Power Plant Oxford All
Power Plant Oxford All
Power Plant Oxford All
Questions
1. The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four-stroke engine during the
2
a. be constant
b. decrease
c. increase
d. follow Charles’s Law
a. 6
b. 4
c. 2
d. 8
3. The inlet valve opens before TDC in the exhaust stroke to:
6. With an increase in the rotational speed of a four-stroke engine, the valve overlap:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. increases up to ground idle and thereafter decreases
a. decreases as an aircraft climbs and thereby reduces the rate of decline of the
engine power output
b. increases as an aircraft climbs and thereby reduces the engine power output
c. is affected by the power lever position
d. decreases as an aircraft descends and thereby improves the engine power
output
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Questions
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8. When the spark ignites the mixture:
2
b. the mixture changes from rich to weak forward of the flame front
c. complete combustion occurs within 8 to 10 microseconds
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d. temperature and pressure increase within the cylinder
11. The degrees of rotation to complete a full cycle on a nine cylinder engine will be:
a. 180
b. 360
c. 720
d. 80
12. The firing interval of a six cylinder horizontally opposed engine will be:
a. 180
b. 120
c. 60
d. 360
13. Which of the following statements would be correct for a double banked radial
engine?
14. On a four cylinder engine with a total volume of 9600 cc, bore area of 100 cm2 and
a crank throw of 10 cm, what would the Compression Ratio be?
a. 7:1
b. 8:1
c. 24:1
d. 6:1
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2 Questions
15. With an increase in outside air temperature, specific fuel consumption will:
a. increase
2
b. decrease
c. stay the same
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d. stay the same for all temperatures up to and including 15°C and thereafter
increase
a. a constant pressure
b. a constant temperature
c. a constant volume
d. a constant velocity
19. From Top Dead Centre (TDC) to Bottom Dead Centre (BDC) on the practical power
stroke:
a. the temperature of the gases rises for a short time then decreases
b. the pressure of the gases remains constant
c. the temperature of the gases decreases from TDC to BDC
d. the density of the gas remains constant
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Questions
2
22. Ideally, maximum pressure is attained within the cylinder:
2
b. at the end of the compression stroke
c. during the period of valve overlap
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d. when combustion temperature is at a minimum
a. the action of the exhaust gases flowing past the exhaust valve increases the
pressure within the cylinder
b. the temperature of the exhaust gases increases the mass of incoming mixture
c. the action of the exhaust gases flowing out past the exhaust valve tends to
reduce the pressure in the cylinder
d. the crankshaft is moving past Bottom Dead Centre
25. The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:
Engine Components
26. Valve Overlap is:
a. the number of degrees of camshaft rotation during which the inlet and
exhaust valves are open at the same time
b. the number of degrees of crankshaft movement during which the inlet and
exhaust valves are open at the same time
c. the distance the piston travels while the inlet valve remains open after BDC
d. the number of degrees of crankshaft rotation during which the inlet and
exhaust valves are open at the same time around BDC
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2 Questions
28. Excessive blue smoke from the exhaust of an engine that has been warmed up to
normal operating temperature may indicate that:
2
a. oil filter
b. spark plug
c. carburretor
d. oil pump
32. If the Starter Engaged Light remains on after engine start, you should:
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Questions
2
36. Valve lead occurs when:
2
b. the exhaust valve opens before the inlet valve
c. the exhaust valve opens before top dead centre
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d. the inlet valve opens before top dead centre and the exhaust valve opens
before bottom dead centre
40. The number of revolutions required to complete the induction and compression
stroke in a six cylinder four-stroke engine is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 6
d. 4
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2 Questions
a. are opened directly by the action of push rods which are in turn operated by
cams on the crankshaft
b. are less affected by the heat of combustion than the inlet valves
c. are opened by the valve springs and closed by the rocker gear
d. sometimes have their stems partly filled with sodium to assist cooling
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Questions
2
50. An engine has a total volume of 2100 cm3 and a swept volume of 1800 cm3. Its
compression ratio is:
2
a. 7:6
b. 6:1
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c. 7:1
d. 6:7
a. the ratio of the volume of the mixture drawn into the cylinder during normal
engine working, to the volume of the mixture which would be required to fill
the cylinder under normal temperatures and pressures
b. the ratio of the volume of air and the volume of fuel drawn into the cylinder
c. the ratio of the volume of one of the cylinders to the volume of all of the
cylinders in the engine
d. the efficiency with which the air and fuel mix together in the cylinder
52. The ratio of the power produced by an engine to the power available in the fuel is
known as the:
a. is the inability of the internal combustion engine to use any fuel other than
that specified by the manufacturer
b. becomes greater as the efficiency of the engine improves
c. is the weight of fuel used by an engine per unit horsepower per unit time
d. increases in proportion to the thermal efficiency
a. valve overlap
b. the use of carburettor heat
c. weakening the mixture
d. to make the mixture richer
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2 Answers
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2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
b c d b a c a d a b c b
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13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
c d a c b d a b c a d c
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
d b a c d c b a c d d d
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
a c b a d b c d b a d b
49 50 51 52 53 54 55
b c a d c b a
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3
Questions
1. From the following list select the correct combination of statements.
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1. reduce friction
2. cool the engine
3. clean the engine
4. reduce component wear
5. act as a hydraulic medium
a. 1 and 3.
b. 2 and 5.
c. 1 and 4.
d. 1 and 5.
2. In a piston engine dry sump oil system, the oil temperature and pressure are
sensed:
6. The most probably cause of small fluctuations in the oil pressure would be:
a. lack of oil.
b. the pressure relief valve sticking.
c. air in the oil tank.
d. the scavenge pump working at a greater capacity than the pressure pump.
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3 Questions
d. anti-surge action.
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10. The oil contents of a piston engine (wet sump) are checked:
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3 Answers
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c b d d c b a d d c
3
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4 Questions
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1. The most efficient method for cooling a piston engine is to use ....................
However, the most common method of cooling is to use ................. because of the
................ involved.
a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 90%
d. 30%
4. In a four cylinder in-line engine air-cooled, (No. 1, 2, 3, 4 from the front) the coolest
cylinder while running will be:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
a. thermometer
b. barometer
c. thermocouple
d. thermostat
6. The temperature measuring device fitted in a four cylinder inline engine, (No. 1, 2,
3, 4 from the front), would normally be fitted to which cylinder?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
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4 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6
b b d a c d
4
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Questions
5
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1. The spark appears at the plug electrodes when:
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2. The ignition switch is fitted in:
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a. the primary coil circuit
b. the secondary coil circuit
c. the engine starter motor circuit
d. the battery circuit
a. to assist in the rapid collapse of the primary current and prevent arcing at the
contact breaker points
b. to prevent the rapid collapse of the primary circuit and arcing at the points
c. to reduce the high tension voltage of the secondary circuit
d. to earth the primary circuit
a. a power check
b. slow running
c. cruising rpm
d. full throttle
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5 Questions
a. advanced
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b. retarded
c. not altered
d. only retarded
a. a leaf spring
b. a coil spring to increase temporarily the speed of rotation of the magneto
c. a special starting battery which provides a sudden impulse of electricity to the
plugs
d. an explosive inserted in a special tube
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5 Answers
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b a d a b c a a a b
5
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6 Questions
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1. If the specific gravity of a fuel is known to be 0.7, 100 imperial gallons of it will
weigh:
a. 700 lb
b. 70 lb
c. 7000 lb
d. 7100 lb
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a. DTD. 585/100
b. DERD 2479
c. AVGAS 100
d. DERD 2484
a. same same
b. same different
c. different same
d. different different
a. the use of too high an rpm with too little manifold pressure
b. the use of the wrong grade of oil
c. the cylinder temperatures and pressures being too low
d. excessive combustion temperatures and pressures
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8. The octane rating of a particular grade of fuel is given as 100/130, this indicates
that:
a. it will act as both 100 octane and 130 octane fuel at take-off power settings
b. with a rich mixture it will act as 100 octanes, and with a weak mixture it will
act as 130 octanes
c. its anti-knock qualities are identical to iso-octane
d. with a weak mixture it will act as 100 octane, and with a rich mixture it will act
as a 130 octane fuel
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a. decrease its octane rating
b. decrease the risk of detonation
c. increase its calorific value
d. increase its specific gravity
10. If the vent pipe of an aircraft’s fuel tank becomes blocked, it will cause:
a. 12 V DC
b. 115 V AC
c. 28 V DC
d. A thermocouple which generates its own voltage.
14. Flame Rate is the term used to describe the speed at which:
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6 Questions
a. green
b. blue
c. red
d. straw yellow
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6 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a c d c b d b d b a b c
13 14 15 16
d a b b
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1. Weakening the mixture below the best fuel/air ratio will cause the engine power
to:
a. decrease
b. increase initially, but decrease below take off power
c. increase
d. be unaffected by altitude increase
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a. weak
b. the chemically correct state
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c. between rich and weak
d. rich
a. chemically correct
b. extravagant
c. rich
d. weak
6. While weakening the mixture from the chemically correct mixture the EGT will
.......... and the cylinder head temperature will .......... with a .......... in thermal
efficiency.
7. Which of the following mixtures theoretically would produce the maximum rpm?
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7 Questions
a. Take-off
b. Climbing
c. Engine starting
d. Cruising
cylinder
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10. While using a rich mixture which of the following would be a correct statement?
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a a c a b b d d d c
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1. The pressure in the induction manifold of a normally aspirated engine:
a. assist in the atomization of the fuel before it leaves the discharge nozzle
b. prevent a rich cut when the throttle lever is advanced rapidly
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c. prevent dissociation and detonation
d. prevent a weak cut when the throttle lever is advanced rapidly
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3. The fuel flow to a piston engine will vary according to:
a. control the mixture strength over part of the engine speed range
b. vent air from the float chamber
c. emulsify the fuel during engine acceleration
d. enable adjustment of the engine slow running speed
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8 Questions
8. The presence of an engine driven fuel pump on an engine fitted with a carburettor:
10. A typical air/fuel ratio for normal engine operation would be:
12. The mixture supplied by the carburettor to the engine is said to be weak when:
13. In an attempt to maintain the correct air/fuel ratio while climbing into the
decreased density air of higher altitude:
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8
15. A rich mixture is supplied to the cylinders at take-off and climb:
17. The correct air/fuel ratio for an engine running at idle is:
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a. weak
b. chemically correct
c. 16:1
d. rich
18. The method of priming an engine not fitted with a priming pump is to:
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8 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d d b a b c a c a d a b
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
c d b c d c a a
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10
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1. The engine driven fuel pump supplies:
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a. automatic.
b. operated by a pneumatic plunger system.
c. hydro-pneumatically operated.
d. necessary.
a. continuously into the inlet manifold as close to the inlet valve as possible.
b. into the inlet manifold when the inlet valve opens.
c. into the combustion chamber during the compression stroke.
d. continuously into the combustion chamber during the induction stroke.
6. The Fuel Control Unit meters fuel to the discharge nozzles in proportion to:
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10 Questions
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10 Answers
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b c d a a c d b c b a
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11 Questions
Questions
1. The Manifold Pressure Gauge fitted to a supercharged engine measures:
5. The power increase that occurs with initial increase in altitude when an engine has
an internal supercharger fitted, is due to:
a. the height at which the boost pressure ceases to be effective with a specific
rpm set
b. a comparison between the boost pressure at sea level and that at a given
altitude
c. the maximum altitude at which Rated Boost can be maintained with Rated
rpm set
d. the altitude at which the wastegate becomes fully shut
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8. The turbocharger wastegate is spring loaded towards:
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a suitable throttle position will give the same boost gauge reading when the
engine is running
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d. the difference between the induction manifold pressure and the exhaust
manifold pressure
11. The automatic boost pressure control capsules are made sensitive to:
a. atmospheric pressure
b. carburettor inlet pressure
c. boost pressure
d. cabin pressure differential
12. In order to maintain a constant boost pressure with increasing altitude, the ABC:
a. inlet manifold pressure in pounds per square inch above or below standard
mean sea level pressure
b. absolute pressure in the inlet manifold measured in inches of mercury
c. absolute pressure in the inlet manifold measured in millibars
d. inlet manifold pressure in pounds per square inch above or below atmospheric
pressure
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a. at the tip and passes across the impeller blades to exit at the eye
b. at the diffuser and exits at the impeller
c. at the eye and passes across the diffuser blades before exiting at the impeller
tip
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d. at the eye and passes across the impeller blades to exit at the tip
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20. With a turbocharger installed on the engine, its exhaust back pressure:
22. With an increase of compressor discharge pressure the fuel flow will:
a. increase
b. remain constant
c. decrease
d. increase, but only in proportion to altitude increase
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23. A turbocharger’s rotational speed is determined by:
24. During take-off from a sea level airfield with ISA conditions, the position of the
wastegate of a turbocharged engine is:
a. fully open
b. almost fully open
c. controlled by the throttle position
d. fully closed
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d. unrestricted
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26. The primary purpose of a supercharger is to:
a. AVTUR
b. AVGAS
c. AVTAG
d. AVPIN
a. partially open
b. fully open
c. closed
d. half open
29. When the air or the mixture passes through the diffuser shroud, the energy
conversion is from:
a. kinetic to pressure
b. heat to potential
c. mechanical to heat
d. potential to kinetic
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30. The construction of a turbocharger ensures that the turbine and the compressor:
33. The response of a turbocharged engine to rapid throttle opening, when compared
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a. is initially better, but exhaust back pressure will cause a flat spot
b. is always better
c. is worse
d. is identical
34. With a constant manifold pressure set during the climb, the power output from an
internally supercharged engine:
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. is unaffected by altitude change
36. If the wastegate of a turbocharged engine seizes in the climb before critical
altitude has been reached:
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37. To prevent large acceleration loads on the compressor and the drive shaft of an
internal supercharger, it is usual to:
38. The rotational speed of the turbocharger of an engine which is at full throttle at
low altitude is:
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pressure
b. the wastegate to open
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c. the wastegate to progressively close
d. the diffuser rotational speed to increase
a. an altitude-boosted turbocharger
b. a turbosupercharger
c. an internal supercharger
d. a ground boosted turbocharger
42. With the power lever opened for take-off power at sea level, the throttle butterfly
of an engine fitted with an internal supercharger would be:
a. fully open
b. in a choked position
c. partially open
d. fully closed
43. “Static Boost” is the manifold pressure indicated on the boost pressure gauge
when:
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11 Questions
44. The limit of the amount of supercharging that an engine can tolerate is reached
when:
a. an axial compressor
b. a Rootes compressor
c. a centrifugal compressor
d. a reciprocating thrunge compressor
50. The maximum engine brake horsepower with a specified rpm and manifold
pressure set which permits continuous safe operation is termed:
a. maximum power
b. take-off power
c. critical power
d. rated power
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51. The compressor output of a turbocharger unit is:
53. The type of compressor normally fitted to turbochargers and superchargers would
compress the air:
a. axially
b. co-axially
c. in the diffuser only
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d. centrifugally
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54. If the wastegate of a turbocharged engine seizes during the climb, the manifold
pressure will:
a. remain constant
b. decrease
c. increase
d. initially increase and then decrease
55. To maintain the Rated Boost of a supercharged engine while reducing the rpm:
56. The effect of selecting Rated Boost, but less than Rated rpm on the climb, would be
that:
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11 Questions
59. With an increase of compressor discharge pressure, the fuel flow will:
a. decrease
b. remain constant
c. initially increase, but subsequently decrease
d. increase
a. enters through the eye of the impeller and leaves at the periphery
b. enters at the periphery and leaves through the eye
c. enters through the turbine and leaves through the compressor
d. enters through the compressor and leaves through the turbine
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11 Answers
Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a b b c c c a a b c c b
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
a b a d d a b c a a a b
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
d b b c a a c d c b d d
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
b a c b a b a c a c c a
49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c d b b d b a b c b d a
61 62
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a a
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160
12 Questions
Questions - Propellers
1. The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between:
a. the distance it would move forward in one revolution at the blade angle
b. the angle the propeller chord makes to the plane of rotation
c. the distance the propeller actually moves forward in one revolution
d. the angle the propeller chord makes to the relative airflow
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Questions
7. For an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, an increase in rev/min during the take-
off run at full throttle is due to:
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8. An aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller goes into a climb with reduced IAS and
increased rev/min. The propeller:
9. For an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, propeller efficiency will be:
10. The blade angle of a fixed pitch propeller would be set to give the optimum angle:
a. during take-off
b. during the cruise
c. at the maximum level flight speed
d. for landing
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11. Propeller torque results from the forces on the propeller:
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a. caused by the airflow, giving a moment around the propeller’s longitudinal
axis
b. caused by centrifugal effect, giving a moment around the propeller’s
longitudinal axis
c. caused by the airflow, giving a moment around the aircraft’s longitudinal axis
d. caused by centrifugal effect, giving a moment around the aircraft’s
longitudinal axis
a. rotates the engine in the normal direction and gives some thrust
b. rotates the engine in reverse and gives drag
c. rotates the engine in reverse and gives some thrust
d. rotates the engine in the normal direction and gives drag
14. For an aircraft with a right hand propeller the effect of slipstream rotation acting
on the fin will cause: (see Chapter 16, Book 13 Principles of Flight).
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12 Questions
16. The gyroscopic effect of a right hand propeller will give: (see Chapter 16, Book 13
Principles of Flight)
a. the governor weight centrifugal force balances the CSU spring force
b. the CSU spring force balances the oil pressure
c. the governor weight centrifugal force balances the oil pressure
d. the supply of oil to the CSU is shut off
19. If the engine power is increased with the propeller lever set then:
a. the governor weights move out, blade angle decreases, rpm decreases,
weights remain out
b. the governor weights move in, blade angle increases, rpm decreases, weights
move out
c. the governor weights move out, blade angle increases, rpm decreases, weights
move in
d. the governor weights move out, blade angle increases, rpm decreases, weights
move in, blade angle decreases again
20. The purpose of the centrifugal feathering latch on a single acting propeller is to
prevent:
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Questions
12
22. If it is required to increase the rpm of a variable pitch propeller without moving the
power lever, the propeller lever must be moved:
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25. Propeller torque is:
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a. the tendency of the propeller to twist around its longitudinal axis
b. the helical path of the propeller through the air
c. the turning moment produced by the propeller about the axis of the
crankshaft
d. the thrust produced by the propeller
a. at the tip
b. at about 75% of the length
c. at the mid point
d. at the root
a. low rpm
b. decreasing rpm
c. high torque
d. low torque
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12 Questions
29. What happens to the pitch of a variable pitch propeller in order to maintain
constant rpm when (i) IAS is increased and (ii) Power is increased?
(i) (ii)
a. increases decreases
b. decreases increases
c. increases increases
d. decreases decreases
a. to avoid resonance peaks which could lead to fatigue damage to the propeller
b. to avoid excessive propeller noise
c. because the engine does not run efficiently in that rpm range
d. to avoid the possibility of detonation occurring in the engine
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Questions - Piston Engine General Handling
1. What is the preferred direction for aircraft parking prior to start-up?
2. Prior to starting a piston aero-engine (in-line inverted) and after ensuring that the
ignition is “OFF”, which check may have to be carried out?
3. When an engine starts up and the starter key is released, to what position does the
key return?
a. “OFF”
b. “ON”
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c. “BOOSTER”
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d. “BOTH”
4. Immediately an engine has started up, what is the first instrument reading to be
checked?
a. Oil pressure
b. Battery volts
c. Gyro erection
d. Vacuum
5. What would be the likely effect of prolonged running with a weak mixture?
a. Overheating
b. Failure to come up to correct running temperature
c. Carburettor icing
d. High oil pressure
6. Should over-priming cause a fire to start in the engine’s carburettor during starting,
what is the best immediate action?
a. Evacuate the aircraft and make a “flash” call to the airport fire services
b. Shut down the engine. The fire will extinguish itself
c. Keep the engine turning on the starter motor and select “idle cut-off”. The fire
should be drawn through the engine
d. Select weak mixture on the mixture control and rapidly increase rpm
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12 Questions
10. If, during a “Mag. drop” check the engine cuts, what action must be taken?
11. If, during a “Mag. drop” check there is no drop in rpm, what is the most likely
cause?
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12. What are the main reasons to exercise a propeller from fine to coarse pitch after
warm-up?
a. In order that a pilot may practise propeller control technique before take-off
b. To pre-set the feathering signal before take-off, in case of an emergency
c. To check that a full range of control is available at take-off boost
d. To replace the cold oil in the pitch change mechanism and check rpm control
13. At what mixture and carb. heat setting is a take-off normally carried out?
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15. When cruising in a fixed-pitch propeller equipped aircraft, what, from the list
below, would be the symptoms of carburettor icing?
a. 2, 3 and 5
b. 1, 2 and 7
c. 4, 5, 6 and 7
d. 3, 4, 5 and 7
16. What is the main danger from using a weak mixture at a high power setting?
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c. Pre-ignition
d. Detonation
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17. What are the most likely effects on an engine of a low power, high speed descent?
18. What problem is prevented by the use of the correct running down procedure?
20. What are the two main symptoms of an excessively rich mixture?
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Answers - Propellers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d b a a b a c c d b c a
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
d a c d a a c c d c c b
25 26 27 28 29 30
c d d d c a
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Questions
1. When gases pass through a convergent duct their:
2. Select the correct order of best propulsive efficiency, from low to high airspeed.
a. High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio turbojet, Pure turbojet,
Turboprop
b. Low bypass ratio turbojet, Pure turbojet, Turboprop, High bypass ratio
turbojet
c. Pure turbojet, Turboprop, High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio
turbojet
d. Turboprop, High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio turbojet, Pure
turbojet
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b. in the combustion chamber
c. in the jet pipe
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d. at the P1 probe
a. a reduction gear
b. a wastegate
c. the turbine
d. varying the pitch
a. all of the air goes through both the low and high pressure compressors
b. not all the air goes through the high pressure compressor
c. not all the air goes through the low pressure compressor
d. all the air goes through the high pressure compressor
6. Modular construction:
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13 Questions
to the HP compressor
c. the LP turbine is connected to the LP compressor, the HP turbine is connected
to the HP compressor
d. the HP turbine is connected to the LP turbine, the HP compressor is connected
to the LP compressor
a. 5 pounds of air is bypassed for every 10 pounds entering the engine intake
b. 5 pounds of goes through the HP compressor for every 10 pounds that enters
the intake
c. 10 pounds of air goes through the bypass for every 5 pounds that enters the
intake
d. 5 pounds of air is bypassed for every 1 pound that goes through the hot core
of the engine
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15. In a bypass engine, the bypass air:
a. increases the air mass flow and therefore increases the propulsive efficiency
b. cools the combustion chamber and therefore increases the thermal efficiency
c. reduces the air mass flow and therefore increases the propulsive efficiency
d. increases the air mass flow and therefore reduces the propulsive efficiency
a. continuously
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b. once every revolution
c. once every other revolution
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d. only during the start cycle
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13 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
b d a c b d b a a c c d
13 14 15 16 17 18
b b a d d a
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14 Questions
Questions
1. In a high bypass engine with a ‘pitot’ intake, with the engine running and the
brakes on, what will P1 be in relation to P0?
a. Same.
b. Greater.
c. Less.
d. 14.7 psi.
2. A pitot intake forms a ............. duct ............ the fan to ensure that the airflow
............ to ............... and achieves a ...............
3. What effect will severe icing in the intake have on a high bypass engine?
a. The axial velocity of the air will increase with a reduction in the angle of attack
of the airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.
b. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with a reduction in the angle of
attack of the airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.
c. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with an increase in the angle that the
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resultant airflow forms with the compressor blades chord line and a possible
stall.
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d. The axial velocity of the air will increase with an increase in the angle of attack
of the airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.
4. Which of the following would be classed as prudent when carrying out Engine
Ground Runs?
5. With an ‘S’ type intake, if the pilot selects max rpm while standing still, there is a
strong possibility that:
a. the angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will
become too small, which will cause the engine to stall and surge.
b. the angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will
become too small, which will cause the engine to surge then stall.
c. the angle which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades will
become too large, which will cause the engine to stall and surge.
d. the angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will
become too large, which will cause the engine to surge then stall.
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6. The purpose of an air inlet is to provide a relatively ............. supply of air to the
............. of the ............ compressor.
7. In a pitot intake the term ‘Ram Pressure Recovery’ refers to the time when:
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223
14 Answers
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c d c b c a d
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15 Questions
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1. The pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor is:
4. The pressure rise across each stage of an axial flow compressor is:
5. The ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow
compressor are called:
6. As air passes through an axial flow compressor, a pressure rise takes place in:
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15
8. Shrouding of stator blade tips is designed to:
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d. turbulent flow into the combustion chamber
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12. A compressor blade will stall when:
14. Cascade vanes are fitted in which part of the centrifugal compressor?
239
15 Questions
20. The type of compressor used to create radial airflow would be:
a. positive displacement
b. axial
c. centrifugal
d. constant volume
21. Under ideal conditions the pressure rise across a single-stage centrifugal
compressor can be:
a. 1.1 or 1.2 to 1
b. not more than 4 to 1
c. 1.5 to 1
d. 30 to 1
a. dynamically balanced
b. more robust and is easier to manufacture
c. unaffected by turbulence
d. able to handle a larger mass of air than an axial flow compressor
240
Questions
15
23. A compressor stall causes:
a. the vibration level to increase with a decrease in the turbine gas temperature
b. an increase in the turbine gas temperature and the vibration level
c. the rotation of the engine to stop suddenly
d. the airflow through the engine to stop suddenly
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27. Compressor blades increase in size:
a. bleed valves
b. nozzle guide vanes
c. swirl vanes
d. cascade vanes
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15 Questions
30. To prevent compressor stall at the rear of the compressor, bleed valves must be
positioned:
a. compressor turbulence
b. compressor buffet
c. compressor surge
d. compressor seizure
32. One indication that a compressor bleed valve has stuck closed at low rpm is:
37. In a compressor:
242
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15
38. A stall in a gas turbine engine is most likely to occur with:
a. high front
b. high back
c. low back
d. low front
a. is not likely to prove a problem if the aircraft is not flown at low level over the
sea
b. will not decrease the performance of the engine if the fuel sulphur content
does not exceed 0.001%
c. can seriously reduce the efficiency of the engine
d. can be reduced by periodically flying through thunderstorms
15
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243
15 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
b a a d b c b c c a c a
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
d b d c d a b c b b b a
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
d c b a d c c a d a b b
37 38 39 40
d c c d
15
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16 Questions
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1. The ratio of air to kerosene to give the greatest heat release during combustion is:
a. 45:1
b. 130:1
c. 12.5:1
d. 15:1
3. Of the total airflow entering the combustion chamber the percentage that is mixed
with the fuel and burnt is:
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 60%
7. The purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion chamber is to:
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16
8. A relight envelope:
10. The air entering the combustion chamber is divided; a small percentage is used in
combustion, the rest:
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261
16 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d c c a b c a b b d
16
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17
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1. The effect on the temperature and pressure of the gases as they pass across the
turbine is:
4. The blades are usually attached to the turbine disc by a “Fir Tree” root. A tight fit is
ensured during operation:
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5. The main contributory factors which cause creep in turbine blades are:
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a. high temperature and tensile loading.
b. high rpm and torque loading.
c. high rpm and high gas speeds.
d. high temperature and high gas speeds.
a. has a clutch between the compressor and the power output shaft.
b. has no mechanical connection with the other turbine or compressor shafts.
c. has a direct drive with a free wheel unit.
d. comes free with every 2000 gallons of AVTUR.
7. The mixture of impulse and reaction blade shape in the average turbine blade is
such that:
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17 Questions
274
17 Answers
Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c c b a a b a d d c
17
Answers
276
Questions
18
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1. The velocity of the gases in the exhaust unit is held to:
a. straightens the gas flow before it goes into the turbine assembly
b. prevents the hot gases flowing across the rear turbine face
c. increases the velocity of the gases
d. decreases the pressure of the gas
a. increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream
b. decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream
c. to increase the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream
d. to decrease the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream
5. A choked nozzle:
a. decreases thrust
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b. gives additional pressure without the addition of heat
c. has no effect on thrust
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d. implies that no further increase in velocity can be obtained without the
increase of heat
6. The exhaust gases pass to atmosphere via the propelling nozzle which:
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18 Questions
9. The shape of the volume within the jet pipe casing immediately to the rear of the
turbine:
a. add swirl to the gases before they travel down the jet pipe
b. prevent the hot gases flowing across the rear face of the rear turbine bearing
c. allow entry of the bypass air into the exhaust system
d. straighten out any residual whirl in the gas stream
11. An exhaust nozzle is said to be choked when the velocity at the throat is:
a. Mach 0.5
b. below Mach 1
c. at Mach 1
d. above Mach 1
18
Questions
288
18 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
a b a b d a c c d d c
18
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290
19 Questions
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1. A centrifugal breather is used on a gas turbine engine:
4. In the event that damage occurs to the matrix of the fuel-cooled oil cooler:
a. a pressure-maintaining valve ensures that the oil pressure is always higher than
the fuel pressure.
b. the fuel pressure is always kept higher than the oil pressure to ensure that the
fuel will leak into the oil system.
c. a differential pressure switch will illuminate a light in the cockpit.
d. the oil bypass valve will prevent a complete loss of oil pressure.
6. The main bearings in an axial flow gas turbine engine are normally pressurized by:
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19
8. An inter-stage air seal is used where:
10. If engine run down time is short, coupled with high oil consumption, the most
probable cause is:
12. For a pressure relief lubricating system, select the correct statement:
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Any excess flow is returned by a dedicated line to the base of the engine for
scavenging.
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13. If the engine oil pump ceases to function the engine:
a. will continue to operate at a lower rpm because the engine will be able to
suck the oil from the reservoir and be sufficiently lubricated.
b. should be shut down.
c. will be unaffected because the scavenge pumps have a larger operating
capacity than the pressure pumps and will ensure the engine is lubricated
sufficiently.
d. should be monitored for a period of time to record oil temperature.
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19 Questions
a. in the engine.
b. in the return line.
c. after the pressure pump.
d. in the FCOC to ensure oil pressure is always above fuel pressure.
a. the pressure line between the pressure pump and the engine.
b. suction line between the reservoir and the pressure pump.
c. return line between the engine and the scavenge pump.
d. return line after the FCOC.
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19 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
b d b a b c c a d d d c
13 14 15 16 17
b a c c b
19
Answers
306
Questions
20
Questions
1. In a gas turbine engine:
2. In a high bypass engine whose fan max rpm is 20 000 rpm, when turning at 5000
rpm will develop approx.
3 With an increase in altitude which of the following statements are correct for a jet
aircraft with constant engine speed for a fixed throttle setting?
a. 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 1
c. 7, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 5
4. The maximum thrust that a jet engine can develop will be:
a. take-off thrust
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b. go around thrust
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c. max climb thrust
d. max static thrust
5. As temperature ............. air density............. and the mass of air for given engine
speed ............ therefore thrust .............. To maintain the compressor speed however
.............. fuel must be added or the compressor will .............
6. From a standing start with an increase in forward speed jet thrust will:
a. increase
b. stay the same
c. decrease
d. decrease then recover but will never achieve its initial setting
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20 Questions
7. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor while climbing it will
experience:
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20 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
d c a d c d b d c
20
Answers
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1. Use of reverse thrust below the recommended speed may cause:
3. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forward thrust lever must be:
a. only when the reverser doors are fully deployed in the reverse thrust position.
b. when the reverser doors are stowed in the forward thrust position.
c. when the reverser doors are not stowed in the forward thrust position.
d. whenever reverse thrust is selected.
6. Once the blocker doors are fully deployed, with an increase in rpm, which of the
21
following statements would be incorrect?
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a. Forward thrust from the hot gases would increase.
b. Forward thrust from the hot gases would decrease.
c. Reverse thrust from the blocked air would increase.
d. TGT will increase.
331
21 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6
b c a d c b
21
Answers
332
Questions
22
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1. The effect of modifying a gas turbine engine to include one further hydraulic pump
will result in:
2. The drive for fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps is normally taken from the:
a. LP fan
b. intermediate compressor
c. HP spool
d. HP turbine
22
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339
22 Answers
Answers
1 2
a c
22
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340
23 Questions
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1. The low energy ignition system would be used:
4. A gas turbine engine which has both high and low energy ignition systems uses
the high energy system for (i), and the low energy system for (ii):
(i) (ii)
a. engine starting high altitude relighting
b. high altitude relighting take-off from contaminated runways
c. take-off from snowy runways engine start
d. take-off from flooded runways take-off from snowy runways
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23
8. The power supply for the spark in the combustion chamber is:
23
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347
23 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
b a d b c b a d
23
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348
24 Questions
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1. Which of the following statements would be more correct with regard to an APU?
1. Overspeed of compressor
2. Over-temp of lubrication system
3. Turbine over-temp
4. Combustion chamber over-temp
5. Compressor outlet pressure exceeded
6. Low pressure of lubrication system
a. 1, 2, 3 and 6
b. 1, 2, 4 and 6
c. 2, 3, 5 and 6
d. 2, 3, 4 and 6
electrical power
360
Questions
24
7. The advantage of an air starter system is that:
12. After engine start, the engine igniters are normally deactivated by:
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24 Questions
a. the aircraft can roll forward with no further opening of the throttles
b. the speed from which the engine can accelerate to full power within 5 seconds
c. the engine will run independently of external help
d. the speed from which the engine can accelerate to idle without the help of
the starter motor
15. Before opening the high-pressure fuel shut off valve during the engine start:
a. the compressor must be turning at the correct rpm in the right direction
b. the Low Pressure compressor must be stationary
c. the Low Pressure fuel cock must be shut
d. the Low Pressure compressor must be rotating faster than the High Pressure
16. The air supply to operate an air starter usually comes from:
a. an external installation
b. storage bottles carried in the aircraft
c. the auxiliary power unit
d. a cross-bleed start
18. The starter motor is disengaged from the engine start system:
a. 60% N2
b. 60% N1
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c. 30% N2
d. 30% N1
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a. 60% N2 25% N1
b. 25% N2 60% N1
c. 40% N2 30% N1
d. 80% N2 45% N1
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24 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d c a c b d b d d a c b
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b d a c a b c a
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24
364
25 Questions
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1. Water in the fuel tanks is:
a. -38.7°C
b. 38.7°C
c. -40°C
d. -20°C
Questions
25
370
25 Answers
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1 2 3
c a b
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25
372
26 Questions
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1. Fuel is heated from which of the following?
a. prevent waxing.
b. ensure vapour losses are minimized
c. make it more viscous
d. make it easier to flow under all conditions
4. In a fuel-cooled oil cooler the ............ is maintained ............ than the ............
6. The effect of the high pressure compressor outlet pressure exceeding its maximum
value would be:
a. pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU), FCU reduce fuel, reduce rpm
b. pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU), FCU increase fuel, increase
rpm
c. pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU), bleed valve open, bleed off
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386
Questions
26
8. Which of the following is a correct statement?
a. an electrical signal from the thermocouple sent directly to the FCU and fuel
being reduced
b. an electrical signal from the thermocouple amplified then sent directly to the
FCU and fuel flow being reduced
c. pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently throttling
back the engine, therefore reducing fuel
d. pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently increasing
rpm to increase airflow, to increase cooling air, to decrease turbine
temperature
11. Aircraft flying at FL420. If the booster pumps feeding the engine cease to work:
13. On a cold day, the idle speed of a gas turbine engine which has no fuel control unit
compensation:
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a. is unaffected by temperature
b. will increase
c. will decrease
d. will increase by no more than 4%
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26 Answers
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
b a a d b a c a d b b d
13
c
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26
388
27 Questions
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1. An interstage air seal is used where:
5. The efficiency of a bearing chamber oil seal depends on its mechanical design and:
6. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting ‘on’ while maintaining
thrust will:
7. Which of the following ice removal methods does a modern jet aircraft normally
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utilize?
a. Hot air
b. Rubber boots
27
398
Questions
27
8. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting ‘on’ will have what effect?
9. The air obtained from the engine for air conditioning is essentially:
Questions
27
399
27 Answers
Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
a d a c b c a b d
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27
400
Revision Questions
28
Systems Revision Questions
1. The principle of operation of firewire is:
a. Foam
b. Water
c. Dry powder
d. Sand
7. A twin jet aircraft would normally be refuelled by which of the following methods?
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a. Overwing refuelling
b. Suction refuelling
c. Open line refuelling
d. Pressure refuelling
a. gravity
b. fuel is sucked in by the aircraft pumps
c. fuel is pumped in by the fuel truck
d. the VTO system
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28 Revision Questions
1. simple
2. compensates for variations of SG
3. reads fuel quantity by mass
4. compensates for change of aircraft attitude
a. 3&4
b. 2&3
c. 1 only
d. 1&3
404
Revision Questions
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16. A turbosupercharger impeller is driven by:
20. In a bootstrap air conditioning system what is the first thing the air does?
a. Goes through the primary heat exchanger, compressor then secondary heat
exchanger
b. Goes through the compressor, turbine, secondary heat exchanger
c. Goes through the turbine, compressor and secondary heat exchanger
d. Goes through the compressor, secondary heat exchanger, turbine
a. They are in series so that current reduces through the busbar as loads are
switched off
b. They are in parallel so that voltage reduces through the busbar as loads are
switched off
c. They are in parallel so that current reduces through the busbar as loads are
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switched off
d. They are in series so that voltage reduces through the busbar as loads are
switched off
a. Synthetic
b. Mineral
c. Mineral/alcohol
d. Vegetable
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28 Revision Questions
a. foam
b. dry powder
c. CO2
d. water
24. An aircraft is certified to fly higher than 25 000 ft and to carry a maximum of 240
passengers, it is configured to carry 200 and actually has 180 passengers on board.
The minimum number of drop-down oxygen masks provided must be:
a. 180
b. 200
c. 220
d. 240
25. The passenger oxygen drop-down mask stowage doors are released:
a. the air enters the eye tangentially and leaves the periphery axially
b. the air enters the periphery axially and leaves the eye tangentially
c. the air enters the eye radially and leaves the tip tangentially
d. the air enters the impeller axially at the eye and leaves at the periphery
tangentially
27. What happens to pressure, temperature and velocity of the air in the diffuser of a
centrifugal compressor?
29. The flight deck warning on activation of an engine fire detection system is:
a. warning bell
b. gear warning
c. warning light and warning bell
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d. warning light
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Revision Questions
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30. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by:
33. With regard to an air cycle type ECS pack, where is the water separator fitted?
34. In the event that an emergency decent causes the cabin pressure to decrease
below ambient pressure:
36. In a bleed air anti-icing system the areas that are heated are:
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37. On a modern turboprop aircraft the method of anti-icing/de-icing the wings is:
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a. fluid
b. pneumatic boots
c. electrical heater mats
d. hot air bled from the engines
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28 Revision Questions
38. If an aircraft maximum operating altitude is limited by the pressure cabin, this limit
is due to:
39. Long haul aircraft are not used as short haul aircraft because:
1. aluminium/copper base
2. aluminium/magnesium base
3. hard to weld
4. easy to weld
5. good thermal conductivity
6. poor resistance to air corrosion
a. 1, 3 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 4, 5 and 6
a. it is down
b. the amber light is on
c. mechanically locked by an ‘over-centre’ mechanism
d. the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel
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Revision Questions
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45. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons:?
49. If during pressurized flight the outflow valve closes fully due to a fault in the
pressure controller the:
51. The thrust reverser light illuminates on the flight deck annunciator when the:
b. thrust reverser doors have been selected but the doors have not moved
c. thrust reverser doors are locked
d. thrust reverser doors are unlocked
52. In very cold weather the pilot notices slightly higher than normal oil pressure on
start up. This:
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53. If a fuel tank having a capacitive contents gauging system is empty of fuel but has
a quantity of water in it:
54. In a four stroke engine, when the piston is at BDC at the end of the power stroke
the position of the valves is:
Inlet Exhaust
a. closed closed
b. open open
c. open closed
d. closed open
55. What is the effect on EGT and EPR if a bleed valve is opened?
a. Increase, increase
b. Decrease, decrease
c. Decrease, increase
d. Increase, decrease
56. Refer to the following diagram for a modern turbofan engine – where is fuel flow
measured?
d c b a
a. Accessory gearbox
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b. Reduction gearbox
c. At the turbine
d. At the constant speed unit oil pump
a. the angle between the blade chord and the plane of rotation
b. the angle between the relative airflow and the chord
c. dependent upon rpm and TAS
d. the difference between effective pitch and geometric pitch
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Revision Questions
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59. Why is a propeller blade twisted?
1 1 1 1
a. = × ×
RT R1 R2 R3
b. RT = R1 + R2 + R3
c. RT = R1 × R2 × R3
1 1 1 1
d. = + +
RT R1 R2 R3
61. When a fuse operates it is ............. and when a circuit breaker operates it is .............
64. An aircraft which uses DC as the primary source of power, AC for the instruments
may be obtained from:
a. CSDU
b. rectifier
c. inverter
d. TRU
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28 Revision Questions
a. voltage decreases
b. voltage and current decrease
c. current increases because voltage has dropped
d. electrolyte boils
67. The state of charge of an aircraft battery on an aircraft with a voltmeter would be
checked:
a. on load
b. off load
c. with the battery negative terminal disconnected
d. by monitoring the electrolyte resistance
69. If the oil temperature gauge of the CSD is in the red what would action is required?
a. Convert AC to DC
b. Provide field excitation current
c. Provide AC for instruments
d. To supply power to the emergency lights
71. If the load increases on a ‘constant speed AC generator’ what does the voltage
regulator do?
412
Revision Questions
28
73. The characteristics of a Unipole system are:
1. Lighter
2. Easier fault finding
3. More likely to short circuit
4. Less likely to short circuit
5. It is not a single wire system
a. 2, 4 and 5.
b. 1, 2 and 3.
c. 2, 4 and 1.
d. 1, 4 and 5.
a. When an overheat is detected all along the length of both firewire loops
b. When an overheat affects one detector loop at a point anywhere along its
length
c. When an overheat is detected all along the length of one firewire loop
d. When an overheat affects both detector loops at a point anywhere along
their length
77. In an air cycle air conditioning system what is the function of the ground-cooling
fan?
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28 Revision Questions
80. In a gas turbine engine fuel system why is the fuel heater before the filter?
a. To prevent ‘waxing’
b. To help vaporization of the fuel
c. To prevent water in the fuel freezing and blocking the filter
d. To prevent the fuel from freezing and blocking the filter
82. What is the purpose of the torque links in a landing gear leg?
85. In the following diagram the landing gear arrangements shown are:
1. 2. 3. 4.
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1. 2. 3. 4.
a. fork cantilever levered tandem
b. cantilever dual fork tandem
c. cantilever fork half fork dual wheel
d. half fork dual wheel cantilever fork
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Revision Questions
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86. In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system it will allow fuel to be dumped:
87. What does ‘octane rating’ when applied to AVGAS refer to?
88. How are modern passenger jet aircraft fuel tanks pressurized?
a. C1 and C2 only
b. C1 and C3 only
c. C2 and C4 only
d. C3 only
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a. Fuel tank
b. Cabin
c. Tyres
d. Wheel/undercarriage bay
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92. Hydraulic pressure typically used in the system of large transport aircraft is:
94. A gas turbine engine having a single spool, the compressor will rotate:
95. Because of its function an ‘AND’ gate may also be referred to as:
96. What type of hydraulic fluid is used in a modern passenger jet aircraft?
a. Mineral based
b. Phosphate ester based
c. Vegetable based
d. Water based
a. After TDC for starting and then before TDC every 2nd rotation of the
crankshaft
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b. Before TDC for starting and then after TDC every 2nd rotation of the
crankshaft
c. After TDC for starting and then before TDC every rotation of the crankshaft
d. Before TDC for starting and then after TDC every rotation of the crankshaft
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416
Revision Questions
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98. When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot
should select:
a. normal
b. 100%.
c. diluter
d. emergency
99. Which part of the gas turbine engine limits the temperature?
a. Combustion chamber
b. Turbine
c. Compressor
d. Exhaust
100. What makes the non-rigid fittings of compressor and turbine blades rigid when the
engine is running?
a. Spring locks
b. Thrust and drag forces
c. Aerodynamic and centrifugal force
d. Tapered bead seats
101. What ice protection system is used on most modern jet transport aircraft?
a. Liquid
b. Electrical
c. Hot air
d. Pressure operated boots
a. 200 Hz
b. 400 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 50 H
103. When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close?
104. When does the Low Pressure fuel shut off valve close?
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28 Revision Questions
a. there is a mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the
free turbine
b. there is no mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the
free turbine
c. there is a mechanical connection between the compressor and the propeller
shaft
d. air enters via compressor inlet on the turbine
107. If the pressure controller malfunctions during the cruise and the outflow valve
opens what happens to:
109. If the fire handle is pulled in an aeroplane with an AC generator system what
disconnects?
a. the CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself
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b. the pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator
c. the CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature
has reduced
d. the CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
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Revision Questions
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113. A new tyre with wear on the tread and parallel grooves:
114. An emergency exit assisted escape device must be fitted if the door sill height is
above:
a. 8 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel extended
b. 8 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel collapsed
c. 6 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel extended
d. 6 ft with the aircraft on the landing gear with the nosewheel collapsed
115. In a compensated capacitance fuel contents system what happens to a fuel weight
of 8000 lb if its volume increases by 5%?
a. Decreases by 5%
b. Increases by 5%
c. Remains the same
d. Increases by 5% for every degree rise in temperature
117. What is the total volume in the cylinder of a four stroke engine?
118. After the power stroke on a piston engine the poppet valve sequence is:
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28 Revision Questions
120. What happens to the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller as the aircraft
accelerates down the runway?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. Blade angle changes to compensate for forward speed
121. What happens to the AoA of a VP propeller with increasing TAS if the rpm and
throttle levers are not moved?
a. Toilets
b. Toilets and cargo compartments A, B, C, D, E
c. All cargo compartments
d. Toilets and cargo compartments B, C, E
a. Purple
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Pink
126. On what principle does the fuel contents gauging system work on a modern large
aircraft?
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420
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127. What are the advantages of a nicad battery?
1. More compact.
2. Longer shelf life.
3. Even voltage over total range before rapid discharge.
4. Higher voltage than lead acid type.
a. 2, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
128. What would happen if the wastegate of a turbocharged engine seized in the
descent?
130. Why, in the bootstrap system, is the air compressed before it enters the heat
exchanger?
131. What is a ram air turbine (RAT) which drives a hydraulic pump used for?
132. As altitude increases what does the mixture control do to the fuel flow?
a. 0
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b. 0.1
c. 0.5
d. 1.0
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134. What is the purpose of the diluter demand valve in the emergency oxygen system?
138. A 12 volt lead acid battery has a broken connection in a cell, the battery:
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142. The engine fire extinguisher system is activated:
143. An unpressurized aircraft is flying above FL100 and therefore must have sufficient
oxygen for:
a. both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus all passengers after 30
minutes above FL100 but below FL130
b. both pilots only
c. both pilots and all passengers
d. both pilots immediately and the cabin crew plus some passengers after 30
minutes above FL100 but below FL130
144. Aircraft above a certain capacity must carry a crash axe, it is provided to:
146. The requirement for an aircraft to have a fuel dumping system is:
147. At what height is it mandatory for one of the flight deck crew to wear an oxygen
mask?
a. 25 000 ft
b. 32 000 ft
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c. 37 000 ft
d. 41 000 ft
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a. two spool
b. turbo fan
c. free turbine
d. prop fan
151. What prevents an impulse coupling operating at speeds above start speed,
considering that it has flyweights?
a. Electro-magnetic induction
b. Hydraulic clutch
c. Centrifugal force
d. On/off switch
a. Water
b. Dry powder
c. Special fluid
d. Halon
153. In a Bramah press one piston has an area of 0.05 m2 and has a force of 10 N acting
on it. If the area of the second piston is 0.5 m2, what force will it produce?
a. 1N
b. 20 N
c. 25 N
d. 100 N
154. What is the reason for putting the horizontal stabilizer on top of the fin?
a. Wheel rim
b. Cargo bay
c. Fuel tank
d. Oil tank
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424
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156. In a non-stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:
a. skin
b. spars
c. stringers
d. ribs
157. In a stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:
a. airflow
b. airflow, fuel flow and temperature
c. fuel flow
d. airflow and fuel flow
160. The demand valve of a diluter demand oxygen regulator in normal mode operates
when:
a. zero
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b. climb
c. descent
d. reducing pressure
163. The battery in a search and rescue beacon (SARB) should last for:
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a. 72 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 12 hours
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168. The magnetos are switched off and the engine continues to run normally .The
cause of this fault is:
a. a wire from the magneto coming in contact with the metal aircraft skin
b. hotspots existing in cylinder
c. carbon deposits on spark plug
d. grounding wire from magneto being broken
169. An aircraft is to fly at 29 000 ft. When should the oxygen briefing take place?
a. Before 10 000 ft
b. Before 14 000 ft
c. At 20 000 ft
d. Before take-off
171. The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:
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a. 8000 ft
b. 10 000 ft
c. 13 000 ft
d. 14 000 ft
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172. The ‘torsion box’ of a modern aircraft wing structure consists of:
173. A device in a hydraulic system which acts in the same way as a diode in an
electrical circuit is a:
a. restrictor valve
b. sequence valve
c. fuse
d. one way check valve
174. What does three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down?
175. Which is the correct statement regarding a large aircraft fitted with both inboard
and outboard ailerons?
a. The outboard ailerons are used only when the landing gear is selected down
b. The outboard ailerons are used only when the landing gear is retracted
c. The inboard ailerons are used only when the flaps are retracted
d. The inboard ailerons are only used when the flaps are extended
a. Increase lift on down going wing and decrease lift on up going wing
b. Increase drag on up going wing and decrease drag on down going wing
c. Equalize the drag on up going and down going wings
d. Equalize the lift on up going and down going wings
a. To demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function
correctly
b. To protect the windows against bird strike
c. To protect the windows against ice formation
d. To protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation
178. If an aircraft suffers decompression what happens to the indications on a cabin VSI,
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a. A pressure relief valve vents the excess pressure into the atmosphere
b. A bursting disc vents the complete contents of the cylinder(s) to atmosphere
c. A pressure regulator will prevent the excess pressure damaging the system
d. A pressure relief valve vents the excess pressure into the fuselage
181. Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the most practical way to limit this in an aircraft
flown daily is to:
a. A specific amount
b. The captain decides
c. All
d. A specified amount must remain
a. 1.5g
b. 2.5g
c. 3.4g
d. 3.75g
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Compound
d. Induction
a. 28 V DC
b. 28 V AC
c. 115 V DC
d. 200 V AC
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187. What is a relay?
a. Solenoid valve
b. Magnetic switch
c. Converts electrical energy into heat energy
d. Used in starter motor circuit
188. An aircraft is in straight and level flight at a constant cabin altitude when the crew
notice the rate of climb indicator reads –200 ft/min. What will be the sequence of
events?
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429
28 Revision Questions
430
Answers
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Answers to Systems Revision Questions
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d a c b a b d c b d c b
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
d d c b a d b a c a b c
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
c d b a c d d c d c a c
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
b b d a c a b d d b a c
49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b b d c a d d a b a d d
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
c b d c c b a a c c d c
73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84
b c a d d b c c b a d d
85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96
c a b c a d b b c a c b
97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
a d b c c b d a b a c b
109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
a c c d b d c c d c a b
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132
d d a b a c d c a b d c
133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144
a b c d b c d c d c d b
145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156
c c d b c b c d d d a b
157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168
c d c b c b b c b b a d
169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
d a b d d b c c d a b d
Answers
431
28 Revision Questions
a. integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and
convert them into a tensile stress
b. provide sound and thermal insulation
c. perform no structural role
d. withstand shear stresses
a. By using aileron up float and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as
long as possible
b. By having tail mounted engines and using aileron down float
c. Using aileron up float and using the fuel in the wing tanks last
d. By having wing mounted engines and using the wing fuel tanks first
a. trailing edge
b. leading edge
c. outboard leading edge
d. inboard leading edge
6. Which is the correct statement regarding a large aircraft fitted with both inboard
and outboard ailerons?
a. The outboard ailerons are used only when the landing gear is selected down
b. The outboard ailerons are used only when the landing gear is retracted
c. Only the inboard ailerons are used when the flaps are retracted
d. Only the inboard ailerons are used when the flaps are extended
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a. To demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function
correctly
b. To protect the windows against bird strike
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432
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8. Differential ailerons work by:
a. increasing lift on down going wing and decreasing lift on up going wing
b. increasing drag on up going wing and decreasing drag on down going wing
c. equalizing the drag on up going and down going wings
d. equalizing the lift on up going and down going wings
10. Why are two longitudinal trim switches fitted to the control column?
11. On a modern jet transport the hydraulic reservoirs are normally pressurized:
12. A device in a hydraulic system which acts in the same way as a diode in an
electrical circuit is a:
a. restrictor valve
b. sequence valve
c. fuse
d. one way check valve
13. A ram air turbine may be used to provide emergency hydraulic power for:
15. If an aircraft suffers decompression what happens to the indications on a cabin VSI,
cabin altimeter and differential pressure gauge?
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433
28 Revision Questions
16. An aircraft is in straight and level flight at a constant cabin altitude when the crew
notice the rate of climb indicator reads –200 ft/min. What will be the sequence of
events?
17. What is the purpose of the ground cooling fan in a bootstrap air cycle conditioning
system?
18. If the outflow valves failed closed in flight the effect would be:
a. In each tank
b. On the engine
c. They are not required
d. Centre tank only
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23. The areas heated by a bleed air system on a modern jet passenger transport are:
24. The principle upon which the vibrating probe (Rosemount) ice detector is based is:
a. inferential
b. accretion
c. ice removal
d. evaporation
25. Which one of the following ice protection systems can only be used as a de-icing
system?
a. Mechanical
b. Electrical
c. Chemical
d. Thermal
a. 60 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 120 degrees
d. 180 degrees
a. CSDU can be disconnected and not used for the rest of the flight
b. pilot must throttle back the effected engine
c. CSDU can be disconnected and then re-connected when it has cooled down
d. CSDU must be disconnected and the alternator is controlled directly by the
pilot
29. What is disconnected if the fire handle is pulled in an aircraft with an AC generator
system?
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28 Revision Questions
30. A generator that produces 400 Hz at 6000 rpm has how many pole pairs?
a. 12
b. 8
c. 6
d. 4
a. it cannot be used
b. it can be used but the output voltage is reduced by 1/12
c. it can be used but the output voltage and capacity are reduced by 1/12
d. it can be used but the output capacity is reduced by 1/12
a. both battery and earth terminals are connected to the voltage regulators’
shunt field
b. battery positive and generator negative terminals are connected to a/c
structure
c. battery negative terminal is connected to the generator negative terminal
with low resistance cable
d. battery and generator negative terminals are connected to the aircraft
structure
a. poles only
b. poles and rpm
c. rpm only
d. load
35. In an aircraft which uses DC as the primary source of power, AC for the instruments
may be obtained from:
a. a rectifier
b. the AC busbar
c. a TRU
d. an inverter
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a. metric
b. decimetric
c. hectometric
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d. centimetric
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37. What is the wavelength that corresponds to the frequency 121.95 MHz?
a. 246 m
b. 2.46 cm
c. 2.46 m
d. 24.6 m
a. day low
b. day high
c. night low
d. night high
a. In parallel so that the current reduces through the busbar as loads are
switched off
b. In parallel so that the voltage reduces through the busbar as loads are
switched off
c. In series so that the current reduces through the busbar as loads are switched
off
d. In series so that the voltage reduces through the busbar as loads are switched
off
43. If AC generators are connected in parallel the reactive loads are balanced by
adjusting the:
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a. frequency
b. torque of the CSDU
c. energizing current
d. voltage
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28 Revision Questions
a. series with the armature and parallel with the shunt field
b. parallel with the armature and parallel with the shunt field
c. series with the armature and series with the shunt field
d. parallel with the armature and series with the shunt field
45. If the frequency of a series capacitive circuit increases, what happens to the
current?
a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It stays the same
d. It increases or decreases
46. Which is the correct statement(s) with regard to flight crew oxygen requirements
for a pressurized aircraft:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3
1. it is a self-contained system
2. it can be filled from outside the pressure hull
3. the flow of oxygen can be regulated
4. it can be turned off
5. it is relatively light
a. 1 and 5
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
48. An aircraft operating at FL350 must have sufficient supplementary oxygen available
for 100% of passengers for a descent from its maximum certificated operating
altitude to allow a descent to:
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a. 13 000 ft in 30 minutes
b. 15 000 ft in 4 minutes
c. 15 000 ft in 10 minutes
d. 10 000 ft in 4 minutes
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49. The passenger oxygen drop down mask stowage doors are released:
52. High cylinder head temperatures on a piston engine are associated with:
54. When TAS increases the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. decreases and then returns to its original angle
55. From the list select the conditions for highest engine performance:
Revision Questions
1. low temperature
2. low humidity
3. high pressure
4. high temperature
5. high humidity
6. low pressure
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a. 1, 2 and 6
b. 1, 3 and 5
c. 3, 4 and 5
d. 1, 2 and 3
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58. Adjusting the mixture of piston engines as aircraft altitude increases is necessary
to:
a. force by distance
b. work by velocity
c. pressure by moment arm
d. torque by rpm
a. LP turbine
b. IP turbine
c. HP turbine
d. HP compressor through reduction gearing
63. A fixed pitch propeller blade has wash-out from root to tip in order to:
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a. keep the local angle of attack constant along the blade length
b. keep the pitch angle constant along the blade length
c. keep the local angle of attack at its optimum value along the blade length
d. decrease the blade tangential speed from root to tip
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64. The alpha range of a variable pitch propeller is between:
65. With the CSU governor in the underspeed condition, oil will be directed to:
69. The magnetos are switched off and the engine continues to run normally. The
cause of this fault is:
a. a wire from the magneto coming into contact with aircraft metal skin
b. hotspots in the cylinder
c. carbon fouling of the spark plugs
d. grounding wire from the magneto broken
70. The volume of the scavenge pump(s) in an engine lubrication system is greater
than that of the pressure pump(s) in order to:
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71. Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to gas turbine engines to:
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72. The theoretically correct air to fuel ratio for efficient combustion in a gas turbine
under constant speed conditions is:
a. 5:1
b. 15:1
c. 25:1
d. 40:1
73. A gas turbine engine power change is achieved by adjusting the amount of:
74. What happens to the pressure and velocity of the gas stream from root to tip
across the nozzle guide vanes?
76. The effect of climbing at rated rpm but less than rated boost is to:
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28 Answers
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Answers
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Explanations to Practice Systems Examination Paper
9. Book 2
Feel system shown in parallel. Fully powered controls are irreversible servo systems.
This question seems to be getting at the difference in the value of the dielectric i.e. Fuel 2.1,
water 80 something, so if the tank was full of water the value of capacitance would be so high
that the gauge would read full scale.
12. Book 2
15. Book 2
As cabin pressure rapidly falls, cabin altitude increases, cabin vertical speed indicates up and
differential pressure falls.
16. Book 2
As the cabin pressure builds up due to perhaps the outflow valves closing un-commanded,
the differential pressure will increase, the cabin alt will show a descent, and the differential
will increase until max diff is achieved when the safety-valves will open to prevent structural
damage.
30. Book 3
Calculations as follows:
No. of poles rpm
× = Freq
2 60
No. of poles
× 100 = 400
2
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28 Answers
45. Book 3
Calculation as follows:
1
Xc =
2π fc
1
Xc (Ω) =
2π fc
Therefore if frequency increases, it follows:
1
Xc (Ω) = where frequency increases:
2π fc
Xc (Ω) must decrease (Reactance)
Take the value of reactance, and, using Ohms’ law to find the current ( I ), it follows:
V
I= (With R reducing)
R
I (Current) must increase.
Therefore if the Frequency increases in a capacitive circuit, the Current (I), must Increase.
55. Highest engine performance is produced under highest density conditions i.e. those of
lowest temperature, low humidity and highest pressure. There are many references to
this in:
a. Powerplant
b. Principles of flight
c. Aircraft Performance
59. Book 4 From the Power formula P×L×A×N×E Force = Press × Area (P × A)
Power, the Rate of doing Work = (P×L×A×E) where ‘E’ is effective rpm
63. Book 4 Wash-out (or blade-twist) is the name given to the reduction of blade angle from
root to tip.
66. Book 4 It is the air mass passing through the bypass duct (external mass flow) divided by
the air mass passing through the core (internal mass flow) of the engine.
Answers
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