Handbook 16-1-23

HASSAN DISTRICT BIOLOGY FORUM
DEPARTMENT OF PRE UNIVERSITY

EDUCATION
BIOLOGY FORUM-
HASSAN DISTRICT
HANDBOOK FOR
REVISED
QUESTION PAPER
PATTERN
2022-23
1
CONTENTS
I. Multiple choice questions
PAGE NO.
1. Reproduction in organisms 3
2. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants 5
3. Human reproduction 7
4. Reproductive health 9
5. Principles of inheritance and variation 12
6. Molecular basis of inheritance 14
7. Evolution 16
8. Human health and disease 18
9. Strategies for enhancement in food production 20
10. Microbes in human welfare 22
11. Biotechnology- principles and processes 25
12. Biotechnology and its application 27
13. Organisms and population 29
14. Ecosystem 31
15. Biodiversity and conservation 33
16. Environmental issues 36
II. Key answers 38
Model question paper – 1 39
Model question paper - 2 43
Model question paper – 3 47
Probable Chapter-wise marks distribution 51
2
UNIT VI - Chapter 1
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
Select the correct alternative from the 6. The events in sexual

choices given below: reproduction are
(i) Pre fertilization
1. Single celled animals are said (ii) Fertilization
to be immortal because (iii) Post fertilization
(a) They grow indefinitely in size The sequential order of their
(b) They can tolerate any degree occurrences
of change in temperature (a) (ii)-(i)-(iii)
(c) They can reproduce (b) (i)-(ii)-(iii)
throughout their life span (c) (iii)-(i)-(ii)
(d) They continue to live as their (d) (i)-(iii)-(ii)
daughter cells
7. If a fungus and plant has both
2. Cell divides into 2 halves and male and female reproductive
each grows into an adult, it is structures, it will be called
known as (a) Heterothallic
(a) Encystation (b) Homothallic
(b) Buds (c) Dioecious
(c) Binary fission (d) Syngamy
(d) Cell division
8. Which of the following
3. An example of Rhizome is groups is formed only of the
(a) Garlic Hermaphrodite organisms
(b) Colocassia (a) Earthworm, Tapeworm,
(c) Ginger Housefly, Frog
(d) Onion (b) Earthworm, Tapeworm,
Sponge , Housefly
4. Strobilanthus kunthiana (c) Earthworm, Leech, Sponge,
flowers once in Roundworm
(a) 5 years (d) Earthworm, Tapeworm,
(b) 12 years Leech, Sponge
(c) 20 years
(d) 50 years 9. In maize, A meiocyte has 20
chromosomes, what will be the
5. Oestrus cycle reported in number of chromosomes in its
(a) Cows and sheep gametes.
(b) Human and Monkeys (a) 40
(c) Chimpanzees and gorilla (b) 20
(d) None of these (c) 30
(d) 10
3
10. Development of new

individual from female 15. After fertilization, the wall of
gamete without fertilization is ovary forms into
termed as (a) Pericarp
(a) Parthenogenesis (b) Endosperm
(b) Syngamy (c) Fruit
(c) Embryogenesis (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Oogamy
16. The vegetative propagule of
11. Life begins in all sexually bryophyllum
reproducing organisms as a (a) Bulbils
(a) Single celled zygote (b) Adventitious buds
(b) Double celled zygote (c) Rhizome
(c) Haploid zygote (d) Buds
(d) Haploid gametes
17. Water hyacinth is one of the
12. Offsprings of oviparous most invasive weeds primarily
animals are at greater risk of because
survival as compared to those (a) It gets Adapted to any
of viviparous animals because marine water body easily
of (b) It produces secondary
(a) Absence of proper metabolites against
embryonic care and herbivores
protection. (c) It can propagate
(b) Embryo does not develop vegetatively at a
completely phenomenal rate
(c) Progenies are of smaller (d) It is predated upon by a
size large number of organisms
(d) Genetic variation do not
occur 18. Isogametes are seen in
(a) Cladophora
13. Deposition of calcareous shell (b) Fucus
around zygote occurs in (c) Human beings
(a) Birds and reptiles (d) Ficus
(b) Birds and sponge
(c) Balanoglossus and reptiles 19. The most vital event in Sexual
(d) All of these reproduction is
(a) Gametogenesis
14. Viviparity is found in (b) Gamete transfer
(a) Bats (c) Fertilization
(b) Lizards (d) Embryogenesis
(c) Frogs
(d) Birds
4
20. Rotifers:
(a) Exhibit adult reproductive 2. Under unfavourable
structures in juvenile phase conditions the amoeba
(b) Are plants that can be both withdraws its pseudopodia
monoecious or dioecious and secretes a three layered
(c) An example for oestrus hard covering
cycle called_________________
(d) Are animals capable of
reproducing by 3. _________are an example for
parthenogenesis Menstrual cycle..
Fill in the blanks by choosing 4. In Algae, fishes as well as

the appropriate word/words amphibians syngamy occurs
from those given below in the _____________
5. ___________ helps groups of
(Lifespan, External medium, cells to undergo certain
Encystation, Cell differentiation, modifications to form
Apes) specialised tissues and organs.
1. The period from birth to the
natural death of an organism
represents its
_______________
UNIT VI- Chapter 2

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant
Select the correct alternative from the c) Endothecium d) Epidermis

choices given below:
3. Male gametophyte in angiosperm is
1. How many microsporangia are there in represented by
each lobe of anther? a) Anther b) Androecium
a) One microsporangia c) Microsporangium d) Pollen grain
b) Two microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia 4. Monosporic development is referred to as
d) Four microsporangia a) Single megaspore developing in the
embryo sac
b) Single megaspore mother cell undergoing
2. Which of the following layer of meiosis
microsporangium provides nourishment to c) Presence of single ovule in ovary
the developing anther? d) None of these.
a) Middle layers b) Tapetum
5
5. Typical female gametophyte is a) Proembryo → Mature embryo →

a) 7-celled 8 nucleate b) 6-celled 8 nucleate Globular embryo
c) 4-celled 6 nucleate d) 5-celled 6 nucleate b) Proembryo → Globular embryo →
Mature embryo
6. A type of cross pollination involving a c) Globular embryo → Proembryo →
pollinating agent is genetically similar to Mature embryo
autogamy since pollen grain come from d) Mature embryo → Globular embryo →
same plant, it is called Proembryo
a) Xenogamy b) Geitonogamy
c) Autogamy d) All of these 13. The portion of embryo above the
cotyledon is called ________ and below
7. The foul odour secreted by flowers are the cotyledon is called as ________
pollinated by a) Epicotyl, hypocotyl
a) Flies and beetles b) Wasps and ants b) Hypocotyl, epicotyl
c) Birds d) None of these c) Plumule, radical
d) Radical and plumule
8. Seed is
a) Fertilized ovule 14. The root cap of monocot is covered in
b) Fertilized endosperm a) Coleoptile b) Coleorhiza
c) Modification of integument c) Root tip d) None of these
d) Formed from pericarp
15. Pollen robbers
9. Fruit developed without fertilization is a) Consume pollen or nectar and achieve
known as pollination
a) Parthenocarpy b) Amphimixis
b) Do not visit flowers for pollen
c) Apomixis d) Polyembryony
c) Consume pollen or nectar and without
10. The pore from which the pollen tube achieve pollination
germinates d) Take pollen from other insects
a) Seed pore b) Germ pore
c) Intine d) Exine 16. Intine of pollen grain is
a) Inner layer of pollen grain
11. Why bagging is done in an b) A thin and continuous layer
emasculated flower? c) Made up of cellulose and pectin
a) To prevent contamination of its stigma d) All of these
with unwanted pollen.
b) To prevent the pollination with same 17. Landing platform for pollen grains is
flower pollen. a) Stigma b) Style
c) Both (a) and (b) c) Ovary d) None of them
d) None of these
18. The end opposite to micropyle is called
12. Which of the following is correct? a) Funicle b) Chalaza
c) Germ pore d) Hilum
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19. Autogamy refers to 1.________ flowers produce assured

a) Transfer of pollen grain to stigma of seed set even in the absence of
another flower pollinators
b) Transfer of pollen grain to stigma of
same flower 2. Coconut water is ________ part of
c) Both (a) and (b) endosperm
d) None of these
3. If the pollen _____________is the
20. Persistent nucleus perisperm is found pistil rejects pollen by preventing pollen
in germination on the stigma or the pollen
a) Wheat and maize tube growth in the style.
b) Pea and ground nut
c) Barley and castor 4. Exine has apertures called
d) Black pepper and beet ____________where sporopollenin is
absent.
Fill in the blanks by choosing
appropriate word/words from those 5. In dioecious plants (e.g. papaya), male
given below. and female flowers are present on
different plants (dioecy). This prevents
(Free nuclear, Incompatible, both autogamy and______________.
Geitonogamy, Cleistogamous flower,
Germ pores)
UNIT VI- Chapter-3

Human Reproduction
Select the correct alternative from the

choices given below:
1. Vasa efferentia are the ductules (b) Interstitial cells.

leading from (c) Primary spermatocytes.
(a) epididymis to urethra. (d) Immature male germ cells.
(b) vas deferens to epididymis.
(c) rete testis to vas deferens. 3. Spermatids are transformed into
(d) testicular lobules to rete testis. sperm by a process called
(a) spermiation (b) implantation
2. Which of the following produces (c)insemination (d)spermiogenesis
sperms in spermatogenesis?
(a) Sertoli cells.
7
4. Semen is a constituent of seminal (a) leydig cells, sertoli cells.

plasma with (b) male germ cells, sertoli cells.
(a) ovum (b) sperm (c) spermatogonium, spermatids.
(c) zygote (d) follicle (d) primary oocyte, leydig cells.
5. At the time of implantation, the
human embryo is called 12. Production of milk from the
(a) zygote (b) blastocysts mammary gland towards the end of
(c) embryo (d) foetus the pregnancy is called
(a) lactation (b)parturition
6. Which phase of menstrual cycle is (c) fertilization (d) implantation
also called proliferative phase?
(a) Luteal (b) Ovulatory 13. The womb opens into vagina
(c) Follicular (d )Menstruation through
(a) cervix (b)hymen
7. Which layer of blastocysts gets (c) clitoris (d) ampulla
attached to the endometrium?
(a)Trophoblast 14. Select the correct sequence of
(b) Inner cell mass menstrual cycle.
(c)Umbilical cord (a)Menstruation, Secretory,
(d) Both (a) and (c) Follicular, Next cycle.
(b)Menstruation, Follicular, Luteal,
8. Placenta acts as an Next cycle.
(a)Embryo (b ) Corpus (c)Follicular, Menstruation, Luteal,
luteum (c) Exocrine gland (d) Next cycle.
Endocrine tissue (c)Follicular, Menstruation, Luteal,
Next cycle.
9. Primary germ layers are
(a) ectoderm and inner cell mass 15. How many ova are released
only. (b) trophoblast, ectoderm and during the middle of the menstrual
mesoderm. cycle?
(c) endoderm and mesoderm only. (a )One (b) Two
(d) ectoderm, mesoderm and (c) Three (d) Four
endoderm.
16. Foetal ejection reflex in human
10. Which of the following hormone female is induced by
acts on uterine muscle and causes its (a) placenta only.
stronger contraction? (b) fully developed foetus and
(a) Relaxin (b) Estrogen placenta.
(c )Oxytocin (d) Progesterone (c) release of oxytocin from pituitary
gland.
11. Two types of cells present in the (d) release of full developed corpus
lining of seminiferous tubules are luteum.
_______ and _______.
8

hormones attains a peak level in the 20. "It is responsible for maintaining
middle of menstrual cycle? the low temperature by about 2 - 2.5º
(a) LH and estrogen C from normal body temperature for
(b) FSH and progesterone maturation of sperm."
(c) FSH and LH (a) Penis (b) Scrotum
(d) Estrogen and progesterone (c) Ureter (d) Urethra
18. Which of the following pair is Fill in the blanks by choosing

incorrectly matched? appropriate word/words from
(a) Sertoli cells – androgen those given below.
(b) Spermatogenesis – Seminiferous (Umbilical cord, Spermiogenesis,
tubules Morula, ampulla, Zygote,)
(c) Male reproductive system –
Pelvis region 1. The embryo with 8 to 16
(d) Spermatogonia – Mitotic division blastomeres is called ________.
2. Fusion of haploid nucleus of
19. In human female, menopause is a sperm and that of ovum lead to the
stage in which? formation of _______.
(a) oogenesis starts at puberty. 3. Spermatids are transformed into
(b) menstruation starts at puberty. sperm by a process called_______.
(c) corpus luteum starts secreting 4. The placenta is connected to the
progesterone for maintaining embryo through ____
pregnancy. 5. The site of fertilization in the
(d) menstruation stops at the age of fallopian tube of the human female is
50 years and reproductive capacity is _____________.
arrested.
UNIT VI- Chapter 4

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Select the correct alternative from the 2. Emergency contraceptives are

choices given below: effective if used within
(a) 72 hours of coitus
1.Surgical removal or cutting and (b) 72 hours of ovulation
ligation of the ends of oviduct is (c) 72 hours of menstruation
known as (d) 72 hours of implantation
(a) tubectomy (b) oviductomy
(c) vasectomy (d) ovarioctomy 3. Condoms are one of the most
popular
9
contraceptives because of the 8. Which one of the followings is not

following reasons a STDs?
(a) these are effective barriers for (a) AIDS (b) Syphillis
insemination (c) Gonorrhoea (d) Cancer
(b) they do not interfere with coital
act 9. The copper ions of IUDs
(c) these help in reducing the risk of (a) suppress the motility and
sexually transmitted diseases. fertilization capacity of sperms.
(d) All of the above (b) make the uterus unsuitable for
implantation.
4. Choose the correct statement (c) increase phagocytosis of sperms.
regarding the ZIFT procedure (d) make cervix hostile to sperms.
(a) Ova collected from a female donor
are transferred to the fallopian tube to 10. Study of abnormalities by taking
facilitate zygote formation out the amniotic fluid of embryo is
(b) Zygote is collected from a female called
donor and transferred to the fallopian (a) Endoscopy (b) Amniocentesis
tube (c) Laparoscopy (d) Natal
(c) Zygote is collected from a female endoscopy
donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female 11. Vasectomy is
donor and transferred to the uterus (a) Cutting of fallopian tube
(b) Cutting of vasa deferens
5. Contraceptive ‘pills’ are used by (c) Factor of population growth
(a) male (b) female (d) None of these
(c) both (d) none
12. MTP is
6. What is the full form of AIDS? (a) Multi trade practices
(a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency (b) Malthusian treatise on population
Syndrome (c) Multiple temporary frequency
(b) Acquired Immune Disease (d) Medical termination of pregnancy
Syndrome
(c) Acquired Immune Deficiency 13. Which of the following is a
System nonsteroidal pill?
(d) Acquired Immune Defective (a) Mala – D (b) Mala – N
System (c) Saheli (d) Quinesterol
7. Which one is the natural method of 14. Which of the following is natural
avoiding chances of ovum and sperms method of contraceptive?
meeting? (a) Sterilization (b) IUD
(a) Periodic abstinence (b) IUDs (c) Diaphragm (d) Periodic
(c) Vasectomy (d) Tubectomy abstinence
10
15. Which of the following is not a

reproductive technique?
(a) ZIFT (b) GIFT (c) ELISA (d) IVF
16. In which of the following Fill in the blanks by choosing

methods zygote upto 32 blastomere is appropriate word/words from those
transferred into the uterus? given below.
(a) IUT (b) ZIFT (c) GIFT (d) ICSI
(Syphillis, implantation, USA,
17. Which contraceptive method Lactational amenorrhea, implant )
provides some protection against
1. Progesterone pill helps in
HIV?
(a) IUD (b) Pills (c) Condoms (d) preventing pregnancy by not
Periodic abstinance allowing ______________.
18. Which of the following is 2. HIV- AIDS was first reported in

hormone-releasing IUD? _____________.
(a) Cu-T (b) LNG-20 (c) Multiload
375 (d) Implant 3. Pregesteron in combination with
oestrogen can be used by females
19. Which of the following sexually as_____________
transmitted diseases is caused by a
protozoan? 4. A sexually transmitted disease
(a) Gonorrhoea (b) Trichomoniasis symptomized by the development
(c) Chlamydiasis (d) Syphilis of chancre on the genitals is
caused
20. Which of the following STDs is by the infection of ___________.
caused by the human papilloma virus 5. _________ method of
(HPV) and is transmitted through contraception is effective only up
intimate contact with infected person? to a maximum period of 6 months
(a) Genital herpes (b) Genital warts following parturition
(c) AIDS (d) Chlamydia
11
UNIT VII - CHAPTER 5

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

choices given below: 8. Queen Victoria was a carrier of which
disease?
1. An organism with two identical alleles for a) Myotonic dystrophy
a given trait is b) Sickle-cell anaemia
a) Homozygous b) Segregating c) Haemophilia
c) Dominant d) A hermaphrodite d) Phenylketonuria
2. Cross between F 1 plant and recessive 9. Diseased phenotype in sickle cell anaemia
female plant is called is shown by which of the following
a) Back cross b) Test cross genotype?
c) Out cross d) Mutation a) HbA HbA b) HbS HbS
c) HbA HbS d) All of above
3. Which of the following depicts the
Mendel’s dihybrid ratio? 10. In the theoretical explanation of allelic
a) 3 : 1 b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 interaction for dominant and recessive
c) 9 : 7 d) 15 : 1 forms, the recessive trait is seen due to the
production of
4. Who noted that the behaviour of a) Normal or less efficient enzyme
chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour b) A non-functional enzyme
of genes and uses chromosome movement to c) No enzyme production
explain Mendel’s law? d) Either (b) or (c)
a) T. H. Morgan b) Hugo de Vries
c) Sutton and Boveri d) Beadle and 11. Deletion or insertion of base pairs of
Tatum DNA causes
a) Point mutation
5. Turner’s syndrome occurs due to the loss b) Frame shift mutation
of c) Transversion
a) Chromosome 5 b) Chromosome 21 d) All of these
c) Allosomes d) Autosome
12. Gynaecomastia is seen in case of
6. Karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome is a) Down’s syndrome
a) 44 + XXY b) 44 + XO b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) 44 + XYY d) 44 + XXXY c) Turner’s syndrome
d) All of these
7. In human beings, the colour of skin is
controlled by
a) Multiple alleles b) Lethal genes
c) Polygenic effect d) None of these
12
13. The following pedigree shows c) Aneuploidy d) Polyploidy
19. Morgan carried out several dihybrid

crosses in
a) Pea b) Butterfly
c) Drosophila d) Honey bee
a) Autosomal dominant trait
b) Autosomal recessive trait
20. Select the incorrect pair.
c) X-linked recessive trait
a) Incomplete dominance - Dog flower
d) X-linked dominant trait
b) Pleiotropy - Phenylketonuria
c) Female heterogametic - Grasshopper
14. Physical association of two genes is
d) Klinefelter's syndrome – XXY
known as
a) Heterozygosis b) Linkage
Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate
c) Recombination d) Homozygosis
word/words from those given below.
15. Blood group ‘B’ will have alleles
(Pedigree, Factors, Valine, Aneuploidy,
a) ii b) IAIA
Darkest skin)
c) IBIB d) IAIB
1. Characters are controlled by discrete units
16. Mendel’s principle of segregation was
called__________.
based on the separation of alleles in the
garden pea during
2. The representation or chart showing
a) Pollination
family history is called ________.
b) Embryonic development
c) Seed formation
3. ___________ is the gain or loss of
d) Gamete formation
chromosomes due to failure of
segregation of chromatids during cell
17. In 1900, three biologists independently
division.
rediscovered Mendel’s principles. They
were
4. In human skin colour genotype with all
a) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak
the dominant alleles (AABBCC) gives
b) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
____________colour.
c) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
d) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges
5. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the
substitution of Glutamic acid by ________
18. Failure of segregation of chromatids
at the sixth position of the beta globin chain
during cell division results in the gain or loss
of the haemoglobin molecule.
of chromosomes, this is called as
a) Euploidy b) Monoploidy
13
UNIT VII - CHAPTER 6

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITAANCE
Select the correct alternative from the 7. The structural gene in prokaryotes
choices given below: is called
a. Monocistronic gene
1.Positively charged proteins in the b. Polycistronic gene
nucleosome are c. Dystrophic gene
a.Lysine b.Argenine d. Oncogene
c.Histone d.Glycine
8. Which of the following codon
2.A typical nucleosome contain have no t – RNA
a. 225 Base pair b. 150 base pair a. AUG b. AUU
c.200 base pair d. 175 base pair c. UAA d. AUC
3.Bacteria used by Griffith for 9. Anticodon present on

transforming principle is a. t- RNA b. r – RNA
a.Streptococccus pneumoniae c. m – RNA d. Both (a) and (b)
b. Bacillius thirungenesis
c. clostridium butylicum 10. Pentose sugar present in DNA is
d. Xanthomonas sp a. Ribose b. Deoxyribose
c. Glucose d. Lactose
4. The process of synthesis of m –
RNA by one of the strands of DNA 11. The type of bond present
is between two strands of DNA
a. Translation b. Transduction molecule is
c. Transcription d. Central dogma a. Sulphide bond b. Peptide bond
c. Dipeptide bond d.Hydrogen
5. In which of the following bond
organism RNA is the genetic
material 12. The nitrogen base present in
a. Adenovirus b. Smallpox virus DNA, the same is absent in RNA is
c. Papiloma virus d. Bacteriophage a. Uracil b. Adenine
c. Guanine d. Thiamine
6. Which enzyme joins
discontinuous strands of DNA 13. Number of base pairs present in
during replication one full turn of DNA molecule is
a. REN b. DNA ligase a. 10 b. 12 c. 34 d. 21
c. DNA polymerase d. Transcriptase
14. DNA replication is semi-
conservative because
14
a. 50% of daughter strand is retained 20. The chromatin that is more

b. 50% of parental strand is retained densely packed and stains dark
c. 50% of daughter and 50% of which is transcriptionally inactive is
parental strand is retained called
d. None of these a. Euchromatin b. Heterochromatin
c. Chromatin d. Crossing over
15. Capping is defined as addition of
a. Adenylate residue
b. Methyl guanosine triphosphate Fill in the blanks by choosing
c. Nucleotide triphosphate appropriate word/words from those
d.Nucleoside given below.
16. Full form of UTR is ( Elongation, Polymorphism, Two,

a. Untranscribed region SNPs, Lactose)
b. Untranslated region
c. Untranscription region 1. ______ % of genome code for
d. Uracil -Thiamine region protein.
17. Which chromosome in human 2. Scientist have identified about 1.4

has most number of genes? million location where single base
a. I gene b. Y gene DNA difference is called ________.
c. X gene d. Z gene
3. ______ in DNA sequence is the
18. Removal of intron and insertion basis for genetic mapping as well as
of exon is DNA finger printing.
a. Tailing b. Capping
c. Splicing d. Mapping 4. _______ is the substrate for the
enzyme .
19. Failure in cell division after
DNA replication results into 5. Main function of RNA
a. Haplaoidy b. Diploidy polymerase during transcription is
c.Polyploidy d. Triploidy _________
15
UNIT VII –CHAPTER 7

Evolution
Select the correct alternative from the c) Transforming principle
choices given below: d) Louis pasteur
1. The primate who lived in East 7. In nineteenth centuries Charles

African grassland Darwin made sea voyage in a sail ship
a) Dryopithecus b) Homo habilis called
c) Austrolopithecus d) Neanderthal a) H.B.J haldane b) H M S Beagle
man. c) B H S Beagle d) S L Miller
2. The organs whose origin and 8. Palaentological evidences for

anatomical structure is same performing evolution refer to the
different function is a) development of embryo
a) Analogous organ b) homologous organs
b) Homologous organ c) fossils
c) Saltation d) analogous organs
d) Speciation
9. Sweet potato and potato is an
3. Single step large mutation that leads example for
to speciation is a) Homologous organs
a) Saltation b) Mutation b) divergent evolution
c) Genetic drift d) Lithosphere c) Analogous organs
d) adaptive radiation
4. The theory which attempts to explain
origin of universe. 10. (p + q)2 =p2 + 2pq +q 2 = 1 represents
a) cosmic theory a) Hardy and Weinberg principle
b) Theory of biogenesis b) Mendelian principle
c) Panspermia theory c) Biometrics
d) Big-bang theory d) Molecular genetics
5. The brain capacity of homo erectus of 11. Chemical theory of evolution was
human evolution proposed by
a) 650 – 800 cc b) 500 cc a) Charles Darwin
c) 900 cc d) 1400 cc b) Thomas Malthus
c) Oparin and Haldane
6. “Allele frequencies in population are d) Alfred Wallace
stable and constant from generation to
generation” is 12. Genetic drift operates only in
a) Hardy-Weinberg principle a) Small population
b) Oparin and Haldane b) Island population
16
c) Larger population a) Number of species in a community

d) Isolated population b) Useful variation in population
c) Strength of an individual
13. Which of the following is used as an d) Reproductive fitness of an organism
atomspheric pollution indicator
a) Lepidoptera b) Lichens 19. The theory states that living
c) Lycopersicon d) Lycopodium organisms originate from the pre-
existing organism, the theory is
14. Evolution of life shows that life a) spontaneous theory
forms had a trend of moving from. b) Theory of biogenesis
a) Land to water c) Panspermia theory
b) Dry land to wet land d) Theory of abiogenesis
c) Fresh water to sea water
d) Water to land 20. The primitive earth or early earth
contained which of the gases were
15. The first human like being absent.
‘hominids’ are called a) Nascent oxygen
a) Homo habilis b) Homo erectus b) Carbon dioxide
c) Homo sapien d) Java man c) Molecular oxygen
d) Methane
16. The most accepted line of descent in
human evolution is Fill in the blanks by choosing
a) Austrolopithecus Ramapithecus appropriate word/words from those
Homosapiens Homohabilis given below.
b) Homo erectus Homo habilis (homosapiens, antibiotics, fossil, water,
Homo sapiens lichens)
c) Ramapithecus Homo habilis 1) A study of _____________ in
Homo erectus Homo sapiens different sedimentary layers
d) Australopithecus Ramapithecus indicates the geological period in
Homo erectus Homohabilis which they existed.
Homosapiens 2) _____________is the example of
evolution by anthropogenic
17. In the Miller’s experiment which action.
of the following groups of gases were 3) Oxygen combined with ammonia
used to stimulate primitive atmosphere? and methane to form
a) N2, H2, CH4, C2H6 _______________, CO 2 and
b) NH3, H2O, CH4, H2 others.
c) N2O, H2O, NO2, SO2 4) Before Industrialisation, thick
d) CH4, H2, NO2, SO2 growth of almost white coloured
________ covered the trees.
18. Fitness according to Darwin refers 5) _______________arose in Africa
to and moved across continents and
developed into distinct races.
17
UNIT VIII – Chapter 8

HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
Select the correct alternative from the a) Serotonin b) Colostrum

choices given below: c) Interferon d) Histamine
1. Ringworm in humans is caused by 8. Which antibody release during

a) Fungi b) Nematodes allergy?
c) Viruses d) Bacteria a) Immunoglobulin A
b) Immunoglobulin G
2. Which of the following is an example of c) Immunoglobulin M
a disease caused by the attack of the body d) Immunoglobulin E
on its own cells?
a) Diabetes inscipidus b) Malaria 9. The type of immunity that is
c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Tuberculosis present at the time of birth in humans
is:
3. ‘ELISA’ test is done for the diagnosis of a) Acquired immunity
a) Anthrax b) HIV b) Innate immunity
c) Hepatitis d) Malaria. c) None of these d) Both of these
4. Antibodies are secreted by 10. Hashish and Ganja are got from
a) B-lymphocytes b) T-lymphocytes a) Erythroxylum b) Nicotiana
c) Both (a) and (b) d) natural killer cell c) Papaver d) Cannabis
5. Suspension of attenuated pathogen that 11. Salmonella is related with

stimulates antibody formation is a) Typhoid b) Polio
a) Antitoxin b) Antibiotic c) T.B. d) Tetanus.
c) Vaccine d) Serum
12. The mature infective stages of
6. The common cold is caused by malarial parasite which are
a) Rhinoviruses transferred from mosquito to man are
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae a) Merozoites b) Gametocytes
c) Salmonella typhimurium c) Sporozoites d) Trophozoites
d) Plasmodium vivax
13. Natural killer lymphocytes are an
7. The substance produced by a cell example for
in viral infection that can protect a) Physical barrier b) Cytokine barrier
other cells from further infection is
18
c) Cellular barrier d) Physiological a) Yeast b) Bacteriophage

barrier c) Bacteria d) All of these
14. The addictive chemical present in 20. Treatment of cancer can be made
tobacco is by
a) Caffeine b) Nicotine a) Radiation therapy b) Surgery
c) Catechol d) Carbon monoxide c) Immunotherapy d) All of the
above
15. Short-lived immunity acquired from
mother to foetus across placenta or through
mother's milk to the infant is categorised Fill in the blanks by choosing
as:- appropriate
a) Active immunity word/words from those given
below.
b) Passive immunity
c) Cellular immunity ( Haemozoin, Carbon monoxide,
d) Innate nonspecific immunity Disease, Bone marrow, Ascaris,)
16. Use of anti-histamines and steroids 1. Internal bleeding, muscular pain,

give a quick relief from – blockage of the intestinal passage and
a) Headache b) Allergy anaemia are some of the symptoms
c) Nausea d) Cough caused due to infection by ________
2. ___________is the site of
17. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the formation of all blood cells including
chronic intake of B & T-lymphocytes.
a) Opium b) Alcohol 3. Smoking increases __________
c) Tobacco (chewing) d) Cocaine content in blood and reduces
oxyhaemoglobin.
18. Treatment of cancer by X-rays or 4. ____________toxin released by
Gamma rays is Plasmodium causes chill and high
a) Radiotherapy b) Chemotherapy fever recurring every 3-4 days.
c) Hormone therapy 5. When the functioning of organs or
d) Immunotherapy systems of the body is adversely
affected, it is called a___________.
19. Hepatitis-B vaccine is produced
from
19

STRATERGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION

choices given below: 6.The scientific process by which
crop plants are enriched with certain
1. A group of animals which are desirable nutrients is called
related by descent and share many a)crop protection
similarities are reffered to as b)breeding
a)breed b)race c)bio-fortification
c)variety d)species d)bio-remidiation
2. Inbreeding is carried out in animal 7.The term “totipotency” refers to

husbandry because it the capacity of a
a)increases vigour a)cell to generate whole plant
b)improves the breed b)bud to generate wholeplant
c)increases heterozygosity c) seed to germinate
d)increases homozygosity d)cell to enlarge in size
3. Sonalika and kalyansona are 8.An explant is

varieties of a)dead plant
a) wheat b)rice b)part of the plant
c)millet d)tobacco c)part of the plant used in tissue
culture
4. Fungicide and antibiotics are d) part of the plant that expresses a
chemicals that specific gene
a)enhance yield and disease
resistance 9.Himgiri is a variety of
b)kill pathogenic bacteria and fungi a)Rice b)Cauliflower
respectively c)Wheat d) Chilli
c)kill pathogenic microbes
d)kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria 10.Micro propagation is
respectively a)propagation of microbes invitro
b)propagation of plants invitro
5.Use of certain chemicals and c)propagation of cells invitro
radiation to change the base d)growing plants on smaller scale
sequence of genes of crop plants is
termed 11.Protoplast is
a) recombinant DNA technology a)another name for protoplasm
b) transgenic mechanism b)an animal cell
c) mutation breeding d)gene therapy c)a plant cell without a cell wall
20
d)a plant cell

19.Selection of homozygous plant is
12.Apiculture is a)mass selection
a)Management of animals b)pure-line selection
b)Culturing of fishes c)mixed selection
c)Rearing of birds d)none of these
d)Maintenance of hives of honeybees
20.Mule is a product of
13.Which one of the following is a a)breeding
marine fish b)mutation
a) Rohu b)Hilsa c)hybridisation
c)Catla d)Common carp d) inter specific hybridization
14.Which one of the following Fill in the blanks by choosing the

products of apiculture is used in appropriate word from those given
cosmetics and polishes below.
a)Honey b)Propolis
c)Wax d)Royal jelly (Jersey, Hisardale, Crossbreeding,
Somaclones, Mutation)
15.More than 70 percent of livestock
population is found 1.The method in which superior
in males of one breed is mated with
a)Denmark b)India superior female of another breed is---
c)China d)India and China ----------.
16.The agriculture sector of India 2.The new breed of sheep developed

employs about in Punjab by cross breeding is--------
a)50% of the population --------.
b) 70% of the population
c)30% of the population 3.The process by which genetic
d)60% of the population variation are created through change
in the base sequence of genes is------
17.A collection of all the alleles of ------.
all the genes of a crop plant is called
a)germplasm collection 4.An example of cattle breed is-------
b)protoplasm collection --.
c)herbarium
d) somaclonal collection 5.The plants which are genetically
identical to the original plant from
18.The micro-organism used in SCP which they were grown----------------.
is
a)Nostoc b)Chlamydomonas
c)Spirulina d)All of these
21

MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
Select the correct alternative from the 6. Which one of the following
choices given below: alcoholic drinks is produced without
distillation
1. The vitamin whose content a. Wine b.whisky
increases following the conversion of c.Rum d. brandy
milk into curd by Lactic Acid
Bacteria is 7. The technology of biogas
a. vitamin C b. vitamin D production from cow dung was
c. vitamin B12 d. vitamin E developed in India largely due to the
efforts of
2. Waste water treatment generates a a. Gas authority of India
large quantity of sludge which can be b. Oil and natural gas commission
treated by c. Indian agriculture research
a. digesters b. activated sludge institute and khadi and village
c. chemicals d. oxidation pond industries commission
d. Indian oil corporation
3. Methanogenic bacteria are not
found in 8. The free living fungus
a. Rumen of cattle Trichoderma can be used for
b. gobar gas plant a. killing insects
c. bottom of water logged paddy b. biological control of plant diseases
fields c. controlling butterfly caterpillars
d. activated sludge d. producing antibiotics
4.The primary treatment of 9. What would happen if oxygen

wastewater involves the removal of availability to activated sludge flocks
a. dissolved impurities is reduce
b. stable solid particles a.It will slow down the rate of
c. toxic substances degradation of organic matter
d. harmful bacteria b. the centre of flocs will become
anoxic which would cause death of
5. BOD of waste water is estimated bacteria and eventually breakage of
by measuring the amount of flocs
a.total organic matter c. Flocs would increase in size as
b. biodegradable organic matter anaerobic bacteria would grow
c. oxygen evolution around flocs
d. oxygen consumption d. protozoa would grow in large
numbers
22
10. Mycorrhiza does not help the digested

host plant in d. Absorb colloidal organic matter
a.Enhancing its Phosphorus up take
capacity 16.Which one is the most important
b. Increasing its tolerance to drought role of micro organisms for the well
c. Enhancing it's resistance to root being of humans?
pathogens a.Sewage treatment
d. Increasing its resistance to insects b. production of methane
c. biological control of plant disease
11. Which one of the following is not d. conversion of milk to curd
a nitrogen fixing organism
a. Anabaena b. Nostoc 17. Cyclosporin-A, an
c. Azotobacter d. Pseudomonas immunosuppressive drug is produced
by
12. Big holes in Swiss cheese are a. Aspergillus niger
made by b. Monascus purpureus
a. A machine c. Penicillium notatum
b. A bacterium that produce d. Trichoderma polysporum
methane gas
c. A Bacterium producing a large 18. BOD is
amount of carbon dioxide a. Biological oxygen deficit
d. A fungus that releases a lot of b. Biological oxygen demand
gases during its metabolic activities c. Biochemical oxygen deficit
d. Biochemical oxygen demand
13. The residue left after methane
production from the cattle dung is 19. Lactobacillus mediated
a. Burnt conversion of milk to curd is a result
b.Burried in landfills of
c. Used as manure a. Coagulation and partial digestion
d.Used in civil construction of milk
b. Coagulation and partial digestion
14.Methanogens do not produce of milk proteins
a. O2 b. CH4 c. H2S d. CO2 c. Coagulation of milk proteins and
complete digestion of milk fats
15. Activated sludge should have the d. Coagulation of milk fats and
ability to settle quickly so that it can complete digestion of milk proteins
a. Be rapidly pumped back from
sedimentation tank to aeration tank 20. Pectinases are used -
b. Absorb pathogenic bacteria a. As bottle juice clarifier
present in waste water while sinking b. To synthesise glue c. As
to the bottom of the settling tank detergent
c. Be discarded and anaerobically d. As immuno suppressor
23
Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given below.
(Monascus purpureus, sewage, Anabaena, LAB, Saccharomyces cerevisae)
1. ______ improves nutritional quality of curd by increasing Vitamin B12.
2. Dough is fermented by using ______________.
3. Statins is produced by _________ which is commercialised as blood cholesterol

lowering agent.
4. Municipal waste water is called ________.
5. __________ is an atmospheric nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.
24
UNIT IX – Chapter 11
BIOTECHNOLOGY- PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
Select the correct alternative from the choices given below:
1. Restriction site of EcoR1

enzyme is 7. Autonomously replicating extra
a) 5’-GAATTC-3’ chromosomal circular DNA of
b) 3’-GAATTC-5’ bacteria is
c) GAATTC a) rhizoid b) viroid
d) 5’-CTTAAG-3’ c) cosmid d) plasmid
2. Which enzyme removes 8. Name the stain used to visualise

nucleotides from the ends of DNA? DNA fragments in gel
a) Exonuclease b) Endonuclease electrophoresis.
c) RNA polymerase d) DNA Ligase a) Cotton blue b) Ethidium bromide
c) Acetocarmine d) Saffranine
3. Endonuclease makes cuts at which
specific position of DNA? 9. The thermostable DNA
a) ends of DNA b) within the polymerase is obtained from
DNA a) Escherichia coli
c) starting point of DNA b) Salmonella typhimurium
d) None of the above c) Thermus aquaticus
d) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
4. Restriction enzymes cut the DNA
at specific locations, so called as 10. Multiple copies of gene of
a) Molecular scissors interest is obtained by
b) Molecular stichers a) DNA finger printing
c) Polymers b) PCR
d) Molecular printers c) Downstream processing
d) ELISA
5. The technique used to separate
DNA in recombinant DNA 11. large volumes of cultures can be
technology is processed in
a) Gel electrophoresis b) PCR a) anaerobic tank b)aerobic tank
c) Elution d) Transformation c) simulator d) bioreactor
6. The extraction of separated bands 12. Specific DNA sequence in

of DNA by cutting out them from the chromosome , responsible for
agarose gel pieces is initiating replication is
a) annilation b) separation a) Origin of replication
c) Elution d) denaturation b) Selectable marker
25
c) restriction site or tungsten coated with DNA in a

d)Cloning method known as
a)micro injection b)biolistics
13. Making multiple identical copies c) macro injection d)electroporesis
of any template DNA is called as
a) transformation b) denaturation 20. Any protein encoding gene is
c) cloning d) annealing expressed in a heterologous host is
called as
14. For Naming restriction enzymes a) Recombinant protein
the first letter of the name comes b) Recombinant DNA
from c) recombinant RNA
a) species b) genus d) recombinant polysaccharide
c)strain d)order
Fill in the blanks by choosing the
15. Restriction enzymes belong to appropriate word/ words from
class those given below
a) oxido reductases b) ligases
c) isomerases d) nucleases (Lysozyme , cellulase , chitinase,
ribonuclease , protease)
16. Agrobacterium tumifaciens
transfer normal cells into a tumour 1. The breaking of the bacterial
By delivering a piece of DNA known cell to release of DNA along
as with other macromolecules is
a) T- DNA b) C-DNA achieved by treating the bacteria
c) B-DNA d) Z-DNA with the
enzyme________________
17. Agrobacterium tumifaciens is
2. Enzyme used to break cell to
used as a vector for cloning genes in
release DNA along with the
a)animals b)bacterium
c) plants d)virus other macromolecules in plants
is ___________
18. Recombinant DNA is directly 3. ____________is used to break
injected into the nucleus of an animal open fungal cell to release DNA
cell by along with macromolecules.
a) insertion b) gene gun c)
macro injection d) micro injection 4. RNA can be removed by
treatment with___________
19. Plant cells are bombarded with
high velocity micro particles of gold 5. Removal of proteins can be
achieved by treatment
with_______________
26
UNIT IX – Chapter 12
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Select the correct alternative from the 7. Mature insulin consists of

choices given below: polypeptide chain
a) A and B b) A and C
1. Organisms whose genes have been c) B and C d) A,B and C
altered by manipulation are called as
a)PMO b) OMO 8. Correction of a gene defect is
c) CMO d)GMO a) gene therapy b) immunotherapy
c) chemotherapy d) physiotherapy
2. Bt- toxin is produced by bacterium
a) Bacillus thuringiensis 9. Animals that have had their DNA
b) Escherichia coli manipulated to possess and express
c) Salmonella typhimurium an extra gene are known as
d) Thermus aquaticus a) experimental animals
b) transgenic animals
3. Silencing of mRNA has been used c) hermaphrodite animals
in producing transgenic plants d) wild animals
resistant to
a) White rusts b) Bacterial 10. The name of first transgenic cow
blights is
c) Bollwroms d) Nematodes a) Marie b) Dolly
c)Rosie d) Mollie
4. Corn borers are controlled by the
protein encoded by the gene 11. Crystals of BT toxin produced by
a)CryIAc b) CryIIAb some bacteria do not kill the bacteria
c) CryIVBa d) CryIAb themselves because
a) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
5. Meloidogyne incognitia is a b) Toxin is immature
a)protozoa b) nematode c) Toxin is inactive
c) fungi d) algae d) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special
sac
6. The two polypeptides of human
insulin are linked together by 12.Tobacco plants resistant to a
a)Disulphide bridges nematode have been developed by the
b)Hydrogen bonds introduction of DNA that produced
c) Phospho-diester bond (in the host cells)
d) Covalent bond a ) Both sense and anti-sense RNA
b)A particular hormone
c) An antifeedant d) A toxic protein
27
13. Human insulin is being 19. The use of bioresources by

commercially produced from a multinational companies and other
transgenic species of organisations without proper
a) Saccharomyces authorisation from the countries and
b) E.coli people concerned without
c) Mycobacterium compensatory payment is called
d) Agrobacterium a) Bioethics b) Biopiracy
c) Bioterror d) Bioweapon
14. Crystalline protein synthesized by
Bacillus thuringiensis is activated by 20. Even though the highest number
a) Acidic conditions of bacterial food of varieties of rice are found in India,
vacuole which variety of rice was patented by
b) Alkaline pH of bacterial food U.S. company?
vacuole a) Sharbati sonara b) Co-667
c) Acidic pH in insect fore-gut c) Basmati d) Rajamudi
d) Alkaline pH in insect mid-gut
15. Bt toxin kills the insect by appropriate word/ words from
a) Blocking mitochondrial respiration those given below
b) Blocking transfer of nerve impulse ( Agrobacterium , cotton bollworm,
c) Creating pores in body surface GEAC, ADA, Corn borer)
d) Creating pores in mid-gut
epithelial cell 1. The protein encoded by the gene
cryIAb controls_______________
16. Removal of which chain results in
maturation of proinsulin to insulin? 2. _____________ will make
a) D chain b) C chain decision regarding the validity of
c) B chain d) A chain GM research and the safety of
introducing GM organism for public
17. Which enzyme was targetted services.
during the first clinical gene therapy
given in 1990 to a four year- old girl? 3. The proteins encoded by the genes
a) Monoamine oxidase CrylAC and CryllAb controls the
b) Tyrosine oxidase ______________.
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Adenosine deaminase 4. Using ____________ vectors
nematode specific genes were
18. The bacterium Bacillus introduced into the host plant.
thuringiensis is widely used in
contemporary biology as 5. The first clinical gene therapy was
a) Bioweapon b) Bioinsecticide given in 1990 to A 4 year old girl
c) Bioweedicide d) Biopesticide with ____________ deficiency.
28
UNIT X – Chapter 13
ORGANISMS AND POPULATION
Select the correct alternative from the was 250, average mortality 240,
choices given below: immigration 20 and emigration
30.The net increase in
1. Average temperature of thermal population is
springs and deep sea hydrothermal (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 05 (d) zero
vents exceeds
(a) 50°C (b) 60°C (c) 70°C (d) 7. Population size is more technically
100°C called
(a) population density (b)
2. Homeostasis is demography
(a) maintaining a constant internal (c) population growth (d) population
environment dynamics
(b) maintaining a constant external
environment 8. Geometric representation of age
(c) Both (a) and (b) structure is a characteristic of
(d) maintaining circulation of blood (a) biotic community (b) population
(c) landscape (d) ecosystem
3. What percentage of animals on
this earth are regulators and 9. Logistic growth is represented by
conformers, respectively? which equation?
(a) 2%, 98% (b) 7%, 93%
(c) 4%, 96% (d) 1%, 99%
4. Diapause is a
(a) stage of development
(b) stage of suspended development
(c) stage of delayed morphology 10. Prickly pear cactus (an exotic
(d) rapid developmental stage species) can be brought under
control (in Australia) by using
5. Altitude sickness occurs at high (a) babul eating predators
mountains. This sickness have (b) kikar eating predators
symptoms like (c) cactus feeding predators
(a) nausea (b) fatigue (d) intensive herbicides
(c) heart palpitations (d) All of these
11. Gause’s principle of competitive
6. A biologist studied the population exclusion states that
of rats in a barn. He found that the (a) competition for the same
average natality resources excludes species having
different food preferences
29
(b) no two species can occupy the interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘–’
same niche indefinitely for the same refers to
limiting resources (a) mutualism (b) amensalism
(c) larger organisms exclude smaller (c) commensalism (d) parasitism
ones through competition
(d) more abundant species will 17. In a growing population of a
exclude the less abundant species country,
through competition (a) reproductive and pre-
reproductive individuals are equal in
12. Parasite that feed on the external number
surface of the host organism is called (b) reproductive individuals are less
(a) endoparasites (b) ectoparasite than the post-reproductive
(c) brood parasite (d) None of these individuals
(c) pre-reproductive individuals are
13. Mycorrhiza represents an more than the reproductive
intimate mutualistic relationship individuals
between (d) pre-reproductive individuals are
(a) fungi and stem of higher plants less than the reproductive individuals
(b) fungi and roots of higher plants
(c) fungi and leaves of higher plants 18. Conformers are also called
(d) fungi and leaflets of higher plants (a) endotherms (b) ectotherms
c) Both (a) and (b) (d) isotherms
14. An interaction in which one
organism is benefitted and other is 19. Nature and properties of soil in
unaffected different places vary due to
(a) predation (b) (a) climate (b) weathering process
commensalism (c) topography (d) All of the above
(c) mutualism (d) parasitism
20. The study of interactions among
15. Monarch butterflies are highly organisms and between the organism
distasteful to predator due to and its physical (abiotic)
(a) its ugly look environment is
(b) a special chemical present in its (a) ecosystem study
body (b) environmental study
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) ecology
(d) a poison secreted by their special (d) population study
glands
16. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to appropriate word/words from
beneficial interaction, ‘–’ sign to those given below:
detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral
interaction,then the population [CAM, ‘r’ (intrinsic rate of increase),
< 5; 30-35, Ophrys, conformers ]
30
change with that of ambient water

1. The salinity in parts per thousand osmotic concentration are referred as
is _______________ in inland water, _________ .
_______________ in the sea and >
100 in some hypersaline lagoons. 4. The fitness of one species is
measured in terms of its
2. Many desert plants have a _______________ .
photosynthetic pathway,
___________ that enables their 5. The Mediterranean orchid
stomata to remain close during day _______________ employs ‘sexual
time. deceit’ to get pollination done by a
species of bee.
3. The aquatic organism whose
osmotic concentration of body fluids
ECOSYSTEM

choices given below: 4. Which of the following represent
simple GFC (Grazing Food Chain)?
1. Which of the following occupy (a) Grass → Goat → Man
top vertical strata of forest (b) Goat → Grass → Man
ecosystem? (c) Detritus → Fungi → Man
(a) Shrubs (b) Herbs and grasses (d) Fungi → Detritus → Grass
(c) Tree (d) Phytoplankton
5. Transfer of energy in tropic level
2. The amount of biomass or organic follows
matter produced per unit area over a (a) 20% law (b) 10% law
period of time by plants during (c) 5% law (d) 15% law
photosynthesis is known as
(a) Primary production 6. Which of the following pyramid is
(b) Secondary production always upright?
(c) Net primary production (a) Energy (b) Biomass
(d) Net secondary production (c) Number (d) All of these
3. Plant capture how much of PAR? 7. Which of the following organisms

(a) 2–10% (b) 10–20% have no space in ecological pyramid
(c) 50% (d) 30%
31
although they Play vital role in the (d) Rate of formation of inorganic
ecosystem? matter by consumers.
(a) Birds (b) Snake
(c) Bacteria and fungi (d) Frog 14. Each tropic level has a certain
mass of living material at a particular
8. The entire sequence of time called
communities that successively (a) Standing state (b) Stranding crop
change in a given area are called (c) Ecological pyramid (d) GPP
(a) Extinction (b) Evolution
(c) Succession (d) Sere 15. If succession occurs on bare
rock, it is known as
9. Nutrient cycling is known as (a) Primary succession
(a) Biogeochemical cycle (b) Secondary succession
(b) Calvin cycle (c) Tertiary succession (d)
(c) Hatch–slack pathway Quaternary succession
(d) Krebs cycle
16. In which succession is the climax
10. How much carbon is fixed reached faster?
approximately in biosphere annually (a) Succession on bare rock
through the process of (b) Succession on burned forest
photosynthesis? (c) Succession on newly cooled lava
(a) 4 × 1013 kg (b) 4 × 1010 kg (d) All of these
(c) 4 × 108 kg (d) 4 × 1020 kg
17. What percentage of global
11. What is the main source of carbon does the atmosphere contain?
energy for all ecosystems on earth? (a) 48% (b) 71% (c) 1% (d) 10%
(a) Sun (b) Volcano
(c) Deep sea hydro-thermal system 18. Earthworms help in
(d) Moon (a) Breakdown of complex organic
matter
12. The annual net primary (b) Loosening of soil
productivity of the whole biosphere (c) Both (a) and (b)
is how much billion tons (d) None of these
(dry weight) of organic matter?
(a) 120 (b) 170 (c) 210 (d) 150 19. NPP is equal to
(a) GPP + R (b) GPP – R
13. Secondary productivity means (c) GPP × R (d) GPP ÷ R
(a) Rate of formation of organic
matter by producer. 20. An inverted pyramid of biomass
(b) Rate of formation of new organic is seen in
matter by consumers. (a) Forest ecosystem (b) Grassland
(c) Rate of formation of inorganic ecosystem
matter by producer. (c) Aquatic ecosystem (d) Desert
32

appropriate word/words from 3. _________is a major constituent
those given below: of biological membranes, nucleic
acids and cellular energy transfer
[Anaerobic, Phosphorous, systems.
fragmentation, Pioneer species, 4. In an aquatic ecosystem ____is the
GFC] major conduit of energy flows.
1. Detrivores (eg. earthworm) break 5. Low temperature and ________

down detritus into smaller particles, condition inhibit decomposition
this process is called___________ resulting in building up organic
materials.
2. The species that invade a bare area
called_____.
BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION
Select the correct alternative from the choices given below:
1. The variation shown by the 3. Which of the following is not an

medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria In-situ technique?
growing in different Himalayan (A) Cryopreservation (B) National
ranges represents parks
(A) Genetic diversity (C) Sanctuaries (D) Sacred forests
(B) Species diversity
(C) Ecological diversity 4. Read the following statements:
(D) Community diversity (1) Tropics harbor more species than
temperate or polar areas.
2. Read the following statements (2) Colombia located near the
(1) India has a greater ecosystem equator has nearly 1400 species of
diversity than Norway birds.
(2) According to the IUCN (2004), (3) India has less than 105 species of
the total number of plant and animal birds.
species described so far is slightly (A) 1 and 2 are incorrect
more than 15 million. (B) 2 and 3 are incorrect
(A) Both (1) and (2) are correct (C) 1 and C are incorrect
(B) Only (2) is correct (D) Only 3 is incorrect
(C) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(D) Only (1) is correct
33
5. Relationship between species following graph is described by the

richness (S) and area (A) represented equation.
in the
(A) a (ii), b (iii) c (i), d (iv)
(B) a (iv), b (i), c (ii), d (iii)
(C) a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)
(D) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i)
8. Loss of biodiversity in a region

may lead to all the following, except
(A) Decline in plant production
(B) Lowered resistance to
environment perturbations
(A) Log S = log A + Z log C (C) Increased variability in certain
(B) Log S = log C + Z log A ecosystem processes
(C) Log C = log A + S log A (D) Increased endemism
(D) Log C = log S + Z log A
9. The Evil Quartet represents the
6. Which of the following statement major causes of
is wrong? (A) Soil pollution
(A) A stable community should (B) Inbreeding depression
show much variation in productivity (C) Biodiversity losses
from year to year (D) Air pollution
(B) According to Tilman’s long term
ecosystem experiments increased 10. Which of the following
diversity contributed to higher organisms are badly affected when
productivity large habitats are broken up into
(C) Stable community must be small fragments due to various
resistant to occasional disturbances human activities?
(D) Rich biodiversity is essential for (A) Mammals requiring small
ecosystem health but imperative for territories (B) Planktons showing
the very survival of the human race diapause
on this planet. (C) Animals with migratory habits
(D) Birds requiring small territories.
7. Match the column I with Column
II 11. Extinction of more than 200
Column I Column II species of cichlid fish in Lake
a. Thylacine (i) Russia Victoria was due to introduction of
b. Dodo (ii) Mauritius (A) African catfish (B) Nile perch
c. Quagga (iii) Australia (C) Clariasgariepinus (D) Lantana
d. Steller’s sea (iv) Africa
cow 12. Which one of the following is not
hot spot of biodiversity in our
34
country?
(A) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka (A) By tissue culture method
(B) Indo-Burma (B) By creating biosphere reserve
(C) Madagascar (C) By creating botanical garden
(D) Himalaya (D) By creating seed bank
13. When we conserve and protect 17. World summit on Sustainable

the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity development (2002) was held in the
at all country
levels is protected. This approach (A) South Africa (B) Brazil
includes all of the following, except (C) Sweden (D) Argentina
(A) Biosphere reserves
(B) Seed bank 18. The historic convention on
(C) National parks biological diversity held in
(D) Sanctuaries (A) Johannesburg (B) Rio De Janeiro
(C) Washington (D) California
14. Mark the correct match
(A) Wildlife sanctuaries in India - 90 19. The one-horned rhinoceros is
(B) Sacred groves - On-site specific to which of the following
conservation sanctuary:
(C) Western ghat - Rajasthan and (A) Bhitar Kanika (B) Bandipur
M.P (C) Kaziranga (D) Corbett Park
(D) National parks in India – 448
15. Degree of biodiversity increases statements is correct?
from (A) Parthenium is an endemic
(A) Equator to poles (B) Poles to species of our country
equator (B) African catfish is not a threat to
(C) Low latitude to high latitude indigenous catfishes
(D) Low altitude to high altitude (C) Steller’s Sea cow is an extinct
animal
16. In your opinion, which is the (D) Lantana is popularly known as
most effective in-situ strategy to Carrot grass
conserve the plant diversity of an
area?
Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given
below:
( 34, fungi, zooplanktons, 25, 8.1)
1. More than _________% of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are
derived from plants.
35
2. India covers the world land area of 2.4% and contributes the global diversity of
________.
3. There are total of ____ hotspots distinguished in the world.
4. The highest number of plant species in the world is represented by_________.
5. The second trophic level in the lake is __________.
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
6. According to Euro II norms,
Select the correct alternative from sulphur should be controlled at which
the choices given below: level in diesel and in petrol
respectively.
1. In which year did Government of (a) 350 ppm, 150 ppm
India pass the Environment (b) 50 ppm, 150 ppm
(Protection) Act to protect and (c) 50 ppm, 50 ppm
improve the quality of environment (d) 350 ppm, 50 ppm
(air, water and soil)?
(a) 1978 (b) 1986 (c) 1981 (d) 1987 7. The presence of large amount of
nutrients in water causes excessive
2. Which system of humans and growth of planktonic (free-floating)
animals are affected mostly by air algae, called. This is called
pollution? (a) Red tide (b) Bio-magnification
(a) Respiratory system (c) Algal bloom (d) Biofortification
(b) Digestive system
(c) Circulatory system 8. If the water contains 0.003ppb of
(d) Excretory system DDT then fish eating birds contain
what level of DDT?
3. ESP removes approx how much % (a) 0.04 ppm (b) 2 ppm
of particulate matter present in (c) 0.5 ppm (d) 25 ppm
exhaust from a thermal power plant.
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 99 (d) 85 9. Eutrophication occurs because of
(a) Ca and Mg
4. Scrubber is used to remove which (b) Nitrogen and Phosphorus
of the following gas? (c) Carbon and oxygen
(a) SO2 (b) N2 (c) O2 (d) CO2 (d) Hg and DDT
5. The metal used in catalytic 10. Chlorofluro carbons are

converter in automobiles is responsible for:
(a) Platinum (b) Palladium (a) Acid rain (b) Ozone layer
(c) Rhodium (d) All of these depletion
36
(c) Global warming (d) Green house 18. According to the Central Pollution
effect Control Board, particles that are
responsible for causing great harm to
11. Who created Haryana Kisan human health are of diameter
Welfare Club? (a) 2.50 micrometre
(a) Ahmed Khan (b) 5.00 micrometre
(b) Ramesh Chandra Dagar (c) 10.00 micrometre
(c) Amrita Devi (d) 7.5 micrometre
(d) Sunderlal Bahuguna
19. A brief exposes of extremely high
12. What part of the incoming solar sound level, is generated by takeoff of
radiation actually comes through and jet plane or rocket, may damage ear
falls on Earth’s surface heating it? drums thus permanently impairing
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/3 (d) 2/3 hearting ability is.
(a) 80 dB (b) 20 dB
13. What is the contribution of (c) 150 dB (d) 60 dB
methane gas to the total global
warming? 20. Catalytic converters are fitted into
(a) 60% (b) 20% (c) 14% (d) 6% automobiles to reduce the emission of
harmful gases. Catalytic converters
14. The thickness of ozone is change unburnt hydrocarbons into
measured in terms of (a) Carbon dioxide and water
(a) BOD (b) D.O. (c) DU (d) ROP (b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Methane
15. In which year did Government of (d) Carbon dioxide and methane.
India introduce the concept of Joint
Forest Management (JFM)? Fill in the blanks by choosing the
(a) 1974 (b) 1980 (c) 1990 (d) 1970 appropriate word/words from those
given below:
16. According to an estimate, almost [Algal bloom , 1974, Bishnoi,
how much per cent forests have been Recycling, 1989,]
lost in the tropics,
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 20 1. Water act was passed in year
________
17. Jhum cultivation (slash and burn 2. _________causes deterioration of
agriculture) is found in which part of water quality and fish mortality.
India? 3. __________is the only solution for
(a) North-eastern state (b) Western the treatment of e-waste.
state 4. Montreal protocol was effective in
(c) Southern state (d) Desert year________
state 5. The ______community is known
for its peaceful coexistence with
nature.
37
KEY ANSWERS
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANIS MS STRATERGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 FOOD PRODUCTION
d C c b a b b d d A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 a d a d c d a c c b
a A a a a b c a c D 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
c d b c d b a c b d
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING
PLANTS MICROB ES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b B d a a b a a c B c a d b d a c b a d
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a B a b c d a b b D d c c a a d d c b a
HUMAN REPRODUCTION BIOTECHNOLOGY – PRINCIPLES AND

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 PROCESS ES
c C d b b c a d d C 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 a a b a a c d b c b
b A a b a b c a d B 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
d a c b d a c d b a
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS
a A d b b a a d c B APPLICATIONS
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b D c d c b c b c B d a d d b a a a b c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND c a b d d b d b b c
VARIATION
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ORGANIS MS AND POPULATIONS
a B b c c a c c b D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 d a d b d d a b a c
b B a b c d a c c C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b b b b b d c b d c
MOLECULAR BAS IS OF INHERITANCE
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ECOS YSTEM
c C a c d b b c a B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 c a a a b a c d a a
d D a b a b a c c B 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a b b b a b c c b c
EVOLUTION
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 BIODIVERS ITY AND CONS ERVATION
c B a d c a b c c A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A D A D B A D D C C
c A b d c c b d a C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C B B B B A B C C
HUMAN HEALTH AND DIS EAS E
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ENVIRONMENTAL ISS UES
a c b a c a c d b D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 b a c a d a c d b b
a c c b b b b a a D 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b b b c b a a a c a
38
DEPARTMENT OF PRE UNIVERSITY EDUCATION

BIOLOGY FORUM HASSAN DISTRICT
MODEL QUESTION PAPER(1) 2022-23
BIOLOGY (36)
II PUC
TIME: 3 HOURS 15 MINUTES MAX MARKS: 70
General instructions:
1. The question paper consists of four parts A, B, C and D.
2. Part-A consist I and II And part-D consist of V and VI.
3. All parts are compulsory.
4. Draw diagram wherever necessary, unlabelled diagrams or illustration do not
attract any marks.
PART-A
I. Select the correct alternative from the answers given below 1 x 15 = 15
1. Which of the following is a post fertilization event in flowering plants?

a.Transfer of pollen grains b. embryo development
c. Formation of flower d. Formation of pollen grains
2. The phenomenon where in the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilization is
called
a. Parthenocarpy b.apomixis c. asexual reproduction d.sexual reproduction
3. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicles and opens onto urethra as
a. Epididymis b.Ejaculatory duct c.Efferent ductile d. Ureter
4. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will

a. Cause rapid increase in growth rate b. Result in decline in growth rate
c. Not cause significant change in growth rate d. Result in an explosive population
5. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem?

a. Forest b. Marine c. Grassland d. Tundra
6. ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in

a. Platypus b. Snail c. Cockroach d. Peacock
7. Climax community is in a state of

a. Non equilibrium b. Equilibrium c. Disorder d. Constant change
8. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used with in

a. 72 hours of coitus b. 72 hours of ovulation
c. 72 hours of menstruation d. 72 hours of implantation
39
9. Occasionally a single gene may express more than one effect the phenomenon is
called
a. multiple allelism b. Codominance c. pleiotropy d. polygeny
10. Both deoxy ribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars called
a.Trioses b. Hexoses c. pentoses d. polysaccharides
11. Skin colour in human beings is an example for

a. polygenic inheritance b. pleotrophy c. codominance d. Multiple allelism
12. A group of animals which are related by decent and share many similarities are
referred to as
a. Breed b Race c. Variety d. Species
13. The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by
lactic acid Bacteria is
a. Vitamin C b.Vitamin D c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin E
14. Restriction in restriction enzyme refers to

a cleaving of phospho diester bond in DNA by the enzyme
b . Cutting of DNA at specific position only
c . prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria
d. all of the above
15. According to Allen’s rule the mammals from colder climate have
a. Shorter ears and longer limbs b. Longer ears and shorter limbs
c. Longer ears and longer limbs d. Shorter ears and shorter limbs
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given
below
( Stratification, Direction less, Exons, sporopollenin, Stenothermal) 1 x5 = 5
16. Variations during mutations of meiotic recombination are ____________.

17. Exine of pollen grain is made up of the chemical substance ___________.
18. The coding sequences present on eukaryotic genes are known as ___________.
19. Species that tolerate narrow range temperature are called ______________.
20. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem
is _______________.
40
PART-B
III. Answer any five of the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever
applicable. 2x5=10
21. Name the vegetative propagules in the following . I. Ginger ii. Water hyacinth
22. Differentiate cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers.
23. Name the male sex accessory ducts.
24. What are analogous organs? Give an example.
25. List the goals of HGP.
26. Draw a neat labelled diagram of antibody molecule.
27. Write the effects of ozone depletion.
28. Write the symptoms of Klenifelters syndrome
PART-C
IV. Answer any five of the following questions in about 40-80 words each, where
ever applicable. 3x5=15
29. Mention the three types of IUD's

30. List out any 6 salient features of genetic code
31. a. What are sacred grooves? Give an example
b. Mention any one of the hotspot area in India.
32. a. Write the objectives of Bio fortification,
b. What is Parbhani Kranti?
33. Schematically represent Phosphorus cycle
34. What are Opioids? Write any two derivatives of opioids.
35. Draw a neat labelled diagram of T. S. of mature anther.
36. a. State Hardy Weinberg law. b. Mention any four factors affecting Hardy
weinberg law.
PART-D
V. Answer any three of the following questions in about 200 to 250 words is
wherever applicable 5x3=15
37. Explain out breeding devices

38. Describe the process of transcription
39. Write the name of any five chemicals and the name of the organisms which
produces the chemicals.
40. Explain
i.inbreeding ii. out breeding iii. cross breeding
iv. out crossing v. inter specific hybridization
41. a. Explain the features of cloning vector
b. Hind II is isolated from which organism?
c. Name the vector used to deliver the foreign genes to plants.
41
42. Explain the following

a. e-waste b. greenhouse effect c. ozone depletion
d. deforestation e. Ecological sanitation
VI. Answer any two of the following questions in about 200 to 250 words each
wherever applicable
5x2=10
43. Draw a neat labelled diagram of structure of sperm

44. Production of pest resistant plants is enhanced with the help of Bt toxin produced
by a bacterium Bacillus thuringiencis. Explain with a reference to Bt cotton.
45. State law of independent assortment. Explain the same with reference to Mendel's
dihybrid cross.
46. a. Explain exponential growth. 3
b. What is brood parasitism? 2
47. What is innate immunity ? Explain the types of innate immunity.
************
42

MODEL QUESTION PAPER (2) 2022-23
BIOLOGY (36)
II PUC
attract any marks.
PART - A
I. Select the correct alternatives from the choice given below: 1x15=15
1. Which of the following organism breeds only once in a life time

a) Bamboo b) Oyster c) mammals d) Birds
2. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to

a) Megasporophyll b) Megasporangium c) Megaspore mother cell d) Magaspore
3. Select the odd one

a) LH b) FSH c) GH d) oestrogen
4. Genes codes for a pair of contrasting traits are known as

a) Dominant character b) Recessive character c) contrasting character d) alleles
5. Ring worm disease is caused by

a) ascaries b) trichophyton c) salmonella d) filarialworm
6. Important components of poultry farm management are

a) selection of disese free and suitable breed b) proper and safe farm
conditions
c) proper feed and water d) all of the above
7. Yeast is used in the preparation of
a) bread and beer
43
b) cheese and butter

c) citric acid and lactic acid
d) lipase and pectinase
8. Which of the following enzyme is used to join DNA fragments in RDT?

a) DNA polymerase b) DNA ligase c) primase d) endonuclease
9. DNA replication is semiconservative, it is first shown in

a) fungi b) E-coli c) Vicia faba d) algae
10. An adaptation in opuntia in that it performs photosynthesis in

a) flowers b) flattened stem c) roots d) leaves
11. Some snails and fishes go into aestivation to avoid

a) summer related problems
b) winter related problems
c) water related problem
d) all of the above
12. The green plants in an ecosystem are called

a) consumers b) producers c) decomposers d) herbivores
13. The historic convention on biological diversity on “the earth summit” held at
a) India b) Africa c) France d) Rio de janerio
14. Rouwlfia vomitoria is an example for

a) species diversity b) ecological diversity c) genetic diversity d) all the above
15. Greenhouse gases are

a) N2O, CFCs, Methane and oxygen b) CO2, CH4, O2 and N2O
c) CFCs, Methane and oxygen and water d) CO2, CH4, O2 and SO2
below: 1x5=5
(Standing crop, Endemism, Jhum cultivation, Homology, Polymerase chain reaction)
16. The species confined to the region and not found anywhere else
called_____________.
17. ______________ give rise to divergent evolution.
44
18. In-vitro synthesis of multiple copies of gene (or DNA) of interest is called
___________.
19. Each trophic level has certain mass of living material at a particular time called as
______.
20. Slash and burn agriculture in North- eastern states of India is also known as
__________.
Part-B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever
applicable: 2x5=10
21. Differentiate between menstrual cycle and oestrus cycle.

22. What is parthenogenesis? Give an example.
23. Mention any two natural methods of birth control.
24. ABO blood groups is an example for multiple allelism, justify the statement with
appropriate reason.
25. Draw a neat labelled diagram of Replication fork.
26. Write a note on primary treatment in sewage water treatment.
27. What are pioneer species? Name pioneer species of hydrarch succession.
28. Draw an ideal pyramid of energy showing different trophic levels in an ecosystem.
Part-C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever
applicable: 3x5=15
29. Describe the structure of dicot embryo.

30. Name the three accessory glands associated with human male reproductive system.
31. What is infertility? Give any two reasons for infertility in humans.
32. What are Mendilian disorders? Mention any two Mendilian disorders in humans.
33. List any three important goals of human genome project.
34. Write the schematic representation of replication of retrovirus.
35. What is inbreeding? Mention any two significances of inbreeding in animals.
36. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a typical biogas plant.
Part-D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions in 200-250 words each,
wherever applicable: 5 x 3=15
37. Explain how pollination is achieved in Vallisnaria and Zoostera.

45
38. Describe the structure of lac operon with a labelled sketch.

39. Mention the different steps in the process of recombinant DNA technology.
40. By taking examples of Darwin finches and placental mammals of Australia write a
brief note on adaptive radiation.
41. Explain the following terms a) Eutrophication b) Algal bloom
c) Biological oxygen demand d) e- waste d) Biomagnification.
42. Explain the main steps in breeding a new variety of a crop.
VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever
applicable: 5x2=10
43. Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of a mammary gland of human female.

44. Explain the common reasons for exploring transgenic animals.
45. With reference to shape and colour of the seed give the schematic representation of
inheritance two genes.
46. a) Write a brief note on mutualism coating any two examples. (3)
b) Differentiate eurythermal and stenothermal organisms. (2)
47. Briefly explain microbes used for commercial and industrial productions.
**********************
46

MODEL QUESTION PAPER(3) 2022-23
BIOLOGY (36)
II PUC
attract any marks.
PART-A
I. Select the correct alternative from the answers given below 1 x 15 = 15
1. The reproductive cycle that occurs in non primates is
a. menstrual cycle b. Estrous cycle c. Calvin cycle d. Kreb’s cycle
2. Pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen to stigma is

a. autogamy b. Xenogamy c. Cliestogamy d. Chasmogamy
3. The function of Leydig cells of seminiferous tubules is production of

a. Androgen b. Estrogen c. Progesterone d. Aldosterone
4. The Government of India initiated ‘Family Planning’ in the year

a. 1961 b. 1948 c. 1947 d. 1951
5. Genotype of blood group AB is

a. IAIB b. IAIA C.iAiB d. IAiB
6. Causative agent of Elephantiasis is

a. Plasmodium malayi b. Trichophyton rubrum c. Ascaris d.Wucheraria
bancroftii
7. New breed of sheep developed in Punjab by breeding technique is

a. Bikaneri ewes b. Marino rams c. Hisardale d. Jersey
8. The symbiotic fungi which form mycorrhiza in some plants belongs to the genus
a. Alternaria b. Agaricus c. Nucleopolyhedrovirus d.
Glomus
9. The stain used to visualise the DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis
47
a. Aceto carmine b. Aceto orcein c. Ethidium bromide d.

Saffranine
10. 9:3:3:1 is the phenotypic ratio of

a. One gene inheritance b. Test cross c. Back cross d. Two gene
inheritance
11. Mammals of colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs to
a. Generate heat b. Minimise heat loss c. Maximise heat loss d. Increase
surface area
12. Interaction between algae and fungi in lichen is

a. commensalism b. Ammensalism c. Predation d. Mutualism
13. An example of gaseous cycle is

a. Phosphorous cycle b. Carbon cycle c. Sulphur cycle d. Calcium
cycle
14. Which of the following is natural method of contraceptive?

a. Sterilization b. IUD c. Diaphragm d. Periodic abstinence
15. Dark coloured amorphous component formed during decomposition is

a. Humour b. Humus c. Bodmas d. Clay
below: 1x5=5
( Cytosine, Plasmid, Lichens, Emasculation, Saltation)
16. Single step large mutation is __________.

17. Removal of stamens from bisexual flower before maturation is________
18. Pyrimidine base present both in RNA and DNA is __________.
19. Autonomously replicating circular DNA is ____________.
20. __________ is the pioneer species in xerarch succession.
Part-B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever
applicable: 2x5=10
21. Distinguish between seasonal and continuous breeders.

22. Differentiate between pericarp and perisperm.
48
23. Mention any two example of evolution by anthropogenic action

24. What is test cross? Mention its phenotypic ratio.
25. Codon AUG has dual function. Give reason.
26. What are hermaphrodites? Give an example.
27. Define point mutation. Give an example.
28. CNG is better than diesel / petrol. Justify.
Part-C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever
applicable: 3x5=15
29. Draw a neat labelled diagrammatic representation of Millers experiment.

30. What is contact inhibition? Mention any two diagnostic techniques to detect
cancer.
31. Write a note on MOET.
32. Write the diagrammatic representation of Pyramid of energy.
33. How do the following ART assist the couples to have the children:
i) IVF ii) GIFT iii) ICSI
34. RNA polymerase in eukaryotes shows division of labour. Substantiate.
35. What is placenta? List any four hormones secreted by placenta.
36. Tropical region has greater biodiversity than temperate region. Justify the
statement with three reasons.
Part-D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions in 200-250 words each,
wherever applicable: 5 x 3 =15
37. With a neat labelled diagram, explain the structure of young anther.
38. How did Hershey and Chase differentiate between DNA and protein in their
experiment
while proving that DNA is the genetic material?
39. Explain the steps involved in amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
40. Describe the various steps of plant breeding program.
41. a) Write a short note on genetically engineered insulin. (3)
b) What is gene therapy? Give an example. (2)
42. Write a note on the following
49
i) Eutrophication ii) Electrostatic precipitator iii) UV-B

iv) Biomagnification v) Catalytic converter
.
VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever
applicable:
5x2=10
43. Sketch and label diagrammatic view of human male reproductive system.
44. What are ectoparasites and endoparasites? List any three parasitic adaptations in
animals.
45. a) What are multiple alleles? Give an example.
b) Write the symptoms of Turner’s syndrome and mention its karyotype.
46. Explain the stages of Sewage Treatment.
47. Describe the measures taken to control alcohol and drug abuse in adolescents.
**************************
50
51
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HASSAN DISTRICT BIOLOGY FORUM

DEPARTMENT OF PRE UNIVERSITY

Model question paper - 2 43

Model question paper – 3 47

Probable Chapter-wise marks distribution 51

Select the correct alternative from the 6. The events in sexual

10. Development of new

Fill in the blanks by choosing 4. In Algae, fishes as well as

UNIT VI- Chapter 2

Select the correct alternative from the c) Endothecium d) Epidermis

5. Typical female gametophyte is a) Proembryo → Mature embryo →

19. Autogamy refers to 1.________ flowers produce assured

UNIT VI- Chapter-3

Select the correct alternative from the

1. Vasa efferentia are the ductules (b) Interstitial cells.

4. Semen is a constituent of seminal (a) leydig cells, sertoli cells.

17. Which of the following

18. Which of the following pair is Fill in the blanks by choosing

UNIT VI- Chapter 4

Select the correct alternative from the 2. Emergency contraceptives are

contraceptives because of the 8. Which one of the followings is not

15. Which of the following is not a

16. In which of the following Fill in the blanks by choosing

18. Which of the following is 2. HIV- AIDS was first reported in

UNIT VII - CHAPTER 5

Select the correct alternative from the

13. The following pedigree shows c) Aneuploidy d) Polyploidy

19. Morgan carried out several dihybrid

UNIT VII - CHAPTER 6

3.Bacteria used by Griffith for 9. Anticodon present on

a. 50% of daughter strand is retained 20. The chromatin that is more

16. Full form of UTR is ( Elongation, Polymorphism, Two,

17. Which chromosome in human 2. Scientist have identified about 1.4

UNIT VII –CHAPTER 7

1. The primate who lived in East 7. In nineteenth centuries Charles

2. The organs whose origin and 8. Palaentological evidences for

c) Larger population a) Number of species in a community

UNIT VIII – Chapter 8

Select the correct alternative from the a) Serotonin b) Colostrum

1. Ringworm in humans is caused by 8. Which antibody release during

5. Suspension of attenuated pathogen that 11. Salmonella is related with

c) Cellular barrier d) Physiological a) Yeast b) Bacteriophage

16. Use of anti-histamines and steroids 1. Internal bleeding, muscular pain,

UNIT VIII – Chapter 9

Select the correct alternative from the

2. Inbreeding is carried out in animal 7.The term “totipotency” refers to

3. Sonalika and kalyansona are 8.An explant is

d)a plant cell

14.Which one of the following Fill in the blanks by choosing the

16.The agriculture sector of India 2.The new breed of sheep developed

UNIT VIII – Chapter 10

4.The primary treatment of 9. What would happen if oxygen

10. Mycorrhiza does not help the digested

(Monascus purpureus, sewage, Anabaena, LAB, Saccharomyces cerevisae)

1. ______ improves nutritional quality of curd by increasing Vitamin B12.

2. Dough is fermented by using ______________.

3. Statins is produced by _________ which is commercialised as blood cholesterol

4. Municipal waste water is called ________.

5. __________ is an atmospheric nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.

Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: