Technical

QUESTION ANSWER
'TA Only' mode is enabled automatically: below 1,000ft RA when TA/RA mode is
selected.
A fast realignment should be complete in: 30 seconds
A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and take no action - the auto abort capability
prepares to return to the departure airfield. programs cabin to land at takeoff field
The OFF SCHED DESCENT light elevation
illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew
must:
A fluid leak develops in System A electric Fluid quantity in System A reservoir
pump. decreases to zero and all System A pressure
is lost.
A fuel CONFIG alert is extinguished if: Centre tank quantity less than 363kgs
A fuel CONFIG Alert remains displayed until: Centre fuel tank quantity less than 363 kgs

A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light
air ducting. This is indicated on the forward
overhead panel by
A leak develops in the System A electric- The PTU will not function as all system
driven pump; how does this affect the pressure is lost
operation of the PTU?
A leak in standby hydraulic system will cause 0.72
system B fluid indication decrease, to
approximately:
A leak occurs in the standby system - which The LOW QUANTITY light will illuminate
statement is correct? when the standby reservoir is approx half
empty, the standby reservoir quantity will
decrease to zero and the system B reservoir
level will decrease to approx 72%
A Mach Trim System provides speed stability Mach .615
at airspeeds above:
A magenta bug on the vertical speed the speed selected in the MCP vertical speed
indicator display on the PFD indicates: window with V/S pitch mode engaged

A pack light illuminates, it does not A dual pack failure in which the pack will
extinguish on reset of the master caution continue to operate until excessive
recall. What could have been the cause of temperature is sensed.
the alert?
A single detector loop for an engine fails and There is no flight deck indication of single loop
the related OVHT/DET switch in the aft failure with the OVHT/DET switch in
electronic panel is in the NORMAL position. NORMAL.
What flight indications can you expect?

A TA symbol showing on the Navigation The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.

Display (ND) has, alongside it, a down arrow
and '- 07'. This means:
A TA symbol showing on the ND has, The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm
alongside it, a down arrow and '- 07'. This
means:
Above 37,000 feet the pressurization 8.35psid
controller maintains a pressure differential
of:

Pagina 1
 Technical

Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger Pulling one mask down will activate all masks
oxygen masks drop down from the stowage: in that unit.

AFDS is engaged in Altitude hold and MCP SPD/CWS R (in amber, below the
heading select. If the heading select switch FMA)/ALT HOLD.
on the MCP was pushed what would the
FMAs d isplay?
After a flight director take off in TO/GA N1/LNAV/MCP SPD
mode, using LNAV, what FMAs occur if the
autopilot is engaged during the climb and
above thrust reduction altitude?
After a normal takeoff which F/D pitch V2 plus 20kts
command can you expect?
After a normal takeoff which pitch command V2 to V2+20kts
can you expect?
After a steady cruise at FL 370 you climb to It will indicate a descent due to a scheduled
FL 390 and reset the FLT ALT in the change in differential pressure from 7.8 psi to
pressurization panel accordingly. What 8.35 psi when selecting a FLT ALT above FL
would you expect the cabin rate of climb 370.
indicator to indicate during the climb?
After autobraking has started, what pilot All of the above.
actions disarm the autobrake system
immediately and illuminate the AUTO
BRAKE DISARM light?:
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until 800 feet above field elevation

After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until 800 feet above Field Elevation.
which altitude?
After moving the APU switch to the OFF 60 seconds
position, how long is the cooling period
before the APU shuts down?
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the Blank, requiring reloading
flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV
DATA base is expired and must be changed.
What will the RTE page look like after the
NAV DATA base change?
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the Blank, requiring reloading
flight crew notices that the ACTIVE
navigation database has expired and must
be changed. What will the RTE page look
like after the navigation database change?

After the loss of all generators, two fully 60 minutes

charghed batteries can provide standby
power for a minimum of:
Air from the preconditioned ground source The Mix Manifold
enters the air conditioning system through
Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kg, of fuel in an amber IMBAL indication below main tank
the No. 1 main tank and 3060 kg, of fuel in No 1, fuel quantity arc and digits on tank also
the No. 2 main tank. You will see: turn amber
Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kgs of fuel in An amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1.
main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn
tank No. 2. You will see: amber

Pagina 2
 Technical

All TCAS alerts are inhibited: By GPWS and windshear warnings.

All window heat switches are selected to the The window is at the correct temperature
ON position. The green window heat ON
light for Right Side Window extinguishes.
The most likely reason is:
Alternate brakes are operated by: system A
amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed 91 kgs
until the imbalance is reduced to:

Amber PACK light illumination during Master Failure of either primary or standby pack
Caution recall, that extinguishes when controller.
master caution is reset, indicates
An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of The captain's and first officer's altitude
the altimeter tape is and indication of: indications differ more than 200 feet for more
than 5 seconds.
An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the
corner of PFD indicates: ground before starting second engine.
An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the The captains and first officer's airspeeds
bottom of the speed tape indicates: disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5
seconds.
An amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE The selected range on the EFIS control panel
annunciation on the ND indicates: is different from the map display range

An amber ROLL displayed in the lower The captains and first officers attitude display
portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD differ by more than 5 degrees in roll
means:
An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies 6 times
approximately ____ times the flow rate of an
electric motor-driven hydraulic pump.
An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air
indicates: duct and bleed air valve has closed
An OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the increase ND display range on the EFIS
Navigation Display (ND). To view the TA or Control Panel
RA an appropriate action would be:
An OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic panel The hydraulic fluid used to cool & lubricate the
illuminates inflight - what does this mean? related electric-driven pump has overheated
or the pump itself has overheated

Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for both origin and destination airport are
either the origin or destination airport on the available
DEP/ARR page:
As you push the TO/GA switch for an GA : (blank) : TO/GA
automatic go-around, what are the correct
FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll
Mode : Pitch Mode)?
At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout PLUS HUNDRED
is:
At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS and the BUS TRANSFER switch returns to
approach the cross bus tie relay OFF (spring loaded).to isolate DC bus 1 from
automatically opens: DC bus 2.
At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.
approach the cross bus tie relay
automatically opens:

Pagina 3
 Technical

At the end of the start cycle the blue APU when the APU is ready to accept a bleed air
GEN OFF BUS light illuminates: or electrical load.
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically 350 feet RA
disengage if FLARE is not armed during a
dual channel approach?
At what approximate altitude will both A/P's 350 feet RA
automatically disengage if FLARE is not
armed during a dual channel approach?

At which flap settings is the flap load relief Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40
system operational for Short Field
Performance aircraft?
ATT:RST displayed in amber on an ISFD Attitude must be reset using the ATTITUDE
means RESET switch
Auto-relight is provided for flameout Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM
protection, with the EEC activating both
igniters. Which of the following situations
would cause Flameout Protection to
operate?
Automatic operation of the Standby The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor
Hydraulic System is initiated when: (FFM) trips
Autoslat operation is: normally powered by hydraulic system B
Battery power is provided by: Two 24 volt nickel–cadmium batteries, main
and auxiliary, which are located in the
electronics compartment.
Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually
indicate EEC has automatically changed to selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT
soft alternate mode, and remains in soft overhead panel.
mode until:
Cargo compartment smoke detection is DC bus 1 and DC bus 2
powered from:
Choose the answer which best describes the The valve is DC activated and pressure
operation of the engine bleed air valve when operated.
the engine bleed air switch is in the ON
position.
Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT
climbs to:
Current Mach number at the bottom of the when airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above
airspeed indications tape on the PFD is
displayed:
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an 7.4M of the nose
obstacle within:
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate: Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's
current altitude.
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate: Terrain more than 2,000 Ft. above airplane
altitude.
Due to a malfunction you are required to The automatic abort capability for the
return to the airport of departure. To avoid departure airport is lost.
the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you
reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
During 'TO/GA - Takeoff' pitch mode, the 10 degrees nose down until 60kts IAS
AFDS commands

Pagina 4
 Technical

During a battery start, when does the EEC At 15% N2

become energised?
During a normal engine start, which of the only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration
following statement is true? are available prior to placing the engine start
switch to GRD
During a single engine go-around, one push F/D roll commands hold current ground track
of a TO/GA switch
During alternate brake operation, the Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and
following protection is provided: hydroplane.
During an autopilot ILS approach: at glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2
are isolated from each other
During an engine start , when the engine The SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions
start lever is positioned to IDLE detent, from dim, to bright and then extinguishes
which of the following statements is correct?

During an ILS approach the Captain The aircraft has descended below the
observes his BARO minimum reference/ Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
altitude turns from green to flashing amber
for three seconds, this means:
During an ILS approach, when the Radio The airplane has descended below the
Altimeter indication turns amber, this means selected radio altitude minimums

During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude 50 feet.

will the flare maneuver start and FLARE
engaged is annunciated?
During automatic landing the FLARE 50 feet RA
manoeuvre starts at approximately
During cruise both centre tank fuel pumps There will be no indication on CDS
have failed. There is still 460 kg in the centre
tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper
display unit will show:
During cruise the FMC Alerting Message position information is contradictory
'VERIFY POSITION' indicates
During cruise you note both center tank fuel There will be no indication on CDS
pumps have failed as indicated by the
illumination of both center tank fuel pump
LOW PRESSURE lights. You still have 320
kg of fuel in the center tank and both main
tanks are full. You will see:

During descent, with engines at a low thrust the high stage valve modulates open to
setting maintain adequate bleed air pressure
During engine ground start, how long before 15 seconds
the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off
ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT
after the start lever is moved to IDLE?

During engine start, if the EGT exceeds the on the ground only
starting limit, in what circumstances would
the EEC automatically turn off ignition and
shut off fuel to the engine?
During engine start, when does the EEC When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on
automatically turn off ignition and shuts off the ground only
fuel to the engine?

Pagina 5
 Technical

During flight you get MASTER CAUTION > No

AIR COND > WING-BODY OVERHEAT. Is
this resettable?
During gear retraction, if loose tread on a that gear stops retracting and free falls back
spinning main gear tyre impacts a fitting in to the down position. The affected gear
the wheel well opening: cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced.

During normal operation with the OVHT DET both loop A and B are sensing a FIRE or
Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if: OVHT

During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to

PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is extinguish then perform full alignment.
moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to
NAV. How can normal IRS operation be
regained?
During primary charge cycle operation 30 volts
battery voltage can be as high as
During single pack operation with TRIM AIR the pack attempts to produce an air
selected OFF: temperature to satisfy the average demands
of all three zones
During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to
AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, OFF. Do not takeoff if light remains
what should you do? illuminated
During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT 0° to 1100° C
indication may fluctuate from
During undercarriage retraction: the brakes automatically stop rotation of the
main gear wheels; snubbers stop rotation of
the nose wheels.
During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity The pilots enter and periodically update
Indicating System fails: manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC
PERF-INIT page in order to keep gross
weight and performance data accurate

During VNAV PATH descent and below the VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has
Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT than 15 knots
means:
During VNAV PATH descent and below the VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has
Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT than 15 knots
means:
Electrical power to start the APU comes No. 1 transfer bus or the airplane main
from:- battery.
Elevator feel system is provided by the airspeed and stabilizer position
elevator feel computer. This computer
receives inputs of:
Engaging LVL CHG descent mode automatically engages the A/T in RETARD,
and then ARM when thrust is at idle
Engine number 1 bleed switch is in the ON No
position but the engine is not running. Will
the number 1 bleed air valve be open?

Pagina 6
 Technical

Engine oil pressure is in the amber band at Do not take-off

take-off thrust. Which of the following is
true?
Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened 40kt
if the windspeed exceeds:
Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened 40 knots
if the windspeed exceeds:
Extending the airstairs using the STANDBY by-passes the handrail and lower ladder
system on the Interior Panel: safety circuits
Extinguisher continuity can be tested by EXT TEST switch
pushing and holding the
F/D Go-around. If both autopilots are not Inflight below 2000ft RA, Inflight above 2000ft
engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is RA with flaps not up or G/S captured and not
available under which of the following in takeoff mode
conditions?
Failure of one temperature controller will be “Zone Temp” On Master Caution recall
annunicated to the crew by
Failure of two temperature controllers will be Illumination of the Master Caution
annunicated to the crew by
Fire extinguishers provide a means of only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory
extinguishing: fires
Flight spoiler deflection is initiated on the 10 degrees
down going wing when the control wheel is
displaced more than approximately:
Flight spoilers are operated: 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left
wing and 2 right wing by system B
For ground service, a GROUND SERVICE on forward attendant´s panel.
SWITCH is located:
For ground servicing, a GROUND SERVICE on the Forward Attendant ́s panel
Switch is placed:
For landing, what is the maximum fuel 453 Kgs.
imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main
tanks?
For landing, what is the maximum fuel 453 Kgs
imbalance between the No.1 and No.2 main
tanks?
For RVSM operation, the maximum 50 feet
allowable altitude display difference for sea
level, between the Captain and F/O's on the
ground is?
From where does the Cabin Auto Controller From the ADIRUs.
get its inputs?
Fuel for the APU is normally (AC fuel pumps The left side of the fuel manifold
operating) supplied from:
Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from Left side of the fuel manifold.
the:
Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the 7 degrees.
nosewheel by:
How can TOGA be selected for takeoff if Pressing TOGA after 80 knots and before 150
both flight directors are OFF? seconds after lift off.
How can VNAV be terminated? selecting a different pitch mode

Pagina 7
 Technical

How do you activate the APU fire Pull the T-handle down to arm the system,
extinguisher from the wheel well? then move the discharge switch to the left
position to fire the squib.
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to Set the Filter Switch to B (Both)
receive NAV and ADF voice and range
audio?
How is an APU bleed air duct leak By the MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and
annunciated in the flight deck? Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights
How is the accessory gearbox connected to It is mechanically linked to the N2 rotor
the engine?
How is the cabin altitude warning horn By pushing the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch
silenced? on the forward overhead panel.
How is the hard alternate mode entered? When in Soft Alternate mode, retard the thrust
lever or push the EEC switch
How many fire extinguisher bottles are 1
available for the APU FIRE protection
system?
How many fuel measuring sticks are 16
installed?
How many modes of control does the Three. One manual and two automatic -
outflow valve have on the 737-800? 'AUTO - ALTN - MAN'
How many positive pressure relief valves are 2
on the 737-800?
How many pressure relief valves are fitted to 2
provide safety pressure relief?
How many spark igniters are there on each 2
engine?
How many times can the TRIP RESET Unlimited number of times
button be used to reset a related system?
How much greater is the fluid volume 6 times greater.
supplied by an engine driven hydraulic
pump, compared to the related electric
motor-driven hydraulic pump?
Hydraulic system pressure indication on the combined engine and electric pump outputs.
lower DU is derived from:
If 'ON DC' on left IRS Mode Selector Unit the related IRS is operating on DC power
comes ON steady it means: from the switched hot battery bus
If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the the COWL VALVE OPEN light remains
selected position: illuminated bright blue
If a crossbleed start is recommended for above the N2 dial
inflight starting, where is the Magenta "X-
BLD" Indication displayed?
If a fire extinguisher is to be discharged on all crewmembers to wear oxygen masks with
the flight deck: 'EMERG' selected
If a landing is made with RTO selected: AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2
seconds after touchdown
If a leak develops in the supply line to 20% full
System A engine-driven hydraulic pump,
what approximate reservoir quantity would
you expect?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to
automatically turn off ignition and shut off IDLE during ground starts
fuel to the engine?

Pagina 8
 Technical

If a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on When the Air/Ground system senses ground
landing and the speed brake is ARMED, the mode (any gear strut compresses).
flight spoilers will deploy automatically:

if a Wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT
and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what will illuminate bright blue
indications will the crew see?
If aiplane gross weight is not available from will display box prompts
the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page
GROSS WT:
If airplane gross weight is not available from will display box prompts
the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page
GROSS WT:
If all Temperature Selectors are positioned the left pack maintains a fixed temperature
OFF: 24°C and the right pack maintains 18°C as
measured at the pack temperature sensor
If an engine fails in flight: The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is
information only and the execution light will
not illuminate.
If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is on the inboard display unit
automatically displayed:
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw
positioned to OFF in flight: Damper (SMYD) computer.
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall
positioned to OFF in flight: warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice
has not been used in flight.
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall
positioned to OFF in flight: warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice
has not been used in flight.
If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you A single GPS sensor unit has failed
push and release the system annunciator,
the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is
illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL,
and extinguishes when Master Caution is
reset.

If during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity the flight crew manually enter (and
Indicating System fails: periodically update) estimated fuel weight on
the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross
weight current and performance data valid

If GROSS WT is not available from the FMC, box prompts

the APPROACH REF page will be:
If one cargo fire detector loop loses power: the system automatically converts to a single
loop detection system
If one of the two engine fire detection loops It will be noticed when performing the
A or B fails, how will you notice this? OVHT/FIRE test

If the aircraft takes off with the APU The engine generators are automatically
powering both transfer buses: connected to their related transfer buses if the
APU is shut down.
If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the Stick shaker activates for existing flight
Pitch Limit Indicaton: conditions.

Pagina 9
 Technical

If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch Stick shaker activates for existing flight
limit indicator: condition.
If the amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the position the pump switch to OFF
No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump
illuminates, what will the QRH direct you do?

If the ambient temperature is below -35C 2Min

how many minutes must the engine be idled
before changing thrust position?
If the autopilot is engaged in command CWS R in amber
without a roll mode selected, what is shown
below the roll section of the FMAs?

If the autopilot is engaged in command CWS R in amber below the roll FMA.
without a roll mode selected, what is shown
in the roll section of the FMAs?
If the forward thrust lever(s) are advanced the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not
during the first 3 seconds after touchdown: illuminate

If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not System A hydraulic pumps must be switched
installed for pushback or towing: off.
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector the switched on battery bus
Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is
operating on DC power from:

If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector the switched hot battery bus
Unit illumunates it means the related IRS is
operating on DC power from:

If the required signals are not available to Soft alternate mode.

operate in the normal mode, what mode will
the EEC automatically change to?
If the spoilers become jammed: The captain's control wheel operates the
ailerons
If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after after 3 seconds in the advanced position, the
touchdown: AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate

If windshear is encountered during F/D take- 15 degrees nose up

off or go-around, and vertical speed is less
than +600fpm, the F/D pitch command bar
provides commands to maintain

If you switch off both ENGINE ANTI ICE The engine anti ice valves will shut and the
switches in flight stick shaker logic returns to normal.
Illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) This light operates only when the aircraft is on
Light in flight indicates: the ground.
Illumination (blue) of a Generator Off Bus the IDG is not supplying power to the related
(GEN OFF BUS) Light indicates: transfer bus
Illumination (blue) of the APU GEN OFF APU is running and not powering a bus
BUS Light means the:
Illumination (blue) of the Ground Power ground power is connected and meets aircraft
Available (GRD POWER AVAILABLE) Light power quality standards
indicates:

Pagina 10
 Technical

Illumination of amber FAULT light with the Both detector loops for an engine have failed.
overheat detector switch in NORMAL
indicates:
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE An over pressure in the duct between the
light indicates: engine anti ice valve and the engine cowl lip

Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE An over pressure in the duct downstream of

light indicates: the engine cowl anti-ice valve.
Illumination of the 'APU DET INOP' Light will both 'MASTER CAUTION' and 'OVHT/DET'
cause following lights to illuminate:
Illumination of the 'BAT DISCHARGE' light excessive battery discharge is detected with
indicates: the battery switch ON.
Illumination of the 'GND POWER ground power is connected and meets aircraft
AVAILABLE' light indicates: power quality standards.
Illumination of the amber ‘DRIVE’ light on the IDG low oil pressure.
overhead panel indicates:
Illumination of the blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' APU is running and not powering a bus.
means:
Illumination of the blue 'GEN OFF BUS' light the IDG is not supplying power to it's
indicates: associated transfer bus.
Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light possible backpressure of the APU
indicates:
In audio system operation in degraded Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer -
mode, what are the combinations for VHF-1
transmission and reception at the degraded
station?
In case of an engine overheat: Both master caution lights, the related
ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the
OVHT/DET system annunciator lights
illuminate.
In case of cargo compartment fire: select the FWD ARMED or AFT ARMED
switch then press the DISCH button
In degraded mode, what are the Capt. VHF 1, F.O VHF 2, Observer VHF 1.
combinations for transmission and reception
at the degraded station?
In flight A Predictive Windshear Warning Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead
Alert: of the aircraft
In flight if APU is the only source of electrical all galley busses are automatically shed
power:
In flight if the APU is the only source of Automatic Load Shedding will disconnect all
electrical power: Main and Galley Busses.
In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead
Alert system: of the aircraft
In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH: None of RECIRC fans will operate.

In flight with the 'STANDBY POWER' switch AC Standby Bus is supplied by the static:
in the AUTO position, loss of all AC inverter and DC Standby Bus is supplied by
generators Will result in: battery.
In flight, if the APU is the only source of All galley busses and main busses are
electrical power: automatically shed. If electrical load still
exceeds design limits, both IFE busses are
also automatically shed.

Pagina 11
 Technical

In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL resets the system for additional warnings
CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master
Fire Warn Lights, silences the fire warning
bell, and:
In flight, when does the EEC automatically flaps are in the landing configuration or
select approach idle? engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow a motor supplied from DC standby bus
valve is driven by?
In normal operation, engine overheat and Both loops sense an overheat or fire
fire detection alerts are triggered when
In normal operation, what provides the A/T FMC
system with N1 limit values?
In normal operation, which hydraulic system System A
powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?

In order to extend the life of the APU, & 1 minute

stabilization time of ____ is recommended
before using it as & bleed air source:

In the event of an elevator control column The control columns to be physically

jam, an override mechanism allows: separated. The column which is free to move
will be able to provide elevator control.

In the event of an elevator jam, an override The control columns to be physically

mechanism allows: separated.
In the PACK fail non-normal procedure, the reduce the workload on the affected air
crew selects a warmer temperature in order conditioning pack
to:
In the remote situation of total generator The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause
failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration an accumulation of dissolved air to obstruct
may occur. Why? the suction feed line.
In the unlikely situation of total generator The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause
failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict
may occur. Why? fuel flow in the suction feed line
In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert In MAP, centre MAP, VOR or APP modes
automatically show the TCAS Traffic Alert
message if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC
switches are selected OFF?
In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert In MAP, centre MAP, PLAN or APP modes
message automatically show if a TA/RA
occurs and the TFC switches are selected
OFF?
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert All modes
message TRAFFIC be displayed whenever a
TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel
TFC switch does not have to be selected
on)?
In which of the following situations does on the ground or in flight
moving the battery switch to OFF
immediately shut down the APU?

Pagina 12
 Technical

In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a
PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
illuminate. What happens to the No.1
engine?
In-flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE it receives fuel by suction feed via the bypass
Lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What valve in tank No.1
happens to the No.1 engine?
Is automatic shutdown protection provided No
for the APU in the event of an APU fire if the
APU fire detection system is inoperative?

Landing autobrake settings may be selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of

after touchdown: groundspeed
Landing gear uplock is released when: manual gear extension handle is pulled to its
limit, approximately 24inches (61cm).
LNAV will automatically disengage: Reaching a route discontinuity.
Logo lights are installed on: top of both horizontal stabilizers
Logo lights are installed on: top of each horizontal stabilizer
Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is: 3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43
degrees, whichever is higher.
Moving the battery switch to OFF on the ground or in flight
automatically shuts down the APU:
Normal hydraulic brake pressure is: 3000psi.
Of the four lights located on the APU control MAINT
panel, which light will NOT cause an
automatic shutdown of the APU when it
illuminates?
On aircraft from EI-DPY there are new Takeoff Config light and Cabin Altitude light
annunciators installed. Which?
On selection of FAULT/INOP we would Both Master Caution, OVHT/DET system
expect to see annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP
lights illuminate
On take off the config warning sounds. What Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
can be the cause?
On takeoff the config warning sounds. What Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
can be the cause?
On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the As long as there is sufficient air for cabin
L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure pressurization, this is normal.
indicates 50psi:
On the FMC FIX INFO page the RAD/DIS the radial and distance from the fix to the
FR indicates: airplane, this information will update as the
aircraft changes position
On the ground, for primary ATC Always use No.1 VHF radio.
communication:
On the ground, the TR UNIT Light Any TR has failed.
illuminates (amber) if:
On the ground, with both Air Conditioning Only the Right recirculation fan will operate
PACK Switches positioned to HIGH (and
both packs operating) and both Recirculation
RECIRC FAN Switches positioned to AUTO:

Pagina 13
 Technical

On the ground, with both pack switches set the left recirculation fan will shut down
to HIGH and both RECIRC FANs selected to
AUTO:
On the ground, with the Battery (BAT) not powered
Switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY
POWER Switch positioned to BAT, the
switched hot battery bus is:
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch not powered
OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT,
the switched hot battery bus is:
Once activated, a Passenger Service Unit flows for approximately 12 minutes
(PSU) oxygen supply:
Once activated, a PSU oxygen supply: flows for approximately 12 minutes
One basic principle of operation for the 737 there is no paralleling of the AC power
electrical system is: sources.
Operating the airstairs from the exterior does not require the BAT switch to be ON
panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch
set to STANDBY:
Operating the airstairs from the exterior does not require the BAT switch to be ON
panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to
STANDBY:
Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:- results in the total discharge of the cargo
compartment fire extinguisher bottle contents
into the cargo hold selected by the cargo fire
ARMED switch
Operating the EXT TEST Switch: to position 1 or 2 tests bottle discharge
circuits for all three extinguisher bottles
Operation of the overwing emergency exit engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground
flight locks are dependant on: mode status, door open/closed status, DC
power
Operation of the overwing emergency exit engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground
flight locks are dependant on: mode status, door status
Operation of the overwing emergency exit engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground
flight locks are dependent on: mode status, door door open/closed status,
DC power
Overheat detection is available for Engines
Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to tests overheat and fire detection loops on
OVHT/FIRE position: both engines and APU, and wheel well fire
detector
Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection The fault detection circuit for both engines
panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests: and APU.

Positioning an engine-driven hydraulic pump Isolates the hydraulic fluid flow from the
switch to OFF: system components, but the pump keeps
rotating as long as the engine is running
Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON Adjusts stick shaker logic and minimum
in flight: maneuver speed bars whilst the switch is in
the ON position
Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to Adjusts stick shaker and minimum
ON, in flight: manoeuvring speed bars on the airspeed
indications and remains set for icing
conditions for the remainder of the flight.

Pagina 14
 Technical

Predictive windshear alerts are issued when: below 1,200 feet RA

Prior to returning to the oil tank, what does the scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler
engine oil pass through?
Pulling an engine fire-warning switch up: closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and
the spar fuel shutoff valve
Pulling the APU Fire switch up Provides backup for the automatic shutdown
feature
Pulling the engine fire switch up will Close both the engine fuel shutoff and spar
shutoff valves
Pulling the number 2 engine fire switch up isolate the System B engine driven Hydraulic
will pump but the electric motor driven pump
maintains System B pressure.
Pushing the ATTEND call switch: sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and
illuminates both pink master call lights
Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio improves reception of weak signals
tuning panel:
Reference to Overheat/Fire Protection With the overheat detector switch in NORMAL
Panel. FAULT light illuminated amber, - indicates both detector loops for an engine
choose the correct answer: have failed.
Retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY by-passes the handrail and lower ladder
system on the Interior Panel: safety circuits
Select the correct statement: The correct answer is: The primary flight
controls are powered by hydraulic systems A
and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic
system for the rudder and manual reversion
for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.

Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve,
switch to: activates standby pump and arms
ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
Selecting the APU switch to OFF position 60
trips the APU generator, closes the APU
bleed air valve and extinguishes the APU
GEN OFF BUS light. To allow for a cooling
period, APU shutdown will occur
automatically after a delay of _____
seconds:

Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF: energizes the blocking valve to block pump
output.
Switching the CAB/UTIL Switch to the OFF left and right recirculation fans
position removes electrical power from all
115v AC galley busses and also from the:

The 'GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light the AC ground power cart has been
will extinguish when: disconnected.
The 'TR UNIT' light Will illuminate in flight if: TR1 fails.

The accessories gearbox receives drive the N2 rotor

from:
The aircraft is not certified for operations: above 82N or below 82S

Pagina 15
 Technical

The aircraft takes off with the APU powering the generators will come on line automatically
both transfer busses: if the APU is either shut down or fails.

The airspeed range for fully enabled speed 100 KIAS - Mach 0.60
trim operation is:
The alpha vanes provide angle-of-attack By independent 115V AC heating elements,
information to the stall warning system, auto controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches.
throttle, autopilot, auto slats and are anti-
iced:
The ALTERNATE FLAP Master Switch in arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch,
ARM position: activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and
closes the TE Flap Bypass Valve.
The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position
selected to ARM: switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump
and closes the TE flap bypass valve
The amber 'ELEC' light will illuminate on the a fault exists in the DC power or standby
ground if: power system.
The amber 'STANDBY POWER OFF' light AC standby bus unpowered.
will illuminate if:
The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light Flaps are either up or down and either
illuminates when the: hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot
system fails, and an excessive hydraulic
pressure imbalance is sensed.
The amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain 91 kgs
displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:

The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT Light is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight

The amber standby hydraulic system LOW Only when standby pump operation has been
PRESSURE light is armed: selected or automatic standby function is
activated.
The APU can supply both bleed air and 10,000 feet
electrical load up to an altitude of:
The APU can supply both transfer buses: On the ground or in the air.
The APU can supply electrical load only up 41,000 feet
to an altitude of:
The APU generator can supply both transfer on the ground or in flight
busses:
The APU start cycle may take as long as 120 seconds
____ seconds.
The aural alert for excessive bank angle is: BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates RTO mode selected on the ground.
for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely
cause is:
The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch: when set to RTO will apply maximum brake
pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to
idle at or above 90kts during takeoff.

The AUTO FAIL light is illuminated together This indicates a single controller failure.
with ALTN light. What does it indicate?

Pagina 16
 Technical

The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin This indicates a dual controller failure.
pressurisation panel is illuminated alone.
The Auto position of the Cockpit Voice Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5
Recorder (CVR) On/Auto switch: minutes after last engine shutdown.
The AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminates failure of a single Stall Management/Yaw
during MASTER CAUTION recall. The light Damper (SMYD) computer.
extinguishes when master caustion system
is reset. This indicates:
The autoslat system: drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE
Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft
approaches a stall.
The bleed air pressure indicator has L and R may indicate a L/R duct pressure difference
pointers. These pointers: which is considered normal as long as there is
sufficient air for cabin pressurisation

The BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates an Overpressure or Overheat in the bleed air
duct system
The BLEED TRIP OFF light: Indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure
or temperature.
The blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' light will when the APU is at operational speed and is
illuminate: not supplying an AC transfer bus
The brake accumulator provides pressure to parking brake system
the brake system and:
The Cabin Altitude and Takeoff both use the same intermittent warning horn
Configuration Warnings: when activated
The cabin begins to pressurize on the ground at high power settings
The call system from flight deck to an pink master call lights and a two-tone chime
attendant station in the passenger cabin
operates:
The call system from flight deck to cabin pink call lights and a two-tone chime
operates:
The cargo compartment fire detection both loops must detect the presence of smoke
system has dual detection loops and in to cause an alert.
normal operation:
The cargo compartment fire protection A single fire extinguisher bottle
system includes:
The cargo compartments have Smoke detection powered by DC Bus 1 and
DC bus 2
The center tank fuel scavenge jet pump the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full
operates when:
The center tank scavenge jet pump operates the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full
when:
The cockpit voice decorrer records audio for: 120 minutes

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds
erased by: when the aircraft is on ground and parking
brake is set
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and
erased: aircraft on ground with parking brake ON
The cockpit voice recorder records audio for: 120 minutes

Pagina 17
 Technical

The columns and wheels are connected force applied to the First Officer’s control
through transfer mechanisms which allow wheel provides roll control from the spoilers.
the pilots to bypass a jammed control or The ailerons and the Captain’s control wheel
surface. If the ailerons control system is are inoperative.
jammed, force applied to:
The controller programs the cabin to land while taxiing in, the controller slowly drives the
slightly pressurized. After landing to outflow valve fully open.
depressurize the aircraft:
The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates to indicate an overpressure condition in the
amber: duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice
valve
The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates to indicate excessive pressure in the duct
amber: leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the
cowl lip
The Cross Bus Tie relay: opens if the BUS TRANSFER switch is moved
to OFF.
The curved trend vector extending from the predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90
aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is second intervals
divided into three segments. With the range
set greater than 20 nm, each segment
represents:
The decision height (DH) display on the CDS independently by each pilot using his/her
is set: EFIS control panel
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit right window displays minutes remaining until
( ISDU ) is moved to position HDG/STS alignment is complete
during alignment. What is shown in the right
window:
The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated amber. Eng No 1 BLEED air switch ON and APU
This indicates: bleed air valve open
The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or
Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch
illuminated and the ON indication remaining on the aft overhead panel.
visible. What would cause the EEC to
change to Hard Alternate mode?
The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or
Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch
illuminated and the ON indication remaining on the aft overhead panel
visible. What would cause the EEC to
change to Hard Alternate mode?
The Electrical (ELEC) Light will illuminate in the ELEC light only operates on the ground
flight if:
The Emergency Exit Lights switch, when illuminates all emergency lights automatically
placed in the ARMED position: if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1
fails or AC power is turned off

The ENG ANTI-ICE switch are positioned to Adjusts stick shaker and minimum maneuver
ON in flight. The stall warning logic: speed bars on the airspeed indicator.

The engine and APU fire detection systems Battery Bus

are run from the
The engine bleed air valve acts as: a pressure regulator and shutoff valve
The equipment cooling system comprises: 4 fans

Pagina 18
 Technical

The equipment cooling system comprises: 4 fans - 2 supply duct and 2 exhaust duct

The First Officer observes the word PITCH the Captain's and First Officer's pitch angle
displayed in amber in the lower portion of the displays differ by more than 5 degrees
PFD during an ILS approach. This means?

The First Officer observes the word PITCH the Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays
displayed in amber in the lower portion of the differ by 5 degrees or more
PFD during an ILS approach. This means?

The flap load relief system is operational at flaps 30 and 40

(assume for aircraft YC496 through YW097):

The Flap Load Relief system: will retract the TE Flaps from 40 to 30 if
airspeed exceeds 163 knots.
The flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) protection for LE devices if two or more slats
provides: on one wing move from the commanded
position
The flight crew oxygen mask supplies 100% oxygen under positive
EMERGENCY/TEST Selector rotated to the pressure at all cabin altitude
EMERGENCY position:
The flight crew oxygen system pressure may 1850psi
be as high as:
The flight crew oxygen system uses auto 27,000 feet
pressure breathing masks/regulators with
pressure breathing starting at:
The flight crew oxygen system usesauto 27,000 feet
pressure breathing masks/regulators with
pressure breathing starting at:
The flight directors must be ON to engage FALSE
the AFDS in Go around mode?
The FMC advisory message "BUFFET Current conditions result in a manoeuvre
ALERT" indicates: margin less than required.
The FMC alerting message 'RESET MCP aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated
ALT' means: Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without
selecting lower altitude on the MCP
The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY position information is contradictory on the
POSITION' indicates: ground only
The FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC
ALT means: calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point
without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP

The FMC alerting message VERIFY GW When fuel quantity data is invalid and
AND FUEL is shown in the CDU scratchpad: estimated fuel weight has to be entered
manually
The forward cabin temperature control fails. FWD CAB Temperature selector works
normally, but the cabin temperature is
maintained at the average of the FWD and
AFT CAB temperature selector settings.
The FSEU (flap/slat electronic unit) provides: protection and indication for TE Flap
asymmetry, skew and uncommanded motion.

Pagina 19
 Technical

The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC present total fuel remaining, as obtained from
PROGRESS Page 1 is: the fuel quantity indication system
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC total fuel onboard, as obtained from the fuel
PROGRESS page is: quantity indication system
The FWD and AFT cargo compartments In a dual loop configuration. Normally, both
each have smoke detectors detection loops must sense smoke to cause
an alert
The FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates The system may be reset by pushing the
amber. This indicates duct temperature TRIP RESET switch
overheat.
The Galley busses are powered from: the AC Transfer busses.
The green LE FLAPS EXT light: illuminates for all LE devices fully extended
(TE flap positions 10 - 40).
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF
purpose? receiver.
The indications for the Cargo Fire test Fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE
WARN lights illuminate, the extinguisher test
lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire
warning lights illuminate, and the cargo fire
bottle DISCH light illuminates

The indications of an engine overheat are: Both MASTER CAUTION lights, the related
ENG OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET
system annunciator light illuminate.

The isolation valve is _____ operated? AC

The ISOLATION VALVE switch is in the Closed
AUTO position, both engine bleed switches
are ON, the L PACK switch is in the AUTO
position and the R PACK switch is in the
HIGH position. What is the position of the
isolation valve?

The landing gear configuration warning horn with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle
will activate anytime a gear is not down and and the other at low power setting (below 34
locked: degrees)
The Landing Gear Transfer Unit: Ensures System B can assist raising the gear
on loss of System A
The landing gear warning horn sounds and On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting
cannot be silenced with the landing gear Flaps 30 with any gear not down and locked
warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the
aircraft's condition (both engines are
operating)?
The landing gear warning horn sounds and On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting
cannot be silenced. What is the aircraft's Flap 30 with any gear not down and locked
condition?
The loss of one DEU results in activation of The soft alternate mode is entered first, using
the EEC's alternate mode. In this situation, last valid flight condition to define engine
which of the following statements is correct? parameters

The mach/airspeed warning system can only yes

be checked on the ground:
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a clacker
a distinct aural warning:

Pagina 20
 Technical

The main wheel well has Fire detection only

The maximum differential pressure is: 9.10 psi
The minimum equipment requirement for Mode C transponder.
RAs to be generated is if the other airplane
has a working:
The Navigation Display (ND) wind Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6
direction/speed and wind arrow is: knots
The number of flight spoilers located on 4
each wing are:
The number of ground spoilers on each wing 2
are:
The number of slats located on each wing Four outboard of each engine
are:
The outflow valve position indicator indicates in all modes
the position of the outflow valve:
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what Passenger oxygen system is activated
does this indicate?
The position trend vector extending from the predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90
aircraft symbol on the ND in modes MAP second intervals
and MAP CTR is divided into three
segments. With the range set greater than
20 nm, each segment represents:
The power source for Fire Extinguishing is: the Hot Battery Bus

The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.
backup source of hydraulic pressure to
operate the:
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides an A loss of pressure from Hydraulic System B
alternative source of power for the Autoslat engine driven pump is sensed
system if:
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup autoslats
source of hydraulic pressure to operate
which of the following items?
The Power Transfer Unit provides an a loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System
alternate source of hydraulic power for the B engine-driven pump is sensed.
Autoslat System if:
The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) at all times in flight, when the thrust levers are
light is inhibited: advanced toward takeoff power at any time
and for 30 seconds after landing.
The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) takeoff and landing configuration warnings,
monitors: landing gear, air/ground sensors
The purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer automatically use hydraulic system B for gear
Unit is to: retraction if No.1 engine is lost and the
landing gear lever is positioned up
The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and The right elevator pitot is not heated
both PROBE HEAT switches are in the ON
position. What does this indicate?
The RA aural alert 'CLIMB' CLIMB NOW' Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA.
means:
The Recirculation Fan: reduces air conditioning pack load and the
engine bleed air demand

Pagina 21
 Technical

The red landing gear indication lights are Landing gear is in disagreement with
illuminated under which of the following LANDING GEAR lever position OR the
conditions? landing gear is not down and locked (with
either or both thrust levers retarded to idle,
and below 800 feet AGL).
The right IRS is electrically powered from: normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency
from switched hot battery bus for a maximum
of 5 minutes
The right primary pack control fails. The right is controlled by the left pack standby control
pack:
The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be
FUEL appears: entered manually.
The SMYD computers receive inputs from: anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output,
wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust
and FMC outputs
The Stabilizer Trim Override Switch on the Bypasses the control column actuated
Aft Electronic Panel, when set to stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power
OVERRIDE: to the stabilizer trim switches on each control
wheel
The supplemental and temporary data bases 40 navaids and 6 airports
have storage capacity for:
The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn stabilizer trim is not in the green band
sounds if:
The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is: A solid white diamond
The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is: A white solid diamond
The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead EGPWS nav data base correlated with GPS
Terrain Alerting system is generated from position
The Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above if green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and
each N1 indicator: the related engine anti-ice switch is ON
The thrust mode display on the upper DU the FMC is not providing the A/T system with
shows A/T LIM in white. This means N1 limit values, the A/T is using a degraded
N1 thrust limit from the related EEC

The TR ́s ( Transformer Rectifier Units ) 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC

convert:
The TR UNIT light will illuminate (amber) in TR1 has failed
flight if:
The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.
correct indication on the aft overhead panel
for the leading edge devices is:
The trailing edge flaps are set to position 15. all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated
The correct indication on the aft overhead green
panel for the leading edge devices is
(assume for non-Short Field Performance
aircraft YC496 through YW097):

The vertical speed in white shown at the 400 feet per minute
bottom of the vertical speed indication will
show when the vertical speed exceeds:
The wheel well is Monitored by a single fire detector loop. As
the temperature of the detector increases
above a predetermined limit, the detector
senses a fire condition

Pagina 22
 Technical

The window heat PWR TEST switch provides a confidence test

The wing anti-ice system provides protection the three inboard leading edge slats on each
for: wing
The wing ANTI-ICE: Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing
conditions exist.
The wing-body overheat light comes on. AIR COND
What is the related master caution warning?

The yaw damper indicator: indicates main yaw damper movement of

rudder; pilot rudder pedal inputs are not
indicated.
To extend the Fwd Airstair from outside the The Battery Master Switch can be on or off
aircraft and the L1 door can be shut or partially open

To receive NAV and ADF voice and range set the Filter Switch to BOTH
audio:
To see both left and right GPS position in POS REF page 2/3
latitude and longitude you select:
To silence the fire bell you can press either On the fire protection panel
of the two Master Fire Warning (FIRE
WARN) lights on the glareshield. There is
another switch which will also silence the fire
bell. Where is it located?
Two independent radio altimeters provide the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after
radio altitude to the respective FCC's. What LOC and G/S capture
affect will one radio altimeter becoming
inoperative have on the Autopilot?

Two independent radio altimeters provide 2 seconds

radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a
radio altimeter inoperative, how long after
LOC and GS capture will the autopilot
disconnect?
Under certain conditions the power transfer Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up
unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of and SYS B engine–driven hydraulic pump
hydraulic fluid needed to op erate specific drops below limits
equipment. The PTU operates automatically
when which of the following conditions exist?

Under normal conditions the AC Standby AC Transfer Bus No 1.

Bus is powered from:
Under normal operation the packs will the zone that requires the most cooling.
produce an air temperature to satisfy
Under what circumstances will the V Speed After the first engine start, if the sensed OAT
be removed from the FMC, the No V Speed differs by more than 6 degrees C from the
Flag reappear on tthe PFD, and the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page
Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEED
DELETED appear?
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds After first engine start, if the sensed OAT
be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds differs by more than 6 degrees C from the
Flag reappear on the PFD, and the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS
DELETED appear?

Pagina 23
 Technical

Up to how long might the APU start cycle 120 seconds

take?
Up to what altitude may the APU be used as 10,000 ft.
an electrical and bleed air source
simultaneously?
VNAV is terminated by: selecting a different pitch mode
Warm air from the E & E bay is: diffused to the lining of the forward cargo
compartment in flight at high cabin differential
pressures
What abnormal start protection is available? On the ground only and for hot, wet, stall and
EGT exceedances
What additional engine fire indication is The engine start lever will illuminate red.
shown or heard on the flight deck of later
aircraft (from registration EI-FIV through EI-
GXN) in the event of engine fire or during an
engine fire test?
What additional items are detected on the Bleed duct from APU and Keel Beam
LHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” alert light
that are not the RHS “WING-BODY
OVERHEAT” system?
What airspeed must be considered with a Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.
wheel well fire situation?
What are the indications of a cargo fire? The fire warning bell sounds, both master
FIRE WARN lights illuminate and the
FWD/AFT cargo fire warning light(s)
illuminates.
What are the indications that the engine The Engine Start Switch returns to OFF, and
starter has disengaged? the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes

What conditions must be met for the Landing airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit
Gear Transfer Unit to operate: value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP,
either main landing gear is not up and locked.

What do the 3 green lights indicate, when That the circuit continuity from the squib to the
the EXT TEST switch is moved to either 1 or engine and APU fire switch is checked.
2 position?
What does a flashing RED autopilot indicator Autopilot has disconnected
light mean?
What does BOV stand for and what will be BOV: Bias out of view, removes either the
the effect of it on the flight directors? pitch or roll flight director depending on the
event causing the bias out of view.
What does the FMC Alerting Message The aircraft is excessively off the flight
'VERIFY POSITION' indicate? planned course.
What does the illumination (amber) of the This light operates only when the aircraft is on
Electrical (ELEC) Light indicate, during the ground.
climb?
What does the lower DU show when the hydraulic pressure and quantity only
SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction
Display (MFD)?
What fault indications can be reset with the ZONE TEMP, PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF
TRIP RESET Switch?

Pagina 24
 Technical

What fixed temperature will the left pack 24°C

maintain If all the temperature selectors are
positioned OFF?
What FMAs would be expected on selection MCP SPD / HDG SEL / VS
of HEADING SELECT and VERTICAL
SPEED?
What happens if you reject a takeoff after Maximum braking is applied automatically
reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
in RTO?
What happens if you reject a takeoff with a maximum braking is applied automatically
groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes when the forward thrust levers are retarded to
in RTO? idle
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the display opens up and shows FMC target
the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed speed
during VNAV operation?
What information is available with the IRS only attitude and heading information
mode selector in ATT?
What is correct about the colour on the Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active
Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
What is correct about the colour on the Solid red - look ahead terrain warning is
terrain display? active
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel The RTP is being used to tune a radio not
(RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating normally associated with that RTP.
white?
What is one indication of a leak in the decrease in System B quantity
Standby Hydraulic System?
What is the approximate engine starter 56% N2
cutout speed?.
What is the cause of a wing-body overheat? A bleed air duct leak

What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN illuminated bright blue

Light when the crossfeed selector is
positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is
closed?
What is the correct sequence regarding the Transitions from extinguished, to bright and
SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a then dim
normal engine shutdown procedure after the
START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?

What is the correct sequence regarding the Transitions from dim, to bright and then
SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a extinguishes
normal engine start procedure after the
START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?

What is the effect on the spark igniters if the Both igniters operate with the start lever in
start switches are position to FLT? idle regardless of the position of the ignition
select switch
What is the EGT limit for engine starting on 725°C
the ground?
What is the electrical power source of the the Battery Bus
APU fire detection system?

Pagina 25
 Technical

What is the electrical power source of the the battery bus

engine overheat and fire detection system?

What is the electrical source of power for the the DC bus 1 and the DC bus 2
cargo compartment smoke
What is the electrical source of power for the The Hot battery bus
engine fire extinguishing system?
What is the flight deck annunciation if one The DETECTOR FAULT light will illuminate,
cargo smoke detector in a loop fails? but only when a cargo fire test is manually
initiated.
What is the function of the TRIP RESET To reset a bleed trip off, pack trip off and zone
switch on the overhead pressurization temp malfunction
panel?
What is the hydraulic sysytem maximum 3500 psi in white
pressure indication, and what colour is it
displayed?
What is the indication of Crossfeed VALVE Illuminated bright blue
OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector
is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve
is closed?
What is the indication of the Crossfeed illuminated bright blue
VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED
selector is positioned OPEN and the
crossfeed valve is closed?
What is the maximum authorized thrust 25.00%
reduction below any certified rating?
What is the maximum difference between +\- 0.1
the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate
GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS)
A
What is the maximum flap extension 20,000 feet
altitude?
What is the maximum permitted lever FLIGHT DETENT
position of the speed brake lever in flight?
What is the maximum thrust reduction 25%
authorized below any certified rating?
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for 800 feet
selecting CMD on the second autopilot to
execute a dual channel A/P approach?
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation 760 Kgs in the related main tank.
for ground operation of the electric motor-
driven hydraulic pumps?
What is the minimum pavement width for a 24.3M
180 degree turn?
What is the minimum width of pavement for 24.3 Meters
a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with
winglets?
What is the number of the extinguisher 1 bottle
bottles fitted for the cargo compartment fire
suppression system?
What is the purpose of the isolation valve? To Isolate the left and the right sides of the
bleed air duct.

Pagina 26
 Technical

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at
Transfer Unit? the normal rate if the output from System A is
insufficient
What is the purpose of the ram air system? To provide cooling for the heat exchangers

What is the purpose of the recirculation To reduce the workload on the PACKs
fans?
What is the range of the individual Approximately 18°C to 30°C
temperature selectors?
What is the result of a fluid leak in the System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to
System A electric motor-driven pump? zero and all System A pressure is lost.

What is the source of electrical power for the the Battery Bus
engine fuel shutoff valves?
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with 35.79 Meters
winglets?
What is the wingspan of a wingleted aircraft? 35.79M

What is the wingtip height of a blended wing 6.4 M.

aircraft?
What is the wingtip height of a blended wing 6.42M
aircraft?
What items make up the Automatic Flight the autopilot, flight directors (AFDS) and the
System (AFS)? autothrottles (A/T)
What modes can the EECs operate in? Normal, Soft Alternate and Hard Alternate
What must be sensed by the detector loops Temperature
to cause an engine overheat/fire alert?

What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve? DC from Hot Battery Bus
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA MCP SPD
after takeoff when the autopilot is first
engaged in CMD?
What position should the ignition select Right
switch be in for operations from a manned
maintenance station?
What powers the AUTOSLAT system? is normally powered by Hydraulic System B

What systems can the Standby Hydraulic Standby yaw damper, LE Flaps and Slats
System power when activated? (extend only), Thrust Reversers and the
Rudder
What systems need pneumatic power for Engine starting, Air
operation? conditioning/Pressurization, wing and engine
anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank
pressurization
What will be displayed in the FMAs if in level MCP SPD / HDG SEL (VORLOC below in
flight on a radar heading and APP mode is white) /ALT HOLD (GS below in white)
selected prior to LQG/GS capture?

What will be displayed in the FMAs if LVL RETARD then ARM / LNAV / MCP SPD
change is selected in descent? (LNAV
selected as the roll mode)

Pagina 27
 Technical

What would system B hydraulic fluid Approximately 72%

indication decrease to, if there was a leak in
the standby hydraulic system?
When a lavatory fire is detected: the fire extinguisher operates automatically
When an active database expires in flight: The expired data base continues to be used
until the data base is changed after landing.

When an active navigation database expires The expired database continues to be used
in flight: until the active date is changed after landing.

When are the NO SMOKING signs The NO SMOKING Signs are illuminated at all
illuminated? times
When Auto is selected, FASTEN BELTS and illuminate when flap or gear are extended
RETURN TO SEAT signs:
When below radio altitude minimums, the dial perimeter and pointer turn amber and
Rad Alt display on the PFD: flash for 3 seconds
When both hydraulic pumps for a system are less than 100psi
off, the indicated system pressure may read
system reservoir pressure, this is normally?

When can you expect the EGPWS 'five When descending through 500ft RA outside 2
hundred' call? dots of the LLZ
When control wheel pressure is released 6 degrees
during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will
roll wings level when the bank angle has not
exceeded what angle?
When control wheel pressure is released 6 degrees or less
during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will
roll wings level when the bank angle is:
When does a magenta bug on the vertical The speed selected in the MCP vertical speed
speed indicator display show? window with V/S pitch mode engaged

When does the Rad Alt display a digital Between 2,500ft AGL and 1,000ft AGL
readout only?
When does the underspeed limiting symbol The highest of the other three answers
(flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach
display?
When extending or retracting the TE Flaps to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor
with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position clutch.
switch, allow 15 seconds to elapse between
consecutive selections:
When is a resolution advisory generated? When the other aircraft is approx 25 seconds
from point of closest approach
When is the "RF" Indication dispayed to the When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in
right of hydraulic system quantity? either system A or B on the ground with
engine shutdown.
When is the current Mach numberdisplayed When airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above
at the bottom of the airspeed indications
tapeon the PFD?
When is the descent mode activated if the When the aircraft descends 0.25 psi below
pressurization mode selector is in the AUTO the selected FLT ALT.
position?

Pagina 28
 Technical

When is the standby hydraulic system The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor
automatically activated? (FFM) trips
When operating on standby power only: the Captain's PFD and ND will operate
When operating on standby power: only the CAPT's pitot probe is heated
When operating on standby power: Only the captain's pitot probe is heated and
the CAPT PITOT amber light will not
illuminate for a failure.
When operating on standby power: Only the captain's pitot probe is heated. The
CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for
a failure.
When operating with normal power sources The battery bus and switched hot battery bus.
available, placing the Battery (BAT) Switch
to OFF will remove power from:

When performance is limited, such as with Select TA

an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving
RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities:

When pressing Master Caution Recall the Due to failure of the primary flight deck
CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light temperature control, automatic switching to
illuminates. What is correct? the backup system has occurred.
When selecting reverse thrust, when can the Once the reverser sleeves approach the fully
reverse thrust levers be increased beyond deployed position
the idle detent?
When the aircraft batteries are the only The Captain's inboard and outboard DUs
source of power: operate until the battery is discharged.
When the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio The ACP at that station is inoperative but the
Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT: crewmember can communicate on one radio.

When the ALTERNATE FLAPS position this fully extends LE devices using standby
switch is selected DOWN: hydraulic pressure, electrically extends TE
flaps.
When the Audio System is operating in the First Officer can only transmit and receive on
degraded mode: VHF 2
When the engine start lever is placed to The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel
CUTOFF: shutoff valve both close.
When the gear is down with 3 greens the gear is down and locked, even if a
showing on the centre panel: corresponding landing gear indicator light on
the overhead panel is NOT illuminated.
When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned all of the above.
DOWN, under normal circumstances the
landing gear extends by:

When the landing gear Manual Extension manual landing gear extension is possible
Access Door is open: with landing gear lever in any position.
When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima there will be a GPWS 'minimums' callout since
on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the the callouts are based on the captains
minima correctly: minimums selector
When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will illuminate
(the center position): (amber)
When the STANDBY POWER switch is AC standby bus, static inverter, and DC
selected OFF: standby bus are not powered.

Pagina 29
 Technical

When using the APU in flight, which of the The APU may be used as an electrical and
following statements is true? bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000
feet
When will hydraulic pressure from System B after failure of the number 1 engine with the
be used to retract the landing gear? landing gear still down and the landing gear
lever is positioned Up
When will LNAV automatically disengage? Reaching a route discontinuity.

When will the deflector doors extend? On the ground prior to liftoff and after
touchdown.
When will the descent mode be activated in When descending 0.25psi below the selected
the pressurization system? altitude
When will the fuel LOW alert be display? When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453
kgs in related main tank
When will the low fuel warning be activated? When the fuel tank quantity is below 453kgs
in related main tank
Where are the “Bleed Air” trip sensors Before and after the bleed air valve
located?
Where are the bleed trip sensors installed? Sensors are positioned on both sides of the
engine bleed air valve.
Where does air for APU cooling enter? enters through a cooling air inlet above the
APU exhaust outlet
Where is the Air Driven Starter fitted? On the front of the accessory gearbox
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured? after passing through the engine fuel shutoff
valve
Where is the flight crew oxygen pressure On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the
displayed on the flight deck? aft overhead panel
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic In main fuel tank No.1.
system A fluid located?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust THR HLD and ARM
changes without A/T interference?
Which are the correct FMA modes, during N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD
NADP 2, A/P engaged, before flaps up
(Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?

Which are the indication of an engine FIRE? The Fire Warning Bell sounds, both master
FIRE WARN illuminate and the related Engine
Fire switch illuminates.
Which bus is always connected to the main Hot Battery Bus
battery?
Which bus powers the auxiliary battery AC ground service bus 1
charger?
Which bus supplies electrical power to the AC ground service bus 2
main battery charger?
Which engines power the Boeing 737-800? CFM56-7 dual-rotor axial-flow turbofans

Which flight instrument displays are available Captain's inboard ND and Captain's outboard
when the batteries are the only source of PFD.
power:
Which hydraulic system normally powers the System A for engine No 1 and system B for
thrust reversers? engine No 2
Which is the ND symbol for a traffic Solid amber circle
advisory?

Pagina 30
 Technical

Which light will illuminate if the APU GEN the FAULT light illuminates
OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end
of the start cycle?
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask EMER
will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest
rate?
Which mode must be armed before the APP
second autopilot can be selected during a
dual channel A/P approach?
Which mode must be selected on the MCP APP
before the second A/P can be selected to
engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P
approach?
Which of the following actions occur when closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff
positioning the Engine Start Lever to valves
CUTOFF?
Which of the following actions would selecting a different pitch mode
terminate VNAV?
Which of the following annunciators are NOT Lavatory Fire warning light
fitted on the flight deck?
Which of the following annunciators are NOT Lavatory Fire warning light
fitted on the flight deck?
which of the following anunciator are NOT Lavatory Fire warning ligth
fitted on the flight deck?
Which of the following are not heated? Static ports
Which of the following are powered by the Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust
Standby Hydraulic system? reversers and standby yaw damper.
Which of the following conditions must exist Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.
to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?

Which of the following conditions will cause Excessive differential pressure (> 8.75 psi)
the AUTOFAIL light to illuminate?
Which of the following statements is correct It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if
regarding the cross bus tie relay operation? the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to
OFF.
Which of the following statements is true, the thrust reverser is deployed
when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication
is displayed green?
Which of the following statements would the EGT exceeds the starting limit during
cause the EEC to automatically turn off ground starts
ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when
the EGT display box and dial turn red?

Which of the following will cause activation Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever
of the takeoff configuration warning horn? in the down position.

Which of these conditions would cause GA mode engaged and below 400ft RA
FCCs to control their respective flight
director modes (neither autopilot engaged in
command)?
Which of these could cause a steady RED ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go–
AUTOPILOT indicator light? around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P
operation

Pagina 31
 Technical

Which of these is an AFDS status mode? FD

Which of these pressures can be indicated Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?

Which one of these will cause the autopilot All of the other answers are correct
to disconnect?
Which statement is correct if during VNAV The flight crew manually enter (and
operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating periodically update) estimated fuel weight on
System fails? the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross
weight current and performance data valid.

Which statement is correct in relation to the If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is
APU fuel supply: suction fed from the No. 1 tank. During APU
operation, fuel is automatically heated to
prevent icing.
Which statement is correct regarding ground A minimum of 760kg of fuel must be present
operations of the electric-driven hydraulic in the related main tank
pumps?
Which statement is correct regarding the The APU bleed air valve is DC controlled and
APU Bleed Air Valve: pressure operated
Which statement is correct regarding the The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for
supply of bleed air from the APU: two packs on the ground, or one pack in flight

Which statement is correct when the ALT- The ACP at that station is inoperative but the
NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel crewmember can communicate on one radio.
(ACP) is set to ALT?
Which statement is NOT true with regard to If the lavatory smoke detection system is
the lavatory smoke detection system? actiated, lavatory fire extinguisher system
activates automatically.
Which statement is true regarding aileron If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim
trim? is not indicated on the scale.
Which statement is true? rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the
nose gear strut extends
Which system provides hydraulic pressure System A.
for normal Nose Wheel Steering?

Which systems use engine bleed air for Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and
operation? Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks
pressurization.
Which turbine stages supply air to the bleed 5th and 9th stages
air systems?
Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT L1 only
FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
While flying an ILS approach, to inhibit a Push the BELOW G/S light (so that the alert
BELOW G/S alert: will be inhibited below 1,000 feet radio
altimeter).
While making a no engine bleed takeoff with When reaching 1500 feet AGL or until
the APU operating, an engine failure occurs. obstacle clearance height is reached.
When should the engine BLEED Air
Switches be positioned to ON?
While performing the APPROACH checklist a problem exists in the PSEU system
the PSEU light illuminates on recall, this because this light should be inhibited in flight
indicates:

Pagina 32
 Technical

Whilst on the ground with WING ANTI-ICE both wing anti-ice control valves close and the
selected ON, advancing the thrust levers to WING ANTI-ICE switch remains in the ON
the take-off setting will cause: position
Whilst on the ground with wing anti-ice both wing anti-ice valves to close and the
selected ON, advancing the thrust levers To WING ANTI-ICE switches remain set at ON
the take-off setting will cause:
Whith the Captain's ACP operating is in Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and
degraded mode, at that station: windshear are not heard
Why are mechanical gates installed on the To hinder inadvertent flap lever movement
flap selector unit? beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-
around
Will the APU automatic shutdown protection No
occur with an APU Fire and the APU
Detection Inoperative?
With a single press of either TO/GA switch in G/A : (blank) : TO/GA
response to a Go-around, what are the
correct FMAs (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)? Note:
assume for aircraft Tab numbers YA573
through YW058
With command A engage and FMAs FCC A
displaying MCP SPD/LNAV/ALT HOLD,
which FCC is the master?
With ENGINE START switch positioned rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM
OFF, when would automatic ignition will and engine start lever isin IDLE
occur?
With loss of hydraulic system B (system A Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not
operating normally): available.
With pack switches set to AUTO, if one pack when the aircraft is in flight with flaps
fails, when does the remaining pack provide retracted
high air flow:
With TCAS, proximate traffic: is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically
With the AUTO BRAKE select switch when wheel speed is 90 knots or more and
positioned to RTO, autobraking is initiated: the thrust levers are retarded to IDLE

With the Captain's ACP operating in Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio
degraded mode, at that station: warnings are not heard.
With the engine running at stabilised idle, the N2 rotor
what drives the accessory gearbox?
With the Manual Extension Access Door manual landing gear extension is possible
open: with the Landing Gear Lever in any position.

With the Multifunction Display Switch (MFD) hydraulic pressure and quantity only
in SYS, the lower DU shows:
With the No 1 engine running, what is the Pump continues to run, but output is isolated
effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump from system components
OFF?
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the both in the air and on the ground
AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU
electrical power will cause the AC standby
bus to be powered from the batteries via the
static inverter and the DC standby bus to be
powered directly from the batteries:

Pagina 33
 Technical

With the temperature control placed in the Left pack 24 – Right pack 18
“OFF” position, the pack controls maintain a
fixed temperature of:
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit the isolation valve remains open and the
activated, which of the following statements control valve is held in the stow position
is true?
Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be by either trim or rudder pedals inputs
overridden:
ZONE TEMP amber light illumination for A duct temperature overheat or failure of both
CONT CAB indicates: flight deck primary and standby temperature
controlle

Pagina 34
 Technical

The engine out cruise (ENG OUT CRZ) page is

information only and the EXEC light will not
illuminate.

Pagina 35
 Technical

CABIN = DUAL

Pagina 36
 Technical

set the Filter Switch to B (Both)

Pagina 37
 SOP

Question
'Standard' (STD) altimeter setting is
“Land After” clearances authorised for Ryanair flight
operations?
A Captains Special Report (CSR) should be submitted for:

A double briefing contains (but not limited to) the following:

A flight plan will automatically deactivate at STD plus:

A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:
A runway 100% covered with 2mm of water, with a
Slippery When Wet NOTAM in force, but no reported
Braking Coefficient will have a Braking Action of:
A Stabilised Approach is defined as:

After being intercepted during the day, the intercepting

aircraft circles an aerodrome, lowering its landing gear and
over flies the runway in the direction of landing. This
means:
After being intercepted, the intercepting aircraft abruptly
breaks away by climbing turning 90 degrees or more away
from the path of your aircraft. This means:
After De-Icing or Anti-icing the aircraft, Assumed
Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT):
After departing an airport and currently below
MSA, ATC give radar vectors that deviates from
the SID/PLOG. Can you accept it?
After landing if the turnoff is 90 degrees, what is the
maximum allowed speed?
After Lift-Off the A/T remains in THR HLD until
After using the “Controlled Rest” procedure how long
should you leave between the rest and recovery period to
overcome the effects of sleep inertia?
Aircraft is traveling at 150kts GS and with a rate of
descent of 775 fpm. What is the aircraft descent gradient?

All electronic OFP change notifications on EFBs will be

acknowledged by the flight crew member by
Altimeter cold temperature corrections shall be made to all
MSA’s, approach altitudes and landing minima whenever;

An aircraft losing two-way communication with ATC shall

squawk?
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall:
An IFR flight shall not be flown below the minimum flight
altitude established by the State concerned, or where no
such minimum is established, over high terrain or in
mountainous areas the level will be?
An intercepting aircraft shall normally position itself relative
to the intercepted aircraft:
As part of the Before Taxi Procedure, the PF blanks the
lower display completely by pushing the MFD.

Pagina 38
 SOP

As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:

As part of the Route Check the PF will:

At destination the runway surface is reported as
88690593. Which of the following statements is true?
At the runway holding point, it is determined that a pre-
takeoff contamination check is required:
At the start of your duty, where should you check the
current versions of software that should be installed on
your EFB?
At what distance must you be at least in order to use a
mobile phone whilst refuelling the aircraft?
At what height off the ground is the tower reported wind?
At what N2% indication should the anti-collision beacon be
switched off after engine shutdown?
Before obtaining engine start clearance the transponder
should be positioned to?
Before Takeoff during Cold Weather Operations, which of
the following statements is the correct?

Below FL100 in Class C airspace, ATC ask you to

maintain speed 280kts for separation:
Below which temperature is not permitted to start or motor
the engine?
Can an enroute alternate be considered at the planning
stage that is within a NFZ?
Can an inexperienced First Officer complete a landing on
a runway with a reported braking action of Medium and
crosswind of 17kt?
Can reported meteorological visibility be converted to RVR
for calculation of take-off minima?
Can the aircraft be refuelled with the engines running?

Can the captain self-position onto stand where electronic

guidance or marshalling is required?
Can the weather radar detect volcanic ash?
Can two inexperienced crew members fly together?
Can you go to the Loss of Thrust On Both Engines QRH
checklist if the condition statement is not met if directed by
the Volcanic Ash QRH checklist?
Choose the correct statement regarding high altitude flight:

Choose the correct statement:

Choose the most appropriate statement regarding the

Hotmike usage.

Communication Failure: On take-off from Dublin you

experience a radio failure. Do you:
Communication Failure: What is the ICAO/EUR procedure
if you experience a radio failure under radar controlled
airspace?
Communication Failure. The following is true when
“Transmitting Blind”:

Pagina 39
 SOP

Contingency fuel shall be:

Continuous Descent Approaches (2 engines) are standard

on?
Crews may plan to fly high speed below FL100?

Deferred items Descent and Approach Checklists are

completed
Does RYR use dedicated CAT IIIA approach plates?

During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up.

What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the
gear up?
During A climb in VNAV you are cleared for a further
climb. The Pilot Flying should:
During a normal departure The PM will call FLAPS UP,
NO LIGHTS when
During a normal ILS approach in VMC conditions the flaps
are not in landing configuration. What is the call at 500ft
AAL
During a normal NADP 2 takeoff with 2 engines operative,
when does the PF call 'BUG UP'?
During a Rejected T/O

During a single channel or manual approach, the PM

should call
During an dual channel Go-Around who will select the
appropriate roll mode on the MCP?
During an NADP 1 departure a SID requires a 3000ft QNH
level off, when is it acceptable to accelerate and retract
flaps?
During an NADP 2 departure, when would you put in the
respective autopilot?
During an RNAV approach which of the follow limitations
apply?
During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required?
During descent, the PF will set and crosscheck altimeters
at transition level or when cleared to an altitude. What is
the correct call that the PF makes?
During flap retraction, the speed must not only be at the
manouvering speed for the existing flap setting, but also
showing an?
During Flight Deck Safety Inspection, what is the FIRST
item to be checked in the Techlog?
During Fuel Balancing with fuel in the center tank what
should the position of the center tank fuel pumps and
crossfeed selector be?
During hours of low visibility, for the Exterior Inspection
(walkaround):
During ILS CATII/III approaches the maximum allowed
deviation is:

Pagina 40
 SOP

During Takeoff “THR HLD” should annunciate on the FMA

at what speed?
During Taxi in and Taxi out:
During taxi in, in freezing conditions, stabilizer trim should
be set to
During taxi in, stabilizer trim should be set to
During the before taxi procedure in icing conditions,
engine anti-ice is selected ON. The COWL VALVE OPEN
light on engine no. 1 illuminates bright, and stays
illuminated bright. Choose one of the following actions
During the climb as PM you see a FMC scratchpad
message:
During the climb the ‘Ten Checks’ are?

During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when

setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the
pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC)
range ring from the approach runway and…
During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when
setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the
pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC)
range ring from the approach runway and...
During the Descent and Approach preparation, the PF
becomes PM whilst briefing. He selects, among other
items, Vref and Autobrake setting?
During the Final Flight Deck Preparation, the crew will use
the INOP No Smoking switch in the AUTO position as a
tactical reminder that:?
During the Post Flight Procedures when can the Anti
Collision light be switched off?
During the post flight procedures who annunciates
"Disarm Slides and Open Doors"
During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria
should be used for
During the preflight Flight Deck Access System Test the
correct action after the Emergency Access Code is
entered and the AUTO UNLK light illuminates is:
During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check
that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B
pressure are within limits?
During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder
and aileron trim checked
During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder
and aileron trim checked to be free and zero?
During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder
and aileron trim checked to be free and zero?
During the preliminary pre-flight procedures the APU is
normally started:
During the preliminary pre-flight procedures the APU is
normally started:
During the shut down procedure, the PF should turn OFF
the ANTI-COLLISION at
During the taxi-in, the first officer will:
During your walk around you see a missing security seal?

Pagina 41
 SOP

EI-FOC onwards. During cruise in VNAV PTH, a lower

MCP Altitude is selected, followed by ALT INTV more than
50Nm before TOD. The aircraft will

EI-FOC onwards. During cruise in VNAV PTH, a lower

MCP Altitude is selected, followed by ALT INTV more than
50Nm before TOD. The aircraft will
Electric HYD pumps may be switched ON, for the exterior
walk around, while refuelling is in progress?
Emergency procedure: The pilot of an aircraft
encountering a state of emergency shall squawk
Engine start should be accomplished as late as possible to
have the number 1 engine stabilising just as the tow bar
and tug have cleared away from the airplane.
Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’

Entering the runway the Fixed Landing lights are placed

ON. When are the Retractable lights (if fitted) turned ON?
FMC Route Modifications en-route: Upon receipt of an
ATC DIRECT TO clearance, the PM reads back the
clearance and
Following engine shutdown on stand the Parking brake
should:
For a landing on a runway covered with wet snow depth
4mm and temperature +1C, what would be the Breaking
Action?
For a VOR NPA approach not coded in the FMC, which is
the recommended roll mode for the final approach?
For all ILS approaches, G/S capture must be achieved no
later than:
For all ILS approaches, G/S capture must be achieved no
later than:
For brake cooling on a turnaround the parking brake shall
be released, only after complying with company
procedure, for:
For landing on a runway covered with standing water,
depth 5mm and temperature +8C:
Freezing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground) or
TAT (in flight) is
Fuel: Which of the following would lead you to declare a
Fuel Mayday?
GPS/GNSS approaches are:
Having armed APP and if above the G/S, the glideslope
must be captured by
Hijack: An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
interference shall squawk?
Hold over times are:
Holding in icing conditions: (Winter ops manual)
How are FIR boundaries highlighted during the cruise?
How do you perform the instrument crosscheck?

How is the Wing Anti-Ice used in flight?

How long should the APU be running prior to using it as a

bleed source?

Pagina 42
 SOP

How many minutes for wake separation do you need when

departing from an intermediate holding point on the same
runway as an A380:
How many minutes for wake separation do you need when
departing from an intermediate holding point on the same
runway as an B757 which departed from the full length:

How much fuel over Flight Plan fuel may be carried

without explanation on the voyage report?
How often should the aileron and rudder trim be checked?
How should details of a delayed departure be officially
recorded?
ICAO Runway Markings: The ‘Aiming Point Markings’ are
located at:
Icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground) or TAT
(in flight) is
Ideally, Continuous Descent Approaches will be used on:
If a No Engine Bleeds takeoff is planned.
If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned,
If an Autoland proceeds normally after 50 ft, the F/O
(RHS) calls?
If asked by ATC to hold at FL80 at a present position hold,
what is the maximum speed and time you can hold at in
non-turbulent conditions?
If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a
2500ft QNH level off, is it acceptable to accelerate at?
If Docunet is unavailable, where would you be able to
download an online version of the Operations
If ground accumulated fan blade icing is discovered during
the walk around it should be removed with?
If ice crystal icing is suspected during flight:
If no Outer Marker/4NM position exists, above what
altitude must the Captain decide to continue or go-around
if the reported RVR is less than landing minima?
If OAT is changed after the V speeds have been entered
on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC removes the
previously entered V speeds and a NO VSPD flag shows
on the airspeed indication.
If severe turbulence is encountered

If the ambient temperature is below -35°C how many

minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust
position?
If the Boeing OPT is unavailable on both EFBs, what
should crews do?
If the EFB mounting device is not available, where should
the EFB be stowed during critical phases of flight?
If the flight crew receive the TCAS Aural Alert “LEVEL
OFF, LEVEL OFF” the PF shall
If the Navtech application is available on only the
Captain's EFB in flight, what will the crew do?
If the Navtech application is available only on the
Captain’s EFB in flight, what will the crew do?

Pagina 43
 SOP

If the NOTAM’s or ATC give a report of failed or

downgraded lighting or approach equipment at your
destination, where can you obtain information on how this
affects your approach and landing minima regarding a
CAT II approach?
If the RUNWAY INOP light is illuminated with the
RUNWAY INHIBIT switch in the normal position, this
indicates:
If the surface wind at destination exceeds 20kts the
Captain will make the following PA when releasing Cabin
Crew:
If water is pooling and aircraft flooding is imminent, what
actions should be taken?
If winds are forecast to exceed 40 kts and aircraft are
expected to be left unattended flight crew shall contact
Maintrol for guidance on the protection of aircraft on the
ground:
If you encounter Severe Turbulence during high altitude
cruise flight:
If you enter a Volcanic Ash NFZ but do not encounter any
Volcanic Ash, what is your course of action after the flight?

In descent when setting QNH what is the correct PF call?

In instances where the OFP does not agree with the

flightplan held by ATC and as a result the crew fly to the
incorrect waypoint, what should the Captain do at the end
of the duty day?
In instances where the OFP does not agree with the
flightplan held by ATC and as a result the crew fly to the
incorrect waypoint, what should the Captain do at the end
of the duty day?
In instances where the OFP does not agree with the
flightplan held by ATC, what should the Captain do at the
end of the duty day?
In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may
elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until
passing FL 100
In the case of an incapacitated Captain the First officer
should, upon landing?
In the cruise, for operations other than LNAV

In the event of Docunet being unavailable, where can flight

manuals be downloaded to?
In the event that two weather related missed approaches
have been carried out, can a third approach be made?

In the preflight, what weight is entered into the zero fuel

weight in the FMC perf init page?
In the RTOW’s/ OPT, the Climb Limited Weights are
based on:
In the RTOW’s/OPT, the climb limited weights are based
on?
In which of the following cases must the take off be
preceded by a static engine run-up?

Pagina 44
 SOP

In which runway surfaces is it allowed to use a friction

measurement braking action report to downgrade the
TALPA calculated braking action?
In-flight Planning for a MTOW 74990Kg aircraft: LFBL,
Rwy21, Wind 260/15, 6mm compacted snow, braking
coefficient = 0.36, Flap 40, OAT -2, QNH 1001, Full
reverse, Engine & wing Anti-Ice, Landing weight: 65,000
Kg. Use OPT to calculate the LDR for an autobrake 2
landing
Inexperienced co-pilots or a co-pilot newly converted onto
type shall not conduct the landing when specific wheather
conditions are experienced. Choose the most appropriate
description.
Is it acceptable to practice a CAT II/III A approach to a
CAT I runway?
Is it allowed to fuel and board with Persons of Reduced
Mobility (PRM) on board?
Is it necessary to file an ASR for all Go-arounds?

Is the CABIN call chime tested as part of the Preliminary

Flight Deck Preparation?
Is the Landing Dispatch Performance required to be
calculated before the Final CDU Preflight Procedure?
Is the sight of only Sequenced Flashing Lights at CAT I
minima considered sufficient visual reference to continue
the approach below DA?
It is considered best practice to request “standard speeds”
from ATC when higher speeds are offered. These speeds
are:
Items to be reviewed with the takeoff briefing, as part of
the Before Takeoff Checks, are:
landing with LOSS OF SYSTEM A (Flap 30) in these
conditions: Landing weight 60000Kg, No Slope, Wet
runway, Wind calm, Temperature ISA +10°C, Airport
Elevation 0ft
Landings are prohibited on runways with a braking action
of
Max motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than
1% in approximately how many seconds?
Maximum taxi speed on the apron, in dry conditions, is?
May the Cockpit Voice Recorder CB be pulled in flight?
May you accept a line up clearance before receiving the
“Cabin Secure” signal?
MCP altitude changes during climb following an ATC
instruction require the following actions and call-outs?

Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch (as displayed on

the lower DU) is:
Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) provides:

Navtech SID clearance reads: ‘At or Above FL080; Climb

6000ft, at CALTA cleared FL080’. What altitude is set in
the MCP window?
No Ryanair revenue flight shall be planned to arrive at
destination with less than

Pagina 45
 SOP

Non-Normal landing distances

Normal landing flap setting is?

On a circle to land approach you must enter a 4.2nm ring

from which runway?
On a Dual Channel Approach, the Captains call at 500ft
RA is
On a Dual Channel Approach, when cleared for the
approach
On a non-precision approach, the latest point at which the
autopilot must be disengaged is
On a NPA approach, within how many degrees of the
inbound track should you be to start descent?
On a racetrack procedure turn joining from sector 2 (offset)
the time spent on the 30 degree offset leg for a racetrack
procedure turn will be:
On a visual approach to turn onto final you must be
On an ILS approach in VMC, PF should call 'Gear down,
Flaps 15':
On an NADP1 Departure, the PF shall select CMD A or B
(unless otherwise briefed) at
On departure, when may crews fly at more than 250kts
below FL100?

On landing a Go-Around can be initiated at any time up

to?
On the ground, prior to switching on the A system pump
switches, ensure:
On the RVSM Altimeter Performance Record, both
altimeters need to agree within
On which of the following surface states is landing
prohibited?
Once cleared for taxi, the Captain will switch on the taxi
and runway turnoff light:
One of the standard callouts during engine start is?
P-RNAV arrivals terminate at:
PF response to RAAS "On Runway __" (cleared for take-
off) is:
Preflight: Prior to first flight. Who checks the Ships
Library?
Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or non
active, crews must make a 'Two Phase Call' (inter cockpit).
The first phase of the 'Two Phase Call' requires the
Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that they are
cleared to cross/enter the runway, the second phase
requires the RHS pilot to respond:
Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not
active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter
cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to
establish with the RHS pilot that:
Prior to pushback, the "Passengers Seated" signal:
Prior to taxi the F/O should call?

Pagina 46
 SOP

Recording weather on the OFP:

Regarding operations in severe turbulence during the

cruise, which statement is correct?
Regarding operations in severe turbulence, which
statement is correct?
Regarding to the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF, what
action shall be taken after completing the engine start
procedure with both engines stable, parking brake set, tug
and towbar disconnected, bypass pin removed and hand
signals received from the ground crew?
Runway conditions permitting, autobrake will be:

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘CLL’ stands for:

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘REIL’ stands for:
Runway Lights: The abbreviation "HRCLL" stands for:
Runway Lights: The abbreviation ALSF-II stands for:

RW27 wind 280/35G55 what wind do you enter in the

PERFORMANCE-TAKEOFF calculation on the OPT to
work out 1) the crosswind component 2) the take-off
performance?
Ryanair will not plan or intentionally conduct operations in
areas known to contain visible or discernible Volcanic Ash
(VA) or areas where ash concentrations have been
measured above which level?
Second officers, (two stripes), shall not conduct the
landing when the crosswind is in excess of?
Select which statement is true with regard to a NADP1
departure.
Selection of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering is
recommended for operation in severe turbulence. Choose
the most appropriate answer.
Should both EFBs become inoperative during flight, with
no back up paper charts available on board, crew should

Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft

overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?
Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the
overhead panel during the Flight Deck Safety Inspection
and Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure?
Should the take-off weight be increased to facilitate the
tankering of fuel?

Should you encounter Severe Turbulence during high

altitude cruise flight:
SID stop altitudes at or below the corrected MSA shall be
corrected with the surface OAT is
Spurious Windshear Warnings:

Pagina 47
 SOP

Tankering Limitations:

The 'Briefing' part of RIBETS must be completed by?

The 'Landing Gate' requires the aircraft to be fully
stabilised:
The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by
the:
The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non
Precision) is?
The ‘Outer Marker’ standard call on a ILS approach is:

The "ACTIVE TMC REV" displayed in Cyan on the

Navtech application indicates the chart revision that is
The “Cabin Crew Standby” call from the flight deck to the
cabin

The 10 Checks​are performed during descent using the

F.L.A.P.S.-Recall mnemonic. What does the 'A' stand for?

The 10 Checks are performed during descent using the

F.L.A.P.S.-Recall mnemonic. What does the 'A' stand for?

The After Take Off - No Engine Bleed Checklist should be

read as follows:
The aircraft may be operated safely up to
The Approach Procedure (FRISC scanflow) prior to calling
for the Approach Checklist, is which of the following?
The Boeing OPT is:
The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when
passengers are?
The cabin secure signal:

The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO

Configuration) is
The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:
The Crossfeed valve is checked for correct operation on
the first flight of the day for each crew?
The Crosswind limits are based on the wind velocity
The CSFF measuring tool is located
The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that:

The definition of VMC found in FCOM1 is

The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may

be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is?
The effect on a CATIII A approach (DH50’) of
unserviceable ‘Approach Lights’ is:
The effect on a CATIII A approach of no midpoint or stop
end RVR readings (due failed equipment) is:

Pagina 48
 SOP

The effect on a CATIII A approach of one RVR reading

(mid point or stop end) being uavailable due to failed
equipment is:
The emergency frequency 121.50 shall be selected on
VHF 2 and the volume adjusted to hear transmissions:
The Fasten Belts switch should be selected to ON when:
The fifth step in the De-/Anti-Icing Process is:
The Final Approach Fix (FAF) is defined as:
The First Officer will begin reading his ' Before Takeoff
Checklist'
The first step in the De-/Anti-Icing Process is:
The Flight Crew will make the PA “Cabin Crew Standby”.
On hearing this PA:
The flight profiles of Ryanair approaches are contained in
which manual?
The FLT ALT Selector on the pressurisation panel is set
to?
The following information should be given to ATC on
contact with the first radar controller:
The following is the correct manoeuvre for TCAS RA

The formula that may be used to calculate the additional

trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-
tankering sectors is:
The forth step in the De-/Anti-Icing Process is:
The frequency 121.50 MHz must be monitored
The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left

The initial welcoming PA to passengers boarding:

The initial welcoming PA to passengers:
The Inop No Smoking sign is moved to the ON position.
What does this indicate during the taxi out phase?
The Landing Gate for a precision approach in IMC is
The Landing Gate for a Sidestep is
The Landing Gate for a Visual approach is
The Landing Gate for an IMC Precision Approach is?
The maximum approach speed additive is:
The maximum approach speed wind correction is?
The maximum Circle to Land speeds and dimensions for
the B737-800 are:
The maximum crosswind component on a CATII/IIIA
Approach is?
The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and
landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:
The maximum Flap extension altitude is
The maximum speed in the climb is:

The Maximum speed to exit a RET (Rapid Exit Taxiway) is

The minimum brake accumulator pressure with the

hydraulics pressurised should be?

Pagina 49
 SOP

The minimum cleared width for takeoff or landing is

The minimum cleared width on a snow covered runway for
takeoff and landing is
The minimum temperature to dispatch with CSFF is
The Mode S feature of the transponder will only function if;

The NAV lights should be ON:

The order of selection for the Immediate Leveloff

Procedure shall be
The PF during the Preflight procedure places the pack
switches to?
The philosophy in which the normal checklists are used is?

The PRE-FLIGHT instrument scan is which of the

following?
The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior
Inspection, by:
The recommended speed to exit a RET (Rapid Exit
Taxiway) is normally
The response the GPWS "MINIMUMS" is
The RVR reported for take off is 350m. Assuming
appropriate aerodrome lighting, who can perform the take
off?
The second step in the De-/Anti-Icing Process is:
The standard callout by PF when cleared to an altitude
during descent is:
The standard callout, from the PM, at 500 feet AAL on an
ILS Cat1 approach is:
The standard FMC fuel cost index is?
The tables in the Performance Preamble for Dispatch
Landing Distance Required:
The third step in the De-/Anti-Icing Process is:
The TR units output, on the electrical panel, should be
checked as part of the after start scan?
The tyre limit speed is
The V1 aural call on take off must:
The WING Anti-ice should be OFF

There is a cross wind in excess of 10kts, which of the

following is true?
There is a hijack/unlawful interference situation on board.
What is the correct procedure in relation to the flight deck
door?
To achieve the target touchdown speed of Vref:

To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the

maximum approach speed additive is?
To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach, the
maximum approach speed additive is?
To determine that actual tailwind component is within limits
for landing:
To determine the LDA from the Navtech chart

Pagina 50
 SOP

To determine the LDR for a Flap 40 Autoland:

To improve ATC situation awareness Enhanced Mode S
Transponders allow an air traffic controller to view
To mitigate against the threat of Prolonged Loss of
Communication (PLOC), crews should
To satisfy the stabilized approach criteria, the maximum
speed is:
True or False: The engines are always started by the
Captain.
Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will
decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which
pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO
to ON?
Under which conditions do we select GEN 1 and 2 ON and
the APU OFF during the engine start procedure?

Under which conditions is a takeoff with CSFF on upper

wing surfaces allowable?
Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?
Use the Actual TOW and check the Climb and Runway
Limited Weight columns
Use the OPT to calculate what thrust setting you would
use for the following takeoff: EGPK Runway 30, dry, wind
350/17, OAT 12, QNH 1029, flap 5, TOW 72,000 Kg
Use the TALPA Matrix to determine landing braking action
for a runway covered with compacted snow, depth 10mm,
temperature -12C.
Using the preamble charts, what is the Dispatch Landing
Distance Required for the following conditions: PA =
2000ft; WET; HW = 5kts; LW = 58.0T
Using the QRH, find the landing distance required using
max autobrake for a landing with JAMMED or
RESTRICTED FLIGHT CONTROLS in these conditions:
Landing weight 60000Kg, No Slope, Dry, 10 kts
Headwind, Temperature 15C, PA 0ft
Using the QRH, find the landing distance required using
max autobrake for a landing with LOSS OF SYSTEM A
(Flap 30) in these conditions: Landing weight 60000Kg, No
Slope, Wet runway, Wind calm, Temperature ISA +10°C,
Airport Elevation 0ft:
Wake Turbulence category on Approach: What is the
minimum separation between a medium aircraft following
a heavy aircraft on approach?
Wake Turbulence category on Take Off: What is the
minimum interval between a medium a preceding heavy
aircraft?
Wake Turbulence category on Take Off: What is the
minimum interval between a medium and a preceding
heavy aircraft, departing from same position on a runway?

Weather Radar: Which of the following statements is

correct

What action shall be taken after positioning the engine

start lever to IDLE detent during engine start procedure?

Pagina 51
 SOP

What actions should the captain take if the aircraft is the

subject of a SAFA Inspection?
What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC
clearance being received?
What are the limits associated with requesting an "orbit" in
order to regain the vertical profile during approach?
What are the minimum RVR requirements for a CAT III A
approach?
What are the planning minima for a destination airport with
an ILS approach available?

What Braking Action would you expect with the MOTNE:

88350037?
What Braking Action would you expect with the MOTNE:
88851033?
What braking action would you set into the OPT for a
landing on a runway 100% covered in wet snow, depth
4mm and a reported Braking Coefficient of 0.37?
What considerations should be evaluated before
attempting to re-engage the A/P?

What considerations should be evaluated before

attempting to reengage the A/P?

What Cost Index (CI) is to be entered in the FMC pre-

flight?
What course of action should be taken if during engine
start the fuel is shutoff inadvertently (by closing engine
start lever)?
What criteria must be met to allow selection of V/S with
flaps extended on departure?

What depth of wet snow would prohibit takeoff?

What documentation should be retained in the flight
envelope at end of duty?

What does ‘G’ (Item 7) in the below diagram mean?

What does the abbreviation RAIM stand for in relation to
GPS/GNSS approaches?
What does the highlighted line painted on a taxiway
mean?
What does the higllighted line painted on a taxiway mean?

What does the PF do after the PM calls 'approaching

descent' during a V/s NPA?
What does two-step de-icing mean?

Pagina 52
 SOP

What flight level does the OFP represent?

What HDG should be selected on the MCP for takeoffs?

What information must be retained on the ground for each
flight or series of flights?

What is an ‘Obstacle Clearance Height’ defined as?

What is considered a volcanic ash high contamination

area?

What is considered a volcanic ash low contamination

area?
What is considered a volcanic ash medium contamination
area?
What is normal during pushback and engine-start?

What is Ryanair policy regarding acceptance of a Traffic

Service from ATC?

What is Ryanair policy regarding intersection take-offs?

What is the AFDS re-engagement sequence?

What is the assumed bank angle for an Emergency Turn
Procedure?
What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence?

What is the correct checklist discipline?

What is the correct FMC page selection for the PF once
cleared for approach?
What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance
for take-off in gusty

What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance

for take-off in gusty headwind conditions?

What is the correct order of the items reviewed by the CPT

during the TAKEOFF BRIEFING?
What is the correct status of the SPAR VALVE CLOSED
lights during the pre-flight procedure?
What is the correct terminology for initiating a NITS drill?
What is the crosswind limit for landing on a frost covered
runway?
What is the definition of a Fail Passive flight control
system?

What is the distance that the B737-800 aircraft covers at 1

ENG INOP cruising speed in still air?

Pagina 53
 SOP

What is the diversion distance (maximum distance from an

adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without
an ETOPS approval) for the B737-800?
What is the diversion distance (maximum distance from an
adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without
an ETOPS approval) for the RYR B737-800?
What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may
be set on climb out?
What is the engine parameter value at which the start
lever should be moved to idle detent during engine in flight
restart?
What is the Engine starter duty cycle limit?
What is the formula to calculate the additional trip fuel
burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering
sectors?
What is the landing gate for a Circling Approach /
Sidestep?
What is the last step of Isolated pack operation during
engine start procedure?
What is the latest configuration point on a ILS in VMC
conditions?
What is the latest point can the autopilot be used during a
single channel approach?
What is the latest point to select flap one (1) on all
approach?
What is the limit is used to determine an altimeter error in
RVSM airspace?
What is the mandatory pitch mode to be used during
climb?

What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP

Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a
RNAV (GPS, GNSS) Approach?
What is the maximum surface wind speed for ground
operations?
What is the minimum altitude to commence a turn on
departure?
What is the minimum Fire Category that can acceptable
when planning for a take-off alternate or a destination
alternate?
What is the minimum fuel tank temperature for CSFF
relief?
What is the minimum height required to switch Engine
Bleed air switches on following an engine failure after
take-off in a no engine bleed T/O configuration?
What is the minimum LDR for a non-normal condition
(NNC) landing?
What is the minimum potable water level required for
dispatch?

What is the Minimum Use Height for single channel

Autopilot operation?

Pagina 54
 SOP

What is the minimum wingtip clearance for self-

manoeuvring taxiing without a marshaller guiding the wing
tip?
What is the missed approach point (MaPt) defined as?

What is the normal fire category for Ryanair destinations?

What is the only approved command to initiate a line of
communication with the cabin crew in an emergency/non
normal situation?
What is the priority when a volcanic ash cloud encounter is
identified?
What is the procedures for changing radio frequency
during cruise?

What is the purpose of the isolated pack operation during

engine start procedure?
What is the range of Final Approach Speed that defines a
Category C aircraft?
What is the range of Initial Approach Speed that defines a
Category C aircraft?
What is the recommended engine cool down time?
What is the recommended taxi speed when engaging a
RET (Rapid Exit Taxiway) after landing?
What is the required number of cabin crew for boarding
when the aircraft is refuelling?
What is the Ryanair FMC cruise speed policy?

What is the Ryanair policy for pilots operating the

refuelling panel?

What is the Ryanair policy regarding Nav aid selection?

What is the Ryanair policy regarding thunderstorm activity

during approach and landing?

What is the Ryanair sterile cockpit policy?

What is the three step escalation process for protecting

minimum reserve fuel?
What is the total crosswind component and can you land
on RWY 27, dry, and Wind from ATC 320/35G45?
What is the volcanic ash cloud encounter recovery?

What is the wake turbulence category for the B737-800?

What is the wake turbulence category of the Boeing 737-
800?

Pagina 55
 SOP

What lights should be switched on when crossing an

active or non-active runway?
What minimum level of fire-fighting equipment do we
normally require for the B737 800 series aircraft?
What minimum level of fire-fightingequipment do we
normally require for the B737 800 series aircraft?
What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200,
300 & 400?
What parameters can ATC view via the Enhanced Mode S
transponders?
What personal documents are flight crew required to bring
to their duties?

What position are the IRS mode selectors positioned to

during the preflight procedures?
What position does the FO turn the Auto Brake selector to
during the Taxi in procedure?
What range ring must be entered for the landing runway in
the fix page on the RWxx point when planning a circle to
land?
What range ring must be entered in the fix page on the
RWxx point when planning a circle to land?
What shall the Captain do when the calculated usable fuel
on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a
safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve
fuel?
What shoud be considered during the D.A.L.T.A briefing of
a Non Precision Approach that has an offset of more than
5 degrees ?
What should be declared to ATC when the calculated
usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome
where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final
reserve fuel.
What should be done with sections of the Tech Log that
are not applicable to the flight (i.e. de-icing?)

What should progress page 4/4 be selcted with reference

to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this
operation?
What should the Captain do after calculating the corrected
stab trim?
What should the commander do if a thunderstorm comes
overhead the airfield during fuelling?
What should the pressurisation FLT ALT window be set to
during the Preflight procedure?
What should the pressurization FLT ALT window be set to
during the Preflight procedure?
What should you do if your aircraft registration does not
match that of your LIDO flight plan?

What weather criteria must a Takeoff alternate fulfil?

What will ATC do in the event of severe turbulence, that is

forecasted, in relation to RVSM airspace:

Pagina 56
 SOP

What would you set on the BARO minima for a visual

approach?
When an aircraft is unable to communicate due to receiver
failure it shall use the prefix
When at an altitude and you are cleared to a FL what is
the standard callout and by whom?
When briefing for an RNP approach, where can you check
the approach RNP?
When can both GEN1 and GEN2 be selected ON and the
APU off during the engine start procedure?
When can flight crew inhibit RAAS?
When can the Captain derive an equivalent RVR value by
converting the reported met visibility as outlined in Table 8
OPS PART A 8.1.3.4.9:
When capturing the ILS glideslope from above, the MCP
altitude may be selected no lower than
When cleared to an altitude during an approach (no delay
anticipated) the following standard call applies?
When cleared to climb 2000ft above your current altitude
you should
When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the
aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will
When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the
aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their
altimeters to Std. When is the standby altimeter set to
Standard?
When cleared to enter an active runway for the purpose of
taking-off all LANDING lights installed (and STROBES)
When cleared to enter, line-up and wait on a runway
When cleared to final cruising level, the PF shall call
'FL___ SET, THREE TIMES' checking the MCP Alt, FLT
ALT and the FMC. Which FMC page shall be reffered to?
When climbing

When conducting a Flap 40 Autoland on a wet runway

with Good reported braking action, the reference landing
distance should be increased by
When conducting a Visual Approach, the landing gate is....

When crew notices Non Enviromental Ice (NEI) on the

upper wing surface, which of the following is true?

When do both pilots set their altimeters to STD during an

NADP 2 Departure?
When do you select the transponder to ALT OFF during
engine start / push?

When encountering Light or Moderate Turbulence in the

cruise, crew should
When encountering turbulence, the FMC N1 Limit Page
should be selected to
When flying with an inexperienced co-pilot, the
commander shall perform the take-off or landing when the
following conditions are experienced:

Pagina 57
 SOP

When intercepting the glideslope from above

When is a go around below 500ft mandatory during a low

visibility approach?
When is a tech log weight change entry required?

When is it appropriate to extend the centre line in the

FMC?

When is it considered necessary to record en-route

weather on the PLOG?

When is it necessary to nominate a Takeoff alternate?

When is the gear down and flaps 15 selected during a

NPA using VNAV?
When is the latest point at which the VSD must be
selected on and remain on if terrain clearance and energy
management are not a factor?
When is the missed approach altitude set on a Non
Precision Approach?
When is the parking brake released once on stand and a
wind calm day?
When is the rolling takeoff procedure recommended?
When is the transponder mode selector set '2000, then
STBY', during the taxi in procedure?
When looking at a landing distance on Navtech approach
chart as seen below, what do the number in the brackets
(Item 2) mean? LDA 2400x45 7874x148ft V30(54)
When making a manual RTOW calculation, an airfield
elevation is 1440 feet and the QNH is 1032hPa. What is
the pressure altitude?
When must the commander select at least two destination
alternates?

When must the VSD be selected on during an approach?

When on a precision approach, when is it allowable to
descend with the glide path in relation to the localiser?
When on the Approach and below 1000 ft AAL, the RVR
falls below the applicable minimum, may the approach be
continued?
When operating RVSM airspace, what is the tolerance for
an Assigned Altitude Deviation (AAD)?
When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does
the PM call “Approaching Descent”
When performing the Flight Control checks during the
Before Taxi Procedure you should?
When pushing back from a stand using a tug withoutÊa
nosewheel steering bypass pin fitted, what position should
the hydraulic A pumps switch position be in?
When selecting a Takeoff alternate which criteria must be
fulfilled?

Pagina 58
 SOP

When setting airspeed bugs with no operative FMC, what

is the default weight?
When shall the Pilot Flying perform the FRISC scanflow?
When should PF “Bug Up” on a normal NADP2 departure?
When should progress page 4/4 be selected with
reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose
of this operation?
When should the Captain call “CONTINUE” during a
Monitored Approach?
When should the EGPWS be tested by the flight crew?
When should the LOGO lights be ON?
When should the PF "Bug Up" on a standard departure
using NADP2?
When should the recirculation fan switches be turned off?
When should the wing and engine anti-ice switches be
turned off after landing in freezing/icing conditions?
When starting the engines during cold weather operations,
which of the following is not true?
When starting the engines, the first step is:

When the aircraft is unable to communicate due to

receiver failure it shall use the prefix:
When the ATIS/Volmet for your destination is received,
what is preselected on the PFD?
When the engine is shutdown and the chocks are in place.
Normal procedure requires the flight crew:
When the MDA is 900ft AAL or higher on a non-precision
approach the crew should

When the MDA is 900ft AAL or higher on a non-precision

approach the crew should
When the MDA is greater than 1000AAL on a non-
precision approach the crew should
When the passengers are seated and the slides are
armed
When the PF calls "Set Takeoff Thrust", the PM checks N1
against target value, checks engine instruments on the
upper DU and checks for any pop-ups on the lower DU,
then calls?
When will the First Officer commence the after landing
items/flow?

When will the First Officer press the cabin attend button
during the before takeoff checks?
When will the First Officer start the ‘Taxi In Procedure’
(after landing flow)?

When would the NO CREDIT option used for reverse

thrust during a normal landing?
When you are cleared for a CAT II/III Approach, the F/O
(RHS) should:
When you are in a procedure turn and a descent is
required after the inbound turn, how close must you be
established in order to descend:

Pagina 59
 SOP

Where can one find the Ryanair Non-Normal Flight

Patterns and Manoeuvres?
Where is weather information available on the EFB?
Where should the Tech Log be stored on board the
aircraft?
Where would you find information allowing crews to
crosscheck validity/version of the current OPT database?
Where would you normally ascertain if Ryanair can use a
particular runway for CAT III A operations?
Which ‘ENGINE START IGN’ selection should be made for
engine start?
Which is incorrect when you are planning to travel on the
jumpseat?
Which is our mandatory climb mode after all MCP
Altitude / Flight Level changes?
Which is the correct order during the final CDU preflight
procedure after selecting the OPT C/G in the CDU?
Which is the ICAO recommended speed at the IAF?
Which of the following are true with regard to completing a
standard or shortened brief​?
Which of the following is true regarding communication
failure?
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to
takeoff with CSFF on the upper wing surface?
Which of the following statements is the correct in specific
relation to Takeoff Procedures in Cold Weather
Operations?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the
Isolated Pack Operation during Engine Start
supplementary procedure?

Which of the following statements is true regarding the No

Engine Bleed Take Off?
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the
TAKEOFF BRIEFING during the Before Takeoff
Procedure?
Which pilot calls the OM (challenge) check first?
Which pilot handles all ATC communication whilst the
aircraft is on the ground?
Which statement is correct If an engine failure occurs
during a NO ENGINE

Which statement is correct If an engine failure occurs

during a NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF?

Which Statement is correct in regard to performing the

Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary
Procedure?
Which statement is correct regarding tailwind
components?

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew

Standby’ call during an RTO?

Pagina 60
 SOP

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew

Standby’ call?

Which statement is correct regarding the circling

procedure?
Which statement is correct regarding the recirculation fan
switches during the preflight procedures:
Which statement is correct regarding the sequence of
actions when ALT HOLD is annunciated during a circling
procedure?

Which statement is correct regarding Turbulence

penetration procedure?

Which statement is correct with regard to creating

waypoints on the legs page?
Which statement is correct with regard to extending the
airstair from the inside of the aircraft?

Which statement is correct with regard to MCP altitude

changes following an ATC instruction?
Which statement is most correct?
Which statement is most correct? The runway is wet for
departure.
Which statement is true regarding low drag approaches?

Which statement is true regarding Monitored NPA?

Which statement is true regarding operation above the

optimum cruise altitude in LNAV?

Whilst completing a procedure turn (45degrees/180

degrees) in a B737-800, when shall the timing begin and
for how long?
Whilst on a ILS final approach the Outer Marker call is
lead by which pilot?
Whilst the aircraft is being pushed back from stand, who
handles all communication with the ground crew
Who checks the "Takeoff CONFIG" warning and when?
Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior
to engine start up?
Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and
when?
Who completes the Exterior Inspection?
Who completes the Light Test pre-flight?
Who enters the Zero-fuel weight into the FMC during the
Final CDU Preflight?
Who first checks the maintenance status prior to the first
flight?
Who gives the "Cabin Crew seats for landing" PA?
Who is responsible to call "FLAPS 15" when the position is
indicated on the flap position indicator?
Who selects the VHF NAV frequencies for the departure?

Pagina 61
 SOP

Who submits the EFL flight information at the end of each

sector?
Wing Anti ice is normally not required when SAT is
With more than 453kgs in the centre tank, the Captain
may elect to leave the center tank pump switches off until

With regard to Takeoff thrust settings from a runway with a

published Emergency Turn Procedure:
With regards to DALTA: The statement “Standard Calls
and Procedures” shall

With regards to the RTOW/OPT designation of Runway:

15 ET, The ET indicates:
With the stuck mike modification after how long will the
VHF transceiver revert to the receive mode if the PTT
becomes stuck?
You are asked to hold at FL160, how long would your
outbound timing be and what speed would you maintain in
normal conditions?
You are flying in the cruise at FL 360 and encounter
turbulence. The speed (IAS) deviates by 5-15kts with
slight changes in both altitude and attitude. How would
you define this to ATC?
You are level at FL350 and cleared to climb to FL370,
which mode should be initially used for climb?

You are operating an aircraft with halogen bulbs fitted.

Entering the runway, the Fixed Landing lights are placed
ON. When are the Retractable lights turned ON?
You are planning an Autoland using Flap 40. The LDR is?
You are planning for a landing on a runway which is
notified as runway surface state 18650694. Which BA
would you use to determine Performance Inflight Normal
Landing Distance required?
You are planning for a landing on a runway which is
notified as runway surface state 88350043. Which BA
chart would you use to determine Performance
Inflight Normal Landing Distance required?
You are planning to depart from a dry runway with ONE
thrust reverser inoperative. Which of the following
statements is correct?
You divert to an airport other than your scheduled
destination but are then able to depart for your original
destination airport. Are passengers allowed to disembark
at the intermediate airport?
You have completed your flight and the commander has
secured the aircraft at an unmanned base. The wind
however is currently 45kts and it is forecasted to remain
for the rest of the night. You should:
Your OPT is U/S, the QNH at departure airfield is
1029hPa. What is the weight correction to the Runway
Limited Weight when using only RTOW charts?
During the before taxi procedure in icing conditions,
engine anti-ice is selected ON. The COWL VALVE OPEN
light on engine no. 1 illuminates bright, and stays
illuminated bright. Choose one of the following actions.

Pagina 62
 SOP

When cleared to final cruising level, the PF shall call

'FL___ SET, THREE TIMES' checking the MCP Alt, FLT
ALT and the FMC. Which FMC page shall be referred to?
Which statement is correct regarding Turbulence
penetration procedures?

The 'Landing Gate' requires the aircraft to be fully

stabilised:

Pagina 63
 SOP

Answer
1013.2hPa (29.92 in)
Yes, in which requires the completion of ‘Landing Lights’
after the “Minimums” call
OFP does not agree with the ATC flight plan, initial
verification auto land, SAFA inspections findings
The other three answers are correct

15mins
Circle to land approaches
Medium

An approach which is flown in a controlled and appropriate

manner in terms of configuration, energy and control of the
flight path from a pre- determined point or altitude to
landing
Land at this aerodrome.

You may proceed

Is not permitted

yes, provided obstacle clearance criteria and

operating conditions are observed

10 knots

800 feet above field elevation

20 mins

5.1%

replying to the OFP change notification email

The surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius

7600

Squawk 7700 and attempt contact on 121.50 Mhz

2000ft where the obstacle is within 5m(8km) and
elsewhere 1000ft within the same radius

Slightly above, ahead and to the left.

This is correct as the 'Pop up' feature will reveal the lower
display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure

Pagina 64
 SOP

Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire
switch that is illuminated
Call “Checked” and states estimated fuel remaining
The braking action used in the OPT should be MEDIUM-
POOR.
This check must be completed externally by a qualified
person
The Crew Alert section of the Operational Flight Plan

3.5m of the refuelling point

10 m AGL
Below 20% N2

Alt Off

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or

below, the takeoff must be preceded by a static engine
run-up
You comply as this is a specific speed instruction from
ATC
- 40°C

No

No

No, the conversion may not be used for calculating take

off minima
Yes, it can be. It’s an non normal procedure and GOPS,
ENGR’s and OPS will plan it in advance
No, it is not permitted to self-position onto stand where
electronic guidance or marshalling is required
No
Never
Yes

When using HDG SEL, the drag in a turn may increase to

more than the available thrust
A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH titled
"Tail Strike".
I/C shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains
ON for the remainder of the flight until the Parking Brake is
set at the stand, then OFF.
Maintain the last assigned level for 3 mins then continue
with the flight plan
Maintain last assigned speed and level or MSA if higher
for a period of 7 minutes

Transmit all messages twice with the prefix “Transmitting

Blind” and include the addressee for which the message is
intended

Pagina 65
 SOP

The higher of: Either 5% or 3% (En-route alternate) of the

planned trip fuel or, in the event of in- flight re-planning,
5% or 3% (ERA) of the trip fuel for the remainder of the
flight OR an amount to fly for five minutes at holding speed
at 1500ft above the destination aerodrome in standard
conditions
All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s

Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and

have been authorised to do so by ATC
PM - Challenge and response

No. Airports with CAT III approaches are included on the

applicable ILS chart.
Both VSI and altimeter indicate a postitive rate of climb

The other three answers are all correct

The flaps are up with no lights above 3000ft AAL

500 Go Around

At 1000ft AAL

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The
FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO
The visual cues as they become apparent during the
approach
PF

At ALT ACQ

At 1000ft AAL

Vertical deviation on final approach +/- 75ft

After calling "SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP"

SET QNH___. PASSING___ DESCENDING____FEET.
____ FLAGS, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET'

Accelerating speed trend vector

Verify Techlog registration agrees with aircraft registration.

Both center tank fuel pumps Off and crosfeed selector

OPEN

The pilot completing the walkround should use a flashlight

1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer

expanded scale)

Pagina 66
 SOP

84 knots

Only essential Safety PA's are permitted

5 Units

4 Units Nose Up
Position the APU BLEED air switch to OFF and increase
thrust slightly, up to a maximum of 30 % N1

Both pilots must acknowledge the message before it is

cleared
Performed aloud ‘Fuel, Lights, APU, Pressurisation & Air
Con, Seatbelts, Recall
4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway

4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway.

True

The passengers are seated

When N2 on both engines is less than 20%

Capt

For a CAT I approach; use Non-precision RVR / Vis and

ceiling minima
Flight deck door lock selector to DENY

After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON.

It is completed for all flights.

It is completed for all flights.

It is completed for all flights.

When the L1 door closes

When the loadsheet arrives

20% N2

Check the hydraulic and brake pressure

The requirement to check for missing seals is now
removed from the exterior inspection procedure

Pagina 67
 SOP

initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is above any

FMC altitude constraint OR initiate an early descent if the
selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.

Initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is above any

FMC altitude costrain OR initiate an early descent if the
selected altitude is below any FMC altitude costrain.
Yes, but only if ground personnel are clear of the towbar
or the bypass pin is installed.
7700

To minimise fuel burn and risk of ingesting FOD close to

stand

After the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM

calls, ‘Starter cut-out’
Also when entering the runway

The PM promptly selects the desired WPT to the

scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.

Be released ONLY after confirmation that dual wheel

chocks are properly fitted and wind speeds <40kts
Medium

VOR/LOC

4 or 5 miles DME / 4 or 5 nm from the RW point

5.0 DME or 5 NM from the RW point

The brakes must be released for brake cooling, and the

brakes shall be set when brake cooling times are satisfied

Medium Poor

+3°C or below and ice, snow, slush or standing water is

present on the ramps, taxiways or runways
When the calculated usable fuel on landing is less than
final reserve fuel
Are permitted provided LNAV is used for lateral guidance
5.0 DME or 5nm from the RW point for all ILS approaches

7500

Calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet

Is not permitted with flaps extended
Highlight FIR boundaries on the OFP.
The PF reads off their Time, QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD
and standby instruments. PM follows silently
The Primary method is to use it as a de-icer by allowing
ice to accumulate.
1 min

Pagina 68
 SOP

4 minutes

No minimum wake turbulence gap

Block fuel rounded up to the nearest 100kg plus 100kgs

Must be completed prior to ALL flights

Using the EFL delay menu and supported with CP
remarks
400 m from the threshold when the runway is >= 2400m
and 300m for a runway < 2400m but >=1200m
10°C or below and ice, snow, slush or standing water is
present on the ramps, taxiways or runways
All approaches except V/S NPA
It is necessary to cover this fact in the takeoff brief
It need NOT be mentioned in the takeoff brief
Nothing until the speed brake deploys

1 min legs / 230kts

ALT ACQ.

eCrew

Hot air or approved de-icing fluid (licensed aircraft

Engineer only for latter)
Do the Ice Crystal Icing non-normal checklist.
1000ft AAL

TRUE

An ASR must be filed and a Techlog entry made. The

Techlog page reference should be included in the ASR to
facilitate Engineering Admin
2 minutes

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a

paper loadsheet.
In the crewmember’s flight bag

Reduce climb or descent rate to 0 feet per minute

Continue to use the Navtech application, but single EFB

procedures apply
Continue to use the Navtech application, but single EFB
procedures apply

Pagina 69
 SOP

Operations Manual Part A 8.4.1.5

Some RAAS alerts may continue to function

“Cabin Crew cleared disarm slides and open doors-

exercise caution due to high winds”

Close aircraft doors without delay

All of the above

Disconnect Autothrottle and set turbulence penetration N1

as highlighted by TURB N1 on the Cruise page.
A techlog entry must be made

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET,

___ FLAGS, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET
File an ASR

File an ASR

File a Captain’s Special Report

Yes, if he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre

tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure
lights out during T/O
Stop on the runway and set the parking brake

Fly at least 10 kts above the minimum manoeuvring speed

(lower amber band)
Flight Dispatch Folder application

Yes, but only if weather information shows an

improvement to double the visibility and cloud base of
previous reported weather
The OFP EZFW

The 2.4% climb gradient required in the 2nd segment

The 2.4% climb gradient required in the 2nd segment.

When engine anti-ice is required and OAT is 3°C or below

Pagina 70
 SOP

Frost

2415m

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal

operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3rds
limiting value, whichever is lower

Yes, if visibility is 1500m and cloud base 500ft

Yes, subject to local airport byelaws & restrictions

Only for those initiated below 1000ft AAL or above if there

are additional reportable circumstances
Yes, by the PF

Yes

No. They give no roll reference.

220kts at the IAF, 180kts on base and 180kts on final

approach track

All of the other answers are correct

2041m

Poor or Nil

5 seconds

15 kts
No. The aircraft must be brought to a complete stop first
No

The PF selects/confirms VNAV mode on the MCP/PFD,

verifies FMA and calls 'VNAV' for all MCP ALT selections.

12 Litres

1000 ft obstacle / terrain clearance within 25nm radius of

the navigation facility
6000

1800Kg of fuel

Pagina 71
 SOP

must be factored by 1.3, minimum LDA 1900m

Is determined after reviewing in flight landing performance
calculations
Landing runway

500 RADIO FLARE ARMED

arm APP mode and engage the second autopilot

At the autopilot MUH of 158ft

5 degrees

no more than 1min 30 seconds

On path +/- 400ft

At 4nm, but not later than 3.5nm

1000ft aal

Only if you're within Class A, B or C airspace, have been

instructed "free speed" by ATC and are progressing on the
course of your intended route.
Selecting reverse thrust

Personnel are clear of the tow bar or the bypass pin has
been installed
+/- 200ft

Water on top of compacted snow

There is no requirement to switch off any or all of these

lights if the aircraft must stop during taxi
'Oil Pressure' – PNF
Final Approach Waypoint
"Timing"

PF

"Affirm cleared to enter" or "Affirm, cleared to cross"

The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is

checked clear both directions (as much as is possible)

Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback !

Clear right

Pagina 72
 SOP

The weather for the aerodrome of departure and landing

shall be recorded on the OFP. Best practice is to obtain
what additional weather you need to complete the flight
Set the FMC turbulence penetration N1 OR N1 settings
from the applicable QRH section
Set the FMC turbulence penetration N1 OR N1 settings
from the applicable QRH section
Do not perform any action from memory and complete the
NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF checklist as instructed.

The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted

the QRH (PI section) or using the OPT
Centreline Lights
Runway Approach End Identifier Lights (threshold)
High Intensity Runway Centre Line Lights.
Approach Light System with sequenced Flashing Lights
CAT 2
280/55 2) 280/35

2mg/m3

15kts during normal operations

At 1000 ft AAL PF will select CMD A or B and call

'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.
True, but DO NOT use the ALT HOLD mode.

Use available FMC information and obtain necessary

enroute or approach details from the ATC unit on VHF to
allow safe approach and landing at the
destination/diversion airport.
Yes

Yes

Tankering is not limited by variable MTOWs of 66,990 and

69,990. Placard weights shall be increased to
accommodate tankering requirements
Disconnect Autothrottle and set turbulence penetration N1
as highlighted by TURB N1 on the Cruise page.
0° and colder

An approach may be continued at the discretion of the

Captain if the warning has been briefed

Pagina 73
 SOP

Both the commercial decision to tanker fuel will be made

automatically by LIDO AND Captains are required to
tanker the fuel recommended by LIDO unless there are
sound operational reasons for not doing so
PF
With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000
feet (IMC) (ILS approaches)
Pilot Monitoring for the next sector

1000Ft

'Outer Marker, XXXXfeet, Flags/No Flags' (PF challenge);

'Altitude Checks, Flags/No Flags' (PM Response)
In use on your EFB, but not necessarily the most up to
date
Is to be made when the flight crew become aware of
something of concern on the ground that is not
immediately life-threatening
Angle of bank

Angle of bank

PM Read Challenge and Response, then Action and

repeat Response.
the maximum altitude indicated in the FMC
Frequencies, Range Rings, Idents, SBY's and Courses

Is the default performance calculation application

Embarking, disembarking or on board

Is received by the F/O pressing the cabin ATTEND button

once the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the
Captain
Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of
the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is done by the PF
RTE PAGE 1 and2, INIT/REF, LEGS
True

At a 10m height, as reported by the tower

In the Tech Log
All planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a
specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to
the existing clearance may result in landing with less than
planned final reserve fuel.
Cloudbase above 1,000 feet AAL and met reported
visibility in excess of 5,000 meters
400ft

No effect on a CAT IIIA, however a CATII is not allowed

No effect

Pagina 74
 SOP

No effect

Above FL100

Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing

Pre takeoff Contamination Check
A Maltese Cross for NPA’s
When the Capt calls for it

Contamination Check
All of the above

QRH, Maneuvers section

Filed level if performance limited or level capped

Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing

altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL
if maneuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-
throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on
the PFD
2.5% of the additional weight carried in kg, multiplied by
the flight time in hours.

Pre takeoff Check

On VHF 2 when cleared to cruise level
ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-
flight procedure
Must be done by the Captain prior to pushback
Should be done by the Captain prior to pushback
The cabin is secured for takeoff

1000ft aal
300ft aal
500ft aal
1000ft
Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts
Vref +15
180kts/4.20nm

20Kts

33 knots

20000ft
250kts, or faster if cleared by ATC and in Class A, B or C
airspace only
60 kts

2800 PSI

Pagina 75
 SOP

30 metres
30 metres

4°C
The correct flight callsign is entered in the RTE page 1
during preflight (the prefix is always RYR…)
When AC power is connected to the airplane electrical
busses
ALT Hold, reset new MCP altitude and engage LVL CHG

Both AUTO or HIGH.

READ-LOOK-LISTEN

Time, QNH, ALT, MFRA, FD’s & SBY instruments

The PM

45 kts

CONTINUE / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

Captain only

De-Icing / Anti-Icing Procedure

QNH___SET, PASSING___, DESCENDING___FEET,
___ FLAGS, STAND BY ALTIMETER SET'
500 continue' or '500 go-around'

As per flight plan

Are factored +67% for a Dry runway and another 15% for
a Wet runway
Post Treatment (tactile) Check
False

225 mph
Be complete by V1
when the aircraft has been treated with Type II, III or IV
fluids or for a NO ENGINE BLEED Takeoff
Assumed thrust reduction is not allowed

Use the deadbolt “Locked key inoperative” position to

ensure door is locked

The PM will call “speed” whenever the speed is more than

Vapp +10kts or less than Vref
15 knots

VREF + 15 knots

Use the tower reported wind

Always use the figure in the LDA column

Pagina 76
 SOP

add 140m to the OPT derived LDR

The flight number, current heading, altitude and speed
selected on the MCP & current V/S.
All of the above

Vref + 20

False

The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in

flight

When both engines are stable provided there are no

additional defects and there is no requirement to perform a
NO ENGINE BLEED takeoff.
Both of the other two conditions must be met.

400 ft AAL
Use the Actual TOW and check the Climb and Runway
Limited Weight columns
26K Full

MEDIUM

1670m

1632m

2041m

5NM, 3 minutes non radar

2 minutes

2 minutes

The Commander shall have the weather radar selected on

for take-off, climb, cruise and descent/approach in IMC
and at night
Verify SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to
bright and then extinguishes

Pagina 77
 SOP

All of the other answers are correct

Expected SID plus 100ft

All of the other answers are correct

TDZ 200m, MID 125m, STOP 75m

The met report or forecast must indicate that the

RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the
actual ILS minima
Medium Good

Medium

Medium

Assure that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in

trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the
control column/wheel.
Assure that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in
trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the
control column/wheel
Flight plan specified Cost Index

Leave the engine start lever closed

A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap

retraction schedule and the aircraft has accelerated to the
assigned speed restriction and the climb rate needs to be
reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S
when approaching stop altitude and AFDS is engaged
above MFRA.
Greater than 13mm
The correct answer is: Loadsheets, Operational Flight
Plans, Notice to crew for dangerous goods (if any),
Company NOTAMS containing Crew alerts and Crew
Bulletins, OPT solutions if sent from operations, de-icing
documents, SAFA inspection forms
Grooved Runway
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

The CAT II/III holding position where a closer NPA or CAT

I taxi holding point is provided
Intermediate taxi-holding position at an intersection of two
paved taxiways.
PF sets MDA and calls 'XXX feet set' after verifying ALT
HOLD.
The aeroplane is first de-iced using heated water only or
a heated mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water.
After completion of the de-icing operation a layer of a
mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water, or of de-
icing/anti-icing fluid only, is to be sprayed over the
aeroplane surfaces

Pagina 78
 SOP

The flight levels on the OFP are optimum flight levels as

determined by the LIDO flight planning optimization tool
Runway HDG
Copy of the OFP, Copies of the relevant parts of the tech
log, Route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by
Ryanair, Mass and Balance documentation and special
loads notifications
Is the lowest height above the relevant runway threshold
or aerodrome elevation, used in establishing compliance
with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria?
Equal to or greater than 4mg/m3, or areas of
contaminated airspace where no ash concentration
guidance is available
Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

The CAPT handles ground communication and the PF

starts the engines all the time
Not to accept a Traffic Service when a Deconfliction
Service is available while operating in uncontrolled
airspace
Crews should plan for an intersection take off if it shortens
the taxi route
Roll/Pitch Mode, Autopilot, A/T
15°

PF calls for the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP,

assures that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is
in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the
controls. Then engages the A/P and the A/T.
READ-LOOK-LISTEN
PROG Page 4

Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that

crosswind is within limits. Then enter the steady wind
direction (without gust value) to complete the performance
calculation.
Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that
crosswind is within limits. Then enter the steady wind
direction (without gust value) to complete the performance
calculation.
Packs, bleeds, speeds, SID, stop altitude, emergency turn
(if applicable) and adverse weather.
Illuminated dim (blue)

“This is a NITS drill, please listen carefully”

33kt

In the event of failure there is no significant out of trim

condition but the landing cannot be completed
automatically
427NM

Pagina 79
 SOP

427 nm

427 nm

When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared

to a FL.
11% N2

2 minutes
2.5% of additional fuel carried (in kg) x flight time (in hours

300ft .Aircraft must be fully configured by 500ft AAL with

manoeuvring completed by 300ft AAL
ISOLATION VALVE Switch .AUTO

The latest point to select gear down/flaps 15 is at 3.5 nm

158ft AGL

10 nm from RW xx point

+/- 200ft, between the Captains altimeter and first officer’s

altimeter
VNAV, unless approaching the cleared Altitude/Flight
Level, the sustained climb rate is in excess of 3000ft,
2000ft or 1000ft per minute, where by V/S may be
selected.
+/- 0.1°

60kts

400ft AAL, unless a lower altitude is specified in the SID

2 categories below aeroplane RFFS

At or above -16°C

Obstacle clearance height

1900m

Potable water is not mandatory for flight; However, if bars

are NOT loaded with potable then the aircraft should not
depart with potable water less than 1/8 full.
158ft

Pagina 80
 SOP

15ft

The point in an instrument approach procedure at or

before, which the prescribed missed approach must be
initiated in order to ensure the minimum obstacle is not
infringed
Cat 7
Bing the cabin using the "Cabin attend" call button and
over the PA handset "No.1 to the flight deck".

Exit the ash cloud as quickly as possible by commencing a

180 degree turn
On receiving a frequency change the PF will enter the new
frequency in the standby window on the RTP and the PM
will respond to ATC and note the new frequency on the
OFP. The PM will then crosscheck the standby frequency
with the OFP before changing and contacting ATC.

To improve cabin air quality between starting the first and

second engine.
115/160 kts

160/240 kts

3 minutes
45 KIAS

Four at all times when refuelling

Cost index or fixed SPEED/MACH indicated on OFP and

accept ECON speeds by the FMC
Pilots are allowed to operate this panel however the
refueller must know that the panel cannot be pressurised
whilst the pilot operates the switches at the panel
Nav aids shall be selected to enable the SID/STAR and
instrument approach to be flown in raw data
Avoid making an approach if a thunderstorm is active over
the airfield or there are cells on the final approach track
within 3NM of the field
Flight Crew shall avoid conversation not directly related to
the safe operation of the aircraft from commencement of
pushback to TOC and from TOD to engine shutdown on
stand
Request EAT – MINIMUM FUEL – MAYDAY FUEL call

34kts, landing not permitted

Select reciprocal heading and engage HDG SEL

Select lower altitude and engage LVL CHG
Disengage AT and close thrust levers
Medium (M), 7,000kg – 136,000kg
Medium

Pagina 81
 SOP

Strobe lights

Level 7

Level 5

Pressurisation is normal

Flight Number, current heading, altitude and speed

selected on MCP plus the current V/S
Valid medical, license with type rating, instrument rating,
passport and visa, vaccination certificates and R/T license

NAV

OFF

4.2 nm

4.2 nm

Make a distress call to ATC (MAYDAY, MAYDAY,

MAYDAY, FUEL, call-sign)

To increase the published minimum RVR from the

approach plate by 400 m.

“MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, callsign”

They must be struck through to ensure all entries are

contemporaneous unless the area is non shaded, then it
can be left blank
Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the
purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Enter it into the FMC Scratchpad

Consider suspending the fuelling operation

Filed level or lower if performance limited or level capped.

Filed level or lower if performance limited or level capped

In the case of an unscheduled aircraft change the flight

may not be commenced until a new OFP has been
generated
The forecast 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA must be
above the required landing minima (CAT II/IIIA
approaches not permitted)
ATC shall determine whether RVSM should be suspended
or not

Pagina 82
 SOP

500ft AAL

“Transmitting Blind due to Receiver Failure”

PF 'Set STD, passing FLXXX climbing FLXXX'

PROG Page 4

Once both engines are confirmed stable by the PM and

the GEN OFF BUS lights are illuminated.
All of the other answers are correct
Only when the approach minima is published solely as an
RVR and RVR reports are not available at the time of the
approach
1000 feet AFE

SET QNH ___, passing XXXX descending XXXX, (No)

Flags, Standby Altimeter Set
Engage VNAV and monitor the climb rate

Set their altimeter to STD.

When climbing through MSA

are selected ON

The taxi light will be off until receiving take off clearance
CRZ Page

It is mandatory to select VNAV after all MCP Altitude/Flight

Level changed during climb
140 meters

Land Alt plus 500 feet

It might be possible to take off provided you observe and

comply with CFSS dispatch relief procedure, otherwise
you must deice.
When cleared to climb to a flight level, and the aircraft is
above 3000 feet AGL.
The F/O selects the transponder to ALT OFF to indicate
aircraft position to ATC prior to requesting the push and
start clearance
Select CON on the FMC N1 LIMIT page

CON

Ceiling is less than 100 ft above the DA for a precision

approach and 200 ft above the MDA for a NPA

Pagina 83
 SOP

The flight crew must ensure that the localizer is captured

before arming APP
When Pilot incapacitation is suspected

Only when operating at a different MTOW to the previous

sector
When radar vectored for an NPA or APV
BARO-LNAV/VNAV approach, and on base leg, not
before, the PM should extend the centreline from the
descent point.
Only recommended during periods of generally poor
weather. Preference is to obtain weather for enroute
Ryanair bases
If the weather at the departure airfield is at or below the
applicable aerodrome minima or it would not be possible
to return to the departure airport for other reasons
At 4 or 5 nm (VMC/IMC) to the Runway.

On completion of the approach checklist

1000ft AAL (Top of the white band)

Only after confirmation that dual wheel chocks are in place

Crosswinds in excess of 20kt

After the airplane has come to a complete stop.

Minimum Eye Height over threshold

870ft

Destination forecast from 1 hour before to 1 hour after

ETA is below minima or no weather information available
for destination
With the completion of the Approach Checks
Half scale deflection

TRUE

+/- 300 ft

2nm before the nominated descent point

Make slow and deliberate inputs, one direction at a time

OFF

The T/O alternate must be within 396nm in still air

Pagina 84
 SOP

32000 kgs

When cleared to an altitude

1,000ft AAL
Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the
purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

At or before the minima when he/she has the required

visual reference for landing
The first flight of the day
At night below FL100
1000ft AAL

Never, unless following a QRH procedure

Before entering the parking area.

There are no restrictions for cold weather operations

Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to

result in minimum fuel consuption.
"Transmitting Blind due to Receiver Failure".

The ATIS/Volmet QNH is preselected

To release the Parking Brake provided that company

procedures are followed
If the MAA is higher than 1300ft, set the MAA in the MCP
Altitude window when the aircraft is 300ft above MDA/DA
to avoid inadvertent ALT ACQ
Set the MAA in the MCP Altitude window when the aircraft
is 300ft above MDA/DA
Identify and brief a suitable altitude at which to set the
MAA. Ideally this should be MAA-300ft.
The No. 1 shall press “1” and “ENT” on the door entry
access panel
Takeoff thrust set, indications normal

When clear of the active runway & taxi instructions have

been received, acknowledged, written in FMC scratchpad
and understood by both pilots
After the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the CP.

When clear of the active runway, taxi instructions have

been received, acknowleged, written in the FMC
scratchpad and understood my both pilots
Wet or Slippery runway, crosswind in excess of 15kt

Arm APP Mode and engage the second autopilot

Plus or minus 5 degrees of the inbound track

Pagina 85
 SOP

Manoeuvres Section in the QRH

EFL
In the bracket provided behind the Captain’s seat

Company Notams - Crew Alert

Ryanair CAT III Approved Runway List

Position right for operating through a manned

maintenance base
You should board the aircraft first and take any seat

VNAV

STAB TRIM, V SPEEDS, MFRA, send output

220 KIAS
All of the other three answers are correct

Different countries may have a different procedure.

There are no restrictions as long as the CSFF is within the

required markings
When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or
below, the takeoff must be preceded by a static engine
run-up.
This considers the Isolation Valve switch position set to
CLOSE and the Right PACK switch position set to AUTO
after No.2 Engine has stabilized after Engine Start. This is
to improve cabin air quality between starting the first and
second engine.
The use of wing anti-ice is prohibited.

The CPT reviews the briefing and verifies PACKS and

BLEEDS as required.

PF
FO

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until

reaching 1500 ft or until obstacle clearance height has
been attained.
Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until
reaching 1500 ft or until obstacle clearance height has
been attained.
The pushback must be complete with the parking brake
set, the tug disconnected, and ATC clearance is obtained.

Takeoff with tailwind components between -11kts and -15kts is

only permitted if specified in the Airfield Brief and shown on
the RTOW chart/OPT output
Cabin crew will follow established procedures following an
RTO. ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call at this point could
interrupt these procedures.

Pagina 86
 SOP

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is

unnecessary during a Rejected Takeoff where cabin crew
have defined roles and procedures to follow
Both pilots shall time the crosswind leg.

Both should be left in the AUTO position

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA,

points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs
page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in
the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’. PM shall call
‘CHECKED’
If severe turbulence is encountered during cruise,
disengage the autothrottle and set the TURB N1 from the
FMC CRUISE page
Along track displacement requires +/- entries

Open the entry door to the cocked position to allow clear

visibility of the area outside the aeroplane to avoid injury to
personnel.
PF resets MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with
MCP selector and calls "set"
The EFB should not be handled below 1000ft AGL
Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable

The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an

ILS approach is at 3.5 nm
Who is responsible to call "FLAPS 15"​when the position is
indicated
The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including
maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior
consideration
At the start of the turn for 1 min and 15 sec

PF

Capt

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation

PF, during Flight Deck Preparation

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation

The PM
PF
The First Officer

PF

PM
The Pilot Monitoring after positioning ENGINE START
switches to CONT and checking RECALL
The PF as part of the Flight Deck Preparation

Pagina 87
 SOP

Pilot Monitoring

-40° or below
passing FL100

Crews can use Derate and or ATRT as per normal (unless

specified otherwise)
Only be used when both flight crew members are familiar
with the procedures for the airfield concerned and when
further elaboration is not required
Runway 15 includes a specified Emergency Turn
procedure
35secs

90 seconds and 240 kts

Light turbulence

VNAV, only select V/S when VNAV is providing a

sustained climb rate in excess of 2000ft or 1000ft per
minute with 1000 to level off.
Also when entering the runway

Increased by 140m
MEDIUM TO POOR

GOOD

Add the MEL restriction to the OPT.

No this is prohibited due to security issues

Contact Maintrol for guidance on the protection of aircraft

on the ground

No correction required

Position the APU BLEED air switch to OFF and increase

thrust slightly, up to a maximum of 30 % N1

Pagina 88
 SOP

CRZ Page

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise,

disengage the autothrottle and set the TURB N1 from the
FMC CRUISE page
With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000
feet (IMC) (ILS approaches)

Pagina 89
 SOP

Pagina 90
 737-700

QUESTION ANSWER
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an 9.8m
obstacle within what distance of the nose in a 737-
700.
During preflight the temperature selectors on the Automatic and the desired temperature
737-700 should be set to
In the 737-700 RNP Approaches Can be performed as the aircraft has dual FMCs
Selecting Wx+T on the weather radar Shows turbulence within 50 miles
The 737-700 displays a white bug when Vref is Vref+15
selected, this indicates:
The 737-700 is 5.8m shorter than the 737-800
The 737-700 is fitted with: A single recirculation fan
The 737-700 is fitted with: No tailskid
The 737-700 is fitted with: One overwing exit (Each Side)
The 737-700 Right Duct Overheat sensor is located: Downstream of the Mix Manifold
The automatic temperature controller on a 737-700 The Hot Air Mix Valve and the Cold Air Mix valve
controls:
The flap limiting speed for Flaps 15 on the 737-700 195kts
is:
The flap limiting speed for Flaps 25 on the 737-700 170kts
is:
The flap limiting speed for Flaps 40 on the 737-700 156kts
is:
The IDNT button on the 737-700 weather radar: Activates the ground clutter reduction feature
The maximum thrust rating available on the 737-700 22k
is:
The Nitrogen Generation System on the 737-700: Is not installed
The speedbrake load alleviation feature Limits the deployment of the speed brakes under
certain high gross weight/airspeed combinations
The STAB button on the weather radar Automatically adjusts antenna tilt to correct for
airplane attitude changes
The TRIP RESET switch on the 737-700: resets BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK TRIP OFF or
DUCT OVERHEAT lights
When flying a 737-700: Automatic thrust reduction to climb power occurs
when VNAV, ALT ACQ or ALT HOLD is engaged.
Until 2 1/2 minutes after liftoff, automatic thrust
reduction is inhibited when engaging LVL CHG or
V/S modes.
In the 737-700 RNP Approaches Can be performed as the aircraft has dual FMCs

Pagina 91
 Safety

QUESTION
What does DTTAS stand for?
As a Ryanair ID holder, you are required to…
What does IAA stand for?
What are the objectives of aviation security?
What is the Ryanair Hijack Policy?
During security checks, which row does the No 2 start their check of the seating area from?
How often should the Cabin Crew call the Flight Crew?
What should Cabin Crew before boarding if catering is loaded on board?
In a sterile search, who checks the Flight Deck?
If there are the wrong amount of bags loaded into the hold...?
Which statement is correct?
What plan should Aircrew follow in a hijack situation?
What role does the No 2 take up in a Sterile Search?
What is a baggage ID?
Where should a person travelling in custody sit?

Pagina 92
 Safety

ANSWER
Department of Transport, Tourism and Sport
Challenge persons boarding and/or in the vicinity of a Ryanair Aircraft
Irish Aviation Authority.
To safeguard and protect passengers, crew, ground personnel and general public from acts of unlawful int
The safe release of all passengers and crew
21
Every 20 minutes.
Check the integrity of the seals.
Flight Crew.
The dispatcher will inform the captain, who will request a Baggage ID to be conducted.
There must always be 2 Aircrew inside the Flight Deck inflight.
The 9 point plan.
Searcher
All passenger bags will be offloaded and passengers will be requested to leave the aircraft to identify their
Seat 32F

Pagina 93
 Fire_fighting

QUESTION
What material is class 'C' fire?

What Precautions should we

consider while using the Halon?
What is Class 'B' of fire?
What is Class 'A' of fire?

Pagina 94
 Fire_fighting

ANSWER
Flammable Gases
1. Not to be used as a coolant. 2. Always damp down fire area with water after
use, except electrical fires. 3. On initial discharge, force of extinguisher may
scatter burning loose material; therefore fire gloves must be worn
Flammable Liquids
Flammable Solids

Pagina 95
 SEP_answersheet

1C 21 D
2C 22 C
3C 23 A
4C 24 B
5D 25 C

6A 26 A
7D 27 C
8A 28 A
9D 29 B
10 A 30 B

11 C 31 D
12 A 32 A
13 B 33 C
14 A 34 B

15 C 35 D
16 D 36 A
17 C 37 A
18 C 38 D
19 A 39 C
20 D 40 A

Pagina 96
SEP_answersheet

Pagina 97
SEP_answersheet

Pagina 98
SEP_answersheet

Pagina 99
 Birdstrike

QUESTION ANSWER
After carrying out a bird strike inpection, Transfer HIL/WO
which box should you tick in the event
that no evidence of a bird strike has
occurred?
After completing a birdstrike inspection Contact Maintrol and under their direction complete the
with no evidence and no damage Techlog Detect Description, Closure Action, Close WO and
found: sign the CRS
After completing any Tech Log entry Send a photograph of the completed tech log page to
after any suspected or actual bird [email protected]. Call Maintrol prior to dispatch to
strike, you should confirm receipt
Birdstrike inspection in accordance with True
CAME 3.4.7 is applicable to small
animals, not just birds.
Birdstrike inspection in accordance with True
EPN 01/09 is applicable to small
animals, not just birds
How would you determine if a station is Refer to Form RA253 in the Tech Log and/or contact Maintrol
unsupported or not, prior to making a prior to use of your authorisation, to confirm the status of the
bird strike inspection? station.
If lowering the flaps on the ground prior Always ensure that the area in the vicinity of the leading and
to carrying out a bird strike inspection, trailing edges is clear of equipment, personnel and clear of
you should obstruction.
If you suspect a bird strike, on A qualified Captain is authorised to perform a bird strike
approach... inspection at an unsupported station, after having initially
contacted Maintrol.
If you suspect that a bird strike has Prior to carrying out the bird strike inspection, ensure that the
occurred during the last 500ft of the aircraft is in the same configuration as when the bird strike
approach occurred
In addition to your signature and rank, The approval number "IE:145.004" and your license number
what additional information needs to be
added to CRS Sign / Stamp box?
In addition to your signature and rank, The approval number "IE.145.004" and your license number.
what additional information needs to be
added to the CRS Sign /Stamp box?
In the event of a bird strike to the right "Bird strike inspection c/o IAW CAME 3.4.7", your license
wing which has left evidence of a bird number,"evidence found on the right wing", "no evidence of
strike, but resulting in no damage, what damage or engine core ingestion", Maintenance Control
should you write in the "Closure / HIL informed", "HIL (nunmber) raised for repeat bird strike
Action " box? inspection to be carried out by engineering at next night stop"
In the event of an actual or suspected Aircraft registration, date, page reference, your name, tick the
bird strike, the entries in the tech log "pilot" box
above the Defect Description box are:
On landing, you suspect that your nose True
wheel has struck a rabbit
On landing, your nose wheel strikes a True
Rabbit.
The radome should be inspected for: cracks, delamination, soft spots, core damage
What is considered an unsupported Unsupported Stations are locations where no suitably qualified
station? engineer is available. As an example, an engineer is available
at the station, but does not hold the required approval to sign
for a bird strike inspection; in this case the engineer is not a
Qualified Engineer, so the station would be considered to be
Unsupported.

Pagina 100
 Birdstrike

What is the correct procedure for the Contact Maintrol, carry out Birdstrike inspection, contact
Commander to complete when he/she Maintrol again, complete tech log entry if no damage found.
suspects a birdstrike?
What should be the configuration of the If possible, configuration of the aircraft for the birdstrike
aircraft for the birdstrike inspection: inspection should be the same as the configuration when the
strike occurred
What should you include in the Defect The words "Suspected Birdstrike", the area on the aircraft
Description box of the tech log after a where the bird strike occurred (if known), the phase of flight
suspected bird strike? and configuration when the suspected bird strike occurred
When damage is found whilst False
conducting the birdstrike inspection, the
aircraft may be released to service
provided you raise a HIL and the
damage will not affect the aircraft
operation.
Where can you find guidance about In the Aircraft's Tech Log there is a Form RA210 that provides
carrying out a bird strike inspection? guidance for carrying out bird strike inspections.
Which statement is correct? After a suspected birdstrike, you must contact Maintrol first,
followed by the birdstrike inspection
You are completing a bird strike Complete the full bird strike inspection, recontact Maintrol,
inspection because of a suspected bird advise damage found, await engineer.
strike. You find a dent of approximately
8cm in the leading edge of the right
engine cowling. What would be your
actions after finding this damage?

Your inspection reveals evidence of Complete a full bird strike inspection of the engines and
engine ingestion. Next action is: aircraft, then recontact Maintrol again, reporting findings and
any engine fluctuations noted
On landing, you suspect that your nose True
wheel has struck a rabbit. You should
perform an inspection in accordance
with the approved bird strike procedure.

Pagina 101
 MTOW_change

QUESTION ANSWER
A commander of an Aircraft holding Part 145.A.30 (j)
a valid ATPL can be issued limited
certification authorization under
regulation
Following the requirement to amend Reflects the selected MTOW in the Technical Log
the aircraft MTOW, the Commander page
will ensure that the placard in the
Flight Deck:
For a Fleet B aircraft, the location of Both on the flight deck, one behind the other.
the two MTOW placards:
The certification used by a His/Her License Number
Commander issuing limited
certification should contain
IE.145.004 and?
The Commander can confirm that Checking Form RA253 located in the Technical
he/she is at an unsupported station Log
by:
The five possible MTOWs for the 66.990,69.990, 71.990, 74.990, 77.990Kg
Ryanair B737-800W fleet are:
The information required to be Commander's signature and license number and
entered into the Tech Log for a crewcode
CRS includes
The information required to be Commander's signature, Commander's license
entered into the Tech Log for a number, company authorisation number
CRS includes
The limited certification issued to a Any Ryanair unsupported station
Commander can be used at:
The possible MTOWs for a fleet B 66,990, 69,990 and 74,990
aircraft are:
When issuing a limited certification, Technical Log page
the Commander will sign the
Certification for Release to Service
(CRS) in:
The five possible MTOWs used for 66,990, 69,990, 71,990, 74,990 and 77,990Kg
the Ryanair B737-800W fleet are:

Pagina 102
 Winter_Ops

QUESTION ANSWER
According to the Winter Ops handy Dandy, When the aircraft has been exposed to freezing precipitation (snow,
when should the flaps be checked for full slush, ice, FZDZ, FZRA, or rain on a cold soaked airframe following
travel? a prolonged stop (Greater than 45 minutes)
Airport elevation is 500 feet, MDA 1200 feet, 100 feet
temperature -20ºC what is your temperature
correction to the MDA
At which temperature are NO cold +1ºC or above
temperature altitude corrections required?
Before takeoff, engine anti-ice is required Run-up to a minimum of 70% N1 and confirm stable engine
and OAT is 3 degrees C or below, which operation before the start of the Takeoff roll
statement is correct?
Clear ice: Is relatively transparent. A tactile check may be required to detect its
presence
Cold temperature altitude adjustments are ATC assigned Flight Levels
NOT required for which of these altitudes?
De-icing the aircraft requires an entry in the Always
Technical Log
Do not use engine or wing anti–ice when: The OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is above 10°C
During cold weather operations taxi-out Taxi at a reduced speed, use smaller nose wheel steering and
rudder inputs and apply minimum thrust evenly and smoothly
During FREEZING CONDITIONS, as part of Be moved first to 40 and then to UP before taxi
the Before Taxi Procedure, the flaps should:
During taxi out you notice that the wing anti- It is normal to see the VALVE OPEN lights cycle bright/dim due to
ice VALVE OPEN lights cycle bright/dim. the control valves cycling closed/open in response to thrust setting
What actions would be appropriate? and duct temperature logic, there is no crew action required
Flaps should be in the UP position during For taxiing in freezing conditions
taxi out:
How long should we wait after de-icing is Wait approximately one minute before turning the BLEED air
complete before we turn the engine BLEED switches on
switches on?
Icing conditions exist on the ground if: The OAT is +10ºC or less, and there is visible moisture present
(clouds, fog with visibility less than one statute mile (1600m), rain,
snow, sleet, ice crystals, and so on), or ice, snow, slush or standing
water is present on the ramps, taxiways, or runways
If a flaps 15 landing will be made, set VREF All the other answers are correct
ICE=VREF 15+10 if which of the following
condition(s) apply?
If a re-treatment is necessary whart must be Any residue of the previous treatment should be removed
done before the new de-icing/anti-icing
treatment is applied?
If a re-treatment is necessary what must be Any residue of the previous treatment should be removed
done before the new de-icing/anti-icing
treatment is applied?
If de-icing with the engines running which The winter operation “handy dandy” dedicated checklist should be
checklist should be used? used
If landing on a runway contaminated with Do not retract the flaps to less than 15 until the flap areas have been
ice, snow or slush, which modification should checked to be free of contaminants
be made to the normal after landing
procedure?
If landing on a runway contaminated with Do not retract the flaps to less than 15 until the flap areas have been
ice, sow or slush, which modification should checked to be free of contaminants
be made to the normal after landing
procedure?

Pagina 103
 Winter_Ops

If the service providers insist on using their This is acceptable and a copy of the service providers form shall be
own documentation instead of the Ryanair returned in the flight envelope
DAR form, what should you do?
If the service providers insist on using their This is acceptable and a picture shall be taken and attached to the
own documentation instead of the Ryanair EFL at the end of the flight.
DAR form, what should you do?
If told to plan a flaps 15 landing, in which of All the other answers are correct
the following conditions would you set VREF
ICE?
One-step de-icing/anti-icing means that? De-icing and anti-icing is carried out at the same time using a
mixture of heated de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water
Provided all leading edge devices, control A light coating of frost, up to 3 mm in thickness on the lower wing
surfaces, tab surfaces, winglet surfaces and surface due to cold fuel
control surface balance panel cavities are
clear of snow, ice and frost, takeoff is
permitted with:
Removal of contaminants from the airframe Fluids, mechanical tools and forced air
may be performed with?
Ryanair aircraft, Can operate if there is frost due to cold soaked fuel on the upper
wing if less than 1.5mm and other conditions are met
Severe icing can usually be avoided by A change in altitude and/or airspeed
SNOWTAM Braking Co-efficient are? Listed for each third of the runway
Take-off and landing is not permitted when Poor / Nil
the braking action is reported
Takeoff is permitted with: A light coating of frost, up to 3 mm in thickness on the lower wing
surface due to cold fuel
The colour of Type I fluid is? Orange
The colour of Type II fluid is? Translucent Water like appearance
The colour of Type IV fluid is? Green
The conditions giving rise to ice accretion on All the other answers are correct
the ground include, but are not limited to
The conditions giving rise to ice accretion on All the other answers are correct
the ground include, k
The contamination check is? A check of the aircraft to establish the need for de-icing
The de-icing/anti-icing procedure is? The procedure by which frost, ice, snow and slush is removed from
an aircraft to provide uncontaminated surfaces
The de-icing/anti-icing process is broken Contamination check, de-icing/anti-icing procedure, post treatment
down into which of the following steps the check, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check
following steps?
The flaps should be up during de-icing/anti- Prevent ice and slush from accumulating in flap cavities during de-
icing to: icing
The holdover protection runs out at? Both the commencement of the takeoff run and when frozen
deposits start to form or accumulate on treated aeroplane surfaces
The ICAO definition of notification of ‘light No change of heading or altitude necessary
icing’ is?
The ICAO definition of notification of Change of heading and/or altitude may be considered desirable
‘moderate icing’ is?
The ICAO definition of notification of ‘severe Immediate change of heading and/or altitude is considered essential
icing’ is?
The indications of structural icing in order to Ice accumulation on the flight deck window frames, windshield
turn on wing anti-ice are? centre post, or on the windshield wiper arm.
The lowest fuel tank temperature permitted -43°C
is:

Pagina 104
 Winter_Ops

The minimum cleared width allowed for 30 meters

takeoff and landing is?
The normal or preferred way to remove ice With hot air
from the fan blades is?
The post treatment check is: An external check of the aircraft after a de-icing/anti-icing treatment
to ensure that the aircraft is free from any frost, ice, snow or slush
The pre takeoff contamination check is? A check of the treated surfaces for contamination, performed when
the holdover time has been exceeded or if any doubt exists
regarding the continued effectiveness of the applied anti-icing
treatment
The primary method to use the wing anti-ice By allowing ice to accumulate before turning wing anti-ice on
is?
Thin hoar frost is acceptable on the upper Provided that the layer is thin enough to distinguish surface features
surface of the fuselage underneath, such as paint lines, markings or lettering and all vents
and ports are clear
To get a longer hold over time you should? Use less diluted Type II or Type IV fluid

To indicate to the service provider which The DAR 01 form or the de-icing providers form
areas of the
Two-step aircraft he/she wishes
de-icing/anti-icing means to have
that? De-icing and anti-icing is carried out in two separate steps
treated the commander should use?
Type I fluid is mostly used for? Removal of adhering ice and snow

Use of wing anti-ice above FL350 should be It may cause a bleed trip off and possible loss of cabin pressure
avoided because

We are allowed to take off with frost on the NEI/CSFF

upper surface, once other conditions are
meet.
What areThisthe
frost is due to;
considerations during engine Several minutes maybe required for oil pressure to reach normal
start in cold weather operations? pressure.
What can be an indication of Fan Blade ice Engine vibration
accumulation?
What is correct in reference to airframe icing Cold soaked wings may cause airframe icing in temperatures above
on the ground? freezing
What is the effect of ISA deviation on true True altitude is lower than indicated altitude with a negative ISA
altitude? deviation

What is the holdover time under the 0:06-0:11

following conditions? OAT -2ºC, DAY,
Snow, Visibility 800m, SAE Type I fluid
applied.
What is the holdover time under the 0:11-0:17
following conditions? OAT -2ºC, DAY,
Visibility 800m, SAE Type I fluid applied.

What is the holdover time under the 0:35 - 1:05

following conditions? KILFROST ABC-K Plus
Type II 75/25, OAT-5o, Snow or Snow
Grains
What is the holdover time under the 0:02-0:05
following conditions? OAT -3° SAE Type I
fluid applied.
What is the holdover time under the 0:02-0:05
following conditions? OAT -3oC, Light
Freezing Rain, SAE Type I fluid applied.
What is the holdover time under the 0:15-0:30
following conditions? OAT -5ºC, snow/snow
grains, SAE Type II fluid 100% applied

Pagina 105
 Winter_Ops

What is the holdover time under the 0:20-0:35

following conditions? OAT -5oC, snow/snow
grains, SAE Type II fluid 100% applied
What is the holdover time under the 0:25 – 0:55
following conditions? SAE Type II 75/25,
OAT -2oC Freezing fog.
What is the holdover time under the 0:25-0:40
following conditions? SAE Type IV 100/0,
OAT -2oC Light Freezing Rain
What is the holdover time under the 0:02 - 0:09
following conditions? SAE TYPE IV 100% -
15oC, Moderate Snow
What is the holdover time under the 0:30-0:55
following conditions? SAE Type IV 50/50,
OAT-3oC
What is theFreezing Fog
main advantage of Type II and They provide a longer hold over time
IV fluids over Type I fluid?
What is the main advantage of Type Il and They provide a longer hold over time
IV fluids over Type I fluid?
What is the maximum taxi speed on a The maximum recommended taxi speed on a slippery surface is 5ks
slippery taxiway?
What is the planning minimum for The weather must be at or above the required minimum RVR/Vis
destination and take off alternates?

What is the planning minimum for The weather must be at or above the required minimum RVR/Vis
destinations and take off alternates with an
operational
What is the precision
procedureapproach?
for removing ice from Hot Air or de-icing fluid. In the latter case it must be accomplished by
the Fan Blades (OFI)? an Engineering service provider (licensed aircraft engineer)
What is the proper position of the stab trim if Set the STAB TRIM to calculated Takeoff setting or 5 units if not
de/anti-icing is planned? available

What is true about rehydrated fluids? Dried fluid residue could occur when repetitive application to
thickened de-icing/anti-icing fluids may lead to the build-up of a dried
residue in aerodynamically quite areas
What should be done with the green copy of It should be clipped to the Captains control column until
the DAR (De/Anti-icing Request) form after commencement of line up for takeoff as a reminder to verify that the
De/Anti-icing is completed? hold over time has not been exceeded
When a two-step de-icing procedure is Less than three minutes after the first step was started and if
necessary the second step should be necessary done area by area
applied

When completing the technical log after Fluid type, fluid mixture and the time of commencement of
satisfactory completion of the de-icing/anti- application.
icing procedure and of the post treatment
check landing
When the following information should
on a contaminated be
runway, As determined b the TALPA matrix
which braking action table should you use
for assesing landing distance required
When landing on a contaminated runway, As determined by the TALPA matrix
which
When braking actionanti-ice
using engine table should you use
you should Have the ENGINE START switches in CONT
for assessing landing distance required

Pagina 106
 Winter_Ops

Which of the following areas must be Wings, fuselage, control surfaces, Engine inlets, Pitot and static
inspected by the captain, engineer or ports
qualified person to determine if de-icing/anti-
icing is required?
Which of the following factors may affect the Changes to precipitation intensity or type
‘Hold Over’ time and must be taken into
consideration when completing the Pre
Takeoff check
Which of the following factors may affect the Changes to precipitation intensity or type
‘Hold Over’ time and must be taken into
consideration when completing
Which of the following fluids arethe
notPre
normally Type III
Takeoff
used in check operations?
Ryanair
Which of the following statements is true? Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited

Which statement is correct You should use the temperature and visible moisture criteria to
determine if engine anti-ice is required
Which statement is correct if the aircraft has A minimum of 24K full thrust should be used
been de/anti iced:

Which statement is correct regarding engine Engine anti-ice must be ON during all flight operations when icing
anti-ice use in flight? conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise
Which statement is correct when taking off when the temperature
The assumed is below
temperature -40ºC
method of SAT
reducing takeoff thrust is
from a contaminated runway? prohibited
Which statement is correct with reference to MOTNE is short for Meteorological Operational Telecommunication
a MOTNE? Network Europe and is appended to a METAR
Which statement is correct with reference to Use the temperature and visible moisture criteria and activate
the use of engine anti-ice? engine anti-ice prior to entering icing conditions.

Which statement is true regarding the post This is a check normally done by the de-icing crew or engineer. In
treatment check? the case of clear ice as requested by the commander for a tactile
check on the DAR 01 form
Who accomplishes the procedure for the PF
“Before taxi checklist – Freezing conditions”
checklist?
Who accomplishes the procedure for the PF
“Shutdown checklist – Freezing conditions”
checklist?
Who completes (reads) the “Before taxi First Officer
checklist – Freezing conditions” checklist?
Who reads the challenge and response for FO
de/anti icing prior to engine start?
Who reads the challenge and response for First Officer
de/anti icing with engines running?
With a two-step procedure, the holdover time At the commencement of the second step
begins?

You are on stand and freezing fog is You are not allowed to use wing anti-ice as an alternative for ground
reported on the ATIS. Which statement is de-icing/anti-icing Application of a suitable de-ice/anti-ice fluid is
correct? required
You should use wing anti-ice on the ground? Between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are
anticipated, unless the airplane is or will be protected by application
of Type II or Type IV fluid

Pagina 107
 OPT_course

Using the following information, calculate the

Taxi Weight, Takeoff Weight, Landing
Weight, Zero Fuel Weight and Centre of
Gravity.
DUB-STN
MAD-LPA
EDI-FUE
ORK-STN
BGY-LIS

Pagina 108
 OPT_course

TAXI 62884, TAKEOFF 62624, LAND 60299, ZFW 57684, CG 19.6%

TAXI 66249, TAKEOFF 66054, LAND 59733, ZFW 56929, CG 18.8%
TAXI 73968, TAKEOFF 73799, LAND 62203, ZFW 59118, CG 16.9%
TAXI 58623, TAKEOFF 58428, LAND 55770, ZFW 52613, CG 20.3%
TAXI 69177, TAKEOFF 68982, LAND 62656, ZFW 59277, CG 19.1%

Pagina 109
 NAT_HLA

QUESTION ANSWER
"Emergency Procedures and Contingencies" are iPad > Docunet > Flight Manuals > Ops Manual
available on Part C > Flight Supplement Booklet
A Waypoint Insertion Error is caused by a failure to load waypoint information carefully AND
failure to observe the principle of checking
waypoints inserted in the navigation system
against the ATC cleared route
ADS-B-NRA is short for: ADS-B-Non Radar Areas
An ATC System Loop Error is caused by a misunderstanding between the pilot and the
controller
An Oceanic NAT HLA clearance must be requested at least forty (40) minutes prior to
Oceanic entry, but may be requested earlier
Apart from the Plotting Chart, enroute charts are iPad > Docunet > Enroute section
also available on
Equal Time Points (ETP) are entered in the FMC, as manual waypoints,
using their LAT/LONG coordinates from the
OFP/PLOG
ETOPS ( Extended Twin Engine Operations Ryanair does NOT have ETOPS approval and all
Overseas) in Oceanic NAT HLA airspace: Which of aircraft must stay within one (1) hour single engine
the following is correct flight time from a suitable alternate
If asked by ATC to “TRANSMIT ADS-B IDENT” the Use the IDENT button on the transponder panel
crew will:
If routing southbound on T16 through Shanwick & applies only to their Shanwick airspace. A higher
Santa Maria Oceanic NAT HLA airspace a cleared level may be requested from Santa Maria on hand
flight level by Shanwick over.
If the Oceanic route is NOT stored as a route in the NUMBER, CIRCLE, TICK, CROSS. The ‘CIRCLE’
FMC (e.g. T16) then the following procedure must refers to PM checking the LAT/LONG of each
be adapted waypoint in the FMC against OFP or Chart.
NAT HLA Oceanic airspace is A non-radar environment, where aircraft are
separated procedurally by means of assigned
speeds (Mach No), assigned tracks between
waypoints and assigned flight levels
On the T6 airway you must Squawk 2000 10 minutes after Oceanic entry. It is suggested in
the Oceanic checklist to use some kind of reminder

Plotting (Oceanic airspace): If a plot is required it Ten (10) minutes after crossing each waypoint
should be done
Preflight (crewroom): The Oceanic Self Brief TEM. The four (4) anticipated threats listed in the
(Oceanic Checklist), Preflight Planning section, checklist
stipulates pilots must discuss
Preflight (crewroom): To operate in Oceanic NAT Letter X, W & H to indicate NAT HLA capable,
HLA airspace the flight plan OFP (item 10 page 1) RVSM capable and HF equipped respectively.
must include the following letters
Preflight: When routing on the T16 the following Santiago LEST/SCQ
are suitable planning alternates
SLOP in relation to Oceanic procedures refers Strategic Lateral Off-Set Procedures
SLOP: The following is true Never offset LEFT of track
The 1090 Extended Squitter Data link is The Mode S transponder
transmitted through:
The ADS-B position received by ATC is the: Aircraft GNSS (GPS) position
The following anticipated Threat is listed in the both crew must hear and agree the Oceanic
Oceanic Self Brief clearance when received from ATC

Pagina 110
 NAT_HLA

The following is an example of a correct formatted “Ryanair 2TM, position OMOKO at ‘one three one
Position Report (Oceanic HF) two’, Flight Level ‘three five zero’, estimating
GONAN at ‘one three five zero’, EKROL next.”
The Oceanic Checklist is an integral part of the flight documentation.
Return with the flight envelope after flight.
The route T6 is in the following Oceanic NAT HLA Both Shanwick & Santa Maria
airspace
The VHF frequency 121.50 MHZ should be continuously in Oceanic NAT HLA airspace
monitored
Two functional FMCs are required on T16
What emergency codes are used in ADS-B Enter 7500, 7600 or 7700 on the transponder
airspace? panel
What is ADS-B short for: Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
You are routing OMOKO - GONAN on T16. At advise ATC of your new revised estimate 17:36
OMOKO you gave ATC an estimate (ETA) for ASAP
GONAN of time 17:33. However, due to stronger
than forecast headwinds, your estimate (ETA)
changes to 17:36 (+3 minutes). You should
You’re operating flight FR1679, callsign RYR1K. RYR1K
How should this be entered in the FMC?

Pagina 111
 CRMS

Questions
Can dangerous goods be carried safely by air?

Does the passenger need approval from the operator for a

medical or clinical thermometer?
Following the table below, where can Batteries be carried?
In the following list, select the item of baggage that will most
likely contain undeclared dangerous goods?
On whose Technical Instructions are the “Dangerous Goods
Regulations” based upon?
To use the RERG effectively, what do you need to be aware
of?
What can possibly tell the crew that undeclared dangerous
goods have been brought onto the aircraft?
What does the red category of bomb threat mean

What happens if a passenger chooses not to travel once

boarded?
What is a “Subsidiary Risk”?

What is Class 1 of Dangerous Goods?

What is Class 9 of Dangerous Goods?
What is Ryanair’s Hijack Priority Response?
What is the correct statement regarding Medical Oxygen?

What is the document below?

What is the first step in the Dangerous Goods Spillage Drill?
What is the first step when preparing the LRBL on 737-800?
What is the UN number

What is used when the emergency access panel is

inoperative ( non normal Door locking system)?
What must be done if a pilot needs to leave the flight deck in-
flight?
What role does the No. 4 take up ina a Sterile Search?
What should the Cabn Crew say to the Flight Crew in the
event of a hijacking?
When CC are protecting the aircraft, who has to be checked
for valid authorization upon entry?
When must a Security search be completed?

When passengers should be offloaded?

Where can Portable electronic devices containing lithium
metal or lithium ion cells or batteries be carried?
Where is the LRBL on the 737-800?
Which Dangerous Goods class does this hazard label
represent?
Which of the following images indicates that an item may be
radioactive?
Which of these could be considered a prohibied article in the
cabin?

Page 112
 CRMS

Who should be aware of the Emergency Access Code

Why are crew screened?

Why are packages containing Dangerous Goods secured on

board the aircraft?
You see a package with the Handling Label below, what
does it mean?
How is passenger cabin baggage screened?
Which of the following areas is NOT in the Critical Part of the
Security Restricted Area (CPSRA)?
In relation to an Airport Identification Card, which of the
following statements apply?
Is there a standardised Airport Security Programme valid for
all airports in Ireland?

Who develops the NCASP in Ireland?

What does the term SRA stand for?
What is the purpose of Access Control?

Who ensures that all security measures described in the

NCASP are implemented within an airline?
Who should be given access to Ryanair facilities?

Which ICAO annex is concerned with Aviation Security?

In the Landside area of an airport, where passengers and the
General Public have Unrestricted Access it is important to
remain vigilant because

What does the term CPRSA stand for?

Which of the following will NOT allow a person access to the
Critical Part of the Security Restricted Area (CPSRA)?
What percentage of Hold baggage must be screened prior to
being loaded into the aircraft hold?
An inspector of the Irish Aviation Authority has the authority
to:
A background check of how many years is required before an
AIC can be issued?
What Appropriate Authority has the power to inspect the
implementation of aviation security measures at airports,
interview employees and carry out investigations?
How was the bomb placed on board the Pan Am flight which
exploded over Lockerbie, Scotland.
If you change employer within the airport, what must you do
with regard to your Airport Identity Card?

By what method does the Appropriate Authority monitor the

implementation of Security standards?
While working within the Security Restricted Area you come
across an open door which would allow access to the
Landside Area. What would your response be?
What rule must be followed by a person escorting people in
Security Restricted Area?
The National Civil Aviation Security Programme is designed
to:

Page 113
 CRMS

Who is the Security Officer in Ryanair?

Information on how to react when you encounter unusual
circumstances can be found where?
Who is permitted to carry-out inspections, audits and tests in
relation to security procedures?
Should vehicles be examined prior to gaining access to the
Critical Parts of the SRA?
Who is responsible for approving Air Carrier's Security
Programme in Ireland?
If you work at the airport but are off-duty, can you access the
Critical Part of the Security Restricted Area (CPSRA) to
collect a family member?
When should you challenge a person in a SRA?

While working inside the Security Restricted Area (SRA) you

notice an unaccompanied individual displaying an “Escorted”
Airport Identification Card. Should you:
What is the procedure if the emergency access panel is
inoperative?

What role does the N.3 take in a sterile search?

Which of the following may be considered a prohibited article
if found in the inflight supplies?
What method shall be used while conducting a sterile
search?
Which of these could be considered a prohibited article in the
cabin?
What role does the N.2 take in a sterile search?
When should you complete your security checks?

Who is allowed to access to flight deck?

What paperwork should be completed when a passenger is
offloaded?
Which of the following could be classified as a potentially
disruptive passenger?
After completing the preparation of the LRBL where will N.2
and N.3 sit?
What will happen to the crew immediately after the hijack?
What role does the No. 4 take up in a Sterile Search?
In a Disruptive Passenger Situation which report should be
completed at the end of Duty?
You find a Kitchen Knife in the supplies received by your
company. What do you do?
Why would you challenge a person in a restricted area?
Person boarding the aircraft claims to be an authority
inspector. What would you do?

What do we mean by an “insider threat”?

What are we looking for during a security search?

Page 114
 CRMS

What should you do when someone attempts to board the

aircraft during security search?
What feature is used when the emergency access panel is
inoperative (non-normal Door locking system)?
Additional security requirements may need to be carried out
when traveling to certain destinations e.g. Israel.
What can be used if emergency access panel on the flight
deck door is inop?
What role does the No. 1 take up in a Sterile Search?
What are the 3 categories of bomb threats?
Who should be aware of the Emergency Access Code?
Shall catering supplies, intended for carriage or use on board
an aircraft, be subjected to security controls?
What feature activates the emergency access panel when
locking the flight deck door?
What action is required when a suspicious item is discovered
on board, either inflight or on the ground?
What type of phone call can be considered an act of unlawful
interference against civil aviation?
What is the purpose of security checks?
How does the Ryanair Group aircraft help maximise the
efficiency of carrying out security checks?
Can company Mail be accepted for carriage between bases?

What is the first step when preparing the LRBL?

Page 115
 CRMS

Answers
Some dangerous goods can be carried safely by air,
providing certain regulations are strictly followed
No, and they can be carried in or as carry-on baggage
or checked baggage
Carry-on baggage only
Avalanche rescue backpack

International Civil Aviation Organization

The UN Number and/or Proper Shipping Name

A bad smell
(Showing an almost horizontal gas bottle)
A credible threat has been made against an
aircraft/facility (Showing two arrows pointing up inside a rectangle)
Both A and B are correct

Any additional risk or hazardous characteristic of the

substabce
Explosives
Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
The safe release of all passengers and crew (in the title: Ryanair special load notification to captain)
Passengers cannot bring their own medical oxygen;
they may pre-book Ryanair’s approved medical oxygen
or bring an approved POC
NOTOC
Captain – Notify
Disarm the slide
Unique serial number to the article under the United
Nations classification system Diamond shape with sing of radiation in the upper half
Dead bolt

A CC (never the No. 1 or a ‘NEW’ CC member) enters

the flight deck and closes the flight deck door
Barrier
A passenger demands to see the captain

Everyone

If the A/C arrives from an unapproved 3rd country, if

the A/C comes from outside a SRA or if unathorized
persons may have had access to it
When they are physically violent
Permitted in or as carry-on baggage or checked
baggage
R2
Class Two – Gases

Box cutters

Page 116
 CRMS

All Aircrew
To ensure that nothing is secreted into a security
restricted area
To protect them from damage

Package Orientation (This way Up)

By x-ray equipment and hand search.

Check-In Desks.

All of the above

No. Each Airport in Ireland is unique, has it own

access points, different SRA's, etc., so each airport
has to establish its own security programme.
Department of Transport, Tourism and Sport.
Security Restricted Area
To restrict access to a specified area and ensure
correct authorisations are held
Airline Security Manager

Only persons who have a legitimate reason to be there.

Annex 17
This area is freely accessible it could be a target for
potential attacks such as in Brussels and Istanbul in
2016. Security Vigilance is required by everyone using
the Public zones
Critical Part of Security Restricted Area
A valid European Passport

100.00%

Carry out inspections at any time without prior

notification.
At least 5 Years

“Authorised Persons” from the Irish Aviation Authority

It was presented for carriage as unaccompanied hold

luggage concealed as a Radio Cassette Player.
Return your AIC to the issuing authority immediately on
ceasing employment and re-apply for a new AIC with
your new employer.
Tests, inspections and Audits

Close the door and make sure that it is locked,

immediately report the fact that you found it open to
Airport Security for further investigation.
Have the escorted person in direct line of sight at all
times
Protect the travelling public, industry employees and
assets from acts of unlawful interference.

Page 117
 CRMS

Carol Sharkey
Security and Emergency procedures in the Security
Programme of your company
Internal Quality Auditors and Inspectors from the IAA.

Yes, All vehicles entering the CPSRA must be

examined.
Irish Aviation Authority.

No. You can only access the CPSRA while working, not
in your personal time

If they were acting suspiciously or not wearing their I.D.

Alert your Supervisor, challenge the person and if

necessary follow him to make sure he is supervised
until the arrival of the Police.
The captain will pass the deadbolt key to the CSS. All
crew must be informed of the location, the non normal
door locking system will be used.
Searcher.
Screw Driver

Aisle to Window, Bottom to Top

Hunting knife

Searcher
Before the first passenger boards, when the seatbelt
sign comes on for landing and once the last passenger
disembarks.
IAA Inspector
Passenger Offload Statement

Person in lawful custody, deportee

Immediately behind the last row of passengers

Will be treated as possible hijacker.

Barrier
Cabin Crew Report

Inform your supervisor immediately

You are unsure of their identity

Ask for an ID, check if the picture matches the person
and if the ID is in date. Ask for the purpose of the visit.

Insider threats can take a wide variety of forms. They

can be the sharing of sensitive procedures, attacks on
information systems, smuggling goods or people into
security restricted areas.
Prohibited articles and any items which may endanger
security of the aircraft

Page 118
 CRMS

Check for a valid boarding card or ID pass

Dead bolt.

True

The deadbolt key

Observer
Red, Amber and Green
Flight Crew and Cabin Crew
Yes, under all circumstances

The kill switch.

Notify the Commander

An anonymous caller announcing that an explosive

device has been hidden on board an aircraft
Ensure there are no prohibited articles onboard
mirrors in the hatbins, removal of seat pockets and
stowage of lifejackets in the PSU
Yes, after being subjected to 100% screening prior to
carriage from a regulated entity.
Disarm the slide.

Page 119
 GLS

Questions Answers

Do crew need to complete a RAIM No

check in order to fly a GLS
approach?
What is the primary indication of a The presence of LOC and G/S pointers on
reliable GLS signal? the deviation scale (NPS)
Are GLS and ILS FMA and flight Yes
director indications identical?
Are GLS Cat 1 Autolands No
authorised in Ryanair operations?
What type of approach is a GLS? Precision appraoch flown to a DA

Pagina 120
 Security_awareness

Questions Answers
A background check of how many years is 5 Years.
required before an AIC can be issued?
An inspector of the Irish Aviation Authority has Carry out inspections at any time without prior
the authority to: notification.
Boarding of passengers takes place in which In the Critical Part of the Security Restricted
of the following designated areas at an Area (CPRSA).
airport?
By what method does the Appropriate Tests, inspections and Audits.
Authority monitor the implementation of
Security standards?
ECAC has a reference document with Doc 30
recommendations relating to aviation security,
what is the document called?
ECAC has a reference document with Doc 30
standards and recommended practices
relating to aviation security, what is the
document called?
How is passenger cabin baggage screened? By x-ray equipment and hand search.
How was the bomb placed on board the Pan It was presented for carriage as unaccompanied
Am flight which exploded over Lockerbie, hold luggage concealed as a Radio Cassette
Scotland. Player.
If you change employer within the airport, Return your AIC to the issuing authority
what must you do with regard to your Airport immediately on ceasing employment and re-
Identity Card? apply for a new AIC with your new employer.
If you lose your Airport Identification Card who The airport department responsible for issuing
do you immediately report it to? AIC’s.
If you work at the airport but are off -duty, can No. You can only access the CPSRA while
you access the Critical Part of the Security working, not in your personal time
Restricted Area (CPSRA) to collect a family
member?
If you work at the airport but are off-duty, can No. You can only access the CPSRA while
you access the Critical Part of the Security working, not in your personal time.
Restricted Area (CPSRA) to collect a family
member?
In relation to an Airport Identification Card, All of the above
which of the following statements apply?
In the Landside area of an airport, where This area is freely accessible it could be a target
passengers and the General Public have for potential attacks such as in Brussels and
Unrestricted Access it is important to remain Istanbul in 2016. Security Vigilance is required
vigilant because by everyone using the Public zones
Information on how to react when you Security and Emergency procedures in the
encounter unusual circumstances can be Security Programme of your company.
found where?
Is there a standardised Airport Security No. Each Airport in Ireland is unique, has it own
Programme valid for all airports in Ireland? access points, different SRA's, etc., so each
airport has to establish its own security
programme.
Should vehicles be examined prior to gaining Yes, All vehicles entering the CPSRA must be
access to the Critical Parts of the SRA? examined.
The National Civil Aviation Security Protect the travelling public, industry employees
Programme is designed to: and assets from acts of unlawful interference.
What Appropriate Authority has the power to “Authorised Persons” from the Irish Aviation
inspect the implementation of aviation security Authority
measures at airports, interview employees
and carry out investigations?

Pagina 121
 Security_awareness

What does the term CPRSA stand for? Critical Part of Security Restricted Area
What does the term SRA stand for? Security Restricted Area.
What is the purpose of Access Control? To restrict access to a specified area and ensure
correct authorisations are held.
What percentage of Hold baggage must be 100.00%
screened prior to being loaded into the aircraft
hold?
What rule must be followed by a person Have the escorted person in direct line of sight at
escorting people in Security Restricted Area? all times
What security measures are used in a Critical Patrols and Surveillance, Access control, 100%
Part of SRA? screening.
When should you challenge a person in a If they were acting suspiciously or not wearing
SRA? their I.D.
Where an Airport Identification Card (AIC) In a visible place on the outer garment above the
must be worn? waist.
Which ICAO annex is concerned with Aviation Annex 17
Security?

Which of the following areas is NOT in the The Check-In Desks.

Critical Part of the Security Restricted Area
(CPSRA)?
Which of the following will NOT allow a person A valid European Passport
access to the Critical Part of the Security
Restricted Area (CPSRA)?
While working inside the Security Restricted Alert your Supervisor, challenge the person and
Area (SRA) you notice an unaccompanied if necessary follow him to make sure he is
individual displaying an “Escorted” Airport supervised until the arrival of the Police.
Identification Card. Should you:
Who develops the NCASP in Ireland? Department of Transport, Tourism and Sport.
Who ensures that all security measures Airline Security Manager
described in the NCASP are implemented
within an airline?
Who is permitted to carry-out inspections, Internal Quality Auditors and Inspectors from the
audits and tests in relation to security IAA
procedures?
Who is responsible for approving Air Carrier's Irish Aviation Authority.
Security Programme in Ireland?
Who is responsible for publishing Annex 17? ICAO
Who is the Security Officer in Ryanair? Carol Sharkey
Who should be given access to Ryanair Only persons who have a legitimate reason to be
facilities? there.
Why do we need aviation security? To safeguard civil aviation against acts of
unlawful interference.
You find an unattended item while on your Alert the Airport Police or Airport Security
break, should you? immediately

Pagina 122
 DG_exam

Questions Answers
Can dangerous goods be carried safely Some dangerous goods can be
by air? carried safely by air providing certain
regulations are strictly followed
Does a passenger need approval from No, and it can be carried in or as
the operator to carry a medical or clinical checked baggage only
thermometer containing mercury?
Does the passenger need approval from No, and they can be carried in or as
the operator for carrying portable carry-on baggage or checked-in
electronic devices containing lithium baggage
metal or lithium ion cells or batteries?
Following the table below, does the No
Captain need to be informed of the
location of alcoholic beverages?
Following the table below, is the approval Yes, the operator’s approval is
of the operator required before a required before the item is carried
passenger carries an avalanche rescue
backpack?
Following the table below, where can Carry-on or checked-in baggage
alcoholic beverages, in retail packaging,
be carried?
Following the table below, where can Forbidden to be carried on an
passengers carry Disabling devices? aircraft. !
From the following list, select the most Camping backpack.
likely item to contain undeclared
dangerous goods:
From the following list, select the most Tool box
likely item to contain undeclared
dangerous goods:
How many hours do Ryanair (Rynair 72 hours
Group operator) have to inform the
Authorities (e.g. IAA) about Dangerous
Goods Spillage onboard?
On whose Technical Instructions are the International Civil Aviation
“Dangerous Goods Regulations” based Organization
on?
Some Dangerous Goods are too Yes – as long as there is not more
dangerous to be carried by aircraft, other than 1 litre per package
may be carried on cargo aircraft only and
some are acceptable to be carried on
both cargo and passenger aircraft.
Looking at the regulations below, can
UN1916 be carried on Passenger and
Cargo Aircraft in Limited Quantities?
Some Dangerous Goods are too Yes – as long as there is not more
dangerous to be carried by aircraft, other than 5 kg per package
may be carried on cargo aircraft only and
some are acceptable to be carried on
both cargo and passenger aircraft.
Looking at the regulations below, can
Zinc Chlorate be carried on Passenger
and Cargo Aircraft?

Page 123
 DG_exam

Some Dangerous Goods are too No – it is forbidden

dangerous to be carried by aircraft,
others may be carried on cargo aircraft
only and some are acceptable to be
carried on both cargo and passenger
aircraft. Looking at the regulations below,
can UN2024 (PG I) be carried on
Passenger and Cargo Aircraft in Limited
Quantities?
To use the RERG effectively, what do The UN Number and/or Proper
you need to be aware of? Shipping Name
What are the instructions governing the ICAO Technical Instructions
carriage of dangerous goods called?
What can possibly tell the crew that A bad smell.
undeclared dangerous goods have been
brought into the aircraft cabin?
What can possibly tell the crew that Stains of a strange liquid in the
undeclared dangerous goods have been hatbin.
brought into the aircraft cabin?
What does "Packing Group I " indicate? High Danger
What does "Packing Group II " indicate? Medium Danger
What does "Packing Group III " indicate? Low Danger
What does the Packing Group indicate? The degree of danger.
What is a "Subsidiary Hazard"? Any additional hazard or hazardous
characteristic of the substance
What is Class 2 of Dangerous Goods? Gases
What is Class 3 of Dangerous Goods? Flammable Liquids
What is Class 4 of Dangerous Goods? Flammable solids
What is Class 5 of Dangerous Goods? Oxidising substances and organic
peroxides
What is Class 7 of Dangerous Goods? Radioactive Material
What is Class 8 of Dangerous Goods? Corrosives
What is Class 9 of Dangerous Goods? Miscellaneous Dangerous
Substances and Articles, Including
Environmentally Hazardous
Substances
What is the document below? Consignment note.
What is the document below? NOTOC
What is the document below? Shipper's declaration
What is the first step when dealing with Leave everything undisturbed
spillage in powder form?
What is the maximum net weight of a 25Kg
package of Mercury oxide that may be
loaded onto a passenger aircraft?
What is the packing instruction for 1,1- Y341
Dichloroethane, when shipped on
Passenger and Cargo Aircraft in Limited
Quantity?
What is the packing instruction for 655
Dichloromethane, when shipped on
Passenger and Cargo Aircraft in UN
specification packaging?

Page 124
 DG_exam

What is the packing instruction for UN 852

1805, when shipped on Passenger and
Cargo Aircraft, in a UN UN specification
packaging?
What is the requirement before loading Package of dangerous goods must
dangerous goods onto an aircraft? always be inspected to ensure that
there are no signs of damage to it.

What is the UN number? Unique serial number to the article

under the United Nations
classification system.
What paperwork must accompany an NOTOC, Shipper’s Declaration and
item of Dangerous Goods? Consignment note.
When should packages of Dangerous Packages should be inspected for
Goods be inspected for possible leakage possible damage or leakage before
or damage? loading and upon unloading from the
aircraft.
When transporting Dangerous Goods, Acceptance; Storage; Loading;
which of the following requirements must Inspection; Provision of Information,
an operator comply with? including emergency response
information; Reporting; Retention of
Records; Training
Where can Portable electronic devices Permitted in or as carry-on baggage
containing lithium metal or lithium ion or checked baggage.
cells or batteries be carried?
Which Dangerous Goods class does this Class Three – Flammable Liquids
hazard label represent?
Which Dangerous Goods class does this Class Two – Gases
hazard label represent?
Which is the correct statement regarding In Ryanair Group, ashes may be
ashes? carried in the cabin, however the
passenger must ensure that they are
securely packaged in a suitable
container with a screw top/lid and
protected against breakage.
Which is the correct statement regarding We carry human remains on selected
human remains? flights. Ryanair will only accept
human remains from a regulated
agent
Which is the correct statement regarding Passengers cannot bring their own
medical oxygen? medical oxygen; they may pre-book
Ryanair’s (Ryanair Group) approved
therapeutic oxygen or bring an
approved POC.
Which of the below statements is ...the effects on individual may be
correct? “Following a contact with delayed, typically first being nausea
unprotected radioactive material...” and vomiting.
Which of the following images indicates
that an item may be radioactive?
Who provides Dangerous Goods IATA
Regulations manual?
Why are packages containing Dangerous To protect them from damage.
Goods secured on board the aircraft?
You see a package with this handling Keep away from heat
label, what does it mean?

Page 125
 DG_exam

What could be the reason for a All of the above.

passenger to bring forbidden dangerous
goods into the cabin?
What is a RERG Drill Code? A number followed by a letter that
allows you to use additional
guidelines on how to best deal with
the situation.
You see a package with this handling United Nations Packaging Symbol
label. What does it mean?
In case of suspected Dangerous Goods Emergency Response Guidance
spillage, which of the below will assist the
crew in their drill?
Some Dangerous Goods are too Yes – as long as there is not more
dangerous to be carried by aircraft, other than 100kg per package
may be carried on cargo aircraft only and
some are acceptable to be carried on
both cargo and passenger aircraft.
Looking at the regulations below, can
UN1636 be carried on Cargo Aircraft?
Can a Dangerous Goods package No.
bearing a “Cargo Aircraft Only” label be
loaded into the cargo hold of a Ryanair
Group aircraft with passengers onboard?
How is the Captain notified of dangerous Will be given notification paperwork
goods being carried in the aircraft hold? i.e. a NOTOC
Can passengers carry camping stoves on Yes, as long as they are in checked-
an aircraft? in baggage and the stove has an
empty fuel tank/container. Operator’s
approval is required
What is the packing instruction for 852
Phosphoric acid, solution, when shipped
on Passenger and Cargo Aircraft, in a
UN specification packaging?
Can a passenger place a power bank in No, power banks are considered as
a bag which is carried in the hold? spare batteries so must be carried in
carry-on baggage only.
What is the packing instruction for 669
Mercury Oxide when shipped on
Passenger and Cargo Aircraft in UN
specification packaging?
Can any packages be loaded next to No, IATA DGR gives segregation
each other in the aircraft hold? requirements (based on hazard
presented by goods) which must be
observed.
What is the first step in the Dangerous CAPTAIN - NOTIFY
Goods Spillage Drill?
What is the packing instruction for UN 654
2490, when shipped on Passenger and
Cargo Aircraft in UN specification
packaging?
Which Hazard does this label indicate? Flammable Gas
Which Hazard does this label indicate? Flammable Solid
Which Hazard does this label indicate? Corrosive.
What should you be wearing when All of the above
dealing with spilled Dangerous Good?

Page 126
 DG_exam

What is the packing instruction for UN 864

2834 shipped on Cargo Aircraft Only?
You see a package with this handling Magnetized material (keep away
label. What does it mean? from a/c compass detector unit
The purpose of RERG is to locate.. The Drill Code
Some Dangerous Goods are too Yes - as long as there is not more
dangerous to be carried by aircraft, other than 5 kg per package
may be carried on cargo aircraft only and
some are acceptable to be carried on
both cargo and passenger aircraft.
Looking at the regulations below, can
Zinc Chlorate be carried on Pax and
Cargo Aircraft?
What is Class 1 of Dangerous Goods? Explosives
Which aircraft parts may contain small Smoke detectors
amount of radioactive isotope?
How many hours do Ryanair (or another 72 hours
Ryanair Group operator) have to inform
the IAA (for other Ryanair Group operator
- their respective Authority) about
Dangerous Goods Spillage onboard?

What is the packing instruction for Y443

Phosphorus, amorphous, when shipped
on Passenger and Cargo Aircraft in
Limited Quantity?
What is the Proper Shipping Name? The name or description of the
dangerous good.
If a label becomes illegible or gets Operator
detached or lost, after it has been
accepted for carriage (e.g. during the
flight) who is responsible for replacing it?

Which of the below statements is …the effects on individual may be

correct? “Following a contact with delayed, typically first being nausea
unprotected radioactive material…” and vomiting.
What is the packing instruction, when Y641
shipped on Passenger and Cargo Aircraft
(in Limited Quantities) for Dangerous
Good UN 2490?
Which Hazard does this label indicate? Gas (non-flammable, non-toxic)
What do the nine classes of Dangerous Type of hazard associated with DG
Goods refer to?
Some Dangerous Goods are too No – it is forbidden
dangerous to be carried by aircraft, other
may be carried on cargo aircraft only and
some are acceptable to be carried on
both cargo and passenger aircraft.
Looking at the regulations below, can the
indicated substance be carried on
Passenger and Cargo Aircraft?

Page 127
DG_exam

Page 128
DG_exam

Page 129
DG_exam

Page 130
DG_exam

Page 131
DG_exam

Page 132
 SEP_exam

Questions Answers
At what cabin altitude is the passenger 14,000 feet
oxygen system automatically activated?
Can the aft doors be used to evacuate after The AFT Doors should NOT be
ditching? opened during a ditching
During Flight, what does the No2 initially do Stows trolley and goes to forward
when he/she hears “No1 to the flight deck”? galley to wait for NITS from No. 1
Following an emergency descent, when will After “No1 to the flight deck” call is
the cabin crew come off oxygen? heard over the PA
How long (approximately) will the passenger 12 mins
oxygen last once activated?
How many passengers can be seated in 4
each row segment (i.e. 3 passenger seats)
to comply with safety measures and oxygen
requirements?
If a Rapid Depressurisation should occur Autopilot should remain engaged,
during high level cruise: Captain assumes role of PF
In accordance with the QRH Ditching Non 50 feet AGL
Normal Checklist at what height does the
flight deck advise the Cabin Crew to Brace
for impact?
Prior to Departure with an incapacitated Passenger numbers are reduced to
cabin crew, the aircraft may return to base 150
with three cabin crew members provided:
The Cabin Crew Quick Reference Guide Contains checklists used by Cabin
(QRG): Crew to manage non-normal
situations
The flight crew oxygen mask regulator supplies 100% oxygen under positive
selector rotated to the EMERGENCY pressure at all cabin altitudes
position:
The Flight Deck Door decompression Provides emergency egress path and
panels: automatically opens during cabin
decompression.
The flight deck door is opened by the pilots Verifying visually through the viewing
during flight by: lens that the area is clear and open
the flight deck door with the use of the
flight deck door handle.
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates. What Passenger oxygen system is
does this indicate? activated
What are the three diff erent modes of the 100%, Normal, Emergency
quick don O2 mask?
What are the three different modes of the 100%, Normal, Emergency
quick don O2 mask?
What are the various positions the OFF, ARMED, ON
Emergency Lighting (EMER EXIT LIGHTS),
located on the forward overhead panel?
What does NITS stand for? Nature, Intentions, Time, Special
Instructions
What does PAA stand for? Problem, Action, Additional
Information.
What is the evacuation command? This is an Emergency. Evacuate the
aircraft using all available exits.
Repeated once.
When can cabin crew initiate the All of the other 3 answers are correct
evacuation?

Page 133
 SEP_exam

Where can you confirm the pressure of the On the crew oxygen pressure
flight deck Oxygen? indicator on the oxygen panel (located
on AFT OVERHEAD PANEL)

Who makes the PA to Passengers during a The No 1 will do the SOS Short
short notice emergency? Notice PA from the jumpseat.
How many passengers can be seated on 4
each row of passenger seats to comply with
safety measures and oxygen requirements?
Who gives the command to arm aircraft The Captain
slides?
How many passengers can be seated on 4
each row of passenger seats to comply with
safety measures and oxygen requirements?

Page 134
 737-MAX

What causes both of the BLEED lights to Both BLEED swiths off ater Take Off or go around
illuminate at the same time?
Engine bleed air is extracted from what 4th and 10th
stages of the compressor?
In flight, how many air conditioning packs is 2
one engine bleed capable of supplying on
the 737 MAX?
How is the operation of the bleed air system Electronically controlled
controlled?
What causes both PACK lights to illuminate Both PACK control switches in the OFF position after
at the same time? takeoff
Where are the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN These lights are not on the MAX
lights located on the 737 MAX
If smoke is detected within the equipment EQUIP SMOKE
cooling system, what amber caution light
will illuminate?
After selecting the ENG ANTI-ICE switches The left anti-ice valve disagrees with the ENG ANTI-
to ON in flight, the following indication is ICE switch
observed in steady state. What is true
concerning the engine anti-ice system?

What is occurring when a wing anti-ice valve is in transit

VALVE light momentarily illuminates
amber?
Which of the following will cause the ENG When the cowl thermal anti-ice system has been
ANTI-ICE light to illuminate? inhibited due to a system failure

Which of the following will cause the APU When the APU door is open and the APU is shut down
door (DOOR) light to illuminate while on the
ground?
What causes the REVERSER AIR/GRD Reverser air/ground protection is lost
light to illuminate?
What mode of idle is selected by the ELEC Icing idle
if the aircraft is inflight below 30,400 feet,
the flaps are not extended, the main gear is
not down and locked, and the engine anti-
ice is on?
Duuring Engine Start, when can the start When N1 rotation is seen and N2 is at 25% or Max
levers be moved to the idle detent after Motoring is above 20%
Motoring Blanks?
What is indicated when the REVERSER Reverser is commanded in flight
COMMAND light illuminates?
When conducting extended engine 5 minutes
monitoring, what is the starter usage time
limit?
When the autopilot automatically The flight director is temporarily removed from the PFD
disengages after 1 second of stick shaker until airspeed is increased above the amber bar.
activation, what happens to the flight
director?
On the 737 MAX, when will FCC logic When the trailing edge flaps are extended and airspeed
inhibit autopilot nose up stabilizer trim is 3 knots or more into the amber bar.
commands?
On the 737NG and 737 MAX, what Autopilot must not be engaged
condition is necessary for the Speed Trim
System to operate?

Pagina 135
 737-MAX

On the 737 MAX, what does illumination of Failure of the Speed Trim System (Speed Trim function
the SPEED TRIM FAIL light indicate? or MCAS function). If one function fails, the other
function is inhibited for the remainder of the flight
On the 737 MAX, which of the following is When either switch is placed in the CUTOUT position,
true ragarding the STAB TRIM PRI and stabilizer trim inputs from the main electric, autopilot,
STAB TRIM B/U cutout switches on the and Speed Trim System (which includes the Speed
control stand? Trim Function and MCAS function) are stopped.
When the Speed Trim System is active on The Speed Trim System is overridden
the 737NG or 737 MAX, what happens
when the pilot uses the main electric
stabilizer trim switches on the control
wheel?
What is the purpose of the MCAS function To increase control column forces by commanding the
on the /£/ MAX? stabilizer in the nose down direction at elevated angle
of attack (AOAs)?
During which of the following conditions will Flaps extended
the MCAS function not operate on the 737
MAX?
When may manual stabilizer trim operations During some non-normal flight conditions when called
become necessary? for by the appropriate Checklist
Approximately how many turns of the 15
manual stabilizer trim wheel are required for
a change of one stabilizer trim unit?
What should be verified prior to extending Both STAB TRIM cutout switches are in CUTOUT
the manual trim wheel handles?
Which of the following best describes All of the above are true
manual operation of the stabilizer?
What is the purpose of the Manouver Load Decreases structural loads by partially retracting the
Alleviation (MLA) system? speedbrakes
Which statement below correctly describes Designed tom maintain accepteble nose landing gear
a function of the Landing Attitude Modifier contact margins for landing
(LAM)?
What cause the SPEEDBRAKES Speedbrake lever is beyond the ARMED position and a
EXTENDED light to illuminate in flight? thrust lever is above idle for at least 15 seconds
What is required to activate the Elevator The Elevator Jam Landing Assist switch needs to be
Jam Landing Assist system? ON, actual flap position must be 1 or greater, and the
autopilot disconnected
What does illumination of the ASSIST ON The Elevator Jam Landing Assist syatem is activated
light indicate?
What causes the SPOILERS light to One or more spoiler pairs are inoperative
illuminate on the Flight Control Panel?
When activated, what does the Emergency Raises the speedbrakes to a higher-than normal
Descend Speedbrakes (EDS) system do? position during the emergency descent manouver
How many large format Display Units 4
(DU’s) are located on the flight deck?
Select where the Multi-Function Display (Adjacent to the right FMC)
(MFD) switches are located?
On which display will all of the following be AUX
located: flight number, SELCAL
transponder code, airplane tail number, and
date?
When an ouboard Display Unit (DU) failure Half sized AUX display moves to the inboard DU, and
is sensed, the displays will automatically goes above the PFD
reconfigure, what happens to the AUX
display?

Pagina 136
 737-MAX

Which switch selects the Vertical Situation (VSD switch?

Display (VSD) inset on the Expanded MAP
and Center Map modes on the Navigation
Display (ND)?
Push the switch that allows the crew to (INFO sw)
manually enter the N1 Targets and V speed
bugs on the Airspeed indicator?
Where is the clock switch located’ On the glareshield panel
Where are the engine indications normally Captain’s or First Officer’s Inboard display unit
displayed?
Select the switch that will move the engine ( ↔ double arrow ENG TFR sw)
indications to either the Captain’s or the
First Officer’s inboard display unit?
Where will the hydraulic systems Inboard dsisplay unit opposite the engine display
information normally be shown after
selecting the SYS switch on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
Select the location of the Captain’s Display (Located under the Captain’s outboard DU)
Select Switches
What Engine Display alert will display if the FUEL DISAGREE
FMC determines a difference between the
total sensed fuel quantity and the
calculated fuel quantity values?
Where is the fuel quantity source selected FUEL PROGRESS page 5/5
on the FMC?
What messages will show on the CDU FUEL DISAGREE, INSUFFICIENT FUEL, and USING
scratchpad and appear on the Engine RSV FUEL
Display as amber alerts?
When is it possible for the fuel FILTER After engine shutdown on the ground
BYPASS lights to extinguish, if both have
illuminated at any time during flight?
On FUEL PROGRESS page 5/5 the The Fuel Quantity Indication System (FQIS) gauge
TOTALIZER fuel value is computed from readings
what?
Following a takeoff or a go around, check UP
that the LANDING GEAR lever is in what
position?
Select the location of the AUTO BRAKE (between FMC’s)
switch
Where is the NOSE WHEEL STEER switch Center forward panel
located?
When pushed, what does the LOCK OVRD releases the landing gear lever lock
switch do?
Drag and drop each item to the correct (MAX: 69” fan, nose gear strut 8” longer, dual tail
aircraft strobe/position lights)
Select the location of the BRAKE PRESS (between FMC’s)
Accumulator Indicator
With a single autopilot engaged, when does Autopilot is above 75% of roll authority for more than
the YAW/ROLL ASYMMETRY alert 20 seconds
appear?
Select the bank pointer and slip/skid (amber empty pointer)
indication, with ROLL/YAW ASYMMETRY
alert active, and the aircraft at 10° of bank
Select the item(s)that are an indication of unusual control wheel deflection
an autopilot saturation event ROLL/YAW ASYMMETRY alert
ROLL AUTHORITY alert

Pagina 137
 737-MAX

What should be done when you see this on Roll left

your PFD?
What is the purpose of the pitch attitude to enable the use of high bank anglesin recovering
latch? from anose high upset without setting off the alerts
Select the bank pointer and slip/skid (solid red bank indivator, empty red slip indicator)
indication, in a roll upset condition,
indicating that the bank angle is excessive
When the aircraft is significantly out of trim Apply rudder to maintein flight path
(control column is deflected in the roll axis) Accomplish the primary rudder trim technique
return the airplane to coordinated flight by Veryfy or set simmetrical thrust
doing the following in order. trim the rudder in the direction of the down side of the
control wheel
Which of the following does not provide Speed trim system
inputs for airspeed indications
Which of the following may be an indication All of the above
of an unreliable airspeed condition?

On which panel can the First Officer’s stick P6 Panel

shaker circuit breaker (STICK SHAKER
RIGHT) be found?
On which panel can the Captain’s stick P18 Panel
shaker circuit breaker (STICK SHAKER
LEFT) be found?
When performing the Runaway Stabilizer Thrust should be controlled manually so that the
Non-Normal Checklist, how should thrust airspeed remains within the range appropriate for the
be controlled after the autothrottle is phase of flight.
disengaged?
When performing the Runaway Stabilizer Use main electric stabilizer trim
Non-Normal Checklist, what can the pilot do
to reduce control column forces
During a runaway stabilizer condition, which Move the STAB TRIM cutout switches to CUTOUT
of the following actions should be taken if
the runawaycontinues after the autopilot is
disengaged?
During a runaway stabilizer condition, after Airplane Pitch Attitude and Airspeed
the pilotflying disengages the autopilot and
autothrottle, Control Column and Thrust
Levers are used to control what?
What can cause the SPEEDBRAKES Speedbrake lever is beyond the ARMED position and
EXTENDED light to illuminate in flight? thrust lever is above idee for at least 15 seconds.

Pagina 138
 FirstAid

A person who starts to tremble, has shallow breath, is Diabetic

talking but appears "drunk", may be
If after checking their airway a casualty shows no signs Perform CPR
of breathing or pulse, you should immediately
What is the first thing you should do on discovery of a Assess whether the casualty is
casualty, in order to assess your next actions? responsive or not
How can you check if someone is responsive if they do Shake their shoulder or gently
not initially respond to voice? pinch their earlobe
In the Primary Survey of a casualty, what does ABC Airway, Breathing, Circulation
stand for?
A secondary survey may be appropriate in certain Dysfunction, Examine
medical emergencies. What are the two steps?
How should you treat someone who has fainted? Elevate the legs
When will the Public Health Authority be called? If a communicable disease is
suspected
Initially, for how long should you check for signs of 10 seconds
breathing?
What must NOT be done in the case of choking? Use your fingers to find the
obstruction if it is not visible.
What symptoms may be associated with a Persistent coughing, persistent
communicable disease? vomiting, impaired breathing

Pagina 139
 b737-8200_2021

Where will CC stow their crewbags when trolleys are not In the hatbin
loaded?
The requirements for restraint of cabin baggage apply equally to True
Aircrew baggage.
AII toilets in a B737-8200 have access for reduced mobility True
passengers.
Where are the demo kits located in the AFT Galley on a B737- Under the
8200? jumpseats
How many QRG can you find onboard a B737-8200? Three, one
under the J/S
of the NO.1,
NO.2 and
NO.3
Which of the following safety equipment is located above the R2 Water Glycol
Jumpseat in a B737-8200? Select all the valid options PBE
Halotron
We need to brief passengers at the MED prior to departure. False
Who arms and disarms the MEDs? NOBODY.
SLIDES AT
MED ARE
PERMANEN
TLY ARMED
No.3 jumpseat on a Boeing 737-8200 is facing FWD (same as a False
passenger seat).
On 737-8200 No.3 shall occupy a double rear facing jumpseat, False
located at R2.
On a Boeing 737-8200 the Wheelchair (if fitted) is located in the True
FWD galley.
Prior to departure, an additional passenger briefing must be NO. 4
conducted with all passengers occupying seats at overwing
exits. Who should conduct this briefing on a 737-8200?
How many Halotron extinguishers can you find on a B737-8200? 4

Which CC position will be left unoccupied in case of a CC NO4

incapacitation on a 737-8200?

Pagina 140
 GRF

Questions Answers
If it were necessary to remove the In the NOTAM tab enter 1 in the
stopway in an OPT take-off ‘Takeoff shortening from liftoff
calculation how would you do this? end’ box

For runways reporting multiple OPT calculation must be

contaminants at a GRF airport completed for each OPT
which of the following statements condition and the most limiting
is true? case must be used for take-off
performance calculation.
Crosswind limit will be determined
based on the lowest RWYCC

ATIS CONDITIONS: 300/15, 9999, Medium

FEW030, -04/-06, QNH 1005
Given the above RCR and ATIS
what OPT condition would you
select for take-off?
ATIS CONDITIONS: 270/10, -SN, No, all operations on RWYCC 1
2000, OVC005, 01/00, QNH 1000, or 0 are prohibited. Crew must
LW 55000 Kg, Aircraft: EI-GRF use the lowest of the three
Given the above RCR and ATIS reported RWYCCs
are you permitted to land?
When a Stopway has been The stopway can be removed
reported as 80% covered in Ice within the NOTAM section by
what would the crew have to do to removing 1 metre from the
remove it from the ASDA? Takeoff shortening from the liftoff
end, this would remove the
stopway and the clearway
What does the abbreviation RCAM Runway Condition Assessment
stand for? Matrix
When considering dry snow at a False
non-EASA airport on 31 October
2021 you would divide the depth
by 8 prior to entering into OPT
(minimum depth 4 mm).
ATIS CONDITIONS: 270/20, 9999, 20 kt
FEW020, -04/-06, QNH 1010
Given the above RCR and ATIS
what is the crosswind limit for take-
off?
When anticipating deteriorating 3
weather conditions at EGNM what
would be the minimum RYWCC
that can be accepted for landing?
ATIS CONDITIONS: 270/10, -SN,
2000, OVC005, 02/01, QNH 1000,
LW 56000 Kg, Aircraft: EI-GRF
When considering a GRF airport, Using the RCAM, the airport
which of the following statements operator generates the RCR and
is true? provides this to ATC. RCR is then
communicated to aircrew via
SNOWTAM, ATIS or ATC
What does the abbreviation RCR Runway Condition Report
stand for?

Pagina 141
 GRF

In moderate or heavy rain the In the absence of an updated

depth of standing water may be a RCR assume a RYWCC of 2
function of the rainfall intensity. when rainfall intensity is moderate
When considering moderate or or heavy on an ungrooved
heavy rain at a GRF airport, select runway or heavy on a grooved
the correct answer. runway
Given the above RCR what depth 24 mm
of Dry Snow would you enter into
OPT for the take-off calculation?

Pagina 142
 GRF

Pagina 143
 GRF

Pagina 144