C.

 Parallel to the temporal lobe of the head

D. Perpendicular to the occiput

8. Not included in the parts of the

sphygmomanometer.
A. Bell B. Cuff
C. Bladder D. Bulb

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 9. Acute pain and anxiety increase pulse rates

because of what reason?
NAME: A. Sympathetic nerves are suppressed
SECTION: B. Parasympathetic nerves are suppressed.
C. Parasympathetic nerves are stimulated
D. Sympathetic nerves are stimulated
I. Multiple Choice. Put the letter of
the correct answer before the 10. Volume of pulse:
number. A. Refers to amount of blood pushing against
the artery of the wall with each beat
1. The most appropriate definition of Vital Signs: B. Amount of beats that the heart exerts every
A.  Signs and symptoms of a disease time we breath
B. An indication of basic body functioning C. Amount of lubs and dubs that we hear every
C. A part of human composition time we expire and inspire
D. Physiology and anatomy D. Amount of blood that circulates through the
cardio-pulmonary system
2. Regulator of body temperature
A. Medulla B. Sebaceous glands 11. Endometrial Cancer is a type of CA that begins
C. Hypothalamus D. Wernicke's area in the:
A. Uterus B. Endometrium
3. Considered the 5th vital sign: C. Ovaries D. Fallopian Tube
A. Height and weight B. Respiration
C. Body mass index D. Pain 12. The nature of Cancer is:
A. Iatrogenic B. Nosocomial
4. When measuring the rectal temperature of an C. Idiopathic D. NOTA
adult, how deep would the thermometer probe be
inserted into the rectum? 13. All but one are the signs and symptoms of
A. 1.5 inches B. 2.5 inches Endometrial Cancer:
C. 0.5 inches D. 1.5 centimeters A. Bleeding between menstruations
B. Pelvic pain
5. Which of the following statements about Fever is C. Endometrial tenderness
not true? D. Vaginal bleeding after menopause
A. Fever is a sign of illness
B. It is the same as pyrexia or hyperthermia 14. An 18-year-old University student was admitted
C. It is reflected through an increase of body to the Acute Medical Unit after a tonic-clonic
temperature seizure that was witnessed by his girlfriend. While
D. It does not do anything to defend the body making breakfast in the kitchen, he was observed
to let out a cry and then fall rigid to the ground,
followed by 30 seconds of jerking of the limbs. He
6. A finding of 140/90 mmHg is indicative of: bit the side of his tongue. He was unresponsive for
A. Normal BP several minutes afterwards. His girlfriend called an
B. Hypertensive BP ambulance. He had not had a seizure before, but
C. Post Hypertensive BP she had noticed his right arm and head tended to
D. Borderline Hypertensive BP twitch in the mornings, especially when he was
tired. He had no past medical or family history and
7. To ensure the best reception of sound, the was not taking any medication.
earpieces of the stethoscope should follow the
contour of the ear canal, pointing where? On examination he was back to normal. The
A. Away from your face when the stethoscope cardiovascular and neurological examination were
is in place
normal. Bloods and a 12-lead ECG were normal.
B. Towards your face when the stethoscope is
What treatment should be offered before discharge
in place
from hospital?

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION – St. Augustine College of Nursing

A. Carbemazepine B. Clonazepam D. To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart
C. Leveteracitam D. Sodium valproate
20. A finding of 140/90 mmHg is indicative of:
15. A 50-year-old businessman was admitted A. Normal BP
following several ‘out of body experiences’ that had B. Hypertensive BP
concerned him enough to attend the Emergency C. Post Hypertensive BP
Department. He described several episodes of
feeling not really there, during which he could not
speak and felt as if he was leaving his own body Dietary Requirements of Infants
and observing the room from the outside. His wife According to Ricci and Kyle, infants from 1
noticed he went blank during these episodes. She to 6 months old need approximately 108
also said that he had been under considerable kilocalories per kilogram of body weight. From 6
stress with his work since a cycling accident one months to 1 year old, they need approximately 98
year ago during which he sustained a head injury. kilocalories per kilogram of body weight. Fluid
He had made a full physical recovery but suffered requirement is at 100 ml/kg/day for first 10 kg,
from low mood. He did not take any regular then 50 ml/kg/day for the next 10 kg. Moreover,
medication. standard infant formula based on cow’s milk
provide 20 kcal/ounce. Compute for the Dietary
On examination he was back to normal. The Requirements of each infant for Bottle Feeding.
cardiovascular and neurological examination was
normal. Bloods and a 12-lead ECG were normal. A I. Infant Weight: 5.6 – Infant Age: 4
CT of the head performed in the Emergency months
Department was unchanged from previous,
showing an abnormality consistent with a previous 21. What is the caloric need of the infant for one
contusion in the right temporoparietal area. What day?
is the most appropriate treatment? A. 549 Kcal C. 547 Kcal
A. Carbemazepine B. Citalopram B. 548 Kcal D. 546 Kcal
C. Counselling D. Leveteracitam
22. What is the volume of milk formula to be
16. Which statement by a ptient who is scheduled consumed in one day?
for a needle biopsy of prostate indicates that the A. 28.4 oz C. 26.4 oz
patient understands the purpose of a biopsy? B. 32.4 oz D. 27.4 oz
A. “the biopsy will tell the doctor whether the
cancer has spread to my other organs.” 23. Feeding bottles are usually calibrated in
B. “the biopsy will help the doctor decide what milliliters. Convert the infant’s volume of milk to be
treatment is to be used for my enlarged prostate.” consumed in one day from oz to ml.
C. “the biopsy will determine how much longer I A. 822 ml C. 820 ml
have to live.” B. 821 ml D. 719 ml
D. The biopsy will indicate the effect of the cancer
on my life.” 24. Infants should be fed 5 times a day. What is the
infant’s approximate volume of milk per feeding
17. Hemiplegia is defined as: time?
A. Paralysis of both legs A. 5.3 oz C. 6.3 oz
B. Paralysis of one side of the body B. 5.5 oz D. 6.6 oz
C. Paralysis of both arms
D. paralysis of the four limbs 25. What is the infant’s approximate volume of milk
per feeding time in milliliters?
18. Which of the following blood tests is most A. 156 ml C. 154 ml
indicative of cardiac damage? B. 165 ml D. 164 ml
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Complete blood count (CBC) 26. Appropriate for full-term and pre-term infants
C. Troponin I having no special nutritional requirements.
D. Creatine kinase (CK) A. Soy-Based Milk
B. Milk Based Formula
19. What is the primary reason for administering C. Standard Milk-Based Formula
morphine to a client with myocardial infarction? D. Formula for Premature Infants
A. To sedate the client
B. To decrease the client's pain
C. To decrease the client's anxiety

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION – St. Augustine College of Nursing

27. Contains heat-treated cow’s milk protein (at 36. It is the true glandular part of the pituitary
reduced concentrations), lactose and minerals from gland
cow’s milk, vegetable oils, minerals and vitamins. A. Parathyroid Gland B. Adrenal gland
A. Soy-Based Milk C. Hypothalamus D. Digestive
B. Milk Based Formula E. Posterior Pituitary F. Anterior Pituitary
C. Standard Milk-Based Formula
D. Formula for Premature Infants 37. Hormone that prevents water loss in the body
by increasing the uptake of water in the kidneys
28. Whole milk from which 60% of water content is and reducing blood flow to sweat glands
removed so it has to be diluted in equal amounts of A. Oxytoxin B. ADH C. TSH
water before using to restore the water removed in D. ACTH E. FSH
its processing, Because of the removal of water, it
is concentrated, containing two times more calories 38. Cranial nerve number 5
and protein than whole milk. A. Optic B. Occulomotor
A. Condensed Milk C. Skimmed Milk C. Trochlear D. Trigeminal
B. Evaporated Milk D. Goat’s Milk
39. Part of the brainstem that controls respiration,
29. A whole milk or skimmed milk from which the HR, swallowing & vomiting
water is completely evaporated. Most infant A. Midbrain B. Pons
formulas nowadays come in powdered forms C. Medulla Oblongata D. Cerebellum
A. Cow’s Milk C. Goat’s Milk
B. Evaporated Milk D. Dried Milk 40. Part of the renal system that the function is to
separate urea, mineral salts, toxins and other waste
30. An evaporated milk to which sugar has been products from the blood
added, it contains about 100 calories per ounce. A. Bowman’s Capsule B. Loop of Henle
A. Dried Milk C. Condensed Milk C. Renal Vein D. Renal Artery E. Kidneys
B. Powdered Milk D. Lactose-Free Milk
41. Which of the following is NOT part of the
31. Small rounded mass, attached to posterior tertralogy of Fallot?
surface of thyroid gland A. Pulmonary infundibular stenosis
A. Parathyroid Gland B. Adrenal gland B. interventricular septal defect
C. Hypothalamus D. Digestive C. aorta arising from both ventricular
E. Posterior Pituitary F. Anterior Pituitary cavities (dextroposition of the aorta)
D. hypertrophy of the right ventricular wall
32. These are pair of roughly triangular glands E. interatrial septal defect
found immediately superior to the kidneys
A. Parathyroid Gland B. Adrenal gland 42. The caregiver explained how to position an
C. Hypothalamus D. Digestive infant with tetralogy of Fallot if the infant suddenly
E. Posterior Pituitary F. Anterior Pituitary becomes cyanotic. The caregiver can determine the
father understood the instructions when he states
33. Its function is control center and attached to "If the baby turns blue, I will
roof of third ventricle,thalamus A. hold him against my shoulder with his knees
A. Parathyroid Gland B. Adrenal gland bent up toward his chest."
C. Hypothalamus D. Digestive B. lay him down on a firm surface with his head
E. Posterior Pituitary F. Anterior Pituitary lower than the rest of his body."
C. immediately put the baby upright in an infant
34. Cholecystokinin, secretin, and gastrin are all seat."
produced by what system? D. put the baby in supine position with his head
A. Parathyroid Gland B. Adrenal gland elevated.
C. Hypothalamus D. Digestive
E. Posterior Pituitary F. Anterior Pituitary

35. A structure of pituitary gland that is actually not PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF BRONCHIAL ASTHMA:
a glandular tissue at all, but nervous tissue instead Choose the letter of the correct answer from the
A. Parathyroid Gland B. Adrenal gland box below the diagram.
C. Hypothalamus D. Digestive
E. Posterior Pituitary F. Anterior Pituitary

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION – St. Augustine College of Nursing

 a. Prostaglandin
b. Cardiac Cells
c. Popping Sound
d. Whistling
e. Schwann’s Cells
f. Status Asthmaticus
Antigen – Antibody g. Glial Cells
Reaction h. Bronchus
i. Progesterone
j. Status Epilepticus
Destruction of k. Respiratory Distress
43._____________ l. Goblet Cells
m. Mast Cells
n. Lungs
44._________ o. Crackle Sound
goes out and p. Rales
spreads inside q. Leukotriene
the body r. Wheezing
s. Alveoli
Release of Chemical mediators : t. Antigen
45._________ - potent vasoconstrictor
46._________ - responsible for pain
More histamine
51. Penetrating pointed instruments such as nails,
ice picks.
Increased mucus secretions A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
produced by 47._________ D. Avulsion E. Incision
52. Scrapping or rubbing against rough surfaces.
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
D. Avulsion E. Incision
Inspiration: Expiration: bronchus 53. Blunt instruments such as sharpnel's rock,
broken glasses.
48._________ closes which increases
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
slightly expands Intrathoracic Pressure – D. Avulsion E. Incision
Produces: 49.__________ 54. Explosion, animal bites, mishandling of tools.
sound. A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
D. Avulsion E. Incision
55. Sharp bladed instruments such as blades,
razor.
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
If left untreated w/in 24 hrs or patient is D. Avulsion E. Incision
56. Deep and narrow, serious or slight bleeding
unresponsive to Treatment can lead to
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
50._____________________ D. Avulsion E. Incision
57. Shallow, wide, oozing of blood, dirty.
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
HYPOXIA then eventually may lead D. Avulsion E. Incision
to RESPIRATORY ARREST 58. Torn with irregular edges, serious or slight
bleeding.
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
D. Avulsion E. Incision
59. Tissue forcefully separated from the body
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
D. Avulsion E. Incision
60. Clean cut, deep, severe bleeding, wound is
clean.
A. Puncture B. Abrasion C. Laceration
D. Avulsion E. Incision

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION – St. Augustine College of Nursing

 TRUE OR FALSE: Write TRUE if the easier, and it should have a nonskid mats or
statement is correct, and FALSE if the adhesive on the bottom for safety.
statement is wrong.
________74. Clients should be evaluated for
________61. When it’s cold, your body tries to their ability to put on and take off the usual
conserve heat. One way it does that is by type of clothing. No instances of dressing can
slowing down the flow of the blood to the be accomplished using one-handed techniques,
farthest parts. That is when Emphysema although limitations of range of motion and
happens. make it difficult to put the arms though sleeves
or slip clothing of usual design over the feet.
________62. Secondary Raynaud’s is also
called Raynaud’s Phenomenon. ________75. Use of assistive devices such as
buttonhooks, long-handled reachers, and
________63. Good leg goes to heaven, bad leg shoehorns often disable patients to dress
goes to hell. themselves independently

________64. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a ________76. Aside from mobility, the activities
condition that involves pressure on a major that must be performed to achieve functional
nerve on the hand. independence include hygiene, eating,
dressing, and bowel and bladder control.
________65. If Buerger’s disease worsens,
blood flow to the arms and legs increases. ________77. Place wheelchair on Head of Bed
with the footrest of the chair faces the foot
________66. COPD. Includes Diagnostic part of the bed.
procedures such as: CHEST XRAY, CT SCAN, ABG
ANALYSIS, and Complete Blood Count ________78. For a patient who has lower
extremity paraplegia, transfer to and from the
________67. 3 point gait is the most stable bed by use of a wheelchair is convenient.
gait.
________79. For patients with hemiplegia or
________68. 4 point gait is the fastest gait. generalized weakness who has head and trunk
balance, the pivot transfer can be performed
________69. Functional Independence – independently or with assistance of one person
capability of an individual of serving the or with little effort.
purpose for which he was designed – freedom
of control, influence and support his daily ________80. Adaptations should enhance
activities. function without interfering with
independence.
________70. Bed Mobility – the handicapped
patients should be trained to shift about in bed, 81. A type of very hard rock which feels cold when
turn in both directions, sit erect in the long and you touch it and shines when it is cut and polished.
short sitting positions, and reach objects on the A. Vinyl Flooring B. Marble
bedside table. C. Terrazo D. Asphalt

________71. To improve the ability to transfer, 82. A kind of floor made out of PVC
exercises are directed particularly to the bones A. Vinyl Flooring B. Marble
for shoulder depression, elbow extension, C. Terrazo D. Asphalt
handgrip, hip extension and knee extension.
83. A metamorphic rock composed of recrystallized
________72. Physically disabled patients may carbonate minerals
be unable to feed themselves adequately A. Vinyl Flooring B. Marble
because of loss of grasp, range of motion, or C. Terrazo D. Asphalt
coordination.
84. Made of marble chips and other fine aggregates
________73. Bathing in the tub or shower on the surface of finished concrete
requires the ability to transfer. A stool in the A. Vinyl Flooring B. Marble
tub or shower may make independent transfer C. Terrazo D. Asphalt

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION – St. Augustine College of Nursing

85. These tiles are particularly well suited for 95. Is made from cellulose and has silk-like
application to concrete floors on grade, as they not appearance.
affected by moisture. A. Acetate B. Cotton C. Wool
A. Asphalt B. Ceramic C. Wood D. Nylon
D. Linoleum E. Rubber
96. Is a delight to wear, but requires special
86. A tile made from clay that has been care. Most of these garments are marked “Dry-
permanently hardened by heat, often having a Clean only”.
decorative glaze. A. Linen B. Acetate C. Rayon
A. Asphalt B. Ceramic C. Wood D. Silk
D. Linoleum E. Rubber
97. Is strong, long wearing and absorbent. It
87. Any product manufactured from timber that is will shrink and wrinkle unless it is given special
designed for use as flooring, either structural or treatment.
aesthetic. A. Spandex B. Cotton C. Linen
A. Asphalt B. Ceramic C. Wood D. Wool
D. Linoleum E. Rubber
98. Is highly resilient, absorbent, and shed
88. Floor covering made from renewable materials wrinkles well but it will shrink and mat if exposed
such as linoxyn, pine rosin, ground cork dust, wood to heat and rubbing.
flour, and mineral fillers such as calcium carbonate. A. Acetate B. Wool C. Acrylic D.
A. Asphalt B. Ceramic C. Wood Polyester
D. Linoleum E. Rubber
99. Is a fabric that is strong, resilient, wrinkle-
89. Incredibly durable, soft to the touch and warm resistant, colourfast, crisp and hold pleats and
underfoot, making it the perfect choice for any creases well.
home or commercial space. A. Polyester B. Acrylic C. Modacrylic
A. Asphalt B. Ceramic C. Wood D. Nylon
D. Linoleum E. Rubber
100. Is a lightweight fibre that resembles rubber
90. Have anti static property that makes it ideal for in durability.
a computer shop. A. Cotton B. Rayon C. Spandex
A. Asphalt B. Ceramic C. Wood D. Polyester
D. Linoleum E. Rubber
101. Means the body does not make enough
91. It resembles acetate, but it is less sensitive insulin to function.
to heat: this allows it to be creased and crispy A. Type 4 B. Type 3 C. Type 2
pleated, it is often used in jersey, textured knits and D. Type 1
taffeta.
A. Rayon B. Modacrylic 102. Happens when a person’s body does not
C. Triacetate D. Fiberglass respond well to insulin.
A. Type 1 B. Type 3 C. Type 2
92. Is a strong, absorbent fabric, but it tends to D. Type 4
lose strength when it is wet.
A. Spandex B. Rayon C. Cotton 103. Also called End Stage Renal Disease
D. Wool A. Liver Cirrhosis B. kidney failure
C. Heart Attack D. DM
93. This fabric is wrinkle free and soil resistant,
but they have poor resistant to abrasion. 104. What food should we avoid in Kidney
A. Fiberglass B. Nylon C. Acrylic Problem Patients
D. Silk A. High Fat B. High Calcium
C. High Sugar D. High Oxalate
94. This fabric is extremely strong, lightweight,
smooth and lustrous. They are also non absorbent 105. Which of the following is NOT a warning
and have excellent wrinkle resistance. Sign of Diabetes
A. Modacrylic B. Wool C. Nylon A. Fatigue B. Weight Gain
D. Acetate C. Frequent Urination D. Excessive Thirst

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION – St. Augustine College of Nursing

106. Foods should be heated until they reach ________118. Perineal/Genital Care. For
and maintain ____C or above Males, position the male client in a dorsal
A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100 recumbent position with knees flexed and hips
externally rotated.

107. Food that prevent or heal Ulcers ________119. Oral Care. For unconscious
A. Tomatoes B. Peppermint C. patients, use a cotton-tipped applicator
Mayonnaise D. Raw Honey moistened in water based mouthwash.

108. Food to Avoid if you have stomach ulcer ________120. Shampooing. Apply shampoo to
A. Avocado B. Cabbage C. Brussels Sprouts the scalp. Make a harsh lather with the
D. Milk shampoo while intensely massaging the scalp
to eliminate germs.
109. Ulcers that occur on the inside of the
stomach.
A. Gastric B. Duodenal C. Esophageal
D. Mouth

110. May form if there is too much bilirubin.

A. Gallstones B. DM
C. Acalculous Cholecystitis D. Acute
Cholesystitis

TRUE OR FALSE: Write TRUE if the statement is

correct, and FALSE if the statement is wrong.

________111. In positioning the client in bed,

adjust the head of the bed to a flat position, or
as low as the patient can tolerate.

________112. Lock the wheels on the bed. Do

not raise the side rails on the side of the bed
opposite you.

________113. For bathing the patients in bed,

remove the client’s gown while keeping the
client covered with the bath blanket.

________114. Wash the face. Wash, rinse, and

dry the client’s face, ears, and neck.

________115. Wash the arms and hands. Place

a towel crosswise under the arm away from
you. “The greatest glory in living
________116. Wash the chest and abdomen.
rises not in never falling.
After rinsing the chest and abdomen, replace But in rising every time we
the bath blanket towards when the areas are
wet. fall.”
________117. Perineal/Genital Care. For
Females, Cover her body and face with the bath
-Nelson Mandela
blanket.

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION – St. Augustine College of Nursing