XII Physics Objectives

HEAT PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
CHAPTER # 11 OBJECTIVES [email protected]
HEAT
Q.1 Choose the correct answers from the following:-

(1) The temperature at which Centigrade scale is equal to Fahrenheit scale is ___.
* 0 * -32 * -40 * 100 * -273
(2) If a substance contracts on freezing, an increase of pressure ___ the freezing point.
* Decreases * Increases
* Does not change * None of these
(3) Amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state without the rise in temperature is
known as ___.
* Specific heat * Latent heat
* Thermal conductivity * None of these
(4) According to kinetic theory of gases, the root mean square speed of gas molecules is directly
proportional to ___.
* √ * T * *
(5) When a body has the same temperature as that of its surrounding, then ___.
* It does not radiate heat
* It radiates the same quantity of heat as it receives from the surrounding
* It radiates less quantity of heat than it receives from the surrounding
* It radiates more quantity of heat than it receives from the surrounding
(6) Mean translational kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is given by ___.
* * * * None of these
(7) Process in which there is no heat exchange is called ___.
* Isothermal process * Isochoric process
* Adiabatic process * Isobaric process
(8) The pressure and volume formula of a gas undergoing an Adiabatic change is ___.
* P Constant * PV = Constant
* * (
(9) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the containing vessel because ___.
* It possess momentum
* The gas molecules collide with each other
* The gas has a finite volume
(10) If a substance contracts on freezing, the increase of pressure ___ the freezing point.
* Increases * Decreases * Does not change
(11) A thermo flask contains hot tea. It is shaken rapidly. If the tea is considered as the system, then
its temperature will ___.
* Remain the same * Rise
* Fall * Have its internal energy changed
(12) If the temperature of the cold body is decreased, the efficiency of a Carnot engine ___.
* Decreases * Increases * Remains constant
* 0 * -32 * - 40 * 100 * -273
(14) The average K.E. of a molecule of a perfect gas is ___.
* * * * None of these
(15) The internal energy in an Isothermal process ___.
* Becomes zero * Remains the same
(16) 273 K =___.
* 0 0F * -32 0F * 32 0F
0 0
(17) Two ends of a rod are at temperatures -10 C and -30 C respectively. Heat will flow from ___.
* -10 0C to -30 0C * -30 0C to -10 0C * None of these
(18) The pressure exerted by the gas molecules on the walls of a vessel increases if the ___.
* Temperature of the gas decreases
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* Velocity of the molecules of the gas decreases

* Collisions of the molecules of the gas with its walls increases
* None of the above happens
(19) The net change in entropy of a system in a natural process is ___.
* Positive * Negative * Zero * Infinite
(20) Which of the following statements is true?
* Heat can be converted completely in to work
* Work can be converted completely in to heat
* Both work and heat are inter-convertible
* Neither heat nor work is inter-convertible
(21) The K.E. of the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero temperature will be ___.
* Infinite * Zero * Very high * Below zero
(22) In an isothermal process, the internal energy of the system ___.
* Remains the same * Increases
* Decreases * None of them happens
(23) Real gas molecules do not strictly obey gas laws at ___.
* High pressure and low temperature * Low pressure and high temperature
* High pressure and high temperature * None of the above
(24) The temperature on Fahrenheit scale corresponding to Absolute zero is ___.
* 32 0F * -180 0F * - 460 0F * 212 0F
0
(25) The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76 cm high at 0 C is called ___.
* 1 liter * 1 cm3 * 1 atmosphere * 1 N/m2
(26) The universal gas constant per molecule is called ___.
* Plank‟s constant * Stefan‟s constant
* Avogadro‟s constant * Boltzmann‟s constant
(27) The quantity of heat required for per degree rise in temperature of a body is called ___.
* Heat of vaporization * Heat of fusion
* Specific heat capacity * Heat capacity
(28) The P-V diagram in the figure is for ___.
* An isothermal change * An Adiabatic change
* An Isochoric change * None of these
(29) In an isobaric process the work done is equal to ___.
* * * *
(30) * The product of P and T is constant if the volume is constant
* The ratio of P and V is constant if the temperature is constant
* The product of P and V is constant if the temperature is constant
* The product of V and T is constant if the pressure is constant
(31) The S.I. unit of heat is ___.
* Joule * Calorie * Centigrade * Fahrenheit
(32) Zero on the Celsius scale is equal to ___.
* 273 K * 32 K * 100 K * 212 K
(33) The internal energy of a system depends on ___.
* Pressure * Volume * Temperature * Entropy
(34) The entropy of the universe ___.
* Always remains constant * Always decrease
* Either remains constant or increases * Always increases
(35) The process during which no external work is performed is ___.
* Isothermal * Isochoric * Isobaric * Adiabatic
(36) 273 Kelvin corresponds to ___.
* 273 0C * -32 0F * 0 0C * -273 0C
(37) One cubic meter is equal to ___.
* 106 cm3 * 102 cm3 * 103 cm3 * 10-3 cm3
(38) If the pressure of the gas is doubled, keeping the temperature constant, the volume of the gas is
___.
* Reduced to one-fourth * Doubled
* Reduced to one-half of the original volume * Increased four times
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(39) According to Charles's law ___.

* VT = constant, when the pressure is constant
*
* PV = constant, when the temperature is constant * None of these
(40) If the volume of the system remains constant during a process, it is called ___.
* Isochoric * Isothermal * Isobaric * Adiabatic
(41) Boltzmann constant is equal to ___.
√
* * * * *
(42) According to Charles's law ___.
* PV = constant *
* VT = constant *
* 00 * -320 * -400 * -2730
0
(44) The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance through 1 C is
known as ___.
* Specific heat * Latent heat * Calorie * Joule
(45) The internal energy in an isothermal process ___.
* Becomes zero * Remains the same
(46) The maximum efficiency of a heat engine is obtained by ___.
* Increasing the temperature of the hot and cold simultaneously, keeping others factors
constant
* Decreasing the temperature of the sink and increasing the temperature of the source
keeping the others factors constant
* Decreasing the temperatures simultaneously
* None of these
(47) The change of Entropy is given by ___.
* * * *
(48) During an Adiabatic change, the pressure and volume formula of a gas is given by ___.
* PV = constant *
* *
(49) The unit of specific heat is ___.
-1 -1 -1 -1 -1
* J kg C * J kg K * J kg C * J kg C
(50) RMS velocity of a gas molecule at absolute zero temperature is ___.
* * * *
(51) The value of Boltzmann constant is ___.
* *
* *
(52) The heat required to produce a unit change in the temperature of a unit mass of a substance is
called ___.
* Heat capacity * Molar heat * Specific heat * Latent heat
(53) The difference of Molar specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume per mole is
called ___.
* Molar heat * Heat constant
* Boltzmann constant * Gas constant
(54) A domestic pressure is based on ___.
* Adiabatic process * Isothermal process
* Isobaric process * Isochoric process
0
(55) The absolute temperature corresponding to 212 F is ___.
* 485 K * 373 K * 161 K * 100 K
0
(56) In Celsius scale ( a difference of i.e., )1 C in magnitude is equal to ___.
* 32 0F * 16 0F * 0 0F * 1.8 0F
(57) The maximum work done can be measured in the process called ___.
* Isobaric * Isochoric * Isothermal * Adiabatic
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(58) The change in disorder of the system is equal to ___.

* * * *
(59) One cubic meter volume is equal to ___.
2 3 3 3 6 3 -3 3
* 10 cm * 10 cm * 10 cm * 10 cm
(60) In C.G.S. system one calorie of heat is equal to ___.
* 11.184 J * 2.184 J * 3.184 J * 4.184 J
(61) The efficiency of a Carnot engine is given by ___.
* * * *
(62) Fahrenheit and Celsius scales of temperature coincide at ___.
* 00 * 2730 * 2730 * -400
(63) The volume of a gas at constant pressure becomes zero at ___.
* 273 K * 273 0C * -273 K * -273 0C
(64) According to the Kinetic Theory of gases the absolute temperature of a perfect gas is ___.
* Inversely proportional to the K.E. of the molecules
* Equal to the kinetic energy of the molecules
* Directly proportional to the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules
* Independent of the kinetic energy of the molecules.
(65) The area of a Carnot cycle represents ___.
* Energy loss due to leakage * Heat rejected
* Heat absorbed * Useful work
0 0
(66) Two ends „A‟ and „B‟ of a rod are at temperatures -10 C and -30 C. The heat will flow from ___.
0 0
* -30 C to -10 C * Will not flow at all
0 0
* -10 C to -30 C * None of the above
(67) 273 K is equal to ___.
* 0 0F * -32 * -273 0F * 32 0F
(68) The kinetic energy per mole of a gas is ___.
* * * *
(69) If the volume of a given mass of a gas is doubled without changing its temperature, the
pressure of the gas is ___.
* * Reduced to of the initial value
* The same as the initial value * Double of the initial value
(70) A bimetallic thermostat works on the principle of ___.
* Linear expansion * Bulk expansion
* Differential linear expansion * All of these
(71) The area bounded by the isothermal and an adiabatic curve in a PV diagram for a heat engine
represents ___.
* Heat intake * Heat rejected
* Work done * Total kinetic energy
(72) Entropy has been called the degree of disorder because ___.
* The entropy of the universe remains constant
* The entropy of the universe always decreases
* The entropy of the universe always increases
* None of these
(73) A thermodynamic process in which the change in volume of the system is zero tells that ___.
* The work done by the system is maximum
* The work done on the system is maximum
* The work done on and by the system is zero
* None of the above
(74) Heat energy cannot be measured in ___.
* J * B.T.U * Kelvin * Calorie
(75) Boyle‟s Law holds good for an ideal gas in a process called ___.
(76) According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics 100 percent conversion of heat energy in to
work is ___.
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* Possible * Not possible

* Possible when conditions are ideal * Possible when conditions are not ideal
(77) If no heat flows into or out of a system, the process is called ___.
* Isobaric * Isothermal * Isochoric * Adiabatic
(78) The molar heat capacities of polyatomic gases as compared to the monoatomic gases are ___.
* Greater * Smaller * Equal * Infinite
(79) Thermostat is a device used to keep the ___.
* Temperature constant * Entropy constant
* Heat constant * Pressure constant
0 0 0
(80) Two steam engines A and B have their sources at 600 C and 400 C and their sinks at 300 C
0
and 200 C respectively ___.
* They are equally efficient
* A is more efficient than B
* B is more efficient than A
* If their sinks are interchanged, their efficiencies will not change
0
(81) On Fahrenheit scale the temperature of 50 C will be ___.
* 40 0F * 10 0F * 122 0F * 105 0F
(82) Kinetic energy per mole of an ideal gas is ___.
* * * * *
(83) In Adiabatic expansion, the internal energy of the gas ___.
* Remains the same * Decreases
* Increases * Becomes zero
(84) The maximum work done is possible in this process ___.
(85) Absolute zero corresponds to this temperature on Fahrenheit scale ___.
* 32 0F * -180 0F * * 212 0F
(86) The kinetic energy per mole of a gas is ___.
* * * *
(87) The sum of all the energies of the molecules in a substance is called ___.
* Heat energy * Temperature * Kinetic energy * Potential energy
Q.2 Fill in the blanks:-
(1) When temperature of source and sink of a heat engine becomes equal, the entropy change will
be ___.
(2) Quantity of heat in a body depends upon its mass, temperature and ___.
(3) During the change of state the heat supplied does not change the temperature, it is used in
___.
(4) The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state without the rise in temperature
is known as ___.
(5) If heat energy is removed from the system, the change in entropy is ___.
(6) If a liquid contracts on freezing, an increase of pressure ___ the freezing point.
(7) A system in which there is no transfer of mass and energy is called a/an ___.
(8) The co-efficient of linear expansion is ___ times the co-efficient of volume expansion.
(9) The co-efficient of linear expansion is ___ times the co-efficient of volume expansion.
(10) In an Isobaric process the work done is ___.
Q.3 Write down whether the following statements are True or False:-
(1) Graph between “ ” and “ at constant temperature is a hyperbola.
(2) Molar specific heat of a gas at constant volume is always greater than that of at constant
pressure.
(3) The first law of thermodynamics is an expression of the law of conservation of energy.
(4) The boiling point of pure water at standard pressure is 273 K.
(5) The unit of Specific heat capacity is .
(6) One kilogram of hydrogen contains more atoms than one kilogram of lead.
(7) If the temperature of the source is increased the efficiency of a Carnot engine decreases.
(8) At the boiling point the heat added to a substance increases its temperature.
(9) Under no condition can heat be transferred from a body at a low temperature to one at a higher
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temperature.
(10) The pressure and volume formula of a gas undergoing an Adiabatic change is
(11) The graph of pressure and volume of a certain mass of a gas at constant temperature is a
hyperbola.
0 0
(12) The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one kg of water from 30 C to 40 C is
42,000 J.
(13) Entropy is the disorder of the system.
(14) Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales can never be equal at any temperature.
(15) If heat energy is removed from the system, the change in Entropy is positive.
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CHAPTER # 11 NUMERICALS [email protected]
Temperature Scales
Q.1 A Celsius thermometer in a laboratory reads the surrounding temperature as 30 0C; what is the temperature in the
Fahrenheit scale and in absolute scale?
(86 0F, 303 K) 2006
Linear & Cubical Expansion
Q.1 A meter bar of steel is at 0 0C and another meter bar is at –2.5 0C. What will be the difference between their lengths
at 30 0C.
(0.00003 m OR ) 1995
Q.2 A glass flask is filled to the mark with 60 cm3 of mercury at 20 0C. If the flask and its contents are heated to 40 0C,
how much mercury will be above the mark? 0C and 0C)
( ) 1997
Q.3 A cylinder of diameter 1.00 cm at 30 0C is to be slide in to a hole in a steel plate. The hole has a diameter of
0.99970 cm at 30 0C. To what temperature must the plate be heated? ( 0C)
(330.27 K) 2002 P/E

Q.4 A brass ring of 20 cm diameter is to be mounted on to a metal rod of 20.02 cm diameter at 20 0C. To what
temperature should the ring be heated? ( 0C)
(345.63 K) 2005
Q.5 Find the change in volume of a brass sphere of 0.6 m diameter when it is heated from 30 0C to 100 0C.
( 0C)
( ) 2006
Q.6 A steel bar is 10 m in length at -2.5 0C. What will be the change in its length when it is at 25 0C?
( 0C)
(3.025 ) 2008
Kinetic Theory of Gases
Q.1 Find the rms speed of nitrogen molecule at 27 0C . Given the mass of nitrogen molecule to be ,
.
(515.70 m/s) 1996
Q.2 Find the root-mean square speed of a hydrogen molecule at 7 0C. Take the mass of a hydrogen molecule to be
and Boltzmann‟s constant = .
(1868.6 m/s) 1998
Q.3 Calculate the volume occupied by a gram-mole of a gas at 10 0C and pressure of one atmosphere.
(0.0233 ) 2000
Q.4 Find the Root Mean Square velocity of a hydrogen gas molecule at 100 0C. Take the mass of the hydrogen
molecule to be and K = .
(2156.7 m/s) 2002 P/M
Q.5 Calculate the density of hydrogen gas, considering it to be an ideal gas, when the root mean square velocity of
hydrogen molecules are 1850 m/s at 00C and 1 atmosphere pressure.
(1 atmospheric pressure = )
(0.08853 kg/ 2004
Q.6 Calculate the density of hydrogen gas, considering it to be an ideal gas, when the root mean square velocity of
hydrogen molecules are 1850 m/s at 00C and 1 atmosphere pressure.
(1 atmospheric pressure = )
(0.08853 kg/ 2007
Specific Heat Capacity
Q.1 A 100 gm copper block is heated in boiling water for 10 minutes and then it is dropped in to 150 gm of water at
30 0C in a 200 gm calorimeter. If the temperature of water is raised to 33.6 0C, determine the specific heat f the
material of the calorimeter? (For copper = 386 J/Kg.K)
(409.8 J/Kg.K) 2005
Q.2 A 200 g piece of metal is heated to 150 0C and then dropped in to an aluminum calorimeter of mass 500 g,
containing 500 g of water initially at 25 0C. Find the final equilibrium temperature of the system.
Page 7 of 43
(299.24 K) 2011
Gas Laws
Q.1 An air storage tank whose volume is 110 liters contains 2 kg of air at a pressure of 15 atmospheres. How much air
would have to be forced in to the tank to increase the pressure to 18 atmospheres, assuming no change in
temperature?
(0.4 kg) 2003 P/M
Q.2 A scientist stores 22 gm of a gas at 1200 atmospheres. Overnight the tank develops slight leakage and the
pressure drops to 950 atmospheres. Calculate the mass of the gas escaped.
(4.6 gm) 2009
1st Law of Thermodynamics
Q.1 1200 J of heat energy is supplied to the system at constant pressure. The internal energy of the system is
increased by 750 J and the volume by 4.5 cubic meters. Find the work done against piston and the pressure on the
piston.
(450 J, 100 N/m2) 1994
Q.2 In an Isobaric process when 2000 J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder, the piston moves through
0.1 m under a constant pressure of . If the area of the piston is . Calculate the work
done and the increase in internal energy of the system.
(1010 J, 990 J) 1996
Q.3 In an Isobaric process when 2000 J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder the piston moves through
0.5 m under a constant pressure of . If the area of the piston is . Calculate the work
done and the increase in internal energy of the system.
(1010 J, 990 J) 2000
Q.4 If one mole of a monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure from -30 0C to 20 0C, find the change in its
internal energy and the work done during the process. (
(625 J, 415 J) 2001
Q.5 When 2000 J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder at constant pressure of , the piston of
area of cross-section moves through 0.5 m; calculate the work done and the increase in internal
energy of the system.
(1010 J, 990 J) 2002 P/M
Q.6 1200 J of heat energy is supplied to the system at constant pressure. The internal energy of the system is
increased by 750 J and the volume by 4.5 m3. Find the work done against the piston and the pressure on the
piston.
(450 J, 100 N/m2) 2003 P/E
Q.7 In an Isobaric process when 2000 J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder, the piston of area
moves through 40 cm under a pressure of . Calculate the increase in internal energy of the
system.
(1192 J) 2009
Heat Engine
Q.1 A heat engine performs work at the rate of 50 kW. The efficiency of the engine is 30%. Calculate the loss of heat
per hour.
( ) 1995
Q.2 A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 200 K has an efficiency of 50 %. It is desired to increase
this to 75 %. By how many degrees must the temperature decreased, if higher temperature of the reservoir
remains constant?
(100 K) 1997
Q.3 Find the efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 100 0C and 50 0C.
(13.5 %) 1999
Q.4 An ideal heat engine operates in Carnot‟s cycle between temperatures 227 0C and 127 0C and it absorbs 600 J of
heat energy; find the:-
(i) Work done per cycle (ii) Efficiency of the engine
(120 J, 20 %) 2001
Q.5 A heat engine performs 1,000 J of work and at the same time rejects 4,000 J of heat energy to the cold reservoir.
What is the efficiency of the heat engine? If the difference of temperature between the sink and the source of this
engine is 75 0C, find the temperature of its source?
Page 8 of 43
(20 %, 375 K) 2002 P/E

Q.6 The low temperature reservoir of a Carnot engine is at 50C and has an efficiency of 40 %. It is desired to increase
its efficiency to 50 %. By what degrees should the temperature of the hot reservoir be increased?
(92.7 K) 2003 P/M
Q.7 A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 50C has an efficiency of 40 %. It is desired to increase this
efficiency to 50 %. By what degree should the temperature of high-temperature reservoir be increased?
(92.7 K) 2003 P/E
Q.8 The low temperature reservoir of a Carnot engine is at -3 0C and has an efficiency of 40 %. It is desired to increase
the efficiency to 50 %. By how many degrees should the temperature of the hot reservoir be increased?
(90 K) 2004
Q.9 A heat engine performs work at the rate of 50 kW. The efficiency of the engine is 30%. Calculate the loss of heat
per hour.
( ) 2007
Q.10 A Carnot engine performs 2,000 J of work and rejects 4,000 J of heat to the sink. If the difference of temperature
between the source and the sink is 85 0C, find the temperatures of the source and the sink.
(257.57 K, 172.57 K) 2008
Q.11 A heat engine performing 400 J of work in each cycle has an efficiency of 25%. How much heat is absorbed and
rejected in each cycle?
(1600 J, 1200 J) 2010
Q.12 A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 200 K has an efficiency of 50 %. It is desired to increase
this to 75 %. By how many degrees must the temperature of low temperature reservoir be decreased, if the
temperature of the higher temperature reservoir remains constant?
(100 K) 2012
Q.13 The difference of temperature between a hot and a cold body is . If the heat engine is efficient , find the
temperature of the hot and the cold body?
(400 K, 280 K) 2013
Entropy
Q.1 540 calories of heat is required to vaporize 1 gm of water at 1000C . Determine the entropy change involved in
vaporizing 5 gm of water.
(30.4 J/K) 1998
Page 9 of 43
ELECTROSTATICS PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
Q.1 Choose the correct answer from the following:-

(1) If a di-electric slab is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor kept at constant
potential difference then the charge on the capacitor ___.
* Decreases * Increases * Remains the same
(2) Force between two similar point charges separated by a distance “r” is F N, if the distance is
doubled, force becomes ___.
* FN * 2FN * 4FN *
(3) Electric intensity of a given charge at any point is ___.
* Directly proportional to distance from charge
* Inversely proportional to distance from charge
* Directly proportional to square of the distance from charge
* Inversely proportional to square of the distance from charge
(4) A slab of certain di-electric is placed between two oppositely charged plates. The intensity
between the plates ___.
* Decreases * Increases * Remains constant
(5) A free electron in an electric field ___.
* Remains stationary
* Moves from the lower potential to the higher potential
* Moves from the higher potential to the lower potential
(6) The magnitude of an electric field does not depend upon ___.
* The distance from the charged particle
* The nature of the charge causing the field
* The magnitude of the charge causing the field
(7) The electric potential is zero ___.
* Inside a conductor
* Midway between any two charges of the opposite sign
* Midway between equal charges of the same sign
(8) The electric intensity at any point between two oppositely charged plane sheets is ___.
* * * *
(9) Di-electric always ___ the electrostatic force between the two point charges.
* Decreases * Increases * Does not change
(10) One Joule per Coulomb is called ___.
* Ampere * Volt * Farad * Tesla
(11) The electric flux through a closed surface depends on the ___.
* Magnitude of the charge enclosed by the surface
* Position of the charge enclosed by the surface
* The shape of the surface * None of the above options
(12) When three capacitors are joined in series, the total capacitance is ___.
* Less than the value of the minimum capacitance
* Equal to the sum of the capacitances
* Greater than the value of the maximum capacitance * None of the above
(13) The unit of electric intensity is ___.
* newton.coulomb/meter * volt.meter
* newton.coulomb * volt/meter
(14) The force per unit charge is known as ___.
* Electric flux * Electric field intensity
* Electric potential * Electric current
(15) If capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance is ___.
* * * *
(16) With the introduction of a di-electric between the plates of a capacitor, its capacitance ___.
* Increases * Decreases
* Remains the same * Becomes zero
Page 10 of 43
(17) The electric field intensity between two similarly charged plates is ___.
* * * Zero *
(18) The electric flux through a surface will be minimum, when the angle between ⃗ and is ___.
0 0 0
* 90 * zero * 45 * 60
(19) Which of the following cannot be the units of electric intensity?
* N/C * V/m * J/C.m * J/C
(20) Electron-volt is a unit of ___.
* Energy * Force * Potential difference * Current
(21) One joule per coulomb is called ___.
* Ampere * Volt * Farad * Tesla
(22) If two capacitors of and are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance will be ___.
* * * *
(23) If a di-electric slab is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, kept at a constant
potential, the charge on the capacitor will ___.
* Remains unchanged * Becomes zero
(24) One electron-volt is equal to ___.
* *
* *
(25) The presence of di-electric between the plates of a capacitor results in ___.
* Increase in the capacitance * Decrease in the capacitance
* No change in the capacitance * None of these
(26) The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is called ___.
* Electric intensity * Permittivity
* Potential difference * Absolute potential
(27) The magnitude of Electric Intensity between two oppositely charged plates is ___.
* * * *
(28) One joule per coulomb is called ___.
* Farad * Gauss * Ampere * Volt
(29) The minimum electrical charge possible in isolated form is ___.
* *
* * One coulomb
(30) The change in potential energy of a unit charge between two points in an electrical field is called ___.
* Intensity * Permittivity
* Potential difference * Flux
(31) The force on a proton placed between two parallel plates having equal positive charge is ___.
* * * * Zero
(32) A di-electric k = 2 is inserted between the plates of a capacitor. Its capacitance will become ___.
* * * *
(33) If and capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitor is ___.
* * * *
(34) The quantity is called ___.
* Electric potential * Electric field intensity
* Potential gradient * Electric induction
(35) The concept of the electric lines of forces was introduced by a famous scientist called ___.
* Newton * Einstein * Coulomb * Faraday
(36) Decreasing the separation of two positive charges by one-half will cause the force of repulsion to be
changed by ___.
* * 2 times * * 4 times
(37) Coulomb/Volt is the unit of ___.
* Resistance * Resistivity * Current * Capacity
(38) Which of the following cannot be the unit of electric intensity?
* N/C * V/m * J/C.m * J/C
Page 11 of 43
(39) Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

* Potential * Electromotive force
* Electric flux * Electric intensity
(40) The introduction of a di-electric between the oppositely charged plates causes the intensity ___.
* To increase * To decrease
* To remain constant * To increase and decrease
(41) Two positive point charges repel each other with a force of when placed at a distance of 1 m. If
the distance between them is increased by 2 m, the force of repulsion will be ___.
* * * *
(42) Electric flux through the surface of a sphere which contains a charge at its center depends on ___.
* The radius of the sphere
* The surface area of the sphere
* The amount of charge inside the sphere
* The amount of charge outside the sphere
(43) When a di-electric is placed in an electric field, it becomes ___.
* Negatively charged only * Positively charged only
* Polarized * Conductive
(44) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend on the ___.
* Area of the plates * Nature of the plates
* Distance between the plates * Medium between the plates
(45) The change in potential energy per unit charge between the two points in an electric field is called ___.
* Intensity * Flux * Potential difference * Permittivity
(46) Decreasing the separation of two positive charges by one-half will cause electrostatic of repulsion to
change by ___.
* 4 times * 2 times * *
(47) Two capacitors of and are connected in series, their equivalent capacitance is ___.
* * * *
(48) Which of the following cannot be a scalar quantity?
* Electric potential * EMF * Electric flux * Electric intensity
(49) If an electrostatic force between two electrons at a distance is “F” newton, the electrostatic force between
two protons at the same distance is ___.
* Zero * * F * 2F
(50) The relation represents ___.
* Gauss‟s law * Electric flux
* Electric intensity * Potential difference
(51) If the area of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled, the capacitance ___.
* Remains unchanged * Is half * Is doubled * Is increased four times
(52) The electric intensity between two uniformly oppositely charged parallel plates is ___.
* * * Zero *
(53) Joule per coulomb is called ___.
* Farad * Ampere * Volt * Henry
(54) The number of electrons in one coulomb of charge is ___.
* * * *
(1) Electric flux through any closed surface due to point charge enclosed in it is equal to ___.
(2) The flux through a surface is maximum when the angle between ⃗ and is ___.
(3) The value of permittivity of free space is ___.
(4) The flux through a closed surface which does not contain any charge is ___.
(5) The electric field at any point between two oppositely charged plain sheets is___.
(6) The flux through a surface is maximum when the angle between ⃗ and is ___.
(7) An electron-volt =___.
(8) Unit of Electric Intensity in S.I. system is = ___.
(9) The electric flux through a surface will be minimum, when the angle between ⃗ and Is ___.
Page 12 of 43
(10) Electron-volt is the unit of ___.

(11) The presence of a di-electric between the plates of a capacitor results in ___.
(12) ___ can be expressed in terms of electron-volts.
Q.3 Write True or False for the following:-
(1) A free electron in an electric field moves from the higher potential to the lower potential.
(2) Electric field intensity at the center of a charged sphere is zero.
(3) In case of a parallel combination of capacitors, the net capacity is greater than the greatest individual one.
(4) A parallel plate is given a charge Q. If the separation between the plates is doubled, its capacity will be
doubled.
Page 13 of 43
Coulomb’s Law
Q.1 How many electrons should be removed from each of the two similar spheres, each of 10 gm, so that
electrostatic repulsion is balanced by the gravitational force?
(
( ̅ ) 2006
Q.2 How many excess electrons must be placed on each of the two small spheres placed 3.0 cm apart if the force of
repulsion between the spheres is ?
(
(625) 2007
Q.3 How many electrons should be removed from each of the two similar spheres, each of 10 gm, so that electrostatic
repulsion is balanced by the gravitational force? (
( ̅ ) 2010
Q.4 Two point charges of and are placed at a distance of 40 cm from each other. A charge of
is placed midway between them. What is the magnitude and direction of force on it?
( ) 2012
Electric Field Intensity

Q.1 A particle carrying a charge of starts from rest in a uniform electric field of intensity 50 V/m. Find the
force on the particle and the kinetic energy it acquires when it is moved 1 m.
( , ) 2003 P/M
Gauss’s Law Application
Q.1 A thin sheet of positive charge attracts a light charged sphere having a charge of with a force 1.695 N.
If , calculate the surface charge density of the sheet.
( 1996
Q.2 Calculate the force of repulsion on a charge, if it is placed before a large vertical charged plate
whose charge density is .( )
(2.26 N) 1998
Q.3 A charged particle of is placed close to a positively charged thin sheet having surface charge density
. Find the magnitude and direction of force on the charged particle. ( )
(2 N, Force on charged particle is directed away from the sheet) 2000
Q.4 A small sphere of weight is suspended by a silk thread which is attached to a point on a large charged
0
insulating plane. When a charge of is placed on the ball the thread makes an angle of 30 with the
vertical; find the charge density on the plane. ( )
2002 P/M
Q.5 The surface charge density on a vertical metal plane is . Find the force experienced by a charge of
placed in front of the sheet? (
( , Force on charged particle is directed away from the sheet) 2013
Electron Volt
Q.1 An electron has a speed of . Find its energy in electron-volts. ( )
(2.84 eV) 2004
Relation Between Electric Field Intensity & Electric Potential
Q.1 A proton of mass and of charge is to be held motionless between two
horizontal parallel plates 10 cm apart; find the voltage required to be applied between the plates.
2002 P/E
Q.2 A proton of mass and charge is to be held motionless between two horizontal
parallel plates 6 cm apart; find the voltage required to be applied between the plates.
( ) 2009
Page 14 of 43
Q.3 A proton of mass and charge is to be held motionless between two parallel
horizontal plates. Find the distance between the plates when the potential difference of is applied
across the plates.
(5.86 cm) 2011
Parallel Plate Capacitor
Q.1 A parallel plate capacitor has the plates 10 cm x 10 cm separated by a distance of 2.5 cm. It is initially filled with air.
What will be the increase in its capacitance if a di-electric slab of the same area and thickness 2.5 cm is placed
between the two plates? 2001
( )
Capacitors Network
Q.1 Calculate the equivalent capacitance and charge on capacitor shown in figure.
C1 = , C2 = , C3 = , C4 =
( , 1993
Q.2 Two capacitors of capacitance and are charged to the potential difference of 300 volts and 400 volts.
They are then disconnected and joined in parallel. What will be the resultant potential difference and charge
on each capacitor?
(360 V, ) 1995
Q.3 A capacitor of is charged to a potential difference of 100 V. Its plates are then connected in parallel to
another capacitor and are found that the potential difference between the plates falls to 60 V. What is the
capacitance of the second capacitor?
( ) 1997
Q.4 Two capacitors of and capacitance are connected in series and a potential difference of 200 V is applied.
Find the charge and the potential difference for each capacitor.
( , 160 V, 40 V) 1999
Q.5 Find the equivalent capacitance in the given circuit and charge on each capacitor.
C1 = , C2 = , C3 =4 .
( , , , ) 2002 P/M
Q.6 A capacitor of is charged to a potential difference of 100 V. Its plates are then disconnected from the source
and are connected parallel to another capacitor. The potential difference in this combination comes down to 60 V.
What is the capacitance of the second capacitor?
( ) 2008
Page 15 of 43
CURRENT ELECTRICITY PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
Q.1 Select the correct answer for each from the given options:-
(1) A battery of emf E volts has internal resistance of r ohms, current I is drawn from it, its internal voltage V
will be ___.
* * * *
(2) Two resistors of and are connected in series with a battery of 10 V. Potential difference
across resistor will be ___.
* 5V * 4V * 6V * 10 V
(3) When “V” volts battery is connected across the bulb and if current “I” is passed through it then its power
will be ___.
* VxI * * V2 I * V I2
(4) If the wire of a uniform area of cross-section is cut in to two equal parts, the resistivity of each part
will be ___.
* Doubled * Remains the same
* Halved * None of the above
(5) All electrical appliances are connected in parallel to each other between the main line and the neutral wire
to get ___.
* The same current
* The same potential difference
* Different current and same potential difference * None of the above
(6) The terminal potential difference of a battery is equal to its e.m.f. when its internal resistance is ___.
* Zero * Very high * Very low * None of the above
(7) The rate of transfer of the charge through a circuit is called ___.
* Resistance * Current * Potential difference * Energy
(8) Kilowatt-hour is the unit of ___.
* Power * Conductivity * Electrical energy * Resistivity
(9) With the increase of temperature the resistance of a semi-conductor ___.
* Increases * Decreases * Remains constant
(10) The temperature co-efficient of resistance of a semi-conductor is ___.
* Positive * Negative * Zero
(11) Total potential difference across the combination of three cells becomes maximum when ___.
* All the cells are connected in series * All the cells are connected in parallel
* Two cells are connected in parallel and the third in series with the combination
* Two cells are connected in series and the third in parallel with the combination
(12) One Kilowatt-Hour is equal to ___.
* * * *
(13) A resistor caries a current “I”. The power dissipated is “P”. The power dissipated if the same resistor
carries the current of “3I” is ___.
* P * 3P * * 9P
(14) Electrical conductors contain ___.
* Only free electrons * Only bound electrons
* Both free and bound electrons * Neither free nor bound electrons
(15) Ohm‟s law is obeyed in ___.
* An electron tube * A semi-conductor
* A metallic conductor * In all of the above
(16) The resistors of , and are connected in parallel. If 0.3 V be the p.d. between the ends of
resistor, the potential difference across the other resistors is ___.
* 0.5 V * 0.7 V * 1.2 V * 0.3 V
(17) The power dissipated in a resistor is given by ___.
* * * * All of these
(18) The commercial unit of electrical energy is called ___.
* Joule * Kilowatt * Kilowatt-hour * Megawatt
Page 16 of 43
(19) The rate of transfer of charges through a circuit is called ___.

* Resistance * Current
* Potential difference * All of these
(20) The power dissipated by a resistance is given by ___.
* * * *
(21) When a resistor carries a current “I” the power dissipated by it is “P”. If the same resistor carries the
current of “3I” the power dissipation will be ___.
* * * 3P * None of the above
* * * *
(23) If the wire of a uniform area of cross-section is cut in to two equal parts, the resistivity of each part will be
___.
* Halved * Doubled
* Remains the same * None of the above
(24) A piece of wire of length “L” and an area of cross-section “A” has a resistance “R”. Another piece of wire
of the same material and the same length but twice the area of cross-section is connected end-to-
end with the previous wire. The effective resistance is ___.
* R * 2R * *
(25) The resistances of 2 ohms, 5 ohms, 7 ohms and 9 ohms are connected in parallel. If the potential
difference across the 5 ohm resistance is 5 V, the potential difference across 9 ohm resistance will be
___.
* 9V * 5V * 2.5 V * 1.5 V
(26) In a house circuit all the electrical appliances are connected in parallel with the phase and the neutral to
get ___.
* The same current and different potential difference
* The different currents and different potential differences
* The different currents but the same potential difference
* The same current and same potential difference
(27) A wire of a uniform cross-section area is cut in to three equal segments. The resistivity of each
segment will be ___.
* * * Same as that of the whole wire * None of these
(28) The E.M.F. of three cells, each of 2 volts, in parallel will be ___.
* 6V * 8V * 2V * Zero V
(29) In the relation I = KV, K stands for ___.
* Conductance * Resistivity
* Specific resistance * Permeability
(30) The electrical energy dissipated as heat in a resistor is given by ___.
* * * *
(31) The commercial unit of electrical energy is ___.
* Ohm * Watt * Kilowatt-hour * Ampere
(32) The electrical energy dissipated as heat in a resistor is given by ___.
* * * *
(33) A copper wire has a resistivity is stretched in such a way that its diameter reduces to half of that of the
original wire. The new resistivity will be ___.
* Halved * Doubled * The same * Four-fold
(34) Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 are connected in series in a circuit. If R1 is greater than R2, the heating
would be ___.
* More in R1 * More in R2 * Same in R1 and R2 * All of these
(35) Resistors of , and are connected in series. If the current flowing through resistor is One
ampere, the current through the other resistors will be ___.
* 4 ampere * * 14 ampere * 0.1 ampere
* * * *
(37) With the increase of temperature, the resistance of a semiconductor ___.
Page 17 of 43
* Increases * * Remains constant * Becomes zero

(38) A wire of uniform cross-sectional area is cut in to three equal segments. The resistivity of each segment
will be ___.
* * * Same as the whole wire *
(39) Resistors of , and are connected in parallel. If the P.D. across resistor is , the P.D.
across the other resistors is ___.
* * * *
(1) The ___ in the free electrons is responsible for generation of current in the wire.
(2) Units of electrical energy commonly used is ___.
(3) The resistivity of a material of a conductor increases due to increase in ___.
(1) When current flows through a wire, electric field must exist in wire.
(2) The resistance of a conductor at absolute zero is infinite.
(3) The voltage loss inside a cell because of its internal resistance is independent of the current drawn from
it.
(4) Resistivity is reciprocal of conductivity.
Page 18 of 43
Specific Resistance or Resistivity

Q.1 A platinum wire of diameter 0.2 mm is wound to make a resistor of 40 . How long a wire is needed for this
purpose. ( )
(11.42 m) 1995
Q.2 A 50 resistor is to be wound with platinum wire, 0.1 mm in diameter. How much wire is needed?
( )
(3.56 m) 2003 P/E
Q.3 A 50 ohm resistor is required from a copper wire, 0.2 mm in diameter. What is the length of the wire needed?
( )
(98.125 m) 2006
Q.4 A rectangular block of iron has the dimensions .
(i) What is the resistance of the opposing square ends?
(ii) What is the resistance between two of the rectangular faces?
(The resistivity for iron at room temperature is )
( , ) 2008
Temperature Co-efficient of Resistance
Q.1 The resistance of a tungsten wire used in the filament of a 60 W bulb is 240 when the bulb is hot at a
temperature of 2020 0C. What would you estimate its resistance at 20 0C?
(The temperature co-efficient of tungsten 0C)
(25.46 ) 2002 P/E

Q.2 A resistor is made by using a 50 m nichrome wire of diameter 0.8 mm at 0 0C. Calculate its resistance at 50 0C.
(Given:- Resistivity and 0C at 0 0C)
(1.10494 2009
Q.3 A rectangular bar of iron is 2 cm x 2 cm in cross-section and 20 cm long. What is the resistance of the bar at
500 0C if ?
( 2011
Resistors Network
Q.1 Neglecting the internal resistance of the DC source, find: -
(i) The equivalent resistance of the given circuit, and
(ii) The currents I and I1.
(8 , 0.75 A, A) 1996
Q.2 You are given three resistors each of 2 ohms. How would you arrange to obtain the equivalent resistances of:-
(i) ohms (ii) 3 ohms (iii) 6 ohms?
Also prove the result mathematically. 2000
Q.3 Find the equivalent resistance and the current through R3 and R4.
Given:- R1 = 20 , R2 = 30 , R3 = 20 , R4 = 40 , R5 = 10
(20 I3 = I4 = 0.15 A) 2001

Q.4 Find the equivalent resistance in the given circuit, current I and potential difference
between a and b.
Given:- R1 = 5 , R2 = 2 , R3 = 3 , R4 = 6 .
(6 , 1 A, 5 V) 2003 P/M
Q.5 In the given diagram R1 = R2 = 4 and R3 = 6 . Calculate the current in the
6 resistor.
Page 19 of 43
(0.375 A) 2009
Q.6 You are given three resistors each of 2 ohms. How would you arrange to obtain the equivalent resistances of:-
(i) ohms (ii) 3 ohms (iii) 6 ohms?
Verify the results mathematically. 2012
Power Dissipation in Resistors
Q.1 Two resistances of 10 ohms and 50 ohms are connected in series with a 6 V battery. Calculate:-
(i) The charge drawn from the battery per minute;
(ii) The power dissipated in 10 ohm resistance.
(6 C, 0.1 W) 2005
Q.2 A water heater that will deliver 1 kg of water per minute is required. The water is supplied at 20 0C and an output
temperature of 80 0C is desired. What would be the resistance of the heating element in water if the line voltage is
220 V? )
(11.52 ) 2010
Q.3 Two resistors of and are connected in parallel with a battery. Calculate the current and power
dissipated in each resistance.
( 2013
EMF & Terminal Potential Difference
Q.1 A battery of 24 V is connected to a 10 load and a current of 2.2 A is drawn; find the internal resistance of the
battery and its terminal voltage.
(0.90 , 22 V) 2002 P/M
Page 20 of 43
MAGNETISM & ELECTROMAGNETISM PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
Q.1 Select the correct answer for each from the given options:-
(1) Force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is given by the equation .
Quantities mutually perpendicular are ___.
* V and B * F and V * F and B * None
(2) An electron and a proton with the same momentum enters perpendicularly in a uniform magnetic field.
* Both particles will deflect equally
* The proton will deflect more than electron
* The electron will deflect less than proton
* None of these
(3) Two parallel beams of electrons moving in the same direction will ___.
* Repel each other * Attract each other
* Neither attract nor repel each other
(4) When an electron moves in a magnetic field “ ⃗ ” with velocity “ ⃗ ”, the force acting on it is perpendicular to
___.
* ⃗ but not to ⃗ * Both ⃗ and ⃗ * ⃗ but not to ⃗
(5) If an electron and a proton enter in to a magnetic field with the same velocity, the electron shall
experience a/an ___ force than proton.
* Greater * Lesser * Equal
(6) Which of the charged particles of the same mass will be deflected most in a magnetic field?
* Fast moving * Slow moving
(7) The maximum magnetic force will act on a current carrying-conductor in a magnetic field when it is placed
___.
0
* At 60 to the field * Parallel to the field
0
* Perpendicular to the field * At an angle of 45 to the field
(8) The current produced by moving the loop of a wire across the magnetic field is called ___.
* Electric current * A.C. current
* D.C. current * Induced current
(9) The force experienced by a current carrying conductor when it is placed in a magnetic field is ___.
* ⃗ ⃗ * ⃗ ⃗ * ⃗ * None of the above
(10) The phenomenon of producing e.m.f. in the coil due to the change of current in the coil itself is called ___.
* Mutual induction * Self-induction
* Magnetic flux * None of the above
(11) A steady current passing through a conductor produces ___.
* An electric field only * A magnetic field only
* Both electric and magnetic fields * Neither electric nor magnetic fields
(12) If straight conductor of length “L” carrying a current “I” is placed parallel to a magnetic field “B”, the force
experienced by the conductor is ___.
* BIL * BILSin * Zero * Infinite
(13) When a charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly, its path is ___.
* Spiral * Circular * Parabolic * Straight line
(14) If an electron and a proton enter in to a magnetic field perpendicularly with the same momentum ___.
* The electron will be deflected more
* The proton will be deflected more
* Both particles will be deflected equally
* They will not be deflected at all
(15) Transformer works on ___.
* Ohm‟s law * Self-induction * Mutual induction *Gauss‟s law
(16) The deflecting torque on a current carrying coil placed in a magnetic field is maximum when the angle
between the magnetic field and the plane of the coil is ___.
0 0 0 0
* 0 * 90 * 60 * 45
(17) One Tesla is equal to ___.
2
* 1 weber/meter * 2 weber/meter
3 2
* weber /meter * newton/ampere
Page 21 of 43
(18) An electric current through a conductor produces around it ___.

* An electric field * A magnetic field
* An electric and a magnetic field * First a magnetic field and then an
electric field
(19) When the North Pole of a bar magnet approaches the face of a closed coil the face becomes ___.
* South pole * First north pole and then north pole
* North pole * No effect is observed
(20) In Step-down transformer ___.
* Ns > N P * Ns < N P * Ns = N P * Ns NP
(21) The force acting on a charged particle projected in to a magnetic field of induction “ ⃗ ” is maximum when
the angle between ⃗ and velocity of the particle is ___.
0 0 0 0
* 0 * 90 * 60 * 45
(22) A transformer is used to change ___.
* Capacitance * Frequency * Voltage * Power
(23) Tesla (T), the unit of B, is ___.
* *
* *
(24) The direction of induced current is given by ___.
* Ampere‟s law * Faraday‟s law * Lenz‟s law * Snell‟s law
(25) The maximum resistance in an A.C. circuit is offered by ___.
* Capacitor * Solenoid * Electromagnet * Electric bulb
(26) The path of a neutron moving normal to a magnetic field is a/an ___.
* Straight line * Circular * Oval * Sinusoidal
(27) S.I. unit of induction is ___.
* Tesla * Henry * Watt * Weber
(28) The force per unit length of a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is given by ___.
* IBL * IBL * IB * IB
(29) Which is not a magnetic material?
* Iron * Nickel * Cobalt * Silver
(30) The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is ___.
* Tesla * Weber * Gauss * Ohm
(31) The path of a neutron moving normal to a magnetic field is ___.
* A Straight path * A circular path
* An oval path * A sinusoidal path
(32) A device which converts the electrical energy to mechanical energy is called ___.
* Transformer * Capacitor * Galvanometer * Electric motor
(33) In a conventional transformer ___.
* The current moves from primary to the secondary windings without any change
* EMF is induced in the secondary by the changing magnetic flux
* The heat is transferred from primary to secondary * None of the above
(34) ⃗
A charged particle moving in the magnetic field experiences a resultant force ___.
* Proportional to the kinetic energy * In the direction of the field
* In the direction perpendicular to its motion and field * None of these
(35) Which one is not a unit of magnetic flux density?
-1 -1 2 -1
* NA m * Wb/m * Tesla * VA S
(36) When an A.C. generator is converted in to a D.C. generator, slips rings are replaced by ___.
* A dynamo * A split ring * A field coil * An inductor
(37) The practical application of the phenomenon of mutual inductance is ___.
* A.C. generator * Transformer * Rectifier * Dynamo
(38) The motional e.m.f. induced in a coil is independent of ___.
* Change of flux * Number of turns * Time * Resistance
(39) Transformers are used in circuits containing ___.
* d.c. alone * a.c. alone * Both a.c. and d.c. * Non-inductive winding
(40) If the number of turns in a coil is doubled, its self-inductance will be ___.
* Doubled * Halved * The same Four-fold
Page 22 of 43
(41) The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce the loss of energy caused by ___.
* *
* Heating * All of these
(42) Two free parallel wires carrying current in the opposite directions ___.
* Do not affect each other * Attract each other
* Repel each other * None of these
(44) An electric current on passing through a conductor, produces around it ___.
* An electric field * A magnetic field
* Both electric and magnetic fields * First a magnetic field and then an
electric field
(45) When an A.C. generator is converted in to a D.C. generator, the slip ring is replaced by ___.
* An inductor * A field coil * A split ring * A dynamo
(47) The direction of induced current is given by ___.
* Ohm‟s law * Lenz‟s law * Coulomb‟s law * Ampere‟s law
Q.2 Fill in the blank with the correct answer:-

(1) Back emf is the effect of self-inductance in a coil when an ___ passing through it.
(2) ___ is the unit of physical quantity, Magnetic induction “ ⃗ ”.
(3) If a one-meter long wire is placed perpendicularly in a magnetic field of value 5 mT, the force it
experiences is equal to ___.
(4) ___ is the unit of mutual inductance.
(5) Back e.m.f. is the effect of self-inductance in a coil when an ___ current passes.
(6) The unit of magnetic Flux is ___.
(7) Henry is the unit of Mutual Inductance.
(1) When current is passed in two parallel wires in opposite directions they repel each other.
(2) Ampere‟s law ⃗ does not apply when the path is open.
(3) When a current passes through a loosely wound coil, the adjacent loops of the coil attract one another.
(4) If an particle is moving parallel to a magnetic field of induction, it will experience a force in the direction
of the field.
(5) Two current-bearing conductors carrying currents in the opposite directions attract each other.
(6) Lenz‟s law may also be described as the law of conservation of energy.
(7) The device which converts mechanical energy in to electrical energy is called Generator.
(8) Ampere‟s law can be used to find Electric Intensity.
Page 23 of 43
Motion of Charged Particles in a Magnetic Field

Q.1 A 10 eV electron is moving in a circular orbit in a uniform magnetic field of strength 10-4 Wb/m2. Calculate the
radius of the circular path and velocity of electron. (me = 9.1 10-31 kg, )
(0.107 m, 1.875 106 m/sec) 1993
Q.2 An electron is moving along a circle of radius . Calculate the speed of the electron on entering
perpendicular in a uniform magnetic field of 5 T. (me = 9.1 10-31 kg, )
(1.58 106 m/sec) 1995
Q.3 particles are accelerated from rest at a potential difference of1 kV. They then enter a magnetic field B = 0.2 T
perpendicular to their direction. Calculate the radius. ( = 6.68 10-27 kg, ̅ )
( ) 1997
Q.4 A 10 eV electron is moving in a circular orbit in a uniform magnetic field of strength 10-4 Wb/m2. Calculate the
radius of the circular path. (me = 9.11 10-31 kg, )
(0.107 m) 1999
Q.5 An electron is accelerated by a potential difference of 1000 Volt. It then enters in to a uniform magnetic field of
induction 2.5 Wb/m2 at an angle of 450 with the direction of the field. Find the radius of the (spiral) path described
by the electron. (me = 9.1 10-31 kg, )
( ) 2001
Q.6 Calculate the speed of an electron entering perpendicularly in a uniform magnetic field of 5.0 Wb/m2 which moves
along a circle of radius in the field. (me = 9.1 10-31 kg, )
( ) 2003 P/E
Q.7 How fast must a proton of mass be moving if it is to follow a circular path of radius 2.0 cm in a
magnetic field of 0.7 T? ( )
( ) 2004
Q.8 A proton accelerated through 1000 Volt is projected normal to a 0.25 tesla magnetic field. Calculate the following:-
(i) The kinetic energy of the proton on entering the magnetic field.
(ii) The radius of the circular path of the proton.
( ) 2005
Torque in a Current Carrying Rectangular Coil
Q.1 A coil of 50 turns is wound on an ivory frame 3 cm x 6 cm which rotates in a magnetic field of induction
. What will be the torque acting on it if a current of 5 amperes passes through it and the plane of the
coil makes an angle 450 with the field.
(0.636 N.m) 2003 P/E
Solenoid
Q.1 A solenoid 25 cm long has a cross-section of 5 square cm with 250 numbers of turns on it. If a current of 5 amperes
is passed through it, find B in it.
( ) 1994
Q.2 A solenoid 20 cm long has three layers of windings of 300 turns each. If a current of 3 amperes passed through it,
find the value of the magnetic field of induction B. ( )
( ) 1998
Q.3 A long solenoid is wound with 10 turns per cm and carries a current of 10 amperes; find the magnetic flux density
within it.
( ) 2002 P/M
Q.4 A long solenoid is wound with 35 turns in 10 cm, and carries a current of 10 A. Find the magnetic field in it.
( )
( ) 2006
Q.5 Find the current required to produce a field of induction in a 50 cm long solenoid having
4000 turns of wire. ( )
(0.25 A) 2010
Q.6 Find the current required to produce a field of induction in a 50 cm long solenoid having
4000 turns of wire. ( )
(0.25 A) 2012
Page 24 of 43
Toroid
Q.1 The inner and the outer diameters of the toroid are 22 cm and 26 cm. If a current of 5.0 A is passed which
produces 0.025 T flux density inside the core, find the approximate length of the wire wound on the toroid?
( )
(188.52 m) 2011
Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction
Q.1 A coil having an area of cross-section 0.05 m2 and number of turns 100 is placed in a magnetic field of induction of
0.08 Wb/m2. How much EMF will be induced in it if the field is reduced to 0.02 Wb/m2 in 0.01 sec?
(10 Volt) 1993
Self-Induction
Q.1 The current in a coil of 325 turns is changed from zero to 6.32 amperes thereby producing a flux of .
What is the self-inductance of the coil?
( ) 2003 P/M
Q.2 The current in a coil of 500 turns is changed from zero to 5.43 amperes thereby producing a magnetic flux of
10-4 Wb. What is the Self-Inductance of the coil?
( ) 2004
Mutual Induction
Q.1 What will be the mutual inductance of two coils when the change of a current of 3 amperes in the coil produces the
change of flux of 10-4 Wb in the second coil having 2000 turns?
(0.4 H) 2001
Q.2 An emf of 45 milli-volts is induced in a coil of 500 turns, when the current in the neighboring coil changes from
10 amperes to 14 amperes in 0.2 seconds.
(i) What is the Mutual Inductance of the coils?
(ii) What is the rate of change of flux in the second coil?
( ) 2002 P/E
Q.3 A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 850 mH. If the current in the primary coil changes from 0 to
20 A in 0.1 sec; what is the change in the magnetic flux in the secondary coil of 800 turns?
( ) 2009
A.C. Generator
2
Q.1 A 500 turn coil in an A.C. Generator having an area of 1000 cm rotates in a magnetic field of value 50 T. In order
to generate 220 V maximum, how fast is the coil to be rotated? Express your answer in terms of the number of
revolutions per second.
(0.088 rad/sec, 0.0140 rev/sec) 1998
Q.2 An alternating current generator operating at 50 Hz has a coil of 200 turns, while the coil has an area of 120 cm2.
Calculate the magnetic field intensity applied to rotate the coil to produce the maximum voltage of 240 volt.
(0.318 T) 2011
Q.3 An alternating current generator operates at . The area of the coil is . Calculate the number of turns
in the coil when a magnetic field of induction produces a maximum potential difference of .
( ) 2013
Motional EMF
Q.1 An aero plane flying in a region where the vertical component of earth‟s magnetic field is . If the wing
span of the aero plane is 50 meters and its velocity is 360 km/hour, find the induced E.M.F between the tips of the
wings of the aero plane.
(1.6 Volt) 2007
Transformer
Q.1 A transformer has 1000 turns in the primary coil. If the input voltage of the transformer is 200 V, what should be
the number of turns of the secondary coil to obtain an output of 6.0 V?
(30 turns) 1999
Q.2 A step-down transformer having 4000 turns in primary is used to convert 4400 V to 220 V. The efficiency of the
transformer is 90% and 9 kW output is required. Determine the input power, the number of turns in the secondary
coil and current in the primary and secondary coils.
(10,000 W, 200 turns, 2.27 A, 40.90 A) 2005
Page 25 of 43
Q.3 A step-down transformer reduces 1100 V to 220 V. The power output is 12.5 kW and the overall efficiency of the
transformer is 90%. The primary windings have 1000 turns. How many turns do the secondary have? What is the
power input? What is the current in each coil?
(200 turns, , ) 2008
Page 26 of 43
ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
Q.1 Choose the correct answer from the given options:-

(1) To increase the accuracy in a potentiometer circuit ___.
* A wire of small length should be used
* A wire of large length should be used
* A non-uniform wire is used
(2) To increase the accuracy of a potentiometer ___.
* A uniform wire of large length should be used
* A uniform wire of a small length should be used
* Non-uniform wire should be used
(3) A galvanometer can be used to measure the current by connecting ___.
* Low resistance in series * High resistance in series
* Low resistance in parallel * High resistance in parallel
(4) AVO meter is used to measure ___.
* Current * Voltage * Resistance * All of them
(5) A Meter Bridge is used to measure ___.
* Voltage * Inductance * Capacitance * Resistance
(6) A galvanometer can be converted in to an ammeter by connecting ___.
* Low resistance in series * High resistance on series
(7) Potentiometer is a device for measuring ___.
* Potential difference between the two points of a circuit
* Voltage between two the points of a circuit
* E.M.F. of a current source * All of the above
(8) A moving coil galvanometer can be converted in to an ammeter by connecting a ___.
(9) To increase the accuracy of a potentiometer ___.
* A uniform wire of large length should be used
* A uniform wire of small length should be used
* A non-uniform wire should be used * None of these
(10) The principle of post office box is based on ___.
* Telegraph line * Terminal potential difference
* Multimeter * Wheatstone Bridge
(11) In a Wheatstone Bridge circuit we balance ___.
* Resistance * Current * Voltage * All of these
(12) The unit of least count on a galvanometer scale represents ___.
* Division * Ohm * Volt * Henry
(13) . Hence to increase the sensitivity of a galvanometer, we must decrease the value of ___.
* * N * B * C
(14) A moving coil galvanometer is converted in to an ammeter by connecting to it a ___.
* High resistance in parallel * Low resistance in parallel
(15) The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by increasing ___.
* Magnetic field * Area of coil * Number of turns * All of them
(16) The working principle of a post office box is ___.
* Wheatstone Bridge * Potentiometer
* Telegraph line * None of these
(17) A single device containing ammeter, voltmeter and ohmmeter is called ___.
* VTVM * CRO * Potentiometer * Multimeter
(18) If the length of the wire of the potentiometer is increased, the accuracy in the determination of null point
___.
Page 27 of 43
* Increases * Decreases * Remains the same * Becomes zero

(19) AVO meter is used to measure ___.
* Electric current * Voltage * Resistance * All of these
(20) Meter Bridge is used to measure ___.
* Electric current * Voltage * Resistance * Capacitance
(1) A balanced ___ is used to determine an unknown resistance.
(2) The galvanometer can be made more sensitive if the value of the factor is ___.
Q.3 Write True or False for the following statement:-
(1) The Wheatstone bridge is balanced when the current is passing through the galvanometer.
Page 28 of 43
Conversion of Galvanometer in to an Ammeter

Q.1 The coil of a galvanometer having a resistance of and a current of produces a full scale deflection in
it. Compute:-
(i) The shunt required to convert it in to an ammeter of range.
(ii) The series shunt required to convert it in to a voltmeter of range.
2002 P/E
Q.2 An ammeter deflects full scale with a current of and has a total resistance of . What shunt resistance
must be connected to it to measure full scale current up to
(0. ) 2003 P/M
Q.3 A maximum current can be allowed to flow through a coil of a galvanometer. The galvanometer is to
be used to measure maximum current. Calculate the length of a copper wire to be used as a shunt. The
diameter of the wire is .
(157.1 m) 2005
Q.4 An ammeter deflects full scale with a voltage of , and has a total resistance of . What small resistance
must be connected to measure full scale?
(0.167 ) 2006
Q.5 A galvanometer of resistance gives full scale deflection with a current of . A shunt of is
connected in parallel to convert it in to an ammeter. Find the range of the ammeter?
(10.01 A) 2012
Conversion of Galvanometer in to a Voltmeter
Q.1 A galvanometer of resistance gives full scale deflection with a current of . A resistance of is
connected in series with the coil to convert it in to a voltmeter. Find the range of voltmeter thus obtained.
(44 volt) 1995
Q.2 A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of and it gives a full scale deflection for a potential difference of
. If the galvanometer is to be converted in to a voltmeter of reading up to , what should be the
resistance of the series resistor.
(24975 ) 1997
Q.3 A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of and it gives a full scale deflection for a potential difference of
. If the galvanometer is to be converted in to a voltmeter of reading up to , what should be the
resistance of the series resistor.
(24950 ) 2000
Q.4 A voltmeter has a total resistance of .. What additional resistance is required to convert it in to a
voltmeter, reading up to a maximum of
2003 P/E
Q.5 A voltmeter has a total resistance of . What additional series resistance must be connected to it to
increase its range to
(12,000 ) 2004
Q.6 A voltmeter has a total resistance of . What additional series resistance is required to convert it in to a
voltmeter, ranging up to a maximum of
2007
Q.7 A galvanometer has a resistance of . A difference of potential of gives full scale deflection. Calculate
the shunt resistance to read from . What is the value of the series resistance if the galvanometer is to be
converted in to a voltmeter to read up to
2008
Q.8 A galvanometer whose resistance is deflects full scale for a potential difference of across its
terminals. How can it be converted in to a voltmeter of range?
2010
Q.9 A voltmeter measuring up to has a total resistance of . What additional series resistance must be
connected to it to increase its range to (4)
2013
Page 29 of 43
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND ELECTRONICS PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
Q.1 Choose the correct answer from the given options:-

(1) P-type semi-conductor is obtained by adding impurity materials of group ___.
* Five elements * Three elements
* Four elements * Six elements
(2) The forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band in semi-conductors is ___.
* Fairly large * Relatively narrow * Zero * Infinite
(3) The speed of electromagnetic waves depends on ___.
* Permeability only * Permittivity only
* Both permeability and permeability * None of them
(4) Semi-conductor diode can be used as ___.
* Amplifier * Rectifier * Potentiometer * Voltmeter
(5) A semiconductor diode is used as ___.
* An amplifier * An oscillator * A rectifier * None of them
(6) The elements of group IV, like Ge and Si can be converted to p-type semi-conductors by ___.
* Adding impurity of group V elements
* Adding impurity of group III elements
* Adding impurity of both groups V and III elements * None of these
(7) Electrical conductors contain ___.
* Only free * Only bound
* Both free and bound * Neither bound nor free
(8) The speed of electromagnetic wave is given as ___.
* √ *
√
*
√
* √
(9) In p-type semiconductor, the majority charge carriers are ___.
* Electrons * Protons * Neutrons * Holes
(10) The semi-conductor diode is used as ___.
* Amplifier * Rectifier * Modulator * Oscillator
(11) A pn junction can be used as ___.
* Rectifier * Amplifier * Transformer * Ohm-meter
(12) In p-type semiconductors, the majority of the charge carriers are ___.
* Electrons * Protons * Neutrons * Holes
(13) A Semi-Conductor Diode is used as ___.
* An amplifier * An oscillator * A rectifier * None of the above
* √ *
√
*
√
* √
(15) In a semi-conductor ___.
* The electrons move in the conduction band while the holes move in the forbidden band
* The holes move in the conduction band while the electrons move in the forbidden band
* The electrons move in the conduction band while the holes move in the valence band
* The holes move in the conduction band while the electrons move in the valence band only
(16) The potential difference applied across the P-N junction which results in the reduction of the barrier
potential is ___.
* Reverse biasing * Forward biasing
* Charging * Induction
(17) The diode which gives off visible light when energized is called ___.
* Photo diode * L.C.D. * Photovoltaic diode * L.E.D.
(18) The device used to convert A.C. to D.C. is called ___.
* Amplifier * L.E.D. * Commutator * Rectifier
(19) Donor impurities are ___.
* Ge and Si * In and Ga * Ab and As * Li and As
(20) In a semi-conductor, the energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is ___.
Page 30 of 43
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND ELECTRONICS PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
* Narrow * Wide * Not present *

(21) pn junction Diode works as an insulator if connected ___.
* To a.c. source * In forward bias * In reverse bias * All of these
(22) Emitter Base junction is forward biased in ___.
* pnp transistor * npn transistor * Both npn and pnp transistor * Rectifier
(23) The diode which gives off visible light when energized is called ___.
* LCD * Photo diode * LED * Photovoltaic diode
*
√
* * √ *
(1) Radiations with wave length greater than red light are called ___ radiations.
(1) The process of conversion of alternating current in to direct current is called amplification.
(2) Maxwell derived mathematically that the velocity of the electromagnetic waves is .
√
Page 31 of 43
ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
Q.1 Select the correct answer for each from the following:-
(1) Wave length of material particle of mass “m” moving with velocity “ ” is given by ___.
* * * *
(2) Einstein‟s photoelectric equation is ___.
* * *
(3) The wave length of material particle of mass “m” moving with velocity “ ” is given by ___.
* * *
(4) Einstein‟s Theory of Relativity states that the speed of light in vacuum is ___.
* Independent of the motion of the source and the observer
* Affected by the ether drift
* Dependent on the motion of the source and the observer
(5) Number of photoelectrons emitted from a metal depends upon ___.
* Frequency of incident light * Wavelength of incident light
* Intensity of incident light * None of these
(6) The relativistic changes in mass, length and time in daily life are not observed because ___.
* The masses of objects are very large * The size of objects are very large
* The velocity of objects is very small in comparison to the velocity of light
* None of the above
(7) As the temperature of a black body is raised, the wave length corresponding to the maximum intensity
___.
* Shift toward longer wavelength
* Shift toward shorter wavelength
* Greater frequency and greater wavelength * None of the above
(8) In Compton effect, the scattered photon has ___.
* Greater frequency and smaller wave length
* Smaller frequency and greater wave length
* Greater frequency and greater wave length * None of the above
(9) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron emitted form a metal depends upon ___.
* The frequency of incident light only * The wavelength of incident light only
* Work function of the metal only * All of them
(10) Max Plank is well known because of his ___.
* Energy Quantization * Energy Conservation
* Wave Particle Duality * Momentum Conservation
(11) A frame of reference is called if it is ___.
* Rotatory * Accelerated
* Moving with uniform velocity * Vibratory
(12) According to Uncertainty Principle ___.
* *
* *
(13) The Einstein‟s Photo-Electric Equation is ___.
* *
* * [ ]
(14) The absorption of the incident radiation by a perfect black body is ___.
* Zero % * 100 % * 90 % * 50 %
(15) Pair production is only possible when incident photon has the wavelength of the order of ___.
* * * *
(16) The reverse of Pair Production is known as ___.
* Fusion * Fission
* Annihilation of Electron and Positron
* Annihilation of Electron and Proton
(17) The formula for the momentum of the photon is ___.
Page 32 of 43
* * * *
(18) If the frequency of light causing photoelectric emission is doubled, the kinetic energy of photoelectron will
be ___.
* Increased by a factor * Doubled
√
* Increased by a factor less than 2 * Increased by a factor greater than 2
(19) Wien‟s Law is given as ___.
* *
* √ *
(20) The number of photoelectrons emitted from a metal depends upon ___.
* The frequency of the incident light
* The wavelength of the incident light
* The color of the incident light
* The intensity of the incident light
(21) The disintegration of a photon in to electron and positron near a heavy nucleus is known as ___.
* Annihilation * * * Pair Production
(22) The frequency of the incident radiation corresponding to the work function is called ___.
* Fundamental frequency * Working frequency
* Critical frequency * Threshold frequency
(23) The radiation from a black body depends upon ___.
* Material of the body * Size of the body
* Shape of the body * Temperature of the body
(24) As a result of elastic collision between a photon and an electron the ___.
* Frequency of the photon is increased
* Wavelength of the photon is increased
* Energy of the photon is increased * X-rays are produced
(25) The formula for the momentum of a photon is ___.
* * * *
(26) The emissive power of a black body radiation is proportional to ___.
* * * *
(27) A frame of reference is called inertial if it is ___.
* Rotatory * Accelerated
* Vibratory * Moving with uniform velocity
(28) In Compton Effect the scattered photon has ___.
* Greater frequency, smaller wavelength
* Greater frequency, greater wavelength
* Smaller frequency, greater wavelength * None of the above
(29) The wave length of a material particle of mass “m” moving with velocity “ ” is given by ___.
* * * *
(30) The absorption of the incident radiation by a perfect Black Body is ___.
* * 50 % * 90 % * 100 %
(31) A Compton shift depends only on photon‟s ___.
* Wavelength * Energy * Frequency * Scattering angle
(32) Galilean transformations are applicable to a frame of reference which is ___.
* Stationary * Moving * Inertial * Non-inertial
(33) A perfect black body ___.
* Is a perfect absorber of radiation * Has a unit absorptive power
* Is the most efficient radiator * All of them
(34) The experimental evidence of Einstein‟s mass-energy equation is ___.
* Photoelectric effect and Compton effect * Elastic collision
* Pair production and annihilation of matter * Radioactive emission
(35) The expression represents ___.
* Stefan‟s Law * Wien‟s Displacement Law
* Rayleigh-Jeans Law * Planck‟s Law
(36) The emissive power of a black body is proportional to ___.
Page 33 of 43
* * * *
(37) The photoelectric emission takes place if ___.
* * * *
(38) According to the Principle of Uncertainty ___.
* * * *
(39) The emissive power of a black body is proportional to ___.
* * * *
(40) The phenomenon of pair production takes place if the energy of photon is greater than ___.
* 1.0 MeV * 1.02 MeV * 0.051 MeV * None of these
(41) In order to increase the kinetic energy of an ejected photoelectron, there should be an increase in ___.
* Frequency of radiation * Wavelength of radiation
* Intensity of radiation * Both wavelength and frequency
(42) As the temperature of the Black Body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to the maximum intensity
shifts towards ___.
* Shorter wavelength * Longer wavelength
* Similar wavelength * Lower frequency
(43) A photoelectric cell transforms light energy in to ___.
* Heat energy * Magnetic energy * Electrical energy * Sound energy
(44) De‟Broglie wavelength, associated with the particle is given by ___.
* * * *
(45) The minimum energy required for a pair production is ___.
* 1.02 MeV * 102 MeV * 10.2 MeV * 1.02 volt
(46) According to Uncertainty Principle ___.
* *
* *
(47) According to Einstein‟s special theory of relativity, the mass of a particle moving with the speed of light will
become ___.
* Zero * Double * Infinite * Ten times
(48) The mathematical expression is called ___.
* Stefan‟s Law * Wien‟s Displacement Law
* Rayleigh-Jeans Law * Planck‟s Law
(49) This was the first experimental evidence of Einstein‟s mass-energy relation ___.
* Deuteron-induced reaction * Protons-induced reaction
* Gamma-induced reaction * None of these
(50) The rest mass of photon is ___.
* * Zero * Infinity *
(51) As the temperature of the Black Body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to the maximum intensity
shifts towards ___.
* Similar wavelength * Shorter wavelength
* Longer wavelength * None of these
(1) A particle with mass equal to an electron but charge that of a proton is called ___.
(2) The frequency of the incident light at which the photoelectrons have energy equal to the
work function of a metal is called ___ of the metal.
(3) The photon is a particle that has no ___ and no mass.
(4) From the Theory of Relativity the velocity of light is a ___ constant and is equal to___.
(5) At rest the mass of Photon is ___.
(6) The energy of each quantum as proposed by Plank is given by___.
(1) A black body is a perfect absorber of radiation.
(2) Energy of photons depends upon the intensity of light.
(3) If the frequency of radiation is increased, the stopping potential is also increased.
(4) The absorption power of a perfect Black Body is one.
(5) In Pair Production we need photons of at least 1.02 MeV energy
Page 34 of 43
CONSTANTS USED IN THIS CHAPTER
̅ ̅
Mass Variation
Q.1 Find the speed at which the mass of a particle will be doubled.
√
( ) 2002 P/M
Q.2 Calculate the relativistic speed at which the mass of a particle becomes double its rest mass.
√
( ) 2008
Mass-Energy Relationship
Q.1 Given . Find the total energy and the kinetic energy of an electron moving with a speed
.
(0.97 MeV, 0.459 MeV) 2002 P/E
Q.2 What will be the relativistic velocity and momentum of a particle whose rest mass is and kinetic energy is
equal to twice of its rest mass energy.
√
√ 2011
Q.3 Given . Find the total energy and the kinetic energy of an electron moving with a speed
.
(0.97 MeV, 0.459 MeV) 2012
Plank’s Law
Q.1 Compare the energy of a photon of wavelength with the energy of X-ray photon of wavelength
.
( )
2004
Photoelectric Effect
Q.1 The work function of a metal is 2 eV . The light of wavelength 3000 is made to fall on it. Find the kinetic energy
of the fastest emitted photoelectron.
(2.14 eV) 1994
Q.2 The range of visible light is to . Will the photoelectrons be emitted by a copper surface of work
function 4.4 eV, when illuminated by visible light? Give the mathematical proof of your answer.
(Since therefore no photoelectrons will be emitted) 1998
Q.3 When the light of the wavelength falls on a metal surface, stopping potential is 0.6 volt. Find the value of
the work function of the metal?
(2.50 eV) 2001
Q.4 Sodium surface is shined with the light of wavelength . If the work function of Na = 2.46 eV, find the
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons.
(1.68 eV) 2003 P/M
Q.5 A sodium surface is shined with the light of wavelength . If the work function of sodium is 2.46 eV, find
the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons.
(1.68 eV) 2003 P/E
Q.6 A sodium surface is shined with the light of wavelength . If the work function of the sodium metal is
2.46 eV, find the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons and also cut off wavelength.
2009
Page 35 of 43
Q.7 A sodium surface is shined with the light of wavelength . If the work function of the sodium metal is
2.46 eV, find the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons and also cut off wavelength.
2012
Compton Effect
Q.1 In Compton scattering process the fractional change in wavelength of X-ray photon is 1%, at an angle 1200, find
the wavelength of X-rays used in this experiment.
2007
Pair Annihilation
Q.1 Pair annihilation occurred due to a head on collision of an electron and a positron having the same kinetic energy,
producing pair of photons each having energy of . What were their kinetic energies before collision?
Given
2013
De’ Broglie Hypothesis
Q.1 Estimate the relativistic mass and the wavelength associated with an electron moving at 0.9 c.
( ) 2005
Q.2 If the electron beam in a television picture tube is accelerated by 10,000 V, what will be the De‟ Broglie‟s
wavelength?
2010
Q.3 If the electron beam in a TV picture tube is accelerated by 10 kV, what will be the De‟ Broglie‟s wavelength of an
electron?
2011
Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
Q.1 An electron exists within a region of 10-10 m, find its momentum uncertainty and approximate kinetic energy.
(1.05 x 10-24 N.s, 3.78 eV) 2006
Page 36 of 43
THE ATOMIC SPECTRA PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
rd
(1) Special series obtained due to transition of electron from higher to III orbit is called ___.
* Lyman series * Balmer series * Bracket series * Paschen series
(2) When fast moving electrons are stopped by a metal target of high atomic weight, the phenomenon give
rise to ___.
* X-rays * -rays * -rays
(3) Balmer series is obtained when all the transitions of electrons terminate on ___.
rd th nd st
* 3 orbit * 4 orbit * 2 orbit * 1 orbit
(4) The laser is a device which can produce ___.
* An intense beam of light * A coherent beam of light
* A monochromatic beam of light * All of the above
(5) The fast moving electrons stopped by a heavy metallic target in an evacuated glass tube, give
rise to the production of ___.
* -particle * -particle * X−rays * Protons
(6) According to Bohr‟s postulate, the electron revolving round the nucleus in a fixed orbit radiates
___.
* Energy * No energy * -rays * -rays
(7) In a hydrogen atom Balmer series lines are emitted as the electron falls to the orbit having ___.
* N=1 * N=2 * N=3 * N=4
(8) The laser is a device which can produce ___.
* An electron beam of light * A coherent beam of light
* A neutron beam of light * All of these
(9) The frequencies in spectral lines emitted in Lyman series are in the ___ region.
* Visible * Infrared * X-rays * Ultraviolet
(10) Hydrogen atom spectrum consists of lines in ___.
* Ultraviolet region * Visible region * Infrared region * All of them
(11) Brackett series of hydrogen atom lies in the ___ region.
* Visible * Infrared * X-rays * Ultraviolet
(12) The wavelength of X-rays is in the range ___.
* * * *
(13) Laser produces ___.
* An electron beam * Neutron beam
* A coherent beam of light * All of these
rd st
(14) When an electron falls from the 3 orbit to the 1 in the Hydrogen atom, the lines spectrum obtained
belongs to ___.
* Brackett series * Lyman series * Balmer series * Paschen series
(1) The minimum energy required to excite a hydrogen atom (from ground state) is ___.
Page 37 of 43
̅ ̅
Hydrogen Spectrum Series

Q.1 The energy of the lowest excited level of hydrogen atom is . Calculate the energy of the emitted photon in
transition from .
(2.55 eV) 1993
Q.2 Find the wavelength of light which is capable of ionizing a hydrogen atom.
( ) 1995
Q.3 The energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen atom is , calculate the angular momentum of the
electron according to Bohr’s theory.
( ) 1997
Q.4 What is the wavelength of the radiation that is emitted when hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from the state
.
( ) 2000
Q.5 What is the longest wavelength of light which is capable of ionizing a hydrogen atom? What energy in electron
volt is needed to ionize it?
( , 13.6 eV) 2002 P/M
Q.6 An electron in the hydrogen atom makes a transition from energy state to the ground state (corresponding
to ); find the wavelength in the ultraviolet region.
( ) 2003P/E
Q.7 Calculate the Binding energy of a hydrogen atom.
( ) 2007
Q.8 Calculate the longest and shortest wavelengths of emitted photons in hydrogen spectra in Balmer series.
, ) 2008
Q.9 Find the shortest wavelength of photon emitted in Balmer series and determine its energy.
( , 3.4 eV) 2010
Q.10 Calculate the energy of the longest wavelength radiation emitted in the Paschen series in hydrogen atom
spectra.
(0.662 eV) 2011
Q.11 Find the value of the shortest and the longest wavelength of emitted photons in hydrogen spectra in Balmer
series.
, ) 2012
Ionization & Excitation Potential
Q.1 A photon of 12.1 eV absorbed by a hydrogen atom originally in the ground state raises the atom to an excited
state. What is the quantum number of this state?
2002 P/E
Q.2 In a hydrogen atom an electron experiences transition from a state whose binding energy is 0.54 eV to the state
whose excitation energy is 10.2 eV. Calculate:-
(i) The quantum numbers of the two states;
(ii) The wavelength of the photon emitted.
( ) 2005
Q.3 A hydrogen atom in the ground state get excited by absorbing a photon of . Find the quantum number of
this state?
2013
X-Rays
Q.1 What minimum energy is required in an X-ray tube in order to produce X-rays with a wavelength of
Page 38 of 43
2004
Page 39 of 43
THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
(1) The nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called ___.
* Isotopes * Isobars * Isotones * Isomers
(2) In radioactive decay law, ___.
* Wavelength * Half life
* Mass of radioactive sample * Decay constant
(3) Breeder reactor is used to convert ___.
* *
* *
(4) The process in which heavier nucleus is formed from the combination of lighter nuclei is called ___.
* Fission * Fusion * Radioactivity * Mass deficit
(5) The process of emission from a nucleus involves the change in ___.
* Mass number * Charge number
* Mass number and charge number * No change occurs
(6) The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus in to smaller fragments is called ___.
* Fusion * Fission * Pair production * Annihilation of matter
(7) In a nuclear reaction: ___. The missing particle is ___.
* Proton * Neutron * Electron *
(8) One atomic mass unit is equal to ___.
* * * *
(9) The energy equivalent to the mass reduced in the formation of a nucleus is called ___.
* Nuclear energy * Binding energy
* Fusion energy * Potential energy
(10) The atomic number of an element is increased as a result of ___.
* *
* Pair production * Photoelectric effect
(11) The atomic number of a radioactive element is increased as a result of ___.
* * * * Pair production
(12) In a nuclear reaction: ___, the missing particle is ___.
* Proton * Neutron * Electron *
* Mass of radioactive sample * Decay constant
(14) The rate of decay of a radioactive substance ___.
* Increases with increases time
* Remains constant with increasing time
* Decreases exponentially with increasing time * None of these
(15) The half-life of radium is 1600 years. After 6400 years, the sample of the surviving radium would
be its ___.
* * * *
(16) When a nucleus emits a beta particle, its atomic number ___.
* Increases * Decreases
* Remains constant * None of these
(17) The radioactive decay law is ___.
* * * *
(18) After alpha decay, the nucleus has its ___.
* Charge number decreased by four * Charge number increased by four
* Mass number increased by four * Mass number decreased by four
Page 40 of 43

* Decay constant * None of these
(1) Nuclei of same element with different nuclear masses but the same charge numbers are called ___.
(2) The ratio of the mass of proton to the mass of electron is ___.
(1) The binding energy of the nucleus is the energy released during fission reaction.
Page 41 of 43
̅ ̅
Half-life & Activity

Q.1 The half-period of is 140 days. By what percentage does its activity decrease per week?
(3.46 %) 2006
Q.2 If the number of atoms per gram of is and it decays with a half-life of 1622 years, find the
decay constant and the activity of the sample.
2009
Q.3 The number of atoms per gram of is and it decays with a half-life of 1622 years, find the decay
constant and the activity of the sample?
2013
Mass Defect & Binding Energy
Q.1 Find the binding energy of in MeV if the mass of a proton = 1.007 8 u, mass of a neutron = 1.008 6 u, mass
of a Te atom = 125.903 3 u.
(1060.7 MeV) 2001
Q.2 If a neutron is entirely converted in to energy, how much energy is produced? Express your answer in joule and
electron volt.
( 2003P/M
Q.3 A deutron is formed when a proton and a neutron combine; calculate the; mass defect and binding energy in
MeV.
2010
Q.4 Find the binding energy and Packing Fraction in MeV of , given that 1.007 8 u, 1.008 6 u, =
125.903 3 u.
(1060.7 MeV, ) 2012
Page 42 of 43
NUCLEAR RADIATIONS PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937
(1) Wilson cloud chamber is used ___.
* For the study of clouds
* To produce X-rays
* To take photograph of the track of high velocity ions
* To produce -particles
(2) If a small quantity of radioactive iodine is taken in food, most of it is deposited in ___.
* Kidneys * Brain * Thyroid glands * All glands
(3) In treating a localized cancerous tumor a narrow beam of ___.
* -rays from cobalt 60 is used * -rays from cobalt 60 is used
* Electrons from cobalt 60 is used * -rays from cobalt 60 is used
(4) In treating localized cancerous tumor, we use a narrow beam of ___.
* -rays from cobalt 60 is used * -rays from cobalt 60 is used
* -rays from cobalt 60 is used * Laser from cobalt 60 is used
(5) A Geiger Muller Counter contains ___.
* Argon and Alcohol * Alcohol only
* Ions * Super-cooled water vapors
(6) This narrow beam from cobalt-60 is used in treating localized cancerous tumor ___.
* -rays * -rays * -rays * All of these
(7) The rate of flow of blood in the body can be traced by using this radio isotope ___.
* * * *
(1) The track formed in Wilson cloud Chamber due to gamma rays is a thick and continuous line.
Page 43 of 43

XII Physics Objectives

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HEAT PREPARED BY ARIF RAZA 0334-3653937

CHAPTER # 11 OBJECTIVES [email protected]

Q.1 Choose the correct answers from the following:-

* Velocity of the molecules of the gas decreases

(39) According to Charles's law ___.

(58) The change in disorder of the system is equal to ___.

* Possible * Not possible

(330.27 K) 2002 P/E

(20 %, 375 K) 2002 P/E

Q.1 Choose the correct answer from the following:-

(39) Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

(10) Electron-volt is the unit of ___.

Electric Field Intensity

(19) The rate of transfer of charges through a circuit is called ___.

* Increases * * Remains constant * Becomes zero

Specific Resistance or Resistivity

(25.46 ) 2002 P/E

(20 I3 = I4 = 0.15 A) 2001

(18) An electric current through a conductor produces around it ___.

Q.2 Fill in the blank with the correct answer:-

Motion of Charged Particles in a Magnetic Field

Q.1 Choose the correct answer from the given options:-

* Increases * Decreases * Remains the same * Becomes zero

Conversion of Galvanometer in to an Ammeter

Q.1 Choose the correct answer from the given options:-

* Narrow * Wide * Not present *

CONSTANTS USED IN THIS CHAPTER

CONSTANTS USED IN THIS CHAPTER

Hydrogen Spectrum Series

* Wavelength * Half life

CONSTANTS USED IN THIS CHAPTER

Half-life & Activity

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