TIPS! TIPS! TIPS!

(CRIMINOLOGY)
Jesmar C. Lobo (Dei Gratia)

1. An act creating the board of examiners for criminologist in the Philippines and for other
purposes. (Baka lang itanong though repealed na ito)
A. R.A 6506
B. R.A 11131 – repealed R.A 6506
C. R.A 7610
D. None of these

2. A criminology research on the links between the different types of crimes and criminals is
referred to as crime ____.
a. etiology
b. profiling
c. typology
d. statistics

3. Crime is_____.
A. Individual act
B. Natural act
C. Social problem
D. Community problem

4. Who applied the modern methods of the physical sciences to the social sciences that paved
way for the birth of sociology?
A. Jeremy Sentham
B. Cesare Beccana
C. August Comte
D. Samuel Romilly

5. What is NOT an element of classical criminology?

a. The use of scientific method in explaining phenomenon like criminal behavior.
b. Crime is attractive when it promises great benefits with little effort.
c. People have free will to choose lawful solutions to meet their needs or settle their problems
d. Crime may be controlled by the fear of punishment.

6. What Phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic to the
hostage-takers.
A. Lima Syndrome
B. Stockholm Syndrome
C. London Syndrome
D. All of these
Lima syndrome = the hostage taker develops sympathy to hostages.
London syndrome = hostages becomes uncooperative to hostage taker.

7. Which type of criminal possesses atavistic tendency?

A. Neurotic
B. Born
C. Psychotic
D. Hedonistic

8. He formulated the formula, Criminal behavior equals criminal tendencies plus crime
inducing situation divided by person emotional resistance to temptation.
A. David Abrahamsen
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Cesare Lombroso
D. Edwin Sutherland

9. A person who commits crime due to less physical stamina or self control.
A. Pseudo criminals = SELF DEFENSE
B. Insane Criminals = CANNOT DISTINGUISH RIGHT FROM WRONG
C. Criminal By Passion = ANGER/REVENGE/JEALOUSY
D. Criminaloids

10. The return of a trait or reappearance of previous behavior after a period of absence.
a. Atavism
b. Atavistic Anomaly
c. Atavistic stigmata
d. Born Criminals

11. Moral aspect of personality also known as the conscience.

A. ID = pleasure
B. EGO =Consciousness/Reality
C. SUPER EGO
D. Sub-conscious

12. Any crime committed by individual from a lower social class of society.
A. White-Collar crime = upper socio-economic status
B. Blue-collar crime = ordinary criminals
C. Political crime
D. None of these

13. What is the doctrine that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and the community?
A. Restorative Justice
B. Miranda Doctrine
C. Justice
D. None of these

14. When a girls see her mother as rival for her father, this complex is refers to?
A. Oedipus Complex = kabaligtaran ng Electra
B. Electra Complex
C. Mother-Daughter-Rival-Conflict
D. None of these

15. Rafaelle Garofalo’s theory explains that the roots of criminal behavior are not on the
physical features but on their psychological equivalents. Which of the following espouses this
theory?
A. Moral reasoning
B. Anomie
C. Moral anomalies
D. Abnormalities

16. Refers to the scientific study of crimes, criminals, and victims. It also deals with the
prevention, and solution of crimes.
a. Criminology as defined by Edwind Sutherland
b. Criminology as defined by RA 6506
c. Criminology as defined by IRR RA 11131
d. Criminology as defined by RA 11131

17. Which is known as RA 11131?

A. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2019
B. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018
C. The Criminology Profession Act of 2018
D. The Criminology Profession Act of 2019

Approved: November 8, 2018

18. The people seeks pleasure and avoids pain is refers to?
A. Classical Theory - free will
B. Hedonism - formulated by Jeremy Bentham
C. Utilitarianism – the greatest good for the greatest number of people/Jeremy Bentham
D. None of these

19. Criminology changes as social condition changes. This means the progress of criminology is
concordant with the advancement of other sciences that has been applied to it. This means that
criminology is
A. Dynamic
B. Progressive
C. Applied Science
D. Nationalistic

20. What is the particular field of study in criminology when one is studying the causes of crime
in a given geographical location?
A. Sociology of crime
B. Criminal Demography
C. Criminal ecology
D. Criminal etiology

21. What is this theory which holds that crime is a function of the conflict between the goals
people have and the means they can use to legally obtain them? It argues that it is the inability
to obtain these goals, usually materials goals that trigger the commission of crimes because
members of the lower class are unable to achieve these goals which come easy for members of
the upper class.
A. Social disorganization theory
B. Cultural deviance theory
C. Social learning theory
D. Strain theory

22. This explains that in crime causation, biology can affect psychology, which can affect social
well-being, which can further affect biology, and so on.
a. The “Bio” component
b. The “Psycho” component
c. The “Social” component
d. The BIO-PSYCHOSOCIAL MODEL

23. He was considered as the Father of Classical school of Criminology.

A. Cesare Bonesa Marchese De Becarria
B. Cesare Bonesana De Marchese Beccaria
C. Cesare Bonesana Marchese De Becarria
D. Cesar Montano Beccaria

24. Sexual pleasure is achieved through using and saying shouting bad words while having sex
called:
A. Coprophilia - unpleasant smell
B. Coprolalia = other term Scatologia
C. Bad words
D. Coprophagia - eating human feces (Ito lumabas noong December 2017 CLE)

25. This format of thesis writing is most commonly used to cite sources within the social
sciences.
A. HARVARD
B. Modern Language Association
C. American Psychological Association (APA)
D. NOTA

26. It is a sexual disorder characterized by the inability to achieve or maintain erection for a
successful intercourse.
A. Erectile Insufficiency
B. Vaginismus
C. Pre-matured ejaculation = bilis mag expload
D. Aspermia = a semen but no sperm cells

27. Which of the following is characterized by emotional disturbances that lead to mental
illness?
A. Environmental
B. Psychiatric
C. Abnormal
D. Emotional maladjustments

28. The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social learning
approach perspective in Criminology Criminal behavior according to this theory is:
A. result of an emotional disturbance
B. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
C. An excess of wisdom
D. Learned and not inherited

29. Among the following, which is most contagious on human emotion?

A. Fear
B. Panic
C. Worry
D. Dementia Praecox= aka schizophrenia

30. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states that the individuals copy behavior
patterns of other individuals, and that those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced
easier by those with stronger personalities.
A. Emile Durkheim
B. Adolphe Quetelet
C. Gabriel Tarde = Jean Gabriel Tarde
D. None of these

31. Which idea does social positivism believe?

A. Crime is normal.
B. Crime is due to free-will.
C. Criminal is born.
D. Crime is inherited.
32. Which approach is applied when the government strategy on crime prevention is
punishment and retribution of crime rather than the rehabilitation of offender?
A. Eclectic
B. Classical
C. Positivism
D. Sociological

33. What academic discipline uses scientific method to study the nature, extent, cause, and
control of criminal behavior?
A Police Administration
B. Criminal Justice System
C. Criminology
D. Sociology

34. In the Philippines, there were 8,500 homicide incidents reported to the authorities in 2019
that the population of the country is 105,000,000, what is the crime rate for homicide in the
same year?
A. 8.095
B. 6.095
C. 7.095
D. 5.095

CR = Crime Volume ÷ Population X 100, 000

35. If the Punong Barangay is unable to achieve a settlement, the case is referred for
consultation mediation or arbitration to the ____________.
A. Pangkat Tagapagkasundo
B. Lupong Tagapamayapa
C. Police
D. Elder group

36. Which sub-areas constitute the discipline of criminology that utilizes scientific methods to
assess the effectiveness of crime control and offender treatment programs?
A. Penology and Social Control
B. Criminal Statistics and Research Methodology
C. Criminal Behavior System and Criminal Typology
D. Sociology of law and Criminal Typology

37. The study of criminology involves several disciplines. Which is the objective of
Criminology? (December 2022, CLE)
a. The determination of the origin of law, measure the forces that can change laws and society
b. The study of the agencies of social control (police, courts and corrections) that prosecute
convict, and treat criminal offenders
c. The development of general and verified principles regarding the process of law, crime, and
treatment or prevention
d. The study of systematic set of interrelated statements or principles that explain aspect of
social life.

38. Which of these typologies of killer murder a numerous number of people overtime and
seek to escape out of detection?
A. Serial – with cooling period
B. Spree – without cooling period
C. Mass – single violent outburst
D. Chance

39. Which refers to a behavior of a lawbreaker that leads to the commission of an illicit (labag
sa batas) act?
A. Immature behavior
B. Psychopathic behavior
C. Deviant behavior
D. Criminal behavior

40. Which pillar of the criminal justice system includes all the agencies and various programs
that assume legal responsibility for the custody, supervision, treatment and punishment of
convicts?
A. Prosecution
B. Correction
C. Court
D. Prison

41. Cesar is child in conflict with the law. Which should be applied?
A Restorative Justice
B. Juvenile Justice
C. Criminal Justice
D. Retributive Justice

42. What is NOT a ground for the revocation of certificate of registration of a licensed
criminologist?
A. Malpractice and incompetency
B. Administrative sanctions
C. Unprofessional conduct
D. Serious ignorance or gross negligence

43. What is/are the realm of Developmental Psychology? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Inherent characteristics
B. Nature-nurture
C. Genetics
D. Environmental

44. Which refers to a feature that can be focused on separately but that cannot be understood
without also considering other features.
A. Dimension - focus of the research
B. Variable – topic of the research
C. Limitation – place and time when the research will held
D. Parameter

45. As defined by RA 11131, which of the following describes a criminologist?

A. a natural person who holds a valid certificate of registration and an updated professional
identification card as criminologist issued by the Board and the Commission
B. the scientific study of crimes, criminals, and victims, it also deals with the prevention, and
solution of crimes
C. any person who is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination
for criminologists and is registered as such by the Board
D. a person who graduated with a B.S. in Criminology and passed the Criminologist Licensure
Examination

46. Select an internal force of the psychoanalytic theory which states that all psychoanalytic
positions form the psychodynamic approach that views humans as biologically driven to get
what they want when they want it unless they are held in check by internal and external
forces.
A. Behavior
B. Conscience
C. Personality
D. Heredity

47. Criminal____ the study of milieu in relation to criminality:

A. Psychiatry
B. Psychology
C. Physical Anthropology
D. Epidemiology

Note: Milieu means environment.

48. It refers to an intagible feeling that seems to evade any effort to resolve it.
A. Worry
B. Anxiety
C. Panic
D. Fear
49. Johnny is found to be persistently misbehaving at home, school and community. He is ever
displaying coercive and threatening behavior in dealing with other people. Such display of
behavior is known as (December 2022, CLE)
A. Minimal Brain Dysfunction
B. Oppositional Defiant Disorder – ayaw nilang kinocontrol sila
C. Conduct Disorder – mas malala kasi gusto nila magcontrol ng iba
D. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

50. A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease, etc. from
parents to offspring.
A. Heredity
B. Environment
C. Inheritance
D. Introvert

51. Manuel’s condition deprives him of freedom of choice, manifested by actions which
deviate from normal conduct. Such condition requires treatment and medication. Which
condition Is Manuel suffering from? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Mental illness – disease of the brain
B. Mental retardation
C. Mental depression
D. Mental disorder – disease of the brain that affects the body

52. Juancho is suffering from “split personality” where he seems to have several distinct
personalities. Which condition is Juancho suffering from? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Borderline Personality – mood disorder
B. Dissociative
C. Anxiety
D. Obsessive Compulsive

53. This personality is said to be that of a human being who possesses consciousness of the self
and of the world. Which DOES NOT constitute the personality of man? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Mental state
B. Temperament
C. Soul
D. Emotion

54. A defendant in a criminal case must have the mental capacity to understand the charges
against him/her. Who is a competent defendant?
A. One who has been diagnosed with psychosis.
B. One who has poor performance on psychological tests specifically designed to assess legally
relevant functional abilities of the defendants.
C. One who has been diagnosed with psychosis
D. One who has good performance on psychological tests specifically designed to assess legally
relevant functional abilities of the defendants.

55. Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is characterized by intense disturbing thoughts, and
feelings related to a terrifying event that a person has experienced, and lasts for a long time
after such event has occurred. PTSD may be experienced after the following events.
EXCEPT___
A. military combat
B. momentous events
C. sexual assaults
D. natural disasters

56. When was the Code of Kalantiaw promulgated?

A. 1433 = 2ND OLDEST CODE
B. 1435
C. 1453
D. 1469

57. This theory suggests that people break the law because they are not sufficiently governed
by the social norms and mores of society.
A. Functionalist theory
B. Anomie theory
C. Rational choice theory
D. Control theory

58. The mass of precepts which determines and regulates those relations of assistance,
authority and obedience existing among members of a family as well as among members of
society for the protection of private interests.
a. Criminal Law
b Common Law
c. Civil Law
d. Substantive Law

59. What is Republic Act 11131?

A. A law that amend the Republic Act 6506
B. A law that partially amend Republic Act 6506
C. A law that repeal the Republic Act 6506
D. A law that do not repeal Republic Act 6506

60. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under
Philippine laws is considered
A. Child at risk = vulnerable to commit crime
B. Child in conflict with the law
C. Minor offense
D. Juvenile offender

61. Which is not a qualifications for the board examiners (the Chairperson and its members)
under RA 11131?
A. Must be a naturalized-born Filipino citizens and a resident of the Philippines;
B. Must be of good moral character, good reputation and of sound mind and body;
C. Not convicted by a court of competent jurisdictions of any offense involving moral turpitude;
D. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Science in Criminology, and a holder of a Post-Graduate
Degree in Criminology or a lawyer in any reputable school recognized by CHED.

Note: The correct word is natural-born

62. Under the Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018, the following are the
qualifications for Criminology Licensure Examination, which is NOT?
A. Must be a citizen of the Philippines or a foreign citizen whose country/state has reciprocity
with the Philippines in the practice of criminology
b. Must be of good moral character, good reputation and of sound mind and body certified by
the school where he/she graduated and the barangay where he/she lives, unless the examinee
is a foreign national a certification from any professional of good standing will do.
c. Must hold a bachelor’s degree in criminology duly accredited by the CHED and conferred by a
school/college/university duly authorized by the government or its equivalent degree obtained
by either Filipino or foreign citizen from an institution of learning in a foreign country/state;
d. That those who failed three times whether consecutive or cumulative in the CLE present a
certification of refresher from a reputable institution duly recognized by the CHED.

Note: Five (5) times dapat

63. In 1940s, criminology had been attacked and questioned for its fitness as a science. From
among the list below, who questioned the adequacy of criminology as a science?
A. George L Wilmer
B. George L. Wilker
C. George L. Wilber
D. George L. Wilder

64. Criminology is also related to the study of ______________ behaviors or those actions that
depart from social norms, values, beliefs, and customs.
A. deviant
B. delinquency
C. abnormal
D. violent

65. It assumes that all human actions are calculated in accordance with their likelihood of
bringing happiness (pleasure) or unhappiness (pain), what is this?
A. Utilitarianism – greatest happiness principle/principle of utility
B. Altruism
C. Hedonism
D. Atavism

Note: Pag may happiness, Utilitarianism na agad ang sagot.

66. A criminological theory that states that visible signs of crime, anti-social behavior, and civil
disorder create an urban environment that encourages further crime and disorder, including
serious crimes.
A. Anomie Theory
B. Differential Association Theory
C. Social Disorganization Theory
D. Broken Windows Theory

67. The act known as the “Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and
Employees.”
A. RA 6975
B. RA 3019 – Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act
C. RA 6713
D. RA 7160 – Local Government Code of 1991

68. He reasoned that if prevention was the purpose of punishment, and if punishment became
too costly by creating more harm than good, then penalties needed to be set just a bit in
excess of the pleasure one might derive from committing a crime, and no higher.
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Beccaria
C. August Comte
D. Samuel Romilly

69. It is a voluntary process conducted under the auspices of the court by referring the parties
to the Philippine Mediation Center Unit for the settlement of their dispute assisted by a
mediator accredited by the Supreme Court.
A. Judicial Dispute Resolution
B. Court Annexed Mediation
C. Pre-trial
D. Hearing

70. What is another term for labeling theory?

A. Social reaction theory
B. Social learning theory
C. Social process theory
D. Social control theory
71. Insanity is an abnormal mental or behavioral pattern which is an exempting circumstance in
a criminal case aside from the insane who can invoke exempting circumstances?
A. neurotic
B. schizophrenic
C. imbecile
D. epileptic

72. It is the science and art of planning the procedures for conducting studies so as to get the
most valid findings.
A. Research design
B. Research ethics
C. Research hypothesis
D. Research question

73. This type of research describes a situation or a given state of affairs in terms of specified
aspects or factors
A. Intervention research
B. Extensive research
C. Correlation research
D. Descriptive research

74. One of the major researches that utilize a time element that describes what will be.
A. Experimental
B. Descriptive
C. Historical
C. Statistical

75. This type of research attempts to explain possible factors related to problems which have
been observed in a descriptive study.
A. Explanatory research
B. Exploratory research
C. Descriptive research
D. Historical Research

76. A delinquent characterized by emotional disturbances that may lead to mental illness.
A. environmental delinquent
B. emotionally maladjusted delinquent
C. psychiatric delinquent
D. all of them

THREE TYPES OF DELIQUENCY:

1. ENVIRONMENTAL DELINQUENTS
-Characterized by occasional law-breaking.
2. EMOTIONALLY MALADJUSTED DELINQUENTS
-Characterized by chronic law-breaking; a habit which this type cannot avoid or escape from.

3. PSYCHIATRIC DELINQUENTS
- Characterized by serious emotional disturbances within the individual and in some cases
associated with tendencies towards mental illness.

77. This theory considers delinquent behavior as a result of people’s frustration and anger
over their inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
A. Strain theory
B. Imitation-Suggestion Theory
C. Positivist Theory
D. Labeling Theory

78. A type of research that utilizes inferential statistics to determine the results of the study
such as comparison studies and cause-and-effect relationship.
A. Experimental
B. Developmental
C. Non-quantitative
D. Quantitative

79. A type of research that utilizes the description of results rather than statistical
presentation.
A. Experimental
B. Evaluation
C. Non-quantitative
D. Quantitative

80. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.

A. Margaret Juke
B. Ada Kallikak
C. Ada Juke
D. Ada Edwards

• Follow up Question – who studied the family tree of Ada Juke? Answer – Richard Dugdale
• Follow up Question – Who studied the family of Martin Kalikak? Answer – Henry Goddard
(Coined the word “Moron”)

81. Crime is caused by the rational effort of man to augment his pleasure and to minimize his
pains is a notion coming from:
A. Positivist school
B. Classical school
C. Chicago school
D. Neo-classical school

82. Who is a person who kills three or more persons in three or more separate events?
A. Serial Killer
B. Spree Killer
C. Mass Murderer
D. Homicidal

83. This theory suggests that people break the law because they are not sufficiently governed
by the social norms and mores of society.
A. Functionalist theory
B. Anomie theory
C. Rational choice theory
D. Control theory

84. RA 9285 covers the following, except –

A. the civil status of persons
B. any ground for legal separation
C. the validity of marriage
D. disputes which by law can be compromised

85. This personality system controls the gateway to action.

A. alter ego
B. Id
C. ego
D. Superego

86. What research investigates relationships between factors or variables?

A. Descriptive research
B. Correlation research
C. Historical research
D. Experimental research

87. What crime is committed when a person does not know the nature and quality of his act on
account of the disease of his mind?
A. Extinctive
B. Acquisitive
C. Irrational
D. Rational

88. It refers to crimes, which occur with sufficient regularity, and is used as the basis in
determining the peace and order situation in a particular locality.
A. Simple crimes
b. Index crimes
c. Complex crimes
d. Non-index crimes

89. Janine could not conform to the social norms, rules and regulations. She is manipulative,
deceitful, and reckless, and does not care for the feelings of other people. Which disorder is
Janine suffering from?
A. Antisocial personality
B. Depressive
C. Schizophrenia
D. Delusional

90. The following are considered practices of the Criminology profession in other countries.
EXCEPT (December 2022, CLE)
A. a field under the social science
B. research-based profession
C. a field under behavioral science
D. a profession under the Criminal Justice umbrella

91. What theory focuses on the genetic factors as causes of crime?

A. Classical
B. Psychological
C. Biological
D. Sociological

92. According to Lombroso, these are physical characteristics that distinguish born criminals
from the general population and are throwbacks to animals or primitive people.
a. physical deviations
b. distinguishable traits
c. atavistic stigmata – at least 5 traits of an ape
d. ape-like appearance

93. Motorists sometimes forget to lock their vehicles or may unintentionally leave their
cellular phones behind. In doing so, they become victims of a crime. Which refers to a situation
where a victim unintentionally makes it easier for an offender to commit crime?
A. Victim provocation
B. Victim administration
C Victim precipitation
D. Victim facilitation

94. Many employees exert their best effort because most of their supervisors and employers
impose penalties for not following the rules. Just like in deviant and criminal acts, the possibility
for repeating the deviant act is very highly if no corresponding penalties are imposed
Which theory espouses social reinforcement by using reward and punishment?
A. Social Learning
B. Cognitive
C. Attachment
D. Behavior

Specific Answer: Differential Reinforcement

95. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result of internal conflict and pre-
occupation with his own emotion and mood.
A. Neurotic
B. Social - aggressive
C. Accidental – peer pressure and curiosity
D. Asocial – cold, brutal, no remorse

96. To date, several branches of Victimology started to grow. When a criminologist focuses on
advocating for the victims and their rights in relation to certain types of prosecutions. This
branch is referred to as
A. General Victimology
B Victimology
C Penal Victimology
D. Forensic Victimology

97. Amie travelled to a place where the inhabitants have a culture different from his own. This
causes communication gap and misunderstanding between him and the residents of the
place. As a result, Amie can be an easy victim of a crime. Which refers to the status of Amie?
A. Immigrant
B. Female
C. Senile/old
D. Minorities – racial prejudice/discrimination

98. Victims are the persons who suffered as a result of a crime. Which refers to the scientific
study of victims and victimization, including the relationships between victims and offenders,
investigators, courts, corrections, media and social movements? (General yung definition)
A. Penal Victimology
B. Victimology
C. General Victimology
D. Forensic Victimology

99. Which of the following explains the biological and psychological theories of crime?
A. The labeling of an individual and relating the label to criminality.
B. The way society is organized which results to is being conducive to criminality.
C. The physical characteristics and mental qualities of man are conducive to criminality.
D. The influence of society to crime commission.

100. Which refers to the cult or instant gratification (pleasure)?

a. Non-Utilitarian
b. Short-run Hedonism
c. Negativism – pessimism
d. Group Autonomy

• Author: Jeremy Bentham

101. A criminologist studied about the types of inmates in prison and how they interact with
each other in to understand why some inmates adapt incarceration more easily than others.
The objective of the study is to propose a general theory of inmate behavior that extends to all
similar
inmate populations. The researcher utilized ethnography (study of a particular group or culture)
as his research design. How is ethnography suitable to the purpose of the study?
A. It studies certain group to gain clear understanding of its internal operations or lifestyle
B. It involves a lengthy study of a person, group or situation
C. It studies how people find their experiences meaningful
D. It prevents the discrimination of ethnic groups.

102. It is a measuring or calculating of the probable duration of human life; the attempt to
correlate the frequency of crime between parents and children or brothers and sisters.
a. Biometry
b. Thermic law
c. Biosocial behavior
d. Inheritance

103. What is the manifestation of overt aggression?

A. Concealment, dishonesty, sneaky behavior, increases with age
B. Is unprovoked, deliberate, goal directed behavior used to influence or coerce a peer
C. Direct confrontation with victims, generally decrease with age
D. Is a hostile act displayed in response to a perceived threat or provocation

104. The following represents tax evasion, embezzlement of money, insurance and bank
fraud.
A. Blue-Collar Crimes
B. Crimes of Repression
C. Cyber Crime
D. Occupational Crime

105. Which of the following choices does NOT refer to conflict views? (MARXIST KASI TO)
A. Crime is a politically declined concept.
B. “Real crimes” are not
C. The law is a tool of the ruling or elite class
D. The law reflects public opinion = LAW IS ONLY TOOL FOR ELITE/OLIGARCHS NOT BY THE
PUBLIC
106. Generally, the discipline that deals with what is good and bad as well as our moral duties
and obligations is referred to as?
A. Values
B. Philosophy
C. Ethics
D. Morals

107. Socrates held that virtue is a form of knowledge and that the cultivation of virtue is the
most important human obligation. Which ethical tenets was developed by Socrates?
A. No man is deliberately corrupt and all evil activities come from ignorance
B. Spiritual and sensual enjoyment are associated with greatest freedom from displeasure and
pain
C. Joy and cheerfulness as the highest good
D. Justice, temperance and fortitude very well constitute the harmony of human activities. –
Prudentius (Battle of the Soul)

108. The findings of Registered criminologists can very well get an innocent man free or
convict those who are guilty. Which is NOT a criterion that must guide criminologist in the
formulation of their findings?
A. It must conform with the goals and objectives of the prosecution.
B. It shall be derived from a fair and impartial examination personally performed by them
C. It must be done personally or with the aid of the legally authorized criminology practitioners
D. It shall be based solely and entirely on logical and scientific deductions and conclusions

109. It is easily duped because his or her motivation for easy gain lowers his or her natural
tendency to be suspicious.
a. Greedy Type – Acquisitive Type
b. Depressive Type
c. Wanton Type – Overly Sensual
d. Tormentor Type

110. What internal processes are used to explain human behavior which social learning
theorists place great emphasis on cognitive processes?
a. Creating and thinking
b. Understanding and remembering
C. Analyzing and understanding
D. Creating and thinking

111. Refers to a type of victim attacked from the target of his or her abuse, such as with
battered women.
A. Depressive Type
B. Greedy Type
C. Tormentor Type
D. Wanton Type

112. In a certain geographical location where all residents are exposed to hazardous
environment (i.e., informal settlers) located near polluted industrial sites, the likelihood that
children born there may be inclined to criminal activities. Which explains criminal acts are
caused by environmental pollutants?
A. Biopsychosocial
B. Biosocial
C. Biochemical
D. Biopsychological

113. Peter, a questioned document expert, was employed to determine the authenticity of a
testator’s holographic will. In determining his remuneration, which canon of professional
ethics of registered criminologist should be applied?
A. Canon 7. Limitation of Authority
B. Canon 8. Practice of Profession
C. Canon 10. Decorum
D. Canon 9. Malpractice of the Profession

114. John included in his resume that he is an expert in Dactyloscopy although his only
training was when he was taking up Criminology as an undergraduate course. Which canon of
professional ethics of registered criminologists did he violate?
A. Prohibition against self-laudatory or unfair statement or claim regarding to his qualifications
of services.
B. Prohibition against delegation to any unqualified person the performance of any task.
C. Prohibition against the use their position or rank in the law enforcement and other
government services for self-interests.
D. Prohibition in engaging directly or indirectly in any corrupt practices.

115. In order to provide speedy disposition of justice and to unclog the courts. Republic Act No.
9285 was enacted. Which Is the title of this law??
A. Alternative Dispute Resolution Act of 2004
B. Bayanihan Act
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Law
D. The DILG Law

116. A famous movie plot is for the anti-hero to sow crime and discord in order for the human
population to be reduced by murders. Those who survive must learn to be cohesive and law-
abiding thus, improving social integration and social regulation. Which of the following
embraces this idea?
A. Culture conflict theory
B. Structural functionalism
C. Strain theory
D. Social disorganization theory
117. There was a hostage-taking incident and the Philippine National Police responded to
address the situation. In man-made incidents like this, which operational procedure must
guide the actions of the police personnel?
A. Incident Command System
B. PNP Manual on Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation and Investigation
C. Critical Incident Management
D. Police Operational Procedures

118. There was a hostage-taking incident and the Philippine National Police responded to
address the situation. In man-made incidents like this, which operational procedure must
guide the actions of the police personnel?
A. Incident Command System
B. PNP Manual on Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation and Investigation
C. Critical Incident Management
D. Police Operational Procedures

119. The PNP Directorate for Operations has issued an alert bulletin that there is a strong
possibility that a man-made critical Incident may occur within a short period of time. Which is
its equivalent critical Incident alert level?
A. Level 1 (Low) – walang indikasyon
B. Level 4 (Extreme) – inaasahan na
C. Level 2 (Moderate) – posible, pero malabo
D. Level 3 (High) – strong possibility

120. Which is an incident or event whether human-induced or natural disaster that requires
the implementation of special tasks by one or more government agencies?
A. Disaster incident
B. Critical mass rally
C. Critical incident
D. Crisis management

121. This victim directly suffers the harm or injury which is physical, psychological, and
economic losses.
A. Elementary Crime Victim
B. Primary Crime Victim
C. Secondary Crime Victim
D. Tertiary Crime Victims

122. In the Communist Manifesto of Karl Marx, he explained that society is divided into two
classes the workers and capitalists. Which term did he use in describing the workers?
A. Bourgeoisie
B. Proletariat
C. Laborer
D. Middlemen

123. Pedro does not want to interact with the rich in his neighborhood and prefer to be
associated with people possessing the same economics status as with him. In this situation a
sub-culture is born that may produce disorganization in the youth as opposed to conventional
and traditional values. This is a classic example of which theory?
A. Social Conflict
B. Social Process
C. Social Control
D. Social Structure

Specific Answer: Cultural Deviance

124. Which refers to self-focused attention toward one’s thoughts and feeling?
A. Depression
B. Frustration
C. Aggression
D. Rumination

125. Prevention capability, is essential for physical security. For man-made incidents, which of
the following courses of action is NOT an appropriate measure?
A. Warning and alert systems to minimize the effects of terrorism attacks.
B. Alertness to signs and manifestations of suspicious looking individuals.
C. Peace negotiations among warring parties. – nangyari na
D. Active and passive security measures.

126. This way of life is based on mutual help. When there is abundance all are fed, when food
it scarce all are hungry. Furthermore, a person is subordinate to nature and becomes
materialistic and selfish. Which is being referred to in this situation?
A. Socialism
B. Altruism
C. Communism
D. Anomie

127. What deals with collecting data and testing hypotheses or answering questions concerning
the current status of the subject of study? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Basic
B. Historical
C. Descriptive
D. Evaluative

128. Identify the classification of research which aims at finding a practical solution for an
immediate problem of society while making optimal use of available resources? (December
2022, CLE)
A. Historical
B. Basic – discovering a knowledge
C. Evaluative
D. Applied

129. The word “research” originated from the old French word “recerchier”. What is the
meaning of this word? (December 2022, CLE)
A. To define and study
B. To find and comprehend
C. To know and understand
D. To search and search again

Note: The ultimate purpose of research – to improve man’s welfare.

130. Which of the following DOES NOT characterize anomie?

A. It is the ability to adjust easily to changing norms.
B. It is a conflict within the norms itself.
C. It is the inability to adjust on changing norms.
D. It is the failure of the individuals to internalize the norms of the society.

131. The following choices are general behavior traits of a psychopath, EXCEPT?
A. are prone to use of cold-blooded instrumental intimidation and violence to satisfy their wants
and needs
B. generally are contemptuous of social norms and the rights of others
C. not motivated by thrill servicing and excitement
D. lack a normal sense of ethics and morality and live by their own roles

132. Which refers to a condition when psychopaths demonstrate normal appraisal of

emotional cause and situations in the abstract verbal discussion, but they are deficient in using
emotional cues to guide their judgments and behavior in the process of living?
A. Emotional paradox
B. Cerebral symmetry
C. Brain imbalance
D. Hemisphere asymmetry

133. The rights of the respondents must be respected and cannot be bargained away under
the course of research undertaking. Which is an act of seclusion of confidentiality is being
removed from public view or knowledge? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Consent
B. Secrecy
C. Identity
D. Privacy
134. Researches may use any relevant material in the conduct of the study. Which refers to the
type of data that is collected by researchers directly from main sources through any of the
methods of data collection?
A. Secondary
B. Primary
C. Historical
D. Statistical

135. Research may be conducted to test or conduct experiments for educational, scientific,
medical, experimental purposes. Which classification of research takes place in an
environment designed by the researchers? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Case
B. Descriptive
C. Laboratory
D. Field

136. A good hypothesis has the ability to anticipate the future. Which is NOT a criterion for
good hypotheses? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Hypotheses are the basis for the formulation of conceptual paradigm
B. Hypotheses have clear implications for testing the relationships between variables.
C. Hypotheses contain two or more variables that are measurable.
D. Hypotheses are statement about relationships between variables.

137. Dan is conducting his research. He used the references cited in a published research of his
study. These references are considered as ___ source.
A. secondary
B. other
C. primary
D. tertiary

138. Research is a process of systematic inquiry involving data collection. Which provides
baseline data or a description of how things are? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Analytical research
B. Descriptive research
C. Experimental research
D. Historical research

139. Data collection is a process of collecting information from all relevant sources to find
answers to the research problem, test the hypothesis, and analyze the results. Which is NOT a
tool in data collection for research? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Interview
B. Social media
C. Focus group discussions
D. Questionnaires
140. It selects the idea that low female and delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency
which the police treat female offenders.
A. Masculinity Hypothesis – low female crime rate
B. Peacemaking Criminology
C. Social Bond
D. Utilitarianism

141. Who is the designated CHAIRMAN of the Anti-Terrorism Council (ATC) of the Philippines?
A. The Executive Secretary
B. The National Security Adviser
C. The Secretary of National Defense
D. The President of the Philippines

142. What is the criminological approach that believes in the symbiotic relationship of man his
behavior and his society as causes of crime?
A. Radical
B. Environmental
C. Functionalist
D. Ecological

143. Who is the professional in the forensic system qualified to moderate between the mental
health and legal expert?
A. Psychiatrist
B. Clinical Criminology
C. Pathologist
D. Psychologist

144. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study of society, which to him
passes through stages divided on the basis of how people try to understand it, leading them to
adopt a rational scientific understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive stage and
those who followed his writings were called _________
a. August Comte
b. Positivists
c. Positivism
d. Sociologists

145. How do biopsychosocial theories differ from sociological theories of crime?

A. Both focus on one factor in explaining crime.
B. Biopsychosocial focuses on one factor while sociological theory focuses on multi-factors.
C. Biopsychosocial covers the concept of biological, psychological, and sociological causes of
crime while sociological is limited on the social, institutional, and environmental factors.
D. Biopsychosocial is limited to human factors while sociological focuses on social and
environmental factors.
146. Which factor in biopsychosocial study is related to the perfectionistic tendency that may
trigger depression or aggression of man? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Social
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Psychological

147. Identify the criminal classification of Cesare Lombroso that are not criminal born birth, and
that they become criminal as a result some changes in their brains that interfere with their
ability to distinguish between right and wrong.
A. Criminaloids
B. Criminal by passion
C. Insane criminals
D. Habitual criminals

148. Freda Adler describes female criminality as both women’s liberation movement and new
feminism. Taking into account Adler’s premise which of the following will be the trend of crimes
committed by women? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Will be extinguished
B. Will be higher than male
C. Will be equal to male
D. Will still be lower

149. The principle that events including criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.
a. Atavism
b. Narcissism – excessive self-importance
c. Determinism
d. Positivism

150. Which theory views that people become criminals when significant members of society
brand them as such and they accept those labels as a personal identity?
A. Social Control
B. Social Learning
C. Social Process – ito yung Social Learning
D. Social Reaction

151. In the psychological analysis of profiling female criminals, both Cyril Burt and Willer
Bonger agree that females are less dominant than males. Generating from their ideas towards
female criminality, which is NOT included in this less dominant behavior?
A. Fear
B. Forgiveness
C. Tenderness
D. Toughness
152. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
a. Split mind
b. Psychosis
c. Neurosis
d. Schizophrenia

153. The research participants must have an informed choice about whether to participate in a
research study. Which refers to an agreement to participate in the study where agreement is
obtained directly from the person?
A. Substitute Consent
B. Direct Consent
C. Informal Agreement
D. Voluntary Agreement

154. What kind of development refers to the growth of the body? (December 2022, CLE)
A Moral
B. Cognitive
C. Psychosocial
D. Physical

155. A psychopath is calloused, unemotional, and morally deprived. Which is the central or
cardinal feature of psychopaths? (December 2022, CLE)
a. Impulsivity
b. Success
C. Cunning ability
D. Kind hearted

156. Who is recommended to be employed when negotiations break down and none of the
mentioned methods work and the negotiator finds himself/herself in a deadlock?
A. Secretary negotiator
B. Mediator
C. Third negotiator
D. Intermediary

157. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, flees with hostages, and kills a
number of people while in flight diving a chase would be an example of:
a. Serial Murder
b. Spree Murder
c. Mass Murder
d. Multiple Murder

158. Public officials and employees must process documents and papers expeditiously. As
much as practicable, how many signatories must be contained in these documents?
A. No limit
B. Three
C. Two
D. One

159. Which of the following is characterized by emotional disturbances that lead to mental
illness? (It talks about Juvenile Delinquent)
A. Environmental
B. Psychiatric
C. Abnormal
D. Emotional maladjustments

160. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father and mother share similar roles in the
workplace and power in the family.
a. Feminist theory
b. Egalitarian family
c. Patriarchal family
d. Matriarchal family

161. These views suggest that males such as judges, police officers, and prosecutors tend to
have traditional views on women thus, they are more lenient to them as compared to their
male counterparts.
a. Paternalism
b. Chivalry Hypothesis
c. Masculinity Hypothesis – low female crime rate
d. Power Control Theory – John Hagan – classification of family according to power or decision
maker

162. This new branch in criminology opposes the theoretical perspective and proposes the
involvement of all stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions.
a. Peacemaking Criminology
b. Sociology of Law
c. Restorative Justice
d. Non-Violent Criminological Hypothesis

163. Determine the effect of prolonging the time on the hostage perspective?
A. Decreases human needs
B. Increases anxiety
C. Enjoyment
D. Reduces opportunity for escape

164. This crimes are those that the lower class commit against the upper class of society in a
capitalist system
a. Crimes of Passion
b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance – Blue Collar Crime
c. Crimes of Domination and Repression
d. Crimes of Lower class group

165. The following are the elements of the positivistic approach which stresses a scientific
method rather than a philosophical orientation. EXCEPT___________.
A. Fitness of the punishment to the crime = CLASSICAL APPROACH
B. Application of the scientific method
C. Discovery and diagnosis of pathology (sickness) that underlies the criminal’s actions.
D. Individual treatment (therapy or corrections) = POSITIVIST BELIEVES THAT CRIMINALS HAVE
ILLNESS THAT NEED TO BE TREAT/CURE

166. According to Sigmund Freud, which term refers to the instinctual drive towards aggression
and violence?
A. ego ideal
B. Thanatos
C. eros
D. conscience

167. Which is not included in the Gresham Sykes and David Matza`s techniques of
neutralization?
A. Whether individuals will refrain from or commit a crime at any given time, it depends on the
past, present, and anticipated future rewards and punishment of their action.
B. Denial of harm to the victim in which the assault is justified because the person harmed was
also a criminal.
C. Denial of harm to anyone, such as defining stealing as “borrowing” or drug abuse as harming
no one but the offender
D. Condemning the condemners, reversing the labeling process by claiming that authorities are
more corrupt than the offender and are hypocritical as well

168. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the

a. Proletariat – laborer; lower class; worker
b. Bourgeois – upper class; capitalist
c. Capitalist
d. Ruling class

169. Choose the option where PNP members shall conduct themselves properly at all times
keeping with the rules and regulations of the organization.
A. Trust
B. Discipline
C. Confidence
D. Loyalty
170. This theory believes that society is divided into two groups with competing values the
upper class and lower class.
a. Class Theory
b. Differential Opportunity – Crime is due to legitimate opportunity (Lloyd Ohlin)
c. Conflict Theory – Karl Marx
d. Consensus Theory – society has harmony between upper class and lower class

171. Which refers to a system utilized to foster the improvement of individual efficiency and
behavioral discipline as well as the promotion of organizational effectiveness in the police
force?
A. Performance
B. Performance governance
C. Grievance machinery
D. Promotion assessment

NOTE: PGS = PERFORMANCE GOVERNANCE SYSTEM

172. The term criminology was originally derived from Italian word:
a. crimen – latin word
b. criminologo
c. criminologia – Raffaele Garofalo - 1885
d. criminology

Criminologie – French – Paul Topinard – 1887

173. The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and concept of other sciences
and field of study which makes the study of criminology:
a. Dynamic - changing
b. Nationalistic – we study our own criminal law
c. Social science – study of people and community
d. An applied science

174. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship between criminality and the
inhabitants (population) of a certain locality:
a. Ecology
b. Demography
c. Epidiomology
d. Physical anthropology

175. Identify the child who has no proper parental love or guardianship or whose parents or
guardians have deserted him for a period of at least six continuous months?
A. Dependent
B. Abandoned
C. Independent
D. Neglected

Note:
6 months - Old
3 months – New

176. Youths who fail in both the criminal and conflict subcultures tend to go into other areas
of delinquency and deviant behavior like drinking alcoholic liquor, smoking and drug
addiction. This statement is consistent with which of the following?
A. social structure
B. retreatist subculture
C. conflict subculture
D. criminal subculture

177. It is the process by which individual reduce the frequency of their offending behavior as
the age increases.
a. doing gender
b. aging out – tinatawag din na Spontaneous Rescission
c. criminal reduction
d. active precipitation

178. Which of the following is NOT a part of working definition of restorative justice?
a. Protection
b. Isolation
c. Prevention
d. Diversion

179. Which refers to a type of stalker perhaps considered as the most dangerous to the victim
since it is often motivated by the stalker’s determination that "If I can't have you, nobody
will”.
A. Love obsession stalker
B. Simple obsession stalker
C. Erotomania stalker
D. Vengeance stalker

180. Which of the following exemplifies that all members of the PNP should act in a manner
that would reflect best on the PNP and live by the PNP's core values?
A. Delicadeza – moral courage to sacrifice self-interest
B. Equality in the Service
C. PNP Image
D. Career Management

181. Which of the following describes forensic victimology?

A. The idiographic and nomothetic study of violent crime victims for the purposes of addressing
investigation forensic issues
B. An approach to victimology a criminological or legal perspective, where the scope of the
study is defined by criminal law
C. The study of victimology in the broadest sense, including those that have been harmed by
accidents, natural disasters, war, and so on
D. The scientific study of victims and victimization, including the relationship between victims
and offender, investigators courts, corrections, media, and social movements

182. A psychological disorder in which a child shows developmentally inappropriate impulsivity,

hyperactivity and lack of attention.
a. psychotism
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. neuroticism
d. KSP disorder

183. An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed to bring financial gain to the
offender. a. organized crime
b. economic crime
c. cyber crime
d. profit crime – walang ganito sa typology of crimes

184. The following are authorized to practice the Criminology profession under RA 11131,
EXCEPT?________.
A. Holders of valid temporary/special permits issued by the Board and the Commission to
foreign licensed criminologists pursuant to RA 11131
B. Duly registered criminologists and holders of valid certificates of registration and valid
professional identification cards issued by the Board and the Commission pursuant to RA 11131
C. Partnership duly registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) as
professional partnership pursuant to the Civil Code and composed of partners one-third of
whom are registered criminologists – MAJORITY DAPAT HINDI ONE THIRD
D. Single proprietorship whose owner and technical staff are registered criminologists

185. What does the Doctrine of Reciprocal Responsibility mean?

A. Development of a favorable public attitude towards the government
B. Local residents and police officers in the area shall meet regularly to discuss peace and order
problems.
C. The participation and support of the citizenry in anti-crime campaign is indispensable
D. Command of line elements of the PNP shall be as close as practicable to the People

186. It is a proposal of a double male or super male syndrome. This theory held that the
possession of an extra Y-chromosome causes males to be violent and aggressive.
a. XYY syndrome
b. XXY syndrome
c. YYX syndrome
d. YXX syndrome

187. It involves the measurement of facial (physiognomy) and other body characteristics
(somatology) as indicative of human personality.
a. Physiology
b. Somatotype – body build
c. Physiognomy - facial feature
d. Palmistry

188. A type of violent offender who uses violence as a means of perpetrating the criminal act:
a. Culturally violent offender – low income person
b. pathologically violent offender – due to mental disorder
c. Criminally violent offender
d. Situationally violent offender – burst of feelings, passion, accidental.

189. Which refers to capacities enabling adjudication of decisions, enforcement of remedies

and accountability of the process through civil society and parliamentary oversight?
A. Normative protection
B. Supply of remedies
C. Demand for remedies
D. Customary protection

190. When the accused in criminal prosecution is acquitted on the ground that his guilt is not
proved beyond reasonable doubt, what other legal remedies are available to the complainant?
A. Re-file the criminal case
B. There is no more legal remedy
C. Report the case to the media
D. File a civil case

191. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that
whose action arises from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti-social
components of his personality?
a. Acute – “criminaloids”; criminal be passion, anger or burst of feelings
b. Chronic – deliberate thinking (rational thinker)
c. Neurotic
d. Normal – idolization, imitation, copy cat crime (Gabriel Tarde)

192. Which child is determined by the LSWDO to have been maltreated whether habitual or
not?
A. Dependent
B. Abused
C. Neglected
D. Abandoned
193. It is the most essential part of the definition of the criminal law:
a. Elements
b. Penalty
c. Degree of evidence
d. Motive

194. The concept that conduct norms are passed down from one generation to the next so
that they become stable within the boundaries of a culture.
a. Heredity
b. Inheritance
c. Cultural transmission
d. DNA

• Heredity – transmission of traits

• Inheritance – transmission of properties and assets
• Cultural transmission – transmission of norms

195. This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free Will Study, stating that its absence
among mentally retardate persons or those with some psychological imbalances and
personality disorders or physical disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of laws thereby
citing said theory as one of crime causation.
a. Classical Criminology
b. Positivist Criminology
c. Neoclassical Criminology
d. Social Structure Theory

196. Which is NOT a physically neglected child?

A. Ill-clad without proper shelter
B. Mentally subnormal – emotional kasi to e, physical hinahanap
C. Child who is unattended when left by himself without provision of his needs and/or without
proper supervision
D. When a child is malnourished

197. The ____________ presupposes that child offenders are also afforded all the rights of a
CICL until he/she is proven to be eighteen (18) years old or older .
A. presumption of innocence
B. presumption of constitutionality
C. presumption of regularity
D. presumption of minority

198. Criminals who have a high degree of organization to enable them to commit crimes
without being detected.
a. Professional criminals
b. ordinary criminals
c. Organized criminals
d. expert criminals – use of technology

199. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ wherein he concluded that the main
difference between a criminal and a non criminal is that each is responding to different sets of
conduct norms.
a. Emile Durkheim – anomie/ crime is normal
b. Andre Michael Guerry – “crime mapping”
c. Johan Thorsten Sellin – conflict between upper class and lower class
d. Abraham Maslow – hierarchy of needs

200. This school of thought in criminology states that although individuals have self-rule, there
are other factors that affect the exercise of their autonomy, which cause them commit crimes:
a. Neo-classical
b. Utilitarianism
c. Classical
d. Positivist

201. Which is NOT applicable to both juvenile or adult criminal justice system?
A. The right to receive four told warnings applies only to adults but not on juvenile offenders
B. Police Officers, judges and correctional personnel use of discretion in the decision making in
both the adult and the juvenile system
C. Juveniles and adults are protected from prejudicial line ups or other identification procedures
D. Similar procedural safeguards protect juveniles and adults when they make an admission of
guilt

202. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states that individuals copy behavior
patterns of other individuals, and that those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced
easier by those with stronger personalities:
a. Emile Durkheim
b. Adolphe Quetelet
c. Gabriel Tarde
d. Enrico Ferri

203. Which characteristics of research deals with facts and not with mere opinions arising
from assumptions, generalization, predictions or conclusions?
A. Accuracy
B. Objectivity – deals with facts and not with opinions
C. Relevance
D. Clarity

204. Patrolman Dan Dela Cruz is assigned with the PNP Human Resource Doctrine and
Development. He was tasked to determine the schooling of choice of newly graduated recruits
using the variables, collegiate course and gender, for this purpose he used explanatory research
because ________
A. It focuses on the reasons behind the occurrence of something and on the present and future
effects of such happening
B. It aims to define or give verbal portrayal or picture of a person, a things, an event, a group, or
a situation
C. It shows relationships or connectedness between two variables
D. It analyzes data collected by others

205. This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that ancestry
determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior
including criminal behavior:
a. Nature Theory
b. Psychological theory
c. Strain Theory
d. Labeling theory

206. The theory which states that attachment, connection and link to society will determine
whether a person shall commit a crime or not:
a. Social Control
b. Social Disorganization
c. Social Bond - Travis Hirschi
d. Social Learning

207. This asserts that strong self-image protects the youth from the influence and pressure of
criminogenic pulls (temperation) in his environment.
a. Rational Choice theory – modern name of classical school
b. Conflict theory – conflict between bourgeois and proletariat – Karl Marx
c. Label theory
d. Containment theory = Walter Reckless

208. The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who violate the rights of others deserve
to be punished. The severity of the punishment should be commensurate with the seriousness
of the crime.
a. restorative justice
b. jus desert
c. utilitarianism
d. equality of punishment

209. A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls below levels necessary for normal and
efficient brain functioning.
a. hyperglycemia
b. hyperglycomia
c. hypoglycemia – Bio-chemical Theory
d. hypoglycomia

210. Group of urban sociologists who studies the relationship between environmental
conditions and crime.
a. classical school
b. chicago school
c. neo-classical school
d. positivist school

*Chicago School – Social Structure Theories (Clifford Shaw and Henry McKay)

211. This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on
the need for the quality among all citizens. They provided statistical data which claimed to
show that variations in crime rates are associated with variations in economic conditions.
a. Cartographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Chicago School

KEYWORDS for Cartographic School

• C – climate
• S – statistics
• L – location

212. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion). This was the term used by Philippe
Pinel describing the personality that is characterized by an inability to learn from experience,
lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt better known as:
a. psychotic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior – anxiety, depression, mania and phobia
d. dementia praecox – schizophrenia

213. This theory focuses on the development of high crime areas associated with the
disintegration of conventional values caused by rapid industrialization, increased migration and
urbanization.
a. Cultural Deviance Theory
b. Differential Association Theory
c. Social Disorganization Theory
d. Strain Theory

214. Ericka was once a victim of robbery (snatching) when she was walking along a well lighted
street in a certain part of the city. When she became a law enforcer, it came into her knowledge
that two of her colleagues were also victims of robbery on the same street. She was intrigued
to discover if there was some relationship between her demeanor and being a victim of
robbery, Can the personal experience of be a source of a research problem?
A. No. It will be grandstanding on the part of the researcher to use her personal experience for a
research.
B. Yes. The researcher can do what she prefers since it is her research.
C. Yes. The experience or genuine interest of a researcher can be a source of research problem
D. No. Using the personal experience of the researcher will produce a biased research problem

215. According to him, people with criminal behavior, should be prohibited from having
children.
a. Robert Dugdale
b. Henry Goddard
c. Charles Goring
d. George Wilker

216. In grounded theory, the researcher sometimes uses zigzag sampling. Which of the
following exemplifies the sampling design?
A. The researcher returns to the previous data to validate a new theory
B. It utilizes the number of years and the extent or new knowledge gained from the study
C. It uses sensory perception in order to understand the characteristics of people
D. The researcher attempts to explain the reason behind the existence of an object or a person.

217. Which is NOT an approach in qualitative research?

A. Home research
B. Grounded theory
C. Ethnography
D. Action research

218. A criminologist studied about the types of inmates in prison and how they interact with
each other in order to understand why some inmates adapt to incarceration more easily than
others. The objective of the study is to propose a general theory of inmate behavior that
extends to all similar inmate populations. The researcher utilized ETHNOGRAPHY (study of a
particular “group” of people) as his research design. How is ethnography suitable to the purpose
of the study?
A. It studies certain group to gain clear understanding of its internal operations or lifestyle
B. It studies how people find their experiences meaningful.
c. It involves a lengthy study of a person, group or situation.
d. It prevents the discrimination of ethnic groups.

219. Select the statistical methodology were the researcher calculates the mean, median, and
mode.
A. Survey
B. Descriptive Statistics
C. Inferential Statistics
D. Arithmetic

220. The researcher wanted to determine the most suitable fabric to be used for patrol
uniforms. He selected three groups of respondents and made them wear patrol shirts made
with different fabrics. The respondents rated the shirt according to comfort durability and
washability. Select the method of data collection used by the researcher.
A. Interview
B. Experiment
C. Observation
D. Questionnaire

221. The appropriate term use to define a sudden condition or state of an affairs calling for
immediate action or intervention.
a. Crisis – sudden change of normal condition from normal to abnormal
b. Emergency – sudden event that requires immediate action
c. Tragedy
d. Disaster – uncontrollable

222. A phase of police use of deadly force in which oral and other form of communication is
being utilized or simply it means the actual negotiation.
a. Anticipation
b. Aftermath
c. Dialogue (negotiation)
d. Initial Confrontation

• 1st step in hostage taking negotiation – containment / crowd control

• Last option – assault

223. Crime is a product of transitional neighborhoods (difference in place of residence) and

manifest social disorganization and value conflict.
a. Concentric zone theory - Ernest Burgess
b. Social ecology theory
c. General strain theory
d. Anomie theory – normlessness

Explanation:
The more the residences are near the central business areas the more crime will happen.

224. Age at which youths begin their delinquent careers

a. Adolescent
b. Age on onset
c. Aging out
d. Delinquent careers
225. He was the forerunner of instrumentalist theory. He argued that upper class creates laws
that protect their interest and at the same time the unwanted behavior of all other members of
society.
a. Ralf Dahrendorf
b. Willem Bonger
c. George Vold
d. Richard Quinney

226. A person with mental defectiveness of such a degree that he is unable to guard himself
against common physical dangers.
A. Feeble–Minded – require care, supervision and control
b. Idiot – compared to 2 years old
c. Imbecile – compared to 2 – 7 years old
d. Schizophrenia

227. They are parents who are punitive and enforce forceful disciplinary measures. These
parents are not responsive to their children and show little warmth and support.
a. Authoritarian Parents = rigid rules, high expectations but lacking support
b. Authoritative Parents =rigid rules, high expectations; supportive
c. Indifferent Parents = neglectful
d. Indulgent Parents = permissive

228. Also known as The Child and Youth Welfare Code

a. PD 603 – Child Probation Law
b. R.A 9344 - JJWA
c. C PD 968 – Adult Probation Law
d. None of these

229. Phrase meaning "For the Proceeding" referring to adults who look after the welfare of a
child and represent their legal interests
a. In Loco parentis = Special Parental Authority/ Teachers, Guardian
b. Guardian Ad litem
c. Parens Patriae = The state becomes the Father
d. None of these

230. The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights, also a form of child
abuse in most states. Sporadic visits, a few phone calls, or birthday cards are not sufficient to
maintain parental rights.
a. Exploitation
b. Abuse
c. Neglect
d. Abandonment
231. Refers to a 24-hour child-caring institution established, funded and managed by local
government units (LGUs) and licensed and/or accredited nongovernment organizations
(NGOs) providing short-term residential care for children in conflict with the law who are
above fifteen (15) but below eighteen (18) years of age who are awaiting court disposition of
their cases or transfer to other agencies or jurisdiction.
a. Youth-Rehabilitation center
b. Youth-Detention Home = amended, ginawang Bahay Pag-asa
c. Bahay Pag-asa = as provided by RA 10630 (Sec.2 amending sec. 4 of RA 9344)
d. Bantay Bata 163

232. What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult court for conviction in
juvenile court which was based on idea that first conviction was a "civil" matter?
a. Breed vs. Jones (1975)
b. Deshaney vs. Winnebago county (1989)
c. In Re Gault (1967) – Requires separate justice system
d. None of these

233. The first Juvenile or Family court was established in

a. Arizona
b. Cook County, Illinois
c. San Francisco, California
d. None of these

234. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law
enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as:
A. Arrest
B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
D. All of the above

Note: No handcuff, search provided that same gender will conduct the search.

235. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as the legal guardian of the child even
though the parents of the child are still alive when the best interest of the said child so
require.
a. Adopter
b. Loco parentis
c. Guardian ad litem
d. Temporary guardian

236. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have been commenced upon:
a. birth of the child
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday
c. from the time of his conception – conception means pregnancy
d. upon reaching the age of majority

237. A child born inside a marriage where either party is suffering from any legal impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child

238. Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime
charged, the court shall:
a. Pronounce its judgment;
b. Wait for the application for suspension of sentence of the child and order his turn over to
DSWD.
C. Automatically place the child in conflict with law under suspension of sentence.
D. Determine the civil liability and order the final discharge of the child in conflict with the law.

Follow up Question – Where shall we put the child while under suspended sentence:
Answer – Bahay Pagasa
Follow up Question – until when?
Answer – until the age of 18

239. An alternative, child-appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment

of a child in conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic,
psychological or educational background without resulting to formal court proceedings.
a. Intervention
b. Diversion
c. Rehabilitation
d. Probation

240. A series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the child to
commit an offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program which may
include counseling, skills training, education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being.
a. Diversion
b. Rehabilitation
c. Intervention
d. Probation

241. Which of the following became the model institution for all American juvenile offenders?
A. Reformatory School
B. House of Refuge
C. House of Ill refute
D. Bridewell Palace
Question – What is the best institution of juvenile delinquents? = BORSTAL (London, Boys 16-
21) – Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise

242. In what year was the New York House of Refuge, the first to segregate juvenile offenders
and adult criminals established?
a. 1845
b. 1824
c. 1899 - The first juvenile court was established in Chicago, Illinois
d. 1812

243. Children are declared as ____________ in situations of armed conflict:

a. priorities for evacuation
b. exemptions
c. zones of peace
d. shields

244. The power of the state to give any form of charity of public nature. It is the philosophy
behind the view that youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim of improper
care and that the state is duty bound to provide protection.
a. positivism
b. loco parentis
c. patria potestas
d. parens patriae

4 Latin Terms related to Juvenile Justice:

• Parens patriae – “father of the land”; “charity”; CICL are not criminals but victims
• Patria Potestas – “parental authority” – power of the parent to control and person and
property of the child
• Loco parentis – temporary guardian (teachers, nurses, babysitter)
• Guardian Ad Litem – guardian appointed by court to act as guardian in a legal proceeding.

245. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs /or without proper supervision
falls under what special category of a child?
a. abandoned child
b. abused child
c. neglected child
d. dependent child

246. In the absence or death of both parents of the child who shall continue to exercise
authority over the child?
I. Surviving grand parents – 1st
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age – 2nd
III. Surviving parents of child
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age. - 3rd
a. I, II and IV only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, III only
d. all of the above

Note: Substitute parental authority doctrine

247. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions, which are most congenial to
the survival, protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the
child's physical, psychological and emotional development.
a. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure
b. Special Protection of Minor
c. Restorative Juvenile Justice
d. Best Interest of the Child

• If the parent got separated ➔ Tender years doctrine

• Below 7 ➔ Maternal preference
• 7 or older ➔ Power of choice

248. Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child by subsequent marriage of his/her
parents.
a. illegitimate
b. legitimated
c. legitimate
d. adopted

249. In case of separation between parents of the child, a child of such age is given by the
court the preference to choose between either parents.
a. under 9 years of age
b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age
d. 5 years of age

Note: Psychological Parent Doctrine

250. Which of the following is the best way for the police to win youth’s trust and confidence?
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a person in authority

251. In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall be determine. In the absence of
proof what principle shall be observed?
a. He is presumed to be minor (presumption of minority)
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced pending such issuance he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to prove his age.

252. It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims
and their inability to respond to repeated physical and psychological violence?
a. Battered Woman Syndrome
b. Battered Wife
c. Abused Woman
d. Rape trauma syndrome

253. Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion program without necessity of court
intervention on the following:
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed is not more than six (6) years
imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment;
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years but not more
than 12 years imprisonment;
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed does not exceeds 12 years
imprisonment.

Summary – When to Conduct diversion?

• 6 years and below – diversion will held in police, brgy or DSWD
• above 6 years – the case should be filed in court
• How long is the diversion program – 45 days

254. Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age of 18 while under suspended
sentence the court may:
A. Order the execution of sentence (yes)
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the law (yes)
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period or to its maximum age of 21 (yes)
D. Any of the above choices

255. All records and proceedings involving children in conflict with the law from initial contact
until final disposition of the case shall be:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part of the public record;
b. open to the public;
c. considered restricted;
d. considered privileged and confidential

Follow up Question – what is the nature of hearing involving cases of CICL? Answer – Closed
court Follow up Question – what do we call the court that will handle the case? Answer –
Family court
Age of full criminal responsibility: 18 – 70 years old

256. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street 24 hours a day with no place to go,
surviving on foods given by kind hearted people with no one to supervise him at his young age
of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro as a child?
a. Neglected child
b. Independent child
c. Abandoned child
d. Dependent child

257. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do
you classify her as a victim?
a. an adult
b. an insane
c. a child
d. an adolescent

258. This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her personal services or those of a person
under his or her control as security or payment for a debt, when the length and nature of
services are not clearly defined:
a. debt bondage
b. involuntary servitude
c. abuse
d. slavery

259. A working child below fifteen years old may be allowed to work for only _______ hours
per day:
a. eight
b. four
c. five
d. six

• 15 below – 4hrs a day (6am – 8pm)

• Above 15 less than 18 – 8hrs a day (6am – 10pm)

260. Publication of photographs of persons or children in various obscene or indecent poses

meant to cause sexual excitement to those who will see them is a form of:
a. Adult entertainment
b. Illegal publication
c. Obscene material
d. Pornography
261. Employers shall provide an opportunity for education to all working children up to this
level:
a. elementary
b. college
c. secondary
d. vocational

262. This refers to any word or deed which debases , degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth
and dignity of the child as human being.
a. Neglect
b. Psychological abuse
c. Sexual abuse
d. Cruelty

263. This refers to the use, hiring, employment and coercing of children as actors or models in
printed pornographic materials:
a. indecent shows
b. child prostitution
c. obscene publication
d. child exploitation

264. The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and purposes of human trafficking:
a. R.A. 9344 – Juvenile Justice and Welfare System act of 2006
b. R.A. 9231 – The law Prohibiting the worst forms of child labor
c. R.A. 9208
d. R.A. 8043 – Intercountry Adoption
e. R.A. 8552 – Domestic Adoption Law

265. 1st . The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when the trafficked person is a child.
(true) 2nd . As a general rule, children below 15 years of age shall not be employed. (true)
a. Both statements are correct.
b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is incorrect.
c. The 1 st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect

266. It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the woman or her child resulting to the
physical and psychological or emotional distress.
a. Stalking
b. Economic abuse
c. Battery
d. Sexual violence

267. A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may work but his work hours must not
exceed ____ hours:
a. eight
b. seven
c. ten
d. six

268. This form of child abuse includes lacerations, fractured bones, burns, internal injuries and
serious bodily harm suffered by a child:
a. Psychological
b. Emotional
c. Physical
d. Cruelty

269. Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the adopter and the adoptee must first
undergo a supervised trial custody for a period of:
a. at least six months
b. not more than six months
c. at least one year
d. not less than one year

• Who are adopters?

Filipino
o Legal age – 21 y/o
o Age gap 16 years
o GMRC
o Not convicted of any crime

Alien
o At least 27 y/o
o 16 years gap
o GMRC
o Not convicted
o 3 years resident of the Philippines
o From a country with diplomatic relations

270. This refers to the document issued by the court signifying the approval of the application
for adoption:
a. decree of adoption
b. petition for adoption – application
c. annulment
d. rescission – taking back of child

271. A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily committed to the DSWD or to a duly
licensed child placement agency and is free from parental authority:
a. child legally available for adoption
b. legally-free child
c. emancipated child
d. abandoned child

• CLAAD – child legally available for adoption

• Abandonment must after 3 months

272. The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic suspension of sentence until the maximum age
of __:
a. twenty-three
b. eighteen
c. twenty-one
d. twenty

273. In case the child has been found guilty by the court, he shall be ordered to be transferred
to _______:
a. Youth Rehabilitation Center
b. a youth detention home – for children under trial
c. a city or municipal jail - for adults
d. an agricultural camp – incorrigible child

274. Preliminary investigation shall only be conducted when the:

a. CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b. CICL is disqualified for diversion
c. CICL acted with discernment
d. Victim filed the complaint

275. The first important thing that a law enforcer must do upon initial contact is to ____:
a. Know the age of the child
b. Notify the local DSWD
c. Call the parents
d. Make a report

276. The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict with the law lies with the
_______: a. Social worker – determing discernment
b. Law enforcer
c. CICL
d. Judge

277. The age of full criminal responsibility is:

a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years old

278. It pertains to the document that must be signed by the parents of the child in conflict
with the law as part of the conditions of diversion:
a. Contract of diversion proceedings
b. Certification of conciliation
c. Memorandum of agreement
d. Contract of diversion

279. A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen years of age (exempted) shall be
turned over to the ________________ by the police for the determination of appropriate
program:
a. Nearest police station
b. Family
c. Local DSWSD
d. Court

Note: All exempted CICL shall be put into intervention program.

280. The diversion proceedings must be completed within ____ days:

a. thirty
b. forty-five
c. sixty
d. twenty

281. The ________________ has the right to refuse the diversion program designed for the
child:
a. offended party
b. parents of the child
c. victim
d. social worker

Follow up Question – What will happen if the mother or father refuses diversion?
Answer – Filing of charges

282. When the court decides to execute the suspended sentence, the child must be
transferred to a:
a. Youth rehabilitation center – under suspended sentence
b. Youth detention home – on going trial
c. Agricultural farm – Camp Vicente Madrigal
d. Prison

Note: If the child is incorrigible, the sentence may be executed

283. It shall be the duty of the ______________________ to make proper recommendation to
the court regarding the disposition of the child who is undergoing rehabilitation while under
suspension of sentence:
a. prosecutor
b. social worker
c. lawyer
d. judge

284. The age of full criminal irresponsibility is:

a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with discernment
b. 18 to 70 years old
c. 15 years old and below
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with discernment

4 crimes not applicable to CICL:

• Sniffing of Rugby
• Prostitution
• Mendicancy
• Violation of Ordinances

285. From the moment a child is taken into custody, the law enforcement officer shall
immediately but not later than ____ hours after apprehension, turnover custody of the child to
the Social Welfare and Development Office.
A. Nine
B. Eight
C. Seven
D. Six

286. An Act Strengthening (amended) the Juvenile Justice System in the Philippines.
A. RA 9344
B. RA 10630 – amended RA 9344
C. RA 10627
D. RA 8960

287. It is one of the most important assets of the nation. Thus, every effort should be exerted
to promote his welfare and enhance his opportunities for a useful and happy life.
A. Teenager
B. Kid
C. Child
D. Youth

288. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the Protection of Children (LCPC) in the
formulation and implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion programs in the
community (Brgy.).
a. Women and Children Protection Desk
b. Local Government Unit
c. Sangguniang Kabataan
d. Local Social Welfare and Development

• National level – JJWC under the DSWD

• Local level (LGU) - LCPC
• Brgy level – SK

289. This view asserts that children who started delinquent careers early and committed
violent acts throughout their adolescence would likely to continue as adults.
A. Culture conflict – Johan Thorsten Sellin
B. Persistence (Latent Trait Theory)
C. Containment theory – Walter Reckless
D. Reflective role taking – effect of Social Reaction Theory (labeling)

290. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years of age at the time of the
commission of the crime, he is often referred to as?
A. Socialized delinquent
B. Truant – a child who is always absent for 20 days
C. Criminal
D. Youth offender

• Now is CICL

291. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates youthful offenders or other
disturbed children who have behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
appropriate care for them or recommending their permanent treatment or rehabilitation in
other child welfare agencies?
A. Rehabilitation Center
B. Reintegration Center
C. Reformation Center
D. Restoration Center

Specific answer: BAHAY PAG-ASA

292. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether functional or organic, which of such
a degree of severity as to require professional help or hospitalization?
A. Mentally Ill Children
B. Physically Handicapped Children – blind, deaf, mute, crippled
C. Emotional Disturbed Children – Person with neurosis (emotional problems)
D. Retarded at Maturity – low IQ

CTEB
• Below 25 = custodial / idiot
• 25-49 = trainable / imbecile
• 50-74 = educable / moron
• 75-89 = borderline / dull

293. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and becomes preoccupied with his
feelings is a:
A. Social delinquent
B. Accidental delinquent
C. Asocial delinquent
D. Neurotic delinquent

294. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or seduced; when children are
exploited, over worried or made to beg in the streets or public places, or when children are in
moral danger, or exposed to gambling, prostitution, or other vices.
A. Physically Neglected Child
B. Emotionally Neglected Child
C. Psychologically Neglected Child
D. Sexually Neglected Child

295. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The
members of this classification are only slightly retarded and they can usually get by in regular
classes if they receive some extra help, guidance and consideration.
a. Trainable group – 25 to 49
b. Custodial group – below 25
c. Educable group – 50 - 74
d. Borderline or low normal group / “dull”

296. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result of factors such as personal
problems, ignorance and curiosity.
a. Predisposing factor – internal propensities, mere thoughts and tendencies
b. Environmental factor – family, society, poverty, broken home
c. Biologic factor – physical defects, heredity
d. Precipitating factor

297. What program is required for the child in conflict with the law to undergo after he/she is
found responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings?
A. Diversion
B. Community Service
C. Parole
D. Probation

298. A category of delinquency which may be credited to peer pressure or pure curiosity on
the part of the young person.
A. Social – aggressive and resents authority
b. Accidental
c. Neurotic – preoccupied feeling
d. Asocial – cold, brutal, no remorse, no conscience

299. It asserts that lower class youths with limited legitimate opportunity, join gangs and
pursue a criminal career to achieve alternate means universal success goals.
A. Culture conflict
B. Social development model – life course theory
C. Containment theory - inner control vs outer control
D. Differential Opportunity – Lloyd Ohlin

300. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on delinquency through undertaking
preventive programs, policies and activities.
A. Philippine National Police
B. Department of National Defense – internal and external national security
C. Local Government (City, Municipal, Provincial, Brgy.)
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology – detention and confined of inmates

301. It refers to the programs provided in a community setting developed for purposes of
intervention and diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict with the law, for
reintegration into his/her family and/or community.
a. Community Juvenile Programs
b. Community Rehabilitation Programs
c. Community Outreach Programs
d. Community - Based Programs

302. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the law,
which provides child-appropriate proceedings, including programs and services for prevention,
diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and aftercare to ensure their normal growth and
development.
A. Child Justice and Welfare
B. Youth Justice and Welfare
C. Minor Justice and Welfare
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare System

303. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the Department of Social Welfare and
Development or any duly licensed child placement agency or individual.
A. Placement
B. Commitment – entrusting an inmate to jail
C. Consignment
D. Entrustment
304. Family home type which provide temporary shelter from 10 to 20 days for children under
observation by the DSWD.
A. Receiving homes
B. Maternity homes – for pregnant women and her child
C. Nursery – “day care” – 6 yeas old below
D. Shelter care institution – abandoned, neglected, abused

305. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality for which the youth feels no remorse.
A. Asocial
B. Neurotic
C. Accidental
D. Social

306. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that the status, rights and interests of
children are upheld in accordance with the Constitution and international instruments on
human rights?
a. National Youth Commission
b. Kabataan Partylist
c. Commission on Human Rights – handle cases of violation of human rights committed by LEA.
d. Sangguniang Kabataan

307. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any knowledge of a child who have
been treated or suffered from abuse.
A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of abuse
B. Report the incident to the family
C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
D. File a case in court in behalf of the child

308. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do so with a permit or clearance issued
by: A. The parents
B. The guardians
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
D. Any of the choices

• If the child is traveling alone domestically – parental consent

309. What is a child caring institution that provides care for six or more children below six years
of age twenty-four hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily medical and
educational services?
A. Nursery
B. Detention Home
C. Day Care
D. Maternity
310. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe anxiety, depression, aggressive
or withdrawal behavior.
A. Psychological injury
B. Mental injury
C. Physical injury
D. Emotional injury

Types of Violence
• PEPS – physical, economic, psychological and sexual violence

311. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it refers to the person in authority or
his/her agent as defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a barangay tanod.
a. Police Officer
b. Probation Officer
c. Law Enforcement Officer
d. Public Officer

312. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended or inadequately
attended. A. Abandoned Child
B. Abused Child
C. Neglected Child
D. Dependent Child

313. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.

a. Adolescence – kasunod nito early adulthood 18 to 40 years old
b. Early adolescence
c. Juvenile
d. None of the above

314. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible persons from various sector of the
community that is safeguarding the rights of a working child in a company.
A. Organization
B. Association
C. Club
D. Samahan / Labor Union

315. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short term resident care for youthful
offenders (CICL).
A. Bahay Pag-asa
B. Nursery – 6 years below
C. Child caring institution
D. Foster home – bahay ampunan
316. The parents or guardian of a working child is obligated by law to set up a trust fund
(savings account) for the child which shall constitute at least ____ percent of the earning of the
child.
a. 20
b. 40
c. 30
d. 50

Salary Distribution (RA 9231)

• 100% - working child
• maximum of 20% - share to parents
• minimum of 30% - savings account

317. The Chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council under the law is:
A. The undersecretary of the DOJ
B. The undersecretary of DepEd
C. The undersecretary of the DILG
D. The undersecretary of the DSWD

318. Which system refers to legislation, norms, and standards, procedures, mechanisms,
institutions, and bodies specifically applicable to juvenile offenders?
a. Criminal justice – study of various government agencies
b. Barangay justice – penalty is 1 year or less or fine of 5,000 and below (PD 1508)
c. Retributive justice – imprisonment and punishment
d. Restorative justice

Specific Answer: Juvenile Justice

319. PO2 Giannis Antetokounmpo is often seen with gambling lords and drunkards in his
community. What he is doing affects the ______ of the police organization.
a. Power
b. Authority
c. Image
d. Function

320. The failure to perform an act in which one is obliged or permitted to do either by law or
directive due to omission or failure to recognized the obligation.
a. Malfeasance = kapag may ginawang labag sa batas (MISCONDUCT)
b. Misfeasance= kapag may binaluktot sa batas (IRREGULARITIES IN THE PERFORMANCE OF
DUTY) c. Non-Feasance – may hindi ginawa sa batas (NEGLECT OF DUTY)
d. None of these

321. A set of norms and standards practiced by police officers during social and other functions.
a. Social Decorum
b. Courtesy – respect for others
c. Custom – social practices carried on by tradition
d. Both B and C

322. The best measure for the competence of police officer is ______.
a. High morale of his men
b. Good command of words
c. Ability of his men to prepare reports.
d. High level of education among his men

323. Police immorality is exampled by-------

a. Living with a woman not his wife
b. Smoking while patrolling
c. Being late from work
d. All of these

324. All PNP members shall recognize the fact that they are public servants and not the master
of the people and towards this end, they should perform their duties without arrogance.
a. Integrity
b. Delicadeza
c. Humility
d. None of these

NOTE:
Integrity= Reputation police will not allow himself to be a victim of any act of corruption.
Delicadeza = a police officer as a public servant must ready to sacrifice for the public welfare/
for the sake of other people.

325. They are police officers who engage in relatively minor type of corruption opportunities as
they present themselves.
a. Meat eaters - actively engage in Major corruption
b. Grass eaters
c. Straight-Shooter - honest police officers
d. None of these

326. Upright in character, polite in manners, dignified in appearance, and sincere in their
concern to their fellowmen.
a. Gentlemanliness
b. Duty
c. Word of honor
d. Orderliness

327. An established and generally accepted moral values refer to

a. Integrity
b. Morality
c. Ethical standard
d. Suthority

328. Giving unfair breaks to friends and relatives.

a. Deviance
b. Misconduct
c. Nepotism
d. Corruption

329. PNP members are expected to by the public not to seek political influence nor get
“padrino” on matters pertaining to assignment, award, training and promotion. This means
that all PNP members are discouraged to resort to:
a. political patronage
b. influence peddling
c. partisan politics
d. political corruption

330. Insp. Garcia’s word is his bond, he stand by it and commit to uphold it. Inspector Garcia
therefore has:
a. delicadeza – Ability to sacrifice self interest
b. Word of honor
c. Camaraderie
d. Honor code

331. It is the ability to last.

a. Endurance
b. Patience
c. Perseverance
d. Fortitude

• perseverance – ability to go on despite of obstacles

• patience – ability to be calm
• fortitude – courage without yielding; firmness of the mind

332. It means courage to endure without yielding.

a. prudence
b. fortitude
c. temperance
d. justice

• prudence - ability to discipline oneself, ability to make sound judgment.

• temperance – ability to control sexual appetite.
333. It the ability to moderate or to avoid something.
a. prudence
b. fortitude
c. temperance
d. justice

334. Excessive use of force or police brutality is a violation of the ethical standards. PNP
members shall exercise proper and ______ use of authority in the performance of duty.
a. effective
b. proportionate
c. legitimate
d. responsible

335. Under this ethical standard, the PNP member shall take legitimate means to achieve goals
despite of internal of external and internal difficulties.
a. integrity
b. orderliness
c. humility
d. perseverance

336. All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with
the time-honored principle of ____.
a. Delicadeza
b. Amor propio
c. Pride
d. Pakikisama

337. PO1 Juan Alba governs and disciplines himself by means of reason and sound judgment.
What virtue does he practice?
a. Endurance
b. Prudence
c. Courtesy
d. Patriotism

338. What program is concerned with creating a favorable public image of the police?
a. Police relations
b. Press relations
c. Community relations
d. Public relations

339. It refers to the planned use of mass communication for public purpose:
a. Press release
b. Advertisement
c. Publication
d. Propaganda

340. It is the sum total of all the dealings of the police with the people it serves and whose
goodwill and cooperation the police needs for the greatest possible efficiency in public service.
a. Police Community Relations
b. Human relations
c. Police Public relation
d. Public relations

341. It is a habit which inclines a man to act in a way that harmonizes with his nature.
a. Ethics
b. Virtue – habit of doing good.
c. Right
d. Conscience

• Habit of doing bad? – Vice

342. An authority a person lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of his rank and
assignment or position.
a. Command
b. Orders
c. Responsibility
d. Memorandum

343. Police officers should have a feeling of devotion, duty or attachment to the PNP
organization. Such attitude is an example of _____________.
a. Integrity
b. Honesty
c. Loyalty to the service
d. Obedience to superior

344. The police officer’s relations with the officers and men of his own department , his
supervisor, the station commander, as well as the city or municipal mayor where he is assigned
is an example of:
a. intra-departmental relations
b. professional relation
c. good relation
d. inter-departmental relation

Interdepartmental → communications occur between personnel in different departments.

345. A part of the PNP’s ceremony where the flag is raised in the middle of the pole in
difference to deceased member of the command or unit.
a. Flag raising – Monday
b. Half-mast
c. flag rFtreat – Friday
d. Funeral service – if there is a dead PNP member

346. PNP members shall provide service to everyone without discrimination regardless of
party affiliation in accordance with existing rules and regulations.
a. Political patronage
b. Non-partisanship
c. Commitment to democracy
d. Social awareness

347. PO3 Perez refrains himself from patronizing houses of ill refute and always faithful to his
lawfully wedded wife. PO3 Perez practices the ethical act of:
a. Integrity
b. Loyalty
c. Morality
d. Temperance

348. The act of extending hospitality to visiting personnel who pays respect to the command
or unit.
a. Courtesy - act of respect
b. Exit call
c. Courtesy of the post
d. Turn over ceremony

• New years call – Party for PNP key officials

• Christmas call – Party for Local executives

349. It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty which is
the police officer’s legal obligation to perform.
a. Nonfeasance - omission, refusal
b. Misfeasance - improper performance
c. Malfeasance - misconduct; you did something not ought to be done
d. Corruption

350. The sum total of the dealings between the police and the people it serves, and whose
goodwill and cooperation it craves, for the greatest possible efficiency in the service.
a. Police community relations
b. Police public relations
c. Human relation
d. Community relation

351. An established usage or social practices carried on by tradition that has obtained the force
of the law.
a. Customs
b. Traditions
c. Mores
d. Values

• Tradition – customs or culture that was passed from one generation to the next.

352. It is the doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the officer had
no legal right to do.
a. Nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Malfeasance
d. Oppression

353. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?

a. Non-partisanship
b. Humility
c. Morality
d. Perseverance

Note: All of the remaining are Ethical standards.

Note: Non-partisanship is a Police professional conduct

354. Under this police professional conduct, PNP members including their families must
encourage to be actively involved in religious, social and civic activities to enhance the image
of the organization without affecting their official duties.
a. Happy Hours
b. Police Lifestyle
c. Social Gatherings
d. Social Awareness

355. Under this professional conduct, PNP personnel shall perform their duties with
dedication, thoroughness, efficiency, enthusiasm and manifest concern for public welfare.
a. Respect for human rights
b. Orderliness
c. Police lifestyle
d. Devotion to duty

356. Is a turning point in the course of anything, decisive or crucial time, stage or event.
a. Emergency
b. Crisis
c. Both A and B
d. Either A or B
357. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus which largely helps to determine
the actual behavioral response in a given situation.
a. Perception
b. Awareness – Interpretation and experience of stimuli
c. Sensation – Feeling or impressions of stimuli
d. Learning

358. It is an inappropriately exaggerated mood and marked change in activity level with
associated thought disorder.
a. Affective Reaction – paiba-iba ng ugali
b. Involutional Reaction
c. Manic-Depressive Reaction
d. Schizophrenic Reaction

359. These are bizarre behaviour, disturbances of thought and reality testing, emotional
withdrawal; and varying levels of psychotic thinking and behavior.
a. Affective Reaction
b. Involutional Reaction
c. Manic-Depressive Reaction
d. Schizophrenic Reaction

360. It has no rational basis seems to indicate that the individual is confused the psychoses
frequently results to hallucinations or delusions.
a. Bizzare Behavior
b. Disruptive Behavior
c. Impaired Functioning
d. Long Periods of Discomfort

361. It is a kind of disorder characterized by fears, phobias, and the person suffering from his
has no physical difficulty, but may experience lack of sleep and loss of appetite and becomes
emotionally unhealthy.
a. Psychogenic
b. Psychoneurosis
c. Psychosomatic
d. Psychoticism

362. It is a form of mental disorder resulting from the degeneration or disorder of the brain
characterized by general mental weakness, forgetfulness, loss and coherence and total inability
to reason but not accompanied by delusion or uncontrollable impulse.
a. Dementia
b. Hallucination
c. Mania
d. Melancholia
363. This stage of sexual interest is relatively inactive.
a. Anal Stage – 18 months to 3 years
b. Genital Stage – puberty to adulthood
c. Latency Stage – 5 or 6 years old to puberty, children into school
d. Phallic Stage - 3 to 6 years old

364. This theory states that people feel emotion first and then act upon them.
a. Cannon-Bard theory – emotion before action
b. James-Lange theory – action before emotion
c. None of the above
d. Two Factor theories

365. All are types of dysfunctions of orgasm, EXCEPT:

A. Female Orgasmic disorder
B. Male Erectile disorder
C. Male Orgasmic disorder
D. Premature ejaculation

366. It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his environment or the way human beings
act.
a. Human Beings - Highest form of animal
b. Learning – change of behavior due to practice and experience
c. Human Behavior
d. Stimulus – action producing agent; any external forces

367. It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a state of form adjustment (childish)
and attempt to experience them again in memory.
a. Phobia
b. Anger
c. Frustration
d. Regression – reverts (pagbabalik) to a pattern of feeling, thinking or behavior (Act like a child,
umiiyak)

368. Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self from _____.
a. Anger
b. Fear
c. Pleasure
d. Pain

369. What is the process of interpreting our behavior in ways to make it more acceptable to the
self usually with the use of good reasons and alibi to substitute for real cause?
a. Projection – feeling or ideas which unacceptable to superego are projected onto others
b. Sublimation – diverted into personally and socially accepted channels (pangingibabaw ng
kabutihan)
c. Rationalization – alibi, excuses, justification
d. Compensation – concentrating where they excel (focus kung saan magaling)

370. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what particular defense
mechanism?
a. Repression – unconsciously forgetting, pagsupil o paglimot
b. Sublimation
c. Displacement – anger is displaced onto another person or object
d. Projection

371. This is the process of excluding from the consciousness a thought or feeling that causes
pain, shame or guilt.
a. Identification - join groups with similar interest to boost confidence
b. Regression - to go back (to something)
c. Repression
d. Fixation

372. This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by

emphasizing a desirable type of behavior.
a. Rationalization
b. Sublimation – pangibabaw ng kabutihan
c. Compensation – concentrating on another area
d. Projection

373. The aggregate observable responses of an organism to internal and external stimuli.
a. Human behavior
b. Behavior
c. Personality
d. Attribute

374. The process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or practice.

a. Actualization – highest form of need
b. Learning - natutonan
c. Thinking
d. Feeling

375. It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.

a. Psychoses
b. Neuroses
c. Abnormality
d. Psychopathy

• Hallucination, illusion, delusion – Psychosis

• Cold, brutal, no remorse, no conscience – Psychopath
376. Hydrophobia is fear of ________.
a. Water – aquaphobia
b. Darkness – nyctophobia
c. Snakes – ophidio phobia
d. Deep water

Specific phobia – Thalassophobia

377. A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination and regression.

a. Psychosis
b. Neurosis
c. Abnormality
d. Psychopathy

378. Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have problems. This is a manifestation of
what type of defense mechanism?
a. Fantasy
b. Sublimation
c. Denial
d. Displacement

379. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the evening session, blames his poor
performance in the preliminary examination to his professor rather than his lack of
preparation. This is an example of what type of defense mechanism?
a. Reaction formation – development of a trait or traits (chill lang)
b. Displacement
c. Sublimation
d. Rationalization – excuses, alibi, justification

380. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when she saw the latter kissing another girl,
cries. This is an example of what defense mechanism?
a. Regression
b. Suppression
c. Repression
d. Displacement

381. It can be seen among people who handle their problems in a very objective way.
a. Coping Mechanism – way people react to frustration
b. Direct Approach – fight
c. Detour – looking for alternative
d. Withdrawal – flight

382. The most tolerated way of handling frustration.

a. Defense Mechanism
b. Direct Approach
c. Detour
d. Withdrawal

Defense Mechanism – safety valve in case of fear and frustration.

383. What type of defense mechanism is manifested by Pining Garcia when he joined the
fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of low self-esteem?
a. Identification
b. projection
c. Fantasy – day dreaming
d. Regression

384. This refers to an action-producing agent:

a. Motives – “motivation” – energizing power toward the achievement of our goals
b. Drives – achievement of satisfaction
c. Stimulus
d. Sensation – “senses” – receptor

385. Human actions in relation to events taking place inside the body such as the brain and the
nervous system is known as:
a. Neurological – behavior is a product of a working brain and nervous system.
b. Psychological
c. Cognitive - learning process / brain process
d. Humanistic - behavior is focused on experiences and goals

386. Eating when you are hungry is an example of ___ behavior.

a. Habitual - repetitive
b. complex - 2 or more acts at the same time
c. Instinctive - necessary for survival
d. Symbolic

387. A person suffers from _____ when he developed a maladaptive behavior in his childhood
as a result of an external influence that later on becomes a part of his lifestyle and which he
uses to relate to the world around him.
a. Personality disorder
b. Abnormal behavior
c. Personality behavior
d. Abnormal personality

388. A person has _____ when he/she has painful memories associated with some shocking
experience which are repressed and cannot be recalled.
a. Anxiety
b. Delusions
c. Amnesia
d. Phobia – fear

3 types of amnesia:
• Retrograde – forgot all in the past
• Anterograde – forgot something that has just occurred
• Localized / Selective – forgot part of the past

389. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place pleasure in imagining having sexual
relations with newly dead young female bodies who were victims of suicides or vehicular
accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio commit?
a. Necrophilia – sexual attraction or act of having sexual intercourse with corpse
b. Rape
c. Incest – sexual relation with a blood related person
d. None

Note: Kapag ganito ang tanong “What behavior did he possess?”

ANSWER: NONE

390. The most important person in a hostage situation:

a. Negotiator
b. Hostage taker – captors / abductors
c. Commander
d. Hostage – captives

391. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the bank together with their
hostages; their demand is geared towards:
a. Revenge
b. Economic gain
c. Escape
d. Vindication

392. This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon which society is
based.
a. Anti-social
b. Psychopath
c. Schizophrenic
d. Sociopath

393. This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the male or female or an inability to
achieve it.
a. Masturbation
b. Vaginismus – vaginal lock, involuntary spasm
c. Dyspareunia – painful sex/coitus
d. Frigidity

394. This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual, preferred, and compelling need for
sexual gratification by any technique, other than willing coitus between man and woman and
involving actions that are directly results in genital excite.
a. Crime against chastity
b. Acts of lasciviousness
c. Sexual deviation - paraphilia
d. Sexual offenses

395. In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used is_____?
a. Kidnapping
b. Bombing
c. Assassination - Oldest tactic
d. Extortion

396. A personality disorder characterized by suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive

self important, and argumentativeness, plus a tendency to blame others for one’s own mistakes
and failure and to ascribe evil motives to others.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Dependent Personality – no self-reliance
C. Schizoid Personality – introverts, loners
D. Borderline Personality – dramatic mood shifts

Types of Paranoia
 Persecutory paranoia – feel like always blamed
 Litigious paranoia – always resort in filing of cases
 Jealous paranoia – irrational jealousy
 Erotic Paranoia – “GGSS” , akala niya gusto siya ng isang tao
 Exalted Paranoia – feel like you are a hero or god.

397. When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental and physical fatigue and by various
aches and pains, it is considered as:
a. Anxiety Disorder
b. Somatoform Disorder – Psychosomatic Pain Disorder
c. Dissociative Disorder – Breakdown of memory
d. Amnesia

2 FORMS OF SOMATOFORMS
• Hypochondriasis – overreacting to simple illness
• Conversion disorder (Modern name of Hysteria) – fake diseases, fake blindness
398. They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies a need:
a. Interest
b. Perception
c. motives
d. Drives

399. Victa Hemenez has this behaviour that anything that she desires, she will instantaneously
steal it (KLEPTOMANIA). One time, when she saw a cell phone, when she had the chance she
put it in her bag because she cannot resist from doing so. She felt impulse to steal the
cellphone. According to the rules in criminal intelligence, this is known in ..
a. Durham Rule – Test for Insanity (Psychiatrist)
b. Exemption Rule
c. Insanity Rule
d. McNaughton Rule – Insanity is an Exempting Circumstance

400. This person according to the categories of abnormal behaviour is apparently

uncontrollable and impulsive which is characterized by severe psychological disorder
a. Bizarre behaviour
b. Disruptive
c. Impaired functioning
d. None of these

401. It implies that the scientific method should be used in the study of criminology to make it
credible and it refers to what?
a. Verified Principles
b. Applied Research
c. Dogmatic principles
d. Pragmatic Principles

402. Rudy's research problem is about the relationship between the different collection newly
recruited members of the PNP and their Individual Performance Rating. To targeted the four
semestral ratings of his population sample. Which is an attribute problem that he violated, if
any?
a. The problem should have relation between two or more variables.
b. The problem should be clearly and unambiguously stated in question for
c. The problem should be doable within the time frame and budget.
d. The problem should be amenable to empirical testing.

403. Which is the part of a research consisting of a short phrase or sentence that gives
information a description of the things which are the focus of the study?
a. Introduction
b. Methodology
c. Abstract
d. Title
404. It is a type of research which has this purpose of determining the future operation of the
variables under investigation with the aim of controlling or redirecting such for the better.
A. Descriptive Research
B. Predictive Research
C. Pure Research
D. Quantitative Research

405. It is an inference (intelligent guess) that is formulated and provisionally adapted to explain
observe facts of condition and to guide its further investigation.
A. Assumptions
B. Hypothesis
C. Problem
D. Statement of the Problem

406. It is a characteristic which is found before (ante) the independent variable. It is expected
to influence the independent variable/s it is usually irreversible.
a. Antecedent Variable
b. Dependent Variable
c. Independent Variable
d. Intervening Variable

407. It is an assumed cause of a problem it is an assumed reason for any changes or variation in
a dependent variable.
a. Antecedent Variable
b. Dependent Variable
c. Independent Variable
d. Intervening Variable

408. It is a type of research according to the type of analysis begins with the total situations.
Focusing attention on the system first of and then on its internal relationships.
a. Analytical Research
b. Applied Research
c. Holistic Research
d. Pure Research

409. It is a type of research according to the type of analysis is where the researcher attempts
to identify and isolate the components of the research situation?
a. Analytical Research
b. Applied Research
c. Holistic Research
d. Pure Research
410. It is a comprehensive detailed, in depth or complete analysis of an individual, institution,
group or community.
a. Case Study
b. Interview
c. Questionnaire
d. Survey

411. It is the “assumed effect” of another variable. It is the change that occurs in the study
population when one or more factors are changed or when an intervention is introduced.
a. Antecedent Variable
b. Dependent Variable
c. Independent Variable
d. Intervening Variable

412. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that “ties together” the major findings of the
studies reviewed. It represents a general picture of what has been known or thought of about
the problem to date.
A. Summary/synthesis
B. Introduction
C. Body
D. Conclusion

413. It is a type of research which attempts to describe an existing situation and/or

explanatory certain patterns of behavior using either both qualitative and quantitative research
techniques.
a. Explanatory Research
b. Keen Research
c. Pure Basic Research
d. Qualitative Research

414. It is an objective that relates directly to the research problem and states clearly what the
researcher will do and expects to find out.
a. Alternative Hypothesis
b. General/Immediate Objectives
c. Null Hypothesis
d. Specific Objectives

415. Which of these frameworks has been emphasized when arguments on how and why a
particular factor can possibly influence another are presented?
a. Conceptual Framework
b. Framework
c. Research Frameworks
d. Theoretical Framework
416. Among the following variables which of the following is usually the problem itself?
A. Intervening variables
B. Antecedent variables
C. Dependent variables
D. Independent variables

417. It is concerned with the acquisition of new knowledge for the sake of science or the
development of the field.
a. Pure basic research
b. Applied research
c. Empirical research
d. Action research

418. This is responsible for new products, new knowledge and new ways of undertaking
projects.
a. Manufacturing
b. Developmental
c. Research
d. Experiment

419. This refers to the overall plan and scheme in conducting the study.
a. Methods of Research = Chapter 3
b. Research Design
c. Both A and C
d. None of them

420. A data-gathering instrument or device used to determine what is occurring or what

individuals are doing.
a. Interview
b. Questionnaire
c. Observation
d. Survey

421. This uses carefully planned and printed items given to respondents in order to elicit
answers to questions of the research.
a. Interview
b. Questionnaire
c. Observation
d. Survey

422. The purpose of this part of research is to give readers the context (introduce the topic) of
the present research.
a. Introduction – C1
b. Method of Research – C3
c. Review of Related Literature – C2
d. Conclusion – C5

423. These are inferences, deductions, abstractions and/or generalizations based on findings.
a. Presentation of Data
b. Conclusion
c. Introduction
d. Recommendations

424. These are addressed to those concerned to help solve the problem, guided by the
research findings.
a. Presentation of Data
b. Conclusion
c. Introduction
d. Recommendations

425. This part of research must be feasible, logical and valid which may address (solve) the
findings of the research.
a. Presentation of Data
b. Conclusion
c. Introduction
d. Recommendations

426. This highlights the findings without detailed statistical data and analysis.
a. Presentation of Data
b. Conclusion
c. Summary
d. Recommendations

427. This part of research includes the works and only those works-cited in the text.
a. References
b. Appendices
c. Bibliography
d. Both A and B

• Appendices – additional pages (curriculum vitae)

428. The ultimate aim of research is

a. To test a theory
b. To solve a problem
c. To develop new theory or product
d. All of them
429. Its purpose is to study intensively the background, current status, and environmental
interactions of a given social unit: an individual, group, institution or community.
a. Survey
b. Case Study
c. Ethnographic
d. None of them

• Ethnography – tribe, ethnic group, tradition, culture

430. This is used in studying the society – its customs, traditions, behavior and beliefs.
a. Survey
b. Case Study
c. Ethnographic
d. None of them

431. In this part of the research, the researcher outlines theory he wishes to espouse or verify.
a. Review of Related Literature
b. Methods of Research
c. Theoretical Framework
d. Introduction

432. Which of the following is the importance of timely reporting of crime statistics?
a. It deters persons from committing crimes.
b. It is easy to process and store in digital format.
c. It determines whether the increases in crime volume were unique to their own areas or they
are part of a broader national pattern and trend.
d. It will improve the image of the locality

433. It is the science and art of planning the procedures for conducting studies so as to get the
most valid findings.
A. Research design
B. Research ethics
C. Research hypothesis
D. Research question

434. What should be formulated in searching keywords or phrases that are pertinent to the
problem or question or interest?
A. Indexes – An alphabetical list of keywords contained in the text of the book
B. Search terms
C. References
D. Glossary

435. It is the “blueprint” of the study. It guides the collection, measurement and analysis of
data
A. Research outline
B. Research framework
C. Research chart
D. Research Design

436. One of the research methods approach is to determine the growth and development of a
group, organization or institution.
A. Content Analysis
B. Survey method
C. Experimental Method
D. Historical Method

437. In defining the research problem, what is the important thing for the researcher to
present for the conduct of the study?
A. Valid ID
B. Certificate
C. Valid justification
D. Present relevant data

438. A type of source which shows where to locate other sources of information related to a
certain topic.
A. Glossary – Definition of Terms
B. General reference – complete sources of information
C. Primary sources – videos, picture
D. Secondary sources – books

439. One of the research methods that obtain data to determine specific characteristics of a
group.
A. Content Analysis
B. Survey method
C. Interview Method
D. Observation Method

440. In listing a note or index card the bibliographical data of the pertinent sources selected it
includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. Author of the source
B. Its title
C. Released date
D. Name of publication

441. A kind of research with the goal of developing the theories and principles.
A. Pure
B. Applied
C. Analytical
D. Holistic

442. A kind of research with the goal of applying the results by testing the efficacy of the
theories and principles.
A. Analytical
B. Holistic
C. Pure
D. Applied

443. A category of research according to the level of investigation that studies the variables
pertinent to a specific situation.
A. Experimental
B. Discipline
C. Exploratory
D. Applied

444. Also called the research hypothesis, is the positive form of the form of the null
hypothesis. A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Research Hypothesis
D. Hypothesis

445. A category of research that studies the relationship of the variables.

A. Applied
B. Exploratory
C. Descriptive
D. Experimental

446. It is a “theory” that explains why a problem under study exists and explains the
connection between certain factors and the problem.
A. Conceptual Framework
B. Research Framework
C. Special Framework
D. Theoretical Framework

447. Is a negative statement which indicates the absence of a relationship/correlation between

two variables.
A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Research Hypothesis
D. Hypothesis

448. A category of research that studies the effects of the variables on each other.
A. Exploratory
B. Applied
C. Experimental
D. Descriptive

449. A category of research which is done on a very limited scope to solve a particular problem
which is not so big.
A. Pure
B. Action
C. Applied
D. Descriptive

450. It refers to the extent to which a measurement does what it is supposed to do, which is to
measure what it intends to measure.
A. Validity
B. Validity Threats
C. Reliability
D. Variable

451. The act of officially saying that something was created for a particular purpose or to
remember or honor a particular person –
A. Dedication
B. Abstract
C. Introduction
D. Acknowledgment

452. A type of research that utilizes inferential statistics to determine the results of the study
such as comparison studies and cause-and-effect relationship.
A. Experimental
B. Developmental
C. Non-quantitative
D. Quantitative

453. There are three general categories of research, the descriptive research, experimental
intervention research, and _____.
A. Intervention research
B. Extensive research
C. Correlation research
D. Explanatory research

454. _____ may also used to explain the possible confounding influence of other variables on
the assumed relationship between the major variables of the study –
A. Competing Theory
B. Theory
C. Assumptions
D. Dependent variables

455. This explains the existence of a problem. It serves as the basis for examining and
analyzing the connection between or among the study variables.
A. Research outline
B. Research framework
C. Research chart
D. Statistics

456. This enables the researcher to learn how to conceptualize a research problem and
properly identify and operationally define study variables –
A. Literature – Review of Related Literature
B. Methodology
C. Related study
D. Hypothesis

457. These are expressed in measurable terms.

A. Special objective
B. Specific objective
C. Variables
D. Immediate/general objective

458. In studies that take a long time to finish, say, one year or more, like cohort studies, where
the subjects (the same people) are followed up overtime, some cases may drop out, thus
resulting in a loss of cases
A. Selection
B. Instrumentation
C. Mortality
D. Maturation

459. People and things change over time and this change can threaten the validity of
conclusions
A. Selection
B. Instrumentation
C. Testing
D. Maturation

460. When several options are available, ______ is about the options that can help the
decision-maker in selecting the best or the better alternative that will yield a better outcome.
A. Making
B. Processing
C. Data
D. Developing
461. This type of research aims to see an immediate solution to a problem; it focuses on
variables or factors which can be changed by intervention in order to achieve a desired goal
A. Applied Research
B. Explanatory research
C. Keen research
D. Intervention/Experimental research

Specific Answer: Action Research

462. An Interactionist theory of deviance. This theory centers on how individuals learn how to
become criminals, but does not concern itself with why they become criminals.
A. Theoretical Framework
B. Differential Association Theory
C. Beccaria School of Thought
D. Differential Identification Theory

463. A research that is to understand or explain a prevailing situation or explain a relationship

between factors which may have already been identified in explanatory studies, and why the
relationship exists.
A. Exploratory Research
B. Pure basic research
C. Explanatory research
D. Keen research

464. Sometimes there are events in the life of a research project, but which are not part of the
project, that can increase or decrease the expected project outcomes.
A. Selection
B. History
C. Testing
D. Maturation

465. It is used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment or an intervention or the “cause

and effect” relationship of certain phenomena under controlled conditions.
A. Content Analysis
B. Survey method
C. Experimental Method
D. Historical Method

466. What is the ethical principle that the moral worth of an action is solely determined by its
contribution to overall utility? This is also a form of consequentialism…
A. Utilitarian
B. Ethics
C. Ethical Standard
D. Utilitarianism
467. It involves a systematic way of gaining knowledge or the process of testing ideas
(hunches, guesses, or hypotheses) to see if an idea holds true in a given situation or under
controlled conditions.
A. Historical method
B. Survey method
C. Experimental Method
D. Research Scientific Method

468. A type of source which results from many research studies that are published in journals or
monographs. These articles or reports are generally written by those who actually conducted
the study.
A. Glossary
B. General reference
C. Primary sources
D. Secondary sources

469. This refers to publications where authors cite the work of others. The most common
secondary sources are books, reviews, yearbooks and encyclopedias
A. Secondary sources
B. Glossary
C. General reference
D. Primary sources

470. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that briefly reports what experts think or what
other researchers have found about the research problem.
A. Summary/synthesis
B. Introduction
C. Body
D. Conclusion

471. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that describes briefly the nature of the research
problem and explains what led the researcher to investigate the question
A. Summary/synthesis
B. Introduction
C. Body
D. Conclusion

472. This part presents the course of action suggested by the literature. Based on the state of
knowledge revealed by the literature, the researcher could further justify the need for
his/study. A. Summary/synthesis
B. Introduction
C. Body
D. Conclusion
473. Researchers make educated guesses to tentatively answer the research questions, from
these they select the more logical and theoretically sound guesses –
A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Research Hypothesis
C. Hypothesis
D. Unconstructive Hypothesis

474. When a research instrument, such as a questionnaire or a measuring device, like a

weighing scale or a thermometer is changed during the study period between the pretest and
the posttest
A. Selection
B. Instrumentation
C. Testing
D. Maturation

475. Whenever a pretest is given, it may make the examinees “test wise,” and this can
therefore affect the posttest results –
A. Selection
B. History
C. Testing
D. Maturation

476. An author's statement recognized his use of the works of other authors or a declaration
or avowal of one's act or of a fact to give it legal validity –
A. Dedication
B. Abstract
C. Introduction
D. Acknowledgment

477. The type of research which is conducted because a problem has not been properly
defined. It is likewise used to determine the best research design, data collection method and
collection of subjects and often concludes that a perceived problem does not actually exist?
A. Historical Research
B. Qualitative Research
C. Quantitative Research
D. Exploratory Research

478. The problem must be____ and ____. It must be of interest to the one investigating it. It
should yield answers that will contribute to knowledge and development –
A. Timely and relevant
B. Appropriate and exact
C. Clear and feasible
D. Proper and precise
479. Kardo wad tasked to conduct research on the acceptability of the new work scheme that is
being implemented in the workplace. The respondents to the study are divided into managerial,
supervisors and the rank and file. He decided to use qualitative research. How is this research
design different from the quantitative research design?
A. Qualitative research is harder to conduct than quantitative research
B. Qualitative research is considered to be subjective while quantitative research is objective
C. Qualitative research is considered to be objective while quantitative research is subjective
D. Qualitative research uses numbers and statistics while quantitative research usually uses
verbal

480. Any conclusion drawn based upon hard evidence gathered from information collected from
real-life experiences and observations is called _____.
A. Empirical
B. Critical
C. Systematic
D. Rigorous

481. The following are approaches to quantitative research, except ______.

A. Survey research
B. Grounded theory - grounded theory is a research methodology that results in the production
of a theory that explains patterns in data, largely applied to qualitative research
C. Experimental research
D. Casual-comparative research

482. It is a component of the proactive phase of the 5 P’s crisis management which attempts to
remove uncertainty from the future.
a. Predict
b. Prevent
c. Prepare
d. Perform

483. Are those in which the concerns of two people appear to be incompatible.
a. Conflict
b. Conflict situations
c. Dispute
d. Problem

484. It is moderate in both assertiveness and cooperativeness. The objective is to find some
expedient, mutually acceptable solution that partially satisfies both parties. It falls
intermediate between competing and accommodating.
a. Compromising
b. Competing
c. Accommodating
d. Collaborating

485. Is a phase of hostage situation which is the safest for the hostage since the situation has
had a chance to stabilized.
a. Capture phase
b. Transportation phase
c. Holding phase
d. Termination phase

486. It is a phenomenon that can caused damage to life and property and destroy the
economic, social and cultural life of people.
a. Disaster
b. Emergency
c. Crisis
d. Conflict

487. It is any event that is, or expected to lead to, an unstable and dangerous situation
affecting an individual, group, community or whole society.
a. Disaster
b. Emergency
c. Crisis
d. Conflict

488. Person who will involve both parties in a proceeding of ADR. It is usually in the first stage
of the proceedings?
A. Mediator
B. Arbitrator
C. Concillator
D. None of these

489. Its goal is to render a peaceful resolution in dispute.

A. Mediation
B. Arbitration
C. Litigation
D. None of these

490. This can be considered in the Arbitration Process. It will a combination of techniques to
achieve mutually accepted resolution?
A. Preventive and Cooperative Stage
B. Dispute De-escalation Control and Real Time Resolution Stage
C. Facillitate Resolution Stage
D. None of these

491. Usually conducted during AMICABLE SETTLEMENT?

A. Mediation
B. Arbitration
C. Conciliation
D. None of these

492. The period for court-annexed mediation shall not exceed_____ calendar days without
further extension.
a. 15 – Judicial Dispute Resolution
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60

493. It means the person appointed to render an award, alone or with others, in a dispute that
is the subject of an arbitration agreement.
a. Mediator
b. Mediation parties
c. Judge
d. Arbitrator

494. It means mediation ordered by a court to be conducted in accordance with the agreement
of the parties when as action is prematurely commenced in violation of such agreement.
a. Court-referred mediation
b. Court-annexed mediation
c. Arbitration
d. Trial

495. It means an alternative dispute resolution process wherein parties and their lawyers are
brought together early in a pre-trial phase to present summaries of their cases and receive a
nonbinding assessment by an experienced, neutral person, with expertise in the subject in the
substance of the dispute.
a. Arbitration
b. Mini-trial
c. Early Neutral Evaluation
d. Mediation

496. It means a structured dispute resolution method in which the merits of a case are argued
before a panel comprising senior decision makers with or without the presence of a neutral
third person after which the parties seek a negotiated settlement.
a. Trial
b. Hearing
c. Promulgation
d. Mini-trial
497. This means that the hostage takers mobility should be confined to the smallest location
in the building or exterior area and deny the opportunity to observe the police activities
a. Isolation
b. Containment
c. Evaluating
d. Reporting

498. It is the body of men created to settle dispute within barangay level.
a. Barangay tanod
b. Chief tanod
c. Pangkat tagapagkasundo
d. Lupon tagapamayapa

499. Failure to agree on the terms and conditions of the Collective Bargaining Agreement
between the management and the union.
a. Strike
b. Picketing
c. Lock outs
d. Bargaining Deadlock

500. Declared and staged without filing the required notice of strike and without the majority
approval of the recognized bargaining agent.
a. Wild-cat strike
b. Unfair labor practice
c. Economic strike
d. Sit down strike

501. It refers to the dismantling by the Local Government Unit (LGU), any legally authorized
agency or personnel of the government of all the structures within the premises subject for
clearing.
a. Demolition
b. Eviction
c. Coercion
d. All of these

502. Notice upon the affected persons or entities at least ___days prior to the date of eviction
or demolition
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
503. Any party to the dispute may, within ___________days from the date of the settlement,
repudiate the same by filing with the Lupon chairman a statement to that effect sworn to
before him, where the consent is vitiated by fraud, violence, or intimidation.
a. Within 5 days
b. Within 10 days
c. Within 15 days
d. Within 3 days

May any of the parties repudiate the agreement to arbitrate?

➢ Yes, any party may repudiate the agreement to arbitrate but he must do so within five (5)
days from the date of the execution of agreement to arbitrate. (Sec 413 of the Local
Government Code)

Within what time shall the Lupon Chairman or the Pangkat Chairman make the arbitration
award and in what form will it be?
➢ The Lupon Chairman or the Pangkat Chairman shall make the arbitration award after the
expiration of the period for repudiation of the agreement to arbitrate and within ten (10) days
thereafter. The arbitration award shall be in writing and in the language or dialect known to the
parties. (Sec 413 of the Local Government Code)

504. An arbitration award may be enforced by execution by the Lupon _______from the date
of the settlement.
a. Within 1 month
b. within six (6) months
c. within 9 months
d. within 12 months

505. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not
a. give his name
b. give his rank and designation
c. give in to all demands
d. look friendly or accommodating

506. Who is the Chairman of Crisis Management Committee?

A. Sec of DILG
B. Chief, PNP
C. Mayor
D. None of these

507. Who is the father of ADR here in the Philippines?

A. Teodulo Natividad
B. Ferdinand Marcos
C. Fred Castro
D. None of these
508. It is the immediate area of containment as designated by the on-ground commander.
a. Inner Perimeter
b. Outer Perimeter - is a secondary control area surrounding the inner perimeter, providing a
safe zone for access to the inner perimeter.
c. Command Post
d. Nota

509. This component is responsible for maintaining perimeter control both inner and outer.
Also called containment sub-team.
a. First Component
b. Second Component – apprehension and assault team
c. Third Component – Sniper/observer sub-team
d. Nota

510. Which of the following is not the reason why dealing with the terrorist takers is difficult ?
a. Terrorists are usually highly trained combatants who have been politically and ideologically
indoctrinated
b. Terrorists act as part of a group, and their behavior will be pressured by group dynamics
c. The terrorist hostage-taking drama is capable of producing conflicts of principles that are not
easy to resolve
d. Most of the terrorist groups received training in the techniques that will be used against them
in the country chosen for the attacks

511. Research has to undergo a step-by-step plan of action that enables a researcher to
conduct the research systematically and on schedule. Which refers to a methodological
practice or tradition such as experiment survey research or case studies? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Research Strategy
B. Research Process
C. Research Methodology
D. Research Framework

512. Identify the kind of research used where both the effect and the alleged cause have
already occurred and are studied retrospectively by the researcher. (December 2022, CLE)
a. Pure Research
b. Action Research
c. Quantitative Research
d. Causal-Comparative Research

513. The word “research” originated from the old French word “recerchier”. What is the
meaning of this word? (December 2022, CLE)
A. To define and study
B. To find and comprehend
C. To know and understand
D. To search and search again

514. One of the three interrelated divisions of criminology has attempted to explain the
systematic analysis of the economic, political and social conditions in which penal laws are
developed, and crime and criminality are either generated or prevented . Which of the
following corresponds with the preceding statements?
A. Sociology of the application of the criminal justice process and system
B. Sociology of law, crime and social psychology of criminal behavior
C. Sociology of crime and criminal law
D. Sociology of punishment and correction

515. Criminology includes in its studies behaviors that are _____ in nature.
A. Law-abiding
B. Deviant
C. Normal
D. Righteous

516. Which refers to behavior that is outside the limits of societal toleration?
A. Deviance
B. Offense
C. Crime
D. Delinquency

517. Identify the type of criminal psychic organization that ensembles a normal individual
except that he identified himself with criminal prototype.
A. Acute
B. Ordinary – not required specialized skill
C. Chronic
D. Normal – nakaidol siya sa mga criminal na may characteristics siyang criminal

518. What philosophy emphasized classical theory in the Philippine criminal law?
A. Realistic - positivisim
B. Mixed - eclectic
C. Humanistic
D. Juristic – classical

519. Which of the following choices does not relate to the characteristics of classical theory in
criminal law?
A. The basis in criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
B. It has endeavored to establish a mechanical and direct proportion between crime and
penalty
C. That man is essentially a moral creature with an absolutely free will to choose good and evil
D. That man is occasionally subdued by a strange and morbid phenomenon – Positivism
520. What is the disorder that has been linked to brain disfunction and damage, neurological
immaturity, and genetic predisposition?
A. Attention-deficit hyperactivity
B. Learning
C. Post-traumatic stress
D. Obsessive-compulsive

521. Who added a social dimension to Lombroso's work by arguing that people commit crimes
due to outside forces that they cannot control?
A. Cesare Beccaria
B. Enrico Ferri - may sociological (outside)
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. Raffaele Garofalo - internal

522. Maria has a poor relationship with her parents, has no goals for the future, and
participates in few extracurricular activities; hence, this can lead to deviance. Which theory
explains assumption?
A. Conflict
B. Labeling
C. Self-control
D. Social control

523. Which is not a function and consequence of crime in society according to Emile
Durkheim?
A. Society becomes vigilant
B. It creates unity in the society
C. Disintegration and disunity of the society
D. Society decide what behavior must be prohibited

Note: May advantage din yung crime sa society.

524. Which defines the extent to which a victim is responsible for his or her own
victimization?
A. Victim facilitation
B. Victimology
C. Victim personality
D. Victim precipitation

525. Which of the following is true about the powers, functions, duties and responsibilities of
the Professional Regulatory Board for Criminologist?
1. Issue, suspend, revoke or reinstate the certificate of registration of the registered
criminologist
2. Cancel temporary/special permit granted to foreign criminologist
3. Receive complaints and decide the matter as to the malpractices and unethical conduct in the
practice of the criminology profession
4. Monitor all colleges and universities offering criminology program and recommend sanctions
to the CHED, for noncompliance with the policies, standards and requirements.
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3

526. Which is the act of using cyberspace for revenge, destruction and to achieve a malicious
intent such as website defacement, cyber stalking and cyber bullying?
A. Cyber vandalism
B. Cyber war
C. Cyber terrorism
D. Cyber theft

527. The Professional Regulatory Board for Criminologists shall have the power, upon notice
and hearing, to revoke or suspend the certificate of registration of a registered criminologist
or to cancel temporary/special permit granted to foreign criminologist for the commission of
any of the following acts, except ______.
A. Non-renewal of the professional identification card for a period of 3 years with the PRC
without justifiable cause – dapat 6 years
B. Perpetration or use of fraud in obtaining one's certificate of registration, professional
identification card or temporary/special permit
C. Non-compliance with CPD and APO requirements, unless one is exempted therefrom, for the
renewal of professional identification card
D. Addiction to drugs or alcohol impairing one's ability to practice the profession or a
declaration by a court of competent jurisdiction that the registrant is of unsound mind

528. The Chairperson and each member shall, at the time of their appointment, must be a
registered criminologist with a valid certificate of registration and a valid professional
identification card, having at least ____ years of practice in the profession prior to the
appointment.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10

Note: No less than 2 years teaching experience of criminology or law subjects.

529. Criminal justice system is one of the various systems operating in the society such as
political system, economic system, educational system, health care system, and others. The
interplay of these systems taken together is known as _____.
A. Public safety system
B. Social defense system
C. Total social system
D. Civil defense system

530. Which of the following refers to preventive, rehabilitative and developmental programs
and initiatives that mobilize/utilize the family and community to respond to a problem, need,
issue or concern of children, youth, women, person with disabilities, older persons and families
who are in need and at-risk?
A. Residential care services
B. Center-based services
C. Institution based services
D. Community based services

531. Which refers to restraining or isolating criminals behind prison or jail facilities to
effectively protect society?
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime deterrence
C. Crime control – combination of crime prevention and crime suppression, basta nasa kulongan
na, crime control and pinaka proper term.
D. Crime suppression

532. Which statement describes behaviorism as method of science?

A. Belief that all behaviors is at the mercy of stimuli in the environment
B. Behavior can be broken down into more simple behavior
C. Human behavior can be best advanced if scientists use referents with physical basis and
observable
D. Behavior of humans follows the same basic natural laws as that of all animals

533. What is that common human tendency to discount the influence of the situation and
explain behavior by referring to the personality of the actor instead?
A. Self-serving bias
B. Crime of obedience
C. Frustration-induced situation
D. Fundamental attribution error

534. Hydraulic model is also referred to as ____ theory.

A. Passive-aggressive
B. Psychodynamic
C. Social learning
D. Darwinian perspective

535. Select the option that investigates the relationship between genes and the environment
in determining individual differences in behavior.
A. Behavior genetics
B. Concordance
C. Biopsychology
D. Molecular genetics

536. Which describes traits of people who will often try to justify their faults often think that
any criticism is directed at them; loves praises because it gives them temporary self-confidence;
and they do not like competition unless they are certain to win because it hurts them too much
when they lose?
A. Superiority complex
B. Maladjusted personality
C. Anti-personality disorder
D. Inferiority complex – gusto laging mananalo, bully

537. Which of the following is the true psychopath?

A. Secondary psychopath
B. Dyssocial psychopath
C. Neurotic
D. Primary psychopath

538. Which of the following is an act of terrorism?

A. Stoppage work by burning buses in a transport strikes to protest wage increase
B. Rally and demonstrations for purposes of advocacy, protest and dissent
C. Creative, artistic, and cultural expressions demonstrations
D. Industrial or mass action

539. Which is not a positive effect of time in hostage crisis? Negotiator?

A. Abrupt tactical movement
B. Reduced anxiety
C. Allow formation of Stockholm Syndrome
D. Increase human needs

540. The following are the tested methods of closing a negotiation, except _____.
A. Do not offer deadlines and warnings
B. Offer concessions
C. Split the difference
D. Suggest an adjournment

541. Which refers to a psychological response where captors begin to feel sympathetic towards
their captives?
A. Stockholm Syndrome
B. London Syndrome
C. Helsinki Syndrome
D. Lima Syndrome
542. Identify the term conducted by the negotiating team prior to turnover to another set of
negotiating team.
A. Operation debrief
B. Psychological debrief
C. Hot debrief
D. Cold Debrief

543. Which statements about mediation are true?

1. A mediator in a negotiation can help both parties reach an agreement but cannot impose a
settlement on or make decisions for them.
2. A mediator help parties make concessions when conflicts of interest are insignificant.
3. Mediation is a commonly used intervention option but is not necessarily the remedy for all
disputes.
4. A mediator can help the parties reach an agreement, but not necessarily the best agreement.
A. 1,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3

544. What is the time frame in minutes which is considered the most dangerous phase in most
hostage taking situations?
A. 44319
B. 5 – 15
C. 10 – 30
D. 15 – 45

545. Which statement refers to a conduct that a public servant, especially members of the
uniformed services, must strictly observe social decorum?
A. A formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to special
occasion - ceremony
B. A set of norms and standards practiced by members during social and other functions
C. Bodies of unwritten beliefs, stories, customs and usages handed down from generation to
generation – tradition
D. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect to others - courtesy

546. Peter was walking down the street when he heard several boys catcall a lady who was
wearing mini skirt. Peter told the group to stop what they are doing since it was wrong. Select
which best describes Peter's action.
A. Moral decision - choice that a person makes based on their moral judgment
B. Moral issue
C. Courtesy
D. Moral judgment
547. Choose the level of care that is required of PNP members to exercise in the protection and
care of public property like a "good father of the family".
A. Degree of diligence exercised by regulatory institutions
B. Degree of diligence exercised by banks and financial institutions
C. Duty of extraordinary care, vigilance and precaution
D. Reasonable care required of an ordinarily prudent person

548. Which course of action exemplifies respect for authority?

A. Obey any and all orders from superior officers
B. Recognize the right of superior officers to disallow conduct of strikes
C. Promote candidacy of incumbent elective officials running for office
D. Uphold and respect the Constitution

549. Identify the basic mission of the Police.

A. Public approval
B. Cooperation from the public
C. Respect for the police
D. Crime prevention

550. Patrolman Toni hosted a birthday party in a hotel which provided him with one free room.
When he was in the room, he found out that he lost several pieces of jewelry and cash.
Suspecting that the program coordinator is the perpetrator, Patrolman Toni frisked him in front
of the guests, Which is the basis of the civil liability of Patrolman Tony, if any?
A. Abuse of right
B. Doctrine of vicarious liability
C. Doctrine of self help
D. Performance of duty

551. An accused shall not be induced by a promise of immunity or reward to make a

confession, except _____.
A. The accused becomes a state witness
B. The accused is applying for probation
C. The accused has invoked his right to remain silent
D. The accused has been paid to make the confession

552. Which of the following is the universal or generic term used for youthful offender?
A. Child at risk
B. Juvenile delinquent
C. Minor offender
D. Child in conflict with the law

553. Which takes an additional meaning when used with reference to leisure – the one domain
in which they have the opportunity to express their character through action?
A. Boredom
B. Intermittent
C. Drift
D. Malice

554. Select the conflict of cultural norms when two different cultures clash.
A. Secondary
B. Primary
C. Intermediary
D. Tertiary

555. Racial discrimination is an example of which of the following theories on crime and
delinquency?
A. Labeling
B. Strain
C. Differential Opportunity
D. Social Conflict

556. Jose and his fellow adolescents are living with economic difficulties and are engaged in
some unlawful activities. Adjacent in their environment is a subdivision not regularly patrolled
by policemen and "tanods" and whose residents are mostly middle and upper class of the
society whose houses are fully equipped with easily saleable items, fixtures and appliances.
Applying the routine activity theory, which may aptly consider to Jose and his fellow
adolescents?
A. Motivated offenders
B. Economically poor
C. Suitable targets
D. Capable guardians

557. Willy and Lemuel, both aged 14 were arrested for petty theft and chronic vandalism. As a
result, both of them will be charged accordingly for their acts and processed judicially after
careful evaluation of the authority. What system or process will they be subjected to?
A. Social Justice System
B. Criminal Justice System
C. Juvenile Justice Welfare Council
D. Juvenile Justice System

558. In case of doubt as to the age of the child, it shall be resolved in favor of the _____.
A. Child
B. The investigator
C. DSWD
D. Court

559. What is the minimum age of criminal responsibility under Presidential Decree 603?
A. 8 years
B. 9 years
C. 7 years
D. 15 years

560. Who has the jurisdiction over a child at-risk who, immediately after initial intervention of
the case, said child at-risk is found to be a non-resident of a particular city or municipality ?
A. The local social welfare development officer if the child is non-resident of the municipality or
city
B. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology of the city or municipality
C. The barangay council for the protection of children if residing in that barangay
D. The PNP detention facility in the city or municipality

561. Which trend in the juvenile welfare system where Bahay Pag-asa is a component
thereof?
A. Non-residential community treatment
B. Institutionalization
C. Deinstitutionalization
D. Community treatment and residential treatment

562. Psgt. Daniel, a graduate school student, wanted to determine the acceptability of the
50/50 work scheme among uniformed personnel of Maliksi Police Station. This work scheme
entails that only half of the personnel will report to work in any given day. Which is the most
appropriate research method that he will use?
A. Correlational
B. Explanatory
C. Descriptive
D. Exploratory

563. Which research problem is not researchable due to insufficient data or that data cannot
be obtained?
A. A research on the conduct of morning meetings and afternoon meetings on the crime
solution efficiency of police stations
B. A research on the factors which cause the retirement of PNP personnel upon reaching 20
years in the service
C. A research on the effect of yearly unit performance evaluation rating on the overall
performance of provincial offices
D. A research on the problems encountered by the pioneering Criminology class of a university
who graduated 25 years ago

564. Jose found out that the scope of his research is too broad which requires great
investments in time, effort and money. In order to conduct his study within his means, which is
his best course of action?
A. He must only utilize descriptive statistics
B. He must simplify his theoretical framework
C. He must change his research problem
D. He must set the delimitation of the scope of his study

565. Harry is writing his research paper. There are numerous literatures which deal with his
research topic. In order to prevent the commission of plagiarism, he must observe which of the
following guidelines?
A. Check the validity of the research instruments
B. Obtain permission of the respondents
C. Citing the authors of the literature used in the research
D. Cite all ideas and information's that are not the words of the researcher

566. Which Philippine law penalizes plagiarism?

A. RA 8293
B. RA 6975
C. RA 8551
D. RA 6713 – Professional Code and Ethical Standard

567. Which data gathering method will be used by a researcher if he or she verbally
communicates with the respondents about the study?
A. Observation
B. Interview
C. Information dissemination
D. Survey questionnaire

568. Which of the following choices is the rationale as to why controversial issues are
discouraged as research topic?
A. It can provide comprehensive information regarding the respondents of the study
B. It prevents an in-depth analysis of the problem
C. It is hard to adopt an objective attitude toward controversial topics
D. It involves specialized equipment

569. A person was considered to be a serial killer for having been proved beyond reasonable
doubt of killing 9 persons. He came from a respected family and was well-educated. A
criminologist would like to conduct a study to determine the reason behind the killings
committed by the convict. To achieve this objective, which is the most appopriate research
method to use?
A. Phenomenology
B. Ethnography
C. Biography
D. Case study

570. Which is an advantage of qualitative research design where the researcher is allowed
greater spontaneity and adaptation in interacting with the research respondents?
A. Flexibility
B. Subjectivity
C. Labor-intensive
D. Unreliability

571. Which of the following choices is not an importance of statistics in criminological

research?
A. Interpret crime data
B. Cover up crime
C. Predict the occurrence of crime
D. Draw conclusions about crime incidence

572. Law enforcement planning officers determine the potential returns on investment of
specified policies and strategies which is known as _____.
A. Benefit-cost simulation
B. Pain aversion
C. The law of supply and demand
D. Reward and punishment

573. What is the part of the research paper that contains the procedures in data collection,
analysis of data as well as the source of data?
A. Title
B. Introduction
C. Abstract
D. Methodology

574. A criminologist studies an offender not only to establish the motives and other extraneous
factors that impel him to commit the crime but also to gain a general understanding of the
offender's specific case and apply this knowledge to a group which is made of similarly situated
individuals. This is a characteristic of qualitative research known as _____.
A. Specificity to generalization
B. Contextualization
C. Human understanding and interpretation
D. Internal analysis

575. All but one are the objectives of the Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018.
a. The examination, registration and licensure for criminologists;
b. The participation in the standardization of the criminology education program
c. To promulgate and adopt Code of Ethics and Code of Good Governance for the practice of
criminology;
d. The development of the professional competence of criminologists through Continuing
Professional Development (CPD)

576. Which is not a guideline on the formulation of a research problem?

A. The research question must arouse the researcher’s curiosity
B. The relation between the research question and the problem must be clear
C. Avoid research question which is answerable by a yes or no
D. It must be in a paragraph form to make it clear and comprehensive

577. Which of the following defines plagiarism, considered as one of the most common
violations of research ethics?
A. It is the act of deliberately violating accepted principles of right and wrong
B. It is the act of taking someone’s words or ideas as if they were your own
C. It is the act of deserting you. Allegiance of duty to leader or cause or principle
D. It is the act of violating accepted standards or rules

578. Identify the initial step to be taken after a child who committed a light offense was listed
in the child at risk or pink blotter.
A. Give the child a friendly advice or “payo” or a simple warning not to repeat the act/s she/he
has committed.
B. Notify the parents
C. Turn over to the barangay council for the protection of children if residing in that barangay
D. Turn over directly to the local social welfare development officer if the child is nonresident of
the municipality.

579. The following procedures shall be observed by a police officer in conducting initial
contact:
A. The apprehending officer shall identify himself/herself to the child and shall introduce
herself/himself as kuya or ate.
B. If the apprehending officer is wearing a vest or a jacket while in uniform, she/he shall show
her/his nameplate and/or badge to the child.
C. If the apprehending officer is in civilian clothes, he/she shall show his/her identification card.
D. The apprehending officer shall conduct the search of the child in a friendly, non-degrading
and gender-sensitive manner.
E. All of the above

580. “Intervention” generally refers to programmatic approaches or systematic social

protection programs for children that are designed to, except:
A. Promote the physical and social well-being of children;
B. Avert or prevent juvenile delinquency from occurring;
C. Stop or prevent children from re-offending
D. Avoid unnecessary contact with the formal justice system

581. The following factors shall be considered in formulating a Diversion Program for the child:
A. Child’s feelings of remorse for the offense committed;
B. Parents’ or legal guardians’ ability to guide and supervise the child;
C. Victim’s view about the propriety of the measures to be imposed;
D. Availability of community-based programs for the rehabilitation and reintegration of the
child; and record of prior offenses
A. 1,4 and 5
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 1,2,4 and 5
D. 1,3,4 and 5
E. All of the above

582. The following are the procedures in conducting initial contact of the child in an
educational institution, except:
A. The responding police officer shall go directly to the office of the head of the educational
institution in civilian clothes.
B. No guns shall be brought inside the premises of the educational institution.
C. The responding officer shall accomplish and sign all the school documents required for the
turnover of the child.
D. The officer shall in complete uniform while conducting initial contact

583. It is a massive repression or dissociation of certain aspect of experience or memory.

a. Anxiety reaction
b. Dissociative reaction
c. Conversion reaction
d. Phobic reaction

584. It resembles amnesia in that there is a loss of memory but the loss is so complete that the
individuals cannot remember his or her identity or previous life.
a. Psychogenic fugue state
b. Depersonalization
c. Multiple personality
d. Personality disorder

585. The removal of juveniles from jails, detention centers, and institutions. Removing
juveniles from these facilities, and when possible removing status and minor offenders from the
juvenile justice system as a whole, is the most basic type of diversion.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Diversion
c. Deinstitutionalization
d. Reintegration

586. One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is broken home. The term
broken home is ambiguous but can be characterized by:
A. Inadequate type of family structure - inability to cope with the ordinary problems of family
living
B. Anti-social type of family structure - unacceptable values as a result of the influence of
parents to their children.
C. Discordant or disturbed family structure - non-satisfaction of one or both parent from the
relationship that may express feeling of frustration.
D. Disrupted or incomplete family structure - incompleteness whether as a result of death,
divorce, separation or some other circumstances.

587. What social norm provides direction for people in their dealings with one another, as a
standard against which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or requirement that the
people act justly?
A. Justice
B. Conduct
C. Ethics
D. Commandment