457 CBT Updated
457 CBT Updated
457 CBT Updated
To protect your blister from becoming infected, a pharmacist can recommend a plaster or
dressing to cover it while it heals. A hydrocolloid dressing (a moist dressing) can protect
the blister, help reduce pain and speed up healing.
a. Fibrillation
b. Afibrillation
c. Flat asystole
d. Continuous fluctuation
The presence of P waves immediately before every QRS complex indicates sinus rhythm.
If there are no P waves, note whether the QRS complexes are wide or narrow, regular or
irregular.
During atrial fibrillation, the heart's upper chambers (the atria) beat chaotically and
irregularly — out of sync with the lower chambers (the ventricles) of the heart. For many
people, A-fib may have no symptoms. However, A-fib may cause a fast, pounding heartbeat
(palpitations), shortness of breath or weakness.
4. A patient with end-of-life care becomes unresponsive, the nurse asks the relative if the
patient filled a DNR form. What does she mean?
a. Furosemide
b. Paracetamol
c. Iron
6. When you don’t understand the accent of your patient, what will you do?
7. You are dressing the wound of a patient on a surgical ward and are required to do so using
the Aseptic Non-Touch Technique (ANTT). Which of the following is the definition of
“asepsis”?
8. How would you provide support for a 16-year-old patient to reduce anxiety during
physical examination?
9. As a nurse, you are treating a patient who had an asthma attack, how would you assess
If the medication is effective?
10. In a hypoglycemic patient, after giving oral glucose syrup, when will you check the
next General Random Blood Sugar (GRBS)?
a. Immediately
b. After 5-10 mins
c. After 15-20 mins
d. After 30 mins
a. Emphysema
b. COPD
c. Asthma
d. Smokers
13. How do you know the NGT is in place?
a. Check pH of aspirate
b. CT Scan
c. Xray
d. Introduce air
Abdominal X-Ray is the MOST RELIABLE method in testing the placement of the
enteral tube. Best way to verify enteral tube prior to feeding: Aspirate gastric content; pH
<5.5.
a. Patient first
b. Patient and relative together
c. Relative
a. Jaw thrust
b. Head tilt
c. Open mouth
d. Chin lift
The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to relieve upper airway obstruction by moving the tongue
anteriorly with the mandible, minimizing the tongue's ability to obstruct the airway.
Conclusions: The jaw thrust maneuver results in less motion at an unstable C1-C2 injury
as compared with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. We therefore recommend the use of the
jaw thrust to improve airway patency in the trauma patient with suspected cervical spine
injury.
16. A staff caring for an isolation patient, where you will keep the records?
17. What should the nurse check for a patient with a catheter in situ?
a. Infection
b. Bruising
c. Swelling
d. Redness
a. Lip reading
b. Actions
c. Sign language
d. Bacile
19. Who can complete the checklist for a full care assessment?
a. Trained professional
b. Consultant
c. Junior doctor
d. Relative
a. Before breakfast
b. At the same time everyday
c. After lunch
d. Before bedtime
a. Morphine
b. Midazolam
c. Codeine
d. Conjupram
a. Skin that turns red or dark when pressure is applied and returns back suddenly.
b. Skin that turns red or dark and returns back slowly.
c. Skin that turns white or pale when pressure is applied and returns back immediately.
d. Skin that turns white or pale when pressure is applied and returns back slowly.
23. A newly qualified nurse is not yet well versed when it comes to documentation. A
nurse in-charge noticed this was the case and went to report the new nurse to the nurse
manager. What could the newly qualified nurse have done in order to prevent this
incident?
a. Ignore the report and just continue with what she was doing.
b. She could have told the manager beforehand in order to have support and additional
training
c. Apologize that she was not able to inform her immediate head beforehand, ask for
policies of the hospital in relation to documentation.
25. After an audit round, the manager tells a nurse about the outcome and possible
development suggested by the team members. What action will the nurse take?
a. Accept and keep the report in a file for reference purpose.
b. Thank the manager and tell her that the suggested action will be looked into in due
course.
c. Plan how to meet with the manager to discuss the solution.
26. What is the first action a RN should take on a patient who is having a tonic-clonic
seizure?
29. What policy relating to dress is mandatory in all clinical areas in the hospital?
a. Bipolar disorder
b. Schizophrenia
c. Tonic-clonic seizure
d. Depression
31. A client is in the process of turning from male to female. When you want to educate a
client on catheterization as a nurse what will you do?
a. Dietician
b. Health care assistant
c. Nurse practitioner
d. Nurse
a. Birth to 1 year
b. Pregnant women
c. Dementia patients
The Abbey Pain Scale is an instrument designed to assist in the assessment of pain in
patients who are unable to clearly articulate their needs, for example, patients with
dementia, cognition or communication issues. The pain scale should be used as a
movement based assessment , therefore observing the patient while they are being moved,
during pressure area care, while showering etc. A second evaluation should be conducted
1 hour after any intervention taken.
a. Verbal only
b. Written or verbally only
c. Verbal, written or survey
a. Safeguard act
b. Health care act
c. Equity act
d. Equality act
39. When a patient is having a surgery to switch from male to female you need to teach self-
catheterization. What would you do?
40. Which one of these notifiable diseases needs to be reported on a national level?
a. Chicken pox
b. Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough
d. Influenza
List of notifiable diseases:
Acute encephalitis
Acute infectious hepatitis
Acute meningitis
Acute poliomyelitis
Anthrax
Botulism
Brucellosis
Cholera
COVID-19
Diphtheria
Enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever)
Food poisoning
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
Infectious bloody diarrhoea
Invasive group A streptococcal disease
Legionnaires’ disease
Leprosy
Malaria
Measles
Meningococcal septicaemia
Mumps
Plague
Rabies
Rubella
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
Scarlet fever
Smallpox
Tetanus
Tuberculosis
Typhus
Viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF)
Whooping cough
Yellow fever
Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) have a statutory duty to notify the ‘proper officer’
at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) of suspected cases of certain
infectious diseases.
Send the form to the proper officer within 3 days, or notify them verbally within 24 hours if
the case is urgent by phone, letter, encrypted email or secure fax machine.To the UK Health
Security Agency (UKHSA).
41. Management of moderate malnutrition in children:
a. Supplementary nutrition
b. Immediate hospitalization
c. Weekly assessment
d. Document intake for 3 days
42. How does a senior nurse manage the situation when a staff member informs her that
she is pregnant?
a. Hernia
b. MI
c. Stroke
d. Brain Stem Damage
A severe injury to the brain is the usual cause of decerebrate posture. Opisthotonos (a
severe muscle spasm of the neck and back) may occur in severe cases of decerebrate
posture. Decerebrate posture can occur on one side, on both sides, or in just the arms.
45. A patient’s elder sister who is a nurse and friend requested for the patient's result. What
will be your action?
46. One of the patients keeps on complaining regarding the care, what will you do?
47. There is a policy that urine should be measured every 2 hours. How would a nurse
manager evaluate compliance?
a. 0-10 mL/hr
b. 40-80 mL/hr
c. 20-30 mL/hr
d. 100-200 mL/hr
49. An obese patient with limited communication wants to lose weight, who should the nurse
involve?
a. Crystalloid glucose
b. Colloid glucose
c. Blood transfusion
d. Plasma
Crystalloid fluids are the first choice for fluid resuscitation in the presence of hypovolemia,
hemorrhage, sepsis, and dehydration.
While normal saline (0.9% NaCl solution) is the most frequently used crystalloid fluid,
many other formulations can provide improved clinical outcomes in specific patient
populations.
52. A new RN has problems with making assumptions. Which part of the code should she
focus to deliver fundamentals of care effectively?
a. Prioritize people
b. Practice effectively
c. Prioritize care
d. Promote safety
53. All of the following are part of palliative care or end-of-life care, except?
a. Giving medication
b. Feeding patient
c. Resuscitation
54. Patient has suicidal thoughts, low mood. When talking to the nurse patient is calm and
cooperative:
a. Low risk
b. Medium risk
c. High risk
a. 1000-1500 mL
b. 1500-2000 mL
c. 2000-2500 mL
d. 2500-3000 mL
56. ABCDE approach. Where does monitoring of urine output belong in that approach?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
57. Patient is having breathlessness. Patient is in end-of-life care. The nurse should:
a. Emergency department
b. General practitioner
c. Sexual Health Team/Clinic
d. Pharmacist
59. The patient brings his own medication to the hospital and wants to self-administer. What
is your role?
a. Allow him
b. Explain to patient about medication before he administers it
60. Whose responsibility when you see evidence of abuse in the community?
61. Patient has a learning disability, and you instruct him to take his medication. The nurse
should:
63. The nurse notices that the patient is violent. The nurse should:
a. Request for restraint
b. Inform the other patient
64. Nurse committed negligence which resulted in the near death of the patient. What
analysis causes this?
Root cause analysis (RCA) is a structured method used to analyze serious adverse events.
... A central tenet of RCA is to identify underlying problems that increase the likelihood of
errors while avoiding the trap of focusing on mistakes by individuals.
65. On resuming as a unit head and you notice you are short staffed. What type of escalation
will the head nurse use?
a. Prompt escalation
b. Swift escalation
c. Immediate escalation
d. Rapid escalation
66. What is the most accurate method to find out bleeding inside the brain?
a. CT Scan
b. MRI
c. Xray
d. USG
67. A confused patient relative requested for fitting bed rail as they have it in their house.
What will the nurse do?
a. White
b. Green
c. Black
a. Prone
b. Sitting up
c. Lying on one side
d. Lying flat
70. Cause of pediatric cardiac arrest:
a. Hypoxia
b. MI
c. Anaphylaxis
d. CHF
In pediatric patients, hypoxia and hypovolemia are the most common causes. The Ts
include Toxins, Tamponade (cardiac) Tension pneumothorax, Thromboembolic event, and
Trauma.
Hypoxia is a state in which oxygen is not available in sufficient amounts at the tissue level
to maintain adequate homeostasis; this can result from inadequate oxygen delivery to the
tissues either due to low blood supply or low oxygen content in the blood (hypoxemia).
a. Health equities
b. Health equalities
c. Health informatics
d. Health inequities
72. A patient with a temperature of 34.5C. You already gave the patient a warm blanket &
warm drinks, but the patient is still shivering. What will be your next action?
73. Patients husband that was waited several hours to see his wife and is shouting:
74. When a patient is being monitored in PACU, how frequently do you monitor his BP, PR,
RR and record?
a. Every 5 minutes
b. Every 15 minutes
c. Once an hour
d. Continuously
75. What will the RN do after they have gotten an NMC pin?
a. Endorsement
b. Induction
c. Orientation
d. Training
76. When assessing an unresponsive patient, what is the appropriate way to get a pain
response?
a. Sternal rub
b. Nail bed pressure
c. Pinching of the era
d. A trapezium squeeze
77. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia, what should NOT be
an indication to this type of patient?
Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing — taking more time and effort to move food or liquid
from your mouth to your stomach. Dysphagia can be painful. In some cases, swallowing
is impossible.
a. Whole blood
b. Albumin
c. Blood clotting factor
d. Antibodies
a. Awaiting carer
b. Awaiting physician
c. Awaiting medication
d. Awaiting assessment
81. A patient is on end-of-life care, he has severe pain, he doesn’t know how to use medical
device which is using for pain relief:
a. Instruct the patient that the pharmacist will come and explain
b. Give leaflet regarding the device
c. Explain about medical device and make the patient completely understand
a. Therapy service
b. Therapy classes
c. Therapeutic intervention
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
The standard ECG has 12 leads. Six of the leads are considered “limb leads” because they
are placed on the arms and/or legs of the individual. The other six leads are considered
“precordial leads” because they are placed on the torso (precordium).
The six limb leads are called lead I, II, III, aVL, aVR and aVF. The letter “a” stands for
“augmented,”
85. RN influence on health policy protects the quality of care by access to:
a. The nurse should create an opportunity and plan with the other nurses
b. Tell her it’s not good
c. Tell her she would need to contact the university for the actual plan
a. Cognitive disability
b. Women in labor
c. Children above 8
d. Children below 1
The Abbey Pain Scale is an instrument designed to assist in the assessment of pain in
patients who are unable to clearly articulate their needs, for example, patients with
dementia, cognition or communication issues.
88. A clinical need to examine a patient after spine surgery. What will you use to turn them?
90. A nursing agency sends a new nurse, while handing over the nurse says this is my first
job at the hospital. What will the nurse do?
91. The act of speaking out for people and relatives their decision called:
a. Disclosure
b. Confidentiality
c. Advocacy
d. Confrontation
a. 3
b. 3&4
c. 1, 2, 3 & 4
d. 4
93. When a nurse handover at the end of shift to a colleague. What must be provided?
94. A team leader implements a practice in an area of work. How do they demonstrate its
effectiveness?
a. Provide evidence of the improvement through regular audit and feedback to the team
and wider organizations.
b. Everyone knows that the change was necessary and that it needed to happen so no
evaluation needs to be made.
c. Once the change is embedded ask staff if they are happy with the change and if it has
made a difference.
d. The evidence from the research demonstrates the need for a change in practice.
95. When completing handwritten notes, which of the following represents best practice in
documentation?
96. What is the response of parents that confirms that the health education message
regarding dehydration has been effective?
a. The parents restrict fluid intake when the child has diarrhea.
b. The parents state they will observe the child for darkening urine and an increasing
respiratory rate.
c. Dehydration will not be an issue if the child is taking sips of water.
d. The parents state they would consider restlessness as an early sign of dehydration.
97. What nursing approach does a nurse take when working with people with learning
disabilities in planning for their personnel needs?
98. When a safeguarding incident is being disclosed what action does a nurse take?
99. What is the cause of action for the nurse if there is a spillage of hazardous
substances?
a. Use beach towels to absorb the spillage and dispose of this accordingly.
b. Contact the clinic supervisor for advice and to send someone to help.
c. Refer to the guidance on the control of substance hazardous to health regulations.
d. Cover displayed with sheets and keep the area clear of people.
A traditional nasal cannula can only effectively provide only up to 4 to 6 liters per minute
of supplemental oxygen.
CPAP machines are used to support patients in NHS hospitals or at home with breathing
difficulties. They work by pushing an air-oxygen mix into the mouth and nose at a
continuous rate, keeping airways open and increasing the amount of oxygen entering the
lungs. (15-25lpm)
101. A nurse was flushing an NG tube and noticed the patient was coughing a lot.
What should be the action of the nurse?
a. Sterilize it daily
b. Keep area dry
c. Use soap and water
d. Educate patient and family on the care
a. First contact
b. Second contact
c. Third contact
d. Fourth contact
104. How to take an infected sheet for washing according to the UK Standard?
a. It is a quality made by relationships based on empathy, respect and dignity. It can also
be described as intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
b. Defines us and our work. People receiving care expect it to be right for them,
consistently, throughout every stage of their life.
c. Means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s
health and social needs and the expertise, clinical and technical knowledge to deliver
effective care and treatments based on research and evidence.
d. Enables you to do the right thing for the people we care for, to speak up when we have
concerns and to have the personal strength and vision to innovate
106. A client is conducting research on 8 patients with complex needs. He wants to
know their views on the health care they receive. What type of research is conducted?
a. Patient questionnaire
b. Survey
c. Focus group
d. Qualitative research
A focus group is a collection of several individuals who all discuss a particular subject,
voicing and discussing their opinions and ideas on that subject.
108. Which of the following physical changes should a person taking oral
contraceptive should be educated on?
a. Weight gain
b. DVT
c. Amenorrhea
d. Increased bleeding
a. Africans
b. Latin Americans
c. Caucasians
Sickle cell disease is particularly common in people with an African or Caribbean family
background. People with sickle cell disease produce unusually shaped red blood cells that
can cause problems because they do not live as long as healthy blood cells and can block
blood vessels. It has become so widespread there because being a carrier offers a survival
advantage against malaria.
110. When do you gain consent from a patient and consider it valid?
111. You are carrying out wound dressing with a new product, what is your
intervention as a nurse?
a. Talk to the nurse after at the end of the shift about how to do wound care.
b. Do not remove the previous dressing and apply the new products over it
c. Refer to another practitioner for patient’s safety until you gain your competency and
skills.
d. Leave the dressing without doing it.
112. What method of long-time feeding is appropriate for a patient with difficulty
swallowing in a chronic condition?
a. Gastrostomy
b. Parenteral feeding
c. IV
d. NGT feeding
113. When a nursing team visits a patient at home, which working principle is used?
114. There is a policy that "do not suction" patient on Endotracheal tube in your place
of work. What should you do in an emergency when a patient needs suctioning?
a. Do it
b. Watch the patients closely and wait till the next morning.
c. Call the physiotherapist on call if there is an emergency as they are trained for it.
d. Wait for the physiotherapist till the next morning.
115. There is a prescription with dose but without number of giving, what should
you do?
a. Above 16
b. Above 18
c. Above 21
d. No consent needed
117. Which instrument is used to visualize the vocal cords during endotracheal
procedure?
a. Laryngoscope
b. Bougie
c. Endoscope
Laryngoscopy is a procedure a doctor uses to look at the larynx (voice box), including the
vocal cords, as well as nearby structures like the back of the throat.
Bougie - a thin, flexible surgical instrument for exploring or dilating a passage of the body.
a. NS
b. ND+ Potassium
c. 5% Dextrose
d. 25% D
a. Skin turgor
b. GCS
c. Capillary refill
120. How long is the Undergraduate/Pre-registration BSC Nursing Program for those
on a standard entry pathway?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 4 years
d. 3 years
a. Cephalic
b. Femoral
c. Popliteal
d. Jugular
122. Having knowledge and using it for the good of the patient is called?
a. Health literacy
b. Health knowledge
c. Health education
d. Health intellect
a. Under 18
b. Over 18
c. Pregnant women
d. Elderly
a. HIV
b. Cytotoxic medicines
c. Linens
a. Lapses in memory
b. Pacing movement
c. Language difficulty
130. If you’re not competent to transport a sample for investigation, what would you
do?
a. Take it anyway
b. Ask the senior to help you as you do not know
c. Inform you do not know and give it to someone else
132. The Francis Report was published based on a public inquiry into poor care at?
133. A patient complained about the treatment, what should the head nurse do?
a. Tell the nurse to be extra careful so such will not happen next time.
b. Investigate but do not implicate the nurse involved
c. Beg patient not to file an official complaint
d. Investigate and give a constructive and honest opinion.
A buccal medicine is a medicine given between the gums and the inner lining of the mouth
cheek. This area is called the buccal pouch. Medicine is usually given in the buccal area
when it is needed to take effect quickly or when the child is not conscious.
For sublingual administration, place the tablet under your tongue and wait until it
dissolves.
a. Continuously
b. At the end of the shift
c. When on annual leave
137. You receive the laboratory result of the patient, but she is still in the bathroom.
How will you deliver the result?
138. The patient was given different options of diagnostic tests and treatments.
The patient was given:
a. Informed consent
b. Informed choice
c. Informed care
Informed choice is when a person is given options to choose from several diagnostic tests
or treatments, knowing the details, benefits, risks and expected outcome of each. Informed
consent is when a person agrees to the test or treatment they have been offered, knowing
the details, benefits, risks and expected outcome.
139. Which one of the following is the advantage of multi-agency working offers when
protecting those at risk from abuse?
140. A patient is being prepared for surgery and was placed on NPO. What is the
purpose of NPO?
141. Most common serious injury affecting nurses, health care users and relatives
is?
142. A bed bound patient requested to see a care report card which is on the table
away from the bed. What is the nurse's response?
143. A patient was diagnosed with Rheumatoid Arthritis, they asked the nurse the
cause. The nurse response is:
a. Medication
b. Autoimmune disorder
c. Bacteria
d. Exercise and diet
a. Intravenous adrenaline
b. Oral antihistamine
c. Intramuscular adrenaline
d. Oral steroids
a. Red
b. Green
c. White
d. Brown
147. How can you manage decreased secretions in a patient in the end-of-life?
Hyoscine hydrobromide is taken to prevent travel sickness (motion sickness). It can also
be used to reduce the amount of saliva in your mouth. This can help with symptoms if
you're having palliative care or end of life care. Hyoscine hydrobromide comes as patches
and tablets that you suck, chew or swallow.)
148. What kind of medication should 2 nurses administer and monitor in the ward?
a. Nifedipine
b. Paracetamol
c. Morphine
d. NSAIDS
149. A patient disclosed some sensitive information to a nurse and asked the nurse
to keep it secret. As a nurse, what will you do?
B or D?
150. Scale 2 on the NEWS 2 chart is used for which patient group?
Be used to record and score the oxygen saturation for the NEWS
a. Underweight
b. Normal
c. Overweight
d. Obese
BMI
Below 18.5 Underweight
18.5—24.9 Normal
25.0—29.9 Overweight
30.0 and Above Obese
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Crohn's disease
c. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease
a. Elderly
b. Women
c. Men
d. Young people
154. When you collect, interpret, save and apply information for health purposes is it
called?
a. Learning
b. Health education
c. Health literacy
d. Information processing
Health literacy is the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and
understand basic health information needed to make appropriate health decisions. Low
health literacy is more prevalent among: Older adults.
Health education is a social science that draws from the biological, environmental,
psychological, physical and medical sciences to promote health and prevent disease,
disability and premature death through education-driven voluntary behavior change
activities.
a. Admission of patient
b. Counseling the patient
c. Serving controlled drug
156. When a nurse is giving information about the patient medication and the patient
responded that, “The information is not relevant”. What is your action as a nurse?
157. A patient refused the injection and asked the nurse, “What injection is this and it
might not be needed”. What should the nurse response?
a. Fan therapy
b. IV and cold drink
c. Removal of clothing
d. Showering
160. How can a new staff attain knowledge in the clinical area?
a. Preceptorship
b. Internship
c. Study time
d. Induction
A nurse preceptor is an experienced and competent nurse formally assigned to guide the
professional journey of a student, graduate nurse or new staff member joining a
workplace. Preceptors aim to ensure novice nurses become confident and competent
enough to deliver quality care.
Nursing internships are transitional programs for new graduates. The nurse intern works
under the direction of a preceptor who serves as a role model as well as a support person
and guide in clinical practice.
The Induction training program for nurses is specifically imparted to welcome them
commencing initial employment or to new nursing roles they are going to take up in the
hospital. It introduces the values and objectives of the organization so that staff feels like
part of the team as quickly as possible.
161. A nurse working in the children's ward wants to do vital signs for children and
notice a distressed child. What is the nurse's action?
a. Ignore the child and continue the vital sign for others
b. Attend to the distressed child and take them together to do their vital sign
c. Ask the attendant/assistant to do vitals while you attend to a distressed child.
d. Inform the head nurse about the distressed child and continue your vitals.
a. 36-38
b. 36.5-38.5
c. 34-36
d. 36-37.5
164. An Alzheimer patient who has fever due to UTI is experiencing shakiness. What
medicine should be given?
a. Co-careldopa (Sinemet)
b. Co-amoxiclav (Augmentin)
c. Co-codamol
d. Co-Q10
Co-careldopa is used to treat the main symptoms of Parkinson's disease. It can help with
shaking (tremors), slowness and stiffness. These are called "motor" symptoms because
they affect the way you move. Co-careldopa is a mixture of the medicines levodopa and
carbidopa.
Co-amoxiclav is a combination antibiotic used for bacterial infections. It contains
amoxicillin (an antibiotic from the penicillin group of medicines) mixed with clavulanic
acid. The clavulanic acid stops bacteria from breaking down amoxicillin, allowing the
antibiotic to work better.
It is used in adults and children to treat:
middle ear and sinus infections, throat or lung respiratory tract infections, urinary tract
infections, skin and soft tissue infections, dental infections, joint and bone infections.
Co-codamol is a mixture of 2 different painkillers – paracetamol and codeine. It's used to
treat aches and pains including headaches, muscular pain, migraines and toothache.
Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10) is an antioxidant that your body produces naturally. Your cells
use CoQ10 for growth and maintenance.
Levels of CoQ10 in your body decrease as you age. CoQ10 levels have also been found to
be lower in people with certain conditions, such as heart disease, and in those who take
cholesterol-lowering drugs called statins.
165. A patient presents with confusion, slurred speech, rash, difficulty in breathing
that is very fast. What is the likely condition?
a. Asthma
b. Sepsis
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Measles
Symptoms of Sepsis: Fast heart rate. Fever or hypothermia (very low body temperature)
Shaking or chills. Warm or clammy/sweaty skin. Confusion or disorientation.
Hyperventilation (rapid breathing) or shortness of breath.
Symptoms of Asthma: Shortness of breath. Chest tightness or pain. Wheezing when
exhaling, which is a common sign of asthma in children. Trouble sleeping caused by
shortness of breath, coughing or wheezing. Coughing or wheezing attacks that are
worsened by a respiratory virus, such as a cold or the flu.
Symptoms of Anaphylaxis: Skin reactions, including hives and itching and flushed or pale
skin. Low blood pressure (hypotension) Constriction of the airways and a swollen tongue
or throat, which can cause wheezing and trouble breathing. A weak and rapid pulse.
Nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. Dizziness or fainting.
a. Asian
b. African
c. Caucasian
d. Latin
The average age of persons with hemophilia in the United States is 23.5 years. Compared
to the distribution of race and ethnicity in the U.S. population, white race is more common,
Hispanic ethnicity is equally common, while black race and Asian ancestry are less
common among persons with hemophilia.
Hemophilia A mostly affects males but females can also be affected. Approximately 1 in
5,000 newborn males have hemophilia A. Approximately 60% of individuals with
hemophilia A have a severe form of the disorder.
Hemophilia is usually an inherited bleeding disorder in which the blood doesn't clot
properly. This can lead to spontaneous bleeding as well as bleeding following injuries or
surgery. Blood contains many proteins called clotting factors that can help to stop
bleeding.
167. A patient is on 4 hourly observations. A nurse notices that observations have not
been done for 12 hours. What action does the nurse take?
a. Check the observations and report the issue to the ward manager.
b. The observations were normal, so no action is needed
c. Speak to those who were on duty when the observations were missed and tell her not
to do it.
d. Report the issue to the ward manager and complete an incident form.
168. What factors to consider ensuring safe staffing?
a. Ethnicity
b. Age group
c. Skill mix
d. Contracted hours
a. People below 16
b. Illiterate people
c. Poor nutrition
170. When removing a closed system vacuum wound drain, what should the nurse
consider?
a. BLS
b. Clinical governance training
c. Record keeping training
d. IV training
172. A pediatric patient with learning disabilities presents with smooth philtrum,
low body weight, hyperactivity and poor concentration. What is the cause of these
symptoms?
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition in a child that results from alcohol exposure during
the mother's pregnancy. Fetal alcohol syndrome causes brain damage and growth
problems. The problems caused by fetal alcohol syndrome vary from child to child, but
defects caused by fetal alcohol syndrome are not reversible. Physical defects may include:
Distinctive facial features, including small eyes, an exceptionally thin upper lip, a short,
upturned nose, and a smooth skin surface between the nose and upper lip. Deformities of
joints, limbs and fingers. Slow physical growth before and after birth. Vision difficulties or
hearing problems. Small head circumference and brain size. Heart defects and problems
with kidneys and bones. Brain and central nervous system problems.
Problems with the brain and central nervous system may include: Poor coordination or
balance. Intellectual disability, learning disorders and delayed development. Poor
memory. Trouble with attention and with processing information. Difficulty with reasoning
and problem-solving. Difficulty identifying consequences of choices. Poor judgment skills.
Jitteriness or hyperactivity. Rapidly changing moods. Social and behavioral issues.
Problems in functioning, coping and interacting with others may include: Difficulty in
school. Trouble getting along with others. Poor social skills. Trouble adapting to change
or switching from one task to another. Problems with behavior and impulse control. Poor
concept of time. Problems staying on task. Difficulty planning or working toward a goal.
173. Which of the following is an acceptable way of moving a patient from a bed to a
trolley?
a. A bear hugs
b. An Australian lift
c. Completing a risk assessment
d. Canvas and poles
174. Mr. Bill is a known diabetic patient who has had an injury for one week and is
not healing. What is your role as a nurse?
175. An elderly frail patient is due to be discharged home the patient says that they
live alone but their notes say they live with their family they do not manage alone. What
action does a nurse take?
First-line treatment for acute asthma is an inhaled short-acting beta2 agonist (such as
salbutamol) given as soon as possible.
177. A protractor is mentoring a new nurse in the ward and a consultant comes in from
rounds. What is the best action to be taken by the protractor?
a. Let the nurse do the rounds with the consultant as this is the best way to learn
b. Do the rounds with the consultant and leave the new nurse in the duty room as she
knew
c. Volunteer to do the rounds with the consultant and new nurse
d. Tell the consultant to come back later
178. A patient with dementia who fell twice and lives with her husband wants to be
discharged back home. What measures should the patient take?
179. A patient is returning home from the hospital. They will spend several weeks in a
residential facility, followed by community support. In order to ensure a positive process,
what action does a nurse take?
a. Allow the patient to arrange any community service to allow them to be independent
b. Give discharge information to the care facility who will liaise with others
c. Copy all agencies into the discharge plan correspondence
d. Ask the patient to contact their general practitioner to follow up on services needed
a. Chiropodist/Podiatrist
b. HCA
c. Tissue viability nurse
d. Diabetic nurse
Podiatrists are healthcare professionals who have been trained to diagnose and treat
abnormal conditions of the feet and lower limbs. They also prevent and correct deformity,
keep people mobile and active, relieve pain and treat infection.
a. Timorous, halting speech with contributions that are vague and unclear
b. Dominating discussion with a raised voice and being correctly threatening
c. Seeking workable compromise
d. Using in congruent verbal and nonverbal messages
Assertive communication is direct and respectful. Being assertive gives you the best
chance of successfully delivering your message. If you communicate in a way that's too
passive or too aggressive, your message may get lost because people are too busy
reacting to your delivery.
a. Depression
b. Loss of inhibitions
c. Physical discomfort
d. Hallucinating
Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health illness that can affect someone soon
after having a baby. It affects around 1 in 500 mothers after giving birth.
Symptoms can include:
● hallucinations - hearing, seeing, smelling or feeling things that are not there
● delusions – thoughts or beliefs that are unlikely to be true
● a manic mood – talking and thinking too much or too quickly, feeling "high" or "on
top of the world"
● a low mood – showing signs of depression, being withdrawn or tearful, lacking
energy, having a loss of appetite, anxiety, agitation or trouble sleeping
● sometimes a mixture of both a manic mood and a low mood - or rapidly changing
moods
● loss of inhibitions
● feeling suspicious or fearful
● restlessness
● feeling very confused
● behaving in a way that's out of character
a. Report and reflect on the case to contribute to debriefing and ongoing learning.
b. Undertake a literature review
c. Focus on reflection-in-action
d. Report the incident to the Care Quality Commission
a. Overweight
b. Underweight
c. Obese
d. Normal weight
BMI
Below 18.5 Underweight
18.5—24.9 Normal
25.0—29.9 Overweight
30.0 and Above Obese
185. A patient visited the A&E department. How will you inform the patient’s GP after
discharge?
186. Before proceeding to explain the care plan to the patient. What should a nurse
ensure?
187. A doctor called 8 patients with dementia to get information for his project. What
type of research study is this?
a. Focus group
b. Group discussion
c. Quantitative research
188. Patient came to the hospital and was diagnosed with otitis media. As per NICE
Score 2 and given analgesics. Patient complained that he didn't receive any antibiotics.
What is the next step?
189. How can the community provide support to a person with mental illness?
190. A mentally stable patient is requesting to participate in the kitchen and this act
is approved as part of his care, what will you do as a nurse?
192. A patient visited the clinic and said he’s an alcoholic. What will the nurse advise
to the patient to prevent ill-effects of alcohol?
193. The doctor ordered a patient to be weighed so as to calculate his drug but the
patient refused. What will be your next action?
194. A nurse reported to the head nurse about a colleague bullying her. What should
the head nurse do?
195. The doctor is busy with his assessments and asks the nurse to insert IV cannula
to a patient. What would be the nurse's best response?
196. The NHS funds to recruit more phlebotomists, what should be done?
197. Garbo had alcohol intoxication and her mother is worried about his health. What
should the nurse do?
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. HIV
d. Chlamydia
a. 15%
b. 28%
c. 20%/21%
d. 10%
201. What is the purpose of using PPE?
202. A patient requires financial education. What does the nurse should be
knowledgeable of?
a. Genomics
b. Knowledge in Health Economics
c. Knowledge in Anatomy
d. Knowledge in Children’s Health
203. The patient is hesitant to share about their sexual health. What should the nurse
do?
204. The patient is recovering from a stroke and the nurse encouraged him to join the
group, but the patient refused. What should you do as a nurse?
205. The patient is for surgery but the nurse suspects that consent is not valid because
the patient does not have the mental capacity. What act..?
a. Care Act
b. Equality Act
c. Mental Health Act
d. Health and Safety at Work Act
206. A patient with stress, anxiety and sleeplessness. Who will he visit?
a. A 111 service
b. A walk-in center
c. A general practitioner
d. Emergency department
a. Thermometer
b. Sphygmomanometer
208. When do you start to monitor the patient who is receiving BT?
a. 60 mins
b. 30 min
c. 15 min
d. 45 mins
a. Smoking
b. Eating habits
211. The nurse cares for an elderly patient with moderate hearing loss. The nurse
should teach the patient’s family to use which of the following approaches when
speaking to the patient?
212. What does a nurse observe when assessing the respiration of a patient with
breathing difficulties?
a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Sodium
d. Potassium
Extracellular fluid (ECF) volume is determined by the balance between sodium intake and
renal excretion of sodium.
215. Signs and symptoms of early fluid volume deficit, except:
Decreased blood pressure with an elevated heart rate and a weak or thready pulse are
hallmark signs of fluid volume deficit. Systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg in
adults, unless other parameters are provided, should be reported to the health care
provider.
a. BP
b. Respiration
c. Skin perfusion
d. Consciousness
Monitor patients closely for respiratory depression, especially within the first 24-72 hours
of initiating therapy with and following dosage increases of Morphine Sulfate Injection.
220. How many CPD hours an RN must they have over 3 years?
a. 25 hours
b. 35 hours
c. 45 hours
d. 15 hours
You need to; Complete minimum of 35 hours' compulsory CPD each year of which at least
21 hours must be structured CPD. 35 hours is the minimum required. In practice the figure
may exceed this as the actual requirement will be determined by an individual's
development needs in any 12-month period.
221. You observe the HCA that he toilets the patient in a commode in the lounge.
When confronted the HCA said that the patient is used to it since the mother does at home.
What should the nurse do?
222. Working together to achieve the best interest for people is a collaborative effort
among:
a. Doctors
b. Agencies
c. Professionals
The formula is BMI = kg/m2 where kg is a person's weight in kilograms and m2 is their
height in metres squared.
226. You notice that while waiting for surgery the patient is anxious. What is the nurse’
best response?
a. Provide leaflet for the patient to read and answer questions to alleviate anxiety
b. Refer to senior nurse
c. Tell the doctor the patient is anxious
d. Explain the procedure and ensure the patient understands the surgery well to ease
anxiety
227. What should the management provide for the nurse whose child died?
a. Vacation leave
b. Sick leave
c. Debriefing
228. The patient’s surgery at 8 am is postponed until afternoon. What should the
nurse’s best response be?
229. You notice that the patient has difficulty understanding the explanation of the
doctor about his surgery. What should the nurse do?
230. BMI of the patient is 32 and was not given advice on a diet. What is the nurses
best intervention?
231. HCA and the nurse need to transfer a patient to another bed. However, the
nurse looked for a slide board in another room yet didn’t find one. The nurse asks the HCA
that they look in another station when the nurse comes back and the patient has already
been transferred. What should the nurse do?
a. I am worthless
b. I am obese
c. My father died that’s why I am into reading books
233. An art loving patient does not communicate verbally with the team which
communication means is appropriate for him?
a. Emails
b. Written communication
c. Visual art therapy
d. Writing a letter
a. 18
b. 16
c. 21
236. The mother of a patient gives the nurse money. What should the nurse do?
Symptoms of Sepsis: Fast heart rate. Fever or hypothermia (very low body temperature)
Shaking or chills. Warm or clammy/sweaty skin. Confusion or disorientation.
Hyperventilation (rapid breathing) or shortness of breath. Other common symptoms
include:
Peeing less than usual
Fast heartbeat
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhea
Fatigue or weakness
Blotchy or discolored skin
Severe pain
238. First line drug for patient experiencing pyrexia with body malaise:
a. Paracetamol
b. NSAIDs
239. The patient asked to see the nurse as a friend after the last clinical…. What
should the nurse do?
241. The MP (Member of Parliament) visits your hospital, what will the nurse ask
the MP to address the concern on nurse staffing level?
242. You observe a nurse doing sterile dressing and drop the old dressing in the sterile
pack and continue the procedure. What will you do?
a. Inform your senior and tell the nurse to stop the procedure
b. Tell the nurse to stop and get a dressing pack and start the procedure all over
c. Leave her since it didn’t take much time
d. Tell her to change the dressing pack and then continue
243. A nurse dropped tweezers on a patient 's bed during dressing in front of a
student, what will the nurse do?
a. Tell the student about the error and tell to get another set of tweezers and continue
b. Ignore the situation because it will not give a big affection to
c. You should tell the student to pick it up and put it at the bottom of the trolley
d. Tell the student to stop and get a new dressing pack
a. 0.1
b. 0.3
c. 0.5
d. 0.7
245. First line management for patient with Pulmonary Edema caused by Chronic
Heart Failure:
a. Antibiotics
b. Diuretics
c. Chest drainage
d. Analgesic
246. The NHS Long Term Care Plan (2019) focuses on the key area:
247. What are the nursing priorities when helping in an emergency in a practice
setting?
248. When a patient is discharged from an acute setting. How is the GP informed
about their inpatient care?
249. An unstable diabetic type 1 patient following a big toe amputation is discharged.
What is the main safety priority?
250. A unit supports nursing students, how does a RN ensure that the students are
competent to carry out tasks that are delegated to them?
252. How many days after death is patient in Muslim faith buried?
a. 4 days post death
b. 1 day post death
c. 1 week post death
d. 10 days post death
253. What is the color of the syringe used to give medications via NGT?
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Purple
d. Clear
Enteral syringes are currently purple in colour and clearly labelled “for oral/enteral use” to
distinguish them from IV syringes.
a. Physical abuse
b. Financial abuse
c. Emotional
d. Modern day slavery
256. Patient feels pain and is given paracetamol. The nurse knows paracetamol can
be given with what medication?
a. Morphine
b. Co-codamol
c. Pethidine
d. Tramadol
257. You are supervising a student in a medication round when the student forgot to
ask the patient’s name. What should the nurse do?
a. Asks the student to stop the medication and silently tell the correct procedure
b. Take over and point out the students mistake after the rounds
c. Report the student…
a. 10.5-12.5
b. 12.5-14.5
c. 15.0-20.0
d. 20.0-25.0
For men the normal haemoglobin reference range is between 130–180 g/L and for females
the normal reference range is 120–160 g/L.
262. Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter (PICC) tip is usually located in which
part?
The current standard for PICC tip position is the lower one-third of the superior vena cava
(SVC) at the caval–atrial junction (CAJ)
A nurse will run a cotton bud (swab) over your skin so it can be checked for MRSA. Swabs
may be taken from several places, such as your nose, throat, armpits, groin or any
damaged skin. This is painless and only takes a few seconds. The results will be available
within a few days
MRSA is a type of bacteria that's resistant to several widely used antibiotics. This means
infections with MRSA can be harder to treat than other bacterial infections.
The full name of MRSA is methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. You might have
heard it called a "superbug".
265. When treating an adult patient with mental illness. What should you have in mind?
a. An adult patient has the same risk of physical illness as the one without mental illness
b. Risk is higher in patients with mental health disorders than adults without mental illness
c. Risk is lower in patients with mental health disorders than adults without mental illness
a. PTSD
b. Children
c. Dementia
Reminiscence therapy is a treatment that uses all the senses — sight, touch, taste, smell
and sound — to help individuals with dementia remember events, people and places from
their past lives. As part of the therapy, care partners may use objects in various activities
to help individuals with recall of memories.
a. Smallpox
b. Ebola
c. Flu
a. Increased ICP
b. Seizure
c. Decreased ICP
269. A patient with COPD retaining CO2, what is the target oxygen concentration?
a. 92-96
b. 98-100
c. 82-88
d. 88-92
For most COPD patients, a target saturation range of 88%–92% will avoid the risks of
hypoxia and hypercapnia. Some patients with previous episodes of respiratory acidosis
may require an "oxygen alert card" with a lower (personalized) target saturation range.
270. What is the most appropriate route for giving fluids at the end of life?
a. Subcutaneous
b. Oral
c. IV
The procedure is relatively simple and involves inserting a butterfly needle into the
subcutaneous layer of skin, where an extensive network of lymphatic and blood vessels
allows the fluids to be readily absorbed (Mei and Auerhahn, 2009). This is the route most
commonly used in palliative and end-of-life care settings.
a. Antibiotics
b. Diuretic
c. Catheterization
d. Fluid replacement
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 15
Paediatricians are doctors who manage medical conditions affecting infants, children and
young people. Paediatrics can be divided into 4 main areas: general paediatrics - a hospital
role covering children from birth to the age of 16.
274. What is the ratio of a patient to a nurse in an ICU with a mechanical ventilator?
a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 1:6
275. Among the following, which is not likely to give the day after the pill?
a. Pharmacy
b. Emergency Department
c. Sex clinic
d. General Practitioner
276. Who should NOT be directly involved in the care of patient who is likely suicidal?
a. Parents
b. Child’s friend
c. Social care
d. Child mental council
277. When communicating with a partially deaf patient, which of these is appropriate?
a. Speak loudly
b. Speak normally
c. Lower your voice
278. An MP from a parliament wants to discuss with a nurse about nursing shifts in a
hospital, what should you do?
a. Pharmacist
b. RN
c. School nurse
d. Physiotherapist
a. 30:2
b. 15:2
c. 30:1
a. Achievement
b. Success
c. Inconsistency
d. Failure
282. In the last days and hours of a patient, any important discussions about the
relative and family, complete the sentence.
284. A male patient has mild incontinence and pain passing urine, a urine test was
ordered. What else should be done?
a. Sexual screening/Referral
b. Bladder scan
c. Blood tests
285. How many tetanus vaccination doses does a person need to develop
immunity?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A full course of tetanus vaccination consists of 5 doses of the vaccine. This should be
enough to give you long-term protection from tetanus. But if you're not sure how many
doses you have received, you may need a booster dose after an injury that breaks your
skin.
a. Leadership
b. Governance
c. Education
d. Research
287. What type of oxygen does a patient with cardiac arrest need?
a. Medic
b. Chief nurse
c. Senior nurse
289. A newly admitted client told you that he wishes to stop smoking & sought advice
for the same. What will you do?
a. Talk patient about possible measures for smoking cessation
b. Refer him to GP
c. Introduce him to your colleague who stopped smoking
d. Instruct him to read something regarding smoking cessation
290. You are to take consent from a new patient in the A&E unit for physical
examination, but you are in doubt about the ability of the patient to give consent.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Only patients with mental health needs are regarded as incompetent to give consent
b. All patients are assumed to have the ability to give consent until they are established
to be having mental health challenges
c. All patients should be assessed for competency by a senior practitioner during the
admission assessment
291. An adult patient in our care has a temperature reading of 37.5 C. What is the
interpretation of the finding?
a. Physician
b. Neurology specialist team
c. Mental health specialist
293. A child tells you that she is being abused by her grandfather but tells you to
keep it a secret. What is the best response?
a. 1.2 mL
b. 1.4 mL
c. 1.5 mL
d. 1.7 mL
296. How many breaths are given to a patient who has been in the incident of
drowning?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
Give five rescue breaths: tilt their head back, sealing your mouth over their mouth. Pinch
their nose and blow into their mouth. Repeat this five times. Give 30 chest compressions.
a. Depression
b. Sadness
c. Anger
d. Illness
298. Which team should be contacted while making a discharge plan for a patient that
requires a complex discharge plan?
299. You committed a medication error in your shift, what action will you do?
a. Report the incidence to the charge nurse, observe the patient, summon the patient’s
physician, and be prepared to apologize to the patient
b. Tell your colleague and not any other person
c. You don’t need to tell anybody, only observe for any adverse reaction in the patient
300. For a patient with suicidal thoughts, what important questions would you ask?
a. Occupation
b. Marital status
c. Pets
d. Children
a. Orally
b. Nasogastric
c. Parenterally
d. Subcutaneously
The procedure is relatively simple and involves inserting a butterfly needle into the
subcutaneous layer of skin, where an extensive network of lymphatic and blood vessels
allows the fluids to be readily absorbed (Mei and Auerhahn, 2009). This is the route most
commonly used in palliative and end-of-life care settings.
302. A patient has anaphylaxis, what triage call room would he be in?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
303. A patient with delirium at the end stage of life. What to do?
304. If a patient has some bias and is not corrected and leads to what?
a. Hospital risk
b. Health inequality
c. Health economics
a. 8
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
The guidance for NEWS2 states: We recommend that new confusion scores 3 on the NEWS
chart, ie a red score for a single score of 3, indicating that the patient requires urgent
assessment.
a. DM 1
b. DM 2
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Hypothyroidism
307. Recognizing and reporting any situations, behaviors or errors resulting in poor
patient care outcomes?
a. Principle of care
b. Principle of profession
c. Principle of candour
d. Principle of courage
The professional duty of candour:
Every healthcare professional must be open and honest with patients when something that
goes wrong with their treatment or care causes, or has the potential to cause, harm or
distress. This means that healthcare professionals must:
● tell the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family) when
something has gone wrong
● apologise to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or
family)
● offer an appropriate remedy or support to put matters right (if possible)
● explain fully to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or
family) the short and long term effects of what has happened.
309. A patient with a learning disability is angry with you when providing care.
What will be your action?
a. No escalation required
b. 2 hourly observations
c. Immediate escalation to a senior clinician
d. 4 hourly observation
a. Fecal impaction
b. Pain in the rectum
c. Diarrhea
d. Mild constipation
a. 6.5-9.5 mmol
b. 7.9-9.8 mmol
c. 4.0-7.8 mmol
d. 5.0-9 mmol
a. Economics
b. Safety
c. Technology
d. Risk
316. Most common emotion that a person given a terminal diagnosis will feel:
a. Anger
b. Denial
c. Guilt
d. Joy
a. Watching videos
b. Listening to music
c. Read books
d. Tickling the child
a. Weight gain
b. Weight loss, blurred vision
c. Ketones in urine, polydipsia and polyuria
319. When a patient is at high risk for suicide within what time the mental health
professional should attend him?
a. Immediately
b. Within 24 hours
c. Within 48 hours
320. A nurse has been diagnosed with chickenpox and has been advised not to attend
the planned study day. Why is this advice given?
321. A young person with complex needs is being transferred to the adolescent unit
which is a considerable distance from his relative. The patient is unhappy about this
transfer. What should the nurse do?
a. Tell the family to respect the skills and expertise of the doctors who have planned the
transfer to meet patient’s needs
b. The person requires complex care which can only be provided in a distant specialist
need
c. Nurse should raise the complaints and issues in the next team meeting
d. Report and document preferences regarding the transfer promptly and provide an
explanation
a. Out of school at 16
b. Homeless people
c. Jobless people
d. Sick people
The 5 Moments:
Moment 1 - before touching a patient.
Moment 2 - before a procedure.
Moment 3 - after a procedure or body fluid exposure risk.
Moment 4 - after touching a patient.
Moment 5 - after touching a patient's surroundings.
325. How will the nurse assess the quality of care given to the patient through which
of the following?
a. Reflective process
b. Clinical benchmarking
c. Peer and patient response
d. All of the above
a. Xray
b. MRI
c. CT Scan
327. A patient has a NEWS score of 5, what action is appropriate?
a. Transfer to ICU
b. Physician review
c. Increase observation
329. You noticed that a nurse forgot an entry to a patient’s chart, and you are about
to handover, what will be your best action?
a. Leave a space for the nurse to write her entry on her shift
b. Ask one staff in the nurse’s same group to do the entry
c. Fill out the entry and do make sure to finish it promptly/timely manner
d. Continue the handover omitting the missed entry
330. A person calls and only wants to be cared for by a female nurse, what should
be your most appropriate response?
331. The nurse is preparing to change the TPN solution bag and tubing. The patient’s
central venous line is located in the right subclavian vein. The nurse asks the client to take
which essential action during the tubing change?
332. What to do if you noticed your patient developed allergic reactions to the drug?
333. The patient feels down, anxious and reported to have sleeplessness. Whom
will the patient seek first?
a. A walk-in center
b. General Practitioner
c. 111 service
d. Emergency unit
334. Which nursing delivery model is based on a production and efficiency model and
stresses a task-oriented approach?
a. Case management
b. Primary nursing
c. Differentiated practice
d. Function method
335. You’re to go change a patient's dressing at home, what will you do?
a. Request the patient clean the area, remove pets, close windows
b. Request the patient clean the area before the nurse arrives and remove their own
dressings
c. Clean surfaces with alcohol-based wipes, open the window decontaminate the
patient’s hands
d. Remove pet, close windows, clean surfaces with alcohol-based wipes
a. Gender
b. Age
c. Skill mix
d. Contract hours
a. Testosterone
b. Aldosterone
c. Androgen
d. Methyltestosterone
a. 8
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
339. A patient is returning home from the hospital. They will spend several weeks in a
residential facility, followed by community support. To ensure a positive process, what
action does a nurse take?
a. Allow the patient to arrange any community service to allow them to be independent
b. Give discharge information to the care facility who will liaise with others
c. Copy all agencies into the discharge plan correspondence
d. Ask the patient to contact their general practitioner to follow up on services needed
340. She reads about the Path Goal Theory. Which of the following behaviors is
manifested by the leader who uses this theory?
342. How many times more likely is an obese child more likely to get diabetes?
a. 2x
b. 3x
c. 4x
d. 5x
343. How many practice hours is required for a RN nurse for revalidation?
a. 350
b. 400
c. 450
d. 500
Revalidation is the process that all nurses and midwives in the UK and nursing associates
in England need to follow to maintain their registration with the NMC.
To help you continually develop and reflect on your practice, we ask you to revalidate
every three years.
This process encourages you to reflect on the role of the Code in your practice and
demonstrate that you are 'living' the standards set out within it.
Requirements:
● 450 practice hours, or 900 hours if renewing two registrations (for example, as both
a nurse and midwife)
● 35 hours of CPD including 20 hours of participatory learning
● Five pieces of practice-related feedback
● Five written reflective accounts
● Reflective discussion
● Health and character declaration
● Professional indemnity arrangement
● Confirmation
344. How does a RN ensure that the students are competent to carry out tasks that
are delegated to them?
345. One of your health care assistants came to you saying that she could not
continue with her work rounds due to a bad back. What will you do first?
347. A nurse who is working in an outpatient observes that a lot of similar information
is given to the patient verbally on a daily basis. How can this be minimized?
348. A patient with a learning disability trips over and needs to go to an accident and
emergency department for an examination they become distressed by the noisy waiting
room by the EQUALITY Act (2010). What do the staff offer the patient?
The Act makes it unlawful to discriminate against someone on the grounds of any of these
characteristics: age, disability, gender reassignment, marriage or civil partnership,
pregnancy and maternity, race, religion/belief, sex (gender) and sexual orientation. These
are often referred to as protected characteristics. (Protects you from discrimination)
349. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which the instrument measures
what it is supposed to measure?
a. Sensitivity
b. Meaning fullness
c. Reliability
d. Validity
350. When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what
type of standards?
a. Criteria
b. Outcome
c. Process
351. She knows that performance appraisal consists of the following activities,
EXCEPT?
352. A client elects to have epidural anesthesia to relieve the discomfort of labor.
Following the initiation of epidural anesthesia, what should the nurse give priority?
A baseline determination of maternal blood pressure, pulse, and fetal heart rate should be
made prior to inserting the epidural catheter. Continuous fetal monitoring is essential to
determine any fetal distress which may result from anesthesia-induced hypotension.
Neutropenia is a condition where your blood has low amounts of white blood cells called
neutrophils. These cells are responsible for fighting infections. When your neutrophil
count is extremely low, you have a high risk of getting an infection that your body can't
fight.
If you've been diagnosed with neutropenia, call your doctor right away if you develop
signs of an infection, which may include: Fever above 100.4 degrees F (38 degrees C) Chills
and sweats. A new or worsening cough.
Neutropenia often occurs between 7 and 12 days after you receive chemotherapy. This
period can be different depending upon the chemotherapy you get. Your doctor or nurse
will let you know exactly when your white blood cell count is likely to be at its lowest.
355. Mr. X responded well to his NGT feeding and will continue for 3 more days at a
constant rate of 80 mL/hr until the next review by the dietician. Evidence-based practice
suggests that to keep its potency, flushing is needed to be done:
a. Every 8 hours
b. Every 12 hours
c. Every 24 hours
d. Only as required
e. Every 4 hours
At a minimum you should flush the NG tube after every feed and after giving medication,
using 5-20mL of water depending on your child's age or as recommended by your health
professional. If feeding and medications are less frequent the tube should be flushed every
4 hours.
a. Asystole
a. Domestic services
b. Community services
c. …Trust
d. Acute trust
359. How many bandages are used for venous ulcers?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Four-layer bandaging is the standard treatment for venous leg ulcers but is bulky and can
restrict mobility.
360. A patient with hypothyroidism is having pain 6 on 1-10 scale in the right hip due
to recent surgery. Which of the following medications is appropriate for this patient?
a. Fentanyl
b. Tylenol
c. Morphine
d. Dilaudid
a. Hepatitis
b. Hemolytic Disorders
c. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
d. Sickle cell
a. Hypotension
b. Rapid respiratory rate
c. Hypoxia
d. Increased UO
Compensated shock is the phase of shock in which the body is still able to compensate
for absolute or relative fluid loss. During this phase the patient is still able to maintain an
adequate blood pressure as well as brain perfusion because the sympathetic nervous
system increases the heart and respiratory rates and shunts blood to the core of the body
through vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and microcirculation, the precapillary
sphincters constrict and decrease blood flow to areas to areas of the body with a high
tolerance for decreases in perfusion, e.g. the skin. This process actually increases the
blood pressure initially because there is less room within the circulatory system. The signs
and symptoms of compensated shock include:
a. Face to face
b. Letter
c. Email
d. Phone
366. What are the nursing priorities when helping in an emergency in a practice
setting?
a. Smart confidence
b. Creative commitment
c. Intelligent kindness
d. Gifted courage
369. A new nurse did not take the BP correctly, as a nurse in charge what would you
do?
a. Immediately tell the nurse that it is not correct in front of the patient
b. Inform the nurse afterward and teach her how to do it in the correct way
c. Recheck the BP once she is done and change the records
a. Artery
b. Vein
c. Bone marrow
a. Palpation
b. Auscultation
c. Percussion
d. Inspection
Assessing your patient's abdomen can provide critical information about his internal
organs. Always follow this sequence: inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation.
Changing the order of these assessment techniques could alter the frequency of bowel
sounds and make your findings less accurate.
372. An independent client has frequent tonic-clonic seizure. What can you do to
maintain her dignity?
374. What is it called when you disclose a medication error to a patient and their
relatives?
a. Duty of candour
b. Disclosure
c. Raise of concern
d. Escalation
Duty of candour:
Every healthcare professional must be open and honest with patients when something that
goes wrong with their treatment or care causes, or has the potential to cause, harm or
distress.
Healthcare professionals must also be open and honest with their colleagues, employers
and relevant organisations, and take part in reviews and investigations when requested.
375. A patient cannot sleep at night due to dental pain, as a nurse what will be your
advice?
376. What method is it when you combine quantitative and qualitative methods?
a. Double method
b. Mixed method
c. Double scoping
d. Mixed scoping
378. The patient is on a wheelchair, in what position will the nurse put herself when
speaking with the patient?
379. You witnessed somebody choking, the person is still conscious and still able to
cough what you will do?
The National Reporting and Learning System (NRLS) is a central database of patient safety
incident reports. Since the NRLS was set up in 2003, the culture of reporting incidents to
improve safety in healthcare has developed substantially.
382. You’re about to provide negative feedback to a student. Where is the best
place to give it?
383. A patient had an arterial bleeding in her arm in home care, what would you do?
a. Apply pressure and raise her arm while help in on the way
384. You noticed a health care professional did not wash his hands before handling
the patient, what will you do?
a. Ignore because he is a doctor as you cannot tell him because you are just a nurse
b. Politely remind him he did not wash hands after he has seen patient and are alone
c. Politely remind him he did not wash hands in front of patients and other healthcare
professionals
a. Sexual abuse
b. Financial abuse
c. Neglect
d. Self-harm
a. Self-care Deficit
a. 90-degree
b. 45-degree
c. 60-degree
d. 80-degree
Insulin shots should go into a fatty layer of your skin (called “subcutaneous” or “SC”
tissue). Put the needle straight in at a 90-degree angle. You do not have to pinch up the
skin unless you are using a longer needle (6.8 to 12.7 mm). Small children or very thin
adults may need to inject at a 45-degree angle.
a. 90-degree
b. 45-degree
c. 60-degree
d. 80-degree
392. Pandemic:
393. 6 C’s:
a. Stop the patient to take their medicine and consult with the team members
b. Allow the patient to drink the medication then consult with the team members
a. Deltoid
397. You used the machine in taking the blood pressure of the pt. The result is BP-
60/30 mmHg, and the patient is conscious and coherent. What will you do next?
FGM is practiced in 31 countries in Africa, the Middle East, and Asia. It's most prevalent in
Djibouti, Egypt, Guinea, and Mali, where 90% or more of women aged 15 to 49 have been
subjected to FGM.
a. Disulfiram (Antabuse)
Disulfiram is used to treat chronic alcoholism. It causes unpleasant effects when even
small amounts of alcohol are consumed. These effects include flushing of the face,
headache, nausea, vomiting, chest pain, weakness, blurred vision, mental confusion,
sweating, choking, breathing difficulty, and anxiety.
400. MUST
401. Anatomy:
a. A field in the biological sciences concerned with the identification and description of
the body structures of living things
402. Showing understanding of what has been said by repeating key points to the
patient is called:
a. Active listening
b. Active lifestyle
c. Active labor
d. Active learning
404. A patient is admitted to the ward with symptoms of acute diarrhea. What should
your initial management be?
Source isolation is designed to prevent the spread of pathogens from an infected patient
to other patients, hospital personnel and visitors. This has previously been known as
barrier nursing. The need for isolation is determined by the way the organism or disease
is transmitted.
405. A community nurse is visiting a patient at home to give them information on their
condition, however, they cannot speak or understand English. What will you do?
406. How does the nurse respond to a patient using challenging behavior?
a. Report and reflect on the case to contribute to debriefing and ongoing learning
b. Undertake a literature review
c. Focus on reflection-in-action
d. Report the incident to the Care Quality Commission (CQC)
408. A nurse is working with a patient who says he drinks excessive alcohol. How will
the nurse respond to prevent ill health?
a. Exploring
b. Formulating a plan of care
c. Making observations
d. Encouraging comparison
410. The nurse has the role of protecting the patient from the clinical environment, which
of the following actions won’t necessarily protect the patient?
a. Multiprofessional
b. The management team
c. The leadership team
414. Which allied professional can undertake emergency roles after undergoing
specific training?
a. Radiographers
b. Pharmacists
c. Paramedics
d. Sport rehabilitation specialist
a. Stroke
b. Cardiovascular disease
c. Diabetes
d. Respiratory disease
Spirometry is the most common type of pulmonary function or breathing test. This test
measures how much air you can breathe in and out of your lungs, as well as how easily
and fast you can blow the air out of your lungs.
416. Under the Yellow Card Scheme, you must report the following, EXCEPT:
The Yellow Card scheme is vital in helping the Medicines and Healthcare products
Regulatory Agency (MHRA) monitor the safety of all healthcare products in the UK to
ensure they are acceptably safe for patients and users.
It is important that problems with medicines and medical devices and other nicotine e-
cigarette products are reported, as the reports help identify new problems with these
products.
MHRA will review the product and if necessary take action to minimise risk and maximise
benefit to patients and the public.
417. A patient is on his 3rd day with antibiotic therapy due to a lower respiratory tract
infection. He presented 3 bouts of bloody diarrhea. What would be the likely cause?
Opioids can cause irregular respiratory pauses and gasping may lead to erratic breathing
and significant variability in respiratory rate. The respiratory effects of opioids are more
pronounced during sleep. Fatalities have been reported in patients with obstructive sleep
apnoea who are prescribed opioids and sleep apnoea may be a relative contraindication
to opioid therapy.
The tongue is the most common cause of upper airway obstruction, a situation seen most
often in patients who are comatose or who have suffered cardiopulmonary arrest. Other
common causes of upper airway obstruction include edema of the oropharynx and larynx,
trauma, foreign body, and infection.
a. Vomiting
b. Abdominal pain
c. Headache
d. Heartburn
Heartburn / Indigestion
This is a painful, burning sensation in the chest caused by the regurgitation of stomach
acid into the throat. The symptoms of indigestion, including heartburn, are common during
pregnancy and are caused by hormonal changes and the growing womb pressing on the
stomach.
Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS) are intended to protect people who lack mental
capacity from being detained when it is not in their best interests. Having mental capacity
means being able to understand and retain information and to make a decision based on
that information.
424. Cyclizine:
a. used in prevention and treatment of nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with
motion sickness
Cyclizine is an anti-sickness medicine. It's used to help stop you feeling or being sick
(nausea or vomiting).
You can take cyclizine to treat morning sickness, vertigo and travel sickness.
It can also be taken to treat sickness caused by general anaesthetics after surgery, cancer
treatment or other medicines, and some inner ear problems such as Ménière's disease.
a. The ability to use and understand information to make a decision, and communicate
any decision made
Mental capacity is the ability to make decisions for yourself. People who cannot do this
are said to 'lack capacity'. This might be due to illness, injury, a learning disability, or
mental health problems that affect the way their brain works.
a. 18.5-24.9
The Bristol Stool Chart is widely used as a research tool to evaluate the effectiveness of
treatments for various diseases of the bowel. The chart is used to describe the shapes and
types of stools. It is also used as a tool to diagnose constipation, diarrhoea and irritable
bowel syndrome.
430. NICE:
a. National Institute for Health and Care Excellence: identifies good practice using the
best available evidence-based information for health, public health and social care
professionals
431. PDSA:
a. Plan-Do-Study-Act
PDSA cycles are an ideal quality improvement tool that can be used to test an idea
temporarily, trialling a change and assessing its impact.
a. High-level precautions which include all disposable beddings and utensils for all health
care staff
b. Basic infection prevention and control measures which include hand hygiene and safe
disposal of all waste by all staff at all times
c. Taking precautions when handling blood and high-risk body fluids for relevant medical
personnel
d. Selective precautions which involve safe disposal of clinical waste for all personnel
involved in the care process
In summary, universal precautions involve precautions taken with all patients, regardless
of suspicion of infection, to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens. In an inevitable
evolution, standard precautions, in contrast, are steps taken to combat the spread of
airborne pathogens in situations where providers come into contact with any form of body
fluid. Transmission-Based precautions are more specific and used in addition to standard
precautions when certain infections are present.
a. Pregnant women
b. Man
c. Children
d. Females
The presence of nitrites in urine most commonly means there's a bacterial infection in your
urinary tract. This is usually called a urinary tract infection (UTI). A UTI can happen
anywhere in your urinary tract, including your bladder, ureters, kidneys, and urethra.
Score 0 - the insertion site appears healthy and there are no signs of phlebitis. Only
continued observation of the cannula is indicated.
Score 1 - one of the following signs is evident: slight pain or slight redness near the IV
insertion site. These are possible early signs of phlebitis. Also in this case it will simply be
necessary to continue with the monitoring.
Score 2 - two of the following signs are evident: pain at IV site, redness or swelling. This
is the early stage of phlebitis, requiring repositioning of the peripheral venous catheter.
Score 3 - all of the following signs are evident: pain along the path of the cannula, redness
around the insertion site and swelling. We are at the medium stage of phlebitis, so the
catheter should be repositioned and treatment considered.
Score 4 - all of the following signs are evident and extensive: pain along the path of the
cannula, redness around the insertion site, swelling, palpable venous cord. We are at the
advanced stage of phlebitis or at the start of thrombophlebitis. It is recommended to
reposition the catheter and consider treatment.
Score 5 - all of the following signs are evident and extensive: pain along the path of the
cannula, redness around the insertion site, swelling, palpable venous cord, pyrexia. We
are in the stage of advanced thrombophlebitis, which requires initiating treatment and
repositioning the peripheral venous catheter.
435. What is the most suitable therapy for a 5-year-old experiencing psychological
trauma?
a. People are motivated to grow and change by three innate and universal psychological
needs: competence, connection/relatedness, and autonomy
438. Gingivitis cause:
Gingivitis is a mild, early form of gum disease, also called periodontal disease. Gingivitis
happens when bacteria infect the gums, often making them swollen, red and quick to
bleed.
You can successfully manage gingivitis, especially with the help of a dentist. But left
untreated, the condition can lead to periodontitis , a more severe type of gum disease.
The most common cause of gingivitis is poor oral hygiene that encourages plaque to form
on teeth, causing inflammation of the surrounding gum tissues.
441. A patient had sepsis, when will you give broad spectrum antibiotics for culture?
442. DATIX:
Datix is the Trust's electronic incident reporting system. Local training on Datix as part of
your local induction to where you work.
a. IV bolus
b. Infusion via pump
c. Subcutaneously
d. Intramuscular
a. 7-day training in GP
b. Mental health…
446. How to know the improvement or about the status of a patient with cognitive
impairment?
a. Discharge summary
b. GP
c. About me/Passport
a. Handwashing
449. Upon visiting an elderly at home, the nurse found him unconscious. What should
be your initial action as a nurse?
450. The numbers written below the nurse’s name and signature:
a. 105-125
b. 115-130
c. 160-190
d. 130-180
For men the normal haemoglobin reference range is between 130–180 g/L and for females
the normal reference range is120–160 g/L.
a. Headache
b. Hair loss
c. Abdominal pain and nausea
d. Heartburn
a. Chief nurse
b. Senior nurse of the shift
454. Hemoptysis:
a. Blood in vomit
b. Blood in stool
c. Blood in sputum
d. Blood in urine
Hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood from some part of the lungs (respiratory tract).
Hematemesis refers to blood in vomit generally coming from an upper gastrointestinal (GI)
source, such as your stomach. In some cases, minor causes may trigger vomiting blood,
such as swallowing blood from a mouth injury or a nosebleed. These situations will likely
not cause any long-term harm.
Hematochezia is the passage of fresh blood per anus, usually in or with stools.
Hematuria is the presence of blood in a person's urine. The two types of hematuria are.
gross hematuria—when a person can see the blood in his or her urine. microscopic
hematuria—when a person cannot see the blood in his or her urine, yet it is seen under a
microscope.
455. Most patients with long term conditions usually does not comply with:
a. Rest
b. Exercise
c. Their medications
a. With food
b. With water
c. Give on time
d. Give at night only