Data Interpretation For Medical Students, 2e (Pastest)

Data
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Second Edition
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First published 2006, reprinted 2007, second edition 2012, reprinted January 2013
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Contents
Preface to second edition

Acknowledgements
Normal values
1. Haematology
2. Biochemistry
3. Endocrinology
4. Toxicology
5. Pleural and peritoneal fluid analysis
6. Microbiology
7. Neurology
8. Immunology
9. Imaging
10. Cardiology
11. Pathology
12. Genetics
13. Respiratory medicine
14. Interpreting bedside chart data
15. Miscellaneous
16. Complete clinical cases
Index
Preface to the second edition
The practice of medicine in the twenty-first century is centred on data

interpretation. Never before have so many tests been available to help
diagnose disease and monitor patient progress. One difficulty facing students
and junior doctors is in choosing which tests to request. This is especially
important in the current financial climate where ordering a range of
unnecessary tests will be very costly for the health service. Once a test result
is back, the investigator must be able to interpret the result confidently and
accurately. We encourage investigations to be assessed in a sequential manner,
with their interpretation dictating subsequent tests, rather than a ‘blunder-bus’
approach. This is professionally more satisfying and more educational, and
encourages thoughtful medicine and sensible use of resources.
We hope that the latest edition of this book will help you as you begin
interpreting all forms of data for your patients. All aspects of the book have
been reviewed for the second edition. New sections have been written to
incorporate latest developments, difficult concepts have been further clarified,
and more example cases have been added to test your understanding. The
imaging section has been extended in keeping with the increasing influence that
this plays in everyday clinical medicine.
The first edition has been more successful than we could have imagined;
however, after 5 years a refresher was much needed.
It is our hope that, in some small way, the care of patients will be improved
from the use of this text.
Acknowledgements
We have included material that we feel represents common scenarios and that
best illustrates the various investigations in medicine. All material has
received intensive feedback during the production process to ensure that it is
readable and usable. We both greatly value constructive criticism, and ideas to
improve this text further would be very welcome. Please e-mail us on
[email protected] if you have any
suggestions.
A hugely influential contributor to this book must be mentioned first. Sandy
Davey is a current medical student in Queen’s University Belfast. His unique
qualities, limitless enthusiasm and bravery to comment have helped shape the
final draft of this book. We both owe him a huge debt of gratitude.
A special mention must also be made of the contributions of Professor Patrick
Bell who reviewed the book critically.
We also owe our Commissioning Editor at Pastest, Elizabeth Kerr, our sincere
thanks and apologies – thanks for supporting us throughout this project and
making valuable comments; apologies for having to put up with our incessant
demands, impatience and peculiarities.
Thanks are extended to Joel Rankin for assisting with the ECGs, Dr Barry
Kelly for providing a selection of radiographs, and Dr Ann Johnston for
reviewing the neurology section.
PH would like to thank his parents and sister Kerry for their never-ending
support and encouragement. He also thanks Anna for her incredible patience
during the writing process.
ICB would like to thank Haiza who, despite his spending hours putting this
book together, still agreed to marry him!
Like the world of medicine, our own lives has changed since the 1st
edition in 2005. We have both been blessed with beautiful daughters to
whom we dedicate this 2nd edition.
Chloe and Nur Ayesha, you are the sunshine in your Daddy’s eyes.
Normal values
Haematology
Full blood picture
Haemoglobin (Hb)
Males 13.5–18 g/dl
Females 11.5–16 g/dl
Mean cell volume (MCV) 76–96 fl
Packed cell volume (PCV)
Males 0.4–0.54
Females 0.37–0.47
Red cell distribution width (RDW) 12–15%
White cell count (WCC) 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5–4.0 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.04–0.4 × 109/l
Monocytes 0.2–0.8 × 109/l
Basophils 0.0–0.1 × 109/l
Platelets 150–400 × 109/l
Reticulocytes 0.5–2.5% of red blood cells
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Males 0–15 mm/h
Females 0–22 mm/h
HBA1c (glycated haemoglobin) 3.8–6.4%
Tests of clotting
Activated partial thromboplastin
time (APTT) 35–45 s
Prothrombin time (PT) 12–16 s
Fibrinogen 2–4 g/l
Bleeding time 3–9 min
D-dimer <0.5 mg/l
Haematinics
Iron studies
Iron 11–32 mol/l
Total iron-binding capacity
42–80 mol/l
(TIBC)
Ferritin 12–200 μg/l
Folate >2 μg/l
Vitamin B12 >150 ng/l
Biochemistry
Urea and electrolytes (U&Es)
Sodium (Na+) 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 2.5–6.7 mmol/l
Creatinine 79–118 μmol/l
(dependent on muscle mass)
Chloride (Cl−) 95–105 mmol/l
Bicarbonate (HCO3−) 24–30 mmol/l
Liver function tests

Total bilirubin 3–17 μmol/l
Aspartate aminotransferase
5–35 IU/l
(AST)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 5–35 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 30–150 U/l
γ-Glutamyl transpeptidase
(GGT)
Male 11–58 IU/l
Female 7–33 IU/l
Albumin 35–50 g/l
Bone profile
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) (total) 2.10–2.65 mmol/l
Phosphate (PO43−) 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 30–150 U/l
Albumin 35–50 g/l
Poisoning
Alcohol Nil
Carboxyhaemoglobin <5% of total haemoglobin
Paracetamol Nil
Salicylates Nil
Tumour markers
α-Fetoprotein (AFP)
<50 years <10 kU/l
50–70 years <15 kU/l
70–90 years <20 kU/l
β Human chorionic
gonadotrophin
(β-hCG) <5 U/l
CA-125 <35 U/ml
CA-19-9 <37 U/ml
Carcinoembryonic antigen
<10 ng/ml
(CEA)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA;
males)
40–49 years <2.5 ng/ml
Arterial blood gas analysis
pH 7.35–7.45
Arterial partial pressure of
oxygen
breathing room air (PaO2) 11–13 kPa
Arterial partial pressure of
carbon
dioxide breathing room air
(PaCO2) 4.7–6.0 kPa
Bicarbonate 24–30 mmol/l

Base excess (BE) –2 to +2 mmol/l
Anion gap 12–16 mmol/l
Immunoglobulins
IgA 0.8–4.0 g/l
IgG 7.0–14.5 g/l
IgM 0.45–2.0 g/l
Other
Amylase 25–125 U/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) <10 mg/l
Creatine kinase (CK)
Male 25–195 IU/l
Female 25–170 IU/l
CK-MB <25 IU/l
Globulin 18–36 g/l
Glucose See page 152
Lactate 0.5–2.0 mmol/l
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 70–250 IU/l
N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic
protein (NT-proBNP) <125 pmol/l
Osmolality (plasma) 280–300 mosmol/kg
pH 7.35–7.45
Total protein 60–80 g/l
Troponin I <0.1 μg/l
Troponin T <0.03 μg/l
Urate 0.15–0.50 mmol/l
Endocrinology
Cortisol
9am 200–700 nmol/l
10pm 50–250 nmol/l
Free thyroxine (T4) 7.6–19.7 pmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
0.4–4.5 mU/l
(TSH)
Total thyroxine (T4) 70–140 nmol/l
Therapeutic drug levels

Digoxin (6 hours post-dose) 0.8–2.0 nmol/l
Lithium 0.5–1.5 mmol/l
Cerebrospinal fluid
Glucose 2.5–4.4 mmol/l
(two-thirds of plasma value)
Red cell count (RCC) 0/mm3
Total protein <0.45 g/l
White cell count (WCC) <5/mm3
Urine
Creatinine clearance
Male 85–125 ml/min
Female 75–115 ml/min
Metanephrines <5.5 μmol/day
Osmolality 250–1250 mosmol/kg
Protein <0.2 g/day
Sweat
Chloride <60 mmol/l
HAEMATOLOGY
One of the most frequently requested tests in medicine is the full blood picture
(FBP). This contains a wealth of information about the components of blood.
The typical constituent parts of the FBP are as shown in the box.
Abnormalities with red blood cells
Anaemia
Anaemia describes a low level of haemoglobin. It is usually defined by an
arbitrary cut-off haemoglobin concentration (eg 13 g/dl in men aged >15 years,
12 g/dl in non-pregnant women aged >15 years and 11 g/dl in pregnant
women), below which a patient is deemed to be anaemic.
Before deciding on the particular subtype of anaemia present in a patient, it is
worth looking at the other cell types described on the full blood picture. If
there are problems with red cells, white cells and platelets, then the major
problem is likely to be a disease of the bone marrow, and the test most likely
to give the diagnosis would be a bone marrow biopsy.
If the only problem on the full blood picture is low haemoglobin, the next stage
is to check the reticulocyte count. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells,
and will be found in increased amounts in patients who are bleeding and in
those in whom red cells are being destroyed (haemolysis). The history should
distinguish between these types. If the reticulocyte count is not elevated, the
next step in diagnosis is to look at the size of the red cells (erythrocytes).
Anaemia can be split into three big groups by looking at the size of the red
blood cells. In microcytic anaemia red cells are small, in normocytic anaemia
they are normal size and in macrocytic anaemia they are large. The mean cell
volume (MCV) provides an average measurement of red cell size.
TYPE OF ANAEMIA SIZE OF ERYTHROCYTES

Microcytic Small
Normocytic Normal
Macrocytic Large
The diagram on page 5 shows the various causes based on this classification of
anaemia.
Note that the MCV provides a measure of average cell size, and this is reliable
in most instances. If, however, a patient has two ongoing pathologies, such as
iron deficiency and folate deficiency, the MCV can be unreliable. They may
have two populations of red cells, one with a low MCV and another with a
high MCV. When these measures are averaged, the MCV will be normal. For
this reason, the red cell distribution width (RDW) is sometimes measured.
This gives an indication of the distribution of red cell sizes. This measure will
be raised if two red cell populations are present.
Fig 1.1: The various causes of the major classifications of anaemia.
Haematinics
Deficiencies in any of three key nutrients – iron, vitamin B12 and folate – can
result in anaemia. These nutrients are called haematinics. Iron deficiency is the
most common cause of anaemia, and is commonly found in association with
blood loss.
DEFICIENCY TYPE OF ANAEMIA

Iron Microcytic
Vitamin B12 Macrocytic
Folate Macrocytic
Finding a haematinic deficiency is only the first part of establishing the cause
of anaemia. Where possible, the cause of the nutrient deficiency should also be
sought. For example, iron deficiency is often due to blood loss from the
gastrointestinal tract, and endoscopy is often used to search for this.
Knowledge of exactly where haematinics are absorbed from the
gastrointestinal tract can sometimes help localise the pathology underlying
anaemia. These sites are shown in the box below.
HAEMATINIC ABSORBED FROM

Iron Duodenum and jejunum
Vitamin B12 Terminal ileum
Folate Small bowel
Iron studies
A good understanding of how the body handles iron is required before iron
studies can be interpreted.
Iron is best absorbed from the upper small bowel in the ferrous (Fe2+) state.
Iron is transported across the intestinal cell and into the plasma. Iron in the
plasma is carried to developing red cells in the bone marrow by a protein
called transferrin. Iron is stored in the body as ferritin and haemosiderin. Red
cells have transferrin receptors (soluble transferrin receptors, sTfRs) which
can be measured in plasma.
COMPONENTS OF AN IRON PROFILE

Serum iron
Serum total iron-binding capacity (serum TIBC)

Serum ferritin
Transferrin saturation
Serum soluble transferrin receptors
In iron deficiency states, iron studies are as follows:
IRON PARAMETER RESULT

Serum iron Reduced
Serum total iron-binding

Increased – the body tries hard to bind any iron around the system
capacity
Serum ferritin Reduced – since iron stores are low
Transferrin saturation Reduced
Increased – since red cells attempt to absorb any iron in the

Serum sTfRs
system
The serum ferritin level is the single best test for iron deficiency, with levels
of below 15 μg/l being suggestive.
To make matters a little more confusing, ferritin behaves as an acute phase
reactant – its level increases with active inflammation, in the same way as the
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) (see pages
17 and 74). This means that, in states of iron deficiency associated with an
ongoing inflammatory process (eg an active infection), the serum ferritin level
may be high. However, the sTfR will reveal the true state of affairs.
Unfortunately sTfR is not routinely available, and often clinical judgement is
required in such situations. Sometimes, it can be difficult to be sure that a
patient is iron deficient, and in such circumstances a trial of iron treatment may
be necessary. Once the diagnosis has been established, it is imperative that a
reason for the iron deficiency be sought.
In cases of diagnostic uncertainty, a bone marrow biopsy can be obtained and
stained for the presence of iron. In iron deficiency states, little or no iron will
be seen in the marrow.
Iron studies are also abnormal in states of iron overload. This is commonly
seen in haemochromatosis and in haematological conditions that require
frequent blood transfusions. In such cases, serum iron, ferritin and transferrin
saturation are raised. The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is usually low.
In anaemia of chronic disease, iron studies are commonly as follows:
IRON PARAMETER RESULT

Serum iron Normal or slightly reduced
Serum total iron-binding capacity Reduced
Serum ferritin May be raised as acute phase reactant
Transferrin saturation Reduced
Serum sTfR Normal – reflecting the true state of body iron levels
Goddard AG, James MW, McIntyre AS, et al. (2011) Guidelines for the management of iron deficiency
anaemia. Gut doi:10.1136/gut.2010.228874.
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B12 deficiency may result from inadequate intake, but the most
common reason for deficiency relates to poor absorption.
In health, vitamin B12 is bound to a protein called intrinsic factor secreted by
gastric parietal cells. The vitamin is then absorbed from the ileum. Poor
absorption generally results from the absence of intrinsic factor or disease of
the ileum.
The most common disease causing vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious
anaemia, in which there is defective intrinsic factor production. The disease is
associated with autoantibodies against gastric parietal cells and intrinsic factor
(see Chapter 8).
Schilling test
The Schilling test may be used to distinguish between the various causes of
vitamin B12 deficiency. In this test, patients are given two doses of vitamin B12.
One dose is radioactively labelled and given orally. The other dose is given
intramuscularly with the aim of flushing absorbed radiolabelled vitamin B12
into the urine. The urine is collected over a period of 24 hours. Normally, a
proportion of the oral vitamin B12 dose will be absorbed and excreted, so that
more than 10% of the oral dose will be excreted in the urine. With vitamin B12
malabsorption, this amount will be reduced. Unfortunately, despite the
eloquence of the Schilling test, it is being used with decreasing frequency, and
in some areas is no longer available.
The test is repeated with an oral preparation of intrinsic factor being given at
the same time as the oral dose of vitamin B12. If the test results are now
normal, one can assume that the patient’s problem lies with inadequate
intrinsic factor. If the test is still abnormal, the problem most likely lies in the
ileum.
One possible cause of ileal disease is bacterial overgrowth. In order to test for
this possibility, the patient can be given a course of antibiotics. If the Schilling
test returns to normal after this, the diagnosis of bacterial overgrowth can be
made. Alternatively, bacterial overgrowth can be diagnosed using a breath test.
The most commonly used test is the hydrogen breath test. A carbohydrate load
is given orally. Bacteria in the small bowel metabolise the carbohydrate,
liberating hydrogen which is absorbed and detected in exhaled air.
Folate
Folate analysis is simple. Serum folate levels are measured with a deficiency
identified if levels are low.
Haemolytic anaemia
There are many causes of haemolytic anaemia, but in each case there is
abnormal destruction of red blood cells.
Evidence of haemolysis
When red blood cells are destroyed, haemoglobin is degraded, and bibirubin
liberated. Bilirubin is conjugated in the liver and passed into the bowel in the
bile. Here, it is converted into urobilinogen. Some of this is passed in the
stools; some is reabsorbed, and excreted in the urine, where it can be detected
using a urinalysis strip. In cases of haemolysis, the plasma unconjugated
bilirubin will rise, and increased amounts of urobilinogen will be detected in
the urine. The level of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) will also rise.
When red cells are destroyed inside blood vessels, haemoglobin is released.
Haptoglobins bind to free haemoglobin and escort it to the liver. However,
haptoglobins can become saturated and in such circumstances haemoglobin
may be passed in the urine (haemoglobinuria), or converted to haemosiderin
which is then passed in the urine (haemosiderinuria). Alternatively, further
reactions can occur which result in the presence of methaemalbumin in the
circulation.
INTRAVASCULAR HAEMOLYSIS IS SUGGESTED BY
• low haptoglobins
• haemosiderinuria
• methaemalbumin (detected in the Schumm test)
With excessive red cell destruction, the bone marrow works hard to replace
the number of circulating cells. The number of primitive red cells
(reticulocytes) in the circulation therefore increases.
The causes of haemolytic anaemia are illustrated in the diagram on page 11.
Osmotic fragility test

Hereditary spherocytosis is a condition associated with an abnormal red blood
cell membrane where red cells become spherical in shape. The cells are less
resilient to damage in this condition. This can be assessed using an osmotic
fragility test. Spherocytes have increased osmotic fragility.
Direct antiglobulin test

In autoimmune haemolytic anaemias, antibodies attack red cells and cause their
destruction. The main laboratory test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is the
direct antiglobulin test (DAT or Coombs’ test). In this test, antibodies to human
immunoglobulin are added to a sample of red cells from the patient. If the red
cells are coated in antibodies (ie if the patient has an autoimmune haemolytic
anaemia), they will agglutinate.
World Health Organization (2008). Worldwide Prevalence of Anaemia, 1993–2005. Geneva: WHO.
Fig 1.2: The causes of haemolytic anaemia.

Polycythaemia
Polycythaemia is defined as a packed cell volume (PCV) greater than 0.51 in
males or greater than 0.48 in females.
POLYCYTHAEMIA
Males – PCV >0.51
Females – PCV >0.48
Red cell mass

In order to distinguish between true and apparent polycythaemia, the red cell
mass must be measured. In true polycythaemia, the red cell mass is raised.
Apparent polycythaemia is due to a reduction in plasma volume rather than an
increase in red cell mass.
Red cell mass is measured by labelling red cells with a radioactive isotope. A
predicted red cell mass can be calcuated based on the patient’s height and
weight. True polycythaemia is diagnosed if the red cell mass is more than 25%
higher than that predicted.
To distinguish between causes of true polycythaemia, further tests should be
arranged. These usually include:
• arterial blood gas analysis (to look for hypoxia)
• erythropoietin level (to detect inappropriately high levels)
an ultrasound of the abdomen (to detect structural renal or hepatic
•
disease and to visualise the spleen)
• further investigations depending on the most likely cause.
Haemoglobinopathies
Haemoglobin electrophoresis can be used to diagnose a variety of diseases in
which the structure of haemoglobin is abnormal. The most common diseases of
this type are sickle cell disease and the thalassaemias. In sickle cell disease,
haemoglobin electrophoresis shows the presence of HbS.
Polycythaemia can be subdivided as shown in Fig 1.3.
Fig 1.3: Causes of polycythaemia.
Abnormalities with white blood cells
Abnormal white cell counts

Abnormalities in white blood cell counts are common. The most frequently
occurring abnormalities are listed in the boxes below with common causes.
COMMON CAUSES OF NEUTROPHILIA (NEUTROPHILS >7.5 ×

109/l)
Bacterial infections Malignancy

Inflammation Myeloproliferative disorders
Necrosis, eg after myocardial infarction
Metabolic disorders, eg renal failure
Treatment with corticosteroids
COMMON CAUSES OF NEUTROPENIA (NEUTROPHILS <2.0 ×

109/l)
Post-chemotherapy
Post-radiotherapy
Adverse drug reactions, eg clozapine, carbimazole
Viral infection
Felty syndrome
COMMON CAUSES OF LYMPHOCYTOSIS (LYMPHOCYTES >3.5

× 109/l)
Viral infections
Chronic infections, eg TB
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Lymphomas
COMMON CAUSES OF EOSINOPHILIA (EOSINOPHILS >0.5 ×

109/l)
Allergic disorders Skin diseases, eg eczema

Parasite infection Malignancy, eg Hodgkin disease
Hypereosinophilic syndrome Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Abnormalities with platelets

Thrombocytosis
Thrombocytosis describes a high platelet count (>400 × 109/l). The common
causes are shown in the box below.
COMMON CAUSES OF THROMBOCYTOSIS

Reactive thrombocytosis
Primary haematological diseases:
secondary to:
Essential thrombocythaemia and other • Infection
•
myeloproliferative disorders • Inflammation
• Malignancy
• Chronic myeloid leukaemia
• Bleeding
• Pregnancy
• Myelodysplasia
• Post-splenectomy
Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia describes a low platelet count (<150 × 109/l). The common
causes are shown in the box below.
CAUSES OF THROMBOCYTOPENIA
Reduced platelet production due to bone marrow failure:
• Infections (particularly viral, eg infectious mononucleosis)
• Drug induced, eg penicillamine
• Leukaemia
• Aplastic anaemia
• Myelofibrosis (later stages)
• Bone marrow replacement with tumour, eg myeloma or metastases
• Myelodysplasia
• Megaloblastic anaemia
Increased platelet destruction:
• Immune-mediated platelet destruction
• Autoimmune idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (AITP)
• Drug induced, particularly heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
• Hypersplenism
• Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura/haemolytic uraemic syndrome
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
• After a massive blood transfusion
PLATELET CLUMPING
This is a relatively common cause for an apparently low platelet count. If a blood sample is sent to the
laboratory in a tube containing anticoagulant, clumping will not occur and the true platelet count will be
apparent. It is therefore always worth sending a ‘citrated’ sample for a platelet count if unexpected
thrombocytopenia is found.
Pancytopenia
Pancytopenia is the term used to describe the pattern present when there are
low levels of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets in the
circulation. There are a wide variety of causes, the most common of which are
shown in the box.
COMMON CAUSES OF PANCYTOPENIA
• Aplastic anaemia
• Bone marrow infiltration, eg with tumour
• Hypersplenism
• Megaloblastic anaemia
• Sepsis
• Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how rapidly red blood
cells form sediment when a column of blood is kept upright for 1 hour. The
further the red cells sink in the hour, the higher the ESR.
The ESR is a non-specific marker of disease. In inflammatory processes,
raised levels of plasma proteins result in red blood cells forming clumps
called rouleaux. These clumps of cells sink more easily than single cells, and
thus, in the presence of such proteins, the ESR is high.
The ESR normally rises with advancing age, but levels of more than 35 mm/h
should raise the suspicion of a disease process in any age group. Causes of a
raised ESR are myriad. Common examples are listed in the box below.
COMMON CAUSES OF A RAISED ESR
• Infectious disease
• Neoplastic disease (particularly multiple myeloma)
• Connective tissue disease (particularly giant cell arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica)
• Anaemia
• Renal disease
Blood film abnormalities
Examination of a peripheral blood film can aid or clinch a diagnosis in a range
of clinical scenarios. Correct identification of various cell types requires
significant training, but knowledge of the different terminology used can greatly
aid interpretation of blood film reports. The following abnormal cell types are
among those most commonly seen.
Abnormal erythrocyte colour or shape

ABNORMALITY MEANING FOUND IN
Iron deficiency or defective
Hypochromic cells Pale red cells
haemoglobin synthesis
Iron deficiency or defective

Microcytosis Small cells
haemoglobin synthesis
Megaloblastic anaemia, high alcohol

Macrocytosis Large cells
intake, liver disease
Pencil cells Pencil-shaped cells Iron deficiency
Hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic

Spherocytes Spherical cells
anaemia, burns
Hereditary elliptocytosis, thalassaemia

Elliptocytes Elliptical cells
major, iron deficiency
Abetalipoproteinaemia, post-
Acanthocytes Spiky-appearing cells
splenectomy, liver disease
Thalassaemia, iron deficiency, post-

Target cells Target-like cells
splenectomy, liver disease
Cells with mouth-shaped Hereditary stomatocytosis, high alcohol

Stomatocytes
area of pallor intake, liver disease
Also known as burr cells – Post-splenectomy, liver disease,

Ecchinocytes
less spiky than acanthocytes uraemia
Sickle cell anaemia (homozygous HbS
Sickle cells Sickle shaped
disease)
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia,

haemolytic uraemic syndrome,
Fragmented cells Broken pieces of cell thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura,
mechanical heart valves, disseminated
intravascular coagulation
Myelofibrosis and other causes of

Tear cells (dacryocytes) Tear-shaped cells
extramedullary haematopoiesis
Abnormal shapes of red

Poikilocytosis Iron deficiency
cells
Anisochromia Varying shades of colour Iron deficiency
Abnormalities inside erythrocytes
ABNORMALITY FOUND IN
Heinz bodies Unstable haemoglobin states
Howell–Jolly bodies Hyposplenism, post-splenectomy
Pappenheimer bodies Post-splenectomy, haemolytic anaemia, sideroblastic anaemia
Basophilic stippling Lead poisoning, thalassaemia, myelodysplasia
Cabot rings Myelodysplasia, megaloblastic anaemia
Abnormal white blood cells
ABNORMALITY FOUND IN
Hypersegmented neutrophils Megaloblastic anaemias, chronic infections
Toxic granulation of neutrophils Bacterial infection, poisoning, burns, chemotherapy
Auer rods Acute myeloid leukaemia

Smear cells Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Leukoerythroblastic blood film

This is a term used to describe the overall appearance of a blood film in which
immature red and white blood cells are seen in peripheral blood. There are
several causes.
CAUSES OF A LEUKOERYTHROBLASTIC BLOOD FILM
• Bone marrow infiltration, eg with tumour

• Idiopathic myelofibrosis
• Severe sepsis
• Haemolysis
Coagulation disorders
Haemostasis (the process of stopping bleeding) is a complex process. It
involves the interplay of blood vessel walls, platelets and clotting factors. The
common tests used to assess coagulation are as follows:
COMMON TESTS OF COAGULATION
• Prothrombin time (PT)

• International normalised ratio (INR)
• Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
• Bleeding time
Prothrombin time
The PT is dependent on clotting factors I, II, V, VII and X. In clinical practice,
it is most commonly measured to assess the synthetic function of the liver (eg
in liver failure), or to monitor the effects of warfarin therapy.
International normalised ratio

To allow comparison of coagulation results between laboratories, the PT is
often converted to the INR, by applying a correction factor. This takes into
account differences in laboratory methods, and means that the patient’s INR
should be the same regardless of the laboratory used to measure it.
The INR is the parameter most commonly used to monitor the effects of
warfarin. In a patient with normal coagulation, the INR will be close to 1.0
before warfarin is commenced. As warfarin is introduced, the INR rises. The
higher the INR, the less coagulable the blood becomes (ie the more difficult it
will be for the blood to clot). Target INRs are set, and warfarin dosing must be
adjusted to aim for these targets.
DISEASE TARGET INR

Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) 2.5
Pulmonary embolism (PE) 2.5
Atrial fibrillation 2.5
Mechanical prosthetic heart valve 2.5
Recurrent DVT/PE in a patient with a therapeutic INR 3.5
The essence of warfarin prescribing involves increasing the dose if the INR is
too low, reducing the dose if the INR is too high, and omitting it if the INR is
dangerously high or the patient is bleeding. An example of a warfarin
prescribing chart is shown on page 486.
Activated partial thromboplastin time

The APTT depends on all clotting factors except factor VII. In clinical
practice, the APTT is used most commonly in patients receiving an infusion of
heparin. The APTT is monitored frequently, and the rate of the heparin infusion
adjusted to achieve the desired level of anticoagulation. With the common
prescribing of low-molecular-weight heparin, in preference to unfractionated
heparin, this process is now performed infrequently. A frequent cause of
concern relates to elevated APTTs in patients with central venous catheters.
The proximal end of such catheters are often filled with heparin to keep the
lumina patent when they are not being used. A spuriously high APTT will be
obtained if blood is withdrawn from one such lumen. If the APTT is tested on a
sample of blood tested peripherally, the true value will be obtained.
Coagulation correction testing

In cases of deranged coagulation, laboratories will often perform a coagulation
correction test. This is performed to detect problems in coagulation arising
because of a low level of a particular clotting factor. Essentially, normal
plasma (containing normal clotting factors) is mixed with the patient’s sample.
If the patient is deficient in clotting factors, a deranged coagulation profile
would be expected to normalise. There will be no change, however, if an
inhibitor of coagulation is present. Specialised assays for individual clotting
factors are also available.
Bleeding time
Bleeding time is measured directly at the bedside. A sphygmomanometer cuff
is inflated around the patient’s arm to 40 mmHg. A specially designed blade is
then used to make a small puncture in the arm. Blood is removed from the area
at fixed time intervals (eg 15 s) using a piece of filter paper to soak it up. The
time taken for bleeding to stop is recorded. Elevated bleeding times indicate
defective platelet function or low platelet numbers. This test should not be
performed if the patient is known to have severe thrombocytopenia.
Bear in mind that patients with abnormal numbers or deranged function of
platelets may also have abnormal bleeding. Patients with von Willebrand
disease may have normal coagulation profiles.
DON’T FORGET
Patients with von Willebrand disease may have normal coagulation profiles.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a disease of two apparently
conflicting problems. On the one hand, fibrin deposition in various organs
results in areas of micro-infarction. On the other hand, the body’s supplies of
clotting factors become used up because of all the clotting, leaving the patient
prone to bleeding.
DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION
A disease in which clotting and bleeding cause problems simultaneously.
Typical laboratory findings in DIC are as follows:

Raised PT and APTT Since clotting factors are reduced
Reduced fibrinogen Due to widespread fibrin formation
Raised D-dimer Due to the body’s attempt to break down the excess fibrin deposits
D-dimer
D-dimer is the most commonly measured fibrinogen/fibrin degeneration
product. It is detected following clot formation in the vasculature, as the
body’s fibrinolytic system attempts to break the clot down. D-dimer levels are
often tested in cases of suspected deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary
embolism, and in the majority of cases will be raised. However, D-dimer
levels are also raised in many other conditions, and a raised level should
always be interpreted in light of the clinical scenario.
Laboratory findings in bleeding disorders
PT APTT FIBRINOGEN
Warfarin treatment Increased Normal (or Increased) Normal
Heparin treatment Normal (or increased) Increased Normal
Haemophilia A or B Normal Increased Normal
Liver disease Increased Increased Normal
DIC Increased Increased Reduced
Plasma cell dyscrasias

Diseases of plasma cells are common, and their investigation is often a cause
for confusion. They represent a spectrum of disorders, with multiple myeloma
being the most important at the undergraduate level, and monoclonal
gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) being the most common. The
hallmark of these conditions is that plasma cells secrete M protein in excess.
The effects of multiple myeloma can be far-reaching, and can lead to the
following features:
• Anaemia
• Renal impairment
• Low levels of normal immunoglobulins with resultant infections
Bone involvement, causing bony pain, hypercalcaemia, lytic lesions and
•
problems if bones collapse
• Hyperviscosity of the blood.
The conditions should be suspected if any of the following abnormalities are

present:
• Elevated ESR
• Hypercalcaemia
• Anaemia
• Renal impairment
• Abnormal M-protein detected on plasma protein electrophoresis
Abnormal quantities of immunoglobulin light chains in the serum (with
•
an abnormal κ:λ ratio)
• Low levels of immunoglobulins
• Lytic lesions on X-ray of bones
Detection of Bence Jones protein in the urine (this represents
•
immunoglobulin light chains)
• Abnormal plasma cells seen on bone marrow biopsy
• Elevated β2-microglobulin.
Case 1.1
A 48-year-old retired civil servant is concerned with her pale colour and
feelings of faintness that have occurred over the past 4 weeks. She had felt
well before this and enjoyed regular trips to southern France. Brief clinical
examination reveals pallor. Her blood tests come to your attention.
1. How would you interpret these results?

2. How would you proceed with investigation?
Answer 1.1
This patient has a microcytic anaemia. Her iron profile is in keeping with
1. iron deficiency with a low iron, low ferritin and high TIBC. There is a
mild thrombocytosis which may indicate active bleeding.
The most common cause for these findings in young women is
menorrhagia. In an older female or male of any age, investigations should
be carried out to exclude a sinister cause – in particular an occult
2. gastrointestinal tract malignancy. Investigations should begin with a
thorough history and clinical examination which should include rectal
examination. The next line of investigation usually involves
gastrointestinal tract endoscopy.
Case 1.2
A 57-year-old woman attends her GP complaining of tiredness. The GP knows
her medical history well as she also suffers from Graves’ disease. A full blood
count was analysed as well as haematinics.
1. Interpret these blood results.
Following these results the GP also requests another test shown below.
2. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 1.2
The haemoglobin is low with an elevated mean cell volume. This patient
1. has a macrocytic anaemia. Haematinics show a low vitamin B12 level.
Iron studies and folate level are within normal limits.
The positive antibodies to gastric parietal cells and intrinsic factor
indicate that the likely underlying cause of the anaemia is pernicious
2. anaemia. You will note that the patient was already known to have an
autoimmune disease – Graves’ disease. Always remember that patients
with one autoimmune disease are prone to developing another.
A Schilling test would have been useful in this case. The initial test would
show low levels of radiolabelled vitamin B12 in the urine. Once the patient
was given oral intrinsic factor, urine vitamin B12 excretion would be expected
to return to normal.
Case 1.3
A 49-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis complains of malaise and
palpitations. Her disease has been quiescent for 2 years and she is not on any
immunosuppressant medications. She has a balanced diet and has had no
previous surgery. Her rheumatologist requests the following tests:
1. What would you infer from these results?

2. What is the reason for performing a hydrogen breath test?
Answer 1.3
This patient has a macrocytic anaemia. Vitamin B12 is the only deficient
haematinic, but the autoantibodies for pernicious anaemia are negative.
The history states that the diet is balanced and no surgery has taken place
on the bowel to interfere with the absorption of vitamin B12. The Schilling
1.
test is abnormal. Normally, at least 10% of the oral dose of radiolabelled
vitamin B12 is excreted in the urine. In this case, the excreted dose is low,
and supplementation with intrinsic factor makes no difference. The likely
pathology is therefore in the ileum.
The abnormal hydrogen breath test result points to the cause of anaemia –
small bowel bacterial overgrowth. Patients with systemic sclerosis are
2. prone to developing this condition. Definitive testing for bacterial
overgrowth involves culturing small bowel contents. One would expect a
normal Schilling test after an adequate course of appropriate antibiotics.
Case 1.4
A 34-year-old accountant with a 15-year history of Crohn’s disease attends for
outpatient review. He feels reasonable, although has not yet been able to hold
down full employment after numerous hospital admissions and surgery over the
past 10 years. His last surgery involved small bowel resection and
anastomosis after further failure of medical therapy. The doctor in the clinic
requests the following tests.
What is your interpretation of these tests?

Answer 1.4
This man has a normocytic anaemia. He is deficient in iron, vitamin B12 and
folate. The red cell distribution width (RDW) is raised, indicating a wide
variation in the size of circulating red cells. The patient is likely to have a
dimorphic blood picture, with small red cells resulting from iron deficiency,
and large cells resulting from deficiencies of vitamin B12 and folate. Crohn’s
disease is an inflammatory bowel disease involving the whole gastrointestinal
tract so has the potential to cause deficiencies in all three haematinics. In this
case, multiple operations have left him with a very short small bowel (‘short
gut syndrome’).
Case 1.5
A 55-year-old woman with essential hypertension attends the medical clinic.
Her blood pressure remains elevated despite treatment with four drugs. Her
consultant commences her on methyldopa. Four weeks later she attends the
accident and emergency department feeling generally unwell. The A&E doctor
sends off a variety of blood tests, which are shown here.
She is admitted to the medical unit, and several other tests are requested.
1. Interpret the results above
2. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer 1.5
This patient has a normocytic anaemia. Her haematinics are normal. She
has a raised blood bilirubin level and urobilinogen in the urine which
would be in keeping with haemoglobin breakdown. Her blood film shows
1.
a reticulocytosis indicating that the bone marrow is working hard to make
new red blood cells. The direct antiglobulin test is positive indicating that
the patient’s red cells are coated with antibodies.
2. The patient has an autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, which is most likely
to be an adverse effect of treatment with methyldopa.
Case 1.6
When on elective in Malawi, you are asked to see a patient. He is 35 years old
and complains of anorexia and abdominal discomfort. Examination is
unremarkable. A full blood picture is requested.
What is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 1.6
This question is a little sneaky. The key to finding the answer is to remember
that the total WCC is equal to the sum of the component parts of the differential
white cell count.
DON’T FORGET
Total white cell count = neutrophil count + lympocyte count + eosinophil count + monocyte count +
basophil count
In this case, the neutrophil count and lympocyte count together cannot account
for the total white cell count ((7.4 × 109/l) + (2.5 × 109/l) <13.2 × 109/l)).
There must be a further type of white blood cell in elevated numbers. It is
impossible to tell for certain what this cell type might be. However, the likely
diagnosis here is helminthic (worm) infection. A full differential white cell
count would reveal a raised level of eosinophils.
Case 1.7
You see a 64-year-old woman in A&E. She has severe chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), and has been an inpatient on several occasions in
the past year. She appears short of breath, and complains of a worsening cough
productive of green sputum. This has become worse over the last 3 days. Part
of her admission blood tests are shown.
Outline the abnormalities shown, and discuss their most likely causes.
Answer 1.7
The first abnormality relates to the raised packed cell volume (PCV) indicating
polycythaemia. The most likely cause in this case is a true polycythaemia
secondary to chronic hypoxia resulting from COPD. Useful tests to confirm this
would be an estimation of red cell mass to confirm true polycythaemia, and an
arterial blood gas sample to demonstrate hypoxaemia.
The second abnormality relates to the elevated white cell count. Note that the
neutrophil count is markedly elevated, and that the sum of the neutrophil and
lymphocyte counts almost adds up to the total white cell count. The small
discrepancy is due to the presence of a small number of other white blood
cells (eosinophils, monocytes and basophils) in the circulation. The most
likely cause for this picture is a bacterial infection of the lower respiratory
tract.
Case 1.8
A 74-year-old man presents to the A&E department after a 5 minute episode of
loss of vision affecting the right eye. Further questioning revealed that the
patient had a similar episode 2 days previously. On each occasion the vision
was lost rapidly, ‘like a curtain being drawn’ over the visual field. Direct
questioning revealed that he had been lethargic for several weeks, and
experienced some pain in his jaw on chewing. Initial blood tests revealed the
following:

2. What treatment would you prescribe immediately?
Answer 1.8
The episode of loss of vision is typical of amaurosis fugax. Taken together

with the history of lethargy and jaw pain on eating (jaw claudication), the
clinical suspicion must be of temporal arteritis. Such patients are at high
1.
risk of complications, including blindness. The extremely high ESR
measured here would support this diagnosis. Temporal arteritis is one of the
few causes of an ESR greater than 100 mm/h.
Treatment should be given rapidly, and should comprise high-dose
2. prednisolone (eg 60–80 mg orally immediately), followed by a reducing
dose regimen.
Case 1.9
You are the junior doctor on the vascular surgical unit. One of your patients, a
75-year-old man with peripheral vascular disease, is due to undergo bypass
vascular surgery on his legs. You request a battery of preoperative blood tests.
The following results give the nursing staff some concern.
What should you do next?

Answer 1.9
This situation is a common cause for concern. The details omitted from the
history above are that the patient has chronic renal failure, and receives
haemodialysis three times per week via his indwelling central venous catheter.
The raised urea and creatinine are a reflection of the chronic renal failure in
this case (see Chapter 2 for more information).
The cause of the deranged coagulation is most likely because blood has been
drawn from the central venous catheter, which is often flushed with a heparin
solution. The next step should be to repeat the coagulation profile using blood
taken from a peripheral vein.
Case 1.10
A 58-year-old patient with immunodeficiency is admitted to the intensive care
unit with severe pneumonia. Despite aggressive antibiotic therapy, his
condition does not improve. On his third day in the unit, the nurses report that
he is beginning to bleed around the sites of his indwelling venous lines. The
doctor in charge requests a coagulation profile. The blood is taken from a
peripheral vein.

Answer 1.10
The PT and APTT are raised suggesting a tendency to bleed. The fibrinogen
level is low indicating that fibrinogen has been used up. The D-dimer level is
markedly raised indicating that the body’s fibrinolytic system is working hard
to disperse clots.
This pattern of abnormalities is typical of DIC, a not uncommon complication
in patients with critical illness. Blood product support will be required, and
the advice of a haematologist would be helpful.
Case 1.11
A 24-year-old woman from the Maldives is in Ireland on honeymoon. She
attends the emergency department after falling and spraining her wrist. The
doctor is concerned about the results of her full blood picture:
What is the most likely diagnosis and what test(s) would you arrange?
Answer 1.11
This patient has a microcytic anaemia. The striking abnormality on her FBP is
that the MCV is extremely low, whereas the haemoglobin concentration is only
slightly below the reference range. She originates from the Maldives – an area
where thalassaemia is common. It is probable that this woman has
thalassaemia (most likely to be β-thalassaemia trait). Haemoglobin
electrophoresis will confirm the diagnosis. Concomitant iron deficiency is
possible, so sending blood for iron studies would also seem sensible.
Case 1.12
A 45-year-old man with a history of asthma is admitted with symptoms and
signs in keeping with cardiac failure. There are no risk factors for ischaemic
heart disease. The cause for the cardiac failure remains uncertain until a junior
doctor reviews his FBP and suggests the correct diagnosis.
What is the rare disease that the junior doctor suspected?

Answer 1.12
The key to even thinking about the rare disease in this case starts with the
basics in interpreting the patient’s FBP. The neutrophil and lymphocyte counts
do not account for the elevated total WCC. The missing piece of information in
the question is the eosinophil count which is highly abnormal in this case. The
diagnosis here is Churg–Strauss syndrome, a rare vasculitic disease associated
with a peripheral eosinophilia.
Case 1.13
An elderly patient is admitted to the rehabilitation ward 4 weeks after having
surgery to repair a fractured neck of femur. Her postoperative course was
complicated by pneumonia and renal failure, both of which have been treated
successfully. She has not been out of bed since the operation. You review her
recent full blood pictures:
What is the major problem, and name one possible drug-induced cause?
Answer 1.13
On 1 July, the patient developed thrombocytopenia. This has worsened steadily

and significantly since. An extremely rare adverse drug reaction, ‘heparin-
induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)’, can occur in patients receiving
unfractionated or low-molecular-weight heparin. It is likely that this patient
was receiving low-molecular-weight heparin in an attempt to prevent
thromboembolic disease.
Case 1.14
A patient attends the emergency department because of a swollen leg on the
right side. He has a history of dementia, and is unsure for how long the leg has
been swollen. On inspection, the right calf is 0.3 cm larger than the left, there
is no erythema and the calf is non-tender. You order a blood test to help with
management.
How would you proceed?

Answer 1.14
This patient gives an unconvincing history for deep venous thrombosis (DVT),
and there is very little clinical evidence for it. A normal D-dimer in this
situation, when the pre-test probability for the condition is low, is helpful in
making DVT extremely unlikely in this man. The patient can be reassured that it
is extremely unlikely that he has a clot in his leg.
Case 1.15
A 62-year-old woman is admitted with septic arthritis of the knee. A D-dimer
blood test is sent in error, but comes back as follows:
Would you arrange investigations to test for thromboembolic disease?

Answer 1.15
D-dimer is an extremely helpful blood test when sent in the correct

circumstances. In a patient with a reasonable chance of having a blood clot, an
elevated D-dimer would support the diagnosis. All too often, however, D-
dimer is measured in patients with no clinical suggestion of thromboembolic
disease. There are many causes for a raised D-dimer other than clot (eg
commonly found in acutely unwell patients malignancy, and following surgery
or trauma), so, unless the patient has signs or symptoms in keeping with
thromboembolism, the test should generally not be ordered. No investigations
for thromboembolic disease are required in this woman in whom we are given
no reason to suspect a blood clot.
BIOCHEMISTRY
Urea and electrolyte profile
A urea and electrolyte (U&E) profile is the most commonly requested
biochemical blood test. U&Es, in combination with a full blood picture (FBP),
are performed for virtually all new hospital admissions. The U&E profile
incorporate measures of electrolytes (sodium and potassium), along with renal
function (urea and creatinine). U&Es are often used as a screening test in
unwell patients, and frequently act as a stimulus for further investigation.
Electrolyte abnormalities
Abnormalities in sodium and potassium occur when they are either too low
(hyponatraemia – low sodium; hypokalaemia – low potassium) or too high
(hypernatraemia – high sodium; hyperkalaemia – high potassium).
Hyponatraemia
Hyponatraemia is defined as a sodium concentration <135 mmol/l. The
condition is a source of much confusion among students and doctors alike. The
first step in working out why a patient has hyponatraemia is to investigate
whether or not the low sodium is a true finding. This can be done by measuring
serum osmolality in the laboratory. In some circumstances (eg hyperglycaemia
and hyperlipidaemia), a falsely low sodium concentration can be reported.
This is known as pseudo-hyponatraemia.
If the osmolality is low (and it will be in the vast majority of cases), it can be
assumed that the hyponatraemia is real. The next and most crucial step is to
make a detailed assessment of the patient’s volume status to decide if they are
dehydrated (hypovolaemic), fluid overloaded (hypervolaemic) or normally
hydrated (isovolaemic). The likely cause of the hyponatraemia varies
depending into which group the patient falls. The diagnosis and potential
causes of hyponatraemia are illustrated in the flow diagram in Fig 2.1.
Fig 2.1: From GAIN. Hyponatraemia in Adults (on or after 16th birthday). GAIN, 2010. Available at:
http://www.gain-ni.org/Library/Guidelines/Hyponatraemia_guideline.pdf.
The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is

somewhat over-diagnosed as a cause of hyponatraemia. It is in actual fact quite
uncommon. SIADH is dealt with separately on page 149.
DON’T FORGET
Hyponatraemia does not mean SIADH!
Hypernatraemia
This is defined as a sodium concentration of more than 145 mmol/l.
Hypernatraemia is a very strong stimulus for thirst, so in normal circumstances
(healthy patient with access to adequate fluid) it should not develop.
CAUSES OF HYPERNATRAEMIA
Diabetes insipidus
Poor water intake, eg in frail elderly patients who are unable to access water freely, perhaps because
they are bed-bound and unable to ask
Administration of excess sodium in intravenous fluids
Administration of drugs containing high concentrations of sodium
For further details on diabetes insipidus, see page 148.
Hypokalaemia
This is defined as a potassium concentration of less than 3.5 mmol/l.
CAUSES OF HYPOKALAEMIA
Drugs:
• diuretic therapy
Intestinal losses:
• excess vomiting (eg pyloric stenosis)
• profuse diarrhoea
• high stoma or fistula output
Renal tubular disease:
• renal tubular acidosis or drug-induced tubular damage
Endocrine causes (eg hyperaldosteronism)
Metabolic alkalosis
Hypokalaemia is associated with characteristic changes on the ECG. This is

discussed on page 359.
Hyperkalaemia
This is defined as a potassium concentration of more than 4.5 mmol/l.
CAUSES OF HYPERKALAEMIA
Renal failure
Drugs:
• excess potassium supplementation
• potassium-sparing diuretics
• combination of drugs (eg angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitor and diuretic)
Rhabdomyolysis
Endocrine diseases (eg hypoadrenalism)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Haemolysis of blood sample in transit (artefactual hyperkalaemia)
Hyperkalaemia is associated with characteristic changes on the ECG. This is

discussed on page 359.
DON’T FORGET
Hyperkalaemia is a medical emergency with levels of potassium of more than 6.5 mmol/l requiring
immediate attention and lesser levels requiring immediate attention if the ECG is abnormal.
Renal function
The presence of a normal urea and creatinine level is not synonymous with
normal renal function. A thin elderly woman may have significant renal
impairment despite her creatinine appearing within the ‘normal’ laboratory
range. One must pay attention to the age, sex and muscle bulk of a patient when
interpreting the significance of a creatinine level.
For accurate measurement of renal function, estimation of the glomerular
filtration rate (GFR) is required. An estimated GFR (eGFR) is now routinely
reported by many laboratories to highlight the importance of small increases in
creatinine. Rather than reporting precise estimations of GFR for all patients,
often laboratories have a cut-off value, so that, if a patient’s eGFR falls above
the value, the eGFR is simply reported as, for example, >60 ml/min per 1.73
m2.
DON’T FORGET
A normal GFR is considered to be approximately 100 ml/min per 1.73 m2.
ESTIMATING KIDNEY FUNCTION
As mentioned above, many laboratories will now report eGFR routinely. If you wish to learn more
about the mathematics behind this estimation, the following section explains the formula for
calculating eGFR and also creatinine clearance.
ESTIMATED GFR
The eGFR is calculated using the serum creatinine and requires knowledge of the patient’s age, sex
and race.
eGFR = 186 × (PCr/88.4)–1.154 × A–0.203

where PCr is plasma creatinine concentration (μmol/l) and A is age in years Correction factors for
gender (0.742 female) and for race (1.210 black) are needed
Computer programs are available for assistance with the mathematics.
EXAMPLE CALCULATION
For a 62-year-old black female patient with a plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l the eGFR would be
calculated as:
eGFR = 186 × (150/88.4)–1.154 × (62)–0.203 × 0.742 × 1.210 = 39.3 (in ml/min per 1.73 m2)
CREATININE CLEARANCE
’Creatinine clearance’ provides another useful indication of the GFR and can be measured in one
of two ways.
Method 1
This requires a single blood creatinine value and a 24-h collection of urine.
where CLCr is the creatinine clearance (ml/min), UCr is the concentration

of creatinine in the urine (mmol/l), U is the urine flow rate (ml/min) and
PCr is the concentration of creatinine in plasma (mmol/l)
Difficulties in this method of calculation arise for two reasons:

The plasma creatinine is usually measured in μmol/l, not mmol/l as
1.
required by the formula.
Urine flow rate is usually measured in litres per 24 h, ie the amount
2.
of urine produced in one day (1440 min).
Hence a correction factor of 0.694 is required (1000/1440).
To account for this, use the following modified formula:
where V = 24-h urine volume (ml)

BCr = concentration of creatinine in plasma (μmol/l)
EXAMPLE CALCULATION
For a patient with a plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l, a 24-h urine volume of 2 l and a urinary
creatinine concentration of 10 mmol/l, the creatinine clearance would be calculated as:
Method 2
This method requires knowledge of the patient’s age (A in years), mass (M
in kg), sex and serum creatinine concentration (PCr in mg/dl).
The formula generates an estimate of creatinine clearance for male patients.

For females, the result of this calculation should be multiplied by 0.85.
Difficulties in this method of calculation arise because plasma creatinine is
usually measured in μmol/l. To convert from μmol/l to mg/dl, divide by
88.4.
EXAMPLE CALCULATION
For a 66-year-old, 70-kg, female patient with a plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l, the creatinine
clearance would be calculated as:
Serum urea
The level of urea is reflective of both its production and elimination. Poor
dietary intake can lead to a low urea level. Elevations in urea levels occur in
renal failure, but are also commonly seen following a gastrointestinal bleed.
Blood is effectively an excess protein load which is digested by the bowel.
Plasma osmolarity
Serum osmolarity can be calculated using the results of U&Es with the blood
glucose level. Osmolarity is determined by the concentration of osmotically
active particles, of which sodium is the most influential. It is calculated as
follows.
Plasma osmolarity = 2 × (PNa + PK) + PUrea + PGlucose

where PNa is plasma sodium, PK plasma potassium, PUrea plasma urea and PGlucose is plasma glucose,
all in mmol/l
Nutritional profile
A nutritional profile comprises measures of magnesium, calcium, phosphate
and albumin. In patients with poor nutrition, all these nutrients may be
deficient. Commonly deficiencies are seen in patients with poor oral diets (eg
alcoholics, hunger strikers), or in patients with malabsorption. Further tests are
available to provide blood levels of trace metals such as selenium.
Re-feeding syndrome is the term used to describe the change in blood
biochemistry that can occur in patients who begin feeding after a period of
starvation. Examples include hunger strikers who start to eat, and patients who
have been unable to swallow (eg after a stroke) and begin nasogastric feeding
after a period of starvation. Dangerous shifts in many electrolytes (eg
phosphate, magnesium and calcium) can occur in such individuals and this can
cause problems. Electrolytes should be checked frequently and replaced as
necessary.
Urine in acute renal failure

Acute renal failure is a common problem in clinical practice. A common cause
of this is renal hypoperfusion. Urine is often analysed for electrolyte content in
such patients to enable the differentiation of prerenal uraemia from acute
tubular necrosis. Patients with prerenal uraemia would be expected to recover
faster than those with acute tubular necrosis when appropriate therapy is
initiated.
The key to correct interpretation of urinary electrolytes is understanding that, in
prerenal uraemia, normal renal regulatory mechanisms remain intact and
attempt to maintain homeostasis. The juxtaglomerular apparatus senses the
reduction in renal blood flow and activates the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone
system. The end-product, aldosterone, acts to promote sodium reabsorption in
the distal convoluted tubule. This results in an increase in the circulating
volume. Therefore, in prerenal uraemia, the urinary sodium is low.
In acute tubular necrosis, the normal physiological mechanisms break down.
Urinary sodium is therefore high.
It is difficult to interpret urinary sodium levels when a patient is taking a
diuretic.
The fractional sodium excretion (FENa) is sometimes measured in addition.
This is simply a measure of the proportion of sodium that is filtered at the
glomerulus that ends up in the urine. The FENa will therefore be low in
prerenal uraemia and high in acute tubular necrosis.
The following table summarises the differences.
PRERENAL ACUTE TUBULAR

URAEMIA NECROSIS
Urinary sodium (mmol/l) <20 >40
FENa (%) <1 >1

Urine concentration Concentrated Relatively dilute
Bone profile
In health, bone undergoes a continuous process of remodelling by osteoclasts
and osteoblasts. A bone profile is a batch of biochemical blood tests grouped
together as they are all relevant to bone disease. It comprises calcium,
phosphate and alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Albumin is also included for
reasons detailed below. Metabolic bone diseases are associated with
characteristic abnormalities on the bone profile. More specialised analyses, eg
parathyroid hormone (PTH) or vitamin D levels, can be carried out when
clinically relevant.
COMPONENTS OF A BONE PROFILE

Calcium Alkaline phosphatase
Phosphate Albumin
Calcium homeostasis is under hormonal control with PTH being a key

regulator. When calcium is low, PTH is released. This acts to raise serum
calcium levels by:
• increasing calcium reabsorption from bone
• increasing renal calcium reabsorption
• increasing renal excretion of phosphate
indirectly increasing absorption of calcium from the gut via effects on
•
vitamin D.
Major metabolic bone diseases

The major bone diseases that a student might be expected to identify from a
bone profile are listed in the box below.
MAJOR BONE DISEASES

Osteoporosis Bony metastases
Osteomalacia Hyperparathyroidism
Paget disease of bone
Typical patterns of results are shown in the following box.
DON’T FORGET
The bone profile is normal in osteoporosis.
Corrected calcium
It is important to appreciate that a high proportion of calcium is bound to
protein (albumin). However, it is the unbound calcium that is most important
physiologically. For this reason when protein (albumin) is low the total
calcium level may be misleading and a correction calculation needs to be
made. The ‘corrected calcium’ level refers to the calcium level corrected for
the fact that the albumin is abnormal. Corrected calcium can be calculated as
follows:
where PCac (in mmol/l) is the corrected calcium level, PCa (in mmol/l)
is the calcium level and Alb is the albumin concentration (g/l).
EXAMPLE CALCULATION
CAUSES OF HYPERCALCAEMIA
Bone metastases
Multiple myeloma
Hyperparathyroidism
Excessive vitamin D intake
Liver function tests

Liver function tests (LFTs) comprise six measurements: bilirubin, aspartate
aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), alkaline phosphatase
(ALP), γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and albumin. Prothrombin time (PT)
which is part of a coagulation screen is an important addition (see page 21).
COMPONENTS OF LIVER FUNCTION TESTS

Bilirubin
Aspartate aminotransferase
Alanine aminotransferase
Alkaline phosphatase
γ-Glutamyl transpeptidase
Albumin
Note that AST and ALP are not tests specific to the liver. AST is also released
when muscle (including cardiac muscle) is damaged. ALP is raised in a
number of bone diseases, hence its presence in a bone profile.
If these basic LFTs are abnormal, further specific tests may be performed to
establish an underlying cause.
TEST DISEASE EXPECTED RESULT

Anti-nuclear
Anti-smooth muscle
Autoimmune hepatitis
Anti-liver/kidney
microsomal-I
Autoantibody screen
Primary biliary cirrhosis Anti-mitochondrial
Coeliac disease Anti-transglutaminase
High iron, ferritin and transferrin saturation

Iron profile Haemochromatosis
Low TIBC
Low ceruloplasmin and elevated 24-hour

Copper studies Wilson’s disease
urine copper concentration suggestive
Viral hepatitis ‘screen’ Hepatitis Positive viral tests
α1-Antitrypsin
α1-Antitrypsin Low level
deficiency
α-Fetoprotein Hepatocellular carcinoma High level
Specific pattern of immunoglobulin rise can

Immunoglobulins Several liver diseases give a clue to underlying disease but will not
be diagnostic
Broadly speaking, disturbances of liver function may be classified into three

patterns:
• Hepatitic (parenchymal)
• Cholestatic
• Mixed.
These patterns assist in narrowing the differential diagnosis of altered liver
function. An understanding of the different causes allows an appropriate
sequence of investigation.
When hepatocellular damage occurs, hepatocytes ‘spill out’ transaminases
(AST and ALT). A rise in these indices alone may be termed a ‘transaminitis’.
When there is obstruction to the outflow of bile from the liver, a cholestatic
pattern (elevated ALP and GGT) will be seen. The bilirubin level would also
be expected to be high.
Bilirubin is conjugated in the liver with the attachment of a glucuronide group.
Measured bilirubin may be conjugated (direct bilirubin) or unconjugated
(indirect bilirubin). Total bilirubin is the sum of both types.
Confusion sometimes arises in cholestatic liver disease when the AST and
ALT are also elevated. This occurs because of back pressure on the liver. In
such instances the elevation of ALP and GGT will be out of proportion to that
of the transaminases.
In cholestatic jaundice, conjugated bilirubin can be detected in the urine using
urinalysis.
CAUSES OF HEPATITIC LFTs
• Viral hepatitis
• Autoimmune hepatitis
• Drugs and toxins
• Alcohol
• Metabolic disorders (eg Wilson’s disease)
• Fatty liver
• Malignancy (both primary and metastatic)
• Congestive cardiac failure
CAUSES OF CHOLESTATIC LFTs
Obstruction in the bile duct lumen

• Bile duct gallstone
An abnormal bile duct wall

• Bile duct stricture
• Cholangiocarcinoma
Compression of the bile duct by an extrinsic lesion

• Pancreatic carcinoma
• Nodes at the porta hepatis
• Ampullary carcinoma
One of the functions of the liver is protein synthesis. In a failing liver, synthetic
function is often affected. This will manifest as low albumin levels and a
raised prothrombin time (since the liver manufactures clotting factors).
C-reactive protein
C-reactive protein (CRP) is a protein produced in the liver. It is an acute phase
reactant, being raised in inflammation and infection. It is often thought of in a
similar manner to the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (see page 17). The
CRP and ESR are together termed inflammatory markers. There are a few
recognised conditions in which the ESR is raised, but the CRP is normal.
CAUSES OF A RAISED ESR WITH A NORMAL CRP

SLE
Multiple myeloma
The level of the CRP does not necessarily reflect the severity of a disease
process.
Urate (uric acid)
Urate is produced during the metabolism of purines, and is excreted by the
kidneys. High levels in the blood (hyperuricaemia) can occur through two
mechanisms:
• increased purine consumption or uric acid production
• impaired excretion of uric acid.
A modest amount of the body’s purines is ingested in food and drink. A patient
with a raised urate level may be asymptomatic or may be troubled with gout. It
is common practice to measure serum urate levels in any patient with an acute
monoarthritis. High levels of urate support a diagnosis of gout. However, urate
levels can be normal during an acute attack of gout.
DON’T FORGET
Urate levels may be normal during an acute attack of gout.
Tumour markers
Tumour markers are a selection of blood tests that are commonly elevated in
patients with neoplastic disease. Most tumour markers are characteristically
associated with a particular type of cancer, as shown in the table.
TUMOUR MARKER ASSOCIATED TUMOURS
α-Fetoprotein (FP) Hepatocellular carcinoma; testicular teratoma
Human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) Testicular teratoma and seminoma Choriocarcinoma
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) Prostate
CA-125 Ovarian
CA-19-9 Pancreatic
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) Colorectal
However, with the exception of α-FP, β-hCG and PSA, tumour markers are
fairly non-specific, and several markers may be elevated with one underlying
cancer. Tumour markers should therefore be requested only when the
significance of a positive result can be usefully interpreted.
Tumour markers have two chief roles in clinical practice. First, specific
markers such as PSA can be used in making a diagnosis. Second, serial
measures of tumour markers can be used to monitor disease progress and
response to treatment.
DON’T FORGET
Tumour markers are isolated blood tests – interpret them in the context of clinical features and all
allied investigations.
Sweat testing
Cystic fibrosis results from a mutation in the gene that encodes the cystic
fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR). CFTR is responsible
for chloride ion transport across epithelial cells, and abnormalities in its
structure result in viscous secretions, particularly in the lung and pancreas.
Abnormal sweat gland function leads to high concentrations of sodium and
chloride in the sweat. Indeed, excessively salty tasting sweat was noted to be a
clinical feature of cystic fibrosis long before the genetics were fully
understood. This feature underlies the diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis – the
sweat test.
In this test, sweating is stimulated, and sweat collected for analysis. Sufficient
sweat (100 mg) must be collected for the test to be reliable. The test is
positive if more than 60 mmol/l chloride is present, and the test should always
be repeated before a conclusion is reached. Measurements of sweat sodium
concentration are less reliable, but a concentration of greater than 90 mmol/l is
in keeping with cystic fibrosis.
There are instances when a false-positive sweat test can occur. The most
common of these are listed below.
COMMON CAUSES OF A FALSE-POSITIVE SWEAT TEST

Adrenal insufficiency
Anorexia nervosa
Coeliac disease
Hypothyroidism
Case 2.1
A 49-year-old missionary is brought to your hospital by his wife. He has been
vomiting for the past 24 h. He is now very weak. He last ate 2 days previously
and has struggled to keep down any liquids since. On examination his mouth is
dry, his abdomen is generally uncomfortable and he has reduced skin turgor.
After taking his routine blood tests, a 0.9% saline drip is erected before any
results are checked. A short time later the following result is available.
1. Outline the abnormalities on this blood result.
After noting the above results, his intravenous fluid prescription is changed to
1 litre of 0.9% saline containing 40 mmol/l of potassium chloride, to be
infused over 6 h.
Two hours later, his U&Es are repeated, and are shown below.
The ward doctor is concerned, and a further sample is taken.
How would you account for the discrepancy between these two blood
2.
tests?
Answer 2.1
1. Three abnormalities can be seen in the results above:

• Low sodium (hyponatraemia)
• Low potassium (hypokalaemia)
• High urea (uraemia).
The low sodium and low potassium are a consequence of a prolonged
period of vomiting combined with very limited oral intake. There has been
a substantial loss of electrolytes without any means of replacement until
admission to hospital. The patient is clinically dehydrated and the raised
urea is a reflection of this.
Looking at the first repeat blood test, the sodium and potassium levels
have both risen from the time of admission a few hours previously. There
2.
has been a dramatic change in electrolyte levels. The second repeat
sample is very different again.
The explanation for these findings is that the first repeat blood sample has
been taken from the arm into which fluid is being infused. This is an
erroneous sample.
The second repeat sample comes from a ‘non-drip’ arm, and shows the
true state of affairs, ie slowly improving electrolytes from the time of
admission.
Case 2.2
A 22-year-old university student is trapped in her house during a fire and when
rescued by firefighters has developed substantial burns to the arms and chest.
She is admitted to the burns unit. U&Es on her third day are shown.
What is the main biochemical problem and name some of its causes?
Answer 2.2
Hypernatraemia is present. Other components of the U&Es are normal. A

common cause for this observation in hospital medicine is excessive use of
0.9% saline in those patients receiving intravenous fluids. This is one reason
why intravenous fluid prescribing should be considered carefully and regular
U&E samples checked. This is especially important in patients with excessive
fluid losses, such as patients with burns. In this patient, substantial fluid loss
from her burns has led to a water deficit. Consequentially, the sodium
concentration has risen.
Other causes of hypernatraemia are listed on page 59.
Case 2.3
A 76-year-old woman is admitted unwell with vomiting and is found to have a
low blood pressure. She had recently been given diclofenac following a
complaint of back pain. Her initial blood results included U&Es.
1. What has happened to this patient?

2. What immediate treatment is indicated?
Answer 2.3
The urea and creatinine are both grossly elevated indicating that this
patient has renal failure. Comparison with previous blood tests would
indicate whether this is acute or chronic. As a consequence of the renal
failure, serum potassium is dangerously elevated. The rising potassium is
1.
a reflection of the failing tubular function of the kidney. In this case it
would appear that the use of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
(diclofenac) and vomiting are the causes of an acute deterioration in renal
function.
Hyperkalaemia can cause fatal dysrhythmias, including cardiac arrest.
This requires immediate treatment. Conventional treatment employs
2. insulin and dextrose. Insulin drives potassium into the cells, while
glucose prevents hypoglycaemia. Calcium gluconate should be given first
to stabilise the myocardium.
The ultimate treatment is to identify the cause of the renal failure and
support the kidneys until function is restored.
Case 2.4
A 46-year-old diplomat is transferred to your care following medical
evacuation from Nigeria. In his transfer correspondence it indicates that he has
developed renal impairment which as yet has not been investigated in depth.
His U&Es are shown, along with a 24-h urine collection for creatinine
clearance.
Calculate his creatinine clearance.

Answer 2.4
Creatinine clearance can be calculated using the following equation:
where VCr is the concentration of creatinine in urine (in mmol/l), V is the 24-h
urine volume (in ml) and BCr is plasma creatinine in μmol/l
In this case:
The creatinine clearance is 12.4 ml/min. Bearing in mind that the normal
creatinine clearance is approximately 100 ml/min, it is clear that this man has
significant renal impairment.
Case 2.5
A 34-year-old man is admitted with epigastric discomfort and a single episode
of vomiting following a week-long binge of alcohol. His vital signs are within
the normal range. Blood tests were taken at the time of admission.
Explain the elevated urea in the context of the other haematological

results.
Answer 2.5
This man’s U&Es reveal an elevated urea. His creatinine is normal and his
clinical history does not suggest dehydration. His full blood count reveals
information that helps in interpreting the significance of the elevated urea. His
haemoglobin, MCV, white cell count and platelets are all abnormal. The raised
MCV most likely represents chronic alcohol use.
During gastrointestinal bleeding, an increase in urea may occur. This is
because urea is a breakdown product of digested blood. Similarly during an
active bleed, a rise in the white cell count and platelet count may occur.
The combination of the following is suggestive of gastrointestinal bleeding:
• raised urea (with normal creatinine)
• low haemoglobin
• raised white cell count (in the absence of infection)
• raised platelets.
Case 2.6
A 39-year-old man with a history of Crohn’s disease and previous extensive
small bowel resection is admitted with anorexia and weight loss. His GP is
very concerned that he now weighs only 39 kg and has not been able to tolerate
much in the way of oral foods for several months. In hospital, attempts were
made to start nasogastric feeding, but it could not be tolerated. Total parenteral
nutrition (TPN) was therefore commenced. The following table shows his
U&Es and nutritional profile over several days following commencement of
parenteral feeding.
Comment on these results.

Answer 2.6
This scenario illustrates the issue of re-feeding in those patients who have
been nutritionally depleted for some time. When feeding is commenced, a
rapid and precipitous drop often occurs, in particular, in phosphate levels.
Case 2.7
A 72-year-old former engine driver attends his GP complaining of generalised
aches and pains. During the consultation you have to speak loudly to be
understood. As part of your investigations you request a bone profile. Liver
function tests were normal.
On the basis of this test he received a course of treatment for several months.
Following treatment his bone profile is repeated and is as follows.
1. What bone disease does this patient have?

What treatment is he likely to have received to explain the change in
2.
his bone profile?
Answer 2.7
This elderly man has Paget’s disease of the bone. He has an isolated ALP
rise, in the absence of any liver disease. An ALP rise can occur for
1. various reasons, including primary sclerosing cholangitis and bony
metastases. However, in the context of this patient’s symptoms, with
deafness, Paget disease is most likely.
The repeat bone profile demonstrates lowering of the ALP after successful
treatment. He is likely to have received intravenous bisphosphonate
2. therapy. Note that the majority of patients with Paget’s disease are
asymptomatic and the disease is often diagnosed incidentally when tests
are requested for other reasons.
Case 2.8
A 69-year-old retired nurse complains of generalised aches and pains for the
past 5 weeks, sometimes preventing her from sleeping at night. Her past
medical history includes hypothyroidism, hypertension and a mastectomy 2
years ago for breast carcinoma. She is a very active member of the Women’s
Institute and feels less able to complete her daily tasks of late.
Blood tests included a bone profile. Liver function tests were normal.
Describe the findings on the bone profile and give an explanation.

Answer 2.8
The ALP is significantly raised. The rest of the bone profile is normal. ALP
may be high in a number of conditions. It is important to exclude liver disease,
but we are told here that the rest of her liver function tests were normal.
Bearing in mind the clinical history, a particular concern in this woman would
be bony metastases from breast carcinoma. This can occur a considerable time
after treatment of the primary tumour. The calcium may be normal or elevated
in the presence of bony metastases.
Case 2.9
A 45-year-old teacher has been complaining of aches and pains for several
months. Her colleagues have said that she has not been herself recently,
appearing ‘under the weather’ and sad. She is still menstruating regularly.
Among the blood tests requested by her GP was a bone profile.
A further blood test, of great importance in diagnosis, was sent the following
day.
1. What is the additional test likely to be?
Answer 2.9
1. The additional test is for parathyroid hormone (PTH).

2. These findings are in keeping with primary hyperparathyroidism.
The excess PTH, most likely from a parathyroid adenoma, is causing excess
bone resorption resulting in a high calcium and ALP. Constitutional symptoms
include bony aches, low mood and constipation, which can arise due to the
hypercalcaemia. Hence the patient with hyperparathyroidism can have
problems with ‘bones, stones, moans and abdominal groans’.
Note that in primary hyperparathyroidism PTH is generally raised. However, a
normal PTH level is also abnormal in a patient with hypercalcaemia and may
be indicative of hyperparathyroidism. This is because PTH should normally be
suppressed by negative feedback in the setting of hypercalcaemia.
Case 2.10
A 46-year-old office clerk attends a private health clinic complaining of aches
in his bones and tenderness over his muscles. This has been troubling him for
some time and he is no longer able to walk to work. He has suffered from
coeliac disease for many years, but by his own confession finds it hard at times
to stick to his gluten-free diet. A ‘screen’ of tests is taken, some of which are
shown below.

Answer 2.10
These findings are in keeping with a diagnosis of osteomalacia. Osteomalacia

is a metabolic bone disease in which there is a lack of calcium or phosphate
(or both) for mineralisation of newly formed osteoid. As a result, bone is ‘soft’
and unable to withstand the stresses and forces of normal bone. Parathyroid
hormone would need to be checked if there was any diagnostic doubt.
It is likely that this patient’s coeliac disease is contributing to the development
of osteomalacia through malabsorption of calcium.
Case 2.11
A 55-year-old woman is admitted with a fractured neck of femur after a minor
trip in the car park of her local supermarket. Looking back through her old
records, the admitting doctor notices the following bone profile taken 2 weeks
previously.
What bone disease might you suspect?

Answer 2.11
You should suspect osteoporosis given the history of fracture after minimal
trauma, and a previously normal bone profile. Osteoporosis is the most
common form of metabolic bone disease. It is predominantly found in
postmenopausal women and is considered a silent disease. First presentation
is often with a low trauma fracture as in this clinical scenario.
Diagnosis of osteoporosis is usually made using dual energy X-ray
absorptiometry (DEXA) scan.
Case 2.12
A 47-year-old woman is referred to the regional hepatology outpatient clinic
by her GP. She attended her GP on several occasions complaining of tiredness,
low mood, altered bowel habit and more recently of itch. On examination a 4-
cm smooth hepatomegaly is noted, with xanthelasmata around her eyes.
The referral letter contains the following LFTs:
A blood test taken at the clinic revealed the following:
1. Interpret these results.

2. Suggest a further investigation.
Answer 2.12
The only abnormality on the liver biochemistry is a raised ALP. ALP may
be raised in bone as well as liver disease (see page 70). An isolated ALP
rise may be seen in both primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and early
primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). The normal albumin suggests that the
1. synthetic function of the liver remains intact. The immunological tests are
the diagnostic key in this case. A substantially raised anti-mitochondrial
antibody (AMA) is observed. Ninety-five per cent of patients with PBC
will have a positive antibody for AMA-M2. In PSC the presence of
autoantibodies is uncommon.
The most useful investigation to confirm and assess the extent of disease
2.
would be a liver biopsy.
Case 2.13
A 68-year-old woman was admitted with itch, lethargy and discoloration of the
skin over the past month. On examination she is icteric and cachexic. There are
no stigmata of chronic liver disease. Nursing staff indicate that there is
discoloration of her urine.
Her admission bloods include LFTs.
1. Outline the abnormalities seen on the liver function tests.

2. What would be your next choice of investigation?
3. What are the potential causes of these results?
Answer 2.13
1. The LFTs show an elevated bilirubin with cholestatic LFTs.

An ultrasound scan of the abdomen is the next most important
investigation. This will confirm the presence of obstruction and may
2.
identify the underlying cause. This can then act as a guide for further
investigations.
3. The causes of cholestatic jaundice are listed on page 73.
Case 2.14
A 34-year-old labourer is admitted with right upper quadrant discomfort, fever
and sweats. He returned from a project overseas 3 weeks earlier. On
examination he is tender to palpitation over the right hypochondrium making
complete examination difficult. A spiking fever pattern is seen on his
observation chart. His LFTs are as follows.
What investigation does this patient need as soon as possible based on

1.
his clinical history and blood tests?
Answer 2.14
The bilirubin and transaminases are raised. The CRP is highly elevated.
1. He requires an ultrasound scan of the abdomen to investigate an infective
cause for his symptoms.
2. Viral hepatitis, a liver abscess or cholangitis are all potential causes.
Case 2.15
A 32-year-old man is recalled by his occupational health department following
a recent ‘medical’ before transfer to an overseas operation within the company.
He is teetotal. He cannot understand what all the fuss is about as he feels fine.
The blood results of concern are shown.
1. What pattern of LFTs is demonstrated?

2. What further blood tests may help in coming to a diagnosis?
Answer 2.15
This patient has a parenchymal LFT derangement. Both the ALT and AST
1.
are markedly elevated.
A set of ‘screening’ investigations should be performed next to further
2.
investigate the situation. See page 71 for details.
This patient had hepatitis C. Not infrequently hepatitis C is diagnosed
incidentally when LFTs are checked for some other reason.
Case 2.16
A 37-year-old manual worker is admitted with generalised abdominal
discomfort, vomiting and shakiness. On examination there is a 4-cm mildly
tender hepatomegaly. He is sweaty to the touch. Some blood tests are
requested.
1. Outline the abnormalities on this set of blood results.

Explain the likely cause of the LFT abnormalities given the
2.
abnormalities in the other results.
Answer 2.16
1. The abnormalities seen include:

• a raised MCV, with a slightly low platelet count
• low values for urea, potassium, magnesium and, in particular, phosphate
• a raised GGT
• a low albumin.
The findings on these simple blood tests are classic for an individual who
2.
has consumed large quantities of alcohol for a significant time period.
Case 2.17
A 44-year-old woman with primary biliary cirrhosis has been attending
hepatology outpatients for many years. Over the past 18 months she has been
feeling less well in herself and her frequency of attendance for review has
increased at the insistence of her physician. On examination she is jaundiced
and her abdomen is mildly distended with a 3-cm hepatomegaly.
Her recent blood results are shown.
Give a summary of the findings.

Answer 2.17
The course of primary biliary cirrhosis is variable. Patients may live with
stable LFTs for a number of years. Decompensation may occur at any time with
deterioration in the liver’s synthetic function.
The chart shows LFTs over a period of 20 months. Initially only a moderately
elevated ALP is seen in April 2004. Over the ensuing months the ALP
continues to rise, and with this the albumin falls reaching a low of 28 g/l in
December 2005.
The prothrombin time should also be checked. One would expect it to be
raised indicating impaired production of clotting factors by the failing liver.
Case 2.18
A patient is referred to a psychiatrist for investigation of bizarre thoughts. She
has occasional involuntary movements. The psychiatrist requests a series of
blood tests as part of her initial screening tests, and the following results are
obtained.
What disease could account for the presentation and the blood test
abnormalities? How would you investigate it further?
Answer 2.18
The blood tests show very mild elevations in AST and ALT. These are very
minor and non-specific findings and could be caused by a variety of
conditions, including viral hepatitis and drug-induced hepatitis. The only
condition that meaningfully links a psychiatric disorder with these abnormal
liver function tests is, however, Wilson’s disease – a condition associated with
copper overload. Tests that could be performed to investigate further include:
serum copper level, serum ceruloplasmin level, slit-lamp examination of the
eyes to look for copper deposition, 24-hour urinary collection for copper
measurement and liver biopsy.
Case 2.19
A 38-year-old woman complains of a rash over her face and nose for several
weeks and a recent problem with pain and swelling in the joints of her hands.
She is married but without children. A number of blood tests were sent – some
of which are shown below.
1. Summarise the results shown.

2. Using the clinical information what is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer 2.19
1. There are a number of abnormalities on this set of results:

• the haemoglobin is slightly low
• the platelet count is slightly below normal
• the WCC is low
• the ESR is raised, with a normal CRP
• protein is noted in the urine.
The CRP is normal. This would go against an infectious cause for a raised
ESR and be more suggestive of inflammation of some description. There
are only a few conditions in which the ESR is elevated but the CRP remains
2.
normal. One such condition is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) which
this patient’s clinical features and blood test abnormalities are in keeping
with.
Case 2.20
A 77-year-old patient with dementia was admitted generally unwell. No
history was obtained. He was pyrexic and appeared a little short of breath.
Examination was difficult, although there was the impression of reduced breath
sounds at the right lung base. Urinalysis was normal. Blood tests were taken.
How do these tests help in the management of this patient?

Answer 2.20
Establishing a diagnosis in elderly people can be difficult by clinical

assessment alone, especially when no history is available. It is often necessary
to place greater emphasis on investigations. Although, in this case, the FBP and
U&Es are normal, the CRP is significantly raised. In the presence of infection
one might expect the WCC to be raised too, but this is not always the case. An
infection is likely to be the cause of the patient’s illness. A urinary tract
infection and pneumonia are the most common causes of these findings in
clinical practice. Given the normal urinalysis and abnormal examination
findings in the chest, pneumonia is the most likely diagnosis.
Case 2.21
A 34-year-old woman with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is receiving
chemotherapy within the haematology suite of the hospital. Several days into
treatment she complains of an intensely sore right knee. On examination there
is an effusion and she is unable to extend the knee fully due to pain. She has no
pre-existing joint disease. Fluid was aspirated from the knee and sent for
analysis along with blood samples.
Interpret these results (see page 496 for details of synovial fluid analysis).
Answer 2.21
Hyperuricaemia may occur due to excess purine metabolism. This includes

those suffering from haematological malignancies in which there is increased
cell turnover, especially following cell lysis from chemotherapy.
The presence of negatively birefringent crystals from the joint aspiration
confirms gout.
Case 2.22
A 32-year-old woman with diabetes is admitted for treatment of a large
abscess. The patient is reluctant to undergo surgical intervention and medical
treatment is pursued initially. Four days into her care she becomes more
unwell and her treatment is changed. A further 3 days on, when her condition
remains poor, she agrees to surgical intervention. Below is a chart of her CRP
throughout this period.
Try to explain the trend in the results.

Answer 2.22
Some of the most rewarding data to interpret are those collated over a period
of time when trends can be observed. This scenario illustrates the value of
CRP in both supporting a clinical diagnosis and monitoring its response to
treatment. On admission this patient’s CRP is significantly raised, as one may
expect in the presence of an abscess. With the commencement of antibiotics,
one might hope for the CRP to improve as the abscess is treated. The
worsening of her clinical state and the rising CRP suggest that either the
antibiotics are ineffective against the causative organism or they are unable to
penetrate the abscess. Day 4 sees a change in treatment, no doubt to an
alternative antimicrobial. However, the CRP remains stubbornly high. It is only
in the days following surgical intervention that the CRP begins to decrease,
reflecting the successful treatment of the abscess.
Case 2.23
A 58-year-old man complains of an exquisitely tender great toe. It is red,
swollen and impossible to examine fully because of pain. No other joints are
affected. He has a history of hypertension and a previous myocardial infarction
at 49 years of age. He drinks 14 units of alcohol a week. To his knowledge he
does not have any kidney problems. Blood tests are shown.
Does this man have gout? Justify your answer.

Answer 2.23
The clinical history is one of podagra (gout of the great toe). The elevated
urate in the blood supports this diagnosis. Definitive diagnosis of gout depends
on the detection of crystals of sodium urate in synovial fluid (see page 496).
However, not all joints with acute gout are amenable to aspiration and one
must rely on a clinical impression and supportive blood tests. Remember that
the serum urate level can be normal in acute gout.
This patient may well be taking a thiazide diuretic for hypertension. This
would place him at higher risk for gout.
Case 2.24
A 67-year-old man attends outpatients with a complaint of constipation and
vague abdominal discomfort. Abdominal examination and proctoscopy were
normal. Imaging investigations and endoscopy have been arranged. CEA levels
were also requested, along with routine blood tests.
What underlying diagnosis unites all the abnormalities observed?

Answer 2.24
The key findings on this patient’s blood tests are a microcytic anaemia (see
page 4) and a raised CEA. Given his symptoms, these results should arouse a
great deal of suspicion of colorectal carcinoma. Although proctoscopy was
normal this visualises only a very small percentage of the large bowel and
further imaging is required. In this case the tumour marker merely adds weight
to a clinical suspicion.
Case 2.25
A 55 year old with haemophilia attends her routine 6-monthly review at
hepatology outpatients. She has been attending for several years after
contracting hepatitis C from a blood transfusion. The doctor notes that she has
not attended for 8 months, and requests a number of blood tests.
What would you infer from these results?

Answer 2.25
This patient most likely has liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C. Her
regular attendance at an outpatient clinic is at least in part for surveillance for
hepatocellular carcinoma. Her α-FP level is within normal limits, indicating a
low likelihood of this tumour being present. An annual surveillance ultrasound
of the liver will be used in conjunction with α-FP measurements to seek out a
hepatocellular carcinoma. A significant percentage of tumour markers are
performed for monitoring so you should expect to interpret some normal
results.
Case 2.26
A 44-year-old reformed intravenous drug user with known hepatitis C is well
known to the local hepatologists. He has been attending on a regular basis and
is enrolled in the hepatocellular carcinoma surveillance programme. Below
are an overview of his blood tests.
What may explain the pattern in these results?

Answer 2.26
One important role of α-AFP measurement is demonstrated well in this patient

with hepatitis C. It is one of the more specific tumour markers and can be used
with some degree of confidence to monitor patients with liver cirrhosis who
have a substantially increased risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma
(HCC). Identifying a patient who has developed HCC early may allow
successful treatment to be instigated. The level in January 2005 is higher than 6
months previously but is not dramatically elevated. However, 6 months later it
has increased substantially. This suggests the development of HCC, and
ultrasound and/or other cross-sectional imaging would be merited. The
encouraging downward trend in the following 6 months would indicate that the
tumour has been successfully treated.
Case 2.27
A 55-year-old senior civil servant plucks up the courage to attend his GP after
complaints of a poor urinary stream, frequency and nocturia. He is concerned
as his father had ‘prostate problems’, On rectal examination an enlarged
prostate was felt. Later that week his renal function and prostate-specific
antigen tests come back.
Does this patient have anything to worry about?

Answer 2.27
Of all the tumour markers available, probably the most commonly requested is
the PSA. It is sometimes used in an attempt to identify the presence of prostatic
carcinoma, but more usefully in monitoring the disease and treatment response.
This patient has obstructive urinary symptoms and an enlarged prostate, but
this does not mean that he has prostate carcinoma. Likewise a normal PSA
does not exclude the presence of this tumour. However, this man most likely
has benign prostatic hypertrophy. There are a number of causes of a raised
PSA, as shown below.
CAUSES OF RAISED PSA

Prostate carcinoma
Instrumentation of prostate (including urinary catheterisation)
Urinary tract infection
Recent ejaculation
Case 2.28
A 28-year-old media studies student attends A&E with a swollen left testicle.
He is sexually active, with multiple sexual partners in the last 6 months. The
A&E officer is concerned, and arranges admission. Ultrasound of the scrotum
and blood tests were requested.
Can these results be explained by a diagnosis of epididymo-orchitis?

Answer 2.28
α-Fetoprotein is one of the few tumour markers with a good specificity for two
different tumours – hepatocellular carcinoma and testicular teratoma. Similarly
testicular teratoma is unique in characteristically causing high levels of two
tumour markers – α-FP and β-hCG. Both tumour markers are significantly
elevated here indicating a high probability of testicular malignancy. Following
treatment, these markers should be checked again and should have decreased.
Case 2.29
A 55-year-old woman is admitted under the care of the surgical team with a
distended abdomen. She admits that it has become increasingly large over the
past few weeks, but was scared to come to hospital. She has no complaints of
abdominal pain and her bowel habit is normal. The enthusiastic junior doctor
who admitted the patient included in the notes that she has sent blood for CEA,
CA-125 and CA-19-9.
What do these blood results tell you?

Answer 2.29
It is not uncommon (though not particularly good practice), especially in

puzzling clinical cases, to request a host of blood tests. Tumour markers for
intra-abdominal pathology are sometimes used in this manner. However, due to
the non-specific nature of these results, abnormal results can sometimes add to
the diagnostic conundrum. The abnormal marker in this case is CA-125. This is
most closely associated with ovarian malignancy. The clinical history is
certainly in keeping with this, as the distended abdomen may reflect both
tumour bulk and/or the presence of malignant ascites.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
Endocrine disorders can be divided into primary and secondary disorders. In a
primary endocrine gland disorder, the problem lies within the endocrine gland
itself. Thus, in primary hyperthyroidism, the principal problem is an
overactive thyroid gland. Secondary endocrine diseases arise when there is a
problem with the hormones controlling the activity of the target gland, such as
the overproduction of a hormone by the pituitary gland.
Thyroid hormones
Normally, thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is released from the
hypothalamus and stimulates the pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating
hormone (TSH). This hormone then acts on the thyroid gland and results in the
liberation of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) into the circulation.
These hormones exert negative feedback on both the hypothalamus and
pituitary, and result in a reduction in the production of TRH and TSH. Most of
the T3 and T4 in the body is carried by carrier proteins (principally thyroxine-
binding globulin, TBG). A small percentage is present in unbound form, and it
is this that is physiologically active. In clinical practice, the commonly
measured hormones are TSH, free T4 and T3. Total T4 (ie bound and unbound
forms) is sometimes given.
Fig 3.1
Hyperthyroidism
In primary hyperthyroidism (eg with Graves’ disease), the thyroid gland
autonomously produces thyroid hormones. The levels of T3 and T4 therefore
rise. Normal negative feedback continues, and the level of TSH will be low. In
T3 thyrotoxicosis, the T3 level may be elevated in isolation.
In secondary hyperthyroidism (eg due to a pituitary tumour secreting TSH), the
levels of T3 and T4 will again be high, but this time the TSH level will be
inappropriately normal or high.
DON’T FORGET
The finding of a normal TSH level in the setting of raised T3 and T4 should raise suspicions of a
pituitary lesion, since in normal circumstances the TSH level will be suppressed.
Hypothyroidism
In primary hypothyroidism (eg with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis), the thyroid gland
is defective. The levels of T3 and T4 are low. As a result of reduced negative
feedback, the TSH level will be high.
In secondary hypothyroidism (eg destructive pituitary tumour), the levels of T3
and T4 will again be low, but this is because of low TSH levels.
Sick euthyroid syndrome

Caution should be taken when interpreting thyroid function tests in a patient
with an acute illness. This is because thyroid function tests are often abnormal
during the acute phase of an illness, but normalise on its resolution. This
phenomenon is known as the sick euthyroid syndrome, indicating that the
patient is euthyroid (ie normal thyroid function), but that he or she has an
intercurrent illness. The common picture in sick euthyroid syndrome is one of
low T3 and T4 with low or normal TSH.
DON’T FORGET
Be cautious when interpreting thyroid function tests in an acutely unwell patient.
Variations in thyroxine-binding globulin levels

Care must be taken when interpreting free and total T4 levels. This is because
the level of TBG can vary in various states. Always remember that it is the
level of free hormone that is important physiologically. Factors influencing the
level of TBG are listed below.
INCREASE TBG DECREASE TBG
High oestrogen states, eg pregnancy, oral
High corticosteroid levels
contraceptive pill use
Protein deficiency states: low intake

(malnutrition); low synthesis (chronic liver
Hypothyroidism disease); increased losses (nephrotic syndrome)
Thyrotoxicosis
Adrenal hormones
Normally, corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) is released from the
hypothalamus and stimulates the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotrophic
hormone (ACTH). This hormone then acts on the adrenal cortex and results in
the release of glucocorticoids. Glucocorticoids exert negative feedback on
both the hypothalamus and pituitary, and result in a reduction in the production
of CRH and ACTH.
Fig 3.2
Cushing syndrome
Cushing syndrome results from glucocorticoid excess. It is seen most
commonly in patients receiving glucocorticoid treatment, eg for chronic severe
asthma. Endogenous forms of Cushing syndrome have several causes which are
listed below.
ENDOGENOUS CAUSES OF CUSHING SYNDROME
Primary adrenal disease

• Adrenal tumour (adenoma or carcinoma)
ACTH excess
• From the pituitary gland (Cushing disease)
• From an ACTH-producing tumour
In primary adrenal disease causing Cushing syndrome, the adrenal gland
autonomously produces adrenal hormones. Normal negative feedback
continues, and the level of ACTH will be low.
In instances of secondary hyperadrenalism (eg due to a pituitary tumour), the
ACTH level will be normal or high.
There are several methods for diagnosing Cushing syndrome:
Measure free cortisol in a 24-hour urine collection
1. An elevated level of free cortisol in the urine is in keeping with Cushing
syndrome. An abnormal test should be followed up by a repeat test in the
first instance.
Measure cortisol in a late-night salivary sample
In people with a normal sleep pattern (sleeping through the night), the
cortisol level should reach a nadir at night. In patients with Cushing
2. syndrome, cortisol levels may be elevated even at this time, and
elevated levels of cortisol can be measured in saliva. As with urinary
free cortisol, an abnormal test should be followed up by a repeat test in
the first instance.
Perform a 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test
In healthy individuals, taking 1 mg dexamethasone will have a negative
3. feedback effect on the pituitary gland, thereby decreasing ACTH and
hence cortisol production. In patients with Cushing syndrome, cortisol
production will not be affected, and hence a cortisol test the morning
after dosing will reveal abnormally elevated cortisol levels.
Perform a 2 mg 48-hour dexamethasone suppression test (low-dose
dexamethasone suppression test)
4. The rationale for this test is similar to that for the overnight suppression
test. For this test, however, 0.5 mg dexamethasone is given 6-hourly for
48 hours. A cortisol level taken 6 hours after the last dose will reveal an
abnormally elevated level in patients with Cushing syndrome.
Other more specialised tests can also be used to confirm the diagnosis and to
help differentiate between the causes of Cushing syndrome.
Nieman LK, Biller BM, Findling JW, et al. The diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome. J Clin Endocrinol
Metab 2008;93:1526–40.
Primary hyperaldosteronism
The measurement of aldosterone and renin levels is important in patients
suspected of having primary hyperaldosteronism. In this condition, aldosterone
levels are elevated and renin levels are suppressed (due to negative feedback
mechanisms). Measuring these hormones is fraught with difficulty because the
levels vary depending on posture (lying or standing, for example), and can be
affected by a variety of drugs. The particular way in which the hormones are
measured and the units of measurement vary between laboratories, so take care
when interpreting results that you understand what is being reported.
In order to screen carefully selected patients for the presence of primary
hyperaldosteronism, increasing emphasis is being placed on the ratio between
aldosterone and renin levels (the aldosterone:renin ratio or ARR). If plasma
aldosterone concentration is given in nanograms/decilitre and plasma renin
activity in nanograms/millilitre per hour, then an accepted cut-off for an
abnormal ARR is 30. If the ARR is above this level, the patient may well have
the condition and further investigations would be warranted.
There are several tests available to confirm or refute the diagnosis in patients
with an abnormal ARR. One test that is commonly used is the ‘saline
suppression test’. The specifics of this test are beyond the scope of this book,
but, in principle, an infusion of saline should reduce blood aldosterone levels.
Failure of aldosterone levels to suppress after administration of saline makes
the diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism more likely.
If the diagnosis seems likely, imaging should be performed to visualise the
adrenal glands. If unilateral adrenal gland disease appears likely, blood can be
sampled from the adrenal veins in an attempt to prove that aldosterone is being
produced in excess from an adrenal gland.
Funder JW, Carey RM, Fardella C, et al. Case detection, diagnosis, and treatment of patients with primary
aldosteronism: An Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline. J Clin Endocrinol Metab
2010;93:3266–81.
Hypoadrenalism
In primary hypoadrenalism (eg Addison’s disease), the adrenal gland itself is
defective. As a result of reduced negative feedback, the ACTH level will be
high.
In secondary hypoadrenalism, ACTH levels will be low.
Short Synacthen® test
Synacthen®, or SYNthetic ACTH, is used to stimulate the adrenal gland.
Normally, an injection of Synacthen® will result in an increase in circulating
cortisol levels. If the patient has a primary adrenal disease, the Synacthen®
will not have its normal effect, and the rise in cortisol levels will be poor. A
cortisol level of less than 600 nmol/l 30 min after Synacthen® has been
administered is in keeping with failure of the adrenal gland. The Synacthen®
test will be normal in cases of secondary hypoadrenalism.
Insulin tolerance test
This test is used in specialist centres to assess adrenal function as well as to
assess for growth hormone deficiency.
Several criteria must be met before this test can be attempted.
CRITERIA TO BE MET BEFORE PERFORMING AN INSULIN

TOLERANCE TEST
Cortisol level >100 nmol/l
Normal thyroid function
No cardiovascular disease
No epilepsy or other seizure activity or blackouts
The essence of the test is to induce hypoglycaemia (blood glucose must fall to
less than 2.2 mmol/l) in a carefully controlled environment. In a normal
patient, a stress response will occur with a rise in cortisol and growth
hormone levels. Normally, the cortisol level should rise to more than 550
nmol/l, and the growth hormone level to more than 20 mU/l.
Phaeochromocytomas
These tumours are associated with excess circulating catecholamines.
Diagnosis relies on the demonstration of excessive amounts of catecholamine
breakdown products in the plasma (free metanephrines) or urine (fractional
metanephrines).
If levels are extremely high, phaeochromocytoma is likely. If levels are only
slightly high, a ‘clonidine suppression test’ can be performed. Plasma free
metanephrines are measured after dosing with clonidine, and would be
expected to be suppressed in people without a phaeochromocytoma.
If the diagnosis seems likely, an attempt should be made to visualise the
tumour. This can be done using MRI or CT. Alternatively, radionuclide
scanning or positron emission tomography (PET) may be necessary.
Lenders JW, Eisenhofer G, Mannelli M, Pacak K. Phaeochromocytoma. Lancet 2005;366:665–75.
The thirst axis
Psychogenic polydipsia and diabetes insipidus

The combination of passing excessive volumes of urine (polyuria) with
excessive thirst (polydipsia) is common. The water deprivation test is used to
differentiate between two major causes – psychogenic polydipsia and diabetes
insipidus (DI).
Patients with psychogenic polydipsia simply drink fluid in excess for
psychological or psychiatric reasons.
In DI, there is a problem with antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH normally
acts on the collecting ducts in the kidney to stimulate water reabsorption. If
ADH does not function properly, too much urine is passed. In turn the patient
becomes relatively dehydrated and drinks to compensate for this.
MEMORY AID
Diuretic medications increase urine volume.
Therefore, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) does the opposite, and acts to
conserve water.
There are two forms of DI – cranial and nephrogenic. In cranial DI, there is a
problem with the release of ADH from the hypothalamus. Blood levels of
ADH are low. In nephrogenic DI, there is sufficient ADH in the system, but it
fails to exert its effects on the kidney.
The water deprivation test restricts patients’ intake of water. If they have
psychogenic polydipsia, reducing water intake will solve their problem and
they will gradually return to normal. However, with DI, water restriction will
result in a worsening state of dehydration.
The test involves forbidding the patient to drink after waking. Blood and urine
osmolalities are tested each hour for a period of 8 h. In health (or psychogenic
polydipsia), one would expect the patient to retain water and to pass
concentrated urine (with a high urine osmolality). In DI, the urine osmolality
does not rise, and the patient becomes dehydrated with a rise in serum
osmolality.
To differentiate between the two forms of DI, patients are then given a dose of
a synthetic ADH compound called desmopressin. This will correct the
problem in cranial DI, but will have no effect in nephrogenic DI.
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)

In this condition, there is a state of excessive ADH production. SIADH has
many causes, the most common of which are listed in the table.
COMMON CAUSES OF SIADH
Intrathoracic causes:
• Infection
• Tumour
Intracranial causes:
• Infection
• Tumour
• Head injury
Medications:
• Carbamazepine
• Antipsychotics
SIADH is, in essence, the opposite of DI. Excessive ADH action results in
retention of water, with the subsequent development of dilute serum and
concentrated urine.
For a person to be labelled with the diagnosis of SIADH the following criteria
should be met:
1. Clinically isovolaemic
2. Normal renal function
3. Normal adrenal function
4. Normal thyroid function
5. Normal pituitary function
6. Absence of diuretic therapy
7. Low serum osmolality (<275 mosmol/kg)
8. Inappropriately concentrated urine (>100 mosmol/kg)
For a reference see the GAIN hyponatraemia document in page 58.
Hyperprolactinaemia
There are many causes of a raised serum prolactin level (see box below). Very
high levels (>5000 mU/l) strongly suggest a prolactin-secreting pituitary
tumour.
COMMON CAUSES OF HYPERPROLACTINAEMIA
Physiological:
• Pregnancy
• Lactation
Prolactin-secreting pituitary tumour
Medications:
• Phenothiazine antipsychotics
• Most antiemetics
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Following a seizure
Primary hypothyroidism
Hyperglycaemia
The diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and related hyperglycaemic states relies on
accurate interpretation of blood glucose readings. A patient’s glycaemic status
can be classed as one of the following:
• Normal
• Impaired fasting glucose
• Impaired glucose tolerance
• Diabetes mellitus
• Gestational diabetes mellitus.
In some circumstances, diabetes will be suspected clinically, particularly if the
patient is symptomatic from hyperglycaemia. In other instances,
hyperglycaemia will be detected incidentally when a blood glucose level is
checked. Typical symptoms are shown in the box below.
SYMPTOMS OF DIABETES MELLITUS

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Weight loss
Fatigue
Blurring of vision
Symptoms related to a complication of diabetes such as a cutaneous abscess
An oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is often used in differentiating between

these various states. This test involves giving the patient a 75 g glucose load
by mouth, after they have been fasting. The plasma glucose level is measured at
baseline and after 2 h.
Diabetes mellitus may be diagnosed in a variety of ways. Any one of the
following is sufficient:
A single random plasma glucose of more than 11.1 mmol/l in a patient
1.
with symptoms
Two separate random plasma glucose samples of more than 11.1 mmol/l
2.
in a patient without symptoms
A single fasting plasma glucose of more than 7.0 mmol/l in a patient with
3.
symptoms
Two separate fasting plasma glucose samples of more than 7.0 mmol/l in
4.
a patient without symptoms
A plasma glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or more 2 h after a glucose load in
5. an OGTT. An OGTT is generally performed only if borderline results are
obtained on random or fasting samples.
DON’T FORGET
If a patient is asymptomatic, two blood tests are required before diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed.
Patients with normoglycaemia (ie definitely not diabetic) have a fasting

plasma glucose of less than 6.1 mmol/l. Two hours following a glucose load in
an OGTT, the plasma glucose will be less than 7.8 mmol/l.
’Impaired fasting glucose’ and ‘impaired glucose tolerance’ are terms used
to describe states of glycaemic control that lie somewhere between normal and
frank diabetes mellitus. The terms are not mutually exclusive. It is therefore
possible for a patient to have both impaired fasting glucose and impaired
glucose tolerance. Alternatively, they may have one or other of the terms
attached to them in isolation. The significance of labelling a patient with one of
these terms lies with the fact that such patients have an increased risk of
developing diabetes mellitus in the future. The diagnostic criteria are shown in
the table below.
Gestational diabetes mellitus describes diabetes that is of new onset in

pregnancy, or that is first noted during pregnancy. The principles of diagnosis
are identical to those above. The term may be used if a woman fits the criteria
for impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes mellitus while pregnant. All such
women should have an OGTT at least 6 weeks after delivery, and be re-
classified as necessary. The significance of gestational diabetes mellitus again
relates to the fact that such patients have a reasonable chance of having a
‘large-for-dates’ foetus, and that they have a chance of developing diabetes
mellitus in later life.
Glycated haemoglobin
Random blood glucose measurements are useful for monitoring variations on a
day-to-day basis, however, the inevitable variation makes interpretation of
long-term trends difficult. For this reason measurement of glycated
haemoglobin (HbA1 or HbA1c) is often used.
Glycated haemoglobin is the product of the reaction between glucose and
haemoglobin A (the main type of haemoglobin in most adults). The higher the
average blood glucose level, the higher the glycated haemoglobin level will
be. As red blood cells have an average life-span of around 120 days, glycated
haemoglobin estimation provides information on the glycaemic control over
this time period.
The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) provided evidence that
well-controlled diabetes was associated with fewer microvascular
complications (N Engl J Med 1993; 329: 977–86). For most patients, a target
HbA1c of between 6.5 and 7.5% will be adequate. A slightly less ambitious
target of between 7 and 8% may prove adequate for some patients, and reduce
the risk of hypoglycaemic attacks when compared with a more intensive
treatment regimen.
Glycated haemoglobin is reliable only when normal haemoglobin is present in
red blood cells that have normal life-spans. If a haemoglobin disorder is
present, or in patients who have red cells with shortened life-spans (eg
haemolytic anaemia), measurement of fructosamine levels may be used instead
to measure glycaemic control. Fructosamine is a glycated plasma protein, and
provides information on glucose levels over the previous 1–3 weeks.
Hypoglycaemia
Hypoglycaemia describes a plasma glucose that is lower than normal (less
than 3.5 mmol/l). The most common cause is an imbalance between intake and
insulin requirements in a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus (eg the patient
who takes normal insulin without eating lunch). Other causes of hypoglycaemia
are listed in the box on page 154.
CAUSES OF HYPOGLYCAEMIA
Imbalance between insulin and calorie intake in type 1 diabetes
Excess exogenous insulin administration
As a side effect of anti-hyperglycaemic medication
Insulinoma
Liver failure
Alcohol ingestion
A fairly common clinical scenario is the patient who presents with

hypoglycaemia of unknown cause. Endogenous insulin (ie insulin derived from
an insulinoma) can be differentiated easily from exogenous insulin (ie a patient
with Munchausen syndrome who administers insulin to themselves in an
attempt to seek medical attention) with a little knowledge of insulin
physiology.
Normal physiological insulin is manufactured in the body from proinsulin
which in turn is derived from pre-proinsulin. Each protein precursor is
cleaved to yield its product. This cleavage process generates a ‘waste’ chain
of amino acids called C-peptide.
If hypoglycaemia is due to excess endogenous insulin from an insulinoma, one
would expect high insulin and C-peptide levels in a patient who is
hypoglycaemic.
Exogenous insulin does not contain C-peptide. Therefore, a hypoglycaemic
patient with raised levels of insulin in the blood but normal/low levels of C-
peptide is likely to have been given insulin.
Acromegaly
Acromegaly is associated with an elevated level of growth hormone (GH),
usually due to a pituitary tumour. Measuring the level is not a reliable method
of making this diagnosis. Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) levels can be
used as a marker of average GH levels and, if raised, is suggestive of
acromegaly. The definitive test for the diagnosis is a glucose tolerance test,
exactly like that used in the investigation of hyperglycaemia. The test is
performed in the same manner, but GH levels are measured. Failure of the GH
level to fall below 1 mU/l is in keeping with a diagnosis of acromegaly.
DON’T FORGET
Acromegaly is diagnosed if the GH level is >1 mU/l during a glucose tolerance test.
Case 3.1
A 21-year-old woman is referred to the medical clinic because of abnormal
thyroid function results noted by her GP. There is no personal or family history
of thyroid disease, and she is on no medication, but the GP requested the test
because the patient had been feeling generally unwell recently. Clinical
examination is unremarkable. The thyroid function tests are repeated and the
following results are obtained.
1. How would you interpret these tests?

2. What two tests should be ordered?
Answer 3.1
Care should be taken when interpreting these results. Note that the TOTAL
T4 level is given, not the FREE T4 level. It is the free level that is
1. important physiologically. It is impossible to make any further comments
on these tests other than to say that the total T4 level is raised, and the
TSH is normal.
First, the free T4 level should be measured. In this case it was normal
(result not shown), indicating normal thyroid function. The patient
therefore has an elevated total T4 level with a normal free T4 level. The
2. reason for this is increased levels of TBG. The most likely reason for this
is a high oestrogen state (eg pregnancy or use of the oral contraceptive
pill). Since the question states that the patient is not on any medication, the
most likely diagnosis here is pregnancy. The second test that should be
performed is therefore a pregnancy test.
Case 3.2
A 64-year-old woman is admitted with palpitations. She feels that these have
been intermittent over the last month. Examination reveals an anxious woman
with an irregularly irregular pulse at 120 beats/min. ECG confirms the
suspicions of atrial fibrillation. As part of her initial investigations, the
following blood test is returned.
What is the underlying cause of the atrial fibrillation?

Answer 3.2
This woman has primary hyperthyroidism. Her overactive thyroid gland is

producing thyroid hormones in excess. Normal negative feedback mechanisms
still function, however, so the TSH level is suppressed.
It is not uncommon for atrial fibrillation to be the only evidence of
hyperthyroidism, so always remember to check thyroid function in such
patients.
Case 3.3
A patient is reviewed at the chest clinic. He was treated over 1 year ago for
pulmonary tuberculosis. He now complains of lethargy. Clinical examination
reveals no chest abnormalities, but he is found to have significant postural
hypotension. A urea and electrolyte (U&E) blood test is sent and, on the basis
of the results, the following test is arranged.
1. What is the test, and what does it demonstrate in this case?

What were the likely abnormalities on the U&Es that raised
2.
suspicions of this disorder?
3. What is the likely underlying disease?
Answer 3.3
This is a short Synacthen® test. The cortisol level fails to rise to more
1. than 600 nmol/l 30 min after injection with Synacthen®. This indicates
primary hypoadrenalism (ie a problem with the adrenal gland itself).
A low sodium and raised potassium level are commonly found. The
2.
glucose level would also be expected to be low.
The underlying disease is primary hypoadrenalism, probably due to
3.
autoimmune adrenalitis or tuberculosis affecting the adrenal gland.
Case 3.4
A patient is referred to the endocrine clinic complaining of excess thirst and of
passing excessive amounts of urine. A random blood glucose level is 4.2
mmol/l. He is admitted to hospital and a water deprivation test is arranged.
The results are shown.
1. What is your interpretation of the blood glucose level?

Answer 3.4
The random blood glucose level is normal. The patient therefore does not
1. have diabetes mellitus. It is important to exclude this diagnosis, since it
can also present with polydipsia and polyuria.
The diagnosis is cranial diabetes insipidus. The patient has a problem
producing ADH. When deprived of water, he is unable to concentrate the
urine. The plasma rapidly becomes more concentrated. Following an
2.
injection of synthetic ADH (desmopressin), the urine osmolality
increases. This shows that the kidney is still sensitive to the effects of
ADH, and excludes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as the diagnosis.
Case 3.5
A 57-year-old man is referred to the hypertension clinic. Two tests are
performed in order to screen for an endocrine cause of hypertension.
How would you interpret these results?

Answer 3.5
Three separate 24-h urine collections for urinary metanephrines have been
taken. The metanephrine levels are normal in each. This excludes
phaeochromocytoma as a cause of the hypertension with some certainty.
The second test shows the results of an overnight dexamethasone suppression
test. The morning cortisol level is greater than 100 nmol/l, suggesting a
diagnosis of Cushing syndrome.
Case 3.6
A patient is referred to the endocrine clinic after having been assessed in the
eye A&E. The registrar arranges for a glucose tolerance test to be carried out.
1. What two diagnoses can be made on the basis of this test?

2. Why do you think the patient was seen in the eye A&E?
Answer 3.6
The two diagnoses that can be made from this one test are: diabetes
1.
mellitus and acromegaly.
The glucose level before the start of the test is elevated in keeping with
the label of impaired fasting glucose. However, the abnormally high
glucose level 2 h after the glucose load confirms the diagnosis of diabetes
mellitus.
The growth hormone level is greater than 2.0 μg/l at all stages of the test,
allowing the diagnosis of acromegaly to be made.
The most common cause of acromegaly is a pituitary tumour. This
commonly extends in an upward direction and can compress the optic
2.
chiasma, causing a bitemporal hemianopia. Loss of temporal visual fields
is the probable reason for presentation at the eye A&E.
TOXICOLOGY
Poisoning is one of the most common causes of admission to hospital. It is
most often deliberate, but can also be accidental, sometimes due to the
accumulation of prescribed medications.
The management of a poisoned patient largely involves supportive care,
allowing the body to excrete or metabolise a drug naturally. In certain
circumstances, antidotes may be necessary along with the use of other methods
designed to clear the drug more quickly from the body.
It is important that you are able to assimilate data of a variety of types when
treating a poisoned patient.
Paracetamol
Paracetamol (called acetaminophen in the USA) is one of the most common
drugs taken in overdose. This reflects its ready availability and ubiquitous use.
When taken in overdose, paracetamol depletes antioxidant stores in
hepatocytes and can result in liver damage. If a patient takes a significant
quantity of paracetamol and is delayed in their presentation to hospital, the
following abnormalities may be apparent:
Elevated liver enzymes, particularly aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
and alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Bilirubin levels will also rise.
1.
These changes occur because of liver cell damage. Further details on
liver tests can be found on page 70.
Elevated prothrombin time (PT) (and international normalised ratio
[INR], because this is calculated from the PT). This occurs because of
2.
impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors. Further details on PT and
INR can be found on page 21.
Impaired kidney function (elevated urea and creatinine). This can arise
3. secondary to liver impairment (hepatorenal syndrome) or sometimes as
a direct effect of paracetamol metabolites on the kidney.
Metabolic acidosis mainly due to liver failure. This will be a high
4.
anion gap metabolic acidosis. For further details, refer to page 428.
Administration of an antidote, N-acetylcysteine, can help patients after a
significant paracetamol overdose. This agent replenishes liver antioxidant
stores.
On most occasions in clinical practice, patients present to hospital within a
few hours of taking an overdose. Although N-acetylcysteine is a fairly safe and
effective drug, anaphylaxis has been reported after its administration. It is
therefore routine practice to weigh up whether or not a patient requires
antidote administration. This is done by measuring blood paracetamol levels
and using the nomogram in Fig 4.1 (which can be found in the British National
Formulary).
Fig 4.1
Timing of the overdose is critical because blood levels are interpretable only
if the time of drug ingestion is known. You will note that the lines on the
nomogram start at 4 hours – blood levels taken within 4 hours of ingestion are
meaningless because absorption will be incomplete, and levels could rise if
blood is re-sampled later. Once timing has been established and the post-4-
hour blood levels measured, plot the patient’s data on the nomogram. Decide
on whether the ‘normal’ or ‘high-risk’ treatment line should be used (see
below). If the patient’s level lies above the relevant line at the time point
chosen, then they are deemed to be at significant risk of liver injury, and the
antidote should be administered. If their level is below the treatment line, the
risk of liver damage is small and treatment is not generally required.
As mentioned, knowledge of the time of ingestion is critical. It is, however,
acknowledged that it is often extremely difficult to be certain about this,
because patients who have taken an overdose are often intoxicated, drowsy or
generally uncooperative. One should collect information from every available
source, and generally speaking one should have a low threshold for treatment if
details are sketchy. Another point of note is that the nomogram curves flatten
considerably towards the right side of the chart. The differences in blood
levels between whom to treat and whom not to treat if presentation is delayed
are very small, and generally treatment should be instigated in all cases of
delayed presentation. Patients who have taken a potentially lethal quantity of
paracetamol (>12 g in most circumstances) but who present earlier than 4
hours should generally receive treatment, which can be stopped if their post-4-
hour drug level suggests that treatment is not required. In addition, patients
who have taken a staggered overdose should generally be treated regardless of
the blood level.
DON’T FORGET
Always check plasma paracetamol levels at least 4 h after ingestion.
In routine circumstances, the ‘normal’ treatment line should be used. Some

patients are deemed ‘high risk’ for liver damage, and for them the ‘high-risk
treatment line’ should be used (see box for details). Such patients are presumed
to have lower than normal antioxidant stores.
PATIENTS AT HIGH RISK IN PARACETAMOL OVERDOSE

On hepatic enzyme-inducing drugs
(eg phenytoin, rifampicin, carbamazepine)
Alcoholics
Malnutrition (including anorexia nervosa)
Patients with AIDS
MEMORY AID
Always assess paracetamol overdose patients for high-risk status.
Salicylate
Salicylates (such as aspirin) are found in a wide variety of preparations
commonly available in households and are therefore taken reasonably
commonly in overdose. Two main types of data can be useful in salicylate
poisoning:
Salicylate levels: the higher the level, the greater the likelihood of
symptoms and organ damage, and the more likely it will be that specific
1. treatments will be required to increase clearance of salicylate from the
body. The absorption of salicylates can be slow. It is therefore good
practice to repeat blood levels at intervals until they start to fall.
Abnormalities of acid–base balance: see Chapter 13 for detailed
information about the interpretation of acid–base abnormalities.
Significant salicylate overdose produces a characteristic pattern of
acid– base disturbance. The respiratory centre in the brain is
stimulated, causing patients to hyperventilate and ‘blow off’ carbon
dioxide. The levels of the acidic gas carbon dioxide therefore fall,
2.
resulting in a respiratory alkalosis. At the same time, however, a
metabolic acidosis develops due to the production of a variety of acids.
Levels of the alkaline substance bicarbonate fall, and the pH becomes
acidic. The overall effect on a particular patient is hard to predict.
Either alkalosis or acidosis can predominate, or alternatively the pH
can remain neutral due to opposing respiratory and metabolic effects.
Opiates
Significant opiate poisoning will have a variety of effects on the patient. From
a data interpretation perspective, however, the one piece of data that can
provide a clue to the fact that opiates have been taken is the respiratory rate.
Opiates suppress respiratory drive, so, if a patient has taken a cocktail of
unknown drugs and the respiratory rate is slow, it would be reasonable to
assume that they have taken an opiate and to administer the antidote (naloxone).
Tricyclic antidepressants
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as amitriptyline are extremely
dangerous when taken in overdose. The two major clinical complications that
can arise are:
Cardiac toxicity – this can cause hypotension, arrhythmias and cardiac
1.
arrest
2. Seizures.
It would seem logical that one should measure blood levels of these drugs to
predict which patients are likely to develop problems. This is, however, not
part of routine management, and the following two tests are much more useful:
An electrocardiograph (ECG). Please see Chapter 10 for more
1. information on ECG interpretation. There are two major signs on the
ECG that indicate that a significant TCA overdose has been taken:
QRS broadening: the normal QRS width is <120 ms (three small
squares on ECG paper). In the setting of TCA overdose, any QRS
(a)
widening over 100 ms is significant. The broader the QRS complex,
the higher the risk of cardiac arrhythmia and seizure.
(b) Abnormally tall T wave in lead aVR, as shown in Fig 4.2.
Arterial blood gas analysis: see Chapter 13 for detailed information
about the interpretation of acid–base abnormalities. A metabolic
2.
acidosis can occur in significant TCA overdose and should be treated
with sodium bicarbonate. A respiratory acidosis may also occur.
Fig 4.2
Drugs with a low therapeutic ratio

The therapeutic ratio is the ratio between the dose of a drug needed to cause a
toxic effect and the dose required to produce the intended effect. Drugs with a
low therapeutic ratio thus have a small difference between helpful blood
levels for treatment and toxic levels. The plasma levels of such medications
can be easily measured by a hospital laboratory. For details of antibiotic drug
level interpretation, please refer to page 219. For other drugs, an estimation of
the steady-state drug level is most helpful, so blood is generally sampled at a
fixed time point following drug ingestion.
EXAMPLES OF DRUGS WITH NARROW THERAPEUTIC RATIOS

Digoxin
Theophylline
Lithium
Phenytoin
Antibiotics, eg gentamicin, vancomycin, tobramycin
From a data interpretation perspective, digoxin deserves special mention

because of its effects on the ECG. Ingestion of digoxin can cause down-sloping
ST segment depression as shown in Fig 4.3 (see Chapter 10 for further details
on ECG interpretation). In addition, digoxin toxicity can cause virtually any
type of cardiac arrhythmia.
Fig 4.3
Urine testing for drug metabolites

A number of drugs can be detected in urine. A urine drug screen is often
requested when a patient presents with unusual symptoms and there is a
suspicion of potential drug use.
TYPICAL COMPONENTS OF URINE ‘DRUGS’ SCREEN

Amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, methadone,
cannabinoids, cocaine metabolites, LSD and opiates
Case 4.1
A 72-year-old woman is admitted complaining of poor appetite, nausea and
vomiting. She also complains of intermittent palpitations and visual
disturbance. She had a stomach upset one week previously and had been off
her food and consumed little fluid. Her medical history includes hypertension,
atrial fibrillation and vertigo. She is unable to recall her medications. An ECG
was reported as having ST-segment abnormalities, but the house officer did not
feel that this was significant.
Explain the full significance of these results.

Answer 4.1
This patient has been prescribed digoxin for atrial fibrillation, and has digoxin
toxicity. Digoxin is a drug with a narrow therapeutic ratio and a normal
therapeutic range of 0.8–2.0 nmol/l. A level as high as 2.9 nmol/l is enough for
the symptoms described in this elderly patient. Digoxin levels can accumulate
rapidly in patients with renal impairment. It is likely that this woman has
become dehydrated following a bout of gastroenteritis. Renal impairment has
caused the rise in plasma digoxin resulting in toxicity. Hypokalaemia is also
present. This can exacerbate the symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
This iatrogenic problem is simply treated. Fluid resuscitation with the
replacement of potassium intravenously and the exclusion of digoxin is
appropriate in this case. The ECG shows down-sloping ST-segment
depression (‘reverse tick’) often seen in patients on digoxin, and would have
been a clue here that the patient was taking this drug.
Case 4.2
A 20-year-old law student attends A&E feeling unwell after a car journey back
to Belfast from Dublin, having been to visit his girlfriend over the weekend.
He has a headache and informs you that he had great difficulty concentrating on
the final part of his trip. He does admit to having a ‘big weekend’ while in
Dublin. On examination his pulse is bounding in character.
His various investigations are shown. The arterial blood gas was sampled
with the patient breathing room air.
Describe the abnormalities seen and explain the cause of this man’s
symptoms.
Answer 4.2
On first inspection, one might suspect that illicit drug use could provide the
explanation for this patient’s symptoms. However, another diagnosis may be
more likely – carbon monoxide poisoning. This student developed symptoms
following a car journey of several hours. Typically, students, elderly people
and socially deprived people are most susceptible to exposure to carbon
monoxide from poorly maintained fires and motor cars. Carbon monoxide
poisoning can be diagnosed by measuring carboxyhaemoglobin in an arterial
blood gas sample. This patient’s carboxyhaemoglobin is elevated, in keeping
with the clinical suspicion. It is entirely appropriate that a urine drug screen
has been performed, although the patient should be informed if this is being
sent. A trace of cannabinoids suggests recent use of cannabis. This is, however,
unlikely to be the explanation for this recent onset of symptoms.
Case 4.3
A 25-year-old shop assistant is brought to hospital by her colleague at 16:30
hours after she admitted to taking an overdose of paracetamol. She regrets the
incident and is able to tell you clearly that she has taken one packet of 16
tablets during her lunch break between 12:00 and 12:30 hours. She feels fine
and wishes to go home. No other medications or alcohol was taken. She has no
health problems and is on no prescribed medications except the oral
contraceptive pill. Blood tests taken on arrival at the hospital are shown.
Would you treat this patient? Detail the logic for your decision.
Answer 4.3
The three most important pieces of information to ascertain from a paracetamol

overdose patient are:
• How much has been taken?
• When was it taken?
Does the patient have any factors to make them ‘high
•
risk’?
Further questions to ascertain the psychiatric state and suicide risk are also
clearly important.
In this case:
• How much?
16 tablets. Paracetamol tablets are normally500 mg. Thus total dose = 16 ×
500 mg = 8000 mg = 8 g.
• Timing?
4 h post-ingestion.
• Risk?
No high-risk features from history
The 4 h level in this patient is 155 mg/l.
Using the graph illustrated earlier, one can interpret a paracetamol level of 155
mg/l at 4 h as not high enough to warrant treatment. Note, however, that if this
patient were deemed to be ‘high risk’, treatment would have been necessary.
The cut-off difference between the normal and high-risk groups at 4 h is
substantial – 200 mg/l and 100 mg/l.
Case 4.4
A 33-year-old single mother attends A&E with her neighbour who found that
she had taken an overdose when she came round to visit. The patient is a
difficult historian but does indicate that she took about 30–50 tablets from the
cupboard during the midday news. It is now 19:15 hours. The neighbour
indicates that the woman has a history of epilepsy and she is on medication for
this. Blood tests were taken on arrival.
State what treatment this woman might need and justify your answer.
Answer 4.4
This overdose case is more difficult, although perhaps more typical. The
patient is only admitting to taking ‘tablets’, although the quantity, type and
timing are more uncertain. At the time of presentation to hospital it is over 7 h
since ingestion. To complicate matters further she is also on an unspecified
anticonvulsant medication. This patient has taken alcohol with the tablets, has a
raised paracetamol level and a mildly raised salicylate level. The patient also
has mild impairment of her liver function tests.
On first glance 80 mg/l of paracetamol doesn’t appear that remarkable.
However, if the exact drug history cannot quickly be ascertained, one must
assume that this patient is on hepatic enzyme-inducing antiepileptic medication.
When this is transferred to the nomogram, one can see that a level of 80 mg/l is
well above the treatment line in high-risk groups. Instigation of an infusion of
N-acetylcysteine must commence immediately.
t-
...
•·"4-HH-H +H-Hf-+-H+H+H--H+H
• ,.,...
t> 1,11 II
•• " ...
" .. " "
Time (hours) following drug ingestion
Case 4.5
A 41-year-old patient with bipolar disorder presents to A&E indicating that
she has taken an overdose of her prescribed lithium. She is subdued and states
that she had been feeling low at the time. Her examination is normal and she
does not have any direct complaints. Blood tests are shown.
Explain the treatment options in lithium overdose with specific reference

to this patient.
Answer 4.5
One must be particularly mindful in psychiatric patients of the accuracy of

information conveyed and compliance with medication. Lithium is a commonly
used drug in bipolar affective disorder, but has one major drawback –
overdose. It has a narrow therapeutic ratio. Patients on long-term lithium can
become unwell due to toxicity even without deliberate overdose. Overdoses of
lithium can be fatal. The normal range is 0.4–1.5 mmol/l with levels above 2.0
mmol/l requiring treatment that may include haemodialysis. Levels between
1.5 and 2.0 mmol/l, as in this case, may require only fluid resuscitation and
supportive treatment, along with temporary discontinuation of the drug.
PLEURAL AND
PERITONEAL FLUID
ANALYSIS
In health, only a small volume of fluid surrounds the pleural lining of the lung.
In various pathological states, excess fluid can accumulate forming a pleural
effusion. When a significant volume has collected it may be detected on
clinical examination or on a chest radiograph (see page 265 for further
details). Approximately 300 ml of fluid must be present before a pleural
effusion is apparent on a chest radiograph. Pleural fluid is not the only fluid
that can collect within the pleural cavity. Blood in the pleural space is termed
a haemothorax, lymph a chylothorax, and pus an empyema.
Analysis of this fluid may help determine the cause of the effusion. If
significant volumes of fluid are removed there can also be symptomatic benefit
to the patient. Fluid is collected by performing pleural aspiration (‘a pleural
tap’) which should be performed under imaging guidance.
A number of key parameters are analysed routinely, with many additional tests
being possible on request. The first fundamental point to establish is whether
the effusion is unilateral or bilateral. Unilateral effusions are more likely to be
‘exudates’ and bilateral effusions are more likely to be ‘transudates’, but this is
not always the case. The protein concentration of the pleural fluid is a good
starting point for fluid analysis.
DON’T FORGET
Unilateral pleural effusions are more likely to be exudates.
For pleural effusions

Exudate ≥30 g/l of protein
Transudate <30 g/l of protein
Reliance on the fluid protein concentration is most useful when there is a clear
clinical suspicion of either exudate or transudate, and when the protein
concentration of the fluid is either much higher or much lower than 30 g/l.
Occasionally, reliance on the protein concentration can result in misclassifying
an exudate as a transudate, or vice versa. For this reason, the ‘Light’s criteria’
can be used to make the distinction with greater certainty. This requires
knowledge of pleural fluid and serum protein levels, as well as lactate
dehydrogenase (LDH) levels.
THE ‘LIGHT’S CRITERIA’
A pleural effusion is likely to be an exudate if one or more of the following

conditions are met:
• Pleural fluid:serum protein ratio >0.5
Pleural fluid LDH >200 IU/l (commonly taken as more than two-thirds
•
of the upper limit of normal for blood)
• Pleural fluid:serum LDH ratio >0.6
Light RW, MacGregor MI, Luchsinger PC, et al. Pleural effusions: the diagnostic separation of
transudates and exudates. Ann Intern Med 1972;77:507–13.
COMMON PARAMETERS
ANALYSED IN PLEURAL REASON FOR ANALYSIS
FLUID
Total protein Differentiate exudate and transudate
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) Differentiate exudate and transudate
Microbiology (microscopy, cell count,

Identify an infection
Gram stain and culture)
Low in empyema. If pH <7.2, chest drain

pH
insertion should be strongly considered
Cytological examination To identify and characterise malignant cells
ADDITIONAL PARAMETERS
ANALYSED IN PLEURAL INTERPRETATION
FLUID
Glucose Low in rheumatoid disease
Rheumatoid factor High in rheumatoid disease
Amylase High in pancreatitis
Ziehl–Neelsen stain and culture To diagnose tuberculosis
Haematocrit High in haemothorax
COMMON CAUSES OF A TRANSUDATE PLEURAL EFFUSION

Cardiac failure
Liver failure
Nephrotic syndrome (think ‘renal failure’ for ease of memory)
Hypoalbuminaemia (‘nutritional failure’)
Hypothyroidism (‘thyroid failure’)
Hooper C, Lee YC, Maskell N. Investigation of a unilateral pleural effusion in adults: British Thoracic
Society pleural disease guideline 2010. Thorax 2010;65(suppl 2): ii4–17.
DON’T FORGET
Transudates are usually associated with FAILURE.
COMMON CAUSES OF AN EXUDATE PLEURAL EFFUSION

Cancer
Pneumonia (parapneumonic effusion)
Pulmonary embolus/infarction
Tuberculosis
Connective tissue disease (eg rheumatoid disease)
Acute pancreatitis
DON’T FORGET
An exudate exudes (pumps out) protein so the protein content is normally high.
The colour of the fluid aspirated from a pleural effusion also gives useful
information as to the potential cause.
COLOUR OF FLUID DIAGNOSIS

Straw Normal
Yellow Infected
Blood stained Traumatic, malignancy
Frank blood Mesothelioma, trauma, other malignancy
Pus Empyema
Food debris Oesophageal rupture
Peritoneal fluid analysis

In health, peritoneal fluid is present only in small volumes. In illness it may
collect in vast quantities, in which case it should be detected on clinical
examination. Smaller volumes may be detected on imaging. An abnormal
collection of peritoneal fluid is termed ‘ascites’.
Paracentesis (often termed ‘peritoneal tap’) may be undertaken for diagnostic
purposes. Alternatively, large volumes of fluid can be removed to provide
symptomatic benefit to the patient.
Analysis of peritoneal fluid has two main purposes:
To characterise the disease causing
•
ascites
• To detect infection.
Characterising the disease causing ascites

The most common cause of ascites by far is portal hypertension secondary to
liver cirrhosis. However, there are a great many other causes. It is important to
be able to distinguish between these. In a method analogous to pleural fluid
analysis, the causes of ascites can be divided into whether they cause an
exudate or a transudate. The total protein content is used to differentiate
between the two, with a cut-off level of 25 g/l.
FOR ASCITES
Exudate ≥25 g/l of protein
Transudate <25 g/l of protein
CAUSES OF TRANSUDATE ASCITES
Cirrhosis
Cardiac failure
Hypoalbuminaemia
Nephrotic syndrome
CAUSES OF EXUDATE ASCITES
Intraperitoneal malignancy (primary or secondary)

Intraperitoneal infection including tuberculosis
Pancreatitis
Hypothyroidism
Chylous ascites
Characterising ascites is, however, notoriously unreliable. Accuracy can be

improved by comparing the albumin content of the ascitic fluid with its level in
the serum. This yields a serum–ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) as shown in
the box.
Serum–ascites albumin gradient

SAAG (g/l) = Serum albumin (g/l) – Ascites albumin (g/l)
If the SAAG is ≥11 g/l, one can say that the patient is very likely to have portal
hypertension. Bear in mind, however, that a patient may have portal
hypertension alongside another cause of ascites. Other causes listed in the
‘Transudate’ box are possibilities. If the SAAG is <11 g/l, the causes listed in
the ‘Exudate’ box are more likely.
Detecting infection
The detection of infection in ascitic fluid is extremely important. The WCC of
the ascites is increased in peritonitis. In most patients with ascites associated
with cirrhosis, peritonitis is a primary problem, and is termed ‘spontaneous
bacterial peritonitis’ (SBP). Occasionally another cause of peritonitis, such as
a subphrenic abscess or perforated bowel, can be mistaken for SBP.
The diagnosis of SBP can be made when bacteria are identified after culturing
ascitic fluid. However, this process takes some time, so the ascites white cell
count is usually used to guide treatment. This result should be available within
a matter of hours. An ascites neutrophil count ≥250 cells/mm3 (0.25 × 109/l) is
in keeping with SBP. If the clinical setting fits with this diagnosis, treatment
with an appropriate antibiotic should be commenced.
DON’T FORGET
Ascites neutrophil count of ≥250 cells/mm3 is in keeping with SBP.
An alternative cause for peritonitis (eg perforated bowel) should be suspected

when multiple organisms are seen on Gram staining.
The parameters shown in the box may be analysed. Those marked with an
asterisk should be requested only when clinically indicated.
PARAMETER PURPOSE
WCC (including differential) To detect infection
To distinguish exudates and transudates To calculate the serum–

Total protein content and albumin
ascites albumin gradient
Microscopy including Gram stain To visualise bacteria

Culture To identify bacteria
Glucose* Low in malignant ascites
Cytology* To detect malignant cells
Amylase* Raised in ascites associated with pancreatitis

Case 5.1
A 36-year-old man is admitted with shortness of breath and a cough productive
of green sputum. He is feverish and complains of left-sided pleuritic chest
discomfort. He has led a perfectly healthy life to date. He is a smoker of 10
pack-years. On examination a pleural effusion is noted on the left side to the
mid-zone. This finding is confirmed on chest radiography.
The effusion is aspirated at ward level and sent for analysis.
Describe the findings and the likely cause of the pleural effusion.
Answer 5.1
This patient has symptoms suggestive of a bacterial pneumonia. He is

otherwise healthy and there is little to suspect an underlying sinister or chronic
disease. A proportion of bacterial pneumonias will present with a pleural
effusion. Pleural fluid is produced in excess in reaction to the local irritation
of the pleura from the surrounding infection.
The findings from the simple pleural fluid analysis are in keeping with this
clinical suspicion. It is an exudate (total protein >30 g/l) and the lactate
dehydrogenase level is high.
This patient has a parapneumonic pleural effusion. Treatment consists of
antibiotics for the pneumonia, with the effusion expected to resolve over
several weeks. The patient should have a repeat chest radiograph 6 weeks
after treatment to ensure resolution of the effusion. If the patient’s condition
were to deteriorate one would have to consider the development of an
empyema (pus collection in the pleural space).
Case 5.2
A 65-year-old retired headmaster presents with progressive shortness of
breath and swelling of the feet. Nine years ago he sustained an anterior
myocardial infarction and has had subsequent problems with angina requiring
coronary artery stenting. He also suffers from hypertension and gout.
Following a recent flare of gout his GP prescribed a short course of ibuprofen.
Examination reveals pitting oedema to the mid-calves bilaterally and a jugular
venous pulse (JVP) raised by 3 cmH2O. The bases of both lungs are dull to
percussion. Breath sounds are reduced and vocal resonance is decreased over
these areas.
After some initial treatment these examination findings remain and a decision
is made to carry out pleural aspiration: 30 ml was aspirated from the right
hemithorax and sent for analysis.
Describe the findings and likely cause.

Answer 5.2
The clinical features of this patient suggest a diagnosis of congestive cardiac

failure (CCF). The prescription of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
(NSAID) for acute gout has caused fluid retention, leading to worsening of the
underlying cardiac failure. The effusions are bilateral, which suggests that they
are likely to be transudative. The pleural fluid sample confirms this suspicion
with a total protein content of only 21 g/l and an LDH of 140 IU/l. Of all the
causes of transudate pleural effusions, cardiac failure best fits in this case.
Case 5.3
As the medical junior doctor on-call you are asked by your surgical colleagues
to see a 45-year-old overweight housewife. She was admitted with abdominal
pain 2 days ago and an ultrasound scan of the abdomen showed gallstones with
extrahepatic bile duct dilatation. Bowel gas obscured visualisation of the
pancreas. Your opinion is sought as the patient is short of breath and complains
of left-sided pleuritic chest discomfort. On examination you detect a left-sided
pleural effusion which is confirmed on chest radiography. You decide to
perform a diagnostic pleural aspiration.
What is your interpretation of this result?

Answer 5.3
Pleural effusions can be found in acute pancreatitis. It is most typical for this to
be unilateral; however, bilateral effusions are recognised. The key to diagnosis
is the amylase level within the aspirated fluid.
Case 5.4
A 33-year-old secretary presents with malaise, joint discomfort and by her
own admission generally feeling ‘out of sorts’. She was diagnosed with
Graves’ disease 3 years ago and has been rendered euthyroid (normal thyroid
function). She has also suffered from coeliac disease since her teens. She has
no respiratory complaints. As part of her investigative work-up a chest
radiograph is taken, which to the medical team’s surprise shows a right-sided
pleural effusion of moderate size.
Pleural aspiration is performed.
What is the cause of her effusion?

Answer 5.4
Pleural effusion is an uncommon but well-documented finding in rheumatoid

disease. This is a systemic disease and a number of manifestations occur in the
chest. Among these are: pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, interstitial
fibrosis, pleural thickening and bronchiolitis obliterans. This patient has a
number of autoimmune diseases so it would not be unreasonable for her to be
diagnosed with rheumatoid disease. The pleural effusion is an exudate. The
rheumatoid factor level is hugely elevated at 556 IU/ml. In addition the glucose
is low at 2.2 mmol/l in the effusion, further supporting the diagnosis.
Case 5.5
A 42-year-old salesman with established alcoholic liver cirrhosis is a known
patient to the ward. He has been admitted on multiple previous occasions and
continues to drink heavily. On this admission he is a little confused and
tremulous. On examination, ascites is present along with small bilateral pleural
effusions. His abdomen is mildly tender throughout. Bowel sounds are present.
The on-call doctor performs a diagnostic peritoneal aspiration. One hour later,
the laboratory technician phones with the report below.
His blood albumin level is 29 g/l.

What is the diagnosis, and how should the patient be treated?
Answer 5.5
His ascites white cell count shows a neutrophilia, with more than 250
cells/mm3.
The albumin content is less than 25 g/l indicating a transudate.
The SAAG is 13 g/l (29 g/l – 16 g/l). This is in keeping with portal
hypertension.
Gram staining shows the most typical finding in SBP – Gram-negative bacilli.
In time, one might expect culture to yield Escherichia coli or Klebsiella
species.
This man has spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, on a background of hepatic
cirrhosis caused by alcohol. His clinical features are typical with general
abdominal discomfort, often accompanied by pyrexia. This infection has also
made him mildly encephalopathic, hence the confusion.
In a patient with a history of alcohol dependency, abdominal distension and
pain, pancreatitis is a further differential diagnosis. However, this would cause
an exudate, and one would expect the amylase level to be raised significantly.
Case 5.6
A frail 88-year-old nursing home resident is brought to hospital because of
abdominal pain. Her nurse is also concerned about the progressive increase in
her abdominal girth over the past 6 weeks. She has a history of vascular
dementia. On examination there is a grossly distended abdomen, with shifting
dullness and a fluid thrill. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis demonstrated
a massive mixed solid–cystic lesion in the pelvis and gross ascites.
Peritoneal aspiration was performed for diagnostic purposes and symptomatic
benefit: 9500 ml was drained and sent for analysis. The results are shown.
Her blood albumin level is 29 g/l.

Provide a diagnosis and explain your reasoning.
Answer 5.6
The WCC is not significantly raised.

The albumin level is greater than 25 g/l, indicating an exudate.
The SAAG is 1 g/l (29 g/l – 28 g/l), indicating a low probability of portal
hypertension.
The diagnosis is seen on cytology.
This patient has an advanced intraperitoneal malignancy. The specific primary
origin is unknown. The cells present may originate from a primary
intraperitoneal malignancy or be due to intraperitoneal metastatic disease. A
large volume of ascites in an elderly patient without known liver disease
should always arouse the suspicion of malignancy. The CT findings are in
keeping with a primary pelvic malignancy of likely ovarian origin.
Case 5.7
A 36-year-old banker attends A&E complaining of recurrent bouts of intense
abdominal discomfort. He has been reluctant to present previously for fear of
admission. He admits to being a heavy drinker, but his family and colleagues
are not aware of his problem. On examination there is distension of the
abdomen with ascites present, tenderness in the upper abdomen and a faint
upper midline incision.
You are concerned about his level of abdominal pain. He agrees to peritoneal
aspiration, but does not wish to be admitted.
The patient’s blood albumin level is 32 g/l.

Give a diagnosis and list useful further investigations.
Answer 5.7
The ascites is an exudate, and there is no evidence of infection.

The SAAG is 3 g/l (32 g/l – 29 g/l), indicating a low probability of portal
hypertension.
The amylase is elevated at 894 U/l, in keeping with acute pancreatitis.
Every effort should be made to persuade this man of the need to stay in hospital
for further investigation and treatment of his pancreatitis.
MICROBIOLOGY
Infections account for a wide spectrum of human illness. Bacteria and viruses
predominate in clinical medicine in the UK, but one should bear in mind that
other organisms (eg fungi, protozoa, helminths and arthropods) can all cause
problems. Infections that are rare in clinical practice in the UK should be
borne in mind when patients have been travelling or are from endemic regions.
In addition, patients who are immunocompromised are prone to infections that
are not normally seen in individuals with healthy immune systems.
If treatment is required for an infection, a drug must be chosen that has activity
against the pathogen causing the problem. Often, a ‘best guess’ at treatment is
made. For example, an antibiotic called trimethoprim is often given to patients
with symptoms of a urinary tract infection because the bacteria that are
responsible for most urinary tract infections are likely to be targeted by this
drug. In many cases, however, it is appropriate to collect samples from the
patient so that an attempt can be made to accurately identify the organism that
is causing the infection. It is the results from the analysis of such samples that
are considered further here.
To have the best chance of identifying a causative organism, samples should
normally be taken from the body site that is affected. Common samples include
sputum, urine, faeces, synovial fluid, swabs from mouth, skin or genitals, pus
from any site, cerebrospinal fluid and biopsy samples. On occasion, organisms
can move from the site of origin into the bloodstream causing septicaemia.
Thus, blood is often cultured in addition to material from the likely focus of
infection.
Infections with bacteria

Infections with bacteria tend to predominate in undergraduate assessments
because they are the infections that most commonly cause serious disease in the
UK. Once a sample containing bacteria has been collected, there are two basic
methods for identifying the organism. First, the sample can be examined using
light microscopy with a stain applied. The stain normally used first is the Gram
stain. Organisms that stain blue are termed ‘Gram positive’ and those that stain
pink are termed ‘Gram negative’. Bacteria can then be described using their
shape. ‘Bacilli’ are rod shaped whereas ‘cocci’ are spherical. Thus, very
quickly one can have a fair idea of the likely organism contained in a sample.
Common organisms characterised by staining characteristics and shape are
listed in the box on page 216. ‘Aerobes’ grow best in oxygen-rich
environments, whereas ‘anaerobes’ grow best in oxygen-poor environments.
This will become apparent during culture. Another staining technique, Ziehl–
Neelsen staining, can be used to detect mycobacteria (responsible for
tuberculosis).
EXAMPLES OF COMMON ORGANISMS

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Gram-positive cocci
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Enterococcus faecalis
Listeria monocytogenes
Gram-positive bacilli
Aerobes Bacillus anthracis
Moraxella catarrhalis
Gram-negative cocci
Neisseria meningitidis
Escherichia coli
Gram-negative bacilli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Peptococci
Cocci
Peptostreptococci
Anaerobes
Bacteroides fragilis
Bacilli
Clostridium difficile
The second method for organism identification is culture. Samples are placed
on growth media and given time for the organisms to multiply. After
multiplication has taken place, microbiologists use a range of techniques for
identifying the particular type of bacteria present. This takes time – several
days for most bacteria. The identification of tuberculosis can take weeks,
however. The payoff for waiting is that the exact species of organism can
usually be identified after culturing. Once a bacterium is cultured, its
sensitivity to a batch of suitable common antimicrobial agents is tested. There
are three outcomes to this testing: sensitive (S), intermediately sensitive (I) and
resistant (R). A typical culture and antibiotic sensitivity report might look like
this:
In this example, the patient’s urinary tract infection appears to have been
caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Proteus species. If treatment is deemed
necessary, it would be most appropriate to prescribe one of the drugs shown as
sensitive (S), because this would be expected to have the highest likelihood of
killing the micro-organism in question.
MINIMAL INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION (MIC) AND

MINIMUM BACTERICIDAL CONCENTRATION (MBC) TESTING
Occasionally it is desirable to have more information about an organism’s sensitivity to a particular

antimicrobial agent rather than a simple yes/no answer. This is commonly the case for infections that
are difficult to treat or that require prolonged courses of antibiotics, eg infective endocarditis. In such
circumstances detailed testing can be performed to work out the minimum concentration of antibiotic
necessary to stop bacterial growth (MIc) and the minimum concentration of antibiotic necessary to kill
the bacteria (MBc). These data can then be translated into the most appropriate dose and duration for
drug prescription purposes.
Staphylococcus aureus requires special mention for two reasons:

If resistant to meticillin, it is deemed meticillin-resistant Staphylococcus
1. aureus (MRSA). This is highly important because different antibiotics are
required to treat this particular type of bacterium.
It is a reasonably common finding to isolate ‘coagulase-negative’
Staphylococcus aureus on blood cultures. Laboratories often test
2. staphylococci for their production of coagulase. Staphylococci that
normally colonise skin (such as S. epidermidis) do not produce
coagulase. The identification of these organisms on blood cultures usually
reflects the fact that the skin surface was inadequately sterilised before
blood was drawn.
Other methods are available for detecting certain bacteria, but the clinician
must actually have the knowledge to suspect a likely organism and request the
appropriate test. In patients presenting with pneumonia, for example, urine is
often tested for the presence of antigens to Streptococcus pneumoniae and
Legionella species. In patients with diarrhoea, faecal samples are often tested
for the presence of Clostridium difficile toxin. Genetic testing can also be
carried out to look for the presence of bacterial DNA or RNA in a sample.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techniques can be used to assist in this
process.
Finally, it is possible to perform serological tests to detect antibodies to
various organisms in a patient’s blood. Immunoglobulin type M (IgM) levels
tend to rise early in a disease course, with IgG levels rising later. If IgM is
detected to a particular bacterium, it is likely that this is the cause of the
illness. The IgG level is more difficult to interpret, however, because the IgG
antibody level would be expected to be elevated if a patient has either had a
particular illness previously or been immunised against it. It is thus difficult to
distinguish between current infection and previous exposure based on a single
measure of IgG level. The best use of serological testing is in the measurement
of acute and convalescent levels of IgG, ie measure the level during the acute
illness and again once the patient has recovered. If there has been a significant
rise in the antibody levels to a particular microorganism during the patient’s
recovery, it is probable that the organism suspected was the likely pathogen.
The disadvantage with serological tests is the inevitable time lag in making the
diagnosis, and the fact that treatment decisions must therefore be made without
confirmation of the pathogen.
Infections with other organisms

The principles for the detection of other microorganisms are similar to those
used for bacteria. Light microscopy can be useful in detecting fungi (eg in skin
scrapings samples), parasites (eg in faecal samples) and protozoa (eg malaria
in blood). Electron microscopy can be used to identify certain viruses.
Pathogen antigen testing can be attempted with certain organisms also (eg
hepatitis B surface antigen). Genetic testing employing PCR techniques is
being increasingly used for the rapid detection of viruses. An example would
be the rapid testing of cerebrospinal fluid for herpes simplex virus in patients
with suspected encephalitis (viral brain infection). Fungi can be cultured
similarly to bacteria, but culture of viruses and other organisms is time-
consuming and difficult because they must be grown in cell or tissue
preparations. Serological testing is the method most useful in clinical practice
for confirming infection with a virus.
It should be apparent that the difficulty with microbiological

investigations for a clinician lies with knowing which test to request.
Thanks to the efforts of highly skilled laboratory technicians, the
interpretation of test results is generally relatively straightforward.
Interpretation of drug levels

Drug treatment of patients with infections sometimes requires the use of drugs
with ‘narrow therapeutic ratios’. This means that there is a small difference
between the dose of a drug required to produce a therapeutic effect and the
dose required to cause toxicity. Use too low a dose, and the infection may not
be adequately treated. Use too high a dose, and you will put the patient at risk
of an adverse drug reaction. Drugs for which levels are commonly tested
include aminoglycoside agents (eg gentamicin) and glycopeptides (eg
vancomycin). It is possible to measure a peak drug level in the blood (sample
taken shortly after drug administration) or a trough level (taken just before the
next dose being administered). Target ranges for peak and/or trough levels are
listed in drug formularies. Generally, if levels are lower than required, dosing
is increased. If levels are too high, the drug is omitted until the level returns to
a safe level before a modified dosing regimen is re-started.
Bedside testing for urinary tract infection

Urine samples can be quickly analysed at ward level using a reagent strip that
is dipped into the urine. Typical strips allow for the estimation of a range of
substances in the urine (see page 9 for urinalysis in haemolysis and page 72 for
its use in cholestatic jaundice). Operators wait for a set time period and then
compare a colour change with each reagent to a standard set of results. The
colour change seen will depend on the amount of a particular substance in the
urine. Substances that are useful in the detection of urinary tract infection (UTI)
include leukocyte esterase, nitrites, protein and blood. Urinalysis can only at
best point towards the diagnosis of UTI – culture is necessary for a definitive
diagnosis. The sensitivity and specificity of abnormalities in each of the
parameters mentioned have been published with regard to diagnosing a UTI,
but a good rule of thumb is to say that, if urinalysis is totally normal, then a UTI
is unlikely. If it is abnormal in any way, a UTI is a possibility and culture
should be performed if there is clinical suspicion.
Simerville JA, Maxted WC, Pahira JJ. Urinalysis: a comprehensive review. Am Fam Physician
2005;71:1153–62.
Interpretation of microbiological data is found within Chapter 16.
NEUROLOGICAL
INVESTIGATIONS
There are three main groups of tests used to investigate neurological disease.
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis and neurophysiological investigations are dealt
with in this chapter. Imaging is touched upon in Chapter 9. It is the combination
of findings from these tests, rather than one in isolation, that frequently enables
a diagnosis to be made
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

Cerebrosinal fluid (CSF) is obtained by performing a lumbar puncture. A wide
variety of tests can be performed on CSF as detailed below. This box details
the components of a routine CSF analysis.
COMPONENTS OF A ROUTINE CSF ANALYSIS

Opening pressure
Total protein
Appearance
Glucose
(Gram stain + culture if infection
Microscopy for cell counts
suspected)
Bedside tests
Important information on a patient’s condition can be gleaned at the bedside
during the process of lumbar puncture, even before fluid is sent for analysis.
Opening pressure
Once a needle has been passed and CSF is draining, a manometer can be
attached to measure the ‘opening pressure’. This is meaningful only if the
patient is in the ‘standard’ lateral decubitus position (lying on their side) at the
time of puncture. If lumbar puncture is performed with the patient upright, the
opening pressure will be artificially elevated. Normal values for opening
pressure are variably quoted between texts, but a pressure of between 8 and 20
cmCSF is probably normal.
CAUSES OF ABNORMAL OPENING PRESSURE

Abnormally low Abnormally high
Meningitis
CSF leak Tumour
Recent lumbar puncture Intracranial haemorrhage
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (‘benign intracranial hypertension’)
CSF appearance
The gross appearance of CSF can give an early indication of fluid
composition. Textbooks list many subtle colour variations of CSF, which are
quite difficult to appreciate unless you are experienced in this area. The most
abnormal CSF appearances are listed in the box below.
CHARACTERISTIC CSF APPEARANCE

Appearance Characteristic of
Normality
Clear
Meningitis
Cloudy or purulent
Traumatic tap or subarachnoid
Bloody
haemorrhage
The inadvertent puncture of a blood vessel during the process of lumbar

puncture will result in blood-stained fluid being drained. The operator will not
know with any certainty, however, that a blood vessel has been hit, and one
must therefore be able to distinguish between CSF that is truly blood stained
and CSF that appears blood stained only because of the puncture of a vessel.
One simple method for doing this at the bedside involves collecting three
separate CSF samples. If the fluid remains blood stained to the same degree in
all samples, it is likely that the CSF is truly blood stained. If, however, the
fluid becomes less blood stained with time, it is more likely that the lumbar
puncture has been a traumatic tap. Laboratory testing of the CSF for the
presence of xanthochromia provides another method of distinguishing between
these two possibilities and is discussed below.
Laboratory tests
Microscopy
CSF microscopy permits the estimation of cell counting in the fluid. An
elevated red cell count is most commonly seen as a result of the lumbar
puncture needle puncturing a blood vessel en route to the subarachnoid space.
It will also be seen in cases of intracranial haemorrhage. However, a measure
of the red cell count in three consecutively collected specimens of CSF can
help differentiate between these two possibilities, similar to the bedside test
described above.
An elevated white cell count (>5 cells/mm3) suggests central nervous system
infection (ie meningitis or encephalitis), but can also be found in other
conditions such as inflammatory diseases and cancer. If puncture of a small
blood vessel has occurred during lumbar puncture, the white cell count will
also be elevated falsely due to the presence of these cells in the blood. The
particular type of white cells present can also be informative. A predominance
of neutrophils suggests bacterial meningitis. Lymphocytes predominate in other
infective causes of meningitis (eg viral, tuberculosis or fungal).
Microbiological testing
Microscopy after Gram staining (for bacterial infection), Ziehl–Neelsen
staining (for tuberculosis), culture and genetic techniques (eg polymerase chain
reaction [PCR] techniques to detect bacterial or viral DNA) can all be useful
in the analysis of CSF when infection is suspected. Refer to Chapter 6 for
further details. It is worth bearing in mind that, as it is imperative that
antimicrobial treatment should be administered as soon as possible in patients
with suspected bacterial meningitis, lumbar puncture is often (rightly)
performed after treatment has been started. This can change the CSF
constituents such that ‘textbook’ patterns may not be seen, and a high index of
suspicion is necessary. More specialised microbiological testing can be
performed if an unusual organism (eg syphilis, cryptocococci, human
immunodeficiency virus [HIV]) is suspected.
Protein measurement
Normal CSF contains between 0.15 and 0.45 g/l of protein approximately, but
the precise reference range varies depending on the laboratory used.
Abnormally elevated CSF protein is a good pointer that some pathological
process is active in the central nervous system, but it is impossible to be sure
about causality using the protein measure alone. The box on page 226 lists
some of the more common conditions that are associated with elevated CSF
protein, but this list is by no means exhaustive.
CAUSES OF RAISED CSF PROTEIN
Meningitis Neoplastic disease

Brain abscess Guillain–Barré syndrome
Intracerebral haemorrhage Multiple sclerosis
Glucose measurement
Interpretation of the CSF glucose concentration in isolation is meaningless – it
must be interpreted in relation to the blood glucose concentration. A blood
sample for glucose measurement must always be sent at the time of lumbar
puncture.
DON’T FORGET
always interpret CSF glucose results in the context of blood glucose levels.
CSF glucose should be around 40–60% that of the level in blood. An

abnormally high glucose level will be seen with simultaneous high blood sugar
level (ie in poorly controlled diabetes) and is not a pointer to CSF pathology.
An abnormally low CSF glucose level is, however, highly important and is
suggestive of, but not limited to, bacterial, fungal or tuberculous infection.
Viral infections of the CNS do not characteristically lower the CSF glucose
concentration.
Other tests
There are a multitude of specialised tests that can be performed on CSF in
certain circumstances. The most commonly requested of these are detailed
below.
Xanthochromia
The term ‘xanthochromia’ describes a yellow discoloration of CSF. This can
sometimes be detected by inspecting CSF, but is more reliably quantified in a
laboratory using spectrophotometry. A positive test indicates that bilirubin is
present in the fluid, and will therefore be found in patients with significant
jaundice. Assuming that the patient does not have jaundice, xanthochromia is
tested for most commonly in patients who are suspected to have had a
subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), because blood in the CSF breaks down to
form bilirubin. CT scanning of the head should be performed first, with lumbar
puncture being performed if SAH is suspected but no evidence of it is seen on
the scan. It is routine to wait at least 12 hours after the onset of symptoms to
ensure that any blood in the CSF has had time to break down into bilirubin.
The presence of xanthochromia in a sample can also be helpful in
distinguishing blood-stained CSF from a traumatic tap in addition to the
methods used above. In a traumatic tap, blood will only have entered the CSF
at the time of lumbar puncture, and will not have had time to break down into
bilirubin. Testing for xanthochromia will therefore be negative in these
circumstances.
Oligoclonal bands
The presence of oligoclonal bands in CSF is often tested for in patients who
are suspected of having multiple sclerosis (MS). Oligoclonal bands are due to
the presence of immunoglobulins in the CSF and are detected when CSF is
tested using electrophoresis. Although characteristic of MS, the finding of
oligoclonal bands is not diagnostic, because they can be found in a variety of
rare neurological diseases.
Cytological examination
Cytological examination of the CSF can be helpful in the diagnosis of
neurological malignancy. The specifics of the tests used are beyond the scope
of this text, but a cytological report normally incorporates a cytologist’s
overall impression and is therefore relatively easy to interpret.
Neurophysiological investigations
Neurophysiology is a specialist domain within neurology. Only a brief
understanding of the common investigations is necessary for an undergraduate.
Likewise, knowledge of the key findings in classic conditions will suffice. It is
unlikely that one would be expected to interpret neurophysiological
investigations.
The main investigations to be aware of are nerve conduction studies and
electromyography. Visually evoked responses and electroencephalography are
further aids to diagnosis.
NEUROPHYSIOLOGICAL INVESTIGATIONS
Nerve conduction studies
Electromyography
Visually evoked responses
Electroencephalography
Nerve conduction studies

Nerve conduction studies (NCSs) measure how well individual nerves
transmit electrical signals. The nerve of interest is stimulated, usually
electrically, with surface electrodes placed on the skin. One electrode
stimulates the nerve and the resulting electrical activity is recorded by the
other electrodes. The distance between electrodes and the time taken for
electrical impulses to travel between electrodes are used to calculate the nerve
conduction velocity.
The most common reason for NCSs to be requested is for suspected carpal
tunnel syndrome. In this condition, the median nerve is entrapped within the
confines of the carpal tunnel.
Electromyography
Surface or needle electrodes are used to detect muscle action potentials
following controlled electrical stimulation. The electrical stimulation
provokes action potentials within the nerves which in turn stimulate a
magnified response in muscles.
Electromyography (EMG) may be modified for some indications. The most
important to know is single-fibre EMG and EMG with repetitive stimulation
used when myasthenia gravis is clinically suspected.
Visually evoked responses

In this test, the eye is stimulated in order to evoke a response within the
occipital cortex. It is performed by placing a series of electrodes over the
scalp in the occipital area while asking the patient to observe a series of visual
patterns. The response is recorded via the electrodes. Two indices are noted:
1. The speed of response of the nerve (termed ‘P100 latencies’)
2. The height of the waveform obtained.
This test is usually performed in patients in whom multiple sclerosis is

suspected. In multiple sclerosis, the waveform will be preserved, but the
speed of response will be delayed because of optic nerve demyelination.
Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is the recording of electrical activity from the
brain using a series of scalp electrodes. Usually, recordings over a period of
several minutes are taken. Broadly speaking, EEG can be used to diagnose
epilepsy and diffuse brain disease. In epilepsy, it is most valuable if a
recording takes place during a seizure since it is not unusual to obtain a normal
recording between seizures.
In difficult cases, EEG recording can take place over several hours or days in
a supervised room in hospital with video recording. EEG may also be
invaluable in diagnosing non-convulsive status epilepticus and distinguishing
true seizures from pseudoseizures. In non-convulsive status epilepticus, a
patient is having ongoing seizures, despite these not manifesting themselves
clinically. Prompt diagnosis by EEG may prevent a permanent neurological
deficit.
Classic neurophysiological disease associations

TEST RESULT DISEASE
Primary generalised
EEG Spike and wave
epilepsy
Creutzfeldt–Jakob
EEG Periodic complexes
disease
Short polyphasic motor potentials

EMG Sometimes spontaneous fibrillation and high- Polymyositis
frequency repetitive discharges
EMG (single
Fatiguability following repetitive stimulation Myasthenia gravis
fibre)
Repetitive single motor unit potentials all low

EMG amplitude. Short duration polyphasic motor unit Myotonic dystrophy
potentials
EMG Spontaneous fibrillations Motor neuron disease
Carpal tunnel syndrome

NCS Delay in conduction of median nerve
(entrapment neuropathy)
Visually evoked
responses Delayed P100 latencies, without amplitude loss Multiple sclerosis
(VERs)
Case 7.1
A 19-year-old university student complains of a headache of 8 h duration
accompanied by a dislike for lights. She has vomited twice. She is sweaty to
the touch. No rash is apparent. The A&E officer was concerned enough to
request a CT scan of the brain which was reported as normal. She proceeds to
lumbar puncture. The CSF pressure was normal at the time of lumbar puncture.
Describe the CSF, and state the most likely diagnosis.

Answer 7.1
Several features in the history should set off alarm bells for bacterial
meningitis. The patient is young and in an institutional environment, and has an
acute headache with photophobia. In addition, the CSF is cloudy with a raised
WCC and a low CSF:plasma glucose ratio.
Three important points can be learned from this

case:
If the leukocyte count is raised, analysis of the differential leukocyte
1.
count will help in distinguishing the cause.
A patient may have bacterial meningitis without any organisms being
2.
seen on microscopy. Don’t be put off by this.
In bacterial meningitis, CT of the brain can be normal even when the CSF
3.
is highly abnormal.
This patient has bacterial meningitis and requires immediate treatment with
intravenous antibiotics.
THE CLASSIC CSF FINDINGS IN BACTERIAL MENINGITIS

A cloudy appearance Raised (but only mild–moderate)
Organisms seen in CSF total protein
Raised WCC Significantly reduced CSF glucose
(with >95% neutrophils) Reduced CSF:plasma glucose ratio
Red cell count (RCC) normal (to less than two-thirds)
Case 7.2
A 21-year-old soldier complains of a headache for the past 2 days and a
dislike of light. He is feverish. He has recently returned from deployment in
Germany. Examination did not reveal any focal neurological signs or signs
suggestive of raised intracranial pressure. The CSF opening pressure at the
time of lumbar puncture was normal (17cmCSF). Lumbar puncture is
performed, and the following result obtained.
Interpret this CSF sample and give a differential diagnosis of the cause.
Answer 7.2
This history is not dissimilar to Case 7.1. However, the CSF analysis is
significantly different. The WCC is raised – although less so than in the
example of bacterial meningitis. The differential WCC is also different –
lymphocytes being the predominant cell type here. The plasma glucose is a
little abnormal, as is the CSF:plasma glucose ratio. Total protein is elevated –
but only marginally. In summary many of the parameters are abnormal, but not
markedly so.
CAUSES OF LYMPHOCYTE-PREDOMINANT LEUKOCYTOSIS IN

CSF
Viral meningitis Tuberculous meningitis
Mumps meningoencephalitis Partially treated bacterial meningitis
The most common cause for these findings is viral meningitis – the virus itself
may never be identified. Polymerase chain reaction analysis of CSF can be
performed to test for a number of viruses, including herpes simplex. The
treatment and outcome of viral meningitis are markedly different to those of
partially treated bacterial meningitis, and if any diagnostic doubt exists
treatment should continue for bacterial meningitis. The reason for partial
treatment may have been the commencement of an antibiotic by a GP.
Case 7.3
A 39-year-old man is admitted to the neurology ward following a short illness.
He is unable to move his legs. He was previously well, although he did have a
short bout of diarrhoea a week ago after his return from holiday in Turkey.
Lumbar puncture was performed. The CSF opening pressure at the time of
lumbar puncture was 18 cmCSF.
What are the significant findings and what condition could cause this
1.
appearance?
2. What other test might help in coming to a diagnosis?
Answer 7.3
The history is short and the symptoms significant. However, the only
significant abnormality on the CSF sample is the elevated level of protein
within the CSF. The plasma total protein is normal. The CSF protein is
raised to a greater degree than one would usually expect for a viral or
bacterial meningitis/encephalitis. Note that the WCC and the CSF:plasma
1. glucose ratio are also not in keeping with an infective pathology. The
differential diagnosis is therefore of a high CSF protein.
When interpreted in the context of the history of leg weakness after an
episode of infectious diarrhoea, the diagnosis is most likely to be
Guillain– Barré syndrome (an acute inflammatory polyneuropathy).
Nerve conduction studies (NCS) would help diagnosis (see
2.
Neurophysiological investigations on page 228 for further details).
Case 7.4
A 29-year-old bank clerk has become known to local neurologists over the
past year following several presentations to both the hospital and the outpatient
clinic with a variable constellation of neurological symptoms. Initially a
complaint of numbness over the lateral aspect of the left leg was mentioned.
This resolved. Of late, she has had an episode of loss of vision in the right eye
lasting 4 weeks. Examination reveals global hyperreflexia and a mild
cerebellar gait.
The patient attends the ward for a series of tests including lumbar puncture.
The CSF opening pressure was 17cmCSF.

Answer 7.4
This CSF sample shows essentially normal values for all the common indices.
Additional analyses have been performed, including oligoclonal bands which
are present.
These bands represent immunoglobulin G (IgG). The presence of this has been
noted in a number of conditions – it is therefore of poor specificity in isolation.
However, it is found in over 80% of patients with multiple sclerosis (MS). MS
is the most common cause for its presence on CSF analysis. It is a supportive
feature rather than a diagnostic feature of the disease, since MS is a clinical
diagnosis defined as ‘two episodes of neurological deficit disseminated in
time and place’.
CAUSES OF OLIGOCLONAL BANDS IN CSF

Multiple sclerosis
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Guillain–Barré syndrome
Neurosyphilis
Lyme disease
Neurosarcoidosis
IMMUNOLOGY
Interpretation of autoantibodies is often difficult. This is because of the degree
of overlap in the presence of antibodies between various disease states. For
example, rheumatoid factor can be found in well over a dozen diseases.
Furthermore, certain autoantibodies may be found in healthy people, and the
absence of an autoantibody may not rule out a particular disease. Therefore,
always bear in mind that the presence of an autoantibody does not necessarily
mean that a patient has a particular disease.
DON’T FORGET
A disease may be present without the typical autoantibody profile.
For the purpose of undergraduate examinations, the classic autoantibody

associations will be tested. These are listed in the box below. Those tested
commonly in examinations are in bold type.
DISEASE AUTOANTIBODIES
Addison’s disease Anti-21-hydroxylase
Anti-cardiolipin
Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Lupus anticoagulant antibodies
Red blood cell autoantibodies (this disease

can be classified into warm and cold, depending
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
on the temperature at which the antibodies best
attach to red cells)
Anti-nuclear
Anti-smooth muscle
Anti-liver/kidney microsomal-I
Autoimmune hepatitis
Myeloperoxidase anti-nuclear cytoplasmic
antibody (MPO-ANCA), also called perinuclear
A NCA (pANCA)
Churg–Strauss syndrome MPO-ANCA
Anti-endomysial
Anti-tissue transglutaminase
Coeliac disease
Anti-reticulin
Anti-gliadin
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-nuclear
Diffuse cutaneous scleroderma
Anti-SCL-70
Polymerase 1, 2 and 3
Goodpasture syndrome Anti-glomerular basement membrane
Anti-TSH receptor
Graves’ disease
Anti-peroxidase
TSH-receptor-blocking antibodies
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Anti-peroxidase
Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome Anti-P/Q-type voltage-gated calcium channels
Rheumatoid factor
Limited cutaneous scleroderma Anti-nuclear
Anti-centromere
Mixed connective tissue disease (overlap

Anti-U1-RNP
syndrome)
Anti-nuclear
Myasthenia gravis Anti-acetylcholine
receptor antibodies
Anti-YO
Anti-Hu
Anti-Ri
Paraneoplastic conditions
Anti-MA
Anti-CV2/CRMP5
Anti-amphiphysin
Anti-parietal cell
Pernicious anaemia
Anti-intrinsic factor
Polyarteritis nodosa MPO-ANCA
Anti-nuclear
Polymyositis/dermatomyositis Rheumatoid factor
Anti-Jo-1
Anti-mitochondrial (more particularly against

Primary biliary cirrhosis pyruvate dehydrogenase complex type E2- and/or
E3-binding protein)
Rheumatoid factor
Rheumatoid disease Anti-nuclear
Anti-CCP
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-nuclear
Sjögren syndrome
Anti-Ro (SS-A)
Anti-La (SS-B)
Double-stranded DNA
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-nuclear
Systemic lupus erythematosus Anti-Ro (SS-A)
Anti-Sm
Anti-U1-RNP
Anti-cardiolipin
Proteinase 3 anti-nuclear cytoplasmic

Wegener syndrome antibody (PR3-ANCA), also called cytoplasmic
ANCA (cANCA)
IMAGING
The interpretation of imaging investigations is a comprehensive topic that
forms a specialty in its own right. Its influence and remit in contemporary
medicine are vast forming huge amounts of ‘digital data’ for interpretation. It is
essential that medical students and trainee doctors have a sound basic
understanding of plain radiographs (X-rays), in particular chest and abdominal
radiographs. Likewise an appreciation and insight into the more advanced
imaging investigations at their disposal is increasingly important, in particular
the ever popular and influential computed tomography (CT). A good
professional relationship with the radiology department, including thoughtful
and selective referral, can hugely aid patient care.
This chapter does not aim to be a concise undergraduate textbook on radiology.
Nor will it be an exhaustive description of characteristic radiological findings
in common diseases or a gallery of images. It is a guide to approaching the
interpretation of common X-rays and the basics of CT of the head. In the
clinical cases featured the emphasis will be on inpatient films – these are X-
rays that one might be expected to interpret during work on general medical
and surgical wards or the accident and emergency department. Films are
presented in a symptom-based manner to best reflect everyday practice and to
provide instruction on how interpretation may immediately assist your
diagnostic pathway and therefore your management decisions. No film will be
viewed in isolation without clinical information. As with all the data
interpretation considered in this book, investigations should be assessed in the
light of the clinical scenario and laboratory results. This should also be the
gold standard to aspire to in clinical practice.
Imaging studies may feature in both written and clinical examinations, offering
the chance to assess a broad knowledge base.
DON’T FORGET
Always interpret X-ray findings in a clinical context.
Compare the images with old films if available.
Interpreting the chest X-ray

The chest X-ray (CXR) is the single most requested imaging investigation and
is also the most likely film to feature in daily practice or an undergraduate
exam. It is the perfect prompt for questioning other aspects of a patient’s
condition and to explore management strategies. To be able to comment
confidently on the film’s findings, and have an understanding of how to
approach interpretation, an appreciation of normality is required. Don’t forget
that a CXR is a two-dimensional representation of a three-dimensional
structure.
Fig 9.1: A normal chest X-ray.

Fig 9.2: Normal anatomy on CXR.
One may think of a CXR as a picture that contains five ‘shades’ on a black-
and-white scale. These shades represent four different natural ‘tissues’ and one
for artefacts.
These are:
1. Bone is WHITE
2. Gas is BLACK.
3. Soft tissue is GREY
4. Fat is DARKER GREY.
5. Most man-made things on the film are BRIGHT WHITE.
Film specifics and technical factors

Before proceeding to interpret a CXR, always comment on film specifics and
technical factors as shown in the boxes below.
FILM SPECIFICS (DETAILS)

Name of patient
Age and date of birth
Location of patient
Date taken
Film number (if applicable)
FILM TECHNICAL FACTORS

Type of projection (see box below)
Markings regarding any special techniques used (eg taken in expiration)
Rotation
Inspiration
Penetration
TYPES OF PROJECTION
Posteroanterior (PA): the X-ray tube is behind the patient and film against the chest. The GOLD
standard projection
Anteroposterior (AP): the X-ray tube is in front of the patient and film against the back
Supine: the patient is lying on his or her back
Erect: the patient is upright
Semi-erect: the patient is partially upright
Mobile: the X-ray has been taken with a mobile X-ray unit. VERY SICK patients ONLY (on the
ITU/HDU/CCU usually)
These descriptions may be combined. For example, an acutely unwell patient

who has a CXR taken on an intensive therapy unit (ITU) may have a mobile,
semi-erect AP film.
You might think of this part of the interpretation, like the safety announcement
on an airplane, as one you have heard many times: necessary to acknowledge,
but tedious and of little consequence. However, this could not be further from
the truth. Changes in these parameters can give the impression of abnormalities
in the structures visualised. For example, a widened mediastinum, on an AP
chest X-ray may provoke the impression of a thoracic dissection or a
pneumothorax may be overlooked if one does not appreciate that the chest X-
ray is supine rather than erect.
Assess the film in detail

A structured systematic approach is needed for thorough interpretation, just as
one would approach a clinical system examination in a methodical manner.
It is good practice to mention a clear-cut abnormality at the outset. A
reasonable way to say this would be, ‘The technical quality of the film is
satisfactory. The most striking abnormality on initial assessment is …’.
The examiner will then expect the candidate to demonstrate an organised
approach to looking at the rest of the film. Do not stop when one abnormality
has been noted (termed ‘the satisfaction of search’) – there may be more to see.
DON’T FORGET
Keep looking – multiple findings may give the definitive diagnosis.
The structures below need to be assessed in the interpretation of the CXR. It is

fair to assume that, if one major abnormality is clearly ‘spotted’ at the
beginning, this structure or system should be commented on first.
Structures to assess on CXR

• Heart and major vessels
• Lungs and pleura
Mediastinum (including
•
hila)
• Bones and soft tissues.
Be particularly careful not to miss the following REVIEW areas. They should
be specifically checked as abnormalities in these areas may be easily
overlooked.
Review areas
• Costophrenic angles (1)
• Apices (2)
• Behind the heart (3)
• Below the diaphragms (4)
• Breast shadows (in females) (5).
Fig 9.3: Review areas on a chest X-ray assessment.
Heart and major vessels

Assess:
• Size of the heart
• Size of individual chambers of the heart
• Size of pulmonary vessels
• Evidence of stents, clips, wires, valves, pacemakers
Outline of aorta, inferior (IVC) and superior (SVC) vena
•
cava.
DON’T FORGET
Do not comment on heart size on an AP chest X-ray because it is magnified.
Lungs
Assess:
• Size
• Intrapulmonary pathology
Bronchovascular lung
•
markings.
Pleura
Assess:
• Thickness or calcification
Fluid or air in the pleural
•
space.
Mediastinum (including hila)

Assess:
• Width of the mediastinum
• Contour of the mediastinum
• Size and density of the hila
Level and symmetry of the
•
hila.
Bones and soft tissues

Assess:
• Diffuse or focal bony abnormalities
• Surgical emphysema
Breast presence/absence and
•
symmetry.
Interpreting the abdominal X-ray
Abdominal X-ray
The abdominal X-ray (AXR) has more limited value in diagnosis than a CXR.
Its chief value is in the diagnosis of bowel obstruction and renal tract calculi,
although other pathology may be identified. Even in these cases, the abdominal
X-ray is often just a ‘stepping stone’ to further imaging with ultrasonography or
CT. Indiscriminate requesting of the abdominal X-ray is discouraged.
The radiation exposure of an AXR compared with a CXR is also considerably
higher. One AXR is equivalent to 35 CXRs.
As with a CXR, an appreciation of normality is vital in order to make a correct
interpretation.
Fig 9.4: A normal AXR
Fig 9.5: Normal anatomy on AXR

Film specifics and technical factors
The initial assessment of an AXR is similar to for a CXR.
FILM SPECIFICS FILM TECHNICAL FACTORS

Name of patient
Age of patient Type of projection (supine is standard)
Location of patient Markings of any special techniques used
Date taken Adequate anatomical coverage
Film number (if applicable)
Assess the film in detail

A simple guide to interpretation is shown below. Working through these
headings, one covers ‘black bits’, ‘white bits’, ‘grey bits’ and ‘bright white
bits’ in turn. Alternatively one may take an anatomical approach to
interpretation.
’Black bits’
Intraluminal gas
Intraluminal gas can be normal. Extraluminal gas is abnormal. However,
intraluminal gas can be abnormal if it is in the wrong place or if too much is
seen.
The maximum normal diameter of the large bowel is 5.5 cm. Small bowel
should be no more than 3.5 cm in diameter. The natural presence of gas within
the bowel allows assessment of calibre, although the amount varies between
individuals. The caecum is not considered to be dilated unless wider than 8.0
cm in diameter.
Large and small bowel may be distinguished by looking at bowel wall
markings.
DON’T FORGET
The haustra of the large bowel extend only a third of the way across the diameter
of the large bowel from each side. The valvulae conniventes of the small bowel
traverse the whole diameter.
It is usual to see small volumes of gas throughout the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
and the absence in one region may in itself represent pathology. For example, if
gas is seen to the level of the splenic flexure and nothing is apparent distal to
this, a site of the obstruction at this site – a ‘cut-off’ point – is assumed.
Extraluminal gas
When a bowel or any other gas-containing structure perforates, its contained
gas becomes extraluminal. Extraluminal gas is never normal, but it may be seen
following intra-abdominal surgery or laparoscopy.
CAUSES OF EXTRALUMINAL GAS

Post-abdominal surgery/laparoscopy
Perforation of viscus (eg bowel, stomach)
Abscess/Collection
DON’T FORGET
An erect CXR (not AXR) is the best projection to diagnose a
pneumoperitoneum (gas in the peritoneal cavity).
’White bits’
Calcification
Calcified structures are often seen on an AXR. The main question is: ’Does
their presence have any important implications?’ Calcification can be broadly
divided into three types:
Calcification that is an abnormal structure, eg gallstones, renal
1.
calculi, calcified splenic artery aneurysm.
Calcification that is within a normal structure, but represents
2.
pathology, eg pancreatic ductal calcification.
Calcification that is within a normal structure, but is not clinically
3. significant, eg lymph node calcification or a calcified pelvic
phlebolith.
Bones are normal ‘white’ structures. On the AXR they comprise mainly those
of the thoracolumbar spine and pelvis. Findings are often incidental.
’Grey bits’
Soft tissues
Soft tissues represent most of the contents of the abdomen and feature
prominently in the AXR. However, these tissues are poorly visualised and
delineated when compared with other imaging techniques such as
ultrasonography, CT or MRI.
The outlines of the kidneys, spleen, liver and bladder (if filled) can be seen in
addition to psoas muscle shadows. An abdominal X-ray, however, should not
be requested to specifically look at these structures.
’Bright white bits’

Foreign bodies
Foreign bodies represent an interesting final observation. These may have been
purposely placed in or on the body, for example, an aortic stent, an inferior
vena cava filter or abdominal drains. Sterilisation clips and an intrauterine
device are common findings in women. Other objects that may be seen include
ingested and rectal foreign bodies, as well as items in the path of the X-ray
beam, such as belt buckles, dress buttons and umbilical jewellery.
Other imaging modalities

There is a range of other imaging modalities in regular use – the majority of
which do not feature significantly in undergraduate exams. Knowledge of their
importance in diagnosis should be sufficient, in particular which investigation
should be requested for different common clinical scenarios.
IONISING RADIATION TECHNIQUES

Contrast/fluoroscopic studies (mostly barium) Positron emission tomography (PET)
Computed tomography (CT) Nuclear (radionuclide) imaging
NON-IONISING RADIATION TECHNIQUES

Ultrasonography
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Computed tomography (CT) and MRI play a diverse and pivotal role in
contemporary clinical care. These cross-sectional imaging modalities have a
hugely influential position in the diagnostic process.
Fig 9.6: CT Pulmonary angiography: saddle pulmonary embolus.

Fig 9.7: MRCP: CBD stones
CT of the head
In the last decade the use of computed tomography (CT) has exploded, with
clinicians increasingly becoming familiar with its value and undertaking self-
review of images within their specialty areas. This is particularly true for CT
of the head. With this there is a growing expectation of familiarity and
knowledge of key pathologies.
The most commonly requested CT scan, all hours of the day and night, is a
head CT. Quick and inexpensive to acquire, and fast to report, an ever-growing
number of clinicians view CT of the head independently. For this reason an
introduction to CT of the head is included and key pathologies are featured in
the clinical cases.
Specific NICE (National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence)
guidelines have been written with respect to the indications for head CT after
trauma. These include:
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) <13 when first assessed or GCS <15 2
•
hours after injury
• Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
• Signs of base of skull fracture
• Post-traumatic seizure
• Focal neurological deficit
More than one episode of vomiting (SIGN [Scottish Intercollegiate
• Guidelines Network] guidance suggests two distinct episodes of
vomiting)
• Coagulopathy + any amnesia or loss of consciousness since injury
• More than 30 minutes of amnesia of events before impact.
DON’T FORGET
If there is concern over intracranial haemorrhage, the scan must be performed
unenhanced. Acute blood and contrast look the same!
Approach to assessment of a head CT

A brief outline of how to approach reviewing a head CT study is outlined
below, starting with an understanding of the major anatomical structures.
The normal appearances of key structures in the supra- and infratentorial brain
are shown in Figs 9.8–9.12.
Fig 9.8
Fig 9.9
Fig 9.10
Fig 9.11
Fig 9.12
Head CT: key basic facts

CT demonstrates a wide-ranging grey scale, referred to as attenuation. In the
brain this is often stated to be hypo-, iso- or hyperdense in relation to the brain
normal parenchyma:
• CSF in the brain will appear black
• The bone of the skull will appear white
Grey and white matter within the brain have different attenuations;
the densely packed nerve cell bodies of the grey matter have a
•
higher attenuation than the nerve axons of the white matter, meaning
that surprisingly white matter is darker than grey matter on CT
• Blood contains protein, making it dense, and areas of acute
haemorrhage appear high attenuation (white) on a CT scan
Areas of dead or damaged brain tissue (encephalomalacia or
• ischaemic brain) will become less dense, meaning that they will
appear darker than the surrounding brain (low attenuation)
Intravenous contrast on CT highlights blood vessels or vascular
areas of the brain. It is also useful for identifying areas of high cell
•
turnover, such as tumours and infection. Aneurysms, tumours and
abscesses all become brighter after contrast administration.
Assessment of the CT head

• Is the ventricular system the appropriate size?
Is there any acute blood present? If so, is it intraparenchymal,
•
subarachnoid or an extra-axial collection?
Is there any evidence of ischaemia? If so is it focal or territorial in
•
nature?
Is there normal differentiation between the grey and white matter of
•
the brain?
• Is there space around the cord at the level of the foramen magnum?
Are the sulci effaced or the ventricles displaced suggesting mass
•
effect?
Check the bony skull (on bone window settings) to look for a
•
fracture or other bony abnormality.
Check the review areas to finish:
• Anything in the ventricular system, eg blood in the occipital horns?
• Are the visualised orbits normal?
Is there any abnormality in the mastoid air cells or paranasal
•
sinuses?
Scenarios presenting with shortness of breath
Case 9.1
This 23-year-old university student presents to A&E acutely short of breath.
1. Describe your findings on the chest X-ray.

List five conditions that predispose to this
2.
condition.
Answer 9.1
The left hemithorax is translucent with absent pulmonary markings.

1. The collapsed left lung is apparent centrally. No evidence of
mediastinal shift.
The appearances are consistent with a large left-sided pneumothorax.
Numerous chronic pulmonary diseases predispose to pneumothoraces.
These include: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),
asthma, pulmonary fibrosis and cystic fibrosis. Other important causes
2.
of pneumothorax include: trauma, congenital pulmonary blebs and
iatrogenic reasons (eg central venous line insertion, mechanical
ventilation).
Case 9.2
This 46-year-old retired hairdresser has become increasingly short of breath
over the past 6 months. She complains of a dry cough. Pulmonary function tests
and CXR were requested.
1. How would you describe the lungs on this CXR?

2. What are the possible causes for these findings?
What are her pulmonary function tests likely to
3.
demonstrate?
Answer 9.2
Diffuse reticulonodular (‘lines and dots’) shadowing is evident in

1.
both lungs. This has lower zone predominance.
The appearances of this CXR are of pulmonary (interstitial) fibrosis.
The causes may be divided according to whether the fibrosis
2.
predominantly affects the upper or lower zones.
MEMORY AID
Upper lobe fibrosis
(mnemonic = BREAST)
Berylliosis (uncommon)
Radiation fibrosis
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Sarcoidosis
Tuberculosis
Lower lobe fibrosis
Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
Drug induced (eg amiodarone, methotrexate)
Asbestosis
Connective tissue diseases
(eg rheumatoid diseases)
Spirometry would demonstrate a restrictive pattern (see page 429 for

3.
further details).
Case 9.3
This 55-year-old man attended his local hospital feeling increasingly short of
breath over the past week. He has lost 1 stone in weight recently. He is a
smoker of 60 pack-years. His CXR is shown.
1. Describe the appearances on the CXR.

List the causes of this finding, and state the most likely cause in
2.
this patient.
3. What other simple test may assist in forming a diagnosis?
Answer 9.3
There is an area of increased radio-opacity in the lower left hemithorax.

The edge can be seen to taper at the lateral aspect of the chest, forming a
1.
meniscus. There is no shift of mediastinal structures. This is a moderately
sized left-sided pleural effusion.
For unilateral pleural effusions, the causes are mostly exudates. These
2.
include:
• malignant tumours (both primary and metastatic disease)
• parapneumonic
• pulmonary embolus or infarction
• rheumatoid disease.
A malignant effusion would be most likely in this patient because of his
weight loss and smoking history.
A diagnostic pleural aspiration could be performed. This will help
3. distinguish whether the effusion is an exudate or transudate based on the
protein content (see page 191 for details).
In this case, malignant cells may be identified when the pleural fluid is
examined cytologically.
Case 9.4
This 45-year-old smoker of 30 pack-years attends his GP with increasing
shortness of breath over the past 2 weeks.
1. Describe the abnormality on this chest X-ray.

What is your concern regarding these appearances and what
2.
would you recommend?
Answer 9.4
A triangular density is present in the left retrocardiac position, which is

separate from the left heart border. The medial aspect is difficult to
1.
delineate, but the abnormality has a ‘sail-like’ appearance. The left hilum
is inferiorly displaced and there is volume loss within the left hemithorax.
The appearances are consistent with a ‘tight’ left lower lobe collapse.
The nature of further investigation depends on the clinical scenario. The
2.
three most common causes of a left lower lobe collapse are:
(a) a central hilar or endobronchial mass
(b) an endobronchial foreign body
(c) an endobronchial mucus plug.
In children a foreign body is most likely and, in a postoperative or ITU
patient, a mucus plug; both can be dealt with by bronchoscopy. In adults,
especially smokers, left lower lobe collapse must always be viewed with
suspicion for an underlying tumour. Bronchoscopy and CT of the chest are
indicated, after clinical assessment by a respiratory team.
Case 9.5
This 21-year-old patient, well known to the local hospital, attends A&E with
acute-on-chronic shortness of breath.
1. Describe the appearances on this chest X-ray.

Give a short summary of the underlying
2.
condition.
Answer 9.5
Throughout both lungs there are increased interstitial markings, most

pronounced in the upper lobes, consistent with fibrosis. At the right lung
1.
apex, the lung edge is apparent with no lung markings peripheral to this,
consistent with a small apical pneumothorax.
Given the patient’s young age this would be compatible with a
pneumothorax on a background of cystic fibrosis.
Cystic fibrosis is the most common lethal inherited disease in white
individuals. It is an autosomal recessive disorder, for which most carriers
of the gene are asymptomatic. It is caused by defects in the CFTR gene,
which encodes for a protein that functions as a chloride channel, and also
2. regulates the flow of other ions across the apical surface of epithelial
cells. It is a disease of exocrine gland function that involves multiple
organ systems, albeit most commonly associated with pulmonary
manifestations. Pancreatic insufficiency is also a common element of the
disease. The median survival is now 36 years of age.
Scenarios presenting with chest pain
Case 9.6
This 62-year-old patient presented to A&E with chest pain and shortness of
breath.
1. Describe the appearance on this chest X-ray.

What conditions may cause these appearances with a normal-sized
2.
heart?
Answer 9.6
This AP erect film demonstrates evidence of bilateral perihilar

consolidation (‘bat’s wings’). The remainders of both lungs are plethoric.
1.
The AP projection indicates an ill patient; however, it does limit the
assessment of cardiac size.
The appearances are in keeping with acute pulmonary oedema.
The most common cause of pulmonary oedema is cardiac failure, which is
typically associated with cardiomegaly. However, pulmonary oedema can
2.
occur in a number of situations where the heart is normal in size. These
include:
(a) in acute renal failure – so-called ‘flash’ pulmonary oedema
non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema in adult respiratory distress
(b)
syndrome (ARDS)
(c) after aggressive fluid resuscitation
(d) with a massive acute myocardial infarction/valve rupture
(e) in association with a subarachnoid haemorrhage.
Case 9.7
This 34-year-old woman attends A&E with chest pain. She is known to the
departmental staff from previous admissions.
Describe the appearances on this chest X-ray, especially the

1.
cardiac outline.
What else might you consider doing to establish the exact cause of
2.
these appearances?
Answer 9.7
The heart is severely enlarged with a globular configuration, suggesting a

1. diffuse cardiac abnormality rather than individual chamber enlargement.
There is no evidence of cardiac failure.
The differential diagnosis for these appearances includes congenital
cardiac disease, cardiomyopathy and a pericardial effusion.
2. Important aspects that may help establish the exact cause include:
a full clinical history, including childhood illness and a family history
(a)
of cardiac disease
a review of previous radiological investigations, eg old films may
(b) indicate that the cardiomegaly is longstanding and therefore unlikely to
be due to a pericardial effusion
(c) an echocardiogram.
Case 9.8
This 80-year-old woman is brought to A&E by her daughter due to a short
history of chest pain.
Outline the features on the chest X-ray that suggest mitral valve
1.
disease.
If this patient presented with cardiac failure due to her underlying
2.
condition, what signs might be present on a chest X-ray?
Answer 9.8
The heart is moderately enlarged, with prominence of the left atrial

appendage. A double right heart border is evident, indicating enlargement
1. of the left atrium. The subcarinal angle is normal; however, the other
features all point towards a diagnosis of left atrial enlargement (a ‘mitral
heart’).
2. The following are all features of cardiac failure on chest X-ray:
(a) cardiomegaly
(b) pleural effusions
(c) perihilar consolidation (‘bat’s wings’)
(d) upper lobe venous distension
(e) interlobular septal lines (‘Kerley B lines’).
Scenarios presenting with weight loss
Case 9.9
This 67-year-old lady was admitted with shortness of breath and weight loss.
A large lung mass was seen on her CXR. Other investigations confirmed that
the lesion was a bronchial carcinoma at the left lung apex. 1. What other
findings might be seen on CXR in a patient with bronchial carcinoma?
What other findings might be seen on CXR in a patient with

1.
bronchial carcinoma?
What else could cause the appearance of a mass like this on a
2.
CXR?
3. What other imaging investigation would be helpful?
Answer 9.9
A lung mass on a CXR in a smoker over 50 years of age should be

1. regarded as a bronchial carcinoma until proven otherwise. Other features
that may be seen on CXR with bronchial carcinoma include:
• pleural effusion
• lung collapse (due to endobronchial tumour)
• pulmonary metastases
• bony metastases (and pathological fracture)
• secondary pneumonia
• lymphangitis carcinomatosis
• enlarged lymph nodes (hilar and paratracheal).
2. Causes of a lung mass on CXR include:
• bronchial carcinoma
• pulmonary metastasis
• round pneumonia
• lung hamartoma
• encysted pleural effusion
• rheumatoid nodule
• lung abscess (usually cavitating).
Computed tomography of the chest would image the mass in greater
3. detail. It will also help in the assessment of lymphadenopathy and
provide evidence of local or metastatic spread
Case 9.10
This 52-year-old man attends his GP complaining of non-intentional weight
loss of 8 kg.
Describe the appearances on the chest X-

1.
ray.
2. Provide a short differential diagnosis.
Answer 9.10
The inferior aspect of the right hilum is dense and enlarged. The left hilum
1. and paratracheal regions are normal. The lungs are clear. Further
investigation advised.
2. The differential diagnosis for unilateral hilar enlargement includes:
(a) bronchial carcinoma
(b) tuberculosis
(c) lymphoma
(d) metastatic mediastinal lymph node disease
(e) atypical sarcoidosis
(f) vascular anomaly.
Case 9.11
This 34-year-old man is admitted with weight loss, shortness of breath and
fever.
1. Describe the findings on this CXR.

What are the potential causes of such an
2.
appearance?
Answer 9.11
There is dense consolidation in the right upper lobe with an area of

1.
cavitation within. There is an air–fluid level within the cavity.
2. The differential diagnosis for a cavitating lung lesion is:
• bronchial carcinoma (especially squamous cell carcinoma)
• pulmonary metastasis
• tuberculosis
• cavitating pneumonia
• lung abscess
• vasculitic disease (eg Wegener’s granulomatosis)
• lung infarction
• rheumatoid nodule.
Case 9.12
This 67-year-old ex-coal miner presents with a history of weight loss over the
past month, now accompanied by shortness of breath.
1. Describe the appearances on the chest X-ray.

What further investigations are required and
2.
why?
Answer 9.12
The left hemithorax is opacified in a ‘veil-like’ manner. There is the

1.
impression of a dense and enlarged left hilum. The right lung is clear.
The appearances are in keeping with a left upper lobe collapse, with a
strong suspicion of an underlying hilar mass.
The chest X-ray appearances are highly suspicious for a central (hilar)
bronchial carcinoma, which has resulted in a left upper lobe collapse due
to obstruction of the left upper lobe bronchus. This merits urgent referral
2. to the lung cancer multidisciplinary team (MDT) meeting for work-up and
discussion. This will entail CT of the chest and upper abdomen and
bronchoscopy. With a central tumour, bronchoscopic biopsy is likely to be
performed to confirm the histology and so plan for treatment.
Scenarios presenting feeling generally unwell
Case 9.13
A 32-year-old man attends A&E complaining of shortness of breath and the
development of a rash on his shins.
A CXR was requested.
1. Outline any abnormal findings seen on this film.

Give a differential diagnosis for this
2.
appearance.
Answer 9.13
The mediastinal contour is abnormal. There is bilateral hilar

enlargement. When bilateral hilar enlargement is observed the three
important potential diagnoses are sarcoidosis, lymphoma (enlarged
1.
nodes) and pulmonary hypertension (enlarged pulmonary vessels).
You should therefore pay special attention to the lungs to assess for
the presence of other signs that might point to one of these diagnoses.
DISEASE SUPPORTING FEATURES

Sarcoidosis Interstitial fibrotic change
Lymphoma Enlargement of other nodes (para-tracheal)
Peripheral pruning
Pulmonary hypertension Chronic lung disease (cause of secondary
pulmonary hypertension)
2. Causes of bilateral hilar enlargement include:

• sarcoidosis
• lymphoma
• pulmonary hypertension (primary and secondary)
• metastatic nodal disease.
Case 9.14
This 30-year-old man presents with fatigue, for which a chest X-ray is among
numerous investigations.
1. Describe the appearances on this chest X-ray.

Give a short differential diagnosis and how you might establish
2.
the exact diagnosis.
Answer 9.14
Large, predominantly right-sided, anterior mediastinal mass. This is

1. causing displacement of the trachea to the left. The heart and lungs are
normal in appearance.
The main differential diagnoses for an anterior mediastinal mass are:
thyroid enlargement, thymoma, teratoma and lymphoma. CT of the
chest will assist in identifying the extent of the mass and may also
2.
point towards a diagnosis, such as internal calcification in the case of
a teratoma. Histological confirmation can be ascertained by CT-
guided biopsy.
Case 9.15
This 61-year-old woman complains of non-specific symptoms, including
malaise and anorexia.
Succinctly describe the appearances on this film and the likely

1.
diagnosis.
Which primary tumour types are most likely to result in these
2.
appearances?
Answer 9.15
Multiple masses in both lungs of variable size, measuring up to 4 cm,

consistent with pulmonary metastases. The appearances are those of
1.
‘cannon-ball’ metastases and identification of the primary tumour is
recommended, with CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis.
The most likely primary tumour to cause cannon-ball metastases is renal
2. cell carcinoma. Others include testicular malignancy and
choriocarcinoma.
Scenarios presenting with fever
Case 9.16
This 39-year-old woman attends A&E with a high fever, following a recent
holiday overseas.

What follow-up imaging is necessary, how long after treatment
2.
should this be performed and why is it performed?
Answer 9.16
Dense consolidation is evident in the right upper and mid-zones, clearly

delineated inferiorly by the horizontal fissure. This, combined with the
1. right heart border remaining distinct, implies that the consolidation is in
the right upper lobe The left hilum cannot be clearly visualised in its
entirety. The right lung is clear.
The appearances are in keeping with right upper lobe pneumonia.
A follow-up chest X-ray is indicated with a dense lobar pneumonia,
especially a case like this, where the hilum cannot be properly assessed.
A lobar pneumonia may be the presentation of something more sinister
underlying it, such as a central bronchial carcinoma, which has resulted in
2. a distal ‘obstructive’ pneumonia. A follow-up film should be performed 6
weeks after antibiotic treatment. For every decade of life after 60 years of
age, an additional week should be added. Radiological resolution may lag
behind clinical resolution. The follow-up film enables assessment for
resolution of the pneumonia for any underlying mass.
Scenarios presenting with incidental findings
Case 9.17
This 55-year-old retiree has a chest X-ray as part of a medical insurance
assessment.
Report the chest X-ray including what previous surgery has been
1.
performed.
2. List five indications for the surgery performed.
Answer 9.17
Dual lead pacemaker. Median sternotomy, aortic and mitral valve

1. replacements. The heart is mildly enlarged, but there is no evidence of
cardiac failure. The lungs are clear.
Cardiac valve replacement may be with a tissue or metallic valve. Only the
latter will be visible on chest X-ray. Most commonly a single valve is
2. replaced. The most common valve replacements are those of the ‘left side
of the heart’ – the mitral and aortic valves. Indications for valve
replacement include:
(i) endocarditis
(ii) rheumatic heart disease (usually mitral valve)
(iii) congenital valve disease (eg a biscupid aortic valve)
(iv) severe acquired valve incompetence or stenosis
(v) acute valvular rupture.
Case 9.18
This 57-year-old woman is attending a follow-up clinic after previous surgery.

Name the other review areas when examining a chest X-
2.
ray.
Answer 9.18
The right breast shadow is absent in keeping with a mastectomy. No

1.
evidence of recurrent disease in the lungs. Normal bony skeleton.
2. There are five key areas to review on chest X-ray:
(i) costophrenic angles
(ii) apices
(iii) behind the heart
(iv) below the diaphragms
(v) breast shadows (in females)
Scenarios presenting with a distended abdomen
Case 9.19
This 63-year-old man attends A&E complaining of a short history of
abdominal distension.
1. Describe the appearance on this abdominal X-ray.

What investigation should be performed next and how will it be
2.
useful?
Answer 9.19
The large bowel is gas filled and dilated up to 6 cm in diameter down to

the left side of the pelvis, where there is an abrupt cut-off. The rectum is
1.
nondistended and the small bowel collapsed. The appearances are
consistent with a large bowel obstruction at the level of the sigmoid colon.
A CT of the abdomen is indicated to investigate further, before probable
2.
surgical intervention. This will enable the following:
(a) confirmation of the site of obstruction
establishment of the cause of obstruction; a sigmoid tumour is most
(b)
likely, although other causes include a diverticular stricture or hernia
(c) identification of whether a perforation has occurred
in the case of the cause being a tumour, identification of any local,
(d)
regional or distal metastatic disease.
Case 9.20
A 55-year-old man was admitted with acute abdominal pain and a CXR was
performed.
1. What abnormality is seen on this film?

2. What projection has been used?
3. List some causes of this finding.
Answer 9.20
A radiolucent linear abnormality is noted inferior to the diaphragm

1.
bilaterally.
Remember that gas on a plain X-ray is black so this must be gas in the
abdomen.
It is outside the bowel lumen – an abnormal finding. This is called a
pneumoperitoneum.
This is an ERECT CXR. An erect film is invariably requested to assess
2.
for free gas within the abdomen (pneumoperitoneum).
The causes of pneumoperitoneum are listed on page 254 (see table
3.
‘Causes of extraluminal gas’).
Case 9.21
This 69-year-old woman was admitted to the surgical ward with malodorous
vomiting and a distended abdomen.
An AXR was taken while she was in A&E.
1. Describe the findings on the AXR.

What are the causes of this
2.
abnormality?
Answer 9.21
Multiple dilated small bowel loops. The bowel measures 4 cm in

diameter and is located in the centre of the film. Multiple loops suggest
1.
that the obstruction lies in the distal small bowel. These findings are in
keeping with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction.
FEATURES OF SMALL BOWEL OBSTRUCTION

Bowel lies in centre of the film
Markings seen across the bowel wall (valvulae conniventes)
Several loops (more loops the lower the obstruction)
2. Causes of small bowel obstruction include (most common first):

• adhesions
• hernia
• extraluminal causes more common than intraluminal (obstructing mass)
• intussuception.
Case 9.22
This 77-year-old nursing home resident is brought to hospital because her
carers are concerned about an enlarged abdomen over the last 24 hours.
1. Describe the appearances on the AXR.

What are the treatment options for this
2.
condition?
Answer 9.22
A large distended featureless loop of bowel arises from the pelvis into the
mid/upper abdomen, with a ‘coffee-bean’ configuration. Proximal to this
1.
there is distended large bowel consistent with obstruction. The small
bowel is collapsed. Appearances are consistent with a sigmoid volvulus.
The usual treatment for sigmoid volvulus is insertion of a flatus tube. A
plain film is usually sufficient for diagnosis and a management decision.
On occasion the volvulus might result in a section of ischaemic bowel
2. requiring surgical resection. Sigmoid volvulus is commonly recurrent,
which in itself may merit surgery. Of the three types of volvulus of the
gastrointestinal tract, sigmoid is the most common followed by caecal and
gastric.
Case 9.23
This 38-year-old woman attends A&E with abdominal distension and
discomfort lasting the previous 12 hours.
Describe the findings on the AXR and provide a

1.
diagnosis.
2. Which group of patients typically get this condition?
Answer 9.23
A large, distended, gas-filled, featureless viscus is sited in the right upper

abdomen, which is separate from the collapsed stomach. The caecum is
1. not apparent in the right iliac fossa. The small bowel is dilated. The
appearances are consistent with a caecal volvulus with a resultant small
bowel obstruction
Caecal volvulus typically occurs in young/middle-aged women with
‘virgin’ abdomens in comparison to sigmoid volvuli, which tend to cluster
2.
in the elderly population. Treatment is with surgery, requiring a
caecopexy.
Scenarios presenting with abdominal pain
Case 9.24
This 35-year-old man is a regular attendee at the hospital with severe upper
abdominal pain.
1. Give a brief report of your findings on this AXR.

List the potential complications after acute
2.
pancreatitis.
Answer 9.24
Extensive punctate calcification is evident in the upper abdomen, extending

1. across the midline, conforming to the shape of the pancreas, in keeping
with chronic pancreatitis.
Numerous complications may follow acute pancreatitis, which can be
2. identified on imaging, in particular CT. Complications may be acute,
subacute or chronic in nature, including the following:
(a) pancreatic necrosis
(b) pancreatic haemorrhage
(c) pancreatic or peripancreatic abscess
(d) pancreatic pseudocyst
(e) pseudoaneurysm formation
(f) thrombosis of adjacent vessels, eg the superior mesenteric vein
pancreatic calcification, which occurs in the chronic phase of
(g) pancreatitis and may involve the parenchyma or ductal components of
the pancreas.
Case 9.25
This 43-year-old man complains of left-sided flank pain.
1. Describe any abnormalities present on this AXR.

Which other imaging modality is best for imaging renal stone
2.
disease?
Answer 9.25
Multiple calcific densities project over the lower pole of the left kidney
in keeping with renal calculi. An additional similar density projects
1.
between the left L3 and L4 transverse process, in keeping with a calculus
within the left mid-ureter.
CT KUB (kidneys, ureters and bladder) is the gold standard imaging
investigation for the assessment of renal calculi, with over 99%
sensitivity for calculi as small as 1 mm. This is performed without
contrast with 1-mm (thin) slice acquisition. Renal calculi and the level of
2. obstruction are identified. In addition perinephric/periureteric
inflammatory change and fluid are visualised. Complications, such as
hydronephrosis or pyonephrosis, can be seen. Pyonephrosis due to renal
stone disease is a urological emergency and is an indication for
percutaneous nephrostomy insertion.
Scenarios presenting with an abdominal mass
Case 9.26
This 25-year-old man presented with upper abdominal discomfort. An AXR
was performed because the admitting doctor was concerned about bowel
obstruction.
Describe the appearances on the abdominal

1.
radiograph.
2. List some potential causes.
Answer 9.26
A large soft-tissue mass is present in the left upper quadrant extending

inferomedially into the lower abdomen and upper pelvis. This is
1. displacing both large and small bowel, consistent with being located
within the peritoneal cavity. The findings are consistent with
splenomegaly.
Potential causes of splenomegaly include: sickle cell disease,
2.
myelofibrosis and lymphoma.
Note the bilateral hip abnormalities (much more pronounced on the right)
of sclerosis and collapse consistent with avascular necrosis. The unifying
diagnosis is sickle cell disease. Later in the disease process the spleen
may become small due to infarction.
Case 9.27
This 75-year-old man complains of an ongoing aching pain in the centre
abdomen.
1. Describe your findings on this AXR

What additional imaging investigation is
2.
recommended?
Answer 9.27
A large, left, paraspinal, soft tissue abnormality is present in the mid-

abdomen with a curvilinear lateral aspect, which contains a rim of
1.
calcification. The psoas shadow is separate from this. Appearances are
consistent with a large abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Although both ultrasonography and CT can be used to assess the aorta, in
this instance CT is the best choice. Ultrasonography is used for
2. surveillance of aneurysm size. This aneurysm is large enough to warrant
elective surgery and therefore full assessment with CT is merited. CT is
the investigation of choice in the acute setting to assess for rupture.
Case 9.28
This 37-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain and early
bladder fullness.
1. Describe the abnormality present on the AXR.

Give a differential diagnosis and suggest an additional imaging
2.
technique to assess further.
Answer 9.28
A large soft-tissue mass arises from the pelvis extending to the level of
the umbilicus. This is well defined superiorly and is displacing the bowel
1.
into the upper abdomen. Appearances are in keeping with a pelvic mass,
most likely gynaecological in origin.
The differential diagnosis for these appearances includes: ovarian cyst,
dermoid cyst, pelvic abscess/collection and an enlarged fibroid uterus. In
2.
the first instance assessment with ultrasonography is recommended.
Depending on this further cross-sectional imaging may also be required.
Scenarios presenting with headache
Case 9.29
This 37-year-old woman attended A&E complaining of a severe sudden
headache.
1. Describe the appearances on the head CT.

What other imaging investigation(s) would be helpful in the patient’s
2.
management plan?
Answer 9.29
Extensive high-attenuation material consistent with acute blood is present

within the suprasellar cistern and sulci of the brain in keeping with
1.
subarachnoid haemorrhage. The temporal horns of the lateral ventricles
are dilated in keeping with early hydrocephalus.
Spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage is commonly associated with an
underlying vascular abnormality, most commonly a cerebral (‘berry’)
aneurysm. Imaging is focused on trying to identify an aneurysm, which
will permit definitive treatment, such as a coil embolisation or less
2.
commonly now surgical clipping. This usually involves CT angiography
of the circle of Willis, although catheter angiography may be performed
alone or in addition to CT, especially if endoluminal treatment is to be
performed.
Case 9.30
This 39-year-old man was brought to A&E by his wife, because he has
developed a progressively worsening headache over the past 2 weeks,
particularly severe first thing in the morning.

2. List potential causes for these appearances.
Answer 9.30
The ventricular system of the brain is dilated, in particular on the single

image provided, note that the lateral ventricles (frontal and temporal horns)
are dilated as is the third ventricle, which is also uncharacteristically
1. round. Periventricular low attenuation is evident around the frontal horns,
in keeping with transependymal oedema, which typically occurs in acute
hydrocephalus (the CSF leaks across the ependymal lining of the ventricle
due to high pressure within).
Hydrocephalus may be obstructive or non-obstructive. It may involve
2.
individual ventricles or the whole ventricular system. Causes include:
an obstructive malignant mass, such as a tumour; potential tumours
(a)
include an ependymoma
an obstructive non-malignant mass, such as a third ventricular colloid
(b)
cyst
obstruction due to intraventricular debris, such as blood post-
(c)
subarachnoid haemorrhage.
Case 9.31
This 69-year-old man developed a severe headache while attending a local
football match.

What is the most likely cause for these
2.
appearances?
Answer 9.31
A moderate-sized, well-defined, high-attenuation focus is present in the

right thalamus, in keeping with a thalamic haemorrhage. This is an
1.
intraparenchymal haematoma, and there is a little reactive surrounding
oedema.
Thalamic haemorrhage is typically due to hypertension. This would be
classed as a haemorrhagic stroke, which accounts for 15% of all strokes,
2. most being due to infarction. Other typical locations for hypertensive
haemorrhage include the basal ganglia and dentate nucleus of the
cerebellum.
With large intraparenchymal haemorrhages there may be intraventricular
extension. A small proportion of infarcts may undergo haemorrhagic
transformation.
Scenarios presenting with confusion
Case 9.32
This 55-year-old woman was brought to A&E by her relatives who state that
she has been confused over the past 24 hours. She had a mastectomy for breast
cancer 2 years ago.
1. Describe the appearances on the CT head.

If this was the patient’s first presentation, what is the potential
2.
differential diagnosis?
Answer 9.32
This CT has been performed following contrast administration. An

approximately 3-cm rim-enhancing mass lies within the right frontoparietal
region, with significant surrounding perilesional oedema. This is causing a
1.
mass effect, as demonstrated by sulcal effacement and mild displacement
of the body of the right lateral ventricle. In the context of the clinical
history a cerebral metastasis is the most likely diagnosis.
The differential diagnosis for a single rim-enhancing intraparenchymal
2.
mass includes:
(a) cerebral metastasis
(b) primary brain malignancy
(c) cerebral abscess
(d) tumefactive multiple sclerosis (mass like in appearance).
Case 9.33
This 24-year-old intravenous drug user is accompanied to A&E by his friend
who states that he has been ‘really muddled’ over the last 3 days and has a
fever.

Name some other complications that commonly occur in those using
2.
intravenous drugs.
Answer 9.33
This scan has been performed following contrast administration. Adjacent

to the frontal horn of the left lateral ventricle is an avidly rim-enhancing
lesion, with a low attenuation centre. There is a moderate amount of
1.
perilesional oedema. Although there is a wide differential for a rim-
enhancing solitary cerebral lesion (see Case 9.32), correlation with the
clinical history makes a cerebral abscess by far the most likely cause.
Although not necessarily unique to those taking intravenous drugs, there are
2. a number of conditions that occur much more commonly in this patient
subgroup, including:
(a) infective endocarditis
(b) cerebral abscesses
(c) groin pseudoaneurysms, which may also become infected
(d) septic pulmonary emboli.
Scenarios presenting with reduced GCS score
Case 9.34
This 18 year old was involved in a skiing accident 2 hours previously. His
GCS on arrival at A&E is 9/15.

What is normally associated with this finding on CT and which vessel
2.
is typically damaged?
Answer 9.34
A high-attenuation, lens-shaped (biconvex), extra-axial abnormality is

present in the left parietal region, which is causing a mass effect in the
1.
form of sulcal effacement, along with both compression and displacement
of the left lateral ventricle.
The appearances are consistent with an acute extradural haematoma.
Ninety-five per cent of extradural haematomas are associated with a skull
fracture. The middle meningeal artery is usually the vessel damaged and
2.
is responsible for the haematoma. This differs from subdural haematomas,
which are usually due to tears of the bridging veins.
Case 9.35
This 77-year-old widow is found at home by her neighbour. On arrival at A&E
her GCS is 12/15.

There is no history of severe head trauma. How might this
2.
haematoma have arisen?
Answer 9.35
Blood of variable age is present within the left subdural space, in keeping
with a moderate-sized subdural haematoma. Most of the haematoma
content is isodense, with the brain parenchyma indicating subacute blood
1. with some high-attenuation material within, consistent with more acute
blood. The haematoma is causing significant mass effect, with
displacement of the frontal horn of the left lateral ventricle and subfalcine
herniation.
Subdural haematomas are not uncommonly found after relatively low-
impact head trauma. Often, if questioned directly, patients might recall a
2. slight blow to the head or a fall before presentation – which is often
considered too trivial to be mentioned. This history may not be given,
however, due to the presence of confusion.
Case 9.36
This 35 year old was found on the street late at night. She was intubated at the
scene for a GCS of 3/15.

2. What is the likely cause?
Answer 9.36
Throughout the visualised brain (on the single slice provided) there is
diffuse loss of grey–white material differentiation of the brain
1.
parenchyma. In addition to this the basal cisterns are completely effaced.
The sulci of the brain are also non-apparent.
The appearances of the CT are consistent with cerebral anoxia. When the
brain is deprived of sufficient oxygenation for a prolonged period of time,
2. eg during a cardiac arrest in the community with a long period of lost
cardiac output, anoxia occurs. This results in the loss of grey–white
matter differentiation and cytotoxic oedema.
Scenario presenting with neurological deficit
Case 9.37
This 66-year-old man gives a 3-hour history of right-sided weakness.
Examination confirms a right hemiparesis.

Explain the concept of ‘time is brain’ in the modern management of
2.
stroke.
Answer 9.37
Extensive low attenuation is present throughout the left temporoparietal

region with sparing of the head of caudate and lentiform nucleus (basal
1. ganglia). These appearances are consistent with a left middle cerebral
artery (MCA) territory infarction. No evidence of haemorrhagic
transformation. No visible intra-arterial thrombus.
‘Time is brain’ refers to the urgency with which acute stroke should be
treated, where appropriate, with intravenous thrombolysis. Those patients
who present to hospital within a specified time window with the clinical
diagnosis of stroke, and who fill a number of pre-agreed criteria, should
receive intravenous thrombolysis. The concept is that ischaemic, but not
2.
yet dead, brain (ischaemic penumbra) is reperfused and saved, resulting
in a reduction in neurological deficit. At present the time window that is
adopted in many centres is 4.5 hours from the onset of symptoms. The
patient must receive a CT of the head before treatment to exclude
intracranial haemorrhage.
Case 9.38
This 78-year-old woman has developed progressive right-sided weakness in
recent days.

Name three primary brain tumours that occur in the supra- and
2.
infratentorial brain.
Answer 9.38
This post-contrast scan outlines a large heterogeneous enhancing mass in

the right cerebral hemisphere bulging into and compressing the right
1.
lateral ventricle. The most likely cause for these appearances is a glioma.
At present there is no evidence of hydrocephalus.
In adults, primary brain tumours are more common in the supratentorial
than the infratentorial brain. The reverse is true in children. Potential
supratentorial tumours include: glioblastoma multiforme, astrocytoma,
2. meningioma, oligodendroglioma, neurofibroma and craniopharyngioma.
Infratentorial (or posterior fossa) tumours include: ependymoma,
pilocytic astrocytoma, brain-stem glioma, cerebellar haemangioblastoma
and medulloblastoma, some of which are essentially unique to children.
Case 9.39
This 62-year-old man developed a left-sided visual deficit 3 months
previously. On this occasion CT was performed after head trauma.
1. Describe the appearances on this CT of the brain.

2. List a few factors that predispose to stroke.
Case 9.39
There is a focal area of low attenuation in the left occipital lobe. The
appearances are consistent with an established posterior cerebral artery
1.
stroke involving the left occipital lobe. No acute findings to suggest an
injury following trauma.
2. There are a number of factors that predispose to stroke. These include:
• hypertension
• atrial fibrillation
• cardiovascular disease elsewhere (‘arteriopath’ status)
• diabetes mellitus
• smoking
• hyperlipidaemia
• family history of cardiovascular disease
• atheromatous plaques in the carotid or vertebrobasilar arteries
• infective endocarditis – resulting in septic emboli
• vasculitis
dissection of the carotid or vertebrobasilar arteries (especially in stroke
•
of young people)
• procoagulant states, such as polycythaemia.
CARDIOLOGY
Electrocardiography
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is one of the most important commonly
requested tests in medical practice.
DON’T FORGET
If possible, always compare ECGs with previous tracings.
Components of an ECG tracing

A standard ECG comprises 12 individual tracings (called leads). An ECG
machine produces these tracings by comparing electrical signals from 10
sensors. Six are placed on the chest and one on each of the four limbs. By
convention, the tracings are given standard names, with each representing an
electrical signal from a particular part of the heart. V1, V2, V3, V4, V5 and V6
‘look at’ the heart in a horizontal plane. Each of these tracings represents the
electrical signal detected at one of the chest sensors; aVL, aVF, aVR, I, II and
III look at the heart in a vertical plane.
LEAD LOOKS AT
V1, V2, V3 and V4 Anterior surface (right ventricle and septum)
V5, V6, aVL and I Lateral surface (left ventricle)
II, III and aVF Inferior surface
aVR Right atrium
In a patient having an acute myocardial infarction, it is therefore possible to

determine which part of the heart is affected by assessing which leads show
changes.
If any individual lead is examined in detail, various peaks and troughs will be
noted. These represent electrical activity at various times in the cardiac cycle.
It is sometimes difficult to see every detail on each tracing. Names are attached
to particular parts of the tracing as follows.
Fig 10.1: The P wave.
The first bump in a tracing is called a ‘P wave’. This represents the electrical
activity associated with depolarisation of the atria. There is a further electrical
signal associated with atrial repolarisation, but this cannot usually be seen on
an ECG, since the small electrical signal is overshadowed by the much more
powerful ventricular activity.
Fig 10.2: The Q wave.
Following along from the P wave, a downward dip in the tracing is known as a
Q wave. This may or may not be present.
Fig 10.3: The R wave.
The first upward peak after the P wave is known as an R wave.
Fig 10.4: The S wave.
Any dip below the baseline following an R wave is called an S wave.
The Q, R and S waves are known collectively as the QRS complex. This
represents ventricular depolarisation.
Fig 10.5: The T wave.
Following the QRS complex, an upward deflection in the tracing is known as a

T wave. This represents ventricular repolarisation. T waves are followed by P
waves, and the cycle is complete.
Interpreting an ECG
The following aspects should be addressed when interpreting an ECG:
Heart rate QRS complexes

Heart rhythm ST segment
Cardiac axis Q–T interval
P waves T waves
Heart rate
ECGs are printed on squared paper. This paper usually runs through the ECG
machine at a standard rate (25 mm/s). If, for some reason, the machine is set to
run at a different speed, interpretation is more difficult.
DON’T FORGET
Always check that the paper speed is at 25 mm per second.
At this speed, on a horizontal axis, each small square represents 0.04 second,
and each large square (which is five small squares wide) represents 0.2
second.
Fig 10.6: Standard squared paper used when recording ECGs.
The ventricular rate is calculated by looking at the distance between

consecutive QRS complexes. Usually the distance between R waves is
analysed.
When there are a number of large squares between each R wave, the
ventricular rate is most easily calculated by counting the number of large
squares between each R wave and dividing this number into 300.
Fig 10.7: Measuring the R–R interval.
In the ECG shown, there are approximately five large squares between each R
wave. The ventricular rate is therefore 300 ÷ 5 = 60 beats/min.
When the ventricular rhythm is more rapid, counting large squares can prove
difficult. In such instances, the number of small squares between consecutive R
waves is counted, and this number divided into 1500.
Fig 10.8: Measuring the R–R interval with a faster heart rate.
In the example, there are 12 small squares between each R wave. The
ventricular rate is therefore 1500 ÷ 12 = 125 beats/min.
Ventricular rate (beats per minute) = 300 ÷ number of large squares between R waves
OR
Ventricular rate (beats per minute) = 1500 ÷ number of small squares between
R waves
Both approaches give the same answer, but the second approach tends to be easier if the heart rate is
rapid.
A heart rate of less than 60 beats/min is termed bradycardia. A rate of greater

than 100 beats/min is tachycardia.
If the heart rhythm is irregular, calculate the rate using the number of squares
between several R waves. Divide the answer to obtain an average R–R
interval.
For example, if there are 40 large squares between the first and the eleventh R
wave, the average R–R interval is 4 large squares and the heart rate is
approximately 300 ÷ 4 = 75 beats/min.
Heart rhythm
There are several heart rhythms that you will be expected to recognise. To
assess rhythm, look for P waves and their relationship to QRS complexes.
Remember that normally one P wave should be followed by one QRS complex.
Good leads for assessing P waves are leads II, V1 and V2.
Sinus rhythm
Sinus rhythm describes a normal heart rhythm in which electrical signals begin
in the sinus node. A P wave should precede each QRS complex, and be at a
normal, fixed interval from it. The P–R interval is used to measure the interval
between P waves and QRS complexes. It is measured by counting the number
of squares between the start of the P wave and the start of the QRS complex.
This distance should be between three and five small squares.
Fig 10.9: Normal sinus rhythm illustrating the P–R interval.
Sinus tachycardia describes sinus rhythm at a rate of over 100

•
beats/min.
• Sinus bradycardia describes sinus rhythm at less than 60 beats/min.
Sinus arrhythmia is the term used to describe the normal variation in
• heart rate with respiration. Normally, the heart rate increases on
inspiration.
In sinus arrhythmia, the heart rate INcreases on INspiration.
SINUS RHYTHM CHECKS

To diagnose sinus rhythm, all of the following criteria should be met:
1. P wave preceding every QRS complex
2. P–R interval is normal
3. P–R interval is constant
Atrial fibrillation
This is the term used to describe erratic electrical activity in the atria. In this
condition, no P waves are seen, and the ECG baseline commonly shows
irregularity. QRS complexes occur irregularly.
Fig 10.10: Atrial fibrillation.
This tracing fails sinus rhythm check 1, as no P waves are visible.
Atrial flutter
This condition is similar to atrial fibrillation in many ways. However, the ECG
shows the presence of F waves (flutter waves). The baseline of the ECG
therefore adopts a ‘saw-toothed’ appearance. Atrial flutter may occur with a
fixed degree of atrioventricular block, eg three-to-one block. This means that,
for every three flutter waves, there would be one QRS complex. Alternatively,
the rhythm may have variable block, where the number of flutter waves
preceding each QRS complex varies from beat to beat.
Fig 10.11: Atrial flutter.
This tracing fails sinus rhythm check 1, as no P waves are visible. You should
be able to instantly recognise atrial flutter on account of its distinctive
appearance.
Heart block
Heart block describes a problem with conduction between the atria and
ventricles. There are various types.
First-degree heart block

In first-degree heart block, a P wave precedes each QRS complex, but the P–R
interval is prolonged (more than five small squares). The P–R interval remains
constant from beat to beat.
In simple terms, imagine first-degree heart block as a condition in which the
wiring of the heart is still intact, but is a little slow. It therefore takes longer
than normal for electrical signals to travel from the atria to the ventricles.
Fig 10.12: First-degree heart block.
You will appreciate that this example is not sinus rhythm because, although
there is a P wave before every QRS complex (check 1), the P–R interval is
prolonged (six small squares).
Second-degree heart block

Second-degree heart block Second-degree heart block describes the spectrum
of conduction problems that are more severe than first-degree, but less severe
than third-degree, heart block.
There are three main types:
Mobitz type I (Wenckebach phenomenon)
This rhythm runs in cycles, and will be identified if the tests for sinus
rhythm are checked. The first P–R interval in a cycle is often normal. With
each successive heart beat, the P–R interval lengthens. Eventually, there
will be a P wave with no following QRS complex. The cycle then begins
again.
1.
Fig 10.13: Mobitz type I heart block.
Mobitz type II
Again, you will diagnose this rhythm if you check the requirements for sinus
rhythm. In this rhythm, the P–R interval is constant. Its duration may be
normal or prolonged. However, periodically there will be no conduction
between the atria and ventricles, and there will be a P wave with no
associated QRS complex.
2.
Fig 10.14: Mobitz type II heart block.
Fixed degrees of atrioventricular block

These rhythms are described as two-to-one, three-to-one, four-to-one
block, etc. In two-to-one block, for example, two P waves are found for
every QRS complex.
3.
Fig 10.15: Two-to-one atrioventricular block.
Third-degree heart block

In this condition, there is no functioning electrical connection between the atria
and ventricles. You may like to think of this as a state in which the ‘wires’
between atria and ventricles have been ‘cut’. P waves and QRS complexes
will be seen, but these will have no constant relationship to each other. If you
suspect this rhythm, take a sheet of paper and lay it alongside the ECG in
question. Mark on the paper the position of the P waves. Next, move your
paper so that the first mark you have made lines up with the first QRS complex.
You will see that the P waves and QRS complexes are completely dissociated.
The QRS complex arises because of intrinsic pacemaker activity below the
atrioventricular node.
Note that QRS complexes can be normal in width or wide (see below).
Fig 10.16: Third-degree heart block.
Cardiac axis
The cardiac axis is an arbitrary concept used to describe the average direction
of electrical activity in the heart. Normally, the average flow of electrical
energy is from the upper right heart border towards the apex. In various
disease states, the cardiac axis can shift.
There are several methods for assessing axis, but students often find this a
difficult exercise. One method relies on looking at leads I, II and III, and
determining whether the QRS complexes are predominantly upgoing or
downgoing. QRS complexes in a particular lead are upgoing if average
electrical flow (axis) is towards that lead, and downgoing if it is away from
the lead (see Fig 10.17).
A good rule of thumb is to assess the QRS complexes in leads I and II and, if
both are predominantly upgoing, the axis is normal as shown in Fig 10.19. In
right axis deviation, the axis shifts clockwise and, as a result lead I becomes
downgoing because average electrical flow is away from it. In left axis
deviation, the axis shifts anti-clockwise, and as a result, leads II and III
become downgoing. Figure 10.18 illustrates the standard convention for
quantifying the cardiac axis. Figure 10.19 illustrates all three scenarios.
Fig 10.17: Upgoing and downgoing QRS complexes.

Fig 10.18
AXIS LEAD I LEAD II LEAD III

Normal Upgoing Upgoing Upgoing (or downgoing)
Right axis deviation Downgoing Upgoing Upgoing
Left axis deviation Upgoing Downgoing Downgoing
Fig 10.19: Leads I, II and III showing a normal axis, right axis deviation and left axis deviation.
P waves
Look at leads II, V1 and V2 for the best views of P waves. Assess their size
and shape. P waves should not exceed the maximum dimensions shown in Fig
10.20. Always make sure that an ECG has been correctly calibrated before
commenting on the heights of peaks. The standard calibration is 10 mm = 1 mV.
DON’T FORGET
Always check that an ECG is calibrated to 10 mm = 1 mV.
Fig 10.20: Normal P-wave dimensions.
P pulmonale describes tall, peaked P waves. These occur in conditions

•
when the right atrium becomes enlarged.
P mitrale describes wide P waves that are often bifid. This may be seen
•
in patients with mitral stenosis.
Fig 10.21: P pulmonale and P mitrale.
MEMORY AID
In P Pulmonale, the P waves are Peaked.
In P Mitrale, the P waves are bifid and look like the letter M.
QRS complexes
Q waves
Look at the location and size of Q waves. The maximum dimensions of Q
waves should not exceed those shown in Fig 10.22.
Fig 10.22: Q-wave maximum dimensions.
Because of the direction taken by electrical signals in the heart, small Q waves
may normally be seen in leads looking at the lateral aspect of the heart (V5,
V6, aVL and I). Large Q waves or Q waves in other locations are abnormal,
and indicate the presence of scar tissue in the heart (eg after a myocardial
infarction).
Height of R and S waves

Much information can be gleaned by looking at the height of R and S waves.
The most common abnormality detected is left ventricular hypertrophy. There
are many ECG criteria for predicting whether hypertrophy is present. One
method involves finding the sum of the height of the S wave in V1 (in mm) and
the height of the R wave in V6 (in mm). If greater than 35 mm, it is probable
that left ventricular hypertrophy is present. An echocardiogram is necessary to
confirm hypertrophy.
There are several causes of very small complexes, the most common being
pericardial effusions, pericarditis and emphysematous lungs.
QRS duration
A normal QRS complex should be less than three small squares wide.
Fig 10.23: Normal maximum QRS complex duration.
Wide complexes indicate abnormal conduction through the ventricles.

Normally, electrical signals are carried through the ventricular muscle in
specialised conducting tissue – the bundle of His and its left and right
branches. Problems in this conducting tissue result in electrical impulses being
carried more slowly through non-specialised cardiac tissue. This results in
widening of the QRS complex. You should be able to recognise the typical
ECG features of both problems in both the left and right bundle branches
(named left and right bundle-branch block). Problems with QRS duration and
other ECG abnormalities can be seen in tricyclic antidepressant toxicity – see
page 173 for details.
In right bundle-branch block (RBBB), two upward deflections (ie two R
waves) are seen in the QRS complex in V1. This is known as an RSR pattern.
A deep S wave is normally seen in V6.
Fig 10.24: Right bundle-branch block.
In left bundle-branch block (LBBB), the ECG is typically highly bizarre in

appearance. An RSR pattern may be seen in V6. Conduction is so disordered
in LBBB that many of the normal morphological features of an ECG are not
distinguishable. After establishing heart rate, rhythm, axis and that LBBB is
present, analysis of the ECG should stop. Confusion often arises in practice
when students attempt to comment on what appear to be highly abnormal ST
segments and T waves. It is important to be able to identify LBBB, because, if
it develops in a patient, it can be a sign of myocardial infarction.
Do not attempt to comment on the ST segment when LBBB is present.

Fig 10.25: Left bundle-branch block.
ST segment
The ST segment is that part of a tracing that lies between the QRS complex and
the T wave.
Fig 10.26: The ST segment.

Normally, the ST segment should be horizontal and isoelectric (ie lying on the
baseline of the tracing). Abnormalities include elevation and depression.
The ST segment may be elevated. The most common causes for this are
myocardial infarction (where ST elevation occurs in the heart leads ‘looking
at’ damaged parts of the heart) and pericarditis (where ST elevation occurs in
most or all ECG leads). The ST elevation associated with myocardial
infarction is typically convex upwards, whereas it is concave (saddle-shaped)
in pericarditis.
Fig 10.27: Convex and concave ST elevation (exaggerated for clarity).
ACUTE MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION REQUIRING URGENT

REPERFUSION
1. ST segment elevation (convex upwards) in keeping with acute myocardial infarction, or
2. New LBBB: in a patient with typical chest pain
ST elevation that persists over weeks and months after a myocardial infarction
commonly signifies the presence of a ventricular aneurysm.
Horizontal ST depression can represent cardiac ischaemia, and may be seen
during episodes of angina pectoris. ST depression may also indicate a non-ST
elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), which can be distinguished from
ischaemia only by measuring biochemical markers of cardiomyocyte damage
(see page 366 for details).
Fig 10.28: Horizontal ST depression.

When ST depression in lateral chest leads is seen alongside features in
keeping with left ventricular hypertrophy, this is called a strain pattern, and is
a feature of marked left ventricular hypertrophy. It can be difficult to
differentiate from changes associated with ischaemia.
Down-sloping ST depression (often called ‘reverse tick’ ST depression) is
seen in patients on digoxin.
Fig 10.29: Down-sloping ST depression.
Q–T interval
The Q–T interval is the distance from the start of the QRS complex to the end
of the T wave. Long Q–T intervals predispose to cardiac dysrhythmias. The
Q–T interval varies with heart rate, but should in general not be more than two
large squares in duration.
Fig 10.30: Prolonged Q–T interval.
To make matters a little more complicated, the Q–T interval increases as the
heart rate slows. Thus bradycardia can be associated with an apparently long
Q–T interval. To correct for this, the Bazett correction is applied to the Q–T
interval to take the heart rate into account. The corrected Q–T interval (Q–Tc)
is calculated as follows:
where R–R is the number of seconds between consecutive R waves.

This value should generally be less than 0.45 second.
T wave
The final stage in ECG interpretation should be to look at the T waves. T
waves may be upright or inverted (upside down). They are generally less than
two-thirds of the height of their neighbouring R wave, and should not be more
than two large squares tall.
Inverted T waves are normally seen in leads aVR and III. They may also be
seen in lead V1 ± V2, but not V2 alone. T-wave inversion in other leads may
be of little consequence, but is often a sign of cardiac ischaemia, or of
NSTEMI.
Fig 10.31: 12-lead ECG with T-wave inversion in the lateral chest leads.
T-wave changes often accompany changes in the serum potassium level.

Typical findings are shown in the table.
HYPERKALAEMIA HYPOKALAEMIA
Tall, tented T waves Flat, broad T waves
Loss of P waves ST depression
QRS complex broadening Long Q–T interval
Sine-wave-shaped ECG Ventricular dysrhythmias
Cardiac arrest rhythms
Fig 10.32: T waves in hyperkalaemia.
Fig 10.33: T waves in hypokalaemia.
Summary
When interpreting an ECG, always use the following headings:
Heart rate QRS complexes
Heart rhythm ST segment
Cardiac axis Q–T interval
P waves T waves
Cardiac arrest rhythms

When a patient has a cardiac arrest, the heart stops pumping blood around the
body. The electrical activity in the heart does not always stop immediately,
however, and the immediate advanced management of patients with cardiac
arrest is largely determined by exactly what is happening to the heart rhythm. It
is imperative that you are able to identify each of the following rhythms.
‘Shockable’ rhythms
If one of these rhythms is identified, the priority in treatment is to deliver
electricity to the heart using a defibrillator.
Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

This is identified by the erratic nature of the electrical activity. It is random
and unpredictable. It is sometimes classified as being fine or coarse depending
on whether the electrical activity is of small (fine) or large (coarse) amplitude.
Fig 10.34
Ventricular tachycardia (VT)

This is a broad QRS complex tachycardia that has a very distinctive
appearance on an ECG monitor. It is not always associated with cardiac arrest,
but is always a significant arrhythmia.
Fig 10.35
‘Non-shockable’ rhythms
Defibrillation will not be helpful to patients with one of these rhythms.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be administered and attempts made to
reverse the cause of the cardiac arrest.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) (also known as

electromechanical dissociation or EMD)
The heart rhythm is indistinguishable from a heart rhythm normally compatible
with life.
Fig 10.36
Asystole
There is no identifiable cardiac electrical activity. It is important to adjust the
gain on the ECG monitor to ensure that ‘fine’ ventricular fibrillation is not
missed.
Fig 10.37
P-wave asystole
In this rhythm, only P waves are seen. There is no ventricular activity. This
rhythm may respond to cardiac pacing.
Fig 10.38
Cardiac imaging
Echocardiography
It is unlikely that you will be required to have detailed knowledge of
echocardiography at undergraduate level. However, it is important that you are
familiar with echocardiographic reports and understand how to interpret them.
You may find it helpful to use the following headings when reading
echocardiographic reports. Common abnormalities and points to bear in mind
are also listed.
COMPONENT OF
COMMENT
REPORT
The normal maximum diameter of the left atrium is 4.5 cm.
Enlargement of the left atrium is particularly significant in patients
Size of heart chambers (atria and with atrial fibrillation. The normal maximum diameter of the left
ventricles) ventricle in diastole is 5.5 cm – this will be increased in
abnormally enlarged left ventricles, eg with dilated
cardiomyopathy
This should be less than 1.2 cm. A thickened septum should raise
Ventricular septal thickness
suspicions of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
Hypokinesis refers to walls that contract poorly. Akinesis refers

Left ventricular function to walls that do not appear to contract at all. The left ventricular
ejection fraction is normally around 65%
Stenotic or regurgitant valves will often be described in terms of

severity as trace, mild, moderate or severe. Often pressure
gradients across valves and valve areas are documented. For the
Details about each valve aortic valve, severe stenosis is present if there is a pressure
gradient of more than 50 mmHg across the valve, or if the valve
area is less than 1 cm2
Bear in mind that a small vegetation may be missed with

Vegetations or tumours transthoracic echocardiography. Transoesophageal
echocardiography is more reliable
Estimated pulmonary artery A pressure >35 mmHg suggests pulmonary hypertension. Note
pressure that this is an estimated pressure reading only
Pericardial effusion Present or absent
Other imaging modalities

Increasingly, computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI) of the heart are being performed in patients with suspected cardiac
disease. CT assessment of the coronary arteries, including an assessment of
calcification (calcium scoring), is likely to be used increasingly in the
noninvasive assessment of patients with chest pain. MRI of the heart can
provide detailed information on many aspects of cardiac structure and function.
Interpretation of such images is in the territory of a specialist cardiologist and
is certainly beyond the scope of this book. Thankfully the written reports from
such imaging investigations are usually self-explanatory.
Dynamic tests in cardiology
Dynamic heart testing is commonly used to investigate chest pain and known
ischaemic heart disease. In the resting state, a patient with significant coronary
artery atherosclerosis may have a normal ECG. However, when the heart is put
under stress by increasing its rate, its energy requirements increase. If
sufficient blood cannot be supplied to the myocardium under such
circumstances, the tissue becomes ischaemic and the ECG will change.
Features that would be in keeping with ischaemic heart disease include
horizontal or down-sloping ST segment depression or elevation, particularly if
these are associated with angina or a reduction in blood pressure.
Other dynamic tests are used to assess cardiac function in particular patient
groups. In patients who are unable to exercise, pharmacological agents (eg
dobutamine) can be administered to increase the heart rate and put the heart
under stress. Cardiac function can then be assessed by performing
echocardiography or by nuclear imaging techniques which look at the uptake of
isotopes by cardiac muscle. By so doing, areas of the heart that pump
defectively or have inadequate blood supply can be identified.
Cardiac biomarkers
Testing for the presence of the cardiac contractile protein troponin (type I or T)
is currently the test most commonly performed to assess for myocardial cell
damage. Troponin is normally involved in cardiac muscle cell contraction, and
is released systemically when cardiac muscle cells are damaged. Troponin
may be elevated after 2 hours, and can stay elevated for up to 7 days. Levels
are generally measured 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. A fairly recent
development in this area is in the use of ‘high-sensitivity’ troponin, which rises
more quickly than standard troponin. Unfortunately, elevated troponin levels
are not specific to myocardial infarction, and may be found in conditions such
as those listed in the box:
CAUSES OF RAISED TROPONIN

• Myocardial infarction
• Heart failure
• Myocarditis
• Pulmonary embolism
• Renal failure
• Severe sepsis
• Supraventricular tachycardia
Aside from troponin measurement, a range of enzymes rises in concentration

after heart damage. These vary in the time taken to peak and to be cleared from
the blood after a cardiac event. Differences in the tests are shown in the table
below.
TIME TO DURATION OF ELEVATED

TEST PEAK BLOOD LEVEL AFTER
(h) CARDIAC EVENT
Creatine kinase (CK) 24 48
AST 30 60
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 72 240
Creatine kinase is also released from damaged skeletal muscle. Its level will
therefore rise in several instances other than myocardial damage, such as
trauma, polymyositis/dermatomyositis (when muscle is inflamed) and
rhabdomyolysis (when muscle breaks down). To aid differentiation between
these conditions, isoenzymes (different types) of CK can be measured. The
isoenzyme released mainly from cardiac muscle is called CK-MB, and a high
level of this enzyme should raise suspicions of cardiac damage.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

In heart failure, heart chambers are stretched more than normal. In such
circumstances, substances are released that cause increased sodium excretion
(natriuresis) in an attempt to improve the situation for the failing heart. One
such substance is BNP. BNP, and its inactive cleavage fragment (N-terminal
pro-BNP), tend to be elevated in patients with heart failure to such an extent
that, if the level of these hormones is normal, then heart failure is an unlikely
diagnosis. The extremely low likelihood of heart failure in a patient who has
the combination of a normal ECG and a normal BNP or N-terminal pro-BNP
level makes this approach a very effective screening test for this condition.
Case 10.1
A 50-year-old manager presents to the accident and emergency department
complaining of chest pain. He is very worried that he may be having a heart
attack, since his brother had one last year. He has no other risk factors for
cardiac disease. On further questioning, he describes doing heavy work in his
garden on the previous day. Examination reveals an anxious man with
tenderness on either side of the sternum. An ECG is performed.
What is your interpretation?

Answer 10.1
Heart rate
There are 12 small squares between consecutive R waves. The ventricular rate
is therefore 1500 ÷ 12 = 125 beats/min.
Heart rhythm
A P wave precedes each QRS complex. The P–R interval is normal (four small
squares) and does not vary from beat to beat. The rhythm is sinus rhythm.
Cardiac axis
Leads I and II are upgoing. Lead III is downgoing. The axis is normal.
P waves
P waves are of normal size and shape.
QRS complexes
There are no abnormal Q waves. The R and S waves are of normal height. The
QRS complex is of normal duration (two small squares).
ST segment
The ST segment is horizontal and isoelectric.
Q–T interval
The Q–T interval is normal (1.5 large squares).
T waves
T waves are normal in size and shape.
Conclusion – sinus tachycardia. The most likely cause of this is anxiety. Sinus
tachycardia is the most common ECG finding in patients with a pulmonary
embolism, so this diagnosis should be considered. However, in this case,
history and examination point to the true cause of this man’s chest pain –
muscular strain.
Case 10.2
A 70-year-old woman with a history of a myocardial infarction presents with
palpitations that are of recent onset. Her ECG is shown.
How would you interpret it?

Answer 10.2
Heart rate
There are nine small squares between the first two consecutive R waves in
lead I. The ventricular rate is therefore 1500 ÷ 9 = 167 beats/min. However,
since the rhythm is clearly irregular, a more accurate assessment of heart rate
can be made by measuring the distance between the first and eleventh R waves
and dividing this distance by 10 to find the average R–R interval.
By this method, there are approximately 20.5 large squares between the first
and eleventh R waves. The average R–R interval is therefore 2.05 large
squares. The heart rate is 300 ÷ 2.05 = 146 beats/min.
Heart rhythm
No P waves are visible. The baseline is erratic. QRS complexes occur
irregularly. The rhythm is atrial fibrillation.
Cardiac axis
Leads I and II are upgoing. Lead III is downgoing. The axis is normal.
P waves
No P waves are visible.
QRS complexes
There are abnormal Q waves in leads III and aVF, indicating a previous
inferior myocardial infarction. The R and S waves are of normal height. The
ST segment
The ST segment is horizontal and isoelectric in leads II, III, aVR, aVF, V1, V2
and V3. There is slight downsloping ST depression in the other leads, most
marked in I and V6.
Q–T interval
The Q–T interval is normal (seven small squares).
T waves
T waves are normal in size. There is T-wave inversion in leads I, aVL, V5 and
V6.
Conclusion – atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 146 beats/min.
Inferior Q waves. There is downsloping ST elevation and T-wave inversion in
the leads looking at the lateral aspect of the heart. The patient may be on
digoxin, but the T-wave changes probably indicate ischaemia. This may be
related to the rapid heart rate, and may disappear if the rate is slowed. This
woman’s palpitations are due to a sudden onset of atrial fibrillation.
Case 10.3
A 74-year-old man is admitted complaining of dizziness. He has had several
myocardial infarctions in the past. Clinical examination reveals a pulse rate of
30 beats/min, and a blood pressure of 62/46 mmHg. An ECG is performed.
What does it show?

Answer 10.3
Heart rate
There are 10 big squares between consecutive R waves. The ventricular rate is
therefore 300 ÷ 10 = 30 beats/min.
Heart rhythm
P waves are seen, but these show no consistent relationship with the QRS
complexes. The P waves and QRS complexes are completely dissociated. The
rhythm is third-degree heart block.
Cardiac axis
Leads I, II and III are all upgoing. The axis is normal.
P waves
P waves are of normal size and shape. One P wave is difficult to see because it
is obscured by a simultaneous QRS complex.
QRS complexes
There are no abnormal Q waves. The QRS complexes are narrow (two small
squares). This indicates that the electrical signal to the ventricles is originating
in specialised conducting tissue. The R and S waves are of normal height.
ST segment
The ST segment is horizontal and isoelectric.
Q–T interval
The Q–T interval is prolonged (three large squares). The Bazett correction is
therefore required. Three large squares= 3 × 0.2 second = 0.6 second. The R–
R interval is 10 large squares = 10 × 0.2 second = 2 seconds. The Q–Tc is
therefore:
T waves
T waves are normal in size and shape.
Conclusion – third-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 30 beats/min.
This rhythm is resulting in symptomatic hypotension. Consideration should be
given to an emergency pacing procedure, followed by the placement of a
permanent pacemaker.
The patient eventually had a permanent pacemaker inserted. An ECG was
performed to check its function, and is shown below. Note the presence of
pacing spikes, which indicate that the pacemaker is discharging. When a
pacemaker stimulates the ventricles directly, the QRS complexes will be wide
and bizarre. It is impossible to interpret anything else from the ECG in such
circumstances, other than that an artificial pacemaker is present.
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Case 10.4
A 52-year-old male shop assistant presents as an emergency to his general
practitioner complaining of central chest pain. This has been present for 30
minutes. He is sweaty and short of breath, and complains of nausea. His risk
factors for ischaemic heart disease include smoking and hypertension.
His ECG is shown. How would you interpret it?

Answer 10.4
Heart rate
There are 4.2 big squares between consecutive R waves. The ventricular rate
is therefore 300 ÷ 4.2 = 71 beats/min.
Heart rhythm
A P wave precedes each QRS complex. The P–R interval is normal (four small
squares) and does not vary from beat to beat. The rhythm is sinus rhythm.
Cardiac axis
Lead I is upgoing. Lead III is downgoing. Lead II is neither upgoing nor
downgoing. The axis is approaching that of left axis deviation.
P waves
P waves are of normal size and shape.
QRS complexes
There are no abnormal Q waves. The R and S waves are of normal height. The
ST segment
The ST segment is elevated, in a convex shape, in leads I, aVL, V2, V3, V4
and V5. The ST segment is depressed and horizontal in leads II, III, aVR and
aVF. When ST depression accompanies ST elevation, it is known as reciprocal
ST depression.
Q–T interval
The Q–T interval is normal (1.5 large squares).
T waves
The T waves appear large, but are difficult to interpret on account of the ST
segment changes.
Conclusion – anterolateral ST elevation myocardial infarction or STEMI (ie
affecting the anterior and lateral surfaces of the heart). Reciprocal ST
depression in some of the limb leads.
Case 10.5
An 80-year-old female nursing home resident presents with acute confusion.
No other history is available. On examination, she is tachypnoeic, with oxygen
saturations of 83% on 85% oxygen. She is peripherally cyanosed. Blood
pressure is 74/32 mmHg. On auscultating her lungs, she has medium
inspiratory crepitations to her midzones.
Interpret the ECG

Answer 10.5
Heart rate
There are 11 small squares between the first two consecutive R waves in lead
I. The ventricular rate is therefore 1500 ÷ 11 = 136 beats/min. However, since
the rhythm is irregular, a more accurate assessment of heart rate can be made
by measuring the distance between the first and eleventh R waves and dividing
this distance by 10 to find the average R–R interval.
By this method, there are 24 large squares between the first and eleventh R
waves. The average R–R interval is therefore 2.4 large squares. The heart rate
is 300 ÷ 2.4 = 125 beats/min.
Heart rhythm
No P waves are visible. The baseline is erratic. QRS complexes occur
irregularly. The rhythm is atrial fibrillation.
Cardiac axis
Lead I is upgoing. Leads II and III are downgoing. There is left axis deviation.
P waves
No P waves are visible.
QRS complexes
The QRS complexes are abnormally wide. The complex in V1 has a ‘W’
shape, and that in V6 is ‘M’ shaped. This is left bundle-branch block.
ST segment
The ST segment is difficult to visualise.
Q–T interval
The Q–T interval is difficult to measure.
T waves
T waves appear grossly abnormal in size and shape.
Conclusion – atrial fibrillation at 125 beats/min with left bundle-branch block.
When this pattern is present, it is impossible to make any further comments
about an ECG (ie ST segment changes or T-wave abnormalities). Left bundle-
branch block that is of new onset would be in keeping with an acute
myocardial infarction. Old ECGs should be reviewed to determine whether
this ECG finding is new.
Case 10.6
You are called to a cardiac arrest. Nursing staff have attached ECG electrodes,
and the following rhythm is noted on the monitor. What is the rhythm?
Answer 10.6
It is entirely possible to approach the interpretation of this rhythm as with all
the ECGs above. However, for practical purposes, this rhythm should be
instantly recognised as ventricular fibrillation (VF) by its erratic nature, and
appropriate treatment given. This involves cardiac defibrillation.
After delivering three shocks, the rhythm on the monitor changes to that
shown below. A pulse is still not present. What is the rhythm now?
Again, this strip can be analysed in detail, but it should be instantly recognised
by its shape as ventricular tachycardia (VT). The ECG shows a tachycardia
with wide QRS complexes. This rhythm can be associated with a cardiac
output, so it would be imperative to check for the presence of a pulse. Cardiac
arrest associated with VT is treated with defibrillation.
Case 10.7
A 67-year-old woman is reviewed in the cardiology clinic 2 months after a
myocardial infarction. She complains of shortness of breath on walking 100
metres on the flat, which she did not have before her heart attack. On further
questioning, she reports having to sleep on five pillows to prevent shortness of
breath. An echocardiogram is requested.
How would you explain this woman’s symptoms?

Answer 10.7
The important points to take away from the echocardiographic report are as
follows:
Size of heart chambers (atria and ventricles) Normal
Ventricular septal thickness Normal
Severe left ventricular wall hypokinesis. Markedly
Left ventricular function
reduced left ventricular ejection fraction
Details about each valve Only a trace of aortic and mitral regurgitation
Vegetations or tumours None seen
Estimated pulmonary artery pressure Normal
Pericardial effusion None
This woman has symptoms (dyspnoea and orthopnoea) of left ventricular

failure. Her echocardiogram demonstrates the poor residual function of her left
ventricle following her myocardial infarction.
Case 10.8
You assess a patient after a short-lived episode of central chest pain. His
medical history includes chronic kidney disease, not requiring dialysis at
present. A 12-lead ECG is normal. Blood is sampled 12 hours after the onset
of pain.
Has the patient suffered a myocardial infarction?

Answer 10.8
It is difficult to be sure whether or not the patient has had a myocardial
infarction (MI) based on the information given. The chest pain was short-lived,
and the ECG normal which points away from MI. Although the troponin T
level is quite markedly raised over normal, there is an alternative explanation
for this other than MI, namely renal failure. A reasonable course of action in
this case would be to repeat an ECG and repeat the troponin T level after
several more hours. If the patient has really had an MI, one would expect the
ECG to change and/or the troponin level to change.
Case 10.9
You assess an elderly man who complains of shortness of breath on exertion.
He has fine crepitations on auscultation of both lung bases, and you suspect
cardiac failure as a possible diagnosis. On review of his blood tests, you note
that a colleague requested the following test 1 month ago.
Should you order an echocardiogram?

Answer 10.9
The finding of a normal N-terminal pro-BNP level in this man makes the
diagnosis of cardiac failure extremely unlikely. Another cause for his
breathlessness and crepitations should be found. A chest X-ray would seem
like a useful first test.
Case 10.10
A 55-year-old man who smokes and has a strong family history of coronary
heart disease presents 14 h after a 30-min episode of central crushing chest
pain. He was afraid to come to hospital at the time. He is currently pain free,
and his ECG was normal. The A&E officer requests the following test:
Where should this patient be managed?

Answer 10.10
This patient has a significantly elevated troponin I indicating a significant

amount of cardiac damage. The clinical information is consistent with
myocardial infarction. The patient is at significant risk of cardiac arrhythmias
and should be managed in a coronary care unit.
PATHOLOGY
This chapter lists typical pathological findings for a range of disease states. It
is not by any means comprehensive, but includes most of the classic
abnormalities that are commonly tested in general medical examinations.
Further reading will be required when preparing for pathology examinations.
DISEASE TYPICAL PATHOLOGICAL CHANGES
Gastroenterology
Lower oesophageal epithelium undergoes metaplasia to become

Barrett’s oesophagus
gastric or intestinal-type epithelium
Total or subtotal villous atrophy in the small bowel Crypt hyperplasia

Coeliac disease
with inflammatory cells in the mucosa
Can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract Macroscopically: skip

lesions (ie lengths of normal bowel between diseased segments);
Crohn’s disease
cobblestone appearance with fissured ulcers Microscopically:
thickened wall with transmural inflammation; granulomas
Affects large bowel only

Ulcerative colitis Affects mucosa and submucosa only
Crypt abscesses and superficial ulcers
Chronic cholecystitis Chronic inflammatory changes Rokitansky–Aschoff sinuses
Hepatology
Acute viral hepatitis Swelling of hepatocytes with spotty necrosis Councilman bodies
Fatty accumulation in cytoplasmic vacuoles, necrosis, Mallory hyaline

Alcoholic hepatitis
material
Chronic active hepatitis Piecemeal necrosis
Autoimmune hepatitis Interface hepatitis, portal plasma cell infiltration

Haemochromatosis Excessive hepatic iron
(shows up blue on Perl’s stain)
Portal hepatitis and granulomatous destruction of bile ducts. Later,

Primary biliary cirrhosis
periportal hepatitis and bile duct proliferation
Macroscopically: macronodular or micronodular Microscopically:

Liver cirrhosis
fibrous tissue (shows up red on von Gieson stain)
Respiratory
Diffuse alveolar damage

(DAD) which can lead to
Alveolar hyaline membranes and thickened alveolar walls
adult respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS)
Previous asbestos exposure Asbestos bodies in lung
Proliferation of type II pneumocytes with thickening of the alveolar

Pulmonary fibrosis
walls
Nephrology
Malignant hypertension Renal arteriole fibrinoid necrosis
Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules, thickened capillary basement membranes

Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
with hyalinisation of arterioles
Haematology
Reed–Sternberg cells
Hodgkin’s disease Abnormal lymph node architecture
Nodular sclerosing type has fibrous tissue
Myelofibrosis Bone marrow fibrosis secondary to fibroblast proliferation
Multiple myeloma Plasma cell proliferation in bone marrow
Rheumatology
Temporal artery biopsy may be normal Alternatively, plasma cells,

Temporal arteritis
lymphocytes and multinucleate giant cells can be present
Polymyositis Muscle fibre necrosis Lymphocyte infiltration
Endocrinology
Acromegaly is associated with acidophil macroadenomas (somatotroph
adenomas) Hyperprolactinaemia is associated with chromophobe
Pituitary tumours adenomas ACTH excess is associated with basophil microadenomas
(corticotroph adenomas)
Neurology
Macroscopically: thinning of gyri

Alzheimer’s disease
Microscopically: neurofibrillary tangles; plaques
Parkinson’s disease and

Lewy bodies (inclusions inside neurons)
dementia with Lewy bodies
Obstetrics and gynaecology
Ovarian endometriosis Macroscopically: chocolate cyst

GENETICS
Family trees
In clinical practice, family trees are often recorded when there is a suspicion
that a disease may have a familial element.
To the untrained eye, interpretation of family trees can seem like a daunting
process, and many students resort to guessing what the inheritance pattern
might be. However, if a few simple rules are borne in mind, interpretation can
be made fairly simple. Being able to work out the expected inheritance patterns
for the common mendelian disorders from first principles is a good way to
check that your answer is correct.
Work through the various inheritance patterns for the common mendelian
disorders below, and attempt to reproduce the information for yourself. This
will be much easier to remember than if you simply learn off a list of rules.
The two main classes of conditions that are inherited in a mendelian manner
are:
• autosomal conditions (affecting the autosomes, ie chromosomes 1 to 22)
sex chromosomal conditions (affecting the sex chromosomes, ie X and
•
Y).
Genotype refers to the genetic code.

Phenotype refers to the actual manifestation of the genetic code.
Autosomal conditions
Autosomal dominant inheritance
There are usually two copies of each chromosome in each cell, each carrying
copies of the same genes. In autosomal dominant conditions, inheritance of one
faulty gene is sufficient to give rise to the disorder. Thus one chromosome in
the pair will be normal; the other will carry the faulty gene.
In the following diagram, the letter ‘a’ is used to denote a normal chromosome.
The capital letter ‘A’ represents a chromosome with an abnormal gene. Thus an
individual with two ‘a’ chromosomes will be normal. Someone with one ‘a’
chromosome and one ‘a’ chromosome will have the disorder, since only one
faulty gene is needed for the condition to be manifest. If both parents are
affected, it would also be possible for offspring to have two ‘a’ chromosomes.
Since 50% of the offspring’s genetic code comes from one parent and 50%
from the other, there is a 50% chance that either chromosome will be passed
on.
In the example, the father has an autosomal dominant condition, and therefore
has one normal chromosome (a) and one abnormal chromosome (A). The
mother has two normal chromosomes. There are four possible ways that the
genes can be passed on to the offspring (aa, aa, Aa and Aa).
Thus for autosomal dominant conditions:
• both males and females can be affected
if one parent is affected, there will be a 50% chance that a child will
•
also be affected.
Autosomal recessive inheritance

For an autosomal recessive disorder to be manifest, both chromosomes in a
pair must carry the abnormal gene. One abnormal gene must therefore be
passed on from each parent.
If a person has one normal and one abnormal chromosome, he or she is a
termed ‘a carrier’ and does not exhibit any features of the disorder, and
therefore will appear normal (ie normal phenotype).
The inheritance pattern for one carrier parent and one normal parent will be as
follows (remember ‘a’ is the normal chromosome, and ‘A’ the abnormal).
For autosomal recessive conditions with one carrier parent:

• both male and female offspring can be carriers
• 50% of the offspring will be carriers.
The inheritance pattern for two carrier parents will be as follows.
For autosomal recessive conditions with two carrier parents:

• both male and female offspring can be carriers or be affected
• 50% of the offspring will be carriers
• 25% of the offspring will be normal (ie not carriers)
• 25% of the offspring will have the condition.
The inheritance pattern for one affected parent will be as follows.

For autosomal recessive conditions with an affected parent:
• both male and female offspring can be carriers
• all offspring will be carriers.
Sex chromosomal conditions

X-linked recessive inheritance
X-linked disorders involve faulty genes found on the X chromosome. Since
females have two X chromosomes, having one faulty chromosome is of minor
consequence with a recessive disorder, because the other X chromosome is
normal. Males, however, have only one X (but also one Y) chromosome. A
faulty X chromosome in a male will therefore result in phenotypical effects.
If a female has one abnormal X chromosome, they are termed ‘a carrier’ and
generally do not exhibit any features of the disorder. Occasionally mild signs
of disease may be present.
The inheritance pattern for a carrier mother and a normal father will be as
follows (X = normal chromosome, X = abnormal chromosome):
For X-linked recessive disorders with a carrier mother:

• only males can be affected
• 50% of male offspring will have the disorder
• 50% of female offspring will be carriers
• 50% of all offspring will be normal.
The inheritance pattern for an affected father and a normal mother will be as
follows:
For X-linked recessive disorders with an affected father:
• no offspring will be affected
• all daughters will be carriers
• all sons will be normal.
X-linked dominant inheritance

In these disorders, only one faulty X chromosome is necessary for the disease
to be manifest. Thus, diseases can occur in both male and females.
The inheritance pattern for an affected mother and a normal father will be as
follows:
For X-linked dominant disorders with an affected mother:

• 50% of male offspring will have the disorder
• 50% of female offspring will have the disorder.
The inheritance pattern for an affected father and a normal mother will be as
follows:
For X-linked dominant disorders with an affected father:
• only female offspring can be affected
• all daughters will have the disorder
• all sons will be normal.
Other modes of inheritance

Mitochondrial inheritance
Mitochondria are cellular organelles that have a major role in energy
production. They have their own DNA, which may undergo mutations.
Diseases caused by mitochondrial genetic problems have an interesting
inheritance pattern resulting from the fact that female ova all contain
mitochondria; however, male sperm do not. Therefore, mitochondrial
disorders can be passed on only by females. To summarise:
• affected females can pass on the disorder to all offspring
• affected males cannot pass on the disorder.
Genetic imprinting
This phenomenon relates to the fact that certain genes are expressed only if
inherited from a particular parent. This can best be explained by looking at two
conditions – Prader–Willi and Angelman syndromes. For Prader–Willi
syndrome, only the paternal gene is important. Failure to inherit the paternal
copy will therefore result in the syndrome. Angelman syndrome results from
failure to inherit the maternal gene. The disorders may result from gene
deletion mutations, where the gene from a particular parent is deleted.
Alternatively, they may arise when two chromosomes are inherited from one
parent rather than one from each. This is known as uniparental disomy.
MEMORY AID
In Prader–Willi syndrome – the Paternal gene is inactive
In Angelman syndrome – the Maternal gene is inactive
Other points
Variable expression relates to the fact that a person may carry the necessary
genetic make-up for a condition, but not exhibit all the phenotypical features.
At the extreme of this is ‘non-penetrance’ where the person has no features of
the condition.
Genetic disorders may appear to arise out of the blue, with no family members
being affected. This is most commonly due to a new genetic mutation, but can
also result from gonadal mosaicism where a parent carries the mutated genes
only in the germ cells.
Family tree interpretation

When faced with a family tree, and asked to comment on inheritance patterns,
the flow diagram below should be helpful.
Examples of genetic conditions with different
inheritance patterns
Those most commonly tested in undergraduate examinations are highlighted in
bold in the following table.
MODE OF INHERITANCE EXAMPLES
Achondroplasia
Adult polycystic kidney disease
Dystrophia myotonica
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
Familial adenomatous polyposis
Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Autosomal dominant
Huntington disease
Marfan syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Noonan syndrome
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Otosclerosis
Tuberous sclerosis
Albinism
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Cystic fibrosis
Friedreich ataxia
Galactosaemia
Glycogen storage diseases
Hereditary haemochromatosis
Autosomal recessive
Hurler syndrome
Oculocutaneous albinism
Phenylketonuria
Sickle cell disease
Tay–Sachs disease
Thalassaemia
Wilson’s disease
X-linked dominant Vitamin D-resistant rickets
Alport syndrome
Becker muscular dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Fragile X syndrome
X-linked recessive
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Haemophilia A
Haemophilia B
Hunter syndrome
Mitochondrial Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

Karyotype analysis
The following table lists the common chromosomal abnormalities that you
would be expected to recognise.
CHROMOSOMAL
CONDITION
ABNORMALITY
Trisomy 21 Down syndrome
Trisomy 18 Edward syndrome
Trisomy 12 Patau syndrome
45, XO Turner syndrome
47, XXY Klinefelter syndrome
47, XXX Triple X syndrome
47, XXY Associated with behavioural problems
5p– Cri-du-chat syndrome
Microdeletion at 22q11 DiGeorge syndrome
Microdeletion at 7q11 Williams syndrome
Common mutations
DISEASE COMMON MUTATION

ΔF508 mutation on long arm of chromosome 7. This codes for the cystic
Cystic fibrosis
fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator
C282Y mutation on the HFE gene on the short arm of chromosome 6. The
Haemochromatosis
H63D mutation can also be found
Case 12.1
What is the inheritance pattern in the following family tree?
Answer 12.1
• Both males and females are affected
• Male-to-male inheritance is possible
• One of the parents of all affected cases is also affected.
If one parent is affected, there appears to be approximately a 50%
•
chance that a child will also be affected.
The inheritance pattern is therefore autosomal dominant.

Case 12.2
Some members of the following family suffer from a rare bone disease. What
is the inheritance pattern? unaffected male
Answer 12.2
• There are no instances of male-to-male transmission
Male-to-female transmission is possible, with all daughters of an
•
affected male having the condition.
The likely diagnosis is vitamin D-resistant rickets, with the inheritance pattern
being X-linked dominant.
Case 12.3
Some family members have a rare genetic disorder. This is their family tree.
What is the likely inheritance pattern?
Answer 12.3
• Male-to-male and male-to-female transmission do not occur
• Affected females pass the condition on to all offspring.
The inheritance pattern is mitochondrial.

RESPIRATORY MEDICINE
Arterial blood gas analysis
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis provides a wealth of information about a
patient’s state of health. The test is most commonly used in acute illness but
may also be used in the assessment of patients with chronic respiratory
disease. In acute situations, multiple analyses are often made to assess
response to treatment. Trends are usually more helpful than one-off readings.
Never forget to consult old medical records if possible, since the patient’s
baseline may be well outside ‘normal’ limits.
Interpretation of four key indices – pH, partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2),
partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) and bicarbonate (HCO3–) – will
provide most of the information needed in clinical practice. A fifth index, base
excess (BE), can also be used, but will not be discussed here in detail.
Sophisticated blood gas analysers will provide other useful information such
as blood levels of lactate and methaemoglobin.
NORMAL RANGES (BREATHING ROOM AIR AT SEA LEVEL)
pH 7.35–7.45
PaO2 11–13 kPa
PaCO2 4.7–6.0 kPa
HCO3– 24–30 mmol/l
Base excess –2 to +2 mmol/l
Anion gap 12–16 mmol/l
Of all the normal ranges for values listed in this book, it is recommended that
all students learn the normal values in an ABG sample. This is for two
reasons:
1. ABGs are commonly tested, so knowing the normal values will help you
as an undergraduate.
More importantly, in real medical practice, ABGs are often encountered
2. in stressful situations involving critically unwell patients. Knowing
normal values can speed up analysis and reduce stress.
Oxygen levels in the air fall with increasing altitude. Bear this in mind if you
are interpreting ABGs taken at any significant height above sea level. For the
purposes of simplicity, for the remainder of this chapter, it will be assumed
that samples have been taken at sea level.
Systematic interpretation of an ABG

The two main steps involved are to assess oxygenation, then acid–base status.
Assess oxygenation
You will note that the normal range for PaO2 given in the box above was 11–
13 kPa. This value holds true for a patient breathing room air that contains
21% oxygen. It is crucial to appreciate that a patient with normal lungs will
have a much higher PaO2 if their inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2) is
increased. The physiology behind this is summarised in the alveolar gas
equation, which will be dealt with shortly.
Unless you are someone who particularly enjoys equations, a useful rule of
thumb is that, for a healthy person at sea level, the expected PaO2 (kPa) is
roughly 10 less than the FiO2 (%). This will not compute exactly, but will
highlight patients with serious problems. Exact expected values are shown in
the table below. Thus, if a patient is receiving 85% oxygen and the PaO2 is 11
kPa, there is a serious problem.
INSPIRED OXYGEN RULE OF THUMB EXPECTED PaO2

CONCENTRATION METHOD FOR WITH HEALTHY
(%) ESTIMATING PaO2 LUNGS (kPa)
28 18 21
35 25 27
40 30 32
60 50 51
85 75 75
100 90 89
MEMORY AID
As a rule of thumb, the expected PaO2 (kPa) is roughly 10 less than the FiO2 (%).
It is therefore impossible to interpret the PaO2 without knowing the FiO2. If the
PaO2 is lower than expected, this implies that a disease process in the lungs is
interfering with gas exchange. This can occur with a variety of conditions,
from pulmonary fibrosis to pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia to pulmonary
oedema, to name but a few.
DON’T FORGET
Always interpret the PaO2 with the FiO2 in mind.
The first step in interpreting an ABG sample is to assess oxygenation. So, with
the above in mind, decide whether oxygenation is normal or abnormal.
The label of ‘respiratory failure’ is used when the PaO2 is less than 8 kPa. It is
divided into two types depending on the PaCO2, as follows:
RESPIRATORY PaO2 (kPa) PaCO2 (kPa)

FAILURE TYPE
Type 1 <8 <6.5
Type 2 <8 >6.5
MEMORY AID
In type ONE respiratory failure, ONE gas is abnormal (ie low O2, without high CO2). In type
TWO respiratory failure, TWO gases are abnormal (low O2 and high CO2).
COMMON CAUSES OF RESPIRATORY FAILURE

TYPE 1 TYPE 2
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Pulmonary oedema (COPD)
Pneumonia Respiratory centre depression
Pulmonary embolism Respiratory muscle weakness
Pulmonary fibrosis Abnormal chest wall architecture
THE ALVEOLAR GAS EQUATION AND THE ALVEOLAR–

ARTERIAL GRADIENT
The assessment of oxygenation described above will suffice in most situations. It is possible to be more
precise, however, so, if you are particularly interested in this subject, there are two further equations
that are of interest.
The alveolar gas equation

This equation allows the calculation of the expected oxygen level in the alveoli
of an individual (PAO2). It is rarely used in clinical practice:
where Patm = atmospheric pressure, PH2O= saturated vapour pressure of water

at that particular temperature and pressure, and RQ = respiratory quotient (a
ratio of CO2 eliminated to O2 consumed).
So, for example, for someone breathing 21% oxygen at sea level with PaCO2
of 5 kPa:
The alveolar–arterial gradient

This equation allows the calculation of the difference in oxygen concentration
between alveoli and the arterial system:
So for example, for someone breathing 40% oxygen at sea level with PaO2 12
kPa and PaCO2 5 kPa:
There is no established normal range for A–a gradient. It has been defined in
the following ways:
No more than 2.66 kPa. This is a simplistic approach, however, as the
•
A–a gradient normally increases with age.
• No more than
• Or compare the value with ‘normal’ age-based values in the literature.
Stein PD et al. (1995) Alveolar–arterial oxygen gradient in the assessment of acute pulmonary embolism.
Chest 107:139–43.
Assess acid–base status

This has five main components.
Look at the pH
Is it:
• normal (7.35–7.45)?
• low (<7.35) indicating acidosis?
• high (>7.45) indicating alkalosis?
Small deviations from normal are extremely relevant. Abnormalities of pH can

be due to a problem with either respiration (respiratory acidosis or alkalosis)
or metabolism (metabolic acidosis or alkalosis). The body’s homeostatic
mechanisms will attempt to correct pH problems, so evidence of compensation
might be seen. In general, for respiratory problems, metabolic compensation
occurs but this can take some time. For metabolic problems, respiratory
compensation occurs, which can happen quickly.
Once you have identified a problem, next try to decide on the cause by
proceeding with the next stages.
Look at the PaCO2

Is it normal, low or high?
Carbon dioxide is an acidic gas (remember that carbon dioxide plus water →
carbonic acid), so:
If the pH is acid and the CO2 is high, the problem is a respiratory
•
acidosis (excess acidic CO2).
If the pH is alkaline and the CO2 is low, the problem is a respiratory
•
alkalosis (lack of acidic CO2).
Look at the HCO3−
Is it normal, low or high?
Bicarbonate is an alkaline substance (remember that some people take sodium
bicarbonate to combat stomach acid), so:
If the pH is acid and the bicarbonate is low, the problem is a metabolic
•
acidosis (lack of alkaline bicarbonate).
If the pH is alkaline and the bicarbonate is high, the problem is a
•
metabolic alkalosis (excess alkaline bicarbonate).
DON’T FORGET
In some circumstances, patients can have more than one abnormality, eg a combined respiratory
and metabolic acidosis.
Look for compensation

As mentioned above, the body will attempt to compensate for a pH
abnormality. Respiratory compensation happens faster than metabolic
compensation. The body will never overcompensate. The following patterns
are commonly seen:
In an acute metabolic acidosis, the body responds by getting rid of extra
• CO2, thus losing acid and shifting the pH towards normality.
In a chronic respiratory acidosis, the body responds by holding onto
• extra bicarbonate, thus retaining alkalinity and shifting the pH towards
normality.
Fig 13.1: Interpretation of common arterial blood gas abnormalities

Try to determine the cause
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory acidosis can be due to any of the causes of respiratory failure.
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis is always due to hyperventilation. Be wary of attributing
hyperventilation exclusively to anxiety, however, since it may occur secondary
to an underlying severe disease process, such as sepsis or stroke.
Metabolic acidosis
There are a wide range of causes for a metabolic acidosis. To narrow down
this list, and help you come to a diagnosis, it is helpful to calculate the anion
gap. If this is high (>16 mmol/l), the acidosis is due to the presence of excess
acids in the body that are not routinely analysed in the laboratory. The anion
gap is calculated as follows:
Anion gap = (Na+ + K+) – (cl– + HcO3–)
A patient with the following biochemical findings – Na+ 136 mmol/l, K+ 3.5
mmol/l, cl– 100 mmol/l, HcO3– 24 mmol/l – would therefore have an anion
gap of 15.5 mmol/l.
DON’T FORGET
Always calculate the anion gap in a patient with a metabolic acidosis.
COMMON CAUSES OF A METABOLIC ACIDOSIS
NORMAL ANION GAP RAISED ANION GAP

Ketoacidosis
Renal failure
HCO3– loss from gut, eg diarrhoea Lactic acidosis
Renal tubular acidosis Salicylate toxicity
Methanol ingestion
Ethylene glycol (antifreeze) ingestion
Metabolic alkalosis
There are several causes of metabolic alkalosis (see box below). Most
commonly, it is seen in patients with excessive vomiting.
COMMON CAUSES OF A METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

Losses from the gut, particularly vomiting (classically pyloric stenosis) Primary or secondary
hyperaldosteronism
Hypercalcaemia
Use of diuretics
Bicarbonate ingestion
Pulmonary function tests
Peak expiratory flow rate

Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a simple bedside test that gives a useful
insight into the respiratory function of a patient. The PEFR is measured in
litres per minute using a basic plastic device. An average recording of three
attempts is documented on a peak flow chart. The trend in PEFR and its
relationship to symptoms are a guide to the severity of illness and the
effectiveness of treatment.
Some patients with asthma will keep records of their PEFR. For comparative
purposes recordings should be taken at the same time each day. This will
eliminate changes due to normal diurnal variation. There is a normal variation
in PEFR in people with asthma, with a typical dip first thing in the morning.
It is important to appreciate when interpreting values that the normal PEFR
varies with age, height and sex.
NORMAL PEFR
PATIENT HEIGHT (cm)
(l/min)
25-year-old man 175 630
25-year-old woman 175 505
60-year-old man 160 545
60-year-old woman 160 445
DON’T FORGET
PEFR varies with age, sex and height.
Spirometry
Spirometry provides a wealth of information about lung volumes and function.
Spirometry reports can appear confusing. However, by looking at four indices,
most of the important patterns of lung disease can be distinguished.
KEY RESULTS IN SPIROMETRY
INDEX ABBREVIATION INTERPRETATION

Forced expiratory FEV1 The volume of air that can be expired in 1 second
volume in 1 second
Forced vital capacity FVC The volume of air expired in a complete expiration
Ratio of FEV1 to FVC FEV1/FVC _
Carbon monoxide A measure of the rate of diffusion of carbon

Kco
transfer coefficient monoxide from the alveoli into the capillary blood
Values obtained by spirometry should always be compared with age- and sex-
matched control values. Often results are converted into percentages of the
predicted value in order to simplify interpretation.
Arguably the most useful index is the FEV1/FVC. This test can be used to
distinguish between obstructive airway disease (eg asthma, COPD) and
restrictive lung disease (eg pulmonary fibrosis). In an obstructive defect, the
FEV1/FVC will be less than 70%. The percentage is greater than 80% with a
restrictive defect.
COMMON PATTERNS OF FEV1/FVC

<70% in obstructive airway disease
>80% in restrictive lung disease
The theory underlying these patterns is easily understood. In a patient with
obstructive airway disease, airway obstruction makes expiration slow (and
usually wheezy). The FEV1 is therefore typically low, since only a small
volume of air can be expired in 1 second. These patients also ‘trap air’ so the
FVC will usually be high. A low FEV1 and a high FVC combine to give a low
FEV1/FVC. In other words, the volume of air in the lungs is normal or high, but
it is not easily forced out.
In restrictive lung disease, on the other hand, there is no airway obstruction.
The FEV1 is therefore typically higher than with an obstructive defect
(although it is still usually reduced compared with normal). Small lung
volumes contribute to a low FVC. A relatively high FEV1 and a low FVC
combine to give a high FEV1/FVC. Put simply, the patient can force air out of
their lungs, but as the lung volume is reduced there is less of it to force out.
The three main patterns of lung function (normal, obstructive and restrictive)
are shown pictorially on Fig 13.2.
Fig 13.2
The Kco measures the ease of diffusion of carbon monoxide from alveolar air
to capillary blood. Anything that hinders gas transfer from alveolus into blood
will therefore result in a low Kco. Common causes of low Kco are shown in
the box below.
CAUSES OF A LOW Kco

Interstitial lung disease
Emphysema
Pulmonary oedema
Pulmonary embolism
Anaemia
In rare cases, the Kco can be raised. In such circumstances, gas transfers more
easily than normal from alveolus into blood. Examples include polycythaemia
(see Chapter 1) or in cases of pulmonary haemorrhage (eg Goodpasture
syndrome).
Note that anaemia is the classic case where a patient will have a low Kco with
normal spirometry. The Kco is low because there is less haemoglobin present
to carry gas away from the alveoli.
Case 13.1
The blood gas below was taken following admission of an elderly patient to
the acute medical unit. He was breathing room air.
1. Outline the abnormalities on this ABG.

2. What are the likely causes for these abnormalities?
Answer 13.1
Oxygenation is abnormal, ie the PaO2 is lower than normal for a patient

1.
breathing room air.
The pH is high, indicating an alkalosis. The PaCO2 is normal, and the
HCO3– is high. Using the flow diagram on page 427, you can work out
that this represents an uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
Poor oxygenation could reflect any disease process affecting the lungs.
Common causes would be pulmonary oedema or pneumonia. The causes
2.
of a metabolic alkalosis are listed in the box on page 428. The patient in
this case had a lower respiratory tract infection and vomiting.
Case 13.2
A 68-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history was admitted short of
breath and with a cough productive of green sputum. On examination he was
tachypnoeic and using his accessory muscles of respiration. Auscultation of his
chest revealed widespread expiratory wheeze with bibasal coarse
crepitations. He was placed on 28% oxygen and his initial ABG is shown
below.

What type of assisted ventilation could be considered in the
3.
management of this condition?
Answer 13.2
Oxygenation is abnormal. The patient has type 2 respiratory failure, with

low PaO2 and high PaCO2.
The pH is low, indicating an acidosis. The PaCO2 is high, as is the
1.
HCO3–. Using the flow chart you can see that this pattern could represent
either respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation, or a
predominant respiratory acidosis with a coexistent metabolic alkalosis.
The most likely diagnosis is an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). This would be in keeping with the clinical
findings. The acid–base disturbance would therefore represent respiratory
acidosis with metabolic compensation. Note that the compensation is only
partial, since the patient remains acidotic. An acute exacerbation of
COPD is the most common cause of a respiratory acidosis with a raised
2. HCO3–.
Many patients with COPD have high resting CO2 levels, causing a
respiratory acidosis. However, with time, the kidneys compensate for this
acidosis by retaining HCO3–. Thus, in the ‘normal’ state, many patients
with COPD have a normal pH, with a raised PaCO2 and a raised HCO3–,
such as that shown in the ABG below:
During an acute exacerbation, however, the PaCO2 levels increase, giving rise
to a respiratory acidosis.
Patients may often benefit from non-invasive ventilation (NIV) using

3. bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP). If deterioration occurs,
intubation and ventilation may be required.
Case 13.3
An anxious 27-year-old student was admitted with shortness of breath and
tingling in her hands. On examination, she had a respiratory rate of 28 breaths
per minute. Chest examination was unremarkable. Chest X-ray and routine
blood tests were normal. An ECG showed sinus tachycardia. An ABG was
taken on 35% oxygen.

2. What is the likely cause?
3. How might one treat this woman?
Answer 13.3
Oxygenation is normal given that the FiO2 is 35%.

The pH is high indicating an alkalosis. The PaCO2 and HCO3– are both
1. low. Using the flow chart, you can see that this pattern could be due to
either a respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation or a
predominant respiratory alkalosis with coexistent metabolic acidosis.
The likely cause for this ABG given the clinical history is
hyperventilation. Thus the acid–base disturbance is a respiratory
alkalosis with metabolic compensation. One of the most common causes
2. is anxiety, but it may occur as a result of organic pathology such as a
stroke or subarachnoid haemorrhage affecting the respiratory centre.
A full history and examination would be essential to help rule out a
serious cause of this acid–base disturbance.
Reassurance would be a key aspect of treatment in the case of anxiety. Re-
3. breathing one’s own exhaled air, using a paper bag, may also be
beneficial.
Case 13.4
A 32-year-old French tourist is brought to A&E feeling generally unwell. No
history is available. He appears dehydrated and has a respiratory rate of 22
breaths per minute. The following ABG and biochemical profile are taken on
admission, breathing room air.
1. Outline the abnormalities seen.

2. What tests should you request?
Which drugs or substances taken in overdose could give a similar
3.
pattern?
Answer 13.4
Oxygenation is normal.
The pH is low indicating an acidosis. The PaCO2 and HCO3– are both
low. Using the flow chart you can see that this indicates either a metabolic
1. acidosis with respiratory compensation or a predominant metabolic
acidosis with coexistent respiratory alkalosis.
Remember to calculate the anion gap with any case of metabolic acidosis.
In this case the anion gap is calculated as follows: (131 + 4.5) – (96.1 +
12.6) = 26.8. Thus this is a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Bearing in mind the causes of a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis
2. shown in the box on page 428, the following tests would be helpful:
urinalysis for ketones, plasma lactate levels and salicylate levels.
This pattern can be seen when salicylates (eg aspirin), methanol or
3.
ethylene glycol is taken in excess.
Case 13.5
A 57-year-old man is medically retired from his former job in the local
shipyard. For the past 6 years his health has deteriorated with an exercise
tolerance now reduced to 10 metres on the flat. He is a life-long non-smoker. A
recent high-resolution CT (HRCT) scan of the chest demonstrated diffuse
bibasal interstitial changes. His ABG was taken on room air without any
intercurrent illness.
1. Outline the abnormalities seen.

2. What are the likely causes for an ABG such as this?
3. What long-term therapy might be considered?
Answer 13.5
Oxygenation is abnormal. The patient has type 1 respiratory failure, with

1. a low PaO and normal PaCO .
2 2
The pH is normal, as is the HCO3–.

This man’s clinical history when taken in conjunction with his clinical
signs and ABG is highly suggestive of pulmonary fibrosis. The fact that he
worked in a shipyard may suggest exposure to asbestos, which is a
2.
potential cause of pulmonary fibrosis – especially at the lung bases as the
CT scan suggests. Other causes for type 1 respiratory failure are listed in
the box on page 423.
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) could be considered. However, there
3.
are strict guidelines that must be met before LTOT is commenced.
Case 13.6
The following chart plots changes in PEFR of a patient with asthma during her
hospital stay.
How would you interpret this chart?

Answer 13.6
In this bedside chart, the patient’s known baseline PEFR of 410 l/min has been
documented. Using the patient details at the top of the chart, one can look up
the predicted PEFR, which is 505 l/min. Thus, even when at ‘her best’ she has
a reduction in expiratory flow compared with a ‘normal’ adult of the same
build. At the time of admission her PEFR is only 200 l/min – less than half of
her baseline. Over the course of the next 2 days there is little change in her
PEFR. Her condition has stabilised. Days 4 and 5 of her stay show a
significant and sustained increase in her readings. A steady rise to 340 l/min is
seen. Either there has been a natural resolution of her asthma attack or the
instigation of effective treatment has caused this change.
Case 13.7
A 70-year-old man with a long history of rheumatoid disease is reviewed at
clinic. He complains that he is unable to make it to the newsagents any longer
without having to stop to catch his breath. He has no history of chest or
cardiovascular disease. He has no other symptoms. On examination, fine end-
inspiratory crepitations are heard at both lung bases. Spirometry is requested.
1. Outline the abnormal findings in the results above.

2. What is the most likely cause for these abnormalities in this patient?
3. What imaging test would be most useful here?
Answer 13.7
This man has a restrictive defect on spirometry as shown by the raised

1. FEV /FVC.
1
The most likely cause would be pulmonary fibrosis, either secondary to

2. his rheumatoid disease or as a side effect of its treatment with
methotrexate.
An HRCT scan of the chest would best aid diagnosis and management.
3.
This would identify any pulmonary changes associated with fibrosis.
Case 13.8
A 68-year-old man who has been a life-long smoker is admitted with a lower
respiratory tract infection. He was noted to be wheezy at the time of admission
to hospital, and was treated with antibiotics and nebulised bronchodilators.
His inflammatory markers settled, but he remained wheezy. Pulmonary function
tests were performed 3 weeks later after resolution of his acute illness.

2. What is the most likely cause for these abnormalities in this patient?
Answer 13.8
This patient’s spirometry shows an obstructive pattern. His Kco is low,

1. indicating that something is interfering with gas transfer in the lungs. In
this case, it is a reflection of his airway disease.
Given that this patient is a life-long smoker, it is likely that he has COPD.
2. Consideration should be given to optimising inhaled bronchodilator
therapy before discharge.
Case 13.9
A 64-year-old woman is admitted from A&E complaining of increasing
shortness of breath. This has been increasing over a period of 2 months. There
is little of note on examination. The admitting doctor arranges for pulmonary
function tests to assess her symptom.

2. What blood test would you order?
Case 13.10
A 36-year-old woman has been attending the respiratory outpatient department
for 5 years because of sarcoidosis. Her disease has been well controlled
recently, and her dose of oral steroids has been gradually reduced over a
period of several months. On her most recent visit, she complains of increasing
shortness of breath over the preceding 3 weeks. Her pulmonary function tests
are shown alongside a set taken when she was feeling well.
What parameter has changed significantly between the two sets of
readings, and how would you account for this?
Answer 13.9
FEV1 and FVC are considered normal unless they are less than 80% of the
1. predicted value. Spirometry is essentially normal in this example. The
only abnormality shown is a low Kco.
A classic cause of reduced Kco with normal spirometry is anaemia. This
2.
patient should have a full blood picture analysed as a first-line measure.
Answer 13.10
The FEV1 and FVC remain fairly similar between both sets of readings,
indicating a restrictive lung defect. The major deterioration lies with the Kco,
which has taken a marked turn for the worse. This is most likely due to a
deterioration in the underlying disease process because of the reducing dose of
steroids. Consideration should be given to increasing the steroid dose.
INTERPRETING BEDSIDE
CHART DATA
The most easily measured and readily available data on a patient lie at the
bedside on a series of observation charts. Nursing staff dutifully complete a
number of observations on a regular basis. The nature of these and the
frequency at which they are taken vary, depending on the clinical status of the
patient. Analysis and interpretation of bedside chart data are an extension of
the clinical assessment of a patient, and may provide the first evidence of a
downward trend in clinical condition. The best way to learn from bedside
charts is to pick them up and try to interpret them during your clinical
attachments.
DON’T FORGET
Data interpretation begins at the end of the bed.
Vital signs
The so-called ‘vital signs’ represent the basic set of observations that are
recorded regularly for all patients and include the parameters listed in the box
below.
BASIC OBSERVATIONS MEASURED (WITH NORMAL RANGES)

Pulse rate 60–100 beats/min
Abnormally high – >140 mmHg systolic or
90 mmHg diastolic
Blood pressure
Abnormally low – <90 mmHg systolic or a drop of 20 mmHg or
more systolic from the patient’s baseline
Respiratory rate 14–18 breaths per minute
Oxygen saturation 96–100% on room air
Temperature 36.5–37.5°C
Looking at how a particular physiological parameter varies with time can be

highly informative. For example, taking a one-off temperature recording may or
may not be useful in a patient with a particular symptom, but much more useful
is the way in which the patient’s temperature varies with time. In the example
in Fig 14.1, the temperature can be seen to be ‘swinging’ and this pattern is
highly suggestive of a serious infection or inflammatory process.
Fig 14.1: Swinging fever
Similarly, a steadily rising respiratory rate or pulse rate, or a falling blood

pressure can highlight evolving physiological changes much more readily than
can a snapshot recording at one moment in time.
Early warning scores

‘Early warning scores’ are becoming increasingly used. Examples are the
Physicians’ Early Warning Score (PEWS) and the Medical Early Warning
Score (MEWS). To calculate such a score, weightings are given for deviations
in set physiological parameters away from normality. The higher the deviation,
the greater the score. An example is shown in the table below. There are
several advantages to such a system. A patient with seemingly minor
abnormalities in several parameters will be identified as acutely unwell
because their score will be quite high. Also, nursing staff who might not be
confident in knowing when to call for medical assistance can be assured that a
high score equates to a seriously unwell patient who requires urgent help from
a senior doctor. As with any vital sign measurement, a change in early warning
score is more informative than a one-off reading.
Prytherch DR, Smith GB, Schmidt PE, Featherstone PI. ViEWS – Towards a national early warning score
for detecting adult inpatient deterioration. Resuscitation 2010;81:932–7.
Neurological observations
Neurological observations are recorded at intervals in patients who are at risk
of deterioration in their level of consciousness. Two commonly used systems
are described.
1. AVPU
This is a quickly recorded summary measure of neurological status. The patient
is graded as:
A – if they are Alert
V – if they respond to Voice
P – if they respond only to Pain
U – if they are Unresponsive.
2. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

This is more time-consuming to measure than the AVPU score, but also
provides more information. It is scored out of 15, with a minimum score of 3
and a maximum of 15. The patient’s best response at the time of assessment
should be recorded.
TASK PERFORMANCE SCORE

Spontaneously 4
To speech 3
Eyes open
To pain 2
None 1
Oriented 5
Confused 4
Best verbal response Inappropriate words 3
Incomprehensible sounds 2
None 1
Obey commands 6
Localises pain 5
Flexion withdrawal 4
Best motor response
Abnormal flexion 3
Extension to pain 2
None 1
Figure 14.2 shows a GCS chart from a patient who exhibits a sudden drop in
GCS at 11am.
Fig 14.2: Sudden drop in GCS.
Fluid balance chart

A carefully completed fluid balance chart can be extremely helpful in making
management decisions for patients. In essence, these charts record the quantity
and type of all fluid entering and leaving the body.
Examples of fluid entering the body:
• Food and drink taken orally
• Intravenous fluid
Nutrition given enterally (eg via a nasogastric or percutaneous
•
gastrostomy tube) or parenterally (ie intravenous feeding)
Blood products (eg packed red cells, platelets, cryoprecipitate, fresh
•
frozen plasma)
• Intravenous drugs.
Examples of fluid leaving the body:
• Urine
• Bowel motions
• Blood (from any orifice, including blood loss during surgery)
• Fluid from drains (eg chest drain).
One should also bear in mind insensible fluid loss. This refers to fluid that is
lost but not normally recorded and includes moisture lost in expired air and
sweat. A general rule of thumb is that, in normal circumstances, a patient loses
approximately 500 ml/day of fluid through insensible losses. These losses can
increase massively, eg if a patient has extensive burns or if they have a fever.
Interpreting a fluid balance chart should incorporate several steps:
Compare total input to total output, remembering to account for insensible
losses. Are they equal, or is there a positive or negative fluid balance? A
positive fluid balance means that more fluid has entered the patient than
has left, and would be entirely appropriate, for example, in a patient being
treated for dehydration. A negative fluid balance means that more fluid
1. has left the patient than has entered, and would be entirely appropriate,
for example, in a patient with heart failure who is fluid overloaded and
being treated with diuretics. Is the total volume of fluid entering the
patient too little, adequate or too much for requirements? This will
depend on the age, sex and weight of the patient, and also on the state of
health (particularly current illnesses, cardiac and renal function).
Look at the type of fluid that the patient has received and correlate this
2.
with the clinical circumstances.
Think about electrolytes. Is the patient receiving enough electrolyte
replacement to account for his or her body’s daily requirements as well as
compensating him or her for any abnormal electrolyte losses. For
example, an elderly person might require 40 mmol potassium per day to
3. maintain potassium equilibrium when healthy. If he develops severe
diarrhoea, however, he will lose a lot of potassium from the gut and may
well need much more than 40 mmol potassium per day to prevent him
becoming hypokalaemic. Output from drains can often be important
sources of electrolyte losses and can easily be overlooked.
Drug charts
A great deal of information about a patient can be gleaned by examining their
drug chart. Errors are common and doctors at all levels should be vigilant and
watch for potentially dangerous mistakes or oversights in drug prescriptions.
Other bedside data
Stool chart
Patients with altered bowel activity often have bowel movements recorded
using a stool chart based on the ‘Bristol Stool Chart’ (Fig 14.3). Although not
very appealing, a chart such as this allows staff to record the frequency and
nature of bowel activity.
Bristol Stool Chart

Fig 14.3: Bristol Stool Chart. (From Lewis SJ, Heaton KW. Stool form scale as a useful guide to intestinal
transit time. Scand J Gastroenterol 1997;32:920–4.)
Weight chart
It is often helpful to monitor a patient’s weight with time. Malnourished
patients might be monitored for weight gain after the establishment of a feeding
programme, whereas patients with fluid overload are often monitored for
weight loss as they are treated with diuretics and their oedema improves.
Sudden dramatic changes in weight are, however, uncommon. Unless the
patient has had a procedure (eg a large quantity of fluid drained or limb
amputation), be wary that a sudden change in weight might simply be an error.
Blood glucose (and ketones)

Patients with diabetes mellitus will have their blood glucose level checked
frequently during their stay using finger-prick blood draws and glucometers.
Adjustments to their treatment may be required if they have either hyper- or
hypoglycaemia. Patients with diabetic ketoacidosis will also have
measurements taken of ketone levels in the blood or urine. Blood ketone levels
are increasingly being measured with bedside ketometers, which work like
glucometers. Urinary ketones are measured using urinalysis. As treatment for
diabetic ketoacidosis is administered, ketone levels should fall into the normal
range.
Blood glucose recording is not limited to patients with diabetes, however.
Other examples of patients who should have blood glucose measured include:
• Patients who have been treated with insulin for hyperkalaemia
• Patients who are malnourished and are at risk of hypoglycaemia
• Patients with liver failure who are at risk of hypoglycaemia
Patients on high doses of corticosteroids who are at risk of
•
hyperglycaemia.
Respiratory function
Patients with respiratory difficulty often have simple respiratory tests
performed at regular intervals. The most common example would be the peak
expiratory flow rate (PEFR) in patients with obstructive airway disease such
as asthma. In addition, patients at risk of neuromuscular weakness affecting
respiration should have their vital capacity checked regularly. A falling vital
capacity can indicate the need for assistance with ventilation.
Cardiac telemetry
Patients with cardiac disease and critical illness are at risk of cardiac
arrhythmia and cardiac arrest, and their heart’s electrical activity is often
monitored using a bedside ECG machine. Interpretation of such data is
included in Chapter 10. A useful function of many telemetry machines is that
the heart rhythm strips are stored for several days. Patients who exhibit
intermittent cardiac arrhythmias can have their heart rhythms analysed
retrospectively, thus allowing the identification of serious problems.
Other information at the bedside

The area around a patient’s bed often has a wealth of additional information
for the astute observer to note. Therapists who have assessed a patient may
record information such as the following on signs around the bed:
Details about mobility, including devices to be used when mobilising or
•
how many staff members will be required to help a patient mobilise.
• Communication difficulties: patients with deafness, dysphasia or who do
not speak the native language may therefore be identified.
Swallowing difficulties: signs such as ‘nil orally’ or ‘yoghurt consistency
•
foods only’ might be seen.
Dietary and fluid requirements such as fluid restrictions, salt restrictions,
•
etc.
Case 14.1
Summarise the findings on the stool chart and list the potential causes
Answer 14.1
This patient is having bowel motion activity recorded formally using a faeces
chart. At least eight motions each day have been passed. The consistency has
been Bristol type 6 and 7 indicating very soft, watery motions. Furthermore it
is mucoid and bloody. It would be important clinically for the fluid balance
sheet to be assessed in conjunction with the stool chart to assess for adequate
hydration. Possible causes for this pattern of bowel activity are listed in the
box below.
Inflammatory bowel disease

Infective diarrhoea (eg Shigella, Salmonella)
Colorectal malignancy
Ischaemic colitis
Case 14.2
Explain the findings on this daily weight chart for this patient with
1.
liver cirrhosis and ascites.
What could be the reason for the sudden loss of nearly 7 kg on
2.
14/06/05?
Answer 14.2
Daily weight charts are an extension of the standard fluid balance

(‘input/output’) chart. In the short term (hours and days) changes usually
reflect a change in body fluid content. It is paramount (as seen from the
chart) that the recordings are taken at the same time each day. Dietitians
keep weight records for those who are undernourished, receiving enteral
or parenteral nutritional supplementation, or enrolled in dietary
programmes. In such cases, changes in the longer term become more
important. The common reasons for recording daily weight are conditions
in which excess fluid is retained by the body – severe congestive cardiac
1. failure, ascites or renal failure being prime examples.
A response to treatment, in particular diuretics, and dietary sodium
restriction may be monitored using a weight chart in conjunction with a
fluid balance chart.
This example documents a patient with significant ascites (excess fluid in
the peritoneal cavity) over a period of several days after treatment. Over
the initial 4 days a steady, albeit relatively small, daily reduction in
weight is observed. This is in response to the introduction or increased
dosing of diuretic therapy.
On 14/06/05 a more substantial reduction of 6.8 kg is observed. This is
2.
due to paracentesis with the removal of a substantial volume of fluid.
Case 14.3
Describe each abnormality on the observation chart and the overall

1.
impression.
2. Where should this patient be cared for?
Answer 14.3
The diagnosis of sepsis requires a full patient assessment. However, the
bedside chart may provide the first evidence of impending sepsis. Taking
an assessment of the chart over several hours, rather than a snapshot, aids
1. in the diagnosis as one views the alteration of three key parameters –
blood pressure, pulse rate and temperature. A persistent pyrexia or
swinging fever is seen in the context of haemodynamic instability
(hypotension and tachycardia).
This example clearly shows a rising and sustained pyrexia with a
maximum temperature of 39.9°C. A falling blood pressure, to a low of
78/38 mmHg, with an accompanying tachycardia of 130 beats/min,
demonstrates a haemodynamically unstable state.
If this patient fails to respond to initial treatment with fluids and
antibiotics they should be transferred to an HDU/ICU environment where
2. inotropic support (eg noradrenaline) may be administered to support the
cardiovascular system until the underlying infection has been identified
and treated.
Case 14.4
Give your impression of the problem in this patient.

Answer 14.4
This chart outlines the blood oxygen saturations taken at 2-h intervals by pulse
oximetry throughout a 24-h period. The vast majority are normal while
breathing room air. If one was not to record the saturations during sleeping
hours the patient may be deemed to be entirely normal. However, during the
period 02:00–06:00 hours there is evidence of significant deoxygenation with
a low of 84% at 04:00 hours.
The likely diagnosis here is obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA). If one was to
waken the patient purposefully and then record the oxygen saturations they
would probably return to normal. This diagnosis may be confirmed through
formal sleep studies.
Case 14.5
1. What abnormality is seen?

2. Suggest a list of potential underlying diagnoses.
Answer 14.5
This basic chart demonstrates a series of blood pressure measurements.

Unlike a conventional recording it indicates that some have been taken in
different positions of posture. The likely indication for this is a patient
1. with a history of falls, especially an elderly patient. For changes to be
deemed significant, there must be a change in systolic blood pressure of
greater than 20 mmHg when the patient changes from lying to standing.
This patient has postural (orthostatic) hypotension.
2. Potential diagnoses are listed below:
CAUSES OF POSTURAL HYPOTENSION

Idiopathic
Dehydration (hypovolaemia)
Drug induced (eg diuretics, vasodilators, anti-parkinsonian medication)
Addison’s disease
Autonomic neuropathy
Multisystem atrophy
Case 14.6
1. Explain the findings on the neuro-observation chart.

2. What are the potential causes?
Answer 14.6
The GCS is a routinely used method of accurately and objectively

recording a patient’s level of consciousness. It is an easy-to-use scoring
system which may be recorded in a reproducible fashion by nursing or
medical staff. It comprises three independent categories – EYE
1.
OPENING, VERBAL RESPONSE and MOTOR RESPONSE. It is scored
out of 15. The GCS must be measured in patients with head injury and
after any neurosurgical intervention. This bedside chart illustrates its use
in a patient after a fall.
On admission the GCS is 14/15 on the basis of the patient being confused.
At midnight the conscious level takes a drop from 14/15 to 10/15. Two
hours later one can observe that the GCS has returned to its admission
level of 14/15. Further frequent monitoring throughout the morning shows
a repeat of this pattern – the GCS IS FLUCTUANT. An intracranial cause
should be sought with urgent imaging.
This pattern is typically seen in subdural haematoma. Following a fall, the
2. patient is lucid at times but the conscious level is variable. Extracranial
causes, eg sepsis or hypoglycaemia, may also account for such patterns.
Case 14.7
Explain what action one would take on becoming aware of these

observations.
Answer 14.7
Changes in conscious level may be sudden and permanent as well as fluctuant.

A significant drop in the GCS should be acted upon without delay. This
bedside chart records a large drop from 13 to 7. This sudden change requires
both a fast answer to establish the cause, and action to be taken to ensure the
welfare of the patient. A GCS of less than 8/15 is an indication for
consideration of intubation as the patient’s airway is likely to become
compromised.
CAUSES OF LARGE SUDDEN DROP IN GCS

Intracerebral bleed Trauma – diffuse
(including subarachnoid haemorrhage) axonal injury
Cerebral oedema Metabolic causes
Drugs and alcohol (such as hypoglycaemia)
Case 14.8
Describe the findings on this chart.

Answer 14.8
There is a simple but striking finding on the general observation chart over a
period of several hours. The trend in temperature recordings is highly
abnormal. It can be seen that the patient is apyrexic at times but has a
significantly elevated temperature on other occasions. This is a swinging or
spiking fever. Each temperature peak probably represents the shedding of
bacterial toxins into the bloodstream. This finding may be due to any
underlying infective source – although the pattern is characteristically seen in
the setting of an abscess. A similar pattern can be seen in several
rheumatological diseases e.g. Still’s disease.
Case 14.9
Describe the findings on these charts and what investigation(s) are needed
to confirm the cause.
Answer 14.9
Most patients will have several observation charts at the end of the bed. These
should all be viewed in a systematic fashion to maximise the information
obtained. In this scenario, both the vital signs chart and the bowel habit chart
reveal the likely diagnosis.
An inpatient for several days following admission with dark stools and rectal
bleeding, this patient has remained stable, albeit with persistently abnormal
bowel motions. It can be seen that on occasion the motion is both loose and
dark in nature, but is always relatively small in volume and the patient’s
general observations initially remain normal.
Fluid resuscitation, possibly with blood products, has occurred. Note on day 4
(08/06) that the patient becomes progressively more tachycardic and with this
the blood pressure falls. This corresponds to an increase in the frequency of
the motions, which are noted to be black and foul smelling in nature – this
patient has melaena.
The melaena has been present to an extent since admission; however, on this
occasion the patient has become haemodynamically unstable. There has been a
significant upper gastrointestinal tract bleed. The patient should now undergo
emergency endoscopy to locate and if possible treat the cause. In the meantime,
intravenous fluids and packed cells should be administered. Any coagulopathy
should be corrected. One can see the blood pressure and tachycardia respond
to fluid replacement (08/06 from 18:00 hours onwards).
Case 14.10
What electrolyte is likely to be deranged in this patient?

Answer 14.10
This relatively simple drug chart illustrates the importance of appreciating the
actions of common medications and the problems that can arise. On admission,
the patient is on a K+-sparing diuretic (spironolactone) at a dose that suggests
an indication for liver disease rather than heart failure. On day 1 of his
admission, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is introduced.
The combination of an ACE inhibitor (lisinopril) and spironolactone, although
acceptable, should be appreciated and initially the serum potassium should be
checked to ensure that it does not rise to a dangerous level. Therefore, when
supplemental potassium is started the following day – perhaps by a busy
doctor who does not usually cover this patient and who has limited
understanding of the patient’s overall case – we have a potential disaster. If
left unchecked the K+ may increase to a level causing cardiac dysrhythmias or,
worse, cardiac arrest.
Case 14.11
What has caused the difficulties in the INR level?

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Answer 14.11
This scenario is based upon both a patient’s drug chart and warfarin chart.
Those patients on warfarin while in hospital should be placed on a dedicated
warfarin chart. This generally outlines the indication for its prescription, the
desired target INR (international normalised ratio) range and the daily
warfarin dose and INR if taken. It is easy, but also dangerous, to view this
chart in isolation. Following admission this patient is started on erythromycin
and the warfarin dose remains at the usual level from admission. The INR was
recorded before the first inpatient dose and was 2.35, perfectly placed in the
desired range for the indication, atrial fibrillation. On day 3 it is checked again
and found to be 2.98. The dose is decreased by 1 mg, but again 2 days later the
INR has continued to rise to 3.99. This is not in the highly dangerous range, but
is enough to warrant consideration. The drug erythromycin is the cause. A
macrolide antibiotic, it is known to enhance the anticoagulant effect of
warfarin through its effect as an enzyme inhibitor in the liver.
Case 14.12
A patient’s heart rate is monitored frequently after an admission with a
suspected myocardial infarction.
What is your interpretation, and what would you do for the patient?
Answer 14.12
The patient has a marked bradycardia. The blood pressure seems acceptable,
so gathering more information seems most appropriate at this stage. You should
record a 12-lead ECG and attach the patient to a cardiac monitor.
After a short time, you are called to interpret the cardiac monitor. You see the
following on the screen:
What is your interpretation of the heart rhythm?

The rhythm is complete heart block (or third-degree heart block) (see page 350
for further details). The patient requires drug treatment to speed the heart up,
and will probably require the insertion of a pacemaker.
MISCELLANEOUS
Ankle brachial pressure index
The ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) is an easily measured clinical
parameter that is often used to assess the adequacy of blood flow to the lower
limbs.
The patient should lie flat on a bed when having an ABPI measured. The
systolic blood pressure in the brachial artery is measured using a stethoscope
and sphygmomanometer. The systolic blood pressure at the ankle is then
measured using a sphygmomanometer wrapped around the calf and a Doppler
probe positioned over the posterior tibial or dorsalis pedis artery. Cuff
pressure is inflated until blood flow to the foot is cut off. Flow is slowly re-
established by deflating the cuff, and the pressure at which the first Doppler
signal is obtained is noted.
After performing these tests, the observer will have two figures – the systolic
blood pressures in the brachial artery and at the ankle. The ABPI is calculated
simply by finding their ratio. In health, the ratio should be greater than or equal
to 1. As the value decreases, symptoms and signs of arterial insufficiency to
the lower limbs would be expected. Values lower than 0.5 may result in
critical ischaemia. ABPIs of lower than 0.2 can be associated with ulceration
and gangrene.
ABPI INTERPRETATION
>1 Normal
<0.5 At risk of critical ischaemia
<0.2 At risk of ulceration and gangrene
One potentially complicating factor relates to the fact that some patients
(particularly those with long-standing diabetes mellitus) have calcified arteries
which cannot be compressed with a blood pressure cuff. In such cases,
Doppler signals will be obtained even when the cuff is inflated to very high
pressures. ABPIs cannot be reliably measured in these patients.
DON’T FORGET
The ABPI must be interpreted with caution in patients with diabetes mellitus.
Synovial fluid analysis

Patients with acute monoarthritis often have synovial fluid aspirated for
diagnostic purposes. It is important to be able to differentiate between the
common causes of the acutely red, hot and swollen joint on the basis of fluid
analysis.
APPEARANCE
LEUKOCYTE ON PLANE
DIAGNOSIS APPEARANCE COUNT POLARISED
(/mm3) LIGHT
MICROSCOPY
Septic arthritis Purulent >750 000
Heavily blood
Haemarthrosis
stained
Negatively birefrin-gent needle-shaped

Gout Cloudy 3000–40 000
crystals
Weakly positively birefringent

Pseudogout Cloudy 3000–40 000
rhomboidal crystals
MEMORY AID
Gout – remember the letter ‘N’ –
Negatively birefringent, Needle-shaped crystals of sodium urate
Pseudogout – remember the letter ‘P’ – weakly Positively birefringent rhomboidal
crystals of sodium Pyrophosphate
Schirmer test
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is the term used to describe dry eyes. This
phenomenon can occur in isolation (primary Sjögren syndrome) or in
association with many other rheumatological conditions.
The test is performed by attaching a specially shaped piece of filter paper to
the lower eyelid. This is left for 5 min, and the distance that has become wet is
then measured. Normally 10 mm or more of the paper will become wet.
Fig 15.1
It is important to bear in mind, however, that normal tear production is reduced
in old age. Also, drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic
antidepressants, reduce tear production and may result in a false-positive
Schirmer test.
PABA test
The PABA test is used to detect pancreatic exocrine insufficiency, ie failure of
the pancreas to produce sufficient enzymes for complete digestion.
The principle behind the test is simple. After fasting overnight, the patient is
given a fixed dose of a peptide comprising N-benzoyl-L-tyrosyl-pa-
aminobenzoic acid (NBT-PABA). In a patient with normal pancreatic exocrine
function, pancreatic enzymes break down NBT-PABA into the smaller
compound PABA, which is then absorbed and excreted in the urine. Normally
more than 70% of the dose administered appears in the urine. Less than 70%
excretion implies that the exocrine activity of the pancreas is impaired.
DON’T FORGET
Normally >70% of the oral PABA dose is detected in the urine.
Tests for the presence of Helicobacter pylori

The Gram-negative bacillus H. pylori can infect the stomach and predispose to
the development of peptic ulcer disease. Testing for the presence of the
organism should be carried out in all patients with a peptic ulcer, and
eradication should be attempted in affected individuals.
There are several methods that can be used to test for the presence of H.
pylori.
Breath testing
This test relies on the fact that H. pylori organisms produce urease, an enzyme
that breaks down urea to form ammonia and carbon dioxide. The ammonia
produced raises the pH and helps the organism survive the acidic environment
in the stomach.
In a H. pylori breath test, the patient is given a tablet containing radiolabelled
urea ([13C]urea). If infection is present, the organisms act on the urea to
liberate radiolabelled carbon dioxide (13CO2). A sample of breath is collected
(eg in a tube or balloon), and analysed for the presence of 13CO2. If this is
detected, the test is positive and the patient can be assumed to be infected.
This test rapidly becomes negative if H. pylori is eradicated.
Detection of H. pylori antibodies

A sample of blood can be tested for the presence of IgG antibodies to H.
pylori. The test can remain positive for up to a year after eradication therapy,
and so it is not a particularly useful way of testing for clearance.
Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test

This test also requires a biopsy sample obtained at oesophagogastro-
duodenoscopy (OGD). The sample of tissue is placed into a medium that
contains urea and phenol red. Phenol red is a dye that turns red in alkaline
conditions. If H. pylori is present in the biopsy sample, its urease enzyme will
liberate ammonia from the urea in the medium, causing the pH to rise. The
colour of the medium will therefore turn red (Fig 15.2).
Fig 15.2
Tissue histology
A stomach biopsy sample can be stained and examined under a microscope.
This may reveal curved organisms at the mucosal surface.
Tissue culture
A biopsy sample obtained at OGD can be cultured to look for the presence of
offending organisms.
Audiograms
Audiograms illustrate, in graphic form, how well a person can hear noises at
different frequencies. A healthy ear can hear sounds transmitted in the air better
than those conducted by bone. This is because the ossicles in the middle ear
amplify sound waves in the air.
Several patterns of abnormalities should be recognised.
Conductive deafness
Anything that impedes the progression of sound waves down the ear canal
can result in conductive deafness. The classic example of this is the patient
1. with severe ear wax. In these conditions, sounds conducted by bone will
be heard louder than those conducted by air. The audiogram will show a
gap between the hearing level for air and bone conduction. This is termed
a wide air–bone gap.
Fig 15.3
Sensorineural deafness
2. A patient with unilateral auditory nerve damage (eg due to an acoustic
neuroma) will have reduced hearing for both air conduction and bone
conduction.
Fig 15.4
Presbyacusis
This describes the loss of hearing of sounds at high frequencies that is a
3.
common finding in elderly patients. It represents a form of sensorineural
deafness.
Fig 15.5
Noise-induced hearing loss
4. Patients with noise-induced hearing loss typically have difficulty hearing
sounds with a frequency around 4000 Hz. Their audiograms usually have a
trough at this frequency level.
Fig 15.6
Cardiovascular risk
Until relatively recently, clinical judgement has been the main method of
deciding which patients require drug therapy for primary prevention against
cardiovascular disease. Guidelines are now available that aim to help doctors
decide which patients require treatment. One part of a cardiovascular risk
assessment chart is shown here.
Fig 15.7 Reproduced with kind permission of Manchester University Press.

These charts are easily interpreted as follows.
Choose the correct chart using the patient’s sex, smoking status and age
group. Whether or not a patient is classified as a smoker depends on their
lifetime exposure to smoke, not just their current smoking status. Thus,
1.
patients who are ex-smokers, but gave up smoking within the last 5 years,
should be classified as smokers for the purposes of interpreting these
charts.
Knowledge of the patient’s systolic blood pressure and details of their
lipid profile are plotted to obtain the patient’s cardiovascular risk over the
next 10 years. Note that the x-axis on the charts plots the ratio of total
2.
cholesterol to high-density-lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, and this value
should be used when available. When only the serum cholesterol
concentration is known, assume that the HDL level is 1 mmol/l.
Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) is being increasingly used as
an investigative tool in the management of people with high blood pressure. It
gives a lot more information than a one-off office blood pressure measure, and
can help identify people with various blood pressure patterns, such as:
White-coat hypertension: blood pressure ‘artificially’ high when
•
measured by a doctor or nurse, ie ABPM lower than clinic pressure.
Masked hypertension: blood pressure ‘artificially’ low when measured
•
by a doctor or nurse, ie ABPM higher than clinic pressure.
Nocturnal dipping: it is normal for the blood pressure to drop overnight
• when sleeping. The mean arterial pressure should drop by at least 10
mmHg.
• Non-dipping: blood pressure that does not fall in sleep.
• Reverse dipping: blood pressure that increases during sleep.
To interpret an ABPM results summary take the following steps:
Look at how many of the attempted readings were successful. If the vast
majority of readings were successful, the study is useful. If only a few
•
readings were successful, the results of the study are of questionable
value.
Look at the average daytime pressure. Apply a ‘correction factor’ of
10/5 mmHg to this to calculate an equivalent clinic blood pressure, eg
• if the average daytime pressure is 140/80 mmHg on the ABPM, the
equivalent clinic pressure would be 150/85 mmHg. This is the value
that should be used for making treatment decisions.
Compare the average daytime pressure with the most recent clinic
• readings and decide if the patient is ‘normal’, or has ‘white-coat’ or
‘masked’ hypertension.
Look at the overnight blood pressure. Compare the mean arterial
pressure overnight with that obtained during the day. If the blood
pressure does not dip normally, the patient should be questioned. A
• poor night’s sleep or obstructive sleep apnoea are common causes for
blood pressure failing to dip at night. If the patient slept well on the
night of the study, one can use the ABPM result to classify them into
having normal-, non- or reverse-nocturnal dipping.
An ABPM record can also provide much more information, such as detail
about the pulse pressure and heart rate at various times of the day. These data
may also be helpful in stratifying a patient’s cardiac risk.
Case 15.1
A 74-year-old woman attends the diabetes clinic for a routine appointment.
Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes (diagnosed 15 years previously),
two previous myocardial infarctions and previous varicose vein surgery. She
has noticed an ulcer on her left leg. Examination reveals the presence of
varicose eczema, and a shallow ulcer of diameter 4 cm affecting the medial
aspect of the left leg.
1. How would you manage this woman?

The ABPI was 0.9.
2. What treatment should the patient receive?
Answer 15.1
Leg ulcers can be the result of several underlying disease processes. Most
commonly, ulcers can be due to venous insufficiency, arterial insufficiency
or a combination of both. The patient’s medical history puts her at risk of
both venous (previous varicose vein surgery) and arterial (diabetes and
ischaemic heart disease) ulcers. Findings on examination are, however,
more in keeping with a venous ulcer.
1.
Management of venous ulceration is complex, but the mainstay relies on
graduated pressure bandages. However, these bandages can exacerbate
arterial insufficiency, and should not be routinely applied to all patients
without first performing an ABPI measurement. The first step in the
management of this patient’s ulcer should therefore involve measurement
of the ABPI.
The patient should be treated with graduated pressure bandages. Patients
2. with an ABPI of less than 0.8 should not, in general, have compression
bandages applied.
COMP.LEmE 16
CLINICAU CASES
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COMPLETE CLINICAL CASES
Case 16.1
DATA COVERED IN THIS CLINICAL CASE SCENARIO
• Haematology: full blood picture

• Biochemistry: urea and electrolytes, amylase, glucose, ketones
• Respiratory: arterial blood gas
• Urinalysis
• Bedside chart: vital signs
An 18-year-old shop assistant is admitted with generalised abdominal pain that

has been worsening for 36 hours. On examination, you find the abdomen to be
generally tender, although there is no clinical evidence of peritonism. The
nurse hands you her observations recording sheet.
What parameters are notably abnormal? Does this narrow your
1.
Shortly, you receive her initial blood results.
What is the major abnormality? Are any possible diagnoses less likely
2.
bearing these results in mind?
On account of the abnormalities seen, you perform a blood gas analysis. The
results are shown. The patient is breathing room air.
What are the causes of the acid–base abnormality demonstrated and

3.
what tests might you arrange to differentiate between them?
You request urinalysis. The results are shown.
Based on all the results so far, what is the apparent cause of the
4.
abdominal pain?
Treatment is commenced, and the patient appears to improve. You are asked to
review her in 4 hours. Her bedside charts on the opposite page show the trend
of vital signs.
5. Are you satisfied that the patient is improving?

Repeat blood tests show the following:
6. What action would you take now?

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Answer 16.1
The patient’s respiratory rate is increased. Your first thought might be that
the patient has a problem with breathing, and indeed this could be the
case. A basal pneumonia, for example, can present with abdominal
discomfort. However, there are many reasons for tachypnoea outside the
1. chest, eg patients breathe faster when they are in pain or if they have a
metabolic acidosis (to facilitate respiratory compensation). As a result of
the wide range of problems that can manifest with increased respiratory
rate, this sign is often regarded as the most sensitive parameter that
something serious is wrong with a patient.
The patient’s blood pressure is low. Again this could be due to a wide
variety of reasons. Commonly, blood pressure falls with blood loss,
sepsis and dehydration. Bearing in mind the abdominal pain, sensible
suggestions would include a bleeding peptic ulcer, appendicitis or colitis.
Taking abdominal pain in context with tachypnoea and hypotension, the
range of possible diagnoses remains wide and further tests are required.
The major abnormality is the very low bicarbonate level. This is highly
2. suggestive of a metabolic acidosis, although a measure of pH and PaCO2
would be required to be sure of this.
The normal haemoglobin is reassuring in terms of the fact that major blood
loss would seem less likely. It should be borne in mind, however, that,
after an acute bleed, it takes some time before the haemoglobin
concentration falls – bleeding cannot therefore be ruled out using this test
alone. The normal white cell count makes an infective cause less likely.
The normal amylase level makes acute pancreatitis less likely, although
sometimes the level can rise after a few hours, so if there is suspicion of
pancreatitis, the level should be repeated.
The blood gas analysis shows first that oxygenation is adequate. There is a
metabolic acidosis present with respiratory compensation. You should then
proceed to calculate the anion gap based on information presented earlier
in the case. This is calculated as (142 + 3.9) – (94 + 7.6) = 44.3 mmol/l,
and is therefore markedly raised. Note that it would also be reasonable to
use the bicarbonate level from the initial set of blood tests for your
3.
calculation, although it is good practice always to use the most up-to-date
results when making impressions about a patient’s current state. Please
refer to page 428 for a list of causes of this pH abnormality. Tests that
would be useful at this stage could include; blood glucose, urinary
glucose, blood ketones, urinary ketones, blood lactate and blood salicylate
level if there is any suggestion of poisoning.
The presence of significant quantities of glucose and ketones on urinalysis,
taken in context with an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis, is highly
suggestive of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). This is recognised as an
4.
uncommon cause of abdominal pain and should always be borne in mind
because it can be easily missed. The diagnosis should be confirmed by
measuring blood glucose and ketone levels.
The chart shows an improving respiratory rate and blood pressure. This is
good evidence that the patient is improving. The administration of fluid
and insulin to a patient with DKA is life saving and can result in a
dramatic improvement in condition. The falling blood ketone level is more
important than the normalisation of glucose levels. It would be important
to see that the patient’s acid–base status is normalising as a result of the
5. treatment that you are giving. An important point to note is that there is
often a precipitating factor for DKA. Sometimes, as in this case, DKA can
represent the first presentation of type 1 diabetes. More commonly, in
patients with known diabetes, DKA results from missing insulin doses or
an infection. In a case such as this one, you should be very vigilant not to
miss an underlying intra-abdominal precipitant for the DKA (eg
appendicitis).
Repeat blood tests show the following:
The patient’s potassium level has fallen to an extremely low level due to
the insulin given to treat the DKA. This could result in a cardiac
arrhythmia. The patient should have a 12-lead ECG recorded to look for
6.
evidence of hypokalaemia, and should be connected to a bedside cardiac
monitor. The patient should then receive an intravenous infusion of
potassium.
The patient still has a high anion gap metabolic acidosis, but this is
improving as the DKA is treated. This would be expected to normalise
entirely when the ketone level is back to normal and the patient has
received sufficient fluid replacement. If it does not, another concomitant
cause for the acidosis should be sought.
CASE SUMMARY
Wide anion gap metabolic acidosis due to diabetic ketoacidosis Hypokalaemia due to insulin treatment
Case 16.2
• Imaging: CT scan of brain

• Bedside chart: neurological observations
• Cardiology: ECG
• Biochemistry: troponin
A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease

was admitted 90 minutes after the witnessed onset of acute right-sided arm and
leg weakness, and right-sided facial droop.
1. What is the diagnosis, and what treatment should be considered?

Treatment is administered and the patient makes a reasonable recovery in the
first few hours. You are then called to assess him due to a deterioration in his
condition. This is his neurological observations chart:
2. What do you think has happened, and what are your priorities?
You arrange another CT scan which shows haemorrhagic transformation in the
same region as the abnormality seen on the first scan.
3. What are your priorities now?

A blood test result comes back showing the following:
4. How will this affect your management?

The patient stabilises, and over the course of 2 weeks makes a reasonable
improvement in conscious level. The limb weakness remains profound. You
review him because he has developed anterior chest pain that reminds him of a
previous myocardial infarction.
5. How would you interpret his ECG?
His chest pain settles after 1 hour; 12 hours later you request a blood test that
shows the following:
6. What has happened and what are the challenges in management?

Answer 16.2
The patient has had a stroke caused by infarction in the territory of the left
middle cerebral artery. All patients presenting with infarction strokes
should be considered for thrombolytic therapy. It is important to ensure
1. that there are no contraindications for thrombolysis. These include, but
are not limited to, recent trauma or surgery, bleeding disposition and
uncontrolled hypertension. Thrombolysis must be administered relatively
soon after symptom onset (current evidence suggests within 4.5 h).
The patient’s level of consciousness has dramatically worsened. The
integrity of the patient’s airway should be assessed and the airway
protected if necessary. Breathing and circulation should be assessed next.
A sudden drop in blood pressure might be indicative of a large amount of
bleeding somewhere in the body, precipitated by the thrombolytic agent. A
2.
bedside blood glucose reading should be taken because hypoglycaemia
could present like this. Assuming that all these parameters are
satisfactory, you should then rapidly consider the intracranial status.
Options include extension of the infarction or intracerebral haemorrhage.
A repeat CT scan of the brain should be performed without delay.
The CT scan confirms that the patient’s infarct has undergone
haemorrhagic transformation. The priorities always start with ensuring
that the ‘ABCs’ are stable. The patient may require airway protection if
the level of consciousness means that it is not secure. The next priority
would be to correct any problem that might increase bleeding propensity
3.
and increase blood loss into the brain. Blood tests of coagulation and a
platelet count should be arranged urgently. A haematologist should be
contacted about blood product replacement. A neurosurgeon should also
be contacted for an opinion as to whether surgical intervention with
evacuation of haemorrhage might be helpful.
A patient with intracranial bleeding in the setting of thrombocytopenia
should receive an infusion of platelets with the intention of increasing the
4.
platelet count to a safe level. In the longer term, the patient should be
investigated to find out why the platelet count was so low.
This ECG shows horizontal ST depression in the anterior and lateral
leads. This might simply represent myocardial ischaemia (angina) but the
5. possibility of a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) should
be borne in mind. Biochemical testing for cardiac troponin will be
necessary to distinguish between these two possibilities.
The elevated blood troponin level would suggest that the patient has had a
myocardial infarction. Given the ECG noted earlier, the most likely
diagnosis is NSTEMI. In ‘normal circumstances’ the patient would
receive anti-platelet therapy and heparin. The complicating factor in this
6. case is that the patient is recovering from a recent intracerebral
haemorrhage and any treatment given for the heart might result in further
bleeding in the brain. Difficult decisions will have to be made by senior
clinicians.
CASE SUMMARY
Stroke (infarction)
Haemorrhagic transformation of ischaemic stroke post-thrombolysis
Thrombocytopenia
Case 16.3
• Bedside chart: fluid balance chart

• Haematology: full blood picture, ESR
• Biochemistry: urea and electrolytes, glucose, protein, immunoglobulins
• Imaging: skull X-ray
A 64-year-old man is admitted for investigation of generalised aches and

pains, and lethargy. He is previously healthy and is on no prescribed
medication. His fluid balance is monitored and, for the first day of
hospitalisation, is as follows:
How would you interpret the fluid balance chart? What is your
1.
You request a panel of blood tests that come back showing the following. His
kidney function had been found to be normal 4 months before.
2. What are the abnormalities, and what is the likely diagnosis?
A skeletal survey is performed. Here is the skull x-ray.
3. How does the X-ray appearance relate to the likely diagnosis?

After several days, the laboratory phones through the following results:
You request a blood calcium level. It is returned as 2.59 mmol/l.
What is the cause of the abnormality seen on the fluid balance chart at
4.
the start of the case?
Answer 16.3
The patient’s urinary output seems excessive when compared with the
amount of fluid consumed. The most common cause for this pattern is
treatment with diuretics (eg for oedema in heart failure). We are told,
1.
however, that the patient is on no treatment, so this is not the cause. Other
causes of polyuria include diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus,
hypercalaemia and following the relief of urinary tract obstruction.
Several abnormalities are demonstrated, and the key to making the

diagnosis is thinking of a condition that could explain all the results. It is
possible that several disease processes coexist in the patient, but a single
unifying diagnosis would be much more likely. The abnormalities are:
2.
normocytic anaemia, elevated ESR, acute kidney injury, high total protein
and low albumin. The glucose level is normal making diabetes mellitus
less likely. The normal sodium concentration makes diabetes insipidus less
likely, but does not exclude it.
The key to suspecting the correct diagnosis here lies with correct
interpretation of the protein and albumin results. Total protein is a measure
of albumin plus globulins. As this patient’s albumin level is low and the
total protein level is high, one can extrapolate that the globulin (IgG, IgA
and IgM) level must be high. The disease most likely to give an elevated
globulin level along with all the other abnormalities documented is
multiple myeloma.
Lytic bone lesions are a recognised feature of multiple myeloma. Patients
3. would routinely undergo a ‘skeletal survey’ to identify bony pathology in
this condition.
You request a blood calcium level. It is returned as 2.59 mmol/l.

The IgG level is highly elevated, and the levels of other immunoglobulins
are suppressed. The particular type of myeloma in this patient is one in
4.
which abnormal plasma cells are producing massive quantities of IgG.
This test confirms myeloma as the diagnosis.
Although the blood calcium level is apparently normal, the cause of the
polyuria documented is hypercalcaemia. Don’t forget to correct calcium
levels for abnormalities with serum albumin. As this patient’s albumin
level is 30 g/l, the ‘corrected calcium’ level is 2.84 mmol/l which is high
(see page 67 for details).
CASE SUMMARY
Multiple myeloma
Hypercalcaemia
Case 16.4

• Cardiology: ECG, echocardiogram
• Imaging: chest X-ray, renal ultrasound
Biochemistry: U&Es, lipids, glucose, oral glucose tolerance test, urine catecholamines,
•
albumin:creatinine ratio
• Endocrinology: aldosterone, renin
• Miscellaneous: ambulatory blood pressure recording
A 51-year-old male teacher is referred for investigation of high blood

pressure. He has been started on an ACE inhibitor by his GP after two readings
showing moderate hypertension. He does not smoke. You arrange ambulatory
blood pressure monitoring.
1. What is your interpretation of this recording?

As a result of this investigation, you arrange a series of tests, the results of
which are shown below.
What are your conclusions based on these results? What further tests
2.
would be helpful?
Calculate the 10-year cardiovascular risk using the prediction chart
3.
on page 504.
You arrange an oral glucose tolerance test, which shows the following:
How would you interpret the test, and how does this affect
4.
cardiovascular risk?
You decide to stop treatment to allow a hormone test to be carried out.
What are the implications of this test, and how might you investigate
5.
further?
Answer 16.4
Ninety-six per cent of blood pressure readings were successful, meaning
that the study is valid and its results meaningful. The average daytime
pressure was 162/88 mmHg. Applying a correction factor of 10/5 mmHg,
we might assume that the equivalent clinic blood pressure is 172/93 mmHg
and is in keeping with significant hypertension. The other major finding on
1.
the report is that the patient’s blood pressure rises at night. This is
abnormal. Assuming that the patient had a good night’s sleep on the night of
the study and that he does not have obstructive sleep apnoea, this is a
worrying finding. ‘Reverse dipping’ of blood pressure at night increases the
chances of finding a secondary cause for the hypertension.
A chest X-ray in a patient with hypertension can potentially show evidence

of coarctation of the aorta, in the form of rib notching. More commonly,
cardiomegaly or signs of cardiac failure might be seen. The absence of
cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray does not rule out the possibility of left
ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). The ECG has findings in keeping with LVH.
The ECG is, however, only really a screening test for LVH, and
2. echocardiography is necessary to establish its presence with certainty. LVH
is confirmed on the echocardiogram. This signifies evidence of target organ
damage from hypertension and suggests that measures should be taken to
lower the pressure as soon as possible. The ultrasound study was normal,
but might have shown findings such as a renal tumour, echobright kidneys
(common in ‘medical’ kidney disease) or abnormal Doppler tracings
(associated with renal artery stenosis).
The biochemistry results show mild hypokalaemia and a sodium
concentration towards the upper end of the normal range. The hypokalaemia
is particularly surprising as the patient is taking an ACE inhibitor, which
would be expected to cause hyperkalaemia if anything. The finding of
hypokalaemia in a patient with hypertension should raise suspicions of an
underlying diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism.
The glucose level is raised, but we are not given any information explaining
whether this is a fasting level or whether in fact the patient had just eaten a
sugary substance. It is not in the ‘normal’ range, however, and further steps
should be taken to clarify the patient’s glycaemic status. The lipid profile is
suboptimal for a patient at risk of cardiovascular disease.
The urinary albumin:creatinine ratio is a measure of protein excretion from
the kidneys. The level seen in this patient is in the ‘microalbuminuric’
range. The level requires repeating to ensure that it is truly abnormal.
Assuming that it is a true value, however, this would be further evidence of
target organ damage – this time to the kidney.
Using the chart for a non-diabetic, non-smoking, 51-year-old man, and
plotting the ‘corrected’ ambulatory daytime systolic blood pressure and
3. cholesterol:HDL ratio, it should be apparent that this patient’s 10-year
cardiovascular risk is in the ‘greater than 20%’ zone (>30% if the line is
used).
The patient has impaired glucose tolerance because, although the fasting
4. glucose level is normal, the level after glucose loading is between 7.8 and
11.0 mmol/l.
We have already estimated the cardiovascular risk as more than 20% in the
next 10 years. The particular risk tool that was used did not, however, have
any way for impaired glucose tolerance to be taken into consideration. As
this is a further cardiovascular risk factor, we can assume simply that the
patient’s risk is even higher than that calculated. If the fact that the patient
has LVH and microalbuminuria is also taken into consideration, the actual
risk will be considerably higher than 20%.
The test was performed in a patient suspected of having primary

hyperaldosteronism. In this condition, aldosterone levels will be high and,
because of negative feedback, renin levels will be low. The suggested
5.
cutoff value for an abnormal ratio, as detailed on page 146, is 30. In this
case, the hormone patterns are in keeping with primary hyperaldosteronism
and the ratio is greatly increased.
The patient should be investigated further by arranging a further test such as
a saline suppression test. Imaging of his adrenal glands to search for a
tumour (could be a carcinoma or more likely an adenoma) should then be
undertaken. Adrenal hyperplasia can also cause this hormone abnormality.
A CT scan would be the first imaging modality used in most instances.
Nuclear imaging can also be used, and adrenal vein hormone sampling may
also be required.
CASE SUMMARY
Hypertension
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Impaired glucose tolerance
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Case 16.5
• Respiratory: blood gas analysis

• Biochemistry: U&Es, liver function tests, glucose
• Cardiology: ECG, cardiac arrest rhythm recognition
• Toxicology blood levels
A 45-year-old woman with a history of depression is admitted at 1.30am after

the ingestion of an unknown quantity of antidepressants (specific type
unknown) 5 hours before. She is fully conscious on arrival at the hospital and
insists that she does not want to live, but is refusing to answer your questions.
You perform a blood gas analysis:
How would you interpret this test? What else would you like to
1.
measure?
The biochemistry laboratory phones through her initial results to a member of
the team:
How would you interpret these tests, and how would your management
2.
change?
An ECG is performed and a rhythm strip printed.
What substance has she taken in overdose, and what is the priority in
3.
management?
While you are preparing to give her a drug, her monitor starts to alarm. There
is no response from the patient and there is no pulse. Her bedside cardiac
monitor shows the following rhythm:
4. What is the rhythm and how will you manage the patient?
Answer 16.5
Oxygenation is adequate given that the patient is breathing 40% oxygen.

The pH is low in keeping with an acidosis. The bicarbonate and carbon
dioxide levels are also low, so the patient has a metabolic acidosis with
respiratory compensation. It would be helpful to perform a U&E profile,
so that the anion gap can be calculated. Given the clinical scenario,
1.
however, a raised anion gap acidosis would be expected. You should also
measure paracetamol concentrations, because, although the patient denies
taking paracetamol, its level should generally be measured in all patients
presenting after an overdose (as the treatment of paracetamol toxicity is
simple, and not treating could have catastrophic consequences).
The bicarbonate is low in keeping with the known metabolic acidosis. The
anion gap is 35.8 mmol/l which is raised. Please note that the list of causes
for acid–base abnormalities listed in page 170. Given that the blood
2. sample was drawn at 5 hours post-ingestion, we can be confident that
treatment for paracetamol poisoning is not required in this case. Her blood
alcohol level is reasonably high, indicating that she has recently consumed
alcohol.
The major abnormality with the ECG is the broadening of the QRS
complexes. Taken in the context of a patient who has ingested an
antidepressant and has a metabolic acidosis, we can be fairly certain that
3. she has taken a tricyclic antidepressant. Given the ECG abnormalities, she
is at high risk of cardiac arrhythmia and/or seizures. She should be placed
on a cardiac monitor and intravenous sodium bicarbonate administered to
correct the cardiac arrhythmia and the acidosis.
You should instantly recognise this rhythm tracing as ventricular
tachycardia. On occasion, this rhythm can generate sufficient cardiac
output such that a pulse is felt. In this case, no pulse can be felt and the
4. patient is in cardiac arrest. The cardiac arrest treatment algorithm should
be started without delay (treatment details outside the scope of this text).
As this rhythm often responds to defibrillation, this should be a treatment
priority. Sodium bicarbonate should also be administered to the patient.
CASE SUMMARY
Tricyclic antidepressant overdose
Ventricular tachycardia
Case 16.6

• Toxicology: blood levels
• Biochemistry: liver function tests, U&Es
• Haematology: coagulation
• Imaging: chest X-ray
• Microbiology: sputum
• Bedside chart: vital signs
An 18-year-old student is found by her housemates. She is in a confused state

on the floor and is surrounded by several packets of paracetamol. It is 22:00
hours and they are able to ascertain that she took the tablets around 15:30 hours
that day. She smells of alcohol. She had been on medications for low mood but
is otherwise healthy. On arrival at hospital half an hour later blood tests were
taken which are shown.
1. With the above results in mind outline the treatment approach for this
patient.
Following the commencement of her treatment blood tests are taken on a
regular basis and are shown below.
Outline the trend and significance of these results. What treatment

2. should be considered now?
She is transferred to a regional centre where she undergoes surgery. In the

initial days postoperatively she progresses well, but on day 5 becomes short of
breath and a chest X-ray is taken which is shown below.
3. Report the findings on this chest X-ray.
At the same time a sample is sent for arterial blood gas analysis. The patient
was breathing room air.
4. What abnormality is observed on the arterial sample?
She is commenced on antimicrobial therapy and sputum is sent for analysis.

The following day the results of her sputum analysis are conveyed from
microbiology.
During the middle of the night you are called by the nurse to see her as some of
her vital signs are concerning. Her bedside chart is shown.
5. Describe the findings on the chart and the underlying cause.

Answer 16.6
The following should have been interpreted from the data provided in this
1.
scenario.
This woman has probably taken a substantial overdose of paracetamol in
combination with alcohol.
The level of 160 mg/l is 6½ hours after ingestion. The significance of this
is seen below on the paracetamol nomogram. At 6½ hours, the line
intersects the normal treatment line of the graph at 125 mg/l making
treatment necessary at levels higher than this: 160 mg/l is well above this
line.
The patient should be treated with an intravenous infusion of N-
2.
acetylcysteine. The exact dose depends on the weight of the patient.
This chart shows the changes in liver function over the 2–3 days following
overdose. A huge surge in transaminases is seen from 20 hours indicating
substantial hepatocellular damage from the toxic effects of paracetamol.
Hepatic necrosis is taking place and the liver is failing. This can be seen
because the prothrombin time is rising and the albumin is falling, as the
ability of the liver to synthesise protein is diminishing. A liver
transplantation should be considered.
Her transfer to a regional centre was to facilitate liver transplantation.
3. Five days after her operation her chest X-ray, sputum analysis and ABG
indicate that she had developed a postoperative pneumonia.
The arterial blood gas shows a marked hypoxia with a normal pH. She has
4.
type 1 respiratory failure, caused by pneumonia.
From the sputum analysis a specific causative organism has been identified
– Streptococcus pneumoniae. It must be emphasised that culturing takes
time. Treatment should be instigated with empirical therapy, and altered
later, if necessary, on the basis of the growth and sensitivities.
5. The bedside chart shows three key findings:
1. Pyrexia
2. Hypotension
3. Tachycardia.
In the context of an established pneumonia this may be in keeping with
septic shock.
CASE SUMMARY
Paracetamol overdose requiring treatment
Development of hepatic failure requiring liver transplantation
Postoperative type 1 respiratory failure due to pneumonia
Development of septic shock
Case 16.7
• Bedside chart: neurological observations

• Imaging: CT of the brain
• Neurology: CSF analysis
• Neurology: EEG
A 38-year-old teacher is brought to hospital by her concerned husband due to

her unusual behaviour and sleepiness over the past 48 h. She has recently
returned from supervising a school trip.
Her observation chart from the initial 6 h of her admission is shown.
CT of the brain is arranged and the following report is telephoned to her

doctor.
Clinical examination revealed no signs of raised intracranial pressure. After
discussion with the patient’s consultant, lumbar puncture is performed. The
details are below.
Summarise the findings from the CSF analysis and suggest one further
1. specific test that might be performed on the CSF given the clinical
history.
In the meantime an electroencephalogram is also performed. The report is sent

back with the patient.
Given the result of the EEG, CSF analysis and CT brain imaging what
2.
is the likely diagnosis?
Answer 16.7
Given the finding of an altered conscious level, the patient is placed on a
neuro-observation chart. The observation chart shows a stable Glasgow
1.
Coma Scale of 13/15. The patient is deemed to be confused and opens her
eyes to speech.
The CT brain imaging is abnormal. Lumbar puncture and an EEG are

therefore performed to help come to a diagnosis.
This collection of findings is termed a CSF pleocytosis.

CAUSES OF A CSF PLEOCYTOSIS
Viral meningitis
Encephalitis
Partially treated bacterial meningitis
TB or fungal meningitis
Intracranial abscess
Post-subarachnoid haemorrhage
One should have inferred from the clinical scenario so far that the cause of her
symptoms and CSF findings is a viral meningitis/encephalitis. An additional
test would be for PCR serology of the CSF to enable detection of viruses,
especially herpes simplex virus (HSV).
The EEG findings demonstrate the characteristic neurophysiological
2. findings of HSV encephalitis.
Further tests in HSV encephalitis would include:
• MRI of brain:
• Oedema within the temporal lobes bilaterally (better seen than on CT)
• PCR serology of CSF:
• HSV-1: present.
CASES SUMMARY
A CSF pleocytosis
Herpes simplex encephalitis
Case 16.8
• Haematology: iron studies

• Biochemistry: liver function tests
• Genetics
• Peritoneal fluid analysis
• Haematology: coagulation
A 34 year-old oil-rig engineer is required to attend a medical before a

secondment to his company’s overseas operation in Brunei. He has been
fortunate with his health with no previous attendance within the health service.
He admits to smoking 20 cigarettes a day and drinking approximately 38 units
of alcohol a week. His conscientious doctor sends several tests. The following
results were of some concern.
1. What can one infer from this iron profile?

Ferritin is an acute phase reactant. Name some other acute phase
2.
reactants.
His liver function tests are recalled on the computer and are shown below.
3. What do the liver function tests show?
The doctor is concerned about an underlying genetic disorder and a blood

sample is sent to the genetics laboratory. The result below was obtained.
The doctor tries to arrange treatment, but unfortunately the patient leaves his
job and no further medical action is taken. Nothing is heard of him for several
years, until he is admitted to a local hospital with a distended abdomen and
fever.
Physical examination demonstrates the presence of ascites. Peritoneal
aspiration is performed and shown below.

He is treated for the acute condition and further blood tests are performed to
assess his liver function.
5. What do these liver function tests suggest?

Answer 16.8
These results suggest a state of iron overload. The most likely reason for
1. this in an otherwise healthy person found at screening is hereditary
haemochromatosis. Haemochromatosis may present with:
• Cardiomyopathy
• Liver disease
• Pituitary disease
• Diabetes mellitus
• Joint problems (pseudogout).
All manifestations are related to the deposition of iron within organs.
2. Other acute phase reactants include:
• CRP
• ESR
• Ceruloplasmin.
Note that albumin acts as a ‘negative acute phase reactant’ – its levels
decreasing with inflammation.
As is commonly the case, both at diagnosis and in established disease, the
LFTs are essentially normal. The only abnormal LFT is the GGT which is
3.
mildly elevated. Given his clinical history this is likely to reflect heavy
alcohol consumption rather than haemochromatosis.
Idiopathic haemochromatosis is an inherited autosomal recessive condition.
Only homozygotes develop clinically overt disease. There is now a gene
test for haemochromatosis and screening of first-degree relatives of patients
is offered. The most common genetic defect is homozygosity of the C282Y
missense mutation of the HFE gene on chromosome 6p. In addition, a
different mutation – H63D – can play a role in some cases.
With appropriate management, patients with haemochromatosis should, in
large part, not develop liver failure.
The presentation with ascites implies the development of liver cirrhosis

4. with portal hypertension. The peritoneal aspiration performed tells us three
things:
The serum–ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is 32 – 19 = 13 g/l. This
•
tells us that the patient probably has portal hypertension.
• The ascitic fluid is infected with the Gram-negative micro-organism E.
coli.
• There is a high neutrophil count.
This all implies spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In the acute setting, the
most important result to note would be the WCC. An elevated WCC should
be taken as evidence for peritonitis and appropriate therapy instituted
before culture results are obtained. If the WCC had been normal, one
should consider ascites secondary to the development of hepatocellular
carcinoma. Haemochromatosis patients with cirrhosis are susceptible to
this primary liver malignancy.
5. The accompanying LFTs show:
• Poor synthetic function (prothrombin time UP and albumin DOWN)
• Mildly deranged liver function
The patient has developed liver failure as a result of the combined
•
hepatotoxic insults of iron and alcohol.
CASE SUMMARY
Haemochromatosis
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Liver failure
Case 16.9
• Haematology: full blood count

• Biochemistry: bone profile, urate and CRP
• Immunology: autoimmune screen
• Miscellaneous: knee aspirate analysis
• Respiratory: spirometry
• Imaging: chest X-ray and DEXA scan
A 39-year-old secretary attends hospital with a painful and swollen right knee,
pains in the fingers and fatigue. The finger pains have been with her for several
weeks and are especially bad first thing in the morning, making her work
difficult. The knee is a more recent complaint.
On examination there is active synovitis in the small joints of the hands and a
large effusion of the right knee.
Among the initial blood tests from the A&E officer are those shown.
1. Describe the findings.

An enthusiastic junior doctor carries out knee aspiration, to exclude septic
arthritis. The results are shown.
A few days later the result of her autoimmune screen is sent to the ward.
She is treated for her arthritis and attends regular review for many years with a
variable course to her illness. On one occasion she complains of increasing
shortness of breath and on auscultation of the chest there are inspiratory
crepitations at the bases.
Spirometry is arranged. The results are shown.
The accompanying chest X-ray is shown.
What problem does this patient now have and how may it be related to
2.
her treatment?
3. What further radiological investigation would be of benefit?
Six months later the patient sustains a forearm fracture. She is referred for a
DEXA scan. The results can be seen below.
4. Outline the significance of these results.

Answer 16.9
The important findings from the FBC, bone profile and other biochemistry
1.
tests are:
• A normocytic anaemia (low haemoglobin and normal MCV)
• A substantially raised CRP
• A normal urate
• A normal bone profile.
Sometimes normal blood results are as important as positive ones. In this
case, gout is on the list of differential diagnoses for an acute-onset, painful,
swollen joint so the urate level is important to measure. However,
remember that the urate level can be normal in acute gout.
The knee aspirate sample is normal. No white cells or organisms were
identified, and culture was negative, excluding septic arthritis. Similarly, no
crystals were seen to suggest a crystalline arthritis.
The result of the autoimmune screen is important. The rheumatoid factor is

highly elevated, which in the context of the clinical symptoms and earlier
finding of a raised CRP and normochromic anaemia implies a diagnosis of
rheumatoid disease. There are three important points to remember about
rheumatoid factor:
• Its level does not necessarily reflect disease activity.
It can be raised in a number of states other than rheumatoid disease
•
(ie poor specificity).
It does not need to be positive for the diagnosis of rheumatoid
•
disease to be made (20% of patients are rheumatoid factor negative).
Interestingly, the screen also has antibodies to gastric parietal cells and
intrinsic factor in keeping with a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia. It is
common for patients to suffer from several coexisting autoimmune diseases.
2. The positive findings from spirometry with transfer factor are:
• A reduced FEV1
• A reduced FVC
• A high FEV1/FVC ratio
• A reduced transfer factor.
This demonstrates a restrictive pattern wholly in keeping with interstitial
lung fibrosis.
The presence of fibrosis may be due to:

The disease itself – pulmonary fibrosis is one of the pulmonary
•
manifestations of rheumatoid disease
A side effect of treatment with methotrexate (first-line disease-modifying
•
anti-rheumatic drug treatment for this condition).
As seen in the report above HRCT is advisable as this will help clarify in
3.
greater detail the nature and extent of the disease.
Patients with rheumatoid disease often have exacerbations (‘flares’) of
their disease requiring treatment with either intravenous or oral steroids.
The disease itself and steroid treatment put such patients at risk of
4.
developing osteoporosis which is diagnosed by dual energy X-ray
absorptiometry (DEXA) scanning. A T score of less than –2.5 indicates
osteoporosis. A score of –1.5 to –2.5 implies the presence of osteopenia.
CASE SUMMARY
Knee effusion (due to rheumatoid disease)
Interstitial lung fibrosis (rheumatoid lung)
Steroid-induced osteoporosis
Case 16.10

• Biochemistry: urea and electrolytes
• Bedside chart: fluid input/output
• Cardiology: ECG
• Imaging: abdominal X-ray
A 74-year-old man is admitted with a painful abdomen. He has a history of

hypertension and atrial fibrillation. He had a laparotomy as a younger man for
a gastric ulcer. He has not passed a motion in several days. On examination his
abdomen is tender with rebound.
An abdominal X-ray is taken and shown below.
1. Interpret this X-ray.

The patient’s condition rapidly deteriorates. An arterial blood gas is analysed.
2. Interpret this ABG.

The patient has emergency surgery. After a short stay in the high dependency
unit (HDU) he returns to the ward. Several days later he complains of further
abdominal discomfort after his patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) device is
stopped. On examination he is tender in the suprapubic space and this area is
dull to percussion. A urinary catheter has been in situ since surgery.
His fluid (input/output) chart is observed.
3. Describe the findings.
Blood and urine are sent for analysis
4. What problem has occurred?
Immediate treatment is given for hyperkalaemia.

An ECG was done just before treatment. Describe the findings on the
5.
ECG seen below.
Answer 16.10
2. Interpretation of the ABG.

The findings on arterial blood analysis are:
• Oxygenation is adequate.
• A low pH. This patient is profoundly acidotic.
• A low PaCO2. Respiratory compensation is occurring.
• A low HCO3–. The origin of excess acid is metabolic in nature.
A high lactate. This is a ‘rogue’ acid being produced in large quantities.
•
In this case ischaemia of the large bowel is the cause.
The anion gap can be calculated:
Anion gap = (Na+ + K+) – (Cl– + HCO3–) = 23.6 mmol/l
This patient has a high anion-gap metabolic acidosis, most likely due to
3.
lactic acidosis, secondary to an ischaemic bowel.
One should infer from the bedside chart that:

• there is a significant positive balance
• the urine output has tailed off in the last 4 hours
• before becoming anuric the urine output was poor.
This patient has anuria which was preceded by a period of oliguria. In the
4. first instance the urinary catheter should be checked and flushed to ensure
that there is no blockage.
The blood results show that this patient has developed acute renal failure.
From the clinical history it appears that this is due to obstruction of the
renal tract.
The patient has life-threatening hyperkalaemia. A potassium of greater than
6.5 mmol/l (in the context of acute renal failure) requires immediate
treatment.
The ECG shows classic changes related to hyperkalaemia. The T waves

5.
are tall and peaked.
CASE SUMMARY
Large bowel obstruction
Bowel ischaemia with metabolic acidosis
Acute renal impairment (due to bladder outlet obstruction)
ECG abnormality (due to hyperkalaemia)
Case 16.11

• Biochemistry: urea, electrolytes and CRP
• Haematology: full blood picture (FBP)
• Imaging: chest X-ray
• Pleural fluid analysis
• Microbiology: stool analysis
A 54-year-old pilot is admitted to the local hospital with a complaint of

increasing shortness of breath. He has noted this especially while flying
recently and he has been seen by his occupational health doctor and prohibited
from flying until investigation has been undertaken. He also complains of a
cough and intermittent fever.
On examination the trachea is sited centrally. The left lung base is dull to
percussion, vocal resonance is decreased and breath sounds are decreased.
Included in your initial investigations are a chest X-ray, FBP, U&Es, CRP and
ABG. All are shown below for interpretation.
1. What abnormalities are
2. Describe the findings on this ABG.

3. Comment on this chest X-ray.
A decision is made to perform a pleural tap for diagnostic purposes based on

the findings from the initial investigations. The results are shown.
He is treated with a cephalosporin antibiotic based on known sensitivities.

Three days into this treatment he develops diarrhoea. Stool samples are sent
by his nurse. The result is shown below.
5. What is the best course of action based on these findings?
Answer 16.11
1. From the initial investigations one should have identified the following:
There is a raised WCC (predominantly comprising neutrophils), along
•
with a raised CRP. The possibility of infection should be entertained.
In addition, you will note a mildly raised urea, reflective of a mild
•
degree of dehydration.
2. The ABG features two findings:

• A low PaO2. The patient is hypoxic. He has type 1 respiratory failure.
A low PaCO2. The patient is short of breath and hyperventilating,
•
causing a low CO2. This has led to a respiratory alkalosis.
3. The chest X-ray indicates the likely cause for the findings so far.
4. From the pleural fluid analysis one can see:
• This is an exudate with an elevated total protein and LDH level.
Putting all this information together and correlating it with the patient’s
5. clinical features, the likely cause for this pleural effusion is an underlying
pneumonia. This is termed a ‘parapneumonic pleural effusion’.
The patient goes on to develop diarrhoea. The most likely cause is simple
diarrhoea secondary to the commencement of antibiotics. However, one
must be suspicious of Clostridium difficile as a causative organism for the
diarrhoea, particularly since this patient has received a cephalosporin
antibiotic.
The stool sample indicates the presence of C. difficile toxin. Ideally the
causative antibiotic should be stopped and a suitable alternative used
instead. Oral metronidazole should also be commenced to treat the C.
difficile.
CASE SUMMARY
Pneumonia
Exudate pleural effusion (parapneumonic)
Type 1 respiratory failure with hyperventilation
Clostridium difficile infection (secondary to antibiotic treatment)
Case 16.12
• Biochemistry: U&Es
• Endocrine: thyroid function tests
• Endocrine: short Synacthen® test
• Biochemistry: urinary electrolytes and osmolality
A 62-year-old male patient with inoperable lung cancer is admitted on the

general medical take-in with acute confusion. Physical examination is
unremarkable. Routine blood tests are sent, and the following results are
obtained.
1. His weight is 61 kg. Estimate his glomerular filtration rate.
On the basis of these tests, a host of other investigations are organised. The
results of these are shown below.
2. What is his thyroid status?
3. Interpret this test result.

4. His blood glucose is 4.6 mmol/l. Calculate his plasma osmolality.
5. What is the overall diagnosis?

Answer 16.12
From the information given, the eGFR could be calculated (see page 62 for
1. details). Alternatively, the following formula could be used to give an
approximation of the GFR:
2. His thyroid status is normal.
®
3. This is a normal short Synacthen test indicating normal adrenal gland
function.
4. Plasma osmolality is calculated as:
Plasma osmolality = 2 × (115 + 4.4) + 3.5 + 4.6 = 246.9 mosmol/kg.
This patient fits the diagnostic criteria for SIADH, which is most likely
5. secondary to his lung cancer, most commonly with the small cell subtype.
His confusion is probably due to hyponatraemia.
CASE SUMMARY
Hyponatraemia
SIADH
Case 16.13
• Biochemistry: sweat analysis

• Genetics: mutation analysis
• Miscellaneous: PABA test
• Haematology: D-dimer
• Microbiology: sputum culture
• Miscellaneous: audiogram
A 28-year-old patient is admitted to hospital on account of weight loss. She

has an inherited condition. Browsing through old medical notes, the admitting
doctor noted the following results.
What genetic condition does this patient have, and what is the
1.
inheritance pattern?
The medical team are concerned about pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and
organise a PABA test. The following result is returned.
2. Does the patient have pancreatic exocrine insufficiency?
During the course of her inpatient stay, the patient develops a cough with a
degree of haemoptysis. The doctor is concerned about the possibility of a
pulmonary embolism, and requests the following test urgently.
3. How does the D-dimer result help in managing the patient?
The patient then becomes pyrexic, and clinical signs suggest pneumonia. The
medical team commence co-amoxiclav. Sputum is sent for culture. Two days
later the following result is obtained.
On the basis of these sensitivities, and a worsening clinical state, the patient’s
antibiotics are changed to gentamicin.
A short time later the patient complains of hearing loss. The following
audiogram is obtained.
What type of hearing loss has she developed, and how would you
4.
explain it?
Answer 16.13
This patient has cystic fibrosis, which is inherited in an autosomal
1.
recessive manner.
Yes. Pancreatic insufficiency is common in cystic fibrosis. More than 70%

2.
of the oral PABA should normally be excreted in the urine.
The D-dimer is normal. This indicates a very low probability of a
thromboembolic event such as a pulmonary embolism. Other causes of
3. haemoptysis should be sought. In very rare situations, the D-dimer can be
normal in the presence of thrombosis, so clinical judgement is always
essential when interpreting this result.
The audiogram shows sensorineural deafness. This is a rare but
4. characteristic side effect of aminoglycoside antimicrobials such as
gentamicin.
CASE SUMMARY
Cystic fibrosis
Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
Pneumonia
Gentamicin-induced hearing loss
Case 16.14

• Haematology: haematinics
• Haematology: blood film
• Miscellaneous: CLO test
• Pathology: biopsy result
A 72-year-old man presents with increasing epigastric discomfort. He has been

troubled with heartburn for several years. He admits to drinking ‘more than he
should’. The admitting doctor noted pallor, and requested the following.
A blood film is examined. The following report is obtained.

2. Is this result in keeping with your answer to question one?
He proceeds to have an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). Two

abnormalities are noted. First, he is noted to have an abnormal appearance of
the lower oesophagus. Second, gastritis is observed. A biopsy is taken from
the lower oesophagus and the stomach. A CLO test is performed. You note the
following after 24 h.
3. What treatment should be commenced on the basis of this CLO result?
One week later, the following result is phoned through from the pathology
laboratory:
4. What is the condition affecting the oesophagus?

Answer 16.14
This patient has a microcytic anaemia. The mild thrombocytosis may be

1.
due to active bleeding. The haematinics show iron deficiency.
Yes. The abnormal blood cells described can all be found with iron
2.
deficiency.
The result is CLO positive, indicating gastric infection with Helicobacter
3. pylori. The patient should be commenced on a course of antibiotics with a
proton pump inhibitor, in an attempt to eradicate the infection.
The patient has a Barrett oesophagus, and will require surveillance OGDs
4.
for monitoring the disease.
CASE SUMMARY
Iron deficiency anaemia
Helicobacter pylori-positive gastritis
Barrett’s oesophagus
Case 16.15

• Haematology: red cell mass
• Biochemistry: urinary sodium
• Microbiology: urinalysis
An 85-year-old man who is a smoker is admitted complaining of abdominal

discomfort. No abnormalities are detected on clinical examination, but some
routine blood tests are requested. Your colleague is concerned about the
following test result, and asks for your help.
1. What is this abnormality called, and how would you proceed?
The result is repeated and confirmed. He proceeds to have an estimation of

red cell mass.
2. What does this result indicate?
On the basis of this result, arterial blood gas analysis was performed when the
patient was breathing room air.
3. How would you interpret the blood gas?
An ultrasound scan of the abdomen revealed a mass in keeping with a renal

cell carcinoma.
The patient proceeded to surgery, and underwent a nephrectomy. He spent 2
days in the intensive care unit after the operation, but returned to the ward on
day 3 after the operation. His urine output deteriorated on day 4, and a urine
specimen was sent for analysis.
What does this result tell you about the cause of the oliguria, and how
4.
would you treat the patient?
The patient’s urine output recovers. Several days later he complains of a

burning pain on passing urine, and of having to pass urine more often than
normal. The following result is obtained on urinalysis.
How would you interpret the urinalysis, and what further urine test
5.
would you request?
Answer 16.15
The PCV is elevated, indicating polycythaemia. A measurement of the red

1. cell mass is required to distinguish true polycythaemia from apparent
polycythaemia.
The red cell mass result indicates true polycythaemia, and a cause should
2.
be sought.
3. The arterial blood gas analysis is entirely normal.

The urinary sodium concentration is low, suggesting that the oliguria is due
4. to prerenal causes, ie hypovolaemia. The patient requires intravenous fluid
resuscitation.
The urine contains nitrites and leukocyte esterase. In keeping with the
5. clinical history, these changes are most commonly caused by a urinary tract
infection. The most useful next investigation would be a urine culture.
CASE SUMMARY
Renal cell carcinoma
Postoperative prerenal uraemia
INDEX
Page numbers in bold refer to the clinical cases.
abdominal X-rays (AXR) ref1, ref2

bowel obstruction ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
masses ref1
pancreatitis ref1
renal calculi ref1
volvulus ref1
ABG see arterial blood gases
ABPI (ankle brachial pressure index) ref1, ref2
abscesses ref1, ref2, ref3
cerebral ref1
N-acetylcysteine (NAC) ref1
acidosis ref1
compensation ref1, ref2, ref3
diabetic ketoacidosis ref1
metabolic ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6, ref7, ref8, ref9
respiratory ref1, ref2
see also alkalosis
acromegaly ref1, ref2, ref3
ACTH see adrenocorticotrophic hormone
activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) ref1, ref2, ref3
acute phase reactants ref1, ref2
CRP ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ESR ref1, ref2, ref3
acute tubular necrosis ref1
Addison disease ref1, ref2, ref3
ADH see antidiuretic hormone
adrenal hormones ref1
Cushing syndrome ref1, ref2
hypoadrenalism ref1, ref2
phaeochromocytoma ref1
primary hyperaldosteronism ref1, ref2
adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) ref1, ref2, ref3
short Synacthen test ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
adult respiratory distress syndrome ref1
AFP (α-fetoprotein) ref1, ref2, ref3
alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ref1, ref2
see also liver function tests
albumin
calcium and ref1, ref2
in multiple myeloma ref1, ref2
SAAG ref1, ref2
alcohol abuse
biochemistry ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
histopathology ref1
peritoneal fluid analysis ref1
aldosterone ref1, ref2
alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
bone disease ref1, ref2
liver disease see liver function tests
alkalosis ref1
compensation ref1, ref2, ref3
metabolic ref1, ref2
respiratory ref1, ref2, ref3
see also acidosis
ALP (alkaline phosphatase)
liver disease see liver function tests
α-fetoprotein (AFP) ref1, ref2, ref3
ALT (alanine aminotransferase) ref1, ref2
alveolar gas equation ref1
alveolar–arterial gradient ref1
Alzheimer disease ref1
amaurosis fugax ref1
ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) ref1, ref2, ref3
amylase ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
anaemia ref1
blood film abnormalities ref1, ref2, ref3
haematinic deficiencies ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6
haemolytic ref1, ref2, ref3
spirometry ref1, ref2
thalassaemia ref1
Angelman syndrome ref1
angina pectoris ref1, ref2
anion gap ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) ref1, ref2
antibiotics
causing deafness ref1, ref2
causing diarrhoea ref1, ref2
monitoring ref1
sensitivity testing ref1
warfarin and ref1
antibodies see immunoglobulins
anticoagulants
heparin ref1, ref2
warfarin ref1, ref2
antidepressant overdose ref1, ref2
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ref1, ref2
SIADH ref1, ref2, ref3
anti-phospholipid syndrome ref1
aortic aneurysm ref1
APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) ref1, ref2, ref3
arrhythmia ref1
atrial ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
heart block ref1, ref2, ref3
ventricular ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
arterial blood gases (ABG) ref1
acid–base status ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6, ref7, ref8, ref9
CO poisoning ref1
COPD ref1
hyperventilation ref1, ref2
normal ref1, ref2, ref3
overdose ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
pneumonia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
pulmonary fibrosis ref1
respiratory failure ref1
type 1 ref1, ref2, ref3
type 2 ref1
arthritis ref1
gout ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
synovial fluid analysis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
asbestos ref1
ascites ref1
malignancy ref1
pancreatitis ref1
SBP ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
weight chart ref1
aspartate transaminase (AST) ref1, ref2, ref3
aspirin overdose ref1
asthma ref1, ref2
asystole ref1
atelectasis (collapsed lung) ref1, ref2, ref3
atrial fibrillation ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
atrial flutter ref1
atrioventricular block ref1
audiography ref1, ref2, ref3
autoantibodies ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
in haemolytic anaemia ref1, ref2, ref3
in PBC ref1, ref2
in pernicious anaemia ref1, ref2, ref3
autosomal inheritance
dominant ref1, ref2, ref3
recessive ref1, ref2
AVPU scale ref1
AXR see abdominal X-rays
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) ref1, ref2

bacteria ref1
Barrett oesophagus ref1, ref2, ref3
Bazett’s correction (Q–T interval) ref1, ref2
bedside charts ref1
drugs ref1, ref2
ECG ref1, ref2
fluid balance ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
neuro-observations ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
stools ref1, ref2, ref3
vital signs see vital signs charts
weight ref1, ref2
-HCG (-human chorionic gonadotrophin) ref1, ref2
bicarbonate ref1, ref2
biliary disorders ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
see also primary biliary cirrhosis
bilirubin
in CSF ref1
haemolysis ref1, ref2
bleeding time ref1
see also coagulation
blood film abnormalities ref1, ref2, ref3
blood pressure monitoring ref1, ref2, ref3
see also hypertension; hypotension
BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) ref1, ref2
bone disorders ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6
bowels
absorption of haematinics ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
cancer ref1, ref2
coeliac disease ref1, ref2
gas on AXR ref1
inflammatory bowel disease ref1, ref2
obstruction ref1, ref2, ref3
stool charts ref1, ref2, ref3
volvulus ref1
bradycardia ref1, ref2
brain
abscess ref1
anoxia ref1
CT scans ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
encephalitis ref1
extradural haematoma ref1
glioma ref1
histopathology ref1
hydrocephalus ref1
meningitis ref1, ref2
metastatic disease ref1
stroke ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
subarachnoid haemorrhage ref1, ref2
subdural haematoma ref1, ref2
breast, mastectomy ref1
breath test ref1
breathing rate ref1, ref2, ref3
bronchial carcinoma ref1, ref2
bundle branch-block ref1, ref2
burns victims ref1
C-peptide ref1
C-reactive protein (CRP) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
CA-19-9 ref1
CA-125 ref1, ref2
caecal volvulus ref1
calcification ref1, ref2
calcium ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test ref1, ref2, ref3
cancer
brain ref1
gastrointestinal ref1, ref2
intraperitoneal ref1
liver ref1
lung ref1, ref2, ref3
lymphoma ref1, ref2
metastatic
to bone ref1, ref2
to brain ref1
to lung ref1
multiple myeloma ref1, ref2, ref3
ovary ref1
pituitary gland ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
renal cell carcinoma ref1
testis ref1
tumour markers ref1, ref2
carbon dioxide (CO2) ref1, ref2, ref3
carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning ref1
carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO) ref1, ref2, ref3
carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) ref1, ref2
cardiovascular system
biomarkers ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
cardiac failure ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
CT and MRI ref1
CXR ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
digoxin toxicity ref1, ref2, ref3
dynamic testing ref1
ECG ref1, ref2, ref3
echocardiography ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
heart rate ref1, ref2
heart rhythm ref1
atrial fibrillation ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
cardiac arrest ref1, ref2
sinus rhythm ref1, ref2
ventricular tachycardia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
myocardial infarction ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6, ref7
potassium levels and ref1, ref2, ref3
risk profile ref1, ref2, ref3
valvular disease ref1, ref2
carpal tunnel syndrome ref1
catecholamines ref1
catheters, problems with coagulation profile ref1, ref2
CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) ref1, ref2
central nervous system see brain
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) ref1, ref2, ref3
cerebrovascular accident see stroke; subarachnoid haemorrhage
chest X-rays (CXR) ref1
cancer ref1, ref2, ref3
cavitation ref1
collapsed lung ref1, ref2, ref3
cystic fibrosis ref1
foreign bodies ref1, ref2
heart conditions ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
mastectomy ref1
mediastinal abnormalities ref1, ref2, ref3
pleural effusions ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
pneumonia ref1, ref2, ref3
pneumoperitoneum ref1, ref2
pneumothorax ref1, ref2
pulmonary fibrosis ref1
pulmonary oedema ref1
cholangitis ref1
cholecystitis ref1
cholestatic disease ref1, ref2, ref3
chromosomal abnormalities ref1
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) ref1, ref2, ref3
Churg–Strauss syndrome ref1, ref2
cirrhosis
ascites ref1, ref2
histopathology ref1
PBC ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
CLO test ref1, ref2, ref3
clonidine suppression test ref1
Clostridium difficile ref1, ref2, ref3
coagulation
bleeding disorders ref1, ref2, ref3
warfarin/INR charts ref1, ref2
colon
cancer ref1, ref2
gas on AXR ref1
inflammatory bowel disease ref1
obstruction ref1, ref2
volvulus ref1
computed tomography (CT) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
head ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
conductive deafness ref1
confusion
cerebral causes ref1
metabolic causes ref1, ref2, ref3
consciousness, monitoring ref1
fluctuating ref1
reduced ref1, ref2, ref3
sudden drop ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
Coombs test ref1, ref2
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) ref1, ref2, ref3
copper overload ref1
cortisol ref1
high levels ref1, ref2
creatine kinase ref1
creatinine ref1, ref2
creatinine clearance ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease ref1
Crohn disease ref1, ref2
CRP (C-reactive protein) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) ref1, ref2, ref3
CT see computed tomography
culturing of microorganisms ref1, ref2
cystic fibrosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
D-dimer ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5

deafness ref1, ref2, ref3
deep venous thrombosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
defibrillation ref1
dehydration (hypovolaemia) ref1, ref2, ref3
dementia ref1
dermatomyositis ref1
dexamethasone suppression test ref1, ref2
diabetes insipidus ref1, ref2
diabetes mellitus ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) ref1, ref2
diarrhoea ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
diffuse alveolar damage ref1
digoxin ref1, ref2, ref3
direct antiglobulin test ref1, ref2
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DKA) ref1, ref2
drips, sampling from ‘drip’ arm ref1
drug charts ref1, ref2
drug monitoring ref1, ref2
drug overdose see overdose
drugs of abuse ref1, ref2
dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan ref1, ref2
early warning scores ref1

ECG see electrocardiography
echocardiography ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
EEG (electroencephalography) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
eGFR see glomerular filtration rate
electrocardiography (ECG) ref1
antidepressant overdose ref1, ref2, ref3
bedside ref1, ref2
cardiac axis ref1
digoxin toxicity ref1, ref2, ref3
exercise stress testing and ref1
heart rate ref1
heart rhythm ref1
atrial fibrillation ref1, ref2, ref3
cardiac arrest ref1, ref2
sinus rhythm ref1, ref2
ventricular tachycardia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
myocardial infarction ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
P waves ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
pacemakers and ref1
potassium levels and ref1, ref2, ref3
QRS complexes ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
Q–T interval ref1, ref2
ST segment ref1, ref2, ref3
T waves ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
electroencephalography (EEG) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
electrolytes
alcohol abuse ref1, ref2
anion gap ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
input/output ref1, ref2
osmolarity/osmolality ref1, ref2, ref3
re-feeding syndrome ref1, ref2
see also potassium; sodium
electromyography (EMG) ref1, ref2
encephalitis ref1
endometriosis, ovarian ref1
eosinophilia ref1, ref2, ref3
epilepsy ref1
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
erythrocytes see red blood cells
exercise stress test ref1
extradural haematoma ref1
exudates
ascites ref1, ref2, ref3
pleural ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
see also transudates
eye
dry ref1, ref2
loss of vision ref1
faeces charts ref1, ref2, ref3

familial disease see genetic disease
FBP see full blood picture
ferritin ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
FEV1 ref1
FEV1/FVC ref1, ref2
fever (pyrexia) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
fibrin/fibrinogen ref1, ref2
fibrosis see pulmonary fibrosis
FiO2 ref1
fluid balance
ADH and ref1, ref2, ref3
dehydration ref1, ref2, ref3
input/output charts ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
problems with IV fluids ref1
weight charts ref1
folate ref1, ref2, ref3
forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) ref1
forced vital capacity (FVC) ref1
foreign bodies in X-rays ref1, ref2
fractures ref1
fructosamine ref1
full blood picture (FBP) ref1
anaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
arthritis ref1, ref2
platelet abnormalities ref1, ref2
polycythaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
SLE ref1
white cell abnormalities ref1, ref2, ref3
FVC (forced vital capacity) ref1
gallbladder disease ref1

gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) ref1, ref2
gas, on X-rays ref1, ref2
gastrointestinal (GI) tract
anaemia and ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
Barrett oesophagus ref1, ref2, ref3
bleeds ref1, ref2
bowel obstruction ref1, ref2, ref3
cancer ref1, ref2
diarrhoea ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
gas on AXR ref1
H. pylori ref1, ref2, ref3
histopathology ref1
volvulus ref1
GCS see Glasgow Coma Scale
genetic disease
chromosomal abnormalities ref1
inheritance patterns ref1, ref2
see also cystic fibrosis;
haemochromatosis
gentamicin ref1, ref2
gestational diabetes mellitus ref1
GGT (gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase) ref1, ref2
GH see growth hormone
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) ref1
fluctuating score ref1
reduced score ref1, ref2, ref3
sudden drop ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
glioma ref1
glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
glucocorticoids ref1
glucose
in blood ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6
in CSF ref1
Goodpasture syndrome ref1
Gram-staining of bacteria ref1
Graves disease ref1
growth hormone (GH)
acromegaly ref1, ref2
deficiency ref1
Guillain–Barré syndrome ref1
haematinics ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4

haemochromatosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
haemoglobin ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
carboxyhaemoglobin ref1
glycated ref1
haemoglobinopathies ref1, ref2, ref3
haemolytic anaemia ref1, ref2, ref3
haemostasis see coagulation
Hashimoto thyroiditis ref1, ref2
HCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) ref1, ref2
head CT scans ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
head injuries ref1, ref2
head X-rays ref1, ref2
hearing loss ref1, ref2, ref3
heart see cardiovascular system
Helicobacter pylori ref1, ref2, ref3
helminths ref1
heparin ref1
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) ref1
hepatic disease see liver
hepatitis ref1, ref2, ref3
hepatocellular carcinoma ref1
hereditary disease see genetic disease
hereditary spherocytosis ref1
herpes simplex encephalitis ref1
histopathology ref1
Hodgkin disease ref1
human chorionic gonadotrophin (-HCG) ref1, ref2
hydrocephalus ref1
hydrogen breath test ref1, ref2
hyperaldosteronism, primary ref1, ref2
hypercalcaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
hyperglycaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
hyperkalaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
hypernatraemia ref1, ref2
hyperparathyroidism ref1, ref2
hyperprolactinaemia ref1, ref2
hypertension ref1
ABPM ref1, ref2, ref3
endocrine causes ref1
malignant ref1
portal ref1, ref2, ref3
pulmonary ref1, ref2, ref3
hyperthyroidism ref1, ref2, ref3
hypoadrenalism ref1, ref2
hypoglycaemia ref1
hypokalaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
hyponatraemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
hypotension
postural ref1
in sepsis ref1
hypothyroidism ref1, ref2
hypovolaemia (dehydration) ref1, ref2, ref3
hypoxia see respiratory failure
immunoglobulins
autoantibodies ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
oligoclonal bands ref1, ref2
plasma cell dyscrasias/multiple myeloma ref1, ref2, ref3
serological tests ref1, ref2, ref3
impaired fasting glucose/impaired glucose tolerance ref1, ref2, ref3
imprinting ref1
infections ref1
ascites (SBP) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
CSF ref1, ref2, ref3
helmintic ref1
urinary tract ref1, ref2, ref3
see also pneumonia
inflammatory markers ref1, ref2
CRP ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ESR ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ferritin ref1
infusions, electrolyte measurements and ref1
inheritance patterns ref1
autosomal dominant ref1, ref2, ref3
autosomal recessive ref1, ref2
genetic imprinting ref1
mitochondrial genes ref1, ref2, ref3
X-linked dominant ref1, ref2, ref3
X-linked recessive ref1, ref2
insulin ref1
insulin tolerance test ref1
international normalised ratio (INR) ref1, ref2
interstitial lung disease see pulmonary fibrosis
intrinsic factor ref1, ref2
iron
deficiency ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6
haemochromatosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ischaemia
bowel ref1
cardiac see myocardial infarction
cerebral (stroke) ref1, ref2, ref3
lower limb ref1, ref2
jaundice, obstructive ref1, ref2, ref3
karyotypes ref1
keratoconjunctivitis sicca ref1, ref2
ketones ref1, ref2, ref3
kidney
calculi ref1
GFR and creatinine ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
histopathology ref1
renal cell carcinoma ref1
renal failure ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
urea ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
urinary sodium ref1, ref2, ref3
lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) ref1

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome ref1
large bowel see colon
left bundle branch-block (LBBB) ref1, ref2
leg ulcers ref1
leukocytes see white blood cells
leukoerythroblastic blood films ref1
LFT see liver function tests
lithium ref1
liver
alcohol abuse ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
cancer ref1
cirrhosis see cirrhosis
haemochromatosis ref1, ref2
hepatitis ref1, ref2, ref3
histopathology ref1
paracetamol overdose ref1, ref2, ref3
liver function tests (LFTs) ref1
alcohol abuse ref1
alcohol abuse plus haemochromatosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
infection ref1
obstructive jaundice ref1
paracetamol overdose ref1, ref2
PBC ref1, ref2
Wilson disease ref1
lower limb ulcers ref1
lumbar puncture ref1
see also cerebrospinal fluid
lung
asthma ref1, ref2
cancer ref1, ref2
metastatic ref1
cavitation ref1
collapsed ref1, ref2, ref3
COPD ref1, ref2, ref3
CXR ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
cystic fibrosis ref1
fibrosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6
functional testing ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
histopathology ref1
oedema ref1
pneumonia see pneumonia
sarcoidosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
lymphocytosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
lymphoma ref1, ref2
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) ref1, ref2, ref3

mastectomy ref1
mean cell volume (MCV) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
mediastinum, on CXR ref1, ref2, ref3
melaena ref1
meningitis ref1, ref2
metabolic acidosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6, ref7, ref8, ref9
diabetic ketoacidosis ref1
metabolic alkalosis ref1, ref2
metanephrines ref1, ref2
microbiology ref1, ref2, ref3
microscopy
blood films ref1, ref2, ref3
CSF ref1, ref2
histopathology ref1
microbiology ref1, ref2
minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) ref1
mitochondrial genes ref1, ref2, ref3
mixed connective tissue disease ref1
Mobitz type I/II heart block ref1
motor neuron disease ref1
MRSA (meticillin-resistant S. aureus) ref1
multiple myeloma ref1, ref2, ref3
multiple sclerosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
myasthenia gravis ref1, ref2
myelofibrosis ref1
myeloma ref1, ref2, ref3
myocardial infarction ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6, ref7
myotonic dystrophy ref1
NAC (N-acetylcysteine) ref1

nerve conduction studies ref1, ref2
neurological investigations ref1
bedside observation charts ref1, ref2
CSF analysis ref1, ref2
neurophysiology ref1
neutrophils
in ascites ref1, ref2
in blood ref1, ref2, ref3
in CSF ref1, ref2
noise-induced hearing loss ref1
nutritional profile ref1, ref2
obstructive sleep apnoea ref1

oesophagus ref1, ref2
oligoclonal bands ref1, ref2
opiate overdose ref1
optic nerve ref1
oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5, ref6
osmolarity/osmolality ref1, ref2, ref3
osmotic fragility test ref1
osteomalacia ref1, ref2
osteoporosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ovarian cancer ref1
ovarian endometriosis ref1
overdose ref1
ABGs ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
antidepressants ref1, ref2
digoxin ref1, ref2, ref3
lithium ref1
opiates ref1
paracetamol ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
salicylates ref1
oxygen
ABG analysis (PaO2) ref1, ref2
saturation (SpO2) ref1
P waves ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4

P–R interval ref1, ref2, ref3
PaBa test ref1, ref2, ref3
pacemakers ref1, ref2
packed cell volume (PCV) ref1, ref2
PacO2 ref1, ref2, ref3
Paget disease of bone ref1, ref2
pancreas
acute pancreatitis ref1, ref2, ref3
chronic pancreatitis ref1
primary biliary cirrhosiPABA test ref1, ref2, ref3
pancytopenia ref1
PaO2 ref1, ref2
paracentesis see ascites
paracetamol overdose ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
paraneoplastic conditions ref1, ref2
parapneumonic pleural effusion ref1
parathyroid hormone (PTH) ref1, ref2
Parkinson disease ref1
PBC (primary biliary cirrhosis) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
PCV (packed cell volume) ref1, ref2
peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) ref1, ref2, ref3
pelvic masses ref1
peptic ulcers ref1
pericarditis ref1
peritoneal cavity, gas in ref1, ref2
peritoneal fluid see ascites
peritonitis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
pernicious anaemia ref1, ref2, ref3
pH ref1, ref2
see also acidosis; alkalosis
phosphate
pituitary tumours (hormone-secreting) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
plasma cell dyscrasias ref1, ref2, ref3
platelets ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
pleural effusions ref1, ref2
CXR ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
parapneumonic ref1
pneumonia ref1, ref2, ref3
ABGs ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
CRP ref1
CXR ref1, ref2, ref3
FBP ref1, ref2, ref3
microbiology ref1, ref2, ref3
pneumoperitoneum ref1, ref2
pneumothorax ref1, ref2
polyarteritis nodosa ref1
polydipsia ref1, ref2
polymyositis ref1, ref2, ref3
portal hypertension ref1, ref2, ref3
postural hypotension ref1
potassium
drug interactions ref1
hyperkalaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
hypokalaemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
Prader–Willi syndrome ref1
pregnancy
diabetes ref1
thyroid function ref1
prerenal uraemia ref1, ref2, ref3
presbyacusis ref1
primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
prolactin ref1, ref2
prostate-specific antigen (PSA) ref1, ref2
protein
in CSF ref1, ref2
transudates and exudates ref1, ref2
prothrombin time (PT) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
pseudogout ref1
PTH (parathyroid hormone) ref1, ref2
pulmonary fibrosis ref1, ref2
ABGs ref1
spirometry ref1, ref2, ref3
pulmonary function tests
PEFR ref1, ref2, ref3
spirometry ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
pulmonary hypertension ref1, ref2, ref3
pulmonary oedema ref1
pulse oximetry ref1
pulse rate ref1, ref2
pulseless electrical activity ref1
pyrexia (fever) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
Q waves ref1, ref2

Q–T interval ref1, ref2
QRS complexes ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
R waves ref1, ref2, ref3

radiology see abdominal X-rays; chest X-rays; computed tomography; head X-rays
recreational drugs ref1, ref2
red blood cells
abnormal cells ref1, ref2, ref3
cell volume (MCV) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
in CSF ref1
ESR ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
red cell distribution width ref1, ref2
red cell mass ref1, ref2, ref3
renal conditions see kidney
renin ref1
respiratory acidosis ref1, ref2
respiratory alkalosis ref1, ref2, ref3
respiratory failure ref1
type 1 ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
type 2 ref1, ref2
reticulocytes ref1, ref2, ref3
rheumatoid disease ref1
autoantibodies ref1, ref2, ref3
histopathology ref1
Schirmer test ref1
spirometry ref1, ref2, ref3
rheumatoid factor (RF) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
right bundle branch-block (RBBB) ref1, ref2
S waves ref1, ref2

SAAG (serum–ascites albumin gradient) ref1, ref2
salicylate poisoning ref1
sarcoidosis ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
SBP (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
Schilling test ref1, ref2
Schirmer test ref1
scleroderma ref1
seizures ref1
self-harm see overdose
sensorineural deafness ref1, ref2, ref3
sepsis/septic shock ref1, ref2, ref3
serological tests ref1, ref2, ref3
serum–ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) ref1, ref2
sex chromosomes see X chromosome
SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH excretion) ref1, ref2, ref3
sick euthyroid syndrome ref1
sickle cell disease ref1, ref2
sigmoid volvulus ref1
sinus rhythm ref1
sinus tachycardia ref1
Sjögren syndrome ref1, ref2
SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus) ref1, ref2
small bowel
absorption of haematinics ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
gas on AXR ref1
obstruction ref1, ref2
sodium
fractional sodium excretion (FENa) ref1
hypernatraemia ref1, ref2
hyponatraemia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
urinary ref1, ref2, ref3
spirometry ref1, ref2
anaemia ref1, ref2
COPD ref1
pulmonary fibrosis ref1, ref2, ref3
sarcoidosis ref1, ref2
splenomegaly ref1
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ST segment ref1, ref2, ref3
Staphylococcus aureus ref1
stomach ref1
stroke
haemorrhagic ref1
ischaemic ref1, ref2, ref3
subarachnoid haemorrhage ref1, ref2
subdural haematoma ref1, ref2
sweat test ref1, ref2
syndrome of inappropriate ADH excretion (SIADH) ref1, ref2, ref3
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) ref1, ref2
T waves ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4

T3 (triiodothyronine) ref1, ref2, ref3
T4 (thyroxine) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
tachycardia ref1
sinus ref1
ventricular ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
TCA overdose ref1, ref2
tears production ref1
temperature charts ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
temporal arteritis ref1, ref2
testicular cancer ref1
thalassaemia ref1, ref2
therapeutic drug monitoring ref1, ref2
thirst (polydipsia) ref1, ref2
thrombocytopenia ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
thrombocytosis ref1
thromboembolism ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
thrombolysis ref1, ref2
thyroid hormones ref1
euthyroid ref1, ref2
hyperthyroidism ref1, ref2, ref3
hypothyroidism ref1, ref2
in pregnancy ref1
sick euthyroid ref1
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
thyroxine (T4) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) ref1
total iron binding capacity (TIBC) ref1, ref2
transferrin receptor (sTfR) ref1
transudates
ascites ref1, ref2
pleural ref1, ref2
see also exudates
tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose ref1, ref2
triiodothyronine (T3) ref1, ref2, ref3
trisomy ref1
troponins (I and T) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4, ref5
TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
tumour markers ref1, ref2
tumours see cancer
U&E profiles see urea & electrolyte profiles

ulcerative colitis ref1
ulcers
leg ref1
peptic ref1
urate (uric acid) ref1, ref2, ref3
urea & electrolyte (U&E) profiles ref1
fluid balance ref1
renal failure ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
urinalysis
DKA ref1, ref2
haemolysis (urobilinogen) ref1, ref2
urinary tract infections ref1, ref2, ref3
urine
drugs screens ref1
polyuria ref1, ref2
renal function and ref1, ref2, ref3
vasopressin see antidiuretic hormone

ventricular arrhythmias ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
ventricular hypertrophy ref1, ref2, ref3
viruses ref1, ref2
vision, loss of ref1
visually evoked responses ref1, ref2
vital signs charts ref1, ref2, ref3
bradycardia ref1
GI bleeds ref1
infections ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
obstructive sleep apnoea ref1
postural hypotension ref1
vitamin B12 deficiency ref1, ref2, ref3, ref4
volvulus ref1
von Willebrand disease ref1
warfarin ref1, ref2

water balance see fluid balance
water deprivation test ref1, ref2
Wegener syndrome ref1
weight charts ref1, ref2
white blood cells
abnormal cells ref1, ref2
in ascites ref1, ref2
in blood ref1, ref2, ref3
in CSF ref1, ref2, ref3
Wilson disease ref1
X chromosome
abnormal karyotype ref1
dominant X-linked inheritance ref1, ref2, ref3
recessive X-linked inheritance ref1, ref2
X-rays see abdominal X-rays; chest X-rays; head X-rays
xanthochromia ref1

Data Interpretation For Medical Students, 2e (Pastest)

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Data

PasTest Revision Books and Intensive Courses

Illustrations by Ben Stockham

Preface to second edition

The practice of medicine in the twenty-first century is centred on data

Liver function tests

Bicarbonate 24–30 mmol/l

Therapeutic drug levels

Abnormalities with red blood cells

TYPE OF ANAEMIA SIZE OF ERYTHROCYTES

DEFICIENCY TYPE OF ANAEMIA

Vitamin B12 Macrocytic

HAEMATINIC ABSORBED FROM

Vitamin B12 Terminal ileum

Folate Small bowel

COMPONENTS OF AN IRON PROFILE

Serum total iron-binding capacity (serum TIBC)

Serum soluble transferrin receptors

In iron deficiency states, iron studies are as follows:

IRON PARAMETER RESULT

Serum total iron-binding

Serum ferritin Reduced – since iron stores are low

Transferrin saturation Reduced

Increased – since red cells attempt to absorb any iron in the

IRON PARAMETER RESULT

Serum total iron-binding capacity Reduced

Serum ferritin May be raised as acute phase reactant

Transferrin saturation Reduced

INTRAVASCULAR HAEMOLYSIS IS SUGGESTED BY

Osmotic fragility test

Direct antiglobulin test

Fig 1.2: The causes of haemolytic anaemia.

Red cell mass

Abnormal white cell counts

COMMON CAUSES OF NEUTROPHILIA (NEUTROPHILS >7.5 ×

Bacterial infections Malignancy

COMMON CAUSES OF NEUTROPENIA (NEUTROPHILS <2.0 ×

COMMON CAUSES OF LYMPHOCYTOSIS (LYMPHOCYTES >3.5

COMMON CAUSES OF EOSINOPHILIA (EOSINOPHILS >0.5 ×

Allergic disorders Skin diseases, eg eczema

Abnormalities with platelets

COMMON CAUSES OF THROMBOCYTOSIS

COMMON CAUSES OF PANCYTOPENIA

COMMON CAUSES OF A RAISED ESR

Abnormal erythrocyte colour or shape

Iron deficiency or defective

Megaloblastic anaemia, high alcohol

Pencil cells Pencil-shaped cells Iron deficiency

Hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic

Hereditary elliptocytosis, thalassaemia

Thalassaemia, iron deficiency, post-

Cells with mouth-shaped Hereditary stomatocytosis, high alcohol

Also known as burr cells – Post-splenectomy, liver disease,

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia,

Myelofibrosis and other causes of

Abnormal shapes of red

Anisochromia Varying shades of colour Iron deficiency

Abnormalities inside erythrocytes

Howell–Jolly bodies Hyposplenism, post-splenectomy