunderstorms and orographic uplift thunderstorms
Ans: A
35. Air mass thunderstorms are triggered off by:
A – fronts and/or orographic uplift
B – convection at air mass boundaries
C – standing wves in the lee of hills
D – convection and/or orographic uplift
Ans: D
36. Frontal thunderstorms are triggered off by:
A – rising air dur to falling pressure at air mass boundaries
B – convection by intense daytime heating or cold air moving over a warm
surface
C – rising air due to falling pressure or due to orographic uplift
D – mass ascent over large areas of cold air moving over a warm surface
Ans: A
37. A thunderstorm has the following stages in its life cycle:
A – cumulus, mature or building and declining
B – building, mature, declining and dissipating
C – cumulus, declining and dissipating
D – cumulus of building, mature and dissipating
Ans: D
38. The building stage of a thunderstorm last for approximately:
A – 20 min
B – 30 min
C – 20/.30 min
D – 40 min
Ans: A
In the building stage of a thunderstorm, which of the following is true?
A – Only up-currents are present
B – Only down-currents are present
C – Both up-currents and down-currents are present
D – Up-currents and side-currents are present
Ans: A
39. The mature stage of a thunderstorm lasts for approximately:
A – 15 min
B – 30 min
C – 20/30 min
D – 40 min
Ans: C
40. Which of the following statements is true with regard to a mature
thunderstorm:
A – both up-currents and down-currents appear concurrently
B – the cloud top assumes an anvil shape
C – water droplets, hail and snow are all present
D – the top of the cloud is negatively charged and the base is positively
charged
Ans: A
41. The final stage of a thunderstorm is reached when:
A – no further electrical charge is developed
B – the lower portion of the cloud dissipates
C – a well developed anvil can be seen
Ans: C
42. The most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground
are
A – lightning and hail
B – heavy precipitation and surfaces squalls
C – turbulence and static
Ans: D
43. Which types of thunderstorm can be the most difficult to avoid?
A – Mature thunderstorms because they spread over such a wide area
B – Frontal thunderstorms
C – Air mass thunderstorms
D – Low level thunderstorms
Ans: B
44. Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forecast and detect?
A – cumulus thunderstorms
B – air mass thunderstorms
C – frontal thunderstorms
D – cumulus thunderstorms because they are smaller
Ans: B
45. If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, which is the best area to
penetrate?
A – The top
B – The middle
C – The bottom
D – The sides
Ans: D
(Refr to figure 050-72)
At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and what
is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC?
A – Position C, FL 200
B – Position A, FL 200
C – Position B, FL 270
D – Position D, FL 290
Ans: C
46. A Cb with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is
correct?
A – The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloud
B – In temperatures lower than -23oC icing is still possible
C – If hail occurs, it only occurs in down drafts
D – Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud
Ans: B
47. A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface:
A – has a diameter up to 4 km
B – has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C – is always associated with thunderstorms
D – occurs only in tropical areas
Ans: A
48. Assuming that an initial “trigger” force is present, the conditions most likely
to result in the formation of thunderstorms are:
A – high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer
C – rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals
D – intense surface heating, anti-cyclonic pressure system and relatively high
freezing level
Ans: B
49. At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area
affected by damaging winds are in the order of:
A – 1-5 minutes and 4 km
B – 30-40 minutes and 4 km
C – 5-15 minutes and 8 km
D – 5-10 minutes and 12 km
Ans: A
50. Convective weather phenomena include:
A – heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large
area
B – thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog
C – thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning
strikes
D – hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind
maximum
Ans: C
51. In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms
the highest?
A – Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surface
B – Advection of warm air over a cold land surface
C – Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surface
D – Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea surface
Ans: C
52. Thunderstorms are often preceded by:
A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus Castellanus
D – Altocumulus Lenticularis
Ans: C
53. What is a down burst?
A – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than
the surrounding air
B – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than
the surrounding air
C – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high
speeds
Ans: A
54. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a area affected by damaging
winds at the surface caused by a microburst?
A – 20 km
B – 400m
C – 4 km
D – 50 km
Ans: C
55. Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the
development of thunderstorms?
A – Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just
below the freezing level and orographic lifting
B – Environmenal lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through
a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process
C – Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew
point below 0oC and considerable surface heating
D – Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing
level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface
winds
Ans: B
56. Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy
thunderstorms?
A – A cold front approaching a mountain range in the evening
B – The passage of a warm front in the morning
C – A cold front on the leeward side of a mountain range
D – A warm sector moving over a snow-covered ground
Ans: A
57. Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is
correct?
A – The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory
B – Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft
C – Lightning strikes always cause heavy damage
D – Compasses and electronics are always affected
Ans: A
58. Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass
thunderstorms?
A – Advection of cold air over a warm sea
B – Mountain waves
C – Advection of warm air over a cold sea
D – Low level wind shear
Ans: A
59. Which statement is correct for microbursts?
A – They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rain
B – The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 km
C – They occur in the tropics only
D – Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings
Ans: B
60. With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only
updraughts of air?
A – Anvil stage
B – Mature stage
C – Initial stage
D – Dissipating stage
Ans: C
0-09-05 Tornadoes
1. The diameter of a typical tornado is:
A – only a few metres
B – 100 to 150 metres
C – about 2 to 6 km
D – in the order of 10 km
Ans: B
2. At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
A – Spring, summer
B – Summer, autumn
C – Autumn, winter
D – Winter
Ans: A
3. With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated?
A – Cumulonimbus
B – Cumulus
C – Stratus
D – Nimbostratus
Ans: A
6 Low and high level inversions
1. Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by:
A – terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night
B – an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the
atmosphere at lower levels
C – gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent
mixing at the lower levels
D – compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform
cloud
Ans: A
2. Surface-based temperature inversions are common during:
A – cloud free nights in winter when the ground is dry
B – cloud free days in summer when the ground is dry
C – cloudy days in summer when the ground is wet
D – cloudy days in winter when the ground is wet
Ans: A
050-09-08 Hazards in mountainous areas
1. You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alpa, on a hot summer day,
when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this
flight?
A – Morning
B – Mid day
C – Afternoon
D – Early evening
Ans: A
2. Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stablelayer of
air is forced to rise against a mountain range?
A – Inversions
B – Stratified clouds
C – Showers and thunderstorms
D – Areas of severe turbulence
Ans: B
3. You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12oC and a TAS of 250 kt
at FL 150 through 8 octas NS. What type and degree of icing is most
probable?
A – In clouds pushed up against he mountains, moderate to severe rime ice
B – In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice
C – Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice
D – Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost
Ans: B
4. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of
mountain waves?
A – Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing
across the mountain ridge
B – Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at lest 30 knots
blowing parallel to the mountain ridge
C – Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing
D – Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing
Ans: D
5. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge
should:
A – decrease or even reverse direction
B – increase initially, then decrease
C – increase with little change in direction
D – increase and then reverse in direction
Ans: D
6. With reference to rotor streaming:
A – It can occur at levels up to 80,000 ft
B – It is a low level phenomenon
C – It is found at approximately the tropopause level
D – It is another name for the rotor zones associated with mountain waves
Ans: B
7. Mountain waves should be expected:
A – when instability is high
B – on the downwind side of the mountain chain
C – directly over the mountain chain
D – on the upwind side of the mountain chain
Ans: B
8. When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most
severe turbulence be located?
A – Just below the tropopause
B – Just above the cap cloud
C – On the windward side of the mountain range
D – in the rotor zone
Ans: D
9. Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
A – The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain
waves
B – Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from
initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground
C – Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with tailwind toward high ground
D – Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with headwind toward high ground
Ans: C
10. Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked
mountain wave has been reported?
A – The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountain tops
B – There are always rotor clouds
C – Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is an indication for the presence of
moderate/severe turbulence at the level of these clouds
D – The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountains
Ans: C
11. The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are:
A – wind direction parallel to the mountain range – wind speed increasing
with height – extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the
tropopause
B – wind diretion parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range –
wind speed increasing with height – intense surface heating
C – wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains
– intense radiation cooling at night particularly at the higher levels
D – wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range – wind
speed 30 kt and steadily increasing with height – an inversion just above
the crest level with less stable air above and below
Ans: D
Visibility reducing phenomena
1. In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during
drizzle is:
A – less
B – the same
C – greater
D – in rain – below 1 km, in drizzle – more than 2 km
Ans: C
2. Visibility is reduced by haze when:
A – a cold front just passed
B – a light drizzle falls
C – dust particles are trapped below an inversion
D – small water droplets are present
Ans: C
3. In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface
visibility when:
A – the surface wind is strong and gusty
B – there is a low level inversion
C – cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
D – a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
Ans: B
4. Below a low level inversion visibility is often:
A – moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers
B – very good at night
C – very good in the early morning
D – moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
Ans: D
5. Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can
decrease to minimal:
A – about 500 metres
B – about 200 metres
C – tens of metres
D – about 1000 metres
Ans: C
6. In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:
A – low stratus
B – haze
C – drizzle
D – showers of rain or snow
Ans: D
7. The solid particles which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
A – atmospheric pollution, dust, ozone and moisture
B – atmospheric pollution, volcanic fumes, dust and sand
C – atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and spray
D – atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and volcanic ash
Ans: D
The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
A – fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods)
B – cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitation
C – cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog
D – cloud, fog, mist spray or precipitation
Ans: D
8. Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:
A – precipitation type and duration
B – precipitation duration and droplet size
C – precipitation intensity and duration
D – precipitation intensity and type
Ans: D
9. In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation
is:
A – low and the precipitation is showers
B – good and the precipitation is steady rain
C – good and the precipitation is showers
D – low and the precipitation is steady rain
Ans: C
10. What conditions are necessary for vertical visibility to be reported?
A – It is always reported
B – Whenever the sky is obscured by fog or heavy precipitation and the height
of the cloud base cannot be measured
C – Whenever the lowest ceiling is below 1500 ft above ground
D – Whenever the lowest cloud base is below 1500 ft above ground
Ans: B
11. When fog is reported, the visibility is below:
A – 0.8 km
B – 1 km
C – 1.5 km
D – 3 km
Ans: B
12. When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is
classified as:
A – fog
B – dust fog
C – haze
D – mist
Ans: A
050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
050-10-01 Observation
1. What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used
for?
A – To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
B – To measure wind currents on the ground
C – To help provide 14-day forecasts
D – To locate precipitation zones
As: A
2. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value
from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
A – On the roof of the weather station
B – 1m above the runway
C – Close to the station about 2m above the ground
D – On a mast 6-10m above the runway
Ans: D
3. While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:
RVR runway 23: 400m This information indicates the:
A – prtion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways
would see, with runway 23 in service
B – meteorological visibility on runway 23
C – length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on
the threshold of runway 23
D – minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in
service
Ans: C
What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis) and RVR in
homogeneous fog?
A – The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR
B – The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR
C – The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR
D – There is no specific relationship between the two
Ans: C
4. Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?
A – Hail
B – Water vapour
C – Fog
D – Any cloud
Ans: A
5. When is the RVR reported at most airports?
A – When the RVR decreases below 2000m
B – When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800m
C – When the RVR decreases below 800m
D – When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500m
Ans: D
6. An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location
of:
A – cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by
falls of hail
B – all clouds
C – zones of precipitation, particularly liquid state precipitation, and also their
intensity
D – stratocumulus and its vertical development
Ans: C
7. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:
A – measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
B – reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
C – reported in TAF and METAR
D – usually better than meteorological visibility
Ans: D
8. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the
braking action of a runway?
A – MIFG
B – FG
C – HZ
D - +FZRA
Ans: D
9. What is a SPECI?
A – An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
B – A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant
change of the weather conditions have been observed
C – A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours
D – A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when
required
Ans: B
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
tropopause to be located?
A – FL 410
B – FL 360
C – FL 330
D – FL 390
Ans: B
Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what
altitude will the freezinglevel above Shannon be found?
A – FL 20
B – FL 140
C – FL 120
D – FL 60
Ans: D
12. The meaning of RVR is:
A – cross-wind component
B – runway visual range
C – meteorological visibility
D – braking action
Ans: B
13. Normally, temperature readings are taken at a height of ___ in a Stevenson
Screen:
A – 4 ft (1.25 m)
B – 4m
C – 10m
D – 40cm
Ans: A
14. A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitting head of the
electrical ___ which enables a continuous record of wind direction and speed
to be made on a moving chart.
A – anemograph; anemometer
B – anemometer; barograph
C – anemometer; anemograph
D – barograph; anemometer
Ans: C
15. The three elements in a cloud report are:
A – amount, cover, height of base
B – type, cover, amount
C – amount, type, height of base
D – type, amount, cloud species
Ans: C
16. Barometric tendency is measured on ___ and recorded on ___
A – an anemometer; an aneroid barometer
B – an anemograph; an anemometer
C – barograph; aneroid barometer
D – aneroid barometer; barograph
Ans: D
17. LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN 010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 +
RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015
TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500
TSGR BKN007CB
What is the most likely visibility for landing at 1345Z?
A – 4,500m
B – 1,500m
C – 6,000m
D – 12,000m
Ans: A
LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015
TEMPO 1200 + RA OVC005
FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015
TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30
TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB
What is the lowest cloud base you may encounter at 1345Z?
A – 1,000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 700 ft
D – 12,000 ft
Ans: B
For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to
position “T”:
A – 19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004=
B – 24020KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002=
C – 18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000=
D – 27030KT 8000 SCT020 07/03 Q1004=
Ans: A
Which of the following METAR’s reflect the weather conditions expected at
Brussels airport (EBBR) at 1200 UTC?
A – 21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG=
B – 28010KT 9999 BKN030 22/11 Q1016 NOSIG=
C – VRB03KT 8000 BKN280 19/12 Q1012 BECMG 3000 BR=
D – 19022G46KT 1200+TSGR BKN003 BKN015 17/14 Q1014 BECMG
NSW=
Ans: A
Of the four radio surroundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:
A–3
B–1
C–2
D–4
Ans: A
20. A METAR message is valid
A – at the time of observation
B – for 2 hours
C – for the hour following the observation
D – for 9 hours
Ans: A
21. How is a ceiling defined?
A – Height above ground or water of the highest layer of cloud or obscuring
phenomena aloft that covers 4 oktas or more of the sky
B – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud independent on
the amount of clouds
C – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud that contributes
to the overall overcast
D – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft
covering more than half of the sky
Ans: D
22. In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively:
A – BR = mist HZ = widespread dust
B – BR = fog HZ = haze
C – BR = mist HZ = smoke
D – BR = mist HZ = haze
Ans: D
23. In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010 MPS. This means:
A – Wind from 230o magnetic at 10 miles per hour
B – Wind from 230o true at 10 miles per hour
C – Wind from 230o magnetic at 20 knots
D – Wind from 230o true at 20 knots
Ans: D
24. In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates:
A – volcanic ash
B – present weather within the approach area
C – present weather within a range of 8 km, but not at the airport
D – present weather at the airport
Ans: C
25. In the METAR code the abbreviation VCBLDU means:
A – an active dust storm
B – blowing dust in the vicinity
C – an active sandstorm
D – an active dust and sand storm
Ans: B
26. The temperature at the surface is given as +15oC and at 4000 ft it is +9oC the
state of this layer is said to be:
A – absolutely unstable
B – conditionally unstable
C – stable
D – unstable
Ans: C
The visibility transmitted in a METAR is:
A – given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1500 metres
B – the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360o scan at the horizon
C – the lowest observed in a 360o scan from the meteorological station
D – measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the
runway
Ans: C
27. What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?
A – Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, useable runway length
1500 metres
B – RVR RWY 24 right below 1500 metres
C – RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metres
D – RVR RWY 24 right 1500 metres
Ans: C
28. What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?
A – By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and
300 hPa charts
B – By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300
hPa charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found
on the Significant Weather Chart
C – By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart
D – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart
Ans: B
What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500
UTC?
KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40
SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416
VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030
BECMG
A – 3000 feet
B – 1000 feet
C – 1300 feet
D – 1500 feet
Ans: B
29. What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC?
EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG
1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122
CAVOK
A – 5000 feet
B – 3000 feet
C – 500 feet
D – 1500 feet
Ans: A
30. What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?
LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO
1215 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
4000 RA OVC010=
A – 10 km
B – 6 NM
C – 4 km
D – 6 km
Ans: D
31. What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC?
1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
CAVOK
A – 1600 metres
B – 4000 metres
C – 1000 metres
D – 9000 metres
Ans: D
32. Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance
with the regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 ft, LSZH 8000 ft, LSGG
12000 ft, LFSB 6000 ft)
A – LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000
TSRA=
B – LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 KBN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000
BR=
C – LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG=
D – LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG=
Ans: B
33. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?
LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH- SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR
MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF
A – Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
B – Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of
the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL
260
C – Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots
advised to cross this area above FL 380
D – Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be
expected north of the Alps
Ans: A
34. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
A – 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG=
B – 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600=
C – 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500=
D – 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG=
Ans: A
35. While appreciating your destination aerodrome you receive the following
message:
RVR runway 23: 400m
This information indicates the
A – portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways
would see, with runway 23 in service
B – visibility on runway 23
C – length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on
the threshold of runway 23
D – minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in
service
Ans: C
36. Why can the following METAR not be abbreviated to CAVOK?
DLLO 121550Z 31018G30KT 9999 FEW060TCU BKN070 14/08 Q1016
TEMPO 4000 TS=
A – Because the cloud base in below the highest minimum sector altitude
B – Because there are gusts reported
C – Because towering cumulus are observed
D – Because thunderstorms are forecast temporary for the next 2 hours
Ans: A
050-10-02 Weather charts
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:
A – cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to
strong winds
B – clear skies, good visibility in light winds
C – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to
strong winds
D – radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind
Ans: C
2. In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
A – 500 – 400 hPa
B – 600 – 500 hPa
C – 300 – 200 hPa
D – 400 – 300 hPa
Ans: C
On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL 180?
A – Zurich-Hamburg
B – Zurich-Madrid
C – Hamburg-Stockholm
D – Zurich-Vienna
Ans: C
The cold front is indicated at position:
A–A
B–B
C–C
D–D
Ans: B
The warm sector is indicated by letter:
A–A
B–B
C–D
D–C
Ans: D
6. When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart
would be nearest you rflight level?
A – 300 hPa
B – 850 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 500 hPa
Ans: C
Which of the following best describes Zone B?
A – Col
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression
D – Trough of low pressure
Ans: A
8. If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?
A – 850 hPa
B – 500 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ans: D
What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?
A – Positions with the same air density
B – Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels
C – Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure
D – Positions with the same wind velocity
Ans: C
9. (Refer to figure 050-105_A)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing?
A–1
B–4
C–5
D–6
Ans: A
Which of the following best describes Zone C?
A – Ridge of high pressure
B – Col
C – Trough of low pressure
D – Depression
Ans: A
11. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL 300?
A – 500 hPa
B – 200 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ans: D
12. If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?
A – 300 hPa
B – 500 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ans: B
13. On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find
a jet stream?
A – Upper air chart
B – Wind/temperature chart
C – Surface chart
D – Significant weather chart
Ans: D
What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?
A – The centre of a tropopause high, where the tropopause is at FL 400
B – The centre of a high pressure area at 400 hPa
C – The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400
D – The lower limit of the tropopause
Ans: A
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revoving storm?
A–2
B–7
C – 10
D–6
Ans: A
Which of the following best describes Zone D?
A – Anti-cyclone
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression
Ans: C
A – 200 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ans: C
A – 700 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 200 hPa
Ans: D
19. Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the
freezing level?
A – Surface chart
B – 500 hPa chart
C – 700 hPa chart
D – Significant weather chart
Ans: D
A – 850 hPa
B – 700 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ans: B
21. How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather
Chart?
A – ISOL CB
B – EMBD CB
C – FREQ CB
D – OCNL CB
Ans: D
22. In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions
found?
A – 300 hPa chart
B – 24 hour surface forecast
C – 500 hPa chart
D – Significant Weather Chart
Ans: D
23. What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?
A – The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the
time given on the chart
B – The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
C – The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
D – The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given
on the chart
Ans: C
24. How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?
A – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per
hour
B – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots
C – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots
D – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour
Ans: C
A – 850 hPa
B – 700 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ans: A
You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight
levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
A – FL 140
B – FL 260
C – FL 320
D – FL 300
Ans: B
What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome?
A – 020/50
B – 050/40
C – 200/40
D – 350/40
Ans: C
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC
on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development
at Zurich airport?
A – TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN01S TEMPO 1720 05018KT
0300 +SHSN W002=
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015
C – TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
D – TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT
3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=
Ans: D
29. The upper wind and temperatue chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard
atmosphere, to about:
A – 39,000 ft
B – 30,000 ft
C – 32,000 ft
D – 34,000 ft
Ans: D
30. When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart
would be nearest your flight level?
A – 500 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ans: C
Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich-Rome at FL 110:
A – 230/10
B – 200/30
C – 040/10
D – 250/20
Ans: A
32. The 500 mb contour chart is equivalent to Flight Level:
A – FL 300
B – FL 90
C – FL 50
D – FL 180
Ans: D
33. The lines on a contour chart join points at:
A – equal pressure
B – equal temperature
C – equal height
D – equal humidity
Ans: C
Considering the North Atlantic route from the Azores to Bermuda, the mean
height of the tropical tropopause during summer is approximately:
A – 33,000 ft
B – 39,000 ft
C – 51,000 ft
D – 60,000 ft
Ans: C
Considering the sector Rom to 25oN on the route indicated, what mean upper
winds may be expected at FL 300 during winter?
A – Easterlies at 40 kt
B – Variable easterlies
C – Light westerlies
D – Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 k
Ans: D
The air mass affecting positon “A” is most likely to be:
A – Continental tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental polar
D – Maritime tropical
Ans: B
The air mass affecting position “C” is most likely to be:
B – Maritime tropical
C – Maritime polar
D – Continental polar
Ans: B
The air mass affecting position “S” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime polar and unstable
B – Maritime tropical and stable
C – Maritime polar and stable
D – Continental tropical and unstable
Ans: B
The air mass affecting position “P” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime tropical
C – Continental tropical
D – Continental polar
Ans: D
The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:
D – Continental tropical
Ans: D
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “S” is:
A – little or no cloud – hazy
B – morning fog liftig to low stratus
C – OVC SC
D – frequent heavy showers of rain or snow
Ans: D
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:
A – advection fog
B – clear skies – radiation fog forming overnight
C – snow showers – gale force wind
D – continuous drizzle and hill fog
Ans: C
The occurrence of freezing rain at FL 60 is most likely in square:
A – 2D
B – 2A
C – 3B
D – 3C
.Ans: D
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “S” is:
A – increasing AS and NS with moderate to heavy rain
B – scattered thunderstorms and good visibility
C – overcast with drizzle and orographic fog
D – small amounts of CU with generally good visibility
Ans: C
What flight conditions are most likely to be experienced in square 2B by an
aircraft at FL 120?
A – IMC in NS with risk of light icing
B – VMC below an overcast of AS and CS, generally smooth air
C – IMC in layers of AS and isolated CB risk of severe turbulence and icing
D – VMC above layers of ST and SC, generally stable conditions
Ans: D
For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, the
most likely weather conditions are:
A – showers of rain and hail
B – moderate continuous rain
C – low cloud, mist
D – scattered AC base 2000 ft, good visibility
Ans: C
For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away
from the vicinity of the fronts, the most likely weather conditions in winter
are:
A – generally overcast, moderate continuous rain and risk of low level wind
shear
B – scattered SC and CU, good visibility
C – poor visibility in mist and drizzle
D – prolonged periods of heavy rain and hail
Ans: C
The weather most likely to be experienced near to position “A” is:
A – overcast layer cloud – rain later
B – advection fog and drizzle
C – frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation
D – clear skies – radiation fog at night
Ans: C
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “B” is:
A – early morning fog lifting to low stratus later
B – advection fog and drizzle
C – poor visibility in anty-cyclonic circulation
D – frequent showers of rain or snow
Ans: D
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “B” is:
A – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzle
B – scattered stratocumulus with good visibility
C – frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showers
D – clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility
Ans: C
The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near position “Q” is:
A – mainly clear skies with fog developing overnight
B – mainly overcast with poor visibility
C – thundery showers particularly at night
D – showery with generally good visibility
Ans: D
The pressure system at position “D” is a:
A – secondary low
B – col
C – trough of low pressure
D – ridge of high pressure
Ans: B
The dotted line designated “Z” represents the:
A – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
B – mean position of the inter-tropical convegency zone (ITCZ) during
January
C – northerly limit of the sub-tropical jet stream during July
D – northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January
Ans: A
The dotted line labelled “Y” represents the:
A – axis of the sub-tropical jet stream during January
B – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during
January
C – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
D – axis of the equatorial jet stream during July
Ans: B
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “R” is:
A – overcast with drizzle and hill fog
B – early morning fog lifting to low stratus
C – increasing amounts of AS and NS – heavy rain
D – fine and warm at first – AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with
thunderstorms
Ans: D
For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situation near
high ground, in the vicinity of the active front in square 3B, a potential hazard
exists in the form of:
A – radiation fog
B – low level wind shear
C – rotor streaming
D – clear air turbulence (CAT)
Ans: B
The front at the bottom of the diagram, south of position C, is:
A – an occlusion on the surface
B – a warm front
C – an occlusion above the surface
D – a cold front
Ans: A
The air mass at position “X” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime polar
D – Continental tropical
Ans: B
The air mass type indicated by arrow number 4 is designated:
A – Continental polar
C – Maritime polar
D – Continental tropica
Ans: B
The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:
B – Continental polar
C – Continental tropical
D – Maritime polar
Ans: D
For an aircraft at FL 80, ahead of the front in square 2D, the expected flight
conditions are:
A – IMC in cumuliform cloud, moderate turbulence with a risk of rime icing
B – overcast skies, moderate to heavy turbulence with the possibility of
thunderstorms
C – below AS type cloud, generally smooth air with light precipitation
D – high C1 and CS type cloud, light turbulence and poor visibility
Ans: C
For an aircraft at FL 40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the direction
of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the form of:
A – clear ice accretion to the airframe
B – severe turbulence associated with CB
C – severe turbulence and wind shear
D – severe down drafts from subsiding air
Ans: A(Refer to figure 050-27)
What c
onditions are most likely to prevail at an aerodrome located in square
3B?
A – Mainly overcast at 8000 ft, visibility less than 5 km in continuous
moderate rain
B – Broken CU base 2000 ft, visibility more than 5 km, occasional showers of
rain or snow
C – 6-8 oktas SC and ST, visibility moderate to poor in drizzle
D – Intermittent thunderstorms otherwise generally clear skies with good
visibility
Ans: C
When front “G” passes position “T” the surface wind should:
A – veer and decrease
B – veer and increase
C – back and increase
D – back and decrease
Ans: B
The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is a:
A – trough of low pressure
B – col
C – ridge of high pressure
D – depression
Ans: C
From indications shown on the chart, when front “S” passes position “V” the
urface wind should:
A – back and decrease
B – veer and increase
C – back and remain more or less at the same speed
D – veer and remain more or less at the same speed
Ans: D
By the time the front “Z” has passed point “Q” the surface wind will have:
A – veered and increased
B – veered and decreased
C – backed and increased
D – backed and decreased
Ans: A
The temperature deviation from ISA (to the nearest oC) overhead Charleston
t FL 340 is:
A - +3
B - +5
C - -5
D - -7
Ans: B
At 40oN 70oW, the forecast wind is:
A – 270o/95 kt
B – 320o/40 kt
C – 240o/90 kt
D – 280o/70 kt
Ans: A
At 40oN 20oW, the forecast wind at FL 390 is:
A – 090o/45 kt
B – 060o/45 kt
C – 070o/30 kt
D – 270o/45 kt
Ans: A
The front located from 10oW to 10oE is most likely to be:
A – a quasi-stationary front
B – an active warm front moving north
C – an active occlusion moving south
D – a cold front moving south
Ans: A
The front labelled “E” is a:
A – cold front
B – warm front
C – warm occlusion
D – cold occlusion
Ans: A
Considering the route between Valencia and Charleston at FL 340, the forecast
mean temperature is:
A - -45oC
B - -50oC
C - -55oC
D - -40oC
Ans: B
What is the average wind forecast for FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid?
A – 180/20
B – 300/45
C – 240/25
D – 280/30
Ans: D
What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 300 between
Edinburgh and Madrid?
A - +2oC
B - +12oC
C - -2oC
D - -12oC
Ans: C
The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dhahran at FL 390 is:
A – 270/50
B – 270/30
C – 320/70
D – 310/50
Ans: A
What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 390 between
Madrid and Dhahran?
A - -1oC
B - +5oC
C - -5oC
D - +2oC
Ans: A
Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). At 40oN 20oW, the
temperature deviation from ISA at FL 390 is:
A – 0oC
B - +6oC
C - +2oC
D - -2oC
. Ans: A
Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). Considering the route
segment between 60oW and 70oW, at FL 390 the forecast mean temperature
is:
A – -52oC
B - -55oC
C - -58oC
D - -61oC
Ans: B
The mean wind that may be expected to affect the route segment from the
coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is:
A – 245/55
B – 240/90
C – 270/70
D – 220/70
Ans: D
The mean temperature that may be expected to affect that segment of the route
from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is:
A - -34oC
B - -38oC
C - -30oC
D - -42o
Ans: B
At FL 300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind would be most likely?
A – 245/50
B – 225/25
C – 265/40
D – 265/25
Ans: A
In appendix are shown four sections of the 700 hPa wind chart. The diagram
representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is:
A – 210o/30 kt (diagram B)
B – 030o/30 kt (diagram A)
C – 030o/30 kt (diagram C)
D – 210o/30 kt (diagram D)
Ans: B
According to the extract of the surface isobar map, the surface wind direction
over the sea is approximately:
A – 140o
B – 110o
C – 310o
D – 220o
Ans: A
On a Significant Weather Chart, hail is represented by symbol:
A–1
B–4
C–2
D–3
Ans: B
What is the classification of the air mass affecting position “Q”?
D – Maritime tropical
Ans: D
86. (Refer to figure 050-105_B)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 5
B – Symbol 3
C – Symbol 4
D – Symbol 2
Ans: A
What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Keflavik and
Helsinki?
A – FL 360
B – FL 350
C – FL 300
D – FL 320
Ans: D
At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over northern
Scandinavia?
A – FL 330
B – FL 280
C – FL 360
D – FL 300
Ans: B
89. (Reer to figure 050-73)
At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt?
A – FL 350
B – FL 300
C – FL 330
D – FL 240
Ans: C
The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be:
A - -57oC
B - -39oC
C - -33oC
D - -45oC
Ans: D
What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris?
A - -25oC
B - -23oC
C - -15oC
D - -19oC
Ans: D
What is the speed of the front located over France?
A – 15 kt
B – 25 kt
C – 10 kt
D – 30 kt
Ans: A
Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four
diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned?
A – Diagram 3
B – Diagram 4
C – Diagram 2
D – Diagram 1
Ans: B
A convergence line is indicated by:
A–C
B–B
C–A
D–D
Ans: C
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying
according to instrument flight rules (IFR)?
A – Symbol 1
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 2
D – Symbol 3
Ans: C
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying
according to instrument flight rules (IFR)?
A – Symbol 6
B – Symbol 9
C – Symbol 3
D – Symbol 7
Ans: C
Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt – Rome at FL
170:
A – 230/40
B – 200/50
C – 050/40
D – 030/35
Ans: A
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 240, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?
A – Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence
B – Moderate or severe turbulence and icing
C – Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
D – CAT for the first half of the flight
Ans: B
Judging by the chart, what wind speeds can you expect at FL 310 above
London?
A – 90 kt
B – 300 kt
C – 140 kt
D – 100 km/h
Ans: A
Which of these statements is true?
A – Trbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 400 over Malaga (LEMG)
B – Freezing level above London (EGLL) is higher than FL 065
C – The front to the east of Paris (LEPO) is moving south
D – Local snow and severe aircraft icing can be expected over Germany
Ans: D
On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 170?
A – Paris – Lisbon
B – Madrid – Vienna
C – London – Stockholm
D – Zurich – Athens
Ans: C
This chart shows the weather situation at 0600 UTC on May 23. Which of the
ollowing reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
A – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070
BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA
BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
B – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810
8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
C – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO
1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT
3000 BCFG SCT100=
D – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811
23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000
TSRA BKN020CB=
Ans: A
Which of the following statements is true?
A – The moderate icing conditions overhead Zurich are forecast in a layer
between FL 140 and above the limit of the chart
B – The wind speed in the core of the jet stream near Bordeaux (B) is about 90
kt
C – The west part of the front system over Spain moves to the south with 10 kt
and the eastern part of that front over Spain moves to the north
D – On a flight from Copenhagen to Amsterdam you have not to worry about
moderate and/or severe turbulence at FL 100
Ans: B
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 130 between 0600 and 0900
UTC, what can you expect at cruising level?
A – You will be out of clouds more of three quarters of your flight
B – A strong wind from the right with 90 kt at the crossing of the core of the
jet stream
C – You will arrive at your destination before you have to cross the warm
front
D – Moderate icing about half way along the route
Ans: D
104. On an upper wind and temperature chart:
A – the wind increases from south to north
B – the temperature is constant all over the chart
C – the height is constant all over the chart
D – the pressure is constant all over the chart
Ans: D
A convergence line is indicated by:
A – Sector A
B – Sector B
C – Sector C
D – Sector D
Ans: A
The warm sector is indicated by:
A – Sector A
B – Sector B
C – Sector C
D – Sector D
Ans: C
Which of the following best describes Zone A?
A – Trough of low pressure
B – Cold Front
C – Ridge of high pressure
D – Depression
Ans: A
Which of the following best describes Zone B?
B – Cold Front
C – Depression
Ans: B
Which of the following best describes Zone C?
B – Cold Front
C – Trough of low pressure
D – Depression
Ans: A
Which of the following best describes Zone D?
B – Trough of low pressure
C – Anti-cyclone
D – Depression
Ans: D
What does zone A depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
D – The Cold Front
Ans: A
What does zone C depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
D – The Cold Front
Ans: C
In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ans: C
In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?
A–D
B–C
C–B
D–A
Ans: B
Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 1200 UTC?
A – LIRF
B – LEMD
C – LFPO
D – LOWW
Ans: C
Which airport has the biggest probability for the formation of fog the
following night?
A – ENFB
B – EKCH
C – LFPO
D – EINN
Ans: C
What does this picture depict?
A – A high pressure area over France
B – A westerly wave over Central Europe
C – South foehn
D – North foehn
Ans: B
Where do the westerly wves occur in this picture?
B – Over Scandinavia
C – In the Mediterranean
Ans: B
Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the
freezing level above Tunis be found?
A – FL 100
B – FL 20
C – FL 180
D – FL 260
Ans: A
What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the route Frankfurt-
Rome at FL 180?
C – 10oC colder than ISA
D – 10oC warmer than ISA
Ans: A
What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?
A - -55oC
B - -51oC
C - -63oC
D - -47oC
Ans: D
Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the tropopause
according to the map?
A – FL 300
B – FL 330
C – FL 150
D – FL 280
Ans: A
On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of
the chart?
A – Hamburg – Oslo
B – Rome – Frankfurt
C – Tunis – Rome
D – Copenhagen – Helsinki
Ans: A
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
tropopause to be located?
A – FL 360
B – FL 410
C – FL 330
D – FL 390
Ans: A
On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL
240?
A – Rome – Berlin
B – Zurich – Rome
C – Zurich – Athens
D – Shannon – Hamburg
Ans: D
You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight
levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
A – FL 260
B – FL 320
C – FL 180
D – FL 140
Ans: A
What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?
A – ISA -13oC
B – ISA -2oC
C – ISA +13oC
D – ISA +2oC
Ans: A
State the temperature deviation to ISA over Copenhagen at FL 140:
Ans: A
A – FL 300
B – FL 330
C – FL 150
D – FL 280
Ans: A
What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris?
A – 210/40
B – 240/20
C – 030/40
D – 190/40
Ans: A
A – FL 330
B – FL 310
C – FL 300
D – FL 280
Ans: C
To what extend is Zurich covered by clouds?
A – 3 to 5 oktas
B – 5 to 8 oktas
C – 1 to 4 oktas
D – 5 to 7 oktas
Ans: B
Which of the following best describes Zone A?

B – Trough of low pressure
C – Depression
D – Col
Ans: B
What pressure does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
A – Rising pressure
B – Falling pressure
C – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
D – No substantial pressure change
Ans: A
What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
A – Rising pressure
B – Falling pressure
C – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
D – No substantial pressure change
Ans: B
What temperature does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
A – The temperature decreases
B – The temperature increases
C – The temperature first increases and then decreases
D – No substantial temperature change
Ans: B
136. (Refer to figue 050-105_B)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 3
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 5
D – Symbol 6
Ans: C
Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the
eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220?
A – Individual cumulonimbus
B – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus
Ans: A
To what extent is Munich covered by clouds?
A – 5 to 8 oktas
B – 1 to 4 oktas
C – 5 to 7 oktas
D – 3 to 5 oktas
Ans: A
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper leel contour chart.
A – Wind speed at A is higher than at B
B – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
C – The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
D – Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B
Ans: C
Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night?
A – ESSA
B – ENGM
C – EKCH
D – LSZH
Ans: d
If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising
altitude be?
A – Constantly in the troposphere
B – Constantly in the stratosphere
C – First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
D – In the stratosphere for part of time .
Ans: B
Information for flight planning
1. Runway visual range can be reported in:
A – a TAF
B – a METAR
C – a SIGMET
D – both a TA and a METAR
Ans: B
2. You receive the following METAR:
LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014
NOSIG= What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?
A – 300 m
B – The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR
C – 700 m
D – 900 m
Ans: B
3. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?
A – When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
B – When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
C – With gusts of at least 25 knots
D – With gusts of at least 35 knots
Ans: A
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
A – 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG=
B – 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000=
C – 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG=
D – 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG=
Ans: C
5. The follwing weather report EDDM 241332 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004
BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is
a:
A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF
Ans: D
6. (Refr to figure 050-67)
Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200?
A – Moderate turbulence, moderate icing
B – Moderate turbulence, light icing
C – Severe turbulence, moderate icing
D – Severe turbulence, severe icing
Ans: A
7. Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the
time they are observed?
A – TS
B – SA
C – DZ
D – SQ
Ans: C
8. What is the meaning of the expression “FEW”?
A – 2-4 oktas cloud cover
B – 1-2 oktas cloud cover
C – 5-7 oktas cloud cover
D – 1-3 oktas cloud cover
Ans: B
9. In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formatin
in the coming night the highest?
A – 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR=
B – 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG=
C – 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG=
D – 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO
1500=
Ans: A
10. 9651. (Refer to figure 050-83)
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich-Lisboa at FL
200:
A - -33oC
B - -30oC
C - -41oC
D - -49oC
Ans: A
11. Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for
Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00 UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360o/2 kt, visibility 2000m,
rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 ft, OVC altostratus at 8000 ft, QNH 1023
hPa,Calvi: wind 040o/2 kt, visibility 3000m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT
stratocumulus at 2000 ft, OVC altostratus at 9000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa. The
ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:
A – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 2000 ft at Calvi
B – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 500 ft at Calvi
C – 8000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at Calvi
D – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at Calvi
Ans: D
What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?
A – 6 – 8 oktas
B – 3 – 4 oktas
C – 5 – 7 oktas
D – 8 oktas
Ans: C
12. Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB
BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS=
What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports:
A – That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the
TAF
B – That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
C – That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have
predicted earlier in the morning
D – That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there
is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
Ans: C
13. What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
A – kt
B – kt/100 ft
C – m/100 ft
D – m/sec
Ans: B
In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in
CAT area no2?
A – From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate
B – From FL 240 to FL 370, light
C – From below FL 130 to FL 270, light
D – From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate
Ans: A
What does the abbreviation “NOSIG” mean?
A – No significant changes
B – No report received
C – No weather related problems
D – Not signed by the meteorologis
Ans: A
On which of these routes would you have to worry about turbulence at FL
340?
A – Rome – Berlin
B – Zurich – Rome
C – Zurich – Athens
D – Shannon – Hamburg
Ans: D
16. A SPECI is:
A – an aviation routine weather report
B – an aviation selected special weather report
C – a warning for special weather phenomena
D – a forecast for special weather phenomena
Ans: B
17. What does the term METAR signify?
A – A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several
times daily
B – A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a
FIR
C – A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is
generally issued in half-hourly intervals
D – A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a
brief prognostic report
Ans: C
18. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum
visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam?
A – 5 km
B – 3 km
C – 5 NM
D – 6 km
Ans: B
19. How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two
upper air chart levels? (eg. Wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa
chart are available)
A – By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts,
while also considering the maximum wind information found on the
Significant Weather Chart
B – By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts
C – By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart
D – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart
Ans: A
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?
A – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
B – Individual cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus
Ans: B
Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich-London at FL 280:
A – 040/80
B – 250/80
C – 220/60
D – 160/90
Ans: C
Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens
Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC?
A – 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG W001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800=
B – 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA=
C – 21002KT 5000 HZ SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG=
D – 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG=
Ans: C
22. What is the meaning of the abbreviation SCT?
A – 1-2 oktas
B – 3-4 oktas
C – 5-7 oktas
D – 1-4 oktas
Ans: B
23. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?
SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd t sobs and fcst in w part of athinai
fir/mov e/inst nc =
A – Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone
should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC
B – Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are
slowly moving west
C – Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR.
The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
D – The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are
stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR
Ans: C
Given the following METAR:
EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002
OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG
A – Visibility is reduced by water droplets
B – There is a distinct change in RVR observed
C – Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
D – RVR on runway 26R is increasing
Ans: A
What is the deviation of the temperatue at FL 140 above Copenhagen
compared to ISA?
A – 4oC warmer than ISA
B – 8oC colder than ISA
Ans: B
25. ATIS information contains:
A – operational information and if necessary meteorological information
B – only meteorological information
C – meteorological and operations information
D – only operational information
Ans: C
time they are observed?
A – FZFG
B – BCFG
C – SN
D – HZ
Ans: C
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT,
LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
A – LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG=
B – LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 –RA=
C – LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG=
D – LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG=
Ans: B
28. What does the expression Broken (BKN) mean?
A – 5-7 eights of the sky is cloud covered
B – 3-4 eights of the sky is cloud covered
C – 3-5 eights of the sky is cloud covered
D – Nil significant cloud cover
Ans: A
29. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?
A – Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome
B – Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome
C – Severe mountain waves
D – A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR
Ans: C
30. Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the
following METAR?
LSZH 050820Z 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003
M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000=
A – Meteorological visibility 1000m, RVR 400m, freezing level at 300m,
variable winds, temperature 2oC
B – RVR for runway 16 1000m, meteorological visibility increasing in the
next two hours to 2000m, vertical visibility 300m, temperature -2oC
C – RVR for runway 14 1500m meteorological visibility 400m, QNH 1026
hPa, wind 160o at 3 kt
D – Meteorological visibility 400m, RVR for runway 16 1000m, dew point –
2oC freezing fog
Ans: D
What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550
UTC?
A – 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG=
B – 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA=
C – 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009
BECMG NSW=
D – 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG=
Ans: B
32. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in
the next few hours?
A – 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO
24018G30 TS=
B – 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG=
C – 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 M02/M04 Q1014 NOSIG=
D – 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000=
Ans: A
Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at
FL 160?
A – Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers
B – 4 oktas broken cumulus
C – Isolated cumulonimbus only
D – 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence
Ans: A
Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?
A – ESSA
B – LSZH
C – ENFB
D – EFHK
Ans: B
Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet
stream affecting the route between Munich and London?
A – 220o / 120 kt
B – 220o / 120 km/h
C – 050o / 120 kt
D – 230o / 120 m/sec
Ans: A
35. What is a trend forecast?
A – An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
B – A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
C – A route forecast valid for 24 hours
D – A routine report
Ans: B
36. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT
6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA
OVC010=
The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
A – 1000 ft
B – 1500 ft
C – 1500 m
D – 5000 ft
Ans: B
37. If CAVOK is reported then:
A – no low drifting snow is present
B – no clouds are present
C – low level windshear has not been reported
D – any CBs have a base above 5000 ft
Ans: A
38. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
A – 9 hours
B – 2 hours
C – 1 hour
D – 30 minutes
Ans: B
In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight
from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing
importance at the time
EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir
blw ft 050 south of 53n wkn=
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl
430 fcst limm fir stnr nc=
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for London fir isol cb
embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb
ts also fcst move wkn=
Which decision is correct?
A – You show no further interest in these reports, since they do nt concern the
route to be flown
B – Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250
C – Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy
thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)
D – You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions
along the route would demand too much of the passenger
Ans: B
Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the
freezing level above Tunis be found?
A – FL 100
B – FL 20
C – FL 180
D – FL 260
Ans: A
40. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam
what surface wind is forecast?
A – 120o / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
B – 140o / 10 kt
C – 300o / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D – 250o / 20 kt
Ans: A
time they are observed
A - +SHSN
B – VA
C – BR
D – MIFZ
Ans: A
Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich – Hamburg at FL
240:
A – 230/20
B – 020/20
C – 200/15
D – 260/25
Ans: A
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud
base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?
A – 500m
B – 250 ft
C – 500 ft
D – 800 ft
Ans: C
43. In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you
note:
TEMPO TS
What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone
instance?
A – 120 minutes
B – 60 minutes
C – 10 minutes
D – 20 minutes
Ans: B
On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of
the chart?
A – Rome – Frankfurt
B – Hamburg – Oslo
C – Tunis – Rome
D – Copenhagen – Helsinki
Ans: Z
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information
supplied in:
A – TAF and SIGMET
B – TAF and METAR
C – METAR and SIGMET
D – SWC and SIGMET
Ans: D
45. Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport:
TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002
BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007=
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at
1200 UTC?
A – Meteorological visibility 6 kilometers, cloudbase 500 feet, wind speed 5
knots
B – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feet
C – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet calm
D – Meteorological visibility 2.5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed
5 knots
Ans: D
46. Which of the following phenomena can product a risk of aqua planning?
A – SA
B – FG
C – BCFG
D - +RA
Ans: D
Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation VV001 mean?
A – RVR greater than 100m
B – RVR less than 100m
C – Vertical visibility 100 ft
D – Vertical visibility 100m
Ans: C
What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius from the International
Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?
A – ISA -2oC
B – ISA -13oC
C – ISA +13oC
D – ISA +2oC
Ans: B
Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?
A – 340 kt
B – 145 kt
C – 95 kt
D – 140 km/h
Ans: B
What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva?
A - -24oC
B - -20oC
C - -16oC
D - -28oC
Ans: A
50. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport:
FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the
lowest quoted visibility forecast?
A – 10 or more km
B – 8 NM
C – 10 NM
D – 8 km
Ans: D
51. SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:
A – heavy aircraft only
B – light aircraft only
C – VFR operations only
D – all aircraft
Ans: D
52. Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced
strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of
these reports?
A – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
B – The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
C – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
D – The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning
Ans: C
In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?
A – TAF
B – SIGMET
C – GAFOR
D – METAR
Ans: D
53. What does the term TREND signify?
A – It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times
daily
B – It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at
half-hourly intervals
C – It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
D – It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
Ans: D
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens – Geneva at
FL 150:
A - -21oC
B - -14oC
C - -11oC
D - -27oC
Ans: B
55. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:
A – the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
B – mean sea level
C – the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
D – airfield level
Ans: D
Which of these statements is true?
A – Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid
B – Freezing level above Madris is higher than FL 120
C – The front to the north of London is moving south
D – Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France
Ans: D
57. Refer to the following TAF extract:
What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean?
A – Probability of 30%
B – Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
C – The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft
D – Change expected in less than 30 minutes
Ans: A
58. Refer to TAF below:
EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000
SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB
BECMG 2124 26010KT
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham
(EGBB) will be:
A – not less than 1.5 km but could be in excess of 10 km
B – a maximum of 5 km
C – a minimum of 1.5 km and a maximum of 5 km
D – more than 10 km
Ans: A
On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and
distributed with intervals of:
A – 2 hours
B – 1 hour
C – 0.5 hours
D – 3 hours
Ans: C
Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter
moderate CAT at FL 300?
A – Zurich – Athens
B – London – Zurich
C – Zurich – Stockholm
D – Madrid – Bordeaux
Ans: A
60. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could
be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?
A – SPECI
B – ATIS
C – SIGMET
D – TAF
Ans: C
If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 280, what conditions can
you expect at cruising altitude?
A – Out of cloud throughout the flight
B – Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT
C – Scattered thunderstorms
D – Largely free of cloud; moderate turbulence half way along the route
Ans: D
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich – Rome at
FL 110:
A - -6oC
B - -12oC
C - -9oC
D - +5oC
Ans: C
Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night?
A – ENFB
B – LSZH
C – EKCH
D – ESSA
Ans: B
64. In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation, in the coming night, the highest?
A – VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG=
B – 22004KT 6000 –RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG=
C – VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR=
D – 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG=
Ans: C
What does the term SIGMET signify?
A – A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
B – A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station
several times daily
C – A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
D – A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally
issued at half-hourly interval
Ans: A
65. Which of the statements is true concerning equal lines?
A – Severe squall lines always move from north west to south east
B – Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
C – For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
D – For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
Ans: D
Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens – Geneva at FL
160:
A – 240/40
B – 210/25
C – 260/45
D – 050/35
Ans: A
67. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich:
LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT
6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA
OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
A – 6 NM
B – 6 km
C – 4 km
D – 10 km
Ans: B
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the
next few hours?
A – 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000=
B – 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG=
C – 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000
D – 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG=
Ans: A
68. Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be
experienced at 1500 UTC?
TAF LSZH 211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG
1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022
25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z=
A – Vsibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots
B – Visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18oC
C – Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3000 feet, wind 250o,
temperature 18oC
D – Severe rainshowers, visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15oC, gusts up to
35 knots
Ans: A
69. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?
25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG
NSW=
A – Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18oC
B – Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres,
temperature 23oC
C – Broken, cloud base 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18oC
D – Wind 250o, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
Ans: A
What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the
significant weather chart?
A – FL 340
B – FL 220
C – FL 160
D – FL 18
Ans: B
70. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022
BECMG 0800=
A – Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar front,
RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
B – Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres,
temperature -3oC, vertical visibility 100 metres
C – Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500
metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
D – RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm,
meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Ans: D
71. Does the following report make sense?
LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG
A – The report is nonsence, because it is impossible to observe a
meteorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported
B – The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when
the meteorological visibility is more than 2 km
C – The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog
below eye level
D – The report is not possible, because with a temperature of 2oC and a dew
point of 2oC there must be uniform fog
Ans: C
72. The wind directin in a METAR is measured relative to:
A – the 0-meridian
B – magnetic north
C – true north
D – grid north
Ans: C
73. In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the:
A – QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa
B – QFE rounded to the nearest hPa
C – QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
D – QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa
Ans: C
What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt – Rome
route?
C – 4oC colder than ISA
D – 10oC warmer than ISA
Ans: C
75. Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428.
What must you consider when making performance calculations?
A – Aquaplaning conditions
B – The braking action will be medium to good
C – The runway will be wet
D – The friction co-efficient is 0.28
Ans: D
Refer to the following TAF extract:
What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
A – The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
B – A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
C – Many short term changes in the original weather
D – Many long term changes in the original weather
Ans: A
On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather
situation?
TAF 1322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB
BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA
BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=
A – ESSA
B – EINN
C – LSZH
D – EKCH
Ans: B
77. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.
FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is
forecast on the approach to Bordeaux?
A – Light drizzle and fog
B – Moderate snow showers
C – Heavy rain showers
D – Continuous moderate rain
Ans: C
Refr to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG 2001
What does the abbreviation BKN004 mean?
A – 4-8 oktas, ceiling 400m
B – 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400m
C – 5-7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
D – 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
Ans: C
78. The validity of a TAF is:
A – between 6 and 9 hours
B – 9 hours from the time of issue
C – stated in the TAF
D – 2 hour
Ans: C
79. The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the:
A – value representative of the touchdown zone
B – average value of the A-, B- and C- position
C – highest value of the A-, B- and C- position
D – lowest value of the A-, B- and C- position
Ans: C
80. A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is
270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear.
The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure
procedure?
A – Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
B – Take off is not possible under these conditions
C – Depart on runway 09 with a tail wind
D – Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle, during the passage through the
inversion
Ans: C
81. The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being:
A – AGL
B – AMSL
C – AAL
D – Pressure altitude
Ans: C
82. How is the cloud base reported in a METAR:
A – In steps of 100 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
B – In steps of 100m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
C – In steps of 10 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
D – It steps of 10m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
Ans: A
83. 24173. (Refr to figure 050-115)
At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 1200 UTC, the sky is overcast with
Stratocumulus and Altostratus and it is raining. Using the SWC in appendix,
valid at 1200 UTC, we can estimate a weather improvement for Lyon:
A – 1330 UTC
B – 2100 UTC
C – 0300 UTC the following day
D – 1215 UTC
Ans: B
At which airport, is the following weather development taking place?
TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200
BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA
SCT030 OVC050=
A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LOWW
D – LEMD
Ans: B
To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable?
TAF 230900Z 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113
5020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT
9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1617 5000 SHRA BKN020
A – EKCH
B – LFPG
C – LEMD
D – LOWW
Ans: D
85. Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC.
TAF YUDO 120600Z 121206 17010KT 3000 SCT005 BECMG 1820
RB03KT BCFG SKC BECMG 2022 0300 FG VV002=
What can be said about the destination airport at 2030 UTC if CAT II ILS
inimum:
A – Open the whole night because 300 m of visibility corresponds to at least
900m RVR
B – Still open until 2200 UTC because the weather change is not completed
before 2200 UTC
C – Has to be considered as closed
D – Still open because the decrease of the visibility below the CAT II minima
will be a little bit later than 2030 UTC
Ans: C
86. Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2123 0500 FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
A – 500 m
B – 2000 m
C – Between 5000m and 2000m
D – Between 0m and 1000m
Ans: A
87. Refer to the following TAF message
LFxx 180800Z 180918 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214
24025KT 2000 RA BKN009 OVC070=
At 1400 UTC, the lowest cloud base will be:
A – between 900 and 1500 feet AMSL
B – at 900 feet AGL
C – between 900 and 1500 feet AGL
D – at 1500 feet AGL
Ans: B
88. TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG
0002 27015KT 4500 –SN SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002
BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT
1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB=
What is the expected visibility at 0300 UTC?
A – 4500m
B – Between 400m and 10 km or more
C – Between 4500m and 10 km or moe
D – Between 400m and 4500 m
Ans: D
89. TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800
VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007=
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at
1200 UTC?
A – Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
B – Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feet
C – Visibility 2.5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
D – Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
Ans: C
The following weather message:
EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 BR OVC004 BECMG 1517
00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001
Is a:
A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF
Ans:
90. The TAF weather messages are:
A – airport forecasts
B – hourly or semi-hourly weather observations
C – special weather observations
D – landing forecasts of the “trend” type
Ans: A
The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:
A – 9999, NSC, NOSIG
B – 9000, SKC, NOSIG
C – 8000, HAZARDOUS WX NIL, NOSIG
D – 9999, NSC, NSW
Ans: D
91. The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in
percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical
values immediately following the term PROB, are:
A – 25 or 25
B – 20 or 30
C – 30 or 40
D – 35 or 50
Ans: C
92. What does the code TAF AMD mean?
A – Revised TAF
B – No change compared with the previous TAF
C – Weather conditions expected to affect the safety of normal operations
D – Delayed issue of a TAF
Ans: A
93. What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400
UTC?
TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000
BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000
TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=
A – 1800 feet
B – 1200 feet
C – 1400 feet
D – 900 feet
Ans: D
What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG
1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
A – 500 ft
B – 500 m
C – 1000 ft
D – 1000 m
Ans: A
94. What is the lowest probably cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at
Kingston?
TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315
14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA
SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025=
A – 1500 m
B – 1000 m
C – 1500 ft
D – 1000 ft
Ans: D
95. What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
A – 8 NM
B – 8 km
C – 6 NM
D – 10 km
Ans: B
96. What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?
TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000
BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000
TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=
A – 1200 metres
B – 5 km
C – 6 km
D – 10 km or more
Ans: B
97. What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into
Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC?
TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CABOK BECMG 0103 7000
TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA=
A – 4000 yards
B – 10 km or more
C – 7 km
D – 4 km
Ans: D
98. What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienced during an approach
into Madrid at 2300 UTC?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000
SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
A – 2000 feet
B – 1500 feet
C – 3000 feet
D – 800 feet
Ans: B
99. What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC?
1314 9000 SHRA OVC 015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
CAVOK
A – 260o / 10 kt
B – Variable / 05 kt
C – Variable / 15 to 25 kt
D – Calm
Ans: A
100. What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?
MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315
A – 360o / 10 kt
B – 140o / 20 kt gusts 34 kt
C – 340o / 10 kt
D – 140o / 27 kt
Ans: B
101. What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be
experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?
TSRA
A – Anabatic winds
B – Roll cloud associated with standing waves
C – Radiation fog
D – Low level wind shear
Ans: D
What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC?
MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315
A – Heavy rain showers
B – Light drizzle
C – Continuous moderate rain
D – Intermittent light rain
Ans: A
102. What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into
Madrid at 2300 UTC?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000
SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
A – 6000 metres
B – 8000 metres
C – 10 kilometres or more
D – Greater than 10 kilometres
Ans: C
103. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?
A – Heavy duststorm
B – Strong inversion
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway
Ans: A
104. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?
A – Strong inversion
B – Heavy duststorm
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway
Ans: B
The following TAF applies best to which aerodrome? 19010KT 8000 RA
BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010
A – EBBR
B – LOWW
C – MADRID
D – PARIS
Ans: A
Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?
A – 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG=
B – 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000=
C – 28006KT 4000 =TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG
NSW=
D – 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG
8000=
Ans: D
At which airport is the following weather development most likely to be
taking place?
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013
23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030
OVC050=
A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LEMD
D – EPWA
Ans: B
On which airport do you expect the development of the following most likely
weather situation?
TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OCT 180 BECMG 1013 OVC090
TEMPO –RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO
3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020
A – LFPO
B – EGLL
C – EDDL
D – LOWW
Ans: C
At which airport is the following weather development taking place?
TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN02CB
BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA
BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=
A – EINN
B – LFPO
C – LFML
D – EKCH
Ans: A
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC
on May 23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at
Zurich Airport?
A – TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT
0300 +SHSN VV002=
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015=
C – TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
D – TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT
3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001=
Ans: D
The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at 1200 UTC on October 10.
Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport
(LSZH)?
A – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618
00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG
VV001=
B – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720
05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002=
C – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030
TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015=
D – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
Ans: A

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METEOROLOGY

A – Dry, warm air passing over warm ground

A – Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind

A – 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 30000 feet

A – Ridge of high pressure

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