CBT Midwifery Full Mock Test 3 Question Ans

1) Can itching be dangerous in pregnancy?

Not Selected
1) Itching is a normal part of pregnancy
2) Any itching should be investigated as it might mean there is a problem with woman’s
kidneys
3) Severe itching, especially on hands and feet should be investigated for obstetric
cholestasis - a liver condition that can be dangerous for baby.
4) Severe itching, especially on shoulders and back should be investigated as it might be a
sign of a dangerous liver condition.

2) A woman calls you with a headache and bp of 160/100. What is your action?

Not Selected

1) Tell her to retake her bp

2) Reassure her and tell her to visit the labour ward as soon as possible

3) Reassure her and tell her to go to the gp

4) Reassure her that she needs to take more rest

3) What type of pelvis is bean shaped?

Not Selected

1) Anthropoid

2) Platypelloid

3) Gynaecoid

4) What is true about GBS?

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1) GBS is routinely screened for in the uk

2) GBS is the major cause of sepsis in the newborn

3) GBS is a huge public concern

5) Which of the following is administered in early pregnancy?

Not Selected

1) Vitamin k

2) Folic acid

3) Iron

6) A midwife tells you she has done a drug error, what is your action?

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1) Inform the prescriber, inform the woman and report error as per local policy

2) Inform the woman, ban the midwife from drug administration

3) Inform her that errors occur, allow her to reflect on her error and report to NMC

7) What is caput cephal haematoma?

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1) A collection of fluid which does not cross the suture line

2) A collection of blood above the periosteum

3) A collection of blood below the periosteum

8) Which of this is the best position for shoulder dystocia?

Not Selected

1) McRoberts

2) Recumbent

3) Lithotomy
9) How long does it take oxytocin to take effect?

Not Selected

1) 3-5 mins

2) 10 mins

3) 1-2 mins

10) Entonox contains?

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1) 50!% oxygen and 50!% nitrogen

2) 50!% hydrogen and 50!% oxygen

3) 50!% oxygen and 50!% nitrous oxide

11) Trophoblastic disease is referred to as?

Not Selected

1) Choriocarcinoma

2) Hydatidiform mole

3) Placental insufficiency

12) What is present to detect pregnancy?

Not Selected

1) Prostaglandin

2) Oestrogen

3) Human chorionic gonadotrophins

13) Which of the following is observed in ectopic pregnancy?

Not Selected

1) HCG levels decrease

2) Normal HCG levels are detected in the urine and foetus seen in the fallopian tube with
USS

3) The level of oestrogen decreases

14) When does primary PPH occur?

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1) Within 24 hours of birth

2) After 48 hours

3) At the transitional phase of labour

15) When can you administer progestine only pills?

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1) After 7 days

2) After 21 days with no effect on lactation

3) After 21 days with effect on lactation

16) What is antepartum haemorrhage?

Not Selected

1) Bleeding after 12 weeks

2) Bleeding before 24 weeks

3) Bleeding after 24 weeks

17) What is role of clinical governance in the UK?

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1) Risk management

2) E - rostering for all

3) Ensure all staff are paid at least minimum wage

18) In what position should a woman be resuscitated at 20 weeks gestation?

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1) Tilt uterus to the left

2) No modifitacion required

3) Lithotomy position

19) A woman of 16 years is to undergo C/S. who gives the consent?

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1) Her parents because she lives with them

2) The woman should give consent provided she is mentally stable

3) Social care workers as she is underaged

20) What advice will you give to prevent sudden infant death syndrome?

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1) The baby should be placed in the cot with feet to the end

2) The baby should sleep with parents for 6 weeks

3) Baby should be tightly snugged in blanket

21) How will you address two women with one being pregnant?
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1) Birth partners
2) Husband and wife
3) Woman and wife

22) A woman informs you she is in an abused by her partner

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1) Go to the home and talk to both

2) Refer her to the police

3) Refer her to agencies where she can get support

23) At what gestational age will you commence symphysis fundal height monitoring?

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1) 20 weeks

2) 28 weeks

3) 24 weeks

24) When should HbA1 be who had GDM be assessed postnatally?

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1) After 6 months

2) After 3 months

3) After 2 months

25) What is SBAR?

Not Selected
1) Situation background assessment and recommendation

2) Solution biography assessment and review

3) Situation background assessment and result

26) When doing ARM on polyhydramnios, a midwife should be conscious of

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1) Vasa praevia

2) Cord prolapse

3) Cervical prolapse

27) What is the common presentation seen in most pregnancy?

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1) Oblique

2) Transverse

3) Vertex

28) Who will you refer for a glucose tolerance test?

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1) A woman with previous baby weighing 3.6kg

2) A woman with previous C/S

3) A woman with BMI of 30

29) In the first trimester of pregnancy, what dose of folic acid is prescribed?

Not Selected
1) 0.4mg

2) 0.04mg

3) 5mg

4) 1mg

30) At what gestation is a foetus considered viable in the UK?

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1) 20 weeks

2) 24 weeks

3) 28 weeks

31) What blood group is a universal donor?

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1) O positive

2) O negative

3) AD negative

32) What dosage of vitamin D is prescribed for a pregnant woman?

Not Selected

1) 10mcg

2) 10mg

3) 10g

33) How many weeks is membrane sweep carried out?

Not Selected

1) 41 weeks

2) 40 weeks

3) 42 weeks

34) Why is magnesium sulphate used in pre-eclampsia?

Not Selected

1) To treat pre-eclampsia

2) To prevent seizures

3) To treat hypertension

35) What is the relationship of the foetal spine to the long axis of the uterus?

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1) Presentation

2) Polarity

3) Lie

36) What is the expected amount of milk does an average weight baby consume in a day?

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1) 525 ml

2) 165 ml

3) 440 ml

37) What is the causative organism of Group B Streptococcus?

Not Selected

1) Plasmodium

2) Bacteria

3) Virus

38) What will be your action if you need to communicate with a client whose first language is not
English?

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1) Get a professional interpreter

2) Refer to another hospital

3) Hand over to the next midwife

39) What is NMC expectation in safeguarding?

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1) To protect the people in your care from harm and abuse

2) To keep people safe during war

3) To prevent falls

40) When can a baby be diagnosed as a very low weight baby?

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1) Less than 1500g

2) Less than 1000g

3) Less than 200g

41) Which of the following types immunoglobulins are passed from mother to baby through the
placenta?
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1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgD

42) When is a baby considered to be large for gestational age?

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1) When the weight exceeds the 90th centile

2) When the weight exceeds 3kg

3) When the weight exceeds the 50th centile

43) Which of these is another name for trisomy 13?

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1) Down syndrome

2) Patau syndrome

3) Edward syndrome

44) A defect of the abdominal wall with extrusion of the bowel not covert by the peritoneum is
known as?

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1) Exomphalos

2) Omphalocele

3) Gastroschisis

45) Within the first few days of life, a newborn passes meconium. What does this indicate?

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1) A cleansing of fluid swallowed in utero

2) Patent lower gut

3) Patent upper GIT

46) Newborns have no ability to control their temperature by shivering. How is temperature
controlled internally?

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1) Brown fats

2) Thyroid hormone

3) Body fats

47) To reduce sudden infant death, at what room temperature should the room be maintained?

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1) 20 degrees

2) 18 degrees

3) 25 degrees

48) What is the height of fundus at day 10 of puerperium?

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1) No palpable

2) 10 cm

3) Between umbilicus and symphysis pubis

49) What is the full meaning of PPROM?

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1) Premature preterm rupture of membranes

2) Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes

3) Preterm premature ripening of membranes

50) What causes early decelerations observed when carrying out CTG?

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1) Placenta insufficiency

2) Supine hypotensive syndrome

3) Foetal head compression

51) What is the most approved drug for managing the third stage of labour?

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1) Misoprostol

2) Mifepristone

3) Oxytocin

52) What is the term given to the dark blue appearance of the vagina and cervix as a result of
increased blood supply to pelvic organs?

Not Selected

1) Osiander’s sign

2) Hegar\'s sign

3) Chadwick\'s sign

53) Which of these does not occur in a normal pregnancy?

Not Selected

1) Increased blood pressure

2) Increased cardiac output

3) Increased heart size

54) What is the most favourable position for a normal delivery?

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1) Occipito anterior

2) Occipito lateral

3) Occipito posterior

55) What is the nuchal translucency test conducted for?

Not Selected

1) To detect wrong positioning

2) To detect polyhydramnios

3) To detect possible downs syndrome

56) What screening is offered from 10 weeks gestation?

Not Selected

1) Haemoglobinopathies (sickle cell and thalassaemia)

2) Downs syndrome

3) Risk for haemorrhage

57) What causes alpha thalassemia?

Not Selected

1) Foetal anomaly
2) Effect of gene deletion or defect of one or more alpha protein

3) Exposure to radiation

58) What is the colour of an Entonox cylinder?

Not Selected

1) Black and white

2) Blue and white

3) Red and white

59) How is an Entonox cylinder stored in a community setting?

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1) Stored upright

2) Place on the side (horizontally)

3) Hung on a string

60) What is the treatment for jaundice?

Not Selected

1) Phototherapy

2) Analgesic

3) Blood transfusion

61) What position is used for women with cardiac conditions?

Not Selected
1) Supine
2) Prone
3) Upright
62) Which of the following uterotonic is contraindicated for hypertensive women?

Not Selected

1) Misoprostol

2) Ergometrine

3) Oxytocin

63) What should a midwife be mindful of in ruptured membrane of polyhydramnios?

Not Selected

1) Cord prolapse

2) Foetal death

3) False knot

64) At 28 weeks, a woman complained of itching of the hands and feet. What is your action?

Not Selected

1) Tell her there is no cause for concern

2) Refer for liver function test as it could be a sign of obstetric cholestasis

3) Tell her not to scratch

65) What will be the best action for pethidine prescribed for home birth that was not used?

Not Selected

1) Destory and record

2) Report to the midwife in charge

3) It should be returned to the stock

66) What action foster early breastfeeding?

Not Selected

1) Expressing breast milk

2) Sleeping with baby on the same bed

3) Skin to skin contact

67) How many work hours are required for midwifery evaluation every 3 years?

Not Selected

1) 550 hours

2) 450 hours

3) 400 hours

68) What name is given to trisomy 21?

Not Selected

1) Down syndrome

2) Edward syndrome

3) Patau syndrome

69) You carry out a vaginal examination of a woman in labour and discover she is in active phase.
What does this mean?

Not Selected

1) She is about to push

2) Cervix is 4-10 cm dilated

3) She needs to contine mobilizing

70) What is the sequence for physical examination?

Not Selected

1) Inspection, palpation, auscultation

2) Observation, percussion, listening

3) Inspection, percussion, auscultation

71) What is the dosage of vitamin k administered to a new born?

Not Selected

1) 0.5mg intramuscularly

2) 1mg intramuscularly

3) 1.5mg intramuscularly

72) If a baby is receiving 38ml of fluid every 4 hours for 24 hours, what is the total feed in a day?

Not Selected

1) 338

2) 228

3) 200

73) Your patient has been prescribed 1g of paracetamol. The stock tablet comes in 500mg, how
many tablets will you give?

Not Selected

1) 4

2) 8

3) 2
74) A patient has been prescribed 50mg of pethidine. The strength available is 100mg in 1 ml.
how many ml should you give?

Not Selected

1) 0.4

2) 0.05

3) 0.5

75) 40 units of insulin has been prescribed for a patient with diabetes. It is dispensed as 100
units in 1ml. How much do you give?

Not Selected

1) 0.5ml

2) 0.2ml

3) 0.4ml

76) The patient need 250mcg of drug x. you have 1mg in 1ml. how much do you give?

Not Selected

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 2.5

77) Cloxacillin 50mg/kg dose has been prescribed to a patient whose weight is 45kg. how many
mg is required for a single dose and how many grams is this?

Not Selected

1) 250mg/2.5g

2) 2250mg/2.25g

3) 25mg/0.25g
78) Where is prolactin produced?

Not Selected

1) Anterior pituitary

2) Posterior pituitary

3) Thyroid gland

79) Where of these occurs as a result of the effect of progesterone?

Not Selected

1) It relaxes the smooth muscles and causes vasoconstriction

2) It causes vasodilation It relaxes the smooth muscles and

3) It relaxes smooth muscles and causes vasodilation and haemodilution

80) What is the dose of folic acid prescribed to an epileptic woman?

Not Selected

1) 400mcg

2) 4mg

3) 5mg

81) Which of the following options is a pre-disposing of foetal macrosomia?

Not Selected
1) Hypertension
2) Gestational diabetes melitus
3) Post-date

82) Which drug is mostly used in the control of hypertension in pregnancy?

Not Selected
1) Amoxycillin

2) Methyldopa

3) Labetalol

83) What position is a gravid woman resuscitated?

Not Selected

1) Prone

2) Supine with a wedge placed at the right side of the abdomen

3) Right lateral position

84) Which of the following antibiotic is not safe to give to a pregnant woman?

Not Selected

1) Amoxycillin

2) Cloxacillin

3) Tetracycline

85) Phenytoin falls under what group medication?

Not Selected

1) Psychotropic

2) Anticonvulsants

3) Analgesic

86) Which one of these is a highly pathogenic bacterial infection that can be highly deadly?

Not Selected
1) MRSA

2) Hay fever

3) Aspergillus

4) Candida

87) Women that are particularly at risk of maternal collapse are those who for example:

Not Selected

1) Eat raw fish

2) Do not pose the qualities to be a good mother

3) Have limited mobility

4) Have chest pain

88) Antepartum haemorrhage is:

Not Selected

1) Bleeding from the genital tract after 4 weeks of gestation

2) Internal bleeding that is caused by the baby kicking

3) Internal bleeding that is caused by a miscarriage

4) Bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of gestation

89) An example of a post-partum disorder is:

Not Selected

1) Subinvolution of the uterus

2) Blood loss

3) Negative response to food

4) Unable to walk

90) How can you help a patient with postpartum depression?

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1) It usually resolves by itself and a strategy that can be recommended is self-help

therapies

2) Automatically giving a patient with postpartum depression anti-depressants

3) Giving the patient a tissue to cry on

4) Talking to the birthing partner and see what is going on at home

91) A cause of antepartum haemorrhage can be:

Not Selected

1) Lung abruption

2) Placenta abruption

3) Trauma

4) Smoking

92) What is Type Three Placenta Previa?

Not Selected

1) The placenta is located centrally over the internal orifice of the cervix uteri

2) The placenta is located over the internal orifice of the cervix uteri, but not centrally

3) The placenta mostly implants at the upper uterine segment and mild blood loss usually
occurs.

4) The placenta is located in the lower uterine segment near the internal orifice of the
cervix uteri
93) What is postpartum depression?

Not Selected

1) Not loving your baby after giving birth

2) Deep feelings of sadness

3) Deep feelings of sadness caused by visiting a hospital for a scan

4) Feeling tearful or anxious a week (although can be up to a year afterwards) after giving
birth.

94) What is deinfibulation?

Not Selected

1) The process of removing of vagina tissue due to FGM

2) Surgically opening the vagina allowing for easier sex and delivery of a baby after FGM

3) Removing a cyst or abscess from a woman who has had FGM

4) The therapy given to a women suffering from depression caused by FGM

95) What does beneficence mean for a midwife?

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1) The respect for the decision-making capabilities of a patient

2) To show compassion to a patient who is making a difficult decision

3) Midwives have a duty to undertake actions at safeguarding the health of their patients.

4) Unavoidable harm must not be disproportionate to the benefits of treatment

96) One of the main tenants of the Care Act 2014 is:

Not Selected

1) Protection
2) Kindness

3) Responsibility

4) Respect

97) What does respect for autonomy mean for a midwife?

Not Selected

1) Respecting a womans moral code

2) Midwives have a duty to undertake actions at safeguarding the health of their patients.

3) To show compassion to a patient who is making a difficult decision

4) The respect for the decision-making capabilities of a patient

98) The Care Quality Commission need to ensure that operations in the health and social care
organisations are:

Not Selected

1) Safe, non-biased, informative, kind, patient

2) Safe, effective, caring, responsive, well-led

3) Clean, hygienic, healthy, well-led

4) Respected, nice, friendly, responsive

99) What is Type Two Placenta Previa?

Not Selected

1) The placenta mostly implants at the upper uterine segment and mild blood loss usually
occurs.

2) The placenta is located centrally over the internal orifice of the cervix uteri

3) The placenta is located in the lower uterine segment near the internal orifice of the
cervix uteri
4) The placenta is located over the internal orifice of the cervix uteri, but not centrally

100) If a baby fails to feed a mother can:

Not Selected

1) Offer expressed breast milk via cup or pipette

2) Take the baby to the hospital

3) Give the baby to her partner and let him try to feed

101) Airborne transmission is:

Not Selected
1) Pathogens that live in stools and are swallowed by someone else
2) Bacteria or viruses travel on dust particles or on small respiratory droplets that may
become aerosolized when people sneeze, cough, or exhale
3) Bacteria and viruses reside in respiratory droplets which people sneeze, cough, drip, or
exhale.
4) Transmission that occurs outside of the alimentary tract, such as in subcutaneous
injections

102) An example of indirect contact is:

Not Selected

1) If a person sneezes into their hands, then touch a door handle and another person
touches the same door handle and puts their hands on their nose

2) If a person hugs their close relative who suffers from an infection

3) If a person shares a kiss with their husband

4) Contracting an infection from a person by open wound touching

103) What does Colonization mean?

Not Selected

1) You are immune to virus

2) You are not showing signs and symptoms of virus

3) It means that you carry the infectious agent but are asymptomatic

4) Bacteria and virus and that can be passed from one person to another

104) What is a cause of hypoglycemia in a newborn?

Not Selected

1) Smoking and/or drinking during pregnancy

2) Stress during pregnancy

3) Poor nutrition for the mother during pregnancy

105) What can happen if hypoglycamia is not treated for a newborn?

Not Selected

1) Long-term stress to the baby

2) Severe or prolonged hypoglycemia and/or low blood sugar

106) Parenteral transmission is:

Not Selected

1) Transmission that occurs outside of the alimentary tract, such as in subcutaneous

injections

2) Bacteria and viruses reside in respiratory droplets which people sneeze, cough, drip, or
exhale.

3) Bacteria or viruses travel on dust particles or on small respiratory droplets that may
become aerosolized when people sneeze, cough, or exhale

4) Pathogens that live in stools and are swallowed by someone else

107) What is Type Four Placenta Previa?

Not Selected
1) The placenta is located in the lower uterine segment near the internal orifice of the
cervix uteri

2) The placenta mostly implants at the upper uterine segment and mild blood loss usually
occurs.

3) The placenta is located over the internal orifice of the cervix uteri, but not centrally

4) The placenta is located centrally over the internal orifice of the cervix uteri

108) What is severe hematoma?

Not Selected

1) When the newborn\'s blood sugar drops too low

2) High blood pressure

3) When blood vessels under your skin are damaged and leak, the blood pools and results
in a bruise.

4) Prolonged coronory heart disease in a newborn

109) Which is a cause of neonatal Jaundice:

Not Selected

1) Most infants develop visible jaundice due to elevation of

unconjugated bilirubin concentration during their first week.

2) Smoking and/or drinking during pregnancy

3) Stress during pregnancy

4) Poor nutrition for the mother during pregnancy

110) The management of hypoglycaemia includes:

Not Selected

1) Encouraging mother and baby to attend the gp every week

2) Giving the baby glucagon, if not effective after 10 minutes, glucose 10!% intravenous
infusion should be given

3) Giving the baby paracetamol every 3 hours and taking blood pressure every 2 days

111) Faecal-oral transmission is:

Not Selected

1) Bacteria and viruses reside in respiratory droplets which people sneeze, cough, drip, or
exhale.

2) Transmission that occurs outside of the alimentary tract, such as in subcutaneous

injections

3) Bacteria or viruses travel on dust particles or on small respiratory droplets that may
become aerosolized when people sneeze, cough, or exhale

4) Pathogens that live in stools and are swallowed by someone else

112) Direct contact is:

Not Selected

1) Contact that is directly linked to hospitals

2) Skin to skin contact

3) Finger to finger contact

4) Contact through a phone

113) Cross-infection refers to:

Not Selected

1) When there is a risk to the baby

2) When a patient is hospitalised due to an infection

3) When a patient is vomiting and showing signs of infection

4) When there is a transmission of the infection between patients

114) You should advise a patient to stay home if:

Not Selected

1) They are suffering from chronic lung disease

2) They are pregnant

3) They are vomiting and have diarrhoea

4) They are pregnant and have asthma

115) Droplet transmission means:

Not Selected

1) Transmission that occurs outside of the alimentary tract, such as in subcutaneous

injections

2) Pathogens that live in stools and are swallowed by someone else

3) Bacteria and viruses reside in respiratory droplets which people sneeze, cough, drip, or
exhale.

4) Bacteria or viruses travel on dust particles or on small respiratory droplets that may
become aerosolized when people sneeze, cough, or exhale

116) For a midwife to be considered accountable, the midwife should have:

Not Selected

1) The qualifications to be a carer

2) The ability to know what is right and wrong

3) Compassion, kindness and dignity

4) The ability, responsibility and authority for their acts or omissions

117) What does non-maleficence mean for a midwife?

Not Selected

1) Unavoidable harm must not be disproportionate to the benefits of treatment

2) Midwives have a duty to undertake actions at safeguarding the health of their patients.

3) The respect for the decision-making capabilities of a patient

4) Respecting a womans moral code

118) The Equality Act 2010 protects those receiving care from being treated unfairly because of
which characteristics?

Not Selected

1) Alcohol usage, personality, drug usage

2) Favourite colour, favourite food, favourite drink

3) City, sexual orientation, mother\'s name

4) Age, sex, religion

119) Which of these are forms of domestic abuse?

Not Selected

1) Coercive control

2) Not paying for food

3) Breaking up with their partner

4) Infidelity