KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL, MATHURA

CLASS-XII
SUBJECT-BIOLOGY
CHAPTER-SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS(1 MARKS EACH)

1. What is the function of fili form apparatus in an angiosperm embryo sac?
(a) Brings about opening of the pollen tube
(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
(c) Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid
(d) None of these
2. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is
(a) 8 – celled (b) 7 – celled
(c) 6 – celled (d) 5 – celled
3. Polygonum type of embryo sac is
(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled (b) 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
(c) 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled (d) 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled
4. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in
(a) Helianthus (b) Commelina
(c) Rosa (d) Gossypium
5. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
(a) Commelina (b) Zostera
(c) Salvia (d) Fig
6. Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure
xenogamy, in
(a) papaya (b) bottle gourd
(c) maize (d) all of these.
7. Feathery stigma occurs in
(a) pea (b) wheat
(c) Datura (d) Caesalpinia
8. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
(a) bees (b) butterflies
(c) birds (d) wind
9. Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant?
(a) Zostera (b) Vallisneria
(c) Hydrilla (d) Cannabis
10.Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively coloured flowers are associated
with
(a) hydrophily (b) entomophily
(c) ornithophily (d) anemophily
11.Endospermic seeds are found in
(a) castor (b) barley
(c) coconut (d) all of these
12.In albuminous seeds, food is stored in _______ and in non albuminous seeds, it is
stored in _______.
(a) endosperm, cotyledons (b) cotyledons, endosperm
(c) nucellus, cotyledons (d) endosperm, radicle
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 13.Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.
(a) perisperm, black pepper (b) perisperm, groundnut ‘
(c) endosperm, black pepper (d) endosperm groundnut
14.Identify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilization development.
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen.
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm.
(d) The ovule develops into seed.
15.Polyembryony commonly occurs in
(a) banana (b) tomato
(c) potato (d) citrus.
16.An embryo may sometimes develop from any cell of embryo sac other than egg. It is
termed as
(a) apospory (b) apogamy
(c) parthenogenesis (d) parthenocarpy
17.Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
(a) Stamen (b) filament
(c) pollen grain (d) androecium
18.The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are
respectively
(a) endothecium and tapetum (b) epidermis and endodermis
(c) epidermis and middle layer (d) epidermis and tapetum.
19.During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
(a) endothecium (b) microspore mother cells
(c) microspore tetrads (d) pollen grains
20.From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the
gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
(b) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(c) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTION( 1 MARKS EACH)

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement
of reason.Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: Autogamy is a transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the stigma of the
same flower on the same plant.
Reason : Xenogamy is pollination between two flowers on different plants.(C)

2. Assertion: Insects visit flower to gather honey.

Reason : Attraction of flowers prevents the insects from damaging other parts of the
plant.(D)
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3. Assertion: Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the first male gametophyte cells.
Reason : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens.(D)

4. Assertion: Flowers are the structures related to sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
Reason: Various embryological processes of plants occur in a flower.(A)

5. Assertion: Geitonogamy is genetically similar to autogamy.

Reason: The pollen grains come from same plant.(A)

6. Assertion: Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set in the absence of

pollinators.
Reason: These flowers do not open at all.(A)

7. Assertion: A typical microsporangium of angiosperms is generally surrounded by four

wall layers.
Reason: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in
dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.(B)

8. Assertion: Exine of a pollen grain is made up of sporo pollenins which are resistant to
high temperatures, strong acids or alkali as well as enzymatic degradation.
Reason: Sporo pollenins are absent in the region of germ pores.(B)

9. Assertion: An angiosperms flower represents the modified condensed shoot which

performs the function of sexual reproduction.
Reason: The fertile leaves of the shoot become modified into microsporophyll’s and
magasporophylls which bear ovules and anthers respectively.(C)

10.Assertion: Although geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination involving a

pollinating agent, genetically it is similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come
from the same parent.
Reason: In getionogamy, pollen grains from the anthers of one flower are transferred to
the stigma of another flower borne on the same plant.(A)

11.Assertion: The pre-pollination growth of male gametophyte occurs inside the

microsporangium whereas the rest of the growth occurs over the female reproductive
organs.
Reason: Growth of the entire female gametophyte occurs inside the mega
sporangium.(B)

12.Assertion: Hydrophily is a major mode of pollination in most of the aquatic plants in

angiosperms.
Reason: Almost all the aquatic dicot and monocot plants require water for the transport
of male gametes and for fertilisation.(D)

13.Assertion: Pollen grains from male parent are mostly transferred to the stigma in the
female parent by some external agency.
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 Reason: This is because the male flowers or male organs have no internal device to
reach the female organs in another flower.(A)

14.Assertion: Gynoecium consists of pistil.

Reason: It represents the male reproductive part in flowering plants.(C)

15.Assertion: Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating agents.

Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex organs.(B)

VERY SHORT TYPE QUESTIONS ( 2 MARKS EACH)

1. In a young anther, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells was

observed in the center of each microsporangium. What is the name given to
these cells?
Ans: Sporogenous tissue
2. Give the scientific name of a plant that came to India as a contaminant with
imported wheat and causes pollen allergy.
Ans: Parthenium
3. Pollen grains of water pollinated species have special characteristics for
protection from water. What is that?
Ans: Presence of mucilaginous covering
4. Why are pollen grains produced in enormous quantities in Maize?
Ans: To make sure pollination is happening as the Maize is pollinated by wind.
5. In the same species of Asteraceae and grasses, seeds are formed without the
fusion of gametes. Mention the scientific term for such forms of reproduction.
Ans: Apomixis
6. If the diploid number of chromosomes in an angiosperm plant is 16. Mention the
number of chromosomes in the endosperm and antipodal cell.
Ans: Chromosomes are in the endosperm and 16 chromosomes are present in
the antipodal cell.
7. Why is emasculation done in the process of hybridization?
Ans: Emasculation is when the stamens are separated before artificial
hybridization to secure that no unwanted pollen lands on the stigma and the
flower can be pollinated with the wanted pollen grains.
8. Why do most zygotes develop after a certain amount of embryo is formed?
Ans: As an adaptation to give guaranteed sustenance to the developing embryo,
the zygote divides only when a particular amount of endosperm is created.
9. Why an apple is called a false fruit? Which part of the plant forms the fruit?
Ans: Apple is known as a false fruit as it develops from the ovary together with
the accessory floral plants such as the Thalamus
10.Name the type of cross pollination in Vallisneria & Bougainvillea.
Ans: (i) vallisneria - Hydrophily (ii) Bougainvillea – Entomophily

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION ( 3 MARKS EACH)

1. In the given figure of a dicot embryo, label the parts and give their function.

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 Ans: A =Plumule to form shoot system B= Cotyledons Storage of food
2. Given below is an incomplete flow chart showing the formation of gamete in
angiosperm plants? Observe the flow chart carefully and fill in the blank A, B,
C, and D.

Ans: In the given flow chart

A represents Ovule/Megasporangium
B represents Megaspore mother cell
C represents Tapetum
D represents Pollen grains
3. Describe the structure of a microsporangium with a neatly labeled diagram.
Ans: The structure of the microsporangium is as follows:
-It is almost circular and it also has four wall layers.
-The outer three layers are epidermis, endothecium and middle layers are protective
in nature and help in the dehiscence of anther so that it can release pollen grains.
-The inner tapetum provides food and nourishes the developing embryo.
Sporogenous tissue remains at the central position.

4. Draw a diagram of L.S. of an anatropous ovule of an Angiosperm & label the

following parts:-
(i) Nucellus
(ii) Integument
(iii) Antipodal cells
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 (iv) Secondary Nucleus.
Ans:

5. Why is the process of fertilization in flowering plants referred to as double

fertilization?
Ans: In flowering plants, the first male nuclei fuse with the egg to produce a
diploid zygote, and the second male nuclei fuse with the Secondary nucleus to
produce the primary endosperm nucleus, resulting in DOUBLE
FERTILISATION.
6. What are cleistogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous
flowers? Give a reason?
Ans: In some Angiosperm plants eg. Commelina, Oxalis, etc, flowers are
bisexual and they never open. This condition is known as cleistogamy and
flowers from this condition are called cleistogamous. The cleistogamous flowers
are self-pollinated and to ensure this they never open. Hence, cross-pollination is
not possible.
7. Mention two strategies evolved lay flowers to prevent self-pollination
Ans: Two strategies evolved lay flowers to prevent self-pollination
(i) Dichogamy - In this process, two reproductive organs of a bisexual flower
mature at different- different times.
(ii) Self sterility – The Pollen grains couldn’t germinate on the stigma of the
same flower or on the flower of the same plant.
8. Draw a well-labeled diagram of a longitudinal section of a pistil showing pollen
germination?

9. Explain the structure of an anatropous ovule with a neat labeled diagram?

Ans: An anatropous ovule consists of: a stalk called a funicle attached to the
placenta. Helium is the name for the connection between the funicle and the
ovule. One or more integuments might enclose the ovule, with an aperture at the
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 tip. The opening is called the micropyle. The opposite end of the micropyle is
referred to as the chalazal end, the basal part of the ovule. Within the
integuments that ordinarily contain a single embryo sac is a mass of cells known
as nucellus.

10. Enlist the advantages offered by seeds to angiosperms.

Ans: The importance of seed formation:
Seed formation is linked with fertilization and pollination that are
independent of water and therefore it is surely a more dependable
process.Seed formation provides nutrition and protection to the budding
embryo.Seeds are used for the multiplication of plants. Seeds are capable
of perennation; they can withstand different climates.

11. Trace the development of microsporocytes into mature pollen grains.

Ans: When the anther is at an early stage of

development, the microsporangium has closely
arranged homogenous cells which form the
Sporogenous tissues.
1. Each cell of sporogenous tissue will become a
Pollen mother cell (PMC) and also forms microspore
tetrad or Pollen grains.
2. But Some of them lose this Potential and later get
differentiated into a pollen or microspore mother
cell (MMC)
3. Every microspore mother cell (MMC) undergoes
meiosis and produces a bunch of four haploid cells,
which is called microspore tetrad.
4. When the anther gets matured, the microspores get dissociated from the
tetrad and develop into pollen grains.
5. The mitosis happens in the nucleus of microspores to produce bigger
vegetative cells and smaller generative cells. They form a double-layered wall –
outer exine is made up of sporopollenin and the inner intine is made up of
cellulose and pectin. Generally, the pollen grains are released at two-celled
stages.

12. Trace the development of megasporocytes into the mature ovule.

Ans: (i) A single Megaspore mother cell is differentiated in the micropylar
region of the nucleus of an ovule & undergoes meiosis & forms a cluster of
haploid cells called megaspore tetrad. Of these, soon three degenerates & only
one megaspore becomes functional
(ii) Functional megaspore enlarges to form embryo sac. Its nucleus undergoes
mitotic division & two nuclei move to opposite poles forming a 2-nucleate
embryo sac.
(iii) Two successive mitotic divisions in each of these two nuclei result in
information of 8- nucleate embryo sac.

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 (iv) Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end to form egg
apparatus. consisting of two synergids & a female egg cell.
(v) Three cells are grouped together at the chalazal end, they are called
antipodal cells.
(vi) The remaining two nuclei are called Polar nuclei; they move to the center of
the embryo sac & fuse to form the secondary nucleus. Thus a typical angiosperm
embryo sac is 8-nucleate 7-celled.

13. “Incompatibility is the natural barrier in the fusion of gamete”. Justify this
statement.
Ans: Pollen grains of a plant species cannot germinate on the stigma of other
non-related species as both the species are incompatible and the process is called
pollen – pistil incompatibility. In many angiosperms plants, it is observed that
pollen grains germinate on the stigma of non-related species but male gametes
produced in pollen tubes cannot fertilize eggs. This is called gametic
incompatibility. Self-incompatibility can be attained by utilizing any of the
following ways:-
1. Pollen Stigma interaction: - In this phenomenon, pollen grains fail to germinate
on Stigma because of incompatibility.
2. Pollen tube style interaction: - In this phenomenon, pollen grains become able to
germinate on stigma & pollen tube penetrate stigmatic surface but due to
incompatibility growth of pollen tube within stigma & style is inhibited.
3. Pollen – ovule interaction: - pollen tube successfully pierces & grows within style
& its growth is inhibited at micropyle of ovule.
14. How pollination does takes place in salivia. List any four adaptations required
for such type of pollination.
Ans: In salivia, entomophily/pollination of insects occur. The flowers of salivia are
bilipped. Its upper lip consists of two petals and its lower lip consists of three petals.
The lower lip is intended as a sitting pad for insects. In regular conditions, the
connective stays upright. When the insect penetrates the tube of the corolla in the
direction of nectar sitting on the lower lip, it pushes the sterile anther lobe which
automatically brings about fertile anther to touch the backside of insects and gets the
blow of the fertile lobe. Pollen grains are dusted on the back feathers and legs of
insects
Adaptations or Entomophily Are:-
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 1. Flowers are brightly colored.
2. Flowers possess nectar glands.
3. Pollen grains are usually sticky & spiny
4. Flowers are large-sized & stout
15. Explain the development of an embryo in a dicotyledonous plant with neatly
labeled diagrams.
Ans: The embryo develops at the micropylar end where the zygote is located.
The zygote begins developing after the particular part of the endosperm is
developed to ensure nutrition to the embryo. The zygote breaks mitotically to
develop several stages including pro- embryo, globular, heart-shaped, and
eventually the developed embryo.

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS(4 MARKS )

1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Cross pollination is the transfer-of pollen grains from the anther of a one flower to the
stigma of a genetically different flower. It is performed with the help of an external agency
which may be abiotic (e.g., wind, water) or biotic (e.g., insects, birds, bats, snails). The
diagram shows the carpel of an insect pollinated flower.

(i) What is the most likely reason for non-germination of pollen grain Z?
(a) Pollen grains X and Y were brought to the stigma earlier, therefore, their germination
inhibited the germination of pollen grain Z.
(b) Pollen grain Z was brought to the flower by wind, while pollen grains X and Y were
brought to the flower by insect

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(c) Pollen grain Z lacks protrusions that allow it to adhere properly onto the stigma surface
(d) Pollen grain Z comes from a flower of an incompatible species

(ii) Which of the following best describes the function of the pollen tube?
(a) It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from the anther to the ovule
(b) It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from the stigma to the ovule.
(c) It contains key nutrients that serve to nourish the newly-formed zygote
(d) It digests the tissues of the stigma, style and ovary.

(iii) Pollination of a flower in which the pollen is carried by an insect is called

a. anemophily c. ornithophily
b. entomophily d. malacophily

(iv) Refer to the given characteristics of some flowers:

a. the stamen hang out of the flower ,exposing the anthers to the wind
b. The pollen grains are tiny and light.
c. the flower has a sweet scent
d. The flower petals are brightly coloured.

How many of the above characteristics are of insect-pollinated flower?

a. one c. two
b. three d. four

(v) Pollenkitt is generally found in

a. anemophylous flower b. entomophylous flower
c. orthinophylous flower d. malacophylous flower

2. The pollen grains or microspores are the male reproductive bodies of a flower and
are
Contained in the pollen sac or microsporangia. Each pollen grain consists of a single
microscopic cell, possessing two coats: the exine and the intine. The exine of a pollen
grain is made of chemically stable material. Because of this, pollen grains are often
very well preserved for thousands of years in soil and sediments.
1. One of the most resistant biological material present in the exine of pollen grain is
(a) pectocellulose (b) sporopollenin (c) suberin (d) cellulose

2. The exine possesses one or more thin places known as

(a) raphe (b) germ pores (c) hilum (d) endothecium

3. What is the function of germ pore?

(a) Emergence of radicle (b) Absorption of water for seed germination
(c) Initiation of pollen tube (d) All of these

4. What is the key advantage to the plant for having such strong pollen grain walls?
(a) It protects the vital genetic material in the pollen grain.
(b) It allows pollen to serve as a valuable fossil record for the study of ancient plants.

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(c) It prevents the pollen tube from growing out before the pollen grain reaches the stigma
of a compatible species.
(d) It gives weight to the pollen grain allowing to cling better to the body surfaces of insect
pollinators.

5. The number of germ pores in dicots and monocots respectively are

(a) one and threes (b) three and two
(c) two and three (d) three and one

3. Pollen-pistil interaction is the group of events that occur from the time of pollen
deposition over the stigma to the time of pollen tube entry into ovule. It is a dynamic
process which has checks at several places for promotion or inhibition of pollen
growth. Pollen-pistil interaction is a safety CoA measure to ensure that illegitimate
crossing does not occur. Compatibility and incompatibility of the pollen-pistil is
determined by special proteins. The compatible policies are able to absorb water and
nutrients from the surface of the stigma. They germinate and produce pollen tubes.
Pollen tubes grow into the style. Their growth and path through the style are also
determined by specific chemicals.
(1) Which of the following paths of gynoecium determines the compatible nature of pollen?
(a) Stigma (b) Style
(c) Ovary (d) Thalamus

(ii) In Trifolium, which type of self-incompatibility is found?

(a) Gametophytic self-incompatibility (GSI)
(b) Sporophytic self-incompatibility (SSI)
(c) Both GSI and SSI
(d) None of these.

iii) Select the incorrect statement.

(a) In Asteraceae, incompatibility is due to the genotype of the sporophytic stigmatic
tissues.
(b) In members of Brassicaceae, incompat- 1bility is due to the genotype of the pollen.
(c) Nature has imposed self-incompatibility to avoid highly homozygous individuals which
have a very low survival value.
(d) None of these.

(iv) Which of the following are the examples of self-incompatibility?

(a) Tobacco (c) Crucifers
(b) Potato (d) All of these.

4. Apomixis is a mode of reproduction which does not involve formation of zygote through
gametic fusion. In plants, apomixis commonly mimics sexual reproduction but produces
seeds without fertilization. There are several methods of apomictic development in seeds.
The two common ones are recurrent agamospermy and adventive embryony.

(i) Apomixis is a type of reproduction in plants in which

(a) Fertilization does not take place
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(b) Male nucleus takes part in fertilization
(c) Pollen fusion takes place
(d) Generative nucleus takes part in fertilization.

(ii) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding recurrent agamospermy?

(a) It is the formation of seed that has an embryo formed without meiosis and syngamy.
(b) All the cells of embryo sac are diploid.
(c) An embryo develops directly from a diploid cell other than egg like that of nucleus
and integuments.
(d) None of these.

(iii) Adventive embryony is found in

a) Citrus c) Opuntia
b) Apple d) Both (a) and (b)

(iv) Formation of embryo directly from diploid egg without fertilization is called
a) diploid parthenogenesisis
b) polyembryony
c) diplospory
d) amphimixis

(v) If any somatic cell of sporophyte produces gametophyte without reduction division, it
called
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) apospory
(c) apogamy
(d) amphimixis

5. The endosperm makes the main source of food for the embryo. Generally, the endosperm
nucleus divides after the division of the oospore, but in several cases the endosperm 1s
formed to a great extent even before the first division of the o0spo There are three general
types of endosperm formation: (a) nuclear type, (b) cellular tyneand (c) helobial type. The
endosperm is usually triploid but haploid endosperm is also found.Endosperm may either be
completely consumed by the developing embryo before seed maturation or it may persist in
the mature seed.
(i) Haploid endosperm is found in
a) Pinus
b) cauliflowers
c) sunflower
d) pea
(ii) Persistent endosperm is found in
(p) Pea (q) Castor (r) Bean (s) Coconut (t) Groundnut
a. Q and s
b. P and T
c. R, S and T
d. P, S and T

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iii) Milk of tender coconut represents (i) and the surrounding white coconut meal represents
(ii).
(i) (ii)

(a) cellular endosperm free-nuclear

(b) free-nuclear endosperm cellular endospermn
© helobial endosperm cellular endosperm
(d) free nuclear endosperm helobial endosperm

(iv) If an endosperm cell of a gymnosperm contains 12 chromosomes, the number of

chromosomes in each cell of the root will be
a.4 b. 24 c. 16 d. 06

(v) In angiosperms, normally after fertilization

(a) The zygote divides earlier than the primary endosperm nucleus
(b) The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote.
(c) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus divide simultaneously.
(d) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus undergo a resting period.

LONG NSWER TYPES QUESTION(5 MARKS EACH)

1. Angiosperms bearing unisexual flowers are said to be either monoecious or
dioecious. Explain with the help of one example each. (2016)
Ans:Plant bearing flowers of both sexes, i.e. staminate and pistillate flowers called
monoecious, e.g. lea mays (maize).
When both sexes, i.e. staminate and pistillate flowers, are present on different plants;
these plants are called dioecious, e.g. Carica papaya (Papaya).

2. A bilobed, dithecous anther has 100 microspore mother cells per

microsporangium. How many male gametophytes this anther can produce?
(Delhi 2010)
Ans :An anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four
microsporangia.
Each microsporangium has 100 microspore
mother cells, so total number of microspore
mother cells in anther = 4 × 100 = 400
microspore mother cells. Meiosis in each microspore mother cell produces 4 male
gametes, so 400 cells will produce = 4 × 400 = 1600 male gametes.
3. A pollen grain in angiosperm at the time of dehiscence from an anther could be
2-celled or 3-celled. Explain, how are the cells placed within the pollen grain
when shed at a 2-celled stage? (2017)
Ans:A pollen grain is partly germinated microspore representing the male
gametophyte. It divides by unequal mitotic division and forms two cells. Thus, each
mature pollen grain in angiosperms have a generative cell and a vegetative cell.
In about 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at this 2-celled stage. However,
in about 40% flowering plants, the generative cell may further divide mitotically to
give rise to two male gametes and pollen grains are shed at this 3-celled stage.

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 The placement of cells within the pollen grain when shed at 2-celled stage can be
visualised as shown below

4. Pollen banks are playing a very important role in promoting plant breeding
programme the world over.
How are pollens preserved in the pollen banks? Explain. How are such banks
benefitting our farmers? Write any two ways. (2019)
Ans:Pollen grains are stored for years in liquid nitrogen (-196°C) in pollen banks for
later use in plant breeding programmes. Plant breeding is a technique of manipulation
of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for
cultivation, give better yield and are disease resistant.
The objectives of such pollen banks include incorporation of certain traits or
characters into crop plants in order to enhance the food production such as
(i) Increased tolerance to environmental stresses such as salinity, extreme
temperature, drought, etc.
(ii) Resistance to pathogens like viruses, fungi and bacteria.
5. (i) Name the organic material exine of the pollen grain is made up of. How is this
material advantageous to pollen grain?
(ii) Still it is observed that it does not form a continuous layer around the pollen
grain. Give reason.
(iii) How are ‘pollen banks’ useful? (2016)
Ans:(i) The organic material of exine of pollen grain is sporopollenin. This is most
resistant biological material known so far. It protects pollen grains from damages.
(ii) Exine on pbllen grain is not a continuous layer. It is thin at places and pollen tube
germinates by growth of intine through these thin parts of exine called germ pores.
(iii) Pollen banks are used to store pollen grains for short as well as long period of
time in viable conditions.
6. Describe the process of megasporogenesis up to fully developed embryo sac
formation in an angiosperm. (2019)
Or
Where does the process of megasporogenesis start in an angiosperm? Describe
the process up to the formation of embryo sac. (2019)
Ans: In angiosperms, the process of megasporogenesis starts inside the nucellus of the
ovule. During megasporogenesis, the Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes
meiosis resulting in the production of four megaspores. Out of the four megaspores,
only one is functional while the other three degenerate.The functional megaspore
undergoes mitosis to form two nuclei, which migrate to opposite poles, forming a 2-
nucleate embryo sac.
Further, mitotic divisions lead to the formation of 4-nucleate and 8-nucleate stages of
the embryo sac. In these mitotic divisions, nuclear division is not followed by cell
division. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down and a typical female
gametophyte or embryo sac is formed.
Among the 8 nuclei, 6 are enclosed by cell walls and organised into cells, while the
14
 remaining 2 nuclei (polar nuclei) are situated above the egg apparatus in a large
central cell.Out of the six cells, three are grouped at the micropylar end and constitute
the egg apparatus. It is made up of two synergids and one egg cell. The other three
cells are located at the chalazal end and are called antipodals. Thus, a typical
angiosperm embryo sac after maturity is 8-nucleate and 7-celled,

7. (i) Describe the formation of mature female gametophyte within an ovule in

angiosperms.
(ii) Describe the structure of cell that guides the pollen tube to enter the embryo
sac. (2014)
Ans:(i) The functional megaspore undergoes mitosis to form 2 nuclei, which migrate
to opposite poles, forming a 2-nucleate embryo sac. Further, mitotic divisions lead to
the formation of 4-nucleate and 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. In these mitotic
divisions, nuclear division is not followed by cell wall formation. After the 8-nucleate
stage, cell walls are laid down and a typical female gametophyte or embryo sac is
formed. Among the eight nuclei, six are enclosed by cell wall and organised into cells,
while the remaining two nuclei (polar nuclei) are situated above the egg apparatus in a
large central cell.Out of the six cells, three are grouped at the micropylar end and
constitute the egg apparatus made up of two synergids and one egg cell. The other
three cells are located at the chalazal end and are called antipodals. Thus, a typical
angiosperm embryo sac after maturity is 8-nucleate and 7-celled.
(ii) The egg apparatus present towards the micropylar end, comprises of two
synergids and an egg cell. These synergids possess special cellular thickenings at
their micropylar tip and called filiform apparatus. This filiform apparatus guides the
pollen tube to enter into embryo sac.
8. You are conducting artificial hybridisation on papaya and potato. Which one of
them would require the step of emasculation and why? However for both you
will use the process of bagging. Justify giving one reason. (2019)
Ans:Papaya produces unisexual flowers and potato produces bisexual flowers.
Therefore, the step of emasculation will be done on potato because emasculation is
done on bisexual flower to avoid self-pollination. But, bagging is done on unisexual
flowers, so to dust suitable pollen grains op the stigma when the stigma turns
receptive and the flowers are re bagged.
9. In angiosperms, zygote is diploid, while primary endosperm cell is triploid.
Explain. (2013)
15
 Or
Mention the reasons for difference in ploidy of zygote and primary endosperm
nucleus in an angiosperm. (2010)
Ans:In angiosperms or flowering plants, zygote is diploid and primary endosperm
nucleus is triploid. It is because in these plants, one of the male gametes fuses with
egg cell, which results in the formation of zygote. So, zygote is diploid. While
primary endosperm cell is triploid because the nucleus of the second male gamete (n)
fuses with the two haploid polar nuclei or diploid secondary nucleus (2n) of the
central cell to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (3n). This process is referred
to as triple fusion. The central cell is now called primary endosperm cell.
10.Emasculation and bagging are the two important steps carried during artificial
hybridisation to obtain superior varieties of desired plants. Explain giving
reasons, in which types of flowers and at what stages are the two processes
carried out. (2019)
Ans:If the plant bears bisexual flowers, emasculation and bagging are carried out
before the anther dehisces.
If the plant bears unisexual flowers, emasculation is not required. The female flower
buds are bagged before the opening of flowers is geitonogamy result sun progenies
which are animals and even humans. It is believed that pollination by wind
(anemophily) is more coihmon because transport by wind-current can take pollens to
distant places.

11.(i) Can a plant flowering in Mumbai be pollinated by pollen grains of the same
species growing in New Delhi? Provide explanation to your answer,
(ii) Draw the diagram of a pistil where pollination has successfully occurred.
Label the parts involved in reaching the male gametes to its desired destination.
(2017)
Ans:(i) Yes, a plant flowering in Mumbai can be pollinated by pollen grains of the
same species growing in New Delhi. It is mainly because there are certain agents of
pollination that can carry pollen grains to long distance. Plants can use either abiotic
or biotic agents for pollination. Abiotic pollinators include wind and water while
biotic pollinators are insects, birds,
(ii) The parts involved in transferring the male gametes to its desired destination are
stigma, style, micropyle, filiform apparatus and synergids. Longitudinal Section (LS)
of a post-pollinated pistil is given below

16
12.What does an interaction between pollen grains and its compatible stigma result
in after pollination? List two steps in sequence that follow after the process.
(2016)
Ans;When the pollen grains fall on the stigma, the pollen tube enters one of the
synergids and releases two male gametes.
 One of the male gametes moves towards the egg cell and fuses with it to
complete syngamy to form the zygote.
 The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei and forms triploid
Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN). This is termed as triple fusion.
 Since, two kinds of fusion syngamy and triple fusion takes place, the process is
known as double fertilisation and is characteristics of flowering plants.
13.As a senior biology student you have been asked to demonstrate to the students
of secondary level in your school, the procedure(s) that shall ensure cross-
pollination in a hermaphrodite flower. List the different steps that you would
suggest and provide reasons for each one of them. (2016)
Ans:Cross-pollination is done to mix two desired characters of two different species of
a plant. For example, purple and white flower of a pea.
Select two pea plants one with white and other with purple flower.Label them as male
(white flowered) and female (purple flowered) plant.Cut anthers from purple flower
with the help of scissors before their dehiscence to avoid self-pollination and cover it
with white paper bag.
Now collect pollens from the white flower (male plant) with the help of brush.Dust
the pollens on the stigma of female (purple fewer) flower.Cover it again with paper
bag till seed formation.
14.Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and
to encourage cross-pollination. Explain three such devices. 2016
Or
Why do hermaphrodite angiosperms develop outbreeding devices? Explain any
two such devices with the help of examples. (2015)
Or
Make a list of any three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have
developed and explain how they help to encourage cross-pollination. (2014)
Ans:Hermaphrodites or bisexual flowers develop outbreeding devices to ensure cross-
pollination and avoid self-pollination. The three outbreeding devices that flowering
plants have developed to discourage self-pollination are
(i) Unisexuality (Dicliny) Flowers are unisexual, so that self-pollination is not
possible. The plants may be monoecious (bearing both male and female flowers, e.g.
maize) or dioecious (bearing male and female flowers on different plants, e.g.
mulberry, papaya).
(ii) Dichogamy Anthers and stigmas mature at different times in a bisexual flower
for preventing self-pollination.
(a) Protandry Anthers mature earlier than stigma of the same flower. The pollens
thus btfcome available to stigmas of the older flowers, e.g. sunflower, Salvia.
(b) Protogyny Stigmas mature earlier, so that they get pollinated before the anthers
of the same flower develop pollen grains, e.g. Mirabilis jalapa,
Gloriosa, Plantago.

17
 (iii) The third device to prevent self-pollination is self-incompatibility. It is a
genetic mechanism that prevents self-pollen from fertilising the ovules by preventing
pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil. All these methods encourage
cross-pollination thus causing genetic variations among them.
15.(i) Describe any two devices in a flowering plant which prevent both autogamy
and geitonogamy.
(ii) Explain the events up to double fertilisation after the pollen tube enters one of
the synergids in an ovule of an angiosperm. (2011)
Ans:(i) The two devices that prevent both autogamy and geitonogamy in flowering
plants are as follows
(a) Self-incompatibility In some plants when pollen from same flower or other flower
of the same plant comes on the stigma, it is incapable of bringing about fertilisation.
It is due to the presence of similar self-sterile gene, e.g. tobacco, potato, etc. It
prevents autogamy and geitonogamy.
(b) Dioecy In several species such as papaya, male and female flowers are present on
different plants. Thus, each plant is either male or female. This condition also prevents
both autogamy and geitonogamy.

(ii) In the ovule, the pollen tube is attracted by secretions of synergids. Usually the
pollen tube enters the embryo sac by passing into one of the two synergids which
starts degenerating. The pollen tube bursts up by absorbing hydrolytic substances
secreted by degenerating synergids. It is followed by double fertilization in flowering
plants.Double fertilization It is the fusion of two male gametes to two different cells of
the same female gametophyte in order to produce two different structures.Nawaschin
(1898) was the first to show that both the male gametes are involved in fertilisation in
Fritillaria and Lilium. Double fertilization consists of two events that are as follows

 Syngamy or Amphimixis Fusion of the egg nucleus with one male gamete is called
syngamy. This fusion results in the formation of diploid cell, the zygote.
 Triple fusion Along with syngamy, the other ‘male gamete moves towards the two
polar nuclei located in the central cell and fuses with them to produce a triploid
Primary Endosperm Mother (PEM) cell. In this way, fertilization occurs in flowering
plants.

18
 CHAPTER-HUMAN REPRODUCTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTION (1 MARKS EACH)
Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. The given figure shows the different stages of human embryo:

Identify the correct labeling for W,X,Y, and Z and choose the correct option from the table below:
W X Y Z
(a) Cleavage Blastocyst Morula Fertilization
(b) Blastocyst Morula Cleavage Fertilisation
(c) Morula Cleavage Blastocyst Fertilistion
(d) Morula Blastocyst Cleavage Fertilisation
2. Look at the labeled diagram of the male reproductive system.

R
S
P

Identify the correct route of passage of sperm in the male reproductive tract.
(a) P-Q-R-S (b) S-Q-R-P (c) P-S-R-Q (d) Q-R-S-P
3. The Signals of parturition originate from
(a) Placenta (b) fully developed fetus
(c) Oxytocin from pituitary (d) both placenta and fully developed fetus
4- Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by.
(i) Seminal vesicle (ii) Prostate gland (iii) Urethra (iv) Bulbourethral gland
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
5- Which of the following statements in incorrect?
(a) GnRH stimulates secretion of FSH and LH
(b) LH stimulates the Leyding cells to secrete androgen
(c) FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates spermigensis
(d) None of these
6- Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around.
(a) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle (b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(c) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle (d) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle
7- Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to
(a) Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(b) Reactions within the uterine environment of the female
19
 (c) Reaction within the epididymal environment of the male
(d) Androgens produced in the uterus
8- Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?
(a) Seminal vesicle (b) Ampulla (c) Prostate (d) Bulbourethral gland
9- The immature male germs cell undergoes division to produce sperms by the process of spermatogenesis.
Choose the correct on with reference of above.
(a)Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division.
(b) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
(c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division.
(d) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids.
10- Match between the following representing parts of the sperm and their function and choose the correct
option.
Column I Column II
(A) Head (i) Enzymes
(B) Middle piece (ii) Sperm motility
(C) Acrosome (iii) Energy
(D) Tail (iv) Genetic material
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
12. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?
(a) Spermatogonia (b) Zygote (c) Secondary oocyte (d) Oogonia
13- Shown here is how the level of hormones estrogen and progesterone change during the menstrual
cycle.

Which of these correctly shows how the levels of Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH) change during the same cycle?

20
14- Match the following and choose the correct options
Columns I Column II
(A) Trophoblast (i) Embeddign of blastocyst in the endome trium
(B) Cleavage (ii) Group of cells that would differentiate as embryo
(C) Inner cell mass (iii) Outer layer of blastocyst attached to the endometrium
(D) Implantation (iv) Mitotic division of zygote
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(c)A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
15- Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
(a) hCG (b) Estrogen (c) Progesterone (d) LH
16- The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
(a) epididymis (b) ejaculatory duct (c) efferent ductile (d) ureter
17- Urethral meatus refers to the
(a) urogenital duct (b) opening of vas deferens into urethra
(c) External opening of the urogenital duct (d) muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct
18-Morula is a developmental stage
(a) between the zygote and blastocyst (b) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(c) After the implantation (d) between implantation and parturition
19- The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is
(a) Corona radiate (b) zona radiate (c) zona pellucida (d) chorion
20- Identify the odd one from the following.
(a) Labia minora (b) Fimbraie (c) Infundibulum (d) Isthmus

One of its important parts is missing. Which one?

(a) urinary bladder (b) seminal vesicles
(c) prostrate gland (d) vas deferens

Answer
1. (b) 2.(b) 3.(d). 4.(b). 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(b)
11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(c)

ASSERTION- REASON QUESTIONS QUESTION (1 MARK EACH)

DIRECTION,
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason in not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion : The inner cell mass of blastocyst gets attached to the endometrium during
Embryonic development in humans.
Reasons : The blastomeres in the blastocyst gets arranged into trophoblast and inner
cell mass. (D)
2. Assertion : The uterus is shaped like an inverted pear.
Reasons : The inner glandular layer lining the uterine cavity is called as myometrium.(C)
21
3. Assertion : The middle piece of the sperm is called its powerhouse.
Reasons : Numerous mitochondria in the middle piece produce energy for the movements of
the tail. (A)
4. Assertion : All sperms released at a time do not fertilise the ovum.
Reasons : Fertilisation occur only when oveum and sperm fuse at the ampullary-
isthmic junction(B)
5. Assertion : The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.
Reasons : The morula continuously divides to transform into trophoblast. (C)
6. Assertion : After implantation, finger-like projection appear on the trophoblast called
chorionic villi.
Reasons : Chorionic villi are surrounded by the uterine tissue and the maternal blood. (B)
7. Assertion : The regions inside the seminiferous tubles contain Leyding cell.
Reasons : Leyding cell synthesise and secrete androgens. (D)
8. Assertion : The endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle.
Reasons : Perimetrium contract strongly during delivery of the baby. (C)
9. Assertion : The signals for parturition, originating from the foetus, trigger realease of
oxytocin which stimulates uterine contraction.
Reasons : Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregenancy causes
expulsion. (A)
10. Assertion : In human beings, ovum is released from the ovary in the ootid stage.
Reasons : The secondary oocyte divides into unequal daughter cells, a large ootid
and a small polar body. (D)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARK EACH)

Q. 1. Write the location and function of the Sertoli cell in humans.
Ans. Sertoli cells are presnt in seminiferous tubules. They provide nutrition to the germ cells or sperms.
Q. 2. Mention the location and the function of Leyding cells in humans.
Ans. Leyding cells are present in the regions called interstitaial space outside the seminiferous tubules.
They synthesise and secrete androgens (testosterone).
Q. 3. Mention the function of mitochondria in sperm.
Ans. Provide energy for the movement of sperm tails.
Q. 4. When do the oogenesis and the spermatogenesis initiate in human females and males
respectively?
Ans. Oogenesis in human females initiate at the foetal/embroyonic stage.
Spermatogenesis inhuman males start at puberty.
Q. 5. The path of sperm transport is given below. Provide the missing steps in blank boxes.

Seminiferous tubules Rete testis

Urethra Epididymis

Ans. Vasa efferentia, Vas deferens.

Q. 6. What is the role of cervix of the human female system in reproduction?
Ans. Cervix helps in regulating the passage of sperms into the uterus and forms the birth canal to
facilitate parturition.
Q. 7. Name the hormones produced only during pregnancy in a human female. Mention their
source organ.
Ans. During pregnancy, placenta produces hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin and human
placental lactogen and ovary produces relaxin.
Q. 8. List the changes that the primary oocyte undergoes in the tertiary follicular stage in the
human ovary.
Ans. The primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic division
to form secondary oocyte and first polar body.
Q. 9. Name the embryonic stage that gets implanted in the uterine wall of human female.
Ans. Blastocyst/blastula.
22
Q.10. How is the entry of only one sperm and not many ensured into an ovum during fertilization in
humans?
Ans. During fertilization a sperms head comes in contact with zona pellucida layer of ovum and induces
changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms.
Q.11. Mention the function of trophoblast in human embryo.
Ans. Trophoblast is the outer layer of blastocyst which helps in the attachment of blastocyst to the
endometrium of the uterus.
Q.12. Identify the figure given below and the part labeled “A”.

Ans. The figure is of blastula/blastocyst.

A–Trophoblast.
Q.13. Explain the function of umbilical cord.
Ans. Umbilical cord transport nuterients and respiratory gases and metabolic waste to and from
Mother and foetus.
Q.14. What name if given to the cells of inner cell mass that have the potential to give rist to all
tissues and organs in human beings?
Ans. Stem cells.
Q.15. Given below are the stages in human reproduction. Write them in correct sequential order.
Insemination, Gametogenesis, Fertilisation, Implantation, Gestation, Parturition.
Ans. Gametogenesis, Insemination, Fertilisation, Implantation, Gestation, Parturition.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARK EACH)

Each of the following questions are of 2 marks and have to be answered in about 30-50 words.
Q. 1. Why are the human tested located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which
they are present.
Ans. The human tested need lower temperature, 2–2.50C less than the body temperature, for the
formation of sperm which is provided outside the body.
Q. 2. List the four different human male accessory ducts.
Ans. The four human male accessory ducts are: rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens.
Q. 3. (i) How many spermatozoa are formed from one secondary spermatocyte ?
(ii) Where does the first cleave division of zygote take place?
Ans. (i) Two
(ii) During the passage of zygote from fallopian tube to the uterus.
Q. 4. Draw a diagram of a human sperm. Label only those parts along with their functions, that
assist the sperm to reach and gain entry into the female gamete.
Ans. Refer to Fig. 2.10
Q. 5. Write the function of each of the following:
(a) Middle piece in human sperm.
(b) Luteinising hormone in human males.
Ans. (a) Provides energy for movements as it contains mitochondria.
(b) Stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens or male hormones for spermatogenesis.
Q. 6. Write the function of each of the following:
(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Acrosome of human sperm.
Ans. (a) It is responsible for storage and transport of sperms. It provides secretions for motility and
nourishment of sperms.

23
 (b) It helps the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida and
privides enzymes for fertilisation.
Q. 7. Spermatogenesis in human males is a hormone regulated process. Justify.
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 3(i) (Hormonal control of spermatogenesis).
Q. 8. Write the location and function of myometrium and endometrium.
Ans. Endometrium is the inner layer of uterus. It assists in cyclic changes during menstruation and
implantation of embryo.
Myometrium is the middle layer of uterus. It consist of smooth muscles and thus assists in
contractions of the uterus during parturition.
Q. 9. Given below is a flow chart showing ovarian change during menstrual cycle. Fill in the spaces
with the hormonal factor (s) responsible for the events shown.

Primary Follicle

Graafian follicle

Ova

Corpus Luteum

Q.10. Write the effect of the high concentration of LH on a mature Graafian follicle.
Ans. In high conventration of LH, the mature Graafian follicle ruptures to relase the secondary oocyte or
ovum from the ovary by the process of ovulation.
Q.11. After implantation interdigitation of maternal and foetal tissues takes places. Identify the
tissues involved and justify their role.
Ans. After implantation interdigitation of maternal and foetal tissues result in formation of structural and
functional unit between embryo and maternal body called placenta.
It facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo, removal of cardon dioxide and excretory
material and also acts as an endocrine tissue and produce hormones like HCG, hPL estrogen,
progesterone and relaxin.
Q.12. List the three hormones produced in women only during pregnancy. What happens to the
levels of estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy?
Ans. The three hormones produced in women only during pregnancy are:
(i) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
(ii) Human placental lactogen (hPL)
(iii) Relaxin
The levels of progesterone and estrogen increase during pregnancy.
Q.13. Writhe the function of each one of the following:
(i) (Oviducal) Fimbriae (ii) Oxytocin
Ans. (i) Collection of ovum released by ovary.
(ii) Cause uterine contraction for parturition; promotes milk ejection.
Q.14. (i) Where do the signals for parturition originate from in humans?
(ii) Why is it important to feed the newborn babies on colostrum?
Ans. (i) Signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus the placenta which induces
uterine contractions. This is called as foetal ejection reflex.
(ii) Colostrum contains antibodies (IgA), to (passively) immunize the baby.
Q.15. When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? State their functions.
Ans. Corionic villi appear after implantation on the trophoblast. It becomes interdigitated with uterine
tissue to form the placenta and increases the surface area for exchange of materials between the
mother and the embryo.

PASSAGE-BASED/CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARK)

24
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
CASE - 1

Luteinising Follicle stimulating

hormone (LH) hormone (FSH)

Menstrual cycle Day

(i) What is the importance of LH surge?
(ii) Identify the ovarian phases during the menstrual cycle.
(a) 5th day to 12th day of the cycle.
(b) 14th day of the cycle.
(iii) Menstrual cycles are absent during pregnancy. Why?
Answer
(i) LH surge is essential for the events leading to ovulation.
(ii) (a) 5th day to 12th day of the cycle: Folicular phase (Proliferative phase).
(b) 14th day of the cycle: Ovulatory phase (release of ovum) followed by luteal phase.
(iii) The high levels of progesterone and estrogens during pregnancy suppress the release of gondaotropins
required for the development of new follicles. Therefore, new cycle cannot be initiated.
CASE – 2
Study the figures given below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) During reproduction, the chromosome number (2n) reduces to half (n) in the gametes and again
resume the original number (2n) in the offspring, what are the processes through which these events
take place?
(ii) Write the functions of A and D.
(iii) Mention the function of mitochondria in sperm.
Answers
(i) Halving of chromosomal number takes place during gametogenesis by meosis and regaining the 2n
number occur as a result of fertilization by fusion of male and female gametes.
(ii)A:The spermatogonia or male germ cell undergo meotic division leading to sperm formation.
D: Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
(iii) Provide energy for the movement of sperm tail.

CASE– 3
The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian event (a-i) in a human female.

(i) Identify the figure the illustrates ovulation and mention the stage of oogenesis it represent.
25
(ii) Name the ovarian hormone and the pituitary hormone that have caused the above mentioned
event.
(iii) Explain the changes that occur in the uterus simultaneously in anticipation.
Answer
(i)  ; secondary oocyte.
(ii) Estrogen and luteinising hormone (L.H.).
(iii) Endometrium proliferate (glands become cork-screw shaped) highly vascularised, high regeneration
anticipating implanatation of the fertilized ovum.
CASE-4
A woman of 35 years age with a married life of eight years and having normal reproductive cycle visits a
doctor along with her husband for consultation for infertility. They were not using any contraceptive
methods. They have no child. The doctor advises them after a detailed physical examination of both of
them to undergo following investigations:
 Seminal analysis of the husband
 Follicular study of the wife
 Blood test for Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) estimation for both.
With you basic knowledge of human embryology and the case given above, answer the following
questions:
(i) Seminal analysis of the husband was done for determining.
(A) Sperm morphology and sperm count
(B) Quantity and pH of semen
(C) Rate of sperm release into the vagina
(a) A only (b) A and B (c) B and C (d) B only
(ii) The blood test report of the wife showed low FSH value, which is indicative of
(a) Low rate of formation of ovarian follicles (b) high rate of formation of ovarian follicles
(c) low rate of maturation of ovarian follicles (d) high rate of maturation of ovarian follicles
(iii) The high level of which gonadotropin/ovarian hormone in the blood sample of the wife take on
day 20 of her reproductive (menstrual) cycle would indicate the luteal phase of the ovarian
cycle?
(a) FSH (b) LH (c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone
(iv) In which phase of the menstrual cycle is the blood sample of a women taken if, on analysis, it
shows high level of LH and estrogen?
(a) Ovulatory phase (b) Menstrual phase (c) Secretory phase (d) Follicular
phase
Answers
(i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (d)
CASE-5
Placenta: A vital connecting tissue
After implantation the foetus develops a connection with uterine wall known as placenta. It facilitates the
supply of oxygen and nutrient to the foetus and removal of carbon-dioxide and excretory wastes produced
by the foetus. Placenta is connected to the ebryo through an umbilical cord which helps in the transport of
substances to and from the embryo. Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several
hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogens,
progesterones etc. In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also secreted by the ovary. In
addition, during pregnancy, levels of other hormones like estrogens, progesterones, cortisol, prolactin,
thyroxine, etc. are increased several folds in the maternal blood. Increased production of these hormones is
essential for supporting the foetal growth, metabolic change in the mother and maintenances of pregnancy.
(i) Which hormone is not produced by placenta?
(a) Estrogen (b) hPL (c) FSH (d) hCG
(ii) What stimulates pituitary to release the hormone responsible for parturition?
(a) LH (b) FSH (c) Prolactin (d) Relaxin
(iii) Which of the following is not a function of placenta?
(a) Production hCG and hPL. (b) Removal of excretory wastes of foetus.
(b) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrient (d) Production of prolactin.
Answers
26
 (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (d)

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARK EACH)

Q.1. (i) Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubule of a human. Label the following cells in the
seminiferous tubule:
(a) Cells the divide by mitosis to increase their number.
(b) Cells that undergo meiosis I.
(c) Cells that undergo Meiosis II.
(d) Cells that help in the process of spermigenesis.
(ii) Mention the role of Leyding cells.
OR
Draw a labeled sectional view of seminiferous tubule of a human male.
Ans. (i) self-attempt.
(a) Cell that divide by mitosis to increase their number-Spermatogonia
(b) Cells that undergo Meiosis I-Primary Spermatocytes
(c) Cells the undergo Meiosis II-Secondary spermatocytes
(d) Cells that help in the process of spermigenesis-Sertoli cells
Q.2. Study the figure given below:

(i) What is being depicted in the diagram?

(ii) Name ‘a’ and ‘b’ cells. What is the difference between them with reference to the number
of chromosomes?
(iii) Pick out and name the motile cells.
(iv) What is ‘’ cell? Mention its functions.
(v) Name the structure of which the given diagram is a part.
Ans. (i) The seminiferous tubule is being depicted in the diagram.
(ii) a-Spermatogonium, b-Primary spermatocyte
They both are diploid and have 46 chromosomes each.
(iii) e-Spermatozoa
(iv) -Sertoli cell. It provides nutrition to the germ cells.
(v) Seminiferous tubule.
Q. 3. (i) Draw a diagram of the structure of a human ovum surrounded by corona radiate. Label
the following parts:
(a) Ovum (b) Plasma membrane (c) Zona pellucida
(ii) State he function of zona pellucida.
Ans. (i) self-attempt
(ii) Zona pellucida allows athe entry of one sperm into the cytoplasm of he ovum and then
undergoes changes to prevent entry of additional sperms.
Q. 4. It is commonly observed that parents feel embarrassed to discuss freely with their adolescent
children about sexuality and reproduction. The result of this parental inhibition is that the
children go astray sometimes.
(i) Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some parents to
freely discuss such issues with their growing children.
(ii) By taking one example of a local plant and animal, how would you help these parents to
overcome such inhibitions about reproduction and sexuality? (2015)
Ans. (i) The reasons behind this embarrassment are illiteracy, their conservative attitude, misconceptions,
social myths and generation gap.
27
 (ii) It can be seen in animas such as honey bee and plants such as orchid Ophrys flower that sexual
attraction is a natural phenomenon. The male honey bee assumes that petal of orchid as its female
partner and pseudo copulates with it. So, sexuality is a natural phenomenon and parents should
speak to their children about it.
Q. 5. Study the graph give below and answer the questions that follow: (2009)

X Y

Menstrual Cycle Days

(a) Name the hormones ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(b) Explain the ovarian event (i), (ii) and (iii) under th influence of hormones ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

Ans. (a) Hormone ‘X’ : Luteinising hormone.

Hormone ‘Y’: Follicle stimulating hormone.
(b) (i) FSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary which stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete
estrogen, which in turn stimulates the proliferation of the endometrium of the uterine wall.
(ii) Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid secretion
of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge induces rapture
of Graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum (Ovulation).
(iii) The remaining cell of ovarian follicles is stimulated by the LH to transform into corpus
luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for
maintenance of the endometrium.

Q. 6. (a) Where does spermatogenesis occur in human testes? Describe the process of
spermatogenesis up to the formation of spermatozoa.
(b) Trace the path of spermatozoa from the testes up to the ejaculatory duct only. (2008)
OR
Schematically represent and explain the events of spermatogenesis in humans.
Ans. (a) Spermatogenesis occurs in seminiferous tublule. The process of formation of sperms is called
spermatogenesis. It occurs in the male gonads testis. Testes are made up of many seminiferous tubules
lined by germinal epithelium. Cells of this layer divide to form spermatozoa in the following steps:
(1) Multiplication Phase: At maturity, the primordial germ cells divide by mitosis to produce a large
number of spermatogonia. Type A spermatogonia is the stem cells which divide to form spermatogonia.
Type B spermatogonia are the precursors of sperms.
(2) Growth Phase: Type B spermatogonium actively grows to a primary spermatocyte. It obtains
nourishment from the nursing cells.
(3) Maturation Phase: Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two maturation divisions. The first maturation
division is reductional and forms two haploid daughter cells called secondary spermatocytes. Both
secondary spermatocytes then undergo second maturation division to form four haploid spermatids.
(4) Spermiogenesis: It is the process of transformation of spermatid to a spermatozoan. The spermatozoa
are then known as sperms. The four spermatid becomes the head of the sperm, the Golgi apparatus,
containing proteolytic enzymes, becomes the acrosome cap.

(b) The path of spermatozoa is as follows:

Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Vasa efferentia Epidymis
Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct

28
Q. 7. (a) Draw a sectional view of a human ovary and label primary follicle, tertiary follicle,
Graafian follicle and corpus luteum in it.
(b) Name the gonadotropinas and explain their role in oogenesis and the release of ova. (2014)
Ans. (a)

(b) The gonadotropins are luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
Both LH and FSH increase during follicular phase and stimulate follicular development and
secretion of estrogen by the growing follicles.
There is rapid secretion lf LH (LH surge) during middle of the cycle. On 14th day these induce
rupture of Graafian follicle and the ova is released.

Q. 8. Given alongside is the diagram of a human ovum surrounded by a few sperms. Observe the
diagram and answer the following questions:
(a) Compare the fate of sperms shown in the diagram.
(b) What is the role of zona pellucida in this process?
(c) Analyze the changes occurring in the ovum during the process.
(d) Mention what helps in the entry of sperm into the ovum.
(e) Specify the region of female reproductive system where the event
represented in the diagram takes place. (2019)
Ans. (a) A is able to penetrate/fertilize the ovum, whereas B and C are unable to penetrate/fertilise B and
C will degenerate.
(b) Zona pellucida ensures the entry of only one sperm into the ovum
(c) Induces completion of meiotic division of the secondary oocyte, formation of second polar body
and a haploid ovum.
(d) Enzymes of acrosome
(d) Ampullary-isthimic junction of the fallopian tube
Q.9. The graph given below shows the variation in the levels of ovarian hormones during various
phases of menstrual cycle:

A
B

Days
(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(b) Specify the source of the hormone marked in the diagram.
(c) Reason out why A peaks before B.
(d) Compare the role of A and B.
(e) Under which condition will the level of B continue to remain high on the 28th day? (2010)
Ans. (a) A-Estrogen
B-Progesterone
(b) A-Maturing ovarian follicle/Graafian follicle
B-Corpus luteum
29
 (c) Formation of Graaffin follicle (releases estrogen) is followed by the formation of corpus luteum
(Releases progesterone)
(c) Role of A (Estrogen) :leads to changes in the ovary and uterus/regeneration of endometrium
through proliferation
Role of B (Progesterone): Maintenance of endometrium for implantation of the fertilized
ovum/maintenance of other events of pregnancy.
(d) In case of pregnancy
Q.10. Give a schematic representation of of oogenesis in humans. Mention the number of
Chromosomes at each stage. Correlate the life phases of the individual with the stages
of the process (C.B.S.E. 2008)
Ans:

(i)Multiplication phase-The egg mother cell multiplies by mitosis to form oogonia which grow in the
follicles.
(ii) Growth phase-In this an oogonium grows into a large primary oocytes by getting nourishment from
follicle cells.
(iii) Maturation phase-It involves meiosis. In (meiosis I) large haploid oocytes and a small polar body is
formed. Now the follicle ruptures to release secondary oocytes Meiosis II occurs after sperm entry and
forms the haploid large ovum and a small polar body. Polar bodies have no function and degenerate.

30
 CHAPTER-REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS(1 MARKS EACH)

1. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in:
a) 1950s✓
b) 1960s
c) 1980s
d) 1990s
2. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within.
(a) 72 hrs of coitus✓
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation
3. Choose the right one among the statements given below:
a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus✓
c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
4. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
Choose the correct options given below:
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified Medical personnel
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)✓
(d) (i) and (ii)
5. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically
affect the sex organs:
(a) Syphilis (b) AIDS✓
(c) Gonorrhoea (d) Genital warts
6. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination (b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs (d) All of the above✓
7. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptives method is:
a) Ovariectomy
b) Hysterectomy
c) Vasectomy ✓
d) Castration

8. Breastfeeding the baby acts as natural contraceptives for the mother because it prevents
i. Ovulation ii menstruation
iii insemination iv fertilization
a) Ii and iv
b) I and iii
31
 c) I and iv
d) I and ii✓
9. During the human embryonic development the external genital organs are well developed in the foetus
by the end of
a) 6 weeks of pregnancy
b) 12 weeks of pregnancy✓
c) 18 weeks of pregnancy
d) 24 weeks of pregnancy
10.A specialised procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which sperm is directly,injected into the
ovum is.
a) IUT
b) IUI
c) ICSI✓
d) ZIFT
ASSERTION -REASON TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

DIRECTION:

For question numbers 1-12: Two statements are given one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason ®. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason Is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is false and Reason is also false.
1. Assertion (A): Sponge and Delfin are chemical Methods of contraception.
Reason ®: Diaphragms and cervical caps are Disposable barrier method of contraception.
2. Assertion (A): To achieve zero population Growth rate, the replacement level should be slightly
higher than two.
Reason ®: Replacement level means the number Of children that can replace parent equally.
3. Assertion (A): Rhythm contraceptive method Can be beneficial to the couple facing fertility
Problem.
Reason ®: Rhythm method is based on the ICSI technique.
4. Assertion (A): A medical termination of Pregnancy is legally allowed up to the 28th week of
pregnancy.
Reason ®: MTP is done if family physician or Gynaecologist considers the need for abortion.
5. Assertion (A): PCR, ELISA, DNA hybridisation Are confirmatory tests for sexually transmitted
Diseases.
Reason ®: Incidence of STDs is very high in Persons above the age of 30.
6. Assertion (A): Oral contraceptive pills check Ovulation.
Reason ®: Oral pills always contains0Combination of progesterone and estrogen.
7.Assertion (A): All sexually transmitted diseases Are completely curable ifit is detected and treated
Properly in primary stage.
Reason ®: HIV infection is completely curable With drugs like Zidovudine, Didanosine and Azido
thymidine.
8.Assertion (A): Now-a-days amniocentesis is Banned.
Reason ®: Amniocentesis gives the information Of any abnormality in the fetus and many other
Complications regarding pregnancy can be Detected.

32
9. Assertion (A): In GIFT, fertilisation takes place In vivo.
Reason ®: The results of GIFT are less good than in vitro fertilisation.
10. Assertion (A): Generally, a woman does not Conceive during the lactation period.
Reason ®: The hormone ‘prolactin’ initiates And maintains lactation in a postpartum woman.
11. Assertion (A): Through Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programmes in India, we could
Bring down the population growth rate.
Reason ®: A rapid increase in MMR and IMR Were the reasons, along other reasons for this.
12. Assertion (A): Sterilisation methods are Generally advised for male/female partner as a Terminal
method to prevent any more pregnancies.
Reason ®: These techniques are less effective And have high reversibility.
Answers

1.c 2.a 3.d 4.b 5.c 6.c 7.d 8.b 9.c 10.b 11.b 12.c

VERY SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS(2 MARK EACH)

1. Government of India has risen the marriageable age of female to 18 years and of males to
21 years. Suggest any two more measures adopted by Government for the purpose.(2016)
Ans:
a) Incentives given to couples with small families.
b) Media publicity through posters of happy couples with two children (Hum Do Humare Do).
c) Motivation to promote smaller families by using contraceptive methods.
d) Raising marriageable age of females to 18 years & males to 21 years.
2. A doctor has observed the chromosomal disorders in developing foetus and advised the
couple to undergo abortion. Suggest the technique by which doctor observed the
chromosomal disorders.(2019)
Ans. Amniocentesis
3. Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive functions. Comment.
Ans. Reproductive health refers to the total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e.,
physical,behavioural, psychological and social.
4. Present population growth rate in India is alarming. Suggest ways to check it.
Ans. (i) By increasing marriageable age.
(ii) By promoting use of birth control measures.
(iii) By educating people about consequences of uncontrolled population growth.
5. Indiscriminate diagnostic practices, using X-rays, etc., should be avoided. Give one
reason.[CBSE Delhi 2015]
Ans. These practices act as carcinogens which convert normal cells to neoplastic cells by
harmful mutations or chromosomal aberration.
6. Why is tubectomy considered a contraceptive method?[CBSE (F) 2010] [HOTS]
Ans. Tubectomy involves cutting a piece of the fallopian tube and tying its ends. This way, the
sperms are not able to reach the egg so fertilisation cannot take place. Thus, it acts as a
contraceptive method.
7. In case of an infertile couple, the male partner can inseminate normally but the mobility of
sperms is below 40 per cent. Which kind of ART is suitable in this situation to form an
embryo in the laboratory conditions, without involving a donor? [CBSE Sample Paper
2015, 2017, 2018]
Ans. Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
8. A woman's husband is infertile. So the lady has decided to have baby by taking sperms
from sperm bank. Which technique will you suggest for her pregnancy?(2008)
Ans. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
9. What technique would you suggest for correcting infertility caused due to very low sperm
counts of a male partner?(C.B.S.E 2010)
Ans. Artificial insemination.
10. Mention any two events that are inhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to
prevent pregnancy in humans. (C.B.S.E. 2009 Comptt.
33
 Ans:The oral pills inhibit the secretion of FSH and LH that prevent ovulation They also prevent
implantation and alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard entry of sperms .
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARK EACH)

1. A couple where both husband and wife are producing functional gametes, but the wife is still
Unable to conceive, is seeking medical aid. Describe any one method that you can suggest to
This couple to become happy parents.[CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. Methods: IVE/ZIFT/AI
IVF (In vitro fertilisation): Ova from wife and sperm from the husband is collected. It is induced To
form zygote under simulated laboratory conditions.
2. An infertile couple is advised to adopt test-tube baby programme. Describe two principle
Procedures adopted for such technologies.[CBSE Delhi 2015]
Ans. (i) IVF/ln vitro fertilisation: It is the fertilisation of gametes outside the body in almost similar
Conditions as that in the body.
(ii) ET/Embryo transfer: Embryos formed by fusion of gametes is transferred into reproductive
Tract or uterus.
3. i.After a brief medical examination a healthy couple came to know that both of them are
Unable to produce functional gametes and should look for an ‘ART’ (Assisted Reproductive
Technique). Name the ‘ART and the procedure involved that you can suggest to then to help
Them bear a child.[CBSE Delhi 2015]
ii.Why is ‘Saheli’ considered to be an improved form of oral contraceptive for human
female?[CBSE 2010] [HOTSI
Ans. I.Test tube baby programme can be done.
ii.Saheli contains a non-steroidal preparation and is a once-a-week pill, with high contraceptive
value less side-effects. Therefore, it is considered an improved form of contraceptive pills.
4. The process of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the fallopian tube. Can gametes
Be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain. [NCERT Exemplarl [HOTS]
Ans. The uterine environment is not congenial for the survival of the gamete. If directly transferred
to The uterus, they will undergo degeneration or could be phagocytosed and hence viable zygote
Would not be formed.
5. How can childless couples be helped by the following assisted reproductive technologies:
(a) GIFT?
(B) INTRA CYTOPLASMIC SPERM INJECTION?
Ans. (a) GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer): It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a
donor Into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable
Environment for fertilisation and further development.
(b) Intra cytoplasmic Sperm Injection? Sperm Injection (ICS): It is a process in which an embryo is
formed in the Laboratory, in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
6. Comment on the RCH programme of the government to improve the reproductive health of
The people.(2006 HOTS)
Ans. The basic aims of the RCH programmes are creating public awareness regarding reproduction
Related aspects population growth and providing facilities to build up a healthy society with Added
emphasis on the health of mother and child.
7. What is amniocentesis? Why has the government imposed a statutory ban in spite of it
Importance in the medical field?(HOTS)
Ans. Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern in cells
Extracted from the amniotic fluid, surrounding the developing embryo. Amniocentesis is used for
Sex determination, which most people go for, to kill female foetus. Therefore, it has been banned.
8. A couple is eager to know the sex of their unborn child. What diagnostic technique will you
Suggest? What social abuse is associated with the application of this technique? [HOTS]
Ans. Amniocentesis is the suggested diagnostic technique which when applied helps in sex
Determination of the foetus and may lead to social abuse like female foeticide
9. Describe the lactational amenorrhea method of birth control.[CBSE (AI) 2011]
Name an oral pill used as a contraceptive by human females. Explain how it prevents [CBSE
Delhi 2011]
34
 Ans. I.Lactational amenorrhea is based on the principle that during the period of intense lactation
after Parturition, menstrual cycle or ovulation does not occur.
II.‘Saheli’ is an oral pill used as a contraceptive by females. Oral pills inhibit ovulation and
Implantation, as well as, alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard entry of sperms.
Thus, fertilisation and further pregnancy is prevented Pregnancy.
10. At the time of independence, the population of India was 350 million which exploded to over 1
billion by May 2000. List any two reasons for this rise in population and any two steps taken
by the government to check this population explosion. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Ans: Two reasons for increase in population are: i A rapid decline in death rate maternal mortality
rate and infant mortality rate. ii Increase in number of people in reproducible age.Two reasons for
decline in population are: i Statutory raising of marriageable age of the female to 18 years and male
to 21 years. ii Incentives given to couples with small families.
11. Women are often blamed for producing female children. Consequently, they are ill-treated
and ostracised. How will you address this issue scientifically if you were to conduct an
awareness programme to highlight the values involved? (C.B.S.E. 2014)
Ans:The sex of the child is determined by the type of gamete he receives from the father as father
contains two different types of gametes X and Y while mother contains only one type of gamete i.e.
X. When male X combines with female X, a male child is borne and when male Y combines with
female X, a female child is born. Thus females are never responsible for determination of the sex of
a child. So, women should not be ill-treated for giving birth to a girl child, as both males and
females are equally important for the balance of nature and continuity of our species.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARK)

1.Over population causes number of family Problems. Strategies like birth control methods Help to
control population explosion. Natural Methods of birth control do not involve Medications or devices
to prevent pregnancy but rather rely on behavioural practices and/or Making observations about
menstrual cycle.
I. Which method helps in contraception by Temporary absence of sex?
(a) Coitus interrupts
(b) Withdrawal method
(c) Rhythm method
(e) Locational amenorrhea method
II. Assertion: The effectiveness of coitus Interruptus method is limited.
Reason: Some sperms may pass into vagina before ejaculation.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
III.Why is locational amenorrhea effective for about 4-5 months after parturition?
a) Occurs on about the 14th day Of menstruation.
b) Ovulation does not occur during intense Lactation.
c) This method inhibits mobility of sperms.
d) Both (b) and (c).
IV fact is not the basis of periodic absence Method of birth control?
(a) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(b) Ovulation occurs on about 14th day of Menstruation.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(e) Alteration in uterine endometrium.
V.On which days of menstrual cycle should Coitus be avoided to prevent fertilisation?
a) 10-17
b) 6-13
c) 1-5
d) 15-28

35
2. Intrauterine devices are most widely accepted Methods of contraception. These are used by
Females and are inserted by doctor or nurse in the uterus through vagina. However, these Devices
are not recommended for those eventually intend to conceive.
1. How does CuT prevent conception?
a) Cu ions make uterus unsuitable for Implantation.
b) Copper ions make cervix hostile to the sperm
c) Copper ion suppress sperms motility
d) copper ions inhibit ovulation
2. which of the following iodine make uterus UN suitable for implantation.
a) LNG 20
b) multiload375
c) Cu7
d) Lippes loop
3. Identify the correct statement for IUDs
a) They slowly releasesynthetic progesterone in the body.
b) They increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
c) They block entry of sperm through the service.
d) Both b and c
4. Select the correct matched pair
a) Hormone releasing IUd-LNG20
b) Non medicated IUD-progestasert
c) Copper releasing IUD-Lippes loop
d) None of these.
5. Assertion:IUD can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
Reason: IUD can perforate uterus
a) Both assertion and reasons are true and region is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both assertion and reasons are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but region is false.
d) Both assertion and reasons are false.
3.A young couple married for 5 years is unable To bear a child inspite of not practicing any Birth
control method. Upon consultation, doctor advised them an assisted reproductive technology
Involving transfer of gametes into oviducts.
(i) Identify the technique adopted by the couple.
a) ZIFT
b) IUI
c) ICSI
d) GIFT
(ii) What is the pre-requisite of this technique?
a) Gamete formation should be normal.
b) Fallopian tubes should be normal
c) Female should have thick endometrial Lining.
d) Male should be able to copulate the female.
(iii) Assertion: GIFT is an in-vitro fertilisation Technique.
Reason: In GIFT, gametes are fertilised Outside the female body.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(iv) The procedure advised to couple involves the Transfer of
a) fertilised ovum.
b) embryo with 8 blastomeres.
c) sperms and unfertilisblastomer
d) embryos with 16 blastomeres.
(v) What is the success rate of thisThis procedure?
a) 30-50%
36
 b) 80-85%
c) < 20%
d) 27-30%
4. Oral administration of small doses of hormones is rEason are false.Contraceptive method used by
the females. They are used in the form of tablet and hence called The pills. The oral pills are two
types: mini pills and combined pills.
(i) Mini pills contain
a) estrogen only
b) progesterone only
c) combination of progesterone-estrogen
d) inhibin
(ii) How do hormonal pills prevent pregnancy’?
a) By phagocytosing the sperms
b) By inhibiting ovulation
c) By preventing sperms from entering the Vagina
d) All of these.
(iii) Pill containing non-steroidal preparation, Centchroman is
a) Mala D
b) Mala N
c) i-Pill
d) Saheli
(iv) Which among the following is incorrect for Oral contraceptives?
a) Oral pills alter the uterine endometrium And make it unsuitable for implantation.
b) Oral pills have to be taken daily for 7 days Starting within first five days of menstrual Cycle.
c) Oral pills increase the risk of intravascular Clotting.
d) Oral pills contain either progestin alone Or combination of progesterone and Estrogen.
(v)Assertion: Mala D, a combined contraceptive Pill have to be taken daily without a break.
Reason: Mala D contains synthetic Progesterone and estrogen.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c)Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARK EACH)

1.A large number of married couples the world over are childless. It is shocking to know that in
India the female partner is often blamed for the couple being childless.
(a) Why in your opinion the female partner is often blamed for such situations in India?
(b) State any two reasons responsible for the cause of infertility.
(c) Suggest a technique that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with the
Male partner.[CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. (a) Female partner is often blamed due to following reasons:
(i) Social mind-set
(ii) Inequality of sexes
(iii) Lack of awareness/male dominated society.
(iv) Awareness is to be created that abnormality can occur in both male and females and Infertility
issues with suitable examples
(v) Mutual respect towards both the partners in case of the problem and to find the remedy From
medical experts.
(vi) Educate them to find the reason and not believe in superstitions.
(b) Infertility is caused due to physical abnormality in reproductive system, congenital Immunological or
psychological problems.
© Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (CS), artificial insemination (AI), Intra uterine insemination(IUD ) can
help couples where the problem is with male partner.

37
2. (a) IVF is a very popular method these days that is helping childless couples to bear a
child.Describe the different steps that are carried out in this technique.
(b)Would you consider Gamete Intra fallopian Transfer (GIFT) as an IVF? Give a reason in Support
of your answer.[CBSE 2020 (57/1/1)]
Ans. (a) Steps in the technique of IVF:
a. Ova from the wife or the female donor and sperms from the husband or the male donor Are
collected.
a. Both the gametes are induced to form zygote in simulated laboratory conditions.
b. The zygote or the early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) is then transferred into the
fallopianTube. This method is called ZIFT (Zygote intra fallopian transfer).
c. If the embryo has more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus to complete its
Further development. This method is called IUT (intra uterine transfer).
(e) No, GIFT cannot be considered as an IVF technique because in this method fertilisation
takes Place in the female body (in vivo).

3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives?

Ans: Advantages of hormonal contraceptives:
1. This is a highly effective method of contraception. It can be used for a longer
period. Causes very light or no menstruation. The effects are reversible
Disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives:
1. It does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases.
2. Minor surgery is required to insert and remove the device.
3. It has several side-effects such as irregular menstruation, depression, weight gain,
hair loss, etc.
4. The capsule implanted area might get infected.
5. It is necessary to take the medications continuously.
6. The method is expensive.

4. Explain any two sexually transmitted diseases and suggest ways to prevent them. (2015)
Ans.Sexually transmitted diseases are those that are transferred from one partner to another through sexual
contact. Two sexually transmitted diseases are explained below:
AIDS– the Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency
Virus (HIV). This virus attacks the immune system of the host making him vulnerable to infections. It can
be spread through semen, blood, breastmilk, and rectal or vaginal fluids.
Genital Herpes- Herpes is a chronic disease spread by the Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). The HSV type 2
virus spreads the disease through sexual intercourse. A person suffering from genital herpes will show
symptoms like fever, pain while urinating, vaginal discharge, red blisters on the genitals, etc.
Prevention of Sexually Transmitted Diseases:
a) Use protection during sexual intercourse.
b) Get vaccinated for Hepatitis and Human Papillomavirus
c) Get tested for HIV
d) Abstain from sexual activities
e) Do not share the under clothing’s and towels.
5. Define population. What are the aims of the population study? (C.B.S.E 2013)
Ans: The population is defined as the total number of individuals of a species present in a particular area.
The members of a population have some common characteristics, share a common gene pool, and are
capable of interbreeding among themselves to produce fertile offspring’s.

Aims of Population Study.

a) An alarming rise in the human population has created many serious problems. Therefore,
population education has been introduced into the school and college curricula.
b) Population education is aimed at making the students aware of the:Consequences of uncontrolled
population growth such as environmental pollution, depletion of natural resources, extinction of
species, etc;

38
 c) Benefits of lowering population growth rate to the biosphere;Advantages of a small family to
humans;Growth, distribution, and density of population;Relation of population to the standards of
life.
6. Write a note on test-tube babies: (CBSE 2014)
Ans:Test-Tube Babies: In some women normal conception is not possible because of blocked oviducts or
spermicidal secretions in the vagina or the low sperm count of the husband. In such cases, her ovum is
removed, fertilized by her husband’s sperm in a laboratory dish, checked that development has begun, and
a morula (up to 32 cell stage) replaced or implanted in her uterus.
The entire operation is carried out under sterilized conditions. With proper medical care, she will give birth
to a normal child on the completion of gestation.
The baby produced in this manner (conceived out of and nursed in the uterus) is called a test-tube baby.
The baby is not reared in the test tube.
A scientific term for this procedure is in vitro (“in glass”) fertilization.
The success rate of the technique is less than 20%. To increase the chances of success, the prospective
mother is given fertility drugs which cause many ovarian follicles to mature at the same time. This releases
many eggs simultaneously, thereby increasing the chances of success.
A developing embryo can be inserted into the uterus of another female, called a surrogate mother, provided
her hormones are in the proper phase of the reproductive cycle for implantation to occur.

7. Reproductive and Child Healthcare (RCH) programs are currently in operation. One of the major
tasks of these programs is to create awareness amongst people about the wide range of reproduction-
related aspects. This is important and essential for building a reproductive health society.
i) “Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet this goal.” Give four points in
support of your opinion regarding this statement. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
Ans: Sex education is important in schools:
(a) To provide the right information about myths and misconceptions.
(b) To create awareness about reproduction.
(c) To provide knowledge about the growth of reproductive organs and sexually transmitted diseases
(STDs)
(d)To guide the students about social evils such as sex abuse, sex-related crimes, etc.
List any two indicators that indicate a reproductively healthy society.
Indicators about a reproductively healthy society.
(a) Low infant mortality rate (IMR)
(b) Low maternal mortality rate (MMR)

8.i) It is commonly observed that parents feel embarrassed to discuss freely with their adolescent
children about sexuality and reproduction. The result of this parental inhibition is that the children
go astray sometimes.
ii) Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some parents to freely
discuss such issues with their growing children.
Ans: Parents feel embarrassed because of the following reasons:
(a) Indian society is not that broad-minded. So parents feel shy talking openly about these matters to their
children.
(b) Improper communication and age gap are the reasons behind such embarrassment.
By taking one example of a local plant and animal, how would you help these parents to overcome such
inhibitions about reproduction and sexuality? (CBSE Delhi 2017)
Parents can take the example of China rose to explain the process of sexual reproduction. They can also
take an example of the male honeybee and orchid Ophrys flower.
It is evident that sexual attraction is a natural phenomenon. The honeybee is attracted to an Ophrys flower
and assumes its one petal as its female partner and pseudo copulate with it. So it is a natural phenomenon
and parents should talk regarding this matter to their children.

39
 KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL, MATHURA
CLASS-XII
SUBJECT-BIOLOGY
CHAPTER-BIOTECHNOLOGY:PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSESS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARKS EACH)
choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1) Restriction endonuclease
a) Synthesize DNA
b) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly
c) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific site
d) Restrict the synthesis of DNA inside the nuclease
2. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector become possible with,
a) DNA polymerase
b) Exonuclease
c) DNA ligase
d) Endonuclease
3.Stirred tank bio reactor have been designed for,
a) addition of preservative to the product
b) purification of the product
c) ensuring and aerobic conditions in the culture vessel
d) availability of oxygen throughout the process
4. given below is a sample of a portion of DNA stand giving the base sequence on the opposite strand.
what is so special shown in it?
5’--------GAATTC--------3’
3’----------CTTAAG------5’
a) replication completed
b) deletionsmutation
c) start codon at the 5’ level
d) palindromic sequence of base pair
5. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI.what does “co”part in it stand for?
a) Colon
b) Coelom
c) Co enzyme
d) Coli
6.Egg roll extracted from sea weeds is used in
a) Spectrophotometry
b) tissue culture
c) PCR
d) Gel electrophoresis
7. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is,
a) Endonuclease
b) Exonuclease
c) DNA ligase
d) Hind-II
8.The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another throw the mediation of the viral vector
is term as
a) Transduction
b) Conjugation
c) Transformation
d) Translation
9. which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose
gel electrophoresis?
a) DNA can be seen in visible light
b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
c) Ethidium bromide is stained DNA can be seen in visible light
d) Ethidium bromide is stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
10. which of the following is not a characteristic of the plasmid
a) Extra nuclear
b) single standard
40
 c) independence replication
d) circular DNA
11. DNA fragment generated by the restriction endonuclease in a chemical reaction can be separated by,
a) gel electrophoresis
b) restriction mapping
c) centrifugation
d) PCR
12. which of the following is not required in the preparations of recombinant DNA molecule?
a) restriction endonuclease
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA fragments
d) E.coli
13. in agarose gel electrophoresis DNA molecule are separated on the basis of their
a) charge only
b) size only
c) charge to size ratio
d) all of the above
14. the most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is
a) origin of replication
b) presence of a selectable marker
c) presence of sight for restriction endonuclease
d) it’s size
15. while isolating DNA from bacteria which of the following enzymes is not required?
1) Lysozyme
2) Ribo nucleus
3) Deoxyribonucleus
4) Protease
16. which of the following has popularised the PCR?
a) Easy availability of DNA template
b) Availability of chief deoxy ribo nucleotides
c) Availability of synthetic primer
d) Availability of thermo stable DNA polymerase
17.an antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of
a) competent cells
b) transform cells
c) recombinant cells
d) none of the above
18. significance of heat shock method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate
a) binding of DNA to the cell wall
b) pic of DNA through membrane transport protein
c) take off DNA through transient force in the bacterial cell wall
d) expressions of antibiotic resistance gene.
19. in genetic engineering the antibiotic are used,
a) as selectable marker
b) to keep the culture free of infection
c) to select healthy vectors
d) as sequence from where are replication start.
20. which of the following statement does not hold true for restriction enzyme?
a. it recognise a palindromic nucleotide sequence.
b. it is an endonuclease
c. it is isolated from viruses
d. it can produce the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecule.

Answer key
1.c2.c3.d 4.d 5.d 6.d 7.b 8.a 9.d 10.b11.a 12.d 13.d
14.a 15.c 16.d17.b 18.c 19.a 20.c

41
ASSERTION -REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARKS EACH)

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.

Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

1. Assertion-Plasmids are single stranded extrachromosomal DNA.

Reason-plasmid are found in eukaryotic cells.(C)

2. Assertion- plasmid are extrachromosomal DNA.

Reason Plasmids are found in bacteria and are useful in genetic engineerng.(A)

3. Assertion: in recombinant DNA technology human gens are often transferred into bacteria prokaryotes or
yeast eukaryotes.
Reason-both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population with express the desired gene.(A)

4. Assertion insertion of recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of beta galactosidase results in
colourless colonies.
Reason presence of insert result in inactivation of enzyme Geeta galactociates known as insertional
inactivation.(A)

5. Assertion in recombinant DNA technology both ligase and nuclease0 play and important role.
Reason ligase cut the DNA at specific site and nuclease join the DNA fragments.(C)

6. Assertion E.coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at BanHI site cannot grow in medium
containing tetracycline.
Reason recognition site for BamHI is present in tetracycline reason of pBR322.(A)

7. Assertion downstream processing include separation and purification of product.

Reason before release of the product it need to be tested for quality control.B

8. Assertion PCR primers do not have self complementary region

Reason PCR involve use of taq polymerase as it can with stand the high temperature of the process.(D)

9. Assertion restriction enzyme recognise palindromic sequence.

Reason palindromic sequence read the same in both direction of the Strands.(B)

10. Assertion for isolation DNA from yeast cell chitinase is enzyme is necessary.
Reason cell wall of fungi are made up of chitin.(A)

11. Assertion in GMOs desirable DNA segment is introduced into a suitable host.
Reason the gene transfer doing using a bio listing gun only.(C)

12. Assertion the palindromic sequence at which endonuclease act vary from organised to organism
Reason the palindromic sequence of eco R1 is GAATTC.(C)

13. Assertion at temperature control system is an important requirement for bio reactor.
Reason every microorganism or enzyme is functional only at an optimum temperature condition. (A)

14. Assertion: Restriction enzymes Hind II and Hpa are produced from two different genera of bacteria.
Reason: Hind II is produced from Haemophilus while Hpa is produce from Hematococcus.(D)

42
15. Assertion: Restriction endonucleases are also called ‘molecular scissors’.
Reason: When fragments generated by restriction endonucleases are mixed, they join together due
to their sticky ends.(B)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

Q.1. Explain the work carried out by Cohen and Boyer that contributed immensely in
biotechnology.(CBSE 2012)
Ans. Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972 constructed the firsrecombinanDNA. They isolatet
the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from the plasmiof a bacteriumwhich was
responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance. The cutpiece of DNA was then linkedwith the plasmid DNA
of Salmonella typhimurium and transferred to E. coli for transformation

Q.2. Explain with the help of an example the relationship between restriction endonuclease and.
palindromic nucleotide sequence.[CBSE (F) 2016)
Ans. Restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Restriction endonuclease cuts the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of palindromicnucleotide
sequence but between the same two bases on the opposite strands, leaving singlestranded portions at the end
called sticky ends.
5--------GAATTC---------3
3---------CTTAAG--------5

Q.3. Explain palindromic nucleotide sequence with the help of a suitable example.[CBSE 2014)
Ans. The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when
orientation of reading is kept the same. For example,
5--------GAATTC---------3

3---------CTTAAG--------5
the following sequences reads the same on the two strands in 5>3 direction. This is also true if it is read in
the 3>5 direction.

0.4. Why are molecular scissors so called? Write their use in biotechnology.[CBSE (F) 2014]
Ans. (a) The restriction endonucleases are called molecular scissors, asthey cut the DNA segments at
(b) The restriction enzymes cut the DNA strands a little away from the centre of the palindromic
sites, but between the same two basses the opposite strands. This leaves single stranded
portions with overhanging stretches called l : sticky ends on each strand as they form hydrogen
bonds with their complementary cut counterparts. This stickiness at the ends facilitates the action of the
enzyme DNA Ligase.

Q.5 Explain the role of the enzyme EcoRIinrecombinant DNA technology.(CBSE 2016)
Ans: EcoRI Restriction endonuclease acts as molecular scissors or chemical scalpel they serve as tools for
cutting DNA molecule at specific palindromic sites inspects length of DNA and recognises specific
palindromic nucleotide sequence binds with DNA cuts each of the two strands of double helix at specific
points.

Q.6 some enzymes are considered molecular scissors in genetic engineering. What is the name
assigned to such enzymes?
Ans: In genetic engineering, restriction Enzymes are the enzymes that are responsible for the
digestion of DNA strands resulting in the formation of fragments, thus they are called molecular
scissors.

Q.7 Write conventional nomenclature of EcoRI.

Ans: E. Escherichia is a bacterium where co stands for coli; R stands for the Name of Strain; I is the order in
which the enzyme is isolated from the bacterial strain.
43
Q.8 A linear DNA fragment and a plasmid have three restriction sites for EcoRI. How many
fragments will be produced from linear DNA and plasmid respectively?
Ans: The linear DNA will produce 4 fragments while the plasmid produces 6 fragments after their digestion
by a restriction enzyme.

Q.9 Name the bacterium that yields thermostable DNA polymerase.

Ans: The thermostable DNA polymerase can be produced with the help of a bacterium which is named
Thermusaquaticus.

Q.10 Name the commonly used vector for transformation in a plant cell?
Ans: The commonly used vector which is responsible for the transformation in plants cells is named
Agrobacterium tumefacient.

Q.11 Name the enzyme responsible for removal of 5 – phosphate group from nucleic acid?
Ans: To remove the 5 – phosphate group from nucleic acid, Alkaline Phosphates are the enzymes that are
responsible.

Q.12 Why do eukaryotic cells do not contain restriction enzymes?

Ans: In eukaryotic cells, the restriction enzymes are absent because the DNA is found to be methylated
heavily.

Q.13 Why does DNA moves towards the anode in the gel electrophoresis.
Ans: In the gel electrophoresis, the DNA is found to be moving towards the anode because the DNA is
negatively charged due to the presence of a phosphate group that results in the movement of DNA towards
the anode.

Q.14 Who isolated Restriction enzymes for the first time?

Ans: The Restriction enzymes were first isolated by Warner Arber & Hamilton-Smith.

Q.15 Identify the recognition sites in the given sequences at which E. coli will be cut and make sticky
ends. 5 -́ GAATTC-3 ́
3 -́ CTTAAG-5 ́
Ans: 5 - G↓TAATTC3
3 - CTTAA↑G5
is the recognition sites that will make the sticky ends after they will be cut.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION(3 MARKS EACH)

1. Would you like to choose an exonuclease enyme while producing a recombinant DNA(CBSE 2013)
Ans, No, aexonuclease acts on the free ends of linear DNmolecule. Therefore, instead of producing
DNA Fragmentwith sticky ends, it will shorten or completely degrade the DNA fragment containing
the gene of interest, and the circular plasmid (vector) will not get cut as it lacks free ends.
2. (a) How does a restriction nuclease function? Explain. [CBSE (A) 2014]
b) Restriction endonuclease recognises and cuts specific palindromic nucleotide sequences
in Molecule?
Ans. (a) Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA whereas endonuclease cuts at
Endonuclease.
Restriction nuclease cuts DNA at specific sites. Nucleases are of two types exonuclease and
Exonuclease cuts DNA at the ends, whereas endonuclease cuts at specific sites within DNA.

3. How can the desired product formed after genetic engineering be produced on a commercial scale?
Ans: To make a commercial scale-out of the desired product that is formed after the process of
genetic engineering there are a series of processes that need to be followed which are collectively

44
 called downstream processing and then it will lead to the final processes. The final processes that are
involved in the downstream processing are Separation and purification.

4. What is “Insertional Inactivation”?

Ans: The insertional inactivation is the process of insertion of the recombinant DNA into the coding
Sequence of enzyme B– galactosidase leading to the inactivation of the enzyme. An example is when
the insert is absent in the plasmid of bacteria then it will lead to the insertional inactivation leading to
the production of colorless colonies instead of blue-colored colonies due to the presence of
chromogenic substrate.
5. How is gene Z used as a marker?
Ans: The Lac Z Gene Is responsible for the coding of Β-galactosidase enzyme this results in the
inactivation of the enzyme due to the insertion of recombinant DNA in the coding sequence of an
enzyme Β-galactosidase. The bacterial colony normally produces blue-colored colonies by they get
the insert into their plasmid then it will result in the production of colonies that are colorless.

6. What is Bioreactor? What are the advantages of Stirred tank Bioreactor over Shake flask? Show
diagrammatically a simple Stirred tank Bioreactor?
Ans: The bioreactors are the devices in the form of the vessel which contains various organisms or
chemical substances that undergo the chemical processes and result in the formation of the
biologically active substances. They consist of large vessels where the raw materials using microbial,
plant, animal, or human cells are converted biologically into specific proteins. The advantages of
Bioreactor over shake flask are:
a) To produce the optimum growth of the desired product, it provides the optimal conditions e.g.,
temp, pH, etc.
b) For testing the sample, a small volume of cultures can be withdrawn periodically from the
bioreactor.
c) It has an agitation system, temp control system, from control system & pH control system.

7. Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. Name and explain the
technique with which the DNA is forced into
(i) a bacterial cell
Ans: In the bacterial cell, the DNA can enter by the technique of Chemical treatment and may be exposed to
cold and high temp (42°C) alternatively.
(ii) a plant cell
Ans: The DNA in the plant cell can enter through the technique called Biolistic or gene gun.
(iii) an animal cell.
Ans: The DNA in the animal cell can enter through the technique called Micro-injection.

8. In recombinant DNA technology, vectors are used to transfer a gene of interest in the host cells.
Mention any three features of vectors that are most suitable for this purpose.
Ans: The vectors in the recombinant DNA technology are utilized in transferring the gene of interest in the
host cells due to the following features of vectors:
45
(i) Vectors constitute of origin of replication (Ori) where the gene of interest attaches.
(ii) They constitute various selectable markers for the various genes of interest.
(iii) They are also composed of at least one recognition site.
9. Mention the important properties which a good vector must possess? (HOTS)
Ans: The important properties which a good vector must possess are -
i) Size - The size of the vector must be small so that it helps them in purification and isolation easily.
ii) Origin of Replication – A site where replication starts and is made up of the sequence of base pairs.
When the DNA is attached to this sequence then it will result in the replication within its host cell & thus,
controls the number of copies of linked DNA.
iii) Selectable Marker - The host cells that contain the vector can be selected with the help of a gene called
a selectable marker that results in the elimination of the non–transformant. It is used in genetic engineering.
iv) Cloning Sites - The site in the vector where the foreign/alien DNA attaches is also called the unique
recognition site. A particular restriction enzyme will cut the vector-only at a particular recognition site.

10. Describe any three vectors less method of introducing the rDNA into a competent host cell?(2016)
Ans: The three vectors less method of introducing the rDNA into a competent host cell are:
i) Transformation: The bacterial cell is first treated with the specific concentration of divalent cation e.g., Ca2+ so that
they can be competent enough to take up the DNA in the plasmid. The calcium ions increase the efficiency of DNA to
enter into a bacterium through pores in its cell wall. By the process of incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on
ice, then placing them at 420 C, and then again putting them back into ice the recombinant DNA can then be forced
into cells. This helps the bacteria in taking up the recombinant DNA.
ii) Microinjection: With the help of a micro needle of the tip with a diameter (~ 4mm), the recombinant DNA can be
injected directly into the nucleus of an animal cell.
iii) Biolistic / Gene gun: The cells of the DNA that are coated with particles of gold or tungsten are bombarded with
high-velocity micro-gun.

11. Why is Agrobacterium-mediated genetic transformation described as Natural Genetic engineering

in plants? (CBSE,DELHI 2020)
Ans: The Agrobacterium tumefaciens-interceded plant genetic transformation measure requires the presence
of two genetic segments situated on the bacterial Ti-plasmid. Basically, the main basic part is the T-DNA,
which is characterized by conserved 25-base pair imperfect repeats at the closures of the T-region known as
a border sequence. The tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid is used as a cloning vector to transfer the desired gene
into plants as they insert a part of their DNA in plants during the infection.
The second is the virulence (vir) region, which is made out of in any event seven significant loci (virA, virB,
virC, virD, virE, virF, and virG) encoding parts of the bacterial protein machinery which is mediating the T-
DNA processing and transfer. The gene of interest is attached to the T-DNA so that it automatically gets
transformed into plant cells thus, Agrobacterium tumefacien is known as the “Natural Genetic Engineer” of
plants.

12. Mention the important tools required for genetic engineering technology? (cbse 2010)
Ans: The process of genetic engineering is accomplished only when we have the following key tools:
a) Restriction Enzymes: In genetic engineering, restriction Enzymes are the enzymes that are responsible
for the digestion of DNA strands resulting in the formation of fragments, thus they are called molecular
scissors. They are of types: Endonucleases and Exonucleases.
b) Cloning Vector: The cloning Vector is the part of the DNA molecule that is attached to the DNA
Segment of an organism that is desired and then transfers into the cell or DNA of another organism.

46
c) Desired Foreign DNA: The desired foreign DNA segment is the part of DNA that consists of genes
having desired characters that are being transferred into the genome of another cell with the help of the
cloning vector.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow
Case-1
1. Name the Organism in which the vector shown in inserted to get the copies of the desired gene.
2. Mention the aerial able in the vector responsible for controlling the copy number of the inserted
gene.
3. Name and explain the role of selectable marker in a vector shown

Answer
1. Escherichia coli
2. Origin of replication or ori control copy number of inserted gene.
3. The selectable marker RM Phil in resistance and tetracycline resistance which help to select the host cell
that contains the vector and eliminate non transformer. If foreign DNA ligatethe BamHI Site of
tetracycline resistance gene in the vector PBR 322 the recombinant plasmid lose the tetracycline
resistance due to insertion of DNA. it can still be selected out from non recombinant.
Case 2
Rajesh was doing gel electrophoresis to purify DNA fragment. given below is the sketch of the observation
of the experiment performed by him
1. At which ends he would have loaded the samples and where?
2. Analyse the reason for different position taken up by the DNA bands.
3. Elaborate the steps he would have followed to visualise DNA bands.

Answer,
1. He would have loaded the samples near end A;in the wells.
2. The DNA fragments separate according to their size through sieving effect provide by the agarose gel
.hence, the smaller the fragments size,the farthest it moves.
3. After staining the DNA with ethiidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation the DNA
basitestappear coloured.
Case -3
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
47
 A. What is EcoRI?
B. How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease?
C. How are sticky ends formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so called?

Answer:
1.EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease enzyme
2.Exonuclease cleave the DNA molecule at their ends whereas endonuclease cleavesDNA molecule
internally.
3.Restriction enzymes cut the strand of the DNA a little away from the centre of the palindromic site but
between the same 2 bases on opposites strand.this leaves sticky single standard position at the ends this
overhanging is scratches are aids these name so because they form hydrogen bonds with their
complimentary cut counterparts very easily.

Case 4.
Answer the following questions in relation to the diagram and information on the pBR322 plasmid:
The ability of plasmid and bacteriophage to replicate inside a bacterial cell, independence of the
chromosomal DNA control is used in the technique of cloning vectors.Ecoli cloning vector pBR322 has

restriction site, site of origin and antibiotic resistant gene that make it perfect as a cloning vehicle.
The sequence amp marker and tet marker are the selectable markers in the plasmid and help in
transformation and can help in differentiating the non recombinant from the transformants .this is done using
chromogenic substance.
i) What is the chemical basis on which the chromogenic substance act?
ii) Explain how the substance help in the differentiation process.
iii) Why are such chromogenic substrate advantageous in the separation of non-
recombinants and transformants?
Answers:
I Chromogenic substrates are peptides which react with proteolytic Enzyme and produce colour.
II.When a recombinant DNA is inserted in the coding sequence of an enzyme ,say beta galactosidase,
It results in inactivation of the enzyme and hence there is no conversion of substrate to products.so
transformed plasmids do not show any colour.
III.These substance are easy to use ,the results are visually distinguishable.(CBSE 2020)

48
CASE- 5
Bioreactors are vessels for production of large scale gene product. answer the following questions based on
the above information
1. how has the development of bioreactors help in biotechnology?
2. what are recombinant protein?
3. how do bio reactors help in their production?

Answer
A. in bio reactors large volume of culture can be processed which result in higher yields of the desired
specific product. the entire process take place under the controlled condition of temperature PH and raw
material.
B. the protein produced by genetically are alter gene in a host is called recombinant protein. Bioreactors are
vessels in which raw material are biologically converted into specific product by microbes.
C. it provides optimum growth condition as temperature pH substrate vitamins Oxygen and salt.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION(5 MARKS EACH)

1.The development of bioreactors is required to produce large quantities of products.(CBSE 2014)

(a) Give optimum growth conditions used in bioreactors.
(b) Draw a well-labeled diagram of a simply stirred tank bioreactor.
(c) How does a simply stirred tank bioreactor to differ from sparged stirred – tank’ bioreactor?

Ans: (a)The bioreactors are the devices in the form of the vessel which contains various organisms or
chemical substances that undergo the chemical processes and result in the formation of the biologically
active substances. To produce the optimum growth of the desired product the optimum temperature, pH,
substrates, salts, vitamins, and oxygen are required.
(b) A simply stirred tank bioreactor is shown in above question.
(c) In the simply stirred tank bioreactor the stirrer facilitates the even mixing and the oxygen availability
throughout the process, whereas for proper mixing throughout the reactor in the case of sparged stirred-tank
bioreactor the air is found to be bubbled.

2. In the given figure, one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is shown-
(CBSE2019)

49
(a) Name the steps A, B, and C.
Ans: A: Denaturation, B: Annealing, and C: Extension.
(b) Give the purpose of each of these steps.
Ans: The purpose of each step is:
(i) Denaturation: Due to high temperature, the heat will break or denature the two complementary strands
of DNA and results in their separation.
(ii) Annealing: The hybridization of the denatured DNA strands takes place with the help of the primers.
(iii) Extension: The target DNA sequence will synthesize its copies by the process of the extension of the
primers.
(c) State the contribution of the bacterium Thermus Aquaticus in this process.
Ans: The Taq polymerase enzyme is found to be isolated from the bacterium Thermus Aquaticus which
functions at a very high temperature and results in the denaturation of double-stranded DNA.

3. Study the figure of vector pBR322 given below in which foreign DNA is ligated at
the Bam H1 site of the tetracycline resistance gene.(CBSE 2010)

Answer the following questions:

(a) Mention the function of rop.
Ans: The rop is responsible for the coding of the proteins that are involved in the replication of plasmids.
(b) What will be the selectable marker for this recombinant plasmid and why?
Ans: The selectable marker for this recombinant plasmid will be the ampicillin resistance gene. They after
placing them on an ampicillin-containing medium will undergo the process of plating that will help in the
differentiation between the trAns.formants from non-trAns.formants.
(c) Explain transformation.
Ans: Transformation is the process of transferring DNA from one cell and then placing them into the other
cell which will result in the formation of the recombinant cell consisting of the properties of both the cells.

4. Describe the various steps involved in Recombinant DNA technology with the help of a well labeled.
Diagram?
Ans: The steps involved in the recombinant DNA are:
i) Identification of DNA with Desirable Genes: The addition of chilled ethanol will result in obtaining the
purified DNA while by using various other appropriate techniques the other molecules in the target cell can
also be removed.
ii) Cutting the DNA at a Specific Location: The source and vector DNAS after being cut will be
introduced together having a gene of interest and specific restriction site and will be joined together with the
help of an enzyme called ligase.

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iii) Insertion of Recombinant DNA into Host Cell: The bacterial cell is first treated with the specific
concentration of divalent cation e.g., Ca2+ so that they can be competent enough to take up the DNA in the
plasmid. The calcium ions increase the efficiency of DNA to enter into a bacterium through pores in its cell
wall. It is a vector-less method.

iv) Selection & Screening: The selectable marker for this recombinant plasmid will be the ampicillin
resistance gene. They after placing them on an ampicillin-containing medium will undergo the process of
plating that will help in the differentiation between the trAns.formants from non-trAns.formants.
v) Obtaining the Foreign Gene product: The gene of interest after its cloning along with the presence of
optimum growth conditions will result in the expression of target proteins which then needs to be produced
on a large scale.

5. Expand PCR? Describe the different steps involved in this technique?

Ans: The Polymerase Chain Reaction is the method of making millions of DNA copies from a DNA sample.
It has two main reagents: primers (short single-stranded DNA fragments that are a complementary sequence
to the target DNA), and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is heat stable, that is Taq polymerase
which is extracted from the bacteria Thermus aquaticus. Each cycle has three steps:
a) DENATURATION: In the first step, the two strands of the DNA helix are physically separated at a heat
during a process called macromolecule denaturation.
b) RENATURATION / ANNEALING: In the second step, the temperature is lowered so that the primers
can bind to the complementary sequences of DNA.
c) EXTENSION: The third step is the target DNA sequence will synthesize its copies by the process of the
extension of the primers. The temperature is raised to 750c. At this temperature, Taq – polymerase initiates
DNA Synthesis at the 3-OH end of the primer.

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6. What are Restriction enzymes? Why do bacteria have these restriction enzymes? Show
diagrammatically a restriction enzyme its recognition & the product it produces?
Ans: Restriction Enzymes are the endonuclease enzymes that are responsible for the digestion of DNA
strands resulting in the formation of fragments, thus they are called molecular scissors. They are found in
bacteria cells as they help in cutting the foreign DNA and results in the modification of the restriction
system and thus results in the improving of the immunity in the bacterial cell.
Name of Restriction enzyme- EcoRI Substrate DNA on which it acts

7. (i) Mention the importance of gel-electrophoresis in biotechnology.

(ii) Explain the process of this technique. (All India 2019)
Answer:(i) DNA fragments formed by the use of restriction endonucleases are separated by gel-
electrophoresis.
(ii) DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules. Thus, they move towards the positive charged anode
under electric field through the medium. The smaller fragments move farther in the gel as compared to
larger fragments due to the sieving effect of gel.

8. How does p-galactosidase coding sequence act as a selectable marker? Why is it a preferred
selectable marker to antibiotic resistance genes? Explain. (All India 2019)
Answer:Selectable marker It helps in indentifying or selecting transformants and eliminating non-
transformants and selectively permit the growth of the transformants.
ß-galactosidase acts as a selectable marker by inducing the property of insertional inactivation in
transformed cells. In this process the recombinants and non-recombinants are differentiated on
the basic of colour production in the presence of chromogenic substrate
. A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme ß-galactosidase which
results into inactivation of the enzyme. Therefore, the bacterial colonies having inserted plasmid,
show no colouration while, thoseb without plasmid show blue colour.

9. How does p-galactosidase coding sequence act as a selectable marker? Why is it a preferred
selectable marker to antibiotic resistance genes? Explain. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Selectable marker It helps in indentifying or selecting transformants and eliminating non-transformants and
selectively permit the growth of the transformants.
ß-galactosidase acts as a selectable marker by inducing the property of insertional inactivation in
transformed cells. In this process the recombinants and non-recombinants are differentiated on the basic of
colour production in the presence of chromogenic substrate. A recombinant DNA is inserted within the
coding sequence of an enzyme ß-galactosidase which results into inactivation of the enzyme. Therefore, the
52
bacterial colonies having inserted plasmid, show no colouration while, thoseb without plasmid show blue
colour.

10. (i) Explain the significance of palindromic nucleotide sequences in the formation of recombinant
DNA.
(ii) Write the use of restriction endonuclease in the above process. (All India 2017)
Answer:
(i) Palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA are group of letters that form the same words when read
both forward and backward. For example, the following sequence reads the same on the two strands in 5′ →
3’direction as well as 3′ → 5’direction.
5’— GAATTC —3′
3’—CTTAAG —5′
Significance these sequences act as recognition sites which are recognized by specific restriction
endonucleases.
(ii) Use of restriction endonuclease During recombinant DNA formation, these enzymes recognise and make
a cut at specific positions within the DNA and vector. Due to this function, restriction endonucleases are
also called as molecular scissors.

11. (i) Name the selectable markers in the cloning vector pBR322. Mention the role they play.
(ii) Why is the coding sequence of an enzyme p-galactosidase a preferred selectable marker in
comparison to the ones named above? (All India 2016)
Answer:
(i) Selectable markers in cloning vector pBR322 are ampicillin and tetracycline antibiotic resistance gene.
They help in the selection of transformants and eliminating the non-transformants.
(ii) The selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a difficult process and requires
simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics. Thus, enzyme p-galactosidase is preferred as
a selectable marker as it allows to differentiate non-recombinants from recombinants easily by insertional
inactivations technique.
12. (i) Why was a bacterium used in the first instance of the construction of an artificial recombinant
DNA molecule?
(ii) Name the scientists who accomplished this and how. (Delhi 2016C)
Answer:
(i) A bacterium Salmonella typhimurium was used in the first instance of construction of artificial
recombinant DNA molecule because of the possibilities of linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with
a native plasmid of the bacterium. This was made possible by the availability of restriction enzymes and the
enzyme DNA ligase.
(ii) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer accomplished this in 1972 by isolating the antibiotic resistance gene
by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance.
The cutting of DNA at specific sites was possible with the availability of restriction enzymes. The cut DNA
was linked with the plasmid DNA using the enzyme DNA ligase. The plasmid DNA acts as vector to
transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.

13. Name and explain the technique used for separating DNA fragments and making them available
for biotechnology experiments. (Foreign 2015; All India 2014)
Answer:
DNA fragments formed by the use of restriction endonucleases are separated by gel electrophoresis.
(i) DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules. Thus, they move towards the positive charged anode
under electric field through the gel medium.
(ii) DNA fragments separate according to their size due to sieving effect of agarose gel.
(iii) The separated DNA fragments can be viewed by staining the DNA with ethidium bromide followed by
exposure to UV radiation.
(iv) The separated bands of DNA are cut and extracted from gel piece. This is known as elution.

14. What are ‘cloning sites’ in a cloning vector? Explain their role. Name any two such sites in
pBR322. (All India 2014C)
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Answer:
The cloning sites contain the specific unique recognition sequence for a particular restriction enzyme, so as
to link the foreign DNA with the vector DNA and thus, create a recombinant DNA molecule.
These sites are important for joining the DNA fragments of vector and alien DNA. Multiple recognition
sequences for a particular restriction enzyme within a DNA or vector complicate the process of gene
cloning. The two cloning sites in pBR322 are Bam HI for tetracycline resistant gene and Pvu I for ampicillin

15. Unless the vector and source DNA are cut, fragments separated and joined, the desired
recombinant vector molecule cannot be created.
(i) How are the desirable DNA sequences cut?
(ii) Explain the technique used to separate the cut fragments.
(iii) How are the resultant fragments joined to the vector DNA molecule? (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
(i) The desirable DNA sequences are cut by using resriction endonuclease enzyme. These enzymes cut at
specific site in palindromic sequence between same two bases on both the strands.
(ii) Refer to Answer No. 58.
(iii) The resulting fragments are joined together with vector DNA by DNA ligase enzyme. It forms
phosphodiester bonds between them.
CHAPTER-BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
1) Bt cotton is not:
(a) A GM plant (b) Insect resistant
(c) A bacterial gene expressing system (d) Resistant to all pesticides
2) C-peptide of human insulin is
(a) A part of mature insulin molecule
(b) Responsible of formation of disulphide bridges
(c) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin
(d) Responsible for its biological activity.
3) GEAC stands for:
(a) Genome Engineering Action Committee (b) Ground Environment Action Committee
(b) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (d) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee
4) a-1antitrypsin is
(a) An antacid (b) An enzyme (c) Used to treat arthritis (d) Used to treat emphysema
5) A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA
molecules could be:
(a) A single stranded RNA (b) A single stranded DNA
(c) Either RNA or DNA (d) can be ssDNA but not ssRNA
6) The site of production of ADA in the body is:
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Lymphocytes (c) Blood plasma (d) Osteocytes
7) The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is :
(a) Acidic pH of stomach (b) High temperature
(c) Alkaline pH of gut (d) Mechanical action in the insect gut
8) Golden rice is:
(a) A variety or rice grown along the yellow river in China
(b) Long stored rice having yellow colour tint
(c) A transgenic rice having gene for beta carotene
(d) Wild variety or rice with yellow coloured grains
9) In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
(a) ssDNA (b) dsDNA (c) dsRNA (d) ssRNA
10) The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of:
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) SCID (Severe combined immune Deficiency resulting from deficiency of ADA)
11) ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic disorder SCID. What is the full form of ADA?
54
 (a) Adenosine deoxyaminase
(b) Adenosine deaminase
(c) Aspartate deaminase
(d) Arginine deaminase
12) U.S. ______does not recognize technologies and methods used in other countries as ‘prior art’.
13) Bacillus thuringiensis produces a ________, which kills insects.
14) A ________ is a piece of single stranded DNA which is tagged with a radio active molecule.
15) Insulin for curing diabetes should only come from animals.(T/F)
16) Insulin has three peptide chain in prohorme stage. (T/F)
17) ADA deficiency can lead to severe combined immune deficiency. (T/F)
18) In Bt cotton the gent responsible to make insect resistance is cry. (T/F)
19) B. thuringiensisbacterium which produces toxins are harmful for the bacteria. (T/F)
20) Match the items in Column I with those if Column II:
Column I Column II
(A) Polymerase chain reaction (i) Steroid
(B) Eli Lilly (ii) Biological control
(C) Insulin (iii) Humulin
(D) Cholesterol (iv) Karymullis
(E) IPM (vi) Islets of Langerhens
ANSWER
I. Multiple choice questions.
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10(d) 11(b) 12. patent law 13.Toxin
14.Probe15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. False 20.Match the items of Colum
I with those of Column II:
A—(iv) B-(iii) C-(vi) D-(i) E-(ii)

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARKS EACH)

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.

Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because it spontaneously
Transfers tumor inducing gene to broad leaf dicot plants.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets autonomic ally Transferred to be
crop with which the bacterium is associated.(C)
2 Assertion: Genetic engineering is mainly involved in production of transgenic animals that Produce
proteins.
Reason: Transgenic plants can be obtained by combination of tissue culture and genetic Engineering.(D)
3. Assertion: The first gene therapy was given for ADA deficiency.
Reason: The normal gene for ADA was delivered to patient’s cells using retroviral vector.(B)
4. Assertion: Orgnisations like Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GAEC) monitor GM Researches.
Reason Some ethical standards are required to evaluate the morality of all human activities.(A)
5. Assertion: Human insulin is produced in E. coli.
Reason: In mammals, insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which contains an extra Stretch of protein.(B)
6. Assertion: The RNAi can be introduced in an organism only by inserting the gene encoding
Complementary RNA.
Reason: The complement of the mRNA sense strand usually contains the sequence of Codons for producing
functional protein (D)
7. Assertion: Cry’ proteins are named so because they are crystal proteins.
Reason: ‘‘Cry’ proteins solubilise in alkaline pH of the insect’s gut and activate Bt toxin.(B)
55
8. Assertion: Patents are granted by government to an inventor
Reason: Patent prevents other from commercial use of an invention.(A)
9. Assertion: Stem cells are undifferentiated biological cells found in multicellular organisms.
Reason They are obtained from only umbilical cord blood just after birth.(C)
10. Assertion: Indian Patents Bill takes cases of biopiracy in consideration.
Reason biopiracy is the use of bio resources by multinational companies without proner Authorisation from
concerned persons and countries.(B)
11. Assertion.Bt toxin is released as inactive crystal in the bacterial body.
Reason: it is converted into an active protein due to alkaline PH of the gut of the bollworm.(B)
12. Assertion: Ti plasmid of Agro bacterium tumefacience is used as a cloning vector
Reason- Ti plasmid integrated a segment of itsDNA, termed TDNA into the chromosomal DNA of its host
plants cells.(A)
13. Assertion -In gene therapy, new gene is introduced only into the somatic cells.
Reason -genetic modification is done to replace faulty genes by normal functional gene.(B)
14. Assertion -transgenic food may cause toxicity or produce allergy
Reason -transgenic plants have high nutrition content.(B)
15. Assertion -Mouse is the most preferred mammals for studies on gene transfer.
Reason -Mouse possesses features like short oestrous cycle and gestation period, relatively short generation
time, production of several offspring per pregnancy,etc.(A)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. Name a molecular diagnosis technique to detect the presence of a pathogen in its early stage of
infection.(CBSE DELHI 2010)
Ans:ELISA(Enzyme linked immune sorbent assay)
2. Why do the toxic insecticidal protein secreted by bacillus thuringiensisKill the insect and not
the bacteria itself?(CBSE 2014)
Ans: The BT toxin protein exists as an inactive pro toxin but once an insect ingest the inactive
toxin,.It is converted into an active form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut which solubilized a
crystal. Therefore it does not kill the bacteria.
3. Name the genes responsible for making BT cotton plants resistant to bollworms attack. How do
such plants attend resistance against ball warms attack? explain.(CBSE 2012)
Ans:Bt cotton has cryIAc/cryIIAbgenes.These jeans produce crystal of pro toxin
when ball warms bite the cotton fruits it consume the toxic insecticidal protein. The alkaline pH in its
gut Activate the toxin. The activity talks in bind to midgut epithelial cell resulting in the lysis of sales
leading to the death of the insect.
4. Explain the process of RNA interference (CBSE 2011)
Ans:RNA interference take place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. It
involves silencing of specific mRNA due to complimentary double stranded RNA molecule that bind
to and prevent translation of the mRNA.
5. What are transgenic animals? give an example.(CBSE 2016)
Ans: Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to puzzles and express an extra genes are known
as transgenic animal example Rosie is a transgenic cow.
6. A corn farmer has perennial problem of corn borer infestation in his crop. Being
environmentally conscious he does not want to spray insecticides. Suggest solution based on
your knowledge of biotechnology. Write the steps to be carried out to achieve it.(CBSE 2019)
Ans:The following steps should be followed
Isolation of BT toxin gene from bacteria
Incorporation of gene into corn
Toxin code by cryIAB gene in corn killed the pest and pest dies.
7. (a)Given below is a single stranded DNA molecule. Frame and label its sense and antisense RNA
molecule.
5’ ATGGGGCTC 3’
(b) How the RNA molecules made from above DNA strand help in silencing of the specifc
RNA molecules? [CBSE Sample Paper 2016|
56
 (a) 5 ATGGGGCTC 3 sense
3’ TACCCCGAG5 antisense
5’AUGGGGCUC3 sense
3UACCCCGAG5’ antisense
B) The two strands of RNA (i.e., sense and antisense) being complementary will bind with each
Other and form double stranded RNA as a result its translation and protein expression would be
inhibited.
8. Explain how a hereditary disease can be corrected. Give an example of first successful
Attempt Made towards correction of such diseases.[CBSE Delhi 2011]

Ans:A hereditary disease can be corrected by gene therapy. In this method, normal genes are inserted
Into a person cells and tissues to treat a disease. The first successful attempt for gene therapy was
done for adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
9. Gene therapy is an attempt to correct a genetic defect by providing a normal gene into the
Individual. By this the normal function can be restored. Alternate method would be to provide
The gene product (protein/enzyme) known as enzyme replacement therapy, which would also
Restore the function. Which in your opinion is a better option? Give reason for your
answer.(2018 Hots)
Ans: Gene therapy would be a better option because it has the potential to completely cure the patent.
It is because the correct gene once introduced in the patient, can continue to produce the correct
Protein enzyme. Enzyme therapy does not offer permanent cure as it needs to be givern to the
Patient on regular basis. It is also more expensive.
10. Person is born with a hereditary disease, suggest the possible corrective method for
It.Illustrate by giving a specific example.(HOTS)
Ans:The possible corrective method is gene therapy.
For example, ADA (Adenosine deaminase) deficiency has been treated through gene therapy.
Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture. A functional ADA cDNA
Is introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient. The
Permanent cure is done by introducing ADA cDNA into cells at early embryonic stages.
Or
How did an American Company, Eli Lilly use the knowledge of rDNA technology
to produce Human insulin?[CBSE (F) 2014, (AI) 2015]
Ans: Two chains of DNA sequence corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin were
prepared.
They introduced them into plasmids of E. coli to produce separate A and B chains. The A and B
Chains extracted were then combined by creating disulphide bonds and form human insulin.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1. What is GMO ? List any five possible advantages of a GMO to a farmer.(CBSE DELHI 2016)
Ans. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes
have been altered by manipulation.
For advantages ofa GMO,
(a) Increase tolerance against abiotic stress
(b) Reduce reliance on chemical pesticide
(c) reduce post harvest losses
(d) Increase efficiency of minerals used by plant.
(e) Enhance nutritional value of food example vitamin A and rich rice.
2. Name the process involved in the production of nematode-resistant tobacco plants, using
Genetic engineering. Explain the strategy adopted to develop such plants.(CBSE 2011)
Ans. The process involved in the production of nematode-resistant plants is RNA interference or
RNAi.Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant.
The introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense and antisense RNA in the host
cells.Those two RNA's being complementary to each other formed a double stranded RNA (dsRNA)

57
 that initiated RNAi and thus, silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode. The consequence wasthat
the parasite could not survive in a transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA. The
Transgenic plant, therefore, got itself protected from the parasite.
3. How have biotechnologists effectively used Agrobacterium tumefaciens in plants and
retroviruses in animals? Explain.[CBSE 2019 (57/5/2)
Ans. In plants the tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been modified into
a cloning vector, which is no more pathogenic to the plants, but is still able to use the mechanisms to
deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants. In animals retroviruses
have been disarmed and are used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells. Once a gene or
a DNA fragment has been ligated into a suitable vector it is transferred into a bacterial/plant
or animal host (where it multiples).
4. Why do lepidopterans die when they feed on Bt cotton plant? Explain how does it
happen.(CBSE DELHI 2017)
Ans, Bt cotton contains inactive toxin protein or protoxin. These are insecticidal proteins in the form
of Crystal protein. Once the insect ingests its, the inactive protoxin is converted into active form
dueto alkaline pH in the gut, which solubilise the crystals. The activated toxins bind to the surface
leading to the death of the insect pestof midgut epithelial cells, thus creating pores which causes cell
swelling and lysis, eventually leading to the death of the insect pest.
5. An application of biotechnology in agriculture involves production of pest resistant plants
´cry’ genes from a bacterium, Bacillus thıuringiensis.
(a) Proteins coded by which specific Bt toxin genes control corn borer?
(b) How does Bt toxin produced by the bacteria kill the insect? Explain. [CBSE 2021 (57/2/3)]
Ans. (a) crylAb
(b) Bt toxins are initially inactive pro toxins but after ingestion by the insect their inactive toxin
Becomes active due to the alkaline pH of the gut. The activated toxin binds to the surface of
midgut epithelial cells thus killing the insects. Specific Bt toxins were isolated from Bacillus
thuringienesis and incorporated into the cotton plants to make them pest resistant.
6. Describe the various stages involved in gene transfer for the commercial production of
Human insulin by Eli Lilly.[CBSE (F) 2011, 2012; Delhi 2015]
Ans: (a) Eli Lilly prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to the A and B chains of human
insulin.
b) sticky ends were produced in the Escherichia coli plasmid and the insulin gene by treatingthem
both with the same restriction endonucleases.
c) These two are then joined together by the enzyme DNA Ligase.
(d) The bacteria are then grown in sterilized bioreactors in the appropriate growth medium.
e) The chains A and are produced separately, extracted and purified.
f) These two chains are then combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.
7. Insulin in the human body is secreted by pancreas as pro hormone/pro insulin.
The schematic polypeptide structure of pro insulin is given below.

This proinsulin needs to undergo processing

beforeit becomes functional in the body. Answer the questions that follow:[CBSE 2020 (57/1/1))
a) State the change the proinsulin undergoes at the time of its processing to become functional.
b) Name the technique the American company Eli Lilly used for the commercial production
of human insulin’s.
c) How are the two Polypeptides of functional insulin chemically held together?
Ans:a)At the time of processing C peptide is removed.
b) The American company used RDNA technology
c) The polypeptides of functional insulin are held ny disulphide’s bonds.
8. person is born With a hereditary disease with a weakened immune system due to deficiency
58
Of an enzyme. Suggest a technique for complete cure for this disease, identify the deficiency of
Enzyme and explain the technique used for complete cure. (CBSE Sample Paper 2015, 2017, 2018]
Ans.genetherepy can completely cure these diseases
The disease is due to ADA (Adenosine deaminase) deficiency. Lymphocytes from the blood of the
patient are grown in a culture. A functional ADA CDNA Is introduced into these lymphocytes,
which are subsequently returned to the patient. The Permanent cure is done by introducing ADA
cDNA into cells at early embryonic stages.
9. (a) Why are transgenic animals so called?
(b) Explain the role of transgenic animals in (i) Vaccine safety and (ii) Biological
Products With the help of an example each.[CBSE Delhí 2013]
Ans:(a) Transgenic animals are so called because these animals have their DNA manipulated.
(b) (i) Vaccine safety: Transgenic mice are developed to test safety of polio vaccine before
beingUsed on humans.
(ii) Human protein (a-1-antitrypsin) is used to treat emphysema.
10. Two children, A and B aged 4 and 5 years respectively visited a hospital with a similar genetic
disorder. The girl A was provided enzyme replacement therapy and was advised to revisit
periodically for further treatment. The girl, B was, however, given a therapy in early
embryonic stage that did not require revisit for further treatment.
(a) Name the ailments the two girls were suffering from?
(b) Why did the treatment provided to girl A required repeated visits?
(c) How was the girl B cured permanently? (2019)
Ans. (a) They were suffering from adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
(b) GirlA was given enzyme replacement therapy,in which lymphocytes isolated from patient's
blood are cultured in-vitro. A functional cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into
these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient. However, as these cells are
not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.
(c) The permanent cure is only possible when the lymphocytes from the patient's blood are cultured
in vitro. A functional ADA cDNA is then introduces into these lymphocytes. The gene
producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages.
11. Name the five key tools for accomplishing the Tasks of recombinant DNA technology.
Also Mention the functions of each tool.(CBSE 2016 2021)
Ans. (i) Restriction endonucleases: for cutting the Desired DNA at desired places.
(ii) Gel electrophoresis: for joining the fragmented DNS and separating the desired DNA
fragments.
(iii) Ligase enzyme: for joining the fragmented DNA and creating recombinant DNA molecule.
(iv) DNA delivery system: like electroporation, Microinjection, gene gun method.
(v) Competent host (usually bacteria/yeast) : to Take up recombinant DNA.
12. You have identified a useful gene in bacteria Make a flow chart of Of the steps that you would
Follow to transfer this gene to a plant.(2015)
Ans. After identifying a useful gene in bacteria, following Steps should be undertaken:
(i) Isolation of useful gene using Restriction Endonucleases.
(ii)Transferring the gene to a suitable vector to create a recombinant DNA molecule.
(iii) Transfer of these recombinantDNA molecules To the target cells.
(iv) Screening of cells for transformation.
(v) Selection of transformed cells.
(vi) Regeneration of Plants from the transformed Cells to get transgenic plants.
13. Taking examples under each category, discuss Upstream and downstream processing.
[NCERT exemplar ,Hots]
Ans. Biotechnological processes can be separated into upstream processes and downstream
processes.
(a) Upstream processing: The upstream process is defined as the entire process from
DNA Isolation to culture expansion of the cells until Final product is prepared.
(b) Downstream processing: After completion Of the biosynthetic stage, the product is
Subjected through a series of processes before It is ready for marketing as a finished
product. Such processes include separation and Purification, which are collectively
59
 referred to As downstream processing. The product has To be formulated with
suitable preservatives. Such formulation has to undergo clinical trials. Strict quality
control testing for each product Is also required.
14. what is the recombinant DNA vaccine?Give two examples,(CBSE HOTS)
Ans.Recombinant DNA vaccine.Is produced through recombinant DNA technology.These vaccine
usually consists of synthetic DNA containing the jeans that encode the disease agent protein which
stimulate immune response into bacterial or mammalian cell. Recombinant DNA technology has
allowed the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogen in bacteria or yeast.
For example, hepatitis b vaccine is produced from east until June 2015 one human DNA vaccine has
been approved for human use, the single dose Japanese encephalitis vaccine called IMOJEV,
Release in 2010 in Australia.
15. Discuss briefly how a probe is used in molecular diagnostic.(2010)
Ans.A probe is a single standard DNA or RNA, tagged with radioactive molecules. Probe is allowed to
hybridize to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography.
The clone having the mutated will not appear on the photographic film because the probe will not have
complementary with the mutated genes.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARK)

1. Golden rice was engineered from normal rice by Potrykus and Beyer in the 1990s. The typical golden
color is due to the production of carotene a precursor of Vitamin-A. Golden rice differs from its parental
strain by the addition of three -carotene genes. These included two genes from daffodil plant and third
from a bacterium. The incorporation of these genes allows the rice plant to modify certain metabolic
pathways in its cells to produce -carotene.
(i) Due to genetic modification golden rice plants produce and store -carotene in
(a) Stem (b) seed (c) leaves (d) all of these
(ii) Transfer of genes to produce golden rice is achieved by
(a) Agrobacterium (b) pBR322 (c) -phage (d) gene gun
(iii) In golden rice two genes were taken from
(a) Narcissus sp. (b) Erwinia (c) Oryza sativa (d) None of these
(iv) Golden rice is helpful to fight against disease caused by the deficiency of
(a) Vitamin B12 (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin D
(v) Golden rice was genetically engineered by
(a) Fire and Mello (b) Potrykus and Beyer (c) Banting and Best (d) Kohler and Milstein.

2. Plants having foreign genes in their genome through genetic engineering are called transgenic plants.
Genes can be incorporated either through a vector or through direct introduction of DNA. Bt cotton is a
genetically modified organism which is pest resistant. It contain gene cry I Ac and cry II ab of Bacillus
thuringiensis. It is used to control liepiodopterancs, coleopterans and dipterans. Bt cotton can resist cotton
bollworm and produce higher yields. Cry gene produces cry protein or Bt toxin. It is an endotoxin which
remains as pro toxin plants and converted to active toxin after getting ingested by the insects. Alkaline pH
of the insect gut solubilizes the protein crystals, the activated toxin creates pores to the mid guts wall of
the insects which cause them to death.
(i) Bt cotton crops are
(a) Fungal resistant (b) Drought resistant (c) Insect resistant (d) All of these
(ii) Cotton bollworms are killed by the protein encoded by the gene.
(a) Cry I Ac (b) cry I Ab (c) cry II Ab (d) both (a) and (c)
(iii) Which of the following is not an advantage of GM gropes?
(a) GM plants can cause gene transfer to non-target plant species.
(b) GM plants have helped to reduce post harvest losses.
(c) GM plats are more tolerant to abiotic stresses. (d) GM plants enhance nutritional value of food.
(iv) Bacillus thuringiensis is a
(d) Food borne bacteria (b) Air borne bacteria (c) Soil borne bacteria (d) Soil borne fungus
(v) Assertion: Cotton boll worm are killed by ingesting the leaves of the transgenic plant.
Reason: Bt toxin binds with the mid gut wall of the insect and make process I them.
60
 (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason in the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (d) Both assertion and reason are false.

3. Transgenic animals can serve as factories that is some cases, may produce large amount of proteins more
efficiently. Transgenic mice have proteins more efficiently. Transgenic mice have been engineered to
express human antibodies by introducing large segment of human DNA encoding human
immunoglobulin gens. In transgenic large animals such as cow or sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value
can be produced in large quantities in milk which is later purified.Transgenesis can be used to alter many
phenotypic properties including growth rate, fat composition, milk production, hari texture, etc.

(i) The production of transgenic animals includes.

(a) Identification and separation of desired gene (b) Combining the desired gene with appropriate vector
(c) Introducton of vector in cells, tissues or embryos (d) All of these
(ii) In transgenic animals, i.e., cow and sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value are produced in large
quantities in the
(a) Blood (b) Accumalated fat (c) Mammary glands (d) None of these
(iii) Mouse is mostly preferred animals for studies on gene transfer because
A. Short oestrous cycle B. Long gestation period C. Short generation time
D. Production of one or two offspring per pregnancy
(iv) Transgenic genes alter many phenotypic properties including
(a) Growth rate (b) Fat composition (c) Milk production (d) All of these
(v) Assertion: Transgenic mice have been engineered to express human antibodies.
Reason: Large segment of human DNA encoding human immunoglobulin have need transferred
to mice.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
4. Insulin used to cure diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. Insulin
extracted from an animals source, though caused some patients to develop allergy or other types of
reactions to be foreign protein. Human insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and
chain B that are linked together by disulphide bridges. In mammals including humans, insulin is
synthesized as a pro-hormone which contains an extra stretch called the C-peptide. This C peptide is not
present in mature insulin and is removed during maturation into insulin.
(i) Identify A in the given figure.
A
Proinsulin
S–s A-peptide
s s
s s
B-peptide

s-s A peptide
s s
s s Mature Insulin

+ B-peptide

A
(a) Polypeptide chain A (b) Polypeptide chain B (c) Polypeptide chain C (d) None of these
(ii) The following is a list of some stage involved in producing human insulin from genetically
engineered bacteria.
2. The bacteria are cultured in a fermenter for large scale production.
61
 3. Recombinant insulin is extracted from the bacterial cells that expresses insulin gene.
4. The same restriction enzymes are used again to cut the bacterial plasmid for insertion of the human
insulin gene.
5. Bacteria take up the plasmid carrying the insulin gene.
6. A restriction enzyme is used to cut human DNA to extract the insulin gene.
Select the correct order of this stage.
(a) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1, (b) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 (d) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
(iii) To insert the insulin gene into bacterial DNA, both the bacterial plasmid and the human
chromosome containing the insulin gene are treated with the same restriction enzyme. Using the
same restriction enzyme ensures that
(a) DNA ligase is able to join the segments of human and bacterial DNA
(b) The exact length of nucleotide matching the insulin gene is removed from the plasmid
(c) Both the bacterial and human DNA will contain sticky ends
(d) Sticky ends in the cut plasmid and insulin gene are complementary.
(iv) Why is the bioreactor important for the production human insulin by transgenic bacteria?
(a) It provides the low-oxygen conditions that are important for insulin production.
(b) It provides optimal conditions for the transgenic to multiply rapidly.
(c) It facilitates the extraction and purification of insulin from the transgenic bacteria.
(d) It maximizes the rate of fermentation of the transgenic bacteria.
(v) A bacteriologist carries out his first attempt at engineering E. coli with the gene for human insulin.
During the process, he realizes that his stock of DNA ligase has depleted but decides to continue
anyway. What is a likely consequence of his decision?
(a) The resulting plasmids are not able to enter the E. coli bacteria even after applying heat shock.
(b) Bacteria with the rDNA will not be able to form colonies in a fermenter.
(c) The bacterial plasmids do not have sticky ends and are unable to accommodate the human gene.
(d) The resulting E. coli bacteria do not contain the human insulin gene.

5. Server combined immune deficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorder caused by mutations in different
genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells. Infants with SCID
appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections. The condition is fatal, usually
within the first year or two of life, unless infant receive immune restoring treatments, such as transplants
of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy, or enzyme therapy. More than 80 percent of SCID infant do
not have a family history of the condition. However, development of a newborn screening test has made it
possible to detect SCID before symptom appear, helping ensure that affected infant receive life-saving
treatments. Gene therapy is the process of introduction of DNA into an organism e.g human begins in
order to treat a disease. It used to replace a missing gene product or to correct mutant alleles. ADA is an
autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that occurs due to defective adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme.
Person with this enzyme deficiency suffer from severs combined immunodeficiency (SCID) conditions.
Human gene therapy trial can be used for ex vivo introduction of functional ADA gene in bone marrow
cells of the patient, suffering from SCID. For this process, an engineered retrovirus containing a
functional ADA gene is used to transfer the ADA gene into stem cells isolated from the patient with
SCID. The treated cells or modified cells isolated from the patient with SCID. The treated cell or
modified cells with the good ADA gene are reintroduced into the patients’ marrow.
(i) ADA deficiency is _______________.
(a) Autosomal-recessive inherited disorder (b) Sex lined recessive inherited disorder
(c) Sex linked dominant inherited disorder (d) Autosomal-recessive inherited disorder
(ii) Infants with ADA deficiency are
(a) Healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.
(b) Healthy at birth but and develop resistant to severe infections later on
(c) They are very sick at the time of birth (d) None of these
(iii) Infants with ADA deficiency are also called
(f) AIDS (b) SCID (c) HLA Deficient (d) None of these
(iv) ADA deficiency may occur in a child if the parents are
(a) Both dominant for the ADA gene
(b) One is heterozygous and the other parent is dominant for both the genes
62
 (c) Both are heterozygous for the genes (d) It is not heritable
(v) The permanent cure of ADA deficiency is by
(a) Enzyme replacement therapy (b) Gene therapy after attaining age more than 5 years.
(c) Gene therapy at embryonic stage (d) none marrow transplant

6. Stem cells hold the potential for manifold application in biotechnology based next generation
therapeutics. Scientists are trying to formulate better and more personalized treatment modalities against
some seemingly irremediable diseases by haressingbody ‘s own stem cells and stem cell niche. Stem
cells of different origin and level of potency are being investigated for tissue regeneration, treatment of
bone defect, drug testing, gene therapy and cell based therapy for muscle damage, spinal cord injury,
cancer therapy, etc. The properties of embryonic and adult stem cells to either self renew or differentiate
into multiple cell lineages make them an attractive source for cell therapies, tissue engineering and as
model system for drug screening.
(i) Stem cells are widely used in medical research. Which property of stem cells makes them
particularly useful in this research ?
(a) They can divide and be made to differentiate into various types of cell.
(b) They will continue to divide indefinitely. (c) They can be fused together to from a zygote.
(d) They can divide and eventually give rise to a whole organism.
(ii) Stem cells can be divided into four main types. Which of the four types of stem cell can
differentiate into a limited range of tissues?
(a) Zygotic stem cells (b) Fetal stem cells (c) Embryonic stem cells (d) Adult stem cells
(iii) Which feature of stem cells obtained from blood in the umbilical cord enables their use in the
treatment of variety of blood cancers?
(a) They are totipotent
(b) They can replace blood stem cells affected by cancer.
(c) They can differentiate into any cellular component of blood.
(d) They can differentiate into bone marrow cells.
(iv) The search for pluripotent stem cells is intense. The spermatogonium is the diploid precursor of
haploid sperm in the development pathway of mouse gametes as shown below.

Scientists were interested to find out which stages of sperm development have stem cell capacity.
Two experiments were carried out using sterile hos males with testes that lacked germ cells. The
result is shown in the table.
Type of cells used Result
Experiment 1 Secondary spermatocytes were Fertility was not restored
injected
Experiment 2 Spermatogonia were injected Fertility was restored for he rest of the
mouse’s life
What property of a stem cell in missing in the secondary spermatocytes?
(a) Commitment (b) A proper stem-cell niche (c) Self-renewal (d) Specialisation
(v) Which feature of embryonic stem cells (ESCs) is illustrated below?

Blastocyst ESCs

63
Hematopoietic Neural Mesenchymal Blood Cell of Connective
SCs SCs SCs cells nervous tissue bones,
 (a) ESCs show plasticity (b) ESCs are pluripotent
(c) ESCs are capable of dividing (d) ESCs are multipotent.
7. RNA interference hold. Great potential as a therapeutic agent for the treatment of human diseases and as a
biocontrol agent for controlling pest in the agricultural fields an experiment was conducted to study the use
of RNAi For the potential treatment of disorders of cholesterol metabolism. Some people possess of Gene
which predisposes them to coronary artery disease. Lowering the amount of ApoB Can reduce the number
of lipo proteins and lower the blood cholesterol. Crazy Zimmerman and her colleagues used RNAi In 2006
to reduce the level of ApoB In non human primate cynomolgus monkey.
a) One group of monkeys were given RNAi treatment (small interfering RNAs, SiRNA)(dose 1
mg/kg siRNAs),
b) second group of monkeys were given RNAi treatment (doses 2.5 mg/kg SiRNA),
c) 3rd group of monkeys were injected saline as control.
The result of the experiments is illustrated in the graph given below.
Question
1. What do you interpret from the bar (X and Z) Obtain after 264 hours of treatment of monkeys
with salein and 2.5 mg per kg siRNA treatment?
2. Name the categories of Organism in the living, World. Where RNA interference take place.
Why?
3. What is the basic principle involved in RNA interference in silencing the preferred genes.
Answer

1. Saline solution does not have any effect in lowering the blood cholesterol whereas RNAi treatment lowers
the blood cholesterol with time.
2. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotes as method of cellular defense
3. The specific RNA is silencing by complementary ds DNA that prevent translation of mRNA.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARK EACH)

1. (a) Name the source from which insulin was extracted earlier. Why is this insulin no more in Use by
diabetic people?
(b) Explain the process of synthesis of insulin by Eli Lilly Company. Name the technique Used by the
company.
(c) How is the insulin produced by human body different from the insulin produced by theAbove
mentioned company?[CBSE (AD 2011]
Ans. (a) Earlier, insulin was extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pig. This insulin is not In use
as some patients developed allergic reaction to this foreign protein.
64
b) Eli Lilly used the following procedure for insulin synthesis
(i) Two DNA sequences corresponding to A and Bchains of insulin were prepared.
(ii) These sequences were then introduced in plasmids of E. colí.
(iii)two insulin chains are produced separately.
(iv) The two chains are extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form theAssembled mature
molecule of insulin.
(c) The pro-hormone produced in the human body has an extra stretch of C-peptide

2. a) Why is Bacillus thuringiensis considered suitable for developing GM plants?

(b) Explain how it has been used to develop GM crops.(CBSE 2017)
Ans:(a) Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill some insects like
lepidopterans(tobacco budworm, armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies, mosquitoes). Bt
Toxins are initially inactive pro toxins but after ingestion by the insect their inactive toxinBecomes active
due to the alkaline pH of the gut which soluble the crystals. The activated
Toxin binds to the surface of mid gut epithelial cells thus creating pores which causes cell Swelling and
lysis, further leading to death of the insects.
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis produces Cry protein. Cry protein producing gene is transferred to thePlant to
provide resistance against insect larvae. Man has developed several transgenic cropsBy introducing these
genes from bacteria to crop plants such as Bt cotton, Bt corn, etc.

3.How did the process of RNA interference help to control the nematode from infecting the roots of
tobacco plants? (C.B.S.E. 2014)
Ans: Using Agrobacterium vectors nematode specific genes introduced into host plant produced sense -
antisense RNA in host cells ds RNA - initiated RNAi silenced specific mRNA of namatode parasite could
not survive in transgenic host.Detailed Answer:RNA Interference RNAi is a gene-silencing process that
blocks the expression of genes in the parasite when it enters the hosts body. RNAi is a method adopted to
Prevent infestation of roots of tobacco plants by a nematode Meloidegyne incognita. In RNAi a
complementary RNA binds to mRNA to form a ds RNA that cannot translate and hence its expression is
blocked Silencing. in this process nematode-specific genes DNA are introduced in the host Plant. This
introduced DNA forms both sense and antisense RNA. These two strands are complementary to each other
bend and form ds RNA leading to RNA interference. mRNA of nematode is thus silenced and the parasite
cannot survive in the transgenic host. thus through the above method tobacco plants can be protected from
nematode attack.

4. Name the process involved in the production of nematode resistant tobacco plants, using genetic
engineering. Explain the strategy adapted to develop such plants. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Ans: The process involved in the production of nematode-resistant plants is RNA interference or RNAi.
Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant. The introduction
of DNA was such that it produced both sense and antisense RNA in the host cells. These two RNA’s being
complementary to each other formed a double stranded RNA (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and thus,
silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode. The consequence was that the parasite could not survive in a
transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA. The transgenic plant therefore got itself protected from
the parasite.

5. One of the main objectives of biotechnology is to minimize the use of insecticides on cultivated
crops. Explain with the help of suitable example how insect resistant crops have been developed using
techniques of biotechnology. (C.B.S.E.2009)
Ans: By using the techniques of biotechnology, Insect resistant crops have been developed. Some strain of
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) produce protein crystals which contain a toxic insecticidal protein that kill some
insects like lepidopterans, coleopterans and dipterans, etc.
Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and cloned in bacteria.
Specific_ Bt toxin genes obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are used in several crop plants like cotton by
providing them resistance from insects.
65
Bt toxins a insect-group specific, coded by a gene called cry which are of various types. Proteins encoded by
the genes cry IAc and cry IIAb control the cotton boll worms that of cryI Ab control corn borer.

6. How has recombinant technology helped in large scale production of vaccines? Explain giving one
example. (C.B.S.E. 2012)
Ans: Production of insulin by rDNA techniques was achieved by an American company, Eli Lilly, in 1983. It
prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin and introduced them in
plasmids of E. coli for production. The A and B chains produced were separated, extracted and combined by
creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

7. Name any two techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis of some bacterial / viral human
diseases. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Ans:(i) Recombinant DNA technology
(ii) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
(iii) Enzyme linked Immunosorbent Assay(ELISA).

8. Explain five areas where biotechnology has influenced human lives.

Ans: Biotechnology has influenced human lives as follows:
 Genetically modified crops with high nutritive value are provided by biotechnology.
 It has helped in the production of recombinant vaccines.
 It has devised techniques such as gene therapy for the treatment of genetic diseases.
 Genetically engineered microbes are produced to control environmental pollution.
 Transgenic animals are developed that can produce human proteins.

9. What are the drawbacks of the insulin obtained from slaughtered cows and pigs?
Ans:The drawbacks of insulin obtained from slaughtered animals are as follows:
 Since insulin is produced in very small amounts in the body, therefore, a large number of animals are
slaughtered which is unethical.
 If the slaughtered animals are infected, the insulin will also be contaminated which in turn will infect
the acceptor.
 Patients might have a potential immune response against the administered insulin derived from
animals.
10. Why do lepidopterans die when they feed on Bt cotton plant? Explain how it happens. (Delhi 2017)
Or
explain the application of rDNA technology to produce insulin. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer: Bt cotton plants are the transgenic plants that express a Bacillus thuringiensis gene called cry gene.
This gene, encodes for protein crystals having insecticidal properties against insects of group Lepidoptera,
Diptera and Coleoptera. Inside the bacterium, these proteins remain inactive and do not harm the bacteria.

However, these inactive crystals can get activated in the alkaline pH of the gut of insects upon ingestion.
After activation, these crystals can bind to the receptors present on the membranes of gut epithelial cells.
Due to this binding, the membrane swells and pores are created on them. These pores lead to bursting of cell
and soon the lepidopteran dies due to starvation.

11. How has the study of biotechnology helped in developing pest-resistant cotton crop? Explain.
(Delhi 2016C)
Answer:Biotechnology had hepled in generating plant varieties against the pests that destroy the cotton
balls, i.e. cotton bollworms and cotton borer.
Bt cotton is created by using some strains of a bacterium. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt is short form).

 This bacterium produces protein that kills certain insects such as lepidopterans (tobacco budworm and
armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies and mosquitoes).
 Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth. These crystals
contain a toxic insecticidal protein.

66
  Bt toxin protein exists as inactive protoxin in bacteria, but once an insect ingests this inactive toxin, it
is converted into an active form due to the alkaline pH of the gut, which solubilises the crystals.
 The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that cause cell
swelling and lysis leading to death of insect.
 Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into several crop
plants.
 Most Bt toxins are insect-group specific. The toxin is coded by a gene named cry. For example, the
proteins encoded by the genes cry IAc and cry IIAb control the cotton bollworms and cry IAb controls
corn borer.
12. Why is molecular diagnosis preferred over conventional methods? Name any two techniques
giving one use of each. (Delhi 2016 C)

Answer:Using conventional methods of diagnosis (serum and urine analysis), early detection of
diseases is not possible. To overcome this problem, some molecular diagnosis techniques were
developed that provide early detection of diseases. These are as follows
(i) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) helps in early detection of diseases or pathogens by the
amplification of their nucleic acid.

PCR can amplify nucleic acids of pathogens even when their concentration is very low.
This technique can be used for detecting HIV in suspected AIDS patients, genetic mutations in
suspected cancer patients and in identifying genetic disorders.

(ii) Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is based on the principle of antigen-antibody
interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens (proteins,
glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised against the pathogen.

13. Describe any three potential applications of genetically modified plants. (All India 2015)
Answer: Potential applications of genetically modified plants are
 Nutritional enhancement, e.g. vitamin-A enriched rice.
 Stress tolerant crops became more tolerant to abiotic stresses such as cold, drought, etc.
 Creation of tailor made plants by using GM plants to supply alternative resources of industries in the
form of starches, biofuels, etc.

14. Name the host plant and its part that Meloidogyne incognita infects. Explain the role of
Agrobacterium in the production of dsRNA in the host plant. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer: The nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants.
The Agrobacterium is used as vectors carrying nematode specific genes to be introduced in host plant. These
genes when expressed inside host plant produce sense and anti-sense RNA strands, complementary to
nematode’s functional mRNA. These binding results in the formation of double-stranded RNA and
inhibiting or silencing the translation of RNA specified. This process is called RNA interference.

15. Mention two objectives of setting up GEAC by our government. (All India 2015)
Answer:GEAC is an organization setup by the Indian government to make decisions pertaining with genetic
research and experiments. The two objectives of setting up Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(GEAC) by the Indian Government are

 To make decisions regarding the validity of GM research.

 To make decisions regarding the safety of introducing GM organisms for public services.

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 CHAPTER – 13 ORGANISMS AND POPULATION
WORKSHEET
Multiple choice questions
1. Animals from colder climates generally have shorter limbs. This is called
(a) Allen’s rule (b) Johnson’s rule
(c) Arber’s rule (d) Niche rule
Answer: a

2. Niche is defined as
(a) a component of an ecosystem
(b) an ecologically adapted zone of a species
(c) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community
(d) all plants and animals living at the bottom of a water body.
Answer: c

3. It natality is balanced by mortality in a population at a given time, there will be a/an

(a) decrease in the population size
(b) increase in the population size
(c) zero population growth
(d) population explosion
Answer: c

4. Mycorrhiza is an example of
(a) ectoparasitism (b) mutualism (c) endoparasitism (d) predation
Answer: b

5. The interspecific interaction in which one partner is benefitted and the other is unaffected (neutral), is
called
(a) amensalism (b) mutualism (c) competition (d) commensalism
Answer: d

6. Individuals of one kind, i.e., one species occupying a particular geographic area, at a given time form
a/an
(a) community (b) biome (c) population (d) deme
Answer: c

7. The formula of exponential population growth curve, is

(a) dN/dt = rN (b) dt/dN rN (c) dN/rN = dt (d) rN/dN = dt
Answer: a

8. Niche overlap indicates

(a) mutualism between two species
(b) active cooperation between two species
(c) sharing of one or more resources between the two species
(d) two different parasites on the same host.
Answer: c

9. Amensalism is an association between two species where

(a) one species is harmed and other is benefitted
(b) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(c) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(d) both the species are harmed.
Answer: b 68
10. A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be the status
of the population after some years?
(a) It will decline (b) It will stabilise
(c) It will increase (d) It will first decline and then stabilize
Answer: c

Assertion and Reason

Choose the correct option

a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c.) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) If both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion (A): Graphical representation by means of a population age pyramid can be used to assess
the rate at which population is expected to grow in the future.
Reason (R): A country having a triangular population pyramid is characteristic of a population, whose
growth is stable, neither growing nor shrinking.
Answer: b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.

2. Assertion (A): Five closely related species of warblers (small birds) can co-exist as well as avoid
competition on the same tree.
Reason (R): This can happen due to behavioral differences in their foraging activities.
Answer: a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
3. Assertion (A): The interspecific interaction of predation is a feeding strategy.
Reason (R): A stable population is maintained by predator and prey through time and rarely one population
become abundant or scarce.
Answer: a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. Name the species that can withstand a close range of temperature
A.1. Stenothermal Entities
Q.2. What are Eurythermal organisms?
A.2. These are organisms that exhibit a wide range of temperature tolerance.
Q.3. What do we call species that can endure a wide extent of salinity?
A.3. Euryhaline species
Q.4. The interaction between two species is known as?
A.4. Interspecies interaction
Q.5. What are stenohaline species?
A.5. These species exhibit a narrow range of salinity tolerance.
Q.6. Define commensalism?
A.6. It is a type of interaction where one species is benefitted while the other remains unaffected.
Q.7. Mention the relationship where a species generates poisonous particles which harm other species.
A.7. Parasitism
Q.8. Define Mycorrhiza.
A.8. It is a symbiotic interaction between the root of higher plants and a fungus which gets its nourishment from
69
its symbiont which in turn assists in the absorption process of higher plants.
Q.9. Name the emergent land plants that can sustain the salinities of the sea.
A.9. Halophytes
Q.10. Higher or raised altitude areas have blazing sunlight and lower temperatures as opposed to the
plains. Why?
A.10. It is because of being less distant from particle free air and the sun. Likewise, lower atmospheric pressure
causes low temperatures which are increased in plains.
Q.11. Define homeostasis.
A.11. Maintaining a constant internal temperature despite differing external environmental state is known
as homeostasis.
Q.12. What is aestivation?
A.12. To avoid excessive desiccation and heat in the summer, some organisms switch to a behavioural
adjustment which causes them to slow down their metabolic activities. It is known as aestivation or the summer
sleep.
Q.13. Define diapause. What is its significance?
A.13. Diapause is a phase of pendulous growth that is adopted by certain entities in ponds and lakes to sustain
and survive unfriendly conditions.
Q.14. How would the growth rate pattern be affected by infinite resources?
A.14. It would be exponential.
Q.15. Name entities that sustain parts of plant and plant sap.
A.15. Phytophagous.
Q.16. Describe high altitude sickness. What are its symptoms?
A.16. It is caused when people visit high altitude regions, which has less oxygen concentration to which he reacts
by showing symptoms like headache, nausea, palpitations etc.
Q.17. List an example for commensalism.
A.17. Barnacle growing on the back of a blue whale is an example.
Q.18. Explain with suitable examples of ectoparasites and endoparasites.
A.18. Ectoparasites nourish on the external surface of the host entities. For example, Ticks on dogs whereas
endoparasites dwell in the body of the host at various locations such as lungs, kidney etc, for example, gut
parasites such as tapeworm.
Q.19. Explain about brood parasitism with an example.
A.19. It is when parasites lay eggs on the nest of the host. For example, The Cuckoo lays its eggs in the host cell.
Q.20. Why do plants in arid regions have sunken stomata?
A.20. Sunken stomata minimize water loss by transpiration. That is why, plants in arid regions have sunken
stomata.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. Why coral reefs are found on the eastern coast of India and Tamil Nadu and not found in Andra
Pradesh and West Bengal?
A.1. Conditions such as optimal temperatures, with less siltation condition and high salinity favour the growth of
coral reefs.
Q.2. Will a fish replaced from a freshwater source to an aquarium with sea water be able to survive? Give
reasons.
A.2. No, as the body is adapted to survive in a close range of salinity and cannot survive in high salinity of
seawater.
Q.3. Why do marine entities lack contractile vacuoles as compared to freshwater entities?
A.3. Contractile vacuoles aid in osmoregulation since fresh water entities are hypertonic allowing water to diffuse70
in the cell constantly resulting in accumulation in the contractile vacuoles that propels the extra water out of the
cell frequently thereby maintaining constancy in the internal environment. In marine entities, because of high
salinity, contractile vacuoles are not required.
Q.4. What are heliophytes and sciophytes? Give an example for each.
A.4. Heliophytes are the plants that grow well in bright sunlight whereas plants that require the low intensity of
light are sciophytes or shade loving plants.
Q.5. Submerged plants receive lesser illumination as compared to exposed floating plants in a lake. Give
reasons.
A.5. It is because all colours of the apparent segments of the spectrum of light do not seep in the depths of water.
Q.6. List these plants based on different types – free-floating, rooted-submerged, rooted-emergent,
rooted with floating leaves.

Q.7. List the unit of the density of population in a habitat per unit area.
a) Bacteria b) Banyan c)Deer d)Fish
A.7. a) Bacteria – Volume/number unit b) Banyan – Biomass/area/region c) Deer – Number/area d) Fish –
Weight/area
Q.8. I) Label the three different tiers in the given age pyramid.
II) Mention the kind of population growth described by the pyramid.

A.8. I) (i) Pre-productive phase (ii) Reproductive phase (iii) Post-reproductive phase II) It exhibits the expanding
type of population growth.
Q.9. Name the kind of interaction built by a termite feeding on wood and the other is a protozoan
Trichonympha residing in the gut of the termite.
A.9. The termite nourishes and accommodates for the Trichonympha to exist. It is present in the gut and digests
the wood ingested by the termite. The termite dies if the protozoan is absent as it would be unable for the termite
to digest it. Hence it is mutualism.
Q.10. List the scientific names of 2 microbes harbouring in the human intestine.
A.10. Lactobacillus and Escherichia Coli.
Q.11. Define a tree line.
A.11. It is the point of the habitat where trees are fit for growing. Due to various environmental conditions such as
higher altitudes, colder temperatures or deficiency of moisture, trees are not found beyond this line, even if found,
71
display stunted growth.
Q.12. What is a zero population growth rate?
A.12. It is when pre-reproductive age group entities are correspondingly fewer and the post-reproductive and
reproductive phases are in an equivalent stage.
Q.13. Write four attributes applied in the human population census.
A.13. They are as listed below:

 Sex ratio
 Age distribution
 Natality and mortality
 Population growth
Q.14. List an example for each of these:
a) Chemical defence agent b) Predator animal c) Migratory animal d) Biological control agent
e)Phytophagous animal f)Camouflaged animal
A.14. a) Chemical defence agent – Cardiac glycosides b) Predator animal – Lion c) Migratory animal – Dolphin d)
Biological control agent – Growth of mosquito larvae is checked by the Gambusia fish e) Phytophagous animal –
Butterfly f) Camouflaged animal – Chameleon
Q.15. What is the difference between ectotherms and endotherms?
A.15. The difference between ectotherms and endotherms is as follows:

Ectotherms Endotherms

Cold-blooded animals. Warm-blooded animals

Temperature varies with the surrounding temperature. Maintains a constant body temperature.

For eg., Fish, amphibian, reptiles. For eg., mammals and birds

Long Answer Type Questions

Q.1. List and define the characteristics of an individual and population.
A.1. Following are the characteristics:
Gene pool
Dispersal biotic potential
Distribution pattern
The dispersion or intra-distribution patterns is referred to as the process of division of individuals of the population
within boundaries of the geography. Due to emigration or immigration, an individual tends to get dispersed at
some point in their life in a population. Emigration is when a group of individuals in a population switch to another
habitat during a particular period of time. Immigration, on the other hand, is the totality of same species that have
entered a habitat from elsewhere during a particular interval of time. Biotic potential, under ideal environmental
conditions, is the inherent potential of a population to increase in its size. In a reproducing population, the gene
pool is referred to as, all the genotypes of all individuals.
Q.2. Describe the different kinds of positive interactions that take place between different species.
A.2. Following are the three types of interspecific interactions:
Positive or beneficial interaction:
Negative interaction
Neutral interaction
Few examples of beneficial interaction are Mutualism, Commensalism, scavenging, protocooperation. In
mutualism, both the species interacting are benefitted. For instance, Lichens serve as mutualism between a
fungus and cyanobacteria. The relation between roots of higher plants and fungi is represented by mycorrhizae, 72
these fungi aid in the absorption of necessary nutrients from the soil for the plants, while the plants provide fungi
with energy-yielding carbohydrates. Plants provide nutrient-rich food to animals which help in the pollination and
dispersal of seeds. In commensalism, one species is benefited without affecting the other, for instance, Orchid
grows on a mango branch as an epiphyte, Barnacles grow on the back of the whale. Scavenging is when
scavengers feed. Few scavengers are- fungi, bacteria on the dead remains of animals. In protocooperation, both
the species involved are benefited mutually, these species can live independent of each other.
Q.3. Explain the adaptations of the animal parasites while living in and on the host species with suitable
examples.
A.3. Listed below are the adaptations:
The lack of unwanted sense organs as seen in mites, fleas and lice. (Absence of wings)
They possess suckers to stick onto the host as observed in leeches and tapeworms
The absence of digestive system as seen in tapeworm.
Increased reproductive capacity. Example: Roundworms reproduces massive progeny
Q.4. Name the element that causes salinity in the soil. Explain the state at which soil turns saline.
A.4. The salt content in the soil is due to improper irrigation which causes soil salinity. Salination is the process
that refers to enhancing the salt content. Following are the causes of soil salinity:
Improper irrigation procedures from a salt-laden water table cause salt concentration to increase. Due to
evaporation, this gets stored.
Fertilization of crop. Fertilizers contain potassium which forms a salt-sylvite that occurs naturally.
This salinity degenerates vegetation and the soil. The normal pH value ranges from 2.2-9.7, anything above this
range causes the soil to get deteriorated by the salinity.
Q.5. Is the distribution of organisms affected by light? Explain briefly with suitable examples of animals
or plants.
A.5. For photosynthesis, plants require sunlight. Hence light affects the plant distribution. Example: Many shrubs
and herbs grow in forests vegetation and are adapted to undertake photosynthesis under low light states, hence
they are observed in shady areas under canopied, tall trees. Areas having adequate sunlight generally have big
sized trees. To procure maximum sunlight, several plants grow vertically. These can be characterized by the
presence of small leaves compared to the same species of the same age with better exposure to sunlight

CHAPTER – 14 ECOSYSTEM
WORKSHEET
Multiple choice questions
Question 1. Who introduced term Ecosystem?
(a) Leaneous (b) Reiter
(c) Odum (d) Aristle
Answer: (b) Reiter

Question 2. Soil developed from sedimented rock:

(a) Force Science (b) Edaphology
(c) Pedogenesis (d) All of these
Answer: (c) Pedogenesis

Question 3. Best soil for plant growth is:

(a) Grit (b) Sandy (c) Soily (d) Clay
Answer: (d) Clay

Question 4. Soil particle determine the character of:

(a) Organisation (b) Biomass (c) Area capacity (d) Soil plants
Answer: (a) Organisation
73
Question 5. Plant roots soil water is:
(a) Cellular water (b) Surface water (c) Humidity water (d) Gravitational water
Answer: (d) Gravitational water

Question 6. Exchange of water in submerged plant:

(a) Stomata (b) Normal surface (c) Hydathode (d) Lenticel
Answer: (b) Normal surface

Question 7.Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are:

(a) Uticularia (b) Prapa (c) Nymphea (d) Vallisnaria
Answer: (d) Vallisnaria

Question 8. Water co-deficient contains:

(a) Large thin walled cells (b) Large-vacuoles
(c) Membrane (d) All of these
Answer: (c) Membrane

Question 9. Xerophyte Contains:

(a) Deep roots (b) Sunken stomata (c) Thick cuticle (d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these

Question 10. Hibernation of some animals:

(a) Regular (b) Periodic (c) Suddenly (d) Temporary
Answer: (a) Regular

Assertion and Reason

Choose the correct option

a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c.) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) If both assertion and reason are false.
(1) Assertion (A): Ecosystem is an open system.
Reason (R): Ecosystem receives input in the form of solar energy alone from the surroundings.
Answer: c.) If assertion is true but the reason is false.

(2) Assertion [A] - The earth is a closed system with respect to matter and open with respect to energy.
Reason [R] - Energy is not recycled in an ecosystem.
Answer: a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

(3) Assertion [A]: Different ecosystems have different species composition.

Reason [R]: The type of species that can thrive in an ecosystem is dependent upon its geography, topography
and climate.
Answer: a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

(4) Assertion [A]: Different ecosystems have different species composition.

Reason [R]: The type of species that can thrive in an ecosystem is dependent upon its geography, and climate.
Answer: a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

(5) Assertion [A]:: Most food chains or webs have only about four or five trophic levels. 74
Reason [R]: Trophic efficiencies are generally only about 10% in different ecosystems.
Answer: a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q.1. Give an example of a secondary carnivore found in an aquatic ecosystem.
A.1. Waterfowls and ducks
Q.2. The base tier of the ecological pyramid indicates?
A.2. It represents the producers
Q.3. Name the state in the process of succession at which relapse at an earlier stage is possible.
A.3. Reversion at an earlier stage is possible due to anthropogenic actions and natural disruptions such as flood, fire
etc.
Q.4. Pick an omnivore that appears in both the decomposer and grazing food chain.
A.4. Crow, Cockroaches
Q.5. Why is pitcher plant called a producer?
A.5. Nepenthes or the pitcher plant is an insectivorous plant that has the potential of trapping solar rays for
photosynthesis and is chlorophyllous. It is produced in the soil that lacks nitrogen. Hence they trap insects to
compensate for the deficit of nitrogen.
Q.6. List two entities which are found in more than one trophic level in an ecosystem.
A.6. Sparrow and human beings.
Q.7. Justify why the climax phase is attained at a faster pace in secondary succession in comparison to the
primary succession.
A.7. It is because of the availability of soil. Succession in primary succession begins from bare rocks which is a time-
consuming process.
Q.8. In a xeric succession, which among these following species is a pioneer?
Fern, Lichens, Bryophytes.
A.8. Lichens followed by Bryophytes and then succeeded by ferns in the order.
Q.9. In an ecosystem, which is the ultimate source of energy?
A.9. Solar radiation
Q.10. Is the edible mushroom a heterotroph or an autotroph?
A.10. It is a heterotroph.
Q.11. What makes oceans the least productive?
A.11. It is because of the lack of sunlight with increasing depth. Oceans lack nitrogen, which is an important source of
nutrient for plants. High salinity offered by oceans does not serve as a favourable condition for all plants. More
importantly, the absence of soil is the reason why plants do not sustain.
Q.12. State why at the herbivore level, the rate of assimilation of energy is called as secondary productivity.
A.12. It is because the biomass available to the consumers for further consumption is formed by the autotrophs as a
product of primary productivity.
Q.13. Why are nutrient cycles also referred to as biogeochemical cycles?
A.13. Nutrient molecules are passed from the environment to entities and back again to the environment in a cyclic
way, hence the name where bio means living entities and geo means air, water and rocks.
Q.14. List any two examples of xerarch succession.
A.14. In ecological communities, they are found in remarkably dry conditions like rock deserts and sandy deserts.
Q.15. What is self-sustainability?
A.15. It maintains itself, with its own independent efforts.

Short Answer Type Questions(2/3MARKS)

75
Q.1. Availability of energy is less for entities at higher trophic levels. Why?
A.1. The 10% energy flow law suggested by Lidman, is followed in the ecosystem. As per this law, only 10% of the
energy that is available at every trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. The remaining is lost in the form of
heat(during respiration). As we approach the higher levels, energy keeps declining that is available to entities. Hence
the topmost carnivore attains the least amount of energy in a food chain.
Q.2. Why is the number of trophic levels in an ecosystem limited?
A.2. There are not more than 4-5 levels since the energy flow declines as we approach higher levels as only 10% of
energy is passed from one to the next progressive trophic level. The remaining energy is lost during respiration and in
other crucial activities to the sustenance of life. In case there are more levels, the remaining energy will be limited to an
extent that it furthermore would not be able to sustain any trophic level through energy flow. Hence levels are limited.
Q.3. Can we address an aquarium as a complete ecosystem?
A.3. An aquarium is an artificial ecosystem made by man. An ecosystem is said to be complete if it possesses all the
biological and physical components vital for the survival of fishes. Hence it is a complete ecosystem.
Q.4. Why decomposition occurs at a faster rate in the tropics?
A.4. Decomposition is governed by climatic factors hence favourable humidity and temperature in the tropics facilitate
the activities of decomposers along with the soil rich in dead remains supporting rapid rate of decomposition.
Q.5. State any two activities where humans intervene with the carbon cycle.
A.5. Massive burning of fossil fuels for transport, energy and deforestation.
Q.6. Explain why the flow of energy at different levels in an ecosystem is unidirectional and non-cyclic.
A.6. The flow of energy is one way and non-cyclic( Plants →Herbivores→Carnivores→Top Carnivore). The energy that
is transferred from 1st to the next trophic level decreases with each passing level and cannot flow in the reverse
direction.
Q.7. Plants → Autotrophs, Animals → Heterotrophs, Microbes → ? State how microbes accomplish their
energy requirements.
A.7. Microbes → Saprophytes. They derive their energy from the remains of dead organic matter of animals and
plants, wherein the digestion is extracellular.
Q.8. How would the issue of ‘poaching of tigers’ affect the functioning of the ecosystem?
A.8. Tigers help in maintaining ecological balance and forms an important part of the food web. It regulates the
extensive growth of herbivores and helps in eliminating sick, old animals from the community, representing the health
of the forest. Hence saving tigers is saving forests as tigers cannot survive in places where it hunts(herbivores or trees)
thereby securing water and food for all.
Q.9. In the context of the transfer of energy in an ecosystem, what does ’10kg of deer’s meat is equivalent to 1
kg of lion’s flesh’ mean?
A.9. Only 10% of energy is passed from one to a higher trophic level. Hence if a lion hunts and eats a deer, 10kg of
deer’s meat will make up for 1kg of lion’s meat.
Q.10. Why does primary productivity vary in different ecosystems?
A.10. The rate at which plants(primary producers) utilize and store solar rays for the formation of chemical energy is
referred to as primary productivity. In ecosystems, producers vary and as primary production is dependant on plants, it
varies in different ecosystems.
Q.11. Describe the incomplete ecosystem with an example.
A.11. Limited or unavailability of biotic and abiotic components makes an ecosystem incomplete. Example – Benthic
zone in an aquatic ecosystem
Q.12. In the study of the ecosystem, what are the limitations of ecological pyramids?
A.12. Following are the shortcomings:
 A species can function at two or more trophic levels
 These pyramids represent only simple food chains. But only complex food chains occur in nature.
 Decomposers play a crucial role to maintain stability in an ecosystem which these pyramids do not account for.
Q.13. Differentiate between humification and mineralization.
A.13. Following is the difference:

Humification is the disintegration of soil which Mineralization is the process in which microbes 76
causes a collection of hummus, that is resistant to degenerate humus further resulting in minerals and
microbial activities and decomposes at a slower inorganic nutrients being discharged back into the
rate. soil.

Q.14. Why is the rate of decomposition affected by abiotic factors such as pH of the soil, availability of
oxygen, temperature etc?
A.14. The pH of the soil affects the structure of basophilic and acidophilic microbes. The aerobic processes occur in
the presence of oxygen causing complete degradation of a substance whereas anaerobic processes occur in the
absence of oxygen, resulting in incomplete degradation of a substance. Microbes are unable to grow to their fullest at
higher temperatures but at low or high temperatures, stress-tolerant microbes flourish.
Q.15. What is the importance of the ecosystem?
A.15. Ecosystem maintains a balance in the environment. It provides fresh air to breathe and sequesters carbon to
regulate the climate. It cycles the nutrients through various biogeochemical cycles so that we have access to clean
drinking water without any costly methods. It provides food and shelter to a number of living organisms. It also provides
raw materials for different industrial and domestic purposes.

Long Answer Type Questions(3 MARKS)

Q.1. How does nature favour to raise the gross primary productivity while man tends to raise the net primary
productivity?
A.1. The energy in an ecosystem flows unidirectionally from one to the next trophic level. Nature functions in a way so
as to benefit entities performing a specific activity. Plants conduct photosynthesis. It is the plant’s primary activity as
well as gross primary productivity. This activity in plants is dependent on the inputs and produces to its maximum
extent with an increase in inputs. On the other hand, humans depend on plants. It is a part of their net primary
productivity and is not a matter of concern for them if a specific plant has a low or high gross primary productivity.
Q.2. In the context of primary productivity, which ecosystem would be more productive?
A natural old forest, a young forest, alpine meadow, a shallow polluted lake.
A.2. An ecosystem which possesses more producers will be more productive. Young forests grow quicker than older
and mature forests and hence are more productive in terms of primary productivity. The alpine meadows and shallow
polluted lakes will be less productive since they have less number of producers and more dead matter.
Q.3. Explain the three ecological pyramids. What data is propagated by each pyramid in association with
function, structure and energy in the ecosystem?
A.3. The three types of pyramids are as follows:
 Pyramid of numbers.
 Pyramid of Biomass.
 Pyramid of Energy.

Attributes Pyramid of numbers Pyramid of Biomass Pyramid of Energy

It is upright, denoting the Upright which denotes

Upright always. At the
number of producers is biomass of producers is
producer level, energy
maximum. Herbivores are maximum. As tropic levels
flow is maximum. 10%
Structure lesser when compared to rise, a decline in biomass is
of energy transfers from
producers. Primary carnivores observed. 10-20% of biomass
one to the next, rest is
are lesser compared to is passed from one to the next
scattered.
secondary carnivores. trophic level.

The population at higher Reduction in biomass

trophic levels becomes smaller represents utilization and Most energy is used in
Function
as wastage of food takes place wastage of biomass at every respiration.
due to various activities. level
77
 Biomass may represent It deals with the energy
Energy No evidence.
energy value. per unit area.

Q.4. Explain how energy flow supports the second law of thermodynamics in an ecosystem.
A.4. As per the second law of thermodynamics, every activity that includes transformation includes wastage of energy
in the form of heat and rise in disorganization excluding deep hydrothermal ecosystems. Out of the total
PAR(Photosynthetically Active Radiation), only 2-10% is absorbed by organisms involved in photosynthesis to produce
organic matter. Furthermore, the energy is utilized in metabolic activities, to form food and in storing biomass(very
less). Biomass or the trapped energy is passed to the next trophic level as per the Lindeman’s law. 10% of the stored
energy is transferred from one to the next consecutive trophic level.
Q.5. Answer the following questions. Write the outcomes of the following events.
a) The consequence of eliminating all producers
b) The consequence of eliminating all entities at the herbivore level
c) The consequence of eliminating all top carnivore entities
A.5. a) It diminishes primary production in an ecosystem and hence unavailability of biomass to higher trophic levels b)
It would result in an increase in primary productivity and biomass of producers. Carnivorous animals, due to
unavailability of food, will not survive. c) There will be an increase in the herbivore population, resulting in over-grazing
and hence desertification.
Q.6. Name two examples of man-made ecosystems. Write their salient features which distinguish them from
natural ecosystems.
A.6. Examples of man-made ecosystems are – farmhouse and aquarium. In these ecosystems, maintenance of biotic
and abiotic components occurs through measures such as – feeding, cleaning, adequate oxygen supply to fishes in
aquarium and irrigation in crop or farmhouse. In a natural ecosystem, abiotic and biotic components are maintained
naturally such as – the nutrient cycle, prevention of soil erosion, self-sustainability, reduction of threat due to global
warming etc.
Q.7. Explain the biogeochemical cycle. What is the significance of the reservoir in this cycle? With a reservoir
situated in earth’s crust, give an example of a sedimentary cycle.
A.7. The movement of nutrient molecules through different components of an ecosystem is known as
a biogeochemical cycle. There are two types of nutrient cycles – Sedimentary and gaseous. For the gaseous type of
cycle, the atmosphere is the reservoir(nitrogen cycle) and for the sedimentary cycle – the crust of the earth is the
reservoir (phosphorous cycle). The function of the reservoir is to be able to compensate for the deficiency that takes
place due to the inequality in the flow of efflux and influx. Various environmental factors such as temperature, moisture
in the soil, pH etc govern the rate of liberation of nutrients into the atmosphere. The phosphorus cycle is an example of
the sedimentary type of cycle as it moves from land and approaches the bottom of the seas and reverts to the land,
whose natural reservoir is the crust of the earth. Phosphorous is contained in rocks in the form of phosphates. Soil
erosion and weathering cause them to enter water bodies. Movements of the crustal plates lead to seafloor being
uplifted and hence exposure of phosphates on the land surfaces. Weathering over a period of time liberates
phosphates, which are softened in soil and seeped by plant roots. Herbivores and other entities attain this element
from producers. Decomposition of dead organisms and waste products by phosphate-solubilizing bacteria release
phosphorous.
Q.8. Define producers, consumers and decomposers.
A.8. Producers: All autotrophs such as plants and other photosynthetic organisms that prepare their own food are
called producers.
Consumers: All heterotrophs, including birds, animals, and other living organisms, which depend on producers and
other organisms for food are called consumers. They are four different types of consumers:

1. Primary consumers.
2. Secondary consumers.
3. Tertiary consumers.
4. Quaternary consumers.

Decomposers: All saprophytes, such as fungi and bacteria, which directly feed on the dead and decaying organic
matter are called decomposers.
Q.9. Explain the structure of the Ecosystem with the flowchart.
A.9. The structure of the ecosystem includes the living organisms and physical features of the environment, including
the amount and distribution of nutrients in a particular habitat. It also provides information regarding the climatic 78
conditions of that area.
Q.10. Explain Biotic Components and Abiotic Components of the Ecosystem with examples.
A.10. The Biotic and Abiotic are two Components, which are interrelated in an ecosystem.
Biotic Components include different life forms in an ecosystem. Based on nutrition, biotic components can be
categorised into autotrophs, heterotrophs and saprotrophs (or decomposers).
Abiotic Components includes the non-living component of an ecosystem. Air, water, soil, minerals, sunlight,
temperature, nutrients, wind, altitude, turbidity are few examples of Abiotic Components.

CHAPTER – 15 BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION

WORKSHEET
Multiple choice questions
1. log S = log C + Z log A
In the given equation of species-area relationship, the value of regression coefficient for a whole
continent, would be
(a) 0.1-0.2 (b) 0.5-0.7 (c) 0.6-1.2 (d) 0.3-0.5
Answer: c

2. Which of the following organization is responsible for maintaining the Red Data Book?
(a) IDRI (b) IUCN (c) UNESCO (d) USDA
Answer: b

3. From his long term ecosystem experiments, David Tilman showed that
(a) decreased diversity contributed to higher productivity
(b) decreased diversity contributed to decreased productivity
(c) increased diversity contributed to increased productivity
(d) increased diversity contributed to decreased productivity
Answer: c

4. Which of the following is a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?

(a) Western Ghats (b) Indo-gangetic plain
(c) Eastern Ghats (d) Aravalli Hills
Answer: a

5. Which among the following is not a method of in-situ conservation?

(a) National Park (b) Botanical garden
(c) Wildlife sanctuary (d) Ramsar sites
Answer: b

6. The World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in

(a) Brazil (b) South Africa (c) Sweden (d) Argentina
Answer: b

7. The most important cause of extinction of animals and plants, especially in tropical rain forests is
(a) habitat loss (b) afforestation (c) pollution (d) soil erosion
Answer: a

8. The enormous number of varieties of mango in India represents

(a) genetic diversity (b) species diversity
(c) ecological diversity (d) hybridisation programmes
Answer: a

9. Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots? 79
 (a) Large number of species (b) Abundance of endemic species
(c) Large number of exotic species (d) Destruction of habitat
Answer: d

10. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

(a) Destruction of habitat (b) Invasion by alien species
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks (d) Over-exploitation of natural resources
Answer: c

Assertion and Reason

Choose the correct option

a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
c.) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) If both assertion and reason are false.
(1) Assertion: In Ex situ Conservation threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat
and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care.
Reason: examples are biosphere reserves, national parks and wildlife sanctuaries
Answer: c.) If assertion is true but the reason is false.

(2) Assertion: Alpha diversity for a species is diversity between 2 given community or habitat.
Reason: Alpha diversity does not depend on species richness and species evenness in that community
habitat.
Answer: c.) If assertion is true but the reason is false.

(3) Assertion: Conservation of biological diversity under natural conditions is in-situ conservation.
Reason: An increase in the number of Manipur deer from 17 to 150 in the zoos of Calcutta and Delhi is an
example of this.
Answer: c.) If assertion is true but the reason is false.

(4) Assertion: Tropical latitudes have greater biological diversity

Reason: Tropical latitudes in the past were unaffected for millions of years, allowing species to thrive.
Answer a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.

(5) Assertion: Tropical rain forests are very disappearing at a fast rate from developing countries like India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.
Answer. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. What features make a community stable?
A.1. The following characteristics make a community stable:
 Resistance to infrequent disturbances
 Lesser variation in productivity from year to year
 Impedance to invasions by alien species
Q.2. In the past, which factor would have caused a mass extinction of species?
A.2. As per scientists, the following would have triggered the mass extinction:
 Temperature fluctuation
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 Meteorite/Asteroid hitting the planet
  Emission of lethal hydrogen sulphide from the sea
 The outburst of gamma radiations/supernova/Nova
 Plate tectonics
Q.3. What is the reason behind the vast diversity in Indian ecology?
A.3. It can be attributed to the geographical diversity in terms of differing topography such as rain forests, deserts,
coral reefs etc, thereby resulting in different varieties of ecosystems with diversity.
Q.4. Name an artificial ecosystem with high productivity.
A.4. Agricultural field of wheat or paddy
Q.5. In the IUCN Red List(2004), what does ‘Red’ represent?
A.5. It is used to refer to the taxa with the highest risk of extinction.
Q.6. How can the prevailing rate of species extinction be declined by 30% solely through the protection of
biodiversity hotspots?
A.6. Hotspots are species-rich, precisely those under human threat hence protecting them can significantly decrease
the rate of extinction. They can be preserved as sanctuaries and national parks.
Q.7. State a difference between endemic and exotic species.
A.7. Exotic species are derived into a geographical area from another geographical area whereas endemic species are
native species restricted to a particular geographical area.
Q.8. Differentiate between species diversity and ecological diversity.
A.8. The distribution and number of species in an area are referred to as species diversity whereas ecological diversity
describes the diversity at the ecosystem level.
Q.9. What is the significance of genetic variation in the Rauwolfia vomitoria plant?
A.9. This plant is a source of drug reserpine which serves as a tranquillizer. Its genetic variation can be in terms of the
concentration of resperin and potency produced by the plant.
Q.10. Define the Red Data Book.
A.10. It is a collection of records or data of species with the risk of extinction maintained by the IUCN.
Q.11. What is a gene pool?
A.11. In a breeding population, it refers to the sum total of all the genes of every individual.
Q.12. What do you mean by ‘Frugivorous’?
A.12. It is used to refer to fruit-eating animals.
Q.13. Expand IUCN.
A.13. International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
Q.14. What is a) Bioprospecting b)Endemism
A.14. a) It is used to illustrate the process of discovery and commercialization of new products basis the biological
resources. b) Endemism attributes to the species that are unique to a specific region only. They are not found
anywhere else.
Q.15. What is a biodiversity hotspot?
A.15. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a large amount of biodiversity that is threatened by human
habitation.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. State how the current occurrence of species extinction is different from the earlier mass extinction.
A.1. Species extinction in earlier times occurred due to natural calamities such as volcanic eruptions, landslides, floods
etc. while in the present times, the cause of species extinction is human activities.
Q.2. Which of the following according to you is the major cause for loss of biodiversity amongst the four main
causes of loss of biodiversity ( Habitat loss and fragmentation, alien species invasion, over-exploitation and
co-extinctions)? Justify your pick. 81
A.2. Habitat loss and fragmentation. As it is caused by clearing and over-exploitation of forest land for urbanization and
industrialization purposes. Overpopulation has destroyed forests and burdened forest resources. Larger habitats are
split into smaller fragments causing birds and mammals to migrate in quest of larger territories thereby resulting in
population declination.
Q.3. How can the loss of one species lead to the extinction of another?
A.3. It can be explained via co-extinction, where the extinction of two mutually interrelated species takes place. For
instance, the extinction of host fish causes the extinction of all parasites located on it.
Q.4. Can the diversity and productivity of a natural community be constant for over a hundred years?
A.4. No, it is not possible as natural habitat is never maintained in real, resources cannot be available in abundance
always and environmental conditions for survival keeps fluctuating.
Q.5. Why is there greater biodiversity in subtropical/tropical regions than in temperate regions?
A.5. It is because these regions are not disturbed due to lesser variations in climatic conditions. This is why species
had a long evolutionary time for diversity. The environment in temperate regions is more seasonal and unpredictable,
hence lesser species diversity.
Q.6. For the assessment of biodiversity in bacteria, why are conventional methods unsuitable?
A.6. It is because bacteria cannot be cultured in normal conditions which makes it difficult to study their biochemical
and morphological characteristics. Hence these are clubbed with a few more characteristics to assess the biodiversity
of bacteria.
Q.7. What are the factors that determine a species as threatened?
A.7. The following criteria need to be used in categorizing a species as threatened:
 Declination in the number of species at a distressing rate
 Destruction and modification of their habitat
 Increasing activities of poachers
Q.8. In comparison to other animal groups, why are amphibians more vulnerable to extinction?
A.8. It is because of the following:
 Habitat fragmentation
 Habitat Destruction or Modification
 Large scale climate change
Q.9. How do scientists estimate the total number of species on earth?
A.9. Through two methods:
 Estimation rate of discovery of new species
 Statistical association of tropical and temperate species richness of exhaustively studied assemblages of
insects. The ratio is then deduced with the current species to predict the total estimate.
Q.10. State two ways through which humans are benefitted from biodiversity.
A.10. We derive economic benefits from the diversity of entities, such as:
 Food, fibre, firewood
 Industrial products, construction material
 Medicinal products from plants
 Pure oxygen, flood and soil erosion control, natural pollinators
 Recycling of wastes by microbes
 Nutrient restoration

Long Answer Type Questions

Q.1. Explain how species diversity of an area is reduced by the invasion of an alien species.
A.1. When alien species acquaint a particular habitat either purposely or inadvertently, some of these species resort82to
invasion thereby causing declination or extinction of native species. For instance – Lantana and water hyacinth have
turned invasive, Invasion of Nile perch, a large predator fish, into Lake Victoria in East Africa led to extinction of an
ecologically unique collection of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish in the lake. As the Cichlid fish became extinct
due to a lack of food, the predatory Nile perch died too.
Q.2. How can the loss of biodiversity be prevented?
A.2. The occurrence of different types of habitat, species, ecosystem, gene pool, and a gene in a particular area in
biodiversity. It can be conserved with various conservational strategies and management of Abiotic and biotic
resources. Listed below are a few conservational strategies:
 Natural conservation or protection of useful plants and animals in their natural habitats.
 Conserving crucial habitats like breeding and feeding areas, facilitating the growth and multiplication
of endangered species
 Regulation or banning hunting activities
 Through bilateral or multilateral agreements, habitats of migratory entities should be conserved
 Spreading awareness of the significance of conservation of biodiversity
 Avoiding over-exploitation of natural resources
Q.3. Besides the relationship used by Paul Ehrlich, can you arrive at a scientific explanation to explain the
direct association between stability and diversity of an ecosystem?
A.3. It could be as follows: Consider a scenario where diverse species are growing, plants nurture a diversity of
species on which an assemblage of insect species are dependent for their food requirements. The dependence
severely affects the relying insect species due to the unavailability of food, when this particular plant species die.
Additionally, if the plant was a nitrogen fixer, the death of the plant would indicate no restoration of soil nutrients with
nitrogen. This would also affect the growth of the plants. If this is followed and occurs regularly, it would put forward a
negative impact on the whole ecosystem.
Q.4. Explain the ecosystem service. Write any four ecosystem services rendered by the natural ecosystem.
Are you in support of or against imposing a charge on the service given by the ecosystem?
A.4. Ecosystem services are the products of ecosystem processes. The major services of ecological services are
forests. Some of their services are:
 Water and air purification
 Droughts and flood alleviation
 Cycling nutrients
 Fertile soil generation
 Rendering wildlife habitat
 Promoting biodiversity
 Crop pollination
No, not in favour of levying a charge. However, it is necessary to understand what nature is offering for free. Misusing
or overusing resources may impose a heavy cost.
Q.5. Why does diversity amongst species decline as we move away from the equator?
A.5. It is because a decline in temperature causes the state to become severe. There is a dip in the intensity and
amount of solar radiation and also a decrease in the vegetation is observed. Availability of resources is less to support
the assemblage of species. Harsh conditions make the adaptation and survival of species difficult, which results in a
decrease in biodiversity as we approach the poles.
Q.6. Write notes on the ‘rivet popper hypothesis’ by Paul Ehrlich.
A.6. He suggested the hypothesis to understand the benefaction of species richness which he arrived at by comparing
each species with rivet seen in the aeroplane body. It demonstrates that the ecosystem is an aeroplane and the
species, the rivets holding together all the parts. If each passenger began to take rivets home (depicting species
extinction), it may hardly affect the safety of the flight initially (representing stable functioning of the ecosystem),
eventually, the plane becomes fragile and crash, implying species become endangered and ultimately extinct.

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