JEE Main 2023 11 April Shift 2
JEE Main 2023 11 April Shift 2
JEE Main 2023 11 April Shift 2
1. The angle of elevation of the top P of a tower from the feet of one person standing due South of the tower is 45°
and from the feet of another person standing due west of the tower is 30°. If the height of the tower is 5 meters,
then the distance ( in meters) between the two persons is equal to
5
(1) 10 (2) 5 5 (3) 5 (4) 5
2
Sol. (1)
B
5m
A
30
Q 45°
P
Tower AB = 5 m
APB = 45°
PAB = 90°
B
45°
A
P
AB
tan 45° =
AP
AB
1=
AP
AP 5m
B
30°
A
Q
AB
tan 30° =
AQ
1 5
1 3 AQ
AQ 5 3
2
PQ2 = 52 + 5 3
PQ2 = 25 + 75 = 100
PQ 10cm
Option (A) 10 cm correct.
2. Let a, b, c and d be positive real numbers such that a + b + c + d = 11. If the maximum value of a 5 b3c2 d is
3750, then the value of is
(1) 55 (2) 108 (3) 90 (4) 110
Sol. (3)
Given a + b + c + d = 11 (a, b, c, d > 0}
5 3 2
(a b c d)max. = ?
Let assume Numbers –
a a a a a b b b c c
, , , , , , , , , ,
5 5 5 5 5 3 3 3 2 2
We know A.M. G.M.
a a a a a b b b c c
d 5 3 2 11
1
5 5 5 5 5 3 3 3 2 2 a b c d
5 3 2
11 5 .3 .2 .1
1
11 a 5 b3c 2 d 11
11 55.33.22.1
a5.b3.c2.d55.33.22,
max(a5b3c2d) = 55.33.22 = 337500
= 90 3750 = 3750
90
Option (C) 90 correct
2 4
3. If f : R R be a continuous function satisfying f sin 2x sin xdx f cos 2x cos xdx 0 , then the value
0 0
of is
(1) – 3 (2) 3 (3) – 2 (4) 2
Sol. (3)
F:RR
2 4
F sin 2x sindx F cos 2x .cos xdx 0
0 0
4 2 4
F sin 2x sin xdx F sin 2x .sin xdx F cos 2x .cos xdx 0
0 0
4
a a
Let x = t
4
4 4 4
F cos 2 x
4
2 cos x dx 0
0
F cos 2x cos x dx 0
4
2
0
in interval 0, F cos 2x & cos x is NOT Zero.
4
2 0
2
x 1, x 0 x 1, x 0
4. Let f and g be two functions defined by f x and g x
x 1, x 0 1, x0
Then (gof ) (x) is
(1) continuous everywhere but not differentiable at x = 1
(2) continuous everywhere but not differentiable exactly at one point
(3) differentiable everywhere
(4) not continuous at x = –1
Sol. (2)
x 1, x 0
f x 1 x,0 x 1
x 1,1 x
x 1, x 0
gx
1, x 0
x 2, x 1
g f x
1, x 1
g(f (x)) is continuous everywhere
g(f (x)) is not differentiable at x = – 1
Differentiable everywhere else
5. If the radius of the largest circle with centre (2, 0) inscribed in the ellipse x 2 + 4y2 = 36 is r, then 12r2 is equal
to
(1) 69 (2) 72 (3) 115 (4) 92
Sol. (4)
C(2,0)
Ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 36
x 2 y2
1
36 9
Equation of Normal at P(6cos, 3sin) is (6sec)x – (3cosec)y = 27
It passes through (2,0)
27 9
sec =
12 4
4 65
cos , sin =
9 9
8 65
P ,
3 3
8 65
P , c 2,0
3 3
2
65
2
8 69
2
3 3 3
2
69
Value of 12
2
12
3
12 69
92
9
6. Let the mean of 6 observations 1, 2, 4, 5 x and y 5 and their variance be 10. Then their mean deviation about
the mean is equal to
7 10 8
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3
3 3 3
Sol. (3)
Mean of 1, 2, 4, 5, x, y is 5
and variance is 10
12 x y
mean 5
6
12 + x + y = 30
x + y = 18
x 2 y 2 46 2
and by variance 5 10
6
x2 + y2 = 164
x = 8 y = 10
xx
mean daviation =
6
4 3 1 0 3 5 16 8
6 6 3
7. Let A = {1, 3, 4, 6, 9} and B = {2, 4, 5, 8, 10}. Let R be a relation defined on A×B such that R ={((a1, b1), (a2,b2
)): a1 b2 and b1 a 2 }. Then the number of elements in the set R is
(1) 52 (2) 160 (3) 26 (4) 180
Sol. (2)
Let a1 =1 5 choices of b2
a1= 3 4 choices of b2
a1 = 4 4 choices of b2
a1= 6 2 choices of b2
a1 = 9 1 choices of b2
For (a1, b2) 16 ways .
Similarly, b1 = 2 4 choices of a2
b1 = 4 3 choices of a2
b1 = 5 2 choices of a2
b1 = 8 1 choices of a2
Required elements in R = 160
8. Let P be the plane passing through the points (5, 3, 0), (13, 3, –2) and (1, 6, 2). For N, if the distances of the
points A(3, 4, ) and B(2, , a) from the plane P are 2 and 3 respectively, then the positive value of a is
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol. (3)
i j kˆ
8 0 2 i 6 8j 24kˆ
4 3 2
4 4! + 3! 1 + 0 + 0 + 0
96 + 6 = 102
Ran k THAMS = 102 + 1 = 103
10. If four distinct points with position vectors a, b,c and d are coplanar, then abc is equal to
Sol. (1)
a, b,c,d coplanar
a b c ?
b a c b, d c 0
ba . cb d c 0
b a . c b c a a d 0
bcd bca ba d a cd 0
a b c d c a b d a c d b
11. The sum of the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the binomial expansion of (1 + x) n+2, which are in the
ratio 1 : 3 : 5, is equal to
(1) 63 (2) 92 (3) 25 (4) 41
Sol. (1)
n+2
cr–1 : n+2cr : n+2cr+1 :: 1 : 3 : 5
n 2 !
r! n 2 r ! 1
r 1! n r 3! n 2 ! 3
r 1
n r 3 3r
n – r 3 3
n 4r 3 0
n 1! r 1! n r 1! 3
r! n 2 r ! n 2 ! 5
r 1 3
n2r 5
8r–1= 3n ……..(2)
By equation 1 and 2
8r 1
4r 3 n 4r 3
3
r2 n 4 2 3
n 5
Sum : C1 C2 C3 7 21 35 63
7 7 7
2
dy 5 x5 1
12. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation y , x > 0. If y(1) = 2, then
dx x x 5 1
x7
y(2) is equal to
693 637 697 679
(1) (2) (3) (4)
128 128 128 128
Sol. (1)
5dx 5 x 6dx
x x5 1
x5 1
I.F = e e e
Put, 1 + x = t –5x–6 dx = dt
–5
dt
e
1 x5
1
t 1 x5
x5 x5 1 x
5 2
y
1 x 5
1 x x 7
5
dx
x3dx x 2dx
x5 x4 1
y c
1 x5 4 x
Given than: x = 1 y = 2
1 1
2 1 c
2 4
c
4
x5 x4 1 7
y
1 x5 4 x 4
Now put, x = 2
32 21
y
33 4
693
y
128
P ~ q ~ r
2022
4x 5
14. If the 1011th term from the end in the binominal expansion of is 1024 times 1011th term from
5 2x
the beginning, the |x| is equal to
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 15
Sol. (3)– Bouns
T1011 from beginning = T1010+1
012
5
1010
4x
2022
C1010
5 2x
T1011 from end
5
1012 1010
4x
2022
C1010
2x 5
5
1012 1010
4x
Given: 2022
C1010
2x 5
5
1010 1012
4x
210 2022 C1010
2x 5
5
2 2
10 4x
2
2x 5
54
x4
216
5
x
16
15. If the system of linear equations
7x + 11y + z = 13
5x + 4y + 7z =
175x + 194y + 57z = 361
has infinitely many solutions, then + + 2 is equal to :
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4
Sol. (4)
7x + 11y + z = 13
5x + 4y + 7z =
175x + 194y + 57z = 361
4sc condition of Infinite Many solution
0 & x, y, z 0 check.
After solving we get 13 2 4
16. Let the line passing through the point P (2, –1, 2) and Q (5, 3, 4) meet the plane x – y +z = 4 at the point T. Then
x 7 y3 z2
the distance of the point R from the plane x + 2y + 3z +2 = 0 measured parallel to the line
2 2 1
is equal to
(1) 3 (2) 61 (3) 31 (4) 189
Sol. (1)
x 5 y3 z4
Line :
3 4 2
R(3 + 5,4 + 3,2 + 4)
3 + 5 – 4 – 3+ 2 + 4 = 4
+6=4 = –2
R (–1,–5,0)
x 1 y 5 z 0
Line :
2 2 1
Point T = (2μ -1,2μ - 5,μ )
It lies on plane
2μ –1+ 2(2μ – 5) + 3μ + 2 = 0
μ =1
T = (1,–3,1)
RT = 3
e 1 e2
1 3e 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 2e – (4) 2e –1
2 2 2
Sol. (3)
F[0,2] R
min x 2 ,x ; x 0,1
F x
x log e x 1; x 1, 2
ex : x 0,1
2
F x
e x 1,2
2 1
= e 1 4 1 e
2 2
1
2e
2
x 1 x x
9
19. If x x x = 103x 81 , then , are the roots of the equation
8 3
x x x 2
(1) 4x2 –24x –27 = 0 (2) 4x2 +24x +27 = 0 (3) 4x2 –24x +27 = 0 (4) 4x2 +24x –27 = 0
Sol. (3)
x 1 x x
9
x xd x 103x 81
8
x x x d2
Put x 0
1 0 0
9
0 0 81
8
0 0 2
93
3
8
9
2
9 3
3 23 2
3
3 2
Option (C) 4x2 24x 27 0
3 9
has Root ,
2 2
1
20. The domain of the function f(x) = is (where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
[x] – 3[x] –10
2
to x )
(1) – , –3 6, (2) – , –2 5, (3) – , –3 5, (4) – , –2 6,
Sol. (4)
1
F x
x 3 x 10
2
x 2 x 5 0
+ – +
–2 5
x 2 or x 5
x 3 or x 6
x 2 or x 6
x , 2 6,
SECTION - B
21. If A is the area in the first quadrant enclosed by the curve C : 2x2 – y + 1 = 0, the tangent to C at the point (1,3)
and the line x + y = 1, then the value of 60 A is ______.
Sol. 16
y = 2x2 + 1
Tangenet at (1, 3)
y = 4x – 1
1
A 2x 2 1 dx area of QOT area of
0
22. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and B= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Then the number of functions f:AB satisfying f(1) + f(2) =
f(4)–1 is equal to ______.
Sol. 360
f 1 f 2 1 f 4 6
f 1 f 2 5
23. Let the tangent to the parabola y2 = 12 x at the point (3, ) be perpendicular to the line 2x+2y = 3. Then the
square of distance of the point (6,–4) from the normal to the hyperbola 2 x2 – 9y2 = 92 at its point ( –1, +
2) is equal to _____.
Sol. 116
P 3, lies on y2 12x
6
dy 6
But, 1 6 6 reject
dx 3,
x 2 y2
1, normal at
Now, hyperbola 9 36
9x 36y
Q 1, 2 is 45
5 8
2x + 5y – 50 = 0
Now, distance of (6, –4) from 2x + 5y – 50 = 0 is equal to
2 6 5 4 50 58
2 5
2 2
29
Square of distance = 116
4 8 13 19
24. For kN, if the sum of the series 1 …… is 10, then the value of k is___
k k 2 k3 k 4
Sol. 2
4 8 13 19
10 1 ......upto
k k 2 k3 k 4
4 8 13 19
9 2 3 4 ......upto
k k k k
9 4 8 13
2 3 4 ......upto
k k k k
1 4 4 5 6
S 9 1 2 3 4 ......upto
k k k k k
S 4 4 5
2 3 4 ......upto
k k k k
1 4 1 1 1
1 S 3 4 5 .....
k k k k k
1
2
1 4 3
9 1 k
k k 1
1
k
3
9(k – 1) = 4k(k – 1) + 1
k=2
1 y z 3
25. Let the line : x , R meet the plane P : x + 2y + 3z = 4 at the point ( ). If the angle
–2
5
between the line and the plane P is cos1 , then + 2 + 6 is equal to ____.
14
Sol. 11
y 1 z 3
:x ,
2
Dr's of line 1, 2,
Dr's of normal vector of plane P : x + 2y + 3z = 4
are (1, 2, 3)
Now, angle between line and plane P is given by
1 4 3 3 5
sin given cos
5 2 . 14 14 14
2
3
2
Let variable point on line is t,2t 1, t 3
3
line of plane P.
t = –1
7
1, 1, , ,
3
2 6 11
26. The number of points where the curve f(x) = e8x – e6x – 3e4x – e2x 1, x R cuts x-axis, is equal to ________
Sol. 2
Let e2x = t
t4 – t3 – 3t2 - t +1= 0
1 1
t2 t 3 0
t2 t
2
1 1
t t 5 0
t t
1 1 21
t
t 2
Two real values of t.
27. If the line l1 : 3y– 2x = 3 is the angular bisector of the line l2 : x –y + 1 = 0 and l3 : ax +y + 17, then 2 + 2 –
– is equal to ______.
Sol. 348
Point of intersection of 1 : 3y 2x 3
2 : x y 1 0 is P 0,1
Which lies on 3 : x y 17 0,
17
Consider a random point Q 1,0
on 2 : x y 1 0, image of Q about
17 6
2 : x y 1 0, is Q' , which is calculated by formulae
13 13
x 1 y0 2 3
2
2 3 13
Now, Q' lies in 3 : x y 17 0
7
Now, 2 2 348
1
28. Let the probability of getting head for a biased coin be . It is tossed repeatedly until a head appears. Let N be
4
p
the number of tosses required. If the probability that the equation 64x2 + 5Nx + 1 = 0 has no real root is ,
q
where p and q are co-prime, then q – p is equal to ______.
Sol. 27
64x2 5Nx 1 0
D 25N2 256 0
256 16
N2 N
25 5
N 1, 2,3
1 3 1 3 3 1 37
Pr obability
4 4 4 4 4 4 64
q p 27
29. Let a ˆi 2jˆ 3kˆ and b ˆi ˆj – kˆ . If c is a vector such that a.c 11 , b. a c 27 and b.c – 3 b , then
2
a c is equal to ______.
Sol. 285
a ˆi 2jˆ 3k,
ˆ b ˆi ˆj kˆ
b. a c 27,a.b 0
b a c 3a
b . a c cos 27
14
sin
95
b a c 3 95
a c 3 95
z 2 8iz – 15 13
30. Let S z C – {i, 2i}: 2 R . If i S, a R–{0} , then 2422 is equal to ______.
z 3iz – 2 11
Sol. 1680
z 2 8iz 15
2 R
z 3iz 2
1
1liz 13 R
z 2
3iz 2
13
Put Z = i
11
z2 3iz 2 is imaginary
Put z = x + iy
x 2 y2 2xyi 3ix 3y 2 Imaginary
Re x 2 y2 3y 2 2xy 3x i 0
x 2 y2 3y 2 0
x 2 y2 3y 2
13
x 2 y 1 y 2 z i
11
13
Put x , y
11
13 13
2 11 2
11 11
2
24 35
121
242 48 35 1680
2
SECTION - A
31. Eight equal drops of water are falling through air with a steady speed of 10 cm/s. If the drops collapse, the new
velocity is :-
(1) 10 cm/s (2) 40 cm/s (3) 16 cm/s (4) 5 cm/s
Sol. (2)
4 4 6 rv
8 × r3 = R3 B
3 3
R = 2r
2r 2
V= (b – air)
9
mg
V r2
2
V1 r
V2 = V1 × 4 = 10 × 4 = 40 km/s–1
V2 R
32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : A bar magnet dropped through a metallic cylindrical pipe takes more time to come down
compared to a non-magnetic bar with same geometry and mass.
Reason R : For the magnetic bar, Eddy currents are produced in the metallic pipe which oppose the motion of
the magnetic bar.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Sol. (4)
Due to Eddy current in the metallic pice which opposes the motion of magnetic bar. So, it takes more time to
comes down compared to non-magnetic bar.
33. A space ship of mass 2 × 104 kg is launched into a circular orbit close to the earth surface. The additional
velocity to be imparted to the space ship in the orbit to overcome the gravitational pull will be (if g = 10 m/s2
and radius of earth = 6400 km):
(1) 7.9 2 1 km / s (2) 7.4 2 1 km / s (3) 11.2 2 1 km / s (4) 8 2 1 km / s
Sol. (4)
GM
V = ( 2 – 1)
R
GM
= R ( 2 – 1)
R2
= gR ( 2 – 1) = 8000 ( 2 – 1) ms–1
= 8( 2 – 1) kms–1
34. A projectile is projected at 30° from horizontal with initial velocity 40 ms–1. The velocity of the projectile at t =
2 s from the start will be :
(Given g = 10 m/s2)
(1) Zero (2) 20 3 ms–1 (3) 40 3 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1
Sol. (2)
Ux = 40 cos 30 = 20 3
Uy = 40 sin 30 = 20
Vx = 20 3
Vy = uy – gt = 20 – 10 × 2 = 0
V= v x 2 v y 2 = 20 3 = ms–1
35. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. At a particular
space and time, E 6.6jˆ v / m . What is B at this point?
(1) –2.2 × 10–8 k̂ T (2) –2.2 × 10–8 î T (3) 2.2 × 10–8 k̂ T (4) 2.2 × 10–8 î T
Sol. (3)
E 6.6
|B| = = = 2.2 ×10–8
C 3 108
For direction of B
= EB C
= ˆj B ˆi
B (2.2 10 –8 ) kˆ T
36. A car P travelling at 20 ms–1 sounds its horn at a frequency of 400 Hz. Another car Q is travelling behind the
first car in the same direction with a velocity 40 ms–1. The frequency heard by the passenger of the car Q is
approximately [Take, velocity of sound = 360 ms–1]
(1) 471 Hz (2) 514 Hz (3) 421 Hz (4) 485 Hz
Sol. (3)
Vc = 20 ms–1
f = 400 Hz
Q = 40 ms–1 P 20 ms–1
0
S
Vs – (– VQ )
fapp = f
VS – (– Vp )
360 40 400
= ×400 = × 400 = 421 Hz Ans. (3)
360 20 380
37. A body of mass 500 g moves along x-axis such that it's velocity varies with displacement x according to the
relation = 10 x m/s the force acting on the body is:-
(1) 25 N (2) 5 N (3) 166 N (4) 125 N
Sol. (1)
dv 10 5
v = 10 x = =
dx 2 x x
dv
a=v
dx
5 5
a=v× = 10 x× = 50 ms–2
x x
500
F = ma = × 50 = 25 N
1000
38. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and electron having same Kinetic energy:
(Assume mp = me × 1849)
(1) 1:62 (2) 1:30 (3) 1:43 (4) 2:43
Sol. (3)
h h
= =
P 2mK
P me me 1
= = =
e mp 1840me 1840
P 1
= Ans. (3)
e 43
39. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are considered as fundamental physical quantity, then dimensional
formula of density will be:
(1) FV–2T2 (2) FV4T–6 (3) FV–4T–2 (4) F2V–2T6
Sol. (3)
= Fx Vy Tz
[ML-3] = [MLT-2]x [LT-1]y [T]z
1=x x=1
–3 = x + y y = –4
0 = –2x –y + z z =2x + 4 = 2 – 4 = –2
= F V T
–4 –2
Ans. (3)
40. An electron is allowed to move with constant velocity along the axis of current carrying straight solenoid.
A. The electron will experience magnetic force along the axis of the solenoid.
B. The electron will not experience magnetic force.
C. The electron will continue to move along the axis of the solenoid.
D. The electron will be accelerated along the axis of the solenoid.
E. The electron will follow parabolic path-inside the solenoid.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and D only (2) B, C and D only (3) B and E only (4) B and C only
Sol. (4)
We know that
In the solenoid magnetic field along the axis of solenoid.
When charge particle moving inside solenoid along the axis F = 0
Fm = q (V B)
So, Fm =
And it moves with constant velocity.
41. The Thermodynamic process, in which internal energy of the system remains constant is
(1) Isobaric (2) Isochoric (3) Adiabatic (4) Isothermal
Sol. (4)
U = nCVT, for all process
For isothermal process, T = 0
So, U = 0
That means internal energy of system remains constant.
43. The logic operations performed by the given digital circuit is equivalent to:
Y = AB + AB
(A • B)
Y = (A.B)
Y = AND Gate
44.
Req = 4
8
i= 2A
4
23 2
i1 = A
36 3
2/3 1
i2 = A
2 3
45. When vector A 2iˆ 3jˆ 2kˆ is subtracted from vector B , it gives a vector equal to 2ˆj . Then the magnitude
of vector B will be:
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 13 (4) 6
Sol. (Bonus)
A 2iˆ 3jˆ 2kˆ
B – A 2ˆj
| B| = 2 2 52 2 2 = 4 25 4 = 8 25 = 33
46. If V is the gravitational potential due to sphere of uniform density on it's surface, then it's value at the center of
sphere will be:-
4 3V V
(1) V (2) V (3) (4)
3 2 2
Sol. (3)
GM
V= – 3
(1.5R2 – 0.5r2)
R
GM
V =– [At the surface]
R
3
3GM V
Vcentre = – = 2
2R
47. The root mean square speed of molecules of nitrogen gas at 27°C is approximately : (Given mass of a nitrogen
molecule = 4.6 × 10–26 kg and take Boltzmann constant kB = 1.4 × 10–23 JK–1)
(1) 1260 m/s (2) 91 m/s (3) 523 m/s (4) 27.4 m/s
Sol. (3)
3RT 3RT 3KT
Vrms = = =
Mw mN A m
9 1.4 10 5
=
4.6
= 2.73 10 5
= 27.3 10 4
= 522.4 ms–1
= 523 ms–1
48. The energy of He+ ion in its first excited state is, (The ground state energy for the Hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV):
(1) –13.6 eV (2) –54.4 eV (3) –27.2 eV (4) –3.4 eV
Sol. (4)
13.6z 2
E=–
n 2
eV
First excited state
n=2
–13.6 z 2
E= = –13.6 eV
22
49. When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror with 30° angle of reflection, the angle of deviation of the
ray after reflection is:
(1) 140° (2) 130° (3) 120° (4) 110°
Sol. (3)
30° 30°
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
= – 2i = – 2 × 30
= 180 – 60 = 120°
50. A capacitor of capacitance C is charge to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a closed surface
enclosing the positive plate of the capacitor is :
CV 2CV CV
(1) Zero (2) (3) (4)
0 0 2 0
Sol. (2)
q
=
0
CV
=
0
SECTION – B
51. A coil has an inductance of 2H and resistance of 4 . A 10 V is applied across the coil. The energy stored in the
magnetic field after the current has built up to its equilibrium value will be __________ × 10–2 J.
Sol. (625)
At steady state, inductor will act as a short circuit.
V 10 5
I= = = A
R 4 2
2
1 2 1 5 25
E= LI = × 2 × = = 6.25 = 625 × 10–2 J
2 2
2 4
at steady state
52. A metallic cube of side 15 cm moving along y-axis at a uniform velocity of 2 ms–1. In a region of uniform
magnetic field of magnitude 0.5T directed along z-axis. In equilibrium the potential difference between the
faces of higher and lower potential developed because of the motion through the field will be _________ mV.
Sol. (150)
qVB = qE
E = VB
V = EL = VBL
15 15
V = 2 × 0.5 × = volt
100 100
= 15 × 10–2 volt
= 150 × 10–3 v
Sol. (4)
Ceq = 0.5 F
Q = 0.5 × 10 = 5 C
5C 0.8
Q’ = = 4C
0.8 0.2
54. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts, in such a way that ratio of their nuclear sizes is 1 : 2 1/3. Their
respective speed have a ratio of n : 1. The value of n is __________
Sol. (2)
From LCM :
m1v1 = m2v2
3
V1 m 2 r2 3 r2
V2 m1 r13 r1
3
1
V1 2 3 2
V2 1 1
n= 2
55. The surface tension of soap solution is 3.5 × 10–2 Nm–1. The amount of work done required to increase the radius
of soap bubble from 10 cm to 20 cm is __________ × 10–4 J. (take = 22/7)
Sol. (264)
W = U
W = 25 × (Af – Ai)
= 2 × 5 × 4 (rf 2 – ri 2)
22
= 2 × 3.5 × 10–2 × 4 × × 10–4 (300)
7
= 264 × 10–4 J
56. A circular plate is rotating horizontal plane, about an axis passing through its center perpendicular to the plate,
with an angular velocity . A person sits at the center having two dumbbells in his hands. When he stretches
out his hands, the moment of inertia of the system becomes triple. If E be the initial Kinetic energy of the system,
E
then final Kinetic energy will be . The value of x is
x
Sol. (3)
I11 = I22
I = 3I2
2 =
3
1 2
E= I
2
1 2
2 I
1 2
Ef = × 3I × =
2 3 3
x=3
57. A block of mass 5 kg starting from rest pulled up on a smooth incline plane making an angle of 30° with
horizontal with an affective acceleration of 1 ms–2. The power delivered by the pulling force at t = 10 s from the
starts is __________ W. [use g = 10 ms–2] (Calculate the nearest integer value)
Sol. F – mg sin 30 = ma 0
F = 5 × 1 + 25 = 30 N g s in3
m
V = u + at = 0 + 1 × 10 = 10
P = FV = 30 × 10 = 300 watt 30°
58. As shown in the figure, a plane mirror is fixed at a height of 50 cm from the bottom of tank containing water
4
. The height of water in the tank is 8 cm. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of the water tank. The
3
distance of image of the bulb formed by mirror from the bottom of the tank is ___________ cm.
Sol. (98)
42cm
8
8cm × 3 = 6cm
I 4 4
d
Apparent depth of O = 6
Distance between O and I2 = 48 + 50 = 98 cm
59. Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected in series across a 10 resistance. An ideal voltmeter
connected across 10 resistance reads 1.5 V. The internal resistance of each cell is ___________ .
Sol. (5)
1 r 1 r
10
2 1.5
I= =
10 2r 10
20 = 15 + 3r
20 × 1.5 = 15 + 3r
30 = 15 + 3r
r = 5
60. A wire of density 8 × 103 kg/m3 is stretched between two clamps 0.5 m apart. The extension developed in the
wire is 3.2 × 10–4 m. If Y = 8 × 1010 N/m2, the fundamental frequency of vibration in the wire will be _________
Hz.
Sol. (80)
1 T
f=
2
1 YA
f=
2
1 8 1010 3.2 10 –4
f=
2 0.5 8 10 3 0.5
1
f= 6400
1
f = 80 Hz
SECTION - A
61. The magnetic moment is measured in Bohr Magneton (BM). Spin only magnetic moment of Fe in [Fe(H 2O)6 ]3
and [Fe(CN)6 ]3– complexes respectively is:
(1) 3.87 B. M. and 1.732 B.M. (2) 6.92 B.M. in both
(3) 5.92 B.M. and 1.732 B.M. (4) 4.89 B.M. and 6.92 B.M.
Sol. 3
[Fe(H2O)6]3+
Fe3+ [Ar] 3d5 4s0
No pairing
Unpaired e– = 5
n(n 2)
= 5(5 2)
35 5.92B.M.
[Fe(CN)6]–3
Unpaired e– = 1
n(n 2)
= 1(1 2) 3 1.732B.M.
62. Which one of the following pairs is an example of polar molecular solids?
(1) SO2 (s),CO2 (s) (2) SO2 (s), NH2 (s) (3) MgO(s),SO2 (s) (4) HCl (s), AlN(s)
Sol. 2
SO2 and NH3 are polar molecules. They are constituent particles of polar molecular solids.
List I List II
Complex Colour
A. Mg(NH4 )PO4 I. Brown
B. K3[Co(NO2 )6 ] II. White
C. MnO(OH)2 III. Yellow
D. Fe4[Fe(CN)6 ]3 IV. blue
65. If Ni2 is replaced by Pt 2 in the complex [NiCl2 Br2 ]2 – , which of the following properties are expected to get
changed?
A. Geometry
B. Geometrical isomerism
C. Optical isomerism
D. Magnetic properties
(1) A, B and C (2) A and D (3) B and C (4) A, B and D
Sol. 4
[NiBr2Cl2]2– This complex species is tetrahedral as Br & Cl are weak field ligands.
[PtBr2Cl2]2– As Pt belongs to 5d series. This complex species is square planar.
Both the complex species are optically inactive.
[NiBr2Cl2]2–, being tetrahedral does not show Geometrical Isomerism.
[PtBr2Cl2]2– shows two Geometrical Isomers.
D
H
OH
Sol. 1
(i) NaI, H3PO4
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3 CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
OH I
Mg
D2O
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3 CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
D MgI
N O O H
533-543K
–C–(CH
[ 2)5–N–
]
H2O
Caprolactam Nylon-6
69. For a chemical reaction A + B Product, the order is 1 with respect to A and B.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 1
ON H2N
NaNO2 NH4SH
HCl H2O
OH OH OH
72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true
Sol. 4
Assertion (A)
O
NH2 – NH2
OH Major
Cl
Reason (R)
O
NH2 – NH2
OH
73. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]2 absorbs at lower wavelength of light with respect to [CoCl(NH3 )5 (H 2O)]3
Reason R : It is because the wavelength of the light absorbed depends on the oxidation state of the metal ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true
Sol. 4
Since H2O is strong field ligand compared to chloride and Co3+ ion is present.
CFSE is higher for [Co(NH3)5H2O]+3, hence it will absorb at lower wavelength.
74. Compound from the following that will not produce precipitate on reaction with AgNO3 is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
AgNO3
Br +
Aromatic
Br +
AgNO3
Unstable
Br
AgNO3
Benzylic
Br
AgNO3
CH = CH CH = CH –
Allylic
75. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : A solution of the product obtained by heating a mole of glycine with a mole of chlorine in
presence of red phosphorous generates chiral carbon atom.
Reason R : A molecule with 2 chiral carbons is always optically active.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Sol. 3
Cl2 *
H2N – CH2 – COOH H2N – CH – COOH
Red P
Cl
76. Alkali metal from the following with least melting point is:
(1) K (2) Cs (3) Rb (4) Na
Sol. 2
On moving down the group in alkali metals melting point decreases.
77. Which hydride among the following is less stable?
(1) HF (2) NH3 (3) BeH2 (4) LiH
Sol. 3
BeH2 is hypovalent
A.
B.
C.
D.
79. One mole of P4 reacts with 8 moles SOCl2 to give 4 moles of A, x mole of SO2 and 2 moles of B. A, B and x
respectively are
(1) POCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 4 (2) POCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 2 (3) PCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 4 (4) PCl3 ,S2Cl2 and 2
Sol. 3
P4 + 8 SOCl2 4PCl3 + 2S2Cl2 + 4SO2
80. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by 0.20 mmHg?
(Assume dilute solution is being formed)
Given : Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mmHg at room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180g mol –1
(1) 2.59 g (2) 3.59 g (3) 3.69 g (4) 4.69 g
Sol. 3
P 0 – Ps n
(for dilute solution)
P0 N
0.2 n 18
54.2 100
100
n=
271 18
100 180
w= ; w = 3.69 g
271 18
SECTION - B
81. The total number of intensive properties from the following is__________ new line volume, Molar heat
capacity, Molarity, Eθ cell, Gibbs free energy change, Molar mass, Mole
Sol. 4
Extensive Mole, Volume, Gibbs free energy.
Intensive Molar mass, Molar heat capacity, Molarity, E cell.
82. The volume of hydrogen liberated at STP by treating 2.4 g of magnesium with excess of hydrochloric acid is
__________ 10–2 L .
Given: Molar volume of gas is 22.4 L at STP. Molar mass of magnesium is 24 g mol–1
Sol. 224
Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
w = 2.4 g
2.4
N= 0.1mole
24
1 mole of gas at STP 22.4 lit.
0.1 mole of gas = 0.1 × 22.4
= 2.24 lit. = 224 × 10–2 litre
83. The number of correct statements about modern adsorption theory of heterogeneous catalysis from the following
is
A. The catalyst is diffused over the surface of reactants.
B. Reactants are adsorbed on the surface of the catalyst.
C. Occurrence of chemical reaction on the catalyst's surface through formation of an intermediate.
D. It is a combination of intermediate compound formation theory and the old adsorption theory.
E. It explains the action of the catalyst as well as those of catalytic promoters and poisons.
Sol. 3
B, C and D are correct.
(NCERT – Surface Chemistry)
84. The number of correct statements from the following is
A. For 1 s orbital, the probability density is maximum at the nucleus
B. For 2 s orbital, the probability density first increases to maximum and then decreases sharply to zero.
C. Boundary surface diagrams of the orbitals encloses a region of 100% probability of finding the electron.
D. p and d-orbitals have 1 and 2 angular nodes respectively
E. probability density of p-orbital is zero at the nucleus
Sol. 3
A, D and E statements are correct.
For 2s orbital, the probability density first decreases and then increases.
At any distance from nucleus the probability density of finding electron is never zero and it always have some
finite value.
86. Mg(NO3 )2 XH2O and Ba(NO3 )2 YH2O , represent formula of the crystalline forms of nitrate salts. Sum of X
and Y is______________
Sol. 6
Mg(NO3)2·6H2O is a hydrated salt whereas Ba(NO3)2 is a anhydrous salt.
x+y=6
87. The number of possible isomeric products formed when 3-chloro-1-butene reacts with HCl through carbocation
formation is_____________
Sol. 4
88. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine is heated in a sealed ten litre vessel. At equilibrium, 3 moles of HI were
found. The equilibrium constant for H2 (g) I2 (g) 2HI(g) is______________
Sol. 1
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
t = 0 4.5 4.5 –
teq 3 3 3
[HI]2 (3)2 9
Kc 1
[H2 ][I2 ] 3 3 9
89. Number of compounds from the following which will not produce orange red precipitate with Benedict solution
is _______________
Glucose, maltose, sucrose, ribose, 2-deoxyribose, amylose, lactose
Sol. 2
Benedict test :
Glucose –
maltose –
sucrose –
ribose –
2-deoxyribose –
amylose –
lactose –
90. The maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom from the following species is__________
ClO3– , XeF4 ,SF4 and I3–
Sol. 3