35 đề thi Thử 9+ Mega 2021
35 đề thi Thử 9+ Mega 2021
35 đề thi Thử 9+ Mega 2021
SIÊU LUYỆN ĐỀ 9+
THPT QUỐC GIA TIẾNG ANH
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. She must _______ in the garage when we came. That’s why she didn’t hear the bell.
Question 6. It’s a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She’s very frail. I hope she
_______.
Question 7. _______ from Tim, all the students said they would go camping.
Question 9. No matter how much pressure you put on your husband, he won’t budge a(n) _______.
Question 12. He thinks that I was too friendly _______ the applicants.
A. with B. at C. on D. across
Question 13. How can the boss act _______ nothing had happened?
A. therefore B. so C. if D. as though
Question 14. If you run _______ Tom, give him my best wishes.
A. over B. up C. into D. to
Question 15. I gave the waiter a $100 note and waited for my _______.
Question 18. The manager will reply to all the letters _______ are sent to him.
Question 19. My mother thought that his action was rather out of _______.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Some ethnic groups have strange customs such as walking on fire to prevent natural
disasters.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. My brother tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
Question 23. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 25. Linh is going to hold her birthday party at home this Sunday, so she wants to invite some
of her friends to attend the party.
Linh: "I would like to invite you to my party this Sunday evening.”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
There are many aspects that are involved in taking care of elderly or aged people. Those (26)
_______ have the responsibility of taking care of the aged need to be (27) _______ of the various needs
and requirements that the elderly have. Elderly individuals who live on their own, without the support of
anyone, may have a certain amount of financial needs. Such people need to fend (28) _______
themselves for everything, including food, groceries, medicines etc. Pensioners have the benefit of a
steady source of monthly income. Those who do not have any (29) _______ or other source of income
would have to live entirely on their savings or through special senior citizens’ government financial
schemes or (30) _______ from charitable organisations.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
For recent graduates, internships may become a stepping stone to full-time, paid employment.
Before accepting an offer to work as an intern you should get some information about the company’s
reputation of procuring their interns and decide accordingly. If they usually hire one intern but have tens
of employees working day and night, it is better to look for other companies. The best place to have an
internship position is an organization that gives you an opportunity to gain real work experience and
develop your skills instead of using you as a cheap worker.
Another thing that should be considered is the size of the company. Sometimes bigger and more
established organizations are better as they have a clear hierarchy and therefore it gives you a clear idea
of your position and the job description and most importantly, it will be easier to get a mentor. Startups
with only five employees are usually more flexible in terms of job responsibilities and therefore it makes
it harder to define your position and get mentors.
After you choose a company, do a little research on the company including the people who work
there. You can do a Google search and comb social media such as LinkedIn, Facebook and Twitter to
dig deep about the company’s hiring managers and what they expect from a new employee.
Social media is also very useful to keep in touch with as many people as you can and build your
network. Do not hesitate to maintain any personal connection you have because those connections could
be the first ones who inform you about a new job opening or any vacant positions you can apply for.
If you aim for a dream job, do not overlook an entry-level position just because it offers mediocre
salary. Entry-level employees are more likely to be given room to grow and learn from their mistakes.
They will also be able to figure out the job routines and get used to them when they actually get the
position they have been dreaming about.
As your first few jobs might be very demanding yet less rewarding, remember to have fun and enjoy
your life. Working overtime may not always be a good idea to accelerate your career, especially if you
have to be more stressed than your seniors who earn bigger salaries. Setting the time for exercise and
social life will make your life more balanced and stress free.
Question 31. What should a fresh graduate take into account when finding an internship?
D. Internship salary.
Question 32. Why is a more established organization a better place to work as an intern?
Question 33. What are the recommended media for doing research on the company?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There’s no place in the world quite as famous for its culture as the island kingdom of Great Britain.
With over two thousand years of culture from which to draw, the nation and its people celebrate
weddings with a uniquely elegant sense of poise and class.
A bride’s wedding day is often touted as "the happiest day of her life”, but in all honesty it’s often a
very stressful experience as there are lots of conventions surrounding the whole thing and you can get
caught up in family rows, and trying to please everyone. Still it’s a good test of a couple’s courage.
When the guests arrive for a wedding the ushers’ duty is to hand out the correct books, flowers and
the order of service, and ensure the guests are seated in the correct places. Traditionally, the side on
which people sit depends on whether they are friends or family of the bride or of the groom. The front
rows are generally reserved for close family or friends, with the very first seats reserved for the bridal
party. However, in many ceremonies the bridal party will remain standing at the altar during the
ceremony along with the bride and groom.
During the ceremony the bride and groom make their marriage vows. Marriage vows are promises a
couple makes to each other during a wedding ceremony. In Western culture, these promises have
traditionally included the notions of affection, faithfulness, unconditionality, and permanence.
Most wedding vows are taken from traditional religious ceremonies, but nowadays in the UK many
couples choose touching love poems or lyrics from a love song revised as wedding vows and some
couples even choose to write their own vows, rather than relying on standard ones spoken by the
celebrant.
After the vows have been spoken the couple exchange rings. The wedding ring is placed on the third
finger of the left hand, also called the “ring" finger. The wedding ring is usually a plain gold ring. After
the wedding ceremony, the bride, groom, officiant, and two witnesses generally go off to a side room to
sign the wedding register. Without this the marriage is not legal and a wedding certificate cannot be
issued.
Question 37. According paragraph 2, the couple can get stressed on their wedding day _______.
A. as there are lots of conventions between the bride and the groom.
Question 40. In a British traditional wedding, the places where the guests sit _______.
D. at the altar during the ceremony along with the bride and groom.
Question 41. According the passage, nowadays what can be replaced traditional wedding vows
EXCEPT?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Viet Nam Airlines regrets (A) informing passengers (B) that flight VN 541 to Ho Chi
Minh City is (C) postponed (D) due to bad weather.
Question 44. Mrs. Brown, who (A) was so proud of her new car, (B) drove to work when the accident
(C) happened and (D) damaged her car.
Question 45. Snapping turtles are (A) easily recognized (B) because of the large head, the long tail and
the shell that seems (C) insufficiently (D) to protect the body.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. ‘Tm sorry. I didn’t do my homework." Huyen said to her teacher.
A. Huyen said to her teacher she is sorry because she doesn’t do her homework.
B. Huyen forgets to do her homework and she says sorry to her teacher.
Question 47. However hard Tim tried to win the contest, he didn’t succeed.
A. No matter how hard Tim tried to win the contest, he didn’t succeed.
C. Although Tim tried hard to win the contest but he didn’t succeed.
D. It was hard for Tim to win the contest because he never succeeded.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I went to the supermarket. I wanted to buy food for the whole week.
A. The food for the whole week was not enough so I went to the supermarket.
B. In order to go to the supermarket, I wanted to buy food for the whole week.
D. For the food to be bought for the whole week, I went to the supermarket.
Question 50. Drinking wine is a very bad habit. You had better get rid of it immediately.
A. You should get rid of the habit of drinking wine immediately and you will see how bad it is.
B. Because drinking wine is a very bad habit, you should get rid of it immediately.
C. Stop drinking wine and it will soon become your bad habit.
D. If you stop drinking wine immediately, it will have a bad effect on your health.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. No matter how angry she was, she would never _______ to violence.
Question 6. She refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. She is very _______.
Question 9. Not only _______ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.
A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused
Question 10. In my small house there are two rooms, _______ is used as the living-room.
A. the large one B. the largest one C. the largest of which D. the larger of which
Question 11. Luckily, by the time we got there, the painting _______.
Question 12. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application _______.
Question 15. They are going to have _______ trip to Ha Long Bay next month.
Question 16. It’s not so much her looks I don’t like _______ her inability to listen.
Question 18. Despite being a very good student, she didn’t fulfill her _______ later in life.
Question 19. He was not aware that he had been under _______ since his arrival.
A. review B. consideration C. discussion D. surveillance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. At first, no one believed he was a pilot, but his documents lent colour to his statements.
Question 23. I’m sorry I can’t come to your birthday party this weekend - I’m up to my ears in work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Jenifer: "Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?" - Tim:" _______ ".
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job. B. Yes, you can use it.
Question 25. "Have you been able to reach Tom?” - " _______”
C. Yes. I’ve known him for years. D. No. The line is busy.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Love is one of the most profound emotions known to human beings. There are many kinds of love,
but many people seek its expression in a romantic relationship with a compatible partner (or partners).
For many people, romantic relationships comprise one of the most meaningful aspects of life,
providing a source of deep fulfillment. The need for human connection appears to be (26) _______ - but
the ability to form healthy, loving relationships is learned.
Some evidence suggests that the ability to form a stable relationship starts to form in infancy, in a
child’s earliest experiences with a caregiver who reliably meet the infant’s needs for food, care, warmth,
protection, stimulation, and social contact. Such relationships are not destiny, but they are theorized to
establish deeply ingrained patterns of relating to others.
Failed relationships happen for many reasons, and the failure of a relationship is often a source of
great psychological anguish. Most people have to work consciously to master the skills necessary to
make relationships endure and flourish.
Finding a partner with whom to share a life is a wonderful - yet sometimes difficult - process. (27)
_______ it’s conducted online or in-person, the search will likely push an individual into unfamiliar
settings to encounter potential partners. In order to be successful, it is often necessary to go outside
one’s comfort zone.
Dating is a process by which people spend time with others in order to gradually determine whether
a particular person is suitable (28) _______ a potential mate. Determining whether a connection reflects
(29) _______ infatuation or true love can sometimes be challenging, but research suggests that there are
revealing clues in behavior.
One possibly counterintuitive indicator of a potential match is one’s sense of self. Someone who
would make a good partner may push an individual to discover new activities or beliefs that expand their
self-concept. Another early signifier may be stress: repeatedly interacting with someone (30) _______
impression matters deeply to someone can fuel anxiety.
Other indicators include being highly motivated to see the person and investing a significant amount
of time, emotion, and energy into the budding relationship.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Going to college or university in the United States is very expensive. A year at a prominent four-
year university can cost almost $50,000, and this does not include the extra costs of housing,
transportation, and other living expenses. There are, of course, less expensive options at colleges that
also offer an excellent education. Most four-year colleges cost at least $10,000 per year, and many more
are in the $20,000 to $30,000 range. For families in the United States, paying for the education of their
children has become a major expense. Many families begin saving money from the time their children
are born, and some states offer incentive plans for savings programs.
As expensive as the tuition is, it should be noted that this hardly covers all the cost of providing an
education. Buildings, equipment, and salary costs are increasingly expensive, with advanced technology
adding tremendous costs for laboratories and other specialized facilities. Universities and colleges
constantly seek support from foundations, corporations, and industry, as well as from local, state, or
federal government.
In addition to family funds and savings, there are two main types of funding for college: loans and
grants. Loans are borrowed money that must be paid back, with interest, although the interest rates for
student loans are lower than for some other types of loans. The early years of many workers’ careers are
spent trying to pay back student loans. Grants, including scholarships, are gifts of money that do not
have to be paid back, but students often must fulfill certain obligations, such as maintaining a certain
grade point average or demonstrating family need, in order to qualify. Scholarships are funds that are
earned or competed for, and they may be based on the student’s academic, athletic, or civic performance
or on some other condition that has been met by the student or family. Identifying and accessing these
funds can be confusing, and even disheartening, for families when they encounter the application
forms. Colleges, secondary schools, and other organizations have offices to help students learn about
funding resources.
Tuition is only the beginning of the financial investment required for a U.S. education. Costs
include educational fees - some are paid by everyone each term, others are related to the courses being
taken. Students must also pay for housing; books; other materials; meals; health insurance and health
care; local day-to-day transportation, including parking; and transportation to and from home; telephone
and Internet use; and any other expenses. Normally, international students pay the higher out-of-state
tuition rate at public institutions.
Question 31. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?
D. Financial support from corporations or federal government for education in the United States
C. Students studying at colleges which also offer a good education pay much more money than those
studying at others.
D. fulfill certain obligations such as getting high grades to borrow money for college.
B. Most students in the United States don’t have to borrow money for their study because they are
rich.
D. Students must also pay for housing, transportation or other living expenses.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Matching the influx of foreign immigrants into the larger cities of the United States during the late
nineteenth century was a domestic migration, from towns and farms to cities, within the United States.
The country had been overwhelmingly rural at the beginning of the century, with less than 5 percent of
Americans living in large towns or cities. The proportion of urban population began to grow remarkably
after 1840, increasing from 11 percent that year to 28 percent by 1880 and to 46 percent by 1900. A
country with only 6 cities boasting a population of more than 8,000 in 1800 had become one with 545
such cities in 1900. Of these, 26 had a population of more than 100,000 including 3 that held more than
a million people. Much of the migration producing an urban society came from smaller towns within the
United States, but the combination of new immigrants and old American "settlers" on America’s "urban
frontier" in the late nineteenth century proved extraordinary.
The growth of cities and the process of industrialization fed on each other. The agricultural
revolution stimulated many in the countryside to seek a new life in the city and made it possible for
fewer farmers to feed the large concentrations of people needed to provide a workforce for growing
numbers of factories. Cities also provided ready and convenient markets for the products of industry,
and huge contracts in transportation and construction - as well as the expanded market in consumer
goods - allowed continued growth of the urban sector of the overall economy of the United States.
Technological developments further stimulated the process of urbanization. One example is the
Bessemer converter (an industrial process for manufacturing steel), which provided steel girders for the
construction of skyscrapers. The refining of crude oil into kerosene, and later the development of
electric lighting as well as of the telephone, brought additional comforts to urban areas that were
unavailable to rural Americans and helped attract many of them from the farms into the cities. In every
era the lure of the city included a major psychological element for country people: the bustle and social
interaction of urban life seemed particularly intriguing to those raised in rural isolation.
Question 36. What aspects of the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly
discuss?
A. Technological developments
C. Standards of living
Question 37. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discuss _______.
Question 38. What proportion of population of the United States was urban in 1900?
Question 39. The word "stimulated" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
Question 40. Why does the author mention "electric lighting” and "the telephone” the last paragraph?
A. They contributed to the agricultural revolution
Question 41. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to _______.
Question 42. The word "intriguing" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Many of the population (B) in our country (C) is composed (D) of farmers.
Question 44. (A) The more the relative humidity reading (B) rises, (C) the worst the heat (D) affects us.
Question 45. It is (A) disappointing that (B) almost tourists who (C) come to the country only visit the
(D) same few overcrowded places.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Don’t be so disappointed Mary. You can take the driving test again," said Mark.
A. Mark told Mary to be disappointed and take the driving test again.
B. Mark asked Mary not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test.
C. Mark warned Mary not to be disappointed in order to take the driving test again.
Question 47. It is open to question as to whether my sister, Linda, will get the job.
C. The question is whether my sister, Linda, will get the job or not.
D. If my sister, Linda, could answer the question, she would get the job.
Question 48. My father likes nothing better than playing football in his free time.
D. My father not only likes football but also other sports in his free time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The boy was very bright. He could solve all the math problems quickly.
A. He was such bright boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
B. The boy was very bright that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
C. He was so bright a boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
D. Such bright was the boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
Question 50. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party. She felt so sad.
B. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party, which made her feel sad.
D. She didn’t care about whether he came to her wedding party or not.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. When you ________ your destination, your tour guide will meet you at the airport.
Question 6. The teacher turned up after we ________ for him for over 30 minutes.
Question 7. Mary is bound to notice that broken vase. She has eyes like a________!
Question 10. It came as no surprise to me that Mai sail ________ the final exam.
A. to B. through C. with D. in
Question 11. She ________ live with her grandparents in a small house when she was a child.
Question 12. The boy and the animals ________ she drew were very beautiful.
Question 14. These personal problems seem to be ________ her from her work.
A. disrupting B. disturbing C. distracting D. dispersing
Question 15. He ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only ________ the hot, humid air.
Question 18. I know that she has tried hard; ________ that as it may, her work is just not good enough.
Question 19. No matter what happens Susan never shows her emotions. She always keeps a stiff upper
________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The whole city was wiped out in the bombing raids.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. It seems that the contract was made behind closed doors as no one had any information
about it.
Question 23. He performed all his duties conscientiously. He gave enough care to his work.
Question 24. Nam: "I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Saturday afternoon”.
Question 25. Peter: "Why did Tom leave the party so early?" - Daisy:" ________”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Becoming independent is an essential part of a child’s journey to adulthood. To make this journey
successful, children need freedom to try new things. But they still need your guidance and support too.
Your love and support are essential for your child’s self-esteem. Young people who feel good about
themselves often have more (26) _______ to discover who they are and what they want to do with their
lives.
Try to (27) _______ in to your child’s feelings. It might help to remember that your child could be
confused and upset by the physical, social and emotional changes of adolescence. Your child needs your
emotional guidance and stability during this time.
Clear family rules about behaviour, communication and socialising will help your child understand
where the limits are and what you expect. Rules will also help you be consistent (28) _______ how you
treat your child. Once the rules are in place, apply them consistently.
Your family rules are likely to change as your child develops. As children get more mature, they
can make a bigger contribution to the rules and the consequences for breaking them. Involving your
child in developing rules helps him to understand the principles behind them. Every family has different
rules. You can talk with your child about this and explain that his friends might have different rules, or a
different number of rules.
(29) _______ you set the limits too strictly, your child might not have enough room to grow and try
new experiences. This period is a learning curve for both of you. Be prepared for some trial and error.
Younger teenagers might think they’re ready to make their own decisions, but they often haven’t
developed the (30) _______ skills they need to handle significant responsibilities without your help. It
can be a good idea to explain to your younger child why younger and older children are given different
responsibilities.
(Adapted from: https://raisingchildren.net.au)
C. decisions-making D. making-decisions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Thousands of books have been written on the conflict between parents and teenagers. Psychologists
and sociologists have spent years trying to understand the reasons for the tension and endless arguments
between these two groups.
A close look at these arguments often reveals that the reasons are so trivial that we may wonder
what the tears and shouts have all been about. Most arguments are not about major issues like the
nuclear bomb or the ecological problems of the universe. The fights are usually about simple matters
such as food, clothes, the weekly allowance or the telephone.
Let’s take an ordinary day and examine what happens. Problems start around 7 a.m. It is then that
parents expect their children to get up, get dressed, eat and go to school. Parents and alarm clocks seem
like the enemies of mankind at that early hour. Some parents even expect the "poor" youngsters to tidy
up their room and put everything in its place before leaving for school - a ridiculous demand - in the
eyes of the "victims". In the afternoon, parents want them to do homework and study hard. They resent
their children’s endless conversations on the phone. In the evening, they complain about the clothes and
jewelry the teenagers wear and preach for hours about the dangers on the road and the need to be home
by midnight at the latest, like Cinderella.
Youngsters expect parents to be more flexible; not to preach and lecture but to advise and explain.
They would like them to be tolerant of different views, listen to their problems and respect their privacy.
However, even if they don’t admit it, youngsters need the guidance and support of their parents, their
approval or disapproval and even their firm opposition on crucial subjects such as drugs or alcohol.
They need limits. They need loving but firm authority. In short, youngsters should be more patient and
sensitive to their parents’ feelings and parents must understand that they cannot prevent their children
from making mistakes. Trial and error is, after all, a very important part of the process of growing up.
Question 31. Most arguments between parents and teenagers are about ________.
A. complicated matters B. dating relationships
A. unimportant B. serious
C. necessary D. complex
D. Parents should let their children have freedom to do anything that they like.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
By the turn of the century, the middle-class home in North American had been transformed. "The
flow of industry has passed and left idle the loom in the attic, the soap kettle in the shed". Ellen Richards
wrote in 1908. The urban middle class was now able to buy a wide array of food products and clothing -
baked goods, canned goods, suits, shirts, shoes, and dresses. Not only had household production waned,
but technological improvements were rapidly changing the rest of domestic work. Middle-class homes
had indoor running water and furnaces, run on oil, coal, or gas, that produced hot water. Stoves were
fueled by gas, and delivery services provided ice for refrigerators. Electric power was available for
lamps, sewing machines, irons, and even vacuum cleaners. No domestic task was unaffected.
Commercial laundries, for instance, had been doing the wash for urban families for decades; by the early
1900’s the first electric washing machines were on the market.
One impact of the new household technology was to draw sharp dividing lines between women of
different classes and regions. Technological advances always affected the homes of the wealthy first,
filtering downward into the urban middle class. But women who lived on farms were not yet affected by
household improvements. Throughout the nineteenth century and well into the twentieth, rural homes
lacked running water and electric power. Farm women had to haul large quantities of water into the
house from wells or pumps for every purpose. Doing the family laundry, in large vats heated over
stoves, continued to be a full day’s work, just as canning and preserving continued to be seasonal
necessities. Heat was provided by wood or coal stoves. In addition, rural women continued to produce
most of their families’ clothing. The urban poor, similarly, reaped few benefits from household
improvements. Urban slums such as Chicago’s nineteenth ward often had no sewers, garbage collection,
or gas or electric lines; and tenements lacked both running water and central heating. At the turn of the
century, variations in the nature of women’s domestic work were probably more marked than at any
time before.
Question 37. According to the passage, what kind of fuel was used in a stove in a typical middle-class
household?
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a household convenience in the passage?
Question 39. According to the passage, who were the first beneficiaries of technological advances?
Question 40. The word "reaped" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. gained B. affected C. wanted D. accepted
Question 41. Which of the following best characterizes the passage’s organization ________.
Question 42. Where in the passage does the author discuss conditions in poor urban neighborhoods?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) There are few areas (B) of human experience that (C) have not been (D) writing about.
Question 44. David (A) was a (8) bravery man to go (C) on this adventure by (D) himself.
Question 45. (A) Found in 1209, the University of Cambridge (B) ranks (C) among the world’s (D)
oldest universities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now.
D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
Question 47. It doesn’t make any difference if it rains because they will still go to the cinema.
B. But for the rain, they would have gone to the cinema.
Question 48. I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.
A. I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
B. Hardly had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
C. No sooner had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
D. Scarcely had I put the phone down than the boss rang back.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The test we did yesterday was very long. It was difficult, too.
A. Not only was the test we did yesterday very long but also very difficult.
B. Not only was very long the test we did yesterday but it was also very difficult.
C. The test we did yesterday was not only very long, it was also very difficult.
D. Not only the test we did yesterday was very long but also very difficult.
Question 50. He was suspected to have stolen two cars. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen two cars.
B. Suspecting to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. She is playing music at ________ volume and disturbing all her neighbors.
Question 8. She is always flying ________ the handle about the slightest things.
A. That she passed the exam B. Because she passed the exam
Question 10. You shouldn’t make a(n) _______ decision. Think about it first.
Question 11. People over eighteen are ________ for membership in this club.
Question 12. The girl was ________ from hospital this morning only a week after her operation.
Question 13. His contract ________ in three months, so he’s looking for another job.
Question 16. The economic crisis has brought about a slump ________ the world trade.
A. in B. on C. up D. for
Question 17. That film was so sad that we all were reduced ________ tears at the end.
Question 18. Thanks a lot of lending me your raincoat; it really came in ________.
Question 19. Ben was ________ something under his breath, but his son didn’t catch what he said.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Earthquakes are regarded as one of the most devastating forces known to man.
Question 21. That stunning beach was overrun with tourists so I decided to go back another day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
Question 23. It was apparent from her face that she was really upset.
Daisy:" ________."
Question 25. Hoa: “Tm sorry. I left my laptop home.” - Nam:” ________ “
A. Well. You do? I’m sorry. B. Oh. What a pity for that.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Quan Ho is a Vietnamese style of folk music that is often performed in spring festivals in the north
of Vietnam. Bac Ninh province is (26) _______ to the traditional music which was first recorded in the
13th century and officially recognized as the (27) _______ Cultural Heritage by UNESCO in 2009. It is
characterized by its meaningful lyrics, folk beauty of music and the way it is performed.
There are a large number of Quan Ho melodies. A pair of female singers sing a ‘challenge phrase’
(cau ra) and a pair of male singers sing ‘a matching phrase’ (cau doi), which repeats the melody phrase.
Most of lyrics focus on topics related to love and sentimental desire of young adults. Hardly any form of
cultural activities place men and women (28) _______ an equal basis like Quan Ho; young adults are
free to communicate and (29) _______ their feelings with each other and more importantly, lyrics
convey their high emphasis on genuine feelings rather than money or social status in a romantic
relationship.
Quan Ho seems to be a game instead of a folk music as teams of singers compete with each other
through the match of lyrics and of melodies to bring wonderful performance to audiences. The melodies
as well as the lyrics are so beautiful and rich in poetry that the appearance of instruments sometimes
seems to be abundant; the musical message is sufficient by (30) _______ .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In the modern word, people are always looking for more ways of keeping fit and staying healthy.
The following are some ways to help you become healthy.
Running is excellent exercise. Before you begin running you should warm up first by using slow
movements that make all your muscles work. But be careful! If you stretch when your muscles are cold,
you might hurt yourself. Always wear comfortable clothing and make sure your trainers are in good
shape. If you wear shoes that support your whole foot well, you will put less pressure on your knees.
You should start exercising slowly, at a pace you can keep up for about 15 minutes. Try to exercise on
soft ground, as this will protect your knees and hips from too much stress.
It’s OK if you sometimes go to bed late but if you usually cut down on your sleep, it will soon have
a negative effect on your skin. If you get a good night’s rest, it will do you the world of good. Lack of
sleep can cause acne or dry skin. Make sure that you get a good night’s sleep by going to bed and getting
up at regular times: don’t burn the candle at both ends. During the day, keep active: if you don’t get
enough exercise during the day, you may end up sleepless all night.
Most of us live in big polluted cities. If you got more fresh air, you would look healthier and more
attractive. A brisk walk is one of the best things you can do for circulation and appearance. Walking
slowly is useful but a quick pace gets more oxygen into your lungs. So don’t just go for a pleasant stroll,
try and find an area that doesn’t have much pollution, and get moving!
Many young people feel guilty about eating too much chocolate, and some even say that they are
addicted to it, though there is no evidence to support this. Nevertheless, if your diet is balanced, you
needn’t feel guilty: eating chocolate in moderation is fine - but don’t eat it instead of a proper meal!
Question 33. The writer says that going to bed late ________.
A. has no negative effects on your health B. does harm to your skin
A. walking slowly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Railroads reshaped the North American environment and reoriented North American behavior. "In a
quarter of a century", claimed the Omaha Daily Republican in 1883, "they have made the people of the
United States homogeneous, breaking through the peculiarities and provincialisms which marked
separate and unmingling sections.”
The railroad simultaneously stripped the landscape of the natural resources, made velocity of
transport and economy of scale necessary parts of industrial production, and carried consumer goods to
households; it dispatched immigrants to unsettled places, drew emigrants away from farms and villages
to cities, and sent men and guns to battle. It standardized time and travel, seeking to annihilate distance
and space by allowing movement at any time and in any season or type of weather. In its grand and
impressive terminals and stations, architects recreated historic Roman temples and public baths, French
chateaus and Italian bell towers - edifices that people used as stages for many of everyday life’s high
emotions: meeting and parting, waiting and worrying, planning new starts or coming home.
Passenger terminals, like the luxury express trains that hurled people over spots, spotlight the
romance of railroading. (The twentieth-Century Limited sped between Chicago and New York in twenty
hours by 1915). Equally important to everyday life were the slow freight transport chugging through
industrial zones, the morning and evening commuter locals shuttling back urban terminals, and the
incessant comings and goings that occurred in the classifications, or switching, yards. Moreover, in
addition to its being a transportation pathway equipped with a mammoth physical plant of tracks signals,
crossings, bridges, and junctions, plus telegraph and telephone lines the railroad nurtured factory
complexes, warehouses, and generating stations, forming along its right-of-way what has aptly been
called "the metropolitan corridor" of the American landscape.
C. The railroad’s impact on daily life in the United States in the nineteenth century.
Question 37. It can be inferred from the quote from the Omaha Daily Republican in the first paragraph
that railroads ________.
Question 40. All of the following were true of impressive passenger terminals EXCEPT ________.
Question 41. According to the passage, which type of development lined the area along the
metropolitan corridor ________.
C. industrial D. agricultural
Question 42. The author mentions the Twentieth-Century Limited as an example of ________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) According to a research, (B) many traumatic experiences (C) has been traced to events
(D) during childhood.
Question 44. These dams were (A) used to control flooding, provide water for (B) irrigation, and (C)
generating electricity (D) for the local area.
Question 45. When you talk (A) to the old woman, please remember (B) to speak out (C) as she’s (D)
hard of hearing.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 47. Michael said, "You’d better not lend them any money, Jane.”
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Nam cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. As long as Nam cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
C. Nam cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
D. Not having finished reading the book, Nam will lend it to me.
Question 50. My friend is an efficient engineer. It is hard for him to get a job.
B. That my friend is an efficient engineer makes it hard for him to get a job.
C. Despite the fact that my friend is an efficient engineer, he finds it hard to get a job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. If he _______ hard for the exam last month, he a first-year student now.
Question 8. He can always bank _______ his sister to give him useful advice.
A. of B. for C. at D. on
Question 10. We will have to _______ the decision until Tom gets back from his holiday.
Question 11. I don’t think that TV viewers like that film, _______?
Question 12. My mother decided to give up her job for the _______ of her children.
Question 13. My grandmother’s savings were considerable as she had _______ some money every
week.
Question 14. When I went into dining room later, the _______ of the dinner were still on the table.
Question 15. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for _______ 15 minutes.
A. other B. others C another D. the others
Question 16. You look rather _______. Are you worried about something?
Question 18. I can’t stand my cousin. She’s always blowing her own _______ and telling everyone that
she knows everything.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. People who drive their cars so fast really get up my nose.
Question 21. She was like a cat on a hot tin roof before her driving test.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23. Emissions from the factory are widely suspected of having a detrimental effect on health.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
A. No, the shop is closed in an hour. B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.
C. Yes, it is quite cheap. It costs fifty dollars. D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.
Question 25. David is in Ha Noi City and is asking for directions to the post office.
David: "Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?" - Passer-by:" _______ "
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
A certain relationship cannot exist without communication. A healthy relationship does not exist
without effective communication. (26) _______ effective communication we create the characteristics of
healthy relationships, such as trust, openness, and intimacy. We need effective communication to
resolve conflicts, solve problems, and make decisions that contribute to the strength of a relationship.
While patterns of communication may vary according to our personal style and family and cultural
background, being able to (27) _______ our values, opinions, feelings, and dreams is important in any
meaningful relationship. Everything we know about ourselves and others can only be processed through
some form of communication. Effective communication is a shared responsibility that involves both
sending and receiving messages. Strategies for effective communication involve verbal skills, active
listening, and the ability to resolve problems or issues.
Communication in relationships is one of the most (28) _______ and strategic activities of human
beings. It often takes place at an emotional level as we disclose our likes and dislikes, our opinions and
suggestions, and our wants and needs. This intimate form of communication is best done face to face
when each person is able to use the full range of verbal and non- verbal nuances of communication (29)
_______ a message is delivered clearly and received without misunderstandings. We traditionally
establish our communication skills by observing and imitating others around us. It is, therefore,
important to (30) _______ students with many opportunities to practise effective communication
strategies.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Saving energy means saving money and conserving our natural resources. Homeowners and renters
know this basic fact, but they often don’t know what kinds of adjustments they can make in their homes
and apartments that will result in savings.
For those willing to spend some time and money to reap long-term energy savings, an energy audit
is the way to go. An energy auditor will come into your home and assess its energy efficiency. The
auditor will pinpoint areas of your home that use the most energy and offer solutions to lower your
energy use and costs. Trained energy auditors know what to look for and can locate a variety of flaws
that may be resulting in energy inefficiency, including inadequate insulation, construction flaws, and
uneven heat distribution.
There are quicker and less costly measures that can be taken as well. One way to save money is to
replace incandescent lights with fluorescents. This can result in a savings of more than 50% on your
monthly lighting costs.
When it’s time to replace old appliances, it’s wise to spend a bit more for an energy-efficient model,
and be sure that you are taking advantage of energy-saving settings already on your current refrigerator,
dishwasher, washing machine, or dryer.
Windows provide another opportunity to cut your energy costs. Caulk old windows that might be
leaky to prevent drafts, and choose double-paned windows if you’re building an addition or replacing
old windows.
Most areas of your home or apartment offer opportunities to save energy and money. The results are
significant and are well worth the effort.
Question 31. Which two main organizational schemes can be identified in this passage?
Question 32. Which of the following ideas is NOT included in this passage?
A. You can reduce your $130 monthly lighting costs to $65 by using fluorescent bulbs instead of
incandescent.
C. Your local energy company will send an energy auditor at your request.
A. There are many things a homeowner or renter can do to save energy and money.
C. Homeowners and renters don’t know what they can do to save energy and money.
D. Replacing windows and light bulbs are well worth the effort and cost.
Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following would an energy auditor NOT do?
D. Locate a variety of flaws that may result in energy inefficiency and fix them.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Fungi, of which there are over 100,000 species, including yeasts and other single-celled organisms
as well as the common molds and mushrooms, were formerly classified as members of the plant
kingdom. However, in reality they are very different from plants and today they are placed in a separate
group altogether. The principal reason for this is that none of them possesses chlorophyll, and since
they cannot synthesize their own carbohydrates, they obtain their supplies either from the breakdown of
dead organic matter or from other living organisms. Furthermore the walls of fungal cells are not made
of cellulose, as those of plants are, but of another complex sugar like polymer called chitin, the material
from which the hard outer skeletons of shrimps, spiders, and insects are made. The difference between
the chemical composition of the cell walls of fungi and those of plants is of enormous importance
because it enables the tips of the growing hyphae, the threadlike cells of the fungus, to secrete enzymes
that break down the walls of plant cells without having any effect on those of the fungus itself. It is
these cellulose-destroying enzymes that enable fungi to attack anything made from wood, wood pulp,
cotton, flax, or other plant material.
The destructive power of fungi is impressive. They are a major cause of structural damage to
building timbers, a cause of disease in animals and humans, and one of the greatest causes of
agricultural losses. Entire crops can be wiped out by fungal attacks both before and after harvesting.
Some fungi can grow at +50°C, while others can grow at -5°C, so even food in cold storage may not be
completely safe from them. On the other hand, fungi bring about the decomposition of dead organic
matter, thus enriching the soil and returning carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. They also enter into a
number of mutually beneficial relationships with plants and other organisms. In addition, fungi are the
source of many of the most potent antibiotics used in clinical medicine, including penicillin.
D. They acquire carbohydrates from other organic matter, both living and dead.
Question 39. The passage mentions shrimps, spiders, and insects because their skeletons _______.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Animals and human beings use (A) the energy (B) finding in food (C) to operate their (D)
body.
Question 44. The oxygen in (A) the air we (B) breathe has no (C) tasted, smell, (D) or color. Question
45. Some psychologists believe that (A) those who are encouraged to be independent, (B) responsible
and competent in (C) childhood are (D) likely more than others to become motivated to achieve success.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “True, stop playing with the knife, or else you will get a cut.” said the father.
Question 47. I thought he was the right person for the position, yet it turned out that he was quite
useless.
A. Because I was expecting him to be incompetent, I was shocked to see him perform rather well.
B. I was mistaken about his suitability for the position since he proved rather incompetent.
C. Contrary to my initial impression, he was not totally unsuitable for the position.
D. I was right in thinking that he was totally useless for the job.
Question 48. Susan finds it hard to get on well with her new neighbors.
D. Because of her new neighbors, Susan cannot get on well with everyone.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 50. His living conditions were difficult. However, he studied very well.
B. He studied very well thanks to the fact that he lived in difficult conditions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. hatred B. sacred C. warned D. crooked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. On ________ she had won the first prize, she jumped for joy.
Question 8. My grandmother was a lovely person who ________ pleasure from helping others.
Question 9. ________ of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
Question 11. She is completely deaf. You should ________ allowance for her.
Question 12. Thanh is a friendly girl who ________ everyone she meets.
Question 13. It’s a secret. You ________ let anyone know about it.
Question 15. He blamed ________ me ________ not explaining the lesson ________ the students
carefully.
Question 16. You can ask him anything about computers. He actually has quite a good ________ for
programming.
Question 17. The situation is getting out of ________ We should do something before it turns into a
bitter row.
Question 19. I was glad when he said that his car was ________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. Many immigrants were compelled to assimilate into the dominant culture.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I threw his jacket back in his face, got back in my car, and drove home like a bat out of
hell, screaming the whole way.
Question 23. None of his novels lends itself to being made into a film; they just simply lack a coherent
storyline.
A. inconvenient B. untamable C. inconceivable D. unsuitable for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
A. I have no idea. Can you give a clue? B. Right, be careful with them.
Question 25. Hoa: "Mommy, I’ve passed the final exam with flying colours." Mom:" ________”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The result of Mary’s first term exams came out and when her mother went to collect it, she was (26)
_______ to see Mary’s poor result. On reaching home, she called Mary, scolded her and in the end gave
her some advice regarding her studies. She told Mary to work hard, (27) _______ very carefully to the
teacher and stop wasting her time in useless activities. But Mary turned a deaf ear to her mother’s
advice. Soon she realised that she had lost her (28) _______ in the class. The teachers didn’t think so
well of her now due to her poor marks and some of her good friends, who were also good in studies,
preferred to sit in the class and spend time with those who were good in studies. She realised that life
was not about having fun only; it is about doing something (29) _______ in order to achieve something.
She then started to work hard. Her grades eventually (30) _______ and her teachers were satisfied with
her. Her mother was glad that she had accepted her advice. Mary continued to work hard and she did
very well in her final exams. If she had not accepted her mother’s advice she would not have been
successful.
The first jazz musicians played in New Orleans during the early 1900’s. After 1917, many of the
New Orleans musicians moved to the south side of Chicago, where they continued to play their style of
jazz. Soon Chicago was the new-center for jazz.
Several outstanding musicians emerged as leading jazz artists in Chicago. Daniel Lotus "Satchmo"
Armstrong, born in New Orleans in 1900, was one. Another leading musician was Joseph King Oliver,
who is also credited with having discovered Armstrong, when they were both in New Orleans. While in
Chicago, Oliver asked Armstrong, who was in New Orleans, to join his band. In 1923 King Oliver’s
Creole Jazz Band made the first important set of recordings by a Hot Five and Hot Seven bands under
Louis Armstrong also made recordings of special note.
Although Chicago’s South Side was the main jazz center, some musicians in New York were also
demanding attention in jazz circles. In 1923 Fletcher Henderson already had a ten - piece band that
played jazz. During the early 1930’s, the number of players grew to sixteen. Henderson’s band was
considered a leader in what some people have called the Big Band Era. By the 1930’s, big dance bands
were the rage. Large numbers of people went to ballrooms to dance to jazz music played by big bands.
One of the most popular and also a very famous jazz band was the Duke Ellington band. Edward
"Duke” Ellington was born in Washington, D.C., in 1899 and died in New York City in 1974. He
studied the piano as a young boy and later began writing original musical compositions. The first of
Ellington’s European tours came in 1933. He soon received international fame for his talent as a band
leader, composer and arranger. Ten years later, Ellington began giving annual concerts at Carnegie Hall
in New York City. People began to listen to jazz in the same way, that they had always listened to
classical music.
Question 31. It can be inferred from the passage that Louis Armstrong went to Chicago for which of the
following reasons?
C. To play in Joseph Oliver’s band. D. To make recordings with the Hot Five.
Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following Black bands was the first to make a
significant set of jazz recordings?
C. The Red Hot Peppers band D King Oliver’s Creole jazz Band
Question 33. The nickname "Duke" belonged to which of the following bandleaders?
D. Jazz band were better known in, Europe than in the United States.
Question 35. Which of the following cities is NOT mentioned in the passage as a center of jazz?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Any rock that has cooled and solidified from a molten state is an igneous rock. Therefore, if the
Earth began as a superheated sphere in space, all the rocks making up its crust may well have been
igneous and thus the ancestors of all other rocks. Even today, approximately 95 percent of the entire
crust is igneous. Periodically, molten material wells out of the Earth’s interior to invade the surface
layers or to flow onto the surface itself. This material cools into a wide variety of igneous rocks. In the
molten state, it is called magma as it pushes into the crust and lava when it runs out onto the surface.
All magma consists basically of a variety of silicate minerals (high in silicon-oxygen compounds),
but the chemical composition of any given flow may differ radically from that of any other. The
resulting igneous rocks will reflect these differences. Igneous rocks also vary in texture as well as
chemistry. Granite, for instance, is a coarse-grained igneous rock whose individual mineral crystals have
formed to a size easily seen by the naked eye. A slow rate of cooling has allowed the crystals to reach
this size. Normally, slow cooling occurs when the crust is invaded by magma that remains buried well
below the surface. Granite may be found on the surface of the contemporary landscape, but from its
coarse texture we know that it must have formed through slow cooling at a great depth and later been
laid bare by erosion. Igneous rocks with this coarse-grained texture that formed at depth are called
plutonic.
On the other hand, if the same magma flows onto the surface and is quickly cooled by the
atmosphere, the resulting rock will be fine-grained and appear quite different from granite, although the
chemical composition will be identical. This kind of rock is called rhyolite. The most finely grained
igneous rock is volcanic glass or obsidian, which has no crystals. Some researchers believe this is
because of rapid cooling; others believe it is because of a lack of water vapor and other gases in the lava.
The black obsidian cliffs of Yellowstone National Park are the result of a lava flow of basalt running
head on into a glacier. Some of the glacier melted on contact, but suddenly there also appeared a huge
black mass of glassy stone.
Question 36. In the first paragraph, the author mentions that ________.
Question 39. Granite that has been found above ground has been ________.
Question 40. Which of the following is produced when magma cools rapidly?
Question 41. The word "finely" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
Question 42. Which of the following is another name for volcanic glass?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Cool temperatures, shade, (A) moist, and the presence of (B) dead organic material (C)
provide the ideal living (D) conditions for mushrooms.
Question 44. (A) What we know about these diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C)
from spreading easily (D) among the population.
Question 45. The human (A) body (B) relies on (C) certainly nutrients for its (D) survival.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 47. Daisy cooked so many dishes for lunch, but it wasn’t necessary.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. If only I had taken part in the Singing contest. I didn’t do that.
Question 50. You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual.
A. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol.
B. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.
D. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. We are up to our ________ in paperwork and don’t have a bit of free time for entertainment
these days.
Question 9. I think I must have this watch repaired as it ________ over 15 minutes a day.
Question 10. ________ was the coffee that we couldn’t drink it.
Question 12. The school was closed for a month because of the ________ of coronavirus pandemic.
Question 13. My father has left his book at home; he’s always so ________.
Question 14. My brother lives a(n) _______ throw from the airport.
Question 15. When Jenifer ran out of money, she ________ her mother for help.
Question 17. If you need to ________ the teacher’s attention, please raise your hand.
Question 18. No, I didn’t know her phone number, ________ I would have called her.
Question 19. In seeking independence, they do not sacrifice their human ________.
A. mood B. situation C. dignity D. personification
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. When you cross the street, be careful and be on the alert for the bus.
Question 21. Many think social networking can be addictive and time-consuming if users spend most
of their day on useless microblogging or become obsessed with the private lives of other people.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Kurzweil believes that there could be tiny robots called nanobots implanted into our
brains to improve our memory.
Question 23. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the guests as it occurred at the annual
meeting last month.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Lien: "Is it all right if I use your motorbike?" - Hoang:" ________ "
Question 25. Hoa: "Can I try this new camera?" - Seller:" ________ "
A. Sure. But please be careful with it. B. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Books are essential to learning as they (26) _______ unlimited information to the readers. If you
want to know about dogs, you can easily learn about dog behavior, breeds, caring, and various topics
about our canine friends by reading books. You don’t have to go to school just to gather quick
information about a subject. (27) _______ you need to do is grab a book, read, and absorb the contents.
People who are in need of data can acquire them from books. It is not necessary to attend school in
order to get information. A quick scan on books will give you the details, facts, and data that you need
about a topic.
Books are actually one of the best sources of information. One of the main reasons why they are
(28) _______ as top sources of knowledge is because they provide unlimited facts to the readers. If you
do a research, you can definitely find (29) _______ you are looking for from books. This is why we
often turn to books or any reading materials whenever we have a research about a project. Whether you
are a student or a professional, you will definitely gain something new whenever you open a page of a
book.
Before the invention of laptops and iPads, books were known as the ultimate source of information.
Unlike the internet, you can bring any book you want with you anywhere you go. (30) _______ they
don’t take up much space in your bag. You can easily carry them when you go out on a trip or while
traveling to school.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The walnut tree produces wood that is used for countless purposes, and is considered the finest
wood in the world. The wood is easy to work with, yet it is very hard and durable and when it is
polished, it produces a rich, dark luster. It also shrinks and swells less than any other wood, which
makes it especially desirable for fine furniture, flooring, and even gun stocks.
In fact, just about every part of the walnut is unusually hard and strong. The nut of the tree is
encased inside a very hard shell, which itself is enclosed in a leathery outer covering called a husk. It
requires real effort to break through those layers to get at the tasty meat inside.
Yet every part of the walnut is useful to people. The outer husk produces a dark reddish stain that is
hard to remove from the hands of the person who opens the nut, and this pigment is widely used in dyes
and wood stains. The inner shell is used as an abrasive substance to clean jet engines. And the meat of
the nut is extensively used in cooking, ice cream, flavorings-and just eaten raw.
Walnut trees exude a chemical into the soil near their roots which can be poisonous to some trees
and shrubs. Fruit trees, for example, will not survive if planted too close to a walnut. Many other plants,
such as maple trees or ivy, are not affected by the walnut’s presence, and are well-suited to grow in its
vicinity.
Question 33. As used in the passage, the underlined word "abrasive" most nearly means _______.
Question 34. The author of the passage probably believes that ________.
Question 35. As used in the passage, the underlined word "exude" most nearly means ________.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For a century and a half the piano has been one of the most popular solo instruments for Western
music. Unlike string and wind instruments, the piano is completely self- sufficient, as it is able to play
both the melody and its accompanying harmony at the same time. For this reason, it became the favorite
household instrument of the nineteenth century.
The ancestry of the piano can be traced to the early keyboard instruments of the fifteenth and
sixteenth centuries-the spinet, the dulcimer, and the virginal. In the seventeenth century the organ, the
clavichord, and the harpsichord became the chief instruments of the keyboard group, a supremacy they
maintained until the piano supplanted them at the end of the eighteenth century. The clavichord’s tone
was never powerful, nevertheless, because of the variety of tone possible to it many composers found
the clavichord a sympathetic instrument for intimate chamber music. The harpsichord with its bright,
vigorous tone was the favorite instrument for supporting the bass of the small orchestra of the period and
for concert use but the character of the tone could not be varied save by mechanical or structural
devices.
The piano was perfected in the early eighteenth century by a harpsichord maker in Italy (though
musicologists point out several previous instances of the instrument). This instrument was called a piano
e forte (soft Mid loud), to indicate its dynamic versatility; its strings were struck by a recoiling hammer
with a felt-padded head. The wires were much heavier in. the earlier instruments. A series of mechanical
improvements continuing well into the nineteenth century, including the introduction of pedals to sustain
tone or to soften it, the perfection of a metal frame, and steel wire of the finest quality, finally produced
an instrument capable of myriad tonal effects from the most delicate harmonies to an almost orchestral
fullness of sound, from a liquid, singing tone to sharp, percussive brilliance.
Question 37. Which of the following instruments was widely used before the seventeenth century?
Question 40. According to the passage, what deficiency did the harpsichord have?
A. It was fragile B. It lacked variety in tone
Question 41. According to the information in the last paragraph, which of the following improvements
made it possible to lengthen the tone produced by the piano?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Many (A) flowering plants benefits (B) of pollination by (C) adult butterflies (D) and
moths.
Question 44. (A) Ripe fruit is often stored in a place (B) what contains (C) much carbon dioxide so that
the fruit will not decay too (D) rapidly.
Question 45. Weather and (A) geography conditions may (B) determine the type (C) of (D)
transportation used in a region.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “It is you that stole my handbag.” Ms. Hoa said to the young boy.
C. Ms. Hoa told the young boy that it was you that stole her handbag.
Question 47. I’m sure Hoa was very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
A. Hoa must be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
B. Hoa must have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
C. Hoa may be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
D. Hoa could have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
D. If they hadn’t overslept last night, they would catch the bus now.
Question 50. Tim is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. Tim is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. slaughter B. draught C. naughty D. plaudit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. It must be true. She heard it straight from the ________ mouth.
Question 8. Finally, she ________ a new idea for increasing sales figures.
Question 9. All members of his family are ________ aware of the need to obey the family rules.
Question 10. Although he received intensive treatment, there was no ________ improvement in his
condition.
Question 11. More than 80,000 people ________ coronavirus in China in late 2019.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. turn a deaf ear
A. catch sight of B. feel like C. get in touch with D. keep pace with
Question 15. Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ________ to hospital.
Question 16. We are ________ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.
A. to B. with C. at D. under
Question 17. We are going to build a house with a view ________ it.
Question 18. I usually buy my clothes ________. It’s cheaper than going to the dress maker.
Question 19. Lisa went ________ the competition and won the first prize.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. We are tearing down these old houses to build a new office block.
Question 21. It’s no use getting in a stew about it because we cannot do anything now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Her father was arrested for his illicit drug trade in the police raid yesterday.
Question 23. The book is not worth reading. The plot is too dull.
A. simple B. interesting C. complicated D. slow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. "Well, I hope you enjoyed your meal." - " ________”
Question 25. Lisa: “It was very kind of you to help me out, Mark”
A. You can say that again. B. That’s was the least I could do.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Around the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally recognized are
daily being violated, (26) _______ in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for
personal greed and interests. Violations of these rights have (27) _______ new problems in human social
systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all of which have
affected people’s lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries come up with guidelines
for action to (28) _______ the incidences of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity, and
availability of electronic data and systems, computer-related crimes, content related offences and
violations of intellectual property rights. (29) _______ , threats to critical infrastructure and national
interests arising from the use of the internet for criminal and terrorist activities are a growing (30)
_______ .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Book clubs are a great way to meet new friends or keep in touch with old ones, while keeping up on
your reading and participating in lively and intellectually stimulating discussions. If you’re interested in
starting a book club, you should consider the following options and recommendations.
The first thing you’ll need are members. Before recruiting, think carefully about how many people
you want to participate and also what the club’s focus will be. For example, some book clubs focus
exclusively on fiction, others read nonfiction. Some are even more specific, focusing only on a particular
genre such as mysteries, science fiction, or romance. Others have a more flexible and open focus. All of
these possibilities can make for a great club, but it is important to decide on a focus at the outset so the
guidelines will be clear to the group and prospective member.
After setting the basic parameters, recruitment can begin. Notify friends and family, advertise in the
local newspaper, and hang flyers on bulletin boards in local stores, colleges, libraries, and bookstores.
When enough people express interest, schedule a kick-off meeting during which decisions will be made
about specific guidelines that will ensure the club runs smoothly. This meeting will need to establish
where the group will meet (rotating homes or a public venue such as a library or coffee shop); how often
the group will meet, and on what day of the week and at what time; how long the meetings will be; how
books will be chosen and by whom; who will lead the group (if anyone); and whether refreshments will
be served and if so, who will supply them. By the end of this meeting, these guidelines should be set and
a book selection and date for the first official meeting should be finalized.
Planning and running a book club is not without challenges, but when a book club is run effectively,
the experience can be extremely rewarding for everyone involved.
Question 31. According to the passage, when starting a book club, the first thing a person should do is
________.
Question 32. Which of the following would NOT be covered during the book club’s kick-off meeting?
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT something that successful book clubs should do?
C. Have a focus.
Question 35. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage?
B. The social aspect of book clubs is more important than the intellectual.
C. Starting your own book club is better than joining an existing one.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Molting is one of the most involved processes of a bird’s annual life cycle. Notwithstanding
preening and constant care, the marvelously intricate structure of a bird’s feather inevitably wears out.
All adult birds molt their feathers at least once a year, and upon close observation, one can recognize the
frayed, ragged appearance of feathers that are nearing the end of their useful life. Two distinct processes
are involved in molting.
The first step is when the old, worn feather is dropped, or shed. The second is when a new feather
grows in its place. When each feather has been shed and replaced, then the molt can be said to be
complete. This, however, is an abstraction that often does not happen: incomplete, overlapping, and
arrested molts are quite common.
Molt requires that a bird find and process enough protein to rebuild approximately one- third of its
body weight. It is not surprising that a bird in heavy molt often seems listless and unwell. But far from
being random, molt is controlled by strong evolutionary forces that have established an optimal time
and duration. Generally, molt occurs at the time of least stress on the bird. Many songbirds, for instance,
molt in late summer, when the hard work of breeding is done but the weather is still warm and food still
plentiful. This is why the woods in late summer often seem so quiet, when compared with the exuberant
choruses of spring.
Molt of the flight feathers is the most highly organized part of the process. Some species, for
example, begin by dropping the outermost primary feathers on each side (to retain balance in the air) and
wait until the replacement feathers are about one-third grown before shedding the next outermost, and so
on. Others always start with the innermost primary feathers and work outward. Yet other species begin
in the middle and work outward on both weeks while the replacement feathers grow.
C. birds shed and replace their feathers D. birds are affected by seasonal changes
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason that songbirds molt in the late
summer?
Question 41. Some birds that are molting maintain balance during flight by ________.
Question 43. In order to (A) do a profit, (B) the new amusement centre needs (C) at least 3000 visitors
(D) a month.
Question 44. Mumps (A) are a very (B) common disease (C) which (D) usually affects children.
Question 45. (A) The lion has (B) long been (C) a symbol of strength, power, and (D) it is very cruel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Did you mean to push her or did it happen by accident?
B. Hardly was the lost girl found than he phoned the police.
C. No sooner had he phoned the police than he found the lost girl.
Question 48. I am not certain, but there may be about ten applicants for the job.
D. I am not sure about who will be chosen because there are about ten applicants for the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The trains began to pull out. Most of them were full of passengers.
A. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the trains.
B. The trains, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out.
C. The trains, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out.
D. The trains, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out.
Question 50. The new coffee shop looks nice. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new coffee shop should improve its appearance.
B. The new coffee shop would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new coffee shop would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new coffee shop does not appear to attract much business.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. If the business was bad, we would have to _______ some of our staff.
A. put down B. lay off C. take on D. hang up
Question 6. The government have tried to _______ the price of petro, but they failed.
Question 7. She came _______ a photo of her husband and a strange woman when she was cleaning the
house.
A. across B. by C. with D. in
Question 8. Students can _______ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of
the lectures.
Question 11. I’ll give you another hour to _______ up your mind.
Question 12. The film was so _______ that many viewers cried.
Question 13. _______ the company, I’d like to thank you for your help.
Question 15. Her talent and experience _______ her to the respect of her colleagues.
Question 16. They were working overtime to cope with a sudden _______ in demand.
Question 17. It can be difficult to teach young children because of their short attention _______.
A. limit B. span C. duration D. time
Question 19. _______ summer I spent in _______ USA was one of _______ best in my life.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. She drives me to the edge because she never stops talking in class.
Question 21. Because the jury had reached a deadlock, the judge called for a retrial.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Sarah’s predominant features, what you first noticed about her, were her stunning black
hair and big, dark eyes.
Question 23. The shop assistant have to break off the conversation to serve a customer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Hoa and Nam are talking about their next exams.
Hoa: "Our final exams will start next Friday. Are you ready?" - Nam:" _______ "
A. I’m half ready. B. God save you. C. Thank you so much. D. Don’t mention it!
Question 25. Minh: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?" - Hoa:" _______."
An important part of building independence is allowing your teenagers to do things for themselves,
(26) _______ their own decisions, and make mistakes. These are natural processes in life and people are
wired to desire autonomy early in life. This need for early independence is designed to prepare
individuals for adulthood. Allowing your children to become independent earlier in life can (27)
_______ rebellion during the later stages of the teenage years. All teenagers have a need to express their
individuality. Teenagers (28) _______ are not allowed to express their individuality are more likely to
revolt. (29) _______ , practicing self-reliance via independence will help eliminate public shyness and
teach your kids to stand up for themselves when needed, including peer (30) _______ . Early choice will
also add confidence and prepare them for decision-making in adulthood.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The term "virus" is derived from the Latin word for poison or slime. It was originally applied to the
noxious stench emanating from swamps that was thought to cause a variety of diseases in the centuries
before microbes were discovered and specifically linked to illness. But it was not until almost the end of
the nineteenth century that a true virus was proven to be the cause of a disease.
The nature of viruses made them impossible to detect for many years even after bacteria had been
discovered and studied. Not only are viruses too small to be seen with a light microscope, they also
cannot be detected through their biological activity, except as it occurs in conjunction with other
organisms. In fact, viruses show no traces of biological activity by themselves. Unlike bacteria, they are
not living agents in the strictest sense. Viruses are very simple pieces of organic material composed only
of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, enclosed in a coat of protein made up of simple structural units.
(Some viruses also contain carbohydrates and lipids.) They are parasites, requiring human, animal, or
plant cells to live. The virus replicates by attaching to a cell and injecting its nucleic acid.’ once inside
the cell, the DNA or RNA that contains the virus’ genetic information takes over the cell’s biological
machinery, and the cell begins to manufacture viral proteins rather than its own.
Question 31. Before microbes were discovered it was believed that some diseases were caused by
_______.
A. germ-carrying insects B. certain strains of bacteria
C. foul odors released from swamps D. slimy creatures living near swamps
Question 32. The word "proven" in the passage is closest meaning to _______.
Question 33. The word "nature" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
Question 34. The author implies that bacteria were investigated earlier than viruses because _______.
C. viruses are extremely poisonous D. viruses are found only in hot climates
Question 35. All of the following may be components of a virus EXCEPT _______.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The Native Americans of northern California were very good at basketry, using the reeds, grasses,
barks, and roots they found around them to fashion articles of all sorts and sizes - not only trays,
containers, and cooking pots, but hats, boats, fish traps, baby carriers, and ceremonial objects.
Of all these experts, none excelled the Pomo - a group who lived on or near the coast during the
1800’s, and whose descendants continue to live in parts of the same region to this day. They made
baskets three feet in diameter and others no bigger than a thimble. The Pomo people were masters of
decoration. Some of their baskets were completely covered with shell pendants; others with feathers that
made the baskets’ surfaces as soft as the breasts of birds. Moreover, the Pomo people made use of more
weaving techniques than did their neighbors. Most groups made all their basketwork by twining - the
twisting of a flexible horizontal material, called a weft, around stiffer vertical strands of material, the
warp. Others depended primarily on coiling - a process in which a continuous coil of stiff material is
held in the desired shape with tight wrapping of flexible strands. Only the Pomo people used both
processes with equal ease and frequency. In addition, they made use of four distinct variations on the
basic twining process, often employing more than one of them in a single article.
Although a wide variety of materials was available, the Pomo people used only a few. The warp
was always made of willow, and the most commonly used weft was sedge root, a woody fiber that could
easily be separated into strands no thicker than a thread. For color, the Pomo people used the bark of
redbud for their twined work and dyed bulrush root for black in coiled work. Though other materials
were sometimes used, these four were the staples in their finest basketry.
If the basketry materials used by the Pomo people were limited, the designs were amazingly varied.
Every Pomo basketmaker knew how to produce from fifteen to twenty distinct patterns that could be
combined in a number of different ways.
Question 37. The Pomo people used each of the following materials to decorate baskets EXCEPT
_______.
Question 38. What is the author’s main point in the second paragraph?
A. The neighbors of the Pomo people tried to improve on the Pomo basket weaving techniques.
B. The Pomo people were the most skilled basket weavers in their region.
C. The Pomo people learned their basket weaving techniques from other Native Americans.
A. tool for separating sedge root B. process used for coloring baskets
C. pliable material woven around the warp D. pattern used to decorate baskets
Question 40. According to the passage, what did the Pomo people use as the warp in their baskets?
Question 42. Which of the following statements about Pomo baskets can be best inferred from the
passage?
A. Baskets produced by other Native Americans were less varied in design than those of the Pomo
people.
C. There were a very limited number of basket-making materials available to the Pomo people.
D. The basket-making production of the Pomo people has increased over the years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The (A) discovery of penicillin in 1928 (B) has not produced antibiotics (C) useful for the
treatment of (D) infectious diseases until 1940.
Question 44. The Mississippi, the (A) longest river in the USA, begins (B) as small (C) clear stream in
(D) northwestern Minnesota.
Question 45. (A) Before the invention of (B) the printing press, books (C) have been all printed (D) by
hand.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. It was so hot on the bus Lucy thought she was going to faint.
B. Lucy thought she was on the point of fainting because it was so hot on the bus.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
C. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
Question 50. "You got an A in English. Congratulations!" Peter said to his classmate.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I read the contract again and again ________ avoiding making spelling mistakes.
Question 6. The life ________ of individuals in developed countries has increased dramatically.
Question 9. He attempted to ________ the painting from the gallery but he was caught.
Question 10. I’m not keen on ________ control of the project to a newcomer.
Question 12. His comments ________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
Question 13. I would sooner you ________ the office phone for personal purpose.
Question 14. As the drug took ________, the patient became quieter.
Question 15. I’ve got a very high opinion ________ your brother.
A. on B. to C. for D. of
Question 18. There are courts for tennis and badminton and the ________.
Question 19. It’s high time you let your ________ down and had some fun!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. You have to be on your toes if you want to win the contest.
Question 21. Lisa is thinking of leaving her present job because her manager is always getting at her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23. In remote areas, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. - "I think we should use public transport to protect the environment."
- “______________”
A. I can’t agree with you more. B. Thanks so much!
Question 25. Son: "Your shirt is terrific. The colour quite suits you." - Huong:" ________ "
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Is organic food safer and more (26) _______ ? This is an important part of the debate.
Many farmers and consumers believe it is. They think agricultural chemicals can cause serious
illnesses like cancer, but there isn’t much evidence proving this is true. However, recent studies have
shown that eating organically-grown produce (27) _______ your chances of developing heart disease.
Many doctors think it’s more important to stop dangerous bacteria from contaminating foods. These
bacteria can contaminate both organic and non-organic fruit and vegetables, and doctors recommend
washing them carefully before eating them. Meat, fish and chicken can also become contaminated, so
washing your hands before handling these foods is also very important. Many doctors also believe we
should reduce the amount of sugar in our diets, and there is a lot of evidence to support this idea. They
recommend carefully checking the list of ingredients on processed food and drinks for all the words that
really mean sugar, like glucose, sucrose and fructose. And they remind us that the aim of most big food
companies is (28) _______ lots of money, even if they damage our health while doing so. This means
processed foods that are called "organic" can also be very (29) _______ if they contain lots of sugar.
Most people agree that naturally grown food tastes better. Is tastier food worth the extra money?
That’s a matter of opinion. Whether organic food is healthier or not is still not clear, (30) _______ more
research is needed. However, consumers of organic food often say "better safe than sorry" when it
comes to what we eat.
We’re always being urged to stay safe online. But in an era where the internet is part of our
everyday lives - for work, fun, study, shopping, even managing finances - it’s not always easy to spot
the dangers. Web safety expert, Amanda Knox, explores some of the issues lurking in cyberspace.
Her first piece of advice is to install software and a firewall to protect your computer from viruses,
hackers and criminals who want to steal your data or financial information. "Think of these as your first
line of defense," says Amanda.
So much for protecting yourself against intruders, but what about other problems? Say you’ve
accidentally deleted an important file or you’ve been at the mercy of a natural disaster. Katy Marsh runs
an online photography business from home and when a fire destroyed part of her house it could easily
have spelled ruin for her business too. "Luckily I keep a regular back-up of my data so it wasn’t a
catastrophe."
Whilst most of us are aware of the need to protect our computers, it seems we’re more lax when it
comes to looking out for ourselves, at least according to a recent web awareness survey. Web safety
specialists say better personal awareness is needed and this is due in part to the rise of ‘Social
Networking’ sites like ‘Bebo’, ‘MySpace’ and ‘Facebook’, which allow us to connect with people
around the world with similar interests and professional backgrounds.
This brings us to other potential pitfalls. Are the people you meet online who they really claim to
be? Can you be sure the person you’re chatting with is in fact a 22-year-old Maths undergraduate from
London and not someone merely masquerading as a student to win your trust?
When networking and joining online communities it’s better to be cautious about the amount of
personal information you share. For example, it isn’t always necessary to use your real name as a
username when registering for a service. You could instead use a pseudonym, or a name that doesn’t
give away your real identity to other users. And is it really important to tell the world details about your
school, college or any local clubs you’re a member of?
If you do experience problems from another user be prepared to report them for misusing the
service. You’ll be doing other users a favour too. And if all else fails, check to see if it is easy to delete
your account and leave the service if you choose to and that you have the option to delete all your
details.
A general rule of thumb is not to post any information about yourself that you would not be happy
for the world to know - not just now but in years to come. This includes photographs of yourself,
particularly embarrassing shots of you at that party which you may later regret! It’s not always easy to
remove information after it’s been posted so you - not to mention your future employer - may have an
unpleasant surprise a few years down the line.
Question 31. The effect of the fire was ________.
Question 32. According to the web awareness survey, our attitude to our personal safety is rather
________.
Question 33. What tip does the writer give for joining an online community?
A. Always use a false name. B. Make sure you are properly registered.
C. Limit the information you give to others. D. Tell other users where you’re studying.
Question 34. The writer says that you should report troublesome users ________.
A. because other people will benefit. B. so you can stop using the service.
C. only if nothing else works. D. if you want to delete your own details.
Question 35. In the final paragraph, the writer advises people ________ not to put photos online.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
TV has transformed politics in the USA by changing the way in which information is disseminated,
by altering political campaigns, and by changing citizen’s patterns of response to politics. By giving
citizens independent access to the candidates, television diminished the role of the political party in the
selection of the major party candidates. By centering politics on the person of the candidate, television
accelerated the citizen’s focus on character rather than issues.
TV has altered the forms of political communication as well. The messages on which most of us
rely are briefer than they once were. The stump speech, a political speech given by traveling politicians
and lasting 3/2 to 2 hours, which characterized nineteenth-century political discourse, has given way to
the 30-second advertisement and the 10 second "sound bite" in broadcast news. Increasingly the
audience for speeches is not that standing in front of the politician but rather the viewing audience who
will hear and see a snippet of the speech on the news.
In these abbreviated forms, much of what constituted the traditional political discourse of earlier
ages has been lost. In 15 or 30 seconds, a speaker cannot establish the historical context that shaped the
issue in question, cannot detail the probable causes of the problem, and cannot examine alternative
proposals to argue that one is preferable to others. In snippets, politicians assert but do not argue.
Because television is an intimate medium, speaking through it require a changed political style that
was more conversational, personal, and visual than that of the old-style stump speech. Reliance on
television means that increasingly our political world contains memorable pictures rather than
memorable words. Schools teach us to analyze words and print. However, in a word in which politics is
increasingly visual, informed citizenship requires a new set of skills.
Recognizing the power of television’s pictures, politicians craft televisual, staged events, called
pseudo-event, designed to attract media coverage. Much of the political activity we see on television
news has been crafted by politicians, their speechwriters, and their public relations advisers for televised
consumption. Sound bites in news and answers to questions in debates increasingly sound like
advertisements.
A. Citizens in the United States are now more informed about political issues because of television
coverage.
B. Citizens in the United States prefer to see politicians on television instead of in person.
C. Politics in the United States has become substantially more controversial since the introduction of
television.
Question 38. It can be inferred that before the introduction of television, political parties ________.
Question 39. The author mentions the "stump speech" in paragraph 2 as an example of ________.
Question 41. According to the passage, as compared with televised speeches, traditional political
discourse was more successful at ________.
Question 42. According to paragraph 5, staged political events are created so that politicians can .
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Research in the USA on acupuncture (B) has focused on (C) their use in (D) pain
relief and anesthesia.
Question 44. A food (A) additive is (B) any chemical that food manufactures (C) intentional add to their
(D) products.
Question 45. Chocolate is prepared by a (A) complexity process of cleaning, (B) blending and roasting
cocoa beans, which (C) must be ground and (D) mixed with sugar.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Don’t forget to do your homework", the teacher told us.
Question 47. Because he came to class late, the teacher punished him.
A. The teacher would have punished him if he had come to class late.
D. The teacher wouldn’t have punished him if he had come to class on time.
Question 48. There is no doubt that Hoa is the best candidate for the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. They found the weather inconvenient. They chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
A. In spite of the inconvenient weather, they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
B. They found the weather inconvenient, yet they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
C. Seeing that the weather was inconvenient, they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
D. They found the weather inconvenient so as to not choose to stay in a hotel for the night.
Question 50. The president failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis. He did not offer any
solutions.
A. Although the president explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.
B. Not only did the president explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.
C. The president offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.
D. The president didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. ________ furniture needs supplying for the schools in the whole country will slow down
the process of the reform of education.
Question 8. I regret to tell you that a rise in salary is ________ just now.
Question 10. If you don’t give up smoking, you’ll ________ the risk of damaging your health.
Question 11. The number of vehicles on the roads ________ increasing, so we need to build more
roads.
Question 13. The fire caused ________ damage that that building had to be destroyed.
Question 14. I can’t tell my daughter what to do; it’s water off ________ with her.
Question 15. We decide to go to the beach ________ we should be disturbed by the noise of the city.
Question 17. When the first child was born, they ________ for three years.
Question 18. The teacher likes her essay because it’s very ________.
A. imagination B. imaginable C. imaginative D. imaginary
Question 19. The Beauty Contest is ________ start at 8:00 a.m our time next Monday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. I’ll back up your ideas if they don’t believe you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. They conducted a campaign to promote people’s awareness of environmental problems.
Question 23. Sally has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the
world; she must be on cloud nine now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mai: "Would you mind lending me your bike?" - Lan:" ________ "
Question 25. Kelly: "It’s was very kind of you to give me a lift home". - Mark:" ________."
B. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house any way.
D. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house any way.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The (26) _______ American watches television for more than four hours a day. A recent study
found that children 6 months to 6 years old spend on average 2 hours a day watching television, using a
computer or playing a video game. That is three times as long as they spend reading or being read to.
Television makes children violent and aggressive. (27) _______ to the National Institute of Mental
Health, there is a consensus developing among members of the research community that violence on
television does (28) _______ to aggressive behaviour by children and teenagers who watch the
programs.
Television discourages face-to-face interaction among children or families. Sitting (29) _______ in
front of the television leads to weight gain, increasing the chances of diabetes in children and heart
disease in adults. Television programs model undesirable behaviour such as drug and alcohol use or (30)
_______ relationships. Research indicates that students may be less able to engage in formal
descriptions of events or objects than their peers in the past.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Jacques-Yves Cousteau was an explorer, ecologist, filmmaker, inventor and conservationist. He was
a man, who spent nearly his whole life underwater exploring the hidden depths of the ocean and who did
more to educate the world about the mysteries of the deep sea than any other scientist before or since.
He was born in June, 1910 in the village of Saint-André-de- Cubzac, in south western France. Jacques
was a sickly boy and spent much of his time in bed, reading books and dreaming about a life at sea. In
1920, Jacques’ family moved to New York and he was encouraged to start swimming to build up his
strength. This was the beginning of his fascination with water and the more he learnt through his own
experiences, the more passionate he became about "looking through nature’s keyhole”. Nevertheless, his
career in underwater exploration came about by accident. After entering France’s naval academy and
travelling around the world, he was involved in an almost fatal car accident that left him seriously
injured with two broken arms. He began swimming in the Mediterranean Sea to strengthen his arm
muscles as part of his recovery process and rediscovered his love of the ocean. Cousteau developed a
pair of underwater breathing apparatus to allow him to stay underwater for long periods of time. His
experiments led to the development of the first Aqua- Lung which was a great commercial success.
During World War II, he worked for the French Resistance and experimented with underwater
photographic equipment. He helped to get rid of German mines and was awarded the Legion D’Honneur
and the Croix de Guerre medals for his bravery. In 1942, he filmed his first underwater film Sixty Feet
Down. It was 18 minutes long and was entered in the Cannes Film Festival.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The geology of the Earth’s surface is dominated by the particular properties of water. Present on
Earth in solid, liquid, and gaseous states, water is exceptionally reactive. It dissolves, transports, and
precipitates many chemical compounds and is constantly modifying the face of the Earth.
Evaporated from the oceans, water vapor forms clouds, some of which are transported by wind over
the continents. Condensation from the clouds provides the essential agent of continental erosion: rain.
Precipitated onto the ground, the water trickles down to form brooks, streams, and rivers, constituting
what are called the hydrographic network. This immense polarized network channels the water toward
a single receptacle: an ocean. Gravity dominates this entire step in the cycle because water tends to
minimize its potential energy by running from high altitudes toward the reference point, that is, sea
level.
The rate at which a molecule of water passes though the cycle is not random but is a measure of the
relative size of the various reservoirs. If we define residence time as the average time for a water
molecule to pass through one of the three reservoirs - atmosphere, continent, and ocean - we see that the
times are very different. A water molecule stays, on average, eleven days in the atmosphere, one
hundred years on a continent and forty thousand years in the ocean. This last figure shows the
importance of the ocean as the principal reservoir of the hydrosphere but also the rapidity of water
transport on the continents.
A vast chemical separation process takes places during the flow of water over the continents.
Soluble ions such as calcium, sodium, potassium, and some magnesium are dissolved and transported.
Insoluble ions such as aluminum, iron, and silicon stay where they are and form the thin, fertile skin of
soil on which vegetation can grow. Sometimes soils are destroyed and transported mechanically during
flooding. The erosion of the continents thus results from two closely linked and interdependent
processes, chemical erosion and mechanical erosion. Their respective interactions and efficiency depend
on different factors.
Question 37.According to the passage, clouds are primarily formed by water ________.
Question 38. The passage suggests that the purpose of the "hydrographic network" is to ______.
Question 39. What determines the rate at which a molecule of water moves through the cycle, as
discussed in the third paragraph?
Question 41. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________.
Question 42. All of the following are example of soluble ions EXCEPT ________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Intelligence, education, (B) and experience all (C) helps shape (D) management style.
Question 44. He was (A) too exhausted (B) that he (C) couldn’t even stand on (D) his feet. Question
45. I didn’t mean (A) offending him, but he (B) took my comments (C) amiss and now will not talk (D)
to me.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 47. I had no sooner got to know my neighbors than they moved away.
A. Soon after I got to know my new neighbors, I stopped having contact with them.
B. If my new neighbors had stayed longer, I would have got to know them better.
C. Once I had got used to my new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.
D. Hardly had I become acguainted with my new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.
Question 48. He didn’t eat anything but small pieces of bread and butter.
A. He ate small pieces of bread and butter but didn’t like them.
D. He didn’t touch the bread and butter, but he ate other things.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The storm was so great. Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.
A. Although the storm was not great, many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.
B. So great was the storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.
C Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city in spite of the great storm.
D. It was so a great storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.
Question 50. She behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
Mark the fetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Mr. Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his ________. He used to be a taxi driver there
for 10 years.
Question 6. They were extremely tired at the end of the journey because they ________ for more than
24 hours.
A. have travelled B. have been travelling C. had travelled D. had been travelling
Question 7. ________ people are those who share the same interests, or points of view.
Question 11. The film ________ in 1997 is about the wild animals.
Question 12. The house ________ the earthquake but then ________ by a fire.
Question 13. The boy quickly ________ the old woman’s telephone number to memory.
A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted
Question 14. The film would have been perfect ________ the ending.
Question 16. It is not until December 25 ________ the exam results will be announced.
Question 17. Suppose she ________ you stealing, what would you do?
Question 18. The teacher recommended that Linda ________ her essay as soon as possible.
Question 19. The last of these reasons is ________ the most important.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. I don’t like him. There is a sneaky look on his face.
Question 21. It is such a prestigious university that only good students are entitled to a full scholarship
each year.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. full of experience B. lack of responsibility
Question 23. Lan’s replies were inconsistent with her previous testimony.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
A. No, thanks. B. Of course you can. C. I’m afraid not. D. Certainly, sir.
Question 25. Huy was asking Mai, his classmate, for her opinion about the book he had lent her.
Huy: "What do you think about the book?" - Mai:" ________ "
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Most people are born with the natural ability to tell stories, but only a rare few have the
determination to become professional authors, and even fewer have the joy of seeing their novels top the
(26) _______ of bestselling books. Some of the world’s famous crime writers have achieved the greatest
success of all. Who can deny the appeal of famous detectives like Sherlock Holmes, Miss Marple or
Hercule Poirot? Even if you haven’t read the (27) _______ books you will have seen them in films or on
the TV.
If you have an ambition to become the next Agatha Christie what should you do? The best starting
point is to read lots of examples of crime fiction written by good authors. You will need a notebook to
carry around with you or, even better, some loose sheets of paper that you can (28) _______ notes on
and then file into a folder. After all, the most everyday situation - for example, watching a woman get
(29) _______ a train - may be the inspiration for your first bestseller.
Like any good recipe you have to know the main (30) _______ of a successful novel. These are: an
original story, strong characters and a memorable setting.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Notting Hill Carnival takes place in London every August Bank Holiday, and is the most colourful
and largest street event in the UK. The festival celebrates the traditions of the Afro- Caribbean
community, who emigrated to England from the West Indies in the 1950s. They brought with them the
Caribbean idea of the carnival, with colourful costumes, processions, steel bands and street dancing.
Preparations for the carnival start many months in advance. Costumes need to be made, and floats built,
ready for the carnival street procession. Steel bands practise traditional Caribbean music on instruments
built from used oil barrels. Just before the festival, the streets are decorated with yellow, green and red
streamers, and amplifying devices are set in place, to carry the rhythmic sounds over the roar of the
London traffic. The carnival is celebrated over three days, and is full of music and colour. Processions of
steel and brass bands, floats, and dancers in colourful costumes make their way through the narrow
London streets, watched by tens of thousands of people. The streets are lined with stalls selling tropical
fruits, such as fresh mangoes, watermelons and pineapple. Everyone dances - young and old, black and
white - and even the policemen on duty take part in the fun. For these three days in August, a little
Caribbean magic touches the streets of London.
Question 31. What is the writer’s main aim in writing the passage?
B. tens of thousands of people take part in the preparations for the carnival
Question 35. Although the carnival is a celebration of the traditions of black British, ________.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The work of the railroad pioneers in America became the basis for a great surge of railroad building
halfway through the nineteenth century that linked the nation together as never before. Railroads
eventually became the nation’s number one transportation system and remained so until the construction
of the interstate highway system halfway through the twentieth century. They were of crucial
importance in stimulating economic expansion, but their influence reached beyond the economy and
was pervasive in American society at large.
By 1804, English, as well as American inventors, had experimented with steam engines for moving
land vehicles. In 1920, John Stevens ran a locomotive and cars around in a circular track on his New
Jersey estate, which the public saw as an amusing toy. And in 1825, after opening a short length of a
track, the Stockton to Darlington Railroad in England became the first line to carry general traffic.
American business people, especially those in the Atlantic coastal region who looked for better
communication with the West, quickly became interested in the English experiment. The first company
in America to begin actual operations was the Baltimore and Ohio, which opened a thirteen mile length
of track in 1830. It used a team of horses to pull a train of passenger carriages and freight wagons along
the track. Steam locomotive power didn’t come into regular service until two years later.
However, for the first decade or more, there was not yet a true railroad system. Even the longest of
the lines were relatively short in the 1830’s, and most of them served simply to connect water routes to
each other, not to link one railroad to another. Even when two lines did connect, the tracks often differed
in width, so cars from one line couldn’t fit onto tracks of the next line. Schedules were unreliable and
wrecks were frequent. Significantly, however, some important developments during the 1830’s and
1840’s included the introduction of heavier iron rails, more flexible and powerful locomotives, and
passenger cars were redesigned to become more stable, comfortable, and larger. By the end of 1830
only 23 miles of track had been laid in the country. But by 1936, more than 1,000 miles of track had
been laid in eleven States, and within the decade, almost 3,000 miles had been constructed. By that early
age, the United States had already surpassed Great Britain in railroad construction, and particularly
from the mid-1860’s, the late nineteenth century belonged to the railroads.
Question 37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The United States regarded Great Britain as a competitor in developing the most efficient railroad
system
D. Steam locomotives replaced horses because of the distances across the country
Question 38. The author concludes that for the first decade or more, there was not yet a true railroad
system because ________.
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT true about the 1830’s and 1840’s?
Question 40. The word "stable" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
Question 41. By what time had almost 3,000 miles of track been laid?
Question 42. The word "surpassed" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The (A) average salt (B) content of seawater is (C) more than three (D) percents.
Question 44. For many years, people (A) have used some (B) kind of refrigerator (C) cooling beverages
and preserve (D) edibles.
Question 45. My husband is an ambitious person (A) who (B) is committed to (C) improve his status
(D) at work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Friendly though she may seem, she’s not to be trusted.
Question 47. "I will come back early. I really will!". She said.
A. She promised to come back early. B. She reminded me to come back early.
C. She refused to come back early. D. She offered to come back early.
Question 48. The last time I saw David was when I ran into him at the station on my way to New York.
A. I haven’t seen David since a chance meeting with him at the station when I was setting off for
New York.
B. When I last went to New York, I happened to meet David at the station.
C. When I last saw David at the station in New York, I ran after him.
D. I finally saw David at the station when I was on my way to New York.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She did not study hard. She failed the exam.
A. Even though she failed the exam, she didn’t study hard.
B. Unless she had studied hard, she would have failed the exam.
C. If she had studied hard, she would have passed the exam.
Question 50. He raised his hand high. He wanted to attract his teacher’s attention.
C. Though he raised his hand high, he could not attract his teacher’s attention.
D. He had such a high raising of hand that he failed to attract his teacher’s attention.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Prices are increasing dramatically in big cities. The _______ seems to go up every day.
Question 6. Many parents tend to push their children because they believe that good education will
enable them to _______in the future.
Question 7. Whenever I visited her, my grandmother _______my favorite cake for me.
Question 12. After she had had a couple of glasses of champagne _______she started to feel _______.
Question 13. She is a(n) _______ . She finds it difficult to socialize with other students in the class.
Question 14. I had all the information at my _______before attending the meeting.
A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers
Question 15. Rather than _______about how tired she was, she got on with her job.
Question 17. I locked the door of my room all day yesterday to avoid _______.
Question 18. I think I put my _______in it when I asked Lisa about her ex-husband.
Question 19. Clothing made of plastic fibers has some certain advantages over _______made of natural
fibers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. I think Michael hit the nail on the head when he said that what is lacking in this company
is the feeling of confidence.
Question 21. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. You have got a high score in the final exam. You should put yourself on the back.
Question 23. Her physical condition was not an impediment to her career as a singer. She has won a lot
of prizes.
Question 24. Hoa: "Would you mind closing the door?" - Hung:" _______."
A. Yes, of course. Are you tired? B. No, not at all. I’ll do it now.
Question 25. Waitress: "Hi, may I take your order, madam?" - Mrs. Brown:" _______."
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Tourism is one of the world’s largest industries, and it is the fastest growing. It contributes over £50
billion to the economy annually, over £12 billion of it from overseas visitors. About 25 million overseas
visitors come to Britain each year. Tourism is one of the biggest employment (26) _______ in the UK,
too - it employs over 1.7 million people, which is more than in the construction or health service
industries.
Around 20% of all new (27) _______ are in this industry. These figures are very impressive, but
how do they translate into job possibilities for you? There is room in this industry for all sorts of people,
with different educational (28) _______ , personal attributes, interests and career aims. A tourist is really
a traveller - someone who (29) _______ a journey, usually for recreation, like a holiday or sightseeing.
(30) _______ , tourism at its very simplest refers to the industry that provides travel and entertainment
facilities for people away from their own homes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Most people have heard of Albert Einstein, but a person who became a friend of his may be less
well-known, but she is also a famous scientist. Her name is Marie Curie, who is most known for her
work in radiation. She was born in Warsaw, Poland on November 7,1867 where she grew up with her
parents and four other children in the family. Marie was also the youngest child. Because both her
parents were teachers, Marie learned how to read and write at a very young age. She was intelligent, had
an outstanding memory, and worked very hard in school.
As Marie grew older there were tough times for her and the family, but she was able to attend a
university after graduating from high school, even though it was not something women did during those
times. However, she attended a famous university in Paris, France called the Sorbonne where women
were permitted to attend. After just three years at the school she earned a degree in Physics. She loved to
learn and had always known she wanted to be a scientist.
In 1894, she married Pierre Curie, also a scientist, and a year later they had their first child, a
daughter named Irene. Marriage and motherhood did not stop Marie from her work and research as a
scientist. She became interested in x-rays which had been recently discovered. Marie decided to do some
experiments with the element uranium, which is given off by the rays.
Her husband, Pierre, joined Marie in her experiments. One day she was examining a material called
pitchblende and had expected just a few rays to be given off. Instead, there were many extra rays and
Marie realized there must have been an undiscovered element in pitchblende. She and her husband spent
many more hours in the lab doing investigations with the new element. They ended up discovering there
were two new elements which they discovered, adding them to the periodic table.
Maria named one of the elements polonium after her home country, Poland, and the other she
named it radium because it gave off so many strong rays. Marie and Pierre Curie came up with the new
term ‘radioactivity’ too, as well to describe elements that emit strong rays.
In 1903, the Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to both scientists for their work in radiation, and
Marie was also the first woman in history to be awarded the Nobel Prize. She did not stop there though,
because in 1911, Marie won another Nobel Prize, this time in chemistry, for discovering the two
elements, polonium and radium. Not only was she the first woman, but also the first person ever to be
awarded two Nobel Prizes. This made her very famous and scientists all over the world wanted to study
radioactivity with Marie. Later, doctors found that radiology could help cure cancer.
Unfortunately, Marie Curie died in 1934 due to overexposure to radiation from the experiments and
from the work she did with x-ray machines. Currently, there are many safety precautions that are used
preventing scientists from being overexposed to radiation.
In summary, Marie Curie is a famous physicist known for her work with radiation, and also as the
first woman to receive a Nobel Prize and to win two Nobel Prizes in her lifetime.
Question 31. What degree did Marie Curie first earn in college?
A. Physics B. Chemistry C. Biology D. Physiology
Question 32. What did Marie Curie first become interested in which lead to her experiments?
Question 33. Which fields of science did Marie Curie win her Nobel Prizes?
Question 34. Marie Curie discovered two new elements for the periodic table, radium and _______.
Question 35. Which of the following was the cause of Marie Curie’s death?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Annie Oakley, an intriguing figure in American entertainment, was a markswoman who starred in
Buffalo Bill’s Wild West Show, where she was often called "Little Sure Shot". She was born in 1860 in
Darke County, Ohio, and her original name was Phoebe Ann Moses. As a child, she hunted game with
such success that, according to legend, by selling it in Cincinnati, Ohio, she was able to pay off the
mortgage on the family farm. When she was 15 she won a shooting match in Cincinnati with Frank E.
Butler, a vaudeville marksman, and they were married a year later.
For the next ten years they toured the country and performed in theaters and circuses as "Butler and
Oakley." In April 1885, Annie Oakley, now under her husband’s management, joined "Buffalo Bill"
Cody’s Wild West Show. Billed as "Miss Annie Oakley, the Peerless Lady Wing- Shot," she was one of
the show’s star attractions for sixteen years.
Oakley never failed to delight her audiences, and her feats of marksmanship were truly incredible.
At 30 paces she could split a playing card held edge-on, and she hit dimes tossed into the air. She shot
cigarettes from her husband’s lips, and, when he threw a playing card into the air, she would shoot it full
of holes before it touched the ground. She was a great success on the Wild West Show’s European trips.
In 1887, she was presented to Queen Victoria, and later in Berlin she performed her cigarette trick
with, at his insistence, Crown Prince Wilhelm (later Kaiser Wilhelm II) holding the cigarette. A train
wreck in 1901 left her partially paralyzed for a time, but she recovered and returned to the stage to
amaze audiences for many more years.
Question 36. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "intriguing" in the passage?
A. frightening B. fascinating C. fabulous D. funny
Question 37. What does the word "it" as used in the phrase "by selling it" refer to?
Question 38. The passage implies that Oakley and Butler were married in _______.
Question 39. According to the passage, Frank E. Butler was all of the following EXCEPT _______.
Question 40. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "feats" in the passage?
Question 41. According to the passage, who performed the cigarette trick with her in Europe?
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
C. Queen Victoria was brave when she held a cigarette for Annie Oakley.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The doctor (A) advised him to avoid (B) eating fatty foods, (C) having more fresh
vegetables and drink (D) much water.
Question 44. (A) On the table (B) is (C) hundreds of books written (D) in English.
Question 45. When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies.
Question 47. "No, no, you really must stay with us!" said the children.
Question 48. She shouldn’t have forgotten that yesterday was her daughter’s birthday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.
B. When you give up smoking immediately, your health will be affected with this harmful habit.
C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.
D. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.
Question 50. She applied for the job abroad. She wanted to develop herself and earn more money.
A. She applied for the job abroad in order to develop herself and earn more money.
B. So as to earn more money for development, she applied for the job abroad.
C. She applied for the job abroad, so she developed herself and earn more money.
D. To earn more money was the reason why she applied for the job abroad.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. This girl doesn’t reveal much about herself, and is ________ fascinating for it.
Question 9. Tom never stays in one place for long. He always gets ________ feet and sets off on his
travels again.
Question 11. Our new classmate, John is a bit of a rough ________ but I think I’m going to like him
once I get used to him.
Question 12. This watch is only made of plastic so it’s quite ________.
Question 15. Tim was disappointed because he ________ for the train for two hours.
Question 16. There were many politicians at the meeting, several of ________ were very young.
Question 18. He lost his job because he was ________. He made so many mistakes.
Question 19. ________ me to your mother when you are in New York.
Question 20. The sales clerk was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. came without knowing what they will see B. came in large numbers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I think you will be home and dry in the interview because you have many years of
teaching experience and good academic qualifications.
Question 23. It’s very difficult to tell her to give in because she is so big-headed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they
are going to have a date with each other later.
Laura: "Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime." - Ken:" ________ "
C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.
Question 25. Hung: "How about listening to pop music?” - Hoa:" ________ "
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Horses and donkeys were (26) _______ comparatively late compared with other animals, probably
around 4000 BC in Western Asia. By that time, people in many parts of the world were no longer (27)
_______ on hunting and gathering their food, but had become nomadic stockbreeders or settled farmers,
raising livestock such as cattle, sheep and goats and, in the static communities, growing and harvesting
food plants.
They still hunted wild game, but could now do so with the (28) _______ of domestic dogs, the close
animal companions who also helped them to protect and control their flocks and herds. Their needs for
meat, milk, skins and wool were being met, and it may not have been immediately obvious to them that
the horse had anything more to offer than the occasional (29) _______ of the chase and a different type
of meat. The horse did have something more to offer. It had the potential to bring about nothing less
than a revolution (30) _______ power and transport, a dramatic development that transformed the ability
of humans to wage war.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Psychologists tell us that there are four basic stages that human beings pass through when they enter
and live in a new culture. This process, which helps us to deal with culture shock, is the way our brain
and our personality reacts to the strange new things we encounter when we move from one culture to
another. If our culture involves bowing when we greet someone, we may feel very uncomfortable in a
culture that does not involve bowing. If the language we use when talking to someone in our own
culture is influenced by levels of formality based on the other person’s age and status, it may be difficult
for us to feel comfortable communicating with people in the new culture. Culture begins with the
"honeymoon stage". This is the period of time when we first arrive in which everything about the new
culture is strange and exciting.
We may be suffering from "jet lag” but we are thrilled to be in the new environment, seeing new
sights, hearing new sounds and language, eating new kinds of food. This honeymoon stage can last for
quite a long time because we feel we are involved in some kind of great adventure. Unfortunately, the
second stage of culture shock can be more difficult. After we have settled down into our new life,
working or studying, buying groceries, doing laundry, or living with a home-stay family, we can become
very tired and begin to miss our homeland and our family, girlfriend/ boyfriend, pets. All the little
problems that everybody in life has seem to be much bigger and more disturbing when you face them in
a foreign culture. This period of cultural adjustment can be very difficult and lead to the new arrival
rejecting or pulling away from the new culture. This "rejection stage" can be quite dangerous because
the visitor may develop unhealthy habits (smoking and drinking too much, being too concerned over
food or contact with people from the new culture). This can, unfortunately lead to the person getting sick
or developing skin infections or rashes which then makes the person feel even more scared and confused
and helpless. This stage is considered a crisis in the process of cultural adjustment and many people
choose to go back to their homeland or spend all their time with people from their own culture speaking
their native language.
The third stage of culture shock is called the "adjustment stage". This is when you begin to realize
that things are not so bad in the host culture. Your sense of humour usually becomes stronger and you
realize that you are becoming stronger by learning to take care of yourself in the new place. Things are
still difficult, but you are now a survivor! The fourth stage can be called "at ease at last". Now you feel
quite comfortable in your new surroundings. You can cope with most problems that occur. You may still
have problems with the language, but you know you are strong enough to deal with them. If you meet
someone from your country who has just arrived, you can be the expert on life in the new culture and
help them to deal with their culture shock.
Question 32. How do you feel during the first stage of culture shock?
Question 35. How do you feel during the fourth stage of culture shock?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Earthquakes are the most lethal of all natural disasters. What causes them? Geologists explain them
in terms of a theory known as plate tectonics. Continents are floating apart from each other; this is
referred to as the continental drift. About sixty miles below the surface of the sea, there is a semi-molten
bed of rock over which plates, or slabs, carry continents and sea floors at a rate of several inches a year.
As the plates separate from each other, a new sea floor is formed by the molten matter that was formerly
beneath. Volcanic islands and large mountain ranges are created by this type of movement. The collision
of plates causes geological instability such as that in California called the San Andreas Fault, located
between the Pacific and North American plates. The plates there are constantly pushing and pulling
adjacent plates, thereby creating constant tremors and a potential for earthquakes in the area.
Geologists would like to be able to predict earthquakes accurately. Using laser beams,
seismographs, gravity-measuring devices, and radio telescopes, they are presently studying the San
Andreas Fault to determine the rate of strain and the amount of ground slippage. Calculations indicate
that sometime in the future, California will be struck by a major earthquake. In spite of the geologists’
theory of plate tectonics, there are still gaps in man’s understanding and knowledge of the causes of
earthquakes. Powerful earthquakes have occurred in places where plate boundaries are hundreds of
miles away. In the 1800s New Madrid, Missouri, and Charleston, South Carolina, were shaken by
earthquakes that no one had foreseen.
Certain areas of the world are quake prone. Italy, Yugoslavia, and Algeria have experienced many
quakes. In November 1980, Naples was struck by an especially devastating quake. China and Japan have
also been hit by horrendous quakes. In 1923, Tokyo and Yokohama were reduced to rubble by gigantic
tremors that were followed by fires, tornadoes, and finally a thirty-four-foot tsunami, or tidal wave,
which was caused by the earth’s drop into the waters of Tokyo Bay.
What effects have geologists’ predictions of earthquakes had? The Chinese in Haicheng in 1974
were warned that an earthquake might occur within the next year or two. With the help of amateur
seismologists’ observations of animal behavior and the rise and fall of water in wells and measurements
of quantities of radioactive gas in water, professional geologists were able, in January 1975, to predict
an earthquake within the next six months. On February 4, Haicheng was destroyed, but because its
residents had been evacuated, very few people were killed. In California, where earthquake is an ever-
present menace, building codes now require quakeproof structures, and Civil Defense units have
intensified their training in how to deal with disaster should it strike or, perhaps more accurately, when it
strikes.
A. the area is not quake prone B. geologists do not understand the area
C. there are gaps in the area D. the theory of plate tectonics is incorrect
A. the separation of plates and the consequent uncovering of the molten sea floor beneath them
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Tim works (A) as a doctor and he (B) earns (C) twice (D) as much than his brother.
Question 44. You (A) shouldn’t criticize (B) him in front of his friends. (C) It was (D) insensitive of
you.
Question 45. (A) Alike other forms of energy, natural gas (B) may be used to (C) heat homes, cook
food, and even (D) run automobiles.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price was
astronomical.
A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.
B. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price was enormous.
C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand.
D. In the 19th century, even though the demand for tea was enormous its price remained cheap.
C. That letter hasn’t been sent me. D. That letter has sent to me by no one.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Mr. Hung is a professor. His car was stolen yesterday.
Question 50. Mary was not here yesterday. Perhaps she was ill.
C. Mary might have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
D. Mary must have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. They are always on good ________ with their next-door neighbors.
Question 10. You look sad. Have you and Lisa ________ again?
Question 11. Over the years, he gradually became impervious ________ his wife’s comments about his
chosen profession and in the end she stopped complaining.
A. about B. for C. of D. to
A. bits and bobs B. chalk and cheese C. part and parcel D. from top to bottom
Question 18. Tim was ________ to the court for jury duty, but took a doctor’s sick note with him and
was excused.
Question 19. - Did you remember to give Linda the money you owed her?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. I knew she was only flattering me because she wanted to borrow some money.
Question 21. Emissions from factories and exhaust fumes from vehicles can have detrimental effects
on our health.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Sorry, I can’t come to your birthday party. I am snowed under with work now.
Question 23. Tom may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking wine.
A. get into trouble B. stay safe C. fall into disuse D. keep calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mai: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” - Nga: “________”
Question 25. - Mai: I’m terribly sorry. I forgot to call you last night.
- Nam: ________.
A. I’ll miss you very much if you leave here. B. It’s alright. We can talk about it today.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The giant panda is a beloved animal in China. It is regarded as a national (26) _______ . It is found
mostly in southwestern China in Sichuan, Shaanxi and Gansu provinces. The giant panda is part of the
bear family. It has a white coat with black trimmings around its eyes and on its ears, arms, and legs.
Adult pandas can be 5 feet (1.5 meters) long and weigh (27) _______ to 330 pounds (150 kilograms).
The giant panda leads a (28) _______ life, except during the mating season.
It lives in bamboo forests in the mountains. It can climb trees but lives mainly on the ground. (29)
_______ most bears, the panda does not hibernate. It moves to low-lying areas during the winter in
search of warmer temperatures. The giant panda has a mainly (30) _______ diet, eating mostly bamboo
shoots and leaves. It also eats insects and small rodents. Giant panda breeding groups are small and
isolated from one another.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Everybody likes to feel that she or he is special. Sadly, many of us grow up believing that we’re not
special at all. We wish that we could be more attractive or better at sports. We wish we had more money
or nicer clothes. Like the Tin Man, the Scarecrow, or the Cowardly Lion from The Wizard of Oz, we
think we’re not good enough just as we are. In the film, The Tin Man wishes he had a heart. The
Scarecrow wishes that he had a brain, and the Lion wants courage. Eventually, each of them realizes that
he already has what he wants. Nearly all parents want us to be the best we can be. They occasionally
attempt to encourage us to do better by comparing us to others. They mean well, but the message we
usually get is that we’re not good enough. We start to believe that the only way we can be special is by
being better than somebody else, but we are frequently disappointed. There will always be somebody
out there that is better than we are at something. There are a lot of people around who may not be as
intelligent as we are but who are better at sports. Or they may not be as handsome, but they have more
money. It is unthinkable for us to be better than everybody else all the time. Like the Tin Man, the
Scarecrow, and the Cowardly Lion, we all need what we believe will make us better people. What we
don’t understand is that often we already have inside us the very things that we look for. Our parents
often forget to tell us that we are special, that we are good enough just as we are. Perhaps no one told
them when they were growing up, or maybe they just forgot. Either way, it’s up to us to remind them
sometimes that each of us, in our own way, is special.
Question 31. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the essay?
Question 33. What does the writer say about our parents?
Question 35. Which of the following would be the best title for this essay?
Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, is located where the Allegheny and Monongahela rivers unite to form the
Ohio River. Its fascinating history began in 1758 when General John Forbes and his British and colonial
army captured Fort Duquesne from the French and renamed it Fort Pitt, for the British statesman
William Pitt the Elder. After an agreement between the Native American tribes and William Penn’s
family, settlers began arriving. Pittsburgh was laid out (1764) by John Campbell in the area around the
fort.
Following the American Revolution, the town became an outfitting point for settlers traveling
westward down the Ohio River. Pittsburgh’s strategic location and wealth of natural resources spurred
its commercial and industrial growth in the nineteenth century. A blast furnace, erected by George
Anschutz about 1792, was the forerunner of the iron and steel industry that for more than a century was
the city’s economic power. By 1850, it was known as the "Iron City". The Pennsylvania Canal and the
Portage Railroad, both completed in 1834, opened vital markets for trade and shipping.
After the American Civil War, great numbers of European immigrants swelled Pittsburgh’s
population, and industrial magnates such as Andrew Carnegie, Henry Clay Frick, and Thomas Mellon
built their steel empires there. The city became the focus of historic friction between labor and
management, and the American Federation of Labor was organized there in 1881. By 1900, the city’s
population had reached 321,616. Growth continued nearly unabated through World War II, and during
the war years, Pittsburgh was a boom town.
During this period of economic and population growth, Pittsburgh became a grimy, polluted
industrial city. After the war, however, the city undertook an extensive redevelopment program, with
emphasis on smoke-pollution control, flood prevention, and sewage disposal.
In 1957, it became the first American city to generate electricity by nuclear power. By the late
1970s and early 80s, the steel industry had virtually disappeared, but Pittsburgh successfully diversified
its economy through more emphasis on light industries and on such high-technology industries as
computer software, industrial automation (robotic), and biomedical and environmental technologies.
Question 36. In the mid-eighteenth century, what two countries wanted to control the area now known
as Pittsburgh?
Question 38. What became the most important industry in Pittsburgh following the American
Revolution?
Question 39. According to the passage, who moved to Pittsburgh in great numbers after the Civil War?
Question 40. Which of the following phrases is closest in meaning to the phrase "focus of historic
friction" in the passage?
Question 41. According to the passage, what can be inferred about Pittsburgh’s population during the
World War II?
Question 42. Between the Civil War and World War II, all of the following happened in Pittsburgh
EXCEPT ________.
D. The air became seriously polluted, and the buildings were dirty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) While highly prized (B) for symbolizing good luck, (C) the four-leaf clover is (D)
rarity found in nature.
Question 44. The president, (A) with his wife and children, (B) are at home watching the (C) news (D)
on television.
Question 45. Students should (A) be encouraged to discuss critically (B) about the information (C) that
they (D) are given.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Kelly ran into her former teacher on the way to the cinema yesterday.
A. Kelly caused an accident to her teacher while she was going to the cinema.
B. Kelly’s car ran over her teacher on the way to the cinema.
C. Kelly happened to meet her teacher while she was going to the cinema.
D. Kelly’s teacher got run over whole she was going to the cinema.
Question 47. "If I were you, I’d buy that house," Ms. Hoa said to Ms. Lan.
A. Ms. Hoa promised Ms. Lan that she would buy that house.
Question 48. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
C. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. He expects that the new trend will soon _______ here.
Question 10. How well people remember things _______ on many different factors.
Question 11. Such a doctor _______ retire from his job before the retirement age.
Question 12. An endangered species is a species _______ population is so small that it is in danger of
becoming extinct.
Question 14. Tim told Daisy that he _______ the film three times.
Question 15. I walked away as calmly as I could. _______, they would have thought I was a thief.
Question 16. Rarely have I visited _______ Bangkok, the capital of Thailand.
Question 17. Governments should _______ some international laws against terrorism.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Relaxation therapy teaches us not to fret over small problems in life.
Question 21. My husband has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. If she passes the exam, her parents will be walking on air.
Question 23. We should husband our resources to make sure we can make it through these hard times.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tim: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Lisa: “_______”
C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so. D. Why dare you say so?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Instant messaging enables you to get (26) _______ touch with somebody immediately and talk in
real time to that person in a (27) _______ artificial while seemingly urgent way. Instant messaging
discourages self-censoring, voice clues, or reality-based feedback loop. If you’re angry with one another
(or even if you’re not), you may end (28) _______ typing something that you might not have said if you
had a little longer to think it through. Although you do get an instant response, it’s not the same as a
conversation, so things like tone, (29) _______ of humour, body language, and irony really do get (30)
_______ in typing.
No matter how you cut it, communicating through the Internet really is simply typing. Chat rooms
are another part of the fantasy world of the Internet. They’ve been known to be very disruptive to
relationships even when they’re not suggestive or pornographic, and when they are.
Question 26. A. to B. in C. at D. of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Banking and banks are very important for the functioning of the modern world. Without banks the
way we use money would not work. Banks enable people to save money, borrow money and to pay for
things with ease and security.
Each country in the world has its own well known banks that have branches in nearly every city so
that they are convenient for people to use. People often have to visit the local branch of the bank when
they want certain services. There are also some very big multinational banks that have branches in most
countries in the world.
As well as the local branches that are in most cities, each bank will also have a head office. This is
where all central tasks are performed that let the local branches function. The people that work in the
branches will be the bank manager, the person in charge, and various tellers who work behind the bank
counter and help the customers. There will also likely be security guards to protect the money, workers
and customers.
Most customers will just need to see the tellers when they go to the bank if they are paying money
into their account as either cash or a check. However, they might need to see the bank manager if they
want to open an account or if they have become overdraw, when they have spent more money than there
was in the account. Also if they want to borrow money and get a loan the person will need to see the
bank manager who will have to approve it.
As well as being able to use cash or checks to pay for things, banks also offer their customers the
more convenient methods of using either a debit card or credit card. These methods are very convenient
as you just need to carry a small plastic card to be able to pay for anything. When paying with plastic
you will need to either sign a receipt or enter a PIN number to conform the purchase and that you are
authorized to use the card.
Question 31. What happens when a bank customer spends more money than they have in their account?
Question 32. Which of the following methods is more convenient when paying for something than
using a check?
B. Using cash
D. To look impressive.
Question 35. According to the passage, what do banks enable people to do?
A. Buy products
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Jonas Salk is the American physician and medical researcher who developed the first safe and
effective vaccine for poliomyelitis. Salk received his M.D. in 1939 from New York University College
of Medicine, where he worked with Thomas Francis Jr., who was studying how to develop vaccines
from killed viruses. Salk joined Francis in 1942 at the University of Michigan School of Public Health
and became part of a group that was working to develop a vaccine against influenza.
In 1947, Salk became associate professor of bacteriology and head of the Virus Research
Laboratory at the University of Pittsburgh School of Medicine, where he began research on
poliomyelitis. Working with scientists from other universities in a program to classify the various strains
of the polio virus, Salk corroborated other studies in identifying three separate strains. He then
demonstrated that killed virus of each of the three, although incapable of producing the disease, could
induce antibody formation in monkeys.
In 1952, he conducted field tests of his killed-virus vaccine, first on children who had recovered
from polio and then on subjects who had not had the disease. The results of both tests showed that the
children’s antibody levels rose significantly and no subjects contracted polio from the vaccine. His
findings were published the following year in the Journal of the American Medical Association. In
1954, a mass field trial was held, and the vaccine, injected by needle, was found to safely reduce the
incidence of polio. On April 12,1955, the vaccine was released for use in the United States. Salk served
successively as professor of bacteriology, preventive medicine, and experimental medicine at Pittsburgh,
and in 1963, he became fellow and director of the Institute for Biological Studies in San Diego,
California, later called the Salk Institute. Among many other honors, he was awarded the Presidential
Medal of Freedom in 1977.
B. How the medical research of Jonas Salk led to the development of the polio vaccine
Question 38. Which sentence in the second paragraph describes Salk’s first work at the University of
Pittsburgh?
Question 39. Which word is closest in meaning to the word "corroborated" as used in line 10 of the
passage?
Question 40. All of the following statements about the killed virus vaccine are true EXCEPT _______.
Question 41. Which of the following words or phrases from the previous sentence does the word
"findings" refer to?
Question 42. From the passage, it can be inferred that the experimental polio vaccine was given to
people by _______.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) It’s thirty years (B) since this (C) fifty-storeys building (D) was built.
Question 44. The (A) economy of this country is based (B) to a great extent (C) in its forests, which
cover 80 (D) percent of its surface area.
Question 45. The (A) better you (B) are at English, (C) more chance you have to get (D) a job with
international organizations.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. You needn’t hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.
A. There is a delay of about two hours and therefore you mustn’t hurry.
B. It is not possible for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.
C. It is not necessary for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.
Question 48. She said, "Tim, I’ll show you round my city."
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.
C. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
D. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. Mary and I had both bought exactly the same kind of school bag without knowing it. It was
a complete ________.
A. luck B. chance C. fortune D. coincidence
Question 7. There was nothing special about his clothes ________ from his flowery tie.
Question 10. If you are ________ with your goods, contact us within a week of receipt, and we will
refund your money in full.
Question 11. Don’t worry about trying to catch last bus home, as we can easily ________ you up for the
night.
Question 12. Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric ________.
Question 13. The total cost to renovate the building was $20 million, ________ double the original
estimate.
Question 14. I think the ________ thing would be to catch a bus home. I’m tired of walking.
Question 15. We have a party tonight and Mary is worried about ________.
Question 18. After the flood, all the drains were overflowing ________ storm water.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. They decided to tie the knot after they had loved each other for 10 years.
Question 21. These customers grumbled about the food. They didn’t seem to be pleased.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes.
Question 23. There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more exaggerated
with foreign learners.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. David: “________” - John: “Thanks. I’m glad to hear that”.
A. Where did you buy your bike? B. Your bike is new, isn’t it?
Question 25. Tim: "Do you need any help? - Jenifer: " ________ "
Sailing tourism (26) _______ to any holiday where the main purpose of the trip is to sail or learn
how to sail. Sailing tourism has two broad (27) _______ , which are defined by the type of boat used: a
yacht (which is also used as overnight accommodation) or a dinghy (a smaller boat without berths -
therefore overnight accommodation is (28) _______ land).
Yacht sailing holidays tend to be either bareboat charters, where the boat is hired - without crew -
and can be sailed to any chosen destination, or flotilla, where all boats in the flotilla follow a pre-
planned route. Dinghy sailing holidays are most (29) _______ to be combined (30) _______ a sailing
course. As with most niche markets, there are scant data available regarding the sailing tourism sector.
However, it is estimated that around 10 million sailing holidays are taken each year.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
I did a business administration degree at Bristol University and then worked for a credit card
company for eight years. During this time, I was assistant marketing manager. I gained a lot of useful
experience doing this job, but in 1997,1 decided that I needed a change. I moved to Thomson Holidays
where I have worked as a manager ever since. My main job is to think up new and interesting ideas for
holidays.
When I’m working from my office in the UK, I arrive at 9 a.m. First I answer my emails, then plan
the day. My role is to investigate new projects for Thomson Holidays in our Mediterranean resorts. I am
responsible for coming up with ideas, developing them and evaluating their success.
We have lots of meetings in the office which involve the marketing department, holiday reps and
people that we bring in from outside such as entertainment organizers. The aim is to develop an exciting
idea into a realistic and workable project.
Once a month I spend a few days overseas checking possible resorts, meeting with reps to develop
their roles and working out how events should be sold to the customer. I work with resort supervisors,
use their local knowledge of bars and clubs for venues, talk through new ideas and find out how existing
ones are working. I also meet holidaymakers.
I have to be very open-minded because ideas come from anywhere. I love my job because I get to
travel and I am working on a project that everyone loves.
Question 31. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?
Question 32. What do we learn about the writer in the first paragraph?
A. She never knows where or how a new idea might come to her.
Question 35. Which of the following is the best description of the writer?
A. A working woman.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Newspaper publishers in the United States have long been enthusiastic users and distributors of
weather maps. Although some newspapers that had carried the United States Weather Bureau’s national
weather map in 1912 dropped it once the novelty had passed, many continued to print the daily weather
chart provided by their local forecasting office. In the 1930’s, when interest in aviation and progress in
air-mass analysis made weather patterns more newsworthy, additional newspapers started or resumed
the daily weather map. In 1935, The Associated Press (AP) news service inaugurated its WirePhoto
network and offered subscribing newspapers morning and afternoon weather maps redrafted by the AP’s
Washington, B.C., office from charts provided by the government agency. Another news service, United
Press International (UPI), developed a competing photowire network and also provided timely weather
maps for both morning and afternoon newspapers. After the United States government launched a series
of weather satellites in 1966, both the AP and UPI offered cloud-cover photos obtained from the
Weather Bureau.
In the late 1970’s and early 1980’s, the weather map became an essential ingredient in the redesign
of the American newspaper. News publishers, threatened by increased competition from television for
readers’ attention, sought to package the news more conveniently and attractively. In 1982, many
publishers felt threatened by the new USA Today, a national daily newspaper that used a page-wide full-
color weather map as its key design element. That the weather map in USA today did not include
information about weather fronts and pressures attests to the largely symbolic role it played.
Nonetheless, competing local and metropolitan newspapers responded in a variety of ways. Most
substituted full-color temperature maps for the standard weather maps, while others dropped the
comparatively drab satellite photos or added regional forecast maps with pictorial symbols to indicate
rainy, snowy, cloudy, or clear conditions. A few newspapers, notably The New York Times, adopted a
highly informative yet less visually prominent weather map that was specially designed to explain an
important recent or imminent weather event. Ironically, a newspaper’s richest, most instructive weather
maps often are comparatively small and inconspicuous.
A. The differences between government and newspaper weather forecasting in the United States
D. Information that forms the basis for weather forecasting in the United States
Question 37. The word "resumed" in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
Question 38. According to the passage, one important reason why newspapers printed daily weather
maps during the first half of the twentieth century was ________.
Question 39. The phrase "attests to" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
Question 41. In contrast to the weather maps of USA Today, weather maps in The New York Times
tended to be ________.
Question 42. The author uses the term "Ironically" in the passage to indicate that a weather map’s
appearance ________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. You (A) are (B) quite so thin that you (C) can slip (D) between the bars.
Question 44. (A) Hardly he had arrived (B) at the airport when he (C) realized that he (D) had forgotten
his wallet.
Question 45. (A) To everyone’s (B) surprise, it wasn’t in Ha Noi (C) which he (D) made his fortune,
although that’s where he was born.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
A. I wish I can go with you now. B. I wish I could go with you now.
C. I wish I had gone with you now. D. I wish I has gone with you now.
Question 47. "Would you like to attend the party with me, Mary?", said John.
A. John asked Mary if you would like to attend the party with me.
B. John said to Mary that he would like to attend the party with her.
Question 48. This is the most interesting film I have ever seen.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She didn’t take her father’s advice. That’s why she is out of work.
A. If she had taken her father’s advice, she would not have been out of work.
B. If she took her father’s advice, she would not be out of work.
C. If she had taken her father’s advice, she would not be out of work.
D. If she takes her father’s advice, she will not be out of work.
Question 50. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. If you’re too ________, other people will take advantage of you.
Question 7. The whole building collapsed, but fortunately there were no ________.
Question 9. My decision to leave university after two years is one I now ________ regret.
Question 10. He was the last person ________ the meeting room.
Question 11. After two years of ________ the country’s economy is finally looking a lot healthier.
Question 12. Many animal species are now on the ________ of extinction.
Question 13. I’ve been ________ with my friends for a couple of years.
A. out of reach B. out of the condition C. out of touch D. out of the question
Question 14. I think that married couples should be financially independent ________ their parents.
A. to B. of C. with D. on
Question 15. In the end, he lost his ________ and started gabbling incoherently.
Question 16. She was ill for six weeks and ________ with her schoolwork.
Question 17. When my teacher was away on holiday, Mr. Nam had to ________ her.
Question 19. Hoa hoped ________ to join the club. She could make friends with many people here.
Question 20. You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.
Question 21. When our rent increased from $100 to $200 a month, we protested against such a
tremendous increase.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I’d love to come but I’m snowed under with work at the moment.
Question 23. Nam wants to buy a new motorbike, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly
earnings.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
B. No, we shouldn’t.
D. I agree with you that many young people now like going by motorbike.
Question 25. Porter: "Shall I help you carry these things?" - Ms. Huong: “________”
D. What a pity!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Every year in spring millions of people all over the world suffer from asthma. Asthma is an illness
(26) _______ narrows the breathing passages. As a result, not enough air can enter and leave your lungs.
According to WHO, over 230 million people around the world are suffering from asthma. Among
children it is the most chronic disease. While asthma occurs in almost all countries, asthma-related
deaths happen mainly in the poorer countries of the Third World.
In America over 25 million people and 7 million children develop asthma every year. The disease is
more common among African Americans. The death (27) _______ among this group is five times as
high as among whites.
WHO warns that asthma rates are increasing (28) _______ 50% every ten years. Asthma also causes
a loss of business and does damage to the economy because many people stay at home when they are ill.
Doctors are not sure what causes asthma. Some argue that environmental influences are the main
factors; (29) _______ , some doctors claim that genes are also responsible for asthma. Almost half of the
parents who suffer from asthma will also (30) _______ it on to their children. 70% of all people who
have asthma also suffer from allergies, when the body reacts in an unusual way towards mostly harmless
substances.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Along with jogging and swimming, cycling is one of the best all-round forms of exercise. It can
help to increase your strength and energy, giving you more efficient muscles and a stronger heart. But
increasing your strength is not the only advantage of cycling. Because you’re not carrying the weight of
your body on your feet, it’s a good form of exercise for people with painful feet or backs. However, with
all forms of exercise it’s important to start slowly and build up gently. Doing too much too quickly can
damage muscles that aren’t used to working. If you have any doubts about taking up cycling for health
reasons, talk to your doctor and ask for his/her advice.
Ideally you should be cycling at least two or three times a week. For the exercise to be doing you
good, you should get a little out of breath. Don’t worry that if you begin to lose your breath, it could be
dangerous and there must be something wrong with your heart. This is simply not true; shortness of
breath shows that the exercise is having the right effect. However, if you find you are in pain then you
should stop and take a rest.
Question 31. People with back problems might go cycling because ________.
B. it does not make them carry the weight of their body on their feet
Question 34. You should not worry about the shortness of breath because ________.
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT included in the advantages of cycling?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The Native American peoples of the north Pacific Coast created a highly complex maritime culture
as they invented modes of production unique to their special environment. In addition to their
sophisticated technical culture, they also attained one of the most complex social organizations of any
nonagricultural people in the world.
In a division of labor similar to that of the hunting peoples in the interior and among foraging
peoples throughout the world, the men did most of the fishing, and the women processed the catch.
Women also specialized in the gathering of the abundant shellfish that lived closer to shore. They
collected oysters, crabs, sea urchins, abalone, and clams, which they could gather while remaining close
to their children. The maritime life harvested by the women not only provided food, but also supplied
more of the raw materials for making tools than did fish gathered by the men. Of particular importance
for the native tool than did the fish gathered by the men. Of particular made from the larger mussel
shells, and a variety of cutting edges that could be made from other marine shells.
The women used their tools to process all of the fish and marine mammals brought in by the men.
They cleaned the fish, and dried vast quantities of them for the winter. They sun-dried fish when
practical, but in the rainy climate of the coastal area they also used smokehouses to preserve tons of fish
and other seafood annually. Each product had its own peculiar characteristics that demanded a particular
way of cutting or drying the meat, and each task required its own cutting blades and other utensils.
After drying the fish, the women pounded some of them into fish meal, which was an easily
transported food used in soups, stews, or other dishes to provide protein and thickening in the absence of
fresh fish or while on long trips. The women also made a cheese-like substance from a mixture of fish
and roe by aging it in storehouses or by burying it in wooden boxes or pits lined with rocks and tree
leaves.
Question 36. Which aspect of the lives of the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast does the
passage mainly discuss?
Question 37. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the social organization of many agricultural
peoples is ________.
Question 38. According to the passage, what is true of the "division of labor" mentioned in paragraph
2?
A. It was first developed by Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast.
C. It was a structure that the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast shared with many other
peoples.
D. It provided a form of social organization that was found mainly among coastal peoples.
Question 39. All of the following are true of the north Pacific coast women EXCEPT that they
________.
B. contributed more materials for tool making than the men did
Question 41. The Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast used smokehouses in order to ________.
A. store utensils used in food preparation B. prevent fish and shellfish from spoiling
Question 42. All of following are true of the cheese-like substance mentioned in paragraph 4 EXCEPT
that it was ________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) There was (B) a very interesting news (C) on the radio this morning (D) about the
earthquake in Mexico.
Question 44. I saw (A) the men, the women and (B) the cattle (C) which (D) went to the field. Question
45. (A) Almost of trees in (B) this garden had (C) to be cut down and burned (D) as a result of the
storm.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. ‘Tm sorry for being late again." said Mai.
A. I felt sorry for Mai as she was late again. B. Mai was sorry for my being late again.
C. Mai excused for my being late again. D. Mai apologized for being late again.
Question 47. His dog was so fierce that nobody would visit him.
Question 48. I don’t have enough money; otherwise, I would buy that bag.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. These students may be excellent. They will not get used to dealing with practical
situations.
A. Excellent as may be these students, they will get used to dealing with practical situations.
B. These students may be too excellent to get used to dealing with practical situations.
C. These students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they are excellent.
D. Excellent as they may be, these students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. He was ________ of himself for having stolen money from his mother.
Question 8. Not only ________ the exam but she also got a scholarship.
A. did she pass B. she passed C. she has passed D. does she pass
Question 9. It was ________ we couldn’t stop laughing.
Question 10. My brother and I will never get along. We’re ________.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. turn a deaf ear
Question 11. Despite all the interruptions, she ________ with her work.
Question 13. The girl proposed that their group leader ________ a camping trip.
Question 14. ________ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of
the next century.
Question 15. No matter ________, he was an accomplished composer while still a child.
Question 16. The judge ________ the pedestrian for the accident.
Question 17. ________ his good work and manners, he didn’t get a promotion.
Question 19. There has been little rain in this region for several months, ________?
Question 20. All the students were all ears when the teacher started talking about the changes in the
next exam.
Question 21. Talking about your feeling can help you get clear about what you feel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. She doesn’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. She will just play it by
ear.
Question 23. Nothing could console him when his wife died.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Ms. Hoa: "Sorry, the director is not here." - Lan:" ________ "
A. I have known him for many years. B. But I can do this work by myself.
Question 25. Mr. Nam: "Would you mind turning down your radio?" - Mr. Hung:" ________."
C. No, I don’t.
D. Yes, I wouldn’t.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The Great Wall of China is the biggest object ever made by humans. It (26) _______ across
mountains, deserts and grasslands for over 6,000 kilometres. The ancient Chinese built the wall to keep
invaders from the west (27) _______ of their country. Today tourists from all over the world come and
see it. The Great Wall began as a series of many smaller walls that were not (28) _______ with each
other. The first sections of the wall were built as early as 600 B.C. As time went on Chinese emperors
connected them together to keep Huns, Mongols and other (29) _______ away.
Thousands of soldiers, criminals and peasants worked on building the wall. It was finally completed
during the Ming dynasty in the 17th century. The Chinese wall is (30) _______ of dirt, mud, stone and
brick. It is between 5 and 9 metres tall and up to 8 metres wide. A small road runs on the top of the wall.
Towers every few hundred metres were built to store military supplies.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
What’s the problem with British teenagers? Many British newspapers and TV programmes are
asking this question at the moment. A lot of people are saying that there are problems with teenagers at
school, on the streets and in their homes. Why? What, or who, is responsible for these problems? A
recent BBC television series explores these questions. It’s called ‘The world’s strictest parents’. Is that
because British parents are very strict? Just the opposite, it seems. The director of the programme,
Andrea Wiseman, explains why they are making it. She thinks that in the United Kingdom teenagers pay
no attention to adults. They don’t want to do well at school. They think they can do what they like and
they are only interested in new fashions and Hollywood celebrities. Why are British teenagers like this?
Wiseman says it’s because their parents give their children everything they can. But they give their
children no limits, no rules, no discipline because they want their children to be ‘free’. They don’t tell
their children to work hard because they don’t want their kids to have any stress. The problem with this
is that parents give their sons and daughters no cultural values. When a teenager does something bad and
their parents say something, the teenagers immediately say ‘My parents are really strict’ or ‘My parents
aren’t fair’. So what happens in the TV programme? Some problematic British teenagers go and live
with parents in different parts of the world. They live with families that believe in traditional discipline
and cultural values. In Ghana, Jamaica, Botswana and the southern US state of Alabama, the teenagers
have the experience of living with parents who want and expect good behaviour and hard work. The
results are interesting. In the end, the British teenagers seem to prefer having strict parents!
Question 31. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about British teenagers according to Wiseman?
Question 32. The word "explores" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. An experiment on TV shows that British teenagers seem to dislike having strict parents.
B. Andrea Wiseman is one of the British teenagers participating in the program called ‘The world’s
strictest parents’.
C. It seems that British parents don’t like being strict because they want their sons and daughters to
have freedom.
D. British teenagers think that their parents are very strict, so they always try to do everything as well
as possible.
Question 35. The word "celebrities" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
It may seem as if the art of music by its nature would not lend itself to the exploration and
expression of reality characteristic of Romanticism, but that is not so. True, music does not tell stories or
paint pictures, but it stirs feelings and evokes moods, through both of which various kinds of reality can
be suggested or expressed. It was in the rationalist 18th century that musicians rather mechanically
attempted to reproduce stories and subjects in sound. These literal renderings naturally failed, and the
Romanticists profited from the error. Their discovery of new realms of experience proved
communicable in the first place because they were in touch with the spirit of renovation, particularly
through poetry. What Goethe meant to Beethoven and Berlioz and what German folk tales and
contemporary lyricists meant to Weber, Schumann, and Schubert are familiar to all who are acquainted
with the music of these men.
There is, of course, no way to demonstrate that Beethoven’s Egmont music or, indeed, its overture
alone corresponds to Goethe’s drama and thereby enlarges the hearer’s consciousness of it; but it cannot
be an accident or an aberration that the greatest composers of the period employed the resources of their
art for the creation of works expressly related to such lyrical and dramatic subjects. Similarly, the love
of nature stirred Beethoven, Weber, and Berlioz, and here too the correspondence is felt and persuades
the fit listener that his own experience is being expanded. The words of-the creators themselves record
this new comprehensiveness. Beethoven referred to his activity of mingled contemplation and
composition as dichten, making a poem; and Berlioz tells in his Memoires of the impetus given to his
genius by the music of Beethoven and Weber, by the poetry of Goethe and Shakespeare, and not least by
the spectacle of nature. Nor did the public that ultimately understood their works gainsay their claims.
It must be added that the Romantic musicians including Chopin, Mendelssohn, Glinka, and Liszt-
had at their disposal greatly improved instruments. The beginning of the 19th century produced the
modern piano, of greater range and dynamics than ever before, and made all wind instruments more
exact and powerful by the use of keys and valves. The modern full orchestra was the result. Berlioz,
whose classic treatise on instrumentation and orchestration helped to give it definitive form, was also the
first to exploit its resources to the full, in the Symphonic fantastique of 1830. This work, besides its
technical significance just mentioned, can also be regarded as uniting the characteristics of Romanticism
in music, it is both lyrical and dramatic, and, although it makes use of a “story,’’ that use is not to
describe the scenes but to connect them; its slow movement is a "nature poem” in the Beethovenian
manner; the second, fourth, and fifth movements include "realistic" detail of the most vivid kind; and the
opening one is an introspective reverie.
Question 38. The passage indicates that the Romanticist composers were inspired not only by lyrical
and dramatic subjects but also by ________.
Question 39. The Romantic musicians also made use of modern technologies such as ________.
Question 41. All of the following are true about the Symphonic fantastique EXCEPT ________.
Question 42. According to the passage, Romanticism in music extended over ________.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Of the most important machines (A) invented in the late nineteenth century, no machine
(B) had a (C) great impact (D) on the USA’s economy than the automobile.
Question 44. (A) Several people have (B) apparent tried to change the man’s (C) mind, but he refuses
(D) to listen.
Question 45. Tuan (A) has not completed the (B) assignment (C) yet, and Huy (D) hasn’t neither.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. This is the first time she has seen this movie.
Question 47. "If I were you, I would marry him", she said to me.
Question 48. You feel unhealthy because you don’t take any exercise.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Hung dropped out of university after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Hung regretted having dropped out of university after his first year.
B. Hung wishes he didn’t drop out of university after his first year.
C. Hung regrets having dropped out of university after his first year.
D. If only Hung had dropped out of university after his first year.
Question 50. My father does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, my father is still very fat.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. If your invitations are met with repeated ________ you should just leave him alone.
Question 7. All applicants must ________ a full CV with their job application before October 1st.
A. to - of B. at - in C. on - in D. for - of
Question 9. We should make full ________ of renewable sources of energy such as wind and solar
power in the world.
Question 10. Due to lacking ________, they couldn’t open a new shop as scheduled.
Question 11. When the weather was very hot in summer, sales of bottles of water went ________ the
roof.
Question 12. What made Mark ________ his family and his job? Where did he go and why?
A. was - weren’t they B. were - weren’t they C. was - wasn’t he D. were - were they
Question 15. All ________ we had been told turned out to be untrue.
Question 16. The book says that the revolution was ________ off by the assassination of the president.
Question 17. She ________ New York in 2015 before she moved there in 2018.
Question 19. After leaving high school, my brother decided to ________ in the army.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. My two children were full of beans today, looking forward to their trip.
A. disappointed B. hyperactive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. In remote areas, it’s very important to replenish stocks before the winter comes.
Question 23. Show enthusiasm in an interview if you want to get the job offer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Daisy: “Would you mind if I used your computer?” - Lisa: “__________”
A. Please go ahead. B. No, thank you. C. No, I can’t. D. Yes, I don’t mind.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
(26) _______ friends is one of the most difficult and worthwhile experiences of human life because
it requires time and effort and patience and understanding and acceptance and honesty. Many people
(27) _______ friendship with acquaintances and they’re not the same at all. Acquaintances are people
you (28) _______ with; they’re convenient but interchangeable.
Friends are people you actively seek out, people with whom you have something in (29) _______ ,
and the link is deeper and stronger. It is very possible for one to become the other, and everyone who
becomes a friend had to be an acquaintance first. (Friendship can be downgraded, for example, when
two people move apart geographically or emotionally or situationally - changing jobs, (30) _______
status, and so on). If you’ve taken yourself off house arrest, you’ve begun making acquaintances. The
question then is how to turn an acquaintance into a friend.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In the 1960s it took pop and rock groups one or two days to record their songs. Nowadays, it can
take months and months. Many rock groups begin by recording only one instrument, for example, the
voice. Then they record other instruments- electric piano, synthesizer, guitars and drums.
Next, they might use a computer to add special effects. Finally, they ‘mix’ all the instruments until
they get the sound that they want. This means that a CD or cassette will always sound very different
from a live concert.
Music engineers have developed a new computer program that will change the future of music. A
computer can analyze a singer’s voice. Then if you give the computer the lyrics and music of a song, the
computer can ‘sing’ it in that voice. This means that a singer only needs to record one song and the
computer can then sing other songs in the singer’s own voice. Singers can sing new songs many years
after they have died.
Most of us listen to music for pleasure, but for the record companies, music is a product, the same
as soap powder. When a record company finds a new group (or "band"), they first try to develop the
band’s ‘profile’. They will try to create an ‘image’ for the band that they think will attract young people.
Instead of allowing the band’s full artistic freedom, they will often tell the band what they should wear,
what they should say and how they should sing and play.
In recent year, many rock groups have started their own record companies because they say that the
big companies are too commercial.
C. only one or two days D. the same amount of time as the 1960s
Question 33. Which of the following is NOT true about the new computer program?
A. suggest the outfits of the band B. tell the band what to say
C. give the band freedom to do things D. decide the songs the band will play
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In the North American colonies, red ware, a simple pottery fired at low temperatures, and stone
ware, a strong, impervious grey pottery fired at high temperatures, were produced from two different
native clays. These kinds of pottery were produced to supplement imported European pottery. When the
American Revolution (1775-1783) interrupted the flow of the superior European ware, there was
incentive for American potters to replace the imports with comparable domestic goods. Stoneware,
which had been simple utilitarian kitchenware, grew increasingly ornate throughout the nineteenth
century, and in addition to the earlier scratched and drawn designs, three-dimensional molded relief
decoration became popular. Representational motifs largely replaced the earlier abstract decorations.
Birds and flowers were particularly evident, but other subjects - lions, flags, and clipper ships - are
found. Some figurines, mainly of dogs and lions, were made in this medium. Sometimes a name, usually
that of the potter, was die-stamped onto a piece.
As more and more large kilns were built to create the high-fired stoneware, experiments revealed
that the same clay used to produce low-fired red ware could produce a stronger, paler pottery if fired at a
hotter temperature. The result was yellow ware, used largely for serviceable items; but a further
development was Rockingham ware - one of the most important American ceramics of the nineteenth
century. (The name of the ware was probably derived from its resemblance to English brown-glazed
earthenware made in South Yorkshire.) It was created by adding a brown glaze to the fired clay, usually
giving the finished product a mottled appearance. Various methods of spattering or sponging the glaze
onto the ware account for the extremely wide variations in color and add to the interest of collecting
Rockingham. An advanced form of Rockingham was flint enamel, created by dusting metallic powders
onto the Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant varicolored streaks.
Articles for nearly every household activity and ornament could be bought in Rockingham ware:
dishes and bowls, of course; also bedpans, foot warmers, cuspidors, lamp bases, doorknobs, molds,
picture frames, even curtain tiebacks. All these items are highly collectible today and are eagerly sought.
A few Rockingham specialties command particular affection among collectors and correspondingly high
prices.
Question 37. The passage suggests that the earliest stoneware ________.
D. had no decoration
Question 38. How did yellow ware achieve its distinctive color?
Question 39. The phrase "derived from" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
Question 42. Which of the following kinds of Rockingham ware were probably produced in the greatest
quantity?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. It is reported that (A) during any 24 - (B) hour period, a (C) minimal of three hundred
women in this area (D) start their own businesses.
Question 44. A hospital (A) is organized to treat and cure people who are ill, so its goals, (B) structures,
and functions (C) depend on the (D) currently state of medical science.
Question 45. (A) Although this plant (8) lack flowers, they (C) do have leaves, stems, and (D) root.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Wind a scarf around your neck, or you will get cold.
A. You will not get cold unless you wind a scarf around your neck.
B. Wind a scarf around your neck, otherwise you will get cold.
C. If you wind a scarf around your neck, you will get cold.
D. You not only wind a scarf around your neck but also get cold.
Question 47. They know that the famous doctor treated him.
Question 48. “Why don’t you complain to the shop, Tim?" said Mary.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Bob was very thirsty. He refused the glass of water I brought him.
A. Bob was not very thirsty; therefore, he did not refuse the glass of water I brought him.
B. Bob was very thirsty; however, he refused the glass of water I brought him.
C. Bob refused the glass of water I brought him because he was not very thirsty.
D. Bob did not refuse the glass of water I brought him though he was very thirsty.
B. Only after Nam had spoken to her did he realize her mistake.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I feel very tired because I didn’t sleep ________ last night.
Question 6. He joined the English club, ________ were over 50 years old.
Question 8. Unfortunately, my trip to France ________ because I couldn’t save enough money.
Question 9. ________ second thoughts, I’d rather not go to the movies tonight.
A. With B. In C. On D. Under
Question 11. We spent nearly 2 hours waiting outside the airport, then out ________ .
A. the star came B. did the star come C. came the star D. be the star coming
Question 12. ________ my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national
company for three years.
Question 13. He had spent ________ time writing an essay about how to save energy.
Question 14. There was a long queue at the ________ and some of them were getting impatient.
Question 15. You usually ________ onions. It means that you cut them into many small pieces.
Question 17. It is not easy for many civil servants to ________ on their salaries as the inflation rate is
very high.
Question 19. He did not share his secrets with other people but he ________ in her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The woman was motionless as a statue. She made everyone frightened.
Question 21. Some operations many have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. People have eliminated poverty and hunger in many parts of the world.
A. created B. eradicated C. gave up D. wiped out
Question 23. We should not allow any kind of discrimination against women and girls.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mary: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?”
Peter: “ ________ ”
Question 25. Patient: “Can I make an appointment to see Mr. John, please?”
Receptionist: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Interpersonal communication is the process of exchange of information, ideas, feelings and meaning
between two or more people (26) ________ verbal and/or non-verbal methods.
It often includes face-to-face exchange of messages, (27) ________ may take form of a certain tone of
voice, facial expressions, body language and gestures. The level of one’s interpersonal communication
skills (28) ________ through the effectiveness of meaning transferred through the message.
(29) ________ used interpersonal communication within a business organization (30) ________
client meetings, employee performance reviews and project discussions. But, of course, online
conversation is a large part of people’s interpersonal experience today.
Question 26. A. from B. in C. through D. by
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
One of the most difficult things young people have to face when they want to travel is the lack of
funds. During the summer holiday and possibly at weekends, they are able to take on part-time jobs, but
the money make is just a drop in the bucket of what they need to travel far away. For example, travelling
to Australia from Vietnam can be quite expensive just for an airline ticket, and to a lot of students want
to travel, it can seem out of reach.
For students want to travel Australia and New Zealand in particular, however, they are in luck.
Although many countries offer working holidays, these two countries are well-known for offering them.
When a young person signs up to get a working holiday visa, he only pays for the round-trip airfare to
get to either place and only needs to carry some extra cash for incidentals. Once he is there, a job awaits
where he can earn some money.
Many of the jobs require little or no experience such as picking fruit or working in a busy pub out in
the countryside. Some of the jobs require more experience that most people or unlikely to have, such as
being certified welder to work for eight weeks on a farm. That shouldn’t discourage you, though, there is
always something to be found if you search hard enough.
There are many websites that advertise working holidays in Australia and New Zealand. If you have
the courage and are looking for a way to make a little money and see the world, it might be just the
ticket you were looking for.
Question 32. What can seem out of reach for young people?
A. Being able to get time off from school. B. Being able to earn money.
D. Picking fruit is the only job available for young people on working holidays.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future
ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are
cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing.
Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions
entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior:
Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern.
The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun’s position in the sky,
and the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that
the ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study,
when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent
farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would
appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot,
waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of
an ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site.
Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who
uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as
rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young
how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells
containing chocolate chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always
chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have
learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums.
D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory
experiments.
Question 37. Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?
Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to ________ .
Question 41. Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?
A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species.
B. To provide an example of tool use among animals.
C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat.
Question 42. The phrase “the one” in paragraph 3 refers to the ________ .
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Mr. John congratulated me (A) to my (B) excellent results (C) although we didn’t know
(D) each other very well.
Question 44. (A) It’s worth (B) talk to your (C) English teacher before (D) making your final
decision.
Question 45. Some manufacturers are not only (A) raising their prices (B) but also (C) decreasing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 47. The film bears little resemblance to the original novel.
Question 48. My friend, David, finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My friend, David, doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The weather was very hot. The children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
A. Because of the weather was hot, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
B. Because the hot weather, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
C. In spite of the hot weather, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
D. Despite the weather was hot, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
Question 50. Ms. Minh is very happy. Her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest.
A. Ms. Minh is very happy, that is her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest.
B. Ms. Minh with her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest, who is very happy.
C. Ms. Minh, whose daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest, is very happy.
D. Ms. Minh’s daughter, who won the first prize of the dancing contest, is very happy.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Like everyone else, Sue has her ________ of course but on the whole, she’s quite satisfied
with life.
A. ups and downs B. ins and outs C. safe and sound D. odds and ends
Question 6. He came when I ________ the film “Man from the star”.
Question 7. After the tourists ________ two hours in the supermarket, they ________ to a traditional
craft village.
Question 8. She will have to ________ if she wants to pass the final exam.
A. pull up her socks B. work miracles C. take the trouble D. keep her hand in
Question 9. It is raining heavily with rolls of thunder. We ________ such a terrible thunderstorm.
A. would never see B. had never seen C. have never seen D. never see
Question 11. Most guests ________ the party by the time we came.
Question 12. There is ________ water in the well, not enough for everyone in the village.
Question 13. This car is so expensive that my father can’t afford ________ it.
A. buy B. buying C. to buy D. to buying
Question 14. The artisans in my village can ________ basket weaving. They earn enough money from
it.
Question 15. Please turn off ________ light when you leave ________ room.
Question 17. Tet is the most important festival ________ occurs in late January or early February.
Question 18. When he retires at sixty, he’ll get a very good ________ .
A. to B. for C. with D. of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. It really gets on my nerves when people talk loudly on the phone in public.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Things in my village have changed dramatically in the last decade.
Question 23. People in this village seem to be inhospitable to strangers whom they don’t know well.
Question 25. Lisa: “Have you heard that Tim and Daisy have just got engaged?” Susan: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Stress is one of the most common causes of health problems in modern life. Too much stress results
(26) ________ physical, and mental health problems.
There are numerous physical (27) ________ of stress. Stress can affect the heart. It can increase the
pulse rate, make the heart miss beats, and can cause high blood pressure. Stress can affect the (28)
________ system. It can lead to asthma. It can cause a person to breathe too fast, leading to a loss of
important carbon dioxide. Stress can affect the stomach. It can cause stomachache and problems of
digesting food. These are only (29) ________ examples of the wide range of illnesses and symptoms
resulting from stress.
Long-term stress can lead to a variety of serious mental illnesses. Depression, an extreme feeling of
sadness and hopelessness, can be the result of continued and increasing stress. Alcoholism and other
addictions often develop as a result of overuse of alcohol or drugs to try to relieve stress. Eating
disorders, such as anorexia, are sometimes caused by stress and are often made worse by stress. If stress
is allowed to continue, then one’s mental health is put (30) ________ risk.
Getting recipes and cooking tips was a complicated process in the past. A person had to go to the
store and buy a cook book, or get recipes from friends. Fortunately, the internet has changed all that.
Today, if you want to find a recipe for lasagna or cob salad, you just search online. It couldn’t be
simpler.
Cooking blogs are a great source of information because they are free and there are so many of them.
They are also nice because they give all different kinds of ideas. The problems with blogs is that because
we don’t know who is writing them, we need to use with caution. When you are looking at a new blog,
you don’t know if the writer knows what he or she is talking about.
We’d like to introduce two popular cooking blogs. The first is called Smitten Kitchen. This website is
run by a family living in New York City. It focuses on food that doesn’t require many ingredients. If you
want to make food that is simple but wonderful, then this is the site for you. It offers hundreds and
hundreds of recipes, divided into categories. You will be amazed at how many there are.
Wednesday Chef is another great cooking blog. It is run by a writer who lives in Berlin. This blog
also offers many recipes, along with recommendations for great restaurants in Berlin, and advice for
people who want to start their own blogs. Wednesday Chef has great pictures of its food, as well as
interesting pictures of Berlin. The blog got its name because in the past, newspapers published their food
articles on Wednesdays.
There are a lot of cooking blogs on the internet, and most of them are pretty good. Go online and
check some of them out. You might be surprised at how much they can help you improve your cooking.
Question 34. What does the passage say about Smitten Kitchen?
Question 35. Why should we be careful when we are looking at new blogs?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Course numbers are an indication of which courses are to various categories of students at the
University. Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses
appropriate for freshmen or sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 or 400 often have
prerequisites and are often to juniors and seniors only. Courses with the numbers 800 or above are open
only to graduate students. Certain graduate courses, generally those devoted to introductory material, are
numbered 400 for undergraduate students who qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students.
Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree carry a 500 number for undergraduate
students and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest
courses that do not carry academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not
count toward the number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements.
Full-time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours.
A full-time graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours. Student
holding assistantships are expected to enroll for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate may
register for minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that is, more than the maximum number of
hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic advisor. To register for an overload, students must
submit the appropriate approval form when registering. Overloads above 24 hours will not be approved
under any circumstances.
(From: Practice Exercises for the TOEFL iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D)
Question 39. Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical Engineering
850?
Question 40. If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register a accounting course, what
number would a graduate student probably use to register for the same course?
Question 41. How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?
Question 42. Which of the following courses would NOT be included in the list of courses for
graduation?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Food prices have (A) raised (B) so rapidly in the past few months (C) that some families
have been (D) forced to alter their eating habits.
Question 44. (A) Poverty in this country is (B) noticeable different (C) from that in other
(D) countries.
Question 45. (A) The more paper we (B) save, (C) the less trees we use (D) for making it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.
A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.
B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.
C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.
D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.
Question 50. We didn‘t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. One member of the project group ________ the boss and was fired immediately.
Question 7. Many people would jump ________ the chance of working for a successful travel company.
A. off B. in C. at D. over
Question 8. We complained ________ the manager ________ the poor service we received at the
restaurant.
Question 10. The company’s announced it’s ________ off over 1,000 workers.
Question 11. If you had listened to my advice, you ________ into trouble now.
C. won’t be D. hadn’t be
Question 12. Sally disagreed with the board of directors’ decision so she ________ and went to work
for another company.
Question 13. Unfortunately there is still a lot of ________ against older people in the workplace.
Question 14. Online courses offer a great degree of ________ in terms of learning time, place, pace and
style.
Question 15. By the time you come back next year, they ________ their house.
Question 16. I’m not sure I’m doing it right, but I’ll try to ________ ahead with it anyway.
A. drive B. bang C. touch D. press
Question 17. Some species like dinosaurs are classified as EX, meaning extinct, on the ________ status
scale.
Question 18. You should keep the milk in the refrigerator ________ it wouldn’t go bad.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Employers usually look for candidates who have qualifications and relevant experience.
Question 21. The working environment was so bad that Hoa eventually decided to hand in his notice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Hoa: “Do you know how this machine works?” - Nam: “ ________ ”
C. Plug it in and push the green button. D. I think it’s quite heavy.
Question 25. Peter: “Sarah doesn’t seem very happy at the moment. Does she find the course difficult?”
- Mary: “ ________ “
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Online dating is a good way for (26) ________ shy people to make contact. Once you get
comfortable with a stranger on a virtual basis, you may be encouraged to meet them in person. If you are
on the right dating site, you are more likely to find people looking for the same things as you and it
increases your chances of stumbling (27) ________ the right partner. Internet dating is an effective way
of helping you meet new people and have a chance to decide (28) ________ you want to have a date in
person.
(29) ________ internet dating is very convenient, it can also be misleading. When you are not
personally meeting a person, the risk of being (30) ________ is higher as people often augment their
profile just to attract your attention. If you are not careful, you may end up wasting many hours of your
time with no real results.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
A lot of different energy sources are used every day. Burning of fossil fuel is a main energy source.
Sources other than this fossil fuel are known as alternative energy sources and there are several of them
being used every day.
First of all, it is water. Water energy can be harnessed to perform work by using waterwheels. In a
hydroelectric plant the running or falling water spins a generator to create electricity.
Not only does water spin a wheel, but wind can do so as well. Windmills work in the same manner as
a waterwheel. Windmills are used as wind turbines that can generate electricity.
The internal heat of the earth is another energy source. It is called geothermal energy. Geothermal
energy can be used to heat homes and produce electricity.
Solar energy is often thought to be sunlight. Sunlight is full of energy. People are finding new ways
to harness the power of sunlight. One major way is to trap or concentrate sunlight with the use of solar
panels. This trapped sunlight can be used to heat homes and water. Also, solar cells are devices that
convert sunlight into electricity.
Question 31. Sources of energy other than fossil fuel are called which of the following?
Question 32. Water energy can be harnessed by using which of the following tools?
A. Windmills B. Waterwheels
Question 33. Which of the following is a tool used to trap or concentrate sunlight to be used for energy?
Question 35. Which of the following is a device that converts sunlight into electricity?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens
scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and
within and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t
necessarily equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area", says Jason Niebler, who
directs the Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College.
“It means we are providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as
well as from the core urban landscape.”
Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying
capacities, surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural
with distance. The hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will
encourage local ecologically sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and
decrease reliance on distant food products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.
That’s the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first metropolitan-based community college
sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from
urban centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler
says. “Any urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security
and protect the environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”
The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural issues related
to sustainable food systems, within Puget Sound watersheds through student and community education
and research, and technological innovation. The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as
agricultural ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food
production and technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.
“We’ve created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of sustainable
agriculture and what a food system is – how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says. “These
courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of the really wonderful things about them is that
we offer service learning opportunities, where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with
local partner organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would
be to prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban agriculture setting.”
Question 37. It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban agriculture
________ .
A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region
B. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions
Question 38. Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE’s new land use
planning?
Question 39. The curriculum of SAgE at Seattle Central Community College offers courses covering
the following EXCEPT ________ .
Question 40. In Niebler’s opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project are ________ .
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
B. The SAgE project alone will offer student sufficient jobs in urban agriculture.
C. ATE helps to improve the skill of technicians in the nation major industries.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. My friend (A) offered (B) finding more information (C) about the company that I was
applying (D) to.
Question 44. Many animal (A) species are becoming (B) endangered or even (C) extinction due to (D)
habitat destruction.
Question 45. When students (A) do not know (B) what they want to do after (C) leave school, they
could (D) consider some other options.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “How beautiful the dress you have just bought is!” Peter said to Mary.
D. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.
Question 47. Thanks to her high grades at university, Linh is offered the position.
A. If she got high grades at university, Linh would be offered the position.
B. It was her high grades at university which offer Linh the position.
C. If she hadn’t got high grades at university, Linh would not have been offered the position.
D. If she had not got high grades at university, Linh would not be offered the position.
Question 48. He played volleyball with his friends, then he went home.
Question 49. I did not turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up.
A. I did not turn on the television for fear of waking the baby up.
B. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
C. I decided to turn the television volume down to avoid waking the baby up.
Question 50. Fossil fuels come from dead plants and animals. These plants and animals died millions of
years ago.
A. Plants and animals that died millions of years ago become fossil fuels.
B. Fossil fuels come from plants and animals that died millions of years ago.
C. Fossil fuels were made from plants and animals that died.
D. Plants and animals died millions of years ago to become fossil fuels today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I ________ a new alarm clock the other day when I actually ________ somebody
shoplifting.
Question 7. Whoever ________ up with the new idea will win the prize.
Question 8. In less developed countries, ________ slums form both on the edges and within the largest
cities.
Question 9. The more carefully humans mind their daily activities, _______ on the environment.
A. the less harmful impact have they B. the less harmful impact they have
C. the less impact harmful they have D. the less harmful they have impact
Question 10. Students are made ________ with the rules of the school.
Question 11. By the end of this year, the Wildlife Conservation Network ________ $50 thousand
dollars.
Question 12. Please cut my hair ________ the style in this magazine.
Question 13. He is credited for helping numerous endangered species recover _______ certain
extinction.
Question 14. Although she was experienced, she was not ________ .
Question 15. I’d rather not ________ about it in such an unfavorable circumstance.
Question 16. The government is trying not to ________ the money they are spending on vocational
training.
Question 17. I’m the only person here who went to state school, ________ ?
A. am I? B. aren’t I C. do I D. didn’t I?
Question 18. The sky was grey and cloudy. ________ , we went to the beach.
Question 19. The teacher ________ her to improve her listening skills.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. All techniques help medical doctors to discover subtle interactions between medications
that put patients in jeopardy because of their serious side effect.
Question 21. Finally, Linda decided to quit her job as she couldn’t stand doing the same things days in
days out. It’s so monotonous!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Although many of his policies are still considered controversial, they helped Singapore to
overcome many obstacles and become one of the most admired international business and financial
centres around the world.
Question 23. Smart robots have replaced humans in stressful and hazardous jobs and in assembly lines.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tim: “My life’s got stuck these days. I am so depressed and unable to think of anything.” -
Henry: “ ________ .”
Question 25. Hoa: “Mom, I’ve got the first rank in class this semester!” - Mom: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Nowadays, everybody knows Apples and almost everybody knows that the company was founded by
Steve Jobs, an American inventor and entrepreneur. He is (26) _______ recognized as a pioneer in the
field of microcomputer revolution. He helped design the first Macintosh computer, (27) _______ a small
computer graphics company into Pixar, the company behind Toy Story and The Monster Inc.
His countercultural lifestyle and philosophy was a product of the time and place of his (28) ________
. Jobs was adopted and raised in San Francisco Bay Area during the 1960s. In 1972, Jobs attended Reed
College from which he dropped out in next to no time. Jobs co-founded Apple in 1976 in order to sell
Apple I personal computer. At that moment, he might hardly imagine that only a year later the company
tasted impressive victory with Apple II, one of the first highly successful (29) _______ personal
computers. Unfortunately, in 1985, following a long power struggle, Jobs was forced out of Apple. After
leaving Apple, Jobs took a few of its members with him to found NeXT, a computer development
company which was then bought by Apple. The purchase (30) _______ Jobs to become the company’s
CEO once again.
C. massive-produced D. mass-producing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Super skyscrapers, underwater cities, 3D-printed homes, and holidays in space will all be a reality in
100 years’ time, according to the SmartThings Future Living Report. The report presented findings from
a survey conducted by Samsung’s SmartThings company with a group of experts on space, architecture,
and urban planners. Several futurologists and adults of different occupations also took part in the survey.
The experts suggest that in a century’s time humans will be able to live in ‘Earth-scrapers’, which
will go up to 25 storeys underground. They also believe that ‘bubble cities’ will be created underwater
making the depths habitable for humans. They say the way we live, work and play will be totally
different to how we do these things today. The authors of the report say that 25 years ago, people could
not imagine how the Internet and smartphones would change our lives. They have revolutionised the
way we communicate, learn and do daily things. So, it is understandable that the changes in the next
century would be even more unbelievable.
Researchers also questioned 2,000 adults about the predictions they thought were most likely to
happen in the future. Respondents predict that in the future, few people will go to an office but will work
from home and have virtual work meetings instead. People will have advanced 3D printers that will let
us download a design for furniture or a food recipe and then ‘print’ the sofa, table or pizza at home.
There will also be less need for visits to the doctor. We will all have a home health capsule which will
tell us what the problem is and give us treatment. We will also go into space for holidays and to get
resources that we have used up on Earth. A prediction that was missing was about the popularity of
English – whether people would still need to study English or not.
Question 34. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT that ________ .
B. ‘bubble cities’ will be created underwater making the depths habitable for humans
C. people will all use a global social networking and be able to contact anywhere
D. the way we live, work and play will be totally different to how we do these things today
Question 35. According to the paragraph, what is TRUE about future life?
A. No one will work from home and have virtual work meetings.
C. Earth citizens will all have a home health capsule which will be capable of giving treatment to any
disease.
D. English will become more popular as it will be the only means of communication.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Carnegie Hall, which is a famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration.
While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this
new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the
late 1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts
hall where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, the concert hall suffered from
several detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people could
afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a
result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick
and terra cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality
of the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to
allow for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling, but the
hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate
developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site.
This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York
to buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the
current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the hole
in the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and
closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never
looked more promising.
Question 37. In the second paragraph, what is the meaning of the word “detrimental”?
A. A violinist B. An architect
Question 41. What was probably the most important aspect of the recent renovation?
A. Restoring the outer wall. B. Expanding the lobby.
Question 42. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in the last paragraph?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The world’s first (A) electronic computer was (B) building by the (C) university of
Pennsyvania in (D) 1946.
Question 44. In this throw-away society, (A) instead of having an old (B) electronics device (C) fixed,
people (D) tend to toss it away and buy a new one.
Question 45. Before the invention of e-mail and the Internet in 1972, (A) it took people (B) at least one
day to (C) cause hand-written letters sent to the (D) recipients’ homes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 47. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t open the door.
Question 48. “You shouldn’t have told the truth, Kelly!” said Tom.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Many industries today use highly automated vehicles. They can drive with almost no
human intervention.
A. Although many industries today use many automated vehicles, they can drive without human
intervention.
B. Many industries today use highly automated vehicles which can drive with almost no human
intervention.
C. With almost no human intervention, many industries today can run highly automated
vehicles.
D. When vehicles are highly automated in many industries, humans do not have to intervene in their
operation.
Question 50. Many elephants are poached. Their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.
A. As many elephants are poached, their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.
B. Unless many elephants are poached, their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.
C. Many elephants are poached because their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.
D. Many elephants are poached, so their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. laughed B. wicked C. ragged D. naked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. His father used to be a ________ professor at the university. Many students respected him.
Question 6. Migrants may lose their cultural identity as they become ________ into the new
community.
Question 7. The government said that they didn’t have enough funds to deal with _______ medical care.
Question 8. We should ________ waste paper ________ cut down any trees.
Question 9. A cell phone may take risk going ________ due to unexpected incidents.
A. of B. on C. off D. for
Question 10. If you don’t ________ this opportunity, you might not get another one.
Question 11. How long ________ in your old house before you moved in this flat?
A. did you live B. do you lives C. have you lived D. had you lived
Question 13. Many young people travel all over the world and do all kinds of jobs before they
________ .
A. lie down B. put down C. touch down D. settle down
Question 14. He has the ________ face and skin of an old traveller.
Question 15. ________ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know _______ exact
number of them.
Question 17. Only after food has been dried or canned ________ .
A. that it should be stored for future use. B. it should be stored for future use.
Question 18. Using renewable resources is the best option for preventing the ________ of fossil-based
resources.
Question 19. We use compact florescent light bulbs, ________ last 10 times longer than incandescent
bulbs.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photos sent to social
networking sites.
Question 21. Although the first printed books had appeared long before in China, the term ‘mass media’
we use today was coined with the creation of print media, which started in Europe in the Middle Ages.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The development of new technologies helped to diversify mass media and make them an
inseparable parts of our lives.
Question 23. Millions of teenagers around the world are addicted to computer and video game.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Hoa: “I apologize to you for being late for class.” Ms. Huong. “ ________ ”
Question 25. Waiter: “How do you like your beef done?” Customer: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In spring 2008, the polar bear was placed on the endangered species list. According to the USA’s
Endangered Species Act, an endangered species is an animal, plant or any other kind of wildlife that is
likely to face extinction in its natural (26) ________ . Polar bears had already been categorized (27)
________ a “threatened” species which the ESA defines as one that is likely to become “endangered” in
the foreseeable future.
The polar bear’s habitat is more (28) ________ to global warming than many other species. Polar
bears live mainly on the sea ice in the Arctic. This is where they hunt for fish and build up fat reserves.
When the ice melts many polar bears move to land and live off their stored fat. In the Arctic, global
warming is causing the ice to melt slightly earlier and form slightly later. This (29) ________ a shorter
feeding season for the polar bear. Some risk their lives to find ice. If they have to swim too far they will
drown from exhaustion and hunger. The World Wildlife Fund (30) ________ that over 25% of Arctic
sea ice has disappeared in the past 30 years.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
American cities are similar to other cities around the world. In every country, cities reflect the values
of the culture. Cities contain the very best aspects of a society: opportunity for education, employment
and entertainment. They also contain the very worst parts of a society: Violent crime, racial conflict and
poverty. American cities are changing, just as American society is changing.
After World War II city resident have become wealthier and more prosperous. They have more
children. They need more space. They move out of their apartments in the city to buy their own homes.
They buy houses in the suburbs, areas near a city where people can live in a peaceful atmosphere and
where there are areas without many offices or factories. During the 1950’s, the American “dream” was
to have a house in the suburbs. Now things are changing. The children of the people who left the cities
in 1950’s are now adults. Unlike their parents, they want to live in the cities. Many young professionals,
doctors, lawyers and executives are moving back into the city. Many are single, others are married, but
often without children. They prefer the city to the suburb because their jobs are there; they are afraid of
the fuel shortage or they just enjoy the excitement and opportunities which the city offers. A new class is
moving into the city - a wealthier and more mobile class. Only a few years ago, people thought the older
American cities were dying. Some city residents now see a bright, new future. Others see only problems
and conflicts. One thing is sure: many dying cities are alive again.
Question 31. The paragraph from “American cities are similar to…” to “just as American society is
changing” ________ .
B. is a description of cities
Question 33. In “Now things ... mobile class”, the author mentions _________ reasons why people want
to live in cities.
Question 35. The movement of people to and from the city can explain ________ .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The main difference between urban growth in Europe and in the American colonies was the slow
evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of
centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as
wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism’s in little more than a century.
In the early colonial day in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline,
mostly in what are now New America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic United States and in the
lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and
France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many
consumer goods were imported Merchandising establishments were, accordingly, advantageously
located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior settlements. Here, too,
were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York,
Montreal, and other cities flourished, and, as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance.
This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as
plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic
coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to
the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located
on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of
the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water
highway.
When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as large
as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 10,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded
a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning and
weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was
particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861- 1865).
D. The effects of the United Sates’ independence on urban growth in New England.
Question 38. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic
coastline of North America due to ________ .
D. a favorable climate
Question 39. Which of the following did the Atlantic coastline cities prepare for shipment to Europe
during colonial times?
Question 40. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced
the growth of southern cities EXCEPT the ________ .
Question 41. It can be inferred from the passage that, in comparison with northern, cities, most southern
cities were ________ .
Question 42. The word “drawing” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .
Question 43. She (A) was walking to (B) the library to borrow (C) some books when she (D) was
seeing a robbery.
Question 44. I (A) feel a (B) certain apprehension (C) with my interview (D) tomorrow.
Question 45. It (A) is time the government (B) helped (C) the unemployment to find (D) some jobs.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Friday,” said the teacher to the students.
Question 47. There were so many people on the bus that Sally couldn’t get a seat.
A. The bus was too crowded for Sally not to get a seat.
B. The bus was so crowded that there was nowhere for Sally to sit.
D. The crowded bus did not prevent Sally from getting a seat.
Question 48. You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the computer screen all day.
A. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the computer screen all day.
B. Sitting in front of the computer screen all day helps you take regular exercises.
C. Sitting in front of the computer screen all day and taking exercises are advisable.
D. Don’t take regular exercises, and sit in front of the computer screen all day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 50. I didn’t understand his explanation. I asked him to repeat what he had said.
A. I didn’t understand his explanation because I asked him to repeat what he had said.
B. I didn’t understand his explanation, and I asked him to repeat what he had said.
C. I didn’t understand his explanation, for I asked him to repeat what he had said.
D. I didn’t understand his explanation, so I asked him to repeat what he had said.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. People have always depended on animals and plants for food, clothing, medicine, shelter
and many other ________ .
Question 8. By the time you finish cooking, they ________ their homework.
A. are doing B. have been doing C. have done D. will have done
Question 9. After working at the same company for thirty years, my grandfather was looking forward to
his ________ .
Question 10. Jane didn't check she had enough petrol before she left, ________ was careless of her.
A. had suggested - should not smoke B. suggested - should have not smoked
Question 12. The more you talk about the problem, ________ .
Question 13. The continued ________ of our ozone may cause terrible destruction to our planet.
Question 14. He is not ________ and finds it difficult to pay for daily necessities.
Question 15. You can always count ________ Peter because he is such a reliable person.
A. up B. on C. with D. for
Question 16. We managed to finish the exercises on time and passed the exam. ________ , it was very
difficult.
Question 17. He is ________ - influenced by his father and grandfather. His behaviors and decisions are
exactly the same.
Question 18. Many ethnic groups find it difficult to ________ their own language or preserve their
culture.
Question 19. Vietnam, the Philippines, India, Indonesia and other Asian countries are making
substantial commitments to ________ their natural resources.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. My new neighbor plays music at mid night and it’s getting on my nerves.
C. to be annoying someone more and more D. to avoid someone you don’t like much
Question 21. The director tried to depict the lives of the poor in his movie.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Both universities speak highly of the development of the strategic partnership in all fields.
Question 23. Doctors and nurses around the world have been working round the clock to help those
contracting coronavirus.
Question 24. Hoa: " ________ ". - Lan: "This one, please."
C. Which of these books do you want? D. You like these books, don’t you?
Question 25. Tim: “Why don’t we use solar energy to protect the environment?”
Sarah: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
(26) ________ pollution has existed for centuries but only started to be significant following the
industrial revolution in the 19th century. Pollution occurs when the natural environment cannot destroy
an element without creating harm or damage to (27) ________ . The elements involved are not produced
by nature, and the destroying process can vary from a few days to thousands of years (that is, for
instance, the case for radioactive pollutants). In other words, pollution take place when nature does not
know how to decompose an element that has been brought to it in an unnatural way.
Pollution must (28) ________ seriously, as it has a negative effect (29) ________ natural elements
that are an absolute need for life to exist on earth, such as water and air. Indeed, without them, or (30)
________ they were present on different quantities, animals – including humans – and plants could not
survive. We can identify several types of pollution on Earth: air pollution, water pollution and soil
pollution.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
People who experience allergies might joke that their immune systems have let them down or are
seriously lacking. Truthfully though, people who experience allergic reactions or allergy symptoms
during certain times of the year have heightened immune systems that are “better” than those of people
who have good health but less militant immune systems.
Still, when people have an allergic reaction, they are having an adverse reaction to a substance
that is considered normal to most people. Mild allergic reactions usually have symptoms like itching,
runny nose, red eyes, or bumps or discoloration of the skin. More serious allergic reactions, such as
those to animal and insect poisons or certain foods, may result in the closing of the throat, swelling of
the eyes, low blood pressure, an inability to breathe, and can even be fatal.
Different treatments help different allergies, and which one a person uses depends on the nature
and severity of the allergy. It is recommended to patients with severe allergies to take extra precautions,
such as carrying an EpiPen, which treats anaphylactic shock and may prevent death, always in order for
the remedy to be readily available and more effective. When an allergy is not so severe, treatments may
be used just to relieve uncomfortable symptoms of a person. Over the counter allergy medicines treat
milder symptoms, and can be bought at any grocery store and used in moderation to help people with
allergies live normally.
There are many tests available to assess whether a person has allergies or what they may be
allergic to, and advances in these tests and the medicine used to treat patients continues to improve.
Despite this fact, allergies still affect many people throughout the year or even every day. Medicines
used to treat allergies have side effects of their own, and it is difficult to bring the body into balance with
the use of medicine. Regardless, many of those who live with allergies are grateful for what is available
and find it useful in maintaining their lifestyles.
Question 31. The word “adverse” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .
Question 32. The author says that “medicines used to treat allergies have side effects of their own” to
________ .
A. point out that doctors aren’t very good at diagnosing and treating allergies
B. argue that because of the large number of people with allergies, a cure will never be found
C. explain that allergy medicines aren’t cures and some compromise must be made
D. argues that more wholesome remedies should be researched and medicines banned
Question 33. It can be inferred that ________ recommend that some people with allergies carry
medicine with them.
A. the author B. doctors
A. inform readers on symptoms of allergies so people with allergies can get help
C. inform readers on different remedies so people with allergies receive the right help
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. People who experience a mild allergic reaction can have an uncomfortable feeling on their skin
that makes them want to scratch.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
The Missouri River is the longest tributary of the Mississippi River, and it begins its trip to join the
Mississippi in the Rocky Mountains in Montana. The Missouri flows eastward to central North Dakota,
where it turns southward across South Dakota, Nebraska, and Iowa. When it reaches Missouri, it turns
eastward at Kansas city and meanders across central Missouri to join the Mississippi River, about 10
miles north of St. Louis, after traveling 2,315 miles.
Its drainage basin occupies about 529, 400 square miles of the Great Plains. Elevations within its
basin are extreme: from 14,000 feet above sea level in the Rockies near the Continental Divide to 400
feet where it joins the Mississippi. The flow of the Missouri changes frequently from 4,200 cubic feet
per second to 900,000 cubic feet per second.
Its mouth was discovered in 1673 by the French explorers Jacques Marquette and Louis Joliet
while they were canoeing down the Mississippi River. In the early 1700s, French fur traders began to
navigate upstream. The first exploration of the river from its mouth to its headwaters was made in 1804-
1805 by Meriwether Lewis and William Clark. For many years, the river was, except for fur traders,
little used by the earliest American settlers moving west. The American Fur Company began to use
steamers on the river in 1830 but began to decline in the following year with the completion of the
Hannibal and St. Joseph Railway to St. Joseph, Missouri.
For the first 150 years after settlement along the river, the Missouri was not developed as a useful
waterway or as a source of irrigation and power. In 1940, a comprehensive program was started for
flood control and water-resource development in the Missouri River basin.
The Fort Peck Dam is one of the largest earth fill dams in the world. The entire system of dams
and reservoirs has greatly reduced flooding on the Missouri and provides water to irrigate millions of
acres of farmland. Electricity for many communities is generated along the river’s upper course.
Question 36. In which state does the Missouri begin its trip to the Mississippi?
Question 37. The passage implies that the elevation of the Missouri River’s drainage basin ________ .
C. changes frequently
D. drops more than 13,000 feet between the Rocky Mountains and its mouth on the Mississippi
Question 38. Which of the following is the closest in meaning to the word “mouth” as it is used in the
passage?
D. Oral cavity
Question 40. Where were steamers first used on the Missouri River?
A. 1673 B. 1700 C. 1804 D. 1830
Question 41. When was a flood control program for the Missouri River begun?
Question 42. In the passage, all of the following topics are briefly discusses EXCEPT ________ .
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) The more you (B) practise speaking in your class, (C) the more better you are (D) at
public speaking.
Question 44. Many countries around the world (A) protect endangered species (B) by forbidding
hunting, (C) to restrict land development (D) and creating preserves.
Question 45. I (A) think (B) a good health is important, and so is (C) education while (D) money, to
some extent, is not.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. My cousin quickly adapted to his new job in this big company.
A. My cousin was used to adapting to his new job in this big company.
B. My cousin’s new job in this big company was easy for him to adapt to.
C. My cousin quickly got used to his new job in this big company.
D. My cousin was able to do his new job in this big company easily.
Question 47. No one in the team can play better than Tim.
Question 48. I’m sure Lucy was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Lucy must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Lucy could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
B. Had the secretary knocked at the door, I would have arrived at work.
C. No sooner had I arrived at work than the secretary knocked at the door.
D. I hardly knew the secretary knocked at the door as I just arrived at work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. discrimination B. disability C. scholarship D. describe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Many materials have been used for ________ teeth, including wood.
Question 6. My daughter is planning to spend a year before university working in New York, ________
seems to me to be a sensible idea.
Question 7. The first wave of urban ________ took place in more developed countries, especially in
Europe and North America.
Question 8. It was a good idea that everyone ________ early to arrive on time.
Question 9. She could ________ in the garage when we arrived. That might be why she didn’t hear the
bell.
Question 10. Our country is now enjoying a period of relative ________ and prosperity.
Question 11. Parents shouldn’t put too much pressure ________ their children.
A. of B. in C. at D. on
Question 14. ________ want to get this job have to have good qualifications and experience.
Question 15. They were quite impressed by the ________ students who came up with the answer to
their question immediately.
Question 16. Mr. Nam has just bought a ________ table for his living room.
Question 17. The land around the village is being polluted ________ the factory keeps releasing
harmful chemicals into the soil.
Question 18. As soon as the film ________ , Lan realised she ________ it before.
Question 19. ________ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of
dance and mime performed to music.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
Question 22. Though I persuaded my manager to solve a very serious problem, she just made light of
it.
Question 23. Thousands of people are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Lisa: “See you again and have a nice weekend.”
- Tim: “ ________ ”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. You’re welcome. C. The same to you. D. I don’t think so.
Question 25. Nam: “Do you know where the match between our team with Thailand will be held?”
- Hung: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Most of us have looked up at the sky and seen what is commonly called a falling, or shooting, star.
These momentary streaks occur when meteors, object generally (26) ________ from the size of dust (27)
________ to fist-size masses, enter the earth’s atmosphere at speeds up to 44 miles per second and
ionized (or heated) to incandescence 50 to 75 miles above the earth. Few of these objects survive their
encounter (28) ________ our atmosphere.
What we see here on earth, mostly at night, is a streak of light that lasts about a half a second on the
(29) ________ . Generally speaking, the larger the material that enters the earth’s atmosphere, the
brighter the meteor. Brighter meteors will occasionally leave a smoke trail behind in their path lasting a
few seconds; trails produced by very bright meteors, (30) ________ to as fireballs, may last minutes.
Fireballs that appear to break up or produce sound are called bolides, from the Greek word bolis
meaning missile.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
In 1969, three people in a tiny spaceship made history with a trip the world will never forget. The
three men were Michael Collins, Edwin “Buzz” Aldrin, and Neil Armstrong. The first manned lunar
landing mission was called Apollo 11 and their destination was the moon. Tens thousands of people
worked on the Apollo project to send those men to the moon. The project, also known as Apollo
program, took 10 years of preparation. The first manned Apollo flight was a disaster because the
spacecraft caught fire on the ground. But NASA continued with the Apollo program. During future
space missions, the astronauts practised flying their space crafts. They also performed the tasks they
needed to know so they were able to fly to the moon and land on it. On the Apollo 8 mission, the
astronauts flew around the Moon ten times. They were almost ready for the first moon landing. The
rocket that carried the spacecraft and the astronauts into orbit around the moon was called the Saturn 5.
It blasted through space at a speed of at least 25,000 miles an hour. Even at that speed, it took 3 days, 3
hours and 49 minutes to reach the moon. The Apollo 11 mission used a special lunar module designed
only for landing on the Moon. It was called the “Eagle”. On July 20, 1969, the Eagle landed on the
Moon’s desolate surface. Only two astronauts actually stepped on the moon that day. Neil Armstrong
became the first person to walk on the moon. Edwin “Buzz” Aldrin followed about twenty minutes later.
The astronauts set up a TV camera, and the whole world watched the landing on TV. Michael Collins
waited for them in the spacecraft and orbited the moon. It was his job to take care of the spacecraft that
would take them all home. He had to make certain nothing happened to it!
Question 31. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?
Question 32. Which Apollo mission took the first astronauts to land on the Moon?
Question 34. How many astronauts walked on the moon on July 20, 1969?
Question 35. What can a reader find out from the text?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness
Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first
American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1931. However, Addams is best known as the
founder of Hull House.
Jane Addams was born in 1860, in a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her
generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her
to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams travelled to Europe. While she
was in London, she visited a ‘settlement house’ called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams
and her friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chicago in 1899.
Hull House provided a day care center for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and
visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House
also became a meeting place for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams
in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use
their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper
poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?”, Jane
Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America’s involvement in World
War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane
Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote.
Addams joined in the movement for women’s suffrage and was a vice president of the National
American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for
the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and was president of the Women’s International League
for Peace and Freedom. . Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died
of cancer in 1935.
Question 36. With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
Question 37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams
C. Those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills
D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country
Question 38. The word “commitment” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .
Question 39. Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because ________ .
A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work
Question 41. The word “contemporaries” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .
Question 42. According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she _______ .
A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) I’d like to (B) see him in my office (C) the moment he (D) will arrive.
Question 44. Some stickers (A) are very funny and make us (B) laugh, (C) yet (D) another can make us
angry because of their ridiculousness.
Question 45. (A) Because oak trees are highly (B) resistant of (C) storm damage, they usually (D) live a
long time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. People think that university is the best way to get a well-paid job.
B. It is thought that university has been the best way to get a well-paid job.
D. University is thought to have been the best way to get a well-paid job.
Question 47. I don’t have enough money, so I can’t have my bike repaired.
Question 48. This is the first time he has attended such an enjoyable party.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I did not see Nam off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.
D. That I did not see Nam off at the airport makes me happy now.
Question 50. The dish is not cheap. The dish is not delicious.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Your son was a bit out of control at the party, to ________ mildly.
Question 11. There was a huge ________ between rich and poor in my village.
Question 13. I think they are ________ fault for not warning us.
Question 14. You don’t know the truth, so don’t ________ to conclusions.
Question 17. Better public transport can help reduce traffic ________ .
A. by B. at C. for D. with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Bob seems like a dog with two tails now. His wife gave birth to a healthy baby girl this
morning.
Question 21. She didn’t bat an eyelid when I told her their bad news.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Because Tom defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mary is making a call for Mr. Mark but she isn’t on the phone.
Mary: "Hello, I’d like to speak with Mr. Mark." - Sarah: “ ________ ”
Question 25. Hoa: “In my opinion, romantic films are more interesting.” – Lan: “ ________ .”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Robots are already a part of our lives. Industrial robots widely used in manufacturing. Military and
police organizations use robots to (26) ________ in dangerous situations. Robots can also be found from
vacuuming the floors in your home to exploring the surface of Mars.
Within a few more years a whole host of robotic adaptations will be running many aspects’ of our
lives. “I think in the next thirty years, we are going to see a (27) ________ between the industrial sorts
of robots to personal robots", says Brooks from Brooks’ company, I Robot, markets floor cleaning
robots for homes.
“The advances in robotics make it clear that many household (28) ________ will be easily handled
by a robot in the near future,” says Bob Christopher, who works for a robotic technology company that
is marketing a toy robot called PLEO. “We have only one child but I could easily (29) ________ five or
six robots in the home as well.”
Within the next 10 years one will be able to (30) ________ , to lease or purchase a domestic robot
that not only does the household cleaning and prepare and serve his meals, but also can carry him to the
bathtub if he cannot walk.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The modern age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio, televisions, and
telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them. When there is a power failure,
people grope about in flickering candlelight, cars hesitate in the streets because there are no traffic lights
to guide them, and food spoils in silent refrigerators. Yet, people began to understand how electricity
works only a little more than two centuries ago. Nature has apparently been experimenting in this field
for millions of years. Scientists are discovering more and more that the living world may hold many
interesting secrets of electricity that could benefit humanity.
All living cells send out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats, it sends out pulses of record;
they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to determine how well the heart is working.
The brain, too, sends our brain waves of electricity, which can be recorded in an electroencephalogram.
The electric currents generated by most living cells are extremely small, often so small that sensitive
instruments are needed to record them. But in some animals, certain muscle cells have become as
specialized as electrical generators that they do not work as muscle cells at all. When large numbers of
these cells are linked together, the effects can be astonishing.
The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight hundred volts of
electricity through the water in which it lives (an electric house current is only one hundred and twenty
volts, but two hundred and twenty volts in China). As many as four-fifths of all the cells in the electric
eel’s body are specialized for generating electricity, and the strength of the shock it can deliver
corresponds roughly to length of its body.
Question 32. The author mentions which of the followings as results of a blackout EXCEPT ________ .
Question 34. How many volts of electricity can an electric eel emit?
Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the _______.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Native Americans from the southeastern part of what is now the United States believed that the
universe in which they lived was made up of three separate, but related, worlds, the Upper World, the
Lower World, and This World. In the last there lived humans, most animals, and all plants.
This World, a round island resting on the surface of waters, was suspended from the sky by four
cords attached to the island at the four cardinal ‘points of the compass. Lines drawn to connect the
opposite points of the compass, from north to south and from east to west, intersected This World to
divide it into four wedge - shaped segments. Thus a’ symbolic representation of the human world was a
cross within a circle, the cross representing the intersecting lines and the circle the shape of This World.
Each segment of This World was identified by its own color. According to Cherokee doctrine, east
was associated with the color red because it was the direction of the Sun, the greatest deity of all. Red
was also the color of fire, believed to be directly connected with the Sun, with blood, and therefore with
life. Finally, red was the color of success. The west was the Moon segment; it provided no warmth and
was not life - giving as the Sun was. So its color was black. North was the direction of cold, and so its
color was blue (sometimes purple), and it represented trouble and defeat. South was the direction of
warmth, its color, white, was associated with peace and happiness.
The southeastern Native Americans universe was one in which opposites were constantly at war
with each other, red against black, blue against white. This World hovered somewhere between the
perfect order and predictability of the Upper World and the total disorder and instability of the Lower
World. The goal was to find some kind of halfway path, or balance, between those other worlds.
Question 36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
Question 38. The author implies that This World was located ________ .
C. above the Upper World D. between the Upper World and Lower World
Question 39. According to the passage, southeastern Native Americans compared This World to
________ .
Question 41. According to the passage, southeastern Native Americans associated red with all of the
following EXCEPT ________ .
Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following colors represented the west for
southeastern Native Americans?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Having (A) finished his paper (B) before the deadline, (C) it was delivered to professor
(D) before the class.
Question 44. Never (A) in the history of humanity (B) there have been (C) more people (D) living on
this relatively small planet.
Question 45. Many teachers objected (A) of (B) them wearing a uniform (C) when they did labor work
(D) at school.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. If only I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam.
Question 47. “I’m terribly sorry, Mary, but I’ve broken your watch”, said Jim.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She tried hard. She couldn’t open the door.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she couldn’t open the door.
Question 50. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised them a lot.
A. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised them most.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tim ________ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work.
Question 6. Any student caught ________ was made to stand at the front of the class.
Question 8. He was suspected ________ having received presents from the local companies and ignored
their violations of the environmental law.
A. about B. on C. of D. for
Question 9. They ________ sacrifices so that their only child could have a good education.
Question 10. Although some of the structures are now ________ , most of the significant existing
monuments have been partially restored.
Question 13. Several measures have been proposed to ________ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. pose B. admit C. address D. create
Question 14. Many people head for the countryside where the flat ________ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
Question 16. I’m ________ about her chances of winning the first prize.
Question 17. Please ________ and see us when you have free time. You’re always welcome.
Question 18. How boring the lecture was! I ________ just in the first half of it.
A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The charges brought against the government official finally hurt nothing but his vanity.
Question 21. Nam is over the moon about his exam result.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23. Your nationality determines your cultural identity as you assimilate to the culture of the
country you live in.
Question 24. Minh: “How well you are playing in this game!” - Mai: “ ________ ”
Question 25. Phuong: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Silicon Valley is home to hundreds of technology companies, so it comes as no surprise that San Jose
has partnered with tech giant Intel to transform itself into a smart city. San Jose and Intel will work (26)
________ to further the city’s Green Vision initiative - a 15-year plan for economic growth,
environmental sustainability, and improved (27) ________ - which it launched in 2007.
Intel expects to help San Jose create 25,000 clean-tech jobs, drive economic growth, and improve the
city’s environmental (28) ________ . To achieve this goal, Intel will work with the city to track real-
time data on air quality, noise pollution, traffic flow, and other environmental and (29) ________
concerns - which it will then use to encourage (30) ________ to reduce emissions by carpooling or using
public transportation or bicycles to get to work or school.
Question 27. A. a love of life B. a good life C. the life of quality D. quality of life
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In spite of the wealth of examples of urban architecture in older cities, both in Europe and in the
United States solutions to current problems of the physical decay of cities in the United States have
come slowly. The first reaction after the war was to bulldoze and build bright new towers and efficient
roadways, but these solutions did not respond to people. By the close of the 1960’s it became more
common to deal gently with the existing urban fabric and to insert new buildings in such a way as to
complement the physical and social environment; in other cases valued buildings have been rehabilitated
and returned to economic productivity. A particularly striking example is the rehabilitation of
Ghirardelli Square, San Francisco. This, hillside melange of nineteenth-century commercial buildings
clustered around a chocolate plant, was purchased in 1962 by William Roth to forestall wholesale
development of the waterfront as a district of high-rent apartment towers. Nearly all of the nineteenth-
century buildings were retained and refurbished, and a low arcade was added on the waterside. There are
several levels, dotted with kiosks and fountains, which offer varied prospects of San Francisco Bay.
Perhaps most telling is the preservation of the huge Ghirardelli sign as an important landmark; it is such
improbable, irrational, and cherished idiosyncrasies which give cities identity and character.
Question 31. The author’s main purpose in the passage is to describe ________ .
A. the differences between urban architecture in Europe and in the United States
Question 32. According to the passage, after the war many of the attempts of urban architects failed
because ________ .
Question 33. The author discusses Ghirardelli Square in order to illustrate which of the following
procedures?
B. The selective removal of old buildings to create space for residential units
Question 34. According to the passage, the Ghirardelli sign was preserved because it ________ .
Question 35. The sentence in lines 14-16 would best keep its meaning if “most telling” were replaced
by ________ .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
There were two widely divergent influences on the early development of statistical methods.
Statistics had a mother who was dedicated to keeping orderly records of governmental units (state and
statistics come from the same Latin root status) and a gentlemanly gambling father who relied on
mathematics to increase his skill at playing the odds in games of chance. The influence of the mother on
the offspring, statistics, is represented by counting, measuring, describing, tabulating, ordering, and the
taking of censuses-all of which led to modern descriptive statistics. From the influence of the father
came modern inferential statistics, which is based squarely on theories of probability.
Descriptive statistics involves tabulating, depicting, and describing collections of data. These data
may be either quantitative, such as measures of height, intelligence, or grade level-159 variables that are
characterized by an underlying continuum-or the data may represent qualitative variables, such as sex,
college major, or personality type. Large masses of data must generally undergo a process of
summarization or reduction before they are comprehensible. Descriptive statistics is a tool for describing
or summarizing or reducing to comprehensible form the properties of an otherwise unwieldy mass of
data.
Inferential statistics is a formalized body of methods for solving another class of problems that
present great difficulties for the unaided human mind. This general class of problems characteristically
involves attempts to make predictions using a sample of observations. For example a school
superintendent wishes to determine the proportion of children in a large school system who come to
school without breakfast have been vaccinated for flu or whatever. Having a little knowledge of
statistics, the superintendent would know that it is unnecessary and inefficient to question each child; the
proportion for the entire district could be estimated fairly accurately from a sample of as few as 100
children. Thus, the purpose of inferential statistics is to predict or estimate characteristics of a population
from a knowledge of the characteristics of only a sample of the population.
Question 37. According to the first paragraph, counting and describing are associated with ________ .
Question 38. Why does the author mention the “mother” and “father” in the first paragraph?
Question 39. The word “squarely” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT given as an example of a qualitative variable?
Question 41. Which of the following statements about descriptive statistics is best supported by the
passage?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The workers are (A) building (B) a new bridge (C) which is 200 meters in (D) high.
Question 44. My friend (A) gave me (B) some useful advices when I met (C) with many difficulties (D)
in looking for a job.
Question 45. The lesson (A) that we are learning (B) now is very (C) excited (D) but difficult.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “Why don’t you ask the teacher for help?” my friend said.
D. My friend wants to know why I don’t ask the teacher for help.
Question 47. She was successful in her career thanks to her parents’ support.
A. But for her parents’ support, she wouldn’t have been successful in her career.
B. If her parents hadn’t supported her, she would have been successful in her career.
C. Had it not been for her parents’ support, she wouldn’t be successful in her career.
D. Had her parents supported her, she wouldn’t be successful in her career.
Question 48. I think that no city is more beautiful than New York.
D. I think New York isn’t more beautiful than other cities in the world.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 50. Even though some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival.
A. No matter how many people attended the festival, some events were cancelled.
D. Despite the cancellation of some events, thousands of people attended the festival.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. It is difficult for museums to find funds to protect the nation’s ________ .
Question 8. My mother is always willing to lend ________ to me when I have problems in life.
Question 12. ________ will Mr. Huy be able to regain control of the company
C. No matter how does he work hardly D. Not until his work hard
Question 13. He nearly lost his own life ________ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
Question 14. I could hear voices but I couldn’t ________ what they were saying.
Question 16. Many wild animals are ________ threat ________ extinction.
Question 18. I’m really dissatisfied with the way you have ________ the situation.
Question 19. The fire caused ________ damage that the high building had to be demolished.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago.
Question 21. It was inevitable that this smaller company should merge with a larger one.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. In some Western cultures, people who avoid eye contact in a conversation are regarded as
untrustworthy.
Question 23. In some societies, language is associated with social class and education. People judge
one’s level in society by the kind of language used.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mary: “Thanks a lot for your help.” - John: “ ________ .”
A. My happiness B. My excitement C. My delight D. My pleasure
Question 25. Peter: “Do you need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?” - Jane: “ ________ .”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Since 1991, Viet Nam Assistance for the Handicapped (VNAH), a non-profit organization,
(26) ________ with both international and private donors to assist people with disabilities in Viet
Nam. Its main aim is to help disabled people to overcome their (27) ________ .
To create job (28) ________ for disable people, VNAH supports vocational skills training,
mainstream employment for employment service providers.
To help disadvantaged people, VNAH has (29) ________ the Office of Disabilities Technical
Assistance (ODTA) in Hanoi. In addition, VNAH provided technical (30) ________ and other support
to the Vietnamese Government and National Assembly partners for development of disability policies.
Currently, VNAH is working to support Vietnamese government agencies and other partners in
implementing the U.N. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD), the Disability
Law and other disability national action plans.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Grandma Moses is among the most famous twentieth-century painters of the United States, yet she
did not start painting until she was in her late seventies. As she once said to herself: “I would never sit
back in a rocking chair, waiting for someone to help me”. No one could have had a more productive old
age.
She was born Anna Mary Robertson on a farm in New York State, one of five boys and five girls.
At twelve she left home and was in domestic service until, at twenty-seven, she married Thomas Moses,
the hired hand of one of her employers. They farmed most of their lives, first in Virginia and then in
New York State, at Eagle Bridge. She had ten children, of whom five survived; her husband died in
1927.
Grandma Moses painted a little as a child and made embroidery pictures as a hobby, but only
changed to oils in old age because her hands had become too stiff to sew and she wanted to keep busy
and pass the time. Her pictures were first sold at the local drugstore and at a market and were soon
spotted by a dealer who bought everything she painted. Three of the pictures exhibited in the Museum
of Modern Art, and in 1940 she had her first exhibition in New York. Between the 1930s and her death,
she produced some 2,000 pictures: detailed and lively portrayals of the country life she had known for so
long, with a wonderful sense of color and form. “I think really hard till I think of something really
pretty, and then I paint it” she said.
Question 31. According to the passage, Grandma Moses began to paint because she wanted to
________ .
Question 34. From Grandma Moses’ description of herself in the first paragraph, it can be inferred that
she was ________ .
Question 35. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
C. Grandma Moses: Her Best Exhibition. D. Grandma Moses and Other Older Artists.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Initially Jefferson sent his minister to France, Robert Livingston, offered Napoleon $2 million for a
small tract of land on the lower Mississippi. There, Americans could build their own seaport. Impatient
at the lack of news, Jefferson sent James Monroe to Paris to offer $10 million for New Orleans and West
Florida. Almost at the same time, and unknown to Jefferson, France had offered all of Louisiana to
Livingston for $15 million. Though the transaction was quickly sealed, there were those who objected to
the purchase on the grounds that the Constitution did not provide for purchasing territory. However,
Jefferson temporarily set aside his idealism to tell his supporters in Congress that “what is practicable
must often control what is pure theory”. The majority agreed. Jefferson later admitted that he had
stretched his power “till it cracked” in order to buy Louisiana, the largest single land purchase in
American history.
B. How America doubled in size overnight, through its largest single land purchase
Question 37. How much was paid for each acre of land according to the passage?
A. ending the threat of war with France B. opening up land west of the Mississippi
Question 39. The word “acquiring” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .
C. Jefferson sent Robert Livingston to France with an offer for New Orleans and West Florida
Question 41. The word “idealism” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .
Question 42. According to the passage, the word “power” in the passage refers to Jefferson using
________ .
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Sleeping all day, (B) to eat too (C) much and (D) never going out is unhealthy.
Question 44. She (A) must lose her way; (B) otherwise, she (C) would have arrived (D) by now.
Question 45. Many (A) non-disabled people still (B) has negative attitudes (C) towards children with
(D) cognitive impairments.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. If only you told me the truth about the theft.
Question 47. Without transportation, our modern society could not exist.
Question 48. The black shirt is more expensive than the white one.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He could escape from hurt. He was wearing protective clothes.
Question 50. I didn’t pay attention to the teacher. I failed to understand the lesson.
B. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the teacher.
C. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher.
D. Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. psychiatrist B. resume C. summer D. cascade
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. My younger brother is very keen ________ comics and short stories.
A. for B. on C. at D. in
Question 8. He is very happy because he passed his exam with ________ colours.
Question 9. Five people were seriously ________ in the road accident yesterday.
Question 10. I was late for work this morning because the alarm didn’t ________ as usual.
Question 12. When her husband died I called her to express my ________ .
Question 13. When she spoke over the phone, her voice was so ________ that I could hardly near her.
Question 15. It’s no use getting ________ him. He won’t change his mind.
Question 16. The sky was grey and cloudy. ________ , we went to the beach.
Question 18. People have used coal and oil to ________ electricity for a long time.
Question 19. The energy ________ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed
Congress to issue money.
Question 21. Help and supports are rapidly sent to wherever there are victims of catastrophe.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The wealthy man stood idly by while the poor people starved.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. – Minh: “By the time I’m 30, I’ll be a millionaire and married to a supermodel.”
Hoa: “ ________ ”
A. Yes, take care! B. In your dreams! C. Hands off! D. Oh, what a shame!
Question 25. The man: “You haven’t lived here long, have you?”
Hoa:” ________ ”.
A. Yes, just a few days B. No, I live here for a long time
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been
noticed that the difference (26) ________ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green
spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat
generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to
thunderstorms (27) ________ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (28) ________ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the
government has (29) ________ to transform it into a “city within a garden” and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One
outcome was the creation of 18 “Supertrees” – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one
is a vertical freestanding garden and is (30) ________ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar
panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-
sufficient.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Forces other than damaging winds are also at work inside tornadoes. Sometimes, as the writhing,
twisting funnel passes over a house, the walls and ceiling burst apart as if a bomb had gone off inside.
This explosion is caused by the low air pressure at the center of a tornado. The pressure at the center of a
tornado is usually 13 pounds per square inch. However, inside the house the air pressure is normal,
about 15 pounds per square inch. The difference of 2 pounds per square inch between the inside and
outside pressure may not seem like much. But suppose a tornado funnel passes over a small building that
measures 20 by 10 feet. On each square inch of the building, there is 2 pounds of pressure from the
inside that is not balanced by air pressure outside the building. On the ceiling, that adds up to an
unbalanced pressure of 57,600 pounds. The pressure on the four walls adds up to 172,800 pounds. If
windows are open in the building, some of the inside air will rush out through them. This will balance
the pressure inside and outside the building. But if the windows are shut tightly, the enormous inside
pressure may cause the building to burst. Unfortunately, heavy rain and hail often occur in
thunderstorms that later produce tornadoes. So people frequently shut all windows to protect their
property. This may cause far worse damage later. For the same reason, tornado cellars must have an air
vent. Otherwise, the cellar door might be blown out when a tornado passes over it.
Question 31. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
Question 32. According to the passage, tornadoes can destroy buildings because the ________ .
D. air pressure inside a tornado is less than the air pressure inside a building
Question 33. According to the passage, what is the difference per square inch between the air pressure
inside a building and the air pressure inside a tornado?
Question 34. According to the passage, the pressure on a building during a tornado can be relieved by
________ .
Question 35. According to the passage, people close their windows to prevent damage caused by
________ .
A. tornadoes B. thunderstorms
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Certainly one of the most intelligent and best educated women of her day, Mercy Otis Warren
produced a variety of poetry and prose. Her farce The Group (1776) was the hit of revolutionary Boston,
a collection of two plays and poems appeared in 1790, and the three- volume History of the Rise,
Progress, and Termination of the American Revolution. Interspersed with Biographical and Moral,
Observations appeared in 1805. She wrote other farces, as well as anti-Federalist pamphlet Observations
on the New Constitution, and on the Federal and State Conventions (1788). There is no modern edition
of her works, but there are two twentieth-century biographies, one facsimile edition of The Group, and a
generous discussion of her farces and plays in Arthur Hubson Quinn’s A History of the American
Drama From the Beginning to the Civil War. Of her non-dramatic poetry, critics rarely speak Mercy
Otis was born into a prominent family in Barnstable, Massachusetts. In 1754, she married James
Warren, a Harvard friend of James Otis and John Adams, comes Warren was to become a member of the
Massachusetts legislature just before the war and a financial aide to Washington during the war with the
rank of major general. The friendship of the Warrens and Adamses was lifelong and close: Abigail
Adams was one of Mercy Warren’s few close friends. Following the war. James Warren reentered
politics to oppose the Constitution because he feared that it did not adequately provide for protection of
individual rights. Mercy Warren joined her husband in political battle, out the passage of the Bill of
flights marked the end of their long period of political agitation.
In whatever literary form Warren wrote, she had but one theme-liberty. In her farces and history, it
was national and political freedom. In her poems, it was intellectual freedom. In her anti-Federalist
pamphlet, it was individual freedom. Throughout all of these works, moreover, runs the thread of
freedom (equal treatment) for women. Not militant, she nevertheless urged men to educate their
daughters and to treat their wives as equals.
Question 36. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Mercy Otis Warren and other poets of the Revolutionary War period
Question 37. In what year was Warren’s pamphlet about the Constitution written?
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a kind of writing done by Warren?
Question 39. The author implies that Mercy Otis Warren felt the Constitution would fail to protect
________ .
Question 40. In the passage, the word “but” could best be replaced by which of the following?
Question 41. According to the passage, the kind of liberty emphasized in Warren’s poems was
________ .
Question 42. In the passage, the author refers to Warren as “not militant” to indicate that she ________
.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Even though the extremely (B) bad weather in the mountains, the (C) climbers
decided (D) not to cancel their climb.
Question 44. (A) Ever since the world (B) began, nations (C) have difficulty in (D) keeping peace with
their neighbors.
Question 45. (A) His father was (B) quite satisfied (C) about his (D) success.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. My sister was still bad at English although she put much effort into it.
A. My sister was still bad at English despite the fact that she put much effort into it.
B. My sister was still bad at English, so she put much effort into it.
C. My sister was still bad at English so that she put much effort into it.
D. My sister was still bad at English and she put much effort into it.
Question 48. My mother last had her eyes tested ten months ago.
B. My mother had not tested her eyes for ten months then.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. We arrived at the conference. We realized our reports were still at home.
A. Not until we arrived at the conference did we realize that our reports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the conference and realized that our reports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the conference, we realized our reports were still at home.
D. It was until we arrived at the conference that we realize our reports were still at home.
Question 50. We planned to visit Ba Na Hills in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee, however.
A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Ba Na Hills in the afternoon because of the fee.
B. We visited Ba Na Hills in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.
C. We were going to visit Ba Na Hills in the afternoon, but the fee was too high for us.
D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Ba Na Hills in the afternoon.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I’m carefully prepared for my interview and I’m confident that I can answer any questions
they may care to ________ me.
Question 7. She asked Tom to ________ the children while she went to the shops.
Question 8. Everyone can join our club, ________ age and sex.
Question 11. No one won the match; the final result was a(n) ________ .
Question 12. The doctors hope to ________ the source of the infection which has been a mystery for the
medical community since its discovery.
Question 13. After my husband ________ his work, he went straight home.
Question 14. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be ________ to health.
Question 15. My sister went ________ the competition and won the first prize.
A. unless B. in case C. so D. as
Question 17. I truly respected my father and always ________ by his rule.
Question 19. On hearing that she failed the entrance exam, Hanh couldn’t help _______ into tears.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these plants.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. My aunt, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play the guitar.
Question 23. She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad
to study.
A. made room for B. put in charge of C. got in touch with D. lost control of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mai and Hung are talking about what to do after work.
Mai: “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - Hung:“ ________ ”
Question 25. Lisa: “How are things with Sarah?” - Mary: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
One of the best ways to help teenagers (26) ________ their existing skills and build upon their desire
(27) ________ independence may be to give them a space away from their parents to grow and develop.
The military boarding school environment provides a structured environment to promote autonomy in
teens, through the presentation of new opportunities, the need to develop life skills, and the ability to test
internal resources required when parents aren’t around.
Many parents struggle to encourage (28) ________ in teenagers, as they instinctively strive to fix
problems that emerge within their sons’ lives - (29) ________ them from challenge, which can prevent
them from discovering new ways to solve problems. At boarding schools, students have no choice (30)
________ to rely upon their own abilities to deal with issues and overcome hurdles – meaning that they
learn to turn to others only after they have attempted to overcome problems themselves.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
In general, the influence of Anglo patrons has been much less pronounced on Hispanic arts than on
American Indian arts. The Hispanic crafts revival was confined to a much shorter period of time,
beginning in the early 1920’s, reaching its peak in the late 1930’s, and dying down by the Second World
War, less than 20 years. During this period, in spite of the enthusiasm of the wealthy Anglo patrons in
northern New Mexico, Hispanic crafts never “caught on” nationally in the way American Indian crafts
did. Interest was fairly well limited to the Southwest and Southern California, the areas in which the
adobe hacienda revival was taking place. The major interest in Hispanic crafts was as furnishings for
these comfortable Southwestern-style adobe homes. These crafts were not, as were American Indian
crafts viewed as valuable art objects in themselves purchased with an eye for speculation. Hispanic arts
to, a great degree have been ignored by the speculative Anglo art market. A beneficial consequence of
this oversight is that the artisans have been freer to work according to their own standards and within
their own traditions. Their work has not been “emptied of previous vital meanings” and become a
meaningless revival, as has so much ethnic art of this day. Rather it has remained as an object of cultural
pride and identity and not simply the product of the tastes and demands of the art market.
Question 31. According to this passage, during which of the following periods were Hispanic crafts
most popular?
Question 32. What does it mean when the author says that Hispanic crafts never “caught on”?
Question 33. What does “it” in the last sentence of the passage refer to?
Question 34. Which of the following places is NOT mentioned as a place in which Hispanic crafts were
popular?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
In the past oysters were raised in much the same way as dirt farmers raised tomatoes – by
transplanting them. First, farmers selected the oyster bed, cleared the bottom of old shells and other
debris, then scattered clean shells about. Next, they "planted" fertilized oyster eggs, which within two or
three weeks hatched into larvae. The larvae drifted until they attached themselves to the clean shells on
the bottom. There they remained and in time grew into baby oysters called seed or spat. The spat grew
larger by drawing in seawater from which they derived microscopic particles of food. Before long
farmers gathered the baby oysters transplanted them in other waters to speed up their growth, then
transplanted them once more into another body of water to fatten them up.
Until recently, the supply of wild oysters and those crudely farmed were more than enough to satisfy
people’s needs. But today the delectable seafood is no longer available in abundance. The problem has
become so serious that some oyster beds have vanished entirely. Fortunately, as far back as the early
1900’s marine biologists realized that if new measures were not taken, oysters would become extinct or
at best a luxury food. So they set up well equipped hatcheries and went to work. But they did not have
the proper equipment or the skill to handle the eggs. They did not know when, what, and how to feed the
larvae. And they knew little about the predators that attack and eat baby oysters by the millions. They
failed, but they doggedly kept at it. Finally, in the 1940’s a significant breakthrough was made.
The marine biologists discovered that by raising the temperature of the water, they could induce
oysters to spawn not only in the summer but also in the fall, winter, and spring. Later they developed a
technique for feeding the larvae and rearing them to spat. Going still further, they succeeded in breeding
new strains that were resistant to diseases, grew faster and larger, and flourished in water of different
salinities and temperatures. In addition, the cultivated oysters tasted better.
Question 36. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
Question 37. In the first paragraph, the production of oysters is compared to what other industry?
A. Mining B. Fishing C. Banking D. Farming
Question 38. In the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a stage of an oyster’s life?
Question 39. When did scientists discover that oysters were in danger?
A. In the early part of the 19th century B. At the beginning of this century
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following words best describes the efforts of the
marine biologists working with oysters?
Question 41. In the passage, the author mentions that the new strains of oyster are ________ .
Question 42. In what paragraph does the author describe successful methods for increasing the oyster
population?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. She decided (A) to have a holiday (B) in a beautiful place in the mountains (C) where
there were (D) much streams.
Question 44. She asked me (A) whether I (B) had made money (C) myself (D) or if someone had lent
me money.
Question 45. (A) Because the scarcity (B) of fossil fuels, (C) many countries began to use renewable
(D) sources of energy.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Stop smoking or you'll be ill", the doctor told me.
Question 47. People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 50. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I was late for my exam because I ________ about it all night and didn’t get much sleep.
Question 10. A completely new situation will ________ when the examination system comes into
existence.
Question 13. The impact of increased urbanisation has been harmful ________ the environment and has
led to the increase of greenhouse gas emissions.
A. for B. so C. to D. in
Question 14. Ms. Hoa is certainly a ________ writer; she has written a lot of books this year.
Question 15. I do not think there is a real ________ between men and women at home as well as in our
society.
Question 16. I didn’t see the red light at the crossroads. Otherwise, I ________ my car.
Question 17. The more ________ you look, the better you will feel.
Question 18. The manager ________ his temper with the employees and shouted at them.
Question 19. It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can ________ for a night.
A. put you up B. put you through C. put you away D. put you aside
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A person who suffers from stage fright is easily intimidated by a large audience.
Question 21. Technological changes have rendered many traditional skills obsolete.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Research suggests that children are more resilient than adults when it comes to getting
over an illness.
Question 23. The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism, and
commerce.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Bob: “Can I have another cup of coffee?” – Susan: “ _________.”
Question 25. Minh: “Who is going to take you to the museum tomorrow?” - Linh: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Students who have successfully completed an A-level course may go to university to do a three-or four-
year course leading to a first degree such as Bachelor of Arts (BA), Bachelor of Science (BSc), etc.
They apply to several universities which then (26) ________ an offer of a place specifying the minimum
grades the student needs to obtain in the A-level subjects studied. Higher education is not free. In
principles, students have to pay a contribution to the cost of teaching (tuition fees) and have also to pay
their living costs (maintenance). The government provides (27) ________ to help them pay for
university education which have to be paid back from earnings once their income reaches a certain level.
In recent years government policy has been to (28) ________ the percentage of 18-years olds who go to
university, which is now, at 40 % double the 1990 figure, but this growth has been at the (29) ________
of the amount of financial support given to individual students. Universities receive money from the
state for each students and are responsible or employing staff and deciding which courses to offer. The
head of a university, who is (30) ________ for its management, is called a vice- chancellor.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Our human body is made up of many muscles. All these muscles work together to help you move.
They form the muscle system. 650 muscles are wrapped around your bones. They basically cover the
bones like a blanket. Muscles are fastened to the bones by tough bands. These bands are called tendons.
You can see your tendons when you wiggle your finger. Moving your fingers back and forth makes your
tendons move.
These muscles around the bone must be told when to move. They are controlled by your thinking. If
you want to walk, talk or smile, you send a message to the brain. Your brain picks up the message. It
receives it and processes it. Then it sends out an electrical signal through the nerves. The nerves make
connections until the signal reaches the proper muscle. This signal tells a muscle what it has to do. The
muscle simply does exactly what the brain tells it to do. When you jump, hundreds of muscles work to
help you do that.
Muscles work all the time. They even work when you are fast asleep. They keep your body firm and
strong. Therefore, it is important to be in good shape. You need to stay healthy so that your muscles can
remain powerful too. One thing that muscles need is good food. Muscles develop when they have
protein. Milk, eggs, red meat, fish and beans are rich in protein. A healthy diet includes these food types.
Muscles also need to be exercised to remain firm and toned. Regular exercise makes your muscles
bigger, strengthens your heart and lungs and makes you more flexible. Good ways to exercise our
walking, swimming, cycling, dancing or playing soccer. These activities improve your stamina. If you
have good stamina, you can keep going for a long time without getting tired.
C. Bones D. Tendons
Question 34. What are two things muscles need to stay strong?
Question 35. What does the author think about regular swimming?
B. It helps you to keep going for a long time without getting tired
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
During her New York days, Mabel Dodge had preached the gospel of Gertrude Stein and spread the
fame of her new style. Like Miss Stein, Mabel Dodge had long planned to “upset” America with fatal
disaster to the old older of things.
Gertrude Stein had no interest in anything that was not aggressively modern. She had conceived it
as a part of her mission to “kill” the nineteenth century “dead”, and she was convinced that her work
was “really the beginning of modern writing.” Her story “Melanctha” in Three Lives, privately printed
in 1907, was the “first definite step”, as she wrote later, "into the twentieth century”. There was at least a
grain of truth in this.
Just then the movement of modem art, so called for many years, was also beginning in Paris with
Matisse and Picasso, and Gertrude Stein and her brother Leo were friends of these protagonists. The
Stems had the means to buy their pictures. Gertrude shared, moreover, the point of view of these avant-
garde artists, and she endeavored to parallel in words their effects in paint.
Gertrude Stein wrote her “Melanotha” while posing for Picasso’ s portrait of herself. Picasso had
just discovered African sculpture, previously interesting only to curio hunters, and this may have set her
mind running on the Black girl Melanctha, whose story was the longest and most moving of her Three
Lives. It was not difficult to find in these a trace of the influence of African art, with the influence alike
of Matisse and Picasso.
Question 37. In the first paragraph, the author uses the phrase “preached the gospel” in order to
emphasize Mable Dodge’s ________ .
Question 38. According to the passage, Gertrude Stein was not interested in anything that was not
________ .
Question 39. According to the passage, Gertrude Stein planned to “kill” the nineteenth century by
________ .
Question 41. Which of the following statements about the relationship between Gertrude Stein and
Henri Matisse’s work can be inferred from the passage?
C. Stein preferred Matisse’s work to that of other artists because it was more abstract.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The measures (A) have contributed to the effort to preserve biodiversity and (B) put an
end to the (C) illegally use and trafficking of wildlife (D) across the country.
Question 44. Species become extinct or (A) endangerment for a number of (B) reasons, but the primary
cause is the (C) destruction of habitat (D) by human activities.
Question 45. (A) Having served lunch, the (B) medical staff (C) continued to (D) discuss the problems.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. The head teacher was at a loss to understand the girl’s behavior.
A. The girl’s behavior was nothing but a shock to the head teacher.
B. The head teacher thought that the girl’s behavior was contemptible.
Question 47. “Get out of my car or I’ll call the police!”, Ms. Nga shouted to the strange man.
A. Ms. Nga politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car.
B. Ms. Nga plainly said that she would call the police.
C. Ms. Nga threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car.
D. Ms. Nga informed the strange man that she would call the police.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She is always talking foolishly when everybody talks about something in a serious way. I
can’t bear that.
Question 50. People use pesticides and fertilizers. They want to increase crop production.
A. People want to increase crop production, so they use pesticides and fertilizers.
B. Unless people want to increase crop production, they use pesticides and fertilizers.
C. People want to increase crop production because they use pesticides and fertilizers.
D. People want to increase crop production, for they use pesticides and fertilizers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. It’s only a small lamp, so it doesn’t ________ off much light.
Question 8. Women no longer have to do hard work nowadays as they used to, ________ ?
Question 14. By the end of the 21st century, scientists ________ a cure for the common cold.
Question 15. The students ________ by the teacher yesterday were very rude.
Question 16. Air pollution poses a ________ to both human health and our environment.
Question 18. You should let your daughter ________ her final decision.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Nowadays female engineers are not too thick on the ground.
Question 23. For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
- Lisa: “ ________ ”
- Tim: “ ________ .“
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Cosmetics are becoming of more importance in daily life; they are used regularly by increasing
numbers of people and very large quantities are consumed each year. When were cosmetics first used by
people? Even (26) ________ we examine the history of cosmetics, it is extremely difficult to say when
cosmetics were first used. Archaeological excavations confirm that they were used in the early stone age
and we can safely assume that cosmetics have a very long history.
Why did early societies use cosmetics? If we examine the purpose of cosmetics, the most (27)
________ is protection of the body from the elements of nature, such as heat and sunlight. Early people
painted themselves (28) ________ oils or mixtures of oils, clays and plant materials to (29) ________
themselves against dryness from cold, burns from strong sunlight, and irritation from insect bites.
Additionally, cosmetics were used for religious purposes. Fragrant woods for example were burnt to
produce smoke and incense that would ward (30) ________ evil spirits.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Political controversy about the public-land policy of the United States began with the American
Revolution. In fact, even before independence from Britain was won, it became clear that resolving the
dilemmas surrounding the public domain might prove necessary to preserve the Union itself.
At the peace negotiation with Britain, Americans demanded, and got, a western boundary at the
Mississippi River. Thus the new nation secured for its birthright a vast internal empire rich in
agricultural and mineral resources. But under their colonial charters, seven states - Massachusetts,
Connecticut, New York, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina, and Georgia - claimed portions of the
western wilderness. Virginia’s claim was the largest, stretching north and west to encompass the later
states of Kentucky, Ohio, Indiana, Illinois, Michigan, and Wisconsin. The language of the charters was
vague and their validity questionable, but during the war Virginia reinforced its title by sponsoring
Colonel Georgia Rogers Clark’s 1778 Expedition to Vicennes and Kaskaskia, which strengthened
America’s trans- Appalachian pretensions at the peace table.
The six states holding no claim to the trans-mountain region doubted whether a confederacy in
which territory was so unevenly apportioned would truly prove what it claimed to be, a union of equals.
Already New Jersey, Delaware, Rhode Island, and Maryland were among the smallest and least
populous of the States. While they levied heavy taxes to repay state war debts, their larger neighbors
might retire debts out of land-sale proceeds. Drawn by fresh lands and low taxes, people would desert
the small states for the large, leaving the former to fall into bankruptcy and eventually into political
subjugation. All the states shared in the war effort, said the New Jersey legislature, how then could half
of them “be left no sink under an enormous debt, whilst others are enabled, in a short period, to replace
all their expenditures from the hard earnings of the whole confederacy?” As the Revolution was a
common endeavor, so ought its fruits, including the western lands, be a common property.
Question 31. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
Question 32. According to the passage, the British granted the new American nation a western
boundary at ________ .
A. Ohio B. Illinois
C. Virginia D. Georgia
Question 34. Why does the author mention Colonel Clark’s expedition?
Question 35. According to the passage, the smaller states tried to raise money to pay their war debts by
________ .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals rather than
companies. Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send colonists to the New World. His
initial expedition, which sailed in 1578 with a patent granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the
Spanish. A second attempt ended in disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his ship were lost in a storm. In
the following year, Gilbert’s half brother, Sir Water Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent,
sponsored an expedition that explored the coast of the region that he named “Virginia”. Under Raleigh’s
direction efforts were then made to establish a colony on Roanoke island in 1585 and 1587. The
survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke returned to England in 1586, but the second group of
colonists disappeared without leaving a trace. The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh ventures made it
clear that the tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer. Within a short time the
trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization.
Question 36. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
Question 37. The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be involved in
establishing colonies in North America?
Question 38. According to the passage, which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey Gilbert
is true?
D. He died in 1587.
Question 39. When did Sir Walter Raleigh’s initial expedition set out for North America?
Question 40. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about members of the first
Roanoke settlement?
Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the second settlement
on Roanoke Island is true?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Hoa is always (A) understanding, patient, and (B) sensitive when (C) helping her friends
(D) to their problems.
Question 44. Linda refuse (A) taking the job (B) given to her (C) because the salary (D) was not good.
Question 45. (A) These companies were (B) accused on (C) having released a large amount of carbon
dioxide (D) into the atmosphere.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 47. My brother and I dressed as quickly as we could, but we missed the school bus and we
were late for school.
A. My brother and I could dress quickly but could not be in time for school.
B. My brother and I missed the school bus, so we were late for school.
C. My brother and I dressed quickly but we were late for school because we missed the school bus.
D. My brother and I were late for school because we dressed so quickly.
Question 48. She usually spends one hour riding her motorbike to work every day.
B. It usually takes her one hour to get to work by motorbike every day.
D. It usually takes her one hour riding her motorbike to her office every day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the
park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 50. The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man whom is working in this factory, I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.
D. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. The terrible weather may have ________ the small population.
Question 7. Only after she had finished the course did she realize she ________ a wrong choice.
Question 8. It ________ Susan that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
Question 10. They ________ tired now because they ________ in the garden since 7 o’clock.
Question 11. We should eat ________ and do ________ to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. less and less fat - the more exercise B. less fat - more exercise
C. the less fat - the more exercise D. the least fat - the most exercise
Question 12. Let’s take measures to protect the environment, ________ we?
Question 13. Neither Mary nor her sister ________ to attend the concert.
Question 14. Many years ago, black children were ________ to discrimination in many schools.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
Question 16. The last of these reasons is ________ the most important.
Question 17. It is not until March 2nd ________ the exam results will be announced.
Question 18. ________ , I realized I should have applied for that job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. This property is owned communally now, so everyone must take care of it.
Question 21. My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.
Question 22. Her career ground to a halt when the twins were born.
Question 23. If any employee knowingly breaks the terms of this contract, he will be dismissed
immediately.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
- Salesgirl: “ ________ ”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In the popular imagination, the tropical rain forests consists of giant trees towering
(26) ________ a tangle of vines and beautiful orchids below, with colourful birds, tree frogs, and
monkeys everywhere abundant. Scientists and visitors quickly realise that this image is not accurate
animal life, (27) ________ highly diverse, is not necessarily strikingly abundant, and flowers are often
very small and hard to find. But beyond the difference between perception and reality, there are
tremendous differences among regions. Biologists working in one area rapidly recognise the special
features of the biological community in their area, yet they would find themselves in highly unfamiliar
terrain should they move, for example, from their accustomed study site in Borneo to a seemingly
similar location in New Guinea.
(28) ________ , even in locations within the same overall zone, such as the Amazon and Central
American forests, there can be differences both dramatic and subtle from place to place. There are
unique plants and animals in every community, and even those organism common to other regions are
part of a distinctive (29) ________ of species that interact in ways readily distinguishable (30) ________
other forests.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Scientists estimate that about 35,000 other objects, too small to detect with radar but detectable with
powerful Earth-based telescopes, are also circling the Earth at an altitude of 200 to 700 miles. This
debris poses little danger to us on the Earth, but since it is traveling at average relative speeds of six
miles per second, it can severely damage expensive equipment in a collision. This threat was dramatized
by a cavity one-eighth of an inch in diameter created in a window of a United States space shuttle in
1983. The pit was determined to have been caused by a collision with a speck of paint traveling at a
speed of about two to four miles per second. The window had to be replaced.
As more and more nations put satellites into space, the risk of collision can only increase. Measures
are already being taken to control the growth of orbital debris. The United States has always required its
astronauts to bag their wastes and return them to Earth. The United States Air Force has agreed to
conduct low-altitude rather than high-altitude tests of objects it puts into space so debris from tests will
reenter the Earth’s atmosphere and burn up. Extra shielding will also reduce the risk of damage. For
example, 2,000 pounds of additional shielding is being considered for each of six space-station crew
modules. Further, the European Space Agency, an international consortium is also looking into
preventive measures.
Question 31. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
D. A Collision in Space
Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that debris was harmful to one of the space shuttles
because the debris was ________ .
Question 33. What effect did orbital debris have on one of the space shuttles?
Question 34. The word “them” in line 11 refers to which of the following?
Question 35. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by the information in the passage?
D. When did the United States Air Force begin making tests in space?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Philosophy in the second half of the 19th century was based more on biology and history than on
mathematics and physics. Revolutionary thought drifted away from metaphysics and epistemology and
shifted more towards ideologies in science, politics, and sociology. Pragmatism became the most
vigorous school of thought in American philosophy during this time, and it continued the empiricist
tradition of grounding knowledge on experience and stressing the inductive procedures of experimental
science.
The three most important pragmatists of this period were the American philosophers Charles Peirce
(1839-1914), considered to be the first of the American pragmatists, William James (1842-1910), the
first great American psychologist, and John Dewey (1859 - 1952), who further developed the pragmatic
principles of Peirce and James into a comprehensive system of thought that he called “experimental
naturalism”, or “instrumentalism”.
Pragmatism was generally critical of traditional western philosophy, especially the notion that there
are absolute truths and absolute values. In contrast, Josiah Royce (1855- 1916), was a leading American
exponent of idealism at this time, who believed in an absolute truth and held that human thought and
the external world were unified. Pragmatism called for ideas and theories to be tested in practice,
assessing whether they produced desirable or undesirable results. Although pragmatism was popular for
a time in Europe, most agree that it epitomized the American faith in know-how and practicality, and the
equally American distrust of abstract theories and ideologies. Pragmatism is best understood in its
historical and cultural context. It arose during a period of rapid scientific advancement, industrialization,
and material progress; a time when the theory of evolution suggested to many thinkers that humanity
and society are in a perpetual state of progress. This period also saw a decline in traditional religious
beliefs and values. As a result, it became necessary to rethink fundamental ideas about values, religion,
science, community, and individuality. Pragmatists regarded all theories and institutions as tentative
hypotheses and solutions. According to their critics, the pragmatist’s refusal to affirm any absolutes
carried negative implications for society, challenging the foundations of society’s institutions.
B. The three most important American pragmatists of the late 19th century
D. American pragmatism
Question 38. The phrase “at this time” in the passage refers to ________ .
C. 1916
D. the second half of the 19th century
Question 39. According to the passage, pragmatism was more popular in American than Europe
________ .
D. industrialization and material progress was occurring at a faster pace in America at that time
Question 40. The word “abstract” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .
Question 41. The word “perpetual” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. revolutionary thought shifted more towards ideologies in science, politics and sociology
B. pragmatists regarded all theories and institutions as tentative hypotheses and solutions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The student (A) must have her assessment form (B) fill in by the examiner (C) during the
(D) oral exam.
Question 44. (A) To everyone’s (B) surprise, it wasn’t in Da Nang City (C) which he (D) made his
fortune, although that’s where he was born.
Question 45. The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that
have become (C) extinct (D) have increased.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
C. They had a low opinion of his new book. D. They turned down his new book.
Question 47. The car was very expensive and she couldn’t afford it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I got up late and missed the first class. The alarm clock didn’t go off.
A. If I set the alarm clock well, I would not get up late and miss the first class.
B. Because the alarm clock didn’t working well, I got up late and missed the first class.
C. Because I got up late and missed the first class, the alarm clock didn’t go off.
D. I got up late and missed the first class, so the alarm clock didn’t go off.
Question 50. This is the battle field. The soldiers fought there.
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10.
D
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
D C D A B B B C C C
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
D A B C D A C C D B
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
C C B D B D D C C D
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
A C C C B C B B C A
ĐỀ SỐ 27
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. C 10.
A
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
D A A B C C B D C A
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
C B D C D A D C C D
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
B A D B C B B C C B
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
A D D D B C B D B D
ĐỀ SỐ 28
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10.
B
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
C C B C B C D D A A
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
A B A B A A D B C C
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
B D C B B A B D D C
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
B C C B A A C B C B
ĐỀ SỐ 29
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. A 10.
C
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
B C C D C A C A C C
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
C A C D D B D D C A
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
D C C D A C B D A B
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
A B D B C A A A D D
ĐỀ SỐ 30
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C 10.
C
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
A A C C D C D B A C
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
B C B D C D A A B C
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
D C C D B D A C B C
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
B B B A B A C A A C
ĐỀ SỐ 31
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. A 9. A 10.
C
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
D C B C D A A D D A
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
A A B B C C B C A A
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
D D A B B C B D D A
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
B C A C C A A C A C
ĐỀ SỐ 32
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10.
D
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
A D C D B A D D A B
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
D B C C D A D B C A
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
B B C A A B D A B A
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
D D D D A B A B A B
ĐỀ SỐ 33
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. A 10.
D
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
B D C A B C A B A D
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
A C B C C C A C D B
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
A C D C B C A B B C
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
D A C A A C C B D A
ĐỀ SỐ 34
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10.
B
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
B D D B A B C D D A
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
B A C B C B D A C D
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
A C C A A C D A D B
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
C C D A B C C B B C
ĐỀ SỐ 35
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. 14. B 15. C 16. 17. C 18. B 19. C 20.
D D D
21. B 22. 23. 24. A 25. B 26. 27. A 28. 29. 30. B
D D D D D
31. A 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. 36. 37. C 38. 39. B 40. B
D D D
41. 42. 43. B 44. C 45. 46. C 47. B 48. 49. B 50.
D D D D D