CUNJCSSP 2 1 Question Paper CSIR UGC NET JRF June 2011 Chemical Science

CSIR UGC – NET JRF: June 2011
Chemical Science
❖ Question Paper
Section-A
Q.1 A physiological disorder X always leads to the disorder Y. However, disorder Y may occur by itself. A
population shows 4% incidence of disorder Y. Which of the following inferences is valid?
(a) 4% of the population suffers from both X and Y.
(b) Less than 4% of the population suffers from X.
(c) At least 4% of the population suffers from X.
(d) There is no incidence of X in the given population.
Q.2 Exposing an organism to a certain chemical can change nucleotide bases in a gene, causing mutation. In
one such mutated organism if a protein had only 70% of the primary amino acid sequence, which of the
following is likely?
(a) Mutation broke the protein.
(b) The organism could not make amino acids.
(c) Mutation created a terminator codon.
(d) The gene was not transcribed.
Q.3 The speed of a car increases every minute as shown in the following Table. The speed at the end of the
19th minute would be
Time (minutes) Speed (m / sec)
1 1.5
2 3.0
3 4.5
. .
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CSIR UGC – NET JRF: June 2011: Chemical Science 43
. .
24 36.0
25 37.5
(a) 26.5 (b) 28.0 (c) 27.0 (d) 28.5
Q.4 If Vinput is applied to the circuit shown, the output would be
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.5 Water is dripping out of a tiny hole at the bottom of three flasks whose base diameter is the same, and are
initially filled to the same height, as shown
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44 CSIR UGC – NET JRF Chemical Science Solved Papers
Which is the correct comparison of the rate of the fall of the volume of water in the three flasks?
(a) A fastest, B slowest (b) B fastest, A slowest (c) B fastest, C slowest (d) C fastest, B slowest
Q.6 A reference material is required to be prepared with 4 ppm calcium. The amount of CaCO 3 (molecular
weight = 100) required to prepare 1000 g of such a reference material is:
(a) 10 μg (b) 4 μg (c) 4 mg (d) 10 mg
Q.7 The normal boiling point of a solvent (whose vapour pressure curve is shown in the figure) on a planet
whose normal atmosphere pressure is 3 bar, is about
(a) 100 K (b) 273 K (c) 400 K (d) 500 K
Q.8 How many σ bonds are present in the following molecule?

HC ≡ CCH = CHCH3
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 13

no watermark.
Q.9 The reason for the hardness of diamond is:
(a) Extended covalent bonding. (b) Layered structure.
(c) Formation of cage structures. (d) Formation of tubular structures.
Q.10 The acidity of normal rain water is due to
(a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) NO2 (d) NO
Q.11 A ball is dropped from a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth. Ignoring air drag, the curve that best
represents its variation of acceleration is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.12 The cumulative profits of a company since its inception are shown in the diagram. If the net worth of the
company at the end of the 4th year is 99 crores, the principal it had started with was
(a) 9.9 crores (b) 91 crores (c) 90 crores (d) 9.0 crores
Q.13 Diabetic patients are advised a low glycemic index diet. The reason for this is:

no watermark.
(a) They require less carbohydrate than healthy individuals.
(b) They cannot assimilate ordinary carbohydrates.
(c) They need to have slow, but sustained release of glucose in their blood stream.
(d) They can tolerate lower, but not higher than normal blood sugar levels.
Q.14 Standing on a polished stone floor one feels colder than on a rough floor of the same stone. This is
because
(a) Thermal conductivity of the stone depends on the surface smoothness.
(b) Specific heat of the stone changes by polishing it.
(c) The temperature of the polished floor is lower than of the rough floor.
(d) There is greater heat loss from the soles of the feet when in contact with the polished floor than with
the rough floor.
Q.15 Popular use of which of the following fertilizers increases the acidity of soil?
(a) Potassium Nitrate (b) Urea
(c) Ammonium sulphate (d) Superphosphate of lime
Q.16 If the atmosphere concentration of carbon dioxide is doubled and there are favorable conditions, what
would happen to water requirement of plants?
(a) It decreases initially for a short time and then returns to the original value.
(b) It increases.
(c) It decreases
(d) It increases initially for a short time and then returns to the original value.
Q.17 The graph represents the depth profile of temperature in the open ocean; in which region this is likely to
be prevalent?

no watermark.
(a) Tropical region. (b) Equatorial region
(c) Polar region. (d) Sub-tropical region.
Q.18 Glucose molecules diffuse across a cell of diameter d in time 𝜏 . If the cell diameter is tripled, the diffusion
time would
(a) Increase to 9𝜏 (b) Decrease to τ/3 (c) Increase to 3𝜏 (d) Decrease to 𝜏/9
Q.19 Identify the figure which depicts a first order reaction.
(a) (b)

no watermark.
(c) (d)
Q.20 Which of the following particles has the largest range in a given medium if their initial energies are the
same?
(a) Alpha (b) Electron (c) Positron (d) Gamma
Section-B
Q.21 According to crystal field theory, Ni2+ can have two unpaired electrons in
(a) Octahedral geometry only (b) Square-planar geometry only
(c) Tetrahedral geometry only (d) Both octahedral and tetrahedral geometry
Q.22 [Ni(CN)4]2– and [NiC14]2– complex ions are
(a) Both diamagnetic.
(b) Both paramagnetic.
(c) Diamagnetic and paramagnetic respectively.
(d) Antiferromagnetic and diamagnetic respectively.
Q.23 Which of the following spectroscopic techniques will be useful to distinguish between M-SCN and M-
NCS binding modes?
(a) NMR (b) IR (c) EPR (d) Mass
Q.24 Which of the following compounds show a charge-transfer band?

no watermark.
(a) Lanthanum nitrate (b) Ceric ammonium nitrate
(c) Manganese (II) acetate (d) Copper (II) sulphate pentahydrate
Q.25 Among SF4, BF4–, XeF4 and ICl4–, the number of species having two lone pair of electrons on the central
atom according to VSEPR theory is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 0
Q.26 The FALSE statement for a polarographic measurement procedure is:
(a) O2 is removed.
(b) Dropping mercury electrode is working electrode.
(c) Id is proportional to concentration of electroactive species.
(d) Residual current is made zero by adding supporting electrolyte.
Q.27 The ligand system present in vitamin B12 is:
(a) Porphyrin (b) Corrin (c) Phthalocyanine (d) Crown ether
Q.28 Which one of the following exhibits rotational spectra?
(a) H2 (b) N2 (c) CO (d) CO2
Q.29 In Ziegler-Natta catalysis the commonly used catalyst system is:
(a) TiCl4, Al(C2H5)3 (b) (η5 – Cp)2TiC12, Al(OEt)3
(c) VO(acac)2, Al2 (CH3)6 (d) TiCl4, BF3
Q.30 Oxidation occurs very easily in case of
(a) (η5 –C5H5)2Fe (b) (η5 –C5H5)2Co (c) (η5 –C5H5)2Ru (d) (η5 –C5H5)2Co+
Q.31 Complex in which organic ligand is having only σ – bond with metal is:

no watermark.
(a) W (CH3)6 (b) (η5 –C5H5)2Fe (c) K[PtCl3(C2H4)] (d) (η6 –C6H6)2Ru
Q.32 In the molecules H2O, NH3 and CH4.
(a) The bond angles are same (b) The bond distances are same
(c) The hybridizations are same (d) The shapes are same
Q.33 The correct order of stability of difluorides is:
(a) GeF2 > SiF2 > CF2 (b) CF2 > SiF2 > GeF2 (c) SiF2 > GeF2 > CF2 (d) CF2 > GeF2 > SiF2
Q.34 The number of possible isomers for [Ru(bpy)2Cl2] is (bpy = 2,2 '– bipyridine)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Q.35 The species 19Ne and 14C emit a positron and 𝛽 – particle respectively. The resulting species formed are
respectively
(a) 19
Na and 14B (b) 19
F and 14N (c) 19
Na and 14N (d) 19
F and 14B
Q.36 Cis and trans complexes of the type [PtA2X2] are distinguished by
(a) Chromyl chloride test (b) Carbylamine test (c) Kurnakov test (d) Ring test
Q.37 The term symbol of a molecule with electronic configuration (1σg)2(1σu)2(2σg)2(2σu)2 (1πu)1(1πu)1
(a) 1 + (b) 3 – (c) 1 – (d) 3 +

∑ ∑ ∑ ∑
𝑔 𝑔 𝑔 𝑔
Q.38 A process is carried out at constant volume and at constant entropy. It will be spontaneous if:
(a) ∆G < 0 (b) ∆H < 0 (c) ∆U < 0 (d) ∆A < 0
Q.39 The half-life of a zero-order reaction (A → P) is given by (k = rate constant):

no watermark.
(a) [𝐴]0 (b) 2.303 (c) [𝐴]0 (d) 1

𝑡1/2 = 𝑡1/2 = 𝑡1/2 = 𝑡1/2 =
2𝑘 𝑘 𝑘 𝑘[𝐴]0
Q.40 For an aqueous solution at 25ºC, the Debye-Huckel limiting law is given by
(a) 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝛾± = 0.509|𝑍+ 𝑍– |√𝜇 (b) 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝛾± = 0.509|𝑍+ 𝑍– |𝜇
(c) 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝛾± = – 0.509|𝑍+ 𝑍– |√𝜇 (d) 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝛾± = – 0.509|𝑍+ 𝑍– |𝜇2
Q.41 The microwave spectrum of a molecule yields three rotational constants. The molecule is
(a) Prolate symmetric top (b) Spherical top
(c) Asymmetric top (d) Oblate symmetric top
Q.42 The Q band in the vibrational spectrum of acetylene is observed in the
(a) C–C stretching mode (b) C–H symmetric stretching mode
(c) Bending mode (d) C–H antisymmetric stretching mode
Q.43 The Stark splitting for a given field is larger for a molecule AX as compared to BX. Which one of the
following is true? (μ is the dipole moment)
(a) μAX = μBX (b) μAX > μBX (c) μAX < μBX (d) 2μAX = μBX
Q.44 The adsorption of a gas on a solid surface exhibits the following isotherm. Which one of the following
statements is true?

no watermark.
(a) Heat of adsorption is independent of coverage.
(b) Adsorption is multilayer.
(c) Heat of adsorption varies monotonically with coverage.
(d) Heat of adsorption varies exponentially with coverage.
Q.45 In a chemical reaction A(s) + B(g) ⇌ C(g), the total pressure at equilibrium is 6 atm. The
value of equilibrium constant is:
(a) 1/2 (b) 9 (c) 1 (d) 36
Q.46 A molecule, AX, has a vibrational energy of 1000 cm-1 and rotational energy of 10 cm-1. Another
molecule, BX, has a vibrational energy of 400 cm-1 and rotational energy of 40 cm-1. Which one of the
following statements about the coupling of vibrational and rotational motion is true?
(a) The coupling is stronger in BX.
(b) The coupling is stronger in AX.
(c) Magnitude of coupling is same in both AX and BX.
(d) There is no coupling in both AX and BX.
Q.47 At room temperature, which molecule has the maximum rotational entropy?
(a) H2 (b) O2 (c) D2 (d) N2
1 𝜁 3/2
Q.48 The normalized hydrogen atom 1s wave-function is given by Ψ1𝑠 = ( ) 𝑒 –𝜁𝑟/𝑎0 where 𝜁 =
√ 𝜋 𝑎
0
1 and energy is – 0.5 au. If we use a normalized wave-function of the above form with 𝜁 ≠ 1, the average value
of energy of the ground state of hydrogen atom is:
(a) Greater than – 0.5 au (b) Equal to – 0.5 au
(c) Less than – 0.5 au (d) Equal to 𝜁 times – 0.5 au
Q.49 A constant of motion is defined by the equation:

no watermark.
(a) [H, A] = 0 (b) < [H, A] > =0 (c) A = f(H) (d) A† = A
Q.50 The Hermitian conjugate of operator d/dx, called (d/dx) †, is actually equal to
(a) – d / dx (b) d/dx (c) i(d/dx) (d) –i(d/dx)
Q.51 An ideal gas expands by following an equation PVa = constant. In which case does one expect heating?
(a) 3>a>2 (b) 2>a>1 (c) 0<a<1 (d) –1 < a < 0
Q.52 If y2 = 4x and 0.1% error is incurred for x, the percentage error involved in y will be
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.025 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.05
Q.53 The configuration at the two stereocentres in the compound given below are
(a) 1R, 4R (b) 1R, 4S (c) 1S, 4R (d) 1S, 4S
Q.54 The two compounds given below are
(a) Enantiomers (b) Identical (c) Diastereomers (d) Regio-isomers
Q.55 A suitable catalyst for bringing out the transformation given below is:

no watermark.
(a) BF3.Et2O (b) NaOEt (c) Tungsten lamp (d) Dibenzoyl peroxide
Q.56 Thermolysis of allyl phenyl ether generates
(a) o-allylphenol only (b) o- and p-allylphenols
(c) o-, m- and p-allylphenols (d) m-allylphenol only
Q.57 The major product formed in the reaction given below is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.58 The most suitable reagent for the following transformation is:
(a) LiAlH4 (b) NH2NH2/KOH (c) NaBH4/CeCl3 (d) Li/liq. NH3
Q.59 The intermediate involved in the reaction given below is:
(a) Free radical (b) Carbocation (c) Carbanion (d) Carbene

no watermark.
Q.60 In the most stable conformation of trans-1-t-butyl-3-methylcyclohexane, the substituents at C–1 and C–
3, respectively, are
(a) Axial and equatorial (b) Equatorial and equatorial
(c) Equatorial and axial (d) Axial and axial
Q.61 Among the carbocations given below
(a) A is homoaromatic, B is antiaromatic and C is aromatic.
(b) A is aromatic, B is antiaromatic and C is homoaromatic.
(c) A is antiaromatic, B is aromatic and C is homoaromatic.
(d) A is homoaromatic, B is aromatic and C is antiaromatic.
Q.62 The order of carbonyl stretching frequency in the IR spectra of ketone, amide and anhydride is:
(a) Anhydride > amide > ketone (b) Ketone > amide > anhydride
(c) Amide > anhydride > ketone (d) Anhydride > ketone > amide
Q.63 In the mass spectrum of the compound given below, during the α – cleavage, the order of preferential
loss of groups is:
(a) Me > C3H7 > Et (b) C3H7 > Et > Me (c) Et > Me > C3H7 (d) Et > C3H7 > Me
Q.64 The reaction given below is an example of

no watermark.
(a) 1, 3-sigmatropic hydrogen shift (b) 1, 3-sigmatropic methyl shift
(c) 1, 5-sigmatropic hydrogen shift (d) 1, 5-sigmatropic methyl shift
Q.65 The concerted photochemical reaction between two olefins leading to a cyclobutane ring is:
(a) π2S + π2a cycloaddition (b) π2S + π2S cycloaddition
(c) σ2S + σ2S cycloaddition (d) π2S + σ2a cycloaddition
Q.66 Addition of BH3 to a carbon-carbon double bond is:
(a) Anti-Markonikov syn addition (b) Anti-Markonikov anti addition
(c) Markonikov syn addition (d) Markovnikov anti addition
Q.67 The absorption at 𝜆max 279 nm (𝜀 = 15) in the UV spectrum of acetone is due to
(a) π – π* transition (b) n – π* transition (c) σ – σ* transition (d) π – σ* transition
Q.68 The reaction given below is an example of
(a) E2-elimination (b) E1-elimination (c) syn-elimination (d) E1CB-elimination
Q.69 The suitable reagent for the following conversion is:

no watermark.
(a) m–CPBA (b) H2O2/AcOH (c) BuOH/HCl

t
(d) H2O2/NaOH
Q.70 The relative rates of solvolysis of iodides A-C are
(a) C>A>B (b) C>B>A (c) B>C>A (d) B>A>C
Section-C
Q.71 Alkali metal superoxides are obtained by the reaction of
(a) Oxygen with alkali metals in liquid ammonia. (b) Water with alkali metals in liquid ammonia.
(c) H2O2 with alkali metals. (d) H2O2 with alkali metals in liquid ammonia.
Q.72 H2O2 reduces

A. [Fe(CN)6]3– B. KIO4 C. Ce(SO4)2 D. SO32–
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only (c) C and D only (d) B and D only
Q.73 Match List-I (compounds) with List-II (application) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.
List-I List-II

no watermark.
(A) Trisodium phosphate (i)Plasticizer

(B) Triarylphosphates (ii)Water softener
(C) Triethylphosphate (iii) Toothpaste
(D) Calcium hydrogen phosphate (iv) Insecticides
(a) (A)-ii (B)-i (C)-iv (D)-iii (b) (A)-i (B)-ii (C)-iv (D)-iii
(c) (A)-ii (B)-iii (C)-iv (D)-i (d) (A)-iii (B)-i (C)-ii (D)-iv
Q.74 Among the following statements, identify the correct ones for complexes of lanthanide(III) ion. (A)
Metal-ligand bond is significantly ionic.
(B) Complexes rarely show isomerism.
(C) The coordination number is not more than 8.
(D) The magnetic moments are not accounted even approximately by spin only value for majority of
lanthanides.
(a) A, B and D only (b) A, B and C only (c) B and C only (d) A and D only
Q.75 According to VSEPR theory, the molecule/ion having ideal tetrahedral shape is:
(a) SF4 (b) SO42– (c) S2Cl2 (d) SO2Cl2
Q.76 The complex [Mn(H2O)6]2+ has very light pink colour. The best reason for it is
(a) The complex does not have a charge transfer transition.
(b) d-d transitions here are orbital forbidden but spin allowed.
(c) d-d transitions here are orbital allowed but spin forbidden.
(d) d-d transitions here are both orbital forbidden and spin forbidden.
Q.77 The highest occupied MO in N2 and O2– respectively are (take x-axis as internuclear axis)
(a) σ2px, π*2py (b) π2py, π2pz (c) . σ*2px, σ2px (d) π*2py, π*2pz

no watermark.
Q.78 The correct order of LMCT energies is:
(a) MnO4– < CrO42– < VO43– (b) MnO4– > CrO42– > VO43–
(c) MnO4– > CrO42– < VO43– (d) MnO4– < CrO42– > VO43–
Q.79 Carboxypeptidase contains:
(a) Zn(II) and hydrolyses CO2. (b) Zn(II) and hydrolyses peptide bonds.
(c) Mg(II) and hydrolyses CO2. (d) Mg(II) and hydrolyses peptide bonds.
Q.80 In the EPR spectrum of tetragonal Cu(II) complex, when g || > g ⊥ > ge the unpaired electron resides in
the orbital.
(a) dxy (b) 𝑑𝑥 2 –𝑦2 (c) 𝑑𝑧2 (d) dxz
Q.81 The oxidative addition and reductive elimination steps are favored by
(a) Electron rich metal centres.
(b) Electron deficient metal centers.
(c) Electron deficient and electron rich metal centers respectively.
(d) Electron rich and electron deficient metal centers respectively.
Q.82 Identify the order according to increasing stability of the following organometallic compounds,
TiMe4, Ti(CH2Ph)4, Ti(i-Pr)4 and TiEt4.
(Me = methyl, Ph = phenyl, i-Pr = isopropyl, Et = ethyl)
(a) Ti( CH2 Ph )4 < Ti(i-Pr )4 < TiEt4 < TiMe4
(b) TiEt4 < TiMe4 < Ti(i-Pr)4 < Ti(CH2Ph)4
(c) Ti(i-Pr )4 < TiEt4 < TiMe4 < Ti( CH2 Ph)4
(d) TiMe4 < TiEt4 < Ti(i-Pr )4 < Ti( CH2Ph )4
Q.83 Among the metals, Mn, Fe, Co and Ni, the ones those would react in its native form directly with CO
giving metal carbonyl compounds are
no watermark.
(a) Co and Mn (b) Mn and Fe (c) Fe and Ni (d) Ni and Co
Q.84 The molecule with highest number of lone-pairs and has a linear shape based on VSEPR theory is:
(a) CO2 (b) I3– (c) NO2– (d) NO2+
Q.85 Given
Ag+ + e → Ag, E0 = 0.50 V
Cu2+ + 2e → Cu, E0 = 0.34 V
A 100 ml solution is 1080 mg with respect to Ag+ and 635 mg with respect to Cu2+. If 0.1mg Ag+ left in the
solution is considered to be the complete deposition of Ag+, the cathode potential, so that no copper is deposited
during the process, is:
(a) 0.16 V (b) 0.84 V (c) 0.31 V (d) – 0.16 V
Q.86 In the H2Ru6(CO)18 cluster, containing 8-coordinated Ru centers, the hydrogen atoms are
(a) Both terminal (b) One terminal and the other bridging
(c) Both bridging between two Ru centers (d) Both bridging between three Ru centers
Q.87 In the hydroformylation reaction, the intermediate CH3CH2CH2Co(CO)4:
(a) Forms are acyl intermediate CH3CH2CH2COCo(CO)3.
(b) Forms an adduct with an olefin reactant.
(c) Reacts with H2.
(d) Eliminates propane.
Q.88 Statement I: The sizes of Zr and Hf are similar

Statement II: Size of Hf is affected by lanthanide contraction.
(a) Statement I and II are correct and II is correct explanation of I
(b) Statement I and II are correct but II is not a correct explanation of I.
(c) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.

no watermark.
(d) Statements I and II both are incorrect.
Q.89 Consider the compounds, (A) SnF4, (B) SnCl4 and (C) R3SnCl. The nuclear quadrupole splitting are
observed for.
(a) A, B and C (b) A and B only (c) B and C only (d) A and C only
Q.90 Consider two redox pairs

(1) Cr(II)/Ru(III) (2) Cr(II)/Co(III)
The rate of acceleration in going from a outer-sphere to a inner-sphere mechanism is lower for (1)
relative to (2). Its correct explanation is:
(a) HOMO/LUMO are σ* and σ* respectively (b) HOMO/LUMO are σ* and π* respectively
(c) HOMO/LUMO are π* and σ* respectively (d) HOMO/LUMO are π* and π* respectively
Q.91 The correct value of isomer shift (in Mossbauer spectra) and its explanation for Fe(II) –TPP and Fe(III)–
TPP respectively from the following are:
(TPP = tetraphenylporphyrinate
(A) 0.52 mms–1 (B) 0.45mms–1
(C) Increase in s electron density (D) Decrease in s electron density.
(a) (A) and (D); (B) and (C) (b) (A) and (C); (B) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D); (A) and (D) (d) (B) and (D); (A) and (C)
Q.92 In IR spectrum of [Co(CN)5H]3– the Co–H stretch is observed at 1840 cm–1. The (Co–D) stretch in
[Co(CN)5D]3– will appear at nearly
(a) 1300 cm–1 (b) 1400 cm–1 (c) 1500 cm–1 (d) 1600 cm–1
Q.93 For the complexes

A. [Ni(H2O)6]2+ B. [Mn(H2O)6]2+ C. [Cr(H2O)6]3+ D. [Ti(H2O)6]3+, the ideal
octahedral geometry will not be observed in
(a) A and D (b) C and D (c) B only (d) D only

no watermark.
Q.94 Among the following, the number of anhydrides of acids are

CO, No, N2O, B2O3, N2O5, SO3 and P4O10.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Q.95 For a given nuclear fission reaction of 235U

235
92𝑈 + 10𝑛 → 142
56𝐵𝑎 + 36𝐾𝑟 + 3 0𝑛
91 1
the amount of energy (in kJ/mol) released during this process is (given 235U = 235 .0439 amu, 142Ba = 141.9164
amu, 91Kr = 90.9234 amu, neutron = 1.00866 amu)
(a) 3.12×1012 (b) 2.8×1011 (c) 1.0×109 (d) 1.68×1010
Q.96 The decomposition of gaseous acetaldehyde at T(K) follows second order kinetics. The half-life of this
reaction is 400 s when the initial pressure is 250 Torr. What will be the rate constant (in Torr –1 s–1) and half-
life (in s) respectively, if the initial pressure of the acetaldehyde is 200 Torr at the same temperature?
(a) 105 and 500 (b) 10–5 and 400 (c) 10–4 and 400 (d) 10–5 and 500
Q.97 For an enzyme catalyzed reaction, a Lineweaver-Burk plot gave the following data:
slope = 40 s
intercept = 4 (mol dm–3 s–1)–1.
If the initial concentration of enzyme is 2.5×10–9 mol dm–3, what is the catalytic efficiency (in dm–3mol–1 s–1)
of the reaction?
(a) 105 (b) 106 (c) 107 (d) 104
Q.98 A hydrogenic orbital with radial function of the form rα exp[–𝛽r] and ϕ – part as exp[–3i ϕ] corresponds
to
(a) n > 4, l > 3, m = 3 (b) n = 4, l = 3, m = –3 (c) n = 4, l > 3, m = 3 (d) n > 4, l = 3, m = –3
Q.99 For an assembly of molecules (molar mass = M) at temperature T, the standard deviation of
Maxwell’s speed is approximately

no watermark.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

𝑅𝑇 𝑅𝑇 𝑀 𝑀
0.7√ 1.4√ 0.7√ 1.4√
𝑀 𝑀 𝑅𝑇 𝑅𝑇
Q.100 The unperturbed energy levels of a system are 𝜀0 = 0, 𝜀1 = 2, 𝜀2 = 4 . The second order correction to
energy for the ground state in pressure of the perturbation V for which V10 = 2, V20 = 4 and V12 = 6 has been
found to be
(a) –6 (b) 0 (c) +6 (d) –8
Q.101 Given the character table of the point group Cv.
E 2C3 3σv
A1 1 1 1 z
A2 1 1 –1
E 2 –1 0 (x,y)
Consider the reducible representation, Γ
E 2C3 3σv
Γ 6 3 0
Its irreducible components are
(a) E+2A1 +2A2 (b) 2E+A1 +A2 (c) 3A1 +3A2 (d) E2 + 2A1
Q.102 Refer to the character table of the point group C3V given above. Find which of the following transition
is forbidden
(a) a1 ↔ a1 (b) a1 ↔ e (c) a2 ↔ e (d) a2 ↔ a2
Q.103 The electronic configuration for Gadalonium (Gd) is [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 , where as that of Gd2+ is
(a) [Xe]4f5 5d 6s2 (b) [Xe]4f6 6s2 (c) [Xe]4f6 5d16s1 (d) [Xe]4f7 6s1
Q.104 The possible J values for 3D term symbol are

no watermark.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Q.105 The energy levels for cyclobutadiene are 𝛼 + 2𝛽, 𝛼, 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛼 – 2𝛽 . The delocalization energy in this
molecule is
(a) 0 (b) –4 𝛽 (c) –8 𝛽 (d) 4𝛼
Q.106 The variation of equilibrium constant (K) of a certain reaction with temperature (T) is 𝑙𝑛𝑘 = 3.0 +
2.0×104
𝑇
given R = 8.3 Jk–1mol–1, the values of ∆H0 and ∆S0 are.
(a) 166 kJ mol–1 and 24.9 Jk–1 mol–1 (b) 166 kJ mol–1 and –24.9 Jk–1 mol–1
(c) –166 kJ mol–1 and 24.9 Jk–1 mol–1 (d) –166 kJ mol–1 and 24.9 Jk–1 mol–1
Q.107 The chemical potential of component 1 in a solution of binary mixture is 𝜇1 = 𝜇00 + 𝑅𝑇𝑙𝑛𝑝1 , when p1
is the partial pressure of component 1 vapour phase. The standard state 𝜇10 is:
(a) Independent of temperature and pressure (b) Depends on temperature and pressure both
(c) Depends on temperature only (d) Depends on pressure only
Q.108 Debey-Hückel screening length (κ–1) is a measure of size of diffuse ion cloud around an ion, provided
2𝑒 2 𝑁𝐴
√𝜖 ≈ 30(𝑛𝑚√𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑘𝑔–1 )–1 at 298K, which of the following values of κ–1 is true for a
0 𝑘𝐵 𝑇
0.03 molal solution for Na2SO4 in water (𝜖𝑟 ≈ 100)?
(a) 10/9 nm (b) 9/10 nm (c) 10√2/9 nm (d) 9/ 10√2 nm
[𝑂]
Q.109 If the ratio of composition of oxidized and reduced species in electrochemical cell, is given as = 𝑒 2,
[𝑅]
the correct potential difference will be
(a) 2𝑅𝑇 (b) 2𝑅𝑇 (c) 𝑅𝑇 (d) 𝑅𝑇

𝐸– 𝐸0 = + 𝐸– 𝐸0 = – 𝐸– 𝐸0 = 𝐸– 𝐸0 = –
𝑛𝐹 𝑛𝐹 𝑛𝐹 𝑛𝐹
Q.110 If the equilibrium constants for the reactions 1 and 2

1. CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g); 2. CH4(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3H2(g)

no watermark.
are k1 and k2, the equilibrium constant for the reaction

CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4H2(g) is:
(a) k1 + k 2 (b) k1 – k2 (c) k1k2 (d) k1/k2
Q.111 The virial expansion for a real gas can be written in either of the following forms:
𝑃𝑉̅
= 1 + 𝐵𝑝 𝑃 + 𝐶𝑝 𝑃2 + ⋯
𝑅𝑇
=1 + 𝐵𝑉 𝑉 + 𝐶𝑉 𝑉 2 + ⋯
If BV = αBP, the value of α would be
(a) PV/RT (b) RT/PV (c) PV (d) RT
Q.112 A certain system of noninteracting particles has the single-particle partition has the single-particle
𝑇𝑚
partition function f = A 𝑉 where A is some constant. The average energy per particle will be
(a) m𝜅T (b) A𝜅T (c) 𝜅T / m (d) 𝜅T / A
Q.113 Observe the following aqueous solutions of same compound. All the measurements are made at same
wavelength and same temperature.
Solution A: The transmittance of 0.1 mol dm–3 using 1 cm cell is 0.5.
Solution B: The optical density 0.5 mol dm–3 is measured using 1 mm cell.
Solution C: The transmittance of this solution is 0.1.
The optical density of these solutions follow the order.
(log 20 = 1.3010; log 30 = 1.4771, log 50 = 1.69900)
(a) A>B>C (b) B>C>A (c) B>A>C (d) C>A>B
Q.114 The rotational constant of 14N2 is 2 cm–1. The wave number of incident radiation in a Raman
spectrometer is 20487 cm–1. What is the wave number of first scattered Stokes line (in cm–1) of 14N2?
(a) 20479 (b) 20475 (c) 20499 (d) 20495

no watermark.
Q.115 For a certain particle encountering a barrier, the tunneling probability is approximately e–10. If the mass
is halved and width of the barrier (rectangular) doubled, approximate value of the tunneling probability will
be
(a) 𝑒 –10/√2 (b) 𝑒 –10√2 (c) 𝑒 –20/√2 (d) 𝑒 –10
𝑑
Q.116 An operator A is defined as A = – 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) A is a Hermitian operator (b) A† is an anti-Hermitian operator
(c) Both AA† and A†A are Hermitian (d) AA† is Hermitian, but A†A is anti-Hermitian
Q.117 Isothermal which has fractional coverage, linearly, dependent on pressure at low pressures but almost
independent at high pressure is called
(a) BET isotherm (b) Langmuir isotherm (c) Freundlich isotherm (d) Temkin isotherm
Q.118 A one-dimensional crystal of lattice dimension ‘a’ is metallic. If the structure is distorted in such a way
that the lattice dimension is enhanced to ‘2a’.
(a) The electronic structure remains unchanged.
(b) The width of conduction band decreases and a band gap is generated.
(c) The width of conduction band increases.
(d) The width of the conduction band remains unchanged.
Q.119 For a H2 molecule, the ground state wavefunction is Ψ(1,2) = 𝜙(1,2)𝜎(1,2) where 𝜙 refers to the
space part and σ to the spin part. Given that 𝜙(1,2) = 𝜙(2,1), the form of σ(1,2) would be
(a) 𝛼(1)𝛽(2) (b) 𝛼(2)𝛽(1)
(c) 𝛼(1)𝛽(2) – 𝛼(2)𝛽(1) (d) 𝛼(1)𝛽(2) + 𝛼(2)𝛽(1)
Q.120 There are several types of mean molar masses for polymer and they are dependent on experimental
methods like:
(1) Osmometry (2) Light scattering (3) Sedimentation.
Correct relation between mean molar masses and experimental method is:
no watermark.
(a) ̅𝑛 ⟺ (3), 𝑀
𝑀 ̅𝑤 ⟺ (2), 𝑀
̅𝑧 ⟺ (1) (b) ̅𝑛 ⟺ (2), 𝑀
𝑀 ̅𝑤 ⟺ (3), 𝑀
̅𝑧 ⟺ (1)
(c) ̅𝑛 ⟺ (1), 𝑀
𝑀 ̅𝑤 ⟺ (2), 𝑀
̅𝑧 ⟺ (3) (d) ̅𝑛 ⟺ (1), 𝑀
𝑀 ̅𝑤 ⟺ (3), 𝑀
̅𝑧 ⟺ (2)
Q.121 An organic compound (C7H12O2) exhibited the following data in the 1H NMR spectrum.
𝛿 7.10(1H, d t, J =16 and 7.2Hz), 5.90 (1H, d t, J =16 and 2 Hz), 4.1(2H, q, J = 7.2Hz), 2.10(2H, m),1.25(3H,
t, J = 7.2Hz), 0.90 (3H, t, J = 7.2 Hz) ppm. The compound, among the choices given below, is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.122 In the broad band decoupled 13C NMR spectrum, the number of signals appearing for the bicyclooctane
A–C, respectively, are
(a) Five, four and eight (b) Three, two and five (c) Five, four and five (d) Three, two and
eight
Q.123 In the mass spectrum of dichlorobenzene the ratio of the peaks at m/z 146, 148 and 150, is:
(a) 1:1:1 (b) 3:3:1 (c) 1:2:1 (d) 9:6:1
Q.124 The major compound X formed in the following reaction exhibited a strong absorption at vmax 1765 cm–
1
in the IR spectrum. The structure of X is:

no watermark.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.125 The correct order of acidity of the following compound A–C is:
(a) B>C>A (b) C>B>A (c) A>C>B (d) A>B>C
Q.126 The major product formed in the reaction sequence is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.127 For the following allylic oxidation reaction, the appropriate statement, among the choices given below,
is:
(a) Suitable reagent is KMnO4 and the major product is A.

no watermark.
(b) Suitable reagent is KMnO4 and the major product is B.
(c) Suitable reagent is SeO2 and the major product is A.
(d) Suitable reagent is SeO2 and the major product is B.
Q.128 The intermediate A and the major product B in the following conversion are
(a) A is carbocation and B is (b) A is a carbanion and B is
(c) A is a free radical and B is (d) A is a benzyne and B is
Q.129 The major product formed in the following reaction is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

no watermark.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.131 The major product formed in the reaction of glucose with benzaldehyde and p-TSA is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.132 Papaverine on oxidation with potassium permanganate gives a ketone, which on fusion with potassium
hydroxide gives

no watermark.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.133 The major product formed on nitration (HNO3/H2SO4) of uridine followed by reduction with tin and
HCl is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.134 In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures for the major products X and Y are
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

no watermark.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.136 Match the following
Column I Column II
A. i. Chiral centre
B. ii. chiral axis
C. iii. chiral plane
iv. Helical chirality
(a) (A)-iii (B)-ii (C)-iv (b) (A)-iv (B)-iii (C)-ii (c) (A)-ii (B)-iv (C)-iii (d) (A)-ii (B)-iii (C)-iv
Q.137 The gauche interaction values for Me/Me, Me/Br and Br/Br are 3.3, 0.8 and 3.0 kJ/mol, respectively.
Among the following, the most stable conformation of 2, 3-dibromobutane is:

no watermark.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.138 The major product formed in the reaction of (S)-1, 2, 4-butanetriol with 3-pentanone in the presence of
a catalytic amount of p-TSA is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a (b (c (d
) ) ) )
Q.140 The major product formed in the following transformation is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.141 The major product formed in the following transformation is:

no watermark.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.142 The structures of the major products X and Y in the following transformation are
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.143 Match the following:
Column I Column II
A. Pyrrole i. Pictet-Spengler
B. 1, 4-dihydropyridine ii. Chichibabin
C. Isoquinoline iii. Paal-Knorr
iv. Hantzsch
(a) (A)-i (B)-ii (C)-iii (b) (A)-ii (B)-iii (C)-iv (c) (A)-iv (B)-i (C)-ii (d) (A)-iii (B)-iv (C)-i

no watermark.
Q.144 Consider the following reaction:
In an experiment, 1.99 g of bromide A on reaction with ethanolic potassium hydroxide gave 1.062 g
of a mixture of the olefins B and C. If the ratio of olefins B:C formed is 2:1, the yields for their formation,
respectively, are
(a) 60 and 30% (b) 50 and 25% (c) 66 and 33% (d) 54 and 27%
Q.145 An organic compound A (C8H16O2) on treatment with an excess of methyl magnesium chloride
generated two alcohols B and C, whereas reaction of A with lithium aluminum hydride generated only a single
alcohol C. Compound B on treatment with an acid yielded an olefin (C6H12), which exhibited only a singlet at
𝛿1.6 ppm in the 1H NMR spectrum. The compound A is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

no watermark.
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Table of Contents
CSIR UGC – NET JRF: Model Test .............................................................................................................. 7
Chemical Science ......................................................................................................................................... 7
❖ Question Paper................................................................................................................................... 7
❖ Answer Key ..................................................................................................................................... 35
❖ Solution............................................................................................................................................ 36
CSIR UGC – NET JRF: June 2011.............................................................................................................. 42
Chemical Science ....................................................................................................................................... 42
❖ Question Paper................................................................................................................................. 42
❖ Answer Key ..................................................................................................................................... 76
❖ Solution............................................................................................................................................ 77
CSIR UGC – NET JRF: December 2011..................................................................................................... 82
Chemical Science ....................................................................................................................................... 82
❖ Question Paper................................................................................................................................. 82
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 116
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 117
CSIR UGC – NET JRF: June 2012............................................................................................................ 122
Chemical Science ..................................................................................................................................... 122
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 122
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 157
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 158
CSIR UGC – NET JRF: December 2012................................................................................................... 163
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 163
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 198
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 199
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 205
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 237
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 238
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 243
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 274
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 275
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 280
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 314
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 315
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 320
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 357
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 358
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 364
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 402
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 403
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 409
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 442
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 443
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 449
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 487
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 488
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 494
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 531
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 532
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 538
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 571
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 572
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 577
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 609
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 610
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 615
❖ Answer key .................................................................................................................................... 647
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 648
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 654
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 685
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 686
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 691
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 724
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 725
❖ Question Paper............................................................................................................................... 730
❖ Answer Key ................................................................................................................................... 761
❖ Solution.......................................................................................................................................... 762

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CSIR UGC – NET JRF: June 2011

(a) 4% of the population suffers from both X and Y.

(b) Less than 4% of the population suffers from X.

(c) At least 4% of the population suffers from X.

(d) There is no incidence of X in the given population.

(a) Mutation broke the protein.

(b) The organism could not make amino acids.

(c) Mutation created a terminator codon.

(d) The gene was not transcribed.

Time (minutes) Speed (m / sec)

(a) 26.5 (b) 28.0 (c) 27.0 (d) 28.5

Q.4 If Vinput is applied to the circuit shown, the output would be

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(a) 10 μg (b) 4 μg (c) 4 mg (d) 10 mg

(a) 100 K (b) 273 K (c) 400 K (d) 500 K

Q.8 How many σ bonds are present in the following molecule?

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 13

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Q.9 The reason for the hardness of diamond is:

(a) Extended covalent bonding. (b) Layered structure.

(c) Formation of cage structures. (d) Formation of tubular structures.

Q.10 The acidity of normal rain water is due to

(a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) NO2 (d) NO

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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(a) They require less carbohydrate than healthy individuals.

(b) They cannot assimilate ordinary carbohydrates.

(a) Thermal conductivity of the stone depends on the surface smoothness.

(b) Specific heat of the stone changes by polishing it.

(a) Potassium Nitrate (b) Urea

(c) Ammonium sulphate (d) Superphosphate of lime

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(a) Tropical region. (b) Equatorial region

(c) Polar region. (d) Sub-tropical region.

Q.19 Identify the figure which depicts a first order reaction.

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(a) Alpha (b) Electron (c) Positron (d) Gamma

(a) Octahedral geometry only (b) Square-planar geometry only

Q.22 [Ni(CN)4]2– and [NiC14]2– complex ions are

(a) Both diamagnetic.

(b) Both paramagnetic.

(c) Diamagnetic and paramagnetic respectively.

(d) Antiferromagnetic and diamagnetic respectively.

(a) NMR (b) IR (c) EPR (d) Mass

Q.24 Which of the following compounds show a charge-transfer band?

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(a) Lanthanum nitrate (b) Ceric ammonium nitrate

(c) Manganese (II) acetate (d) Copper (II) sulphate pentahydrate

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 0

Q.26 The FALSE statement for a polarographic measurement procedure is:

(b) Dropping mercury electrode is working electrode.

(c) Id is proportional to concentration of electroactive species.

(d) Residual current is made zero by adding supporting electrolyte.

Q.27 The ligand system present in vitamin B12 is:

(a) Porphyrin (b) Corrin (c) Phthalocyanine (d) Crown ether

Q.28 Which one of the following exhibits rotational spectra?

(a) H2 (b) N2 (c) CO (d) CO2

Q.29 In Ziegler-Natta catalysis the commonly used catalyst system is:

(a) TiCl4, Al(C2H5)3 (b) (η5 – Cp)2TiC12, Al(OEt)3

(c) VO(acac)2, Al2 (CH3)6 (d) TiCl4, BF3