1-) Which of the following does not make a business competitive?

A) quality
B) productivity
C) service
D) cost
E) employees who are not affiliated with the company

Answer: E.

2-) Which one is not A rule of thumb used by production managers to monitor productivity
that safety managers should know
A) Productivity drops when the output drops and the input remains constant

B) Productivity drops when the output increase and the input remains constant
C) Productivity drops when the output is constant, but the input increases.

D) Productivity is improved when the output stays the same, but the input decreases.

E) Productivity is improved the output increases and the input stays the same.

Answer:B

3-) When competitive pressure becomes intense, safety and health are often given lower
priority. Which of the following is not a low priority in terms of occupational health?
A) Production fast without gauntlet.
B) Unnecessary and running at work
C) working without business glasses
D) not providing work shoes to workers.
E) Stipulating that workers use hard hats.

Answer:E
 1. “ The _________ is the person in charge of the development of the health
and safety program, and the first in the line of authority in this
department.”
Choose the correct word.
A) Chemical Engineer
B) Safety Manager
C) Safety Engineer
D) Health Physicist
ANSWER: B
2. Industrial hygienist are primarily concerned about the following types
of
hazards :
I. Toxic Substances
II. Radiation and Biological Substances
III. Noise and Temperature
IV. All of them
Which type of hazards that concerned about the industrial hygienist ?
A) I and III B) II and III C) I and II D) IV
ANSWER: D
3. The design process is a plan of action for reaching a goal, and proceeds.
These are the design processes :
1. Analysis and Evaluation
2. Problem Identification
3. Produce and Deliver
4. Synthesis
5. Document and Communicate
Which order is correct ?
A) 1,3,4,2,5 B) 2,5,4,1,3 C) 2,4,1,5,3 D) 1,4,2,5,3
ANSWER: C
1 ) A compromise and release settlement means what for the injured employee?
XA)Their claim is paid and closed.
B) They are entitled to payments for future medical problems.
C) Their claim remains open indefinitely.
D) They are not entitled to any payments.
2) Which of the following benefits are paid under workers compensation laws?
A)Medical
B) Rehabilitation
XC) Pain and suffering
D) Disability income
3) In most states, workers compensation laws apply to which of the following?
XA. To most workers except those specifically excluded by law
B. Only to workers in occupations that are considered extremely hazardous
C. To full-time workers only
D. To all workers

1)Who has responsibility for health and safety at your

workplace?
A) The client and main contractor only.
B) Self-employed contractors only and employees.
C) Employers, employees and sub-contractors.
XD) Everyone at your place of work no matter who
employs them

2)From a legal perspective, which is not an employer's

obligations regarding safety rules?
A) Employers must have rules that ensure a safe and
healthy workplace.
B) Employers must ensure that all employees are
knowledgeable about the rules.
C) Employers must ensure that safety rules are
enforced objectively and consistently.
XD) Employers must not develop appropriate rules, then
familiarize employees with them & enforce them.
3)What can we do for safety committees?
A) Suggest strategies and options for
management to improve health and
safety performance.
B) Train committee members so they can
successfully carry out their
responsibilities.
C) Encourage employee involvement by
actively creating an atmosphere of trust,
teamwork, respect, and partnership.
XD) Discuss topics unrelated to health and
safety at safety committee meetings

QUESTIONS
Question – 1
Which of the following is/are causes of stress in the workplace?
1.Physical working conditions; Work overload.
2.Role ambiguity or conflict; Lack of feedback.
3.Personality, personal & family problems.
4.A job perceived as being too complex.
A) 1 B) 1-2 C) 1-2-3 D) 1-2-3-4
Answer : D
Question -2
Which of the following is not the most common form of stress-related illness?
A) Gastric or duodenal ulcers. B) Headache C) Anxiety D) Sun Allergy
Answer : D
Question – 3
Which of the following is not a physical symptom of stress?
A) Depression B) Headache C) Indigestion D) Hypertension
Answer : A

Noise and Vibration

1. Which one below is the unit used for expressing the intensity of sound?
A) Decibel
B) Dosimeter
C) Hertz
D) Pascal
2. Which term is an OSHA term to describe change in hearing threshold relative to
the baseline audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000Hz
in either ear?
A) Hearing threshold level
B) Significant threshold shift
C) Standard threshold shift
D) Time-weighted average
3. Which one below is a value, expressed in dBA, computed so that the resulting
average is equivalent to an exposure resulting from a constant noise level over an
eight-hour period?
A) Hearing threshold level
B) Standard threshold shift
C) Significant threshold shift
D) Time-weighted average
4. Choose correct OSHA 29 CFR 1910.95 requirements for hearing conservation
programs below:
i. hearing hazards monitoring
ii. engineering and administrative controls
iii. audiometric evaluation
iv. personal hearing-protection devices
v. education and motivation
vi. record keeping program evaluation.
A) None of them
B) i, ii, iii, iv, v
C) ii, iii, v, vi
D) all of them
5. Choose accordingly?
1) Passive earmuffs
2) Uniform attenuation earmuffs
3) Electronic earmuffs

i.They use electronic technology to both block and modulate sound. Some can receive
AM/FM radio signals or have a wireless connection to a CD or MP3 player
ii. They block noise and attenuate the noise more uniformly within several key octave
bands (250Hz to 4000Hz). This allows employees to hear certain important sounds
such as spoken instructions or warnings.
iii. They consist of ear cups lined with foam and block noise using nothing but the foamlined
cups. They tend to block out not just unwanted noise, but also certain
advantageous sounds, such as voices trying to warn of danger.
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
D) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
Answers
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D

Chapter 15- Falling, Impact, Acceleration, Lifting and Vision Hazards Questions
Topic: General Strategies for Preventing Slips
1- What is wrong to do on the ground as a precaution to prevent falls?
A) Selection of Materials with Low Coefficient of Friction
B) Staircase with Handrails
C) Use of Non-Slip Shoes
D) Clean Surface
Answer: A
Topic: Aid for Eye Injuries
2- Which of the following is wrong to do in case of eye injury?
A) In order to remove the chemical in the eyes, the eyes should be washed with plenty of
water.
B) The object embedded in the eyeball should be removed.
C) Rubbing of the eyes should not be allowed.
D) Pressure should not be applied to the injured eye.
Answer: B
Topic: Proper Lifting Techniques
3- Which is not correct to do when lifting a load?
A) Route should be determined for obstacles and slippery surfaces.
B) The body should be centered over the load and lifted straight up.
C) The load should be lifted with the legs, not the back.
D) The back should be bent, the knee should be kept straight.
Answer: D
Topic:Do’s and Don’ts of Ladder Use
4- Which of the following should be done while climbing the ladder?
I. The slipperiness of shoes and stairs should be checked.
II. It should be possible for more than one person to use the ladder at the same time.
III. The ladder must be placed on unstable ground.
IV. The ladder must be fixed to the surface. Fragile and slippery surfaces should be avoided.
A) I-II
B) I-II-IV
C) II-IV
D) I-IV
Answer: D
Topic: Forklifts and Powered Industrial Trucks
Which is wrong to do when traveling with a forklift with a load?
A) Giving pedestrians the right of way.
B) Keeping the forks high while moving.
C) Not allowing passengers.
D) Not lifting or lowering the load while traveling.
Answer: B

1- Which of the following is not one of the primary causes of falls?

a) Weak muscles, especially in the legs
b) Dizziness or lightheadedness
c) Drinking too much alcohol, especially with medication
d) Temperature extremes.
e) Foot problems – including pain and deformities

2- Which of the following is not true?

a) Good housekeeping can be a major factor in reducing slip and
fall hazards.
 b) When workers come across an invisible foreign object on
their path, they can trip and fall.
c) Every year, more than 500,000 hand injuries occur in the
United States, with serious consequences for both employers
and employees.
d) Flying particles cause most eye injuries
e) Selecting the right gloves is not a much important task.

3- Which of the following is a main reason for using chain link

gloves?
a) Cut resistance
b) Comfort
c) Abrasion resistance
d) Heat resistance
e) Chemical resistance

Answers: 1-D, 2-E, 3-A

1)
Question:
Write down the 2 functionalities of human skin.
Answer:
- Heat regulation
- Sensation
2)
Question:
Fill in the spaces left blank.
-The phenomenon often referred to as …………
- First-degree burns are minor, and result only in a mild inflammation of the skin,
known as …………
Answer:
- windchill
- erythema.
3)
Question:
Write down 3 heat types.
Answer:
- Metabolic heat
- Environmental heat
- Radiant heat

Questions:

1) Which of the following formulas is the formula for Boyle's law? (When T is constant)
A) V1 * V2 = P1 * P2
B) P1 * V1 = P2 * V2
C) P1 * V2 = P2 * V1
D) P1 * V1 + P2 * V2 = 0

Answer is B.

2) What does cause hypoxia?

A) A reduction in partial pressure can result from reduced available oxygen
B) Too much oxygen
C) Diving greater than 700-meter depth
D) Not breathing more than 10 minutes
Answer is A.
3) Which of the following is not a widely used nondestructive test method?
A) X-ray radiography
B) Magnetic particle test
C) Lighter test
D) Ultrasonic test
Answer is C.

1-) Which one of the below is the reaction that consumes more heat than generates?
 A) Explosion B) Exothermic C) Endothermic D) Oxidation

Answer: C

2-) Which one of the below choices is not one of the types of heat transfer?

A) Conduction B) Magnetization C) Radiation D) Convection

Answer: B

3-) Which one of below is the sensor that detects changes in infrared energy radiated by smoke?

A) Photoelectric Sensors B) Thermal Expansion Detectors C) Motion Sensors D) Capacitive

Sensors

Answer: A

Questions
1- Which one is not reason of accidents are not reporting?
a) Red Tape
b) Ignorance
c) Embarrassment
d) Perfectionism
Answer is d.
2- Which one is not true?
a) A quality job of investigating is not objective &
analytical.
b) Causes of the accident should be the primary focus.
c) The investigation should be guided by: Who, What,
When, Where, Why, and How.
d) The purpose of an accident investigation is to collect
facts—not to find fault.
Answer is a.
3- Which one is not common causes of accidents?
a) Personal beliefs and feelings
b) Decision to work unsafely
c) Mismatch or overload
d) System checking
Answer is d.

Q1-) What is the hazard to occupational health and safety?

A hazard is a situation or combination of conditions that, if not corrected,
could result in an accident, illness, or property damage.
Q2-) What are two questions that Risk analysis focuses on?
-How frequently does a given event occur?
-How severe are the consequences of a given event?
Q3-) What are the steps for implementing hazard control measures?
-Adjust as necessary
-Assess effectiveness
-Monitor / observe
-Apply the methods
-Select a methods

Q1 What are the three broad types of industrial noise

Answer: Wide band noise, Narrow band noise, and Impulse noise.

Q2 what are the three main types of earmuffs

Answer: Passive earmuffs, and Uniform attenuation earmuffs
and electronic earmuffs.

Q3 what are the Effects of Noise Hazards?

Answer: Noise can cause communication problems, isolation,

and productivity problems, Noise can also be detrimental to
productivity by interfering with an employee’s ability to think,
reason, and solve problems.
1. Which of the following is not the three E’s of safety?
A. Education
B. Empowerment
C. Engineering
D. Enforcement

2. Which is the widely used accident prevention technique?

A. Fail-safe designs
B. CPR with AED
C. Fellow servant rule
D. Employer liability

3. Which of the following would not generally be considered a member of the safety
and health team for a large company?
A. Dietician
B. Occupational nurse
C. Radiation Control Specialist
D. Marketing vice-president

Answers:
1. B
2. A
3. D

Question 1
What are the definitions of flash point, fire point, and auto ignition temperature?
Answer
• The flash point is the lowest temperature at which vapors are produced in sufficient
concentration to burn, given a source of ignition.
• The fire point is the lowest temperature at which vapors will continue to burn, given a source of
ignition.
• The auto-ignition temperature is the lowest point at which the vapors of a liquid or solid selfignites
without a source of ignition.
Question 2
What is the trend regarding future fire safety standards?
Answer
The trend regarding future fire safety standards is away from the traditional specifications- based
approach to a performance-based approach.
Question 3
What are the classes of fire?
Answer
Fires can be divided into 4 categories:
• Class A fires involve solid fuels.
• Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases.
• Class C fires involve live electricity.
• Class D fires involve combustible metals.

Questions

1- Why a person acts unsafely according to Heinrich’s Domino Theory?

According to Heinrich, ancestry and social environment are big factors of

unsafe acts. These are genetic factors that can be inherited.

2- What are the factors of human error?

Overload, inappropriate response, inappropriate activities.

3- What is a stressor according to Systems Theory of Accident Causation?

Stressors are factors that can cloud the judgement of interaction processes.

1) Which one of the following is not a non-ionizing radiation type?

a.) infrared light b.) microwaves

c.) x-ray d.) radio waves

Answer: c.) x-ray

2) Which one of the following is a not ionizing radiation type?

 a.) x-rays b.) neutrons

c.) gamma rays d.) microwaves

Answer: d.) microwaves

I. Transfer to an authorized recipient

II. Transfer in a manner approved by the Atomic Energy Commission.
III.Transfer in a manner approved by any state that has an agreement with the
Atomic Energy Commission pursuant to Section 27(b) 42 U.S.C.
3) Which of the above ways are acceptable to dispose of radioactive waste?

a.) I-II b.) I-II-III

c.) II-III d.) I-III

Answer: b.) I-II-III

Question 1: Which is not a step in the action plan for Ensuring IEQ?

A) Designate an IEQ manager.

B) Address existing and potential problems.

C) Analyze the air change that will occur outside

D) Manage processes that are potentially harmful.

Answer: C

Question 2: Which is not among the things that EMS should do?

A) Establish comprehensive environmental protection policy.

B) Determine the routes used for transportation.

C) Incorporate environmental concerns in organizational planning, including strategic,

operational, and procedural.
D) Provide sufficient resources to ensure that performance benchmarks can be achieved on a
continual basis.

Answer: B

Question 3: Which is not one of the potential benefits of EMS?

A) Improved compliance with regulations.

B) Pollution prevention and waste reduction.

C) Community goodwill.

D) Bend the rules.

Answer: D

Question 4: Which is one of the actions recommended by the EPA?

A) Water pollution - build more sewage treatment plants throughout the nation as quickly as
possible.

B) City layout - build buildings close to water

C) Traffic problem - use public transport as much as possible

D) Paper waste - store paper waste in large warehouses

Answer: A

Question 1:
Which name is not equivalent to the QM?
a) Total Quality Leadership (TQL)
b) Total Quality Management (TQM)
c) Total Quality (TQ)
d) Total Quality Business (TQB)
Answer: d) Total Quality Business (TQB)
Question 2:
I- Teamwork
II- Education and training
III- Freedom through control
IV- Customer focus
What distinguishes QM from the other philosophies?
a) I, II and IV
b) I and III
c) II and IV
d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: d) I, II, III and IV

Question 3:
Which one is not one of the TSM elements?
a) Freedom through control
b) Sustainable competitive advantage
c) Peak performance
d) Continual improvement forever
Answer: a) Freedom through control

Question 4:
Which one is not the fundamental components through which the TSM philosophy is
translated into action on a daily basis?
a) Improvement project teams (IPTs)
b) The TSM feedback
c) The TSM facilitator
d) The TSM steering committee
Answer: b) The TSM feedback

- Which of the following is NOT a part of widely known theories of accident causation?
A) The human factors theory
B) The accident/incident theory
C) The behavioral theory
D) The systems theory
E) The gravation theory

2- Which of the following is NOT a part of Supervisor Role in Workplace Safety & Health
key responsibility?
A) Orienting new employees to the safe way to do their jobs.
B) Leaving responsibility for work safety to other employees
C) Ensuring new & experienced employees receive safety & health training they need
D) Keeping up-to-date on safety issues.
E) Show employees who pay attention to occupational safety as an example

3- Which of the following is NOT a part of warning signs that safety professionals should be
aware of in a workplace?
A) Employee’s lack of concentration
B) Employee’s sudden weight loss or gain
C) Employee’s talks about suicide or death
D) Employee’s low salary
E) Employee’s the state of being depressed

1. Which of the below sentences cannot be summarized as the impacts of US industry?

A) Difficulty in filling high-skill jobs.
B) Higher potential for damage to sophisticated technological systems.
C) Greater numbers of dissatisfied employees in the workplace
D) Lower levels of waste
Answer : D
2. Which of the following is the correct definition for competitiveness?
A) “the ability to consistently succeed and prosper in the marketplace whether it is local,
regional, national, or global”
B) “only the ability to consistently succeed and evolve in the local market”
C) “the ability to be introverted in the global market and extrovert in the local market”
D) “the state of playing a closed role in all outward markets”
Answer: A
3. What are the Key Areas that result in competitiveness?
A) Quality, Productivity
B) Quality, Productivity, Response Time
C) Quality, Productivity, Response Time, Service
D) Quality, Productivity, Response Time, Service, Cost, Corporate Image
Answer: D

1) Which of the following is out of scope or within the limited scope of insurance?

Farmer

Heavy metal industry worker

Interior architect

Computer engineer

Lawyer

2) Which of the following is not one of the methods that insurance companies use when
determining employer premium rates?

Combination method

Premium discounting

Retrospective rating

Experience rating

S.P.I.C.E.

3) Which of the following is not a compensable injury?

Temporary partial disability

Temporary complete disability

Temporary Total Disability

Permanent partial disability

Permanent total disability

1) Which of the following questions answer can’t be an evidence

of an organization’s corporate culture?

A) Is safety a major consideration when decisions are made?

B) Do the organizaton’s rules support or undermine safety?
C) Do the managers of the organizations act fairly to the all
employees?
D) Are safety and health top priorities in the organization?

(Answer is C)

2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a safety-first

corporate culture?

A) Ceremonies to celebrate safety & health-related success.

B) Recognition and rewards given to high-performing workers
and teams include safety and health-related performance.
C) Widely shared agreement among key decision makers that a
safe and healthy work environment is essential.
D) Organization does not provide any budget for safety of the
workers.

(Answer is D)

3) Which of the following is not a strategy to reinforce a safety-

first culture?
 A) Reward hardworking and confidential behavior by making it
an important factor when promoting workers to higher
positions.
B) Reward safe work behavior by making it an important factor
when giving workers wage increases.
C) Encourage supervisors to verbally and publicly recognize
workers who are doing their jobs safely every day as they
monitor work performance.
D) Recognize safe work behavior by making it an important
criterion when singling out workers or teams for recognition
awards.

(Answer is A)

1- Which of the below is not a safety promotion method?

A) Suggestion Programs
B) Safety Training
C) Incentives
XD) Risk Assessment

2- Which one is not a team player skill?

A) Honesty
B) Patience
C) Punctuality
XD) Laziness

3 – Which is not a true tip for the Safety Committees program?

A) The committee should be selected widely cross-sectioned.
XB) The management should give all responsibilities of failures to the committees.
C) Frequent changes of the committee members can be harmful.
D) The management should be patient for taking results from the committees.

1. What is the measurement unit for electric current?

Ans: Ampere.
2. What are the major cause of electrical shock?
Ans: The major causes of electrical shocks are
• Contact with a bare wire carrying current.
• Working with elctrical equipment that lacks the UL label for safety
inspection.
• Electrical equipment not been properly grounded.
3. What is an Arc flash?
Ans: An Arc flash is an electrical short-circuit that travels through air
rather than flowing through conductors, bus bars, and other types of
equipment.

1) … are materials that have a lot of free electrons and conduct electricity.
a. Insulators
b. Conductors
c. Semiconductors
d. Electrostatic
Correct Answer: B. Because conductors have lots of free electrons and conduct electricity.
2) It is when a current deviates from its normal path and completes the circuit over a very low
electrical impedance. Which of the following is this?
a. Open Circuit
b. Alternating Current
c. Direct Current
d. Short Circuit
Correct Answer: D. Because short circuit is when a current from the source completes the
circuit without reaching the electrical device.
3) An electric arc can leap the air space between conductors and ignite flammable gases or
dusts when conductors are close together or contact to complete a circuit. Which of the
following hazards would this event cause?
a. Lightning Hazards
b. Electrostatic Hazards
c. Arcs and Sparks Hazards
d. Combustible and Explosive Materials Hazards
Correct Answer: C. Because arcs and sparks hazards are about electrical arc. Other hazards
are caused by different sources.
4) Which of the following is not a source of electrostatic discharges?
a. Farm grain silos and mine shafts
b. Conveyor belts
c. A flowing liquid collides with a solid surface
d. UV Light from the sun
Correct Answer: D. Because UV light from the sun causes insulation failure. Others cause
electrostatic discharges.
5) Which of the following is not a tester used to detect electrical hazards?
a. Electricity Tester
b. Receptacle Wiring Tester
c. Continuity Tester
d. Circuit Tester
Correct Answet: A. Because the others are used to detect of electrical hazards.

Question 1:

According to the 15-step TSM implementation which one can not be a planning and
preparation step?

A) Gain executive-level commitment

B) Establish the TSM steering committee
C) Communicate and inform
D) Give the steering committee safety and health awareness training
E) Establish, train, and activate improvement project teams

Question 2:

I) Customer focus

II) Obsession with quality

III) Long-term commitment

Which are from above distinguishes QM from other philosophies?

A) I, II, and III

B) I, and II
C) II, and III
D) I, and III
E) Only I

Question 3:
 I) Strategically based

II) Performance and process oriented

III) Long-term commitment

Which are from above differs TSM from traditional safety/health management?

A) I, II, and III

B) I, and II
C) II, and III
D) I, and III
E) Only I

• Select all that apply. What are precautions to take against radiation?
a) Cancellation
b) Preaching
c) Ionization
d) Shielding
• ________________ consists of subatomic particles or electromagnetic waves that have
sufficient energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.
a) Air dose
b) Restricted area
c) Ionizing radiation
d) Non-ionizing radiation
• _______________ is a hazard of non-ionizing radiation.
a) Organ damage
b) Vision damage
c) Cancer
d) Acute radiation syndrome

1. What is the definition of bloodborne pathogens?

a) Infectious microorganisms are found in human blood or other bodily

fluids. They carry diseases that can be transmitted from one person to the
other.
b) Microorganisms in bodily fluids like tears, sweat, and saliva. They are
infectious and can be transmitted by sharing toilets or computers.
c) Viral infections that attack the respiratory system and can cause fever,
chills, and headaches.

2. Which of the following is an example of an exposure

incident to bloodborne pathogens?

a) An object that contains the blood of an infected person touches

someone’s skin.
b) Someone’s blood splashes into your eye.
c) An accidental puncture with a contaminated needle stick.
d) All of the above

3. How often should Exposure Control Plans be updated?

a) Monthly
b) Twice a year
c) Annually
d) Only when there are new measures implemented.

4. Universal precautions include the use of personal

protective equipment (PPE), such as.... (you may select
more than one)

a) Gloves
b) Face mask
c) Safety glasses
d) All of above

ANSWERS
1-A
2-D
3-C
4-D

1) A ………. environment is one that "freely" allows the flow and free movement of air.
Which word should go in the blank in the sentence?
a) induced
b) controlled
c) artificial
d) closed
e) free
Answer: E

2) A …………………….. contains only specific criteria that can be audited internally or

externally by a third party.
Which word should go in the blank in the sentence?
a) specification standard
b) guidance standard
c) guide
d) technical report
e) Continual improvement
Answer: A

3) An eight-step action plan will help safety, health, and environmental professionals
ensure a safe and healthy indoor work environment.
Which is not one of these steps?
a) Designate an IEQ manager
b) Develop an IEQ profile of all buildings in question
c) Establish procedures for IEQ complaint response
d) Address existing and potential problems.
e) Manage processes are that are potentially useful.
 Answer: E

QUESTIONS
Question 1: Answer B
In which of the following options are those responsible for the formation of a safety culture in working
life given in full?
a) Employers
b) The State, trade unions, employers and employees
c) Occupational health and safety boards
d) Employees
Question 2: Answer A
Which of the following is not one of the main rules of security?
a) Identification of unpreventable situations as acceptable risks
b) Timely detection of developments that threaten security
c) Elimination of situations that threaten safety and health
d) Minimizing the bad consequences of unpreventable situations
Question 3: Answer C
Which of the following is not among the benefits of creating a culture of safety in the world of work?
a) Increase in employee productivity
b) Reduction of occupational accidents
c) Decreased communication between employees
d) Increased job satisfaction and occupational satisfaction
Question 4: Answer D
I. Protection of employees
II. Increasing production and quality
III. Protection of the enterprise
Which/which of the above are among the objectives of occupational health and safety?
a) l c) I, III
b) l, ll d) I, II, III

Which country is the most litigous industrialized country with approximately 70% of the
world's attorneys in the world?
A. UK
B. CHINA
C. U.S.
D. JAPAN
E. Germany
ANSWER:C
When the concept of negligent manufacture was established in the law?
A. 1920
B. 1943
C. 1926
D. 1952
E. 1916
ANSWER: E
Which one of the below choices is true?
A. Patent defect is one that occurs in all items in a manufactured batch, and
sometimes result in
product recalls.
B. Patent defect occurs in only one or a limited number of copies in a batch.
C. In determining whether risk is reasonable or unreasonable, the unreasonable
risk concept is
applied.
D. A key concept in product liability cases is the concept of prudent man.
E. A reasonable risk exists when consumers don't understand risk.
ANSWER : A

1- If someone is injured by a defective product, what is/are the product liability claims that
may apply to their case
A-Manufacturing defects
B-Design defects
C-Marketing defects
D-All of them

Answer:D
2- Fill in the blanks with the correct word
…………..occurs in only one or a limited number of copies in a batch.
A-Latent defect
B- Patent defect
C-None of them
D-All of them

Answer:A
3- The Community Right-to-Know Act gives people the right to obtain information on
hazardous chemicals being used in their communities.It applies to companies that……….
Fill in the blank with the correct answer
I.Make
II. Transport
III.Store
IV. Distribute
V. Use chemicals

A-Only I
B-II,III,IV,V
C-I,V
D-All of them
Answer:D

Question 1)

1) Predesign analysis
2) Test and evaluation
3) Preliminary design
4) Detail design and development

In what order do human factors experts follow these steps while making a design?

A) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
B) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
D) 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Answer:

B) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2 (Predesign analysis - Preliminary design - Detail design and development -

Test and evaluation)

Question 2)

1) Voluntary guidelines for specific industries.

2) Enforcement of the guidelines under the general duty clause of the OSH Act 5(a)(1).
3) Compliance assistance to help employers reduce ergonomic hazards.
 4) Research into ergonomic issues to help identify gaps in the body of knowledge surrounding
this topic.
What are the elements of OSHA's current plan to reduce ergonomic hazards in the workplace?

A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 3)

Which of the following is NOT correct in terms of Medical Management Program?

A) Newly transferred employees can start working at full capacity immediately.

B) The physical procedures used in each job should be analysed.
C) A standardized measure should be developed to determine the extent of work-related
impairment symptoms.
D) Employees' medical records should be reviewed periodically.

Answer:

A) Newly transferred employees can start working at full capacity immediately.

Questions:
1. ……… is the flow of negatively charged particles (electrons) through electrically
conductive material.
A: Frequency
B: Shock
xC: Electricity
D: Voltage
2. Most industrial and domestic use of electricity is supplied by ………. .
A: DC
xB: AC
C: Power
D: Voltage
3. ……… current is the highest current level at which a person in contact with the
conductor can release the grasp of the conductor.
A: Effective Current
B: AC
C: DC
xD: Let-go
4. A ……… is a device with two standard plug probes for insertion into an ordinary 110-
volt outlet and a probe for the ground.
A: Circuit breakers
B: circuit tester
xC: receptacle wiring tester
D: continuity tester
5. ….. used to connect two pieces of equipment by a conductor can reduce potential
differences between the equipment and reduce sparking.
xA: Bonding
B: GFCI
C: Fuses
D: Circuit breakers

QUESTİONS
1)Which of the following is not an inert gas?
A. Helium
B. Argon
C. Oxygen
D. Neon
ANSWER: C.Oxygen
2)Water vapor, although it is a gas, does not conform to:
A. Boyle's law
B. OSHA standards
C. ADME codes
D. Dalton's law
ANSWER: D.Dalton's law
3)Atmospheric pressure is usually measured with a(n):
A. Pressure vessel
B. Ultrasound meter
C. Barometer
D. Vacuum gauge
ANSWER: B.Barometer
1) AIDS is spread by giving blood.
o True
o False
2) ELISA test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is an HIV antibody test. If the test result
shows the presence of HIV antibodies but no such antibodies exist in the sample, which of
the following can be said about this test?
A. False Positive
B. False Negative
C. True Positive
D. True Negative
3) Which of the following is not a way AIDS can be transmitted?
A. Sexual contact
B. Pregnancy or childbirth
C. Blood contact
D. Coughing
4) HIV is spread way more than Hepatitis B & C.
o True
o False
(Green choices are correct, red choices are wrong answers)

Which is not a major component of the emergency planning and community right-to-know act?

A) Emergency planning
B) First aid
C) Emergency notification
D) Information requirements
E) Toxic chemical release reporting

Correct answer: B

A company's EAP should be a collection of small plans for each anticipated or potential emergency.
I- Procedures, coordination, and schedules.
II- Assignments and responsibilities.
III- Accident prevention strategies.
IV- Special needs of workers with disabilities should be included as a normal part of the EAP.
Which one(s) is suitable for the given situation?

A) I and II
B) Only II
C) I and III
D) II, III and IV
E) I, II, III and IV
Correct answer: E

I- Structural integrity.
II- Utility checks
III- Connection speed
IV- Machine quality
Which of the following should be done to resume business after a disaster?

A) Only I
B) Only III
C) I, II
D) I, III, IV
E) II, III, IV

Correct answer: C

Which of the following is not an element of emergency preparedness?

A) Planning
B) Taking action
C) Practicing
D) Evaluating
E) Adjusting

Correct answer: B

Questions:
1- What is differences between Passive noise reduction and Active noise reduction?
Answer:
Passive noise reduction is the reduction of sound transmission using nothing but materials and/or
structural elements.
Active noise reduction involves using electronic devices to reduce sound transmission by producing
acoustic signals of equal and opposite phase and amplitude.
2- What is most common vibration-related problem is known?
Answer: The most common vibration-related problem is known as hand-arm vibration
syndrome(HAV).
3- What are critical noise risk factors?
Answer: Distribution, Duration, Frequency, Noise Level

1) When developing product literature, which of the following should be used

whenever possible?
a) Illustrations

b) Narrative writing

c) Reverse print

d) Technical jargon

Answers = Illustrations

2) Which concept requires warning labels on many consumer products?

a) Latent defect

b) Reasonable risk

c) Duty to warn

d) User feedback

Answers = Duty to warn

3) Together burns and scalding accounted for how many microwave-related injuries
in 1989?

a) 2000

b) 3000

c) 4000

d) 5000

Answers = 5000

THE QUESTIONS
1- Which of the following is not a stress factor in the workplace?

A-) Role ambiguity or conflict

B-) Repetitive and monotonous
 C-) Repression
D-) Flexibility in start times

Answer: D
2-) Which of the following is not intended to reduce workplace stress?
A- Organized studying
B- Having good relationships with workmates at workplace
C- Career and job ambiguity
D- Ability to manage time
Answer C
3-) Which of the following is not a stressor for safety managers?
A-) Ever-changing safety regulations
B-) Regular operation of the shift system
C-) Competing loyalties.
D-) Communication problems with employees

Answer B

Question 1
Which one of the following jobs is appropiate for the occupational health and safety?
A-) Teacher B-)Soldier
C-) Engineer D-) Master of the occupational health and
safety
Answer: D

Question 2
Which four-stage teaching method is not for safety and health education?
A-) Preparation B-) Seminar
C-) Presentation D-) Application
Answer: B
Question 3
Which is not the percentage that educators retain what students learn from their teachers?
A-) 10% of what is read B-) 20% of what is heard.
C-) 45% of what is seen D-) 50% of what is seen and heard

Answer: C

1) Which one of the below is not a primary cause of falls?

A) An object on the walking surface that is foreign.
B) A defect in the walking surface design.
Surfaces that are slick.
D) Walking while chewing gum.
E) A person's deteriorating physical state.
Answer = D
I) Never work alone
II) Don’t look below
III) Keep legs moving
IV) Raise the worker to a seated position
2) What basic information above do those working at height understand?
A) Only I
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I, III and IV
E) I, II, III and IV
Answer = D
I) Preemployment screening
II) Education and training
III) Regular safety inspections
IV) Display poster illustrations
V) Map out the prevention program
VI) Use external services
3) What should be the true sequence of the back safety/lifting program?
A) I, II, III, IV, VI, V
B) III, II, I, IV, V, VI
C) IV, I, III, II, VI, V
D) I, IV, II, III, VI, V
E) IV, VI, V, II, I, III
Answer = C
4) Which material of the below is not a most widely used to make industrial purposed gloves?
A) Butyl rubber
B) Leather
C) Polyethylene
D) Stainless steel cord
E) Aramids
Answer = B

Q1. Which of the following is not true for automation and integration
following effects on workers?
a) Changing the emphasis from physical work to automated mechanical work.
b) Changing the emphasis from physical to mental work.
c) Categorizing work as either mental or physical.
d) Changing their mental state to be more peaceful and stress-free over work
anxiety
ANSWER: D
Q2. Which of the below not affected by VDT use?
a) Accommodation
b) Conjunctiva
c) Convergence
d) Lacrimation
ANSWER: B
Q3. Which of the below problems notare identified as associated with
office automation?
a) Eye fatigue
b) Headache
c) Color Blindness
d) Dryness in the throat
ANSWER: C

Question 1
Early safety programs were based on the three E’s of safety:
I- Engineering
II- Education
III-Enforcement
Early safety programs were based on the three E's of safety. Which of the above are these?
A) I and II B) I and III C) II and III D) I, II and III
Answer: D
Question 2
Which of the following diseases is not a blood-borne disease?
A) Hepatitis B (HBV)
B) Hepatitis C (HCV)
C) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
D) Spring Allergies
Answer: D
Question 3
In the Hawk's Nest Tragedy, many workers died in the USA over the years because workers
breathed dust for long hours. What is the name of the disease that caused these deaths?
A) Silicosis disease
B) Measles
C) Malaria
D) Pneumonia
Answer: A
Question 4
Which of the following developments did not occur before the Industrial Revolution?
A. Babylonian civilization enacting the Code of Hammurabi
B. Occupational Safety and Health Act passed
C. Philippus Aureolus doing research on lung diseases of miners
D. II. Ramses builds industrial healthcare for workers
Answer: B
Question 5
Which of the following is a toxic substance found in old buildings and causes lung cancer?
A) Oxygen
B) Coal
C) Asbestos
D) Helium
Answer: C
Question 6
I. Occupational Safety and Health Administration: OSHA
II. National Safety Country: NSC
III. National Safety Management Society: NSMS
Which of the above organizations have their names and abbreviations spelled correctly?
A) I
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) III
Answer: C

Q1) Which one of the below statements is false about an organizations image?

A) Maintaining nice external image attracts better customers.

B) Image of an organization does not affect its productivity.

C) Image of an organization affects its competitiveness.

D) To be successful as an organization a good image is an important factor.

Q2) Which one of the below is the most appropriate field for a safety engineer?

A) Electrical Engineer
B) Veterinary Medicine
C) Physics
 D) Industrial Technology

Q3) Which hazard group is the mainconcern of a health physicist?

A) Radiation Hazards
B) Toxic Hazards
C) Thermal Hazards
D) Mechanical Hazards

Q4) Which statements below is correct regarding the Safety Professionals?

A) Safety Professionals in every field have the same expertise.

B) To be an Safety Professional expertise in one specific field in related fields is sufficient.
C) The knowledge requirements for Safety Professionals is ever increasing.
D) With current advancements the need for Safety Professionals is decreasing.

1. What are the strategies for minimizing robot hazards?

 Ensure a glare-free, well-lighted robot site.
 Keep floors in/around the robot clean & free of obstruction so workers do not
trip or slip into the work envelope.
 Keep the robot site free of associated hazards such as blinding light from
welding machines or paint booth vapors.
 Equip electrical/pneumatic components with covers/guards.
 Clear the work envelope of all nonessential objects and make sure safeguards
are in place before starting.
 Apply lockout and proper test procedures before entering the work envelope.
 Remove and account for all tools and equipment used to maintain the robot
before starting it.

2. What decade saw the beginnings of broad-based endeavors at robotizing mechanical

forms and frameworks?
A. The 1960s
B. The 1970s
C. The 1980s
D. The 2000s
Answer: The 1960s

3. What mode of operation is used in which a robot is instructed in its motions?

A. Fast Mode
B. Eco Mode
C. Teach Mode
 D. Coach Mode
Answer: Teach Mode

4. What is the only logical reason for a worker to enter the work envelope of an engaged
robot?
Answer: The only logical reason for a worker to enter the work envelope of an
engaged robot is to teach it a new motion.

5. Before the development of machines, how works were done by humans?

Answer: Using Hand Tools

1- ISO 14000 standards are for the _________

a) Quality Management System
b) Environmental Management System
c) Administration
d) Supply chain
e) Source Management
2-In which year did the ISO create the ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) 1956
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1984
e) 1996
3- Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) Environmental management system
b) Environment auditing
c) Life-cycle assessment
d) Quality management system
e) Environmental performance evaluation

1)Which of the following is not one of the names of the QM concept?

A) TQL for total quality leadership.

B) TQC for total quality control.
C) TQ for total quality.
D) TQM for total quality management.
E) TQE for quality.

I. Customer-oriented
II. Obsession with quality
III. Scientific approach
IV. Short-term commitment.
2) Which of the above are QM features from a Safety/health perspective?
A) Only I B) I, II C) I, II, III D) II, III E) II, III, IV

3) Which of the following correctly lists three-phase that can be used to successfully
implement TSM in any organization?

A) Planning and Preparation, Identification and Assessment, Execution.

B) Education and training, Planning and Preparation, Process improvements.
C) Planning and Preparation, Education and training, Execution.
D) Planning and Preparation, Identification and Assessment, Process improvements.
E) Education and training, Identification and Assessment, Execution.

1-) What questions should risk assessments answer?

(a) How severe are potential injuries?
(b) How frequently are employees exposed to potential hazards?
(c) What is the possibility of avoiding the hazard if it does occur?
(d) All of them.

2-) What are the most widely used of detailed hazard analysis?
(a)Failure mode and effects of analysis (FMEA)
(b)Hazard and operability review (HAZOP)
(c)Human error analysis (HEA)
(d)All of them.

3-)What are the goals of a job hazard analysis?

(a) what are the consequences
(b) what are other contributing factors
(c) what can go wrong
(d)All of them

From the following, select the most important component of emergency preparation.
• Right-to-know
• Planning
• Cost
• OSHA standards
Which of the following groups may respond to an emergency?
• Medical
• Firefighting
• Security/safety
• All the above
From which of the following agencies would it be most appropriate to obtain first aid training
materials?
• OSHA
• EPA
• National Safety Council
• None of the above
Which of the following should be used to keep employees up to date concerning first aid
information?
• Vacancy announcement
• First aid fact sheet
• Employee evaluation
• All of the above

1) Which is not an accident prevention measure recommended by OSHA?

 a) Daily check
b) Weekly check
c) Hourly check
d) Yearly check

2) There are five commonly used non-destructive testing methods. Which of

the following is not one of them?
a) Visual examination
b) Liquid penetration test
c) Magnetic particle test
d) Solid penetration test

3) Which of the following is true about dysbarism?

a) Refers to the total lack of oxygen.
b) The formation of gas bubbles due to the rapid decrease in ambient
pressure.
c) An increase in the concentration of oxygen in the air.
d) Can occur when available oxygen is reduced.

Question 1)

1) The purpose of safety promotion is to keep employees focused on doing their work
the safe way, every day.
2) Employers are not required to have rules that ensure a safe and healthy workplace.
3) Ongoing safety training will promote safety in the workplace.

Which of the above information are correct?

A) Only 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3
E) 1, 2, 3

Answer: C

Question 2)

1) Another way to promote safety through employee involvement is the safety committee.
2) Workplace safety is one of the least likely issues to create disagreement between
union/management.

3) Incentives cannot promote safety within the modern workplace.

Which of the above information are correct?

A) Only 2
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3
E) 1, 2, 3

Answer: B

Question 3)

1) Asking employees to sign a declaration of safety does not improve a company’s

safety policy.
2) Visual awareness is important in promoting safety within the workplace.
3) Personal commitment is not important in employee safety policy improvement.

Which of the above information are correct?

A) Only 2
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3
E) 1, 2, 3

Answer : A

Question 4)

A company's safety policy should make what clear?

A) Production goals
B) Budget allowances
C) That safe work practices are expected of all employees
 D) Grievance procedures
E) Increase wages
Answer: C

1)

1-All organizations use team charters.

2-A planning goal would be to revise the organization's employee recognition and reward
system to include safety and health criteria as part of the selection process.

3-People in positions of authority could care less if employees work safely or not.

Which of the above information are correct?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1-2

Answer: B

2)

1-A plan for establishing a safety-friendly corporate culture is based on results of a

comprehensive assessment.

2-It is common for management and employees to view things the same way.

3-Corporate cultures are established based only on what is taught by mentors.

Which of the above information are correct?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1-2

Answer: A
3)

1-The most fundamental reason for having a safety-friendly corporate culture is

competition.

2-One of the worst mistakes supervisors and managers can make is to say to employees, "Do
as I say, not as I do."

3-Safety should never be expected by employees.

Which of the above information are correct?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1-2

Answer: D

4) Which ethical dilemma contributor will the manager include in a discussion with the
occupational health nurse?

A) Advocating for quality, cost-effective services

B) Loyalty to both employees and management

C) Implementing control mechanisms to reduce harmful exposure

D) Encouraging and enabling worker to make informed decisions about health care

Answer: B

1. Which of the following are stages of the human stress

response?
A) Exhaustion
B) Sleep
C) Focus
D) Time-sharing
E) Blood pressure
2. Which of the following is not a strategy for reducing
workplace stress?
A) Employees can work flexible hours.
 B) Workers have current, accurate & clear job
descriptions.
C) Mental health benefits are provided.
D) Encourage shift workers to exercise regularly
E) Management recognizes workplace stress and takes steps
regularly to reduce this stress.
3. Which of the following is not a some human reactions
to workplace stress?
A) Anxiety and Agression
B) Deadly disease
C) Inability to concentrate or make decisions
D) Increased heart rate and blood pressure
E) Absenteeism and Accident proneness

ANSWER KEYS

1. A
2. D
3. B

1) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INCLUDE ACCORDING TO THE ENERGY

CONTROL PROCEDURE?

A_ A statement on how the procedure will be used.

B_ Procedural steps to shut down/isolate/block/secure equipment.
C_ Steps designating safe placement/removal/transfer of lockout/tagout
devices and who has responsibility for them.
D_ Specific requirements for testing machines or equipment to verify the
effectiveness of energy control measures.
E_ All of them

2) IN WHİCH OF THE FOLLOWİNG SİTUATİONS CAN A DEVİCE BE LOCKED?

A_ It has another appropriate integral part through which a lock can be

attached.
B_ It has a built-in locking mechanism
C_ It can be locked without permanently dismantling, rebuilding, or
replacing the energy-isolating device.
D_ It has a hasp to which a lock can be attached
E_ All of them
 3) PHOTOELECTRİC DEVİCES ARE OPTİCAL DEVİCES THAT TURN OFF THE
MACHİNE WHEN THE LİGHT FİELD İS DİSTURBED. WHİCH OF THE
FOLLOWİNG ARE A CHARACTERİSTİC OF PHOTOELECTRİC DEVİCES?

A_ They do not protect against mechanical failure.

B_ They can be used only with machines that can be stopped.
C_ They do not protect workers from parts that might fly out of the point-of-
operation area.
D_ They require frequent calibration.
E_ All of them

Question 1:)
I. Form a sharps injury prevention team.
II. Identify priorities.
III. Identify and screen safer medical devices.

Which of the above are steps to prevent NIOSH needle sticks?

a) I
b) II
c) I,II
d) II,III
e) I,II,III

Correct answer: e

Question 2:)

I. Jobs in Category I involve routine exposure to blood, body fluids, or tissues that may
be HIV infected.

II. Category II jobs do not involve routine exposure to blood, body fluids, or tissues, but
some aspects of the job may involve occasionally performing Category I tasks.

III. Category III jobs do not normally involve exposure to blood, body fluids, or tissues.

Which of the above statements are correct for OSHA guidelines for preventing exposure
to HIV infection?

a) I
 b) II
c) I,II
d) II,III
e) I,II,III

Correct answer: e

Question 3:)

I. Sexually promiscuous people who do not take appropriate precautions,

particularly homosexual men.
II. IV drug users who share needles.
III. People with a history of multiple blood transfusions or blood-product
transfusions, such as hemophiliacs.

Which of the above groups of people are at the highest risk of AIDS?

a) I
b) II
c) I,II
d) II,III
e) I,II,III

Correct answer: e

1) Which of the following is one of the 'DO' Safety Committees?

A) Rotate members too quickly.
B) A one-year minimum membership is the norm.
C) Suggest strategies and options for management to improve health and safety performance.
D) Let any one member dominate safety committee meetings
E) Allow the safety committee to become scapegoats when something goes wrong.
Answer : A
2) Which of the following is true about Competition?
A) An innovation gaining popularity in promote safety & health are company-sponsored
wellness programs
B) The good news is that the number of companies offering wellness programs for employees
is steadily increasing.
C) The two most hazardous off-the-job situations for employees are transportation and home
duties
D) Safety & health professionals can competitive instinct when trying to motivate
employees
E) The off-the-job component of a safety program consists of education, training, and
mentoring to help employees stay safe when not at work.
Answer : D
3) Which of the following is a property of Visual Awareness ?
A) They are also the ones who must follow safety rules.
B) Make announcements; Adjourn.
C) Statistics on effectiveness of incentive programs in selected circumstances
D) Injury hiding.
E) Several rules of thumb can help ensure the effectiveness of efforts to make safety
visual.
Answer: E

Question 1)
How many phases is the model that can be used to successfully implement TSM in any
organization?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: C , The 3-phase, 15-step model that can be used for successfully
implementing TSM in any organization.

Question 2)
I. Customer Focus
II. Scientific Approach
 III. Teamwork
IV. Education and Training
Which of the following is or are the features that distinguish QM from other philosophies?
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I, II and III
D) I, II and IV
E) All of them

Answer : E, all of them is given distinguishes QM from other philosophies

Question 3)
Which of the three core components is not the TSM philosophy into action on a daily basis?
A) The TSM steering committee
B) Improvement project teams (IPTs)
C) The TSM facilitator
D) TSM elements
Answer: D is not core component of TSM

1. Which of the following is true of product liability?

A)It is strict liability only incorrect

B)It is common law only incorrect

C)It is a combination of statute law and common law correct

D)It is statute law only incorrect

E)All of them

Answer:C

2.Which of the following is not a consideration taken into account in deciding whether a product is
defective?

A)The time which the product was supplied incorrect

B)What might reasonably been expected to have been done with the product incorrect

C)The manner of marketing incorrect

D)The intention of the claimant in using the product correct,

E)None of them

Answer:A
Compensation is available for which one type of damage?

A)Loss or damage to the product itself incorrect

B)Loss or damage not ordinarily intended for private use incorrect

C)Loss or damage connected to personal injury correct

D)Loss or damage to property totalling less than £275 incorrect

E)All of them.

Answer:C

1) Which of the following are ways that safety contributes to a company's

competitiveness?
A. Protects the corporate image
B. Frees up money that can be reinvested in improvements
C. Helps companies attract and keep the best people
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
2) A declining literacy level in the labor force can have the following impact on industry
in the United States:
A. Lower levels of productivity
B. Reduce workers' compensation costs
C. Reduce wages paid to employees
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
3) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 P's of the marketing mix?
A. Place
B. Product
C. Profit
D. Promotion
ANSWER: C
4) --------- is the place that occupies in consumer's minds relative to competing products
is called:
A. Product position
B. Market segment
C. Culture
D. Marketing strategy
ANSWER: A

5) Which of the below falls under demographic segmentation?

A. Age
B. Gender
C. Income
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
6) An advantage over competitors gained by offering greater customer value either by
having lower C prices or by providing more benefits is illed: ege of the Middle East,
2020
A. Competition annihilation
B. Target marketing
C. Positioning
D. Competitive advantage
ANSWER: D

1)

Assessment instrument used for safety-related aspects of the corporate culture include which of the following:
A). Employees are recognized and rewarded for working safely
B). Safety and health are high priorities in this organization
C). Our organization focuses on product safety for customers
D). All of there Above

Answer: D

2)

Ten broad steps are needed to establish a safety-first corporate culture. Which of the following are some of
those steps?
A). Assess
B). Plan
C). Survey
D). Both A & B

Answer: D
3)

A disadvantage to incentive programs is which of the following.

A). Injuries may not be reported for fear of losing incentive or ruining other incentives
B). Increased Interaction between management personal and employees
C). May become less effective over time if not constantly reviewed.
D). Both A & C

Answer: D

4)

Enhancements in which key areas continue to enable ever-increasing levels of globalization?

A). Nature of Work
B). Transportation
C). Communication
D). All of the Above

Answer: D

Q1
1-Do employees have the right of due process?
2- Do employees have access to an objective grievance procedure?
3- Are there appropriate safety & health measures to protect employees?
To which of the premises should a company that promotes ethical behavior and want to
create an ethical environment be able to say yes?
A) 1 B)2 C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 3 E) 1,2 and 3

ANSWER:E

Q2
Which is included in some of the questions that can and should be asked while making
decisions on ethical issues?
A)What is your real motivation in making this decision?
B)What is the probable short-term result of your decision
C)What is the probable long-term result?
D)Who will be affected by your decision and in what way?
E) All of them

ANSWER: E

Q3
1- If you make this choice, how will you feel about it tomorrow morning?"
2- If you make this decision, how will you feel about yourself when you look in the mirror?
3- It encourages you to make a decision that would not embarrass you if it were published as
news on the front page of your hometown newspaper.
Which question goes against the Principles for Determining Ethical Behavior?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) All of them E) No of them

1)Which one of these is not a type of nondestructive testing methods?

A) X-ray radiography

B) Ultrasonic test

C) Visual examination

D) Magnetic particle test

E) Bending Test

2)Which one of these is not a true for destructive testing?

A) Tested specimens get deformed during the testing process.

B) Tested item cannot be used for its intended purpose

C) Done to identify the chemical and physical properties of the tested items.

D) Bending test, tensile test are some of the examples.

E) The tested specimen does not get damaged during the testing process.

3)Which one of these are correct for potential safety hazards associated with pressurized vessels?

A) Insufficient or improper inspections.

B) Improper application of equipment.

C) Design, construction, or installation errors.

D) Mechanical breakdown or failure.

E) All of the above.

ANSWERS

1)E

2)E

3)E

!)

The findings of Herbert W. Heinrich's 1920s study of the causes of industrial accidents are which of the
following?

A) Unsafe acts committed by fellow workers

B) Poor management

C) Lack of safety and health programs

D) Faulty machines and equipment

Answer: A

2)

Three factors that lead to human error in the human factors theory are which of the following?

A) Carelessness, training, and management

B) Carelessness, overload, and training

C) Pressure, motivation, and fatigue

D) Overload, inappropriate response, and inappropriate activities

Answer: D

3)

Ergonomic traps, overload, and/or a decision to err lead to human error in which of the following theories?

A) Human factors theory

B) Epidemiological theory

C) Accident/incident theory

D) Domino theory
Answer: C

4)

The systems theory views a situation in which an accident might occur as a system comprised of components in
which of the following?

A) Person, machine, and motivation

B) Motivation, peer pressure, and overload

C) Person, machine, and environment

D) Attitude, risk, and motivation

Answer: C

1)Which one is not included to the major products of combustion?

a) Carbon Dioxide

b)Carbon Monoxide

c)Hydrogen Sulphide

d)Nitrogen Dioxide

e) Sodium Chloride

Answer : E

2) Which of the following are true about the detection of fire hazards?

i. Thermal expansion detectors use a heat-sensitive metal link that melts at a specified
temperature.
ii. Photoelectric sensors detect changes in infrared energy radiated by smoke, often by the
smoke particles obscuring the photoelectric beam.
iii. Ionization or radiation sensors use the tendency of a radioactive substance to ionize when
exposed to smoke.
a) none of them

b) i and ii

c) I and iii

d) all of them

e) ii and iii

Answer : D

3) Which of the following are true about the preventing office fires?

i. Confine smoking to designated areas equipped with non-tip ashtrays and fire-resistant
furnishings.
ii. Make sure that extension cords and other accessories are Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
approved.
iii. Frequently inspect personal appliances such as hotplates, coffee pots, and cup warmers.
a) none of them

b) i and ii

c) I and iii

d) all of them

e) ii and iii

Answer : D

QUESTIONS

Q1)How many different branches in safety and health manager?

A)3 B)4 C)5 D)6

ANSWER: D

Q2)Which is not one of the steps to be taken to become a certified security expert?

A. Apply to the BCSP.

B. Meet an academic requirement.

C. Meet a semi-professional safety experience requirement.

D. Pass the Safety Fundamentals Examination.

ANSWER: C

I. Problem identification is engineers draft a description of the problem

II. Synthesis is engineers combine or synthesize systematic, scientific procedures with

creative techniques to develop initial solutions to the problem

III. Document and communicate is engineering drawings, detailed calculations & written

specifications are prepared.

Q3)Which of the above is one of the design stages?

A) All of them B) Only II C) I and II D) I and III

ANSWER: A

QUESTIONS:
1-) Critical burns are second-degree burns covering what percentage of body surface?

A-) %10
B-) %5
C-) %15
D-) %30

2-) The severity of a burn depends on several factors. The most important of these is:

A-) Age of victim

B-) Location of burn

C-) Amount of burned area

D-) Depth to which burn penetrates

3-) Which of the following types of cold stress is not considered a less severe disorder?

A-) Trenchfoot

B-) Frostnip

C-) Hypothermia

D-) Frostbite

Ergonomic Hazards: Musculoskeletal Disorders (MSDs)

and Cumulative Trauma Disorders (CTDs)

1-What İs The Benefits Of ErgonomicS?

2-Give examples of variables that may affect the amount of physical stress experienced at work.

3-Explain what ergonomic strategies are for improving working conditions.

4-What are the strategies to prevent CDT?

1) Which of the following is not a objective of workers' compensation?

A) Replacement of income.
B) Rehabilitation of the injured employee.
C) Prevention of accidents.
D) Cost allocation.
 E) Hazardous work employees.
Answer is E.
2) Which of the following is or are true?

1- Insurance companies use one of six methods in determining the premium rates of
employers.
2- Each occupation may have a different rate based on its perceived level of hazard.
3- Insurance companies use one of six methods in determining the premium rates of
employers.
A) Only 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 1,2,3
D) 2 and 3
E) 1 and 3
Answer is C.

3) Which of the following is true with Permanent Total Disability?

A) Permanent total disability exists when an injured employee cannot compete in the
job market.
B) Assumes employee's condition will substantially improve.
C) Ability to return to work relates only to work with the company employing the
worker at the time of the accident.
D) Competent professionals can usually determine the injury extent, proper treatment
& recovery timeline.
E) It is probable an injured worker, currently unable to work, will resume gainful
employment with no or only partial disability.

Answer is A.

What is a work envelope of a robot?

A. The work envelope of a robot is the total area within which the moving parts of the robot
actually move.
B. The work envelope of a robot is a moving part of itself.
C. The work envelope of a robot is a thing that is used for covering itself.
D. The work envelope of a robot is the name of one of the screens of the robot.

Answer: A

Which is one of the strategies for minimizing robot hazards?

A. Keep floors in/around the robot clean & free of obstruction so workers do not trip or slip into
the work envelope.
B. Not using robots.
 C. Using more robots.
D. Using robots till it is broken.

Answer: A

Which problem is NOT associated with office automation?

A. Eye fatigue
B. Headache
C. Seeing double
D. Global warming

Answer: D

Question1:

1) Air quality and ventilation

2) Machines and equipment
3) Safety equipment

Which of the above should be checked after a disaster in workplace, before resuming business?

a) Only 2
b) 1-2
c) 2-3
d)1-3
e)1-2-3

Correct Answer: e

Question2:

1) Keep up to date with the latest safety/security strategies.

2) Have an emergency response plan and practice it periodically.
3) Creating an atmosphere of panic by alarming the employees.

Which of the above are roles of employers and safety/health professionals relating to terrorism in the
workplace?

a) Only 1
b) 1-2
c) 1-3
d) 1-2-3
e) None of them

Correct Answer: b

Question3:

Which is not one of the elements of emergency preparation?

a) Planning
b) Evaluating
c) Practicing
d) Adjusting
e) Reporting

Correct Answer: e

QUESTIONS
1)
I. Failure mode and effects analysis
II. Technique of operation review
III. Hazard and operability review
 Which of the above are among the detailed hazard
analysis methods?
A) I
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) I, II, III
ANSWER:D

2) In which option is potential failure according to the

degree of hazard given correctly according to Failure
Mode and Effects of Analysis?

A) 0 = None, 1 = Moderate, 2 = Slight, 3 = Severe,

4 = Extreme
B) 0 = Analysis, 1 = Slight, 2 = Moderate, 3 = Extreme,
4 = Severe
C) 0 = None, 1 = Slight, 2 = Moderate, 3 = Extreme,
4 = Severe
D) 0 = Analysis, 1 = Severe, 2 = Extreme, 3 = Moderate,
4 = Slight

ANSWER:C
3) An effectively implemented OHSMS does not support
which of the following?

A) Requiring employees to ensure their own safety

B) Reducing lost time due to injuries and accidents and
the costs associated with lost time.
 C) Improving the attitudes of personnel about their
working environment
D) Increasing productivity.

ANSWER: A

Q1:
Which is not an EPA designated air and water pollution?
A. Acid rain
B. Global warming
C. Water pollution
D. Solar Energy
ANSWER: D

Q2:
Which is not the type of environments?
A. Induced environments
B. Controlled environments
C. Open environments
D. Artificial environments
ANSWER: C

Q3:
A ……………………….. is completely or almost completely shut off from
the natural environment. Fill in the blank.
A. Closed environments
B. Controlled environments
C. Induced environments
D. Artificial environments
ANSWER: A

1- Which of the following occupations has the lowest mortality rate?

A) Fishing

B) Logging

C) Mining/quarrying

D) Waitressing ✓

2- What is the biggest cause of work accidents?

A) Despondency

B) Carelessness

C) Neglect

D) Overtime hours ✓

3- Which of the following causes does not affect heat burn?

A) Employer has no health & safety policy regarding heat hazards.

B) Employer fails to enforce safety procedures & practices.
C) Employees are not familiar with the employer's safety policy and procedures concerning heat
hazards.
D) Employees not wearing gas masks. ✓

1) Which of the following is the primary reason for accident investigation?

 A) To identify a scapegoat
B) To find fault
C) To take disciplinary action
D) To prevent future accidents

ANS: D

2) What is the purpose of an accident investigation?

A) To identify who could be blamed
B) To collect facts
C) To find fault
D) All of the above

ANS: B

3) When interviewing witnesses, what questions should be asked?

A) How and why
B) Where and when
C) What and who
D) All of the above

ANS: D

4) Injuries/illnesses must be recorded if they result in:

 A) Death
B) One or more lost workdays
C) Restriction of motion or work
D) All of the above

ANS: D

1) Which of the following is not an injury caused by mechanical hazards?

A. Crushing Injuries
B. Puncturing
C. Breaking
D. Falling
Answer: B
2) Which of the following is the most used technique in risk assessment?
A. Affinity diagrams
B. Conjoint analysis
C. Decision tree
D. Linear programming
Answer: C
3) Which of the following is the correct course of action when a machine is operating
without a safety guard?
A. Stop the machine immediately and activate the safety guard.
B. Activate the safety guard without stopping the machine.
C. Do nothing.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

1. Broad-based efforts at automating mechanical processes and systems began when?

A. 1950s

B. 1960s

C. 1970s

D. 1980s

2. The feeling workers have when they are not able to control the work environment is:

A. Meaninglessness

B. Normlessness

C. Mindlessness
D. Powerlessness

3. Which of the following conditions is most associated with robots in the workplace?

A. Neck fatigue

B. Eye strain

C. Work envelope injuries

D. Work stress

QUESTIONS
1) Which of the following purposes does PHA serve?

I) It can greatly reduce the risk of injury to workers.

II) Serves as a guide for future detailed analysis.
III) It aims to increase the reputation of the employer.

A) I and II
B) I ,II,III
C) II and ııı
D) JUST I
E) JUST III

ANSWER= I ve II
2) I)Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)
II)Fault tree analysis (FTA)
III)Hazard and operability review (HAZAP)
IV)Human error analysis (HEA)
V) Rısk analysis
VI)Technique of operation review (TOR)
VII) Field research
VIII)OSHA
Which of the items given above are methods used to make detailed analyzes?
A) I,II,III
B) I,IV,VIII
C) VII,VIII
D) I,II,III,IV,V,VI
E) I,II,IV,III,VIII
ANSWER=D

3) What is the responsibility of safety managers?

A) To control income and expense.
B) Yaralılara müdahale etmek.
C) It should provide the necessary training for the employees to work safely.
D) Human error analysis should be done.
E) Determine the damage to the goods.

ANSWER=C

QUESTİON-1

What is the definition of ethics in occupational health and

safety?
A) It is a set of behavioral rules or principles that sets out
what is right or wrong.
B) All of them.
C) Ethics, examining moral values It is a philosophical
approach.
D)A definition for business ethics is knowing the difference
between right and wrong and choosing the right one.

ANSWER-B

QUESTİON-2
Which of the following is not a question anyone can use to
determine whether a particular decision is ethical?
A) Is the decision correct?
B) Is the decision fair for all stakeholders?
C) Will the decision create goodwill for my organization?
D) Is the decision of equal value to all stakeholders?

ANSWER-D
QUESTİON-3
Which of the following is not one of the three main
approaches to addressing ethical issues?
A) Best-Ratio Approach
B) Black-and-White Approach
C) Free Approach
D) Full-Potential Approach

ANSWER-C

1 - Which of the following is not affected by extreme temperatures?

a) Water Resources and Infrastructure

b) Agriculture
c) Buildings ✔️
 d) Water Resources

2 - Which of the following is correct ?

a) We should go outside in extreme heat.

b) In extreme heat, we need to drink plenty of water. ✔️
c) We should sunbathe on the beach in extreme heat.
d) We have to exercise outside in extreme heat

3 - Which of the following measures should be taken in extreme

temperatures?
I - We shouldn't go out unless it's necessary.
II - We should not do physical activity outside
III - We must take frequent showers so that our body temperature
does not rise.

a) I,II,III ✔️
b) I,III
c) II,III
d) Only I

1)All kinds of policies and practices that affect the normal course of international

trade, arising from tariffs, non-tariff measures and other administrative practices.

What concept is expressed?

a. corporate culture

b. Make it social

c. Barriers to market entry

D. cultural difference

to. Demographic structure

2)The products produced by the enterprise are outside their national borders.

What is it called to enter foreign markets with the same or very similar products and
with the least cost, realizing that there may be demand in other countries as well?

a. Import Marketing

b. Local Marketing

c. Export Marketing

D. International Marketing

to. Global Marketing

3 I. a country

II. Group of countries made up of several countries

III. a portion of consumers in a particular country

Which of the following defines the international market?

A) I and II

B) Only 1

C) I and III

D) I, II and III

1.C

2.D

3.D

1)All kinds of policies and practices that affect the normal course of international

trade, arising from tariffs, non-tariff measures and other administrative practices.

What concept is expressed?

a. corporate culture

b. Make it social

c. Barriers to market entry

D. cultural difference

to. Demographic structure

2)The products produced by the enterprise are outside their national borders.

What is it called to enter foreign markets with the same or very similar products and

with the least cost, realizing that there may be demand in other countries as well?

a. Import Marketing

b. Local Marketing

c. Export Marketing

D. International Marketing

to. Global Marketing

3 I. a country

II. Group of countries made up of several countries

III. a portion of consumers in a particular country

Which of the following defines the international market?

A) I and II

B) Only 1

C) I and III

D) I, II and III

1.C
2.D

3.D

1. What are the three stages of human stress response?

A) Sleepiness, Clock, Circuit
B) Alarm, Failure, Stress
C) Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
D) Adaptation, Sweat, Resistance
2. Which one of the following is not a source of workplace stress?
A) Work Overload
B) Role ambiguity
C) Personality
D) Eating ice cream at the office
3. Which one of the following can not be count as one of the strategies for reducing workplace stress?
A) Working more without any credit or payment.
B)Employees are given information on coping with stress.
C) Employees can work flexible hours.
D) Workers have current, accurate & clear job descriptions.
ANSWERS
1-C
2-D
3-A

1. What is not distinguishes QM from the other philosophies?

A) Long-term commitment
B) Scientific approach
C) Time management
D) Teamwork
Correct Answer: C
2. What is not one of the QM characteristics from a safety/health perspective?
A) Customer focus
B) Teamwork
C) Empowerment
D) Budget control
Correct Answer: D
3. What is not one of the TSM elements?
A) Sustainable competitive advantage
B) Budget control
C) Peak performance
D) Continual improvement forever
Correct Answer: B
QUESTIONS
1-)

I) Noise
II) Radiation
III) Dusk

IV)Gases

V)Meal

Which of the above is not an environmental stressor factor?

A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

Answer:E

2)
Which one of the following is not OSH Act requirements relating to industrial hygiene?

A) Warning labels & other means to make employees aware of potential hazards, symptoms
of exposure, precautions, and emergency treatment.

B) Tests to determine effect of stressors on employees.

C) Notification of employees exposed to stressors beyond the recommended threshold and

corrective action being taken.

D) Access to information developed as part of the program.

E) Prescription of appropriate personal protective equipment and other technological

preventive measures.

Answer : D
3-) Which one of the following is a wrong statement?

A) Fine particle - a particle smaller than about 2.5 meters and larger than about 0.1 meters.

B) Nanoparticle - a sub-classification of ultrafine particle, with lengths in two dimensions

greater than 0.001 micrometer (100 nanometers).

C) Nanostructured - containing physically or chemically distinguishable components, at

least one of which is nanoscale in one or more dimensions.

D) Nanotechnology - technologies that measure, manipulate, or incorporate materials and/or

features with at least one dimension between 1 & 100 nanometers (nm).

E) Ultrafine particle - particle ranging from 0.1 micrometer (100 nanometers) to 0.001
micrometers (1 nanometer).

Answer:A

1. From the following, select the most important component

of emergency preparation.
A. Right to Know
B. Planning
C. Cost
D. OSHA standards

Coreect answer: B

2. Which of the following groups may respond to an

emergency?
A. Medical
B. Fire fighting
C. Security/safety
D. All of the above
 Coreect answer: D

3. Which of the following agencies would be the most

appropriate to obtain first aid
training materials from?
A. OSHA
B. EPA
C. National Safety Council
D. None of the above

Coreect answer: C

1- What are the three factors that lead to human error

according to the human factors theory?
Answer: Overload, inappropriate response, inappropriate
activities.

2- According to which theory, ergonomic traps, overload, and

a decision to err lead to human error?
Answer: Accident/incident theory.

3- The systems theory views a situation in which an accident

may occur as a system comprised of 3 components, what are
they?
Answer: person, machine, and environment.
1. What is the event that causes injuries, mutilation and death of
people when the events do not proceed in the planned course?

A) Illness
B) Accident
C) Disability
D) Injury
E) Personal defects

ANSWER : B

2. Which of the following is in the first place of the causes that

cause occupational accidents?

A) Unsafe movements
B) Inexperience
C) Unsafe conditions
D) Causes for which the cause cannot be found
E) Illness

ANSWER : B
3.Which of the following is not one of the works to be done to
protect against accidents?
A) Engineering and overhaul

B) Implementation of incentive measures

C) Education

D) Prevention of personal disabilities

ANSWER : D

QUESTION-1

Which of the following is not one of the most widely known

theories of accident causation?

A) The domino theory.

B) The human factor theory.
C) The physics theory
D) The accident/incident theory.
E) The epidemiological theory.
Question-2
Heinrich's study laid the foundation for his Axioms of
Industrial Safety, and his now outdated domino theory of
accident causation. Some of today's more widely accepted
theories can be traced back to Heinrich's theory. Which of the
following is not among Heinrich's 10 Axioms of Industrial
Safety?

A) An unsafe act by a person or an unsafe condition does

not always immediately result in an accident/injury.

B) Severity of an accident is largely fortuitous, and the

accident that caused it is largely preventable.

C) Injuries result from a completed series of factors, one of

which is the accident itself.

D) The best accident prevention techniques are analogous

with the best quality and productivity techniques.

E) Most accidents are incidentally and the share of human

error is very low.
Question-3
After studying 75,000 industrial accidents, Herbert W.
Heinrich of Travelers Insurance concluded in the 1920s, that
percent _________ of industrial accidents are caused by
unsafe acts committed by fellow workers. Fill in the blank
with the correct option

A) %80
B) %88
C) %26
D) %38
E) %66

1) Which of the following is one of the most common chemical suffocating

gases?
A) Carbon monoxide
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Sulfur dioxide
ANSWER: A
2) Which type of guard shuts down the machine when the guard is not securely
in place?
A) Fixed
B) Point
C) Adjustable
D) Interlock

ANSWER: D
3) What three elements are required to start and sustain fire?
A) Heat, smoke, and fire
B) Smoke, fuel, and heat
C) Fuel, heat, and oxygen
C) Oxygen, fire, and smoke
ANSWER: B
4) Which of the following are products of combustion?
A) Solids, vapors, oxidizers, and hydrogen
B) Oxygen, hydrogen, and vapor
C) Gases, flame, heat, and smoke
D) Vapors, oxidizers, and fuel
ANSWER: C
5) The result of incomplete combustion of fuel is carbon monoxide, which?
A) Odorless
B) Colorless
C) A deadly gas
D) All the above
ANSWER:D

1) I.Fear of repercussions
II.Ignorance
III.Embarresment
IV.Red tape
Accidents are not reported for which of the above reasons?
A) I
B) I-II-III-IV
C) I-III-IV
D) I-II
ANSWER: B
2) Which of the follow-up steps given below is wrong after an accident investigation is
completed?
A) Write the accident report.
B) Develop a plan for corrective action
C) Implement the corrective-action plan
D) There is no need to monitor the effectiveness of corrective actions
ANSWER: D
3) I.Desicion to work unsafely
II.Unsafe conditions
III.Record-spoiling
IV.Personal belirfs anf feelings
V.Systems failure
Which of the above are common causes of accidents?
A) I-III-V
B) IV-V
C) I-II-IV-V
D) I-II-IV
ANSWER: C

1) What is electricity?
2)How many percentage humidification the
staticreduction mechanism?
3)What is the circuit tester? Explain.
ANSWERS
1) The movement of negatively charged particles
through electrically conducting material is known as
electricity.
2) 65%.
3) A circuit tester is a low-cost device that consists of
two wire leads capped by probes and attached to a tiny
light that tests voltages between 110 and 220 volts.
Question 1: While the personnel working in a workplace is being
trained about the desired behaviors and attitudes, which of the
following behaviors is wrong against the trained personnel?
A) Never assume that employees know how to do something
without being trained.
B) Don’t assume that employees know how to work safely, teach
them how to do it.
C) Never assume that employees know how to do something
without being trained.
D) If managers want their employees to work safely, managers
must be a positive model for their employees when training
their employees.
E) It’s okay for supervisors and managers to shout loudly at their
employee during training.

Answer: E
Question 2: Which of the following strategies is incorrect for
reinforcing and maintaining a safety first culture?
A) Encourage supervisors to verbally and publicly recognize
workers who are doing their jobs safely every day as they
monitor work performance.
B) While giving incentive rewards to workers, do not reward or
appreciate workers who demonstrate safe working behavior.
C) Recognize safe work behavior by making it an important
criterion when singling out workers or teams for recognition
awards.
D) Reward safe behavior by making it an important factor when
giving performance incentive awards to workers.
E) Reward safe work behavior by making it an important factor
when giving workers wage increases.
Answer: B
Question 3: Which of the following is not safety-first corporate
culture defined?
A) Employees are encouraged to make their views known about
the quality of the work environment.
B) When conflicts arise between productivity and safety, they are
settled in favor of safety.
C) Peer pressure among workers does not support security.
D) Safety and health is not an top priorities in the organization.
E) Managers and management personnel make it clear that safe
behavior is the expected behavior in all cases.
Answer: D

1- Which of the following is not one of the negative impacts of automation on workers?

a. It increases stress levels among employees, supervisors, and managers.

b. It eliminates certain conventional blue-collar positions.

c. It makes workers feel helpless and powerless due to a lack of control.

d. It helps workers in their work.

2- What makes robots possibly more harmful than other machines?

a. Their capacity to encode intelligence into themselves.

b. Their helpfulness

c. Their range of motion

 d. Their rapidity of movement

3- Which of the following is not one of the strategies for decreasing the

physiological/psychological issues of using VDTs?

a. Bringing more frequent VDT breaks

b. Arranging the keyboard such that it is in front of the user rather than to the side

c. Touching the keyboard and the mouse harder

d. decreasing lighting levels

 Injuries that are compensable typically fall into one of four categories.Which one thats
given not into of them?
i. Temporary partial disability.
ii. Temporary total disability.
iii. Permanent partial disability.
iv. Permanent total disability.
v. Permanent old age disability.
a)i b)i,ii c) iii d)v e)iv,v Answer: d

 Who Is Covered by Workers' Compensation?

1. Domestic & casual employees
2. Minors & extraterritorial employees
3. İllegal contractors and subcontractors
4. Charitable or religious organizations
5. Small gambling organizations
a)1,3 b)3,5 c)1,2,4 d)1,2,5 e)1,4 Answer: c

 Which one of the following injuries qualifies as a compensable injury under

workers compensation laws?
A) An office manager is injured in a traffic accident on his way to work.
B) A secretary accidentally swallows his gum while in the company lunchroom and chokes when it
gets lodged in his windpipe.
C) A hotel workers falls down the stairs while cleaning her mother's home.
D) A furniture worker fractures her arm while working overtime on the assembly line.
E) A gun dealer shot by gun in hunting.
 Answer: D

1. Which one of the following is not a priority when it comes to Accident-Investigation?

a. Finding out why the accident happened
b. Starting the investigation early
c. Figuring out who caused the accident
d. Finding out how the accident happened
Answer is C

2. Which one of the following accidents warrant an Accident-Investigation report?

a. Getting stuck inside a room because of a broken door knob
b. Blackout in an independant shop
c. Falling off from a broken seat
d. Outage on google servers
Answer is D

3. Which of the following choices is an unethical to do a witness interview?

a. Asking open-ended questions that leave room for interpretation
b. Asking the witness to reenact the accident
c. Intentionally inciting strong emotion on the witness
d. Doing the interview on accident site
Answer is C

QUESTIONS
1) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT THE
PURPOSE OF OSHA?
A) applying fines and penalties to employers that
violate its rules.
B) Establish the rights of employers and of employees
regarding the improvement of workplace safety .
C) Ensure employers provide workers with an
environment suitable for exposure to toxic chemicals,
excessive noise level.
D) Employees are not required to wear work
equipment
E) Provide an effective enforcement program that
includes a prohibition against advance notice of any
inspection and sanction for anyone violating this
prohibition.
ANSWER:D
2)WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN
OSHA ASSISTANCE, SERVICES AND
PROGRAMS?
A) Safety and Health Achievement Recognition
Program (SHARP)
B) Alliance Program
C) Volunteer Protection Programs (VPP)
D)Susan Harwood Education Scholarships
E) The Division of Surveillance, Hazard Evaluations, and
Field Studies (DSHEFS)
ANSWER:E
3) ACCORDİNG TO THE OHS LAW, WHICH
OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE EMPLOYER’S
RESPONSIBILITY?
A) Continuously review workplace conditions to
ensure they meet standards.
B) Take an active role in developing safety & health
standards.
C) Ask NIOSH for information on whether any
substance in the workplace has potentially toxic
effects.
D) Seek advice and consultation as needed by
contacting or visiting the nearest OSHA office.
E) Apply for a temporary variance if unable to comply
if materials, equipment, or personnel needed for
necessary changes within the required time are not
available.
ANSWER:A

1)
I. Natural Surveillance
II. Control of Access
III. Establishment of Territoriality
IV. Record of violence
V. Psychotic behavior
Which one is the main element of crime reduction through environmental design (CRTED)?
A. I, II
B. I,II, V
C. II, IV
 D. I, II, III
E. IV, V

( ANSWER=D )

2) In which choice are the components of workplace analysis given correctly?

A. Records Monitoring and Tracking - Trend Monitoring and Incident Analysis -

Employee Surveys and Focus Groups - Security Analysis
B. Employee Surveys and Focus Groups - Security Analysis
C. Security Analysis – Workplace Violence
D. Workplace Analysis - Trend Monitoring
E. Incident Analysis – Employee Involvement - Security Analysis - Violence

( ANSWER=A )

3) Which is one of the symptoms of psychological trauma in cases of workplace violence?

A. Feelings of competence
B. Returning to work
C. Guilt feelings
D. Fearlessness of criticism by fellow employees
E. Relationshis with family members

( ANSWER=C )
 1) What is personal protection hearing device? And how many types are them?
A personal hearing protection device (or hearing protector) is anything that can be
worn to reduce the level of sound entering the ear. There are types of protection
hearing devices which are earmuffs, ear canals cups and earplugs.

2) What is noise?
Any unwanted sound is called noise.

3) What are the effects of noise hazards?

Noise can cause communication problems, isolation and productivity problems as well
as it can damage employee’s ability to think, reason and solve problems.

4) What is the maximum and minimum level of sound that can be heard by a
healthy human ear?
Minimum threshold hearing is 1db meanwhile maximum threshold hearing without
any pain is 140 db.

1-) How can hepatitis B not transmitted in the workplace?

A) Blood

B) Handshake,

C) Body fluids

D) Tears

E) Saliva

Answer B

2-) Which of the following is not a blood borne disease?

A) HIV

B) AIDS

C) Hepatitis B

D) Hepatitis C

E) Covit19

ANSWER E

3-) Which of the following is not a symptom of AIDS?

A) Night sweats

B) Weight loss

C) Purplish spots or blotches on the skin or in the mouth

D) Forgetfulness

E) A sore throat

ANSWER: E

1) Which is not a research related to the Justifications for Safety and Health Education?
 A) Ignoring the instructions even though no special instructions are given in the operation
B) A well-trained employee is more likely to be safe.
C) There are also legal and ethical reasons for providing safety and health education.
D) Workers compensation management is not sufficiently sensitive to the safety and health
of workers.
E) Misunderstanding of the instructions even though no special instructions are given in the
operation

Answer: D

2) 1)Safety and health professionals train and keep auditors up to date.

2) Managers provide most of the training to employees.
3) Trainers are not responsible for the safety equipment of the employees.
4) Safety and health professionals and supervisors work together to train workers where
appropriate.

Which of the following is true about people responsible for education?

A) 1 and 2
B) 2,3,4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
E) 1,2,4

Answer: E

3) Which is true about the conference method?

A) To be effective facilitators, safety and health professionals; must be adept at identifying
the problem and soliciting input from participants.
B) There is no need to make sure that members give sufficient attention to all the important
points raised.
C) Take the problem as a whole for a regular discussion.
D) Interactive video training should be independent of DVD and PC technologies for
workplace training.
E) Observe the participants in groups as they try to perform the practical application
activities.

Answer: A

Q1/ In which year the Congress passed the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

a) 1940
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 2000
 The Correct Answer is (c)

Q2/ The employers must keep the reports and records of accidents at least?

a) one year
b) three yeas
c) five years
d) seven years
The Correct Answer is (b)

Q3/ The possibility of reducing the amount of the imposed fine or mitigating the
violation depends on?

a) the number of workers

b) the debt of the employer
c) the age of the employer
d) the prior history of the employer
The Correct Answer is (d)

Q4/ The amount of the imposed fine can be reduced by?

a) 95%
b) 90%
c) 50%
d) 10%
The Correct Answer is (a)
1) Which one is not a reason for accidents that go unreported?
A) Red tape
B) Ignorance
C) Embarrassment
D) No feedback
E) To forget
Answer: E
2) Which of the Question is not asked at an Accident report?
A) Who
B) Why
C) What
D) Where
E) When
Answer: B
3) Which one is not a conducting accident investigation step?
A) Isolate the accident site
B) Record all evidence
C) Identify witnesses
D) Interview witnesses
E) Calling the police
Answer: E

Q-1) Which of the following theories is accident causation theory?

A-) The domino theory
B-) The human factors theory
C-) The accident/incident theory
D-) The epidemiological theory
E-) All of them
Q-2) Which of the following is not an example of overloading?
A-) Pressure
B-) Training
C-) Motivation
D-) Alcohol
E-) Fatigue
Q-3) ...... an imbalance between a person's capacity at any given time and
the burden that person carries in a given situation.
Which option should go in the blank above?
A-) Overload
B-) Workstation incompatibility
C-) Human error
D-) Accident
E-) Ergonomic traps

Question1: What happens to the body as a result of exposure to extreme heat?

Answer 1:
When the body's temperature regulating system is overworked, people get sick from it.
Sweating is how the body naturally cools itself. Sweating alone isn't enough in some
situations. The body temperature of a person rapidly rises under such situations. Extremely
high body temperatures have the potential to harm the brain and other important organs.
The body's capacity to cool itself in excessively hot temperatures is influenced by a number
of things. Sweat does not evaporate as fast in high humidity, limiting the body from
efficiently releasing heat. Old age, young (ages 0-4), obesity, fever, dehydration, heart
disease, mental illness, poor circulation, sunburn, and prescription medication and alcohol
usage are among circumstances that might impair the capacity to regulate temperature.

Question 2: What are some of the symptoms of heat exhaustion?

Answer 2:
The following are some of the warning symptoms of heat exhaustion:
Sweating profusely
Paleness
Muscle spasms
Tiredness
Weakness
Dizziness
Headache
Vomiting or nausea
Fainting
Question 3: Which of these facts is true about burns?
A. You can prevent burns by setting your water heater at 120°F (48.8°C)
B. Burns are the second leading cause of death in children ages 1 to 5
C. Infants and young children are more vulnerable to scald injuries
D. A and C

Answer 3:
The correct answer is D. A and C.
To prevent scalds from hot water, check your water heater setting to see that it is set at
120°F (48.8°C), the recommended temperature. At that temperature, it takes 5 minutes for a
serious burn to occur, according to the American Burn Association (ABA). At higher
temperatures, burns occur more quickly: At 140°F (60°C), for instance, it takes only 5
seconds for a serious burn to occur. And at 160°F (71.1°C) to 180°F (82.2°C)—the
temperature at which coffee and tea are served—the burn can be instantaneous. Babies,
young children, and older adults are more vulnerable to burns because their skin is thinner.

Question 4:
Burns are classified by degrees from first to third. Which of these describes a third-degree
burn?
A. Burned area is larger than 5 inches across
B. Burned area is on the face
C. Burned area covers 10% of the body
D. Burn extends through all the skin layers and tissue

Answer 4:
The correct answer is D. Burn extends through all the skin layers and tissue.
A first-degree, or superficial, burn, although painful, causes only minor skin damage, usually
heals in 3 to 5 days, and leaves no scar. Skin with a first-degree (superficial) burn is dry with
no blisters. Sunburn or a minor scald is an example of a first-degree (superficial) burn. A
second-degree, or partial thickness, burn is more painful; it damages but does not destroy
the top two layers of skin, and heals in 10 to 21 days, according to the ABA. The skin is moist,
wet and weepy, with blisters present. It is swollen and bright pink to cherry red in color. A
third-degree, or full thickness, burn, the most severe, destroys all three layers of skin, and
can involve fat, muscle, and bone. Skin grafts are required to treat this kind of burn. A
person with a third-degree burn cannot feel anything in the burned area because the nerves
are destroyed.

QUESTIONS
1- Which of the following is not reasons for conducting accident investigations?
A) Fulfill any applicable legal and/or regulatory requirements
B) Determine compliance with applicable safety regulations
C) Provide information for processing workers' compensation claims
D) Personal beliefs and feelings.
E) Determine the cost of the accident
The answer is D.
2- The accident report does not answer which of the following?
A) Who
B) Why
C) When
D) Where
E) What
The answer is B.
3- Which of the following is not a common cause of accident?
A) To learn investigation techniques.
B) Personal beliefs and feelings.
C) Decision to work unsafely.
D) Mismatch or overload.
E) Systems failure.
The answer is A.

1-) What is the name of the universal organization established to prevent radiation hazards?
A) WHO
B) NRC
C) ASME
D) ECOSOC
2-) Which is not one of the responsibilities of an employer in a radioactive workplace?
A) Employers should provide personal monitoring devices to their employees.
B) To set up sign and signal systems for possible accidents or emergencies.
C) Informing the authorized institution in case of accident
D) To audit the company regularly by sending authorized inspectors

3-) What is incident defined by OSHA?

A) Entering the environment containing radioactive material without protective clothing
B) Accident situation during the transportation or storage of radioactive material
C) Release of radioactive material at a level of 5 thousand times the determined level in one day
D) Improper disposal of radioactive material.

1. Which of the following is incorrect?

a) The economics of safety and health is an issue that gains importance every year.
b) The Clean Air Act is one of the most important pieces of federal environmental
legislation.
c) The natural environment is the only type of environment with which we interact
within the workplace.
d) Legionnaires’ disease is caused by bacterium carried in aerosol form and
conveyed through ventilation systems.
2. Which of the following is required knowledge for safety and health
professionals?
a) Concept of hazardous waste reduction
b) How to conduct a reduction audit
c) How to organize a reduction program
d) All of the above
3. There are two types of standards in the ISO 14000 series:
a) Specification and guidance standards
b) Leading and controlling
c) Safety and health standards
d) None of the above
4. What is the objective of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard?
a) Ensure that companies are prepared to respond quickly and appropriately in the
event of an emergencies
b) Encourage companies to limit the toxicity of hazardous materials.
c) Verify that any existing hazardous products are used in a safe way.
d) All of the above
ANSWERS:
1. C 2.D 3.A 4.D

1. Which of the following is not a symptom of AIDS?

A) Enlarged lymph nodes that persist.
B) Persistent fevers and involuntary weight loss, and fatigue.
C) Diarrhea that does not respond to standard medications.
D) Purplish spots or blotches on the skin or in the mouth.
E) Constant hunger and desire to eat.

Correct Answer is E.

2. Which is one of the transmission methods of AIDS?

A) By casual social contact in schools, workplaces, public washrooms, or restaurants.
B) By giving blood.
C) By handshakes, social kissing, coughs, sneezes, drinking fountains, swimming pools, toilet
facilities, eating utensils, office equipment, or by being next to an infected person.
D) Sexually promiscuous people who do not take appropriate precautions, particularly
homosexual men.
E) By mosquitoes or other insects.

Correct Answer is D.

3. Which is not one of the ways of protection from blood-borne pathogens and bacterial
hazards?
A) Not donating blood to non-governmental organizations
B) To comply with hygiene rules
C) Not using items that have been contaminated with other people's blood or secretions
D) Avoiding applications such as tattoos and piercings that will disrupt the integrity of the
skin
E) To be vaccinated
Correct Answer is A.

QUESTION 1:
In which of the following situations should a safety manager intervene?
A) All the standards of OSHA and other institutions that apply to your organization have been
determined.
B) There is electronic access to the latest standards.
C) Unfamiliarity with workers compensation cost reduction strategies,
D) The workplace is monitored for ergonomic hazards.
ANSWER: C

QUESTION 2:
Which is not a detailed hazard analysis method?
A) FMEA
B) FTA
C) HAZOP
D) OSHA
ANSWER: D

QUESTION 3:
1-Monitor/observe
2-Apply the methods
3-Assess effectiveness
4-Select a methods
5-Adjust as necessary
What is the correct sequence of steps for implementing hazard control measures?
A) 4-2-1-3-5
B) 2-1-3-5-4
C) 1-2-3-4-5
D)4-1-2-5-3
ANSWER: A
1. Radiant heat is the result of?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Electromagnetic nonionizing energy
D. Acclimatization
Answer: C
2. When heat gain from any source or sources is more than the body can compensate for by
sweating, the result of?
A. Internal heat gain
B. Heat stress
C. Body heat
D. Convection heat gain
Answer: B
3. Critical burns are second-degree burns covering what percentage of BSA (Body Surface
Area)?
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 30%
Answer: D
4. Which of the following is a potential harmful effect of the chemical Methyl bromide?
A. Tissue damage
B. Blisters
C. Ulceration
D. Eye burns
Answer: B

Question 1 )
Why should we be concerned about ethics in occupational medicine practice?
Answer 1) The primary motivation for addressing ethics in occupational health must be to
improve the quality of professional practice, in the form of better care for patients, and
better services to industry. In doing so, the occupational health professional can hopefully
find ways to ensure compliance with legal, professional, and ethical standards
simultaneously.

Question 2)
What are the reasons for ICOH to adopt an international occupational health
code of ethics separate from the existing code of ethics for all physicians?
Answer 2) First, there is a greater understanding that occupational health and safety
professionals have complex and sometimes conflicting responsibilities to other institutions
such as workers, employers, society, public health and social security and justice authorities.
The second is the increase in the number of people working in the field of occupational health
as a result of the increase in the compulsory or voluntary occupational health service units.
Another reason is the transformation of occupational health practices into a multi-scientific
structure that requires the participation of experts from different fields.

Question 3)
What are the principles and values on which the International Code of Ethics for Occupational
Health Professionals is based?
Answer 3) The purpose of occupational health is to provide services for the protection and
development of the physical and mental health of the workers individually and collectively
and for the social welfare. Occupational health practice should be carried out according to the
highest professional standards and ethical principles. Occupational health professionals
should contribute to environmental and community health. Occupational health professionals'
duties include protecting the life and health of workers, respecting human dignity, and
developing the highest ethical principles in their occupational health policies and programs.
These duties include holistic professional behavior, objectivity, protecting the confidentiality
of health data and the proprietary information of workers. Occupational health professionals
are professionals who must have full professional independence when performing their duties.
They must acquire and maintain the competence necessary for their duties and demand
conditions that enable them to carry out their work with proper practice and professional
ethics.

1)

Research has been conducted to determine why people do not follow safety precautions. Which of
the following could be these reasons?

No special instructions were given in the operation.

II) Instructions have been ignored.

III) The instructions were seen as unimportant and unnecessary.

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) I and II

D) II and III

E) I, II and III

Answer: E

A four-stage teaching method is used. Which of the following is not one of them?
A) Preparation

B) Presentation

C) Application

D) Instruction

E) Evaluation

Answer: D

Different educational methods are used. There are traditional and ancient methods, innovative and
developing methods. Which of the following is not a method used?

A) Lecture-Discussion Method

B) Demonstration Method

C) Conference Method

D) Interactive Learning Method

E) Instinctive Method

Answer: E

Question 1: Which is correct information about hypoxia?

A.) Hypoxia can be caused by a drop in partial pressure due to a lack of accessible oxygen
B.) Hypoxia is defined as too much oxygen or oxygen breathed at a high pressure.
C.) Hypoxia is a partial pressure hazard caused by a higher-than-normal nitrogen pressure.
D.) When breathing normal air at depths more than 100 feet, hypoxia might occur.

Answer 1:
The correct answer is A. A reduction in partial pressure can result from reduced available
oxygen and cause hypoxia.

Question 2: Which is correct information about daily

check that recommended by OSHA?

A.) Daily check of water to ensure it is at the proper level.

B.) Daily check of low-water automatic shutdown control, recording results of the test on
a tag that is clearly visible.
C.) Daily check of the safety valve, recording results of the test on a tag that is clearly
visible.
D.) Daily check low-level automatic shutdown control mechanism should be replaced or
completely overhauled.

Answer 2:
The correct answer is A. Daily Check, make sure the water level is correct on a daily basis.

Question 3: Which of the following is related to the Liquid

Penetration Test?

A.) A liquid penetration test is taking a close look at the vessel to look for symptoms of
corrosion, erosion, or hydrogen blistering.
B.) Magnetic flux lines created in a ferromagnetic material are disrupted by
discontinuities in/near the surface of a pressure vessel.
C.) Only faults on or near the surface can be detected by using liquid penetration tests.
 D.) Used for detecting foreign objects, similar to radar and other electromagnetic/acoustic
waves.

Answer 3:
The correct answer is C. Visual, liquid penetration & magnetic particle tests can detect only
defects on, or near the surface. They are referred to as surface tests.

Question 4: Which of the following is not a factor

influencing the onset of decompression sickness?

A.) Previous decompression sickness

B.) Being over 30 years old.
C.) Staying at low temperatures.
D.) Using blood pressure pills.

Answer 4:
The correct answer is D. Decompression sickness onset is influenced by several factors;
Previous decompression sickness. Being over 30 years old. People in better health have a
lower chance. Exercise during decompression speeds up the onset of symptoms. Sickness is
more likely at low temperatures. The sickness is influenced by the rate of decompression. The
duration of the person's exposure to the pressure is proportionately connected to the severity
of the symptoms.

Question 1: Which is not an environmental stressor?

A)Fumes
B)Dusts
C)Mists
D)Noise
E) Economic Problems
Answer: E , Economic reasons do not create an environmental
stress.

Question 2 : Which are not essential elements of the Process Safety

Standard ?
A) Coverage
B) Employee participation
C) Emergency Response Plan
D) Process safety information (PSI)
E) Process hazard analyses (PHAs)
Answer :C , The Emergency response plan is included in the
chemical spills regulation.

Question 3 : Which of the following is not a category of

environmental stressors?
A)Chemical
B)Physical
C) Social Factors
D)Biological
E)Ergonomic hazards.
Answer : C, Social Factors are not one of the environmental stress
categories.

Question 4 : Which of the following is not a physical hazard in the

workplace?
A) Noise
B) Vibration
C)Extreme temperatures
D)Excessive radiation
E) Dusts

Answer :E , Dusts are included in chemical hazards.

1. The most dangerous place to use electrical equipment is?

A. indoors.
B. outdoors.
C. near water.
D. near other electrical equipment.

2. You discover the electrical cord on a drill has been damaged and some of the
cord’s insulation is missing. You should?
A. wrap tape around the damaged spot to prevent electrical shocks.
B. check to see if the drill still works.
C. tag the drill out of service and notify the department responsible for
equipment maintenance.
D. make sure that the cord does not come in contact with the floor.

3. The safest ladder to use around electricity is?

A. wood.
B. fiberglass.
C. aluminum.
 D. a step stool.

Answers: 1-C 2-C 3-B

1) What are the most important effects of occupational accidents on the

workplace today?
Answer;
In today's workplace, accidents have a significant impact on
productivity, quality, and competitiveness.
2) What are the factors that contribute to workplace heat burn injuries?
Answer;
-The employer does not follow safety protocols and practices.
-Employees are unfamiliar with the company's heat-related safety policies
and procedures.
- Employees do not use or do not use personal protective equipment
properly.
- Employees labor in cramped spaces, try to work too quickly, or act
irresponsibly.
3) Which part of the body is most frequently injured in occupational
accidents?
Answer;
According to research and data did in work accidents, the most
injured body part is the back.

1. Which of the steps below are important when cleaning up blood or body fluids that may contain
blood? You may select more than one.

[X]Follow contact time recommendations for the chosen disinfectant.

[X]Disinfect using a fresh bleach solution or other disinfectant. [X]Remove as much of the spill as
possible.

[X]Wear appropriate PPE to protect yourself.

2. How should you dispose of contaminated sharps, such as glass or needles that have come into
contact with blood?

( )Place them in a closable, puncture-resistant container in the trash.

(X)Put them in an appropriate sharps container.

( )Throw them in the trash with all the other garbage.

( )Put them in a red bag in the trash.

3. Transmission of bloodborne pathogens in the workplace is most likely to occur due to:

( )Accidental puncture - a sharp, contaminated object punctures your skin

( )Broken skin - infected blood or body fluids come into contact with your already broken or
damaged skin

( )Body openings - infected material comes into contact with your eyes, nose or mouth

(X)All of the above

4. The hepatitis B vaccine is 95% effective in preventing infection from the hepatitis B virus.

(X)True ( )False

5. If you are exposed to possible bloodborne pathogens at work, you will be offered a confidential
medical exam and follow-up evaluation.

(X)True ( )False

6. Bloodborne pathogens can be transmitted by sharing equipment, toilets and water fountains.

( )True (X)False

7. What actions can you take at work to help keep yourself safe from bloodborne pathogens?

( )Attend annual training on bloodborne pathogens

( )Use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)

( )Follow universal precautions any time you might be exposed to a bloodborne pathogen

(X)All of the above

8. Bloodborne pathogens are disease-causing microorganisms that are present in:

(X)Human blood and body fluids that may contain blood

( )Sweat, tears and saliva

( )River water and certain kinds of soil

( )None of the above

9. If you wear gloves while cleaning up body fluids, you should still wash your hands afterwards.

(X)True ( )False

1) MCE_ENGR402_questions_16050311007_mehmetadnangüneyWhich of the
following benefits cannot be achieved by an effectively implemented OHSMS
with executive-level support?
A) Improve the attitudes of personnel about their working environment.
B) Reduce lost time due to injuries and accidents and the costs associated with
lost time.
C) Decrease productivity.
D) Increase the amount of participation in safety and health activities as well as
the perceptions of personnel about those activities.
Answer C
2) Security managers are not required to provide their employers with which of the
following in writing?
A) Job descriptions with responsibilities for safety and health.
B) General safety rules for all employees.
C) General safety rules for all employees.
D) He has to give the receipt of the food he ate at lunch to the accounting.
Answer D
3) Risk assessment doesn't have to response to whıch of the followıng processes?
A) What is the likelihood of an injury should a safety control system fail?
B) What is the possibility of avoiding the hazard if it does occur?
C) How severe are potential injuries?.
D) How did the operator fill his working hours?
Answer D

QUESTION 1 : Which of the following is not correct about ISO 1400??

a) The ISO 14000 Series includes two kinds of standards.
b) The ISO 14000 standard family fosters successful EMS via a voluntary organizational
commitment to environmental protection.
c) ISO 14000 safeguards the environment and organizations whose activities or products may
have an impact on it.
d) The ISO 14000 Series is a set of five environmental management disciplines.
The answer is “C”.
QUESTION 2 : What is the definition of induced environment?
a) It means ones that have been influenced by human activity in some manner.
b) It means constructed to keep dangerous situations from hurting people and materials.
c) It means one that is totally or nearly completely isolated from the natural environment.
d) It means freely permits air to circulate.
The answer is “A”.
QUESTION 3 : Which of the following is not Potential Benefits of an EMS?
a) Ease of trade
b) Profit
c) Insurance
d) Insecure.
The answer is “D”.

1) Which is not one of the sub-headings of the health and safety class?
a) Safety engineer
b) Environmental engineer
c) Health physicist
d) Doctors
Answer:d
2) Which one is not given about the most succesfull occupational health managers?
a) Productivity
b) Quality
c) Cost
d) Self interest
Answer:d
3) Which is not one of the essential ingredients of competitiveness?
a) Quality
b) Response time
c) Image
d) Attrition
Answer:d

QUESTION 1

Which can be the purpose of the OHSA standards?

A. Makes new industrial products

B. Makes new government laws
C. Puts some standards and regulations to improve health and safety in different sectors and
working conditions
D. Treats the ill or injured workers
E. Manages the technic standards in engineering

ANSWER=> C

QUESTION 2
 Which one in below is not of responsibility of the employee accordance of OHSA standards?

A. Inquire about emergency protocols with workplace.

B. Examine the workplace's hazardous materials records.
C. Following an OSHA inspection, have an exit briefing with the OSHA compliance officer.
D. To notify personnel of possible risks, use color codes, posters, labels, or signs as needed.
E. Provide feedback to OSHA on standard creation, implementation, modification, and/or
revocation.

ANSWER => D

QUESTION 3

Which subpart is related to the requirements for welding, cutting, and brazing in the General
Industry Standards of OHSA?

A. Subpart Q
B. Subpart T
C. Subpart K
D. Subpart L
E. Subpart H

ANSWER => A

1) Which one that is given below isn’t one of the sources of on-the-job stress?
A) Control of employees over their job responsibilities.
B) Role ambiguity or conflict; Lack of feedback.
C) A job perceived as being too obvious.
D) Personality, personal & family problems.

Answer: C

2) I) Cognitive: Inability to concentrate or make decisions.

II) Subjective or emotional: Anxiety, aggression, guilt.
III) Behavioral: Accident proneness, trembling.
IV) Physiological: Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
V) Organizational: Absenteeism and poor productivity.

Which of that are given above are the human reactions to workplace stress?
A) I, II, III
 B) II, III, IV, V
C) II, III, V
D) All of them.

Answer: D

3) I) Exhaustion
II) Alarm
III) Resistance

What is the order of the three stages of human stress response?

A) II, III, I
B) II, I, III
C) III, I, II
D) I, III, II
Answer: A

QUESTION 1) Which of the following is not a strategy to prevent slipping ?

A) Choose the right material from the outset
B) Inspect surfaces constantly
C) Not fortification an existing surface
D) Practice better housekeeping
ANSWER is C.
QUESTION 2) Which of the following is methods to decrease hazard levels in lobbies?
A) Monitor floor surface continually, and dry any moisture that makes its way onto the floor
immediately.
B) Monitor restrooms continually and clean up spills immediately.
C) Block off wet areas until they dry.
D) Use “wet floors” warning signs
ANSWER is A.
QUESITON 3) As it is known, regeneration therapy is aimed at five goals. Which of the
following is not a goal of regeneration therapy.
A) Restoring function
B) Reducing pain
C) Reducing lost time.
D) Regular safety inspections
ANSWER is D.

When conducting a workplace assessment, what work-related factors decrease the risk of
violence?
A. Working with customers or the public.
B. Handling money, valuables or prescription drugs
C. Working in premises where alcohol is served
D. Police, security, or correctional officers
Answer: D
Which occupational groups tend to be most at risk from workplace violence?
A. Determine whether your workplace has any of the risk factors associated with
violence.
B. Municipal housing inspectors
C. Consider internal factors such as culture, conditions, activities, organizational
structure, etc.
D. Consider external factors such as location, clients, customers, family violence, etc.
Answer: B
What does workplace violence and harassment involve?
A. Feeling tired
B. Insecurity
C. Physical attacks
D. Verbal compliment
Answer: C

I) Variance control
II) Boundary location.
III) Work group organization
IV) Management support
1) Which of the following are included in socio-technical systems theory?
A) I, II, III
B) I, II, IV
C) II, III, IV,
D) All of them.

Answer: D

2) How can not maladaptation to an automated environment manifest itself as?

A) An urge to quit work or a drop in work performance.
B) Fatigue; problems with human relations.
C) Strengthening of human relations
D) Mood swings; a loss of motivation; and accidents.

Answer: C

3) Which of the following is not one of the bad results of office automation?
A) Eye fatigue, seeing double & complementary colors.
B)Headache, yawny feelings, unwillingness to talk.
C)Sleepy feelings, and whole-body tiredness.
D) Increasing work efficiency
 Answer: D

Questions
1- The nurse will teach the community-based client that the most common cause of injury
related to a house fire is/are:
A- Explosion
B- Falls from second-story windows
C- Thermal damage to skin and body surfaces
D- Smoke inhalation injury
Answer - D
2- Physiological changes associated with aging place the older adult especially at risk for
which nursing diagnosis?
A- Risk for Falls
B- Risk for Poisoning
C- Risk for Suffocation (drowning)
D- Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance (choking)
Answer - A
3- A patient is brought to the emergency department after inhaling mercury. The nurse should
be alert for which acute adverse effects associated with mercury inhalation?
A- Chest pain, pneumonitis, and inflammation of the mouth
B- Intestinal obstruction and numbness of the hands
C- Hypotension, oliguria, and tingling of the feet
D- Tachycardia, hematuria, and diaphoresis
Answer – A

What are the Potential Benefits of an EMS?

• Ease of trade
• Improved compliance with regulations
• Credibility
• Reduction in liability or risk
• Regulatory incentives
• Pollution prevention and waste reduction
What is the ISO 14000 environmental management standards?
1. Environmental management system.
2. Environmental auditor criteria.
3. Environmental performance evaluation criteria.
4. Environmental labeling criteria.
5. Life-cycle assessment methods.
What is the Action Plan for Ensuring IEQ?
Step 1: Designate an IEQ manager
Step 2: Develop an IEQ profile of all buildings in question Existing records must be identified
and reviewed.
Step 3: Address existing and potential problems
Step 4: Training for employees.
Step 5: Implement a facility operations/maintenance plan, which should ensure.
Step 6: Manage processes that are potentially harmful.
Step 7: Communicate with employees about their role. Raise issues and help identify .
Step 8: Establish procedures for IEQ complaint response.

Question 1: Which is the following is not fundemental elements of TSM?

a) Based on scientific decision making
b) Performance and process oriented.
c) Unity of purpose.
d) Sustainable competitive advantage.
• Answer is D.
Question 2: Which of the following is not QM concept with some different names?
a) TQL for total quality leadership.
b) TQC for total quality control.
c) TQ for long-term commitment.
d) TQ for total quality.
• Answer is C.
Question 3: What is the definition of quality management system (QMS)
a) A quality management system (QMS) is defined as a formalized system
that documents processes, procedures, and responsibilities for
achieving quality policies and objectives.
b) Employees in a QM organization learn to focus on what they can do every day
to increase quality and competition.
c) QM organizations base their decisions on facts rather than assumptions, and
they use logic rather than gut feelings.
d) The processes that create their products or deliver their services are
constantly improved by QM firms.
• Answer is A.

Question 1)
Which of the following is not one of the milestones of the Safety MovementAlliance for American Insurers?
I. 1867 Massachusetts Factory inspection is began.
II. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) was started in 1869.
III. The Service Contract Act 1960s
IV. 1968 Olympics Black Power salute
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
(Answer = D)
Question 2)
Early safety programs were based on the three E’s of safety. Which of the following is not one of the E’s of
safety?
I. Engineering
II. Education
III. Enforcement
IV. Earns
A) I
B) I-II
C) III
D) IV
(Answer = D)
Question 3)
Which of the following organizations is the biggset in the United States dedicated completely to safety and
health practices/procedures?
A) The American Red Cross
B) Alliance for American Insurers
C) National Safety Council (NSC)
D) Human Factors Society
(Answer = C)

Q1) Productivity expressed as the ratio of ………..

A)Time/Technology B)Output/Input C) Respond Time/ Quality D) Service/Image

(Answer: B)

Q2) Productivity is improving when…

A)Output is constant but input decreases

B)Output is constant but input increases

C)Output decreases and input constant

D) Output decreases and input increases

(Answer: A)

Q3) Value added is the difference between what it ………. to produce a product and what it costs to
purchase.

A)cost B)time C)technology D)image

(Answer : A)

QUESTİON-1:
What is ergonomics?

ANSWER-1: A

A) Seeking to improve productivity and quality by reducing workplace stressors, reducing the
risk of injuries and illnesses, and increasing efficiency.
B) An academic social science discipline that deals with communication patterns for
interpersonal relationships, social interactions in different cultures, and human
communication.
C) It is a discipline that studies how the healthy human body functions during exercise and
how sport and physical activity support health and performance from cellular perspectives
to whole body perspectives.
D) It is the science that studies behavior and the mind. It includes the study of conscious and
unconscious events, as well as more emotions and thoughts.

QUESTİON-2:
What do human factors experts work for?

ANSWER-2: B
A) Licensed health professionals who maintain and restore human health through the
practice of medicine.
B) A profession to help ensure that equipment & systems are safe & easy to operate by
human beings.
C) Responsible for preparing lesson plans and educating students at all levels.
D) Obligated to uphold the law while also protecting their client's rights.

QUESTİON-3:
What are the occupational health issues to be considered in the workplace?
i) A profession to help ensure that equipment & systems are safe & easy to operate
by human beings.
ii) How they work, their size, capabilities & limitations
iii) To incorporate data into designs to make sure people can operate and maintain
the product or system.
iv) Are there feasible alternatives available to the employer for reducing, abating, or
minimizing the hazard?

ANSWER-3: D
A) i-ii-iv
B) i-iv
C) ii-iv
D) i-ii-iii-iv

QUESTION 1

which is not one of them of the supervisors do or donts?

a) Don't try to diagnose the personal, emotional, or psychological problems of employees. b) Don't
preach—counsel employees on attendance tardiness & performance, not how they should live.

c) Do compansate and cover up employees make up excuses for them

d) Do refer problem employees to assistance programs or to other mental health service providers.

ANSWER IS C

QUESTION 2

Which is the thing we want to employee and employers have )

A) Attacking

B) Retaliating

C) Isolating

D) Coping

Answer D

QUESTİON 3

which below is not one of the hazard, incident, accident or violation protection ways?

A) having people work and travel freely in the company to reduce stress

B) fencing the outside of the company to isolate from outer dangers

C) creating a team that keeps records analysis, monitors and re arrange areas for all types of risks
D) using enough lighting inside and train your personal about the risk sif the training needed again
find who needs

Answer ıs A

1) Select the social factor that has an effect on the ethical behavior of a person.
A) Gender
B) Nationality
C) Age
D) All of the above
Answer: D

2) Select the guideline for determining ethical behavior, which requires you to listen to your
instincts.
A) Common sense test
B) Role reversal test
C) Mirror test
D) Front-page test
Answer: A

3) Safety and health professionals might use which of the following approaches to handle
ethical problems?
A) Best ratio approach
B) Black and white
C) Full potential
D) Any of the above
Answer: D

4) Which of the following refers to morality?

A) Ego
B) Values
C) Pride
D) Legality
Answer: B

5) Select the guideline for determining ethical behavior, which requires you to trade places
with the people affected by your decision and view the decision through their eyes.
A) Mirror test
B) Front-page test
C) Role-reversal test
D) Common sense test
Answer: C

Question 1

Choose the option that Safety & health professionals can positively affect
competitive instinct regarding promoting health and safety?

a) Not involving employees in competition.

b) By carefully organizing, closely monitored & strictly controlling the
competition.
c) Having bias on competitor employees.
d) Make competition unfair.

Answer: B

Question 2

Which option represents that a typical company-sponsored wellnes program

should have?

a) Stressful activities.
b) Neglect employees’ health.
c) Bad diet and unhealthy activities.
d) Stress management activities.
 Answer: D

Question 3

Which one is the correct way according to guideline while developing safety
rules and regulations?

a) Writing exact and precise rules to prevent overload.

b) Using common sense while developing rules.
c) Maximizing number of rules.
d) Writing numerous and complex rules.

Answer: A

Question 4

Which one represents to improving teamwork approach to safety?

a) Not having open communication.

b) Unsupportive environment.
c) Team player skills.
d) Unclear role segmentation among team members.

Answer: C

Question 5

Which one is not a team player skill?

 a) Honesty
b) Selfishness
c) Being Tolerant
d) Resourcefulness

Answer: B

Question 6

Which one of the following is a team player skill?

a) Suggest strategies and options for management to improve health and

safety performance.
b) Neglect committee members.
c) Do not establish a safety committee.
d) Do not listen to suggestions of employees.

Answer: A

Question 7

Which one results in “overload” while developing safety rules and regulations?

a) To minimize number of rules to the extent.

b) Write too many complex rules and regulations.
c) Develop only rules that can be enforced.
d) Using common sense in developing rules.

Answer: B
 Question 8

Choose the option in the list that a Safety Commitee should do.

a) Neglect regular meetings.

b) Do not give responsibilities to committee members.
c) Train committee members so they can successfully carry out their
responsibilities.
d) Neglect suggestions of employees.

Answer: C

Question 9

Which one is not a component of clear direction?

a) Mission
b) Objectives
c) Accountability Measures
d) Having too many unclear objectives.

Answer: D

Question 10

Which one of the following is a team player skill?

a) Being dishonest.
 b) Being impatient.
c) Selfishness.
d) Resourcefulness.

Answer: D

Question 11

Which option does not represents why teams fall apart quickly regarding
potential problems with teams?

a) Frequent personnel changes.

b) Poor motivation.
c) Motivated employees.
d) Lazy employees.

Answer: C

Question 12

Which option represents why teams fall apart quickly regarding potential
problems with teams?

a) Frequent personnel changes.

b) Good chemistry among employees.
c) Motivated employees.
d) Hard-working employees.

Answer: A
 Question 13

Which option represents potential benefits of teamwork in safety?

a) Better understanding of safety rules and regulations.

b) Negative competition.
c) No employee awareness.
d) Neglecting safety rules and regulations.

Answer: A

Question 14

Which option does not represents potential benefits of teamwork in safety?

a) Better understanding of safety rules and regulations.

b) No employee awareness.
c) Positive, productive competition.
d) Continual improvement

Answer: B

Question 15

Which one is not a potential problems with Incentive Programs?

a) Injury hiding.
b) Employee taxes.
c) Unfair programs.
d) Sufficient Budget.
 Answer: D

Question 16

Which one is not a valid strategy for enhancing incentive programs?

a) Define objectives.
b) Developing specific criteria.
c) Recognizing what will motivate the employees.
d) Keeping communication unclear.

Answer: D

Question 17

Which one does not represent how to keep efficient and effective Safety
Committee Meetings?

a) Do not discuss new accidents and near misses.

b) Reporting on inspections, subcommittee work, special assignments,
safety programs, etc.
c) Make special video or DVD presentations.
d) Record attendance and review/approve previous minutes.

Answer: A
 Question 18

Which one is not a valid strategy for enhancing incentive programs?

a) Make rewards unmeaningful.

b) Rewarding teams.
c) Using nonmonetary rewards.
d) Keep communications clear.

Answer: C

Question 19

Which one does not represents how to raise visual awareness?

a) Change signs, posters, and other visual aids periodically.

b) Do not follow OSHA color standarts in visuals.
c) Make visual aids large enough to be seen easily from a reasonable
distance.
d) Involve employees in developing the messages that are displayed on
signs and posters.

Answer: B

Question 20

Which one is a valid strategy for enhancing incentive programs?

 a) Make rewards meaningful.
b) Not rewarding teams.
c) Using monetary rewards.
d) Keep communications unclear.

Answer: A

1) I) Planning and Preparation

II) Identification and Assessment
III) Executation
In order to do TSM implementation in any organization,three phases should be done.These
phases are given above.Select the correct answer that has correct order of TSM
implementation in any organization below.
A) II-III-I
B) I-II-III
C) II-I-III
D) I-III-II
E) III-I-II
The correct answer is B.

2) Total quality management has some aspects rather than other methods.Which answer
below is not an aspect of TQM(Total Quality Management)?
A) Costumer Focus
B) Scientific Approach
C) Teamwork
D) Continual Improvement
E) Short Term Commitment
The correct answer is E.

3) Which of the following statement is not correct for TSM (Safety Management)?
A) It is not teamwork oriented.
B) It aims continual improvement.
C) It is performance and process oriented.
D) Based on training , education and unity of purpose
E) TSM is based on scientific datas and decisions.
The correct answer is A.

4) Quality management is the method in order to mainly increase the quality of the product
and the organization. Quality management as it called simply QM,it also expressed some
other names. Which of the following statement is not correct for these names?
A) TQ for total quality.
B) TQL for total quality leadership.
C) TQM for total qualified management.
D) TQC for total quality control.
E) QM for quality management.
The correct answer is C.

5) I) The TSM Steering Committee

II) The Improvement Project Teams
III) The TSM Facilitator
In order to translate TSM philosophy into action in any organization which of the givens are
established?
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) All of them.
The correct answer is E.

Question 1)

Which organization shown below are not with workplace safety as part of their missions?

I. Alliance for American Insurers

 II. Human Factors Society
III. National Safety Council
IV. American Red Cross
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV

Answer = D)

Question 2)

Which organization below is the largest organization in the US devoted solely to safety & health
practices/procedures?

A) National Safety Council (NSC)

B) American Red Cross
C) Human Factors Society
D) Alliance for American Insurers

Answer = A)

Question 3)

Which information down below is not correct?

A) The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is part of the Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention (CDC) of the Department of Health and Human Services.
B) After World War II, practitioners of occupational health & safety began to see the need for
cooperative efforts.
C) In the Industrial Revolution, child labor in factories was common.
D) Specific health problems tied to workplace hazards haven’t played any roles in the development of the
modern safety and health movement.

Answer = D)

Which material is better conductor?

A) Metal
B) Wood
C) Plastic
D) Glass
E) Paper
ANSWER:A

Which is example for radiation?

A) Electrical cord
B) Sunshine
C) Moonlight
D) Non-metal
E) Mirror
ANSWER:B

Which is reason for convection?

A) Electromagnetic wave
B) Direct heat transfer
C) Chemical reaction and hot gases
D) Raising kinetic energy
E) Absorbing heat
ANSWER:C

1-Which of the following is not one of the test methods used to check whether a behavior is
ethical?
A. Front-Page Test
B. Morning-After Test
C. Mirror Test
D. Role-Reversal Test
E. Network Test
2- Which of the following groups are personality measures in ethical behavior?
A. Ego strength, Machiavellianism, Locus of control
B. Ego strength, Honesty, Machiavellianism
C. Machiavellianism, Locus of control, Focus
D. Machiavellianism, Locus of control, Selfish
E. Ego strength, Machiavellianism, Reliability

3- Which of the following is an approaches to handling ethical problems?

A. Red-and-White Approach
B. Black-and-White Approach
C. Potential Approach:
D. Worth Approach
E. Safety Approach

1. What should product manufacturers do to prevent claims made by product

users or misusers?
The best way to handle these claims is to make reliable and safe products,
which have properly guided instructions
2. When developing a product safety program you must limit the company’s
exposure to product liability. How can you limit the exposure?

The key to limiting exposure is to develop and maintain a comprehensive

product safety program and produce quality products.
3. A product safety program has three functional components, one of them
being a product safety auditor. What does the auditor do?

The product safety auditor evaluates the program and continues to identify and
recommend corrections to the causes of product liability problems.

 What does OSHA stand for what is its purpose?

 OSHA to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for workers by
setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach,
education and assistance.
 What is Machine Safeguarding?

Machine guards are your first line of defense against machine-related

injuries. Incoming nip points, revolving parts, sparks, and flying debris
must all be protected from operators and other employees in the near work
area.
 Examples of common mechanical ınjury hazards?

Cutting and tearing, shearing, crushing, straining and spraining,

puncturing