Crim FC

INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY
1. This is the science concerned with improving the quality of offspring.

a. criminology
b. eugenics
c. genetics
d. heredity Charles Goring
2. This is also known as victimless crime.

a.occasional crime
b. political crime
c.public order crime
d. conventional crime victimless crime
3. The principle that events, including criminal behavior, has sufficient causes.
a. atavism
b. narcissism
c. determinism
d. positivism
4. This refers to the significant loss of contact with reality.

a. split mind
b. psychosis
c. neurosis
d. schizophrenia
5. A type of person who kills 3 or more in a separate event.

A. mass murder
B. serial killer
C. homicidal
D. spree killer
6. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, flees with hostages, and kills a number of
people while in flight diving a chase would be an example of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder
7. What is the legal term for nighttime?

A. sanctuary
B. absurdity
C. ephitomy
D. nocturnity
8. These are the rights of an accused derived from special laws enacted by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights
B. Civil rights
C. Statutory rights
D. Natural rights
9. In its broadest sense, it is the entire body of knowledge regarding, crimes, criminals and the
effort of society to prevent and repress them.
a. penology
b. sociology
c. criminology
d. etiology
10. These are crimes that can be committed in several places.
a. continuing crimes
b. rational crimes
c. irrational crimes
d. white collar crimes
11. In this point of view, crime exist when the person has been proven guilty by the court. The
main objective to this is a terrific morality of cases between the times a crime has been reported
up to the time a verdict of conviction is made by the court.
a. legal point of view
b. scientific point of view
c. direct expenses
d. indirect expenses
12. This new branch in criminology opposes the theoretical perspective and proposes the
involvement of all stakeholders in the use of non-violent solutions
A. Peacemaking Criminology
B. Sociology of Law
C. Restorative Justice
D. Non-Violent Criminological Hypothesis
13. Crimes that the lower class commit against the upper class in a capitalist system
A. Crimes of Passion
B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
C. Crimes of domination and Repression
D. Crimes of lower-class group
14. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the:
a. proletariat
b. bourgeois
c. capitalist
d. ruling class
15. These are acts that are in violation of simple rules and regulations usually referring to acts
committed by minor offenders.
a. crime
b. felony
c. offense
d. misdemeanor
16. Those that are committed in only one place.
a. extinctive crime
b. seasonal crime
c. situational crime
d. static crimes
17. The term criminology was originally derived from Italian word:
a. Crimen
b. criminologo
c. criminologia
d. criminologie
18. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the society to prevent and repress them.
a. Crime
b. Criminology
c. Victimology
d. Criminal justice
19. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship between criminality and the
inhabitants of a certain locality (population):
a.Ecology
b. Demography
c. Epidiomology
d. Physical anthropology
20. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship between criminality and the milieu.
a. Ecology
b. Demography
c. Epidiomology
d. Physical anthropology
21. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.

a. Criminology
b. Criminal Etiology
c. Victimology
d. Criminal Sociology
22. An act or omission in violation of the public law commanding or forbidding it.
a. Crime
b. Felony
c. Offense
d. None of the above
23. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by _____________.

a. Culpa
b. intent
c. Fault
d. both a and c
24. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit, except:

a. Intelligence
b. Freedom
c. Intent
d. Negligence
25. Jenny, a victim of rape, was able to identify her assailant, a neighbor, before she dies on her
way to the hospital where she was declared dead on arrival. The crime committed against Jenny
Is called:
a. complex crime
b. simple crime
c) instant crime
d) situational crime
26. In the study of the causes of crimes, anthropology, psychology, sociology and other natural
sciences may be applied. While in crime detection, chemistry, medicine, physics, mathematics,
ballistics, polygraphy, legal medicine, questioned document examination may be utilized. This is
called instrumentation. In this sense, criminology is considered as:
a. applied science
b. social science
c. dynamic
d. nationalistic
27. No person can be punished for his act, which at the time he did it is not yet punishable by
law, however, penal laws may be given retroactive effect when it is favorable to the accused,
which is not habitual delinquent.
a. It is specific and definite
b. It is uniform in application
c. It must be prospective
d. There must be a penal sanction or punishment
28. Those committed by persons who do not know the nature and quality of his action.
b. rational crimes
29. What is the study of human mind in relation to criminality.
a. criminal ecology
b. criminal physical anthropology
c. criminal psychology
d. criminal psychiatry
30. This is the study of crime focused on the group of people and society as a whole. It is
primarily based on the examination of the relationship of demographic and group variables to
crime. Variables such as socioeconomic status, interpersonal relationships, age, race, gender,
and cultural groups of people are probed in relation to the environmental factors that are most
conducive to criminal action, such as time, place, and circumstances surrounding the crime.
a. penology
b. sociology
c. criminology
d. etiology
31. A, punched the head of B, resulting to the latter’s injury. This is because of A’s jealousy to B,
being a close friend of C, A’s live-in partner. What type of criminal is A?
a. acute criminal
b. chronic criminal
c. ordinary criminal
d. passionate criminal
32. The study that deals with punishment and the treatment of criminals.
a. Penology
b. Correction
c. Etiology
d. Both a and b
33. Those committed only during a certain period of the year like violation of tax law.
a. extinctive crime
b. seasonal crime
d. static crime
34. When Cesare Lombroso said that there is born criminals among us, he means that?
A) Criminals are born because they are destined to be born.
B) They are criminals due to the environment where they were born.
C) They are criminals because of bad seeds.
D) They are criminals because they have physiological symptoms of being a criminal.
35. It is included as division in criminology because criminologists are also engaged in studying
criminal things; the analysis of physical evidences taken from the crime scene left behind by a
criminal perpetrator.
a. criminology
b. criminalist
c. criminalistics
d. any of these
36. A 47-year old security guard spotted a wallet on the floor and picked it up. When he opened
the wallet, he saw the identification of the owner who happens to be his supervisor. The guard is
having a resentment to his supervisor because he was scolded two days ago for sleeping while on
duty. Since he knew that nobody noticed that he picked up the wallet, he decided to keep it and
took the cash inside. What type of criminal demonstrates the guard?
A) Passive Inadequate Criminals
B) Accidental criminal
C) Ordinary criminals
D) Chronic Criminals
37. A 37-year old female high school teacher faked her identification in order to borrow money in
the bank. Five days later, the bank discovered her true identity and the falsity she made, and
subsequently filed a case against her. What criminological classification of crime is described in
the passage above?
A) Rational Crimes
B) Instrumental Crimes
C) White Collar Crimes
D) Acquisitive crimes
38. Penal sanction is the most essential part of the definition of a crime .If there is no penalty to a
prohibited act, its enforcement will almost be impossible. The penalty is acting as deterrence,
retribution and as a measure of self- defense of the state to protect society from the threat and
wrong inflicted by the criminal.
39. A 37-year-old man was put to jail for raping an 18-year-old. While serving his sentence, he
was beaten by the inmates and the police because he is a rapist, while a 25-year-old female
convicted of drug pushing is treated humanely by the police. This can be described as?
A) Collective efficacy
B) Just dessert
C) Offender specific
D) Chivalry hypothesis
40. What do we call the study of human behavior in relation to criminality?
a. criminal ecology
41. This happens when the result of a criminal act is destructive.

a. extinctive crime
b. seasonal crime
d. static crime
42. Among the following, this describes a radical criminological approach to the explanation of the
crime that sees the conflict and inequality present in society as being primarily on gender.
a. Radical Criminology
b. Feminist Criminology
c. Peacemaking Criminology
d. Left-Realistic Criminology
43. This type of serial killer experiences complete sexual gratification from the domination and
humiliation of the victim. This killer is a true sociopath and lives by his own personal set of rules
and guidelines. Many of the famous serial killers we have seen in history and in the media would
fall under his type of serial killer.
A. Visionary Killer
B. Hedonistic Killer
C. Power Oriented Killer
D. Mission Oriented Killer
44. Crimes committed by person of respectability and of upper socioeconomic class in the
course of their occupation activities. Ex. Adulteration of food by manufacturer.
b. rational crimes
45. The belief that the majority of citizens in a society share common values and agree on what
behaviors should be defined as criminal.
a. Cohort
b. Conflict view
c. Consensus view
d. Interactionist view
46. These are crimes committed by merely duplication of what was done by others.
a. blue collar crimes
b. episodic crimes
c. instant crimes
d. crimes by imitation
47. In the ______________, crime exits when it is reported. This is more realistic but not all
reported cases are with the sound basis of true happening. Some of them are also unfounded.
c. direct expenses
48. This is also a generic name that refers to offense, felony and delinquency or misdemeanor.
a. crime
b. felony
c. offense
d. misdemeanor
49. This is the study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.
a. criminal ecology
50. Those committed only when given the situation is conducive to its commission.
a. extinctive crime
b. seasonal crime
d. static crime
51. This focuses upon the reasons why people of the working-class prey upon one another, that
is, victimize other people of their own race and kind. It wants the police to have more power in
protecting poor people, but on the other hand, does not want the police to be invasive or intrusive.
a. Left realism
b. Radical criminology
c. Peacemaking criminology
d. Postmodern criminology
52. This school of thought is focused on the relationship between the powerful state, media and
conservative ruling elite on the one hand, and the less powerful groups on the other. The powerful
groups had the ability to become the 'significant other' in the less powerful groups' processes of
generating meaning. The former could to some extent impose their meanings on the latter, and
therefore they were able to 'label' minor delinquent youngsters as criminal.
a. Classical School
b. Labeling Theory
c. Rational Choice Theory
d. Symbolic Interactionism
53. Lombroso’s work supported the idea that the criminal was a biologically and physically inferior
person. According to him, there are three (3) classes of criminals; 1. Insane, 2. Born and 3.
Criminaloids. Insane criminals refer to?
a. Those individuals with at least five (5) atavistic stigmata
b. Those who are not criminals by birth but become criminals as a result of some changes
in their brains which interfere with their ability to distinguish between right and wrong
c. Those with make-up of an ambiguous group that includes habitual criminals, criminals by
passion and other diverse types.
d. Criminals who are usually in possession of huge jaws and strong canine teeth, the arm span of
criminals is often greater than their height, just like that of apes who use their forearms to push
themselves along the ground.
54. These are serial crimes, and they are committed by means of series of act within a lengthy
space of time.
b. episodic crimes
c. instant crimes
55. It is the mapping of crime and establishes relationship between society and the physical
environment. It dominated in 1830-1880 in France and spread to England. The work based on
social data of demographic information on population including its density, religion affiliation and
wealth.
a. Chicago school
b. Positivist school
c. Neo classical school
d. Cartographical school
56. According to Edwin Sutherland, “Dean of Modern Criminology”, criminology is the body of
knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes:
I. Making of law
II. Breaking of law
III. Reaction towards the breaking of law
IV. Rehabilitation of criminals
a. All of these
b. I, II and IV only
c. I, III, II only
d. III and I only
57. The Classical School arose in the mid18th century and has its basis in utilitarian philosophy.
Cesare Beccaria, author of “On Crimes and Punishments”, Jeremy Bentham (inventor of the
panopticon), and other philosophers in this school argued that:
I. People have free will
II. The basis for deterrence is the idea that humans are 'hedonists' who seek pleasure and avoid
pain, and rational calculator who weigh the costs and benefits of every action. It ignores the
possibility of irrationality and unconscious drives as motivators.
III. Punishment can deter people from crime, as the costs outweigh benefits, and severity of
punishment should be proportionate to the crime.
IV. The swifter and more certain the punishment, the less effective as a deterrent to criminal
behavior.
a. III, II, IV
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III, I
d. All of these
58. According to RA 11131, Registered Criminologist refers to?

a. Natural person who holds a valid certificate of registration from PCAP
b. Natural person who holds a valid certificate of registration from PRC
c. Natural person who holds a valid certificate of registration and an updated professional
identification card as criminologist issued by the Board and the Commission
d. The scientific study of crimes, criminals, and victims, it also deals with the prevention, and
solution of crimes
59. Criminology changes as social condition changes. It is concomitant with the advancement of
other sciences that have been applied to it.
a. applied science
b. social science
c. dynamic
d. nationalistic
60. According to the PNP, Index Crime are those crimes which are serious in nature and occur
with sufficient regularity. Which of the following are considered as Index Crimes?
a. Rape, Murder, Homicide, Physical Injury, Robbery, Theft, Carnapping of Motor Vehicle
and Motorcycle
b. Rape, Murder, Parricide, Physical Injury, Robbery, Theft, Carnapping of Motor Vehicle and
Motorcycle
c. Rape, Murder, Homicide, Physical Injury, Robbery, Theft, Carnapping of Motor Vehicle
d. Rape, Murder, Homicide, Physical Injury, Robbery, Estafa, Carnapping of Motor Vehicle and
Motorcycle
61. Under Subjective Approach, this is focused on the study of the nature of human beings – how
they satisfy their physical needs.
a. Biological Approach
B. Psychological Approach
C. Physiological Approach
D. Psychoanalytical Approach
62. This process submits that the criminal behavior was due to the gap between the criminal and
the community. For this reason, the offender must be assisted to strive hard to face the forces of
the society or community which will join upon his release from jail/prison.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Isolation of prisoners
c. Deinstitutionalization
d. Reintegration
63. The removal of juveniles from jails, detention centers and institutions. Removing juveniles from
these facilities, and when possible, removing status and minor offenders from the juvenile justice
system as a whole, is the most basic type of diversion.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Diversion
c. Deinstitutionalization
d. Reintegration
64. What are the four Basic Principles of Justice For Victims of Crime and Abuse of Power
according to the United Nations?
a. Equal Protection of Law, Restitution, Compensation, Restorative Justice
b. Restitution, Compensation, Restorative Justice, Reformation
c. Access to Justice and Fair Treatment, Restitution, Compensation, Assistance
d. Access to Justice and Fair Treatment, Restitution, Compensation, Restorative Justice
65. When the offender performed all the acts of execution which will produce the felony, as a
consequence but which nevertheless, do not produce the felony be reason of causes
independent of the will of the perpetrator.
a. Attempted
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated
d. NOTA
66. Mr.A attempted to rape Ms. B, but the latter subdued the former and attacked him using a
bladed weapon, which resulted to his untimely death. Mr. A is what type of Victim according to
Von Hentig?
a. Wanton
b. Greedy
c. Tormentor
d. Depressive
67. These crimes are those that are committed the shortest possible time.
b. episodic crimes
c. instant crimes
68. Those spent by the government or private section for the maintenance or police security
guards for crime detection, prosecution and judiciary, support of prison system.
c. direct expenses
69. Mr. A was born in a criminal family, and he was always looking for pleasure in life, but do not
take any risk and avoids pain. Mr. A is a great representation of a:
a. Maniac
b. Atavistic
c. Hedonist
d. Criminaloid
70. It refers to the study of the various agencies of our government in charge of processing law
violators to ensure the protection of the society and maintenance of peace and order.
a. Criminology
b. Criminologist
c. Criminal Justice
d. Criminal Justice Practitioner
71. Which of the following is an accessory penalty?

a. Prision Mayor
b. Reclusion Perpetua
c. Reclusion temporal
d. Perpetual or temporary absolute disqualification
72. Those committed with intentional and offender is in full possession of his sanity.
b. rational crimes
73. Pertains to the examination of the reasons of crime causation and primarily deals to answer
issues why, despite the existence of law, people still commit crimes.
a. Making of laws
b. Criminal Etiology
c. Criminal Etymology
d. Reactions towards the breaking of law
74. This idea believes that becoming criminal is a discovering occurrence in which potential felons
master techniques that enables them to counterbalance conventional values and drift back and
forth between illegitimate and conventional behavior.
a. Neutralization
b. Containment
c. Differential Association
d. Differential Reinforcement
75. This is an act or omission that is punishable by the Revised Penal Code, the criminal law
in the Philippines
a. crime
b. felony
c. offense
d. misdemeanor
76. It is the study of criminality in relation to physical constitution of men.
a. criminal ecology
77. It is the mapping of crime and establishes relationship between society and the physical
environment. The work based on social data of demographic information on population including
its density, religion affiliation and wealth.
a. Chicago school
b. Positivist school
c. Neo classical school
d. Cartographical school
78. Who studied the case history of 2,000 convicts and found that heredity is more influential as a
determiner of criminal behaviour than environment?
a.Charles Darwin
b. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
c. Charles Goring
d. Alphonse Bertillon
79. Who advocated the theory that feeblemindedness” inherited as Mendalian unit, cause crime
for the reason that feeble-minded person is unable to appreciate the consequences of his
behavior, or appreciate the meaning of the law?
a. Walter Bromberg
b. Richard Dugdale
c. H. Goddard
d. W. F. Ogburn
80. What is the statement which says we have no crime if we had no criminal laws and that we
could eliminate all crime merely by abolishing all criminal law?
a. Discrimination
b. Logomacy
c. Abolish legislative body
d. All of the above
81. What school of Criminology maintained that while the classical school was correct in general, it
should be modified in certain details; since children and lunatics cannot calculate pleasures and
pains, they should not be regarded as criminals or to be punished?
a. Classical school
b. Positive school
c. Neo-classical school
d. Punitive reaction to crime
82. What study includes the science of behavior and mental processes of the criminal and is
focused on the individual behavior- how it is acquired, evoked, maintained, and modified is called?
a. Criminal Psychology
b. Criminal Psychiatry
c. Criminal Sociology
d. Criminal Etiology
83. Criminology changes as social condition changes. This means the progress of criminology is
concordant with the advancement of other sciences that has been applied to it. It connotes that
criminology is
a. Dynamic
b. Progressive
c. Excellent
d. None of these
84. In a situation when an offender comes to possession of something out of the commission of
the crime, what type of crime he has committed?
a. Extinctive crime
b. Static crime
c. Acquisitive crime
d. Episodal crime
85. Criminal law must give a strict definition of a specific act which constitutes an offense. Where
there is doubt as to whether a definition embodied in the Revised Penal Code applies to the
accused or not, the judge is obligated to decide the case in favor of the accused. Criminal Law
must be construed liberally in favor of the and strictly against the state.

86. This has reference to any physical intellectual quality; the lack of which substantially
incapacitates one to perform the duty. What is best described in the statement?
a. dishonesty
b. malfeasance
c. incompetency
d. all of these
87. The study of crimes must be in relation with the existing criminal law within a
territory or country. Finally, the question as to whether an act is crime is dependent on the
criminal law of state. It follows therefore, that the causes of crime must be determined from its
social needs and standards.
a. applied science
b. social science
c. dynamic
d. nationalistic
88. Those expenses utilized to prevent the commission of crimes like the constitution of window
grills, fences, gate, purchase of door locks and safety vaults, hiring of watchmen, feeding of
watchdogs, etc.
a. Primary Expenses
b. Secondary Expenses
c. Direct Expenses
d. Indirect Expenses
89. It develops itself from the pleasure and pain level and from the discovery that the behavior of
the seat of psychic energy can have boring results.
a. ID
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Awareness
90. A Category of Crime that includes among others crimes, Robbery, Theft, Carnapping, Arson,
Shoplifting, and Vandalism.
a. Minor Crimes
b. Status Offenses
c. Violent Crime
d. Property Crimes
91. Those committed by ordinary professional criminals to maintain their livelihood.
b. episodic crimes
c. instant crimes
92. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study of society, which to him
passes through stages divided on the basis of how people try to understand it, leading them to
adopt a rational scientific understanding of the world. (CLE 2021)
a. August Comte
b. beccaria
c. Lombroso
d. Sociologists
93. The term criminology was derived from French word:

a. crimen
b. criminologie
c. criminologia
d. criminology
94. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship between criminality and the
inhabitants of a certain locality:
a.Ecology
b) Demography
c) Epidiomology
d) Physical anthropology
95. Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code according to their gravity. What crime to
which the law attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties.
a. grave felonies
b. less grave felonies
c. light felonies
d. complex felonies
96. It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the commission of a crime.
a. criminal victim
b. criminal psychiatry
c. victimless crime
d. victimology
97. It is an act or omission that is punishable by special laws (a special law is a statute enacted
by Congress, penal in character, which is not an amendment to the Revised Penal Code) such
as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees, Executive Orders, Memorandum Circulars, Ordinances
and Rules and Regulations (Reyes, 2008)
a. crime
b. felony
c. offense
d. misdemeanor
98. An act describes a crime no matter who committed it, whether committed in the Philippines
and whenever committed. No exception must be made as to the criminal liability. The definition of
crimes together with the corresponding punishment must be uniformly constructed, although they
may be differential enforcement of a give, specific provision of the penal law.
99. A crime can be classified according to its stages of commission. What crime is committed
when the offender merely commences the execution of an offense by overt act but which
nevertheless did not perform all acts of execution which would produce the felony by reason of
some cause other than his own spontaneous desistance?
a. Attempted crime
b. Consummated crime
c. Frustrated crime
d. Complex crime
100. RA 9262 is an example of? (Dec 2021 CLE)

a. Mala inse
b. Mala prohibitum
c. Mala INC
d. Felony
THEORIES OF CRIME CAUSATION
1. It is a systematic arrangement of facts with respect to some real or hypothetic laws.

a. Ideas
b. Concept
c. Theory
d. Any of these
2. A theory that focuses on how people perceive the world and how this perception governs their
actions, thoughts and emotions. Most cognitive theorists break down the process into three levels
of what is called “moral development.”
a. Bobo Doll Theory
b. Cognitive Theory
c. Containment Theory
d. General Strain Theory
3. This type of theory sees crime as the normal result of an “American dream” in which people set
their aspirations (for wealth, education, occupation, any status symbol) too high, and inevitably
discover strain, or goal blockages, along the way. The only two things to do are: reduce
aspirations or increase opportunities.
a. Classical Theory
b. DAT
c. Strain Theory
d. Utilitarianism
4. The doctrine that the purpose of all actions should bring about the greatest happiness for the
greatest number of people.
A. Classical Theory
b. Utilitarianism
c. Deterrence Theory
d. Moral Calculus
5. This is known as the pleasure principle, and it is often paramount when discussing criminal
behavior.
a. ID
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Any of these
6. It is based upon the principle that an individual becomes delinquent because of an excess of
definitions learned that are favorable to violation of law over definitions learned that are
unfavorable to violation of law.
a. Differential Association Theory
b. Labelling Theory
c. Conflict Theory
d. Differential Opportunity Theory
7. The term ___________is used to identify the core process in Glaser’s scheme. A person, he
argues, pursues criminal behavior to the extent that he identifies himself with real or imaginary
persons from whose perspective his criminal behavior seems acceptable.
a. Differential identification
b. Imitation
c. Differential opportunity
d. Strain
8. The term ___________comes from the Greek words “nature,” and “to judge or to interpret.” It
refers to the evaluation of a person’s personality or character (i.e., his or her nature) through an
examination of that person’s outward appearance.
a. Physiognomy
b. Phrenology
c. Atavism
d. Evolution
9. Done by individuals who accept socially approved goals, but not necessarily the socially
approved means.
a. Innovations
b. Retreatism
c. Ritualism
d. Conformity
10. Raffaele Garofalo (1851–1934), developed the____________, focusing on those acts that
could be prevented or reduced by punishment. Garofalo also suggested the elimination of
individuals who posed a threat to society, to improve the quality of the society and ensure its
survival.
a. theory of natural crime
b. natural theory
c. economic theory
d. determinism
11. The criminal argues that their actions didn’t harm anyone.
a. Denial of Responsibility
b. Denial of Victim
c. Condemnation of the Condemners
d. Denial of Injury
12. There are three pathways to disruptive and delinquency behaviors as described by Loeber and
his colleagues in their study of Pittsburgh youths. These are Authority conflict, covert pathway and
overt pathway.
a. Two-path Theory
b. Life-course persistent offenders
b. adolescence limited offenders
c. Three-pathway model
13. They are a mix or could be any body type but were characterized by highly charged emotional
states and unable to control their emotions.
a. Cyclothemes
b. Schizotemes
c. Displastics
d. Mesomorphs
14. Who was the Austrian scientist known as the “father of genetics”?
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Karl Landsteiner
b. Charles Goring
c. Henry Goddard
15. They are the unwritten rules of beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors that are considered acceptable
in a particular social group or culture.
a. Antisocial
b. deviance
c. Cultural activities
d. Social norms
16. It compensates for the demands of the id by guiding an individual’s actions or behaviors to
keep him or her within the boundaries of society.
a. ID
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Any of these
17. _______________is beyond normal behavior since it is used to describe conducts or actions
that do not belong to the standard behavior of man.
a. Abnormality
c. Mental illness
d. Criminal behavior
d. Human behavior
18. He is the author of Strain Theory
A. Robert Merton
b. Loyd Ohlin
c. Ernest Burgess
d. Cesare Beccaria
19. These are crimes that have little influence on the actor and can quickly be forgotten.
a. Social Bonding Theory
b. Social Disorganization Theory
c. Primary Deviance
d. Secondary Deviance
20. This law says that new behaviors are superimposed on old ones and subsequently either
reinforce or extinguish previous behavior. For example, if criminals start to use a new type of
weapon, they will not use the old one any more.
a. Laws of Imitation
b. Law of Close Contact
b. Imitation of Superiors by Inferiors
d. Law of Insertion
21. Aristotle offers a philosophical standpoint on crime causation who stated that the crime is
poverty related describing poverty as a mother of all revolutions and crime.
a. Antique philosophy
b. Medieval philosophy
c. French renaissance philosophy
d. Modern philosophy
22. This theory expresses that the humans did not act according to God’s will or under the
influence of any other supernatural power but acted in their own free will.
A. Classical Theory
b. Utilitarianism
d. Moral Calculus
23. This is done by those who reject socially approved goals and the means for acquiring them.
a. Innovations
b. Retreatism
c. Ritualism
d. Conformity
24. The act of preventing a criminal act before it occurs, through the threat of punishment and
sanctions.
a. Deterrence
b. Retribution
c. Positivism
d. Atavism
25. Freud argued that female crime results from a ________________, stemming from penis
envy.
a. Chivalry Hypothesis
b. Women’s Liberation Hypothesis
c. Masculinity Complex
d. Economic Marginalization
26. Individuals may teach others to engage in crime through the reinforcements and punishments
they provide for behavior.
a. Strain Theory of Suicide
b. Differential Association Theory
c. Differential Reinforcement Theory
d. Drift Theory
27. These theories focus on offending behavior over time (e.g., trajectories) and on dimensions of
the criminal career and make an effort to identify risk and protective factors that relate to life-
course patterns of offending.
a. Economic Theories
b. Capitalist Theory
c. Biopsychosocial Theory
d. Developmental Theories
28. This is a theory and a folk science based upon the idea that the study and judgement of a
person's outer appearance, primarily the face, may give insights into their character or personality.
a. Biological Theories
b. Somatotype Theory
c. Physiognomy Theory
d. Psychoanalytic Theory
29. This theory states that individuals use their self-interests to make choices that will provide
them with the greatest benefit. People weigh their options and make the choice they think will
serve them best.
a. Differential Opportunity Theory
b. Rational Choice Theory
c. Theory of Imitation
c. Differential Identification Theory
30. It suggests the understanding of individual differences of the perpetrators who should have an
impact on the level of guilt and severity of punishment. Consequently, not all perpetrators should
be treated in the same manner, because the evident differences exist among them.
a. Neoclassical Theory
b. Classical Theory
c. Positivist Theory
d. Demonological Theory
31. It is a theory that explains deviance in terms of the process by which a person acquires a
negative identity, such as addict or ex-con and is forced to suffer the consequences of outcast
status.
b. Labelling Theory
c. Conflict Theory
d. Feminist Theory
32. Tarde believed that the origins of deviance were similar to the origins of fads and fashions,
and that his “three laws of imitation” can explain why people engage in crime.
33. Advanced by the American criminologists David Cressey, Gresham Sykes, and David

Matza, portrays the delinquent as an individual who subscribes generally to the morals of society
but who is able to justify his own delinquent behavior through a process of “neutralization”.
d. Drift Theory
34. Is from the Latin word that means ancestor. Claimed a return to a primitive or subhuman type
of man, characterized physically by a variety of inferior morphological features reminiscent of apes
and lower primates, occurring in the more simian fossil men and to some extent, preserved in
modern “savages”.
a. Deterrence
b. Retribution
c. Positivism
d. Atavism
35. These were manic-depressive and typified by soft skin, a round shape, and little muscle
development, and tended to commit the less serious offenses that were more intellectual in
nature.
a. Cyclothemes
b. Schizotemes
c. Displastics
d. Mesomorphs
36. Economists argue that crime is a result of individuals’ making choices between using their
scarce resources of time and effort in legitimate or in illegitimate activities. A key assumption is
that when making these choices, individuals are rational and choose the best option based on the
available information and resources
d. Developmental Theory
37. Affected by clinically identified mental disease or by a neuropsychopathic condition which

groups him with the mentally disease.
a. Born criminal
b. Insane criminal
c. Passionate criminal
d. Occasional criminal
38. the criminal by acquired habit, who is mostly a product of the social environment in which, due
to abandonment by his family, lack of education, poverty, bad companions, already in his
childhood begins as an occasional offender.
a. Habitual Criminal
b. Murderer
c. Lascivious criminal
d. Violent criminal
39. It is based on the belief that human behavior originated in the brain.
a. Physiognomy
b. Phrenology
c. Atavism
d. Evolution
40. People who buy into system of socially approved goals and the means for acquiring them.
a. Innovations
b. Retreatism
c. Ritualism
d. Conformity
41. Human cells normally have 22 pairs of chromosomes, plus a pair of chromosomes that
determines sex, for a total of:
a. 46
b. 50
c. 23
d. 25
42. Those thieves who lacks probity (such offenses are committed by a small minority of the
population).
a. Burglar
b. Fence
c. Accessories
d. Thief
43. ____________of crime asserted a linkage between certain biological conditions and an
increased tendency to engage in criminal behavior.
d. Physiognomy Theory
44. It sometimes called by the French word “anomie”.

a. Conflict
b. Strain
c. Danger
d. Fault
45. Used for estimating the probability that a person will engage in a particular kind of behavior.
People weigh the possibility that a particular behavior pattern or action will cause current or future
pleasure against the possibility that it will cause current or future pain.
A. Classical Theory
b. Utilitarianism
d. Moral Calculus
46. According to Francis Bacon, criminality will depend on social situations. He described his
standpoint in this sentence: “opportunity makes a thief”. Bacon pointed out that human behavior
will depend on situations.
47. Morality principle; it develops as a person incorporates the moral standards and values of the
community; parents; and significant others, such as friends and clergy members.
a. ID
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Any of these
48. This involves children and how they learn the external consequences of their actions.
a. Pre-conventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Post-conventional level
d. Appeal to higher loyalties
49. People who conform to the system’s means and goals.

a. Innovations
b. Retreatism
c. Ritualism
d. Conformity
50. The ______________is a theory that states that a person is either pushed or pulled into a
crime.
a. Bobo Doll Theory
b. Cognitive Theory
51. Marxists argue that the economic system of capitalism itself causes crime. The whole system
is based on the exploitation of the working class by the ruling class, leading to the ever-increasing
wealth of one class and ever-increasing poverty of the other.
52. This law explains that the poor or the young imitate the rich or the more experienced, and that
crimes among the poor are in fact their attempts to imitate wealthy, high-status people.
d. Law of Insertion
53. ____________were antisocial and apathetic, committing the more serious violent offenses,
and were either asthenic (thin and tall) or athletic (wide and strong).
a. Cyclothemes
b. Schizotemes
c. Displastics
d. Mesomorphs
54. A theory that provides that strains, resulting from conflicting and competing pressures in an
individual's life, causes him/her to commit suicide.
d. Drift Theory
55. This theory argued that human behavior is pre-disposed and fully determined by individual
differences and biological traits meaning it is not freewill that drives people to commit crimes.
a. Neoclassical Theory
b. Classical Theory
c. Positivist Theory
d. Demonological Theory
56. A group of sexual offenders whose conduct is characterized less by the absence of the
sentiment of pity than by a low level of moral energy and deficient moral perception.
b. Murderer
d. Violent criminal
57. ___________ are those whose anti-social, criminal behavior begins in childhood and
continues to worsen thereafter.
a. Two-path Theory
58. The criminal argues that it is unfair for them to be blamed for the crime and that they are being
persecuted or punished out of spite.
b. Denial of Victim
d. Denial of Injury
59. Highlights that an individual’s choice to commit or not to commit a crime is influenced by the
fear of punishment. it also includes the idea that forced retribution for a crime should reduce crime
rates. This theory is considered an extension of the classical approach focusing on the link
between punishment and behavior at both individual and group levels.
A. Classical Theory
b. Utilitarianism
d. Moral Calculus
60. The criminal argues that their actions, although illegal, were justified, or even positive; for the
greater good.
61. One who constitutes the majority of lawbreakers and is the product of family and social milieu
more than of abnormal personal physiomental conditions.
a. Born criminal
b. Insane criminal
62. One who carries from birth, through unfortunate heredity from his ancestors, a reduced
resistance to criminal stimuli and also an evident and developed tendency to crime.
a. Born criminal
b. Insane criminal
63. People who negate socially approved goals and means by creating a new system of
acceptable goals and means.
a. Innovations
b. Retreatism
c. Rebellion
d. Conformity
64. This argues that those persons who have strong and abiding attachments to conventional
society (in the form of attachments, involvement, commitment, and belief) are less likely to deviate
than persons who have weak or shallow bonds.
c. Primary Deviance
65. In Sisters and Crime (1975) Adler proposes that changes in Female Criminality are directly
related to changes in roles of women in society. Women have increased their numbers in the
workforce and have been granted greater freedoms as a result of the women's liberation
movement.
66. ___________emphasizes the techniques of observation, the comparative method, and

experimentation in the development of knowledge concerning human behavior and the nature of
society.
a. Deterrence
b. Retribution
c. Positivism
d. Atavism
67. ____________provides the context in which learning occurs. According to the theory, the most
important contexts for learning criminal behavior include peer groups and family units, though
varying entities such as schools, neighbors, and media also provide alternative settings where
some learning of criminal behavior may ensue.
d. Drift Theory
68. Crime is said to be more likely in communities that are economically deprived, large in size,
high in multiunit housing like apartments, high in residential mobility (people frequently move into
and out of the community), and high in family disruption (high rates of divorce, single-parent
families). This is under what theory?
c. Primary Deviance
69. This is the idea that people (usually teens) from low socioeconomic backgrounds who have
few opportunities for success, will use any means at their disposal to achieve success. The means
are generally referred to as subcultures.
70. The famous encyclopedists Voltaire and Rousseau introduced the concept of free will. Crime
is the same as hedonistic behavior and failure to fulfill the social contract obligations.
71. This theory was originated by Sigmund Freud. An individual’s mental growth starts from the
childhood, from where he starts to learn and his growth for good or bad things starts from there
only.
d. Physiognomy Theory
72. Those characterized by the lack of pity (may also commit crimes of passion, sometimes under
the influence of alcohol; such crimes are indicative of inferior innate moral capacities; certain
environments contribute to crimes against property).
b. Murderer
d. Violent criminal
73. This holds that society is based on conflict between competing interest groups: for example,
rich against poor, management against labor, whites against minorities, men against women,
adults against children etc.
b. Labelling Theory
c. Conflict Theory
d. Feminist Theory
74. The social learning theorist is Albert Bandura (1978). Human behavior is developed through
gaining and learning experiences while growing up. The children learn violence from others, it is
seen that the children learn most of the acts from movies and try to apply them in real world.
a. Bobo Doll Theory
b. Cognitive Theory
75. This law explains that people have a greater tendency to imitate the fashions or behaviors of
those around them. If one is constantly surrounded by deviant behavior, one is more likely to
imitate that type of behavior than any other, of which that person knows little.
d. Law of Insertion
76. This theory posits that human behavior as rational and assumes that people have the ability to
choose right from wrong. It explains that crime is a product of believes that benefits of committing
crimes are far greater therefore crime is a behavioral human characteristic and a choice.
A. Classical Theory
b. Utilitarianism
d. Moral Calculus
77. This involves teens and young adults, who begin to base behavior on society’s views and
expectations.
78. One who, in two varieties, the criminal through passion or through emotion, represents a type
at the opposite pole from the criminal due to congenital tendencies.
a. Born criminal
b. Insane criminal
79. According to Cohen and Felson, crimes occur when these three elements converge, except:
A. Motivated Offender
B. Suitable Victims
C. Lack of Capable Guardian
D. Routine
80. The criminal argues that they were a victim of circumstance and had no other choice but to
commit the crime; that the crime was not their fault.
b. Denial of Victim
d. Denial of Injury
81. This describes the reappearance in an organism of characteristics of some remote ancestor
after several generations of absence. It often refers to one that exhibits a throwback.
a. Physiognomy
b. Phrenology
c. Atavism
d. Evolution
82. This is a multidisciplinary perspective that attempts to understand criminal behavior (and
related outcomes, like antisocial behavior and its consequences) by considering the interactions
between biological (e.g., genetics, hormones, physiology, brain structure/functioning).
c. Biopsychosocial Criminology
83. Terrrie Moffit's ____________________is a biosocial theory of crime. Moffit (1993) proposes
that there are two groups of people who commit crimes: life-course-persistent offenders and
adolescence-limited offenders.
a. Two-path Theory
84. It arises when a deviant comes to the attention of significant others or social control agencies
who apply a negative label. The person then reorganizes his or her own behavior and personality
around the consequences of the deviant act.
c. Primary Deviance
85. The man in whom altruism is wholly lacking and whose sentiments of both pity and probity are
absent, and such a criminal will steal or kill as the occasion arises.
b. Murderer
d. Violent criminal
86. Reality principle, it I thought to develop early in a person’s life.

a. ID
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Any of these
87. They are those whose antisocial behavior begins in adolescence but ends in young adulthood.
a. Two-path Theory
88. ___________________is a term coined by criminal justice scholars. Chivalry suggests

that women who commit crime are awarded more lenient sentences than males who commit
crime. One possible reason for the lenient sentencing is that women are generally viewed as the
caregiver, or the loving mother.
89. It represents the unconscious biological drives for food, sex, and other necessities over the life
span which is concerned with instant pleasure or gratification while disregarding concern for
others.
a. ID
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Any of these
90. The notion that a wrongdoer should be forced to pay back or compensate for his or her
criminal actions.
a. Deterrence
b. Retribution
c. Positivism
d. Atavism
91. In those over the age of 20, the focus is more on judging the moral worth of societal values
and rules and how they relate to values of liberty, human welfare and human rights
92. The _________________views the individual as a more active, voluntary participant in the
criminal learning process. The key question in explaining criminal behavior, according to Glaser, is
with whom does the individual subjectively choose to identify, criminals or noncriminals?
93. This is often used to refer especially to the thought processes of reason. Subjectively, it
manifests itself as a stream of consciousness.
a. Soul
b. Body
c. Mind
d. Spirit
94. This theory suggests that increased crime by women is directly related to the absence of real
and meaningful opportunities for women. Despite the increase of women in the working world
today, there are still a great many of them that are not employed or who are working in minimum
wage paying jobs.
95. Differential Association is a theory developed by Edwin Sutherland proposing that through
interaction with others, individuals learn the values, attitudes, techniques, and motives for criminal
behavior. Which of the following does not belong to the principles of Edwin Sutherland?
a. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in a process of communication.
b. The principal part of the learning of criminal behavior occurs within intimate personal groups.
c. Inner and outer control systems control whatever motivations one may have to deviate
toward illegal activity.
d. When criminal behavior is learned, the learning includes: (a) techniques of committing the
crime, which are sometimes very complicated, sometimes simple; (b) the specific direction of
motives, drives, rationalizations, and attitudes.
96. Agnew's ________________now acknowledges that events which are perceived to be

especially negative by those who experience them are positively correlated with a greater
likelihood of criminal behavior
a. Bobo Doll Theory
b. Cognitive Theory
97. William Sheldon (1942) proposed a strong correlation between personality and

somatotype (i.e. physique). His theory is called:
c. Physiognomy Theory
98. The criminal argues that the victim deserved to have the crime committed against them.
b. Denial of Victim
d. Denial of Injury
99. A theory that asserts that a person commits wrongful acts due to the fact that he was
possessed by demons.
a. Demonological theory
b. Dark theory
c. Demon theory
d. Possessive theory
100. 94. A type of physique that is characterized by thin, small and weak.
a. Asthenic
b. Athletic
c. Pyknic
d. Dysplastic
HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND VICTIMOLOGY
1. The totally accepted behavior because they follow the standard norms of society.
a. Human behavior
b. Normal behavior
c. Simple behavior
d. Abnormal behavior
2. Any behavior that the person is not aware or acts embedded in the subconscious.
a. Extrovert
b. Unconscious
c. Conscious
d. Oedipus Complex
3. A behavior when a person acted with sanity or reason.

a. Rational
b. Involuntary
c. Dementia
d. Alexia
4. An act committed without apparent reason or explanation, such as losing sanity, loud laughing
at nobody.
a. Overt
b. Bizarre
c. Irrational
d. Stressor
5. Acts categorized according to the number of neurons involved in the process of behaving.
a. Behavior
b. Voluntary
c. Covert
d. Simple and complex
6. Pertains to our way of thinking, reasoning, solving problem, processing information and coping
with the environment.
a. Social aspect
b. Coprolalia
c. Thinking aspect
d. Intellectual aspect
7. It refers to our feelings, mood, temper and strong motivational force.

a. Moral aspect
b. Emotional aspect
c. Coping
d. Insanity
8. It pertains to being a man or a woman and the expression of love.

a. Psychological needs
b. Mutism
c. Psychosexual aspect
d. Political aspect
9. It pertains to the human interest towards something, his/her likes and dislikes.
a. Mania
b. Values
c. Melancholia
d. Political aspect
10. People suffering from psychosis are said to be:

a. Maniacs
b. Psychopaths
c. Psychotic
d. Schizophreniac
11. A segment of cell structures called chromosomes by which parents pass on traits to their
offspring.
a. Genes
b. Heredity
c. Environment
d. Learned
12. It is the persons knowledge of a given stimulus which largely help to determine the actual
behavioral response in a given situation.
a. Sensation
b. Perception
c. Awareness
13. Sadness and regret can still be present in this phase, but the emotional survival tactics of
denial, bargaining and anger are less likely to be present.
a. Anger
b. Bargaining
c. Acceptance
d. Depression
14. Making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior.

a. Regression
b. Suppression
c. Rationalization
d. Substitution
15. Complaints of bodily symptoms that suggest the presence of physical problem but no organic
basis can be found. The individual is pre-occupied with his state of health or diseases.
a. Panic disorder
b. Somatoform disorder
c. Multiple disorder
d. Neurasthenia
16. A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus Complex
b. Electra Complex
c. Doing gender
d. Chivalry Hypothesis
17. It is when you are convinced that someone is mistreating, conspiring against, or planning to
harm you or your loved one.
a. Delusion
b. Delusion of Grandeur
c. Delusion of Reference
d. Delusion of Persecution
18. Handling your own pain by helping others is called:

a. Scapegoating
b. Altruism
c. Projection
d. Regression
19. It is one of the views in human behavior that emphasizes unconscious motives that originate
from aggressive impulses in childhood.
a. Neurological view
b. Behavioral view
c. Cognitive view
d. Psychoanalytic view
20. It is one of the factors that affects human behavior that refers to the process by which an
offspring cell or organism acquires or becomes predisposed to the characteristics of its parent cell
or organism.
a. Heredity
b. Environment
c. Learning
d. Hereditary
21. It is one of the broad reactions to frustrations which is manifested by sulking, retreating,
becoming indifferent and giving up.
a. Flight
b. Fight
c. Hop
d. Clash
22. It is one of the common defense mechanisms which refers to achieving alternate goals and
gratifications to overcome the feelings of frustration and anxiety.
a. Identification
b. Regression
c. Substitution
d. Fantasy
23. It is the impulse to drink liquor.

a. Dipsomania
b. Pyromania
c. Arithmomania
d. Megalomania
24. It is one of the types of dissociative disorders in which the individual shifts abruptly and
repeatedly from one personality to another as if more than one person were inhabiting the same
body.
a. Psychogenic Fugue
b. Amnesia
c. Depersonalization
d. Multiple personality
25. It is one of the types of personality disorders that is characterized by instability, reflected in
drastic mood shifts and behavior problems.
a. Narcissistic personality
b. Borderline personality
c. Antisocial personality
d. Histrionic personality
26. This illustrates symbolic resolution of conflict that imitates the effects of physical illnesses like
paralysis, blindness, anesthesia, etc.
a. Dissociative reactions
b. anxiety reactions
c. Conversion reactions
d. Neurosis
27. It is one type of sexual deviance that refers to a form of sexual perversion in which three
persons are participating in sexual act.
a. Fellatio
b. Fetishism
c. Cunnilingus
d. Trollism
28. It is one of the factors that affects human behavior that refers to the surroundings of an object.
It consists of conditions and factors that surround and influence behavioral pattern.
a. Heredity
b. Environment
c. Learning
d. Hereditary
29. It is one of the different types of reaction to frustration which can be seen among people who
handles their problems in a very objective way.
a. Detour
b. Substitution
c. Aggression
d. Direct approach
30. It is one of the common defense mechanisms which resulted from unfulfilled ambitions and
unconscious drives that do not materialize.
a. Identification
b. Regression
c. Substitution
d. Fantasy
31. It is the impulse to kill.
a. Dipsomania
b. suicidal mania
c. arithmomania
d. homicidal mania
32. This is an emotional and physiological response to a recognized external threat or a response
to a real danger or threat.
a. Fear
b. Anxiety
c. Mania
d.Phobia
33. It is one of the types of personality disorder in which individuals with this type of personality
are acutely sensitive to real or imagined abandonment and have a pattern of repeated unstable
but intense interpersonal relationship that alternate between extreme idealization and devaluation.
c. Anti-social personality
34. It is one of the common types of paranoia in which the person imagines that another person is
in love with him or her.
a. Jealous paranoia
b. Exalted paranoia
c. Erotic paranoia
d. Litigious paranoia
35. It is a sexual deviancy where a group participates in sexual orgies.

a. Fellatio
b. Fetishism
c. Pluralism
d. Trollism
36. It is a basic type of behavior that refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes exhibited by
people because of their inherited capabilities or the process of natural selection.
a. Inherited behavior
b. Learned behavior
c. Congenital behavior
d. Acquired behavior
37.It is a factor that affects human behavior that refers to the process by which an individual’s
behavior changes as a result of experiences or practice.
a. Heredity
b. Environment
c. Learning
d. Hereditary
38. It is one of the different types of reaction to frustration which refers to when an individual
realizes that in finding for the right solution for the problem, he always ends up with a negative
outcome or result. Thus, he tries to change direction first and find out if the solution or remedy is
there.
a. Detour
b. Substitution
c. Aggression
d. Direct approach
39. It is a defense mechanism which refers to an act of a person that reverts to a pattern of
feelings or behaviors which was appropriate to an earlier stage of development.
a. Identification
b. Regression
c. Substitution
d. Sublimation
40. It is the phobia to dogs.

a. Gynophobia
b. Ochlophobia
c. Nyctophobia
d. Mysophobia
41. It is the impulse to steal.

a. Dipsomania
b. Kleptomania
c. Arithmomania
d. Megalomania
42. It is a dissociative disorder which the individual might feel that she is a real robot, even though
she knows she is a real person, or that her room is not real or that her parents are not people.
a. Psychogenic fugue
b. Amnesia
c. Depersonalization
d. Multiple personality
43. It is a personality disorder in which individuals with this personality are fearful of becoming
involved with people because of excessive fear of criticism or rejection.
a. Avoidant personality
b. Dependent personality
c. Passive- aggressive personality
d. Compulsive personality
44. It is a common type of paranoia where the person feels great power or importance.
a. Jealous paranoia
b. Exalted paranoia
c. Erotic paranoia
45. A type of sexual deviancy where one feels pleasure when inflicted with pain.
a. Masochism
b. Sadism
c. Sado-masochism
d. Bestiality
46. It is a basic type of behavior that involves knowing or adaptation that enhances human beings’
ability to cope with changes in the environment in ways that improves the chances of survival.
a. Inherited behavior
b. Learned behavior
c. Congenital behavior
d. Acquired behavior
47. It is a personality trait that is characterized by direction of interests towards oneself and one’s
inner world of experience.
a. Psychosis
b. Neurosis
c. Extroversion
d. introversion
48. These are disturbing thoughts; anxiety-provoking thoughts that will not go away.
a. Compulsion
b. Obsessive- Compulsive
c. Obsession
d. Anxiety
49. It is a common defense mechanism which refers to the process by which consciously
unacceptable instinctual drives are diverted into personally and socially accepted channels.
a. Identification
b. Regression
c. Substitution
d. Sublimation
50. It is an intense fear to closed spaces.

a. Gynophobia
b. Ochlophobia
c. Claustrophobia
d. Mysophobia
51. It is the impulse to gain fame or power.

a. Dipsomania
b. Kleptomania
c. Arithmomania
d. Megalomania
52. It is formerly referred as the character disorders.

a. Somatoform disorders
b. Personality disorders
c. Affective disorders
d. Schizophrenia
53. It is a type of personality disorder that is characterized by inability to make even daily
decisions without excessive advise and reassurance from others and need others to assume
responsibility for most major areas of his or her life.
c. Passive- aggressive personality
54. A type of paranoia characterized by irrational jealousy.

a. Jealous paranoia
b. Exalted paranoia
c. Erotic paranoia
55. Also known as manic disorder; there are swings in mood from elation (extreme happiness) to
depression (extreme sadness) with no discernable cause.
a. Schizophrenia
b. Bipolar
c. Neurosis
d. Psychosis
56. Is it true that operant behavior may be acquired through environment or training?
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
57. Introverts are tending to be more reserved, less outgoing and less sociable.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
58. It is a type of reaction to frustration in which a person is unable to hold on to any solution
which gives positive result. Being discouraged to go on working for a way to handle frustration
could result to diminishing self-confidence, until the time when inferiority sets in.
a. Defense mechanism
b. Direct approach
c. Developing feeling of inferiority
d. Withdrawal or retreat
59. This refers to an act which lacks significant deviation from the average.
a. Normal behavior
b. Behavior
c. Abnormal behavior
d. Social norms
60. It is the intense and unexplainable fear to blood.

a. Gynophobia
b. Ochlophobia
c. Hematophobia
d. Mysophobia
61. It is the impulse of setting fire.

a. Dipsomania
b. Pyromania
c. Arithmomania
d. Megalomania
62. This may be perceived by others as somber and aloof, and often referred to as “loners”.
a. Schizoid personality
b. Avoidant personality
c. Histrionic personality
d. Any of these
63. A type of personality disorder characterized with excessive concern with rules, order
efficiency, and work coupled with insistence that everyone does things their way and the inability
to express warm feelings.
c. Passive-aggressive personality
64. Refers to a crime inspired by another crime that has been publicized in the news media or
fictionally or artistically depicted in which the offender incorporates aspects of the original offense.
a. Copy crime
b. Multiple crime
c. Copy-cat crime
d. Mimic crime
65. It is a type of sexual deviancy that refers to sexual relations between persons related by blood.
a. Necrophilia
b. Pedophilia
c. Incest
d. Bestiality
66. A type of behavior referring to motorized behavior.

a. Habitual
b. Symbolic
c. Complex
d. Instinctive
67. A personality trait which is a balance of extrovert and introvert characteristics.

a. Psychosis
b. Ambiversion
c. Neurosis
d. Intro-extroversion
68. A type of reaction to frustration which corresponds to running away from the problem or flight
which to some is the safest way.
a. Aggression
b. Substitution
c. Detour
d. Retreat
69. A behavior that conforms to the predominant behavior in a society.

a. Normal behavior
b. Behavior
c. Abnormal behavior
d. Social norms
70. This may happen when there are different beliefs or even when there are conflicting values.
a. Repression
b. Regression
c. Compartmentalization
d. Undoing
71. Anything that an individual does that involves self- initiated action and/ or reaction to a given
situation.
a. Human beings
b. Human behavior
c. Human rights
d. Human relations
72. One of the human senses also known as the sense of sight.
a. Gustatory
b. Olfactory
c. Cutaneous
d. Visual
73. One of the basic forms of conflict that occurs when an individual moves closer to a seemingly
desirable object only to have the potentially negative consequences of contacting that object
pushed back against the closing behavior.
a. Approach-avoidance conflict
b. Approach-approach conflict
c. Avoidance-avoidance conflict
d. Avoidant-approach conflict
74. A common defense mechanism where manifested feelings and ideas which are unacceptable
to the ego or the superego are projected unto others so that, they seem to have these feelings or
ideas, which free the individual from the guilt or anxiety associated with them.
a. Rationalization
b. Compensation
c. Displacement
d. Projection
75. This refers to a flight into reason where the person avoids uncomfortable emotions by focusing
on facts and logic.
a. Conversion
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Compulsion
76. These are somatoform disorders where individuals experience a relatively specific and chronic
pain that has a psychological cause rather than physical cause.
a. Somatization disorder
b. Somatoform pain disorder
c. Conversion disorders
d. Somatoform disorders
77. A type of personality disorder that is characterized by an attempt to be the center of attention
through the use of theatrical and self-dramatizing behavior. Sexual adjustment is poor and
interpersonal relationships are stormy.
c. Antisocial personality
78. A type of schizophrenia characterized principally by delusions of persecution and/or grandeur.

Auditory hallucinations are usually present most of the time.
a. Paranoid schizophrenia
b. Simple schizophrenia
c. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
d. Catatonic schizophrenia
79. A type of sexual deviancy in which sexual pleasure is obtained by exposing one’s genitals to
others.
a. Exhibitionism
b. Fetishism
c. Voyeurism
d. Transvestitism
80. This is the sum total of man’s reaction to his environment or the way human beings act.
a. Human acts
b. Human behavior
c. Human rights
d. Human relations
81. This occurs when a person feels an urge to do or say something and then actually does or
says something that is effectively the opposite of what he really wants.
a. Reaction formation
b. Displacement
c. Acting out
d. Day dreaming
82. Some people pretend to be victims and are not. This would be someone falsifying reports.
a. Self-report victim
b. Lying victim
c. Idle victim
d. Imaginary victim
83. What type of victim is particularly vulnerable to stresses that occur at a given period of time in
the life cycle, such as juvenile victims?
a. Self-serving
b. Wanton
c. Tormentor
d. Greedy
84. This theory suggests that the characteristics of the victim precipitate the crime. That is, a
criminal could single out a victim because the victim is of a certain ethnicity, race, sexual
orientation, gender or gender identity.
a. Lifestyle Theory
b. Deviant Place Theory
c. Victimization
d. Victim Precipitation Theory
85. This theory states that an individual is more likely to become the victim of a crime when
exposed to dangerous areas. In other words, a mugger is more likely to target a person walking
alone after dark in a bad neighborhood. The more frequently a person ventures into bad
neighborhoods where violent crime is common, the greater the risk of victimization.
a. Lifestyle Theory
c. Victimization
86. This occurs as harm is done to someone, often some form of injury or death. Learn about the
costs resulting from victims being harmed in physical, financial, and emotional ways, primary and
secondary costs, and the study of victims in criminology called victimology.
a. Lifestyle Theory
c. Victimization
87. This theory suggests that certain people may become the victims of crimes because of their
lifestyles and choices. For example, someone with a gambling or substance addiction could be as
an “easy victim” by a con artist.
a. Lifestyle Theory
c. Victimization
88. ____________ is any person who is harmed, injured, or killed as a result of crime. This means
that victimization or victimizing someone else is an act of making someone a victim. Essentially, a
person harms, injures, or kills someone else as a result of a crime they commit. Of course, the
crime itself can be an act of harming, injuring, or killing someone, but it can also be a
consequence of a crime.
a. Criminal
b. Suspect
c. Offender
d. Victim
89. This is also known as personal victimization.
a. Primary victimization
b. Secondary victimization
c. Tertiary victimization
d. Any of these
90. _______________________is a situation where the victim unknowingly, or carelessly or

negligently and inadvertently makes it easier for a crime to take place.
a. Victim facilitation
b. Victim precipitation
c. Victim provocation
d. All of the above
91. _____________________ occurs when a person does something that incites another person
to commit an illegal act. Provocation suggests that without the victim's behavior, the crime would
not have occurred. Provocation, then, most certainly connotes blame.
a. Victim facilitation
b. Victim precipitation
c. Victim provocation
d. All of the above
92. Someone who did not contribute to the victimization and is in the wrong place at the wrong
time. This is the victim we most often envision when thinking about enhancing victim rights.
a. The guilty victim, guilty offender
b. Innocent victim
c. Guilty victim
d. The victim with minor guilt
93. One who does not actively participate in their victimization but contributes to some minor
degree, such as frequenting high-crime areas. This would be a person that continues to go to a
bar that is known for nightly assault.
b. Innocent victim
c. Guilty victim
94. The victim instigated a conflict but is killed in self-defense. An example would be an abused
woman killing her partner while he is abusing her.
b. Innocent victim
c. Guilty victim
95. They are often prone to victimization by intimate partners. They desire to be with someone at
any cost. They are susceptible to manipulation.
a. Females/ elderly
b. Young people
c. The acquisitive
d. The lonesome and broken-hearted
96. Greedy victim who can be targeted by scammers who would take advantage of their desire for
financial gain.
a. Females/ elderly
b. Young people
c. The acquisitive
97. They are the victims who are immature, under adult supervision, lack physical strength and
lack the mental and emotional maturity to recognize victimization
a. Females/ elderly
b. Young people
c. The acquisitive
98. They are the primary abusers in relationships become victims when the one being abused
turns on them.
a. Tormentors
c. Primary victimization
d. Tertiary victimization
99. This happens when a person gets victimized inadvertently as a result of a crime. They are
often the family of the personal victim.
a. Tormentors
100. This is present after a crime occurs in which the society as a whole become victims.
a. Tormentors
PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT AND ETHICAL STANDARDS
1. What refers to the program designed to make the public aware of what an agency is doing, why
is it doing, and how it contributes to the welfare of the community?
a. Public Relation
b. Image Building
c. Civic Action Program
d. Public Information Program
2. It is the most powerful instrument in forming public opinion.

a. Church
b. Family
c. Peers
d. Media
3. What principle of police community relation states that policemen must be courteous, fair and
quick to assist individuals in the solutions of their problems?
a. Public support must be maintained.
b. Public resentment must be avoided.
c. Public goodwill must be developed.
d. Public must be kept informed on regulations and policies.
4. This consists of a person’s dealing with his family, parents and immediate relatives, with whom
he has to have good relationship in order to develop a respectable family prestige as well as
cordial community relations.
a. Domestic Relations
b. Neighborhood Relations
c. Church Relation
d. Community Relation
5. A principle or quality that is intrinsically desirable.

a. Values
b. Judgment
c. Moralist
d. Customs
6. “I will keep any private life ____________ as an example to all….”

a. Sullied
b. Unsullied
c. Example
d. Obvious
7. Which of the following should not be followed when responding to labor disputes?
a. PNP personnel concerned are encouraged to socialize with any of the parties involved in
the controversy.
b. No personnel escort shall be provided to any of the parties to the controversy unless so directed
by the competent authority.
c. He shall observe strict neutrally in his dealings with both parties to the controversy bearing in
mind that the parties to the labor disputes are not adversaries but his partners in the quest for
industrial peace and human dignity.
d. PNP personnel detailed as peace keeping force in strike or lockout areas shall be in uniformed,
with proper name cloth at all times.
8. Where should the PNP members be stationed when responding to labor disputes?
a. In the picket line
b. Inside the 50 meters radius from the picket line
c. Outside the 50 meters radius from the picket line
d. Anywhere
9. It means performing duties with passion and manifesting concern for the public welfare and
refraining from engaging in any activity in conflict with their duties as public servants.
a. Non-Partisanship
b. Devotion to Duty
c. Career Management
d. Delicadeza
10. This refers the branch of moral science treats of the obligations, which a member of a
profession owes to the public, to his profession, to his brethren to his clients.
a. Legal ethics
b. Medical ethics
c. Professional ethics
d. All of the above
11. What is given to a PNP member who has showed an extraordinary act of gallantry?
a. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
b. Medalya ng Karunungan
c. Medalya ng Kagitingan
d. Medalya ng Katapangan
12. What is the symbol of the citizens’ faith and trust which the police officers carry with them?
a. Uniform
b. Badge
c. Firearm
d. Money
13. If patrol is called the backbone of the police department, how about the Police Community
Relation?
a. Brain
b. Nerve Center
c. Make-up Artist
d. Fashionist
14. PNP members shall seek self-improvement through career development and shall not directly
or indirectly solicit influence or recommendation from politicians, high-ranking government officials,
prominent citizens, persons affiliated with civic or religious organizations with regard to their
assignments, promotions, transfer or those of other members of the force, nor shall they initiate
any petition to be prepared and presented by citizens in their behalf. This is the professional
conduct of non-partisanship. This statement is correct.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially false
15. Several media men rushed to the police station. They sought the desk officer and demanded
that they be given the information regarding the next specific actions of the station in locating a
particular most-wanted person, and the reported location of the fugitive. The desk officer refused
to divulge the information sought. The media men, then, invoke their right to information. Should
the desk officer give in?
a. Yes, it is embodied in the Constitution the access to information
b. No, the media men might use the information in aiding the further escape of the wanted person
c. Yes, he had no right to keep the public information; he could violate the rights of those
information seekers
d. No, he must not divulge the information in accordance with the rules governing security
of classified matters in government offices Divulge means reveal or disclose
16. In moonlighting, what could be the reason why a police officer cannot engage in such an
endeavor? a. Unfair with the Others
b. It is not good to see
c. It is awkward
d. Inconsistent or incompatible with the PNP functions
17. When these public officials and employees remain true to the people at all times, what norm of
conduct are they emphasizing?
A. Professionalism
B. Responsiveness to the public
C. Commitment to public interest
D. Justness and sincerity
18. An act of cruelty, severity, unlawful execution, domination, or excessive use of authority. The
exercise use of the unlawful powers or other means, in depriving an individual of his liberty or
property against his will.
a. Dishonesty
b. Loyalty
c. Oppression
d. Intimidation
19. What is being emphasized under the new rule during the conduct of anti-illegal drugs
operations?
A. All cops to wear body cameras in operation
B. Respect for human rights shall always strictly observed at all times
C. Implement the one strike policy in addressing the problem
D. Police to focus on high value targets
20. What does it present if Police C/Insp. Juan and his immediate family members were actively
involved in the religious, social and civic activities which somehow enhance the image of the
Police Organization even without affecting Police C/Insp. Juan official duties?
A. No-Partisanship
B. Physical Fitness
C. Table manners
D. Social Awareness
21. Forbidden acts involving misuse of office for gain.

a. Corruption
b. Responsibility
c. Misdemeanor
d. Nonfeasance
22. It is when the police officer extorts a business owner for protection money.
a. Police gratuity
b. Police shakedown
c. Police extortion
d. Police brutality
23. In the one strike policy in the conduct of anti-illegal drugs operations and in case their
subordinates fail to adhere to the guidelines or are charged with involvement in illegal drugs, who
among these officers will be relieved from their assignment?
A. Any of these
B. Chief of police
C. Regional director
D. Provincial director
24. Bodies of beliefs, stories, and customs effect of an unwritten law.

a. Customs
b. Traditions
c. Habits
d. Civil law
25. This provides the basis for judgment of what is important for the organization to succeed in its
core business.
A. Habits
B. Customs
C. Moral values
D. Practices
26. In dealing with the media during hostage situation, one must always remember that:
a. Media has a right and responsibility to report events during an incident
b. Media people are nuisance and may get in the way of operation people
c. Conflict between management and media is always bound to happen
d. Control over media people should be aimed to restrict their movement within the inner perimeter
27. Happy hours are usually on __________ or any other day suitable for the occasion, PNP
members gather together at their PNP club for a light hearted jesting or airing of minor gripes.
a. Monday
b. Saturday
c. Friday
d. Sunday
28. They are policeman who are honest to a fault and willing or ready to hide the corrupt practices
of their comrades for the sake of “hiya”, “utang naloob” and “pakikisama”.
a. Rouges
b. Meat Eaters
c. White Knights
d. Straight shooters
29. Police Corporal Oscar Soriano is promoted with the said rank without any vouch by “pardinos”.
He was promoted with his full potential and perseverance. What type of police professional
conduct did Police Corporal Oscar Soriano practice?
a. Non-Partisanship
b. Orderliness
c. Non-solicitation of Patronage
d. Commitment to Public Interest
30. It is a doctrine in which those illegally obtained evidence may be accepted as evidence in court
proceedings.
A. Exclusionary rule
B. Silver Platter rule
C. Three-fold rule
D. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
31. Refers to tendency to be empathetic and self-sacrificing towards others or unselfish regards
for a devotion to welfare of others.
A. Altruism
B. Prudence
C. Discretion
D. Delicadeza
32. An act which transfers the jurisdiction of Philippine National Police Academy and National
Police Training Institute from the Philippine Public Safety College to Philippine National Police.
A. RA 11547
B. RA 11279
C. RA 10630
D. RA 11675
33. This is the ability to go on despite the obstacles.

A. Perseverance
B. Fortitude
C. Temperance
D. Prudence
34. The ability to be calm and composed during the most enduring situation
A. Perseverance
B. Fortitude
C. Patience
D. Prudence
35. The PNP members are upright in character, polite in manners, dignified in appearance, and
sincere in their concern to their fellowmen.
a. Patriotism
b. Valor
c. Gentlemanliness
d. any of these
36. Arises when a public official or employee is a member of a board, an officer, or a substantial
stockholder of a private corporation or owner or has a substantial interest in a business, and the
interest of such corporation or business, or his rights or duties therein, may be opposed to or
affected by the faithful performance of official duty.
a. Moon lightning
b. Hidden interest
c. Ill-gotten wealth
d. Conflict of interest
37. All government resources and powers of their respective offices must be employed and used
efficiently, effectively, honestly and economically, particularly to avoid wastage in public funds and
revenues.
a. Professionalism
b. Justness and sincerity
c. Commitment to public interest
d. Responsiveness to the public
38. The theory which states that police officers who know the wrongdoing of another police officer
will not take action against them or provide information against them to investigators.
a. Blue Shield
b. Blue Code
c. Blue Wall of Silence
d. All of the above
39. What power promotes the public welfare by restraining and regulating the use of liberty and
property?
a. Police Power
b. Power of Eminent Domain
c. Power of Taxation
d. Law Enforcement Power
40. It is a group of persons established, maintain and organized for keeping order, safety,
protection of lives and properties and for prevention and detection of crimes.
a. police
b. law enforcement
c. agencies
d. public officials
41. It means performing duties with passion and manifesting concern for the public welfare and
refraining from engaging in any activity in conflict with their duties as public servants.
A. Delicadeza
B. Non-Partisanship
C. Devotion to Duty
D. Professionalism
42. Justice according to the Supreme Court is symbolically represented by a blindfolded woman
holding a sword and with a balance, meaning it is:
A. Administered with respect to persons
B. Administered with respect to persons, equality and treatment
C. Administered without respect to persons. Equality to poor people
D. Administered without respect to persons, equality to poor and the rich
43. Unusual emergencies that happens and absence of superior officers leaves the policeman to
handle the situation properly, the best procedure to follow is:
A. Take no action
B. Confer with any other superior
C. Act according to one’s judgment
D. Confer immediately with other police officers on the best action to take
44. There are four inspection and audit authorities that conduct agency check on the PNP. They
are NAPOLCOM, Civil Service Commission, Commission on Audit, and:
A. DILG
B. NBI
C. IAS, PNP
D. Office of the President
45. Violence Against Women and their Children shall be considered a public offense which may
be prosecuted upon the filing of a complaint by any citizen having personal knowledge of the
circumstances involving the commission of the crime.
a. True, as prescribe under R.A. 9262
b. True, as prescribe under Revised Penal Code
c. True, as prescribe in our Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure
d. False, as prescribe under R.A. 9262, VAWC is crime against chastity and cannot be prosecuted
unless the complainant is the offended spouse
46. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring with him
any books or documents under his control at the trial of an action?
a. Subpoena
b. Subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum
d. Warrant of arrest
47. Police Corporal Del Rosario is often seen with gambling lords and drunkards in his community.
What he is doing affects the ______ of the police organization.
a. Power
b. Prestige
c. Image
d. Authority
48. Can a private person have the right to break into a house?
a. No, the right is accorded only to public officials
b. Yes, only if such breaking is necessary in making arrest
c. It depends upon the situation
d. When there is imminent danger
49. It is the basic political unit of Filipino nation that implements the policies of the national and
local government.
a. Family
b. Society
c. Barangay
d. Government
50. This program is designed to maintain and encourage community development. The CAP is an
activity that makes the police officer a friend and partner of the people for progress as well as their
defender.
a. Civic action program
b. Public relations
c. Policies
d. SOP
51. What Executive Order provides for the institutionalization of the Doctrine of Command
Responsibility in all law enforcement agencies particularly in the PNP?
a. E.O. 266
b. E.O. 226
c. E.O. 227
d. E.O. 236
52. It is faith to oneself, and it is predicated upon knowledge, still in applying knowledge, and in
the ability and willingness to pass one’s knowledge for the benefits of the others.
a. Self- confidence
b. Patriotism
c. Values
d. Authority
53. Police officers using offensive and obscene languages is known as police _______.
a. brutality
b. profanity
c. perjury
d. gratuity
54. It is the ability to be calm in enduring situations.

a. composure
b. perseverance
c. endurance
d. wisdom
55. It the ability to moderate or to avoid something.

a. prudence
b. fortitude
c. temperance
d. justice
56. Excessive use of force or police brutality is a violation of the ethical standards. PNP members
shall exercise proper and ______ use of authority in the performance of duty.
a. effective
b. legitimate
c. proportionate
d. responsible
57. Imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful execution, domination or excessive use of
authority.
a. dishonesty
b. incompetency
c. disloyalty
d. oppression
58. Otherwise known as the “Code of Ethics of Public Officials or Employees”.

a. R.A. 3019
b. R.A. 6713
c. R.A. 7080
d. R.A. 7438
59. Under this ethical standard, the PNP members shall take legitimate means to achieve goals
despite of internal of external and internal difficulties.
a. integrity
b. humility
c. orderliness
d. perseverance
60. It is the influence that one- person exercise over a group of persons by reason of exemplary
nature of his character. It arises out of withstand the hardship of the work, sincerity of purpose that
manifest its willingness to personally adhere, without equivocation, to the same standards of
conduct that he is duty bound to enforce upon other.
a. Moral ascendancy
b. Authority
c. Control
d. Discipline
61. Patrolman Roff governs and disciplines himself by means of reason and sound judgment.
What virtue does he practice?
a. endurance
b. courtesy
c. prudence
d. patriotism
62. All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the
time-honored principle of ____.
a. Delicadeza
b. Pride
c. Amor propio
d. Pakikisama
63. What is the complete title of the PNP Code of Conduct?

a. PNP Code of Ethical Standards and Professional Conduct
b. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
c. PNP Code of Conduct and Standards
d. PNP Ethical Standards
64. It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty which is the
police officer’s legal obligation to perform.
a. nonfeasance
b. misfeasance
c. malfeasance
d. corruption
65. No PNP member shall engage in any activity which shall be in conflict with their duties as
public servant.
a. malingering
b. loyalty to the service
c. moonlighting
d. delicadeza
66. What is the primary purpose of a public relation program?

a. to develop mutual understanding between the police and public
b. To plan for a community relation program
c. To recruit new members for community relations
d. To train police officers in community relations
67. What program is concerned with creating a favorable public image of the police?
a. police relations
b. Community relations
c. Press relations
d. Public relations
68. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police organization.
a. loyalty
b. camaraderie
c. patriotism
d. valor
69. The authority to make decisions without reference to the specific rules or facts, using instead
one’s own judgment.
a. discretion
b. prudence
c. negotiation
d. conviction
70. It is the intentional commission of a prohibited act or intentional and unjust performance of
some act of which the party had no right.
a. nonfeasance
b. misfeasance
c. malfeasance
d. any of these
71. What is the most important supervisory principle in order to improve the morale of staff?
a. Be fair and just
b. Be strict on attendance
c. Be kind and respectful
d. Be forgiving
72. It refers to the planned use of mass communication for public purpose:
a. Press release
b. advertisement
c. Publication
d. Propaganda
73. The best measure for the competence of police officer is ______.
a. High morale of his men
b. Ability of his men to prepare reports
c. Good command of words
d. High level of education among his men
74. This particular program makes the policemen a friend and partner of the people as well as
their defender. In short, this program makes the police a part of, and not apart from society.
a. Civic Action Program
b. Public information Program
c. Public relation Program
d. Mass Communication Program
75. It is the sum total of all the dealings of the police with the people it serves and whose goodwill
and cooperation the police need for the greatest possible efficiency in public service.
a. Police Community Relations
b. Human relations
c. Police Public relation
d. Public relations
76. The best relation a law enforcement organization can give to the community is:
a. good and credible performance
b. frequent media coverage of police work
c. good public press relations
d. community visitations
77. In launching a police community program, to attain a sound degree of success, link or
“ugnayan” should be made first with:
a. Community Civic organization
b. Local prominent residents
c. local ladies club
d. Barangay officials
78. To develop public good will, a policeman on duty must do the following, except:
a. be selective of people to serve
b. be courteous and fair
c. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
d. perform job with dedication and efficiency
79. It refers to the conceptual policy laid down for the observance of all law enforcement personnel
to exercise utmost restraint and self-control in the performance of their official functions.
a. command responsibility
b. reasonable force
c. rules of engagement
d. maximum tolerance
80. The primary purpose of police ethics is to enlighten the members of the police service of
_________.
a. what is right and what is wrong
b. the right attitude
c. what behavior is really acceptable
d. the right thing to do
81. This concerns to the obligations of the community to individuals, and requires fair
disbursement of common advantages and sharing of common burden.
a. Prosecution
b. justice
c. equality
d. trial
82. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another, as a
standard against which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or requirement that people
act justly.
a. Law
b. Justice
c. Ethics
d. Conduct
83. Unusual emergencies that happens and absence of superior officers leaves the policeman to
handle the situation properly, the best procedure to follow is?
a. Take no action
b. Confer with any other superior
c. Act according to one’s judgment
d. Confer immediately w/ other police officers on the best action to take
84. In the PNP basic issues, what is the key to professionalism?

a. Career Development
b. Career Enhancement
c. Career Management
d. Career Upliftment
85. The PNP should live in accordance with the PNP core values and possess the virtues of
honor, integrity, valor, justice, humility, charity and loyalty to the service best describes:
a. Police Lifestyle
b. Equality in the service
c. PNP image
d. Delicadeza
86. These are either weak individuals who have slipped through screening process or succumbed
to the temptations inherent in police work or deviant individuals who continue their deviance in a n
environment that gives them apple opportunity.
a. rotten tomatoes
b. rotten apples
c. bad police
d. all of these
87. An established and generally accepted moral values refer to:

a. integrity
b. morality
c. ethical standard
d. authority
88. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.

a. virtue
b. value
c. dignity
d. conscience
89. Public officers and employees who served with the highest degree of integrity, loyalty,
responsibility and efficiency manifests:
a. Love of country
b. Allegiance to the government
c. Allegiance to the constitution
d. Public office is a public trust
90. Includes elective and appointive officials and employees, permanent or temporary, whether in
the career or non-career service, including military and police personnel, whether or not they
receive compensation, regardless of amount.
a. Officials
b. Public Officials
c. Government Employees
d. Public Employees
91. The leniency in due process refers to:

a. Over enforcement
b. Under enforcement
c. Zero tolerance
d. Preventive enforcement
92. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.

a. community relations
b. ethics
c. logic
d. psychology
93. What is the basic weapon of police officers?

a. Gun
b. Uniform
c. Whistle
d. Knowledge of the Law
94. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy?
a. Salute
b. address/title
c. giving gifts
d. courtesy call
95. Those actions which stand neutral in relation to the norm of morality. They are neither good
nor bad in themselves.
a. Moral actions
b. Immoral actions
c. Amoral actions
d. Semi- moral actions
96. This is when an officer is quite blatant in about demanding free services.
a. Chiseling
b. Police brutality
c. Police shakedown
d. Police gratuity
97. A police officer on witness stand is not called upon to express his view about the case, nor to
tell what he heard others say about it, nor to make a speech. Of the following, the most accurate
statement of this situation is that:
a. Be courteous
b. To tell the truth and nothing but the truth
c. Do not volunteer
d. Wait for the question before responding
98. A behavior inconsistent with the norms, values or ethics.

a. Values
b. Traditions
c. Deviance
d. Crime
99. A mental or moral training that makes a man willing to be subject to controls and regulations
for the good of the entire group of which he is a member.
a. Courtesy
b. Discipline
c. Loyalty
d. Morale
100. This is defined as excessive force, name-calling, sarcasm, ridicule, and disrespect.
a. Chiseling
b. Police brutality
c. Police shakedown
d. Police gratuity
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
1. A youth behavior which is against the norms and regulations or society which is left unchecked
would give rise to criminality.
a. delinquency
b. juvenile delinquency
c. crime
d. status offense
2. A child or a young person who under the legal system may be dealt with for an offense in a
manner different from that of an adult.
a. juvenile
b. age of majority
c. emancipation
d. delinquent
3. These are certain acts or omissions which may not be punishable socially or legally if
committed by adults but become anti-social or illegal because the offender is a minor.
a. status offense
b. anti-social behavior
c. parens patriae
d. patria potestas
4. This approach describes the distinction and variation and delinquency pattern to social
structures, the youth mislead may be attributed to their learning process cultured in on youth
gangs, stigmatizing acts with government and social control agencies & other similar variables.
a. biogenic approach
b. psychogenic approach
c. sociogenic approach
d. any of these
5. The New York House of Refuge, a reformatory, began operations in: (Dec.2021 CLE)
a. 1825
b. 1834
c. 1923
d. 1980
6. This term refers to a series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the
child to commit an offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program which
may include counseling, skills training, education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being.
a. initial contact
b. intervention
c. diversion
d. diversion program
7. This includes mentally-retarded, physically handicapped, emotionally disturbed and mentally ill
children.
a. physically handicapped
b. emotionally disturbed
c. mentally ill
d. disabled
8. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006 is:

a. PD 603
b. RA 9262
c. RA 9344
d. RA 7610
9. The sum total duties and obligations of parents over their minor children
a. parental responsibility
b. liabilities of parents
c. parental authority
d. guardianship
10. In case of separation of parents, no child _______________of age shall be separated from his
mother unless the court decides otherwise.
a. under seven 7 years
b. 7 years
c. over 7 years
d. under 5 years
11. One who is without a parent, guardian or custodian, or whose parents, guardian or other
custodian for good cause desire to be relieved of his care and custody and is dependent upon
the public for support.
a. dependent
b. abandoned
c. neglected
d. mentally retarded
12. A child who is crippled, deaf-mute, blind and other conditions which restrict their means of
action or communication with others.
c. mentally ill
d. disabled
13. It describes a large number of disapproved behavior of children or youth.

a. delinquency
c. crime
d. status offense
14. Children born inside marriage are called:

a. legitimate
b. illegitimate
c. legitimated
d. adopted
15. This is an act by which relations of paternity and filiations are recognized as legally existing
between persons not so related by nature.
a. adoption
b. filiation
c. biological child
d. none of the above
16. What is an act committed by a person who, knowingly and without lawful justification follows
the woman or child or place the woman or her child under surveillance directly or indirectly or a
combination thereof?
a. battery
b. battered woman syndrome
c. stalking
d. dating relationship
17. This is known as The Child and Youth Welfare Code.

a. PD 603
b. RA 9262
c. RA 9344
d. RA 7610
18. The person adopting or petitioning for the adoption of child is termed as:
a. adopted child
b. foundling
c. adopter
d. adoptee
19. Parents and guardians are responsible for the damage or injury caused by the child under
their parental authority. This is called:
b. parental liability
d. guardianship
20. What refers to protection order issued by the court after notice and hearing?
a. Permanent Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Order
c. Certificate to File Action
21. The child or person being petitioned for adoption is called:

a. adopted child
b. foundling
c. adopter
d. adoptee
22. This refers to a child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily committed to the Department or
to a duly licensed and accredited child-placing or child-caring agency, freed of the parental
authority of his/her biological parent(s) or guardian or adopter(s) in case of rescission of adoption.
a. child legally available for adoption
b. voluntarily committed child
c. involuntarily committed child
d. child at risk
23. It explains that law violations and delinquency is a result of some physical defects. It
advocates that youth misconduct is a direct result of faulty biology.
d. any of these
24. It may be best characterized by disobedience and disrespect for authority.

a. status offense
c. parens patriae
d. patria potestas
25. It is described as an anti-social behavior or act, committed by a child, which does not conform
to the standards of the society.
a. delinquency
c. crime
d. status offense
26. This is a duly licensed and accredited agency by the Department to provide comprehensive
child welfare services including, but not limited to, receiving applications for adoption, evaluating
the prospective adoptive parents, and preparing the adoption home study.
a. child-placing agency
b. child-caring agency
c. simulation of birth
d. any of these
27. A child above fifteen (15) years of age but below eighteen (18) years of age shall likewise be
exempt from criminal liability if he/she acted________________, but he shall go intervention
program.
a. without discernment
b. with discernment
c. with or without discernment
d. any of these
28. What term refers to a child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed
an offense under Philippine laws?
a. juvenile justice and welfare system
b. restorative justice
c. child-at-risk
d. child in conflict with the law
29. The sum total rights of the parents over the person and property of their child.
d. guardianship
30. A child who is socially incompetent, socially inadequate, occupationally incompetent and
unable to manage his or her own affairs.
a. dependent
b. abandoned
c. neglected
31. A casual acquaintance or ordinary socialization between two individuals in a business or social
content is NOT a dating relationship.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
32. It refers to a principle which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain reparation for the
victim; reconciliation of the offender, the offended and the community; and reassurance to the
offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It also enhances public safety by activating
the offender, the victim and the community in prevention strategies.
c. child-at-risk
33. Any Filipino citizen can adopt as long as he/ she is of legal age, in possession of full civil
capacity and legal rights, of good moral character, has not been convicted of any crime involving
moral turpitude, emotionally and psychologically capable of caring for children, at least
___________older than the adoptee, and who is in a position to support and care for his/her
children in keeping with the means of the family.
a. 16 years
b. 17 years
c. 20 years
d. 25 years
34. It refers to maltreatment, whether habitual or not of the child.

a. child abuse
b. cruelty
c. physical injury
d. none of these
35. What do we call the acknowledgement of the father of his relationship with the child? This is
also called paternity.
a. adoption
b. filiation
c. biological child
36. Persons below the age of majority, that is below eighteen (18) years.
a. juvenile
b. age of majority
c. emancipation
d. delinquent
37. Children born outside marriage are considered:

a. legitimate
b. illegitimate
c. legitimated
d. adopted
38. This means harm to a child’s psychological or intellectual functioning which may be exhibited
by severe anxiety, depression, withdrawal or outward aggressive behavior.
a. psychological injury
b. neglect
c. sexual abuse
d. child abuse
39. A child who had no proper parental care or guardianship or whose parents or guardians have
deserted him for a period of at least six (06) consecutive months (PD 603) or refers to a child
who has no proper parental care or guardianship, or whose parents have deserted him or her for
a period of at least three (03) continuous months (RA 9523).
a. dependent
b. abandoned
c. neglected
40. This means freedom from parental authority, both over his person and property. It happens
upon reaching the eighteen (18) years.
a. juvenile
b. age of majority
c. emancipation
d. delinquent
41. Children are hereby declared as __________________. It shall be the responsibility of the
State and all other sectors concerned to resolve armed conflicts in order to promote such goal.
a. child-at-risk
b. CICL
c. zones of peace
d. any of these
42. As general rule, children below fifteen (15) years of age shall not be employed. The statement
is:
a. true
b. false
c. partially true
d. partially false
43. A child above fifteen (15) years of age but below eighteen (18) years of age who acted with
discernment shall undergo___________, if qualified.
a. diversion program
b. intervention program
c. trial
d. any of these
44. This act is entitled Anti-Violence against Women and their Children Act.
a. PD 603
b. RA 9262
c. RA 9344
d. RA 7610
45. Children below 15 years old may work between what hours:
a. 6 am to 8 pm
b. 6 am to 10 pm
c. 8am to 5pm
d. 5am to 12 mn
46. Children with any behavioral disorder, whether functional or organic, which is of such a
degree of severity as to require professional help or hospitalization.
c. mentally ill
d. disabled
47. A 24-hour residential care facility managed by the Department of Social Welfare and
Development (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs monitored by the DSWD, which
provides care, treatment and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law.
Rehabilitation services are provided under the guidance of a trained staff where residents are
cared for under a structured therapeutic environment with the end view of reintegrating them into
their families and communities as socially functioning individuals.
a. youth detention home
b. youth rehabilitation center
c. best interest of the child
d. all of the above
48. It means failure to provide, for reasons other than poverty, the basic needs of the child, such
as food, clothing, medical care, shelter and basic education.
b. neglect
c. sexual abuse
d. child abuse
49. This refers to an act which is sexual in nature, committed against a woman or her child.
a. psychological violence
b. sexual violence
c. economic abuse
d. physical violence
50. One whose behavior has brought him into repeated conflict with the law regardless whether
he has been taken before a court and adjudged a delinquent.
a. juvenile
b. age of majority
c. emancipation
d. delinquent
51. A child one whose parent/s, known or unknown, has been permanently and judicially
deprived of parental authority due to abandonment; substantial, continuous, or repeated neglect;
abuse; or incompetence to discharge parental responsibilities.
d. child at risk
52. This refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the woman or her child resulting to
physical and psychological or emotional distress.
a. battery
c. stalking
53. In case of absence or death of both parents, substitute parental authority shall be given to the
following in order of priority, except:
a. grandparents
b. oldest brother or sister at least 21 years of age
c. relative who has actual custody of the child/guardian duly appointed by the court
54. This refers to any word or deed which debases, degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth and
dignity of the child as human being.
a. child abuse
b. cruelty
c. physical injury
d. none of these
55. The program that the child in conflict with the law is required to undergo
after he/she is found responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings, is
called:
a. initial contact
b. intervention
c. diversion
56. A child fifteen (15) years of age but below eighteen (18) shall not be allowed to work for more
than eight (8) hours a day, and in no case beyond ____________hours a week.
a. 10
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
57. Those children, who, although not afflicted with insanity or mental defect, are unable to
maintain normal social relations with others and the community in general due to emotional
problems or complexes. May be caused by traumatic experiences.
c. mentally ill
d. disabled
58. What refers to a child in whose favor a certification was issued by the DSWD the he or she is
legally available for adoption after the fact of abandonment or neglect has been proven through
the submission of pertinent documents, or one who was voluntarily committed by his or her
parents or legal guardian (RA 9523)?
d. child at risk
59. This refers to a situation wherein the parties’ lives as husband and wife without the benefits of
marriage or are romantically involved over time on a continuing basic during the course of
relationship.
a. battery
c. stalking
60. What refers to a deserted or abandoned infant or child whose parents, guardians or relatives
are unknown?
a. adopted child
b. foundling
c. adopter
d. adoptee
61. This includes the employment used, inducement or coercion of a child to engage in sexual
inter course or lascivious conduct, the molestation, prostitution and or incest with children.
b. neglect
c. sexual abuse
d. child abuse
62. A child who underwent the judicial process of adoption is an:

a. adopted child
b. foundling
c. adopter
d. adoptee
63. A court may grant a Temporary Protection Order and shall be effective for __________ days.
a. 10
b. 30
c. 60
d. 180
64. The doctrine that does not consider delinquent acts as criminal violation, thus making
delinquent’s non-criminal persona and cannot be found guilty of a crime and punished like an
adult criminal.
a. status offense
c. parens patriae
d. patria potestas
65. What is the tampering of the civil registry making it appear in the birth records that a certain
child was born to a person who is not his/her biological mother, causing such child to lose his/her
true identity and status?
d. any of these
66. What do we call a child born outside marriage, but become legalized by means of marriage of
the parents?
a. legitimate
b. illegitimate
c. legitimated
d. adopted
67. A child above fifteen (15) years of age but below eighteen (18) years of age who acted with
discernment and who is not qualified for diversion, or refused to undergo diversion, shall be
___________.
a. imprisoned
b. probationed
c. prosecuted
d. all of the above
68. Victim-survivors who are found by the courts to be suffering from battered woman syndrome
DO NOT incur any criminal and civil liability notwithstanding the absence of any of the elements
for justifying circumstances of self-defense under the Revised Penal Code.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
69. Children below seven (7) years or older but with mental or physical disabilities shall
automatically be given to the:
a. father
b. grandparents
c. mother
d. niece
70. The taking into one’s family of the child of another, as son or daughter and heir, and
conferring on it a title to the rights and privileges of such.
a. adoption
b. filiation
c. biological child
71. This refers to a system dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the law,
which provides child appropriate proceedings, including programs and services for prevention,
diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and aftercare to ensure their normal growth and
development.
c. child-at-risk
72. This refers to the socio-legal process of adopting a Filipino child by a foreigner or a Filipino
citizen permanently residing abroad where the petition is filed, the supervised trial custody is
undertaken, and the decree of adoption is issued outside the Philippines.
a. intra-country adoption
b. inter-country adoption
c. extra-country adoption
d. any of the above
73. This is a duly licensed and accredited agency by the Department that provides twenty four
(24)-hour residential care services for abandoned, orphaned, neglected, or voluntarily committed
children.
d. any of these
74. This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law
enforcement officers or private citizens. It includes the time when the child alleged to be in
conflict with the law receives a subpoena.
a. initial contact
b. intervention
c. diversion
75. Truancy occurs when students fail to attend their classes for _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ without any
reasonable cause.
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 60 days
76. The critical factors in delinquency are personality problems, to which the misbehavior is
presumed to be the response.
d. any of these
77. These are children whose acts are manifested by cruel and atrocious acts and conduct for
which they feel no remorse.
a. Neurotic
b. Antisocial
c. Asocial
d. Any of these
78. The parental authority of parents over their children is called what?
a. status offense
c. parens patriae
d. patria potestas
79. These are children who have the same right with a legitimate child, through juridical act.
a. legitimate
b. illegitimate
c. legitimated
d. adopted
80. What refers to acts that attempt to make a woman financially dependent?
b. sexual violence
c. economic abuse
81. A child below fifteen years of age may be allowed to work for not more than
_____________hours a week.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 50
82. This commences at the age of eighteen (18) years.

a. juvenile
b. age of majority
c. emancipation
d. delinquent
83. This facility refers to a 24-hour child-caring institution managed by accredited local
government units (LGUs) and licensed and/or accredited non-government organizations (NGOs)
providing short-term residential care for children in conflict with the law who are awaiting court
disposition of their cases or transfer to other agencies or jurisdiction.
d. all of the above
84. A child fifteen (15) years of age but below eighteen (18) may work between
__________________.
a. 6 am to 8 pm
b. 6 am to 10 pm
c. 8am to 5pm
d. 5am to 12 mn
85. The __________________designated as a Family Court shall have original and exclusive
jurisdiction over cases of violence against women and their children under RA 9262.
a. Regional Trial Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Appellate Court
d. Municipal Trial Court
86. A child fifteen (15) years of age or under at the time of the commission of the offense shall be
_____________________ from criminal liability.
a. exempted
b. mitigated
c. not exempted
d. aggravated
87. This refers to acts or omission causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering of the
victim such as not limited to intimidation harassment, stalking, damage to property, public ridicule
or humiliation, repeated verbal abuse and marital infidelity.
b. sexual violence
c. economic abuse
88. This refers to a child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses
because of personal, family and social circumstances.
c. child-at-risk
89. This refers to a child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended or inadequately
attended. Or a child is unattended when left by himself without provision for his needs and
without proper supervision.
a. dependent
b. abandoned
c. neglected
90. A child fifteen (15) years but below eighteen (18) years of age shall likewise be exempt from
criminal liability and be subjected to an _________________.
a. intervention program
b. diversion program
c. trial
d. hearing
91. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result of internal conflict and pre-occupation
with his own emotion and mood.
a. Neurotic
b. Antisocial
c. Asocial
d. Any of these
92. This refers to scientifically defined pattern of psychological and behavioral symptoms found in
women living in battering relationship as a result of cumulative abuse.
a. battery
c. stalking
93. These are anti-social acts or behavior of children which deviate from the normal pattern of
rules and regulations, custom and culture which society does not accept and which therefore
justify some kind of admonition, punishment or corrective measures in the public interest.
a. delinquency
c. crime
d. status offense
94. The natural born child of the parents is termed as:

a. adoption
b. filiation
c. biological child
95. If the child apprehended is___________, the law enforcement officer must release the child
to the custody of his or her parents or guardians, or the child’s nearest relative.
a. 15 years old or below
b. Above 15 years old
c. 18 years old
d. 15 to 18 years old
96. A trust relation of the most sacred character, in which one person, called a guardian, acts for
another, called a WARD, regarded as incapable of managing his own affairs.
d. guardianship
97. The Special Protection of Children against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act is:
a. PD 603
b. RA 9262
c. RA 9344
d. RA 7610
98. This is the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are most congenial to the
survival, protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child's
physical, psychological and emotional development. It also means the least detrimental available
alternative for safeguarding the growth and development of the child.
d. all of the above
99. This includes but is not limited to lacerations, fractured bones, burns, internal injuries, severe
injuries or serious bodily harm suffered by a child.
a. child abuse
b. cruelty
c. physical injury
d. none of these
100. This includes general measures to promote social justice and equal opportunity, which
tackle perceived root causes of offending;
a. primary intervention
b. secondary intervention
c. tertiary intervention
d. multiple intervention
DISPUTE RESOLUTION
1. __________________may also refer to a natural disagreement or struggle between people which may be
physical, or between conflicting ideas. It can either be within one person, or they can involve several people or
groups. It exists when they have incompatible goals and one or more believe that the behavior of the other prevents
them from their own goal achievement.
a. Stress
b. Depression
c. Conflict
d. Anger
2. The word “Conflict” comes from the Latin word ___________ which means to come together for a battle.
a. conflingere
b. consigliere
c. concierte
d. conciliation
3. A ___________________ is an activity which takes place when conscious beings (individuals or groups)
wish to carry out mutually inconsistent acts concerning their wants, needs or obligations.
a. Mutiny
b. Riot
c. Rebellion
d. Conflict
4. This act is also known as the Alternative Dispute Resolution Act of 2004.
a. RA 9165
b. RA 10840
c. RA 6223
d. RA 9285
5. Does RA 9285 limit the power of the Supreme Court to adopt any ADR System?
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
6. This means any process or procedure used to resolve a dispute or controversy, other than by adjudication of a
presiding judge of a court or an officer of a government agency, as defined under RA 9285, in which a neutral third
party participates to assist in the resolution of issues, which includes arbitration, mediation, conciliation, early neutral
evaluation, mini-trial, or any combination thereof.
a. Alternative Dispute Resolution
b. Conflict resolution
c. Dispute resolution
7. Arbitration means a voluntary dispute resolution process in which one or more arbitrators, appointed in
accordance with the agreement of the parties, or rules promulgated pursuant to RA 9285, resolve a dispute by
rendering an award.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
8. The person appointed to render an award, alone or with others, in a dispute that is the subject of an arbitration
agreement is called:
a. Fixer
d. Subject
c. Arbitrator
d. Counsel
9. This means an ADR process wherein parties and their lawyers are brought together early in a pre-trial phase to
present summaries of their cases and receive a nonbinding assessment by an experienced, neutral person, with
expertise in the subject in the substance of the dispute.
a. Pre-trial
b. Arraignment
c. Mediation
d. Early Neutral Evaluation
10. This means a voluntary process in which a mediator, selected by the disputing parties, facilitates communication and
negotiation, and assist the parties in reaching a voluntary agreement regarding a dispute.
a. Trial
b. Mediation
c. Arraignment
d. Pre-trial
11. This means a structured dispute resolution method in which the merits of a case are argued before a panel
comprising senior decision makers with or without the presence of a neutral third person after which the parties seek a
negotiated settlement
a. Pre-trial
b. Sem-Trial
c. Mini- trial
d. Trial
12. The following are the cases where RA 9285 does not apply, except:
a. The civil status of persons;
b. The validity of a marriage;
c. Any ground for legal separation
13. The Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution shall have the following powers, except:
a. To act as appointing authority of mediators and arbitrators when the parties agree in writing that it shall be
empowered to do so
b. To conduct seminars, symposia, conferences and other public forum and publish proceedings of said
activities and relevant materials/information that would promote, develop and expand the use of ADR
c. To establish an ADR library or resource center where ADR laws, rules and regulation, jurisprudence, books, articles
and other information about ADR in the Philippines and elsewhere may be stored and accessed
14. The division of OADR which shall be charged with the dissemination of information, the promotion of the
importance and public acceptance of mediation, conciliation, arbitration or any combination thereof and other
ADR forms as a means of achieving speedy and efficient means of resolving all disputes and to help in the
promotion, development and expansion of the use of ADR is :
a. Secretariat
b. Training Division
c. Public Information and Promotion Division
d. All of the above
15. The division of OADR shall be charged with the formulation of effective standards for the training of ADR
practitioners; conduct of training in accordance with such standards; issuance of certifications of training to ADR
practitioners and ADR service providers who have undergone the professional training provided by the OADR; and
the coordination of the development, implementation, monitoring and evaluation of government and private
sector ADR programs.
a. Secretariat
b. Training Division
c. Public Information and Promotion Division
d. All of the above
16. Do parties have the right to select a Mediator?

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
17. May a party waive his right to participate in Mediation?

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
18. The articles to be considered in the conduct of Mediation are the following, except:
a. The mediator shall not make untruthful or exaggerated claims about the dispute resolution process, its costs and
benefits, its outcome or the mediator’s qualifications and abilities during the entire mediation process.
b. The mediator shall held the parties reach a satisfactory resolution to their dispute but has no authority to impose a
settlement on the parties.
c. The parties shall personally appear for mediation and may be assisted by a lawyer. A party maybe represented by
an agent who must have full authority to negotiate and settle the dispute.
19. It means an arbitration that covers matters arising from all relationships of a commercial nature, whether contractual
or not. Relationships of a commercial nature include, but are not limited to, the following commercial transactions:
any trade transaction for the supply or exchange of goods or services; distribution agreements; construction of works;
commercial representation or agency; factoring; leasing; consulting; engineering; licensing; investment; financing;
banking; insurance; joint venture and other forms of industrial or business cooperation; carriage of goods or
passengers by air, sea rail or road.
a. Legal arbitration
b. Official arbitration
c. Public Arbitration
d. Commercial Arbitration
20. Under the Model Law, this means a body or organ of the judicial system of the Philippines.
a. Legal
b. Court
c. Justice
d. Law
21. How many arbitrators may the parties agree upon?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
22. A type of arbitration that is not international.

a. Domestic Arbitration
b. Non- International Arbitration
c. National Arbitration
d. Local Arbitration
23. This is an arbitration administered by an entity, which is registered as a domestic corporation with the
Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and engaged in. among others, arbitration of disputes in the Philippines
on a regular and permanent basis.
a. Legal arbitration
b. Official arbitration
c. Institutional Arbitration
d. Commercial Arbitration
24. The person/s against whom the claimant commence/s arbitration is called:
a. Accused
b. Suspect
c. Convict
d. Respondent
25. Does a Court have the right to intervene in the process of Alternative Dispute Resolution?
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
26. In an arbitration with three (3) arbitrators, each party shall appoint one (1) arbitrator, and the two (2) arbitrators
thus appointed shall appoint the third arbitrator; if a party fails to appoint the arbitrator within _____________of
receipt of a request to do so from the other party, or if the two arbitrators fail to agree on the third arbitrator within
thirty (30) days of their appointment, the appointment shall be made, upon request of a party, by the appointing
authority;
a. 20 days
b. 30 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
27. An arbitrator may be challenged only if:

a. circumstances exist that give rise to justifiable doubts as to his/her impartiality or independence
b. he/she does not possess qualifications as provided for in this Chapter or those agreed to by the parties
c. he/she is disqualified to act as arbitration under these Rules
d. All of the above
28. In challenging the outcome of the arbitration, the challenge shall be in writing and it shall state specific facts
that provide the basis for the ground relied upon for the challenge. A challenge shall be made within
________________from knowledge by a party of the existence of a ground for a challenge or within fifteen (15) days
from the rejection by an arbitrator of a party’s request for his/her inhibition.
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. Any of the above
29. In default of an agreement of the parties to agree on the challenge thereby replacing the arbitrator, the arbitral
tribunal shall decide on the challenge within how many days from receipt of the challenge?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
30. May the arbitral tribunal appoint an expert witness?

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
31. An arbitral tribunal may appoint an expert witness under the following circumstances, except:
a. if a party so request
b. if the arbitral tribunal considers it necessary
c. upon agreement of the parties
32. This means to sign, execute, adopt a symbol or encrypt a record or establish the authenticity of a record or term.
a. Legitimate
b. Authenticate
c. Castigate
d. Illustrate
33. This means any information, relative to the subject of mediation or arbitration, expressly intended by the
source not to disclosed, or obtained under circumstances that would create reasonable expectation on behalf of the
source that the information shall not be disclosed.
a. Public
b. Official
c. Confidential
d. Open
34. Confidential information in the Alternative Dispute Resolution shall include the following, except:
a. communication, oral or written, made in a dispute resolution proceeding, including any memoranda, notes or work
product of the neutral party or non-party participant;
b. an oral or written statement made or which occurs during mediation or for purposes of considering,
conducting, participating, initiating, continuing or reconvening mediation or retaining a mediator; and
c. pleadings, motions, manifestations, witness statements, reports filed or submitted in arbitration or for expert
evaluation.
d. statements made by the client to his supervising probation officer
35. This shall mean any governmental entity, office or officer, other than a court that is vested by law with
quasi-judicial power or the power to resolve or adjudicate disputes involving the government, its agencies and
instrumentalities or private persons.
a. Public office
b. Law enforcement agency
c. Public office agency
d. Government agency
36. This means the Model on International Commercial Arbitration adopted by the United Nations Commission on
International Trade Law on 21 June 1985.
a. Imitation Law
b. Opportunity Law
c. Justice Law
d. Model Law
37. This means judicial, administrative or other adjudicative process, including related pre-hearing or post hearing
motions, conferences and discovery.
a. Proceedings
b. Trial
c. Pre-trial
d. Arraignment
38. A term which means a list of persons qualified to provide ADR services as neutrals or to serve as arbitrators.
a. Line
b. List
c. Roster
d. Announcement
39. This Act shall be known as "The Arbitration Law."

a. PD 968
b. PD 603
c. RA 743
d. RA 876
40. May additional Arbitrators be appointed?

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
41. Arbitrators are not required to take an oath before hearing any testimony.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
42. Arbitrators have the power to issue subpoena duces tecum and ad testificandum.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
43. May parties submit their dispute to Arbitrator other than by oral hearing?
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
44. Unless the parties shall have stipulated by written agreement the time within which the arbitrators must render
their award, the written award of the arbitrators shall be rendered within how many days after the closing of the hearings
or if the oral hearings shall have been waived?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 15
d. 10
45. Arbitration is considered a special proceeding. This statement is:

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
46. In any one of the following cases, the court must make an order modifying or correcting the award, upon the
application of any party to the controversy which was arbitrated, except in what circumstance?
a. Where there was an evident miscalculation of figures, or an evident mistake in the description of any person, thing
or property referred to in the award; or
b. Where the arbitrators have awarded upon a matter not submitted to them, not affecting the merits of the decision
upon the matter submitted; or
c. Where the award is imperfect in a matter of form not affecting the merits of the controversy, and if it had been a
commissioner's report, the defect could have been amended or disregarded by the court.
47. When should a notice of a motion to vacate, modify or correct the award be served?
a. 20
b. 10
c. 15
d. 30
48. The party moving for an order confirming, modifying, correcting, or vacating an award, shall at the time that
such motion is filed with the court for the entry of judgment thereon also file the following papers with the Clerk of
Court, except:
a. The submission, or contract to arbitrate; the appointment of the arbitrator or arbitrators; and each written extension
of the time, if any, within which to make the award.
b. A verified of the award.
c. Each notice, affidavit, or other paper used upon the application to confirm, modify, correct or vacate such award,
and a copy of each of the court upon such application.
49. The Katarungang Pambarangay is also known as:

a. Barangay Justice System
b. Village Justice
c. Local Justice
d. Both a and b
50. This refers to an Act Establishing a System of Amicably Settling Disputes at the Barangay Level.
a. Act 4103
b. PD 968
c. PD 603
d. PD 1508
51. This act is also known as the Katarungang Pambarangay Law.

a. Act 4103
b. PD 968
c. PD 603
d. PD 1508
52. This act is otherwise known as the 1991 Local Government Code.
a. RA 7610
b. RA 7160
c. RA 7601
d. RA 7160
53. This is a system of justice administered at the barangay level for the purpose of amicable settling disputes through
mediation, conciliation or abitration among the family or barangay without resorting to the courts.
a. Local Justice System
b. Municipal Justice System
c. Arbitrary System
d. Katarungang Barangay
54. It is a community-based dispute settlement mechanism that is administered by the basic political unit of the country,
the barangay
c. Arbitrary System
55. The members of the Lupon shall serve for how many years?
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. ten
56. The remedy against an arbitration award is to file with the appropriate Municipal Trial Court a petition for its
nullification within ______________ days from the date thereof.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
57. In the Katarungang Pambarangay, the Punong Barangay and the community conciliators (Lupon members) do not
act as judges or adjudicators of disputes but as facilitators for the disputing parties’ discussion of possible solutions. This
statement is:
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
58. It is the basic political unit, serves as the primary planning and implementing unit of government policies, plans,
programs, projects, and activities in the community, and as a forum wherein the collective views of the people may be
expressed, crystallized, and considered, and where disputes may be amicably settled.
a. Local Government Unit
b. Barangay
c. National Government
d. Court
59. There shall be in each barangay a Punong Barangay, _____________Sangguniang Barangay Members, a
Sangguniang Kabataan Chairman, a Barangay Secretary, and a Barangay Treasurer.
a. five
b. six
c. seven
d. eight
60. In the Katarungang Pambarangay, the terms Barangay Chairman, Barangay Captain, Lupon Chairman, and
Punong Barangay refer to the same person.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
61. The Barangay Secretary shall concurrently serve as the secretary of the Lupon. His duties are the following,
except:
a. He shall record the results of the mediation proceedings before the Punong Barangay and shall submit a report
thereon to the proper city or municipal courts
b. He shall receive and keep the records of proceedings submitted to him by various conciliation panels
c. He shall keep such records for personal use and reference
d. He shall issue certified true copies of any public record in his custody that is not by law otherwise declared
confidential
62. It is a body organized in every barangay composed of Punong Barangay as the chairperson and not less than ten
(10) and more than twenty from which the members of every Pangkat shall be chosen.
a. Pangkat Tagapamayapa
b. Pangkat Tagapagkasundo
c. Lupong Tagapamayapa
d. Lupong Tagapagkasundo
63. The _______________can appoint the lupon members. It is his/her exclusive prerogative — no need forapproval,
confirmation or ratification of the sangguniang barangay.
a. President
b. Barangay Chairman
c. Pangkat Tagapamayapa
d. Court
64. The following are the six steps What are the six (6) steps to constitute a Lupon. Which of the following is not one of
those steps?
a. Determining the actual number of Lupon Members
b. Preparing a notice to constitute the Lupon
c. Appointment of Members
d. Oath taking in court
65. A notice to constitute the Lupon, which shall include the names of the proposed members who have
expressed their willingness to serve, shall prepared by the Barangay Chairman within the first
____________from the start of his term of office.
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
66. How many members should the Punong Barangay include in the list of the Lupon?
a. 5 to 10
b. 15 to 30
c. 10 to 15
d. 10 to 20
67. The qualifications of the members of the Lupon are the following, except:
a. Actually residing or working in the barangay
b. Expressly disqualified by law
c. Possessing integrity, impartiality, independence of mind, sense of fairness, and reputation for probity
68. The Barangay Secretary, who is also the concurrent secretary of Lupon, shall prepare a notice to constitute the
Lupon using KP form 1. Such notice shall be posted in ____________ conspicuous places in the barangay.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
69. Within ___________ days from completion of the posting requirement, the Chairman shall appoint those he
determines to be the members of the Lupon using KP form 2. He must, however, take into consideration any opposition
to the proposed appointment.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
70. As a community-based mechanism for dispute resolution, it covers disputes between members of the same
community (generally, same city/municipality) and involves the Punong Barangay and other members of the
communities (the Lupon members) as intermediaries (mediators, conciliators, and, sometimes, arbitrators).
c. Arbitrary System
71. Are the Lupon members entitled to some compensation?

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
72. The functions of the Lupong Tagapamayapa are the following.Which is not included?
a. Exercises administrative supervision over the conciliation panels provided under the law
b. Meets regularly once a month to provide a forum for exchange of ideas among its members and the public on
matters relevant to amicable settlement of disputes, and to enable various conciliation panel members to share with
one another their observations and experiences in effecting speedy resolution of disputes
c. Exercises such other powers and perform such other duties and functions as may be prescribed by law or ordinance
73. It is a conciliation panel constituted for each dispute brought before the Lupon. It is composed of three (3)
members who shall be chosen by the parties to the dispute from the list of members of the Lupon.
a. Pangkat Tagapagkasundo
b. Pangkat Tagapamayapa
c. Lupon Tgapagkasundo
d. Lupong Tagapamayapa
74. Should the parties fail to agree on the Pangkat membership, the same shall be determined by lots drawn by the
_____________.
a. Parties
b. Chairman
c. Secretary
d. Pangkat
75. The ____________shall prepare the minutes of the Pangkat proceedings and submit a copy duly attested to by the
chairman to the Lupon Secretary and to the proper city or municipal courts. He shall issue and caused to be served
notices to the parties concerned.
a. Parties
b. Chairman
c. Secretary
d. Pangkat
76. The Lupon members, while in the performance of their official duties or on occasion thereof, shall not be considered
persons in authority, as defined in the Revised Penal Code.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
77. If a Lupon member is assaulted or attacked while in performance of official duty or on occasion thereof, the crime
committed is Direct Assault.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
78. If the Lupon Chairman fails in his mediation efforts from the first meeting of parties, he shall set a date for the
constitution of the __________________.
a. Pangkat Tagapagkasundo
b. Pangkat Tagapamayapa
c. Lupon Tgapagkasundo
d. Lupong Tagapamayapa
79. If the Lupon Chairman fails in his mediation efforts within _____________ days from the first meeting of parties,
he shall set a date for the constitution of the Pangkat ng Tagapagkasundo;
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
80. The Pangkat shall convene not later than ________________days from its constitution to hear both parties and
their witnesses, simplify issues, and explore all possibilities for amicable settlement;
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
81. The Pangkat shall arrive at settlement or resolution of the dispute within ______________days, from the day it
convened; otherwise the Certification to File Action shall be issued.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
82. The term ____________________means invite,
a. Ask
b. Custodial investigation
c. Summon
d. Subpoens
83. It must be stressed further that the one complaining before the Barangay Captain is known as complainant and the
one being charged is known as the ___________________.
a. respondent
b. accused
c. criminal
d. Any of these
84. The Certification to File Action under the Katarungang Pambarangay shall be issued by any of the following,
except:
a. Lupon Secretary
b. Pangkat Secretary
c. DILG Secretary
d. Punong Barangay
85. The amicable settlement shall be in writing, in a language or dialect known to the parties, signed by them and
attested by the _________________or Pangkat Chairman, as the case may be.
a. Lupon Chairman
b. Lupon Secretary
c. Punong Barangay
d. City Mayor
86. In Katarungang Pambarangay, when the parties to a dispute do not use the same language or dialect, the
settlement shall be written in a language or dialect known to them.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
87. If an amicable settlement in the barangay level is not repudiated by any of the parties within ___________days
from the date thereof, it shall have the effect of final judgment of a court.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
88. Any party to the dispute may repudiate the settlement by filing with the Lupon Chairman, within
_______________days from the date of settlement, a statement of repudiation sworn to before him, on the ground that
such consent of said party is vitiated by fraud, intimidation, or violence (FIV). Such repudiation shall be a sufficient basis
for the issuance of certification to file action.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
89. If the amicable settlement is not repudiated within ten (10) days from the date thereof, it may be enforced by
execution by the Lupon within ______________ months from the date of the settlement. After the lapse of the said
period, it may be enforced by action in the appropriate Municipal Trial Court.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
90. This is the process of resolving a dispute or a grievance outside of court system by presenting it to a third person or
panel for decision.
a. Mediation
b. Trial
c. Criminal Justice System
d. Arbitration
91. Any party may repudiate the agreement to arbitrate but he must do so within five (5) days from the date of the
execution of agreement to arbitrate.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
92. The Lupon Chairman or the Pangkat Chairman shall make the arbitration award after the expiration of the period for
repudiation of the agreement to arbitrate and within five (5) days thereafter. The arbitration award shall be in writing and
in the language or dialect known to the parties.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
93. Can the arbitration award be repudiated?

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
94. Under this system, the main strategy for settling disputes is to provide a venue for the disputing parties to search for
a solution that is mutually acceptable. Hence, the primary role of the system is not to decide disputes and impose a
solution on the parties but to assist the parties in discussing the possible amicable settlement of their disputes.
c. Arbitrary System
d. Barangay Justice System
95. If no petition for nullification is filed within the ten – day period, the arbitration award shall have the effect of a final
judgment of a court.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
96. In Katarungang Pambarangay proceedings, may the parties appear with the assistance of their counsel?
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
97. In Katarungang Pambarangay proceedings, minors and incompetents are assisted by next – of – kin who are
lawyers.
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
98. It is the power of courts or quasi-judicial agencies to decide cases filed before them and falling within their
jurisdiction.
a. Adjudication
b. Trial
c. Arraignment
d. Pre-trial
99. It is the decision reached by either the lupon chairperson or pangkat, as the case may be, upon prior agreement
in writing by the parties to a dispute for the adjudicators to resolve it.
a. Judgment
b. Verdict
c. Indictment
d. Arbitration award
100. This is the process of exacting satisfaction for on or both of the parties through compulsory or coercive means. It
entails the enforcement of the terms of the amicable settlement or arbitration award in so far as this may enjoin or
command any of the parties to perform an act, give something or refrain from doing some act.
a. Imposition
b. Judgment
c. Execution
CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH
1. Which of the following is not part of the connection between research and the improvement of
man’s welfare?
A. Better outcome
B. New skills/practices/behavior
C. Improved condition welfare
D. Loss of money
2. A research that is to understand or explain a prevailing situation or explain a relationship

between factors which may have already been identified in exploratory studies, and why the
relationship exists.
A. Exploratory Research
B. Explanatory Research
C. Keen Research
D. Pure basic Research
3. What type of research describes a condition or a given state of affairs in terms of specified
aspects or factors?
A. Correlation research
B. Research Framework
C. Intervention research
D. Descriptive research
4. Carlo conducted his study without posing any danger, embarrassment, hurt or any risk to his
research respondents. What problem has been solved in the case?
A. A research problem must be ethical
B. A research problem must be feasible
C. A research problem must be clear
D. A research problem must be relevant
5. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that describes briefly the nature of the research
problem and explains what led the researcher to investigate the question.
A. Conclusion
B. Introduction
C. Summary/synthesis
D. Body
6. In research, this is the reason why we study sample because it is definitely quicker to study
fewer individuals or elements than an entire population.
A. It is faster
B. It is cheaper
C. It is more accurate
D. It can yield more comprehensive information
7. What is chapter IV of the Thesis?

A. Problem and its setting
B. Presentation, Analysis and interpretation of data
C. Summary, conclusions and recommendations
D. Research Methodology
8. This is a method of data collection where written answers are given to prepared questions.
This requires less time and is inexpensive since the questionnaires can simply be mailed or
hand carried.
A. Indirect method
B. Direct method
C. Experiment method
D. Observation method
9. This type of sampling technique is done by selection of participants done through referrals.
A. Simple random sampling
B. Purposive sampling
C. Snowball sampling technique
D. Stratified random sampling
10. What is chapter II of Criminological research and statistics?

A. The problem and its back ground
B. Review of related literature
C. Research Methodology
D. Summary Conclusions and recommendations
11. This type of research involves the description, recording, analysis and interpretation of the
present nature, composition of processes of phenomena.
A. Descriptive research
B. Experimental research
C. Historical Method
D. Action research
12. This is defined as the expectations about events based on generalizations of the assumed
relationship between the variable.
A. Research
B. Statistics
C. Hypothesis
D. Background
13. This type of research seeks to quantify or reflect in numbers the observations on the
characteristics of the population being studied.
A. Qualitative Research
B. Explanatory research
C. Quantitative research
D. Exploratory research
14. commonly used instrument in attitudinal research. The respondents are required to answer
as to whether they “strongly disagree (SD)”, “disagree (D)”, “undecided/ neutral (U)”, “agree
(A)”, or “strongly agree (SA)” to the statements in the attitudinal scale.
A. Rank order
b. Likert scale
c. Checklist type
d. Open ended questions
15. What is a research that investigates relationships between factors or variables?

A. Intervention research
B. Correlation research
C. Extensive research
D. Explanatory research
16. It is the “blue print” of the study. It guides the collection, measurement and analysis of data.
A. Research outline
B. Research framework
C. Research chart
D. Research Design
17. Survey questions in which the respondent is asked to select an answer from a list provided
by the researcher.
A. Close-ended
B. Open- ended
C. Side-ended
D. None of the above
18. It may be a question about the unknown characteristics of a population or about factors that
explain the presence or occurrence of a phenomenon.
A. Problem
B. Analysis Problem
C. Research Problem
D. Critical Problem
19. Also called the research hypothesis, is the positive form of the null hypothesis.
A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Research Hypothesis
D. Hypothesis
20. It indicates that the researcher is not interested on whether one variable is greater or lesser
than the other, but only in the difference.
B. Directional Hypothesis
C. Hypothesis
D. Non-directional Hypothesis
21. It is a theory that explains why a problem under study exists and explains the connection
between certain factors and the problem.
A. Conceptual Framework
B. Research Framework
C. Special Framework
D. Theoretical Framework
22. Is a negative statement which indicates the absence of a relationship/ correlation between
two variables.
B. Null hypothesis
C. Research Hypothesis
D. Hypothesis
23. It is a set of concepts which explains the occurrence of a certain phenomenon.

A. Competing Theory
B. Theory
C. Assumptions
D. Dependent variables
24. It refers to the extent to which a measurement does what it is supposed to do, which is to
measure what it intends to measure.
A. Validity
B. Validity Threats
C. Reliability
D. Variable
25. The act of officially saying that something was created for a particular purpose or to
remember or honor a particular person.
A. Dedication
B. Abstract
C. Introduction
D. Acknowledgment
26. A _____ are statements of what the researcher intends to do.

B. Research Objectives
C. Null hypothesis
D. Research Hypothesis
27. A variable that is “assumed effect” of another variable. It is the change that occurs in the
study population when one or more factors are changed or when an intervention is introduced.
A. Dependent Variable
B. Independent Variable
C. Antecedent Variable
D. Assumption Variable
28. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that “ties together” the major findings of the studies
reviewed. It represents a general picture of what has been known or thought of about the
problem to date.
A. Summary/synthesis
B. Introduction
C. Body
D. Conclusion
29. It is a factor that works between the independent and dependent variables. It can weaken
(decrease) or strengthen (increase) the effect of the independent on the dependent variable.
C. Antecedent Variable
D. Intervening Variable
30. Researchers make educated guesses to tentatively answer the research questions, from
these they select the more logical and theoretically sound guesses.
B. Research Hypothesis
C. Hypothesis
D. Unconstructive Hypothesis
31. It refers to the consistency, stability and dependability of the data.

A. Validity
B. Statistics
C. Reliability
D. Variable
32. This is the document that shows your panel has approved the content of your thesis or
dissertation, and a copy of it will remain in your official records.
A. Approval Sheet
B. Abstract
C. Title Page
D. Acknowledgment
33. It is a brief summary of a research article, thesis or any in-depth analysis of a particular
subject and is often used to help the reader quickly ascertain the paper's purpose.
A. Dedication
B. Abstract
C. Introduction
D. Acknowledgment
34. An author's statement recognized his use of the works of other authors or a declaration or
avowal of one's act or of a fact to give it legal validity.
A. Dedication
B. Abstract
C. Introduction
D. Acknowledgment
35. A research problem can only be investigated if resources like time, money, and personnel
are available.
A. A research problem must be feasible
B. A research problem must be clear
C. research problem must be ethic
D. A research problem must be appropriate
36. The conduct of the study should not pose any danger, embarrassment, hurt or any risk to
the research respondents or subjects or anyone.
A. A research problem must be feasible
B. A research problem must be clear
C. A research problem must be ethical
D. A research problem must be appropriate
37. What is the specific title of Chapter 1 in a thesis book?

A. Review of Related Literature
B. Methods and Procedure of Data
C. Presentation, Analysis and Interpretation of Data
D. The Problem and Its Setting
38. What is the specific title of Chapter 3 in a thesis book?

A. Review of Related Literature and Studies
B. Research Methodology
C. Presentation, Analysis and Interpretation of Data
D. The Introduction and Its Setting
39. It means to investigate thoroughly, basically a systematic collection of data for the purpose
of explaining, describing or making predictions
A. Criminological Research
B. Research
C. Basic Research
D. Re-search
40. It is a process of collecting selecting, and reading books, journal articles, reports, abstracts,
and other reference materials, including electronic sources (CD-ROM) and the World Wide Web
(www/http) to get relevant information about the problem under investigation.
A. Research Problem
B. Collecting resources
C. Investigation
D. Review of related literature
41. This type of research attempts to describe an existing situation and/or explanatory certain
patterns of behavior using either both qualitative and quantitative research techniques.
A. Pure/Basic Research
B. Explanatory research
C. Qualitative research
D. Keen research
42. This type of research emphasizes verbal descriptions of human behavior and practices in an
attempt to understand how the units or members of the study population experience or explain
their own world.
B. Explanatory Research
C. Quantitative Research
D. Exploratory Research
43. An act of concealing the identity of a person’s response.
A. Anonymity
B. Confidentiality
C. Validity
D. Reliability
44. The identity of the research subject is not known. It is one tool for addressing the ethical
issue of privacy.
A. Anonymity
B. Confidentiality
C. Validity
D. Reliability
45. Questions for which the respondent is asked to provide his or her own answers.
A. Close-ended
B. Open- ended
C. Side-ended
46. The presentation of a theory where you anchored your proposed study.
A. Hypothesis
B. Theoretical Framework
C. Background of the Study
D. Conceptual Framework
47. The general discussion and presentation of the problem or issues being discussed and
studied.
A. Hypothesis
B. Theoretical Framework
C. Background of the Study
D. Introduction
48. This research design deals with a longtime study of a thing, person, group, organization, or
institution. It aims to describe the reasons behind the nature of its existence.
A. Case Study
B. Quantitative Research
C. Phenomenological Research
D. Qualitative Research
49. This research design focuses on the examination of historical documents to understand the
connection of past events to the present time.
A. Grounded Theory
B. Historical Research
C. Content and Discourse Analysis Research
D. Ethnography
50. This is a type of interview in which the interviewer asks questions which are not prepared in
advance. Instead, questions arise spontaneously in a free-flowing conversation.
A. Structured Interview
B. Unstructured Interview
C. Focus Group Interview
D. Semi Structured Interview
51. It is defined as a careful, systematic study of knowledge in the field of criminology or criminal
justice, undertaken to discover or establish facts of the crimes or causations of crime.
A. social science research
B. criminal justice research
C. descriptive research
D. criminological research
52. This finds answer to the questions who, what, when, where and how; this type of research
describes a situation or a given state of affairs in terms of special aspects or factors.
A. descriptive research
B. experimental research
C. historical research
D. all of these
53. It is concerned with the acquisition of new knowledge for the sake of science or the
development of the field.
A. pure /basic research
B. empirical research
C. applied research
D. action research
54. It is practical research concerned with solving immediate policy problems.

A. action research
B. applied research
C. pure research
D. basic research
55. This is responsible for new products, new knowledge and new ways of undertaking projects.
A. Manufacturing
B. Research
C. Developmental
D. Experiment
56. The first and the most important step in conducting a research project.
A. Determining the appropriate research method
B. Collection of Data
C. Identification of a research problem
D. Formulating hypothesis
57. A data-gathering instrument or device used to determine what is occurring or what

individuals are doing, with the use of researcher’s perception.
A. Interview
B. Observation
C. Questionnaire
D. Survey
58. This is an oral type of questionnaire to determine the perceptions of the individuals or
groups.
A. Interview
B. Observation
C. Questionnaire
D. Survey
59. This uses carefully planned and printed items given to respondents in order to elicit answers
to questions of the research.
A. Interview
B. Observation
C. Questionnaire
D. Survey
60. The purpose of this part of research is to give readers the context of the present research.
A. Introduction
B. Method of Research
C. Review of Related Literature
D. Conclusion
61. These are inferences, deductions, abstractions and/or generalizations based on findings.
A. Presentation of Data
B. Introduction
C. Conclusion
D. Recommendations
62. These are addressed to those concerned to help solve the problem, guided by the research
findings.
B. Introduction
C. Conclusion
D. Recommendations
63. The variable that is presumed to be the cause.

A. Inductive Reasoning
C. Interview
D. Null Hypothesis
64. This highlights the findings without detailed statistical data and analysis.
B. Conclusion
C. Summary
D. Recommendations
65. This part of research includes the works and only those works-cited in the text.
A. References
B. Bibliography
C. Appendices
D. Both A and B
66. Is a method of inquiry for the purpose of obtaining facts in response to questions.
A. Manufacturing
B. Research
C. Developmental
D. Experiment
67. It describes phenomena in words instead of numbers or measures.

B. Quantitative Research
C. Both A and C
D. None of them
68. The group to which the researcher would like the results of a study to be generalized.
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Respondent
d. Snowball
69. This is a specific statement of prediction.

A. Setting of the Study
B. Framework
C. Introduction
D. Hypothesis
70. Its purpose is to study intensively the background, current status, and environmental
interactions of a given social unit: an individual, group, institution or community.
A. Survey
B. Ethnographic
C. Case Study
D. None of them
71. This is used in studying the society – its customs, traditions, behavior and beliefs.
A. Survey
B. Ethnography
C. Case Study
D. None of them
72. This section presents the specific problems of the study that needs to be stated correctly by
way of a precise question which demands specific answer.
A. Background of the Study
B. Hypothesis of the Study
C. Statement of the Problem
D. Theoretical or Conceptual Framework
73. In this part of the research, the researcher outlines theory he wishes to espouse or verify.
B. Methods of Research
C. Theoretical Framework
D. Introduction
74. In this part, the researcher reads literature, summarizes the literature, and synthesizes the
results in relation to the problem.
B. Methods of Research
C. Theoretical Framework
D. Introduction
75. These are unpublished materials such as manuscripts, theses and dissertations from the
country of origin of the researcher.
A. Foreign Studies
B. Foreign Literature
C. Local Studies
D. Local Literature
76. This is a branch of mathematics that deals with the techniques for collecting, analyzing, and
drawing conclusions from data.
A. Geometry
B. Statistics
C. Algebra
D. Trigonometry
77. Research in criminology is focused on:

A. Crime and Criminalities
B. Criminals and Criminal Behaviors
C. Corrections and Treatment
D. All of them
78. Research is not:

A. Responsible for new products, ideas and knowledge
B. A process directed at gathering, processing, analyzing and interpreting data
C. Providing a ground for ignorance
D. Ethical and feasible
79. These are terms that need to be defined in the study.

A. Universally accepted terms
B. Operational Terms
C. Terms defined over dictionaries
D. None of them
80. Setting of the Study in the Traditional Format (APA) is similar to this component of the
IMRAD Format.
A. Paradigm
B. Research Locale
C. Research Design
D. None of them
81. Simulacrum in the IMRAD Format is similar to this part of the Traditional Format.
A. Paradigm
B. Research Locale
C. Research Design
82. A brief summary which gives the essential points in a discourse.
A. Average
B. Abstract
C. Mean
D. Median
83. An ambiguous term generally suggesting typical or normal – a central tendency. The mean,
median, and mode are example of mathematical averages.
A. Average
B. Abstract
C. Mean
D. Median
84. The arithmetic average of a set of scores.

A. Average
B Abstract
C. Mean
D. Median
85. That point in a distribution above and below which are 50% of the scores.
A. Average
B. Abstract
C. Mean
D. Median
86. Any list of references at the end of a research report or manuscript, whether cited or not
within the write-up; includes not only texts referred to in the paper, but as well as any other
articles the researcher/writer made use of and readers might need as background reading.
A. Bibliography
B. Case Study
C. Citation
D. Concept
87. The words or symbols in language that we use to represent mental images.
A. Bibliography
B. Case Study
C. Citation
D. Concept
88. A short, formal indication of the source of information or quoted material.

A. Bibliography
B. Case Study
C. Citation
D. Concept
89. The in-depth examination of a single instance of some social phenomenon, such as a
juvenile gang.
A. Bibliography
B. Case Study
C. Citation
D. Concept
90. The study of crime from a scientific perspective.
B. Criminology
C. Data
D. Deductive Reasoning
91. These are systematic information that criminologists use to investigate research questions.
B. Criminology
C. Data
92. A special branch of Sociology. It deals on the analysis of crimes and criminal behavior that
needs scientific basis in order to study the phenomena.
B. Criminology
C. Data
93. A mode of inquiry using the logical model in which specific expectations of hypotheses are
developed on the basis of general principle.
B. Criminology
C. Data
94. A wimpy (unimportant) variable. The variable that is a presumed effect. Also referred to as
the criterion variable, the effect, the outcome, or the posttest.
B. Emperical Research
C. Descriptive Statistics
D. Grounded Theory
95. Research conducted for the purpose of collecting measurable data in terms of attitudes,
behavior, or performance; designed to generate projectable, numerical data on a topic.
B. Empirical Research
D. Grounded Theory
96. A type of inductive theory that is based on (grounded in) field observation.
D. Grounded Theory
97. A data analysis techniques enabling the researcher to meaningfully describe many scores
with a small number of numerical indices.
D. Grounded Theory
98. This part of research must be feasible, logical and valid which may address (solve the
problem) the findings of the research.
B. Introduction
C. Conclusion
D. Recommendations
99. Uses the logical model in which general principles are developed from specific observations.
C. Interview
D. Null Hypothesis
100. A data-gathering technique in which a person asks questions to another.
C. Interview
D. Null Hypothesis

Crim FC

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Crim FC

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INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY

1. This is the science concerned with improving the quality of offspring.

2. This is also known as victimless crime.

4. This refers to the significant loss of contact with reality.

5. A type of person who kills 3 or more in a separate event.

7. What is the legal term for nighttime?

10. These are crimes that can be committed in several places.

d. white collar crimes

a. legal point of view

b. scientific point of view

16. Those that are committed in only one place.

21. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.

23. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by _____________.

24. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit, except:

d. There must be a penal sanction or punishment

d. white collar crimes

29. What is the study of human mind in relation to criminality.

a. It is specific and definite

d. There must be a penal sanction or punishment

40. What do we call the study of human behavior in relation to criminality?

41. This happens when the result of a criminal act is destructive.

d. white collar crimes

a. blue collar crimes

a. legal point of view

b. scientific point of view

49. This is the study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.

a. blue collar crimes

58. According to RA 11131, Registered Criminologist refers to?

a. blue collar crimes

a. legal point of view

b. scientific point of view

71. Which of the following is an accessory penalty?

d. white collar crimes

76. It is the study of criminality in relation to physical constitution of men.

d. There must be a penal sanction or punishment

91. Those committed by ordinary professional criminals to maintain their livelihood.

a. blue collar crimes

93. The term criminology was derived from French word:

a. It is specific and definite

d. There must be a penal sanction or punishment

100. RA 9262 is an example of? (Dec 2021 CLE)

1. It is a systematic arrangement of facts with respect to some real or hypothetic laws.

33. Advanced by the American criminologists David Cressey, Gresham Sykes, and David

37. Affected by clinically identified mental disease or by a neuropsychopathic condition which

44. It sometimes called by the French word “anomie”.

49. People who conform to the system’s means and goals.

66. ___________emphasizes the techniques of observation, the comparative method, and

86. Reality principle, it I thought to develop early in a person’s life.

88. ___________________is a term coined by criminal justice scholars. Chivalry suggests

96. Agnew's ________________now acknowledges that events which are perceived to be

97. William Sheldon (1942) proposed a strong correlation between personality and

HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND VICTIMOLOGY

3. A behavior when a person acted with sanity or reason.

7. It refers to our feelings, mood, temper and strong motivational force.

8. It pertains to being a man or a woman and the expression of love.

10. People suffering from psychosis are said to be:

14. Making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior.

18. Handling your own pain by helping others is called:

23. It is the impulse to drink liquor.

35. It is a sexual deviancy where a group participates in sexual orgies.

40. It is the phobia to dogs.

41. It is the impulse to steal.

50. It is an intense fear to closed spaces.

51. It is the impulse to gain fame or power.

52. It is formerly referred as the character disorders.

54. A type of paranoia characterized by irrational jealousy.

60. It is the intense and unexplainable fear to blood.

61. It is the impulse of setting fire.

66. A type of behavior referring to motorized behavior.

67. A personality trait which is a balance of extrovert and introvert characteristics.

69. A behavior that conforms to the predominant behavior in a society.

78. A type of schizophrenia characterized principally by delusions of persecution and/or grandeur.

b. Deviant Place Theory

d. Victim Precipitation Theory

b. Deviant Place Theory

d. Victim Precipitation Theory