CH 10

Package Title: Test Bank
Course Title: Karp 9e

Chapter Number: 10
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following is NOT a conclusion reached by Mendel?
a) Characteristics of plants are governed by distinct factors or units of inheritance.

b) Gametes from each plant have two copies of the gene for each trait.
c) An organism's two alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation.
d) The two alleles for a trait carried by an organism may be identical to one another.
e) The two alleles for a trait carried by an organism may be different from one another.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 10.1: Relate Mendel's conclusions to the modern concept of genetic
inheritance.
Section Reference: Section 10.1 The Concept of a Gene as a Unit of Inheritance
2) Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment states that ____________.
a) segregation of an allelic pair for one trait has no effect on segregation of alleles for another
trait
b) an organism's two alleles for a gene separate from one another during gamete formation
c) segregation of an allelic pair for one trait has a great effect on segregation of alleles for
another trait
d) an organism's three alleles for a gene separate from one another during gamete formation
e) gametes are diploid and highly variable
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
inheritance.
3) When both a dominant and recessive allele for a particular gene are present together in the
same plant, _________.
a) the recessive allele is always expressed

b) the dominant allele is expressed some of the time
c) the dominant allele is always expressed
d) the dominant allele is masked by the recessive allele
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
inheritance.
4) Different versions of a gene are called _________.
a) heterologues
b) homologues
c) allogues
d) alleles
e) mutoids
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
inheritance.
5) The effect of _________ on embryonic development is ___________.

a) polyandry, disruptive cell divisions and the early death of the embryo
b) mitosis, disruptive cell divisions and the early death of the embryo
c) polyspermy, disruptive cell divisions and the early death of the embryo
d) polyspermy, the embryo develops normally but is twice as large
e) polyandry, the embryo develops normally but is twice as large
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 10.2 Describe the discovery of chromosomes.
Section Reference: Section 10.2 The Discovery of Chromosomes
6) What abnormality is observed in daughter cells from an egg that has been fertilized by more
than one sperm?
a) They have more cilia.

b) They are smaller.
c) They have variable numbers of chromosomes.
d) They enter meiosis unexpectedly.
e) They swell to three times their normal size.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
7) What would happen if meiosis did not include a reduction division?
a) The number of chromosomes in a species would remain the same with each generation.
b) The number of chromosomes in a species would double with each generation.
c) The number of chromosomes in a species would halve with each generation.
d) The number of chromosomes in a species would quadruple with each generation.
e) Chromosomes would shrink prior to each cell division.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
8) Who was the first scientist to propose that meiosis included a reduction division?
a) Edouard van Beneden

b) Theodore Boveri
c) Gregor Mendel
d) August Weismann
e) Walther Flemming
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
9) How many chromosomes would a sexually-reproducing organism with 6 chromosomes in

generation 0 have in generation 4 if there are reduction divisions in meiosis?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 24
d) 48
e) 96
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
10) Which part of the cell behaves in a way corresponding to the behavior of Mendel's genetic
factors?
a) mitochondria
b) endoplasmic reticulum
c) homologous pairs of chromosomes
d) homologous pairs of centrioles
e) nucleolus
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 10.3 Explain the relationship between a chromosome and a linkage
group.
Section Reference: Section 10.3 Chromosomes as the Carriers of Genetic Information
11) Which word below refers to a pair of homologous chromosomes?
a) chromophores
b) bivalent
c) birefringence
d) bilateral
e) nucleolus
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
group.
Question Type: Multiple Select
12) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a gram-negative bacterium found in soil that causes:
a) highly acidic soil.
b) transgenic plants.
c) Crown gall disease.
d) Dutch elm disease.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 10.10 Identify the basis of gene transfer in Agrobacterium.
Section Reference: 10.10: Green Cells: Gene Transfer by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Question Type: Multiple Choice
13) Which term is an accurate description of a linkage group, as it was first described by Sutton?
a) a group of genes carried on the same chromosome

b) a pair of alleles carried on the same homologous chromosome pair
c) a group of chromosomes found in a gamete
d) a group of chromosomes found in a fertilized egg
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
group.
14) Which of the following characteristics initially made fruit flies a poor subject for genetic
studies?
a) a short generation time from egg to maturity

b) they produced up to 1000 eggs in a lifetime
c) easy to house and breed
d) there was only one strain of flies available
e) inexpensive to maintain
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
group.
15) What was the original strain of fruit flies called in Morgan’s studies?
a) wild ones
b) originals
c) wild type
d) normal type
e) dominant type
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
group.
16) What appears to be the reason for the production of the large Drosophila larvae salivary
gland cells?
a) to allow less gene expression

b) to maintain low level gene expression
c) to maintain high secretory activity
d) to allow the cells to take up more space
e) to digest larger amounts of phagocytic material
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
group.
17) What is the name of chromosomes that have as many as 1024 times the number of DNA
strands usually present?
a) polymorphic chromosomes
b) polytene chromosomes
c) homologous chromosomes
d) heterozygous chromosomes
e) papillosomes
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
group.
18) The individual banding patterns on Drosophila chromosomes provided evidence for the
validity of what phenomenon?
a) mitosis
b) meiosis
c) gene mapping
d) translation
e) respiration
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
group.
19) The building blocks of a nucleotide are ___________.
a) a pentose sugar and a phosphate group

b) a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base
c) a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base
d) a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base
e) a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and an amino acid
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 10.4 Describe the structure and basic composition of DNA.
Section Reference: Section 10.4 The Chemical Nature of the Gene
20) The nitrogenous base attaches to the ____-carbon of the nucleotide's sugar.
a) 1'
b) 2'
c) 3'
d) 4'
e) 5'
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
21) Which of the following is a DNA nucleotide?
a) a phosphate group, adenine and ribose

b) a phosphate group, guanine and deoxyribose
c) cytosine and ribose
d) thymine and deoxyribose
e) a phosphate group and adenine
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
22) Which of the following is an RNA nucleoside?
a) a phosphate group, adenine and ribose

b) a phosphate group, guanine and deoxyribose
c) cytosine and ribose
d) thymine and ribose
e) a phosphate group and adenine
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
23) The backbone of a DNA molecule is _________.
a) made up of sugars alone

b) made up of nitrogenous bases alone
c) made up of phosphate groups alone
d) made up of alternating phosphate and sugar groups
e) made up of alternating sugars and nitrogenous bases
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
24) Purines are characterized by _______; pyrimidines are characterized by ______.

a) two rings; one ring
b) one ring; two rings
c) two rings; three rings
d) two rings; two rings
e) two rings; one chain
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
25) The bonds that hold DNA and RNA backbones together are known as __________.
a) 3'-4'-phosphodiester linkages
b) 3'-5'-phosphodiester linkages
c) phosphate ethers
d) 1,4-glycosidic linkages
e) peptide bonds
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
26) The ends of a polynucleotide chain are the ____ end and the ____ end.
a) 5', N-terminal
b) 3', 4'
c) 3', 5'
d) N-terminal, C-terminal
e) 3', C-terminal
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
27) The original model of DNA structure stated that each unit in DNA contained all four
nitrogenous bases in a repeating pattern; it was called the ________.
a) Endosymbiotic Theory
b) Induced Fit Model
c) Lock and Key Model
d) Tetranucleotide Theory
e) Evolutionary Theory
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
28) Why is the AMY1 gene more prevalent in humans than in chimpanzees and more prevalent
in some human populations than others? (Select all correct choices)
a) Chimps have to digest forms of starch different from those digested by humans.
b) Chimps have less starch in their diets than humans and therefore need lower levels of amylase.
c) Some human populations have more starch in their diets than others.
d) The AMY1 gene is directly involved with the ability to speak.
Answer: b, c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 10.9 Describe how comparisons of DNA sequences have been used to
explain human evolution.
Section Reference: Section 10.9 The Genetic Basis of “Being Human”
29) You isolate DNA from a particular organism and analyze it. The amount of adenine was 6
µmoles and the A+T/G+C ratio is 4.0. How much guanine should be in the sample?
a) 6 µmoles
b) 3 µmoles
c) 1.5 µmoles
d) 4 µmoles
e) 12 µmoles
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
30) What technique supplied the data that led Watson and Crick to hypothesize the double helical
structure of DNA?
a) sucrose density centrifugation

b) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
c) X-ray diffraction/crystallography
d) autoradiography
e) ion exchange chromatography
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
31) In a right-handed double helix, if one looks down the central axis of the molecule,
_________.
a) each strand follows a counterclockwise path as it moves away from the observer
b) each strand follows a clockwise path as it moves away from the observer
c) each strand follows a rectangular path as it moves toward the observer
d) each strand follows a clockwise path as it moves toward the observer
e) one strand follows a clockwise path as it moves away from the observer, the other follows a
clockwise path as it moves toward the observe
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
32) Which molecule provides a DNA molecule with most of its negative charge?
a) deoxyribose
b) ribose
c) phosphate group
d) chlorine ion
e) adenine
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
33) Which statement below explains the uniform width of the DNA molecule along its entire
width?
a) A purine nitrogenous base always pairs with another purine nitrogenous base.
b) A pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with another pyrimidine nitrogenous base.
c) A pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with a purine nitrogenous base.
d) Repulsion between phosphate groups keeps the strands a uniform distance apart.
e) Attraction between phosphate groups keeps the strands a uniform distance apart.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
34) ________ refers to the fact that the sequence of one DNA strand specifies the sequence of
the other strand in the double helix.
a) Indirectionality
b) Complexity
c) Complementarity
d) Similarity
e) Compulsivity
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
35) The inheritable information encoded in DNA resides in ________.
a) phosphates in the backbone

b) sugars in the backbone
c) the DNA base sequence
d) the sugars and phosphate groups together
e) the phosphodiester linkages
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
36) Which type of enzyme is essential for processes like DNA replication and transcription to
prevent excessive supercoiling from developing as the complementary strands of the DNA
duplex separate and unwind?
a) topoisomerase
b) telomerase
c) topologicase
d) helicase
e) isomerase
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
37) Which type of enzyme makes a transient break in both DNA duplex strands and then
transports another segment of a DNA molecule (or separate molecule entirely) through the break
and reseals the severed strands?
a) Type I topoisomerase
b) Type II topoisomerase
c) Type I topologicase
d) Type II topologicase
e) Type I isomerase
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
38) What function does topoisomerase II serve in preparation for mitosis?
a) It pulls the chromosomes apart in association with the spindle.

b) It organizes the spindle.
c) It disentangles DNA molecules.
d) It moves genes from place to place.
e) It lengthens chromosomes at the end of mitosis.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
39) In humans, the genome is essentially equivalent to all of the genetic information that is
present in a ______ set of chromosomes.
a) triploid
b) double
c) haploid
d) diploid
e) polyploid
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 10.5 Explain how DNA denaturation and renaturation have helped
advance the understanding of genome structure.
Section Reference: Section 10.5 The Complexity of the Genome
40) How is the degree of DNA denaturation measured in C0t studies?
a) Absorbance of UV light by DNA increases as DNA denatures.

b) Absorbance of UV light by DNA decreases as DNA denatures.
c) Absorbance of infrared light by DNA increases as DNA denatures.
d) The temperature of the solution indicates the degree of denaturation.
e) The color of the solution indicates the degree of denaturation.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
41) Which type of DNA sequence is typified by short sequences of DNA (five to a few hundred
base pairs in length) repeated a large number of times in tandem to form very large clusters, each
containing up to several million base pairs of DNA?
a) satellite DNAs
b) minisatellite DNAs
c) microsatellite DNAs
d) consensus sequences
e) microminisatellite DNAs
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
42) Why are satellite DNAs separated from the bulk of the genome during density gradient
centrifugation?
a) They include more phosphate and sugar groups per nitrogenous base.
b) Their base composition is significantly different from that of the bulk of the genome.
c) They have higher molecular weights.
d) They have a higher negative charge than the bulk of the genome.
e) They have a higher positive charge than the bulk of the genome.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
43) Why are satellite DNAs called satellite DNAs?
a) They orbit the Earth.

b) They form bands in a density gradient within the main band formed by the bulk of the
genome.
c) They form bands in a density gradient separate from the main band formed by the bulk of the
genome.
d) They form bands on an agarose gel separate from the main band formed by the bulk of the
genome.
e) They form small bands on an agarose gel within the main band formed by the bulk of the
genome.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
44) Why would much larger satellite DNAs be unlikely to form satellites in density gradients?
a) Larger satellites are less likely to have a base composition similar to that of the bulk of the
genome.
b) Larger satellites have higher molecular weights than the bulk of the genome.
c) Larger satellites will have the same molecular weight as the bulk of the genome.
d) Larger satellites are more likely to have a base composition similar to that of the bulk of the
genome.
e) Larger satellites have the same charge as the bulk of the genome.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
45) The labeled, single-stranded DNAs used to localize the positions of specific complementary
DNA sequences within the chromosomes in in situ hybridization studies are called _______.
a) altoids
b) probatives
c) probes
d) bindins
e) prorbs
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
46) To what does avidin directly bind with high affinity?
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) fish
d) biotin
e) centromeres
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
47) Satellite DNAs have been localized to the _________________- during in situ hybridization
studies:
a) nucleolus
b) centromere
c) spindle
d) mitochondria
e) nucleosomes
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
48) What kind of DNA sequence is 20% to 80% of the total DNA in plant and animal genomes,
depending on the organism, and includes sequences repeated within the genome a few times to
tens of thousands of times?
a) moderately repeated DNA sequences

b) nonrepeated sequences
c) highly repeated sequences
d) satellites, minisatellites and microsatellites
e) very unique sequence DNA
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
49) What is one proposed explanation for the wide discrepancies in genome sizes from species to
species?
a) More advanced organisms have more DNA.

b) Genomes have an extremely variable number of repeated DNA sequences that do not code for
proteins.
c) Some organisms have multiple repeats of each gene.
d) More advanced organisms have more genes.
e) More advanced organisms have more centromeric DNA.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
50) Approximately what percentage of the human genome codes for amino acids in proteins?
a) 15%
b) 23%
c) 1.5%
d) 7.5%
e) 70%
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
51) Which polyploidization mechanism is thought to occur most often in plants?
a) Two related species mate, forming an organism with the combined chromosomes from both
parents.
b) A single-celled embryo duplicates its chromosomes, but they are not separated into separate
cells and remain in a single cell that develops into a viable embryo.
c) Chromosomes spontaneously split down the middle during the G1 portion of the cell cycle.
d) Plants form a syncytium.
e) There is a spontaneous duplication of chromosomes at random.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 10.6 Outline the mechanisms by which genetic elements move from one
genome site to another.
Section Reference: Section 10.6 The Stability of the Genome
52) Susumu Ohno proposed that the evolution of vertebrates from a much simpler invertebrate
ancestor was made possible by two separate rounds of whole-genome duplication during an early
evolutionary period. How was it proposed that the whole-gene duplication led to the encoding of
the more complex vertebrate body?
a) The extra genes immediately resulted in a bigger body.

b) The many extra genes generated by genetic duplication can be molded over time into new
genes needed to encode the complex vertebrate body.
c) The genes could rapidly combine to make new structures.
d) The gene duplication makes the nucleus bigger and makes the cell more versatile.
e) The duplication of the chromosomes leads to new cytoplasmic structures in the first
generation.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
53) What evidence supports the Ohno suggestion about vertebrate evolution from ancestral
invertebrates by whole-genome duplication?
a) Modern vertebrates have four times the number of certain groups of genes compared to their
homologues in amphioxus.
b) Modern vertebrates and amphioxus have exactly the same number of certain groups of genes.
c) Modern vertebrates have six times the number of certain groups of genes compared to their
homologues in amphioxus.
d) Amphioxus has four times the number of certain groups of genes compared to their
homologues in modern vertebrates.
e) Amphioxus has eight times the number of certain groups of genes compared to their
homologues in modern vertebrates.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
54) In which of the following organisms is polyploidization common?
a) apples
b) wheat
c) bananas
d) coffee
e) all of these are examples of polyploidization
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
55) What causes unequal crossing over?
a) A pair of homologous chromosomes align perfectly during meiosis followed by genetic

exchange.
b) A pair of homologous chromosomes aligns imperfectly during meiosis followed by genetic
exchange.
c) Sections of the chromosome are replicated spontaneously.
d) Pieces of chromosomes are translocated from one place to another.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
56) How is a cluster of tandemly repeated segments generated at a localized site within a
chromosome?
a) by a single duplication event
b) by multiple vaporizations
c) by repeated duplication of a particular sequence over a number of generations
d) by a single inversion event
e) by a single deletion even
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
57) When a gene is duplicated one or more times, it gives rise to a group of genes that may
diverge by mutation, but their sequences will generally remain closely related and they will
encode similar polypeptides. The genes produced in this way can be referred to as ________.
a) isotopes
b) isomers
c) isosceles
d) gene families
e) gene isoforms
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
58) Which phrase below describes the structure of hemoglobin?
a) either an -globin or a -globin chain

b) an -globin and a -globin chain
c) two -globin and two -globin chains
d) three -globin chains and one -globin chain
e) four -globin or four -globin chains
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
59) Hemoglobin molecules analyzed at various times during an animal's life seem to be highly
variable. What is the explanation for this?
a) Contaminants at various points in an organism's life cause the variation in data.

b) Hemoglobin denatures when isolated from older embryos.
c) The combinations of -family and -family globin polypeptides differ with developmental
stage.
d) Hemoglobins are chemically altered as they age.
e) Hemoglobins bind copper ions instead of iron ions.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
60) When a gene has been duplicated one or more times, what are the possible things that can
happen to the duplicated gene?
a) The duplicated gene can accumulate favorable mutations and acquire a new function.
b) The duplicated gene can be lost through deletion.
c) The duplicated gene can be rendered nonfunctional by unfavorable mutations.
d) If there are two copies of the gene, both could undergo mutation so that each evolves a more
specialized function than the original gene.
e) All of these are correct.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
61) Why is it thought that certain primitive fish diverged from vertebrates before the globin gene
was first duplicated?
a) The fish are very old.

b) The fish do not have any hemoglobin.
c) The hemoglobin of the fish consists of 8 polypeptide subunits.
d) These fish have only one globin gene instead of multiple globin genes, suggesting that they
diverged from other vertebrates before the first duplication of the globin gene.
e) These fish have four globin genes instead of a single globin gene, suggesting they diverged
from other vertebrates before the first duplication of the globin gene.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
62) The globin gene cluster contains stretches of DNA that are homologous to the sequences of
functional globin genes, but contain severe accumulated mutations that render them
nonfunctional. Most of these noncoding regions have no known function. They are considered to
be evolutionary relics and are called _________.
a) reliquaries
b) pseudoemissaries
c) pseudogenes
d) pseudoproteins
e) pseudoglobins
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
63) The genetic rearrangement that Barbara McClintock discovered is called _________ and the
mobile genetic elements she discovered are called ________.
a) transposition, transposable elements

b) transposable elements, transposition
c) transference, transferable elements
d) mutations, mutable elements
e) transposition, transposables
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
64) DNA sequences in bacteria that move from one place in the genome to another are called
________.
a) movers
b) jumpons
c) transposons
d) transpodons
e) jumposons
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
65) Transposase is an enzyme that __________.
a) degrades transposons
b) builds transposons
c) catalyzes transposon excision from a donor DNA site and its subsequent insertion at a target
DNA site
d) degrades target DNA
e) rearranges transposon DNA
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
66) Which type of DNA sequence in the genome is interspersed and probably arose by
transposition of mobile genetic elements?
a) satellite DNA
b) microsatellite DNA
c) minisatellite DNA
d) moderately repeated DNA sequences
e) unique sequence DNA
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
67) How do Alu sequences contribute to the genetic diversity in the human population?
a) Their transposition generates considerable differences in the timing of Alu sequence

movement.
b) Alu sequences amplify the effects of genes that they abut.
c) Their transposition generates considerable differences in the location of Alu sequences.
d) Alu sequences change the DNA sequences of the genes that they abut.
e) Alu sequences reshuffle genes on every chromosome.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
68) What do many people believe the function of transposable elements is?
a) It is thought that they are mostly junk with no function.

b) It is thought that they transpose base pairs.
c) It is thought that they make enzymes more efficient.
d) It is thought that they make enzymes less efficient.
e) It is thought that they denature enzymes.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
69) What word below most accurately describes transposable elements?
a) stable
b) offspring
c) helpers
d) genetic scrap yard
e) genetic symbionts
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
70) A transposable element is a type of genetic parasite that can invade a host genome from the
outside world, spread within the genome and be transmitted to offspring. Under what
circumstances would a transposable element NOT be able to accomplish this?
a) if there are serious adverse effects on the ability of the host to survive and reproduce
b) if there are substantial positive effects on the ability of the host to survive and reproduce
c) if it speeds up the activity of amylase
d) if is slows down the activity of triosephosphate isomerase
e) if it increases the rate at which an organism can sense time
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
71) What may be the primary mechanism in the evolution of proteins that are composed of
domains derived from different ancestral genes?
a) gene duplication
b) transposable elements
c) crossing over
d) random assortment
e) genetic hyperbole
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
72) _______ is thought to be derived from a reverse transcriptase encoded by an ancient
retrotransposon.
a) Phosphatase
b) Esterase
c) Telomerase
d) Protein kinase
e) Phosphodiesterase
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
73) ________ plays a key role in replicating DNA at the ends of chromosomes.
a) PolyA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) Telomerase
d) Protein kinase
e) Phosphodiesterase
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
74) How might a transposase be responsible for our ability to ward off infectious disease?
a) Enzymes that make the proteins in antibodies also make transposases.

b) Enzymes involved in antibody gene rearrangement may be derived from a transposase
encoded by an ancient DNA transposon.
c) Antibodies are transposases.
d) Most transposases are antibodies.
e) Enzymes involved in transposase gene rearrangement may be derived from ancient antibodies.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
75) Conserved portions of mammalian genomes are assumed to be _________.
a) repeated
b) important
c) unimportant
d) long
e) extraordinary
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 10.7 Identify the mechanisms that can explain how relatively few genes
can direct a highly complex organism.
Section Reference: Section 10.7 Sequencing Genomes: The Footprints of Biological Evolution
76) Current estimates place the number of protein-coding human genes in the neighborhood of
_______.
a) 100,000
b) 30,000
c) 20,000
d) 75,000
e) 5,000
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
77) Humans have roughly the same number of protein-coding genes as _________.
a) a mouse
b) a nematode
c) a puffer fish
d) a chicken
e) all of these are correct
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
78) A single gene can encode a number of related proteins as a result of a process called
_______.
a) alternative splicing
b) gene expression
c) polymorphism
d) alternative addition
e) alternative expression
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
79) An area of biological study that focuses on the ways that proteins work together as complex
networks rather than as individual actors is called __________.
a) systems biology
b) complex biology
c) systematics
d) complexity
e) networkonics
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
80) Experimentation at the J. Craig Venter Institute has led to all of the following EXCEPT:
a) inserting a synthetic genome into Mycoplasma

b) inserting a synthetic genome into Mycobacterium
c) attempts to create minimal bacterial genome through rational gene selection
d) attempts to create minimal bacterial genome through mutagenesis
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 10.8 Explain how DNA-editing technologies make it possible to
introduce changes in the genome.
Section Reference: Section 10.8 Engineering Linkage: Engineering Genomes
81) CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing is characterized by:
a) introduction of random sequence changes into the human genome

b) introduction of large scale genetic changes in diverse genomes
c) introduction of non-targeted genetic changes in diverse genomes
d) small scale, targeted changes in diverse genomes
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
82) Venter’s first synthetic genome was comprised of _____________ 1kB segments joined
together.
a) 11
b) 100
c) 1,000
d) 15,000
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
83) When we compare the DNA of the human and chimpanzee, it is seen that the genomes differ
by about __________ percent.
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 1
d) 4
e) 10
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
84) Which of the following does NOT suggest that the AMY1 gene has been subject to natural
selection during human evolution?
a) Chimps have one copy of the gene in their genome, while humans have multiple copies of the
same gene.
b) Chimps have multiple copies of the gene in their genome, while humans have one copy of the
same gene.
c) There is a higher concentration of the enzyme in human saliva than in chimp saliva.
d) The number of copies of the AMY1 gene tends to be higher in human populations that ingest
greater quantities of starch in their diet.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
85) A significant proportion of functional DNA sequences are __________ and thus are _______
parts of the genome.
a) duplicated, highly conserved

b) constantly evolving, not highly conserved
c) constantly evolving, highly conserved
d) invariant, not highly conserved
e) duplicated, invariant
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
86) What does it likely mean if portions of the noncoding regions of the genome are conserved?
a) Exons code for proteins.
b) Exons are not as important as once was thought.
c) Noncoding parts of the genome actually have important, unidentified functions.
d) Introns have no importance.
e) Introns must be excised to maintain consistency.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
87) Why would changes in the genes for transcription factors be expected to generate major
phenotypic differences?
a) They are very highly expressed genes.

b) They can affect the expression of large numbers of other genes.
c) They can affect the expression of relatively few other genes.
d) Their gene products normally denature more rapidly than other gene products.
e) Their gene products are remarkably stable.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
88) Persons with mutations in the FOXP2 gene suffer from a severe speech and language
disorder. What is the nature of the disorder?
a) The person’s lips are malformed.

b) The person is unable to perform the fine muscular movements of lips and tongue that are
required for vocal communication.
c) The person has malformed vocal cords.
d) The person has a malformed tongue.
e) The person with the disorder is deaf.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
89) ____________ are sites in the genome that vary among different individuals. This term
usually refers to a genetic variant that occurs in at least 1% of a species population.
a) Genetic variances
b) Genetic anomalies
c) Genetic polymorphisms
d) Genetic polyploidisms
e) Genetic polydactyly
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
90) The most common type of genetic variability in humans occurs at sites in the genome where
single nucleotide differences are found among different members of the population. Which term
is NOT a correct reference to these sequence regions?
a) single nucleotide polymorphisms

b) SNPs
c) "snips"
d) single nucleotide polymathisms
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
91) Using genome-wide association studies (GWASs), an association was found between
___________ and the high risk allele identified as _____________.
a) diabetes, APOE4
b) cardiovascular disease, APOE6
c) congestive heart failure, APLE2
d) Alzheimer’s disease, APOE4
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
92) Genome-wide association studies (GWASs) have allowed researchers to identify genes or
non-coding sites for which certain variants lead to increased risk of _______________.
a) Type 1 diabetes
b) Type 2 diabetes
c) Crohn’s disease
d) cancer
e) all choices are correct
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
93) Which type of gene or DNA sequence would you predict to contribute most significantly to
the phenomenon of epistasis?
a) a gene encoding a single enzyme

b) a gene encoding a neurotransmitter
c) a gene encoding a transcription factor
d) a noncoding SNP region
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
94) A large chunk of DNA (around 20 kB) which is likely to be vertically inherited as a block is
termed a ______________:
a) diplotype
b) haplotype
c) genotype
d) SNP
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
95) In the 1980s, researchers found that the manipulation of Agrobacterium tumor-inducing genes had
broader value in
a) genetic modification of economically important crops to improve quality and yield.
b) eradicating weeds that are harmful to desirable crop growth.
c) identification of cancer causing genes in humans.

d) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: a
Green Cells: Gene Transfer by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 10.10 Identify the basis of gene transfer in Agrobacterium.
Section Reference: 10.10: Green Cells: Gene Transfer by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
96) Which model organisms provided valuable data in early studies of chromosomal inheritance?
(Select all correct choices)
a) humans
b) sea urchins
c) laboratory mice
d) roundworms such as Ascaris
Answer: b, d
Difficulty: Easy

97) Which of the following can lead to an increase or decrease in the number of chromosomes
over time and can thus provide a clear visual footprint of the evolutionary process? (Select all
correct choices)
a) a simple loss of chromosomes during a mitotic event

b) complete fragmentation of a chromosome
c) the splitting of a chromosome
d) the fusion of two chromosomes into one chromosome
Answer: c, d
Difficulty: Medium

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Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Karp 9e

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a conclusion reached by Mendel?

a) Characteristics of plants are governed by distinct factors or units of inheritance.

2) Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment states that ____________.

a) the recessive allele is always expressed

4) Different versions of a gene are called _________.

5) The effect of _________ on embryonic development is ___________.

a) They have more cilia.

7) What would happen if meiosis did not include a reduction division?

a) Edouard van Beneden

9) How many chromosomes would a sexually-reproducing organism with 6 chromosomes in

11) Which word below refers to a pair of homologous chromosomes?

Question Type: Multiple Select

12) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a gram-negative bacterium found in soil that causes:

a) highly acidic soil.

d) Dutch elm disease.

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.10 Identify the basis of gene transfer in Agrobacterium.

Section Reference: 10.10: Green Cells: Gene Transfer by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question Type: Multiple Choice

a) a group of genes carried on the same chromosome

a) a short generation time from egg to maturity

a) to allow less gene expression

a) a pentose sugar and a phosphate group

21) Which of the following is a DNA nucleotide?

a) a phosphate group, adenine and ribose

22) Which of the following is an RNA nucleoside?

a) a phosphate group, adenine and ribose

23) The backbone of a DNA molecule is _________.

a) made up of sugars alone

24) Purines are characterized by _______; pyrimidines are characterized by ______.

a) sucrose density centrifugation

35) The inheritable information encoded in DNA resides in ________.

a) phosphates in the backbone

38) What function does topoisomerase II serve in preparation for mitosis?

a) It pulls the chromosomes apart in association with the spindle.

40) How is the degree of DNA denaturation measured in C0t studies?

a) Absorbance of UV light by DNA increases as DNA denatures.

43) Why are satellite DNAs called satellite DNAs?

a) They orbit the Earth.

46) To what does avidin directly bind with high affinity?

a) moderately repeated DNA sequences

a) More advanced organisms have more DNA.

51) Which polyploidization mechanism is thought to occur most often in plants?

a) The extra genes immediately resulted in a bigger body.

55) What causes unequal crossing over?

a) A pair of homologous chromosomes align perfectly during meiosis followed by genetic

58) Which phrase below describes the structure of hemoglobin?

a) either an -globin or a -globin chain

a) Contaminants at various points in an organism's life cause the variation in data.

a) The fish are very old.

a) transposition, transposable elements

a) Their transposition generates considerable differences in the timing of Alu sequence

a) It is thought that they are mostly junk with no function.

69) What word below most accurately describes transposable elements?

a) Enzymes that make the proteins in antibodies also make transposases.

75) Conserved portions of mammalian genomes are assumed to be _________.

5) The effect of _ on embryonic development is ___.

24) Purines are characterized by _; pyrimidines are characterized by .