Networking Essentials: Test2 Review Questions

1. Which of the following is a limitation of early networks that used a daisy-

chain method of connecting computers? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Total number of computers that could be connected
b. The processing speed of the computers connected
c. Cable length
d. No Internet access

2. Which of the following is true of a repeater?

a. Receives frames and forwards them
b. Determines which network to send a packet
c. Receives bit signals and strengthens them
d. Has a burned-in MAC address for each port
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3. Which of the following is true of a hub? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Usually has just two ports
b. Transmits regenerated signals to all connected ports
c. Usually has four or more ports
d. Works with MAC addresses

4. Which of the following is the unit of measurement by which a hub’s

bandwidth is usually specified?
a. Bytes per second
b. Bits per second
c. Packets per second
d. Bytes per minute

5. Which of the following describes how devices connected to a hub use the
speed at which the hub can transmit data?
a. Bandwidth optimization
b. Bandwidth dedication
c. Bandwidth sharing
d. Bandwidth multiplier

6. Which of the following is a likely indicator light on a hub? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. CRC error
b. Link status
c. Connection speed
d. Activity
e. Signal strength
7. Which of the following describes how devices connected to a switch use the
speed at which the switch can transmit data?
a. Dedicated bandwidth
b. Half-duplex bandwidth
c. Half-scale bandwidth
d. Shared bandwidth

8. What does a switch use to create its switching table?

a. Source IP addresses
b. Destination logical addresses
c. Destination physical addresses
d. Source MAC addresses

9. What purpose does the timestamp serve in a switching table?

a. Tells the switch when to forward a frame
b. Tells the switch how long to wait for a response
c. Tells the switch when to delete an entry
d. Tells the switch how long it has been running

10. What feature of a switch allows devices to effectively communicate at 200

Mbps on a 100 Mbps switch?
a. Uplink port
b. Full-duplex mode
c. Shared bandwidth
d. Bit strengthening
e. Frame doubling
f. Signal regeneration

11. To which device is a wireless access point most similar in how it operates?
a. Hub
b. Switch
c. NIC
d. Router

12. What’ s the purpose of an RTS signal in wireless networking?

a. It allows the AP to request which device is the transmitting station.
b. It allows the AP to tell all stations that it’ s ready to transmit data.
c. It allows a client to notify the AP that it’ s ready to send data.
d. It allows a client to request data from the AP.

13. Which of the following is a common operational speed of a wireless

network?
a. 10 Kbps
b. 110 Gbps
c. 600 Kbps
d. 11 Mbps

14. Which of the following is a task performed by a NIC and its driver? (Choose
all that apply.)
a. Provides a connection to the network medium
b. Converts bit signals into frames for transmission on the medium
c. Receives packets from the network protocol and creates frames
d. Adds a header before sending a frame to the network protocol
e. Adds error-checking data to the frame
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15. Which of the following best describes a MAC address?
a. A 24-bit number expressed as 12 decimal digits
b. Two 24-bit numbers, in which one is the OUI
c. A 48-bit number composed of 12 octal digits
d. A dotted decimal number burned into the NIC

16. Under which circumstances does a NIC allow inbound communications to

pass through
a. The source MAC address is the broadcast address.
b. The destination MAC address matches the built-in MAC address.
c. The destination MAC address is all binary 1s.
d. The NIC is operating in exclusive mode.

17. How does a protocol analyzer capture all frames?

a. It configures the NIC to capture only unicast frames.
b. It sets all incoming destination addresses to be broadcasts.
c. It configures the NIC to operate in promiscuous mode.
d. It sets the exclusive mode option on the NIC.
e. It captures only multicast frames.

18. In Windows 7, which of the following displays information about currently

installed NICs?
a. Network Connections
b. NICs and Drivers
c. Local Area Networks
d. Computers and Devices

19. Which of the following is the purpose of an SSID?

a. Assigns an address to a wireless NIC
b. Acts as a unique name for a local area connection
c. Acts as a security key for securing a network
d. Identifies a wireless network
20. Which of the following describe the function of routers? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. Forward frames from one network to another
b. Connect LANS
c. Attach computers to the internetwork
d. Work with packets and IP addresses

21. What information is found in a routing table?

a. Computer names and IP addresses
b. Network addresses and interfaces
c. MAC addresses and ports
d. IP addresses and MAC addresses

22. You currently have 15 switches with an average of 20 stations connected to

each switch. The switches are connected to one another so that all 300
computers can communicate with each other in a single LAN. You have been
detecting a high percentage of broadcast frames on this LAN. You think the
number of broadcasts might be having an impact on network performance.
What should you do?
a. Connect the switches in groups of five, and connect each group of switches to
a central hub.
b. Upgrade the switches to a faster speed.
c. Reorganize the network into smaller groups and connect each group to a
router.
d. Disable broadcast forwarding on the switches.

23. Review the routing table in Figure 2-29. Based on this figure, where will the
router send a packet with the source network number 1.0 and the destination
network number 3.0?
a. EthA
b. WAN A
c. WAN B
d. None of the above
24. If a router receives a packet with a destination network address unknown to
the router, what will the router do?
a. Send the packet out all interfaces.
b. Discard the packet.
c. Add the destination network to its routing table.
d. Query the network for the destination network.

25. Which of the following is true about routers? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Forward broadcasts
b. Use default routes for unknown network addresses
c. Forward unicasts

d. Used primarily to connect workstations

Chapter3 Review Questions

1. Which of the following describes the arrangement of network cabling
between devices?
a. Logical topology
b. Networking technology
c. Physical topology
d. Media access method

2. Which of the following is an advantage of a star topology? (Choose all that

apply.)
a. Allows faster technologies than a bus does
b. Requires less cabling than a bus
c. Centralized monitoring of network

3. Which of the following is an example of a technology using a physical ring

topology?
a. Token ring
b. FDDI
c. ADSL
d. IEEE 802.5

4. Which technology is likely to be implemented as a point-to-point physical

topology?
a. Wi-Fi infrastructure mode
b. FDDI
c. Ethernet
d. Wireless bridge

5. Which of the following describes a hub-based Ethernet network?

a. Physical bus
b. Logical bus
c. Physical switching
d. Logical star

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a logical ring topology? (Choose

all that apply.)
a. It’ s used by Ethernet.
b. One technology uses an MAU.
c. It’ s used by FDDI.
d. Some technologies use a token.
e. It’ s the most popular logical topology.

7. Which best describes a typical wireless LAN?

a. Logical ring topology
b. Logical switching topology
c. Logical bus topology
d. Logical star topology

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switched logical topology?

(Choose all that apply.)
a. Uses a physical bus topology
b. Creates dynamic connections
c. Sometimes called a shared-media topology
d. Uses a physical star topology

9. Which of the following is a characteristic of unshielded twisted-pair cabling?

(Choose all that apply.)
a. Consists of four wires
b. Commonly used in physical bus topologies
c. Has a distance limitation of 100 meters
d. Susceptible to electrical interference

10. Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose all

that apply.)
a. Can be used in electrically noisy environments
b. Requires only a single strand of fiber for network connections
c. Carries data over longer distances than UTP does
d. Lower bandwidth capability

11. Which topology most likely uses coaxial cabling?

a. Physical star
b. Logical ring
c. Physical bus
d. Logical switching

12. Which of the following is true of a MAC address?

a. All binary 1s in the source address indicates a broadcast frame.
b. It’ s sometimes called a logical address.
c. A destination address of 12 hexadecimal Fs is a broadcast.
d. It’ s composed of 12 bits.

13. Which of the following is the most commonly used Ethernet frame type?
a. Ethernet II
b. Ethernet SNAP
c. Ethernet 802.3
d. Ethernet 802.2

14. Which of the following is a field of the most common Ethernet frame type?
(Choose all that apply.)
a. ARP trailer
b. FCS
c. Destination MAC Address
d. Data
e. MAC type

15. Which access method uses a “ listen before sending”  strategy?

a. Token passing
b. CSMA/CD
c. Token bus
d. Polling

16. Which of the following is true about full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. Stations can transmit and receive but not at the same time.
b. Collision detection is turned off.
c. It’s possible only with switches.
d. It allows a physical bus to operate much faster.

17. Which of the following is defined by the extent to which signals in an

Ethernet bus topology network are propagated?
a. Physical domain
b. Collision domain
c. Broadcast domain
d. Logical domain

18. Which of the following is considered a property of Ethernet? (Choose all

that apply.)
a. Scalable
b. Best-effort delivery system
c. Guaranteed delivery system
d. Obsolete technology

19. Which of the following is true of IEEE 802.3an?

a. Requires two pairs of wires
b. Uses Category 5 or higher cabling
c. Currently best for desktop computers
d. Operates only in full-duplex mode

20. Which of the following is a feature of 100BaseFX? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Often used as backbone cabling
b. Best when only short cable runs are needed
c. The fastest of the Ethernet standards
d. Uses two strands of fiber

21. Which Wi-Fi standard can provide the highest bandwidth?

a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11n
d. 802.11g

22. Which of the following is true about infrastructure mode in wireless

networks? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Best used for temporary networks
b. Uses a central device
c. Resembles a physical bus and logical ring
d. Most like a logical bus and physical star

23. How many channels can be used on an 802.11b network in North America?
a. 7
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13

24. Which media access method does Wi-Fi use?

a. CSMA/CD
b. Token bus
c. Demand priority
d. CSMA/CA

25. Which of the following is true about the token ring technology? (Choose all
that apply.)
a. It uses a physical ring topology.
b. All computers have equal access to the media.
c. It uses RTS/CTS signaling before transmission can occur.
d. Only the computer with the token can transmit data.

Chapter6: Network Reference Models and Standards Review Questions

1. The original commercial version of Ethernet supported 10 Mbps bandwidth;
the version introduced in the early 1990s supports 100 Mbps; and in 1998,
Gigabit Ethernet was introduced. All versions use the same data frame formats,
with the same maximum PDU sizes, so they can interoperate freely. Given this
information and what you know of layered technologies, which of the following
statements is true? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Ethernet works at the Data Link and Physical layers of the OSI model, and
upgrades to newer, faster versions of Ethernet can be made by changing only
the components that work at these layers.
b. Ethernet spans several layers and requires a new protocol stack to upgrade to
new versions.
c. Changes in technology at one layer of the OSI model don’t usually affect the
operation of other layers.
d. Ethernet isn’t considered a scalable technology.

2. The addition of information to a PDU as it’s passed from one layer to the
next is called which of the following?
a. PDI transforming
b. Encapsulation
c. Deencapsulation
d. Converting
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3. Layers acting as though they communicate directly with each other across the
network are called which of the following?
a. Partners
b. Synchronous
c. Interchangeable
d. Peers

4. Place the following letters in the correct order to represent the OSI model
from Layer 7 to Layer 1:
a. Presentation
b. Data Link
c. Session
d. Physical
e. Application
f. Transport
g. Network
Application - Presentation - Session - Transport - Network - Data Link - Physical

5. Which OSI layer creates and processes frames?

Data Link

6. Which OSI layer handles flow control, data segmentation, and reliability?
a. Application
b. Physical
c. Transport
d. Data Link

7. Which OSI layer governs how a NIC is attached to the network medium?
Physical

8. Which OSI layer determines the route a packet takes from sender to receiver?
a. 7
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4

9. Which OSI layer is responsible for setting up, maintaining, and ending
ongoing information exchanges across a network?
a. 6
b. 3
c. 2
d. 5

10. Which of the following elements might the Data Link layer add to its PDU?
(Choose all that apply.)
a. Physical addresses
b. Logical addresses
c. Data
d. CRC

11. When and how many times is a CRC calculated?

a. Once, before transmission
b. Once, after receipt
c. Twice, once before transmission and again on receipt
d. At the source and destination and at each intermediary device

12. Which layer of the OSI model does Project 802 divide into two sublayers?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Session

13. What are the names of the sublayers specified as part of Project 802?
(Choose all that apply.)
a. Data Link Control (DLC)
b. Logical Link Control (LLC)
c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
d. Media Access Control (MAC)

14. Which term refers to stripping header information as a PDU is passed from
one layer to a higher layer?
a. Deencapsulation
b. Encapsulation
c. PDU stripping
d. Packetization

15. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to Ethernet?

a. 802.2
b. 802.3
c. 802.4
d. 802.5
e. 802.11
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16. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to wireless LANs?
a. 802.2
b. 802.3
c. 802.4
d. 802.5
e. 802.11

17. What is the name of the PDU at the Transport layer?

a. Bit
b. Packet
c. Segment
d. Data
18. At which OSI layer does the PDU contain sequence and acknowledgement
numbers?
a. Application
b. 4 transport
c. Data Link
d. 6

19. Which of the following is an example of software found at the Application

layer? (Choose all that apply.)
a. FTP
b. TCP
c. HTTP
d. ICMP

20. At which Data Link sublayer does the physical address reside?
a. Media Access Control (MAC)
b. Logical Link Control (LLC)
c. Data Access Control (DAC)
d. Network Access Control (NAC)

21. Which of the following problems can occur at the Physical layer?
a. NIC driver problems
b. Incorrect IP addresses
c. Signal errors caused by noise

d. Incorrect segment size

Chapter 7: Network Hardware in Depth Review Questions

1. When a switch receives a frame on a port and floods the frame, what does it
do with the frame?
a. Discards it
b. Changes the destination address to FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
c. Forwards it out all other connected ports
d. Clears the switching table and adds the frame source address to the table

2. You have two eight-port switches. On each switch, seven stations are
connected to ports, and the two switches are connected with the eighth port.
How many collisions domains are there?
a. 16
b. 15
c. 14
d. 8
e. 1
3. Which of the following is considered a Layer 2 device?
a. Computer
b. Switch
c. Router
d. Hub

4. You just purchased some new switches for your company’s network. Your
junior technicians are doing most of the work connecting switches to
workstations and to each other, and you don’t want to confuse them by
requiring them to use both patch cables and crossover cables. How can you test
the switches to determine whether you need both types of cable, and what’s the
feature for using only one type of cable for all connections?
a. Connect the switch to a PC NIC and configure different speeds on the NIC by
using the NIC driver. You’re okay if the switch links at all speeds. It’s called
auto-MDIX.
b. Connect two switches by using a crossover cable. If the connection works,
the switch supports auto-negotiate.
c. Connect the switch to a PC NIC and configure different speeds on the NIC by
using the NIC driver. You’re okay if the switch links at all speeds. It’s called
auto-negotiate.
d. Connect two switches by using a patch cable. If the connection works, the
switch supports auto-MDIX.

5. What feature of a switch keeps switching table entries from becoming stale?
Aging Time

6. Which is the fastest switching method?

a. Store-and-forward
b. Fragment-free
c. Cut-through
d. Forward-free

7. There can be only one MAC address per port in a switching table.
True or False?

8. What does it mean if the first 24 bits of a MAC address are 01:00:5E?
a. The NIC was manufactured by Intel.
b. It’s a multicast frame.
c. It’s an invalid CRC.
d. The frame will be flooded.

9. What feature should you look for in switches if your network is cabled like
the one in
a. VLANs
b. Auto-negotiate
c. STP
d. Auto-MDIX

10. What should you configure on a switch that’ s connected to three broadcast
domains?
a. IGMP
b. VLANs
c. Port security
d. STP

11. Which of the following is a Layer 3 device?

a. Router    
b. NIC
c. Switch
d. Computer

12. What does a router do after receiving a frame on one of its interfaces?
(Choose all that apply.)
a. Deencapsulates the frame to create a packet
b. Deencapsulates the packet to create a segment
c. Encapsulates the frame to create a new packet
d. Encapsulates the packet to create a new frame

13. Which of the following is found in a routing table? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Destination MAC address
b. Port number
c. Metric
d. Next hop
e. Domain name

14. Which of the following accurately describes a distance-vector routing

protocol?
a. OSPF is an example.
b. It learns from its neighbors.
c. It sends the status of its interface links to other routers.
d. It converges the fastest.

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of routing protocols? (Choose all

that apply.)
a. They populate routing tables statically.
b. Network changes are reflected in the routing table automatically.
c. They’ re not a good solution with redundant routes.
d. They add routing table entries dynamically.
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 16. Which of the following is the best routing solution for a network that
includes redundant links?
a. RIP
b. STP
c. OSPF
d. Static

17. If you don’ t want wireless clients to view the name of your wireless
network, what feature should you use?
a. WEP
b. Disabling SSID broadcasts
c. MAC filtering
d. AP isolation

18. To prevent a wardriver from being able to interpret captured wireless

network data, you should enable which of the following?
a. MAC filtering
b. AP isolation
c.WPA or WPA2
d. Repeater mode

19. What feature can you use to wirelessly connect the wired networks in two
buildings?
a. Repeater mode
b. AP isolation
c. Bridge mode
d. VLAN mode

20. Which AP feature is useful when you have many guests accessing your
network and you don’ t want them to be able to access the computers of other
guests?
a. MAC filtering
b. AP isolation
c. Bridge mode
d. VLAN mode

21. Which PC bus uses up to 32 lanes to achieve very high data transfer rates?
a. PCI
b. PCI-X
c. USB
d. PCIe

22. Which PC bus allows you to connect a NIC to your computer easily without
powering off?
a. PCI
b. PCI-X
c. USB
d. PCIe

23. Which NIC feature do you need to configure on a thin client?

a. QoS
b. PXE
c. IPSec
d. ACPI

24. Which device is used to communicate between broadcast domains?

a. Repeater
b. Switch with VLANs
c. Router
d. Switch with STP

25. What feature should you configure to prevent users on one subnet from
accessing the
Web server on another subnet?
a. MAC filtering
b. Access control lists
c. Dynamic routing
d. Spanning Tree Protocol