Objective Science (NCERT Based) - Amar Ujala
Objective Science (NCERT Based) - Amar Ujala
Objective Science (NCERT Based) - Amar Ujala
Objective
Science
Objective Science
Based on NCERT Books
Content contribution :
Shivendra Pratap Singh | AU Education Team
© Amar Ujala Publications Ltd.
Published by Amar Ujala Publications Ltd. and printed at C-21, Sector
59, Noida - 201301 (U.P.)
Latest Edition **
ISBN : 978-93-82948-52-0
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only.
Part - 1 Biology
n
Part - 3 Physics
Mechanics 73
Waves and Currents 79
Electromagnetic 84
Heat and Thermodynamics 89
Wave and Optics 94
Electricity 99
Light and Mechanics 105
General Physics 110
Physics : Technology 115
Sound and Other Mechanics 120
Functional Properties 125
Technological Developments 131
Miscellaneous Questions 136
e
Part - 4 Chemistry
Radioactivity 142
Organic and Inorganic Chemistry 148
Acid, Base and Salt 155
Carbon and Other Substances 160
Part - 1
Biology
Physiology and Diseases
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. – (a)
Discovery of transduction
and conjugation in bacteria – Lederberg Establishing the sex-linked
inheritance – Morgan Isolation of DNA polymerase
from E. Coli
Establishing the complete genetic code
– Korenberg
– Khurana
Ans. – (a) Silica gel, found in medicinal bottle absorbs moisture and
saves the medicines. It has greater application in medicine
packaging. It is not to kill virus, germs and spores and does not
absorbs all gases thar are present inside the bottle.
Q4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
List-I
(Secreted Hormones)
(A)Growth hormones
(B) Progesterone
(C) Cortisone
(D)Insulin
List-II
(Endocrine Glands)
(1) Adrenal
(2) Pituitary Gland
(3) Pancreas
(4) Gonads
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. – (b)
Growth Hormone – Pituitary Gland Progesterone – Gonads
Cortisone – Adrenal
Insulin – Pancreas Q5. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below.
List-I
(Types of Disease) (A)Fungal Infection (B) Hormonal Disorder (C)
Deficiency Disease (D)Genetic Disease Codes:
List-II
(Related Disease) (1) Diabetes
(2) Ringworm (3) Hemophilia (4) Rickets
AB C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (b)
Fungal Infection Hormonal Disorder Deficiency Disease Genetic
Disease
– Ringworm
– Diabetes
– Rickets
– Hemophilia
Ans. – (b)
Pyrethrin
Nitroglycerine Atropine
Ether
– Mosquito control
– Heart Trouble
– Dilation of pupil
– Local Anaesthesia
Q10. Consider the following and match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer using the codes given below. List-I
(A)Pheromones (B) Insulin
List-II
(1) Females
(2) Anger, fear,
danger
(3) Glucose
(4) Attracting
Insulin
Adrenaline Estrogen 3 4 4 1 2 1 1 4
AB C D (a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. – (a) Protozoan Bacteria Fungi
Virus
143234214321
– Malaria
– Tuberculosis
– Ringworm
– Poliomyelitis
– Blood Cell
– Brain
– Lymph node
– Bone Marrow
List-II
(1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (2) Clostridium botulinum (3)
Neisseria meningitis
(4) Treponema palladium
Code:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 4 2
Ans. – (b)
Syphilis – Treponema palladium Meningitis – Neisseria meningitis
Food Poisoning – Clostridium botulinum Tuberculosis –
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Q21. Match the following and choose correct answer by using
the codes given below. List-I (Name of Diseases)
(A)Pneumonia
(B) Tetanus
(C) Diphtheria
(D)Whooping cough
List-II (Related Bacteria)
(1) Clostridium tetany
(2) Diplococcus pneumonia
(3) Bacillus pertussis
(4) Corynebacterium Diphtheria
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. – (b) Pneumonia
Tetanus
234
143
421
312
– Diplococcus
pneumonia
– Clostridium tetany Diphtheria – Corynebacterium
Diphtheria
Whooping cough – Bacillus pertussis
Q22. Match the following and choose correct answer by using
the codes given below. List-I(Suspected Cancer Carcinogen)
(A)Asbestos
(B) Vinyl Chloride
(C) Aromatic amines
(D)Cadmium
List-II (Affected Organ)
(1) Urethra
(2) Kidney and Lungs
(3) Lungs
(4) Brain and Liver
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. – (c)
Asbestos – Lungs
Vinyl Chloride – Brain and Liver
Aromatic amines – Urethra
Cadmium – Kidney and Lungs
Q23. Which of the following not correct:
(a) Turner’s Syndrome, – Genetic
Down Syndrome, Disease
Hemophilia
(b) Bird Flue, Influenza, – Infectious
H1N1 Disease
(c) Atherosclerosis, – Degenerative
Heart Failure, Diseases
Diabetes
(d) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, – Sexually
Herpes, Epilepsy, transmitted
AIDS Disease (SIDs)
Ans. – (d) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Herpes
and AIDS are sexually transmitted disease but Epilepsy is not a
sexual disease. Epilepsy is type of mental illness. Turner’s syndrome,
Down syndrome and Hemophilia are genetic disease. Bird flue,
Influenza and H1N1 are infectious disease. Atherosclerosis, heart
failure and diabetes are degenerative disease.
Q24. Living organism require at least 27 elements of which 15
are metals. Among these, those required in major quantities,
include:
(a) Potassium, sodium, magnesium and calcium
(b) Sodium, magnesium, manganese and copper
(c) Molybdenum, calcium, manganese and sodium
(d) Manganese, potassium, copper and magnesium
Ans. – (a) Potassium, sodium, magnesium
and calcium are required in major quantities. Magnesium helps in
metabolic process. Calcium is used in the miotic spindles during cell
division.
Q25. Which of the following are associated with diabetes
mellitus, a common disease in adults:
(1) Lower insulin level in blood
(2) Higher insulin level in blood
(3) Lower sugar level in blood
(4) Higher sugar level in blood
Codes:
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 3 & 4
(c) 1 & 4 (d) 2 & 3
Ans. – (c) Diabetes mellitus is caused due to deficiency of insulin
hormone, secreted by pancreas. Insulin helps in maintaining a
constant blood sugar level. Diabetes mellitus are associated with
lower insulin level in blood and higher sugar level in blood.
Q1. Match the following and choose correct answer by using the
codes given below.
List-I
(A) Sleeping Disease (B) Tuberculosis (C) Polio
(D) Asthma
List-II
(1) Fungus (2) Virus
(3) Bacteria (4) Protozoa
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 3412
(d) 4321
Ans. – (d)
Sleeping Disease
Tuberculosis
Polio
Asthma
– Protozoa
– Bacteria
– Virus
– Fungus Q2. Which of the following not correct: (a) Sleeping
Disease, Dysentery, Malaria – Protozoa
(b) AIDS, Polio, Rabbis – Virus (c) Titenes, Cholera,
Gonorrhea – Bacteria
(d) Asthma, Athletes Foot,
Baldners – Helminthus
Ans. – (d) Asthma, Athlete foot and baldners are caused by fungus
but not by Helminthus. Diarrhea, Filaria is caused by helminthus.
Sleeping disease, Dysentery and Malaria are caused by Protozoa.
AIDS, Polio and Rabbis are caused by virus and Titenes, Cholera and
Gonorrhea are caused by Bacteria.
Q3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I (Human Disease) )
(A) Malaria
(B) Pyuria
(C) Dysentery
(D) Sleeping Disease List-II (Effected Part) (1) Gums
(2) Spline & RBC (3) Brain
(4) Intestine
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (b)
Malaria – Spline & RBC Pyuria – Gums
Dysentery – Intestine Sleeping Disease – Brain
Q4. Which of the following not correct: (a) Wheat, Corn, Potato,
Banana – Carbohydrate
(b) Milk, Egg, Paneer – Vitamin-A (c) Lemon, Orange, Tomato, Chilli,
Germinated seeds – Vitamin-C (d) Pulse, Liver, Vegetables,
Egg – Vitamin-B1
Ans. – (d) Pulse, Liver, Vegetables, Egg are sources of folic acid.
Wheat, Corn, Potato, Banana are sources of carbohydrate. Milk, Egg,
Paneer are sources of Vitamin-A and Lemon, Orange, Tomato, Chilli
are source of Vitamin-C.
Q5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I (Minerals)
(A) Sodium (B) Calcium (C) Magnesium (D) Phosphorous List-II
(Main Sources)
(1) Salt, Fish, Meat, Milk
(2) Paneer, Gram, Green Vegetables (3) Vegetables
(4) Milk, Milets, Paneer
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. – (a)
Sodium – Salt, Fish, Meat, Milk Calcium – Paneer, Gram, Green
Vegetables
Magnesium – Vegetables
Phosphorous – Milk, Milets, Paneer Q6. Which one of the following
antimicrobial drugs is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis
and leprosy:
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) P-aminosalicylic Acid
(d) Terramycin
Ans. – (a)
Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, while tuberculosis is
caused by bacteria streptococcus or staphylococcus. Rifampicin is a
common medicine in treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy. B.C.G.
vaccine is used.
Q7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I (Hormone)
AB C D
(a) 1432
(b) 2341
(c) 2143
(d) 3421
Ans. – (c)
Somatotropic Hormone
– Pituitary Gland Triiodothyronine Hormone
– Thyroid Gland Parathyroid Hormone
– Parathyroid Gland Mineralocorticoids
– Adrenal Gland Q8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer by using the codes given below.
List-I List-II
(A) Mango (1) Oryza sativa (B) Rice (2) Mangifera indica (C) Wheat
(3) Brassica campestris (D) Mustard (4) Triticum aestivum Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234
(b) 2143
(c) 3412
(d) 4321
Ans. – (b)
Mango – Mangifera indica Rice – Oryza sativa
Wheat – Triticum aestivum Mustard – Brassica campestris Q9. The
pituitary gland by virus of its tropic hormones controls the
secretary activity of other endocrine glands. Which one of the
following endocrine gland can function independent of the
pituitary gland: (a) Parathyroid (b) Adrenals (c) Thyroid (d) None of
these Ans. – (a) Parathyroid gland presents in thyroid gland. This
gland secretes parathormone hormone, which regulates Ca++ and
PO4– ion in body. This gland works independently to pituitary gland.
Q10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Living organism) (Scientific name) (A) Man (1) Felis domestica (B)
Cow (2) Canis familaris (C) Dog (3) Bos indicus (D) Cat (4) Homo
Sapiens Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 3412
(d) 4321
Ans. – (d)
Man – Homo Sapiens
Cow – Bos indicus
Dog – Canis familaris
Cat – Felis domestica
Q11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(A) Frog (1) Reptilia (B) Lizard
(C) Peacock (D) Kangaroo (2) Amphibia (3) Mammalia (4) Aves
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. – (b)
Frog – Amphibia
Lizard – Reptilia
Peacock – Aves
Kangaroo – Mammalia
Q12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I
(Plants Hormones) (A) Auxins
(B) Gibberellins (C) Cytokinins
(D) Absisis acid
List-II
(Discovery)
(1) Curasava
(2) Darwin
(3) Carns & Adikote (4) Miller
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. – (b)
Auxins – Darvin
Gibberellins – Curasava
Cytokinins – Miller
Absisis acid – Carns & Adikote Q13. Fat present below the skin
surface in our
body, acts as a barrier against:
(a) Entry of harmful microorganism from the environment.
(b) Loss of salts from the body.
(c) Loss of heat from the body.
(d) Loss of essential body fluids. Ans. – (c) Fat present below the
skin surface in our body, is called subcutaneous fat depot. It acts as
insulator of body. It acts against loss of heat from the body. Q14.
Which of the following professionals are more likely to run the
risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA: (1) X-ray
technician
(2) Coal mines
(3) Researchers using carbon 14 isotope (4) Dyer and painter
(5) Train driver
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans. – (b) Researchers using radioactive C14 isotope and X-ray
technicians are higher at risk of permanent change in the cell’s DNA.
Besides it dyers and painters are also at risk because of permanent
chemical change in DNA.
Q15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I (Physiological Processes) (A) Protein Synthesis
(B) Respiration
(C) Photosynthesis
(D) Mineral Uptake
List-II (Cell Organelles)
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Chloroplast
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3412
(d) 4123
Ans. – (b)
Protein Synthesis – Ribosomes
Respiration – Mitochondria Photosynthesis – Chloroplast Mineral
Uptake – Plasma Membrane Q16. Which of the following would
lead to malnutrition:
(1) Imbalanced nutrition
(2) Overnutrition
(3) Undernutrition
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2
(c) 2 & 3 (d) 1 & 3
Ans. – (a) Malnutrition, in its broad sense, means bad nutrition. It can
be applied to both undernutrition and overnutrition and also for
imbalanced nutrition. Some examples of malnurition are – marasmus,
kwashiorkar, starvation and undereating. Q17. Consider the
following statements: AIDS is transmitted–
(1) By blood transfusion
(2) By sexual intercourse
(3) Across the placenta
(4) By mosquitoes and other blood sucking insects
(5) By infected needle
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 & 5
(d) 3, 4 & 5
Ans. – (c) AIDS is Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome. It is
transmitted by sexual intercourse, blood transfusion, infected needle
and from pregnant mother to her baby across the placenta.
Q18. Which one of the following sets is correctly matched:
Leprosy – Hereditary
(2) AIDS, Syphilis and
Gonorrhoea – Bacterial
(3) Colour, Hemophilia – Sex linked (4) Polio, Japanese B
encephalitis and
Plague – Viral
Option:
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 & 3
(c) Only 4 (d) None of these Ans. – (c) Colour blindness and
Hemophilia are sex linked disease. Colour blindness is an inability to
perceive red and green colours. Hemophilia is an inability of body for
blood coagulation during injury. Q19. Which one of the following is
a membrane that protects the developing embryo from
dericcation:
(a) Yolk sac (b) Allantois (c) Both 1 & b (d) Amnion
Ans. – (d) Amnion is the extra-embryonic membrane formed in
Amniotes (Mammals, birds and reptiles). Amnion contains amniotic
fluid that protects growing embryo from dericcation and shock.
Q20. Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because:
(a) desert plants are sensitive to the
phases of moon.
(b) the desert insects are active during
night time.
(c) their blooming is controlled by low
temperature.
(d) both a and c
Ans. – (b) In desert condition, most of the activity of the plants and
animals happens during night because of very high temperature in
day time. The desert insects make themselves active and pollinate
the flowers at night. To attract the insects, most of the desert plants
bloom during night.
Q21. By weaving threads of physics, chemistry and biology into
a rich tapestry, this remarkable scientist provides a unifying
molecular view of the world. He discovered the wonderful
properties of Vitamin-C, first as a cure of common cold and later
as preventing agent against cancer. One of sciences major
figures of all time referred to above is: (a) Linus Carl Pauling
(b) G.N. Lewis
(c) Funk
(d) Carl Land Steiner
Ans. – (a) Linus Carl Pauling described properties of Vitamin-C which
is found in lemon abundantly. He used this Vitamin in curing common
cold. He also described its properties in cancer treatment.
Q22. Which of the following elements are present in all proteins:
(1) Oxygen (O2)
(2) Nitrogen (N2)
(3) Ammonia (NH3)
(4) Hydrogen
(5) Carbon
(6) Fluorine
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 & 5
(c) 2, 4, 5 & 6
(d) 1, 4, 5 & 6
Ans. – (b) All the proteins are formed of amino acid that contains
COOH and NH2 as functional group. In this way, all the four elements
– Carbon (C), Oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N) and Hydrogen are present in
all proteins.
Q23. It begins as a single cell and grows into a merciless
disease that claims millions of lives year after year. But
scientists are steadily unlocking its mysteries and the fight
against it, may now have reached a dramatic turning point. New
discoveries promise better therapies and hope in the war
against .... the disease referred into the above quotation is:
(a) AIDS (b) Cancer
(c) World Flue (d) Meningitis
Ans. – (b) Cancer is a disease in which cell divides abnormally
without stopping and results into tumour. The substance, which
caused cancer, is called carcinogenic.
Q24. The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given
top priority for remedial action in India today is:
(a) Xerophthalmia
(b) Pellagra
(c) Anemia
(d) Foot & Mouth disease
Ans. – (a) Xerophthalmia is caused by Vitamin-A deficiency. This
generally occurs in poored section of the society because often they
do not have adequate amount of fruits in diet. Anemia is caused by
deficiency of blood.
Q25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below:
List-I
(A) Protein (B) Hormone (C) Vitamin (D) Enzyme
List-II
(1) Keratin
(2) Progesterone (3) Carotene (4) Pepsin
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 3214
(d) 4321
Ans. – (a)
Protein –
Hormone –
Vitamin –
Enzyme – Keratin
Progesterone Carotene
Pepsin
Circulatory System and Nutrition
feels thirsty.
(2) A person with diabetes insipidus
suffers from excess secretion of
vasopressin.
Code:
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. – (b) Vasopressin or antidiuretic
hormone is secreted by posterior pituitary gland. The deficiency of
vasopressin results in a disorder known as diabetes insipidus. The
main symptoms of diabetes insipidus are increase in thirst and
increase in urination. Diabetes is a hormonal disease.
Q2. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
(1) Cholera is a disease caused by
bacteria.
(2) Athlete’s foot is a diseases caused by
virus.
(3) Filaria is a disease caused by
Helminthus.
(4) Sleeping diseases is caused by
Protozoa.
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. – (b)
Athlete’s foot disease is caused by fungus in condition where skin is
left warm and moist for a long period. It results is itching and burning
sensation. Cholera is a caused by bacteria. Filaria is a disease
caused by Helminthus. Sleeping disease is caused by Protozoa.
Q.3 Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
(1) Fatty acids should be a part of the
balanced human diet.
(2) The cell of the human body can not
synthesize with fatty acids.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. – (b) A balanced diet is one which contain the correct proportion
and quality of virus nutrients such as fats, carbohydrates, proteins
etc. to maintain health. The body cells of all mammals including man,
can synthesize the various fatty acids except linolenic acid and
linolenic acid which can be obtained only from food. Q4. Consider
the following statements and select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(1) Lan Wilmut created the first cloned
sheep.
(2) Adam Osborne produced the first
portable computer.
(3) Polio vaccine was created by Levis
Pasteaure. Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Ans. –
(b) The first successful computer was built by an American called
Harmon Hollerith, 1988. The first personal computer was developed
in 1975 by Altair and Apple company developed the portable
computer in 1970 which was used by large number of people. Dolly,
the sheep, the worlds first cloned mammals was produced by Ian
Wilmut of Roslin Institutes in 1996. Polio vaccine was created by
Jonas E. Salk.
Q5. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA
molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules. Reason
(R): DNA fragments can be manipulated using restriction
endonucleases and DNA ligases.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. – (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A. Restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases are used in
recombinant DNA technology and DNA cloning.
Q6. What is Cyberknife treatment of cancerous tumours:
(a) It delivers an extremely precise dose
of radiation.
(b) It is a robotic guided system. (c) It can map the spread of tumour
in the
body.
(d) It has higher accuracy.
Ans. – (c) Cyberknife is a non-invasive, sub millimeter accuracy
cancer treatment that can treat most cancers without the need for
surgery or nasty drugs and has no side effect. It has high resolution
CT Scan and PET Scan of your long so that the computer can use
the information to map the location of the tumour correctly which is
essential to radiosurgery.
Q7. Widespread resistance of Malarial parasite to drugs like
chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a Malarial
vaccine to combat Malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an
effective Malaria vaccine.
(a) Man is only intermediate host and
not the definitive host.
(b) Man does not develop immunity to
Malaria during natural infection. (c) Vaccines can be developed only
against bacteria.
(d) Malaria is caused by different species
of plasmodium.
Ans. – (d) Malaria has caused by several species of plasmodium.
Malaria parasite uses many tools to infect humans. The parasite
genome is very plastic. They are more than 27,000 variants if one
variant of malaria is treated successfully then another variant rises
from the background. Q8. Consider the following condition of a
sick human body:
(1) Swollen lymph nodes
(2) Sweating at night
(3) Loss of memory
(4) Loss of Weight
(5) Uncontrolled growth of cells Which of these are symptoms of
AIDS? (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. – (c) AIDS is the disease of immune system in which immune
system weakness and body becomes prone to different types of
infections by pathogens. AIDS has symptoms like swollen lymph
nodes, sweating at night, loss of memory and loss of weight.
Uncontrolled growth of cells is symptom of cancer.
Q9. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the
saturated fats. Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds
in their structure.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation
of A.
List-II (Achievement)
AB C D (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (d)
Temin and Baltimore – Discovered
Mullis
Arber and Smith
Feldman reverse
transcriptase
– Discovered
polymerase chain reaction
– Discovered
endonucleases
– Developed
transgenic plants
with
agrobacterium Q14. Consider the following statements and
choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Guinea-worm is an annelid.
(2) Filaria is caused by a nematode. (3) Roundworm has separate
sexes. (4) Tapeworm is not a hermaphrodite. Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3
Ans. – (d) All tapeworms are hermaphrodite. Roundworm is
dioecious or unisexual i.e., having separate sexes. Filariasis is
caused by blockage of lymph channels by Wuchereria bancrofti, a
small parasitic nematode worm. Guineaworm is a nematode.
Q15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below.
List-I
(A) Shoulder blade (B) Knee-cap
(C) Breast-bone (D) Collar-bone
List-II
(1) Patella (2) Scapulla (3) Clavicle (4) Sternum
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2143
(c) 3421
(d) 4312
Ans. – (b)
Shoulder Blade
Knee-cap
Breast-bone
Collar-bone
– Scapulla
– Patella
– Sternum
– Clavicle Q16. Which of the following cell organelles play most
significant role in protein synthesis:
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosome. (b) Golgi apparatus and
lysosome. (c) Mytochondria, lysosome and centrosome.
(d) Centrosome, Golgi apparatus and lysosome.
Ans. – (a) Endoplasmic reticulum is an irregular network of double
membrane and ribosome are small granules either scattered in
cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. Endoplasmic
reticulum and ribosome are play most significant role in protein
synthesis.
Q17. With reference to the work of human kidney consider the
following statements:
(1) From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny
tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the
blood in the renal vein. (2) After the waste is removed in the kidney
the clean blood is sent back through renel artery.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. – (a) The nephron, with its pressure filter and trouble, is
intimately associated with the blood circulation. Blood from the aorta
enters each kidney through a large renal artery, which divides into a
branching system of smaller arteries.
Q18. With reference to normal human beings, consider the
following statements: (1) Unsaturated fats have only single bonds
in their structure.
(2) In response to the presence of HCl, secretin is produced from the
duodenum.
(3) Enterogastrone is produced in the large intestine in response to
the presence of fatty acids.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Both 2 and 3 Ans. – (b) The medium of digestion
in stomach is acidic due to presence of HCl. When the food enters in
duodenum, secretion is produced by small intestine that stimulates
pancreas for pancreatic juice secretion. Unsaturated fats those have
double bonds in their structures are a reaction than saturated fats.
Q19. Assertion (A): Person suffering from hemophilia fails to
produce blood clotting factor VIII.
Reason (R): Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are
found in very low concentration.
Codes:
Ans. – (d) The nucleated white blood cells numbering about 9000 per
cubic millimeter in shape and contain no pigment. They are known as
‘police force’ of the human body. They protect from disease producing
organism. So in the given option (d) is ‘police force’ of the human
body.
Q3. Consider the following statement and select the correct
code. It is related to adipose tissues:
(1) The red bone marrow is also
bodies.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 3 is correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. – (d) Adipose tissue is connective tissue modified for storage of
fat. The cells are commonly large and are rounded or oval in shape
with prominent central vacuoles that push the cytoplasm and nuclei to
the periphery of the cell.
Q6. Given below are the examples of true and false fruits:
(1) Mango (2) Apple
(3) Pears (4) Strawberry (5) Pod of pea plants
Which among the above are true fruits. (a) Mango and pod of pea
plants. (b) Mango, apple, pear.
(c) Mango, pear and pod of plants. (d) Apple, strawberry and pear.
Ans. – (a) A true fruit is transformed and matured ovary. No other
part of flower take part in its formation. A false fruit if any part of the
flower other than the ovary has contributed toward its formation.
AB C D (a) 1 2
(b) 2 1
(c) 4 2
(d) 3 2
Ans. – (b)
Vitamin ‘D’ – Homeopathy – Sex Hormone – DNA – 3 4 3 4 3 1 4 1
Hopkins
Hennyman
Stenotch
James Watson and Crick
Q8. Match the following List-I with List-II and select correct
code:
Disease Virus
(A) AIDS (1) HIV (B) Dengue (2) Arabian Virus (C) Polio (3) Polio (D)
Influenza (4) ABC Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. – (a)
AIDS – HIV
Dengue – Arabian virus Polio – Polio
Influenza – ABC
Q9. Consider the following statements and select correct code:
(1) In the leaves of Dictyocaulus, both sides of the leaves are almost
equally exposed to light, the stomata are evenly distributed on both
sides. (2) In the leaves of monocyteledon, there are distinct upper
and lower sides the stomata are confined to lower side only.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are incorrect
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) None of these
Ans. – (a) It is in the leaves of dictohydeons that there distinct upper
and lower side. Where stomatas are confined to lower side only.
Q10. Match the following with their scientific name and select
correct code:
(A) Man (1) Rana tigrina
(B) Cow (2) Homo spania
(C) Cat (3) Felis domestica (D) Frog (4) Bos indicus
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 2431
(b) 1234
(c) 3241
(d) 4231
Ans. – (a)
Man – Homo spania
Frog – Rana tigrina
Cow – Bos indicus
Cat – Felis domestica Q11. Match the following and select correct
code:
(A) Vitamin
(B) Vitamin ‘A’ (C) Vitamin ‘B’ (D) Vitamin ‘C’ (1) Macular (2) Macular
(3) Funk
(4) Holcutt Codes: AB C D (a) 1234 (b) 3214 (c) 4213 (d) 1432 Ans.
– (b) Vitamin
Vitamin ‘A’ Vitamin ‘B’ Vitamin ‘C’
– Funk
– Maculur
– Maculur
– Holcutt Q12. Given below are some modification of roots for the
purpose of storage food. Match the following with their suitable
example and select correct code: Example
(A) Beet root
(B) Mango Ginger (C) Dahlia
(D) Carrot
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 4321
(c) 4231
(d) 4123
Ans. – (c)
Beet root – Napiform
Mango Ginger – Nudolore
Dahlia – Fesciculated
Carrot – Conical Q13. Which of the following types of plants
thrive on rocks:
(a) Ephemeral
(c) Xerophytes (b) Lithophytes (d) Mesophytes Ans. – (b) Some
semiparasistic plants like misfeltoe obtain raw material from their host
plants to manufacture their food. These raw material are obtained
through special adventitious roots called haustoria or sucking roots
that penetrate into tissue of the host plants.
Q14. Match the following with List 1 to List 2 and select correct
code:
List 1
(A) Inflorescence
(B) Bracts
(C) Hypogynies
(D) Phyllotaxy
List 2
(1) Modified leaves
(2) Cluster of flower born on single axis (3) Mode of arrangement of
leaves on a
steam
(4) Position of floral leaves on thalamus Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans. – (b)
A– 2
B– 1
C– 3
D– 4
Q15. Which of the following statements is incorrect:
(a) Wax is a complex lipid.
(b) Fat yield about twice as many calories as an equal weight of
carbohydrate and protein.
(c) A molecule of fat consists of one molecule of glycerol and three
mole cules of fatty acid.
(d) The plasma membrane and mitochon dria are chief components
of fats. Ans. – (a)
The lipid are classified simple and complex. Fat like coconut oil,
waxes and butter are common simple lipid. Complex lipid included
phosphoras lipid, steroids, glyco lipid, fat soluble vitamin A, D, E and
K. Q16. Consider the following statements and select correct
code:
Code:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. – (c) Chlorophyll is a green colour pigment universally found in
trees and plants responsible for take/capturing solar energy of
photosynthesis. Its contain magnesium protein not iron and it occur in
two part chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b.
Q20. Which of the following are the two organelles of the cell
other than the nucleus that also have DNA in them: (a)
Mitochondria and Golgi bodies (b) Mitochondria and chloroplast (c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum and
Lysosome
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) In Eukayotes, deoxy ribo nucleac acid (DNA) is packed in
chromosome found in the nucleus, whereas in prokaryotes, where
there is no nucleus, it exists as diffuse cell. Mitochondria and
chloroplast are two organelles have also DNA which is known as
extra chromosomal DNA.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Both are incorrect
Ans. – (c) Dicotyledonous plants have leaves with reticulate venation
monocotyledons have leaves with the parallel venation so only
statement 1 is correct.
Q24. Which of the following is a herb : (a) China rose (b) Jasmine
(c) Sunflower (d) Lotus Ans. – (c) Herbs are plants with soft steam,
which grow to a height of two to four feet and complete a life cycle
within a year, producing, flower, seeds and fruits e.g. mustard and
sunflower. So in the given option sunflower is an example of herb.
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 3412
(c) 4231
(d) 4312
Ans. – (b)
Tetanus
Pneumonia
Cholera
Syphilis
– Bacilli
– Diplococcus
– Commas
– Spirilla
Q6. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1
(Element)
(A) Hg (Mercury) (B) Pb (Lead)
(C) Cd (Cadmium) (D) HF (Fluoride)
List-2
(Disease) 1. Knock-knee
2. Anemia
3. Minamata
4. Itai-itai
Codes: AB C D (a) 3412 (b) 3241 (c) 1234 (d) 1243 Ans. – (b)
Mercury – Cadmium – Lead – Fluoride – Minamata Itai-Itai
Anemia
Knock-knee Q7. Which of the following related to bacteria is not
correct?
(a) Bacteria do not have an unclear membranes.
(b) Bacteria have a single chromosome. (c) Bacteria are a cellular
organism. (d) Bacteria have a cellulose wall. Ans. – (d) Bacteria do
not have a cellulose was unlike plants cells. Their wall are made of
proteinaceous and fatty substances and have single chromosome is
not enclosed in a nuclear membranes. Granules of glycogen, fat and
other food reserves may be present.
Q8. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1
(Biological Entity)
(A) Sterile hybrid breed of male donkey and female horse
(B) Reciprocal cross hybrid of male horse and female donkey
(C) Young male fowl
(D) Mature male fowl
List-2
1. Rooster 2. Cockerel
3. Mule 4. Hinny
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. – (a)
Sterile hybrid breed of male donkey and female horse – Mule
Reciprocal cross hybrid of male horse and female donkey – Hinny
Young male fowl – Cockerel Mature male fowl – Rooster
Q9. Which of the following is not correct: (a) Some bacteria and
fungi are autotrophic while most tetrotrophic in nature.
(b) The total weight of bacteria has been estimated to be as much as
20 times the total weight of all living organism put together.
(c) Bacteria and fungi belongs to the phylum.
(d) Fungi and bacteria are flowerless plants.
Ans. – (a) A few species of bacteria are autotrophic and most
bacteria are heterotrophic. They manufacture their own food either by
using the energy they obtain from the oxidation of inorganic
compound or by using the energy absorbed from sunlight. All fungi
are heterotrophic in nature. Q10. Which one of the following
statements is not correct:
(a) Auxins are produced at the region of elongation.
(b) Auxins are most important plants hormones.
(c) Auxins are also important in regulating the fall of leaves and fruits.
(d) Indoleacetic acid is a principal Auxin. Ans. – (a) Auxins are
produced by growing tips of root and stem. From where they migrate
to the regions of elongation where they are needed for the process of
clongation.
Q11. Some artificial substances are used in place of sugars to
impart sweet taste. Saccharine is one of them:
(1) It is 550 times sweeter than cane sugar.
(2) It is obtained by oxidation of benzene (C6H6)
(3) It is an amine group product. (4) It has zero calorific value.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans. – (b) Saccharine is an artificial
sweetener. It is about 550 times sweeter than cane sugar. It has no
calorific value. It is obtained by oxidation of Toluene and is chemically
(C6H4SO2CONH).
It is amide not amene.
Q12. Which one of the following statements explain
parthenocropy:
(a) It is a fruit, which has multiple seeds. (b) It is a fruit which contains
single seeds.
(c) It is a development of fruit without fertilization.
(d) It is a fruit, which result from multiple fertilizations.
Ans. – (c) The seedless variety of fruits such as grapes, banana,
pineapple are partheno carpaus fruit, which has gained world
popularity. Plant breeders are trying to induce parthenocrapy in more
and more variety of fruits.
Q13. Assertion (A): Super ovulation and embryo transplantation are
used for cattle improvement.
Reason (R): Gonadotrophin injection release more than one ova in
high yielding cows. These are fertilized by artificial insemination with
sperms from a pedigree bull. Early embryos are transplanted into
surrogate mothers for development. Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true and R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. – (a)
Super Ovulation – It means 6-8 eggs are produced per cycle instead
of a single egg. Embryo transplant – A developing embryo is
removed from pregnant animal at any early stage before the
embryo’s cells have had time to become specialised. Artificial
insemination – In this process semen collected from a supermale
parent is injected into the reproductive tract of the selected female
parent by the breeder. Q14. Phollodes in Australian Acacia is a
modification of which of the following: (b) Whole leaf (d) Stipules
(a) Auxillary bud (c) Petiole
Ans. – (c) Phyllodes in Australian Acacia is a modification of petiole.
In Australian Acacia normal compound leaves are found in seedling
and young plants. They soon fall of and petiole developed in flatted
structure. These look live leaves and are called phlodenes. They
carry on the normal function of the leaves.
Q15. What is the difference between CAT SCAN and MRI?
(1) CAT Scan X-rays, MRI uses no X-ray and thus no ionizing
radiation. (2) CAT Scan gives best results for soft tissues while MRI
gives best result for bones.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these Ans. – (b) MRI does not do a very good
job with bones. MRI is also not advised to the people, who have an
artificial pacemaker implanted as the magnetic/radiowaves may
interfere. CT – It is a medical imaging method employing tomography.
Digital geometry processing is used to generate a 3D image of the
inside of an object from a large series of 2D X-ray image taken
around a single axis of rotation.
(i) CT Scan carries with it some risks due to use of ionizing radiation
from X-rays, MRI uses no ionizing radiation.
Q16. Given below are modifications of the leaf. Match them with
their examples and select the correct code:
(A) Nepenthes Khasiana (1) Bladder (B) Australian Acacia (C)
Utricularia
(2) Pitcher (3) Philode (D) Wild pea (4) Leaf tendril Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. – (c)
Nepenthes Khasiana – Pitcher Australian Acacia – Philode Utricularia
– Bladder Wild Pea – Leaf tendril Q17. In addition to protein and
carbohydrates, other nutritional substances found in milk may
be:
(1) Cobalt (3) Iron
(2) Potassium (4) Calcium Select the correct answer.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. – (c)
Milk is one of the most nutritious component of human diet. It
contains proteins, carbohydrates, sugar (lactose), fats, sodium,
potassium, calcium, iron, vitamins (A, B12, C and D), magnesium,
phosphorus, thiamin, riboflavin and niacin. It makes bones stronger.
Mother milk contain different types of nutrients. It is very necessary
for baby child.
Q18. Consider the following statements and select correct code:
(1) Eyes of potato marks its point of attachment to the plant.
(2) Turmeric plants and ginger are herbs but unlike herbs they live
through the years.
Code:
(a) Only 2 is correct
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
(d) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Ans. – (a) Turmeric and Ginger are common example of rhizomes.
During favourable condition aerial short developed from terminal bud
and established new plants, which in turn produce new rhizomes.
They live through the year. Eyes of potato are dormant bud.
Q19. Read the following passage:
An insect whose mouthparts are biting and chewing type in the larvae
condition, while they are siphoning type in the adult condition and this
insect gives an economically important substance during yet another
stage of its development. The insect is: (a) Anopheles (b) Bombyx (c)
Apis (d) Laccifer Ans. – (b) The caterpillar larvae of silkmoth
(Bombyx mori) are voracious feeder, so they have the continuous
supply of food. Each caterpillar larvae has a mandibulate type of
mouthparts adapted to feed easily on mulberry leaves, which adult
has siphoning type of mouthparts commercial silk is obtained from
the Bombyx mori. Q20. Which one of the following statements is
correct about phylloclade?
(a) It is a modification of leaf.
(b) It is an aerial modification of stem. (c) It is a subaerial modification
of stem. (d) It is a modification of root.
Ans. – (b) It is an aerial modification of stem. Sometime, as in many
cactuses, the stem is flattened and green and carries out the function
of the leaf. Such a stem, adapted for manufacturing of food called
phyloclade. Phylloclade are adapted for life in dry and arid regions.
Q21. Which of the following is true about thorn?
(a) It is a modification of leaf.
(b) It is a modification of root.
(c) It is an aerial modification of stem. (d) It is an sub aerial
modification of stem.
Ans. – (c) It is an aerial modification of stem is a true statement
about thorn. The thorn is hard, straight, pointed and sharp structure. It
is a modified branch as it forms axis of leaf as in Duranta.
Q22. Consider the following statements regarding Algabal
bloom:
(1) It occurs in fresh water.
(2) It occurs in marine environment. (3) It is green in colour.
(4) Its concentration may reach millions of cells per milliliter.
Select the correct answers:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 4
(c) All of the above
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. – (c)
Algae bloom is a rapid increase or accumulation in the population of
Algae in aquatic system. It occurs in fresh water as well as marine
water. Its colour is green and its concentration may reach millions of
cells per milliliter.
Its colour also depends on algae species. Q23. Match the following
spices to the parts of plants and select correct code: Part of
Plant Spices
(A) Flower Bud (1) Colve (B) Stigma (2) Safforn (C) Gum (3) Turmeric
(D) Underground steam (4) Asafoitida Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234 (b) 1243 (c) 4321 (d) 4123 Ans. – (b)
Flower bud – Colve Stigma – Safforn Gum – Asafoitida Underground
steam – Turmeric Q24. Consider the following statements
regarding Gene Therapy:
(1) Introducing a new gene into the body. (2) Delivering the genes to
the site using inorganic nano particles.
(3) Use of stem cells.
Select the correct answer using codes: (a) Only 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans. – (d)
Gene therapy using several different approaches. These includes:
(1) Introducing a new gene into the body. (2) Delivering the genes to
the site using inorganic nano particles, through stem cells, unharm
virus etc.
Q25. Consider the following statement regarding mosquitoes:
(2) India has one of the largest numbers of cervical cancer patients in
the world.
(4) Gardsil is the most common drug used to cure cervical cancer.
Choose the correct code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Ans. – (a) The cervix is lower part of
uterus the place where baby grow during
the pregnancy. Cervical cancer is caused
by virus called HPV. The virus spreads
through sexual contact. Most women body
are able to fight HPV infection but some
times virus head to cancer.
Gardasil and cervarix are vaccines for cervical cancer.
Code:
(a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Only 2 is correct
Ans. – (a) Photosynthesis is a process by which organism that
contain the pigment chlorophyll convert light energy into chemical
energy which can be stored in molecular bones of organic molecule.
During photosynthesis plant gains weight and in respiration losses
weight.
Respiration is a general process by which organism oxidize organic
molecules and derive energy (ATP) from the molecular bond that are
broken. It is opposite process of photosynthesis.
Fish has not eyelids and the neck region is also absent in fish. The
heart of fish is not four-chambered but the heart of fish is two
chambered with a single auricle and single ventricle.
protoplasm
(B) Necessary for the formation of protei (C) Necessary for the
formation of
cell wall
(D) Necessary for the formation of
chlorophyll
Element
(1) Potassium (2) Nitrogen
(3) Calcium (4) Magnesium Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234 (b) 2314 (c) 4213 (d) 2431 Ans. – (a)
Necessary for the formation of protoplasm – Potassium Necessary for
the formation of protein – Nitrogen Necessary for the formation of cell
wall – Calcium Necessary for the formation of chlorophyll –
Magnesium Q15. Match the following lists:
Examples
(A) Volvex
(B) Fucus
(C) Spirogyra
(D) Chlamydomonas
Types
(1) Colonial
(2) Filamentous
(3) Single celled
(4) Having leaf and stem like
resemblances
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1423
(b) 4321
(c) 1234
(d) 3241
Ans. – (a)
Volvex – Colonial
Fucus – Having leaf and stem like resemblances Spirogyra –
Filaments
Chlamydomonas – Single celled Q16. Match the following lists:
(A) Phaeophyta (1) Red pigment (B) Cyanophyta (2) Green pigment
(C) Chlorophyta (3) Brown pigment (D) Rhodophyta (4) Blue-green
pigment Codes:
AB C D (a) 3421 (b) 1234 (c) 4231 (d) 4321
Ans. – (a)
Phaeophyta – Brown pigment Cyanophyta – Blue-green pigment
Chlorophyta – Green pigment Rhodophyta – Red pigment
AB C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 1
Ans. – (b)
Chital – Placentalia Kangaroo – Manotremata Duck-bill Platypus –
Marsupialia Q18. Match the following lists:
Virus Disease
(A) Alpha virus (1) Cervical cancer (B) Corona virus (2) SARS (C)
H5N1 (3) Swine flu (D) HPV (4) Bird flu (E) H1N1 (5) Chikungunya
Codes:
AB C D E (a) 5 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 5 (c) 5 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 5 Ans. –
(a)
Alpha virus – Chikungunya Corona virus – SARS
H5N1 – Bird flu HPV – Cervical cancer H1N1 – Swine flu Q19. Match
the following lists: (A) Brain Box
(B) Only movable bone in the Skull
AB C D (a) 1 2 3
(b) 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4
(d) 4 2 3
Ans. – (b)
Brain Box – Only movable bone in the Skull – Immovable joint – Joins
brain to the
spinal chord – 4 2 2 1
Caranium
Mandible Sutures
Foramen magnum
Sodium
Potassium
Sulphur
– Essential for the formation of bones and teeth
– Important
constituents of body fluid
– Intracellular osmotic pressure
– Constituents of hair and nails
Q22. Consider the following statements regarding amphibians:
(1) The heart of amphibians is three chambered.
(2) Amphibians are Oviparous.
AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 1243
(c) 3412
(d) 3421
Ans. – (a)
Pure blood – Artery
Impure blood – Veins
Deficiency of blood – Anemia Blood clotting – Fibrinogen Q24.
Ralenza is used commonly drug to treat which one of the
following disease: (a) Swine flu (c) SARS
(b) Bird flu (d) Plague
(2) Cancer cells and normal cells differ in their life spans.
(3) The only known immortal cells in the body are germ cells.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2
Ans. – (a) Normal cells become cancerous
when they mutate into abnormal cells
through a process called transformation,
leading to uncontrolled growth, eventually
forming a tumour of neoplasm. The only
known immortal cells in the body are germ
cells (sperm and egg) although they too
eventually die out if an individual never
has children.
Q2. Consider the following statements and
select the correct code:
(1) GM crops have terminator gene.
(2) Bt-Brinjal is the first genetically modified vegetable of the world.
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a common bacteria occurring in the
soil which has been used as biopesticide sprays.
(4) Bt cotton was introduced in India in 2002.
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 4 (d) Only 3
Ans. – (b) GM crops do not have terminator gene. It is still in the
concept stage.
Bt produces a protein toxic to lepidopetron
insects pests which are major cause of concern. Bt-genes is isolated
from the bacteria
and are transferred to many crops globally. Bt cotton is introduced in
India in 2002. Q3. Which one of the following greenhouse gases
is emitted from swamps and tundra:
(a) CO2 (b) CH4
(c) N2O (d) HFC-23
Ans. – (Methane)
Methane (CH4) is called marshy gas. It is hydrocarbon. It is a
saturated compound. It is the first Alkane (CnH2n+2).
The sources of methane (CH4) are:
(1) Enteric fermentation in cattle and insects.
(2) Biomass burning.
(3) Coal mines and natural gas leaks.
(4) Paddies.
(5) Swamps.
Q4. Match the following and select correct
code:
Disease
(A) SARS
(B) AIDS
Test
(1) West Blot Test (2) Pap test
(C) Cervical Cancer (3) Elisha test (D) Swine Flu (4) RIDT Codes:
AB C D (a) 3124
(b) 4321
(c) 1234
(d) 3421
Ans. – (a)
SARS – AIDS – Cervical Cancer – Swine Flu – Elisha test
West blot test Pap test
RIDT
Q5. Which one of the following is a metabolic disease
characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood:
activities
(D) Growth in length
Plant Hormone
(1) Abscissic Acid
(2) Ethylene
(3) Gibberellins
(4) Cytokinins
Codes:
(c) Smart insulin pump now available in India, mimics the pancreas
by delivering insulin effectively.
Alternate name
(1) Break bone fever (2) Avian influenza (3) Hutchinson Gilford
AB C D (a) 2413
(b) 3241
(c) 4231
(d) 1432
Ans. – (a)
Ripening of fruit Cell division
Inhibits all kind of developmental activities
Growth in length
– Ethylene
– Cytokinins
– Abscissic Acid
– Gibberellins Q7. Which of the following statements is/are
correct:
(a) Type 1 diabetes result from insulin resistance, a condition in which
cells fail to use insulin properly.
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. – (b)
Break bone fever – Dengue Avian influenza – Bird flu Hutchinson
Gilford – Progeria Asperger’s Syndrome – Autism Q9. Consider the
following statements regarding burning ice and select correct
code:
(1) Burning ice is found in high pressure and low temperature.
(2) It is chemically methane hydrate.
(3) Japan would become the first country to conduct an offshore
experiment to extract natural gas from deposits of burning ice.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of these
Ans. – (c) Japan would become the first
country to extract natural gas from deposits
of ‘burning ice’. Chemical name of burning ice is methyl hydrate. It is
found in high
pressure and low temperature area such as
ocean floors often near continental fault
lines where the gas crystallizes on contact
with cold sea water.
Q10. With references to communication
application, which one of the following is
technically called ‘white spaces’:
(a) It is the part of spectrum that works without causing any
interference to the primary users.
(b) It is the gap between two spectrums.
(c) It is the spectrum allocated to licensed users.
(d) It is the spectrum that has not been allocated to anyone.
Ans. – (a) The primary users are the
licensed users of spectrum band. They
often do not use the allocated spectrum to
the maximum. White spaces devices could
help find the spectrum’s under utilized
aspects and make the secondary users utilize them without causing
any interference
to the primary users. In microsoft,
researchers are working to harness the
enormous potential of white spaces to
deliver broadband wireless that help people stay better connected.
Q11. Match the following and select correct
code:
Drugs Purpose
(A) Gatifloxacin (1) Pain killer
(B) Tegaserod (2) Decongestant (C) Phenylpropanolamine
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 4321
(b) 1234
(c) 2314
(d) 4123
Ans. – (a)
Pain killer – Nimesulide
Decongestant – Phenylpropanolamine Used for constipation –
Tegaserod Antibiotic for treating respiratory tract infection –
Gatifloxacin Q12. Consider the following statements regarding
Higgs Boson:
(1) It is a theoretical particle which is believed to have given matter its
mass.
(2) It is also called God’s particle. (3) Large Haldron Collider (LHC)
recently created mini ‘Big Bang’ in the laboratory.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these Ans. – (a) Higgs Boson particle was
first proposed by Peter Higgs of University of Edinburgh in 1964. The
LHC should confirm whether it exists or not. Researchers at LHC
recently succeeded in recreating the Big Bang on miniature scale.
Higgs Boson is a theoretical particle which is believed to have given
matter its mass. It is also called God’s particle.
Q13. Consider the following statements related to enriched
uranium:
(1) It is a kind of uranium in which the percent composition of U235 has
been increased through process of isotope separation.
(2) Generation any military nuclear weapons.
(3) It is critical component for both civil nuclear power generation and
military nuclear weapons.
(4) U238 is the only nuclide existing in nature that is fissile with thermal
neutrons.
Choose correct options:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans. – (c) U235 is the only nuclide
existing in nature that is fissile with thermal neutrons.
Enriched uranium is a kind of uranium in which the percent
composition of U235 has been increased through process of isotope
separation. It is critical component for both civil and military purposes.
Q14. Match the following and select correct code:
Type of Drug
(1) Hallucinogen (2) Stimulant
(3) Narcofics
(4) Sedative
Example
(A) Mescaline
(B) Caffeine
(C) Morphine
(D) Benzodiazephine
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 1243
(c) 4321
(d) 2341
Ans. – (b)
Hallucinogen
Stimulant
Narcotics
Sedative
– Mescaline
– Caffeine
– Benzodiazephine
– Morphine
lunar soil and rocks to produce water. Q17. Match the following
lists:
List-1 List-2
(A) Kinetic energy (1) M × a
(B) Potential energy (2) force x displacement
(C) Work (3) 1/2 mv2
(D) Force (4) mgh
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. – (b)
Kinetic energy – 1/2 mv2
Potential energy – mgh
Work – Force × displacement
Force – mass × acceleration Q18. If parent are of blood group AB
and O,
then the possible blood group of children
would be which among the following?
(a) A or B (b) A or O
(c) A, B or AB (d) O, A, B or AB
Ans. – (a) If parent are of blood group AB
and O, then the possible blood group of
(a) Mongolism
(b) Colour Blindness
(c) Turner’s Syndrome
(d) Klinefelter Syndrome
Ans. – (a) Down Syndrome or Mongolism is congenital abnormality in
human being due to trisomy of chromosome 21 (Chromosome 21
occur in triplicate rather than in duplicate). The affected individual
therefore carry 47 chromosome and greatly retarded physically and
mentally.
AB C D
(a) 3421
(b) 1234
(c) 4132
(d) 4321
Ans. – (a)
Turner Syndrome – XXY Super female – XYY Super male – XXX
Klinefelter’s Syndrome – XO
Q21. Consider the following statements and select the correct
option:
(1) When a charge particle enters
perpendicular to direction of magnetic field then it moves on the
circular path.
(2) Lorentz force acts when charge particle moves in magnetic field.
(3) Magnetic field lines form closed curve.
(4) Electric field inside the conductor is zero.
Choose correct option:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 4
(c) All of the above (d) 1 and 3
Ans. – (c)
Lorentz force acts when charge particle
moves in magnetic field
−−> −−>
r = MV
qB
Magnetic field lines form close loop
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 4, 3, 5 and 6 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 5 and 6 Ans. – (c)
Viral disease which cause human sickness are smallpox, influenza,
yellow fever, measles, chicken pox, Hepatitis A, viral pneumonia,
AIDS, common cold, dengue etc. cholera and plague are bacterial
disease.
(1) K-Band (A) 18-27 GHZ (2) KV-Band (B) 1-2 GHZ (3) C-Band (C)
4-8 GHZ (4) L-Band (D) 12-18 GHZ Codes:
AB C D (a) 4312
(b) 1243
(c) 1432
(d) 1234
Ans. – (c)
aircraft.
(2) Urea and phosphate fertilizers were
used in the crops in the vicinity. (3) The lake water turned green and
stinky.
(4) Phytoplankton in the lake declined
due to reduction in photosynthesis. Choose the correct options:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) All of the above (d) 1 and 3 Ans. – (a) A
lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few
days, because lots of urea and phosphate fertilizers were used in the
vicinity of crops and area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft.
Q6. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1
(A) Botulism
(B) Anthrax
(C) Foot & mouth disease
(D) T.B.
List-2
1. Chlostridium
2. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis 3. Bacillus Anthrax11111
4. Virus
Codes:
AB C D (a) 1432 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. – (a)
Botulism – Chlostridium Anthrax – Virus
Foot and mouth
disease – Bacillus Anthrax T.B. – Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Q7.
Which of the following is not correct about yeast?
(a) Yeast in nature lives on the surface of
fruits and other similar condition. (b) Yeast cell reproduced by
budding. (c) In baking, yeast is added to uncooked
dough, which rise as result of oxygen
bubbles given off.
(d) None of these
Ans. – (c) In the given option (c) is not correct about yeast. In baking,
yeast is added to uncooked dough to made dough ‘rise’ as the result
of carbondioxides (CO2) bubble given off, before the bread is baked.
Q8. Who among the following propounded the germ theory of
disease:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Alexendar Fleming
(c) Hanse Bathe
(d) Louis Pasteur
Ans. – (d) The germs theory of disease given by Louis Pasteur. He
was the first to demonstrate experimentally that the fermentation is
not caused by chemical decay but by the action of certain micro
organisms. He discovered and identified several disease causing
micro organism and developed vaccines against some of them. Q9.
Match the following lists.
Chemical Name (A) Biotin
(B) Calcefrol (C) Tocopherol
Vitamin
(1) Vitamin H (2) Vitamin D (3) Vitamin E (D) Phylloquinone (4)
Vitamin K Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. – (d)
Biotin – Vitamin H
Calcefrol – Vitamin D
Tocopherol – Vitamin E
Phylloquinone – Vitamin K
Q10. Yeast is an example of which of the following:
(a) Algae (b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi (d) All of these Ans. – (c) The common examples of fungi is
Mushroom, Yeast etc. moulds is also a common example of fungi so
in the given question yeast is an example of fungi. Fungi is
heterotrophic in nature not Autotrophic.
Q11. Which of the following types of root modification help
obtaining raw material from host plants:
(a) Stilt roots
(b) Haustoria roots
(c) Epythytic roots
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) Few semiparasitic plants like mistletoe obtain raw
materials from their host plant to manufacture their food. These raw
materials are obtained through special adventitious roots known as
sucking roots or haustoria that penetrates into the tissues of the host
plant e.g. mistletoe.
Q12. Anthrax is a disease caused by which of the following:
(a) Fungi (b) Virus
(c) Algae (d) Bacteria
Ans. – (d) Anthrax is a disease caused by bacteria. It is a highly
infectious disease of animals, such as cattle, sheep caused by
bacterium. It could also spread to human beings. The disease is
characterized by inflammatory skin lesions and high rate of mortality.
Q13. Which of the following is not disease caused by fungi:
(a) Softret
(b) Wheat rust
(c) Ringworm
(d) Late Blight of Potato
Ans. – (a) Soft drink is a disease of plants, such as potato, tomato,
cabbage, cauliflower, cucumber caused by bacteria. The disease is
characterized by large scale of death cells resulting in the formation
of soft shining masses in edible part of these plants. The disease is
characterized by circular patches and severe itching.
Q14. Match the followings:
(A) Plant tolerating saline
condition (1) Halophytes (B) Plants adapted
to seasonal or perennial
drought
(C) Plants that derive water and nutrients from air.
(D) Deserts plants
that complete their cycle in very short period
(2) Xerophytes
(3) Epiphytes
(4) Ephemeral Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234
(b) 2134
(c) 4231
(d) 3241
Ans. – (a)
A– 1
B– 2
C– 3
D– 4
Q15. These roots grew in marshy places and are also called
breathing roots. They come out vertically outgrowth from the
ground and grow into the air to absorb O2 from atmosphere
through their numerous pores. Which roots has been referred to
in above statement: (a) Haustoria
(b) Epiphytic roots
(c) Assimilatory roots
(d) Pneumatophores
Ans. – (d) The branches of the roots that spread under the ground
develop vertically outgrowth that come above the ground and grow
into the air. These are known as pneumatophores. They are also
called breathing roots because they absorbs O2 from the atmosphere
through their numerous pores e.g. mangrove root.
Q16. Consider the given statement and choose correct code:
(1) Epithetic root develop adventitious roots that freely hang in the air
to absorb oxygen with help of a spongy tissue called Velamen.
(2) There is an organic connection between the epiphytic and the
trees on which they thrive.
Code:
(a) Only 1 is true
(b) Both are untrue
(c) Only 2 is true
(d) Both are true
Ans. – (b) There is no organic connection between epithytes root and
trees on which they thrive. The tree merely provided mechanical
support. Epythytic root absorbs atmospheric moisture with the help of
spongy tissue called velamen.
Q17. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1
(A) Green revolution (B) White revolution (C) Blue revolution (D)
Yellow revolution List-2
1. Milk production 2. Food grains
3. Fish production 4. Edible oil
Codes:
AB C D (a) 2 1
(b) 1 2
(c) 2 1
(d) 3 4
Ans. – (a)
Green revolution Yellow revolution Blue revolution White revolution 3
4344312
– Food grains
– Edible oil
– Fish production
– Milk production
Q19. In the given below which one of the disease not caused by
virus?
(a) Chicken pox (c) Influenza (b) Measles (d) Typhoid
Ans. – (d) Chicken pox, influenza, measles are caused by virus but
typhoid is not caused by virus. Typhoid is caused by red shape
bacterium with numerous flagella, which help in active movement. So
option (d) is not correct.
Q20. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1 List-2 (A)
Protoplasm 1. De Duve (B) Cell theory 2. Altman (C) Mitochondria 3.
Purkense (D) Lysosome 4. Schleiden Codes:
AB C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans. – (a)
Protoplasm – Purkense Cell Theory – Schleiden Mitochondria –
Altman
Lysosome – De Duve Q21. Match the following with list-1 to list-2
and select correct code:
List-1
(A) Modified leaves
(B) Cluster of flower born on a single axis (C) Mode of arrangement
of leaves on stem
(D) Position of floral leaves on the thalamus
List-2
1. Inflorescence
2. Bracts
3. Hypogyny
4. Phyllotaxy
Codes:
AB C D (a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. – (b)
Modified leaves – Bracts Cluster of flower on
a single axis – Mode of arrangement of leaves in stem – Position of
floral leaves on the thalamus – Inflorescence
Phyllotaxy
(1) Patients do not identify red and green colour in colour blindness.
(2) Turner’s syndrome is found in women. Due to this reproductive
part of women is in undeveloped condition.
(3) Downs syndrome is a genetic disease in which persons have dull
mind.
(4) Women are the carrier of hemophilia.
Choose the correct codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) All of the above
(d) Only 4
Ans. – (c) In colour blindness, patients do
not identify the red and green colour. It is
mainly found in male because women acts
like a carrier.
In Hemophilia clotting time is increased
due to this blood loss is more when wound
occur.
Downs syndrome is a genetic disease in
which persons have dull mind and irregular
physical structure. In turner’s syndrome
reproductive part of women is in undeveloped condition so they are
sterile. Q23. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and
select correct code:
list-1
(A) Putrefying bacteria
(B) Nitrate bacteria
(C) Nitrite bacteria
(D) Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria
list-2
1. Azote bacter
2. Nitro bacter
3. Pseudomonas
4. Bacillus mycoides Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234 (b) 4231 (c) 4321 (d) 2143 Ans. – (b)
Putrefying bacteria Nitrate bacteria Nitrite bacteria
Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria
– Bacillus mycoides
– Nitro bacter
– Pseudomonas
– Azote bacter
Q24. Which of the following is the basis for the Airy’s theory of
Isostasy:
(a) Law of Floatation
(b) Law of Compensation
(c) Principle of varying density
(d) Principle of uniform depth
Ans. – (a) Law of floatation is given by Archimedis. It states that “A
floating body displaces its own weight of the fluid in which it floats.
Airy’s where different topographic heights are accommodated by
changes in crustal thickness, in which the crust has a constant
density. Every effect has a cause. Every result has an antecedent.
The law of compensation keeps up the balance, and establishes
peace, concord, equilibrium and justice in nature.
with plants.
(2) It is applied only for second
generation sterile.
(3) It can help in protecting in
biodiversity.
(4) It’s seeds are available in the market
at cheaper price than normal seeds. Choose the correct answer:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above Ans. – (b) GURT is a term, used in
connection with plants and used to modify the behaviour of plants,
through genetic manipulation. It is also called terminator technology.
GURT can be of two types, VGURT (Variety specific GURT) and
tGURT (Trait specific). GURT can help in protecting biodiversity by
preventing the spread of transgenic crops into the wild and destroying
indigenous crops.
Part - 2
Ennvviioorrenmmeennttaall BBiioollooggy
National Park and Eco System
Q3. The highest per capita emitter of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the
world is:
(a) Qutar (b) India
(c) China (d) USA
Ans. – (d) United State of America is the highest per capita emitter of
CO2 in the world ranked by metric tonnes of emission from the
burning of fossil fuels and cement manufacture, but not emissions
from land use such as deforestation.
Reserve – Assam
(2) Namdaffa Tiger
Reserve – Odisa
(3) Panna Tiger
Reserve – Madhya Pradesh (4) Sariska – Chattisgarh
Which of the above Tiger Reserve are correctly paired with their
respective location:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans. – (a)
Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam
Namdaffa Tiger
Reserve – Arunachal Pradesh Panna Tiger Reserve – Madhya
Pradesh Sariska Tiger Reserve – Rajasthan
Q7. Consider the following statements:
(1) The State of Forests Report (SFR) is
brought out by Forest Research
Institute, Dehradun.
(2) The forest cover assessment of India
is published in this annual report. Which of the above statements
is/are correct in this regard?
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Ans. – (d) The State of Forests
Report (SFR) is brought out by the Forest Survey of India. The forest
cover assessment of India is published in this biennial report. Q8.
Consider the following classification of Biodiversity:
(1) Gamma diversity
Biodiversity
– within
Community
diversity
– between
Community
diversity. Which among the above is/are correctly paired?
(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these Ans. – (c)
*
Depleting substances.
(c) Bonn Convention of 1979 – The
Conservation of Migratory Species. (d) None of these
Ans. – (a) The Basel Convention on the control of trans boundary
movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal, usually known
simply as the Basel Convention, is an international treaty that was
designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between
nations, and specifically to
(2) The region has to have lost at least 70 percent of its primary
vegetation.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans. – (b) The region must contain at least
5 percent or 1500 species of vascular plants
as endemics and it has to have lost at least
70% of its primary vegetation.
Q16. The ‘Red Data Book’ is the document of
rare and endangered species of:
(1) Animals (2) Plants
(3) Fungi (4) Bacteria
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. – (c) A Red Data Book contains list
of species whose continued existence is
threatened. Species are classified into different categories of
perceived risk. Each
Red Data Book usually deals with a specific group of animals or
plants and fungi.
They are now being published in many different countries and
provided useful information on the threat status of the species. Q17.
Which of the following condition indicate the impact of global
warming.
Select the correct answer from the code
given below:
Q18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists:
List-I
(Sanctuary/National Park)
(A) Kaziranga
(B) Gir
(C) Sundarban
(D) Periyar
List-II
(Main Protected Wild Animal)
1. Tiger
2. Elephant
3. Lion
4. Rhinoceros
Codes:
AB C D (a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 4
(d) 1
Ans. – (b) Kaziranga Gir
Sundarban Periyar
234312321243
– Rhinoceros
– Lion
– Tiger
– Elephant
Q19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
Tiger Reserve (A) Bandipur (B) Manas
(C) Namdapha (D) Simliport
State
1. Karnatka
2. Assam
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Odisha
Codes: AB C D (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1 Ans. – (a) Bandipur Manas
Namdapha Simliport 2 3 4 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 2 4
– Karnatka
– Assam
– Arunachal Pradesh
– Odisha
the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans. – (a) Coral reefs are called the rain
forests of the oceans because they are highly rich in biodiversity.
Q22. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched:
State
(a) Goa
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Sikkim
Ans. – (d)
Goa –
Meghalaya –
Nagaland –
Sikkim –
Main Language Konkani
Khasi
Angami
Tibetan
Konkani Khasi
Angami Limbu
effluents.
(b) Living Modified Organism (LMOs) (c) Nuclear waste
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on
Biological diversity was adopted on 29 January, 2000 as a
supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity
and entered into free on 11 September, 2003. It is an international
treaty governing the movements of Living Modified Organism (LMOs)
resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another.
countries.
(2) It emerged from the deliberations of
Which among the above statements iscessing industries such as mine dust,
cotton
correct? dust, iron mill dust, flour mill dust etc. (a) Only 1 cause
pneumoconiosis, byssinosis,
(b) Only 2
emphysalma, siderosis and other pul
monary diseases.(c) 1 and 2 Q4. Which of the following statements
is/are(d) None of these correct:
Ans. – (c) The Keibul Lamjao National(a) Nilgiri – Himachal PradeshPark is
national park in the Bishnupur dis(b) Nokrek – Sikkimtrict of the state of Manipur in India. The
– Tamil Nadu
– Meghalaya
– Arunachal Pradesh
– West Bengal
disease commonly known as ‘black lung’ Q5. Match List-I (Indian wild life
species)disease, leads to reduced life expectancy with List-II (Scientific names) and
selectin coal-miners: the correct answer using the codes given
AB C D
(a) 3241
(b) 1234
(c) 3214
(d) 2341
Ans. – (a)
Asiatic wild ass – Equas hemionus Barasingha – Cervus duvauclli
Chinkara – Gazella-gazella Nilgiri – Boselaphus tragocomelus Q6.
Which of the following is/are causes of Thermal Pollution:
(1) Use of water as coolant.
(2) Storm water by power plants.
(3) Silting effect in the rivers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. – (a) Thermal pollution is the degradation of water quality by
any process that changes ambient water temperature. A common
cause of thermal pollution is the use of water as a coolant, storm
water by power plants and industrial manufactures, when water used
as a coolant is returned to the natural environment at a higher
temperature.
Q7. Consider the following statements: (1) Salt water has the
potential to pump pollutants from the ocean into coastal freshwater
aquifers, making wells and other water sources contaminated. (2) The
major fraction of oil
contaminating the marine water is because of oil spilling.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
water or fresh water. The largest wetland in the world are Amazon
river basin and west Siberian plan. Ramsar convention is an
international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of
wetland.
of forest and non-forest land under green cover and improved the
quality of forest cover an another 5 million hectares.
provides for 6 schedules, in which the lost one is for the protection of
the plants.
(2) India was a signatory of the CBD and in order to realize the
objective of CBD, in 2002 the Biodiversity Act, 2002 was enacted.
Kashmir
Q14. UNESCO’s World Heritage sites is a place of special and
cultural or physical significance with regard to this, consider the
following statements:
(1) The listed world heritage sites has
the CBD.
(2) Traditional Knowledge (TK)
associated with genetic resource that
are covered by the CBD.
Which following statements above are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans. – (c) Nagoya Protocol on access and benefit sharing is all fewer
given aspects of biodiversity protection. The benefits arisQ4.ing from the
utilization of the traditional
moves towards the North India under the influence of westerlies. Jet
stream, is the relationship between jet stream and western
disturbance.
Q3. Consider the statements below regarding the sub-tropical
deserts in the world. Choose the following correct answer: (a)
These desert are located along the
landfills.
* NO and NO2
*O3
*PAN
* VOCs
Award
(d) None of these
Ans. – (a) This award is given for significant contribution in the field
of wildlife protection, which is recognized as having shown exemplary
courage or having done exemplary work for the protection of wildlife.
(2) Black carbon particles strongly absorb sunlight and give soot its
black colour.
Part - 3
Physics
Mechanics
Q2. Food cans are coated with tin not with zinc because:
(a) Zinc is costlier than tin
(b) Zinc has higher melting point than tin (c) Zinc is more reactive
than tin (d) Zinc is less reactive than tin
Ans. – (c) In metal activity series the position of zinc is above in
comparison to tin i.e. zinc is more reactive.
Tin can process was allegedly developed by Frenchman Pillippe de
Girard. Food cans are still mostly made from tin plate using a three
piece construction.
Although tin is corrosion resistant, acidic food like fruits and
vegetables can cause corrosion of the tin layer causing Nausea,
Vomiting and Diarrhoea.
Q3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is blackened on
the outside, it means that:
(a) The food is not cooked completely. (b) The fuel is not burning
completely. (c) The fuel is wet.
(d) The fuel is burning completely. Ans. – (b) Bottom of the vessel is
blackened due to incomplete combustion of fuel. It happens due to air
holes are blocked and proper oxygen is not supplied.
For cooking food we must use thick pot bottoms because it distribute
heat better because the heat spreads in uniform manner. When the
bottom of the pot is too thin, the heat of the flame immediately
penetrates in that the spot, possibly resulting in burnt or blackened.
(2) A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form and fuel.
(a) 2 only (b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. – (c) The fuel used in rockets is
called rocket fuel. A propellant is an explosive used to fire a projectile
from a gun. It
is a combination of an oxidizer (like liquid
hydrogen, liquid oxygen or nitric acid) and
a fuel which when ignited undergoes combustion to release large
quantity of hot
gases.
Q6. Consider the following statements:
(1) The images produced by plane mirrors are always virtual.
(2) Concave mirrors forms always real images.
(3) Concave mirrors is of converging in nature.
(4) Converging lens can produce virtual as well as real images.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these Ans. – (c) Plane mirror never form real
images because never really converge. Concave mirrors form real as
well as virtual image (when object is in between (P and F).
Converging lens can produce virtual as well as real images.
Q7. Assertion (A): A quick collision between two bodies is more
violent than a slow collision, even when the initial and final velocities
are identical.
Reason (R): Impulsive force is greater in the first case.
Codes:
(a) A is true, but R is false.
(b) A is false, but R is true.
(c) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Ans. – (c) Impulse = Force × Time
For quick collision, time t is small so
greater amount of force is applied. For this
reason quick collision is more violent.
Impulsive force is greater in quick collision.
Q8. Which of the following is the basis for
The Airy’s Theory of Iso stasy:
(a) Law of compensation
(b) Principle of uniform depth
(c) Law of flotation
(d) Law of compensation
Ans. – (a) The law of flotation tells that
floating body displaces its own weight of
the fluid. It is introduced by Archemedies.
There must be perfect balance between the
cause and effect between the antecedent
and consequence. The law of compensation keeps up the balance
and establishes
peace, concord, equilibrium harmony and
justice in nature.
Q9. Consider the following statements: (1) Salt water has the
potential to pump pollutants from the ocean into coastal fresh water
aquifers making wells and other water sources contaminated.
(2) The major fraction of oil
So RXY = 2 × 2 = 1Ω
2+2
Net Resistance RAB = 2 Ω + RXY + 2 Ω RAB = 5 Ω
Q14. Match the following List-1 and List-2 correctly:
A. Ammeter 1. Potential differB. Anemometer C. Pyrometer
D. Galvanometer/
Voltmeter
ence/current 2. Electric current
3. Air speed
4. High temperature Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 1243
(c) 4312
(d) 2341
Ans. – (d)
Ammeter – It measures electric current. It is connected in series. It
has low resistance. Anemometer – It measures the speed of Air.
Pyrometer – It measures high temperature. Galvanometer – Current
Voltmeter – Potential difference
(1) When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted
from the soil.
(2) The anaerobic condition with rice cultivation causes the emission
of Methane (CH4)
Which of the option is/are correct: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Neither 1
nor 2 (d) Both Ans. – (d) Methane is produced under the anaerobic
conditions associated with rice cultivation. Excess uses of Nitrogen
base
fertilizers, nitrous oxide is emitted from the soil. NOX is one of the
main cause for global warming.
Q16. Consider the following statements: (1) Wi-Fi device
(2) Cordless phone
(3) Microwave oven
(4) Bluetooth device
Which of the above operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GH range of
frequency?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans. – (d) Bluetooth is very short
range device. It is used to send data from one PC to another PC
without through any cable network.
Frequency bands allocated for cordless phones in the range 2.4 GHZ
to 2.4855 GHZ, which is licensed and used for many communication
applications.
Ans. – (c)
Momentum (P) = MV
Rel. between kinetic energy and momenta is P =√2KM
or P∝√M
M1 = 1 M2 4
P1 = 1
P2 2
(b) in the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward
direction on the rear wheel.
(c) in the backward direction on both the front and the rear wheels.
(d) in the forward direction on both the front and the rear wheels.
Ans. – (a) Friction is an electromagnetic
force. It always opposes the relative
motion between two bodies.
During Paddling front wheel moves in forward direction so frictional
force acts in
backward direction and rear wheels sleeps
in backward so frictional force will act in
forward.
Q21. Assertion (A): A cloth covers a table.
Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without
dislodging the dishes from the table.
Reason (R): For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
(a) A and R is true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R is true but R is not correct explanation.
(c) A is true and R is false.
(d) A is false and R is true.
Ans. – (b) The cloth can be pulled out
without dislodging the dishes from the
table due to law of inertia, which is
Newton’s first law while the statement II is
true but it is Newton’s 3rd law.
Q22. Match the following:
List-1
A. Dynamo
B. Motor
C. Microphone
D. Battery
List-2
1. It converts Chemical Energy into Electrical Energy.
2. Mechanical to Electrical Energy
3. Electrical to Mechanical Energy
4. Sound Energy to Electrical Energy AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 3241
(d) 4321
Ans. – (b)
Dynamo – It coverts Mechanical
Energy into Electrical Energy
Motor – Electrical to Mechanical
Microphone –Sound Energy to
Electrical Energy
Battery – Chemical Energy into
Electrical Energy
Q23. When one body is in thermal equilibrium with another body
by which Rule: (a) Zeroth Law of thermodynamics (b) First Law of
thermodynamics (c) Second Law of thermodynamics (d) Third Law of
thermodynamics Ans. – (a) Zeroth Law of thermodynamics states
that
Q24. Assertion (A): In the visible spectrum of light, red light is more
energetic than green light.
Reason (R): The wavelength of red light is more than that of green
light.
Codes:
Ans. – (c)
Here,
μ
=
C air
C medium
C medium = C airμ
As μ for violet light is more, the velocity of light through glass will be
minimum. Q17. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a
beam of red light. What will happen if red light replaced by blue
light? (a) Band disappear
(b) Band become breeder
(c) No change
(d) Diffraction bands becomes narrower
Q18. Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from:
(a) Denser to rarer medium.
(b) It occur when light travel from one
light.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. – (c) A laser is device that emit (electromagnetic radiation)
through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated
emission of photon. The terms ‘laser’ originated as an acronym for
light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. The emitted
laser light in notable for its high degree of spatted and temporal
coherence unattainable using other technologies. The laser produced
a beam of monochromatic coherent light.
Electromagnetic
and N2.
(2) Water gas burn with a smokeless
flame.
(3) Producer gas used in manufacture of
coal gas and to operate gas engines. Choose correct options.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) All of the above (d) None of these Ans. –
(c) Producer gas is made by air passing over red hot coke. As a
result, some of the coke burns to CO2 at the bottom of the furnace.
This gas reduced to carbon monoxide (CO) as it passes through the
upper layer of red hot coke. Formation of producer gas is exothermic
reaction. Water gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(CO + H2) is prepared when steam is passed over red hot coke. Q2.
Match the following List-1 and List-2: (1) Philospher wool
(2) Green vitriol
(3) Marble
(4) Blue vitriol
Chemical Formulae:
(A) ZnO
(B) CaCO3
(C) FeSO4 . 7H2O
(d) CuSO4 . 5H2O
Code:
AB C D (a) 1324 (b) 4213 (c) 2413 (d) 1234 Ans. – (a)
Philospher wool – ZnO Marble – CaCO3
Green vitriol – FeSO4 . 7H2O Blue vitriol – CuSO4 . 5H2O Q3.
Demagnetisation of magnets is effected by:
(a) Heating
(b) Magnetising in the opposite direction (c) Rough handling
(d) All of the above
Ans. – (d) If a coil wrapped on a magnet and an alternating current is
passed through the coil, the magnet is demagnetised. It can be
demagnetised by holding it in E-W direction. The rough handling of a
magnet also demagnetised it. If a magnet heated and then
hammered its magnetism is destroyed. If two similar magnet are
placed in such a way that their likes pole are near each other and
they becomes weak strength.
Q4. Diamagnetic substances differ from the para-magnetic and
ferromagnetic substance in which one of the following ways:
(a) They settle with long axis normal to
the magnetic field.
(b) Diamagnetic substances are repelled
by magnet.
(c) Diamagnetic substances are feebly
attracted by a magnet.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Ans. – (d) Diamagnetic substances tend to move from stronger to
weaker parts of the magnetic field. Diamagnetic substances are
bismuth, copper, mercury, antimony gold, water, alcohol, air and
hydrogen. When a diamagnetic material is suspended sets itself at
right angle to the direction of the field. The concentration of magnetic
lines of force is more outside the specimen. Q5. Which one of the
following is essential differences between AC dynamo and DC
dynamo:
(a) AC dynamo has a coil wound on soft
iron but the coil in DC dynamo is
wound on copper.
(b) AC dynamo will generate a higher
voltage.
(c) AC dynamo has shp ring but DC
dynamo has a commutator.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. – (c) The DC dynamo has a commutator or current reverie. In
AC dynamo the end of Armature coil are connected then insulated
ship ring which are mounted on the armature shaft. So in above
option (c) is essential difference between AC and DC dynamo.
Q6. Which one of the following is correct about Canada balsam:
(a) It is type of jet engine.
(b) It is a device to store electric charge. (c) It is a protein deficiency
syndrome. (d) It is a transparent adhesive for glass. Ans. – (d)
Canada balsam is a transparent adhesive for glass. Having the same
refractive index as glass. It is used for cementing together precision
optical element so option (d) is correct about Canada balsam. Q7.
There are streaks of colour on a car windshield shortly after it
has been swiped by a windshield wiper or a squeeze at a gas
station. It result from which one of the following:
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Absorption of heat
(d) Interferences of light
Ans. – (d) These streaks of colour are the result of interferences of
light by the very thin film of oil that is spread over the water surface.
This from the interference is commonly called thin film interference.
When light wave from two independent, near by a coherent sources
or LASER beam is interact with each other. They may either destroy
or strengthen each other giving rise to alternate dark and light band.
Q8. Which one of the following required for converting Ammeter
into Voltmeter: (a) A low resistance either in series or
parallel.
(b) High resistance in series and removal
of shunt.
(c) Low resistance in parallel.
(d) Low resistance in series.
Ans. – (b) A voltmeter is always connected across that part of circuit
where potential difference is to be measured. In order that the
insertion of a voltmeter in the circuit does not change the current. The
voltmeter must have high resistance since the coil of the instrument
does not have a large resistance of its own. To convert an Ammeter
into voltmeter high resistance is series and removal of shunt required.
Q9. On which one of the following hydrogen bomb is based:
(a) Controlled fusion
(b) Uncontrolled fusion
(c) Controlled fission
(d) Uncontrolled fission
Ans. – (b) In the hydrogen bomb fusion of light nucleus take place
and tremendous amount of energy released. In this part bomb fission-
fusion process is applied. The central part contains a fission bomb
containing uranium-235 or plutonium-239. Q10. The specific
resistances of a wire depends upon which of the following: (a)
Mass
(b) Cross section
(c) Length
(d) Nature of the material of wire Ans. – (d) The specific resistance of
a wire do not depend upon mass, cross section and length of wire. It
will depend only on the nature of the material of the wire so option (d)
is correct answer.
Q11. Consider the following statements and select correct code:
(1) The hammering decreasing the
agitation of the molecules.
(2) When a magnet heated and hammered
it magnetised is destroyed.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 1 correct
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) 1 and 2 both are incorrect
Ans. – (c) When a magnetic is heated, the agitation of its molecules
increases not decreases. The hammering further increasing it and
when we hammered magnet the magnetised is destroyed.
Q12. Which one of the following statement is incorrect:
(a) Human eyes respond best in yellow
light.
(b) The largest wavelength we can see is
deep red about 700 nm.
(c) White light is a mixture of all the
colour in visible spectrum.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. – (a) Except option (a) all of the above option is correct because
human eyes is respond best to green light at 550 nm which is
approximately the brightest colour in sunlight at the surface of the
earth.
Q13. Consider the following statement and select the correct
code:
(1) All electromagnetic wave have the
same velocity in space.
(2) Light wave and radio wave are
actually electromagnetic wave which
differ only in their frequencies. Code:
(a) Both 1 and 2 correct
(b) Only 1 correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
(d) Only 2 correct
Ans. – (a) All electromagnetic wave have equal velocity in space.
Light wave and radio wave may seem to be very different, but
actually they are the same thing. The electromagnetic wave have
equal velocity but different frequencies. The velocity of
electromagnetic wave is 3 × 1010 cm/sec. Q14. The equation Zn +
2nH4Cl → 2NH3 + ZnCl2 + 2H+ + Ze represents the equation for
which one of the following cell: (a) Leclanche cell
(b) Dry cell
(c) Standard cell
(d) None of the above
Ans. – (a) In Leclanche cell carbon rod and zinc rod act as positive
and negative poles respectively. The solution is that of ammonium
chloride. So from the above option (a) is relates with question. Q15.
Which among the following is a poor conductor of electricity:
(a) Carbon (b) Dry wood
(c) Paraffin (d) None of these Ans. – (b) Dry wood, moist wood,
leather, moist earth, tap water, rubber, clean water, etc. are poor
conductor of current. Glass, mica, paraffin, rubber and amber are
insulator.
Q16. Two resistance are joined in parallel whose resistant is 6/5
ohms. One of the resistance wire is broken and effective
resistance becomes 2 ohms. The resistance in ohms of the wire
that broken is: (a) 4 (b) 9/5
(c) 3 (d) 6/5
Ans. – (c) Here we noted that
5/6 = 1/X + 1/2
So X = 3 ohms
Q17. If a train moving very fast with the velocity of light, its
length would be: (a) Half of the original
(b) Zero
(c) Infinite (d) Unchanged
Ans. – (b)
We noted that
Here L = L0√1 − V2/C2
as V = C
Then L = L0√1 − 1/1
L= 0
Q18. If a magnet is left to itself which one of the following option
would happen: (a) Its magnetic effect would first get
strengthened and then weakened. (b) There would be no change in
its
magnetic properties.
(c) Its magnetic effect would be
unchanged.
(d) It would have demagnetising effect. Ans. – (d) If a magnet left to
itself, it has demagnetising effect upon itself due to indiction of their
own poles through the material of the magnets. So option (d) is
correct.
Q19. Which one of the following is spectrum of carbon
monoxide:
(a) Continuous spectrum
(b) Band spectrum
(c) Fluorescence spectrum
(d) None of the above
Ans. – (b) Light emitted by chemical compounds in vapour states
give Band spectrum. Therefore, spectrum of carbon monoxide will be
Band spectrum. So in above option (b) is correct about spectrum of
carbon monoxides.
Q20. The same notes is being played on sitar and veena. In
which of the following they would differ:
(a) Pitch (b) Quality
(c) Both of the true
(d) None of the ture
Ans. – (b) From the above option (b) is correct. As sitar and veena
are being played for the same note, frequency is the same but the
sound produced from the both are different tunes. Therefore they
different in quality.
Q21. Snell’s law is related to which one of the following:
(a) Velocity of sound
(b) Velocity of light
(c) Reflection
(d) Refraction
Ans. – (d) The Snells law state that the product of the refractive index
and sine of the angle of incidence of ray in one medium is equal to
product of the refractive index and sine of the angle of refraction in a
successive medium. Also the incident ray, and the normal to the
boundary at the point of incidence all lies in the same plane. Q22.
Many creatures from bacteria to fish make light by
chemiluminescence (chemical reaction producing molecules
with electron in existing energy level that can radiates light). The
manufacturing substances in this case in: (a) Surface tension (c)
Emilase
(b) Luciferase (d) Valinifine Ans. – (b) When chemiluminescence
occur in plants or animal it is called bio luminescence. Many creature
from bacteria to fish make light this way by manufacturing substance
is called luciferase and luciferin. Luciferase help luciferin combine
with oxygen and resulting reaction creates existing molecule that emit
light. Q23. Consider the following statements and select the
correct code:
(1) Resonance can be used to determine
the velocity of the sound at room
temperature in the laboratory. (2) In Resonance vibration with very
large amplitude can be set up. (3) A Reasoning column of air contain
transverse progressive wave. Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 2
Ans. – (d) In a reasoning air column, stationery longitudinal wave are
formed. Resonance occurs when a body is made to vibrate with its
own natural frequency due to impressed periodic force of a body
which is also vibrating with same frequencies.
Q24. Two sources of wave are coherent if: (a) Both produce waves
of same
wavelength having constant phase
differences.
(b) Both have same amplitude vibration. (c) Both produce waves of
same
wavelength.
(d) Both produce waves having same
velocity.
Ans. – (a) According to question option (a) is correct match with two
sources of wave are coherent. Two sources are said to be coherent if
they emits light wave of the same frequencies (same wavelength)
nearly the same amplitude and are always have constant phase
difference.
Q25. Consider the following statements: (1) Isotopes are atoms of
same elements. (2) Isotopes have same atomic numbers. (3) Isobars
have different atomic numbers.
(4) Isochoric is a thermal process when volume is constant.
Choose the correct options:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of the above Ans. – (d) Atoms of same elements
having same atomic number and different atomic mass is known as
Isotopes. Ex. : C12 & C14 Isobars – Atoms of different element having
same atomic mass and different atomic no. is known as Isobar.
Isochoric – It is a thermodynamical process in which volume of the
system remains constant i.e. (DV = 0). In Isochoric process work
done is equal to zero (PDV = 0).
Ans. – (a) Kepler formulated that three fired, it forces a jet of hot
gasses with a basic laws of planetary motion: velocity through nozzle.
The jet of gases (1) Every planet moves in an elliptical acquires a momentum
downward. Hence,
orbits with the sun being at one of its the rocket acquires a momentum of equal
face.
magnitude in opposite direction and then
rocket moves upward. (2) The radius vector drawn from the sun Q4. Consider the
following statements andto the planets sweep out equal
areas in equal intervals of time.
Reflection.
(b) Radiant heat can be transmitted
through vacuum.
(c) Radiant heat transmitted in straight
line.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (a) The Radiant heat obey the laws
of reflection using a thermopile, we can
detect that the reflected heat radiation from
a plane polished surface obey the law of
Reflection (i.e. the angle of incidence is
equal to the angle of Reflection. The inci
dence heat radiation, the reflect heat radia
tion and the normal to the polished surface
at the point of incidence are in the same).
Q3. A rocket works on which one of the folQ5.
lowing:
select the correct code: (1) Ice is a bad conductor of heat. (2) The
volume of water is minimum at
4°C.
(3) If the expansion of water had not been
anomalous, the ponds and lakes
would have frozen from top to bottom
and all the animal living in water
would have died. Code:
(a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct (c) 3 and 1
are correct (d) 1 and 2
Ans. – (a) On being cooled, water contract upto 4°C. If it is further
cooled, it begins to expand instead of contracting. In winter the water
on the upper surface of the ponds and the lakes freezes, but below
the frozen layer water remain at 4°C which has maximum density.
The surface layer being lighter, float on it. The aquatic animals can
live in water 4°C below the frozen layer. Ball pen functions on
which one of the following principle of physics:
Q6. The general rule is that when liquid solidifies its volume
decreases and when solids liquefies, its volume increases.
Which one of the following when converted into liquid decreases
in volume: (a) Brass (b) Ice
(c) Wrought Iron (d) All the above Ans. – (d) When wrought iron, ice,
brass etc. are converted into liquid their volume decreases. Ice is
seen to fleet of water. This mean that the volume of the given mass of
ice is greater than the volume of some mass of water.
Q7. Which one of the following substances has the highest heat
capacity:
(a) Ice (b) Paraffin
(c) Water (d) None of these Ans. – (c)
Specific heat capacity
of water = 4200 J/kg °C Specific heat capacity
of paraffin = 220 J/kg °C Specific heat capacity
of Ice = 2108 J/kg °C Specific heat capacity
of glycerine = 2436 J/kg °C In the given option water has highest
specific heat capacity.
Q11. If an iron ball and wooden ball have same radius are
released from the same height in a vacuum. The time taken by
both ball to reach the ground is: (a) Zero
(b) Unequal
(c) Iron ball take minimum and wooden
here V = – 100
[∵ ball goes upward]
g = 9.8 m/s
l1= l2
g1 g2
l1 × g2
= 100 × 490 g1 980
l2 =
l2 = 20 cm
Code:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Ans. – (c) The substances that expand on freezing are ice, bismuth,
antimony, wrought iron etc. whereas substances which contract on
freezing include wax, copper, etc.
C = F − 32 = R
594
Code:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Ans. – (c) A simple manometer is U-tube device form by bending a
glass tube in the form of the letter U. If a pressure to be measured is
fed one arm of the U-tube and other kept open to the atmosphere, the
difference in the level of the liquid in the two arms gives a measure of
the unknown pressure.
Q17. A cyclist turn round a curve at 15km/hour. If he/she turn at
double the speed, the tendency of overturn is: (a) Unchanged (b)
Quadrupled (c) Tripled (d) None of these Ans. – (b) If the cyclist turn
at double of the speed the tendency of overturn is quadrupled. We
noted that
tan
θ
=
V2
rg
X − 32 = −X
95
or (X – 32) × 5 = – 9X
or 5X – 160 = – 9X
14X = 160
X = 80/7
Q19. When the moon passes between the sun and earth, solar
eclipse occurs. People who are on the surface of earth just
below the top of the moon’s Umbra will see which one of the
following:
(a) Diamond ring effect only
(b) Annular solar eclipse
(c) Total solar eclipse
(d) None of the above
Ans. – (b) These on the part of the earth, which is in Penumbra a
partial solar eclipse is seen and to the observer on the part of earth
which passes through umbra annular solar eclipse is visible.
a = 880 = 16 cm/sec2
250
t = 12 second, u = 0
S = ut +
1
a+2
= 0 × 12 × 1 × 16/5 × 12 × 12
2
S = 0 + 8 × 144 = 1152
55
or S = 230.4
Q25. Which one of the following is the reason for the moon
having no atmosphere: (a) The value of gravitational pull is not
uniform on moon.
(b) There is no plants and population on
moon.
(c) RMS velocity of all gases is more
than the escape velocity from the
moon’s surface.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (c)
The value of g is less on the moon in comparison to earth. The
escape velocity is less on the moon’s surface than the RMS velocity
of the all gases. Due to this reason gases have escaped the moon
surface and results no atmosphere on the moon.
molecules
Code:
AB C D
(a) 3142
(b) 1234
(c) 1324
(d) 3124
Ans. – (a)
S.N. Bose – Quanthem statistics
cess rate is low and not safer. Second generation vaccines are better
and safer vaccine, they consists of a few antigens present on the
surface of the infecting agents rather than whole inactivated
organism. Hepatitis ‘B’ is caused by virus. In this disease liver is
affected. One of the main cause of Hepatitis ‘B’ is contaminated
water.
λ =Cv
infrared light.
(c) Change in the magnetic field.
(d) a and b
Ans. – (d) Basically two types of sensor,
which either sense pressure or interruption
of a beam of visible or infrared light. In the
beam sensor type door opener the source of
the beam and the detector are placed oppo
site to each other in the passage ways in
front of the door in a such way that the
beam crosses the passage ways. If the sen
sor is of the pressure type it is placed below
a movable platform in front of the door.
mixed, we get the black colour. (2) Cyan is the complement of green,
magenta the complements of blue and
yellow the complements of red. Code:
(a) Only 2 is correct
(b) Only 1 is correct
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 and 2 both are correct (d) Both are false
Ans. – (b) The cyan is the complements of red, magenta is the
complement of green and yellow is the complements of blue. When
three primary colours/pigments (cyan, magenta and yellow) are
mixed in proper proportion all the colours are substract from white
light and his mixture is black. Q9. The surface temperature of
which of the following planets according to latest researches is
higher than that of any other planets and hotter than most
ovens:
(a) Mercury (b) Pluto
(c) Uranus (d) Venus
Ans. – (d) The surface temperature of venus planet is about 462°C.
The sun’s radiants energy filter into the planets atmosphere. The
large droplet of sulfuric acid (H2SO4) is present venus cloud and the
great quantity of CO2 in the atmosphere seem to trap of solar energy
of the planets surface.
Q10. Consider the following statements and select the correct
code:
(1) The near point of human eyes
decreases with age.
(2) Presbyopia is caused due to ageing
when it becomes very difficult to
change the lense of curvature. Code:
(a) Only 2 is correct
(b) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ans. – (a) A standard near point distance of 25 cm is typically
assumed in the design of optical instruments and characterizing
optical deviced such a magnifying glasses. Without correction, the
near point is 3 inches (7 cm) at age of 10, 6 inches (16 cm) at age of
40 to 39 inches (1 meter) at age of 60. As a result a 60 year old must
use corrective lense to read books. Presbyopia is a caused in the
advance stage when muscle become flexible.
Q11. When an eye fails to see vertical and horizontal lines
equally distinctly, it is said to be a suffering from which one of
the following: (a) Presbyopia (c) Flatter lens (b) Adermatoglyphia (d)
Astigmatism
Ans. – (d) When the person suffering from astigmatism, rays of light
from the horizontal and vertical lines in a plane are not focussed in
the same plane on the image. This defect is caused when the
curvature of the cornea becomes different in different axial plane.
This defect is corrected by using the spectacles with cylindrical
lenses. Q12. In the making of leather, which of the following is
involved in the process of tanning:
(a) Lubrication and aesthetic appeal. (b) Finishing to obtain proper
thickness. (c) Displacement of water and
combination with fibrous protein,
collegn.
(d) Removal of hair, flesh and fat. Ans. – (c) The making of leather is
involve in the process of tanning is displacement of water and
combination with fibrous, protein and collegn. Tanning increasing
resistance to heat and decomposition caused by water and micro
organism. So option (c) is correct.
Q13. Total internal reflection occur when light passes from:
(a) Rarer to denser
(b) Denser to rarer
(c) It occurs irrespective of medium (d) It is same as refraction
Ans. – (b) TIR occurs when light passes from denser to rarer medium
and angle of incidence <i is more than critical angle <ic. Through this
condition light does not pass to another medium. In optical fibre
communication TIR principle is used. It has greater use in medical
science like endoscopy. If <i> <ic then 100% reflection occurs. Q14.
Which one of the following is used in fingerprints on a piece of
paper:
(a) b-rays
(b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) Gamma-rays
(d) X-rays
Ans. – (b) The ultraviolet radiation is used in finger print of any
object/person on a piece of paper. Finger print on a piece of paper
may be detected by sprinkling fluorescence powder and then
examining it in the ultraviolet radiation/light.
Q15. Which one of the following is true about total reflection of
prism:
(a) One angle of prism is 180° and other two are of 0° each.
(b) Each angle of prism is of 60°. (c) One angle of prism is 90° and
other two are of 45°.
(d) One angle of prism is 80° and other two are of 50° each.
Ans. – (c) About the total reflection of prism one angle of prism is 90°
and other two angle are 45° each. The total reflection are used in
optical instruments such as microscope, telescope, spectroscope,
prism binoculars etc.
Q16. Consider the following statements and select the correct
code:
Which of the following is/are not a property of Infrared
spectrum:
(1) They have large wavelength. (2) They eject electrons from metals
on which they falls.
(3) They show heating effect.
(4) They are observed by the glass but not by rock salt.
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. – (b) Except code (b) all are
property of infrared spectrum. The eject electrons from metal on
which they fall is not property of infrared spectrum because it is
property of ultraviolet radiation.
Q17. The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is
equal to 90° is know as critical angle. Which of the following has
largest critical angle: (a) Glycerine (b) Diamond (c) Water (d) Crown
glass Ans. – (c)
Critical angle of crown glass is 41°25’ Critical angle of water is 48.5°
Critical angle of diamond is 42°25’ Critical angle of glycerine is 44°30’
Critical angle of paraffin is 44°12’ Q18. Which one of the following
concave mirror is not used:
(a) Rear-view mirror
(b) Reflector in search light
(c) Dental used
(d) None of these
Ans. – (a) The concave mirror is not used in rear-view mirror. The
convex mirror used in rear-view mirror. It is also used in street lamps
as a reflector to diverge the light over a large surface. Reflector of
search light dental used of the concave mirror.
Q19. Which one of the following instruments is used in a trench
to view what is the happening outside:
(a) Spectrometer (b) Clinostate (c) Simple periscope (d) None of
these Ans. – (c) The simple periscope to used to witness the game
by a person sitting in back row over the heads of the observer can
seen wether a ship is coming while lying in deep sea. It is consist a
long tube with opening at the top and the bottom and two plane mirror
fixed at an angle 45° to this axis of the tube such that the mirror are
parallel to each other.
Q20. Ear of a beat is an example of which one of the following
options:
(a) Lever of the fourth order
(b) Lever of the fifth order
(c) Lever of the second order
(d) None of these
Ans. – (c) Ear of a beat is an example of lever of the second order. In
lever of second order, lead is situated between effort and fulcrum.
Nut, cracker, wheel borrow, ear of a beat, etc. are lever of the second
order.
Q21. Which one of the following measure the intensity of
earthquakes:
(a) Stevenson scale
(b) Mercalli scale
(c) Ritcher scale
(d) All of the above
Ans. – (b) The severity of an earthquakes can be measured either by
measuring its magnitude or intensity. Magnitude is measure of
strength of earthquakes at its sources. It is assessed on 8-point scale
called Ritcher scale. Intensity is a measure of the local effect caused
by an earthquakes which varies according to distance from the
sources. The intensity is measured in Mercalli scale.
Q22. Which one of the following is most suitable reason for
breaking up of the lizard’s tail:
(a) It is a defence mechanism.
(b) Scaly tail is shed off as a periodically
routine.
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (a) The breaking up of the tail of lizard’s is a defence of
mechanism which helps the lizard’s to run away unharmed
from the attacker. The broken part continue to turn and twist for while
thus detracting at attackers attention. The movements last till the
energy stored in the tail muscle get exhausted.
Electricity
Q1. The tail of comet is directed away from the sun due to:
(a) The tail of comet always exists in the
same orientation.
(b) Radiation emitted by sun exerts a
radial pressure on the comet, throwing
its tail away from the sun.
(c) Comet rotates around the sun, lighter
mass of the comet is pushed away due
to centrifugal force.
(d) As the comet rotates, lighter mass of
comet is attracted by stars situated in
the direction of its tail.
Ans. – (c) Comet is a celestial bodies which moves around the sun. It
is made up by gas, dust particles, ice etc.
Tail of comet is directed away from the sun due to centrifugal force.
Centrifugal force always acts away from the centre when bodies is in
circular motion. Examples – Tumble – 1, Helly.
F = M V2
cf
r
correct explanation of A.
(b) A is true but R is false.
(c) A is false but R is true.
(d) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
Ans. – (d) The heating effect of an electric current is caused by
collisions of electrons with atoms of material. In these collisions, the
energy of electrons is lost to positive ions.
Metals have positive temperature gradient. It resistance increases
when temperature increases.
(b) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright
white.
(c) Mercury converts UV light into visible light.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. – (a) There are two main parts in a
CFL (1) the gas filled tube (also called bulb
or burner) and the magnetic or electronic
ballast. An electrical current from the ballast flows through the gas
(mercury
vapour) causing it to emit UV light. The
UV light excites the phosphorus coating. It
emits visible light.
Q7. Which of the followings are correct:
(1) Steam at 100°C and boiled water at 100°C contain same amount
of heat.
(2) Latent heat of vapourisation of water is not equal to the latent heat
of fusion of ice.
(3) In AC, heat is extracted from the room air at the evaporator coils
and is rejected out at the condenser coils.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these
Ans. – (a) Latent heat of vapourisation of
water is greater than latent heat of fusion of
ice.
Lf(ice) = 80 cal/g
Lv(water) = 536 cal/g
Q8. When water will be heated from 0°C to
10°C, then volume:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Ist decreases then increases
Ans. – (d) Generally volume of liquids
increases due to heating but water shows
reciprocal behaviour between 0°C to 4°C.
At 4°C water has minimum volume and
maximum density.
Density =
Mass
Volume
Q9. Modern Industrial robot is:
(a) Programmable
(b) Multifunctional
(c) Servo controlled
(d) All of the above
(1) a (2) b
(3) Both a and b
(4) All of these
Q12. Two variable will be changed when light waves comes from
Air to glass.
(a) Wavelength, frequency and velocity. (b) Velocity and frequency.
(c) Wavelength and frequency.
(d) Wavelength and velocity.
Ans. – (d) When light waves goes from one medium to another
medium then speed of light and wavelength will change but frequency
remain constant. Frequency is fundamental quantity. It will be never
changed.
graphite.
(2) Every neutron released in the fission
reaction initiates further fission. (3) More neutrons are released in
each of
the fission reactions.
(4) The neutrons take part in the fission
process.
Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 4 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) None of these Ans. – (b) In self sustained chain
reaction in each fission reaction three more neutrons are produced.
The three neutrons then cause the fission of other thorium nuclei
producing nine neutron and so on. In nuclear reactor graphite is used
for moderator. All neutrons do not take part in reaction because
cadmium rod absorbs some neutrons.
Q14. Consider the following statements: (1) A digital library is a
collection of
documents in an organized electronic
form available on internet only. (2) Smart card is a plastic card with an
embedded microchip.
(3) Digital technology is primarily used
with new physical communication
medium such as satellite and fibre
optics transmission.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans. – (c) The answer 2 and 3 is correct. A digital library is a
collection of documents in organized form. It can be available extra
than internet. Ex.: Mobile, computer etc. Q15. Match the following:
List-1
1. Pressure
2. Frequency 3. High speed 4. Electric field
List-2
A. Hertz
B. Mach
C. Newton/Coulomb D. Pascal
Codes: AB C D
(a) 2341
(b) 2134
(c) 1234
(d) 3241
Ans. – (a)
High speed – Mach
Frequency – Hertz
Electric field – Its strength is measured in Newton/Coulomb
Pressure – Pascal
Q16. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
A. Potassium Nitrate
B. Potassium bromide
C. Potassium sulphate
D. Monopotassium tartrate
List-II
1. Fertilizer 2. Photography
3. Gun powder 4. Bakery
Code:
AB C D
(a) 2413
(b) 3214
(c) 2134
(d) 1234
Ans. – (b)
Potassium Nitrate
(KNO3) – Gun powder
Potassium Bromide
(KBr) – Photography
Potassium Sulphate
(K2SO4) – Fertilizer Monopotassium
Tartrate – Bakery Q17. Cryogenic engines used in:
(a) Sub marine propulsion
(b) Rocket technology
(c) VLSI
(d) Aeroplane engine
Ans. – (b) It has greater application in rocket technology. This type of
engine is made by USA and Russia. It is an important techniques in
space technology. Q18. Explosions in mines happen due to the
mixing of:
(a) H2 and O2
(b) Oxygen and Methane
(c) CO2 and Ethane
(d) Oxygen with Acetylene
Ans. – (d) Oxygen reacts with acetylene and burns with explosion.
Acetylene is used in vulcanization of rubber and acetic acid
formation. It is also used in welding to join iron layer.
Q19. Consider the following:
Which of the following causes acid rain: (1) Oxides of hydrogen
(2) Oxides of nitrogen
(3) Oxides of sulphur
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) Both 2 and 3 Ans. – (c) It
is caused by emissions of compounds of carbon, nitrogen and
sulphur which reacts with the water molecules in the atmosphere to
produce acids like H2SO4, HNO3. Acid rain occurs in Norway,
Finland, Sweden.
Q20. Match the following are correctly matched:
Organisation Location (1) Centre of DNA
finger printing
and diagnostics Pune (2) National Brain Research Centre (3)
National Centre for Cell Science Hyderabad
Gurgaon Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these Ans. – (d)
(1) DNA finger printing & diagnostics –
Hyderabad
(2) National Centre for Cell Science –
Pune
(3) Brain Research Centre – Gurgaon Q21. Three identical vessels
A, B and C are filled with water, mercury and kerosene
respectively up to an equal height. The three vessels are
provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the
three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is
emptied first: (a) Vessel B
(b) All the vessels A, B and C will be
emptied simultaneously
(c) Vessel A
(d) Vessel C
Ans. – (d)
Viscosity of materials
Kerosene < Water < Mercury
Kerosene vessel emptied first then water vessel and lastly mercury
vessel.
Q22. Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(1) Black powder was the first chemical
explosive.
(2) It is a mixture of sulphur, Charcoal
and Salt peter.
(a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. – (b)
Black powder is another name of gun powder which was the first
chemical explosive. It is a mixture of sulphur, charcoal and potassium
nitrate (salt peter). Here sulphur and charcoal act as fuel, while the
salt peter acts as an oxidizer. Q23. Match the following:
List-I
A. Oxide glass
B. Pyrex glass
C. Sodalime glass
D. Silica glass
List-II
1. High thermal expansion
2. Resistant against weathering 3. Extremely clear
4. Less vulnerable to cracking from
thermal shock
Code:
AB C D
(a) 3412
(b) 1324
(c) 3421
(d) 1234
Ans. – (a)
Silica glass has very low thermal expansion, so it is most resistant
against weathering.
Pyrex glass, it is also called sodium borosilicate glass, has low
coefficient of thermal expansion thus it is less vulnerable to cracking
from thermal shock.
Sodalime glass also called window glass has high thermal
expansion.
Oxide glass contains alumina and germanium oxide and extremely
clear.
Q24. (1) The hottest natural chemical flame
is cyanogen.
(2) Acetylene is sometimes used for
carburisation.
(3) Calcium carbide was used in
portable lighting.
(4) Acetylene was the first substance
from which organic semiconductors
are prepared.
Which of the above statements are correct:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 1 Ans. – (c)
(1) Poly acetylene, the first organic
semiconductor was obtained from
acetylene.
(2) When object is large to fit into a
furnace acetylene is used for
carburisation (hardening) of steel. (3) Calcium carbide is used to
generate
portable lighting.
(4) Decyano acetyl is the hottest natural
chemical flame.
(HCl).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 1 (d) 2 and 3
Ans. – (a) In the motor car battery is of the voltage of 12V usually.
Capacity of car battery is measure/expressed in ampere-hour but
statements 3 and 4 is not correct because the electrolyte used in car
battery is sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and electrodes are lead and red
oxide.
depth.
(d) Density of liquid increases.
Ans. – (a)
PB = PA + δgh
where PA is atmospheric pressure i.e. PB∝ Pδ h
PB∝ h
Pressure varies with height.
Q7. Escape velocity from moon surface is less than earth escape
velocity because: (a) Atmosphere is not present on moon. (b)
Radius of moon is less than earth
radius.
(c) Moon is more closer to sun.
(d) Mass of moon is less.
Ans. – (b)
Escape velocity – It is the maximum speed, with which body is
projected never come back to earth gravitation field.
Ve = √2gR
Where g = acceleration due to gravity R = Radius of the earth/moon
Here, Radius of moon is less than earth radius so Ve is less.
(1) Quartz crystal and laser beam. (2) Titanium needle and quartz
crystal. (3) Laser beam.
(4) Barium titanate ceramic and laser
beam.
Which of the following statements is/are true:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans. – (c) In a compact disc audio player laser beam is used for
reproducing the sound.
correct explanation of A.
(b) A is true but R is false.
(c) Both A and R are true but R is the
correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. – (b) In a motion picture 24 frames are projected in a second to
create the illusion of continuity. The visual sensation of a particular
object for about 1/16s after changes. So A true but R false.
20 m.
(2) Distance is 40 m and displacement
0 m.
(3) Displacement and distance both zero. (4) Distance zero but
displacement 40 m. Ans. – (2) The shortest distance between two
point is called displacement and when any particle moved from one to
another point distance never be zero.
Q13. An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward
on the level of road with uniform acceleration. The free surface
of oil then:
(a) Assumed parabolic curve.
(b) Remain horizontal.
(c) Is inclined to the horizontal with large depth at the rear end.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (c) An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward
on the level of road with uniform acceleration. Then free
space/surface of oil is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at
the rear end. So option (c) is correct.
Q14. Consider the following statements: An ordinary light bulb
has rather short life because the:
(1) Bulb cannot be evacuated completely. (2) Filament wire is not
uniform. (3) Wire is supporting filament melt at high temperatures.
Which of the following statements are correct:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans. – (c) The ordinary bulb the filament is not uniform and the glass
chamber is not evacuated completely. So, due to process of gases, at
high temperature the supporting filament melt at high temperature.
Q15. Assertion (A): Information is fast becoming a very important
field of activity in India.
Reason (R): Software is one of the major exports of the country and
India has very strong base in hardware.
Codes:
(a) A is true but R false
(b) R is true but A false
(c) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct
information/explanation of A Ans. – (a) It is correct that information
technology is fast becoming a very important field activity in India. It is
also true that software is the one of the major export in India but India
does not have strong base in hardware.
Q16. Consider the following statements: Glass can be etched or
scratched by: (1) Carbonic acid
(2) Diamond
(3) Aquaregia
(4) Hydrofluoric acid
Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. – (b) The hardest elements
diamond is used to cut or scratched the glass. Writing on the glass
with the help of hydrofluoric acid.
Q17. Which of the following is/are present in the largest amount
in terms of percent by mass in the earth crust:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Oxygen and Calcium
(c) Silicon
(d) Carbon
Ans. – (c) Silicon is presents in the largest in terms of percentage by
mass on earth. The lithosphere is called siol and sima due to the
major presence of silicon.
Q18. Which of the following elements is/are paramagnetic in
nature:
(a) Iron and Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen and Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen and Hydrogen
(d) Only Oxygen
Ans. – (d) Oxygen is paramagnetic in nature. In these substances
each atom has a permanent magnetic moments and it behaves like a
magnetic dipole or a tiny atomic magnet which is called the atomic
magnets.
Q19. A simple machine helps a person is doing:
(a) The same amount of work much faster.
(b) The same amount of work slowly. (c) Less work.
(d) The same amount of work with lesser force.
Ans. – (d) Simple machine help us in doing same amount of work
with lesser force. Simple machine has multiplies force. Force apply
for force at a convenient direction and points. But a machine does not
work itself when energy is supplied to it, it does useful work.
Q20. The velocity changing with respect to time is called:
(a) Displacement
(b) Speed
(c) Force
(d) Acceleration
Ans. – (d) The velocity changing with respect to time is known as
acceleration. It is calculated by a = V− u/t where V is final velocity and
u is initial velocity and t is time.
Q21. Which two of the following question is a vector quantity:
(a) Momentum (b) Energy
(c) Acceleration (d) Current (1) a and b (2) b and d
(3) a and c (4) a and d
Ans. – (3) Quantity which have magnitude as well as direction is
called vector quantity. For vector quantity it must obey the addition
rule of Parallelogram Quantity which have only magnitude is called
scaler quantity.
Current has magnitude as well as direction but it does not obey
addition rule of parallelogram so it is a scaler quantity. Q22. The
tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area
is due to:
(a) Density
(b) Viscosity
(c) Surface tension
(d) Vapour pressure
Ans. – (c) It is found that when a liquid is free from the external
forces (such a gravity) it is always takes the shape of spherical drop.
It is because for given volume, a sphere has the least surface area. It
means that the surface of every liquid has always a tendency to have
least surface area and it behaves like a stretched membrane having
tension in all direction parallel to surface. It also called surface
tension.
Q23. Domestic electrically wiring basically a: (a) Series
connection
(b) Series connection each room and parallel connection elsewhere
(c) Parallel connection
(d) None of these
Ans. – (c) For domestic use electrically wiring is basically a parallel
connection. In parallel circuit each branch received equal current. In
the parallel connection if one of the bulb removed from the circuit
electric current will flow continuously in other branches and other bulb
will continue to glow.
Q24. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device.
Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct:
(a) It must have a very high resistance. (b) It must have low melting
point. (c) It is made mainly from silver alloy. (d) It is connected in
parallel with the main switch.
Ans. – (b) A fuse is a short piece wire of a material of low melting
point and high resistances but not a very high resistance. If the
resistance becomes very much than even in normal current situation
the fuse wire gets heated up and melts. The fuse is connected in
series with the main switch. Q25. The organic molecules in sun
screen absorb the ultraviolet radiation and release is as heat.
There are three regions of ultraviolet light:
(1) UV-C is not absorb by the ozone and penetrates deeply into the
skin and can lead to cancer and premature skin aging.
General Physics
cloth.
(d) Rising of underground water. Ans. – (d) Capillary is hair like tube.
It is found that when a capillary tube open at both end is dipped in a
liquid, the liquid rises up in the tube. The example of capillarity are
blotting of ink, spread of water drop on cotton cloth and rising of water
from the root of plants to its foliage.
AB C D (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. – (c)
SI Unit Quantity
Coulombs Electric charge Volt Potential differences Watt Power
Ohm Resistance
Q5. Match the following lists:
List-I List-II A. Angle 1. m3
B. Volume 2. m2 C. Frequency 3. Radian D. Area 4. Hertz Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. – (b)
Quantity SI Unit
Angle radian
Volume m3
Frequency Hertz
Area m2
Q6. Match the following lists:
List-I List-II
A. Diesel 1. Redolf Diesel B. Fountain pen 2. Levis Waterman C.
Steam engine D. Telephone 3. James Watt 4. Grahm Bell Codes: AB
CD
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 4 1
C. Gramophone D. Bicycle
List-II
1. Mackmilan
2. Thomas Alva Addition
3. J.L. Beard
4. Grahm Bell (c) 1324
(d) 2314
Ans. – (b)
Kinetic energy = 1/2 mv2
(m = Mass, v = Velocity)
Potential energy = Mgh
(h = height, g = acceleration due to gravity) Distance = Time × Speed
Current = Q/T = Charge/Time Q9. Match the following lists:
List-I List-II
A. Manometer 1. Depth of sea B. Fathometer 2. Gas pressure C.
Cryometer 3. Density of gas D. Dasymeter 4. Low temperature
Codes:
Codes: AB C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. – (b)
Television – J.L. Beard Microphone – Grahm Bell Gramophone –
Thomas Alva Addition
Bicycle – Mackmilan Q8. Match the following lists:
List-I List-II
A. Kinetic energy 1. Q/T
B. Potential energy 2. 1/2 mv2 C. Distance 3. Time × Speed D.
Current 4. Mgh Codes:
AB C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 AB C D
(a) 2143
(b) 2431
(c) 3142
(d) 3124
Ans. – (a)
Manometer – Gas pressure
Fathometer – Depth of sea
Cryometer – Low temperature Dasymeter – Density of gas
Q10. Graphene, a newly discovered allotrope of carbon can have
application in: (1) Solar cells
(2) Sensors to diagnose diseases (3) Lithium ion batteries
(4) High frequency transistors
(5) Display screens
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Only 5 (d) All of these Ans. – (d)
simple pendulum decreases with time. (2) In each cycle the bob
attain a given
velocity twice.
(3) Both acceleration and velocity of the
bob zero when reach extreme
position during the oscillation.
(4) The acceleration is zero when the bob passes through the mean
position.
motion.
(b) Equal to zero.
(c) An incline force.
(d) None of these.
The net resultant force on the car running on the road with a uniform
velocity/speed is zero. Because at uniform speed acceleration of car
is zero so force is also zero. Force = Mass × Acceleration
Ans. – (c) Figure (c) is the correct option of the given option. Figure
(c) the time distance graph for one dimensional uniform motion.
Q20. When the light waves pass from air to glass, the variable
affected are: (a) Wavelength and velocity
(b) Velocity and frequency
(c) Wavelength and frequency
(d) Wavelength, velocity and frequency Ans. – (a) The wavelength
and frequency both are affected. Velocity decreases when it passes
from rarer to denser medium. While the more a rare band in passing
through different medium the shorter will be wavelength. There is no
effect on frequency on changing medium.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans. – (d) Graph (d) represented the particle falling freely under
gravity from rest. Q22. Which one of the following statements is
not correct:
(a) When the displacement of a body is zero then distance also zero.
(b) When acceleration of a particle is zero then resultant force on the
particle is zero.
(c) The velocity calculated by
Distance/Time.
(d) When velocity of a particle is zero then momentum of it is also
zero.
independent of pressure.
(b) The velocity of sound in air decreases
as the humidity decreases.
(c) The velocity of sound in air increases
with the increases temperature. (d) The velocity of sound in air is not
affected by the change in amplitude
and frequency.
Ans. – (b) All the above option are correct except (b) because the
sound travel faster in moist air than in the dry air.
Q24. In electrical network, which one of the following statements
is true:
(a) Ammeter and voltmeter is connected
parallel and series respectively. (b) Ammeter is connected in series
and
voltmeter is connected in parallel. (c) Both are connected in series.
(d) Both are connected in parallel. Ans. – (b) Ammeter is an electrical
device which measures current between two point. It’s internal
resistance is very low and it is connected in series.
Voltmeter – It measures potential difference between two point. It’s
resistance is very large and connected in parallel. Q25. Which of the
following is semiconductor:
(1) Silicon (2) Quartz
(3) Ceramic (4) Cadmium (5) Germanium
Choose correct options:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Both 3 and 5 (c) 1 and 5 (d) Only 1
Ans. – (c)
Semiconductor – It is a solid device whose conductivity lies between
good insulator and good conductor. At room temperature it behaves
like insulator. It has negative temperature gradient. It is used in chip
fabrication.
Semiconductor is of two types:
(i) N-type (ii) P-type.
Physics : Technology
Q1. Assertion (A): In a motion picture usually 24 frames are
projected every second ever the whole length of film.
Reason (R): An image formed on the retina of eyes persists for about
0.2 second after the removal of stimulus.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R false.
(d) R is true but A false.
Ans. – (c) A is true but R is false. In a motion picture 24 frames are
projected in a second which create the illusion of continuity. The
visual sensation of a particular object as scene persist for about 1/16
and after change.
Q2. WIMAX is related to which one of the following:
(a) Missile technology
(b) Communication technology
(c) Space technology
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) WIMAX is a emerging technology for broadband wireless
access. It promises very much high data rates, high reliability, good
efficiency and low cost. WIMAX enjoys strong industry support and
standardization. Because of its low cost, it is used to provide
broadband internet access to suburban rural areas and thus bridge
the digital divide.
Q3. In order of their distances from which of the following
planets lie between Mars and Uranus:
(a) Saturn and Neptune
(b) Saturn and Earth
(c) Jupiter and Saturn
(d) Earth and Jupiter
Ans. – (c) As per distances from such Jupiter and Saturn lie in
between Mars and Uranus. The solar system comprises the sun,
eight planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus,
Neptune revolving around the sun. The direction of the planets in
their revolution around the sun is from West to East. The earth is a
third nearest planet the sun. The planets nearest to the earth is
Venus.
Sun → Mercury → Venus → Earth → Mars → Jupiter → Saturn →
Uranus → Neptune
Q4. A person sitting in a car which is at rest. The reaction from
the road at each of four wheels of the car is R. When the car run
on the straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the
front wheel vary?
(a) It shall depend on the material of
the road.
(b) It will be greater than R.
(c) It will be less than R.
(d) It will be equal to R.
Ans. – (d) The dynamic friction in any object is proportional to instant
reaction and it is less than static friction. When the car runs on a
straight level of the road the reaction either of front wheel will be
equal to R.
Q5. Optical fibre works on the principle of: (a) Interference
(b) Scattering
(c) Refraction
(d) Total internal reflection
Ans. – (d) Optical fibers works on the principle of total internal
reflection. When the light is incident at small angle at one end, it gets
refracted into the fiber and gets incident on the interface of the fibers
and coating. The angle of critical is less than angle of incidence. So,
the light suffers the internal reflection again and again till the angle of
incidence being greater than the critical angle for the fiber.
Q6. When a mirror is rotated by an angle θ the reflected ray will
be rotate by: (a) 0° (b) θ
(c) 2θ (d) None of these Ans. – (c) For a given incident ray, if plane
mirror is rotated through a certain angle, then the reflected ray rotates
through twice of that angle. So if a mirror is rotated by an angle θ, the
reflected ray will rotate by 2θ.
Q7. The internal reflection can take place when light travel from:
(a) Air to water
(b) Diamond to glass
(c) Air to glass
(d) Water to glass
Ans. – (b) Total internal reflection takes place when light travel from
optically denser medium to optically rarer medium. (Refractive index
for glass = 1.57, Refractive index of Diamond = 2.45) Q8. A ball is
dropped from the top of a high building with a constant
acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. What will be its velocity after 3
seconds?
(a) 9.8 m/s (b) 49.6 m/s (c) 23.9 m/s (d) 29.4 m/s Ans. – (d) We know
that
V = u + gt
(Where V is velocity, g is acceleration due to gravity and t is time)
V = 0 + 9.8 × 3
V = 29.4 m/s
Q9. Match the following list:
(A) Force 1. m/s2
(B) Acceleration 2. Joule
(C) Velocity 3. Newton
(D) Work 4. m/s
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (b)
Force – Newton
Acceleration – m/s2
Work – Joule
Velocity – m/s
Q10. A noise level of 100 decibel would correspond to:
(a) Noise from machine shop
(b) Ordinary conversation
(c) Sound from a noisy street
(d) None of these
Ans. – (a) Loudness of sound is measured
on the scale called decibel scale. The softest audible sound on the
decibel scale is
zero db. The noise level of 100 decibel
would correspond to noise from a machine
shop.
Q11. The cloud fleet in the atmosphere
because of their low:
(a) temperature and pressure
(b) pressure and density
(c) only temperature
(d) None of these
Ans. – (c) When air rises, it is cooled by
expansion. After low point has reached
cooling lead to condensation of water
vapour in the atmosphere. Tiny droplets of
water vapour which are too small to fall as
rain shower, will be suspended in the air
and fleet as clouds.
Q12. Consider the following natural phenomena:
(1) Diffraction of light
(2) Scattering of light
(3) Refraction of light
(4) Terrestrial of light
Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) None of these Ans. – (b) Due to refraction of light and
terrestrial of light the mirage forms in deserts. Due to total internal
reflection of light which is causes of continuous refraction of rays in
different layer of air, the observer think of water where it does not
exist.
Q13. A hunter aims his gun at point between the eyebrow of a
monkey sitting on a branch of a long tree. Just as hunter fires,
the monkey jumped down. The bullet will:
(a) Miss the monkey altogether. (b) Hit the monkey at the point
aimed. (c) Hit the monkey above the point aimed.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (b) The bullet will hit the monkey at the point aimed because
the bullet will cover the same vertical distance as of monkey covered
the distance.
Q14. In an atom, the order of filling up the orbitals is governed
by:
(a) Aufbau’s principle
(b) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (c) Hund’s rule
(d) Pauli exclusion principle
Ans. – (a) The order of filling up of the orbital is given by Aufbau’s
principle which conveys that electron are added to an atom one at a
time, starting with lower energy orbital until all the electron have been
placed in an appropriates orbital. According to Pauli’s exclusion
principle, no two electron in an atom can have same value for all the
four quantum number, hence there can be maximum of two electrons
in an orbitals.
Q16. The Alpha particle carries two positive charge. Its mass is
very nearly equal to that of:
(a) Sum of masses of two positron and
two neutron.
(b) Two positrons as each positrons
carries a single positive charge. (c) Two protons.
(d) An atom of helium.
Ans. – (d) Each Alpha particles contains two protons and two
neutrons, so its mass is equal to an atom of helium. The molecular
weight of the helium atom is same as alpha particle.
Q17. In addition to protein and carbohydrates other nutritional
substances found in milk may be:
(1) Potassium (K) (2) Cobalt (CO) (3) Iron (fe) (4) Calcium (Ca) (a) 1,
2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. – (c) Milk
contains protein, carbohy
drates, sugar, fats, sodium, potassium, calcium, iron, vitamins A, B12,
C and D, magnesium, phosphorus, thiamin, niacin and riboflavin.
Q20. India has recently landed its Moon Impact Probe on the
moon. Among the following countries, which on landed such
probe on the Moon earlier: (a) USA (b) Russia
(c) Japan (d) Denmark
(1) Only a (2) All a, b, c, d (3) a, b and c (4) None of these Ans. – (3)
In 2008, 14th November India has landed its Moon Impact Probe on
the moon. USA, USSR (Russia) and Japan are three countries to
have landed previously Moon Impact Probe on the moon. So, the
correct answer is (3).
(d) Both A and R are true but R is the not correct explanation of A
Ans. – (b) In a camel excess water is
stored in small vessel all around the stomach.
The hump of the camel consists of fatty tissues which store energy. At
the time of scarcity of food these fat tissues are metabolised yielding
energy and water. Q25. Kinetic energy of a truck, a car and a
motorcycle are equal. If same resistive force is applied on it and
they will be stopped at a distance of X, Y and Z respectively:
(a) X > Y > Z (b) X < Y < Z (c) X = Y = Z (d) X = 4Y = 8Z Ans. – (c)
KE = 1/2 mv
Where M = Mass of the body
V = Velocity
Here change in kinetic energy is equal to work done by resistive
force.
i.e. KE = FS
A/q kinetic energy of bodies are equal and resistive force are also
equal so distanced travelled by body is also equal.
strikers poles are north poles, then the steel bar will developed south
poles at the two end with the north pole at the middle. The extra pole
that is developed at the middle is known as consequent pole.
surface.
(b) Zero.
(c) Same as the point 25 cm away from
the surface.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (d) In the case of hollow sphere, the potential at any point
inside the sphere is equal to the potential on its surface. As the
potential on the surface is 10V, therefore potential at the centre of the
sphere would be also 10V.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Neither one (1) nor 2 are correct Ans. – (b) Diamagnetic
substances contain equal number of electron spinning is opposite
direction. These electron neutralize the magnetic force of each other,
but when an external magnetic field is applied their orbit slightly
disturbed.
plate.
(b) plate voltage.
(c) temperature of the cathode.
(d) temperature of the plate.
Ans. – (b) Here M = RP × gm Where RP is the plate resistance and
gm is the mutual conductance. Hence the amplification factor of a
triode value depend upon the plate resistance.
V= 107
V = 10 MHZ
Q10. Which one of the following would fill the empty space in the
given below nuclear reaction:
(a) Alpha particle (b) Proton
(c) Neutron (d) None of these Ans. – (c) Here,
5B10 + 2He4 + 7N13 + 0X1
as Z = 0 and A = 1 ∴0X1 = 0H1
So it is a neutron.
Q11. The half life of radium is 1600 years the fraction of the
sample of the radium that would remain after 6400 year would
be: (a) 1/10 (b) 1/12
(c) 1/16 (d) Zero
Ans. – (c) After each 1600 year (64000 year), the substance
remaining behind will be
1 – [1/2 + 1/4 + 1/16]
= 1/16
So option (c) is correct.
number of turns in the secondary coil is more than in the primary coil.
(2) In the step-down of transformer the
number of turns in the primary coil is more than the secondary coil.
Codes:
(a) Only 2 is correct
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Ans. – (d) In a step-down transformer the voltage of secondary coil is
also lower than primary coil. In step-up transformer, the voltage of
primary coil is lower than in the secondary coil.
Q13. Which one of the following is/are in correct about infrared
spectrum:
(1) They have large wavelength.
(2) The penetration power of these rays are very high.
(3) They show heating effect.
(4) They are absorbed by rock salt.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Ans. – (b) The infrared spectrum are
absorbed by glass not by rock salt. The
penetration of these are very high on
account of which these ray can cross the
clouds mist and fag.
Q14. Which of the following are magnetic
substances:
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Cobalt
(d) All of the above
Ans. – (d) The magnetic substances can be
defined those substances which can be
attract by ordinary magnets and whose
magnetic properties can be easily detected.
Iron, Nickel, Steel and Cobalt are magnetic substances so option (d)
is correct.
So 1 = 8 ×1
R 200
=1
25
R = 25.
Q17. Consider the following statements and select the correct
codes:
(2) The resistance of pure metallic wire increases when heated and
decreases when cooled.
infrared, ultraviolet.
(b) Radio waves, infrared, ultraviolet,
x-rays, gamma rays.
(c) Radio waves, ultraviolet, x-rays,
infrared, gamma rays.
(d) Radio waves, ultraviolet, infrared,
gamma rays, x-rays.
Ans. – (b)
Radio waves – 104 to 1012 HZ
Infrared – 10 to 4 × 1014 HZ Ultraviolet – 7.6 × 1014 to 1017 HZ X-rays –
10 to 1020 HZ
Gamma rays – 109 × 1024
same strength.
(b) There is no effect of heat in magnet. (c) When a bar magnetised, it
slightly
increased in length.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (b) When a magnet strongly heated, the speed of the
molecules is accelerated resulting in the decreases of their rigidly. It
causes them to go back to the closechain arrangement. Thus the
magnet is demagnetised on heating. When a bar is magnetised, it
slightly increases in length due to the setting of molecular magnet
along straight chain.
(b) The light produced by sun and electric bulbs is coherent whereas
the light produced by the lazer is incoherent.
(c) Laser beam are used to remove unhealthy tissue from the body.
(d) Laser is also used to weld a detached retene back into space.
Ans. – (b) In the case of light produced by the sun and electric bulb
excited atom release light irregularly. As a result, the light has
different frequencies and travel in different path/direction. This is
incoherent light but the light produced in a laser are coherent.
Q24. The poles of Daniells cell of E.M.F. = 1.08 volt and internal
resistance 0.2 ohm are joined by a wire having resistance of 5.2
ohm. The strength of the current in this case would be:
(a) 4 amp (b) 11 amp
(c) 0.2 amp (d) None of these Ans. – (0.2 Amp), (c)
Here E = 1.08 Resistance of wire = 5.2
Internal Resistance (r) = 0.2
We know that,
E
= 1.08 = 0.2 amp
I=
R + r 5.4
container and the negative pole. The positive pole is a rod of carbon
surrounding by a mixture of magnese dioxide and graphite and all
enclosed in a muslin bag. The electrolytes is a moisture paste of
ammonium chloride solution and plaster of Paris.
Functional Properties
Q9. Given below are name of some alloys and their constituents.
Match them and select correct answer/code:
Composition
(A) Copper and nickel
(B) Mg, Zn, Al and Mn
(C) Iron, Mn and Carbon
(D) Antimony, Sn (tin), Cu and Bismuth Alloy
(1) Constantum
(2) Electrum
(3) Poweter
(4) Splege leisen
Codes:
AB C D (a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans. – (a)
Cu and Ni – Constantum Mg, Zn, Al and Mn – Electrum
Q10. Given below are the name of certain chemicals match with
their medicinal use and select correct code:
List-1
(A) Iodex
(B) Asprin
(C) Malarial drug
(D) Orthopedic surgery
List-2
(1) Chloroquine
(2) Methyl salicylyte
(3) Cephalosporins
(4) Saticyclic acid
Codes:
AB C D (a) 2413
(b) 4213
(c) 3421
(d) 1234
Ans. – (a)
Iodex – Methyl salicylyte Asprin – Salicyclic acid Malarial drug –
Chloroquine
Orthopedic surgery – Cephalosporins Q11. Which one of the
following type of penicillin is active against Pseudomonas:
(a) Extended spectrum penicillin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Penicillin-G
(d) None of these
Ans. – (a) The extended spectrum penicillin are used against
infection cause by
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are incorrect
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Only 2 is correct
Ans. – (d) Penicillinase resistant are penicillin that combat bacteria
that have developed resistance to penicillin-G. So only option (d) is
correct.
Q14. Match the following drug with their uses and select the
correct code/answer: (A) Meningitis (1) Rifamicin (B) Headache and
structural muscle
aches (2) Macrolides (C) Diptheria (3) Cephalosporins
(D) Tuberculosis (4) Accetaminophen Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 3421
(c) 1432
(d) 4213
Ans. – (b)
A– 3
B–4
C–2
D–1
Q15. Consider the following statements and select correct code:
(1) Hess law is used in calculating heat of formation and also heat of
combustion.
(2) Hess law states that the quantity of heat absorbed or evolved in a
chemical change varies with the step in the process.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are not correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) Only 1 is correct
Ans. – (c) According to hess law constant heat summation the
quantity of heat absorbed in a chemical change is always same
irrespective of the fact that process take place in one step or several
step.
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. – (b)
Propane – C3H8
Butane – C4H10
Pentane – C5H12
Methane – CH4
Q19. Match the following lists and select correct code:
List-1
(A) Orange (B) Lemon (C) Curd
(D) Tamarind
List-2
(1) Citric acid (2) Lactic acid (3) Tarataric acid (4) Citric acid
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. – (b)
Orange – Citric acid
Lemon – Citric acid
Curd – Lactic acid
Tamarind – Tarataric acid Q20. A bird flies down vertically towards
a
water surface, to a fish inside the water,
vertically below the bird, the bird will
appear to:
(a) be further away than its actual distance.
(b) be closer than its actual distance.
(c) move faster than its actual speed.
(d) move slower than its actual speed. Choose correct options:
(1) a and c (2) Only d
(3) All of the above (4) a, b and c
Ans. – (1) For refraction at plane surface,
use
μ2 = μ2
Vu
Let n = height of bird above the water surface
For travelling from bird to the fish
μ1 = 1, μ2 = μ (R.I of water), μ = – x
μ=1
V −n
V= – μn
|V| = μn
Speed of bird is greater than actual speed.
technology
(4) Indian institute of Chemical Biology Location
A. Banglore
B. Dehradun
C. Kolkata
D. Hyderabad
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1243
(b) 1243
(c) 3412
(d) 1324
Ans. – (a)
Indian institutes of
Astrophysics – Banglore Indian institutes of
Petroleum – Dehradun Indian institutes of Chemical Technology
Indian institutes of Chemical Biology
– Hyderabad
– Kolkata
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. – (a)
Sodium bicarbonate
(NaHCO3) – Fire extinguisher Zipsum – Cement Calcium carbide –
Acetelene Mercuric Oxide – Poison
Q25. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1
(1) Antibiotics (2) Antiseptics (3) Antipyretics (4) Anaesthetic
List-2
A. Phenols
B. Streptomycin C. Aspirin
D. Penthol sodium
Codes: AB C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. – (a)
Antibiotics – Streptomycin
Antiseptics – Phenols
Antipyretics – Aspirin
Anaesthetic – Penthol sodium
Technological Developments
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. – (b)
Concave mirror – Real and virtual image
Convex mirror – Only virtual image Concave lens – Only virtual image
Convex lens – Both real and virtual image
Q2. Match the following lists:
List-I List-II
A. Mirror formula 1. Radius of curvoture (R) 2
B. Focal length 2. 1 + 1 + 1
vuf
C. Magnification 3. h’/h
D. Lens formula 4. 1 − 1 + 1 v u f
Codes:
AB C D (a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2314
(d) 1243
Ans. – (a)
Mirror formula – 1 + 1 + 1
vuf
Lens formula –1 − 1 + 1 v u f
Radius of curvoture (R)Focal length – 2
Magnification – h’/h
Q3. When a body running with the acceleration (a) suddenly his
mobile ring and he stop; when body stop then acceleration of
the body will be:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Does not change
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b)
The body when stop suddenly then velocity of the body is also
decreases so according to definition of acceleration the velocity
changing with respect to time is called acceleration it means velocity
increases then acceleration also increases and when velocity
decreases then acceleration also decreases. So option (b) is correct.
Ans. – (d)
Coulomb’s law
–
k × q1 × q2
r2
ohm’s law – I = V/R
Gravitation law – G1 × M1 × M2 R2
Q5. Assertion (A): A piece of copper and a piece of glass are heated
to the same temperature. When touched, thereafter, the copper piece
appear hotter than the glass piece.
Reason (R): The density of copper is more than that of glass.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R true but R is not correct
explanation of A.
(b) A is true but R is false.
(c) Both A and R true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (a) The copper piece appear hotter because of low specific
heat capacity not because density.
of curvature.
(b) At the centre of curvature.
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature. (d) Between the pole of the mirror
and its
principal axis.
Ans. – (d) When an object situated between pole of the mirror and
principal focus of the concave mirror then the image of that object
should be formed erect, larger than object and virtual.
correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R true and R is correct
explanation of A.
Ans. – (d) The viscosity of liquid is directly proportional to
temperature. Rise of
= 0.06 KW
Time used, t = 6 h
Energy = Power× time taken
= 0.36 KW × 6 h = 0.36 unit
1 Kilowatt = 1000 W
AB C D
(a) 3241
(b) 4231
(c) 1243
(d) 1234
Ans. – (d)
Quality SI Unit
Momentum – Kg m/s
Electric charge – Coulombs Energy – Joule
Mass – Kilogram Q15. The potential difference across the end of a
resistor is directly proportional to current through it, provided
its temperature remain the same. This rule is known as:
(a) ohm’s law
(b) Coulomb’s law
(c) Kepler’s law
(d) None of these
Ans. – (a) The potential difference across the end of a resistor is
directly proportional to current through it, provided its temperature
remain the same. This rule is given by Georg Simon ohm’s in 1827.
Q16. A particle travels 16 m in 4 s and then another 16 m in 2 s.
What is the average speed of the particle?
(a) 10 m/s (b) 4 m/s
(c) 5.33 m/s (d) 6.43 m/s
Ans. – (c)
Average speed of a particle
= Total distance travelled
(a) 1 = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + .......
RP R1 R2 R3 R4
1 3 4
(b) 1 = R + R + R + .......
RP R2 R1 R2..
(c) 1 = 0
RP
1 = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + .......
RP R1 R2 R3 R4
For Domestic use we set the circuit path in parallel not in series.
Rs R1 R2 R3
(b) RS = R1 + R2 + R3 + ....
(c) RS = 0
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) When a set of resistor connected in series then equivalent
resistance (RS) is equal to RS = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 .... In series
connection current same but voltage different.
Ans. – (c)
The mass of the body does not change with respect to acceleration
due to gravity. The masses does not change from one place to other
places but weight can change from one place to other place. Weight
may be zero.
correct explanation of A.
(d) A and R both true but R is the not
correct explanation of A.
Ans. – (b)
A is true but R is false. At altitude the boiling point of water
decreases. This is so because at height the atmospheric pressure
decreases.
Miscellaneous Questions
of atom
(B) Electron
(C) Proton
(D) Neutron
List-2
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 4321
(d) 1342
Ans. – (b)
Nuclear model of atom – Rutherford
Electron – Thomson
Proton – Goldstien
Neutron – Chadwick Q9. When a body move on the circular path
then its acceleration is?
(a) Constant
(b) Does not constant
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) When any object or body moving on a circular path then its
acceleration
is change due to changing the direction of
body. Acceleration is a vector quantity so it
have magnitude as well as direction. When
velocity of body increase then also increases the acceleration of
body.
AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 3214
(c) 4312
(d) 1243
Ans. – (b)
Sonar – Reflection of ultrasonic wave Photocell – Photoelectric effect
Optical fiber – Total internal
reflection of light Computer – Digital logic Q12. Which one of the
following is used as propellants for cryogenic engine:
(a) Ammonium perchlorate
(b) Nitrogen tetraoxide and hydrazine (c) Hydrogen peroxide and
hydrazine (d) Liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen Ans. – (d) A
cryogenic engine is a liquid propellant rocket motor which uses liquid
oxygen and liquid hydrogen as propellants. The propellants have to
be stored at extremely low temperature of around 200 degree
Celsius. It has greater use in space exploration. America, Russia has
already cryogenic engine. Cryogenic engine works at low
temperature.
Q13. Which one of the following has been designated by
scientists as the thinnest substance in the world:
(a) Fullerene
(b) Carbon
(c) Quartz
(d) Graphene
Ans. – (d) Graphene has been called by the scientist as the thinnest
substance in the world. It is made up of single layer of carbon atoms.
Carbon atoms in Graphene are arranged in honeycomb shaped
hexagonal lattice. The substance is chemically very simple but
extremely strong, conducts electricity and heat. It is transparent. Q14.
Match the following lists:
List-1 List-2
(A) Length (1) Meter (B) Mass (2) Kilogram (C) Electric Current (3)
Second (D) Time (4) Ampere Codes:
AB C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 Ans. – (a)
Length – Meter Mass – Kilogram Electric Current – Ampere Time –
Second Q15. Consider the following statements and select
correct code:
(1) Going at the pace, India diabetic patient would increase three fold
by the year 2030.
(2) India has the largest number of diabetic patient in the world.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are not correct
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Ans. – (a) About diabetic patient China has largest number of
diabetic patient in the world. The number of patient is 90 million that
will increase 130 million by 2020. India presently has 61 million and it
marks 100 million patient of diabetic at 2030. Q16. Which of the
following is not characteristics of Long Term Evolution
Technology:
(a) It increase latency.
(b) It increase spectral efficiency. (c) It reduce cost of transmission.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (a) The latency is reduced to 10 ms from few 100 ms is 3G by
long term evolution technology. The objective of LTE is to improve
spectral efficiency. The long term technology reduces the cost of
transmission. The LTE technology does not increase the latency so
option is not correct about LTE.
Q17. Match the following lists:
Object Mass
(A) Electron (1) 10–30 kg (B) Proton (2) 10–27 kg (C) Sun (3) 1030 kg (D)
Milky way Galaxy (4) 1041 kg
Codes: AB C D
(a) 4312
(b) 1243
(c) 1234
(d) 4321
Ans. – (c)
Electron – 10–31 kg
Proton – 10–27 kg
Sun – 1030 kg
Milky way Galaxy – 1041 kg
Q18. Which one of the following statements
(b) It’s speed is more than 6 Mach. (c) This vehicle is developed by
ISRO. (d) This rocket carries oxygen and fuel on
Probe
A. Jupiter
B. Outer solar system C. Mars
D. Saturn
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. – (a)
Path finder – Mars
Voyager-1 – Outer solar system Juno – Jupiter
Cassini-Huygens – Saturn
Q24. Given below are some new nuclear reactor sites of India.
Match them with the states in which they are located: Sites
A. Kumhariya B. Haripur
C. Bargi
D. Kovvadda Codes:
States
1. Haryana
2. West Bengal
3. Madhya Pradesh 4. Andhra Pradesh
AB C D (a) 1 2
(b) 1 2
(c) 3 2
(d) 3 4
Ans. – (a) Kumhariya Haripur
Bargi
Kovvadda 3 4 4 3 4 1 1 2
– Haryana
– West Bengal
– Madhya Pradesh
– Andhra Pradesh Q25. Consider the following statements relat
ed to cloning is correct:
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) None of these
Ans. – (c) The breakthrough of cloning solves a mystery of embryo
development. All cells in a body are genetically identical except the
sperm and the egg. Yet the cells of skin, the eye, the heart and the
liver are all different. Though their blue prints are identical, they
become different by switching on certain genes at different times.
Q26. What is the reason for rising and settling sun appearing
reddish?
(a) Refraction is responsible for it. (b) Diffraction sends red ray to
earth. (c) It occurs due to total internal
reflection.
(d) Scattering of light due to dust particle
and air molecules.
Ans. – (d) Rising and settling sun looks reddish due scattering of light
due to dust particle and air molecules.
Refraction is a process, when light goes from one medium to another
medium. It moves away/towards the normal. When light goes from
rarer to denser it moves towards normal and vice versa.
Diffraction – It occurs when a wave encounter an obstacle. It is a
bending of wave around small obstacle.
Part - 4
Chhemiissttry
Radioactivity
particle.
(2) Penetrating power of β-ray is more
than γ-ray.
(3) Atomic no. of parents element is
reduced by two unit when α-ray
is emitted.
(4) Radioactivity is measured by G.M.
Counter.
Choose correct options:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these Ans. – (c) α, β, γ-rays are emitted by
radioactive elements. Radioactivity discovered by Henory Becquard.
α-particle is
rich in ultraviolet.
(2) Magnesium is a bad conductor of heat
and electricity.
(3) Magnesium loses its luster when exposed to air due to the
formation of
a thin film of oxides.
Code:
(a) 1, 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans. –(d) Magnesium is a good conductor of electricity and heat. The
high burning magnesium is rich in ultraviolet rays that is why it is used
in making photoflash powder and bulb.
Q 8. Consider the following statements and choose the select
code/answer:
(1) Slab of impure metal are made the
anode and thin sheets of pure metal
the cathode is an electrolyte cell
using a suitable salt of the metal as
electrolytes.
(2) Electrolytes refining is the most
widely used method of refining
metals.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 both are incorrect
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Only 2 is correct
Ans. – (c) During electrolysis, pure metal from electrolyte deposit on
the cathode while an equivalent amount of the metal from the anode
passes from the electrolyte. Less electropositive impurities fall down
while more electropositive impurities remain in electrolytes copper,
gold, aluminium, tin, silver, lead etc. are purified process.
Q 9. Babbitts is an alloy of which of the following principal
metal:
(a) Nickel (b) Copper
(c) Lead (d) Tin
Ans. – (d) Babbitts is an alloy which contains tin as its principal
metal. It also contains Antimony and Calcium. It is fusible and soft
and used for bearing. So option (d) is correct about principal metal of
babbitts. Q10. Which one of the following pairs of alloy and their
components is incorrectly matched:
(a) Solder – Pb, Sb
(b) Brass – Cu, Zn
(c) Nichrome – Ni, Fe, Cr, Mn (d) Gun metal – Cu, Zn
Ans. – (a) Brass contain zinc and copper, Nichrome contain nickel,
chromium, Magnese, Fe, Gun metal contain copper and zinc but
solder does not contain Pb and Sb because it contain Pb and Sn or
lead and tin.
Q11. Which was the first organic compound to be synthesized in
laboratory from non-living resources?
(a) Alcohol (b) Urea
(c) Ether (d) Formaldehyde Ans. – (b) A German Chemist Wohler
prepared urea in 1928. A typically animal product present in urine by
NH
4
CNO
Heat
−−→CO (NH2)2
Where (CONH2)2 is urea.
Conc CH3COOH.
(2) It is highly corrosive, fuming liquid. (3) It can dissolve platinum.
(4) HNO3 is a strong oxidising agent. Select correct option:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above Ans. – (c) HNO3 is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidises other and reduced itself. Aqua regia (Latin
for royal water) is a freshly prepared mixture of Conc HCl and Conc
HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1. It can dissolve gold and platinum, even
though neither of these acids can do so alone. It is highly corrosive,
fuming liquid.
very reactive.
(2) Metals in the middle of the activity
series are moderately reactive. (3) Gold, silver and copper are in the
top
of activity series.
(a) Only 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. – (c) The reactivity series is a list of
metals arranged in the order of their decreasing activity. Metals low in
the activity series are less reactive like Ag, Au etc. They are often
found in a free state for ex.: Ag, Au.
The metals in the middle of activity series such as iron, zinc, lead are
moderately reactive. These are usually present as sulphides or
carbonates in nature.
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding α-particle
scattering experiment:
(1) Most of the fast moving α-particles pass straight through gold foil.
(2) Some of the α-particles were deflected by the foil by small angles.
(3) Some of the α-particle deflected by 180°.
Select correct options:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans. – (a) On the basis of α-ray scattering
experiment Rutherford put forward the
Nuclear model of an atom which had the
following features:
(i) There is positively charge centre in the atom called the Nucleus.
(ii) Electron revolve around the nucleus in well defined orbit.
(iii) The size of Nucleus is very small. Q4. Consider the following
statements:
(1) A chemical formula of a compound shows its constituents
elements and no. of Atoms of each combining element.
(2) Mass of 1 mole of a substance is called Atomic mass.
(3) Mass = Molar mass × Number of moles
(4) Number of mole
= Weight ×
1
Molecular mass
(1) 2
(2) 10 (3) 3
(4) 11
AB C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. – (a)
Element Atomic number
Sodium – 11
Helium – 2
Neon – 10
Lithium – 3
Q6. For the following statements, choose correct option:
(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only
nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining
therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of proton. (d)
An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used
as a medicine.
(A) Only c (B) a and b (C) None of these (D) a, b and c Ans. – (A)
J.J. Thomson discovered the electron. Electron is negatively charge
particle. Mass of an electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg. It is a universal
constituents of any substance. Neutron is a neutral particle, it is not
formed due to combining of electron and proton. It was discovered by
N.C. Chadwick.
Q7. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1 List-2 Natural
Source (A) Vinegar
(B) Nettle sting (C) Ant sting (D) Tomato
Codes:
Acid
(1) Acetic acid (2) Methanoic acid (3) Methanoic acid (4) Oxalic acid
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. – (a)
Vinegar – Acetic acid (CH3COOH) Nettle sting – Methanoic acid
Tomato – Oxalic acid (C2H2O4) Lemon – Citric acid
Orange – Acetic acid
Q8. Consider the following statements and select correct option:
(1) Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is used in glass, soap and paper
industry. (2) Recrystallization of sodium carbonate gives washing
soda.
(3) Baking soda is also called sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3).
(4) Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry
slaked lime [Ca(OH)2].
(a Only 2 and 4
(b) All of the above
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. – (b) Sodium carbonate is also called washing soda.
Recrystallization of sodium carbonate gives washing soda. (Na2CO3
+ 10H2O → Na2CO3 . 10H2O)
Baking soda is used in kitchen for making tasty cripsy Pakoras.
Sometimes it is added for faster cooking.
Chlorine gas is used for manufacturing bleaching powder.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
Q9. Which of the following statements is not correct:
(a) Epoxy has outstanding bonding strength.
(b) Epoxy resins are tough, weather resistant and do not shrink.
(c) Epoxy has excellent electrical conduc tion properties.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (c) Epoxy resins are named for epoxide groups (CyCl –
CH2OH; Cyclolic refer to the triangle form by this group) that
terminate the molecules. Because of epoxy chemical resistance and
excellent electrical insulation properties electrical parts such as relay,
coils and transformer are insulated with epoxy.
Q10. Consider the following statements and select correct code:
(1) Lithium is preserved under naptha. (2) Lithium is the least reactive
of the alkali metal, it tarnishes rapidly in air. (3) Lithium has no
naturally occurring iso topes.
Codes:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ans. – (d) Two naturally occurring isotopes of lithium are Li and 7Li.
They are not radioactive. Isotopes of lithium are 5Li and 8Li. lithium
can be used as tritium source for controlled fusion reactors. Its
compounds are reducing agents.
Q11. Match the following and select the correct code:
(A) Washing soda (1) NaHCO3 (B) Baking soda (2) Na2CO3 (C)
Quick lime (3) Ca(OH)2 (D) Slaked lime (4) CaO
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. – (c)
Washing soda – Na2CO3
Baking soda – NaHCO3
Quick lime – CaO
Slaked lime – CO(OH)2
Q12. Which of the following is not correct: (a) Every steel has
carbon contain. (b) Stainless steel contain 12 to 20% of chromium.
(c) Stainless steel is resistant to rusting and corrosion because of its
nickel content.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (c) Stainless steel contain normally 70-90% of iron, 12-20% of
chromium, 0.1 to 0.7 percent of carbon. Stainless steel is resistant to
rusting and corrosion because its chromium content not nickel. Nickel
and Molybdenums are also be added to obtain improve variety of
stainless steel. Q13. Limestone used in the extraction of iron act
as which of the following:
(a) Flux
(b) Mineral
(c) Gangue
(d) Slag
Ans. – (a) Limestone is added as flux. It decompose into calcium
oxides and carbondioxides. Calcium oxides combined with sand
(SiO2) to form calcium silicate (CaSiO3) known as slag which is
tapped out of the furnace from time to time. So flux is the correct
answer about limestone added as flux.
Q14. Match the following metal with their alloys and select the
correct code: (A) Brass (1) Cu, Zn
(B) Solder (2) Pb, Sn
(C) Nichrome (3) Cu, Sn
(D) Gun metal (4) Ni, Fe, Mn, Cr Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. – (b)
Brass – Cu, Zn
Solder – Pb, Sn
Nichrome – Ni, Fe, Mn, Cr
Gun metal – Cu, Sn
Q15. What will happen if volume of gas is decreased at constant
temperature then pressure will be:
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) According to Boyle’s law, at constant temperature and
fixed amount of gas, volume is inversely proportional to the pressure,
i.e. pressure increases, volume decreases and vice versa.
From Ideal gas equation
PV = nRT
P = Pressure, V = Volume
n = No. of mole of the gas
R = gas constant
T = temperature
i.e.
P
∝
1
V
Q16. Given below are three important air pollutants, match them
with instrument used for their detection and select correct
answer/code: (A) Flame
photometer (B) Infrared
spectrometer (C) Photo detector Codes:
AB C (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2 (c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 Ans. – (b)
Flame photometer (1) Carbon monoxides
Equivalent weight =
Atomic weight
AB C D (a) 3241
(b) 2341
(c) 1234
(d) 2314
Ans. – (b) Simple salt Acidic salt Basic salt Double salt
– Barium chloride
– Sodium bicarbonate
– Ferric hydroxide
– Alum
Q19. Consider the following statements: (1) Soap and detergents
are highly fatty acids like oleic acid.
(2) Long chain of hydrocarbon is present in detergent.
(3) Soft soap contains highly fatty acidic potassium salt.
(4) Hard soap contains highly fatty acidic sodium salt.
Choose the correct answers:
Q20. Match the following metals with the colours they emit and
select correct answer:
List-1 List-2
(A) Sodium (1) Yellow
AB C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (b)
Sodium – Yellow
Aluminium – White
Copper – Blue
Barium – Green
Q21. Consider the following statements:
– Aluminium
– Iron
– Copper
– Uranium
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > H > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au
Aqua regia (Royal water) is a freshly prepared mixture of
concentrated HCl and the HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1. It can dissolve
gold, even though neither of these acid can do so alone.
List-2
(A) Boric acid (B) Lactic acid (C) Tartaric acid (D) Acetic acid (E)
Bytric acid
Codes: AB C D E
(a) 1234 5
(b) 2354 1
(c) 3214 5
(d) 1453 2
Ans. – (b)
Boric acid –
Lactic acid –
Tartaric acid –
Vinegar –
Bytric acid – Eyewash
Sem milk
Grape
Acetic acid Rancid butter Q16. Consider the following statements
and select the correct code/answer. Which of the following is/are
an amphoteric oxides:
(1) SO2
(2) PbO
(3) CO2
(4) K2O
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only K2O (4)
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. – (c) The amphotric oxides are those oxides, which react with
acid as well as bases to form salt and water or neutralization reaction.
Oxides of zinc, lead and aluminium are amphoteric.
Q17. Which of the following is an example of non-electrolyte:
(a) Ether
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Acetic acid
Ans. – (a) Ether, benzene, chloroform, alcohol or some oil or an
aques solution of cane sugar or glucose do not allow current to
passing through them such substances as know as non-electrolytes.
Non-electrolytes stay infact. So ether is a non-electrolytes example of
given question.
Q18. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and select the correct
when given element burn with oxygen then gives answer/code:
List-1
(A) Sulphur
List-2
(1) Golden yellow flame
(2) Bright blue flame (3) Yellow sparks (4) White fumes
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234 (b) 2 3 (c) 2 3 (d) 3 2 Ans. – (c)
Sulphur – Wood charcoal – Phosphorus – Sodium – 4 1 4 1 4 1
Code:
(a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) None of these
Ans. – (c) The pH value of human body is 7.3 so it is slightly alkaline.
Milk has pH value is 6.6 is slightly acidic and pure water has pH value
7, so water is neutral not acidic and not basidity.
Q20. Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct code:
(1) Bosch process (2) Nelson process (3) Ostwald process (4)
Haber’s process (A) Ammonia (B) Nitric acid (C) Salt solution (D)
Hydrogen
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. – (b)
Bosch process – Hydrogen Nelson process – Ostwald process –
Haber’s process – Salt solution Nitric acid Ammonia
Q21. Given below are two lists of solute and solvents
respectively. Match list-1 with list-2 and select correct code:
Solute Solvents
(A) Nitre (1) Alcohol (B) Phosphorus (2) Water
(C) Wax (3) Carbon disulfide (D) Chlorophyll (4) Turpentine oil
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (a)
Nitre – Water
Phosphorus – Carbon disulfide
Wax – Turpentine oil
Chlorophyll – Alcohol
Q22. The atoms of the same elements, which
have same atomic weight but different
atomic number is known as:
(a) Isotopes
(b) Isobars
(c) Both Isotopes and Isobars
(d) None of these
Ans. – (b) The Atoms of the same elements
which have same atomic weight but different atomic number is called
isobars and
which elements have same atomic number
but different atomic weight/mass is known
as Isotopes. So option (b) is the answer of
the above question.
Q23. Which one of the following elements
used to galvanizing iron:
(a) Chromium (b) Magnesium
(c) Zinc (d) Nickel
Ans. – (c) Zn (Zinc) is used to coat iron sheets to prevents them from
rusting. This process of coating iron sheet with molten zinc is known
as galvanizing. Galvanized iron sheet are used for roofing and for
making tubes, buckets etc. Zinc also used for plating other elements.
Q24. Which one of the following is correct descending order of
elements with respect to their average percentage by mass in
human body:
(a) Oxygen, carbon, calcium, hydrogen, nitrogen.
(b) Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium.
(c) Carbon, oxygen, calcium, nitrogen, hydrogen.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (b) The composition of the human body varies slightly from
person to person but the average percentage by mass of the element
in the human body is oxygen (65%), carbon (18%), hydrogen (10%),
nitrogen (3%) and calcium (2%), phosphorus (1%), potassium
(0.35%), sulphur (0.25%), sodium (0.15%), chlorine (0.15%),
magnesium (0.05%) and iron (0.004%).
Q25. Petrol is the mixture of three hydrocarbons. Which one of
the following correct set of its ingredients:
(a) Hexane, Heptane and Octane. (b) Propane, Heptane and
Pentane. (c) Butane, Hexane and Isobutane. (d) None of these.
Ans. – (a) In petroleum ether is used as a solvent. On gradually
raising, the temperature the following other fraction are obtained one
by one (1) Naptha, which one further distillation yield petrol, (2)
Kerosene, (3) Fuel oil (Diesel oil), (4) Lubricating oil different
viscosity, (5) petroleum jelly, (6) paraffin wax, (7) Asphalt.
Q1. In the given following some alloy and their constituents and
match the list-1 with list-2:
(A) Bismath, Lead, Tin (1) Dutch metal (B) Copper, Zinc, Tin (C)
Copper and Zinc (D) Copper and Tin (2) Rose metal (3) Gun metal
(4) Bell metal
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2314
(c) 3241
(d) 1342
Ans. – (b)
Bismath, tin, lead
Copper, zinc, tin
Copper, zinc
Copper, tin
– Rose metal
– Gun metal
– Dutch metal
– Bell metal Q2. Which one of the following is not an allotropes of
carbon:
(a) Graphines (b) Graphites (c) Diamond (d) Fullerines Ans. – (a) The
graphine is basic structural elements of fullerines. There are three
allotropes of carbon – diamond, graphite and fullerines. Fullerines is
the family of newly discovered, the allotropic form of carbon. The first
member of this form of carbon is also called fellerines. It was
discovered in 1985 by a team of scientist Harled Kroto, Richard
Smalley and Robert Curl. All three are awarded by Noble Prize. Q3.
Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer/code:
(1) Oxygen is more soluble in water in comparison to Nitrogen.
(2) Every time we drink water, we drink a little bit of glass too.
(3) Pure water does not exist in natural states.
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) Only 3 is correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) All are incorrect
Ans. – (a)
Water is known as universal solvent. Every time we drink water, we
drink a little bit of glass too. But quantity is negligible. Because of
solvent power, pure water does not exist in natural states. Even rain
water, the purest form of natural water, contain 0.005 of solid
impurities. So all of the given option is correct about water. Q4.
Consider the following statements and select the correct
code/answer:
(1) To remove impurities of water which collected from river or lake, it
is mixed with required quantities of Alum (Al) soda and limestone.
(2) Dissolved impurities in small quantities are not objectivable to
drinking. Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Ans. – (a) Water collected from river of lake is treated with required
quantities limestone, soda, aluminium (Al) which react with one
another to form aluminium hydroxide, a Jelly like a stick solid. The
dissolved impurities, unless they are present in large quantities are
not objectionable for drinking. So all of the option is correct. Q5.
Which one of the following statements is untrue about Diamond:
(a) It alloy light and x-ray to passing through it.
(b) It is a very good conductor of heat and electricity.
(c) It has high refractive index.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (b) The Diamond is a very bad conductor of electricity. In a
crystal like diamond, there is no unit, which can be called a
molecules. It has high refractive index of about 2.4. It does not melt
even at a very high temperature. It is an allotropes of carbon. It is
very solid substance of the world. Q6. Which of the following
statements is incorrect:
(a) Carbogen is a mixture of 60% oxygen and 40% carbon dioxides.
(b) Carbon monoxide prevents red cell from absorbing oxygen.
(c) Carboxy haemoglobin is a more stable than Oxyhemoglobin.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. – (a) If a object/person inhaled carbon monoxides and his
condition deteriorities, life can be saved by blood transfusion, by
injecting methylene blue or by making the person inhale carbogen.
Carbon is a mixture of 95% oxygen (O2) and 5% carbon dioxides
(CO2).
Q7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about
graphite:
(a) It is a good conductor of electricity. (b) The crystal lattice of
graphite is pentagonal.
(c) In a soft pencil, the percentage of clay is low.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (b) The crystal lattice of graphite is hexagonal not pentagonal.
Graphite is a conductor of electricity and it is used to making
electrodes and lining electric furnace. In soft pencil, the percentage of
clay is low and percentage of graphite is high. In hard pencil the
graphite low and clay high.
Q8. Which one of the following statements regarding hydrogen
peroxide is untrue: (a) It is used for washing wounds and also used
in mouthwash.
(b) It is used for bleaching silk, wool, leather, paper etc. and bleaches
hair to a golden colour.
(c) It is a stable compound and it does not readily get decomposed.
(d) All of the above are untrue.
Ans. – (c) In case of hydrogen peroxides, it is very unstable and
decomposed readily into oxygen and water. It is this oxygen, which
gives hydrogen oxides its oxidizing, germicidal and bleaching
property. Its chemical reaction is
2H2O2 = 2H2O + O2
Q9. Which one of the following is responsible/reasonable for
temporary hardness of water (H2O):
(a) Sulphate of calcium and magnesium. (b) Chloride of calcium and
magnesium. (c) Hydrogen carbonate of calcium and magnesium.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. – (c) Water containing only sulphate and chloride of Mg and Ca
is known as permanent hard water. Water containing only hydrogen
carbonates of magnesium and calcium is known as temporary
hardness of water. The temporary hardness of water is/can be
removed if we boil/heat water.
Q10. Consider the following statements and select the correct
code/answer:
(1) The vapour pressure of efflorescent substances is higher than the
partial pressure of vapour in dry.
(2) The vapour pressure of deliquescent substances is lower than the
vapour pressure of water in moist air. Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Neither one (1) nor two (2) are correct Ans. – (a) The
deliquescent substances are hygroscopic substances, which absorbs
so much water (H2O) that they loose their form and ultimately get
dissolved in the water and so absorbed. Deliquescent substances like
magnesium chloride, ferric chloride, solid NOH and KOH etc.
Washing soda (Na2CO3 . 10 H2O) and glauber salt (Na2SO4 . 10H2O)
are some example of efflorescent substances. Q11. Match the
following list-1 with list-2 and select the correct code:
List-1 List-2 (A) Aircraft manufacture (1) Graphite (B) Explosive (2)
HNO3 (C) Steel manufacture (3) Oxygen (D) Paints (4) ZnO
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1342
(b) 2314
(c) 4321
(d) 1234
Ans. – (d)
Aircraft manufacture – Graphite
Explosive – HNO3
Steel manufacture – Oxygen
Paints – ZnO Q12. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and
select correct code:
list-1
(A) Graphite and Diamond
(B) C2H5OH and CH3OCH3
(C)20Ca40, 10K40
(D)8O16, 8O13
list-2
(1) Allotropes
(2) Isomers
(3) Isobars
(4) Isotopes
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. – (a)
Graphite and Diamond – Allotropes
C2H5OH and CH3OCH3 – Isomers
40 40
20Ca , 10K – Isobars
8O16, 8O13 – Isotopes Q13. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and
select correct code:
List-1
(A) Na2S2O3
(B) Liquid NH3
(C) Graphite
(D) Rocket fuel
List-2
(1) Photographic processing
(2) Refrigerants
(3) Conductor of electricity
(4) Liquid oxygen
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 1
(d) 3
Ans. – (c)
Na2S2O3
Liquid NH3
Graphite
Rocket fuel 4 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 2
– Photographic processing
– Refrigerants
– Conductor of electricity
– Liquid oxygen
Q14. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and select the correct
code:
List-1 List-2
(A) Fertilizer (1) Ni
(B) Catalyst (2) H2O2 (C) Solvent (3) Carbon (c) (D) Reducing agent
(4) (NH4)2SO2 (E) Bleaching agent (5) CHCl3 Codes:
AB C D E (a) 4 1 5 3 2
(b) 5 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 5
(d) 1 4 3 2 5
Ans. – (a)
Fertilizer – (NH4)2SO2
Catalyst – Ni
Solvent – CHCl3
Reducing agent – Carbon
Bleaching agent – H2O2
Q15. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and select the correct
code:
List-1 List-2
(Substances) (Function)
(1) C2H4 (A) Sedative
(2) KBr (B) Anaesthetic (3) SO2 (C) Refrigerants (4) Mg(OH)2 (D)
Purgative
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. – (b)
C2H4 – Anaesthetic
KBr – Sedative
SO2 – Refrigerants
Mg(OH)2 – Purgative
Q16. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer/code:
(1) Phosphorus, potassium and carbon exhibit allotropy.
(2) The differences in the physical property of allotropes of an
element due to the differences in their atomic arrangements.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ans. – (c) When an element exists in two or more form without
changing its states and possesses differences physical properties,
this phenomenon is known as allotropism or allotropy. Carbon,
sulphur and phosphorus exhibit by allotropy. The differences in their
properties perhaps due to differences in their electronic/atomic
arrangements.
Q17. Which of the following is used as a catalyst in the
hydrogenation of the vegetable oils:
(a) Platinum (b) Silver
(c) Nickel (d) All of the above Ans. – (c) For the hydrogenation of
vegetable oil which are liquid under ordinary temperature and limited
used in our diet the oil is first thoroughly purified and made free from
smelling components. Then it heated to about 200°C and hydrogen is
passed at 5 atmospheric pressure in the presence of finely divide
nickel which acts as a catalyst. So option (c) is correct. Q18. Which
one of the following is called/known as a treacherous gas: (a)
Chlorine (b) Methane (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Nitrogen Ans. – (c)
Carbonmonoxides (CO) is treacherous gas, being colourless and
odorless it does not give any notice of its presence. A person first
feels drowsy on inhaling a little bit of gas. He is unable to shout for
help and goes on inhaling more and more of the gas until it is too late.
Carbon monoxides and nitrogen are a producer gas.
(2) A colloidal solution which has solid as the dispersed phase and
liquid as the dispersion medium is known as gel.
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
(b) Only 3 is correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans. – (d) In a colloidal system which has liquid as the dispresed
phase and solid as the dispersion medium is called gel. Mixture in
dispresed phase is distributed throughout a dispersing medium or a
continuous phase is called colloid. Electrophorus helps in determining
the sign of the electric charge in the colloidal particle.
montales.
(2) Thorium occurs in monazites sand in
India.
(3) The most stable isotopes of thorium
(232Th) has the longest half-life period. Code:
(a) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 1 are correct
(d) None of these are correct
Ans. – (b) Thorium is used in gas mantales and in special heat
resisting material. It has 12 Isotopes, which have mass number from
223 to 234. The most stable Isotopes is (232Th) which has half period
of 1.39 × 1011 yrs. the longest. As it captured slow neutron to form 233U.
Q8. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and select correct code:
In the below pair of elements and their ores, match correct with
each other. (A) Nitrogen (B) Antimony (1) Chile salt paper (2) Rubby
silver (C) Phosphorus (3) Chlor apatite (D) Arsenic (4) Realgar
Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234 (b) 4321 (c) 3214 (d) 2134 Ans. – (a) Nitrogen
Antimony Phosphorus Arsenic
– Chile salt paper
– Rubby silver
– Chlor apatite
– Realgar
Q9. Basic slag of steel plants contain which of the following
fertilizers:
Q10. In the given below are pairs of element and their ores
match correctly with each other and select correct code:
(A) Antimony (B) Arsenic (C) Nitrogen (1) Phosphorite (2) Stibnite
(3) Arsenolite
AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 4231
(d) 2413
Ans. – (b)
Antimony – Stibnite
Nitrogen – Nitre
Arsenic – Arsenolite
Phosphorus – Phosphorite Q11. Which one of the following
statements is untrue:
(a) Nitrogen combined with other element under the normal
conditions. (b) Nitrogen is colourless, odorless gas and slightly lighter
than air.
(c) During respiration, Nitrogen remain unchanged as it enter and
leave the lungs.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. – (a) Under the normal condition Nitrogen does not combined
with other elements. It however does not combined hydrogen, oxygen
and active metal under special condition of pressure and
temperature. Nitrogen does not burn and does not supports in
burning. Nitrogen slightly higher in comparison to air.
Q12. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer/code:
(1) Putrefying bacteria convert these nitrogen compound into free
nitrogen, which escape into the atmosphere and keep its balance.
(2) Symbiotic bacteria present on the nodules of the roots of
legiminous plant can fix atmospheric pressure of Nitrogen and make
it available to plants.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ans. – (b) The purifying bacteria is mention on statement (1) and
statement two is correct answer/code.
Q13. Which one of the given option oxides react with both NaOH
and HCl? (a) ZnO (b) CO2
(c) NaO (d) N2O3
Ans. – (a) ZnO (Zinc oxides) react with both base NaOH (Sodium
hydroxides) and HCl (Hydrochloric acid) and other oxides of
(Aluminium) Al, Zinc (Zn), Sn, Pb are react very successfully with
sodium hydroxides and hydrochloric acid. Q14. Match the following
and select the correct code:
(A) The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one liter of the
solution.
(B) The number of moles of solute dissolved per 100g of the solvent.
(C) The ratio of moles of one components to the total number of
moles present in solution.
(D) The number of moles of solute dissolved per litre of the solution.
(1) Normality
(2) Molality
(3) Mole fraction
(4) Molarity
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. – (a)
A– 1
B– 2
C– 3
D– 4
Q15. In the given following are pairs of elements and their
respective ores. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched:
(a) Antimony – Ruby silver (b) Nitrogen – Chile salt peter (c) Arsenic
– Realgar
(d) Phosphorus – Stibnite Ans. – (d) Stibnite and rubby silver are
ores of Antimony. Arsenolite and Realgar are the ores of Arsenic.
Nitre and Chile salt peter are ores of Nitrogen. Phosphorite ore and
Chlore apatiles are ores of phosphorus. So option (d) is wrong about
ores of phosphorus.
Q16. It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact
momentum of a running micro particle in an atom. This law is
given by which one of the following: (a) Dalton (b) d-Borgelie (c)
Heisenberg (d) Aufbau
Ans. – (c) This rate is known as Heisenberg principle. It states that
the position and momentum of subatomic particle is an atom cannot
be determine correctly. If ΔP be the error in measuring momentum
and ΔX be the error in measuring position of subatomic particle then
according to Heisenberg principle’s ..
which is constant.
Q17. Which one of the following is the correct order of
increasing activity of halogens: (a) Cl, Br, I, f
(b) Br, I, Cl, f
(c) I, Br, Cl, f
(d) f, I, Cl, Br
Ans. – (c) The increasing order of activity of halogen is given below:
I > Br > Cl > f and decreasing order of halogens are
f > Cl > Br > I. f > O > Cl > Br > I = S > C > P = H > N is the order of
decreasing reactivity of non-metal.
Q18. Consider the following statements and select the correct
code:
(1) Solid carbondioxides keeps everything dry on which it is placed.
(2) Solid carbondioxides is called dry ice because it is ice like in
appearance. Code:
(a) 1 is correct
(b) 2 is correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ans. – (c) Solid carbon dioxides keeps everything dry on which it is
placed as van der wal’s forces is the weakest bond and hence it is
totally broken by the thermal energy available at R.T.P. This solid
carbondioxides directly evaporates at R.T.P. Q19. Which one of the
following is generally used as control red in a nuclear reactor:
(a) Carbon (b) Aluminium
(c) Cadmium (d) Indium
Ans. – (c) Control material is a nuclear reactor. In a order to achieve
control in reactor a neutron absorbing material is used. Cadmium red
are generally used for this purpose because its high capacity to
absorb neutron. Some other material are also used an alloy of 80%
Ag, 15% Indium and Cadmium.
Q20. Consider the following statements and select the correct
code:
(1) Beryllium oxide is the best moderator of neutron.
(2) Moderator is used in nuclear reactor to slow down the movement
of a neutron emitted in a nuclear fission reaction.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Ans. – (b) Heavy water, Graphite, Berillium and Berillium oxides act
as a moderator but heavy heater is the best moderator not berillium
oxides. Moderator is used to neutron emitted in a nuclear fission
reaction which is source of energy in a nuclear reactor.
Q21. Match the following list-1 and list-2: List-1 List-2
(A) Qusec (1) Pressure
(B) Byle (2) Earthquake intensity (C) Richter (3) Rate of Flow of
Liquid (D) Bar (4) Computer
Codes:
AB C D (a) 3421
(b) 3412
(c) 1234
(d) 1243
Ans. – (a)
Qusec – Rate of flow of Liquid Byle – Computer (1 Byte = 2 bit)
Richter – Earthquake intensity
Bar – Atmospheric pressure 1 atm = 101.325 K Pa
Q22. Which one of the following gases from the atmosphere
causes the setting or hardening of plaster and mortar: (a) Argon
(b) Carbondioxide (c) Chlorine (d) Nitrogen
Ans. – (b) The atmospheric carbondioxides (CO2) causes the
hardening or setting of plaster and mortar by reacting with the
calcium hydro oxides in them and converting it into a hard mass of
calcium carbonates. Carbondioxides is also supporter of combustion
with the oxygen.
Q23. Which of the following statements regarding the effect of
temperature and pressure on the solubility of a solid and of a
gas in water is incorrect:
(a) The solubility of a gas in water is directly proportional to pressure
over it.
(b) The solubility of most solids in water usually increases with rise
temperature but not the same extents. (c) The solubility of gas in
water
invariably increases with rise temperature.
(d) None of these.
Ans. – (c) According to Henry’s law the solubility of gas in water is
directly proportional to pressure over it. The solubility of gas in water
is invariably increases with the rise of temperature. In some soft/cold
drink such as soda water, lemonade carbondioxides is dissolved in
water pressure of 5 to 10 atmosphere.
Q24. Which of the following is true about one mole of gas:
(a) It always occupies fixed volume at N.T.P.
(b) It always occupies any volume at N.T.P.
(c) It always occupies 3.5 liters.
(d) It always occupies 24.5 liters. Ans. – (a) The gram molecular
weight of a substance is known as mole. The one mole of any
substances contain 6.023 × 1023 molecules of given substances. One
mole of gas at N.T.P. occupies a volume of 22.4 liters.
Q25. Which one of the following Scientist discovered neutron:
list-2
1. Liver and Kidney
2. Cancer
3. Respiration problem
4. Nervous system
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 3412
(b) 1234
(c) 3421
(d) 1243
Ans. – (a)
Carbon monoxide (CO)
– Respiratory problems Nitrogen oxide
– Central Nervous System Dust particle
– Liver and Kidney problem Lead – Cancer
Q2. Match the following List-1 and List-2: List-1
(A) Dry ice
(B) Gene therapy
(C) Cryogenics
(D) Cobalt 60
List-2
1. Treatment of cancer
2. Works on low temperature
3. Solid CO2
4. Treatment of Blood Disease Codes:
AB C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. – (a)
Dry ice – Solid CO2
Gene therapy – Treatment of Blood Disease
Cobalt 60 – Treatment of Blood Cancer
Cryogenics – Works on low
temperature
Q3. Which one of the following disease is not caused by virus:
(a) Polio (b) Jaundice
(c) Small Pox (d) Diptheria
Ans. – (d) Diptheria is caused by bacteria not virus. Virus expanded
disease is as follows:
Disease
AidsImmune system Polio
Jaundice Dengue
Small Pox Influenza
Q6. Match the following list-1 with list-2 and select the correct
code/answer:
list-1
(A) Discovery of Hydrogen
(B) Discovery of Oxygen
(C) Synthesis of Hydrocarbon
(D) X-rays
list-2
(1) Cavendish
(2) Priestly
(3) Kolbe
(4) Rongton
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. – (a)
Discovery of Hydrogen – Cavendish Discovery of Oxygen – Priestly
Synthesis of Hydrocarbon – Kolbe X-ray – Rongton Q7. Match the
following list and select the correct code:
Discovery
(A) Manufacture of Steel (B) Discovery of Oxygen (C) Synthesis of
Hydrocarbon
(D) X-rays
AB C D (a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 2143
(d) 4231
Ans. – (c)
Manufacture of Steel Discovery of Oxygen
– Bossemer
– Priestly Synthesis of Hydrocarbon – Kolbe
X-rays – Rongton Q8. Which one of the following pairs of
scientist and their contribution is incorrectly matched:
(a) Rangton – X-rays
(b) Kolbe – Synthesis of hydrocarbons
(c) Cavendish – Discovery of oxygen gas
(d) Bossemer – Manufacture of steel
(a) Isotones (b) Allotropes (c) Isodipheres (d) Isomers Ans. – (a)
Which atom have different atomic number and differ atomic weight
but having same number of neutron is known as Isotones. Some
examples of isotones are given below:
14S30, 15P31 etc.
General Chemistry
Q1. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the list:
List-I
(Characteristics) (A) Integral spin
(B) Fractional charge (C) Zero mass
(D) Fractional spin
List-II
(Particle)
(1) Photon (2) Quark (3) Positron (4) Neutrino
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1243
(b) 1234
(c) 3241
(d) 1342
Ans. – (a)
Integral spin
Fractional charge
Zero mass
Fractional spin
– Photon
– Quark
– Neutrino
– Positron Q2. In a radioactive substance has a half-life of four
months. Three-forth of the substances would decay in:
(a) 3 months (b) 9 months (c) 8 months (d) 12 months Ans. – (c)
After 4 months substance remains = 1/2 After 8 months substance
remain = 1/4 After 12 months substance remain= 1/6 So 3/4 of
substance would decay in 8 months.
Q3. Consider the following statements: Hard water is not
suitable for:
(1) Drinking
(2) Washing cloth with soap
(3) Use in boilers
(4) Irrigating crops
Which of these statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c)
1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Ans. – (a) Hardness of the water is due to chloride and sulphate of
calcium and magnesium. In the presence of chloride and sulphate of
calcium and magnesium the cloth cannot be washed and not be use
in boiler.
Q. Which of the following is a mixed fertilizer:
(a) Urea (b) CAN (c) Ammonium sulphate (d) NPK Ans. – (d) NPK –
contain Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium in different percentage.
It is an ideal mixture for fertilizers. Nitrogen devoted to N, phosphorus
P and potassium K so that mixture we can say NPK.
Q4. Physico – chemical characteristics of water in water sources
undergo change due to:
(a) aquatic fungi
(b) aquatic microcytes
(c) evapotranspiration
(d) Effluents
Ans. – (d) Aquatic fungi, Aquatic macrophytes are natural organism
and evapotranspiration is a natural process by which plants loses
water. Aquafluent from various industrial units and sewage are the
culprits which changed the physico-chemical characteristics of water.
Q5. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes given below the list: Type-I
(A) Khaira
(B) Anaemia (C) Goitre
Type-II
(1) Vitamin C deficiency (2) Iodine deficiency (3) Iron deficiency
(D) Scurvy (4) Zinc deficiency Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (d)
Khaira – Zinc deficiency Anemia – Iron deficiency Goitre – Iodine
deficiency Scurvy – Vitamin C deficiency Q6. Match the list-I with
list-II and select correct answer using the codes given below the
lists: List-I
(A) Surrogacy (B) Transgenics
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Anthrax
List-II
(1) Womb renting (2) A toxin used
biowafare
(3) Science of
Altering
genomes
(4) A disease due to
a defective gene Codes: AB C D (a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. – (b) Surrogacy Transgenics
Thalassemia
Anthrax
234
342
431
432
– Womb renting
– Science of Altering genomes
– A disease due to a defective gene
– A toxin used biowafare
Q7. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by
using the codes below: List-I List-II
Codes: AB C D
(a) 2134
(b) 3241
(c) 2431
(d) 1234
Ans. – (a)
Myoglobin
Carcinoma
Haemoglobin
Sarpgandha
– Muscle cells
– Radiotherapy
– Oxygen transport
– Transquillizer Q8. Consider the following:
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Oxides of Nitrogen
(3) Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emussions/emission from the coal
combustion at the thermal plants?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. – (d) Combustion of coal or for that matter any fossil fuel
releases carbondioxide and oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur. Q9.
‘Yellow cake’ an item of smuggling border is:
(a) a crude form of heroine
(b) a crude form of cocaine
(c) unrefined gold
(d) uranium oxide
Ans. – (d) A uranium oxides smuggling across the border is known
as yellow cake. Enriched uranium can be used in making illegal
nuclear explosive that is dangerous to humanity.
Q10. Which one of the following is used as an explosive:
(a) Phosphorus trichloride
(b) Mercuric oxide
(c) Graphite
(d) Nitroglycerine
Ans. – (d) Nitroglycerine, trinitroglycerin 1, 2, 3-trinitroxypropane and
glyceryl trinitrate is a heavy colourless, explosive, oily liquid obtained
by nitrating glycerol. Nitroglycerine is also used medically as a
vasodilator to treat heart conditions, such as angina and chronic heart
failure. Q11. Which of the following phenomea occur during the
adiabatic heating of gas: (1) Change in the entropy of the gas. (2)
Compression of the gas.
(3) Heat input from the surrounding. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
Ans. – (d) Adiabatic process is one in which there is not heat
exchange with surrounding. There is an increase in entropy of the
gas during a irreversible process of adiabatic. Adiabatic heating
involves comparison of the gas while adiabatic cooling involves
expansion of the gas.
Q12. Which of the following polymers is widely used for making
bullet proof material: (a) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) Polyamides
(c) Polycarbonates
(d) Polyethylene
Ans. – (c) Poly carbonates are the polymer widely used in making
bullet proof material as like jacket and equipments. Bullet proof jacket
forms with different layer’s of substances, which provided resistance
in penetrating from bullet. Q13. Which of the following statements
is not correct:
(a) The presence of NaCl increase the rate of setting of plaster of
Paris. (b) Barium and stowtrium are found free in the nature.
(c) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down it rates of setting.
(d) All alkaline earth metal form hydrated salts.
Ans. – (b) Strontium and Barium are alkaline earth metals in group 2
of the modern periodic table. They do not occur in the free states.
Barium occurs as barytes or heavy spar and barium carbonate also
called whiterite. Strontenium is found in combined form as celetine
and storn hanite.
Q14. Assertion (A): Coal based thermal power stations contributes
to acid rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are true but R not correct explanation of A.
Ans. – (d) Coal based thermal power plants contributes to acid rain
because NO2 and SO2 are emitted from these plants which forms
HNO3 and H2SO4 in atmosphere that cause acid rain. Oxides of
carbon are emitted when coal burns but it does not contributes to acid
rain.
Q15. Which of these following statements is/are correct:
(a) Calcium carbonates is an ingredients of tooth paste.
(b) Bordeaux mixture consists of sodium sulphate and lime.
(c) Liquid sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors.
(d) Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling.
Code:
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) Only c (4) Only a
Ans. – (3) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear
reactors. Liquid Sodium is an effective coolants, which absorbs heat
because of its high specific heat.
Q16. With references to ionic compounds consider the following
statements:
(1) Ionic compound are insoluble in alcohol.
(2) Ionic compound is solid states are good conductor of electricity.
Which of the following statements is/are true:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Both 1 and 2 Ans. – (a)
Ionic compounds are not soluble in organic solvent like ether, alcohol,
acetene but soluble in water. Ionic compound is solid states bad
conductor of electricity because there are no free ions to carry charge
but in solution state good conductor of electricity.
Q17. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists: List-I
(A) Bulmia
(B) Cholestranl (C) Atropine (D) Insulin
List-II
(1) Alkaloid
(2) Egg-yolk
(3) Pancreas
(4) Eating disorder
Codes: AB C D
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2
Ans. – (a)
Bulmia
Cholestranl
Atropine
Insulin
321142234413
– Eating disorder
– Pancreas
– Egg-yolk
– Alkaloid
Q18. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I
(1) Sem milk
(2) Cold drink and
Soda water
(3) Apple
(4) Pickle
List-II
(A) Lactic Acid
Codes: AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 1324
(c) 2314
(d) 4231
Ans. – (b)
Sem Milk
Cold drink and
Soda Water
Apple
Pickle
– Lactic Acid
– Carbonic Acid
– Malic Acid
– Acetic Acid
Q19. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List-I
(A) Lactobacillus
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Yeast
(D) Aspergillus
List-II
(1) Alcohol production
(2) Nitrogen fixation
(3) Citric acid formation
(4) Preparation of curd
Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234
(b) 2341
(c) 3421
(d) 4213
Ans. – (d)
Ans. – (c) Except German silver, all alloy given in question contain
silver. There are some important alloys and their components are
given below–
(i) German silver : Cu – 50%, Zn – 35%,
Ni – 15%
(ii) Lunar caustic – It also known as silver
nitrate (AgNO3)
(iii) Horn silver : It is also called silver
chloride (AgCl). Its component are
Ag and Cl.
Q22. Assertion (A): Chemical reaction becomes faster at higher
temperature.
Reason (R): At higher temperature, molecular motion becomes more
rapid. Code:
(a) A true but R false.
(b) R true but A false.
(c) A and R both true but R is not correct
explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the cor
rect explanation of A.
powder.
Which of these statements is/are correct? (a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanol (c) Propyl alcohol (d) Ethylene glycol Ans. –
(d) Ethylene glycol is used as an anti-freeze agent for the automobile
engine. In cold countries where temperature is below zero degree
centigrade automobile engine cannot be used efficiently due to
freezing of fuel.
Q4. Assertion (A): Sodium metal is stored under Kerosene.
Reason (R): Metallic sodium (Na) melts when exposed to air.
Code:
(a) A is false but R is true.
(b) A is true but R is false.
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A.
Ans. – (b) Sodium is generally kept inside kerosene oil because in
open environment
correct explanation of A.
(b) A true but R false.
(c) A false but R true.
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
Ans. – (d) Phenol is an effective germicides. Phenol is derivative of
phenol that’s why it also has germicidal property.
AB C D
(a) 1324
(b) 1234
(c) 2314
(d) 3421
Ans. – (a)
Potassium nitrate – Gun powder Potassium sulphate – Fertilizer
Monopotassium tartrate – Bakery Potassium bromide – Photography
Q8. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I
(A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin
(C) Renin (D) Oxytocin
List-II (Physiological role)
(1) Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
(2) Digest proteins
(3) Hydrolyses fats
(4) Induces contraction of smooth muscles
(5) Digest starch
Codes: AB C D
(a) 2 5 1 4
(b) 1 2 3 5
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. – (a)
Ptyalin – Digest starch
Pepsin – Digest proteins
Renin – Converts angiotensino gen into angiotensin
Oxytocin – Induces contraction of smooth muscles. Q9. Assertion
(A): To dilute sulphuric acid
(H2SO4) is added to water (H2O) and not
water to acid.
Reaction (R): The specific heat of water is
quite large.
Choose the correct option from given
above:
(a) Both A and R is correct but R is the not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R false.
(d) R is true but A false.
Ans. – (b) To dilute sulphuric acid
(H2SO4), acid is added to water, not water
to acid because specific heat of water is
quite large and it can absorb large quantity
of heat produced by H2SO4.
Q10. Which of the following statements
regarding cellulose and starch is not correct:
(a) Both of them are polymers.
(b) Both of them are of plant origin.
(c) Both of them give colour with iodine.
(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules.
Ans. – (c) Starch is the reserve substance
in plant cells whereas cellulose is the most important structural
component of the cell wall of plants. Starch are cellulose and are
polymers of glucose. It is branched polymer of α-D glucose units
which are linked by α-1,4 glycosidic bonds. Cellulose is insoluble in
ordinary solvents and is not hydrolysed by boiling dilute acids. Q11.
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II (A) Solder (1) Tin (B) Hypo (2) Chlorine (C) Bleaching
powder (3) Sodium (D) German silver (4) Nickel
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. – (a) Tin used in formation of solder.
Nickel used in formation of German silver.
Bleaching powder contain chlorine and
hypo contain sodium (Na).
Q12. Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the
correct answer by using the codes given
below the list:
List-1 List-2
(A) Blue vitroil (1) Copper sulphate
(B) Caustic soda (2) Magnesium sulphate
(C) Baking soda (3) Sodium hydroxide
(D) Epsorm salt (4) Sodium bicarbonate
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. – (a)
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is the not
correct explanation of A.
(c) A true but R false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Ans. – (a) Hard water contain magnesium and calcium, chloride and
sulphate respec
Ans. – (b) Iron does not form amalgam. Amalgam is the compound
formed by combination of metal and mercury. Except iron. All the
given in options other three example forms amalgam with mercury.
234
chloride
(d) Ammonium chloride and calcium
chloride
Ans. – (c) Zinc-carbon cell also called the Leclanche cell or dry cell.
Dry cell has a zinc negative electrode and maganese dioxide positive
electrode, and the electrolyte is a solution of ammonium chloride. The
carbon rod is in contact with the positive electrode and is called the
current collector.
Q22. Arrange the following Hydrocarbon according to Molecular
Weight: (a) Methane, ethane, propane and butane (b) Propane,
butane, ethane and methane (c) Butane, ethane, propane and
methane (d) Butane, propane, ethane and methane Ans. – (a)
Methane (CH4) = 1 × 12 + 4 × 1 = 16 Ethane (C2H6) = 2 × 12 + 6 × 1
= 30 Propane (C3H8) = 3 × 12 + 8 × 1 = 44 Butane (C4H10) = 4 × 12 +
10 × 1 = 58 Q23. Which one of the following chemical is used as
a ‘fixer’ in photography is: (a) Borex
(b) Ammonium Persulphate
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Sodium thiosulphate
Ans. – (d)
Sodium thiosulphate used as a fixer in a photography. It removed Ag
(silver) from negative by forming complex with it. Q24. Match the
following List-1 and List-2: List-1 List-2
(A) German silver (1) Tin
(B) Soldering (2) Nickel (C) Bleaching powder (3) Sodium (D) Hypo
(4) Chlorine
AB C D (a) 1243
(b) 2134
(c) 1234
(d) 2143
Ans. – (d)
German silver – Nickel Soldering – Tin Bleaching powder – Chlorine
(CaOCl2) Hypo – Sodium (Na2S2O4) Q25. Match the following
Lists: List-1
(A) Cracking
(B) Melting
(C) Hydrogenation (D) Vulcanization
List-2
(1) Rubber
(2) Petroleum (3) Copper
(4) Food fats
Codes: AB C D
(a) 3214
(b) 2341
(c) 2314
(d) 3241
Ans. – (b)
Cracking
Melting
Hydrogenation
Vulcanization
– Petroleum
– Petroleum
– Food fats
– Rubber
Code:
(a) A and R are true and R is correct explanation.
Q4. Assertion (A): The weight of a body decreases with the increase
of latitude on the Earth.
Reason (R): The Earth is not a perfect sphere.
Codes:
g1 =(1 − 2h) or g = GM
R R2
If distance between body and earth centre increases then the value of
g will decreases i.e. the weight of a body decreases with the increase
of latitude on earth.
(a) It is commonly called Plaster of Paris. (b) Nasa’s rover ‘spirit’ has
recently found evidence of water one the red planet in the form of a
vein of gypsum protruding from an ancient rock.
(c) Nasa’s rover opportunity and its twin spirit arrived on the opposite
sides of Mars.
Choose the correct option:
(1) a, b and c (2) a and c
(3) All of the above (4) None of these
Ans. – (2) Gypsum is also known as Plaster of Paris and its chemical
name is CaSO4 . 2H2O.
of temperature.
V=
√
YRT
M
(A) Time taken by earth to orbit of the sun (B) Calculation of value of
‘pi’
Indian Scholar
(1) Bhaskarcharya (2) Budhyana (3) Gyandev (4) Aryabhatta Codes:
AB C D (a) 1234 (b) 4321 (c) 2341 (d) 1243 Ans. – (d)
cleft are exported from England, India, Pakistan where they are
converted into the finished product.
Person Known as
(A) Michael Griffin (1) Space-walker
AB C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. – (a)
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) All (d) None of these
(a) Sweetner (c) Flavour (b) Edible Colour (d) None of these
fluorescent protein gene of Jelly Fish. (2) India has become the first
country in
the world to develop transgenic
chicken.
(3) This chicken is not edible but is for
therapeutic using in viral disease. Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. – (b) Transgenic chicken was developed in the US, the UK,
Canada and China. This is the first time this has been done in India.
This chicken has green fluorescent protein, it traditionally refers to
protein first isolated from the Jelly Fish. In cell and molecular biology,
the GPF is frequently used as a reporter of expression.
Q19. Match the following and select correct code:
Institute
(A) Indian Institute of Geomagnetism (B) International Advanced
Research
Centre for Power Metallurgy and New
Material
(C) Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and
Natural History
(D) Tropic Forestry Research Institutes Located at
(1) Hyderabad
(2) Jabalpur
(3) Mumbai
(4) Coimbatore
Codes:
AB C D
(a) 3142
(b) 1432
(c) 4231
(d) 1234
Ans. – (a)
Indian Institute of Geomagnetism – Mumbai
International Advanced Research Centre for Power Metallurgy and
New Material – Hyderabad
Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History – Coimbatore
Tropic Forestry Research Institute – Jabalpur
Q20. Match the following and select correct code:
Oxidation number
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
The element
(1) Oxidation number of Mn in MnO2 (2) Oxidation number of Ca in
CaO2 (3) Oxidation number of S in H2S2O7 (4) Oxidation number of
Al in NaAlH4 Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. – (b)
2 – Oxidation number of Ca in CaO2 3 – Oxidation number of Al in
NaAlH4 4 – Oxidation number of Mn in MnO2 6 – Oxidation number of
S in H2S2O7 Q21. Match the following and select correct code:
Scientists
(A) Arber and Smith
(B) Feldman
(C) Mullis
(D) Temin and Baltimore
Achievement
(1) Discovered endonucleases
(2) Discovered polymerase chain reaction (3) Discovered reverse
transcriptase
AB C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. – (b)
Arber and Smith
– Discovered endonucleases
Biosphere Reserve
(A) Simlipal (B) Dehong Deband (C) Nokrek (D) Kanchanjunga
States
(1) Odisha (2) Arunachal Pradesh (3) Meghalaya (4) Sikkim
Codes:
AB C D (a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. – (d)
Simlipal – Odisha Dohong Deband – Nokrek – Kanchanjunga –
Arunachal Pradesh Meghalaya
Sikkim
(A) CNG (1) Butane, propane (B) Coal gas (2) Carbon monoxide,
Hydrogen
(C) LPG (3) H2, Methane, Carbon monoxide
(D) Water gas (4) Methane, ethane Codes:
AB C D
(a) 1234
(b) 4321
(c) 4312
(d) 2431
Ans. – (c)
CNG – Methane, ethane
Coal gas – H2, Methane and CO LPG – Butane, propane
Water gas – CO and H2
Scientist
(A) C.N.R. Raw
(B) Jagdish Bhagwati
(C) G.N. Ramchandran
(D) Ashok Jhunjhunuwala
Area of work
(1) Physics
(2) Telecommunication
(3) Economics
Ans. – (b)