Date - 13/07/2023 MOCK 1 Duration – 45 minutes

CANDIDATE
NAME

CENTRE CANDIDATE
NUMBER NUMBER

Invigilator’s Sign __________________ Examiner’s Sign ______________

CLASS: IGCSE 2 SUBJECT: PHYSICS (0625/22)

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (HB is recommended)
Calculator

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST For Examiners use

• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all Page Mark
questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C
and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your
choice in soft pencil on the OMR sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the OMR sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on
the OMR sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been
done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall / 40
= 10 m/s2). Total

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 02 Blank page.

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1. The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

2. A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A stone of mass 94 g is lowered into the water so that it is fully submerged as shown.

What is the density of the stone?

A 1.1 g/cm3 B 1.2 g/cm3 C 2.1 g/cm3 D 2.6 g/cm3
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3. The speed-time graph for an object is shown.

Below are four statements about the acceleration of the object.

Which statement is correct?
A The acceleration in the first 5 s is given by area P.
B The acceleration increases between W and X.
C The acceleration is negative between Y and Z.
D The deceleration between Y and Z is (20 ÷ 25) m / s2.

4. A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.
Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

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5. Which statement about a moving object is correct?
A When an object is accelerating, the resultant force acting on it must equal zero.
B When an object is moving at a steady speed, the air resistance acting on it must equal zero.
C When an object is moving at a steady speed, the resultant force acting on it must equal zero.
D When an object is moving, there must be a resultant force acting on it.

6. An object tends to keep moving with the same speed and in the same direction due to a certain
property.
The object also has weight due to the action of a field.
What is the name of the property, and what is the name of the field?

7. The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two 10 N forces acting at
a point in the directions shown.

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A 7.5 N B 8.6 N C 18 N D 20 N
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8. A stone is released from rest from a high building on Earth. Air resistance is negligible.
What is its velocity when it has fallen 5 m?
A 7.1 m/s B 10 m/s C 50 m/s D 100 m/s

9. An object has a mass of 500 kg. It moves with a speed of 30 m/s.

What is its kinetic energy?
A 7.5 kJ B 15 kJ C 225 kJ D 450 kJ

10. A crane on a building site lifts bricks of total mass 200 kg, initially at rest on the ground, with
uniform acceleration.
When the bricks are 5.0 m from the ground, they have a speed of 5.0 m/s.
How much work is done during this process?
A 2.5 kJ B 10.0 kJ C 12.5 kJ D 35 kJ

11. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. The car
accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car increases to 2.5 MJ.
What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this acceleration?
A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

12. A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

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13. The density of mercury is 13 600 kg/m 3.
What is the pressure at the bottom of a column of mercury that has a height of 75.0 cm?
A 1.02 × 104 Pa
B 1.02 × 105 Pa
C 1.02 × 106 Pa
D 1.02 × 107 Pa

14. Four blocks are made from different metals. Each block is heated for five minutes with an
identical heater. Assume there is no energy loss from the blocks. The table gives the masses of
the blocks and the temperature rises.
Which metal has the highest specific heat capacity?

15. A scientist measures the air temperature at different heights from the floor in a cave. The results
are recorded in the table.

Why does altering the height affect the temperature of the air?
A The molecules in warm air have less energy than the molecules in cool air.
B The molecules in cool air are further apart than the molecules in warm air.
C Warm air is less dense than cool air.
D Cool air rises above warm air.
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16. A student carries out an experiment to find the melting point of wax. The graph shows how the
temperature of the wax changes as it cools.

Which statement is correct?

A At X the temperature drops more slowly than at Z.
B At Y all the wax is solid.
C At Y thermal energy is being given out by the wax.
D At Z the wax molecules are not moving.

17. Four solid spheres made of the same metal are heated to the same temperature.
Which sphere initially loses thermal energy by radiation at the greatest rate?
A diameter of 10 cm with a dull surface
B diameter of 10 cm with a shiny surface
C diameter of 5 cm with a dull surface
D diameter of 5 cm with a shiny surface

18. The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

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19. The letter F is reflected in a mirror.

What does the optical image look like?

20. The Sun emits infrared radiation and light.

Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes.
Which row gives correct information about the infrared radiation?
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21. Which statement about electromagnetic waves is not correct?
A They travel at 3 x 108 m/s in a vacuum.
B They transfer energy.
C They travel at 340 m / s in air.
D They are transverse waves.

22. What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

23. A navigation buoy floating on the sea oscillates up and down as a wave passes.

In exactly two minutes, six complete wavelengths pass the buoy. What is the frequency of the
waves?
A 0.050 Hz B 0.33 Hz C 3.0 Hz D 20 Hz

24. Which diagram shows the electric field pattern between two oppositely charged parallel metal
plates?

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25. Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
A infrared waves
B radio waves
C ultraviolet waves
D visible light

26. Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
B Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
C Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
D Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

27. The diagram shows the magnetic fields around three objects, P, Q and R, placed close to each
other.

Which row shows the nature of each of the objects?

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28. A negatively charged rod is brought near to an uncharged metal sphere that is placed on an
insulating stand.

Which diagram shows the distribution of charges on the sphere?

29. A resistor has a potential difference (p.d.) of 12 V across it and a current of 0.60 A in it.
What is the resistance of the resistor?
A 0.050 Ω B 2.0 Ω C 7.2 Ω D 20 Ω

30. Two resistors are connected in parallel.

Which value could be the resistance of the combination?

A 12Ω B 20Ω C 25Ω D 50Ω

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31. The circuit contains a variable potential divider PQ, a lamp and a voltmeter.

The sliding contact of the potential divider is moved towards end Q. What happens to the
brightness of the lamp and what happens to the voltmeter reading?

32. Four lamps are each labelled '60W 230V'. In which circuit are the lamps connected so that they
operate at normal brightness?
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33. A fuse is used to protect an electric circuit. Which diagram shows where the fuse should be
connected?

34. A transformer has 2400 turns on its primary coil and 200 turns on its secondary coil.

What input voltage is needed to give an output voltage of 240V?

A 12V
B 20V
C 240V
D 2880V

35. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 2 weeks. At the beginning of an investigation the
substance emits 3000 β-particles per minute. How many β-particles will it emit per minute after 6
weeks?

A0 B 375 C 500 D 1500

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36. When the electric current in wire XY is in the direction shown, there is an upward force on the
wire.

If the north and south poles of the magnet exchange position, in which direction will the force on
the wire act?
A downwards
B upwards
C to the left
D to the right

37. Diagram 1 shows a potential divider circuit containing two 100 Ω resistors

One of the resistors is changed to 90 Ω, as shown in diagram 2.

How does the reading on the voltmeter change when this is done?
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A It becomes zero.
B It decreases a little.
C It increases a little.
D It stays the same

38. A radioactive source emits radiation that can pass through a sheet of paper but not through thick
aluminium.

What does this show about the radiation?

A It is alpha particles.
B It is beta-particles.
C It is gamma-rays.
D It is a mixture of alpha-particles and gamma-rays

39. A sample of a radioactive isotope is decaying.

Which atoms will decay first?
A impossible to know, because radioactive decay is random
B impossible to know, unless the age of the material is known
C atoms near the centre, because they are surrounded by more atoms
D atoms near the surface, because the radiation can escape more easily

40. Which row describes the properties of α-particles?

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