Final Test Series (Online) JEE (Advanced) - 2021: Phase-I
Final Test Series (Online) JEE (Advanced) - 2021: Phase-I
Final Test Series (Online) JEE (Advanced) - 2021: Phase-I
Phase-I
B
CODE
Topics covered:
Physics : Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity
Chemistry : The Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics and Nuclear Chemistry,
Surface Chemistry
Mathematics : Basics of Mathematics (Sets, Wavy Curve Method and Inequalities), Relations and
Functions (XI & XII) (Including Transformation of Graphs), Inverse Trigonometric
Functions, Matrices, Determinants
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 5
sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 5 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and no negative marks for
wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +4
marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains 4 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(v) Section-4: This section contains 2 questions. Each question has two Columns. Column I have
four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Each entry in
Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II. Each entry in column I carries +2
marks for correct answer and no negative marks for wrong answer.
(vi) Section-5: This section contains 3 questions. The answers to each of the question is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are
6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 06, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively. Each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I
PART – I: PHYSICS
SECTION-1
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct
1. When some potential difference is maintained between A and B, current I enters the network at A and
leaves at B.
3l
(D) Current flows from D to C
5
2. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d is charged to potential difference V and
then the battery is disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant k is then inserted (very slowly) between
the plates of the capacitor so as to fill the space between the plates. If Q, E and W respectively denote
the magnitude of charge on each plate, the electric field between the plates (after the slab is inserted)
and the work done by external agent, in process of inserting the slab, then
A0V A
(A) Q (B) Q 0 . kV
d d
V 0 AV 2 1
(C) E (D) W 1
kd 2d k
3. An uncharged spherical conducting ball B is held inside a positively charged thick conducting shell A
without touching it as shown in figure. Then the correct statement/s from the following is/are
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
4. In the circuit shown, if the resistance of the galvanometer is 6 , then in the steady state
(A) No current flows through the galvanometer (B) The current through R2 is 4 A
(C) The charge on C1 is 80 C (D) The charge on C2 is 80 C
5. In the figure shown, C1 = 11 F and C2 = 5 F then choose the correct option(s) at steady state.
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct
answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
9. Current in the direction B shown in diagram at t = 0 (just after the switch S is closed) will be
3 3
(A) 8 A (B) 8 A
4 4
(C) 5 A (D) 5 A
10. Time constant of this R–C circuit will be
16 10
(A) t s (B) t s
3 3
8 5
(C) t s (D) t s
3 3
11. Current I as a function of time t (in s) will be
3t 3t
9 3
(A) l e 8 (B) l e 10
4 2
3t 3t
9 16 3 5
(C) l e (D) l e
4 2
SECTION-3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
12. Figure shows a spherical capacitor consisting of two shells of radii R and 2R. The shells carry charges
Q and –Q as shown. For what value of r, the electrostatic energy stored within radius r and outside the
radius r is same?
4
(A) 2R (B) R
3
3
(C) R (D) 16R
2
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
13. A rod of length l and mass m is uniformly charged with a charge q is hung from one of its ends, as
shown. At some instant uniform horizontal electric field E is switched on. The minimum value of E so
that the rod rotates upto horizontal level is
2mg mg
(A) (B)
q q
mg mg
(C) (D)
2q 4q
14. A point charge q is fixed at point A. Two identical balls of mass m having charge +q and –q are attached
to the ends of a light rod of length 2a and are free to rotate about their centre of mass which is fixed.
The system is released from the situation shown. The angular velocity of the rod when the rod turns
through 90° is
2q q
(A) (B)
30 ma 3
2 0 ma3
2q q
(C) (D)
60 ma 3
60 ma3
15. Figure shows a long thread along the axis of a long hollow cylinder. The uniform charge per unit length
of thread is while uniform surface charge density of the cylinder is –. The radius of the cylinder is R.
Total flux associated with a coaxial cylinder of finite length and radius twice that of the charged cylinder
is zero, if the magnitude of is
(A) (B)
4R 2R
(C) (D)
R 8R
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Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I
SECTION-4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column-I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in
Column-I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for
entries (B), (C) and (D)
16. Four parallel plates each of area A separated by distance d are placed parallel to each other as shown.
Plate 2 is given charge Q0. Other three plates are uncharged. Column-I contains different configuration
and Column-II gives the value of quantities asked in entries of Column-I
Column-I Column-II
(A) Plates 1 and 3 are connected. Charge on (P) 2
Q1
right face of plate 4 is Q1. Value of is
Q0
1
(B) Plates 1 and 3 are connected. Equivalent (Q)
2
capacitance between 1 and 2 is C. Value
Cd
of is
0 A
1
(C) Plates 1 and 4 are connected. Equivalent (R)
3
capacitance between 2 and 3 is C1. Value
C1d
is
0 A
3
(D) Plates 1 and 4 are connected. Charge on (S)
2
Q2
right face of plate 3 is Q2. Value of is
Q0
2
(T)
3
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
17. Two concentric shells of radii a and 2a are placed far away from a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
q q0
C. Plates are given charges 0 and . Switches S1 and S2 are closed at t = 0. After steady state is
2 2
reached, physical quantities are asked in Column-I and value of corresponding physical quantities are
listed in Column-II. (C = 40a)
Column-I Column-II
q1 1
(A) Charge on inner shell is q1. Value of is (P)
q0 4
nq02 1
(B) Energy stored in spherical capacitor is . (Q)
9C 6
Value of n is
1
(C) Energy stored in parallel plate capacitor is (R)
3
n1q02
. Value of n1 is
36C
1
(D) Energy loss as a result of switching is (S)
2
n3 q02
. Value of n3 is
2C
1
(T)
9
SECTION-5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then
mark 06, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
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Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I
18. A short electric dipole with dipole moment p is placed coaxially with a ring of radius R at a distance r0
from the center of the ring as shown in figure. The flux of the electric field due to dipole through the area
p R
bounded by the ring is . The product is______.
20 R
2
r02 2
19. An infinitely long uniform line charge distribution of charge per unit length lies parallel to the y-axis in
3
the y-z plane at z a (see figure). If the magnitude of the flux of the electric field through the
2
L
rectangular surface ABCD lying in the x-y plane with its centre at the origin is (0 = permittivity of
n0
free space), then the value of n is_____.
20. For an electrical network shown in adjacent figure, a variable load resistance R has been connected
between the points A and B. Variable resistance R has been adjusted, so that maximum power
dissipates across the resistor R. Value of resistor R (in ) is
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct
21. Consider the following electrochemical cells
Ecell
Cell I : Pt |H2(1 atm)|HA(0.1 M)||Ag+(0.1 M)|Ag E1
+
Cell II : Pt |H2(1 atm)|HB(0.1 M)||Ag (0.1 M)|Ag E2
+
Cell III : Pt |H2(1 atm)|HC(0.1 M)||Ag (0.1 M)|Ag E3
Cell IV : Pt |H2(1 atm)|HD(0.1 M)||Ag+(0.1 M)|Ag E4
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
HA, HB, HC and HD are all weak acids and cell potentials are in order E1 > E2 > E3 > E4. Select the
correct statement(s) if molality = molarity of weak acids.
(A) Dissociation constant of HD is more than that of HA
(B) If 0.1 M aq. solution of HA, HB, HC and HD are taken then, freezing point of aq. HA solution is greatest
(C) Order of dissociation constant is HA > HC > HB > HD
(D) If 0.1 M aq. solution of HA, HB, HC and HD are taken in separate containers at 27°C then osmotic
pressure of HD solution is highest
22. 1.93 A direct current is passed for 5 × 104 second in pure water using inert electrodes and electrolysis of
water takes place. Select the correct statement(s) about the process. [1F = 96500 C]
(A) Equal moles of H2 and O2 are liberated at cathode and anode respectively
(B) Total volume of all gases liberated at STP is 16.8 L
(C) Volume of O2 liberated at anode is 2 times the volume of H2 liberated at cathode under STP
condition
(D) pH of solution remains same during the electrolysis
23. For a given parallel reaction if both the reaction follows 1st order kinetics
K1
If initially 10 moles of A is taken and is 0.5 then select the correct statement(s).
K2
1
(A) At any instant the ratio of [B] to [C] is constant and equal to
2
1
(B) At any instant the ratio of [B] to [C] is constant and equal to
3
(C) At an instant when moles of B formed is 2, then moles of A remaining at that instant is equal to 7
(D) At an instant when moles of B formed is 2, then moles of C formed at that instant is equal to 4
24. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Freundlich's adsorption isotherm is/are correct?
(A) Freundlich adsorption isotherm holds good only over a limited range of pressure
(B) Freundlich's equation when approximated for adsorption from solution shows large deviations from
actual case
(C) Freundlich's equation is applicable over all pressure range with good result
(D) Freundlich's theory fails at high pressure
25. Consider the given 1st order reactions at 25°C.
Activation energy Rate
(kJ/mol)
Reaction I : A B x R1
(1M)
Reaction II : P Q y R2
(1M)
(Given x > y)
Activation energy and pre-exponential factor are temperature independent.
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Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I
Select the correct statement(s). (Assume pre-exponential factor is same for both reaction)
(A) Rate of reaction II is more than reaction I at temperature T if T < 25°C
(B) Rate of reaction II is less than reaction I at temperature T if T < 25°C
(C) Rate of reaction II is more than reaction I at temperature T if T > 25°C
(D) Rate of reaction I is more than reaction II at temperature T if T > 25°C
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct
answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 26 to 28
The mechanism of an enzymatic reaction can be outlined as follows :
K1
E+S K 1
ES
ES
K2
E+P
E, S, P and ES stands for enzyme, substrate, product and addition complex of E and S.
26. If initial concentration of the enzyme is [E]0 and it is equal to that of the free enzyme i.e., [E] plus the
concentration of the complex i.e., [ES], then select the expression which correctly represents the [ES].
K 1[E]0 [S]
(A)
K 1 K 2
K1[E]0 [S]
(B)
K 1 K 2 K1[S]
K1[E]0 [S]
(C)
K 1 K 2 [S]
K 1 K 2
(B) The order of reaction w.r.t. substrate is zero when [S] <<
K1
K 1 K 2
(C) The order of reaction w.r.t. substrate is one when [S] >>
K1
K 1 K 2
(D) The order of reaction w.r.t. substrate is two when [S] >>
K1
K 2 [E]0 K1[E]0
(C) (D)
K 1 K 2 K1 K 2
[S] [S]
K1 K1
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
Z = Z0 eEa /RT
29. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Greater the desorption activation energy lesser is the time spent by the adsorbed particle on the
surface
(B) Greater the temperature, greater is the time spent by the particle on the surface
(C) The desorption activation energy is generally greater than the adsorption activation energy
(D) The time spent by a particle on the surface is independent of its nature
30. Given that the Arrhenius factor (A) for a desorption is equal to 1013 s–1 at 300 K. Calculate half life time
for desorption if desorption activation energy is 10 kJ/mol.
(A) 4.2 × 10–13 second (B) 600000 years
–12
(C) 3.78 × 10 second (D) 1.9 × 10–13 second
31. The time for which a gas remains adsorbed on a surface is 0.4 s at 500 K and 0.2 second at 1000 K. The
activation energy of the desorption process is (approx)
(A) 5.8 kJ (B) 2.4 kJ
(C) 12.6 kJ (D) 25.6 kJ
SECTION-3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
32. The resistance of a conductivity cell is 1000 ohm when 0.1 M HA is present in the cell. The pH of solution
in the cell at 25°C is 2. Cell constant and Ka of HA are respectively
o o
(Given M of HCl, NaCl and NaA are 420, 126 and 106 S cm2mol–1 respectively where M is limiting
molar conductivity)
(A) 4 cm–1, 1.1 × 10–3 (B) 0.4 cm–1, 1.1 × 10–3
(C) 4 cm–1, 1.1 × 10–5 (D) 0.4 cm–1, 1.1 × 10–2
33. Consider the hypothetical reaction A + 2B Product.
Table given below gives the kinetics for the above reaction at 27°C.
34. How many third nearest neighbours are present in FCC metallic lattice?
(A) 12 (B) 6
(C) 24 (D) 8
35. For which of the following sol, flocculating power of ions is in the order: Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+?
(A) Fe2O3xH2O (B) Methylene blue
(C) TiO2 (D) CdS
SECTION-4
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
Column-I Column-II
O O–H
O O–H
37. Match the compound given in Column-I with its van’t Hoff factor (i) and degree of dissociation () (in a
particular solvent) in Column-II.
(T) 3, ( = 100%)
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
SECTION-5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then
mark 06, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
38. Consider the following unbalanced redox reaction Hg22 NO3– H Hg2 HNO2 H2O
1 M 1 M 1 M 1 M
2.303 RT
Take 0.06, log2 0.3
F
41. The range of function f(x) = [[x] – x] + sin2x, where [·] denotes the greatest integer function, is set B, then
subset(s) of B is/are
(A) [–1, 0] (B) {sin2; I}
(C) [0, 1] (D) [–1, 1]
x 1
– sin–1 x . If B tan 4 tan–1 – tan–1
1 1– x 2 1
42. Given that 0 x , and A = tan sin–1 ,
2 2 2 5 239
then
(A) A2 = B2 (B) A > B
(C) A < B (D) A = B
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Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I
sin2 x cos2 x 1
43. If f(x) = 2 4 6 , then
3 2 1
(A) f(x) [–16, 8] (B) f 48
2
(C) f 16 (D) f 24
2 2
44. f(x) = log [sec–1(x2 + 2x + 3)], where [.] denotes greatest integer function. Which of the following option(s)
is/are correct?
(A) Range of function is {0} (B) Domain of function is (– , )
(C) Domain of function is (– , –1][1, ) (D) Range of function is (– , log 3]
e x e|x|
45. Let f ( x ) and g(x) + g(x + 2) = 2, then
e(3 x x 2)
e |x 3 x 2|
2 2
3
(A) 1, 2 is the subset of domain of f(x) (B) (1, 2) is the subset of domain of f(x)
(C) g(0) + g(8) – g(16) – g(24) = 0 (D) g(3) – g(7) – g(15) + g(19) = 0
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct
answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
x 1 x 1
Let x1 satisfies the equation tan–1 + tan–1 cot 1(7) and x2 be the number of solutions of the
x 1 x 2
x2
equation sinx = , then
200
49. If tan–1(x2 + 3|x| – 2x1) + cot–1(4 + sin–1(sin(2x1 + x2))) = , then the value of sin–1(sin|2x|) is
2
(A) 6 – 2 (B) 2 – 6
(C) – 3 (D) 3 –
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
1 5x
50. The value of cos1 cos1 1 is less than
2 x2
1
(A) cos1
2
1
(B) sin1
3
4
(C) cos1
5
1
(D) cos 1
5
51. Matrices of order 3 × 3 are formed using (x1 + x2), (x1 – x2) and x1 – x2 as elements. How many such
matrices will be symmetric?
(A) 33 (B) 36
(C) 39 (D) 1
SECTION-3
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
{ x }2 – 3{ x } 4 p
52. The range of f(x) = , (where {·} denotes the fractional part function) is , r ; where p
{ x } 3{ x } 4
2
q
and q are natural numbers, coprime to each other, then the value of 5(p + q + r) is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
3
53. Sum of all the real roots of the equation (log3 x )2 log3 x 1 is where equals
x 9
(A) 29 (B) 37
(C) 43 (D) 47
2 3 1 3
2
54. If a + b + c + d + e =
4 3 2
2 4 3 1 , then |a| equals
2 3 3 5 3
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
1 1 1
55. Consider a matrix A = 0 0 1 . The value of determinant of (A–1 – (A–1)2) is
2 3 4
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
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Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I
SECTION-4
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
Column-I Column-II
(A) Range of f(x) = sin–1x + cos–1x + cot–1x is (P) 0, 2 2 ,
3
(B) Range of f(x) = cot–1x + tan–1x + cosec–1x is (Q) 2 , 2
3 5
(D) Range of f(x) = sec–1x + cosec–1x + sin–1x is (S) 4 , 4
(T) [0, ]
57. Match the functions given in Column-I with their type given in Column-II
Column-I Column-II
x2
(A) f (x) for f : R R is (P) One-Ore
1 x2
x 1
(B) f (x) for f : R – {2} R is (Q) Many-One
x2
3
f : [1, 1] , is (S) Into
4 4
(T) Even
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Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-1_Paper-2 (Code-B)
SECTION-5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then
mark 06, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
cos sin nx
58. If the function f x has fundamental period 8, then n equals (n N)
x
tan
n
x N
59. Let f(x) = 4x(1 – x), 0 x 1. The number of solutions of f(f(f(f(x)))) is N then is
5 2
p
60. If a matrix A satisfies A2 – 4A + 3I = 0 and if A8 = pA + qI, then 40 equals
80
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