‫هذا الملف يشمل أسئلة امتحان البرومتريك للمختصين في جراحة الوجه والفكين تم تقسيم األسئلة‬

‫حسب العنوان الموجود فوق كل مجموعة األسئلة واألفضل قارئة الموضوع حول كل سؤال‬
Question sectioned according to topics: (Better to read full topic of each question)

‫أسئلة الدكتور أحمد مصطفى‬

PATIENT ASSESEMENT AND MANAGEMENT
1. A hypertensive patient is scheduled for surgery. What antihypertensive drugs should
not be taken the morning of surgery
a) Thiazide diuretics
b) ACE Inhibitors
c) Calcium channel blockers

In patients with mild or moderate hypertension, chronic treatment with calcium channel
blockers, ACE inhibitors, diuretics, and β-blockers does not cause exaggerated hypotensive
responses to induction of anaesthesia. However, ACE inhibitors have been reported to cause
hypotension if they are given on the morning of surgery, especially if large doses are used.
Therefore, some authors recommend omitting the morning dose of ACE inhibitors. This
practice, however, may increase the need for active management of hypertensive episodes.
The need to stop therapy the day before surgery is recommended for angiotensin II receptor
antagonists because of the risk of refractory hypotension.

2. Anisocoria refers to
a. Uneven pupils
b. Corneal Lacerations
c. Corneal injury with penetration wound
d. Pupils which do not constrict

3. An unconscious patient undergoing CPR, the respiration changes that needs to be

made
a. Continue with the same rate of 30 compressions with 2 breaths
 b. 12 cycle per minute

4. Pt is on warfarin therapy. What is way to continue treatment

a. Vit K (FFP best antidote)
b. Stop 24 hrs before
c. Consult with his haematologist
d. No need to stop carry on with Xn
5. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in pt with bronchial asthma
a. NSAIDS
b. Acetaminafen
c. Beta Blockers
d. Pencillin

6. The skin over the parotid is supplied by which nerve

a. Facial
b. Auriculotemporal
c. Greater Auricular
d. Branches of the cervical trunk ‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬
 ‫‪7. A 34 year old female patient is rushed to the ER following MVA. Her limbs are cold‬‬
‫‪and clammy. The following vitals were recorded.‬‬
‫‪1. BP- 100/60 mm of Hg‬‬
‫‪2. HR- 100 /min‬‬
‫‪3. Temperature – 35.3 deg centigrade‬‬
‫‪4. Urine – negligible‬‬

‫‪8. She is in which stage of shock‬‬

‫‪a. 1‬‬
‫‪b. 2‬‬
‫‪c. 3‬‬
‫‪d. 4‬‬

‫‪---- 1‬فقدان لحد ‪ %15‬يعني ‪ 750‬مل يظهر فقط تسرع قلب‬

‫‪--- 2‬فقدان ‪ %30-15‬يعني ‪ 750‬الى ‪ 1500‬مل يظهر تسرع قلب تسرع تنفس انخفاض الضغط النبضي (الف••رق بين‬
‫االنقباض••ي واالنبس••اطي ) س••ببه ارتف••اع االنبس••اطي وهي رد فع••ل ط••بيعي كنتيج••ة الرتف••اع المقاوم••ة المحيطي••ة بس••بب‬
‫الكاتيكوالمين ‪.‬تحدث تأثيرات مبكرة على الجهاز العصبي تودي الى القلق ومع الوقت قلق بسيط‪ .‬يقل البول‬
‫‪ 1500-2000 40%-30%--- 3‬مل (غالبا ‪ 3‬لتر في البالغ ) كل وعالمات وأعراض الصدمة واضحة‬
‫‪--- 4‬التي فقدت أكثر من ‪ ٪40‬من حجم الدم في النزيف‪ .‬المريض هو بارد‬
‫وشاحب مع خسائر كبيرة في ضغط الدم‪ ،‬ضغط النبض بسيط والبول ال يوجد‪ ،‬والحالة العقلية مضطربة‬
‫‪.‬‬

‫‪9.‬‬ ‫‪Which of the following is not a secondary immunocompromised state‬‬

‫‪a.‬‬ ‫‪Malnutrition‬‬
‫‪b.‬‬ ‫‪Anemia‬‬
‫‪c.‬‬ ‫ابيضاض الدم ‪Luekemia‬‬
‫‪d.‬‬ ‫قلة اللمفاويات ‪Lymphocytopenia‬‬
 ‫االولي مجهول السبب‬

10. The lymphatic drainage of the Submandibular gland is

a. Submental
b. Submandibular
c. Deep cervical
d. Superficial cervical

The deep cervical lymph nodes are located along the length of the internal jugular vein on each side
of the neck, deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The deep cervical nodes extend from the base
of the skull to the root of the neck, adjacent to the pharynx, esophagus, and trachea. The deep cervical
nodes are further classified as to their relationship to the sternocleidomastoid muscle as being
superior or inferior.
The deep cervical lymph nodes are responsible for the drainage of most of the circular chain of
nodes, and they receive direct efferents from the salivary and thyroid glands, the POSTERIOR THIRD
OF tongue, the
tonsil, the nose, the pharynx, and the larynx. All these vessels join together to form the jugular
lymph trunk. This vessel drains into either the thoracic duct on the left, the right lymphatic
duct on the right, or it independently drains into either the internal jugular, subclavian, or
brachiocephalic veins.
Some regional groups of lymph nodes:
• Parotid lymph nodes - receive lymph from a strip of scalp above the parotid salivary gland,
from the anterior wall of the external auditory meatus, and from the lateral parts of the eyelids
and middle ear. The efferent lymph vessels drain into the deep cervical nodes.
• Submandibular lymph nodes - located between the submandibular gland and the mandible;
receive lymph from the front of the scalp, the nose, and adjacent cheek; the upper lip and lower
lip (except the center part); the paranasal sinuses; the maxillary and mandibular teeth (except
the mandibular incisors); the anterior two-thirds of the tongue (except the tip); the floor of the
mouth and vestibule; and the gingiva. The efferent lymph vessels drain into the deep cervical
nodes.
• Submental lymph nodes - located behind the chin and on the mylohyoid muscle; receive
lymph from the tip of the tongue, the floor of the mouth beneath the tip of the tongue, the
mandibular incisor teeth and associated gingiva, the center part of the lower lip, and the
skin over the chin. The efferent lymph vessels drain into the submandibular and deep
cervical nodes.

11. Which of the following values would you term to be hyper tensive
a. 135/85
b. 140/90
c. 145/95
d. 150/90‫جاااااااااااااااااااااه‬
 12. 18 year old girl is predisposed to fainting attacks and gives a positive history of
syncope and shortness of breath. Her examination reveals a mid systolic click and
a late systolic murmur. She is on GTN and anti hypertensives. The dental
treatment for such a patient includes
a. SABE prophylaxis
b. Do nothing
c.
d.

Cardiac Conditions Stratification for Risk of Endocarditis

Endocarditis Prophylaxis Recommended
High Risk
Prosthetic heart valves
Surgically constructed systemic pulmonary
shunts or conduits
Complex cyanotic congenital heart disease
Prior bacterial endocarditis
Moderate Risk
Most other congenital cardiac malformations
Acquired valvular dysfunction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation and/
or thickened leaflets

Endocarditis Prophylaxis Not Recommended

Negligible Risk
Isolated secundum atrial septal defect
Surgical repair of atrial septal defect, ventricular septal
defect, or patent ductus arteriosus
Prior coronary artery bypass graft
Mitral valve prolapse
‫باإلنجليزية( نسدال الصمام التاجي أو تدلي الصمام التاجي‬: Mitral valve prolapse-MVP)
‫( ويعرف أيضًا بمتالزمة القلقة أو التكة‬click murmur syndrome) ‫( أو متالزمة بارلو‬Barlow's syndrome) .

Physiologic, functional, or innocent heart murmurs

Previous Kawasaki disease without valvular dysfunction
Previous rheumatic fever without valvular dysfunction
Cardiac pacemakers and implanted defibrillators
 )Mitral valve prolapse-MVP :‫انسدال الصمام التاجي أو تدلي الصمام التاجي (باإلنجليزية‬
‫ًا‬
‫( ويعرف أيض بمتالزمة القلقة أو التكة‬click murmur syndrome) ‫( أو متالزمة بارلو‬Barlow's syndrome) .

13. A 54 year old man with a ho of type 2 DM is diagnose and taking treatment with
Glipizide and diet control and exercise. His blood reports are as follows RBS,
FBS, PPBS, glycosylated Hb. (All within normal values)(THEY HAVE GIVEN
THE RANGE)
What is the mode of tretament for him
a. Infective prophylaxis
b. No change in treatment
c. 2 other choices I cant remember
 14. What feature is seen in renal failure is:
a. Hypocalcemia++ (Hyperkalemia + Hypocalcemia + HyperMagnesemia)
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. alkalosis‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

15. - Buccal branch of facial nerve supplies:

A. Buccinator
B. Buccinator and inferior orbicularis
C. Buccinator and superior orbicularis
D. Buccinator and orbicularis oris++

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4l4Nvtt95Rc

16. - In an upright position, blood from medial canthus, lateral nose and upper lip
drains into:
A. Inferiorly to the facial vein
B. Superiorly to facial vein
C. Cavernous sinus
D. Pterygoid plexus
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PhhnJEz8E_E

17. After doing CPR to an adult patient the pulse returns but without breath.
Management is:
A. Provide rescue breathing at rate of 10-12/mint ++
B. Provide rescue breathing at rate of 5-6/mint
C. Put the patient in recovery position ‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

18. All is true about facial nerve except:

A. The facial nerve leaves the skull with accessory nerve through the jugular foramen +
+
(The facial nerve leaves the skull stylomastoid foramen ‫ االبرية الخشائية‬and accessory nerve
through the jugular foramen‫)الوداجية‬

19. Skin below the ear covering the parotid gland is supplied by:
A. Superficial temporal
B. Greater auricular++
C. Temporal nerve

20. Chemotherapy results in

A. Reduced count of WBC
B. Reduced count and function of WBC
C. Reduced function but normal count
D. Reduced count but normal function
 21. What is the size of Maxillary Sinus:
A. 14 ML ++
B. 20ML
C. 9M?

22. Cell life cycle phases

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

23. The five soft plate muscles arise from (controversial question with no answer)
A. Hard palate
B. Palatal bone
C. Base of skull
D. Palatopharyngeal arch
 ‫ راجع العنوان‬http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soft_palate

The five muscles of the soft palate, play important roles in swallowing and breathing. The
muscles are:

1. Tensor veli palatini, which is involved in swallowing

2. Palatoglossus, involved in swallowing
3. Palatopharyngeus, involved in breathing
4. Levator veli palatini, involved in swallowing
5. Musculus uvulae, which moves the uvula

These muscles are innervated by the pharyngeal plexus via the vagus nerve, with the
exception of the tensor veli palatini. The tensor veli palatini is innervated by cranial nerve
5 branch V3 (which is the mandibular division of the trigeminal cranial nerve). [2]:10
‫او الموترة للحنك والتي تعصب من القحفي الخامس فرع الفكي السفلي‬ ‫اهذه العضالت تعصب من الضفيرة البلعومية عبر المبهم عدا الموترة للحفاف‬

0
 24. Best plain film to show maxillary sinus and orbital rim
A. Caldwell view
B. Water view ++
C. Lateral oblique
 25. Antibiotic for empiric treatment in end stage renal deficiency is:
A. Flagyl
B. Doxycillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Penicillin

26. Ibuprofen:
A. Peak effect (concentration) after 6-8 hours of administration
B. Initial secretion is via liver biliary rout
C. Mostly found bound to plasma protein ++‫غالبا ما يكون مرتبط ببروتين البالسما‬
 27. Secondary immunodeficiency is associated with all except
A. Malnutrition
B. Anemia ++ (Refer Abubaker pg 208)
C. Immunodeficiency drugs
D. Steroid

28. Patient has been treated for rheumatoid arthritis was taking steroids for the last
year and he needs multiple tooth extraction. The surgeon should
A. Give supplement 50-100mg before surgery
B. Give 100-150mg steroid supplment
C. Proceed extraction without steroid supplement ‫جااااااااااااااااه‬
 29. Cyclosporin effect is
A. Increase T-Lymphocytes and decrease B-Lymphocytes
B. Increase T-Lymphocytes and B-Lymphocytes
C. Decrease T-Lymphocyte and increase B-Lymphocytes
D. Affect T-Lymphocytes only++
 30. Following statement is true about ibuprofen
a. It cannot cross placenta
b. It mainly excreted by hepatobiliary route
c. Its peak plasma level after 6 to 8 hr
d. Its largely bound to plasma protein ‫يطرح عن طريق الكلية‬
‫يعبر المشيمة ويطرح عن طريق الكليةويتوقف دوره على بروتين البالسما‬

31. 24 year women with history of fatigue(‫ )تعب‬and lethargy(‫ )سبات‬and history of
syncope. Clinically mid systolic click with late systolic murmur. Probably she is
suffering from
a. Hypertrohic Cardiomyopathy
b. Mitral valve prolapse ‫هبوط الصمام التاجي عند االناث الصغيرات‬
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Mitral stenosis

)Mitral valve prolapse-MVP :‫انسدال الصمام التاجي أو تدلي الصمام التاجي (باإلنجليزية‬
‫( ويعرف أيضًا بمتالزمة القلقة أو التكة‬click murmur syndrome) ‫( أو متالزمة بارلو‬Barlow's syndrome) .

32. 24 year woman with history of fall with fracture central incisor comes to the clinic
for extraction and immediate implant placement. She gives history of fatigue and
lethargy and history of syncope. Clinically mid systolic click with late systolic
murmur. What is your line of management in this pt
a. Avoid local anaesthesia with vasoconstriction
b. SABE prophylaxsis
c. Lab investigation for bleeding problem
d. Do nothing

33. Fluid of choice in surgical shock

a. NS
b. DNS
c. RL
 d. Plasma

34. Hepatitis B can be transmitted by all except (controversial)

a. Dialysis‫غسل الكال‬
b. Blood products ‫منتجات الدم‬
c. Transfusion‫نقل الدم‬
d. Child birth

35. Increase serum sodium level (hypernatraemia)

a. Dehydration
b. Renal problem
c. Liver problem
d. GIT\‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬
Hypernatremia or hypernatraemia is an elevated sodium level in the blood.[1]
Hypernatremia is generally not caused by an excess of sodium, but rather by a relative
deficit of free water in the body. For this reason, hypernatremia often coincides with
dehydration.

36. DM period of control evaluation ((((dm ‫))))السكري المعتمد على االنسلين‬

a. HbA1c
b. FBS
c. GTT
d. 24 hr serum creatinine
37. COPD pt for extraction of multiple teeth you will give
a. 2.5 L oxygen
b. 4L oxygen
c. 6L oxygen
d. No need if its only COPD ‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬
 38. Nerve through internal acoustic meatus ‫الِّصماُخ الَّس ْم ِعُّي الَباِطن‬
a. CN 9
b. CN 10
c. CN 7
d. CN 6

39. True about penicillin is

a. Narrow spectrum
b. Broad spectrum
c. Bacteriostatic
d. Highly toxic

40. Management of hypoglycemic shock in Dextrose IV

Intravenous glucose
If a person cannot receive oral glucose gel or tablets, such as the case with
unconsciousness, seizures, or altered mental status, then emergency personnel
(EMTs/Paramedics and in-hospital personnel) can establish a peripheral or central IV
line and administer a solution containing dextrose and saline. These are normally
referred to as Dextrose (Concentration) Water, and come in 5%, 10%, 25% and 50%.
Dextrose 5% and 10% come in IV bag and syringe form, and are mainly used in
infants and to provide a fluid medium for medications. Dextrose 25% and 50% are
heavily necrotic due to their hyperosmolarity, and should only be given through a
patent IV line - Any infiltration can cause massive tissue necrosis. CAUTION:
Dextrose 25% and 50% can easily cause necrosis in small veins. It is MUCH safer to
use a Dextrose 10% solution when treating hypoglycemia via IV in children under the
age of 14. When using Dextrose 25% in a child it is safer to administer it through a
central line or an intra-oseous line.[citation needed]

41. Largest compartment where fluid is present Extracellular compartement

See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fluid_compartments#Extracellular_fluid

DENTOALVEOLAR AND IMPLANT SURGERY

1. A 45 year old man has an asymptomatic impacted mandibular third molar detected on
radiograph. What are the treatment options that you would choose from
a. Surgical extraction mandatory
b. Just observe and follow up on a 6 monthly basis
c. Wait and watch for several years
d. No treatment required
2. As part of preoperative assessment for elective facial cosmetic surgery, photographs
need to be done
a. With ring flash
b. Flash at the side of the lens
c. With overhead flood lights
d. In natural light

3. During implant placement surgery, the head of the implant fractured but the surgeon
was able to seat the healing abutment. What are the surgeons options
a. As the internal apparatus is fine nothing further need be done
b. Removal of the implant
c. Place another bigger implant?‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

4. The surgeon has a patient for whom he has placed an implant last week in relation to
15 region. The patient returns with the implant in his hand. What should be done
a. Place another bigger implant in its place
b. Do nothing now but wait and watch for 4 weeks
c. Fix the same implant with addition of bone
d. ?

5. The radiograph is shown of a tooth #10. (The crown is destroyed completely up to the
level of bone with some bone loss at the apical third)The plan is for immediate
placement of implant following surgery. What is the plan for extraction
 a. Intralveolor extraction with straight forceps
b. Transalveolar extraction
c. Transalveolar extraction with elevtors
d. Intraalveolar extraction using root tip forceps

6. Surgeon wants to place an immediate implant after extraction. The role of resorbable
membrane in this case
a. Should be used to prevent tissue in growth in the socket space (abubaker)
b. Should be used only in case of bone grafting when primary closure is not
possible
c. Should not be used if primary closure is achieved
d. Is used only to prevent crestal bone loss

‫هامة عن ال‬bio-col
7. The area lateral to the ptyerogopalatine fossa
a. Orbital space
b. Pterygomandibular space
c. Infratemporal space
d. Temporal space ‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

8. How much of minimal cortical thickness is required around an implant

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
9.
 a. Root resorption
b. Periapical abcess
c. Ankylosis
d. To check for succadeneous tooth‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

10. Most commonly impacted primary tooth is

a. Incisor
b. Canine
c. Molar mandible
d. Molar maxilla‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

11. Most commonly occurring odontogenic infection is

a. Vestibular abcess
b. Submandibular space infection
c. Ludwig's Angina
d. Canine space infection‫جااااااااااااااااااه‬

12. How would you drain a parotid abcess

a. Horizontal in skin ,horizontal in fascia
b. Vertical in skin, vertical in fascia
c. Horizontal in skin, vertical in fascia
d. Vertical in skin, horizontal in fascia‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااه‬
13. A short maxillary central incisor with short roots is due for endodontic surgery. How
much of root tip should be cut
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4 mm
 14. A patient has ceramic crowns and requires endodontic surgery. Which is the best
approach
a. Semilunar
b. Para semilunar
c. Sub marginal
d. Sulcular
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3415356/
‫الزم نتاكد‬

15. A 24 year old has an impacted full bony 38 distoangular third molar. During
extraction, the mandibular angle fractured. The proximal fragment is displaced
upwards. What is the next step
a. IMF 4 weeks
b. Trans cervical fixation of the # with plates
c. Transoral fixation of the #with 1 plate
d. Transoseous wiring

16. A surgeon is placing a dental implant irt #12. Implant displaced into sinus. What is
next step?
a. Leave in the sinus, prescribe antibiotics and observe
b. Just leave it as it is
c. Explore and removal it surgically trans crestally
d. Wait for a week and remove it trans nasally after that
?????

17. What is the speed of handpiece used in OMFS

a. 2000-12000 rpm
b. 12000-20000 rpm
c. 20000- 40000 rpm
d. 40000 rpm and more

18. The antibacterial best suited to treat odontogenic infections in end stage renal failure
patients who is allergic to penicillin
a. Trimethoprim/Sulbactum
b. Flagyl
c. Clindamycin
d. Doxycycline ?????????????????????????????
e. Cefaclor
 19. The best antibacterial of choice to treat ethmoidal and maxillary sinusitisi is
a. Pencillin
b. Ceftazidime
c. Ampicillin
d. Trimethoprim\sulfamethaxozole
e. Metronidazole

20. The most complaint of patient with acute infection is:

a. Calor (Heat)
b.Dolor (Pain)
c. Tumor (Swelling)
d.Rubor (Redness)

21. While doing implant in #22 severe bleeding is encountered. The surgeon should:
a. continue implanting
b.Pack the socket and reevaluate ++
c. Fill the socket with bone and continue implant
d.Place surgical stent and follow up patient the following day

22. The forceps used for extraction of of 2nd mandibular molar with decayed crown is:
A. No 23 ++
B. No 151
C. No 286
D. 88
 23. The following day of inserting and implant in #22, the patient returns complaining of
numbness. Management is:
. Remove the implant
B. Surgical exploration of the area
C. Keep the implant in site since the numbness will resolve spontaneously in few days
D. Follow up for few days to and remove implant if numbness persists ++

24. In 12 year old patient, after doing extraction of maxillary first molar for orthodontic
treatment, what implant is required:
A. Use correct size implant
B. Use smaller size implant
C. Use larger size implant
D. Do not implant but wait until full growth is reached. ++

25. In thrombocytopenic patient, extraction of upper molar is contraindicated when

platelets count is:
A. Less than 40000 mm³
B. Less than 80000 mm³
C. Less than 150 mm³
D. Less than 250mm³

26. Antibiotic of choice for treatment of osteomyleties is:

A. Clindamycine
B. Penicillin (1st choice is Penicillin and then Clindamycin)
C. Ceftazine

‫شريف‬

27. The test for determining if a patient is affected with cat-scratch disease is:
A. Handberg ?‫للحزار المنبسط‬
B.(It should be Warthin–Starry stain ‫ لبوركت لمفوما‬but this test was not included -PCR,
IMMUNOFLUROSCENT ANTIBODY TEST ifr )
C. Skin protein test‫للسل‬
d. hanger – rose ( fonseca )

28. The optimum speed of rotation when preparing a tap for inserting an implant is:
A. 30-40 ( contemporary tells only 15rpm) 1000-1500 ‫بالدقيقة‬
B. 40-60
C. 60-80
D. 80-100

29. Patient with Osteomyelitis treated with sequestrectomy and prolonged antibiotic but
without improvement. Management is:
A. Review culture results ++++
B. Give longer antibiotic regime
C. ?(May be repeat procedure is the right answer)
‫سؤال عن نفس الموضوع كامل‬

treatment of chronic osteomyelitis consists of

- culture sensitivity and prolonged antibiotic therapy
- culture sensitivity with antibiotic therapy and hyperbaric oxygen
therapy
-sequestrectomy ,surgical exploration and prolonged antibiotic therapy
after culture sensitivity.
- sequestrectomy , surgical exploration and short course of antibiotic after
culture sensitivity.

30. Difficulty of tooth extraction is determined by:

A. Limited mouth opening and root pattern. ( contemporary )
B. depth and age ( Peterson )
Both answers are correct

31. Patient returned the following day after extraction with gross bleeding from socket.
Management is:
A. Irrigate and apply packing to stop bleeding and local anesthesia.
B. Gentle exploration of socket and local anesthesia. ++ ‫جااااااااااااااااه‬

32. Sublingual Space is bounded posteriorly:

A. Communicated with submandibular space
B. Mylohyiod muscle

33. Lymph from Submandibular gland drains into

A. Submandibular lymph nodes
B. Superfacial cervical lympf nodes
C. Deep cervical lymph node ++

34. Acute sinusitis is caused by:

A. Mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacteria (chronic sinusitis)
B. Streptococcus pneumonia (answer not typed but copied from Abubaker)

35. Narrow spectrum antibiotic causes

A. Host flora minimised
B. Host flora maximized
C. Causing organisms minimized
D. Causing organisms not affected‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

36. Opening ostectomy to gain access when doing microsurgical apicectomy and using
ultrasound tip is
A. 3mm
B. 5mm
C. 7mm
D. 12mm

37. Patient with shallow vault and severely resorbed alveolar ridge require full denture.
What augmentation is needed for this patient
A. Onlay bone graft ++
B. Interpositional bone graft
C. Transpositional bone graft
D. Vestibuloplasty

38. The most common odontogenic infection

A. Vestibular abscess ++
B. Cellulitis
C. Ludwig angina
D. Submandibular abscess

39. The most common route of spread of infection from lower third molar
A. Lingucoritcal plate ++
B. Buccocortical palate
C. Lingo-Bucco cortical
D. Through associated muscle

40. 58 years patient with deficient alveolar ridges required construction of full denture
and was determined by the surgeon to undertake Dean’s method of alveoloplasty
(augmentation). Disadvantage of this method is
A.?
B.?
Main disadvantage
1. Reduced ridge thickness
2. Inability to place implants (Contemporary Peterson)

41. 8 year old patient required extraction of decayed tooth and had history of easy
bleeding. Hematological picture includes increases BT, elevated APTT and normal
PT. His condition is
a. Deficiency Factor VIII-C(Haemophilia A)‫ فقط‬ptt ‫يتاثر‬
b.Von Willebrand disease++
c. Thrombocytopenic purpura ‫ فقط يتاثر‬bt

42. Odontogenic infection caused by

A. Normal flora++
B. Exogenous flora
C. Bacteria different from bacteria causing caries

43. Lab findings which is not seen in Von-Willbrand disease is:

A. Increases APTT
B. Norma bT
C. Deficiency of Factor VIII-C and Von-Willbrand factor
D. Normal platelet aggregate studies

44. Prophylactic antibiotic for endocardititis is indicated in

A. Prosthetic valve replacement ++
B. Heart bypass surgery

45. - 625 mg Augmentin consists of

A. 500mg Ampicillin and 125mg Clavunic acid
B. 500mg Amoxicillin and 125mg Clavunic acid ++

46. In type 4 (D4 density) of bone when doing implant the surgeon should
A. – wider implant
B. ?
C. ?
D. ?

47. Pt after lower third molar surgery suffer severe bleeding, how will you control
bleeding
a. Local anesthesia with adrenaline, remove clot, pack and suture.
b. Remove clot, place gelfoam, apply pressure, LA with adrenaline, suture
c. Give vitamin K…?
d. Use 1:1000 adrenaline in to socket and soft tissue
48. 8 year girl require lower molar extraction due to severe caries. Gives history of
bleeding. On lab investigation, increased bleeding, increased APTT, normal PT. she is
suffering from
a. Factor eight deficiency
b. Von Willebrand factor deficiency
c. DIC
d. Thrombocytopenia

49. Orbital cellulitis is caused by:

a. Paranasal sinus infection
b. Soft tissue infection of orbit

50. 18 year old with impacted third molar bilateral with soft tissue and bone chance of
eruption is
a. 10 – 30%
b. 30 – 50%
c. 50 – 80%
d. 100%

51. Prosthodontist desire angulation of implant 30 degree.

a. Place implant straight
b. 15 degree angulation
c. 30 degree angulation
d. Revaluate

52. Prediction of operation time in third molar surgery

a. Depth of impaction
b. Approximation of teeth to vital structures
c. Root pattern angulation ‫كونتمبرري‬

53. Absolute indication of root tip fractures removal

a. Above apical third
b. Close to vital structures
c. Fracture while luxation
d. Infected root can cause a major concern

54. Cyclosporine
a. Increase T, decrease B lymphocyte
b. Decrease T, Increase B lymphocyte
c. Decrease T and B lymphocyte
d. Decrease T lymphocyte only

55. Lateral pharyngeal space infection posterior compartment can lead to

a. External jugular thrombosis
b. Carotid artery rupture
c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage

56. In Facial infection following not true

 a. Mucormycosis most common in DM‫غالبا صح‬
b. 25% animal bite staph. 25% human bite P. Multicida?
c. Chronic maxillary sinusitis both aerobic and anaerobic ‫صح‬

57. Flap design following is not true

a. Apex smaller than base
b. Length not greater than base
c. Axial vessel in the base
d. No manipulation at base

58. Oroantral communication 4mm managed by marzix Buccal sliding flap

a. Decrease vestibular depth
b. Bone exposure on either side
c. –
d. –

59. Retropharyngeal abscess driange

a. Intraoral
b. Pharyngeal
c. Anterior to SCM ‫امام القترائية‬
d. Angle of mandible

60. Abscess not involving airway true is

a. Cellulitis more dangerous than abscess
b. Abscess more dangerous than cellulitis

61. Suture in Hermitically sealed wound

a. Interrupted suture
b. running suture
c. Subcuticular suture
d. Suture 1-0 ‫حل مش عارف مين‬

62. Dsyesthesia is
a. Unpleasant sensation due to normal stimuli
b. Increased pain sensation to normal stimuli
c. Increased sensation to painful stimuli
d. Anaesthesia for a prolonged period of time

Dysesthesia (dysaesthesia) comes from the Greek word "dys", meaning "not-normal" and
"aesthesis", which means "sensation" (abnormal sensation). It is defined as an unpleasant,
abnormal sense of touch. It often presents as pain[1] but may also present as an
inappropriate, but not discomforting, sensation. It is caused by lesions of the nervous system,
peripheral or central, and it involves sensations, whether spontaneous or evoked, such as
burning, wetness, itching, electric shock, and pins and needles.[1] Dysesthesia can include
sensations in any bodily tissue, including most often the mouth, scalp, skin, or legs.[1]
 63. Maxillary molar teeth extraction infection spreading in to cranium through all except
a. Superior ophthalmic vein
b. Inferior ophthalmic vein
c. Pharyngeal plexus

64. Commonest aerobic organism in odontogenic infection

a. Staph
b. Streptococcus
c. Bacteriods

65. Calvarial(cranial) bone formed by ‫قحفي‬

a. Intramembraneous ossification
b. Endochondral ossification
‫ ترقوة‬Clavicle

66. Extraction forceps number for lower anterior tooth (Only theory written)
151 – Lower ant., 151A – mand bicuspids, 17 – molars lower, 23- cowhorn mandibular,
mand wisdom – 222
150 – upper anterior and single rooted (universal )
150A – Upper bicuspids
53 – up molars
210s – upper 3rd molar
88 – cowhorn
286 – bayonet
150s maxilla deciduous, 151s – mandible deciduous
67. upper molar extraction IOPA – RS 26 Diabetic patients – open or closed extraction
68. cyst in the maxilla –enucleation or endodontic surgery or extraction – order of
treatment
69. commonly used flap in oral surgery ---- envelope flap, ‫اجااااااااااااااا‬
70. bleeding from the anterior maxilla while placing implant…what will u do … just
place implant
71. PPS Maxilla – 1mm bone from sinus... narrow palatal vault – which surgery will u
do…
--- Superior border augmentation
72. Preprosthetic procedure for 12 mm ridge in between foramina
73. Chances of Tumor development with 3rd molar –
Increases
Decreases,
No change,
74. Organism not seen in acute suppurative osteomyelitis actinomyces
75. Sublingual space communicates posteriorly with ----- SM, LATERAL
PHARYNGEAL?
76. Incision for drainage of retropharngeal space - anterior border of SCM
77. Cavernous Sinus thrombosis – doesn’t occur ---- via Sup ophthalmic vein, inferior
ophthalmic, angular, pterygoid plexus?
78. Complication of draining retropharyngeal space – injury to carotid sheath
79. Management of impacted tooth in 45 year old patient without any problem
80. Implant in sinus
81. Chances of eruption of impacted tooth after the age of 18
82. Most common cause for impaction
83. Extraction of 10 root stump
84. Most common flap in oral surgery
85. Cyst w.r.t to 9 and 10 in the maxilla
86. Implant causing numbness in 21 what u do next
 87. Implant coming out after placement after 1 week what to do
88. Ibuprofen metabolism
89. Absolute indication for extraction of tooth
90. Study after methylene t99 in osteomyelitis
91. Protocol for HBO therapy
92. Following statement is true about ibuprofen:
e. It cannot cross placenta
f. It mainly excreted by hepatobiliary route
g. Its peak plasma level after 6 to 8 hr
h. Its largely bound to plasma protein
93. 24 year women with history of fatigue and lethargy and history of syncope. Clinically
mid systolic click with late systolic murmur. Probably she is suffering from
a. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
b. Mitral valve prolapse
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Mitral stenosis

LOCAL ANESTHESIA
1. A patient with history of uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
requires surgery. Which is the surgeon’s is choice of LA
a. Lidocaine
b. Mepivacaine -
c. Propoxycaine
d. Bupivacaine? – least toxic

2. A patient presents with submandibular space infection requiring I and D. The

surgeon wishes to makes use of EMLA for the site of Venipuncture. Which of the
statements are correct
a. EMLA is a mixture of Bupivacaine and Prilocaine
b. EMLA is 2.5 % of lidocaine and Prilocaine
c. EMLA is a combination of 2.5 % of lidocaine and Prilocaine
d. It should be applied at least 60 mins prior to venipuncture

n a study, the effect of prilocaine on pre- and postnatal development was examined in rats treated with up to 2.8 times the
maximum recommended human dose of prilocaine in lidocaine-prilocaine gel from day 6 of gestation to weaning. There was no
evidence of altered postnatal development, viability, or reproductive capacity in any offspring.
Lidocaine-prilocaine topical cream has been assigned to pregnancy category B by the FDA. Animal studies have failed to reveal
evidence of impaired fertility or fetal harm. There are no controlled data in human pregnancy. Lidocaine-prilocaine topical cream
is only recommended for use during pregnancy when benefit outweighs risk.
Lidocaine / prilocaine topical Breastfeeding Warnings
Lidocaine, and probably prilocaine, are excreted into human milk. Following application of the cream to a nursing mother, the
milk:plasma ratio of lidocaine is 0.4 and is not determined for prilocaine. The manufacturer recommends that caution be used
when administering lidocaine-prilocaine topical cream to nursing women.
 3. What is considered as the maximum dose for adrenaline in a hypertensive patient
a. 0.2 mg
b. 0.02mg
c. 0.04mg
d. 0.0018 mg

4.

A surgeon wants to use X tip system for intraosseous anesthesia of the

mandibular premolar. What is the size of the needle used(study from malamed)
a. 25 gauge short needle
b. 27 gauge long needle
c. 27 gauge ultra short needle
d. 30 gauge short needle
NOTE:
IAN – 25 Gauge long needle
Buccal – 27 gauge short needle
Mental – 27 short
Supraperiosteal – 27 short
PDL – 27 Short
Intraosseus – 27 short
PSA – 27 Short ,
Infraorbital – 25 long,
Maxillary – 25 long ,
Infiltration – 27 short
5. Local anesthetic of choice in uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
a) prilocaine
b) mepivacaine
c) bupivacaine
d) lidocaine
6. A person on tricyclic antidepressants if injected with Lidocaine containing
1:100000 of epinephrine will have the following effects
a. An increase in blood pressure due to VC
b. A decrease in heart rate due to LA
c. An increase in heart rate due to VC
d. A decrease in blood pressure due to LA

7. The heart has the following number of receptors sensitive to adrenaline in the
body
a. 1
b. 2 a and b
c. 3
d. 4

8. An 8 year old child who weighs 16 kg is in need of extraction. How many

carpules of 2% lidocaine with 1:100000 epi be safely given
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
16*7=112/36=3
9. Pain conduction is through which nerve fibres first
a. Unmyelinated c fibres
b. Myelinated c fibres
c. A fibres
d. Delta fubres (If A DELTA FIBRES THIS IS THE CORRECT ANSWER)

10. After reversal of the IANB, in which of the structures will the effects first be felt
a. Central incisor
b. Canine
c. Premolar
d. Molar ‫عندما ينتهى التخدير يبدا من االرحاء‬

11. An inexperienced dentist soaks his dental anesthetic cartridges in isopropyl

alcohol. When he delivers a nerve block what will be the effect?
a. Gingival sloughing
b. Palatal ulcerations
c. Prolonged anesthesia
 d. No change

12. Subclasses adrenergic receptors which vasoconstrictor act upon in myocardium

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 a1 b1 b2
D. 5

13. The least effective vasoconstrictor

A. Norepinephnne
B. Epinephnne
C. Levonordefrin++
D. Octapressin (Felypressin)

14. Pt on TCA, Local anesthesia with norepinephrine

a. Lidocaine induces hypotension
b. Norepinephrine induced hypertension
c. Norepinephrine induced relapse of depression
d. Lidocaine induced relapse of depression

15. Local anaesthetic which can be only injected

a. Tetracaine
b. Benzocaine
c. Prilocaine
d. Etidocaine

GENERAL ANESTHESIA
1. A patient who cannot maintain the airway has a tendency for vomiting. Best method to
prevent aspiration is by employing
a. A cuffed ET tube
b. Laryngeal mask ‫ا‬

2. In a conscious patient with intact pharyngeal reflexes, which is the best method of
maintaining airway patent?
a. Nasopharyngeal airway
b. Venturi mask
c. Bifid nasal canula
d. Oropharyngeal airway

3. The anesthetist is at work in a pt with limited mouth opening and manages to secure his
airway after repeated attempts. Which of the following laryngeal cartilages are most
likely traumatized
 a. Cuneiform
b. Cricoid
c. Thyroid
d. Arytenoid medial surface

4. Which of the following drugs need to be stopped on the day of the surgery
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Beta blockers
c. Thiazide Diuretics
d. Ca Channel blockers

5. During anesthesia, the patient starts coughing and body becomes rigid. The pt is apneic.
Which of the following drugs is not helpful in this condition
a.Lidocaine
b. Suxamethonium
c. Propofol
d. fentanyl

6. Which of the following devices can hold the maximum gastric content in case the patient
accidently vomits.
a. Cuffed ET tube
b. Laryngeal mask airway
c. Cobra LMA(PLA - Perilaryngeal airway)

7. The drug of choice in Fentanyl associated chest wall rigidity is one of the following
a. Lidocaine
b. Flumezenil
c. Naloxone
d. Propranol

8. A 26 year old male patient has a skeletal class 2 with retrogenia. His BMI is 32. What is
the best way to secure his airway before surgery
a. Blind awake nasotracheal without sedation
b. Awake Orotracheal under sedation
c. Fiberoptic guided nasotracheal intubation
d. Treacheostomy

9. In a post trauma patient who is obtunded, in whom pharyngeal reflexes are intact‫سليمة‬,
which of the folowing is advised to secure airway
b. Orotracheal airway
c. Nasopharyngeal airway
d. Nasal cannula
e. Venturi mask

10. General anesthetist uses topical anesthesia – which area– supraglottic , infraglottic
(transtracheal) or glottic (Question not clear)

11. Rotameter - used for what --- GAS flow ANESHTHESIA MEASURMENT
12. Rotameter classification
13. Adrenaline dose in intubated patient is:
A. 1 mg in 1 ML
B. 1 mg in 10 ML
C. 2.5 mg 2.5 ML
D. 2.5 mg in 10 ML

14. The fastest nondepolarisingneuromascular drug is:

A. Succinylcholine
B. Artacurium
C. vecuronium
D. Rocuronium 75 Sec)

15. Patient with difficult airway posted for surgery, premedication all except
A. Diazepam++
B. Ranitidine

16. Endotracheal drugs are all except

A. Glycopyrrolate++
B. Atropine
C. Vasopressin
D. Naloxone

17. The most common cause of hypotention after general anesthesia

A. Hypoxia ++ (Assumingly this one)
B. ? IF INHALATION ANESTHETIC DRUGS ARE THERE IN THE ANSWER – CHOSE
IT FIRST

18. TMJ ankylosis to pt. induced by inhalation anesthetic after 60 minutes pt produces
crowing sound and severe chestwall movement. Drug which will be not be useful is
a. IV Propofol
b. IV lidocaine
c. Sch
d. Fentanyl

19. Surgeon plans for surgery. Desires decreased secretion with slight depression of CNS,
drug of choice
a. Atropine
b. Scopolamine +++
c. Glycopyrolate
20. First skeletal muscles to contract after using succinyl choline used during general
anesthesia is
A. Eyelids
B. Shoulder
C. Hands
D. Abdomen

21. Pt on TCA, Local anesthesia with norepinephrine

a. Lidocaine induces hypotension
b. Norepinephrine induced hypertension
c. Norepinephrine induced relapse of depression
d. Lidocaine induced relapse of depression

DENTOFACIAL DEFORMITIES
1. A pt with Class 1 molar relation has severe retrogenia and a severe disparity in the
anteroposterior relation of her mand to maxilla relation. What Treatment plan
a. Genioplasty
b. Mandibular advancement with genioplasty
c. Lefort 1 with mandibular advancement

2. A patient walks into your clinic with subconjunctival ecchymosis without visualization
of posterior limit. (She also has black eye.? No nerve paresthesia. She gives h/o an
Orthognathic surgery done to correct mid face deformity. What would be the most likely
procedure
a. High Lefort 1
b. Quadrangular lefort 2
c. Lefort 3
d. Pyramidal Lefort 2

3. A patient has midface deformity with deficiency in the malar and zygomatic regions.
How would you correct her condition.
a. High level lefort 1
b. Quadrangular lefort 2
c. Lefort 2
d. Lefort 3

4. While doing an IVRO osteotomy Intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy of the mandible for
advancement, there is an unfavourable fracture high in the proximal segment. What is the
most apt way the surgeon should proceed.
a. Change the osteotomy to the inverted L
b. Do a C osteotomy
c. Treat the pt for a condylar neck fracture
d. Abandon the procedure and do MMF ‫ممكن‬

5. Following BSSO, the TMDs commonly seen are

a. Retro positioned chin
b. Deviation of the mandible
c. Posterior displacement of the condyle in high mandibular plane angle cases
d. Derangement of the disc

6. Post operative numbness associated with the lower lip after BSSO is seen commonly after
 a. Use of drill to osteotomize
b. Use of Bone osteotomy
c. Use of plate and screw for fixation
d. Mandibular manipulation

7. Class 1 with AP deficiency(Class2) and good chin

8. Surgery for midface and infraorbital and malar deficiency

9. After doing bimaxillary osteotomy and fixation the surgeon realises that the occlusion is
unstable. Management is:
A. Remove maxillary fixation and stabilise the occlusion and fix again
B. Remove mandibular fixation and stabilise the occlusion and fix again
C. Remove both maxillary and mandibular fixation and stabilise occlusion and fix again
D. Do nothing

10. Genioplasty is done

A. Inferior to mental foramen ++5mm
B. Superior to mental foramen
C. Anterior to mental foramen
D. According cephalometric analysis

11. In true asymmetry of mandible

A. Incisor midline doesn’t coincide to symphysis middline in centric occlusion
B. No functional shift
C. Midsymphysis doesn’t coincide with midsagittal plane ++
D. Bilateral end to end crossbite

12. Maximum range of interincisal opening

A. 25mm
B. 45mm
C. 45-55 in men ++ 35-45 in women ++

13. Maximum range of lateral movement of mandible

A. 10mm ++ Average Lateral excursion movement is 10-15mm ( 8-14 mm Protrusion)

B. 25mm

14. The effect of Le fort I on nasal tip is:

A. Protrusion when doing advancement++
B. Not affected when doing downward positioning
C. Retrusion when doing stepback

15. Pt with class 2 with good chin

a. Advancement genioplasty
b. Increase orthodontically class 2 condition and maxillary setback?
c. Orthodontically increase and protrude incisors to class 3?
d. Mandibular advancement and reduction Genioplasty

16. True Mandibular asymmetry can be detected by

a. Dental midline and midsymphseal mismatch
b. Lateral shift in Centric occlusion
c. Bilateral Edge to Edge cross bite in CO
d. Mid saggital and Midsymphseal mismatch
17. Prevention or management of alar base widening in maxillary osteotomy by
a. Single layer closure of mucosal incision
b. Alar Cinch suture with non resorbable suture
c. Nasal septum suture to nasal spine
d. By avoiding superior placement of maxilla

18. Lip length in normal adult will be

a. Equal to commissural height
b. Less than commissural height
c. More than commissural height

PATHOLOGY
1. Ca alveolus and buucal mucosa. Mandibulectomy with SND2. Reconstruction of choice
a. Fibula oseocutaneous free flap
b. Temporalis
c. SCM
d. Skin graft

2. Most commonest odontogenic tumor

a) ameloblastoma (2nd most common)
b) odontoma
c) CEOT
d) Fibroma (non-odontogenic tumor commonest)

3. Ulcer in the FOM in a 65 yr old. SOHND ( 1 to 3) is chosen to treat him. What are the
reconstructive options that are best suited?
a. PMMC
b. Temperomyofascial flap
c. Massetric?
d. Radial forearm free flap
4. A ca of lower lip entails sacrificing 80% of the lower lip. Which is the best
reconstructive option available?
a. Advancement of the lip flap based on sup labial artery
b. Rotation flap
c. Bernard ... flap / technique

5. A 54 year old man has undergone an anterior en-bloc resection of the mandible for
treating as part of cancer therapy. The surgeon wishes to use the clavicle based on the
SCM to reconstruct the mandibular defect. Select the statement which is true.
a. The graft cannot be segmented to fit the morphology
b. The graft is good to place dental implants
c. Gives good morphological substitution for defect
d. It is the best of reconstructive options available

6. A 56 year old lady has a small giant cell granuloma in her mandible. She is diagnosed to
be having secondary hyperparathyroidism. What is the next step
a. Treat her tumour by enucleation and curettage
b. Excision of the parathyroid gland to conrol excess secretion of PTH
c. Treat her renal condition and supplement with Vit D and Calcium
d. Treat the lesion by steroid injections

7. Most common affliction of the Sublingual salivary gland

a. Sialolith
b. Mucocele
c. Ranula
d. Pleomorphic adenoma

8. In a patient who is 30 years old, which of the following is the most common tumour
a. Ameloblastoma ‫ثاني اكثر انتشار‬
b. CEOT Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
c. Cementoblastoma
d. AOT adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

9. IgG antibodies is demonstrated in the basement layer of which of the following

a. Lichen Planus
b. Erythema Multiforme
c. Discoid lupus erythematosus
d. Pemphigus Vulgaris

10. A 45 year old man who is a chronic smoker for the past 25 years has been diagnosed
with a well differentiated carcinoma of the lower lip measuring 2 cm. On examination
there are no palpable lymph nodes. Which is the best method of treatment for him?
a. Wedge excision
b. Chemotherapy
c. Just observe
d. Radiotherapy

11. A 58 year old male presents with an ulcer that is 3x2 cm in size with no palpable lymph
nodes. Contrast enhanced CT is done and reveals no cortical perforation in the lesion and
no lymphatic involvement. A SND(i-iii) is planned for his treatment. The surgeon
wishes to reconstruct the defect. His best option is
a. PMMC
b. Temporalis myofascial flap
c. Full thickness skin graft
 d. Split thickness skin graft
12. cysts of jaws usually cause CORTICAL EXPANSION, ROOT RESORPTION, TOOTH
DISPLACEMNT
13. Hairy leukoplakia in AIDS
14. Most common tumor in pediatric age group – haemangioma. Lipoma, fibroma
15. Recent modality of treatment of pagets disease
16. Reconstruction after snd 1-3
17. Treatment of choice for salivary cancers
18. Clavicle based graft

19. 0.4 cm lesion found below ear lobe. The lesion is:
A. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying connective tissue sebaceous
cyst.
B. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying connective tissue epidermoid
cyst.
C. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying connective tissue sebaceous cyst.
D. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying connective tissue epidermoid
cyst.
‫اجااااااااااااا‬
20. Definitive treatment of ranula is
A. Marsipulization
B. Marsipulization and packing
C. Sublingual gland excision ++
D. ?

21. Posterior iliac graft nerve injured is

a. Lateral cutaneous anterior
b. Lateral femoral
c. Superior cuneal posterior

superior and middle clunial nerves for posterior

the most is lateral cutaneous of the subcostal nerve and lateral cutaneous branch of the
iliohypogastric nerve for anterior

22. The most common odontogenic tumor

A. Ameloblastoma++ (Note = The most common = Odontoma)
B. Cementoblastoma
C. Adenotamoid tumor
D. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst

Post CA upper lip 80% loss. Reconstruction

a. Wester – bernald flap
b. Perialar advancement flap
c. Abbe flap ????
d. Radial ?
23. Curettage and enucleation true (Question incomplete???
a. Indicated in OKC
b. Removal of bone 5mm or 1cm
c. Treatment of Dentigerous cyst

CLEFTS AND SYNDROMES

1. The skin of the prolabium is used for
a. Collumela lengthening
b. Creation of vermillion
c. Lining the labial mucosa
2. A 7 year old boy has come to your maxillofacial clinic
with a history of congenital facial deformity. His
OMENS score is 8. What systemic examination will you
send the boy to next.
a. CNS, Skeletal, CVS
b. CVS, Pulmonary , skeletal
c. CVS, CNS, Skeletal
d. CNS, CVS, Pulmonary
3. Syndrome question = Facial paralysis + fissural tongue +
swollen lip
A. Melkersson-Rosental Syndrome ++

4. Syndrome question(Question incomplete)

A. Crhon syndrome
B. Carpenter Syndrom
C. Crouson
D. Angioneurmatic Edema

5. Best site for harvesting clavarial bone graft

A. Parietal bone
B. Occipatal bone
C. Temporal bone
D. Frontal bone

6. With age the cranium becomes

A. Thick and dense
B. Thin and light++
C. Thick and heavy

7. Patient with Treacher Collins syndrome needed

correction of mandibular deficiency, which included
12cm advancement. Best approach is
A. BSSO
B. Inverted L osteotomy ++ extra oral
C. Intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy
D. Extraoral vertical ramus osteotomy
Peter ward Booth 2 page 947

8. Millard C flap in correction of cleft lip is

A. Rotation flap of lateral lip
B. Rotation flap of medial lip
C. A divided rotation to increase columella length and nasal floor ++
D. ?

9. Cleft palate patient prepared for modified lefort I

osteotomy. How much advancement the surgeon plans to
counteract relapse during osteotomy and bone graft
healing period and to adjust posterior placed condyle
intraoperatively.
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 4mm
d. 6mm

10. New born the mandible is separated in the midline by

a. Synovial joint
b. Fibrous joint
c. Catrilagenous tissue
d. Fibrous tissue

11. Pt with wide cleft lip and palate lip adhesion or

nasoalveolar molding planned
a. Few week after birth
b. First – third month
c. Third to sixth
d. 6–9

TRAUMA
1. A 25 year old man is admitted for surgery after RTA with diagnosis of Bilateral Condylar
# with communition of Midface. This condition is a case for
a. Absolute indication for fixing the condyles
b. Relative indication ...
c. Case for MMF
d. Absolute contraindication for fixing Condyle
2. In which condition there is no need for ORIF for ZMC fractures
a. Medial displacement
b. Lateral displacement
c. Inferior displacement
d. No displacement

3. Which is a most relevant finding for a patient in shock

a. Pulse pressure
b. Heart rate
c. Systoic blood pressure
d. Diastolic blood pressure

4. An 8 year old child has sustained a fracture of the condyle. What is the indication for
ORIF
a. Dentoalveolar injury
b. Intarcapsular fracture with middle cranial fracture
c. Inability to open mouth after 1 week of closed reduction
d. The degree of displacement of condyle

5. A 34 year old man has sustained a MVA with fractures of the skull base with orbital
fractures. On examination for consensual light reflex in the right eye, there is a negative
response. The same reflex for the left eye is normal. There is associated ptosis of the left
eye. The pt has damage to
a. CN1 on the L; CN 2 R
b. CN2 R and CN3 L
c. CN2 L and CN1 L
d. CN3 R and CN2 L

6. A patient has sustained head injury after MVA. He has cerebral concussion and is in
coma. If the patient stays in coma for how many hours, will there be residual nuerological
deficit.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8 0r 6

7. predominant medial wall of orbit – ethmoid (lateral wall – zygomatic & gr wing of
sphenoid, floor – orbital surface of maxilla, palatine bone and zygoma)

8. Placement of
9. Airway maintenance in a conscious patient
10. Nerve injured commonly in ZMC fracture
11. Cause for sublingual ecchymosis

12. In surgical shock the patient should be given:

A. Normal Saline
B. Lactated Ringers ++

13. What is the CT scan interval for zygomatic fracture: (OBLIQUE PARASAGITTAL
VIEW FOR ORBITAL FRACTURES)
A. 0.5mm
B. 1-1.5mm
C. 15.2.5mm
D. 2.5-3.5

14. In maxillofacial trauma patient with suspected injury to cervical thoracic vertebra, the
diagnostic radiograph is: Posteroanterior, lateral films, and CT
A. ?
B. ?
C. ?
D. swimmers view or cross table views

15. Maximum MMF in fracture mandible of 12 year old boy is:

A. One week
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 5-6 weeks
16. Trauma patient with pulse rate =130, BP 100/60, breathing =30/mint, how much blood
loss is expected in this patient
A. Less than 15%
B. 15-30%
C. 40%
D. 30-40 % ++

17. In trauma patient the initial pulmonary reaction

A. Tachypnea and decreased CO2 serum++ ‫زيادة وتيرة التنفس عن الحاجة العضويةيرافق هذه الزيادة‬
‫نقص في الضغط الجزئي لثاني أكسيد الكربون الُمذاب في الدم‬،
B. Tachypnea and increased CO2 serum
C. Bradypnea and increased CO2 serum
D. Bradypnea and decreased CO2 serum

18. Glasgow comma scale score in trauma patient who is non responsive to verbal
communication1 + can open the eye3 + responds to pain stimuli4
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

19. Best plain film for showing zygomatic arches

A. Submentovertix++
B. Occipatal
C. PA
D. ?

20. Towne’s view is similar to

A. Anteroposterior
B. Posteroanterior
C. Water
D. ?

21. Trauma patent to the skull showed vertical diplopia and torsional diplopia. The most
likely injured nerve
A. II
B. III
C. IV++
D. V
‫شم البصير محركا في عينه و بكى اشتياقا للثالث توائم و تباعد الوجهي ليسمع بلعه متجاهًال شوك اللساني في الفم‬.
22. Trauma patient developed asymmetrical pupil (Not round). The most likely cause
A. Blow out fracture
B. Blow in fracture
C. Perforation of the eye ball
D. ?

23. Reason of airway obstruction in obtunded patient

A. Bleeding
B. Vomitus
C. Tongue fall ++
D. ?

24. Axial CT for zygomatic fracture is done to show

A. Orbit floor involvement
B. lateral wall and zygomatic arches
C. ?
D. ?

25. Orbital floor trauma which gaze cause diplopia

a. Upward and lateral
b. Upward and medial
c. Downward and lateral
d. Downward and medial

26. 24 year female with angle fracture. Surgeon decides to fix with compression plating
technique. Following is true
a. Less chance of motor and sensory nerve injuries
b. Will need two week IMF postop
c. Should be approached extraorally
d. Will heal by secondary intension

27. Greenstick fracture

a. Fracture of onside of the bone with out fracture of other side
b. Incomplete fracture
c. Will cause severe displacement of while fixation
d. –

28. Compound fracture

a. Multiple fracture at on site
b. Severe loss of tissue around the fracture
c. External communication through oral cavity
d. –

29. Ptosis
A. –drop upper eyelid

TMJ
1. Which of the following statements are true of Pulsed MRI
a. T1 images are useful to visualize discal perforations and position
 b. T2 images signify the presence of Inflammation
c. T2 images signify inflammatory changes.
d. ??

2. Pulsed MRI scanning of the TMJ shows

a. T1 weighted images shows disc position and disc perforation
b. T2 weighted images shows disc position and disc perforation
c. T1 weighted Images show inflammatory changes
d. T2 weighted Images show inflammatory changes

3. What is the position of disc irt to condyle in case of early internal derangement
when mandible is in closed position
a. Anterior and straight
b. Anterior and medial
c. Anterior and lateral
d. No change

4. Hypermobility of tmj botulinum toxin

5. stylomandibular ligament
a. Formed from the parotid fascia
b. Runs from styloid process to the angle mandible
c. Lateral check ligament
d. Prevents the movement of the condyle

6. Disc position
7. In Internal disk derangement the disk is displaced
A. Anteriorly ++ ( antromedially )
B. Medially
C. Posteriorly
D. Laterally

8. The most degenerative changes of bony parts of TMJ is done when

A. Diskectomy
B. Eminectomy
C. Disk treatment

9. Most likely cause of myofacial pain dysfunction is

A. Bruxism following stress++
B. Internal derangement with reduction
C. Internal derangement without reduction
D. ?

10. Commonest cause of myofacial pain

a. Degenerative joint disease
b. Internal derangement without reduction
c. Internal derangement with reduction
. Bruxism following stress++

11. Hydrostatic pressure causing TMJ degeneration based on theory

a. Hypoxic – reperfusion theory
 ‫أسئلة الدكتور محمد كمال‬
(September 2012)
‫نسأل هللا التوفيق للجميع وان يجعل هذا العمل خالص لوجهة الكريم وال تنسونا في دعائكم‬

___________________________________________________________
1- The first sign display in traumatized patient is:
- Bradycardia
- Tachycardia
- Brady apnea
- tachypnea
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2- Most odontogenic infections are caused by:
- Bacteria of normal flora
- exogenous bacteria
- anaerobic gram-positive rods
- bacteria not involved in caries process

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-----
3- The most appropriate source for cranial bone grafts:
- occipital
- temporal
- parietal
- frontal
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------
4- arc smile of maxillary incisal edge should parallel to:
- upper lip
- lower lip
- inferior border of mandible
- mandibular incisor
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5- the osteotomy cut for vertical ramus osteotomy procedure is
incorrectly high what is the next step
- make c- osteotomy
- make inverted L osteotom
- apart procedure and fix condyle
- apart procedure and close
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----

6- lip adhesion and pre-orthopedic surgery is completed in:

- first few weeks of life
- any age of infancy
- one to three month
- four to six month

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--
7- axial C.T for fracture zygoma is used to demonstrate :
- floor of the orbit
- roof of the orbit
- lateral and medial wall of maxillary sinus
- lateral nasal wall
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
8- photograph for rhyditectomy:
- with ring lens flash
- lateral lens flash
- natural light
- foot flash
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9- to get more cancellous bone during illic bone graft harvest:
- medial and lateral cortical pedicle
- decapping of crest
- medial cortical pedicle with muscle
- expand medial and lateral cortical cortex
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10- measurement line used for estimation of length of nasopharyngeal
airway on lateral cephlometric x-ray (extend from)
- external auditory meatus to ala of nose
- external auditory meatus to tip of nose
- mandibular angle to ala of nose
- mandibular angle to tip of nose
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11- primary passive support of mandible is provided by :
- lateral pterygoid muscles
- Sphenomandibular ligament
- stylomandibular ligament
- Medial pterygoid muscles
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12- Absorbable collagen membrane has effects of hemostasis by:
- stimulate platelet activity and promote platelet aggregation
- scaffold and stabilization for blood clot**
- block vascular channel as tamponed effect
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13- The cranial nerve passes into internal acoustic meatus:
- abducent nerve
- facial nerve
- glossopharyngeal
- vagus nerve
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14- The dangerous triangle of the face consists of the area from
- corner of the mouth to the bridge of the nose
- corner of the mouth to supraorbital rim
- nasal bridge to tip of nose
- supraorbital rim to philtrium
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
15- the management of comminuted midface associated bilateral
subcondylar fracture is indicated for:
- absolute contraindication for open reduction and internal fixation
- absolute indication for closed reduction and maxillomandibular fixation
- absolute indication for open reduction and internal fixation
- absolute contraindication to maxillomandibular fixation
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
16- the most common primary teeth to be impacted:
- mandibular molar
maxillary molar -
maxillary central-
maxillary canine -
17- Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma
Floor of the mouth -
- Postero-Latera border of tongue
- Buccal mucosa
- Lip

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
18 - The most common tumor in infancy and children:
- Fibroma
- Hemangioma ( thin ameloblastoma)
- ameloblastoma
- ameloblastic fibroma
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
19- patient undergoing hemi mandibular resection with radical neck
dissection due to malignant tumor of floor of the mouth , reconstruction
is best performed using :
- pectoralis myocutanous flap ‫صدرية وتزاح‬
- temporalis flap ‫صدغية وتزاح‬
- sternocleidomastoid flap ‫كتفية وتزاح‬
- free microvascular fibula flap ‫الشظية لالورام الكبيرة حرة جااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
20- the most common odontogenic infection:
- Vestibular abscess
- Celluitis
- ludwig's angina
Submandibular abscess-
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
21- most causative factor predisposing for malignant tumors
- Familial
- Alcoholism
- Smoking
- Nutritional deficiency
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
22- Overdevelopment of mesial root of lower 3rd molar result in
- Mesioangular impaction
- Vertical impaction
- Horizontal impaction
- Distoangular impaction
23- The most adequate thickness for the use of MTA as a root-end filling
material.
- 2mm- 4mm- 3mm- 5mm
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
24- The indicative measure to stop antibiotic therapy in chronic
osteomyelitis mananagement:
- Formation of new bone in previous radiolucent area shown in
panoramic x-ray film
- Negative uptake of technichum99 in bone scan
- Change in medullary bone in C.T
- Abscence of new bone expansion in clinical examination
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
25- Hand piece air speed during dentoalveolar surgery
- 1o-20 rpm
- 1000-12,000rpm
- 12000-20,000 rpm
- 120,000-200,000rpm
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
26- dark femal patient suffering from sudden diffue bluish discoloration
over zygomztic area what should be done:
- incisional biopsy
- follow up observation
- Angiography ‫شريف والناجحين‬
- ophthalmology examination
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
27- how to decrease the effect of external beam radiation on
surrounding tissue for management of squamous cell carcinoma of
tongue
- intersteitial brachtherapy technique
- Hyperfractionation
- Intracavity brachtherapy technique
- Submental technique
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
28- The length of root to be resected during apicectomy for short rooted
tooth is lateral incisor upper
- 1mm
- 2mm
- 3mm
- 4mm
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
29- The most appropriate cause for Inferior alveolar nerve injury during
bilateral sagittal split osteotomy is
- ( bicortical,monocortical or lag screw)
- Manipulation of the bony segement
- The use of chisel for osteotomy
- The use of bur or saw for cutting
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
30- after finishing Bimaxillary orthognathic surgery (lefort I and bilateral
sagittal split ostotomy) and make internal fixation you see that occlusion
is derranged and patient still intubated what you is the next step
- remove maxaillary internal fixation and resume proper occlusion
- remove mandibular fixation and resume proper occlusion
- post operative elastic traction
- follow up observation followed by orthodontic treatement if needed
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
31- The most common symptoms in patient with keratocyst
- Pain
- Swelling
- Neurosensory deficiet
- Teeth mobility
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
32- 18 year old patient with bilateral bony impacted mandibular third
molar shown accidentally on routine panoramic radiographe ,the
percentage of eruption of it
- 10-20%
- 50-80%
- 20-50%
- 80- 100%
33- prolonged activated partial thromboplastine with normal
prothrombine time indicated deficiency of
- factor VII
- factor VIII
- factor X
- factor IX
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
34- The incision used for Cupar modification to perform anterior
maxillary alveolar osteotomy
- transverse palatal incision
- the buccal and palatal tissue preserved
- vestibular incision reaching up to second premolar
- two vertical incision at first premolar and one at upper lip frenum

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
35- the osteotomy cut for genioplasty in relation to mental foramen
- superior to mental foramen
- inferior to mental foramen 5mm
- anterior to mental foramen
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
36- the length of philtrum ridge in adult in relation to oral commissure
level
- shorter than oral commissure
- longer than oral commissure
- at same level
- at crown height level
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
37- the antigenicity of allogenic bone graft is decreased using
- autoclaving
- frozen dried
- freezing
- boiling water
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
38- Treatment of superiorly displaced fracture angle after extraction of
partially impacted lower third molar should be
-closed reduction and intermaxillary fixation
- Open reduction and internal fixation with bone plate at upper border
- Open reduction and internal fixation with bone plate at lower border
- No surgical intervention if occlusion is not disturbed
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
39- patient on warfarin anticoagulant therapy and prepared for tooth
extraction what should be done
- INR should be at the level 2-3 before surgery
- Administration of Vit-K
- stop medication 24 hour before extraction day
- hospitalized and heparinized the patient
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
40 – the normal range of protrusive mandibular movement
- 10 mm
- 20mm
- 25mm
- 30mm
41- which of the following anatomical structure involved in the
Preauricular approach for TMJ.
- superficial vessels and temporal branch of facial nerve
- great auricular and temoral branch
- Auriculo temoral, superficial vessels and temporal branch of facial
nerve
- zygomatico temoral and superficial temporal
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
42- A patient with history of diurnal bruxism present with TMJ
pain ,muscle tenderness, clicking,and limited mouth opening , A TMJ
MRI is negative for internal derangement. Reasonable treatement at this
point should include
- occlusal equlilibration
- arthocentesis with L.A and intrradicular steroid
- splint therapy
- diagnostic arthroscopy for lysis and lavage
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
43- diplopia with orbital floor fracture is due to restriction of eye globe
movement in which gaze
- limitation of upward and lateral gaze
- limitation of upward and medial gaze
- limitation of downward and lateral gaze
- limitation of downward and medial gaze
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
44- burning of bone during implant surgical procedure occur at
- 32° C
- 47° C
- 56° C
- 60 °C
45- which of the following ridge augmentation procedures indicated for
patient present with sever maxillary resorption and palatal vault
diminished
- submucosal vestibuloplasty
- Interposition bone graft
- onlay bone graft
one grafting of the edentulous atrophic maxilla with an
autogenous rib was first described by Terry, Albright, and
Baker. 21 Maxillary onlay bone grafting is indicated prima-
rily when severe resorption of the maxillary alveolus is
seen that results in the absence of a clinical alveolar ridge
and loss of adequate palatal vault form. 22

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
46- The amount of electromyography feedback that can be expected
during facial nerve monitoring and indicate proper facial nerve healing
after paralysis due to trauma
- 10% for 5 day monitoring
- 10 % for 10 days monitoring
- 15 % for 5 days monitoring
- 15 % for 10-14 day monitoring

----------------------------------------------------------------
47- the Dura mater lines the inside of the skull is
Less thickened and firmly adherent to skull base-
- firmly thickened and firmly adherent to skull base
- less thickened and loosely adherent to skull base
- firmly thickened and loosely adherent to skull base
---------------------------------------------------------------------
48- The type of dental needle used with X-tip instrument for
intraosseous anaesthesia
- 25 G short needle
- 27 G ultra-short needle
- 30 G short needle
- 27 G short needle
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
49- Penicillins used for treatment for odontogenic infections have
- narrow antimicrobial spectrum
- wide antimicrobial spectrum
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
50- the primary goal in management of odontogenic infection
- antibiotic therapy
- management of fever
- incision and drainage
- removal of the cause

51- the crystalloid which should be given first after maxillofacial trauma
- normal saline
- 5% dextrose
- Ringer's lactate
- 10% dextrose
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
52- hypovolemic shock develop after
- 10% blood
- 20%blood
- 30% blood
- 40% blood
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
53- the primary teeth are to be percussed to exclude
- pulpitis
- apical periodontits
- ankylosis
- root resorption
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
54- all of the following antibiotic can be used in infection of maxillary
and ethmoidial sinus infection extending to orbit except
- penicillin with metronidiazole
- clindamycin
- cefatroxil
- ampicilline with sulbactame
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
55- Ranula is treated by
- enuculation
- marsupilization
- marsupilization with packing
- enuculation with underlying minor salivary gland
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
55- malignancy occur most common in
- minor salivary gland
- sublingual salivary gland
- submandibular salivary gland
- parotid salivary gland
56- while making vertical incision for flap for mandibular third molar
impaction one can injure
- branches of facial nerve
- buccal nerve
- branches of facial artery and vein
- branches of lingual nerve
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
57- patient is prepared for dental implant placement in anterior
mandibular edentulous area but clinically there is high crestal
attachement of muscles and tissue and panoramic x-ray showing
adequate bone height , the indicated method of vestibuloplasty is
- lip switch / kazanjian technique‫للسفلي‬
- Obwegeser's
- submucosal vestibuloplasty‫للعلوي‬
- submucosal with sking graft

https://books.google.com.sa/books?
id=Jf9WZltV1BAC&pg=PA176&dq=submucosal+vestibuloplasty&hl=ar&s
a=X&ei=YbwXVe60JYzUau_EgpgE&ved=0CCUQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=
submucosal%20vestibuloplasty&f=false

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
58- the most appropriate antibiotic used for management of
osteomyelitis
- Erythromycin
- Clindymaycine
- Vancomycine
- Metronidazole
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
59- The primary vital sign in traumatized patient
- blood pressure
- pulse rate
- pulse pressure
- respiratory rate A/B/C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
60- the most common cause of teeth impaction
- retained deciduous teeth
- gingival fibrosis
- arch size
- associated lesion
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
61- the laboratory investigation finding that indicate renal failure
- Hypokalemia
- Hyperkalemia
- ketoacidosis
- hypernatremia
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
62- the most common flap for intraoral procedures
- envelop flap
- pyramidal flap
- two line incision flap‫اجااااااااااااااااا‬

- semilunar flap
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
63- for controlled type II diabetic patient which type of flap indicated for
surgical removal partially erupted horizontal impacted mandibular third
molar
- modified Ward's flap
- envelop flap
- curvilinear (comma) flap
- three incision line flap
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
64- the normal range of lateral excursive mandibular movement
- 10-12mm
- 15-20mm
- 20-25mm
- 25-30mm
----------------------------------------------------------
65- patient with myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome usually complain
from
- inability to open mouth
- clicking
- localized pain to preauricular area
- diffuse pain radiating to temprofacial region
----------------------------------------------------------------
66- the flap design for the maxillary anterior teeth with crowns
- semilunar flap
- Sub marginal flap
- triangular full mucoperiosteal flap
- rectangular full mucoperiosteal flap
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

67- one of the following not included in basic principles of flap design for
Prevention of Flap Necrosis
- the base of the flap should be broader than apex
- Flaps should have sides converge moving from the base to the apex of
the flap
- the length of a flap should be more than twice the width of the base
- an axial blood supply should be included in the base of the flap
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
68- patient with maxillary deficiency commonly appear to have
- adequate anterior teeth exposure
- deficiency of paranasal and infraorbital rim area
- a prominent chin
-a retruded upper lip

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
69- Which nerve fibers anaesthetized first
- Large myelinated fibers
- Large unmyelinated fibers
- Small myelinated fibers
- Small unmyelinated fibers
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
70- Which one of the following is the weakest vasoconstrictor
- Epinephrine
- Norepinephrine
- phenylephrine
- levonordefrine
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
71- If cartridge soaked in isopropyl alcohol for purpose of antisepsis, it
may result in
- burning sensation during injection
- Inflammation at site of insertion
- Prolonged paraesthesia
- Mucosal ulceration
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
72- rotameter on general anaesthesia is used to measure
- pressure of gas in the cylinder
- pressure of halothane
- flow of gases in the tube
73- Which of the following is not indicated to maintain airway in post
traumatic patient
- Nasopharyngeal
- oropharyngeal
- binasal cannula
- Virtue mask
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
73- patient present to emergency room with pain facial trauma with
fracture mandible and prepared for intubation for GA, which of the
following provide appropriate airway
- oropharyngeal intubation
- endotracheal intubation
- submental intubation
- Cricothyrotomy

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3141161/
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
74- patient take tricyclic antidepressant with local anaesthesia and
norepinephrine
- lignocaine cause hypotension
- lignocaine cause hypertension
-norepinephrine cause decrease depression
- norepinepharine cause increase depression

‫النور ابنفرين بيرفع الضغط وبخفف الدبرشن‬

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
75 – 18 year old female patient prepared for tooth extraction and dental
implant and there was past history of episodic recurrent syncope and
shortness of breath , examination reveal slight systolic and minimal
murmur , this patient suffer from
- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- mitral valve prolapse
- aortic regurgitation
- mitral valve stenosis
----------------------------------------------------------------------
76- which of the following case is recommended for endocarditis
prophylaxis
- coronary artery bypass graft
- surgically constructed pulmonary shunt
- mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation
- implanted defibrillator
Cardiac Conditions Stratification for Risk of Endocarditis
Endocarditis Prophylaxis Recommended
High Risk
Prosthetic heart valves
Surgically constructed systemic pulmonary
shunts or conduits
Complex cyanotic congenital heart disease
Prior bacterial endocarditis
Moderate Risk
Most other congenital cardiac malformations
Acquired valvular dysfunction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation and/
or thickened leaflets

Endocarditis Prophylaxis Not Recommended

Negligible Risk
Isolated secundum atrial septal defect
Surgical repair of atrial septal defect, ventricular septal
defect, or patent ductus arteriosus
Prior coronary artery bypass graft
Mitral valve prolapse
‫باإلنجليزية( نسدال الصمام التاجي أو تدلي الصمام التاجي‬: Mitral valve prolapse-MVP)
‫( ويعرف أيضًا بمتالزمة القلقة أو التكة‬click murmur syndrome) ‫( أو متالزمة بارلو‬Barlow's syndrome) .

77- the following drug can be administrated through endotracheal tube

except
- Atropine
- Epinephraine
- glycopoyrrolate
- narcan ‫جاااااااااااااااااااااا‬
Drugs that can be administered through the endotracheal tube are
lidocaine, epinephrine,
atropine, and Narcan (L-E-A-N). Administer all tracheal medications at 2-
2.5 times the
recommended IV dosage, diluted in 10 mL of normal saline or distilled
water. Tracheal
absorption is greater with distilled water as the diluent than with normal
saline, but distilled
water has a greater adverse effect on Pao2
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
78- what is the fentanyl opioid antagonist commonly used for clinical
anaesthesia
- Flumazenil
- Naloxone
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
79- During GA procedure ,The patient show fever ,an unexplained
tachycardia, hypertension and early muscle rigidity , the following
anaesthetic agent may be a cause for this clinical finding except
- succinylcholine depolarizing neuromuscular blockade agent
- halothane
- catecholamine
- non depolarizing neuromuscular agent

80- the primary effect of succinylcholine neuromuscular depolarizing

agent can be noticed frst on
- eyelid
- abdomen
- shoulder
- hand
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
81- which of the following antihypertensive drug associated with
gingival enlargement
- dilantin
- Inderal
- Thiazide
- phynotoin
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
82- the most invasive and aggressive type of ameloblastoma
- unicystic ameloblastoma of posterior mandible
- multicystic ameloblastoma of posterior mandible
- mulyicystic ameloblastoma of posterior maxilla
83- radiographic view for zygomatic arch fracture
- water's view
- submentovertex view
- posterioanterior view
- lateral view
84- the pharmacological action of Acyclovair
- absolute inhibitor for B lymphocyte
- absolute inhibitor for T lymphocyte
- absolute inhibitor for B&T lymphocyte
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
85- Respiratory embarrassment can occur in fracture
-angel.
-para symphysis.
-bilateral para symphysis
-bilateral subcondylar.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
86- The treatment of localized osteitis(dry socket)
-Debridement, curettage &sedative packing
-Curettage ,irrigation &sedative packing
-Irrigation &sedative packing
-None of above
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
87- treatment of chronic osteomyelitis consists of
- culture sensitivity and prolonged antibiotic therapy
- culture sensitivity with antibiotic therapy and hyperbaric oxygen
therapy
-sequestrectomy ,surgical exploration and prolonged antibiotic therapy
after culture sensitivity.
- sequestrectomy , surgical exploration and short course of antibiotic
after culture sensitivity.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
88- most of Fluid in body water found in :
- Intracellular
-between cells
- interestatial cells ( interstitial fluid 16%)
- plasma 4%
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
89- The position of a pregnant woman when fainting
- right lateral
- left lateral
- Trandlberg
- supine
90- the signs present for patient with cerebral concussion
- fixed pupil
- dilated pupil
- narrowed pupil
- normal pupil
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
91- Battle s Sign is
-fracture zygoma.
-fracture anterior cranial fossa.
- fracture middl cranial foss
- fracture condyle.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
92- aspirated foreign body goes to
- right bronchi
- left bronchi
- according to size
With normal growth and development, the adult right and left mainstem bronchi diverge from the
trachea with very different angles, with the right mainstem bronchus being more acute and
therefore making a relatively straight path from larynx to bronchus. Objects that descend beyond
the trachea are more often found in the right endobronchial tree than in the left.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
93- to make extraction for a patient following radiotherapy the best
time
- 2 weeks
- 4-6 weeks
- 6 weeks
- one year
‫هذا المريض قلع بعد االشعة الزم بعد اربع شهور‬
‫ يوم ومش اقل من اسبوعين‬21 ‫اذا المريض قلع قبل االشعة الزم‬
‫اجاااااااااااااااا‬

----------------------------------------------------------------------------
94- The dose of radiation that is consider risk factor for the
development of osteoradionecrosis
- 10 Gy
- 30 Gy
- 40 Gy
- 6oGy

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
95- the best suture material used for tongue
- Vicryl
- blak silk
- chromic
- Nylon

96- facial wounds are primary sutured at

- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 48 hours
- 72 hours
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
97- the best radiographic view of tempromandibular
joint is given by:
-transorbital view
-reverse towen,s view
-transpharyngeal
-panorex
-----------------------------------------------------------------
98- the opposite radiographic view for reverse towen view
- anteroposterior view
- posterioanterior view
- occipito mental view
- lateral oblique view
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
99- the recommended preoperative fasting status for human milk
infant is how many hour
- 2 hour
- 4 hour
- 6 hour
- 8 hour
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
100- the most unstable skeletal movement in orthognathic procedure
- Genioplasty
- Transverse maxillary expansion
- maxillary inferior repositioning
- mandibular setback
101- the best bone graft used in secondary alveolar cleft bone graft
procedure
- Particulated cancellous bone
- Cortical bone
- Corticocancellous bone
- alloplastic bone

102- which of the following is associated with the finding of bilateral

complex syndactyly of finger and toe
- Apert syndrome
- Carpenter syndrome
- Crouzon syndrom
- Saethre- Coetzen syndrom
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
103- viral infections which can seen in oral
cavity of patient with HIV
-Hairy leukoplakia
-Herpetic stomatitis
-Papilloma wartes
-All of above
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
104- the main purpose for placing collagen membrane over an alveolar
ridge augmentation graft is
- stabilize the graft
- prevent fibrous ingrowth
- give ridge contour on graft
- reduce vascular ingrowth to gain a hypoxic stimulus for bone
regeneration
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
105- The attachment of the bilaminar zone to meniscus of TMJ
- anterior
- posterior
- lateral
- medial
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
106- during inferior alveolar nerve block which of the following muscles
penetrated by the needle
- medial pterygoid
- lateral pterygoid
- buccinator
- superior constrictor

-
107- During TMJ arthrocentesis the injection is performed
- extracapsular
- intracapsular
- upper and lower joint space
- paracapsular

Arthrocentesis is used to manage TMJ problems in patients who do not respond well to
nonsurgical therapy. The major indications for its use are (1) acute or chronic limitation of motion
owing to an anterior displaced disc without reduction and (2) hypomobility resulting from
restriction of condylar translation in the upper joint space. Patients with normal range of motion
despite an anterior disc displacement with reduction who nonetheless have chronic pain also
respond favorably to arthrocentesis. Arthrocentesis also may be used to manage pain and
dysfunction in patients who have undergone previous invasive procedures that have failed to
relieve pain with limitation of function . The alteration of the biochemical environment within the
intracapsular space by arthrocentesis to relieve various vasoactive pain mediators is also another
strong indication for treatment. Arthrocentesis may bridge the gap between nonsurgical therapy
or nonsurgical and pharmacologic therapy and invasive TMJ surgery.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
108- 12 year old patient had finishing orthodontic treatement and
require placement of dental implant in extracted upper first molar what
should be done
- place short implant
- place large size implant
- wait until growth is finished
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
‫التالي هو مجموعة من االسئلة او النقاط التي جائت في االمتحان ولم اتذكر االختيارات جيدا‬

1- Diagnosis, the main treatment and antimicrobial therapy for

actinomycosis .

2- The secondary goal in management of odontogenic infection.

3- The toluidine blue test for tumors (Acetic acid 1% & toluidine blue 1%)

4- Management of Hyperventilation

5- Contents of the infratemporal fossa

6- Anatomical boundaries and communications of pterygopalatine fossa

7- Management of dental implant accidentally pushed into maxillary

sinus during step of Fixture placement
8- Disadvantage of buccal advancement flap used for closure of
oroantral communication

9- Advantage of Millard rotation flap for cleft lip repair

10- The height of vertical bone and width between the antral floor and
the crest of residual alveolar ridge in sinus lift procedure with subantral
augmentation with endosseous placement

11- The inhibitory mechanism of low dose long term Aspirin on platelet
function "antiplatelet aggregation" (Aspirin's ability to suppress the
production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes is due to its irreversible
inactivation of the (COX) enzyme ‫قدرة االسبرين لمنع إنتاج البروستاجالندين‬
‫و‬thromboxanes ‫( ويرجع ذلك إلى تثبيط الذي ال رجعة فيه من‬COX) ‫)انزيم‬

12- The growth (The weight, density) of human adult skull in comparison
to child.

13- The device used for airway protection without gastric emptying for
traumatized patient.

14- Syndroms associated with increased risk of sustaining transient

spinal neurologic deterioration after minor trauma.

15- The radiographic pictures taken for the cervical spine for
traumatized patient: (AP or anterior-posterior view), (lateral view), and
(odontoid view). Additional pictures swimmer's view C7-T1 of the
cervical spine might be needed

16- Syndromes associated with craniofacial synostosis.

17- Direct immunofluorescence studies for Ulcers, vesicles, or

erythematous lesions suspicious for immune‐based diseases like
pemphigus, pemphigoid, and lichen planus

18- Type of tissue found in development and ossification of mandibular

symphsis

19- CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) for intubated patient, the

number of chest compression and breath
20- Recommended and non recommended medication in pregnancy

21- The age and percentage at which Asymptomatic and radiographically

pathology-free retained third molars do possess the potential of cystic
(or neoplastic) transformation

22- Laboratory test used for patient with Cat scratch disease

23- Clinical picture and diagnosis of Nevus of Otta

24- The type of bone scan used for patient with malignancy and
osteomyelitis following T 99 bone scan

25- Function of Abducent (VI) cranial nerve

26- The most fatal bone lesion

27- the most common cause for developing bird face clinical picture
(TMJ Ankylosis) ‫او بيرروبين ساندروم‬

28- Clinical & Radiographic picture of esinophalic granuloma

29- Management of delayed postoperative bleeding for healthy patient

after tooth extraction

30- Blood supply for submandibular salivary gland

31- The first emergency drug of choice for shocked patient

32- Treatment of subcondylar fracture in children

33- Origin and insertion of pterygomandibular raphe

34- Management of Diabetic coma

35- Radiographic picture of cherubism

36- Clinical picture of hyperthyroidism

37- Absolute contraindication to hyperbaric oxygen

38- Clinical presentation of trigeminal neuralgia

39- Management of peripheral amelobastoma

40-Dautray's procedure

41- The drug used to antagonize benzodiazepine is flumazenil

nexilon

42- Radio resistant tumors

43-Management of Hemophilic patient

44- Drugs contraindicated in Asthmatic patient

45- Drugs contraindicated in renal failure

Cephalosporine-erythromycin-tetracycline-aminoglycosides

46- Pharmacology of Ibuprofen

47- Surgical steps for tracheostomy

48- Drug used to reverse effect of Heparin is protamine

49- Management of inactive fibrous dysplasia in anterior

mandible

50- Management of mental nerve parasthesia following dental

implant placement

51- Management of implant mobility after one week of

placement
=========================================================
‫أسئلة الدكتور أحمد السعيد‬
80/60 blood p. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine.
B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine.
C. An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic.
D. Incipient syncope.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency.

-A child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, the most appropriate

treatment is
1-Topical antiviral.
2-Topical antifungal.
3-Antibiotic.
4-Analgesic & hydration management

Instruments used for closed treatment of nasal fracture:

a- asch forceps
b- walsha forceps
c- boies fracture elevato

A patient has sustained head injury after MVA. He has cerebral

concussion and is in coma. If the patient stays in coma for how many
hours, will there be residual nuerological deficit.
1
2
4
8 0r 6

How much of minimal cortical thickness is required around neck of

implant
1
2
3
1>>>bone support at the implant neck: 1-mm-thick cortical bone (model
1), 0.5-mm-thick cortical bone
(model 2), absence of cortical bone (model 3), and absence of cortical
bone with 0.5 mm of resorption
of marginal trabecular bone (model 4). T4

Child 6 years have abnormal enamel and dentin and pulp in aquadrant
your diagnosis is
a- hypodontoplasia
b-reginonal odontplasia
c-dentinogensis imperficta
d- amelogensis imperfecta

A surgeon is placing a dental implant irt #12. Implant displaced into

sinus. What is next step?

Leave in the sinus, prescribe antibiotics and observe

Just leave it as it is
Explore and removal it surgically Trans crestally
Wait for a week and remove it Trans nasally after that

- In an upright position, blood from medial cantus, lateral nose and upper
lip drains into:
A. Inferiorly to the facial vein
B. Superiorly to facial vein
C. Cavernous sinus
D. Pterygoid plexus

The optimum Temperature when preparing a tap for inserting an implant

is:
A. 30-40
B42-47
C.50-55
D.55-60

child had farcture of coronoid process ex. show right side have occl I and
left side have occl II ,, what u should do :
a-rigid fixation
b-flexible fixation
c-leave it
d- surgical removal of the fractured segament and bone graft

lesion arround impacted lower 8 mutilocular with corse septa slowly

growing buccolingual with root resorption
1- ameloblastoma
2-keratocyst
3-dentigerous cyst
4-giant cell granuloma

Patient will make endo surgery, the dr give her block and still the tooth
was not anasthetized , why ?
a- anesthesia spread so far in nerve
b- anesthesia spread with inflammatory fluid
c- inflammatory fluid make circulation cycle
Trauma blow in to r8 side of face with ocular hemorrhage in r8 side and
ecchymosis of buccal sulcus and cant open his mouth
a-lefort1
b- le fort 2
c- le fort
d- zygomatic

Pt with wide cleft lip and palate lip adhesion or nasoalveolar molding
planned
few week after birth
First – third month
Third to sixth
6–9

pt with phynytoin u did gingivectomy u will wait for how much time to
heal
a-3 days
b-5-7 days
c-months

least tooth causing crowding in lower arch (LEAST)

a- upper 6
b-lower 6
c-primary first molar
d-2ry pri mola

What is the CT scan cut for zygomaticfracture: (OBLIQUE

PARASAGITTAL VIEW FOR ORBITAL FRACTURES)
A. 0.5mm
B. 1-1.5mm
C. 15.2.5mm
D. 2.5-3.5

Pt with class 2 with good chin

Advancement genioplasty
Increase orthodontically class 2 condition and maxillary setback.
Orthodontically increase and protrude incisors to class 3 then surgery to
mandible?
Mandibular advancement and reduction Genioplasty‫جااااااااااااااا‬

A patient walks into your clinic with subconjunctival ecchymosis without

visualization of posterior limit. (She also has black eye? No nerve
paresthesia. She gives h/o an Orthognathic surgery done to correct mid
face deformity. What would be the most likely procedure

High Lefort 1
Quadrangular lefort 2
Lefort 3
Pyramidal Lefort 2
Quadrangular lef 1

A pt with Class 1 molar relation has normal chin and a defect in the
anteroposterior relation of her mand to maxilla relation. What Treatment
plan

Genioplasty
Mandibular advancement with genioplasty
Lefort 1 with mandibular advancement

Local anesthetic of choice in uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

a) prilocaine ‫يؤثر على القلب‬
b) mepivacaine
c) bupivacaine
d) lidocaine

Cause pain on mastication w limit function

1 m f p with dysfunction
2 arthiritis
3 internal derangement w out displacment

tunel fracture involve

1-1bone
2-2 bone
3-3bone
4-1and 3bone
- s.aureus
-actinomyces

Pt after lower third molar surgery suffer severe bleeding, how will you
control bleeding

Local anesthesia with adrenaline , remove clot, pack and suture.

Remove clot, place gelfoam, apply pressure, LA with adrenaline, suture
Give vitamin K……..?
Use 1:1000 adrenaline in to socket and soft tissue

What is the size of Maxillary Sinus:

A. 14 ML
B. 20ML
C. 9M?
d.30

As part of preoperative assessment for elective facial cosmetic surgery,

photographs need to be done
With ring flash
Flash at the side of the lens
With overhead flood lights
In natural light

Muscle control cleft palat ?

A.tensor palatini
B.levator palatini

Tooth 36 on x ray no pdl after ex you found lesion like pearl on furcation
1-enamelpearl 2-hyper cemn 3- enostosis

Cyclosporin effect is
A. Increase T-Lymphocytes and decrease B-Lymphocytes
B. Increase T-Lymphocytes and B-Lymphocytes
C. Decrease T-Lymphocyte and increase B-Lymphocytes
D. Affect T-Lymphocytes only ‫يقلل االثنين‬

Antibiotic for empiric treatment in end stage renal deficiency is: ‫صياح‬
A. Flagyl
B. Doxycillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Penicillin

As part of preoperative assessment for thyroidectomy surgery, ‫صياح‬

photographs need to be done
with ring flash
Flash at the side of the lens
with overhead flood lights
In natural light

tHe optimum Temperature when preparing a tap for inserting an

implant is:
A. 30-40
B42-47
C.50-55
D.55-60
 :Child 12 need Implant you will put

Wider one

Smaller one

Appropriate one

Wait growth is complete

================

:Patient with copd before surgery amount of O 2

2.5l

4l

6l

No

==========================

:Temperature of Implant placement before necrosis of bone

 27

37

47

57

=========================

?Meaning of Ptosis

Dropping upper eyelid

Abnormal lowering or drooping of an organ or a part, especially a

drooping of the upper eyelid caused by muscle weakness or
.paralysis

==============================

: Pt need sagital split with pain in tmj

Correct answer is

Treat tmj then do the operation

==============================

:Patient has accidental intra venous Sodium Thiopetenil ..shouldn't do

Remove the needle

Give ligocaine

Give fentyl

Block plexus

=================================

: Orange peel appearance in soft palate

Smoking

Orifice of ducts

?
============================

Presence of pus mean :

Body can,wall off

Body can't wall off

Virulent organism

Low immunity

=================================

Component of emla with percentage

n a study, the effect of prilocaine on pre- and postnatal development was examined in rats treated with up to 2.8 times the
maximum recommended human dose of prilocaine in lidocaine-prilocaine gel from day 6 of gestation to weaning. There was no
evidence of altered postnatal development, viability, or reproductive capacity in any offspring.
Lidocaine-prilocaine topical cream has been assigned to pregnancy category B by the FDA. Animal studies have failed to reveal
evidence of impaired fertility or fetal harm. There are no controlled data in human pregnancy. Lidocaine-prilocaine topical cream
is only recommended for use during pregnancy when benefit outweighs risk.
Lidocaine / prilocaine topical Breastfeeding Warnings
Lidocaine, and probably prilocaine, are excreted into human milk. Following application of the cream to a nursing mother, the
milk:plasma ratio of lidocaine is 0.4 and is not determined for prilocaine. The manufacturer recommends that caution be used
when administering lidocaine-prilocaine topical cream to nursing women.

===============================

:Not involved in infratemporal space

Carotid sheath

Foramen oval

Foramen rodundom
 Pterygoid plexus

=================================

: Max rads to make osteoporosis

3500

4800

5800

6400

===============================

Patient has ceramic crown and require endo surgery which is the best approach

A-semilunar

B-sub marginal

======================================

Lag screw used for

compresion-1

expansion - 2

comminuted fracture -3

‫على ما أتذكر أعتقد نحتاجة في أي نوع من الكسور‬

======================================

Cancer kill patient most common

cardioresiratory arrest-1

asphyxia-2

blow out carotid artery-3

blockage of internal carotid artery- 3

================================

Empirical antibiotic for osteomylitis

 Clidamycin

Vancomycin

Erythromycin

Metronidazole

=================================

Malocclusion during insertion screw due to

more force-1

‫ مشكلة بوضع الشريحة‬encounter plate-2

longer screw-3

short screw- 4

===================================

Before biopsy in malignant we need to differintiate between malignant and normal by used

toulidine blue washing with 1% acetic acid malignant discolored and normal remain 1-1%

toulidine washing 1% acidic acid malignant remain and normal discolored 1% -2

toulidine and 5 %acidic malignant remain and normal discolored 5% -3

5%toulidine and 5 % acidic malignant discolored and normal remain -4

=================================

Patient with Trecher Collins syndrome with mandibular deficiency surgeon decided to do
‫ أعتقد المسافة المطلوبة‬bimaxillary surgery need mandibular adavencement more 12 m

intralorally vertical ramus osteotomy-1

extraoral vertical ramus osteotomy-2

bisagital split osteotomy-3

 inverted L osteotomy- 4

======================================

Millard rotation technique

avoiding muscle manipulation-1

straight line-2

lip and nose as one unit-3

======================================

flap in lower wisdom due to ‫ مش فاكر اسم الفالب‬Blister bleeding in bicoronal

retromolar artery-1

facial artery vean-2

buccal artery-3

??-4

=====================================

In maxillary deficiency do maxillary expansion should maintain blood supply of soft tissue of

lateral nasal wall and perpendicular wall of palat-1

medial nasal wall and horizontal wall of palat-2

lateral nasal with horizontal wall of palat-3

medial nasal with perpendicular wall of palat- 4

===========================================

Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria in infection

staph spp-1

streptococuus spp-2

fusi spp-3
 =====================================

Patient with long term steroid and undergoing to general anaesthesia for surgery we need
not to any surgical stress by

no steroid but stress reduction protocol-1

hydrocortisone before surgery not mention double dose 2-50-75

hydrocortisone 3-100-150

??-4

=======================================

Antibiotic for osteomylitis is

clindamycin or vancomycin or erythromycin -1

==============================

Empirical antibiotic for osteomylitis is

vancomycin-1

clidamycin-2

=================================

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patient of multiple extraction you will give
L oxygen 2.5- 1

2-4L oxg

no need if it's only COPD -3

=====================================

Patient treated for rheumatoid arthritis take steriod for year need multiple extraction

1-50-100

150- 2-100

=================================

Desire decrease secretion with slight depression of CNS drug of choice is

atropine -1

scopolamine -2

Glycopoyrrolate -3
 =================================

Truma with pulse rate 130, BP 100/60 breathing 30 /min how much blood loss is expected
40%- 30
% 15-30
Less than 15

=====================================

The effect of Le fort 1 on nasal tip 1- protrusion when doing adavencement 2- retrusion when
doing setback 3- not affected when doing downward position

https://www2.aofoundation.org/wps/portal/surgery?
bone=CMF&segment=Mandible&showPage=approach
.....
https://www.facebook.com/Q.B.Hospital/photos/a.148233331954179.2
7912.109656172478562/351121331665377/

Acute oroantral communication is a common occurrence during extraction of the

posterior
maxillary teeth. In most instances these perforations are small and the blood clot that
fills the
extraction site usually seals such small perforations. If there is an infection in the
antrum, the
defect is large (>5 mm in diameter), the gingival tissue are not approximated, the
wound is
dehisced, or the patient does not follow the postoperative instructions, an oro-antral
fistula
occurs. Although option A seems reasonable for a small fistula, due to the size of the
defect,
local suturing without flap development will most likely not result in primary closure,
and
then result in an oro-antral communication. Option B offers the best chance of
primary
closure of the large communication and prevents development of de novo sinusitis. A
free
graft cannot survive over a hole without its own blood supply and thus option C is
incorrect.
Option D is also incorrect because it treats chronic sinusitis. There is no indication in
the
stem of the question that sinusitis occurred. Closure of the communication is not
addressed
 Calcium channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion.

a. True.
b. False. ***

Drug used to decrease saliva during impression taking is:

1. Cholinergic.
2. AntiCholinergic. ***
3. Antidiabetic.
4. Anticorticosteroid

‫االستيل كولين ال ودي مفرز‬

‫مضادات الكولين متل االتروبين مقللة لالفرازالال ودي‬

Cholinergic ‫يزيد اللعاب ويبطئ النبض ويزيد اإلفراز المعدي‬
- anticholinergic ‫تنقص اللعاب وتوسع الحدقة وتزيد النبض وتنقص اإلفراز المعدي‬
- ‫االستيل كولين عمل األتروبين يكافيء عمل األسيتيل كولين ويعاكس عمل الكولين استيراز‬.

Usual Adult Dose for Trigeminal Neuralgia((carbomizapine))

Initial dose: 100 mg orally twice a day (immediate or extended release) or 50 mg
orally 4 times a day (suspension).
May increase by up to 200 mg/day using increments of 100 mg every 12 hours
(immediate or extended release), or 50 mg four times a day. (suspension), only as
needed to achieve freedom from pain. Do not exceed 1200 mg/ day.
Maintenance dose: 400 to 800 mg/day.
Some patients may be maintained on as little as 200 mg/day while others may
require as much as 1200 mg/day. At least once every 3 months throughout the
treatment period, attempts should be made to reduce the dose to the minimum
effective level or to discontinue the drug

2. What is the number of pharyngeal "brancheal" arches:

a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 6. ***
‫‪d. 7.‬‬

‫المرجع‪Anatomy of the Human Body " :‬‬

‫‪3. What is the name of first pharyngeal "brancheal" arches:‬‬

‫‪a. Maxillary.‬‬
‫*** ‪b. Mandibular.‬‬
‫األقواس البلعومية ستة أولها الفكي السفلي وثانيها الالمي ‪ Hyoid‬وتسمى البقية الثالث والرابع‬
‫والخامس والسادس‪.‬‬

‫‪4. Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone insert in‬‬
‫االمتداد الصدغي خلف الحفرة تحت الصدغ للعظم الصدغي يدخل في ‪coronoid process:‬‬
‫الناتئ المنقاري‬
‫*** ‪a. True.‬‬
‫‪b. False.‬‬

‫ينفتح على الصماخ السفلي‪ :‬القناة األنفية الدمعية‪a.‬‬

‫ينفتح على الصماخ األوسط‪ :‬الجيب الغربالي األمامي واألوسط‪.‬والفكي‬

‫ينفتح على الصماخ العلوي‪ :‬الجيب الغربالي الخلفي‪B.‬‬

‫ينفتح على الجوف الوتدي الغربالي‪ :‬الجيب الوتدي‪D.‬‬

‫‪5.‬‬ ‫‪Cell that can give more than one type:‬‬

‫‪a.‬‬ ‫مصورات الليف ‪Fibroblast.‬‬
‫‪b.‬‬ ‫‪Odontoblast‬‬
‫‪c.‬‬ ‫*** ‪Mesenchymal cell.‬‬

‫‪6.‬‬ ‫عملية ابتالع الخاليا للجزيئات ‪The process of cell engulfing particle is called:‬‬
‫‪a.‬‬ ‫التقام ‪Endocytosis.‬‬
‫‪b.‬‬ ‫قذف ‪Exocytosis.‬‬
‫‪c.‬‬ ‫بلعمة *** ‪Phagocytosis.‬‬
‫‪d.‬‬ ‫احتساء ‪Pinocytosis.‬‬
Mechanical principles involved in extraction- Lever, wedge, & wheel and axle
Warfarin affects clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X by impairing the conversion of
vitamin K to its active form. The normal PT for a healthy patient is 10.0—13.5
seconds with a control of 12 seconds. Oral procedures with a risk of bleeding should
not be attempted if the PT is greater than 1½ times the control or above 18 seconds
with a control of 12 seconds.
The last sensation whih disappear after local anesthisea A-pain b-deep pressure. ***
c-temperature Both sensory & motor nerves are equally sensitive. Order of pain
blockade is pain, temperature, touch, deep pressure sense. Applied to tongue bitter
taste is lost first, followed by sweet & sour, and salty taste is lost last of all.

which of the following materials is NOT a hemostatic agent : A) Oxidized cellulose

B) Gelvon C) Zinc Oxide. ***

What’s the test used for HIV: Elisa. ***

The factors that influence the induction of cleft palate:

1. Hereditary.
2. Environmental.
3. A and B. ***
4. None.

A prosthesis used to close a congenital or acquired opening in the palate is:

1. Stent.
2. Splint.
3. Obturator. ***
4. None.
The aim from prosthetic surgery:
A) increase stability .retention ,ridge dimension b) increase vertical dimension.
c) esthetic anterior.

on radiograph (onion skin) appearance... and under microscope there is glycogen a-

osteosarcoma b- pindborg tumor c- ewing sarcoma***

Weakest vasoconstrictor

phenylephrine-1

levonordefrine-2

epinephrine-3

norepinephrine-4
‫شريف على المسنجر‬

Patient with class 1 molar relation with sever retrogenia what treatment

1-genioplasty

2-mandibular advancement with genioplasty

3-le fort 1 with mandibular advancement

Normal range of protrusive of mandile

1-10

2- 20

Most common flap intralorally

1-envelop

2-pyramidal

Normal range of lateral excursive mandibular movement

1-10-20

2-15 -20

flap design for maxillary anterior teeth with crown

1-semilunar

2-submarginal

3-trianglar full mucoperiosteal

4-rectangular full mucoperiosteal

Weakest vasoconstrictor

1-phenylephrine

2-levonordefrine

3-epinephrine

4-norepinephrine

Which nerve fiber anesthetized first

1-lage mylinated

2-lage un mylinated

3-small unmylinated

4-small myelinated

0.4 cm lesion found below ear lobe lesion is

1-attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying

connective tissue sebaceous cyst

2- attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying

connective tissue epidermoid cyst

3- attached to skin but not movable and attached to underlying

connective tissue sebaceous cyst

3-attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying connective

tissue epidermoid cyst ‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

Pain conduction through fibers

1-unmylinated C fibers

2-mylinated C fibers

3-Delta fibers ‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

Patient class 2 with good chin

1-advancement genioplasty

2- Increase orthodontically class 2 condition and maxillary setback

3- orthodontically increase and protrude incisors to class 3

4-mandibular advancement and reduction genioplasty ‫جااااااااااااااااه‬

Post operative numbness associated with the lower lip after bilateral
sagittal split osteotomy is seen after

1-mandibular manipulation

2-use of plate and screw for fixation

3-use of drill to osteotomize

4- use of bone osteotomy ‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

Patient has midface deformity with deficiency in malar and zygomatic

regions how would you correct her condition

1-high level Le fort 1

2- Le fort 2

3-le fort 3

4- Quadranglar Le fort 2 ‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

The following drug can be administrated through endotracheal tube
except

1-atropine

2- epinephrine

3- naloxane

4- glycopoyrrolate‫جااااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

To make extraction for a patient following radiotherapy the best time

1- 2 weeks

2- 4-6 with

3- 6 w‫جاااااااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

Post operative numbness associated with the lower lip after bilateral
sagittal split osteotomy is seen after

1-mandibular manipulation

2-use of plate and screw for fixation

3-use of drill to osteotomize

4- use of bone osteotomy

Instrument used for closed treatment of nasal fracture

1-asch forceps

2-walshams forceps
3-boies elevator

Treatment Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is

1- topical antiviral

2-topical antifungal

3-antibiotic

4- analgesics and hydration management

Most probable diagnosis

1- toxic reaction to lidocaine

2-incipient syncope

3- allergic reaction to local anathesia

Child with fracture coronoid show right side occlusion class 1 and left
class 2 what should do

1-rigid fixation

2-flexible fixation

3-leave it

Endo surgery and give block anesthesia still tooth not anaestized

1-spread far in nerve

2- spread with inflammatory fluid

Gingvectomy after phynytoin how much time you will wait to heal

1-3days

2 -5-7 d

3-months

What is CT scan cut for zygomatic fracture

1- 2.5-3.5

2-0.5

3-1-1.5mm

Tunel fracture involve

1- one bone

2- 2 bones

3-3 bones

4- 1 and 3 bone

Preoperative assessment for elective facial cosmetic surgery photograph

need to be done

1-with over head flood lights

2- with ring flash

3- flash at side of the lens

Preoperative assessment of thyroidectomy surgery, photograph need to

be done

1-with ring flash

2-over head flood lights

3- flash at the side of the lens

Patient with ocular hemorrhage and ecchymosis of buccal sulcus and

can't open mouth

1-zygomatic fracture

2-le fort 1

The most unstable skeletal movement orthographic procedure

1- maxillary inferior reposition

2- mandibular set back

3- genioplasty

4- Transverse maxillary expansion

Preoperative fasting milk infant how many hours ‫قبل العملية‬

2-6 h

4h

Pain conduction through fibers 1-unmylinated C fibers 2-mylinated C fibers 3-Delta fibers

The opposite radiographic view for reverse town view

1-anteroposterior

2-occipitomental Waters' view

3- posterioanterior

The most appropriate cause injury of inferior alveolar nerve during

bilateral sagittal split osteotomy is

1-manipulation of the body segment

2-method of internal fixation (bicortical-monocortical - lag screw)

To get more cancellous bone during iliac bone graft harvest

1- decapping of crest

2-medial and lateral cortical pedicle

3-medial cortical pedicle with muscle

The osteotomy cut for vertical ramus osteotomy procedure is incorrectly
high what is next step

1-make inverted L osteotomy ‫اعتقد‬

2-make C osteotomy

3- apart procedure and fix codyle

Pulsed MRI scanning of the TMJ show

1-T2 weighted images show inflammatory changes

2-T2 weighted images show disc position and perforation

Asymmetrical pupil

blow in fracture

Blow out fracture

Perforation of eye ball

Salivary gland carcinoma treatment

1-surgery

2-chemo

3-radiation

In cyst after aspiration put in it

1- sod silicate

2-sod polyethyl sulfate

3-sod tetra...

Prefer glutardhyde over atropine

1-increase CNS depression

2-quick onset and short duration???

Subconjuctival surgery medial limitation to

1-medial canthus

2-medial pupil

3-punctat

Why do primary alveolar cleft augmentation

1-delayed eruption

2-affect maxillary maturation

Favorable angle fracture Ao/ASIF compression plate

1-1mm-.3mm comp plate

2-1.6-.8mm compression plate

Patient has midface deformity with deficiency in malar and zygomatic

regions how would you correct her condition

1-high level Le fort 1

2- Le fort 2

3-le fort 3

4- Quadranglar Le fort 2

Truma with pulse rate 130, BP 100/60 breathing 30 /min how much
blood loss is expected

30 -40%

15-30 %

Less than 15

Primary goal in management of odontogenic infections is management

of fever or remove cause

Fracture of naso ethmoidal orbital how to measure telecanthus

1-ala base distance
2-interpuillary distance
Gingvectomy after phynytoin how much time you will wait to heal

1-3days

2 -5-7 d

3-months

Asymmetrical pupil

blow in fracture

Blow out fracture

Perforation of eye bal

Pulsed MRI scanning of the TMJ show

1-T2 weighted images show inflammatory changes

2-T2 weighted images show disc position and perforation

Salivary gland carcinoma treatment

1-surgery

2-chemo

3-radiation
In cyst after aspiration put in it

1- sod silicate

2-sod polyethyl sulfate

3-sod tetra...

Prefer glutardhyde over atropine

1-increase CNS depression

2-quick onset and short duration

Subconjuctival surgery medial limitation to

1-medial canthus

2-medial pupil

3-punctat

Why do primary alveolar cleft augmentation

1-delayed eruption

2-affect maxillary maturation

Truma with pulse rate 130, BP 100/60 breathing 30 /min how much
blood loss is expected
30 -40%

15-30 %

Less than 15

Primary goal in management of odontogenic infections is management

of fever or remove cause

Desire decrease secretion with slight depression of CNS drug of choice is

1- atropine

2- scopolamine

3- Glycopoyrrolate

The osteotomy cut for vertical ramus osteotomy procedure is incorrectly

high what is next step

1-make inverted L osteotomy

2-make C osteotomy

3- apart procedure and fix codyle

Asymptomatic impacted lower 8 treatment option

1- just observe and follow up a 6 months

2-wait and watch for several years

3- no treatment

4- surgical extraction
Tooth with destroyed crown completely up to level of bone with some
bone loss at apical third and need immediate placement implant
following surgery the plane for extraction?

1-transalveolar extraction using elevator

2-intraalveolar extraction using root tip forceps

3- intraalveolar extract by straight forceps

Best antibacterial for odontogenic infections in end stage of renal failure

and patient allergy to penicillin.? 1- clindamycin 2-doxycillin

The best antibacterial for ethmoidal and maxillary sinusitis 1-penicillin 2-

ampicillin

Antibacterial for osteomylitis 1-penicillin 2-clidamycin

Orbital cellulitis is caused by 1-paranasal sinus infection 2- soft tissue

infection of orbit

Narrow spectrum antibiotic 1-cause host flora minimised 2-causing

organism minimized
Use the narrowest-spectrum antibiotic. When an antibiotic is administered to a patient, most
of the susceptible bacteria are killed. If the antibiotic is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic, it kills
bacteria of a narrow range.

Is true about ibrufen 1- it's peak plasma level after 6- 8 hr 2-its largely
bound to plasma protein
Empirical antibiotic for osteomylitis is 1-vancomycin2-clidamycin
‫جااااااااااااااه‬

Antibiotic for osteomylitis is 1- clindamycin 2 vancomycin or 3

erythromycin‫جااااااااااااااااااااااه‬

Child 12 need Implant you will put:

Wider one
Smaller one
Appropriate one
Wait growth is complete

Presence of pus mean :

Body can,wall off
Body can't wall off
Virulent organism
Low immunity

Millard rotation technique

1-avoiding muscle manipulation
2-straight line
3-lip and nose as one unit

18 - The most common tumor in infancy and children:

- Fibroma
- Hemangioma
- ameloblastoma
- ameloblastic fibroma
Malocclusion during insertion screw due to
1-more force
2-encounter plate ‫مشكلة بوضع الصفيحة‬
3-longer screw
4 -short screw

Patient with Trecher Collins syndrome with mandibular

deficiency surgeon decided to do bimaxillary surgery need
mandibular adavencement more 12 m ‫أعتقد المسافة المطلوبة‬

1-intralorally vertical ramus osteotomy

2-extraoral vertical ramus osteotomy

3-bisagital split osteotomy

4 -inverted L osteotomy

Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria in infection

1-staph spp
2-streptococcus spp
3-fusi spp

Not involved in infratemporal space:

Carotid sheath
Foramen oval
Foramen rodundom
Pterygoid plexus

7- axial C.T for fracture zygoma is used to demonstrate :

- floor of the orbit
- roof of the orbit
- lateral and medial wall of maxillary sinus
- lateral nasal wall

‫الزم نقرا من الكونتمبرري‬

Interpositional bone graft

C. Transpositional bone graft

D. Vestibuloplasty

Which fibers of nerve are anesthetized first

A-mantle
B-core
C-both
151 – lower ant.
, 151A – mand bicuspids,
17 – molars lower
23- cowhorn mandibular,
mand wisdom – 222
150 – upper anterior and single rooted (universal )
150A – Upper bicuspids
53 – up molars
18
Most in maxillofacial

sternoCleidomastoid flap,

temporalis muscle,

pectoralismajor,

trapezius,

latissimus dorsi,

and platysma flaps

https://books.google.ae/books?
id=Pb_lcACduEQC&pg=PA25&dq=while+making+vertical+incision+for+flap+for+man
dibular+third+molar+impaction+one+can+injure+-+branches+of+facial+nerve+-
+buccal+nerve+-+branches+of+facial+artery+and+vein+-
+branches+of+lingual+nerve&hl=ar&sa=X&ei=E44aVaeHDM33avirgKgG&ved=0CB0Q
6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=while%20making%20vertical%20incision%20for%20flap
%20for%20mandibular%20third%20molar%20impaction%20one%20can%20injure
%20-%20branches%20of%20facial%20nerve%20-%20buccal%20nerve%20-
%20branches%20of%20facial%20artery%20and%20vein%20-%20branches%20of
%20lingual%20nerve&f=false

https://books.google.ae/books?
id=rUm6lLIkTFoC&pg=PA89&lpg=PA89&dq=while+making+vertical+incision+for+flap
+for+mandibular+third+molar+impaction+one+can+injure+-
+branches+of+facial+nerve+-+buccal+nerve+-
+branches+of+facial+artery+and+vein+-
+branches+of+lingual+nerve&source=bl&ots=fUYgYhH4VF&sig=UJhSHGhY0hhZGyyC
Hko7iKgsQTY&hl=ar&sa=X&ei=emcaVeLGLtfuaPnKgpAO&ved=0CCEQ6AEwAQ#v=on
epage&q=while%20making%20vertical%20incision%20for%20flap%20for
%20mandibular%20third%20molar%20impaction%20one%20can%20injure%20-
%20branches%20of%20facial%20nerve%20-%20buccal%20nerve%20-%20branches
%20of%20facial%20artery%20and%20vein%20-%20branches%20of%20lingual
%20nerve&f=false
what gauge of needle of aspiration : FNA
biopsy is performed using a syringe with a 20-gauge or smaller

needle.

needle for biopsy aspiration:

a. 19 gauge
b. 22 gauge
c. 26 gauge

All causes hyperprolactinemia, EXCEPT:

a) Pregnancy
b) Acromegaly
c) Methyldopa

d) Allopurinol‫للنقرص‬
e) Hypothyroidism

The amount of electromyographic feedback that can be expected -46

during facial nerve monitoring and indicate proper facial nerve healing
after paralysis due to trauma
for 5 day monitoring 10% -
for 10 days monitoring % 10 -
for 5 days monitoring % 15 -
for 10-14 day monitoring % 15 -
----------------------------------------------------------------
the Dura mater lines the inside of the skull is -47
-Less thickened and firmly adherent to skull base
firmly thickened and firmly adherent to skull base -
less thickened and loosely adherent to skull base -
firmly thickened and loosely adherent to skull base -
---------------------------------------------------------------------
The type of dental needle used with X-tip instrument for intraosseous -48
anaesthesia
G short needle 25 -
G ultra-short needle 27 -
G short needle 30 -
- 27 G short needle

the pharmacological action of Acyclovair -

absolute inhibitor for B lymphocyte -
absolute inhibitor for T lymphocyte -
absolute inhibitor for B&T lymphocyte -