Q 1. PRM means.

a. Person with Reduced Movement b. Person with Reverse Movement c. Person with Reduced Mobility
c. Person with Reduced Management
Q 2. Which of the following is an example of Cargo?
a. Accompanied bag b. AVI c. Mishandled Baggage d. MAIL
Q 3. Airside Safety status is checked in.
a. AEP b. ADP c. VEP d. All the above
Q 4. Document of Airline Operator is
a. Airway Bill & Consignment b. Timetable c. Boarding Card Tickets d. All the above
Q 5. Security of Parked Aircraft is done by
a. Airline Operator b. ASG/APSU c. Airport Operator d. All the above
Q 6. Size of Cooling Off Pit is
a. 10 x 10 x 10 metres b. 10 x 10 x 10 inches c. 10 x 10 x 10 ft d. None of the above
Q 7. Which is the highest body in India to deal with Hijacking situation?
a. CCS b. COSAH c. CC d. AC
Q 8. Detonator has
a. High Explosive b. Low Explosive c. Both (Option A & Option B) d. None of the above
Q 9. Disadvantage of ETD is
a. Portable b. Detects almost all kinds of Explosives c. Very less quantity of traces are required
D . High warm-up time
Q 10. Which of the following is a Sensitive Airport?
a. Hyderabad b. Varanasi c. Ahmedabad d. Delhi
Q 11. STEB stands for _
a. Security Temper Evident Bag b. Secondary Temper Evident Bag c. Security Temporary Evident Bag
d. Security Temperature Evident Bag
Q 12. Cricket Bat is
a. Explosive b. Weapon c. Dangerous Substance d. Dangerous Article
Q 13. Responsibility of searching the Interior of an Aircraft is
a. Airline Operator b. Airport Operator c. ASG/APSU d. BDDS
Q 14. Safety fuse comes under
a. Explosive b. Weapon c. Dangerous Substance d. Dangerous Article
Q 15. IFSO travel as per the flight schedule given by
a. Airline Operator b. BCAS c. Airport Operator d. All the above
Q 16. Refusal passengers are
a. Disruptive passengers b. Inadmissible passenger c. Deportee d. Unruly passenger
Q 17. Each contracting state shall require each airport serving Civil Aviation to establish, implement a written Airport
Security Programme appropriate to
a. ASTP b. NCASP c. ASP d. None of the above
Q 18. Emergency not related to Aircraft is
a. Fire at Terminal building b. Sabotage c. New born d. None of the above
Q 19. B. D. Pandey Committee was formed _
a. After Kanishka incident b. After 1st Hijacking incident c. After 2nd Hijacking incident d. None of the above
Q 20. Security Test
a. Covert b. Overt c. Both (Option A & Option B) d. None of the above
Q 21. Which is not the effect of explosion?
a. Blast Pressure effect b. Thermal effect c. Fragmentation effect d. Lightening effect
Q 22. PEK stands for
a. Plastic Explosive Kirkie b. Paper Explosive Kirkie c. Plastic Evident Kirkie ds. Paper Evident Kirkie
Q 23. Physical form of Cordtex is
a. Cord b. Stick c. Paper wrapped d. Granular
Q 24. Which of the following is victim operated switch mechanism?
a. Ambient b. Sensor c. Delay d. Anti-Handling
Q 25. When second Hijacking had happened?
a. 1976 b. 1971 c. 1985 d. 2001
Q 26. Aircraft Rule 1934 is for
a. Whole India b. Whole World c. All members of ICAO d. Individual state
Q 27. CTP comprises of number of tests
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
Q 28. Letter "P" on AEP means access to
a. PTB b. Pantry c. Parking area d. Apron
Q 29. STPs are prepared by
a. ICAO b. BCAS c. DGCA d. IATA
Q 30. In which counter measures "Supervision of Registered baggage" comes ____
a. Anti-Hijacking measure b. Anti-Sabotage measure c. Anti-Terrorism measure d. None of the above
Q 31. Security of Fuel tank comes under which counter measure?
a. Anti-Sabotage measure b. Anti-Hijacking measure c. Anti-Terrorism measure d. None of the above
Q 32. BMA is located at
a. Departure Terminal Building b. Arrival Terminal Building c. SHA d. ATC
Q 33. In which of the following type of concealment a Passenger can disguise dangerous good?
a. Disguise b. Dismantle c. Camouflage d. All of the above
Q 34. Who is the current DG-BCAS?
a. Mr. Zulfiker Hassan b. Mr. Shilvardhan Singh c. IAS Tina Debi d. None of the above
Q 35. Radiation level of X-ray is--------------------------------
a. 0.1 mR/Hr b. 0.01 mR/Hr c. 0.001 mR/Hr d. 0.14 mR/Hr
Q 36. MRTD stands for----------------------------
a. Machine Readable Train Documents b. Machine Readable Travel Documents
C. Machine Radiable Travel Documents d. Mechanism Readable Travel Documents
Q 37. Baggage Reconciliation is done by--------------------------------
a. Airline Operator b. Airport Operator c. ASG/APSU d. None of the above
Q 38. Security of personnel is-------------------------
a. To check & frisk all staff holding AEP b. Strong communication c. Police station near to Airport
b. Height of Perimeter wall
Q 39. "Inspection" related to which rule of Aircraft (Security) Rules 2011?
a. Rule 48 b. Rule 13 c. Rule 90 d. Rule 141
Q 40. With whose permission Sky Marshal can carry Arms & Ammunition on board an aircraft?
a. DGCA b. DG-BCAS c. DCAS d. None of the above
Q 41. "Carriage of Birds, Animals & Reptiles" rule is
a. Rule 24 b. Rule 24A c. Rule 24B d. Rule 24C
Q 42. Power of central Government to make Rules for Civil Aviation under of Aircraft Act, 1934
a. Section 5 b. Section 5A c. Section 10 d. Section 11A
Q 43. Which is not relevant in respect of High Explosive?
a. Needs confinement to explode b. Safe to handle c. It requires Detonator d. It explodes
Q 44. SHA searching techniques are---------------------------------
a. Floor to waist, Waist to head, Head to ceiling b. Floor to head, Head to waist, Waist to ceiling
c. Ceiling to floor, Floor to waist, Waist to head d. Waist to head, Head to ceiling, Ceiling to waist
Q 45. Walls and corners of the wall are checked in--------------------------------------
a. First sweep b. Second sweep c. Third sweep d. None of the above
Q 46. For carriage of dead body by air ambulance, which of the following document is not required?
a. Embalming Certificate b. Cancelled Passport Copy c. Marriage Certificate d. All of the above
Q 47. Sunaina completes the Pre-Embarkation Security Checks, but fails to board the aircraft. Sunaina is
a. Valid passenger b. Gate No Show passenger c. No show Passenger d. None of the above
Q 48. In case of Specific Threat Call, who opens the first aid kit in absence of Doctor?
a. BDDS b. Airline c. APD d. Passenger
Q 49. Which of the Following is not a Cargo
a. Accompanied bag b. PER c. AVI d. DIP
Q 50. Which of the following Cargo, loses its nature due to pressure & temperature?
a. DIP b. PER c. AVI d. VAL
Q 51. Abbreviation for CARGO is (IATA Code)
a. CRG b. CO c. CGO d. GRC
Q 52. Which Committee involves Linguistic, Psychiatrist & Negotiator?
a. CCS b. COSAH c. AC d. CC
Q 53. Car parking shall be------------------------------away from Terminal Building.
a. 100m b. 100km c. 10m d. 10km
Q 54. Interlocks of X-BIS are available for safety of----------------------------------------
a. X-BIS b. Operator c. Hand baggage of passenger d. None of the above
Q 55. Part of DFMD is--------------------------
a. Battery section b. Handle c. Transmitter panel d. Magnetic loop
Q 56. TIP projects----------------------------mage
a. Real b. Fictional c. Virtual d. None of the above
Q 57. Which of the following Convention defines Act of Unlawful Interference on board an Aircraft?
a. Tokyo Convention 1963 b. Hague Convention 1970 c. Montreal Convention 1971 d. CC
Q 58. Character of Unruly passenger is-------------------------------
a. Act of Unlawful Interference b. Do not obey good manners on board an Aircraft
c. Both (Option A & Option B) d. None of the above
Q 59. The probability of an attack being attempted against a target within a specified time is known as
a. Threat b. Vulnerability c. Risk d. Warning
Q 60. Responsibility of Catering Security is-----------------------------------
a. Access Control of Catering Premises b. Supervision of catering on behalf of BCAS
c. Distributing catering items on board an Aircraft d. Security of SHA
Q 61. Which of the following is Automated Access Control?
a. Arm & Barrier b. Hand geometry c. Face geometry d. Iris geometry
Q 62. Crew unintentionally fails to load the bag into holds of an aircraft. Such baggage’s are known as
a. Accompanied baggage b. Unclaimed baggage c. Mishandled Baggage d. None of the above
 Q 63. Unattended Aircraft shall be parked at-------------------------------
a. well lit area b. close to perimeter wall c. poor vicinity d. without access control
Q 64. Which of the following is NOT a duty of Aircraft Operator?
a. Security of BMA b. Access Control of Aircraft c. Hand baggage screening d. Issuing boarding pass
Q 65. How much quantity of explosive ETD can detect?
a. Nanogram b. Gram c. Milli gram d. Centi gram
Q 66. Airside Safety status is mentioned in a. VEP b. AVP c. ADP d. AEP
Q 67. CASO is the convenor of a. APSC b. AC c. BTAC d. CC
Q 68. 15th Aug & 26th Jan falls under----------------------------------
a. Red alert b. High alert c. Alert d. Bomb alert
Q 69. Which of the following is an example of Delay Mechanism?
a. Cupric Acid b. Clock c. Sulphuric Acid d. All of the above
Q 70. Who is Executive Committee? A. CCS b. CC c. COSAH d. AC
Q 71. What shall be not done to take off an hijacked aircraft?
a. Runway light shall be turned on b. Runway shall be blocked c. Both (Option A & Option B) d. None of the above
Q 72. Which of the following is not an advantage of ETD?
a. Quick response b. Duration of sample analysis c. Sensitivity d. Easy Scan
Q 73. How many dangerous prisoners can travel by an aircraft at a time? A. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 4
Q 74. Which of the following can carry Arms & Ammunition on board an Aircraft?
a. IFSO b. Bonafide Passenger c. Crew member d. None of above
Q 75. Devices of a specialized nature for use, individually or as part of a system, in the prevention or detection of acts
of unlawful interference with civil aviation and its facilities is known as:
a. Screening equipment b. Security equipment c. BDDS equipment d. Surveillance equipment
Q 76. Written measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference is the
definition of:
a. Hazard Materials Handling Programme b. Security Programme
c. Crisis Management Programme d. Safety Programme
Q 77. Penalties for prohibiting the slaughter and flaying of animals and of depositing rubbish, filth and other polluted
and obnoxious matter within a radius of ten kilometres from the aerodrome reference point, he shall be punishable
with imprisonment which ma
a. Section 6 of Aircraft Act, 1934 b. Section 7 of Aircraft Act, 1934 c. Section 8 of Aircraft Act, 1934
d. Section 10 of Aircraft Act, 1934
Q 78. Rule 141 of Aircraft Rules, 1937 is deals with
a. Aerodrome Manual b. Entry into Public Aerodromes c. Duties of CASO d. Duties of Pilot-in Command
Q 79. Rule 3 of Aircraft (Security) Rules, 2011 describes
a. Duties of Commissioner b. Duties of CASO c. Duties of CEO d. All the above
Q 80. A pregnant woman comes and denies to be screened through metal detector. What action would you take as a
screener?
a. don't allow without metal detector check b. convince that the metal detector is safe for pregnant woman
c. conduct pat down search d. she is bound to go through metal detector ?
Q 81. A Passenger reported for screening having crutches is not fit through the X-Ray machine what the screener should
do?
a. hand inspection of equipment will be done b. Passenger will not be allowed
c. on humanity ground, that is allowed d. Passenger will be allowed without crutches
Q 82. A screener found insulin pump in the hand baggage of pax while x-ray screening. what he should do?
a. Insulin is not prohibited item so allow the passenger b. Insulin is not allowed
 c. Insulin should be carried in registered baggage d. Ensure insulin must accompany printed label
Q 83. Sikh passenger wants to carry kirpan on flight which is routed as Chennai-Mumbai-London. Will you allow
him to carry kirpan on person.
a. Kirpan is allowed from Chennai-Mumbai and at Mumbai kirpan will be offloaded and kept in registered baggage
b. Kirpan will be allowed on person on Chennai –Mumbai-London flight
c. Kirpan would have to be carried in checked-in baggage only from Chennai itself
d. Suggest the passenger to catch a direct flight from Chennai to London where Kirpan can be allowed to be carried
Q 84. An evaluation of security needs including the identification of vulnerabilities
which could be exploited to carry out an act of unlawful interference, and the re commendation of corrective actions.
a. Security Survey b. Security Test c. Security Inspection d. Security Audit
Q 85. Cargo and mail departing on an aircraft other than that on which it arrived is known as:
a. Cargo b. Transfer cargo and mail c. Transshipment cargo and mail d. Mishandled Cargo and Mail
Q 86. Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP
a. CASO b. ICAO c. DG-BCAS d. IATA
Q 87. Who is responsible for PEC? A. Airlines b. APD c. ASG /APSU d. CASO
Q 88. Who will ensure implementation of the security controls on and protection from unauthorized interference with
supplies of liquids, gels and aerosols (LAGs) or supplies of secure tamper-evident bags (STEBs), respectively, from their
first point of entry
a. Known supplier of LAGs and/or Known supplier of STEBs. B. Airport Operator
c. ASG/CISF d. Airlines Operator
Q 89. Which colour was assigned for identification and categorization of bomb threat as "Non-Specific"
a. Green b. Red c. Amber d. Blue
Q 90. Why Security awareness training is provided for all Airport workers ?
a. To identify unattended baggage b. To recognize suspicious behavior
C. To become security professional d. To know security activities
Q 91. What technology been used for effective detection of explosives at Airside and landside ?
a. Detection dogs b. HHMD c. DFMD d. X-BIS
Q 92. Which agency shall be responsible for deployment of Armed Personnel at lighting and boarding points?
a. Airport Operator b. NSG c. RD,BCAS d. ASG
Q 93. who is responsible for protecting the passenger drop-off and pick-up areas and terminal frontages to prevent
vehicles being left unattended that can be used to commit an act of unlawful interference.
a. CISF & Locale Police b. Airport Operator& Regulated Agent c. CISF & BCAS d. Locale Police & NSG
Q 94. Car parking area should be approximately what distance from the Terminal building?
a. 200 meters (approx.) b. 300 meters (approx.) c. 100 meters (approx.) d. 150 meters (approx.)
Q 95. How many elevated concrete fortified Morchas / pickets, covered with cone type roofs & anti grenade nets have
to provided at entry naka to the terminals, departure and arrival forecourt? A. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Q 96. On what basis random Screening of passenger and baggage will be carried out at entry gates to the terminal
building?
a. behavior detection and risk assessment. B. in compliance to directions issued by Terminal Manager
c. in compliance to directions issued by Commissioner of Police d. Intelligent inputs from IB and CBI
Q 97. What is the abbreviation of PBIED?
a. Person borne IED b. Personnel built IED c. Permanent based IED d. Programable based IED
Q 98. What is the abbreviation of VBIED?
a. Variable blinking IED b. Various bag IED c. Vehicle borne IED d. Vehicle build IED
Q 99. Land side security is responsibility of
a. Airline operator b. Aircraft operator c. ASG & Local police d. Custom & Immigration
Q 100. What is the abbreviation of LPR?
a. Low plastic reader b. License plate reader c. Laminated plastic reader d. Low performance rays