Unit :1 Communication skills

1. ___ means communication without words.

a. Object communication
b. Written communication
c. Oral communication
d. Non- verbal communication

2. The person who transmits the message is called ___.

a. channel
b. sender
c. receiver
d. response

3. ___ aims at making people work together for the common good of the organization.
a. communication
b. conversation
c. combination
d. connection

4. at each stage in the process of communication, there is a possibility of interference which

may hinder the process. Such interference is known as ___.
a. sender
b. receiver
c. barrier
d. none of them

5. ___ describes all forms of human communication that are not verbal.
a. prosody
b.vocalics
c.haptics
d.para language

6. normally communication is ___, wherein the information or message is transferred from one
person to another.
a. impersonal
b. interpersonal
c. personal
d. important

7. A ___ connects the sender to the receiver.

a. Channel
b. Noise
c. Communication
d. feedback

8. The ___ in the usage of words may be a serious barrier to effective communication.
a. disturbance
b. discrimination
c. disorder
d. distortion

9. Most of us use ___ and ___ in addition to words when we speak.

a. words and gestures
b. gestures and body language
c. body language and posture
d. posture and eye gazing

10. ___ refers to pitch, loudness, duration, intonation and, tempo.

a. touches
b. prosody
c. gestures
d. haptics

11. In ___ main intention is to seek certain information which will be appreciated.
a. empathetic
b. comprehension
c. appreciative
d. therapeutic

12. Dialogic listening is also known as ___.

a. therapeutic
b. appreciative
c. relational
d. evaluative

13. ___ means looking quickly over a textbook to get a general superficial idea of the content.
a. scanning
b. extensive reading
c. skimming
d. intensive

14. ___ reading is ideal and helps comprehension

a. extensive
b. loud
c. intensive
d. silent
15. The second step in the SQ3R of reading is ___.
a. survey
b. question
c. read
d. review

16. While making a slide the number of words should be limited to a maximum of ___ per slide.
a. seven
b. nine
c. eight
d. ten

17. ___ are the abbreviations that are made up by writing the first letters of the words in a name
or phrases.
a. field abbreviations
b. personal abbreviations
c. acronyms
d. none of them

18. ___ is the full form of the abbreviation TQM.

a. team quality management
b. total quality management
c. total quality manager
d. total quality management

19. Communication that takes place between the members of an organization within itself is
___.
a. external
b. formal
c. informal
d. internal

20. Informal meetings mark the ___ of the problem.

a. immediately
b. immediacy
c. importance
d. improvement

21. ___ is sent to specific group of people whereas ___ may be meant for general public.
a. notice, memo
b. memo, circular
c. notice, circular
d. circular, notice
22. The problem with proofreading is that you will have to be good at ___ and ___.
a. spelling, punctuation
b. pronunciation, spelling
c. punctuation, pronunciation
d. paraphrasing, spelling

23. Every sentence has two essential parts a ___ and a ___.
a. clause, predicate
b. subject, phrase
c. predicate, subject
d. subject, clause

24. Oral communication ensures___ and ___.

a. fluency; speed
b. adequate attention; immediate response
c. speedy interaction; immediate response
d. speed; attention

25. Find out errors:

Either the manager or their subordinates failed in his duty.
a. either- neither, or- nor
b. their- his, his- their
c. failed- fails, subordinates- subordinate
e. the- a, in- for

26. As a means of communication, e-mails have features of the immediacy of both ___ and ___.
a. reading, receiving
b. writing, sending
c. calling, receiving
d. receiving, sending

27. Unclarified assumptions in communication can lead to ___ and ___.

a. premature evaluation, poor listening
b. lack of planning, physical barriers
c. information overload, selective perception
d. confusion, misunderstanding

28. A resume needs conceptualization of your ___ and___ all into one document.
a. objectives, experiences
b. projects, skills
c. accomplishments, experiences
d. skills, aims
29. The semantic markers used to express time relationship are:
a. next, after
b. after, consequently
c. hence, to summarize
d. while, because

30. ___ and ___ are acted as barriers to communication.

a. semantic distortions, lack of planning
b. sender, receiver
c. channel, message
d. feedback, sender

31. When a word that has a silent “e” at the end combines with an ending that starts a vowel,
the final “e” is ___, for example, the surprise gives you ___.
a. unchanged, surprising
b. dropped, surprising
c. deleted, surprising
d. changed, surprising

32. The primary goal of communication is to ___.

a. to create barriers
b. to create noises
c. to effect a change
d. none of these

33. Communication through ___ and ___ is called verbal communication

a. written material and gestures
b. gestures and spoken words
c. spoken words and written material
d. body language and gestures

34. ___ is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions or emotions by two or more persons.
a. communication
b. combination
c. conversation
d. connection

35. The ___ of the correct channel depends on the situation under which the communication
takes place.
a. chance
b. choice
c. change
d. channel
36. ___ is the study of touches as non-verbal communication.
a. haptics
b. body language
c. gestures
d. prosody

37. The fourth step in the SQ3R technique of reading os ___.

a. recall
b. review
c. survey
d. reading

38. ___ is an announcement sheet that is sent to a specific group of people.

a. notice
b. memo
c. circular
d. letter

39. ___ is essentially a statement of facts of a situation, project or process or test and it should
be supported by.
a. notice, proof
b. technical report, evidence
c. memo, information
d. letter, documentors

40. ___ is done when you need to continue learning and studying that you develop your own
thinking and skills.
a. professional reading
b. action
c. extensive
d. intensive

41. ___ and ___ as visual aids should contain the minimum information necessary.
a. flip charts slide
b. PowerPoint, overhead projects
c. video, film
d. overhead projects, slides

42. Too much of ___ communication in the workspace may also prove ___. It may lead to
negligence of work.
a. formal, positive
b. informal, negative
c. verbal, positive
d. non-verbal, negative
43. Communication helps managers utilize ___ and ___ in the most effective and efficient
manner.
a. employees, organization
b. control, evaluation of performance
c. plans, goals
d. manpower, resources

44. The most crucial part of the ___ process is thinking of converting to ___ what one hears.
a. reading, understanding
b. speaking, meaning
c. hearing, interpreting
d. listening, meaning

45. Language of a memo should be ___ and ___ to understand.

a. indirect, personal
b. direct, concise
c. lucid, easy
d. concise, difficult

46. What is the full form of R&D:

a. resources and development
b. recharge and discard
c. research and demand
d. research and development

47. Find out the errors:

Besides being good at tennis, he is also an excellent player of golf.
a. good- better, being- been
b. beside- besides, in- at
c. excellent- intelligent, besides – besides
d. in- at, being- been

48.in letter writing, ___ indicates to the reader of the letter what the ___ is about.
a. salutation, letter
b. subject, notice
c. body, memo
d. subject, letter

49. While using overhead projectors, you can reveal the information line by using an ___ sheet
to over the ___.
a. opaque, flip chart
b. translucent, transparency
c. transparent, slide
d. opaque, transparency

50. A press release is a ___ news ___ story, written in ___ person that seeks to demonstrate to
an editor or reporter the newsworthiness of a particular person, event, service, or product.
a. false, first
b. pseudo, third
c. real, second
d. original, third

51. Complete the following statements with appropriate conjunctions:

1. ___ he worked hard, he failed.
2. I cannot lift the box ___ it is very heavy.
3. The current status report has been attaché, ___ I have highlighted the important figures.
4. ___ we have no money, we cannot buy it.
(a) although, because, and, since
(b) since, and, although, because,
(c) because, since, and, although
(d) and, although, since, because

52. Which one of the following is correct: the process of communication.

(a) encoding, receiver, message, response, feedback, the sender
(b) sender, encoding, message, decoding, receiver, response, feedback
(c) sender, response encoding, message, decoding, receiver, feedback
(d) sender, decoding, message, encoding, receiver, response, feedback

53. Say whether true or false:

1. use simple language without clichés while writing a memo.
2. Minutes are submitted by the name of the typist who has typed the minutes.
3. The minutes of the meeting should contain the point of view of the minute taker
4. You can use tables and charts in a memo.
(a) false, true, true, false
(b) true, false, false, true
(c) false, true, true, true
(d) false, false, false

54. What is the full form of FOB:

(a) fire on board
(b) free on broad
(c) free onboard
(d) free of board

55. Match the following body language gestures with their meanings:
(1) rolling one’s eyes (a) lack of confidence
(2) nodding (b) exasperation
(3) the crossing of arms (c) confirmation
(4) shaking of legs (d) defensive
a. 1- d, 2- c,3- b, 4- a
b. 1-c,2-a,3-d,4-b
c. 1-b,2-c,3-d,4-a
d. 1-a,2-b,3-c,4-d

56. One of the great tools that are used to handle complaining customers is the technique of
BLAST. The acronym stands for:
(a) believe, listen, apologize, satisfy, treat
(b) believe, listen, apologize, suggest, thank
(c) believe, listen, apologize, satisfy, thank
(d) believe, list, apologize, satisfy, thank

57. Which of the following statements are true?

1. in oral communication, there is a possibility of immediate response.
2. if one wants to have effective communication, one should be egoistic.
3. Oral communication always saves time.
4. Never leave a caller on hold.
(a) false, true, true, false
(b) true, false, false, true
(c) true, true, false, false
(d) false, false, true, false

58. Which one of them are types of listening:

1. comprehension listening
2. critical listening
3. evaluative listening
4. intensive listening
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 3, 4, 1
(d) 4, 2, 1

59. SQ3R Technique of reading stands for:

(a) Survey, Question, read, recall, review.
(b) survey, quotient, read, review, recall
(c) Survey, question, relief, recall, read
(d) Survey, question, recall, review, read

60. The semantic markers used to indicate illustration and examples are :
(1) first and foremost (2) for example (3) let’s take for example (4) for instance
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 3,4,1
(d) 4,1,2

61. Which of the following statements is true about Powerpoint slides:

1. all the slides must be part of a simple PowerPoint file as it saves time.
2. Use fonts that will get distorted while processing.
3. Keep images away from the edges of a slide as they may get cropped while mounting the
slide.
4.If you are preparing for a 35 mm image the PowerPoint slides must not be formatted for 35
mm.
(a) true, true, true, true
(b) true, false, true, false
(c) false, true, false, true
(d) false, true, true, false

62. Which one of them is a type of reading?

1.extensive reading,
2. evaluative reading
3. scanning
4. intensive reading
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 1,3,4
(c) 2,3,4,
(d) 1,2,4

63. While composing a ___ message, only keywords and ___ are used. Function words such as
___ and ___ should not be included.
(a) telephonic, structures, conjunctions, prepositions
(b) face- to-face, signs, articles, nouns
(c) formal, symbols, nouns, pronouns
(d) telegraphic, phrases, articles, preposition.

64. What is the full form of RSI:

(a) Repetition Strain Injury
(b) Repetitive Strain Inquiry
(c) Repetitive Stress Injury
(d) Repetitive Strain Injury

65.Which one of the following is the correct structure of the letter:

(a) address, date, body, subject, signature, enclosure,
(b) address of the applicant, date, salutation, subject, body, signature, enclosure
(c) address, salutation, date, body, subject, enclosure, signature
(d) address, date, subject, body, salutation, enclosure, signature
66. While communication with the ___, ___ phrases and ___ have to be used in their ___
contexts.
(a) customers, polite, expressions, appropriate
(b) relatives, harsh, gestures, inappropriate
(c) Subordinates, impolite, impressions, true
(d) audience, rude, dialogues actual

67. ___ is the most important aspect of style in a language.

a. alphabets
b. articles
c. punctuation
d. nouns

68. _ is a means of making ideas and thoughts clearer and easier to grasp by breaking them
down into logical units
a. Writing
b. Punctuation marks
c. Pronunciation
d. Grammar

69. Punctuation decides the combination of two words to make a ___

a. Letter
b. Memo
c. Report
d. Phrase or clause

70. ___ is also called “Period in American English.

a. Comma
b. Exclamation
c. Full stop
d. Semicolon

71. While a dash is used to separate two words, ___ is used to unite them
a. Comma
b. Exclamation
c. Hyphen
d. Semicolon

72. ___ is used to separate clauses of a compound sentence when they have a comma
a. Colon
b. Semicolon
c. Parenthesis
d. Hyphen
73. The forum where people sit together and discuss a topic with the common objective of
finding a solution for a problem is called ___
a. Interview
b. Drama
c. Play
d. Group Discussion

74. ___ is the person who coordinates the group discussion

a. Manager
b. Timekeeper
c. Moderator
d. Leader

75. A ___ is a narration of a situation or an event

a. Case
b. Report
c. Letter
d. Interview

76. Back straight, and arms and legs uncrossed, indicates a ___ posture
a. Closed
b. Tensed
c. Open
d. Relaxed

77. The ___ is used to indicate possession and contraction in sentence

a. Comma
b. Apostrophe
c. Full stop
d. Quotation Marks

78. ___ encloses the words of a speaker.

a. Quotation Marks
b. Comma
c. Full stop
d. Apostrophe

79. ___ pertains to the “what to say” aspect of the group discussion
a. Group Behaviour
b. Appearance
c. Manners
d. Knowledge of the content
80. Group discussion is arranged in order to measure certain ___ of the participants, which are
otherwise difficult to identify and time-consuming to assess.
a. Caste
b. Traits and qualities
c. Complexion
d. Religion

81. ___ is mainly used to introduce words that explain, amplify or interpret what precedes it
a. Colon
b. Semicolon
c. The hyphen
d. Full stop

82. ___ can be used to show the omission of a verb in a sentence

a. Comma
b. Colon
c. Full stop
d. The hyphen

83. To separate a noun clause preceding a verb ___ is used

a. Full stop
b. Quotation Mark
c. Dash
d. Comma

84. Showing direction to a group requires the following quality

a. Leadership
b. Good Appearance
c. Open body language
d. Communication skills

85. A business proposal from a branch manager of a company to the managing director of the
company is an example of horizontal communication. ((True / False).

Extra question’s Communication skills

Q1.Information and Communication Technology

b. Information and Communication Terminology

c. Information and Common Technology

d. Information to Communication Technology

Q2. A computer is an _____________ machine

a. mechanical

b. electrical

c. electronic

d. None of the above

Q3. ICT refers to all the methods, tools, concepts related to

a. storing digital information.

b. recording digital information.

c. sending digital information.

d. All of the above

Q4. Which of the following ways are used to record or store information?
a. handwritten on paper

b. written using a typewriter

c. typed in computer

d. All of the above

Q5. Physical part of computer is called ___________

a. Hardware

b. Software

c. Shareware

d. None of the above

Q6. Which of the following is not computer hardware?

a. RAM
b. Keyboard

c. MS Paint

d. Monitor

Q7. Which of the following is/are examples of software?

a. MS Word

b. MS Excel

c. OpenOffice Calc

d. All of the above

Q8. ______ act as an interface between the user and the computer.
a. Operating System

b. Ms Excel

c. Impress

d. Digital Documentation

Q9. Software that starts working as soon as we switch on a computer is

a. RAM

b. ROM

c. Operating System

d. None of the above

Q10. Hardware would not be able to function without ___________

a. Shareware

b. Freeware

c. Software

d. None of the above

Q11. Which of the following is an output device?

a. Monitor

b. Speaker

c. Printer

d. All of the above

Q12. Which of the following are mobile operating system?

a. Apple iOS

b. Android

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q13. BIOS stands for

a. Basic Input/Output System

b. Base Input/Output System

c. Basic Input and Output Systematic

d. None of the above

Q14. Identify the input device

a. Printer

b. Speaker

c. Mouse

d. Monitor

Q15. A __________ is a device used to type text, numbers and commands into the computer.
a. Mouse

b. Keyboard

c. Joystick

d. None of the above

Q16. Keys labeled from F1 to F12 are __________ keys
a. Input

b. System

c. Function

d. Help

Q17. The function of the F1 key in most programs is to ___________

a. open save as dialog box

b. open help

c. delete a file

d. None of the above

Q18. You use the _______________ key to move the cursor to the beginning of a new line.
a. Enter

b. Return

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q19. Navigation keys are

a. Arrow Keys

b. Page Up

c. Page down

d. All of the above

Q20. When the INSERT key is turned ON, it helps you overwrite characters to the ______ of the
cursor
a. left

b. right

c. both of the above

d. None of the above

Q21. DELETE key is used to remove typed text on the _______ side of the cursor.
a. left

b. right

c. both of the above

d. None of the above

Q22. Backspace key is used to remove typed text on the _____ side of the cursor.
a. left

b. right

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q23. _____________ key opens the start menu.

a. Arrow

b. Ctrl

c. Windows

d. None of the above

Q24. A _____________ is a device that you can use to move, select and open items on your
computer screen.
a. Mouse

b. Joystick

c. Scanner

d. None of the above

Q25. When you click a particular file by mouse, it may gets __

a. Selected

b. Deselected
c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q26. When you move the item to the new location with the help of mouse. This is called
________________
a. Move and drop

b. Move and leave

c. Drag and drop

d. None of the above

Q27.Double-clicking means to quickly click the ______ mouse button twice

a. right

b. left

c. both of the above

d. None of the above

Q28. We can ___ a file by mouse by double click on file.

a. Close

b. Save

c. Open

d. Delete

Q29. ______functions is performed by mouse?

a. Click

b. Double Click

c. Drag and Drop

d. All of the above

Q30. Prevent others from using your computer by __________

a. using username and password

b. using antivirus

c. using UPS

d. using internet

Q31. Electronic files in computer can be ____________

a. Copied

b. Moved

c. Rename

d. All of the above

Q32. Each file in computer has _______________

a. Name

b. Extension

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q33. The file name and file name extension are separated by a _______
a. period

b. comma

c. semi colon

d. None of the above

Q34. Sneha created a file in Notepad and saved the file by name “hello” so the complete name
of file will be _____________
a. hello.doc

b. hello.docx

c. hello.txt

d. hello.jpg
Q35. The extension of image file is _____________
a. .xls

b. .jpg

c. .doc

d. .docx

Q36. A __________ is a location where a group of files can be stored.

a. folder

b. main file

c. super file

d. none of the above

Q37. When a student, Neha, joins a class, the teacher creates a file on the computer to store
Neha’s information, such as name, address, phone number. In which of the following
application, we can store such information?
a. Notepad

b. Wordpad

c. MS Word

d. All of the above

Q38. Which of the following is a text editor?

a. MS Excel

b. MS Paint

c. Notepad

d. All of the above

Q39. Shortcut to save file is ________________

a. Ctrl + S

b. Ctrl + F1
c. Alt + S

d. None of the above

Q40. We need to protect our computer from ____________

a. Air

b. Dust

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q41. We should avoid _______ to protect our computer/laptop.

a. Eating near computer

b. Keeping a glass of water near computer

c. Dropping laptop

d. All of the above

Show Answer
Q42. The CPU has an ______________ to keep it cool.
a. internal fan

b. external fan

Show Answer
Q43. Overcharge your mobile/laptop battery will _______ the battery life.
a. increase

b. decrease

c. no change

d. None of the above

Show Answer
Q44. Backing up data means to save the information present on your computer on another
device.(T/F)
a. True

b. False

Show Answer
Q45. ___________ is used to protect our computer from virus.
a. Worm

b. Anti Spyware

c. Anti virus

d. None of the above

Show answer
Q46. __________ software, help us to clean up the unnecessary files.
a. Data Cleaner

b. Disk Cleaner

c. Cleaner

d. None of the above

Q47. Unwanted mails are called ______________

a. A-SPAM

b. SPM

c. SPAM

d. N-SPAM

Q48. What happens if you plugged in mobile/laptop even after 100% charge?
a. Device will break

b. Device will stop working

c. Device will over heat

d. None of the above

Q49. Pressing ____________ key opens the Start menu.

a. Windows

b. Alt + Windows

c. Ctrl + Windows

d. None of the above

Q50. ________ key helps to move the cursor to the beginning of a new line.
a. Ctrl + Home

b. Ctrl + End

c. Enter

d. None of the above

Q51. Extension of temporary file is ____

a) .tmp

b) .exe

c) .bmp

d) .xls

Q52. Press _____ on the keyboard to open Run dialog box.

a. Ctrl + R

b. Alt + R

c. Windows button + R

d. None of the above

Q53. To open Temp folder type ____________ in Run dialog box.

a. temp%

b. %temp%
c. #temp#

d. Any of the above

Q54. A device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on user-
defined security rules is ________
a. Antivirus

b. Malware

c. Firewall

d. None of the above

Q55. Firewall is a _____________________

a. Software

b. Hardware

c. Hardware or Software

d. None of the above

Q56. ___________ are small files which are stored on a user’s computer when a user visit a
website on the internet.
a. Image

b. Cookies

c. Firewall

d. None of the above

Q57. Identify which of the following is a temporary file?

a. flower.jpg

b. temporary.doc

c. temporary.docx

d. web.tmp

Q58. Cookies are always harmful.(T/F)

a. True
b. False

Q59. _______ typically contain information about your visit to the webpage or record your login
information.
a. Cookies

b. Image

c. Firewall

d. None of the above

Q60. Press ______ to select all files.

a. Ctrl + S

b. Ctrl + A

c. Ctrl + D

d. Ctrl + P

Q61. VIRUS is an acronym for

a. Vital Information Resource Under Seize

b. Vital Information Resource Under Size

c. Vital Information Remark Under Seize

d. Vital Informative Resource Under Seize

Q62. A _________ is a software program that attaches itself to other programs and alters their
behavior.
a. Cookie

b. Computer virus

c. Firewall

d. None of the above

Show Answer
Q63. A computer virus can infect only ________
a. Hardware

b. Software

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q64. A computer can get infected with virus by

a. Infected files

b. Infected pen drives

c. Infected file attachment of e-mails

d. All of the above

Q65. A computer virus cannot ____

a. infect files on CD or DVD, if they are closed for writing.

b. infect computer hardware like, keyboard, mouse, etc.

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q66. Common signs of a virus attack is/are :

a. Computer runs very slow

b. There is change in the file size

c. Computer restarts on its own

d. All of the above

Q67. To prevent virus infection we should

a. Install and use anti-virus software.

b. not open e-mails of an unknown person/sender

c. not allow any untrustworthy person to use your system.

d. All of the above

Q68. Which of the following is an Antivirus?
a. Norton AntiVirus

b. Quick Heal

c. McAfee Virus Scan

d. All of the above

Q69. An anti-virus program can be effective when

a. it run in the background at all times.

b. it is regularly updated

c. it scan full disk periodically

d. All of the above

Q70. Characteristics of computer virus is :

a. it makes copies of itself.

b. it makes the system slow.

c. it may get activated at a certain date and time.

d. All of the above

Q71. Regular care and maintenance of computer is required

a. to detect any issues at an early stage

b. so that system works efficiently

c. to avoid a condition of System Failure

d. All of the above

Q72. Regular maintenance of the system includes

a. installing updates of the software

b. check the security of the system

c. taking backups of important files and documents

d. All of the above

Q73. Precaution to be taken while cleaning the computer components are :
a. Power Off the computer before cleaning

b. Never spray cleaning fluid directly on the component of the computer.

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q74. We should never spray any liquid cleaner directly on

a. Keyboard

b. Monitor

c. Mouse

d. All of the above

Q75. Disk defragmentation help to

a. remove the virus from the system

b. use the disc space at an optimal level.

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q76. System Performance can be increased by

a. increasing RAM

b. disk defragmentation

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q77. __________parts of the computer system should be cleaned so that it can work properly.
a. Internal

b. External

c. Both internal and external

d. None of the above
Q78. DOS stands for ______________
a. Disk Operating System

b. Dot Operating System

c. Disk Open System

d. Disk Operating Secure

Q79. Which of the following is Microsoft Product?

a. DOS

b. Windows

c. Android

d. Linux

Q80. ________________ operating system is an example of an interactive operating system.

a. Windows

b. DOS

c. Linux

d. None of the above

Q81. GUI stands for _______________________

a. Graphical User Interface

b. Graphical User Interaction

c. Graphical User Interactive

d. None of the above

Q82. Which operating system allows only one user to do a task on the computer and one thing
at a time?
a. Single-user, multi-task operating system

b. Single-user , single-task operating system

c. Multi-user
d. None of the above

Q83. Which Operating System is used to control machinery like robots in complex animations
and computer controlled automated machines
a. Real Time

b. Multi-user

c. Single-user, multi-task operating system

d. Distributed

Q84. Examples of real-time operating systems is :

a. Windows CE

b. Lynx OS

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q85. Examples of distributed operating systems is

a. Windows

b. Unix

c. Linux

d. All of the above

Q86. ___________ operating system enables multiple users to work on the same computer
simultaneously.
a. Single-user , single-task operating system

b. Single-user, multi-task operating system

c. Multi-user

d. None of the above

Q87. Which Operating System enables single user to operate on several programs at the same
time.
a. Single-user, multi-task operating system

b. Multi-user

c. Single-user , single-task operating system

d. Real Time

Q88. Example of Multi Tasking Operating System is

a. Windows

b. Apple MacOS

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q89. An operating system in which commands can be entered by clicking/double-clicking/right-

clicking a mouse is :
a. GUI-based

b. CUI-based

c. TUI-based

d. None of the above

Q90. Examples of Mobile operating Systems is :

a. Android

b. Symbian

c. iOS

d. All of the above

Q91. The first screen that appears on monitor after loading OS is called ________________
a. Icons

b. Desktop

c. Wall paper

d. None of the above

Q92. Small pictures on the desktop are called _______
a. Desktop

b. Symbols

c. Icons

d. Pictures

Q93. Picture used for the desktop background is called __________

a. Wallpaper

b. Background image

c. Wall image

d. Desktop image

Q94. Start button is present on _________ side of the Taskbar.

a. right

b. left

c. top

d. bottom

Q95. Bar present at the bottom of the desktop is called ____________

a. Status bar

b. Scroll bar

c. Taskbar

d. None of the above

Q96. Components of Windows 7 Desktop is/are :

a. Desktop

b. Wallpaper
c. Taskbar

d. All of the above

Q97. Which icons allows user to access all drives, files, and folders on the computer.
a. Recycle Bin

b. Computer

c. Application

d. Start button

Q98. The main components of Taskbar is/are

a. Start button

b. Active Applications

c. Date/Time icon

d. All of the above

Q99. Deleted files and folders are stored in _______________

a. Recycle bin

b. My Computer

c. Control Panel

d. None of the above

Q100. Everything we store in computer is stored in the form of a __________

a. Folder

b. Sub folder

c. File

d. None of the above

 SELF MANAGEMENT
Q1. Which of the following statements is true
1. In small quantities, stress is good
2. Too much stress is harmful
3. All stress is bad
4. Only ‘1’ & ‘2’ are right
Q2. Stress management is about learning
1. How to avoid the pressures of life
2. How to develop skills that would enhance our body’s adjustment when we are subjected to
the pressures of life
3. Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are true
4. None of the above
Q3. Which of the following statements is true about stress management
1. Stress management is learning about the connection between mind and body
2. Stress management helps us control our health in a positive sense
3. Stress management teaches us to avoid all kinds of stress
4. Only ‘1’ & ‘2’ are right
Q4. Which of the following are the basic sources of stress
1. The Environment
2. Social Stressors
3. Physiological
4. Thoughts
5. All of the above
Q5. Examples of environmental stressors are
1. Weather
2. Traffic
3. Financial problems
4. Substandard housing
5. Only ‘1’ , ‘2’ & ‘4’ are right
Q6. Examples of social stressors are
1. Financial problems
2. Divorce
3. Loss of a loved one
4. Job interviews

5. All of the above

Q7. Examples of physiological stressors are
1. Menopause
2. Giving birth
 3. Sleep disturbances
4. Relationship problems
5. Only ‘1’, ‘2’, & ‘3’ are true
Q8. The following are the characteristics of Positive Stress
1. It improves performance
2. It feels exciting
3. It motivates
4. All of the above
Q9. The following are the characteristics of Negative Stress
1. It causes anxiety
2. It feels unpleasant
3. It decreases performance
4. All of the above
Q10. Which of the following statements is true
1. Positive stress is short-term
2. Negative stress can be short or long-term
3. Negative stress can lead to mental as well as physical problems
4. Negative stress is perceived within our coping abilities
5. All of the above
6. All except ‘4’ is true
Q11. The following are the examples of negative stressors
1. Unemployment
2. Legal problems
3. Divorce
4. All of the above
Q12. The following are the examples of positive stressors
1. New job
2. Having a child
3. Buying a home
4. All of the above

Q13. Which of the following statements is true

1. Habitual behaviour patterns like over scheduling, procrastination, etc. Can cause negative
stress
2. Thoughts like fear, worrying about future etc. can cause negative stress
3. Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are true
4. None of the above
Q14. Which of the following are the physical symptoms of anxiety
1. Racing heart
 2. Sweaty palms
3. Flushed cheeks
4. All of the above
Q15. What are the behavioural reactions to anxiety
1. Avoiding situation where there are chances of experiencing anxiety
2. Escaping situations when feelings of anxiety begin
3. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ are true
4. None of the above
Ty can cause the following moods
1. Irritable
2. Nervous
3. Panicky
4. Anxious
5. All of the above
Q17. What thoughts come to the mind when you’re under negative stress
1. You think that you can cope with the situation
2. You think that you cannot cope with the situation
3. You think that everything will get fine eventually
4. You think that you will get hep immediately
Q18. The symptoms of stress can be divided in to the following categories
1. Cognitive
2. Emotional
3. Physical
4. Behavioural
5. All of the above

Q19. Which of the following statements is true

1. Moodiness is a cognitive symptom of stress
2. Moodiness is an emotional symptom of stress
3. Poor judgement is an emotional symptom of stress
4. Agitation is cognitive symptom of stress
Q20. The following are true about the behavioural symptoms of stress
1. The subject’s starts eating more or less
2. The subject starts sleeping more or less
3. The subject isolates himself/herself from others
4. All of the above
Q21. Aches, shallow breathing and sweating, frequent colds are
1. Physical symptoms of stress
2. Behavioural symptoms of stress
3. Emotional symptoms of stress
 4. Cognitive symptoms of stress
Q22. The following are true about the effects of stress
1. Hair loss and baldness
2. Spasmodic pains in the neck and shoulders
3. Hypertension
4. All of the above
Q23. What are the questions you need to ask yourself while you are assessing yourself for
stabov
1. Where do you feel stress in your body
2. How do you know when you are stress
3. How do you react to stress
4. All of the above
Q24. Who was the first to describe the “fight or flight response”
1. Walter B. Cannon
2. Sigmund Freud
3. Atkinson Potter
4. MrunalSengupta
Q25. Which of the following are true in relation to Relaxation Response
1. It is a physical state of deep rest
2. Eliciting this reduces your metabolism
3. Eliciting this reduces your blood pressure
4. All of the above

Q26. Which of the following is true about eliciting the relaxation response
1. Repetition of a word
2. Passive disregard of everyday thoughts
3. Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are true
4. Doing weight training
Q27. Which of the following Mindfulness meditation techniques can help relieve stress
1. Body Scan
2. Walking Meditation
3. Mindful Eating
4. All of the above
Q28. Which of the following are true about ‘mini-relaxation exercises’
1. You can do them anywhere
2. You can do them without eliciting attention from others around you
3. It is most beneficial if you do it on a regular basis
4. All of the above
Q29. Which of the following is true about ‘deep breathing relaxation technique’
1. It can be self-taught
 2. It releases tension from the body and clears your mind
3. You have to do this under-water
4. Only ‘1’ & ‘2’ are true
Q30. Which of the following are true about the ‘Guided Imagery’ technique
1. It is like vivid daydreaming
2. You need a hypnotist for this technique
3. You need to rest in a sleeping posture
4. All of the above
Q31. Which of the following are stress busters
1. Trying to find something funny in a difficult situation
2. Developing a support network
3. Taking a mindful walk
4. All of the above
41. ________________ stress makes a person worrisome, less productive and may lead to
various disorders.
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

42. Stress refers to _________strain/tension.

a. Physical
b. Mental
c. Emotional
d. All of the above
43. ______________ refers to human efforts for maintaining healthy body and mind..
a. Stress Management
b. Self Motivation
c. Self Regulation
d. None of the above
44. Stress causing agents are :
a. Mental
b. Physical
c. Financial
d. All of the above
45. Students may feel __________ stress if they are unable to submit their assignment.
a. Physical
b. Financial
c. Mental
d. None of the above
46. Issues related to health of an individual can lead to low self-esteem and cause
___________stress.
a. Financial
b. Emotional
c. Mental
d. Physical
47. Importance of stress management is/are
a. Improves mood
b. Boosts immune system
c. Increases efficiency
d. All of the above

48. Breathlessness, dry mouth, butterflies in stomach, indigestion etc are sign of _________
stress.
a. Mental
b. Physical
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
49. Stress management prevents _____________________
a. Psychological disorders
b. Behavioural problems
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
50. Irritation, impatience, loneliness, upset mood, anxiety are sign of _____________________
stress.
a. Mental
b. Physical
c. Emotional
d. None of the above
51. Which of the following help to manage stress?
a. Self-awareness of symptoms of stress.
b. Speaking out to the well-wishers like family and friends.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
52. _____________ is/are Stress Management Technique.
a. Physical Exercise
b. Yoga
c. Meditation
d. All of the above
53. ______________ includes a series of postures and breathing exercises to control body and
mind.
a. Meditation
b. Yoga
c. Physical Exercise
d. None of the above
54. _____________ is a practice where an individual is supposed to focus his/her mind.
a. Yoga
b. Physical Exercise
c. Meditation
d. Nature Walk

55. Which of the following help to manage stress?

a. Recreational activities like watching movies etc
b. Going On Vacations with Family and Friends
c. Taking Nature Walks
d. All of the above
56. Self-Reliance means _____
a. Ability to Work Independently.
b. Take ownership of the task assigned and leave no stone unturned in accomplishing
the task.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
57. Having conscious knowledge of your own self, capabilities, feelings and one’s own character
is called as _____
a. Self-Regulation
b. Self-Motivation
c. Self-Awareness
d. None of the above
58.Ability to work independently can be enhanced by being _____________
a. Self-aware
b. Self-motivated
c. Self-regulated
d. All of the above
59. Importance of The Ability to Work Independently is/are ___
a. Ensures greater learning.
b. It ensures creativity and satisfaction amongst individuals.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
60. Which of the following is not a Stress management technique?
a. Taking Nature Walk
b. Focusing on negative aspects of life.
c. Maintaining a positive attitude towards life.
d. None of the above

Q61. Being _________ means that you can identify your strengths and weaknesses

a. Self-Aware
b. Self Motivated
c. Self Regulated
d. None of the above
Q62. Which of the following statement is showing weakness of Ravi?
a. Ravi play guitar very well.
b. Ravi is good at creative writing.
c. Ravi find it difficult to solve mathematics problems.
d. None of the above
Q63. _________________ is simply the force within you that drives you to do things.
a. Self-Awareness
b. Self-Regulation
c. Self-Motivation
d. None of the above
Q64. ___________________ makes you to complete work or studies without others cheering
you.
a. Self – confidence
b. Communication
c. Self – motivation
d. Self – Esteem
Q65. . Which of the following are types of motivation?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Q66. Ravi works hard to get the best student award at the end of year. What type of motivation
is this?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Intermediate
d. None of the above
Q67. Ram performed on annual day function and learn something new, such as dancing,
singing, etc What type of motivation is this?
a. Internal
 b. External

c. Intermediate
d. None of the above
Q68. Suresh participated in a 100m race and won a prize. This motivated him to go for practice
every morning. What type of Motivation is this?
a. Internal
b. Intermediate
c. External
d. None of the above
Q69. Rekha gets up at 5 am and goes for her dance classes. Then she comes home and
finishes her homework before going to school. This is an example of ____
a. Self Awareness
b. Self Motivation
c. Self Regulation
d. None of the above
Q70. Neha spends all her after-school hours to practice more and more sample question
papers. She wants to do well in her exams. This is an example of __________
a. Self Awareness
b. Self Motivation
c. Self Regulation
d. None of the above
Q71. __________________ are a set of dreams with a deadline to get them.
a. Goals
b. Goal Setting
c. Vision
d. None of the above
Q72. ________ is all about finding and listing your goals and then planning on how to achieve
them.
a. First Goal
b. Goal setting
c. Goal Keeping
d. None of the above
Q73. We can use ______ method to set goals.
a. SMART
b. CLASS
c. FIRST
d. None of the above
Q74. Goals should be ____________
a. Specific
 b. Measurable
c. Achievable
d. All of the above
Q75. Which of the following is an un realistic goal?
a. I will read my entire year’s syllabus of all subjects in one day.
b. I will write 1 page daily to improve my hand writing..
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Q76. ____________ is the ability to plan and control how you spend the hours of your day well
and do all that you want to do.
a. Self management
b. Time management
c. Goal management
d. None of the above
Q77. Time management is the thinking skill that helps you to ________
a. Complete tasks on time
b. Make a daily timetable.
c. Not waste time during the day.
d. All of the above
Q78. Sameera is always punctual at school. She has a regular schedule that she follows
everyday. Nisha usually arrives late to work. She does not submit her assignments on time. She
sometimes forget the main task. Who is better in Time Management Skill?
a. Sameera
b. Nisha
c. Sameeraand Nisha both
d. None of the above
Q79. What is ‘S’ in SMART method of Goal Setting?
a. Smart
b. Short
c. Specific
d. None of the above.
Q80. Qualities of Self-motivated People is/are ____________
a. They are focused
b. They know what is important
c. They are dedicated to fulfill their dreams
d. All of the above

81. What makes you complete work or studies without others cheering you?
(a) Self-confidence
(b) Communication
© Self-motivation
(c) Self-esteem
82. Which of the following are types of motivation?Internal
A Intermediate
©. External
C. Internal
83. Ravi works hard to get the best student award at the end of year. What type of motivation is
this?
(d) Internal
(e) E xternal
A. © Both internal and external
84.which of the following is a self management skill?
A rational ability
B. Personal quality
C. Both a and b

85.Which of the following shows your ability to participate as a member of a team?

A. Interpersonal skills
B. Communicational skill
C. None of these
86.Self management skills muster your vanity
A. True
B. False
87.Your intellectual(or cognitive) skills are determined by your EQ
A. True
B. False
88.Your interpersonal skills are determined by your IQ
A. True
B. False
89.________the extent to which you base your behaviour on cues fron other people and
situations
A. Self monitoring
B. Self esteem
C. Both a and b

90.General feeling of self worth is known as

A. Self confidence
B. Self esteem
C. None of the above
 91.Rational abilities include your abilityto understand a problem and then to find a way to
effectively solve it.
A. True
B. False

92.Takinginitiatives reflects your positive personal character

A. True
B. False

93.Self management skills do not include

A. Manage emotion
B. Manage inanimate Object
C. Manage situation
94.Three broad areas influenced by self management do not include
A. Rational abilities
B. Personal quality
C. Communicational skills

95._____________refers to the belief about your ability to deal with events and challenges

A. Self confidence
B. Self efficiency
C. Self monitering
96. Improving your self management skills
A. Builds your confidence
B. Make friend
C. None
97. Which one is not considered a self-management skill?
A. Problem solver
B. Stress-resistance
C. A bargain hunter
D. Communication
98. What does it mean to be stress-resistant?
A. You never have stress in your life
B. You know how to handle stress efficiently
C. You have too much stress in your life
D. stressstress
99._________ refers to as ‘self-control’ means that the ability to control one’s emotions,
thoughts, and behaviour effectively in different situations.
100.Which of the following is one of the self-management skills?
A.Motivating Oneself
B.Setting Goals
C.Work Independently
D.All of the above
101.Asking about honest feedback, gathering personality traits, think about daily interactions are
related to which of the following skills?
A.Responsibility
B.Adaptability
c.Time management
D.Self-awareness
102.If an employer has assigned a task to an employee with a specific timeline. But due to a few
reasons, the employee couldn’t complete his work. The employee must
A.Ignore to report
B.Must report it
C.Remains absent for that day
D. for additional time without a report
103. an individual is prioritising the work, it is considered as ___________ (Ans. Time-
management)
104.Staying with the current situation with new updated information and preparing yourself for
new challenges is called _________.
A.Responsibility
B.Adaptability
C.Time management
D.Self-awareness
105._________ can be defined as our emotional, mental, physical and social reaction to any
perceived demands or threats. (Ans. Stress)
A. Stress can be impacted positively also in our life. (True/False)
B.Which of the following is the most effective technique of stress management?
C.Healthy Diet
D Exercises and Yoga
E. Positivity
F.Time Management
106.Which of the following technique help you to become more active physically?
A. Exercises and Yoga
B. Sleep
C. Healthy Diet
D. Sleep
107. of the following technique provide you with the strength to do your daily work efficiently?
A. Healthy Diet
B. Sleep
C. Holiday with family or friends
D. work on time
108. Which of the following help to recharge your brain and your body to function better?
A. Healthy Diet
B. Sleep
C. Holiday with family or friends
D. Completing work on time
109.Which of the following refresh your routine?
A. Healthy Diet
B. Day with family or friends
C. Completing work on time
110.Becoming self-aware, self-monitoring, and self-correcting, knowing what you do, taking
initiative rather than being told, recognising own mistakes, not blaming others, and ability to
learn continuously referred to as ____________.
A. Dependent
B. Ego
C. Self Controlled
D. Intelligence
111.The ability to understand and identify their own emotions and other emotions as well is
known as emotional intelligence. (True/False)
112.The ability to identify and name our emotions is called ____________
A. Emotional Awareness
B. Harnessing Emotions
C. Managing Emotions
113. ability to apply emotions to tasks like thinking and problem solving referred to as
harnessing emotions. (True/False)
114. emotions refers to the ability to regulate our own emotions when necessary and help
others to do the same. (True/False)
115.Being emotionally intelligent enhances your chances of failure and an imbalanced life.
(True/False)
116.Which of the following technique help you to keep calm?
A. Meditation and Yoga
B. Watching TV and Web Series
C. Playing mobile games
D. All of these
117.What is employability skills
A . and behaviors that are necessary for every job.
B. needed to answer questions during an interveiw
118. which is not a skill to have
A. Communication
B. Respect
C. Honesty
D. Lying
119. Foundational Skills are…..
A. Arrive to work on time, or early
B. high levels of effort and perseverance
C. Be flexible and adaptable
D.ALL OF THE ABOVE
120. WHICH IS AN ESSENTIAL EMPLOYABLILTY SKILL TO HAVE
A. Being able to communicate with coworkers and customers
B. Having short tempers and lashing out on customers and coworkers

121. which one is a good leadership skill to have

A. Be willing to take risks
B. Be able to negotiate
C. Save time or money for the company by analyzing business needs
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

122. WHAT ARE INTERPERSONAL SKILLS

A. Skills we use to interact with other people
B. The ability to communicate both verbally and by writing
C. The ability to solve problems and make decisions
D. The ability influence others toward the achievement of a goal

123. In times of high unemployment, employers have more choice of applicants and will favor
those with well-rounded employability skills
A. True
B. False
124. employers are often looking for skills that go beyond qualifications and experiences
A. True
B. False
125. employers look for people who communicate well JUST verbally
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
126.. the ability to solve problems and make decisions can be a huge asset to your employer
A . True
B False
127.. the ability to solve problems and make decisions can be a huge asset to your employer
A. True
B. False
128. presenting information clearly and effectively is a key skill in a work place
A. True
B False
129.. which skills are better to have
A Communication
B. Ability to solve problems
C.Being adaptable
D .ALL OF THE ABOVE
130. being adaptable means…….
A Work independently or as part of a team
B Carry out multiple tasks or projects
C open and respond constructively to change
D ALL OF THE ABOVE
131. interpersonal skills allows you to…..
A. Be friendly and polite
B Respect supervisors and coworkers
C Ask for feedback
D ALL OF THE ABOVE
132.you would use leadership in which situation
A. To coach and mentor others
B To serve on work committees
C to act professionally
D To contribute to team goals
133. Personal qualities, habits, and attitudes influence how you interact with others
A. True
B false
134. Employers value employability skills because they are linked to how you get along with
coworkers and customers
A. True
B. False
135. The general employability skills help you to get hired and to keep any job
A.True
B.False
136.Which of the following are types of motivation?
(a) Internal (b) Intermediate
(c) External (d) Extensive
137. Ravi works hard to get the best student award at the end of year. What type of motivation
is this?
(a) Internal (b) External
(c) Both internal and external (d) Not any specific type of motivation

Information Technology
Entrepreneurial SkillsMcq

1. Which of the following are the qualities of successful entrepreneurs?

a. They are confident.
b. They take responsibility for their actions.
c. They work hard
d. All of the above
2. ____________ are people who work for a person or an organization and get
paid for that work.
a. Self employed
b. Wage employed
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

3. __________ people are those who start businesses to satisfy the needs of
people.
a. Self-employed
b. Wage-employed
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

4. A self - employed person who is always trying to make his/her business better
by taking risks and trying new ideas is called ______
a. Skilled man
b. Business man
c. Entrepreneur
d. None of the above

5. What do entrepreneurs do when they run their business?

a. They help in increasing jobs in their area.

b. Helping the people in the society to earn money.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

6. Qualities of successful entrepreneurs are.

a. They keep trying new ideas.

b. They are confident.
c. They are creative
d. All of the above

7. The money used to start a business is called _______________

a. Capital
b. Business Money
c. Start ups
d. None of the above

8. Success of entrepreneur depends on ______

a. Hard Work
b. Good Idea
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

9. Which of the following are misconception about Entrepreneur?

a. Entrepreneurs are born, not made.

b. A person having a big business is an entrepreneur.
c. A person needs a lot of money to start a business.
d. All of the above

10. A doctor who works for a hospital is a _______________ person.

a. Wage employed
b. Self employed
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

11. Dr. Ravi has his own clinic so he is a _________ Person.

a. Self-employed
b. Wage-employed
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

12. Positive impact of entrepreneurship on society is _________

a. Accentuates economic Growth
b. Encourages welfare of the society
c. Solves the problems of the society
d. All of the above

13. Society plays a role in boosting entrepreneurship by __________

a. Providing raw materials
b. Creating needs and demands
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

14. Adverse impact of entrepreneurship on society is ________________

a. Environmental degradation
b. Trade imbalance
c. Labour exploitation
d. All of the above

15. Which of the following social problems are tackled by social entrepreneurs?

a. Low reach of quality education

b. Unemployment
c. Child labour
d. All of the above

16. Agricultural Entrepreneurship helps farmers in ____

a. finding low-cost innovations in farming processes.
b. giving loans to farmers
c. giving jobs to the family members of farmers.
d. All of the above

17. Entrepreneurship skills helps ______

a. to develop ability to handle failure.
b. in making difference to the society.
c. to develop critical thinking
d. All of the above

18. Which of the following are commercial functions of Entrepreneur?

a. Innovation
b. Finance and Accounting
c. Leadership
d. All of the above

19. An enterprise owned and controlled by a woman and giving at least 51 per
cent of the employment generated in the enterprise to women is _________
a. Agricultural Entrepreneurship
b. Small Scale Entrepreneurship
c. Social Entrepreneurship
d. Women Entrepreneurship
20. Which of the following characteristics should an entrepreneur have?
a. Innovativeness
b. Motivator
c. All of these

21. Which of the following is a disadvantage of entrepreneurship as a carrer?

a. uncertainty
b. Independence
c. Ambition fulfillment

22.Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?

a) Business model
b) Modeling
c) Creative flexibility
d) Innovation

23. Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also help to
market new products?
a) Existing products and services
b) Federal government
c) Distribution Channels
d) Consumers

24. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an

international market before making a major commitment?
a) Merger
b) Minority Interest
c) Joint venture
d) Majority interest

25. GATT is established in 1947, under:

a) German leadership
b) U.S. leadership
c) French leadership
d) U.K. leadership

26. The entrepreneur was distinguished from capital provider in:

a) Middle ages
b) 17th century
c) 18th century
d) 19th and 20th century
27. A person who managed large project was termed as the entrepreneur in the
_________
a) Earliest period
b) Middle ages
c) 17th century
d) 19th and 20th century

28. What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without regard to
resources they currently control?
a) Startup management
b) Entrepreneurship
c) Financial analysis
d) Feasibility planning

29. Having less than 50 percent of equity share in an international venture is called:
a) Joint Venture
b) Majority interest
c) Minority interest
d) Exporting

30. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with
managerial control is called:
a) Joint venture
b) Majority interest
c) Horizontal merger
d) Diversified activity merger

31. Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products
that over time make current products obsolete?
a) New business model
b) Anatomization
c) None of the given options
d) Creative destruction

32. Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing U.S companies to
focus on new product development and increased productivity?
a) Entrepreneurship
b) Hyper competition
c) Governmental laws
d) Organizational culture

33. Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?

a) Entrepreneurship
b) Intrapreneurship
c) Act of stating a new venture
d) Offering new products by an existing company

34. ndividuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are known as which
of the following?
a) Moral-support network
b) Role model
c) Professional support network
d) Support system

35. The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called:
a) Motivation
b) Business skills
c) Departure point
d) Goal orientation

36. The level at which an individual is viewed by society is called:

a) Financial status
b) Qualification
c) Social status
d) Achievement

37. Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to their
familiarity with the needs of market?
a) Existing products and services
b) Distribution channels
c) Federal government
d) Consumers

38. Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:
a) They earn a handsome profit from new business
b) They are familiar with the needs of the market
c) They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
d) They have well-developed sales force

39. Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of a successful
business website?
a) Innovation
b) Speed
c) Graphics
d) Products
40. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product
Planning and Development Process?
a) Idea Stage
b) Product Planning Stage
c) Product Development Stage
d) Test Marketing Stage

41. An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called
_____________.
A. A leader
B. A manager
C. An entrepreneur
D. A professional

42. Trademarks relate to _______.

A. Practice and knowledge acquired through experience
B. The protection of proprietary information of commercial value
C. The right to reproduce ones own original work
D. Brand identity

43. Which could provide an individual with the motivation to start a new business
venture? A. The financial rewards.
B. A desire to be independent.
C. Risk-taking
D. All the above.

44. Which of the following factors would not be included in a PESTLE analysis?
A. Government re-cycling policy.
B. Proposed reduction in interest rates.
C. Competitor activity.
D. Demographic changes.

45. Which industrial sector tends to naturally promote small-scale businesses and
Entrepreneurship, and generally has lower barriers to market entry?
A. Service.
B. Manufacturing.
C. Distribution.
D. Agriculture.

46. Why are small businesses important to a country’s economy?

A. They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
B. They can provide specialist support to larger companies.
C. They can be innovators of new products.
D. All the above.

47. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name
and sell its products or services is known as__________.
A. A cooperative.
B. A franchise.
C. An owner-manager business.
D. A limited company.

48. Which of the following is the reason for business failure __________.
A. Lack of market research.
B. Poor financial control.
C. Poor management.
D. All the above.

49. The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is known as

_______.
A. Secondary research.
B. Entrepreneurial networking.
C. Informal parameters.
D. Marketing

50. Good sources of information for an entrepreneur about competitors can be obtained
from_________.
A. Websites.
B. Product information leaflets.
C. Company reports and published accounts.
D. All the above.

51. A new venture’s business plan is important because ______.

A. It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
B. Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.
C. Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.
D. All the above.

52. Primary data is________.

A. the most important data.
B. the data that is collected first.
C. new data specifically collected for a project.
D. data that is collected second.

53. Innovation can best be defined as_______.

A. the generation of new ideas.
B. the evolution of new ideas.
C. the opposite of creativity.
D. the successful exploitation of new ideas

54. Which of these statements best describes the context for entrepreneurship?
A. Entrepreneurship takes place in small businesses.
B. Entrepreneurship takes place in large businesses.
C. Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety of contexts.
D. Entrepreneurship does not take place in social enterprises.

55. Entrepreneurs are motivated by _________.

A. money.
B. personal values.
C. pull influences.
D. All the above.

56. Which of the following are described as one of the Big Five personality traits?
A. tolerance of others.
B. need for achievement.
C. propensity to leadership.
D. locus of control.

57. Which of the following is least likely to influence the timing of new business births?
A. Government policies.
B. Profitability.
C. Consumer expenditure.
D. Weather conditions.

58. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Market segmentation is a useful process for small businesses to undertake.
B. Selling is essentially a matching process.
C. A benefit is the value of a product feature to a customer.
D. It is a good idea for small businesses to compete solely on price.

59. The purpose of all good small business strategy is__________.

A. to increase turnover.
B. to increase profitability.
C. to achieve competitive advantage.
D. to achieve stated objectives.

60. Which of the following is a recognized disadvantage of setting up as a start-up as

compared with other routes to market entry?
A. less satisfaction of the owners.
B. less help from various agencies.
C. there are more funds required.
D. there is a high failure rate.

61. Someone legally appointed to resolve the financial difficulties of an insolvent firm is
called____________.
A. an administrator.
B. a predator.
C. an auditor.
D. a turnaround consultant.

62. Goods or services reach the market place through ________.

A. marketing channels.
B. multilevel pyramids.
C. monopolies.
D. multiplication.

63. To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set up a number
of___________.
A. financial advisors.
B. financial intermediaries.
C. Industrial estates.
D. financial institutions.

64. State Industrial corporations engage in the development of__________.

A. industrial estates.
B. institutional estates.
C. individual investors.
D. agricultural entrepreneurs.

65. ________ is the first development bank of the country.

A. ICICI.
B. IDBI.
C. SFC.
D. IFCI.

66. IFCI stands for____________.

A. Industrial finance corporation of India.
B. Institutional finance corporation of India.
C. Industrial funding corporation of India.
D. Indian finance corporation and institution

67. IFCI has been converted into a________.

A. joint-stock company.
B. co-operative society.
C. partnership firm.
D. sole proprietorship.

68. SIDBI was set up as a subsidiary of_________.

A. IDBI.
B. IFCI.
C. ICICI.
D. SFC.

69. Which of the following is a function of SIDBI?

A. Extension of seed capital.
B. Discounting of bills.
C. Providing factoring services.
D. All of the above.

70. SFC is prohibited from granting financial assistance to any company whose aggregate
paid-up capital exceed__________.
A. 1 crore.
B. 1.5 crores.
C. 2 crores.
D. 2.5 crores.

71. SIPCOT’s financial assistance is in the form of __________.

A. term loan.
B. seed capital scheme.
C. underwriting the capital issues.
D. All of the above.

72. The business development department of SIPCOT guides entrepreneurs in ______.

A. applying for licences.
B. approval on collaboration.
C. allocation of scarce raw materials.
D. All the above.

73. TIIC is sponsored by the_________.

A. Government of Karnataka.
B. Government of Andhra Pradesh.
C. Government of Kerala.
D. Government of Tamil Nadu.
74. In backward areas, term loans for expansion or setting up a new unit are available at
__________ .
A. concessional terms.
B. differential terms.
C. standard terms.
D. specific terms.

75. A commercial banker would prefer a ____________ debt-equity ratio over the years
as it indicates financial strength of a unit.
A. Declining.
B. Increasing.
C. Stable.
D. Fluctuating.

76. EDPs course contents contains ___________.

A. General introduction to entrepreneurs.
B. Motivation training.
C. Managerial skills.
D. All the above.

77. Entrepreneurial Guidance Bureau(EGB) was set up by____________.

A. SISI.
B. SIPCOT.
C. IIC.
D. SIDCO.

78. _____________ can be defined as a specifically evolved work plan to achieve a

specific objective within a specific period of time
A. Idea generation.
B. Opportunity Scanning.
C. Project.
D. Strategy.

79. Large investment is made in fixed assets, the project will be termed as __________.
A. Capital Intensive.
B. Labour Intensive.
C. Product Intensive.
D. Market Intensive.

80. PERT stands for __________.

A. Programme Evaluation and Research Techniques.
B. Project Evaluation and Review Techniques.
C. Programme Evaluation and Review Techniques.
D. Project Evaluation and Research Techniques

Unit 5:Green Skills

Q1. Over the years, with economic development, there has been an increase in _____
a. Water Pollution
b. Air Pollution
c. Noise Pollution
d. All of the above

Q2.Which of the following is/are the result of exploiting our Nature?

a. Scarcity of clean water to drink.
b. Scarcity of pure air to breathe
c. Depletion of ozone layer
d. All of the above

Q3.Solution to these global problems like scarcity of clean water to drink, scarcity of
pure air to breathe, scarcity of unadulterated food, rising issue of global warming is
_______
a. Stop using these resources.
b. Sustainability
c. to make people aware
d. None of the above

Q4. As per Collins English Dictionary, ‘the ability to be maintained at a steady level’ is
_________________
a. Management
b. Sustainability
c. Maintainability
d. None of the above

Q5. ____ is the development that satisfies the needs of the present without
compromising the capacity of future generations.
a. Overall development
b. Economic development
c. Sustainable development
d. None of the above

Q7. Which of the following are common Sustainable Practices ?

a. Reusing of Waste Water
b. Conserving Rain Water
c. Segregating waste at source
d. All of the above
Q8. Which of the following is not a part of 4R’s of Sustainability?
a. Refuse
b. Reduce
c. Recycle
d. Recreate

Q9. __________ means giving a new look to the old product and making it look desirable.
a. Reuse
b. Recycle
c. Upcycling
d. None of the above

Q10. Which of the following are Environmental Problem?

a. Climate Change
b. Emission of Green House
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

Q11. The economy that reduces environmental risks and strikes ecological balance is
termed as ____.
a. Green Economy
b. Green Field
c. Green Nature
d. None of the above

Q12. Which of the following will help to protect our environment?

a. Solar Power Plants
b. Waste Water Treatment Plants
c. Electric Vehicles
d. All of the above

Q13. Major problems related to sustainable development is/are:

a. Food
b. Fuel
c. Water
d. All of the above

Q14. Sustainable development includes ___

a. recycling and reuse of waste materials
b. reducing excessive use of resources
c. using more environment friendly material
d. All of the above.

Q15. Which of the following is not included in Sustainable development?

a. Green grassy patches and trees to be interspersed between concrete buildings
b. Use of technologies, which are environmental friendly
c. Excessive use of resources and decreasing resource conservation
d. None of the above

Q16. SDGs stands for _____

a. Sustainable Development Goals
b. Sustainable Development Goalseeker
c. Sustainable Developmental Goals
d. None of the above

Q17. SDGs were launched at the United Nations in ___

a. 2013
b. 2016
c. 2014
d. 2015

Q18. There are ____________ SDGs.

a. 13
b. 17
c. 12
d. 15

Q19. Which of the following are SDGs?

a. Poverty
b. Climate Change
c. Gender Equality
d. All of the above

Q20. In Organic Farming, farmers use _____

a. Chemical Fertilizers
b. Pesticides
c. Chemical Spray
d. None of the above

Q21. Which organization has made the Sustainable Development Goals?

a. United Nations
b. League of Nations
c. UNICEF
d. World Health Organisation

Q22. Which of the following activities help to conserve the environment?

a. Organic Farming
b. Vermi-Composting
c. Rainwater harvesting
d. All of the above

Q23. Organic Farming helps in _________

a. getting better quality chemical free crops
b. Maintaining the soil quality for future use
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

Q24. Choose the option which defines sustainable development.

a. Taking care of future generations.
b. Taking care of only ourselves.
c. Taking care of ourselves and the future generations.
d. None of the above

Q25. ________ increase in consumption of the natural resources.

a. Increasing population
b. Development in all sectors
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

Q26. Which of the following is not good for environment?

a. Clay pots (Kulhads)
b. Plastic cups
c. Edible cutlery
d. None of the above
Q27. ___________________ are the advantage of using Kulhads.
a. Reduce cutting of trees.
b. Job creation for potters.
c. Reduce plastic waste.
d. All of the above

Q28. Problems Related to Sustainable Development are ____________

a. Large population
b. Poverty
c. Lack of Awareness
d. All of the above

Q29. _______ is the affordable and clean energy.

a. Solar Energy
b. Energy from Fossil Fuel
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

Q30. Choose the option which is not a sustainable development goal according to United
Nations.
a. Clean Water and Sanitation
b. Gender Equality
c. Population
d. Reduced Inequalities

Q31.How many sustainable development goals are given by the United Nations?

(a) 18
(b) 17
(c) 15
(d) 20

Q32.Choose the option which defines sustainable development.

(a) Taking care of future generations

(b) Taking care of only ourselves
(c) Taking care of ourselves and the future generations
(d) Well-being of all

Q33. Which organisation has made the Sustainable Development Goals.

(a) United Nations

(b) League of Nations
(c) UNICEF
(d) World Health Organisation

Q34. Which of the following sources of energy is from a renewable source?

(a) Solar energy

(b) Wood
(c) Coals
(d) Petrol

Q35. Choose the option which is not a sustainable development goal according to the
United Nations.

(a) Clean Water and Sanitation

(b) Gender Equality
(c) Population
(d) Reduced Inequalities

Q36.Which of the following actions would not help a green

agriculture sector?
(a) Using chemical fertilisers
(b) Using organic manure
(c) Growing vegetables using vermicompost
(d) Buying or selling organic potatoes
Q37. Which of the following action will promote
green economy?
(e) Use of non-renewable resources
(f) Sustainable development
(g) Social protection
(h) Creating jobs

Q38.Which of the following is the main objective of

sustainable development?
(a) Reducing poverty
(b) Promoting green agriculture
(c) Preventing ecological damage
(d) Achieving a balance between economic, environmental
and social needs

Q39.Which of the following stakeholders makes policies for

a green economy?
(a) Non-government organisations
(b) Scientific community
(c) Government
(d) Private sector

Q40.What is the main role of the government in a

green economy?
(a) Making policies

(b) Making inventions

(c) Creating awareness

(d) Using new technologies

Q41.What is the main role of private agencies in a

green economy?
(a) Helping the government in implementing policies
(b) Making policies
(c) Making laws
(d) Making national budget
Q42. Who is responsible for the success of green economy in
the country?
(a) Government
(b) Social Workers
(c) Individual citizens
(d) All of the above

Q43.The concept of sustainable development became popular in the year

a)1986

b)1987

c)1988
d)1999

Q44.Sustainable development requires judicious use of

a) natural resources

b)human resources

c) man-made resources

Q45.The most pressing environmental problems are associated with resources that are
renewable such as
a)air

b)water

c)both of these

Q46.Abbreviation of WCED

a)Worldwide Communication Educational Department

b)World Commission of Environment and Development

c) Worldwide Computer Educational Department

Q47.Sustainable development includes

a) Reduce

b)Reuse

c)Recycle

d)all of the above

Q48.Abbreviation of SDG

a) Sustainable Departmental Goals

b)Sustainable Development Goals

c) Sustainable Developmental Goals

Q49.Ways in which we can help in sustainable development are

a) Quality education

b) Affordable and clean energy

c) Clean water and sanitation

d)All of the above

Q50.Creating sustainable cities include

a)By switching off lights

b)Using natural lights

c)Using LED bulbs

d)All of the above