Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -

Units and Measurements

Multiple Choice Questions I

2.1. The number of significant figures in 0.06900 is:

a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
Answer:
The correct answer is b) 4
The number of zeroes on the left of the non-zero number are not considered as significant figures but the zeroes
that are on the right of the non-zero number are significant figures.

2.2. The sun of the numbers 436.32, 227.2, and 0.301 in appropriate significant figures is:
a) 663.821
b) 664
c) 663.8
d) 663.82
Answer:
The correct answer is c) 663.8

2.3. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237 g and 2.5 cm3 respectively. The density of the material of the
body in correct significant figures is:
a) 1.6048 g/cm3
b) 1.69 g/cm3
c) 1.7 g/cm3
d) 1.695 g/cm3
Answer:
The correct answer is c) 1.7 g/cm3

2.4. The numbers 2.745 and 2.735 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give:
a) 2.75 and 2.74
b) 2.74 and 2.73
c) 2.75 and 2.73
d) 2.74 and 2.74
Answer:
The correct answer is d) 2.74 and 2.74

2.5. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are 16.2 cm and 10.1 cm respectively. The area of the
sheet in appropriate significant figures and error is:
a) 164 ± 3 cm2
b) 163.62 ± 2.6 cm2
c) 163.6 ± 2.6 cm2
d) 163.62 ± 3 cm2
Answer:
The correct answer is a) 164 ± 3 cm2

2.6. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does not have same dimensional formula?
a) work and torque
b) angular momentum and Planck’s constant
c) tension and surface tension
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

d) impulse and linear momentum

Answer:
The correct answer is a) work and torque

2.7. Measure of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is:
A = 2.5 m/s ± 0.5 m/s
B = 0.10 s ± 0.01 s
The value of AB will be
a) (0.25 ± 0.08) m
b) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
c) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
d) (0.25 ± 0.135) m
Answer:
The correct answer is a) (0.25 ± 0.08) m

2.8. You measure two quantities as A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m, B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. We should report correct value
for √AB as:
a) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m
b) 1.41 m ± 0.15 m
c) 1.4 m ± 0.3 m
d) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
Answer:
The correct answer is d) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m

2.9. Which of the following measurements is most precise?

a) 5.00 mm
b) 5.00 cm
c) 5.00 m
d) 5.00 km
Answer:
The correct answer is a) 5.00 mm

2.10. The mean length of an object is 5 cm. Which of the following measurements is most accurate?
a) 4.9 cm
b) 4.805 cm
c) 5.25 cm
d) 5.4 cm
Answer:
The correct answer is a) 4.9 cm

2.11. Young’s modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. When expressed in CGS units of dynes/cm2, it will be
equal to:
a) 1.9 × 1010
b) 1.9 × 1011
c) 1.9 × 1012
d) 1.9 × 1013
Answer:
The correct answer is c) 1.9 × 1012

2.12. If momentum (P), area (A), and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has the
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

dimensional formula
a) (P1A-1T1)
b) (P2A1T1)
c) (P1A-1/2T1)
d) (P1A1/2T-1)
Answer:
The correct answer is d) (P1A1/2T-1)

Multiple Choice Questions II

2.13. On the basis of dimensions, decide which of the following relations for the displacement of a particle
undergoing simple harmonic motion is not correct:
a) y = a sin 2πt/T
b) y = a sin vt
c) y = a/T sin (t/a)
d) y = a√2 [sin (2 πt/T) – cos (2πt/T)]
Answer:
The correct answer is b) y = a sin vt and c) y = a/T sin (t/a)

2.14. If P, Q, R are physical quantities, having different dimensions, which of the following combinations
can never be a meaningful quantity?
a) (P – Q)/R
b) PQ – R
c) PQ/R
d) (PR – Q2)/R
e) (R + Q)/P
Answer:
The correct answer is d) (PR – Q2)/R and e) (R + Q)/P

2.15. Photon is quantum of radiation with energy E = hv where v is frequency and h is Planck’s constant.
The dimensions of h are the same as that of:
a) linear impulse
b) angular impulse
c) linear momentum
d) angular momentum
Answer:
The correct option is b) angular impulse and d) angular momentum

2.16. If Planck’s constant (h) and speed of light in vacuum (c) are taken as two fundamental quantities,
which of the following can in addition be taken to express length, mass, and time in terms of the three
chosen fundamental quantities?
a) mass of electron (me)
b) universal gravitational constant (G)
c) charge of electron (e)
d) mass of proton (mp)
Answer:
The correct answer ia a) mass of electron b) universal gravitational constant and d) mass of proton

2.17. Which of the following ratios express pressure?

a) Force/area
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

b) Energy/volume
c) Energy/area
d) Force/volume
Answer:
The correct answer is a) force/area and b) energy/volume

2.18. Which of the following are not a unit of time?

a) second
b) parsec
c) year
d) light year
Answer:
The correct answer is b) parsec and d) light year

Very Short Answers

2.19 Why do we have different units for the same physical quantity?
Answer:
We have different units for the same physical quantity because they differ from place to place.

2.20 The radius of atom is of the order of 1 Å and radius of nucleus is of the order of fermi. How many
magnitudes higher is the volume of atom as compared to the volume of nucleus?
Answer:
Radius of atom = 1 Å = 10-10 m
Radius of nucleus = 1 fermi = 10-15 m
Volume of atom = 4/3πRa3
Volume of nucleus = 4/3πRn3
Vatom/Vnucleus = 1015
Mass of one mole of carbon atom = 12 g = 1.67 × 10-27 kg

2.21 Name the device used for measuring the mass of atoms and molecules.
Answer:
Mass spectrograph is the device that is used for measuring the mass of atoms and molecules.

Short Answers

2.25 (a) The earth-moon distance is about 60 earth radius. What will be the diameter of the earth
(approximately in degrees) as seen from the moon?
(b) Moon is seen to be of (½)° diameter from the earth. What must be the relative size compared to the
earth?
(c) From parallax measurement, the sun is found to be at a distance of about 400 times the earth-moon
distance. Estimate the ratio of sun-earth diameters.
Answer:
a)
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

The radius of the earth is treated as an arc as the distance between the moon and the earth is greater than the
radius of the earth.
Let Re be the length of the arc
Distance between the moon and the earth = 60Re
Angle subtended by the diameter of the earth = 2o

b) The relative size of the moon when compared to the earth is = diameter of the earth/diameter of the moon = 4

c) The ratio of sun-earth diameter = Dsun/Dearth = 100

2.26 Which of the following time measuring devices is most precise?

(a) A wall clock.
(b) A stop watch.
(c) A digital watch.
(d) An atomic clock.
Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
The correct option is d) an atomic clock as it measures up to one second.

2.27 The distance of a galaxy is of the order of 1025 m. Calculate the order of magnitude of time taken by
light to reach us from the galaxy.
Answer:
Distance of the galaxy = 1025m
Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s
Time taken, t is
t = distance/speed = 3.33 × 1016 s

2.28 The vernier scale of a travelling microscope has 50 divisions which coincide with 49 main scale
divisions. If each main scale division is 0.5 mm, calculate the minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of
distance.
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

Answer:
The minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance = (1/50)(0/5)mm = 0.01 mm

2.29 During a total solar eclipse the moon almost entirely covers the sphere of the sun. Write the relation
between the distances and sizes of the sun and moon.
Answer:

Rme is the distance of the moon from the earth

Rse is the distance of the sun from the moon
Asun is the area of the sun
Amoon is the area of the moon
Rs/Rm = Rse/Rme

2.30 If the unit of force is 100 N, unit of length is 10 m and unit of time is 100 s, what is the unit of mass in
this system of units?
Answer:
Force [F] = 100 N
Length [L] = 10 m
Time [t] = 100 s
[F] = [MLT2]
Substituting the values, we get M = 105 kg

Long Answers

2.36. A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length β m and unit of time γ s.
How much will 5 J measure in this new system?
Answer:
Let Q be the physical quantity = n1u1 = n2u2
Let M1, L1, T1 and M2,L2,T2 be the units of mass, length, and time for the given two systems.
n2 = n1
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

[U] = [ML2T2]
M1 = 1 kg
L1 = 1 m
T1 = 1 s
M2 = α kg
L2 = β m
T1 = γ s
Substituting the values we get, n2 = 5γ2/αβ2 J

2.37 The volume of a liquid flowing out per second of a pipe of length l and radius r is written by a student

as where P is the pressure difference between the two ends of the pipe and η is
coefficient of viscosity of the liquid having dimensional formula ML–1T–1. Check whether the equation is
dimensionally correct.
Answer:
Dimension of the given physical quantity is
[V] = dimension of volume/dimension of time = [L3]/[T]=[ML-1T-2]
LHS = [L3T-1]
RHS = [L3T-1]
LHS = RHS
Therefore, the equation is correct.

2.38 A physical quantity X is related to four measurable quantities a, b, c and d as follows: X = a2 b3 c5/2 d–2.
The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%, respectively. What is
the percentage error in quantity X ? If the value of X calculated on the basis of the above relation is 2.763,
to what value should you round off the result.
Answer:
The given physical quantity, X = a2 b3 c5/2 d–2
Percentage error in X = (∆x/x)(100)
Percentage error in a = (∆a/a)(100) = 1%
Percentage error in b = (∆b/b)(100) = 2%
Percentage error in c = (∆c/c)(100) = 3%
Percentage error in d = (∆d/d)(100) = 4%
Maximum percentage error in X = ±23.5%
X should have two significant values, therefore, X = 2.8

2.39 In the expression P = E l2 m–5 G–2, E, m, l and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and
gravitational constant, respectively. Show that P is a dimensionless quantity.
Answer:
From the problem, P = E l2 m–5 G–2
E is the energy = [ML2T-2]
m is the mass = [M]
L is the angular momentum = [ML2T1]
G is the gravitational constant = [M-1L2T2]
Substituting the values we get, [P] = [M0L0T0]

2.40 If velocity of light c, Planck’s constant h and gravitational constant G are taken as fundamental
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

quantities then express mass, length and time in terms of dimensions of these quantities.
Answer:
Principle of homogeneity is used for solving this problem.
[h] = [ML2T1]
[c] = [LT-1]
[G] = [M-1L3T-2]
Let m = kcahbGc
Solving the above we get,
m = kc1/2h1/2G-1/2 = k√ch/G

Let L = kcahbGc
Solving the above we get,
L = kc-3/2h1/2G1/2 = k√hG/c3

Let T = cahbGc
Solving the above we get,
L = kc-5/2h1/2G1/2 = k√hG/c5

2.41. An artificial satellite is revolving around a planet of mass M and radius R, in a circular orbit of radius
r. From Kepler’s third law about the period of a satellite around a common central body, square of the
period of revolution T is proportional to the cube of the radius of the orbit r. Show using dimensional
analysis, that T = k/R √r3/g where k is a dimensionless constant and g is acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
From Kepler’s third law, we know that
T2 a3 where T2 is the square of time period of the satellite revolving around a planet and is proportional to the
cube of the radius of the orbit r3.
T2 r3
T r3/2
T depends on R and g
T r3/2gaRb

2.42. In an experiment to estimate the size of a molecule of oleic acid, 1mL of oleic acid is dissolved in 19mL
of alcohol. Then 1mL of this solution is diluted to 20mL by adding alcohol. Now, 1 drop of this diluted
solution is placed on water in a shallow trough. The solution spreads over the surface of water forming one
molecule thick layer. Now, lycopodium powder is sprinkled evenly over the film we can calculate the
thickness of the film which will give us the size of oleic acid molecule.
Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
a) Why do we dissolve oleic acid in alcohol?
b) What is the role of lycopodium powder?
c) What would be the volume of oleic acid in each mL of solution prepared?
d) How will you calculate the volume of n drops of this solution of oleic.
e) What will be the volume of oleic acid in one drop of this solution?
Answer:
a) Oleic is dissolved in the alcohol because it does not get dissolved in water.

b) With the help of lycopodium powder one can measure the area over which the oleic acid spreads as
lycopodium powder clears the circular area when oleic acid is added.

c) 20mL of oleic acid contains 1mL of oleic acid.

 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

This means that each mL of solution contains 1/20 mL of oleic acid.

1mL of this solution is diluted to 20mL by adding alcohol.
Therefore, each mL of solution prepared, volume of oleic acid = (1/20)(1/20) = 1/400mL

d) To calculate the volume of n drops of this solution of oleic, burette and measuring cylinder can be used.

e) The volume of oleic acid in one drop = 1/400mL

2.43. a) How many astronomical units (AU) make 1 parsec?

b) Consider the sun like a star at a distance of 2 parsec. When it is seen through a telescope with 100
magnification, what should be the angular size of the star? Sun appears to be (1/2) degree from the earth.
Due to atmospheric fluctuations, eye cannot resolve objects smaller than 1 arc minute.
c) Mars has approximately half of the earth’s diameter. When it is closer to the earth it is at about ½ AU
from the earth. Calculate at what size it will disappear when seen through the same telescope.
Answer:
a) From the definition, 1 parsec is equal to the distance at which 1 AU long arc subtends an angle of 1s.
Using the definition, we can say that
1 parsec = (3600)(180)/π AU
= 206265 AU
= 2 × 105 AU

b) Given that the sun’s angular diameter from the earth is 1/2 degree at 1 AU.
Angular diameter of the sun like star at a distance of 2 parsec
= [(1/2)/(2)(2)(105)] degree
= 1/8 × 10-5 degree
= 7.5 × 10-5 arcmin

When the sun appears like a start through the telescope that has a magnification of 100, the angular diameter of
the star is
= (100)(7.5 × 10-5)
= 7.5 × 10-3 arcmin
But the angular size of the sun appears as 1 arcmin to the eyes as the eyes cannot resolve smaller than 1 arcmin
because of atmospheric fluctuations.

c) Given that,
Dmars/Dearth = 1/2
We also know that Dearth/Dsun = 1/100
Therefore, Dmars/Dsun = 1/2 × 1/100
At 1AU, the sun’s diameter = (1/2) degree
Therefore, diameter of mars = (1/400) degree
At 1/2 AU, mars diameter = (1/400)(2) = (1/200) degree
With 100 magnification, mars diameter = (1/2) degree = 30’
Therefore, it can be said that the value is larger than the resolution limit because of atmospheric fluctuations and
hence it looks magnified.

2.44. Einstein’s mass-energy relation emerging out of his famous theory of relativity relates mass (m) to
energy (E) as E = mc2, where c is speed of light in vacuum. At the nuclear level, the magnitudes of energy
are very small. The energy at nuclear level is usually measured in MeV where 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10-13J, the
masses are measured in unified equivalent of 1u is 931.5 MeV.
a) Show that the energy equivalent of 1 u is 931.5 MeV.
 Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

b) A student writes the relation as 1 u = 931.5 MeV. The teacher points out that the relation is
dimensionally incorrect. Write the correct relation.
Answer:
a) Using Einstein’s mass-energy relation, the energy that is equivalent to the given mass can be calculated
1 amu = 1 u = 1.67 × 10-27 kg
Applying E = mc2
E = 931.5 MeV

b) As E = mc2
m = E/c2
Which means that 1u = 931.5 MeV/c2
The dimensionally correct relation of 1 amu = 931.5 MeV
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

2.1 Fill in the blanks.

(a) The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to …..m3

(b) The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to…(mm)2
(c) A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h–1 covers….m in 1 s

(d) The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is ….g cm–3 or ….kg m–3.

Answer:

(a) Volume of cube, V = (1 cm)3 = (10-2 m)3 = 10-6 m3

(b) Surface area = curved area + area on top /base = 2πrh + 2πr2 = 2πr (h + r)

r = 2 cm = 20 mm

h = 10 cm = 100 mm

Surface area = 2πr (h + r) = 2 x 3.14 x 20 (100 + 20) = 15072 mm2

Hence, the answer is 15072 mm2

(c) Speed of vehicle = 18 km/h

1 km = 1000 m

1 hr = 60 x 60 = 3600 s

1 km/hr = 1000 m/3600 s = 5/18 m/s

18 km/h = = (18 x 1000)/3600

= 5 m/s

Distance travelled by the vehicle in 1 s = 5 m

(d) The relative density of lead is 11.3 g cm-3

=> 11.3 x 103 kg m-3 [1 kilogram = 103g, 1 meter = 102 cm]

=> 11.3 x 103 kg m-4

2.2 Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units.

(a) 1 kg m2 s–2 = ….g cm2 s–2

(b) 1 m = ….. ly
(c) 3.0 m s–2 = …. km h–2
(d) G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2 = …. (cm)3s–2 g–1
Answer:

(a) 1 kg m2 s–2 = ….g cm2 s–2

 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

1 kg m2 s-2 = 1kg x 1m2 x 1s -2

We know that,

1kg = 103

1m = 100cm = 102cm

When the values are put together, we get

1kg x 1m2 x 1s-2 = 103g x (102cm)2 x 1s-2 = 103g x 104 cm2 x 1s-2 = 107 gcm2s-2

=>1kg m2 s-2 = 107 gcm2s-2

(b) 1 m = ….. ly

Using the formula,

Distance = speed x time

Speed of light = 3 x 108 m/s

Time = 1 yr = 365 days = 365 x 24 hr = 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 sec

Put these values in the formula mentioned above, and we get

One light year distance = (3 x 108 m/s) x (365 x 24 x 60 x 60) = 9.46×1015m

9.46 x 1015 m = 1ly

So that, 1m = 1/9.46 x 1015ly

=> 1.06 x 10-16ly

=>1 meter = 1.06 x 10-16ly

(c) 3.0 m s–2 = …. km h–2

1 km = 1000m so that 1m = 1/1000 km

3.0 m s-2 = 3.0 (1/1000 km) (1/3600 hour) -2 = 3.0 x 10-3 km x ((1/3600)-2h-2)

= 3 x 10-3km x (3600)2 hr-2 = 3.88 x 104 km h-2

=> 3.0 m s-2 = 3.88 x 104 km h-2

(d) G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2 = …. (cm)3s–2 g–1

G = 6.67 x 10-11 N m2 (kg)-2

We know that,

1N = 1kg m s-2
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

1 kg = 103 g

1m = 100cm= 102 cm

Put the values together, we get

=> 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2 kg-2 = 6.67 x 10-11 x (1kg m s -2) (1m2) (1kg-2)

Solve the following, and cancelling out the units, we get

=> 6.67 x 10-11 x (1kg -1 x 1m3 x 1s-2)

Put the above values together to convert kg to g and m to cm.

=> 6.67 x 10-11 x (103g)-1 x (102 cm)3 x (1s-2)

=> 6.67 x 10-8 cm3 s-2 g -1

=>G = 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2(kg)-2 = 6.67 x 10-8 (cm)3 s-2 g -1

2.3 A calorie is a unit of heat (energy in transit), which equals about 4.2 J, where 1J =1 kg m2 s–2.
Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals α kg, the unit of length
equals β m, and the unit of time is γ s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude of 4.2 α–1 β–2 γ2 in terms of
the new units.

Answer

1 calorie = 4.2 J = 4.2 kg m2 s–2

The standard formula for the conversion is

Here, x = 1, y = 2 and z =- 2

M1 = 1 kg, L1 = 1m, T1 = 1s

and M2 = α kg, L2 = β m, T2 = γ s
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

2.4 Explain this statement clearly:

“To call a dimensional quantity ‘large’ or ‘small’ is meaningless without specifying a standard for
comparison”. In view of this, reframe the following statements wherever necessary.
(a) atoms are very small objects
(b) a jet plane moves with great speed
(c) the mass of Jupiter is very large
(d) the air inside this room contains a large number of molecules
(e) a proton is much more massive than an electron
(f) the speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.

(a) Atoms are small object

Answer:

(a) In comparison with a soccer ball, atoms are very small

(b) When compared with a bicycle, a jet plane travels at high speed.

(c) When compared with the mass of a cricket ball, the mass of Jupiter is very large.

(d) As compared with the air inside a lunch box, the air inside the room has a large number of molecules.

(e) A proton is massive when compared with an electron.

(f) Like comparing the speed of a bicycle and a jet plane, the speed of light is more than the speed of sound.

2.5 A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in a vacuum is unity. What is the
distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover
this distance?

Answer:

Distance between them = Speed of light x Time taken by light to cover the distance

Speed of light = 1 unit

Time taken = 8 x 60 + 20 = 480 + 20 = 500s

The distance between Sun and Earth = 1 x 500 = 500 units

2.6 Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length?
(a) a vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale
(b) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
(c) an optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength of light

Answer:

(a) Least count = 1-

 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

2.7. A student measures the thickness of a human hair by looking at it through a

microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average width of the
hair in the field of view of the microscope is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate on the thickness of the
hair?

Answer

Magnification of the microscope = 100

The average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope = 3.5 mm

Actual thickness of hair =3.5 mm/100 = 0.035 mm

2. 8. Answer the following :

(a) You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of
the thread?
(b) A screw gauge has a pitch of 1.0 mm and 200 divisions on the circular scale. Do
you think it is possible to arbitrarily increase the accuracy of the screw gauge by
increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale?
(c) The mean diameter of a thin brass rod is to be measured by vernier callipers. Why
is a set of 100 measurements of the diameter expected to yield a more reliable
estimate than a set of 5 measurements only?

Answer

(a) The thread should be wrapped around a pencil a number of times to form a coil having its turns touching
each other closely. Measure the length of this coil with a metre scale. If L be the length of the coil and n be
the number of turns of the coil, then the diameter of the thread is given by the relation

Diameter = L/n.
(b) Least count of the screw gauge = Pitch/number of divisions on the circular scale
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

So, theoretically, when the number of divisions on the circular scale is increased, the least count of the
screw gauge will decrease. Hence, the accuracy of the screw gauge will increase. However, this is only a
theoretical idea. Practically, there will be many other difficulties when the number of turns is increased.

(c) The probability of making random errors can be reduced to a larger extent in 100 observations than in
the case of 5 observations.

2.9 . The photograph of a house occupies an area of 1.75 cm2 on a 35 mm slide. The slide is projected
onto a screen, and the area of the house on the screen is 1.55 m2. What is the linear magnification of
the projector-screen arrangement?

Answer

Arial Magnification = Area of the image/Area of the object

= 1.55/1.75 x 104

= 8.857x 103

Linear Magnification = √Arial magnification

= √8.857x 103

= 94. 1

2.10 State the number of significant figures in the following:

(a) 0.007 m2
(b) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(c) 0.2370 g cm–3
(d) 6.320 J
(e) 6.032 N m–2
(f) 0.0006032 m2

Answer:

(a) 0.007 m2

The given value is 0.007 m2.

Only one significant digit. It is 7.

(b) 2.64 × 1024 kg

Answer:

The value is 2.64 × 1024 kg

For the determination of significant values, the power of 10 is irrelevant. The digits 2, 6, and 4 are significant
figures. The number of significant digits is 3.

(c) 0.2370 g cm–3

Answer:
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

The value is 0.2370 g cm–3

For the given value with decimals, all the numbers 2, 3, 7, and 0 are significant. The 0 before the decimal
point is not significant

(d) All the numbers are significant. The number of significant figures here is 4.

(e) 6, 0, 3, and 2 are significant figures. Therefore, the number of significant figures is 4.

(f) 6, 0, 3, and 2 are significant figures. The number of significant figures is 4.

2. 11. The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005 m, and
2.01 cm, respectively. Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.

Answer

Area of the rectangular sheet = length x breadth

= 4.234 x 1.005 = 4.255 m2= 4.3 m2

The volume of the rectangular sheet = length x breadth x thickness = 4.234 x 1.005 x 2.01 x 10-2 = 8.55 x
10-2 m3.

2.12 The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.30 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15
g and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is

(a) the total mass of the box,

(b) the difference in the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures?

Answer:

The mass of the box = 2.30 kg

and the mass of the first gold piece = 20.15 g

The mass of the second gold piece = 20.17 g

The total mass = 2.300 + 0.2015 + 0.2017 = 2.7032 kg

Since 1 is the least number of decimal places, the total mass = 2.7 kg.

The mass difference = 20.17 – 20.15 = 0.02 g

Since 2 is the least number of decimal places, the total mass = 0.02 g.

2.13 A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows:

P=
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%, respectively. What is
the percentage error in the quantity P? If the value of P calculated using the above relation turns out
to be 3.763, to what value should you round off the result?

Answer:
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

2.14 A book with many printing errors contains four different formulas for the displacement y of a
particle undergoing a certain periodic motion:

(a) y = a sin (
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

Dimension of y = M0 L1 T0

The dimension of a = M0 L1 T0

Dimension of sin

Since the dimensions on both sides are equal, the formula is dimensionally correct.

(b) It is dimensionally incorrect, as the dimensions on both sides are not equal.

(c) It is dimensionally incorrect, as the dimensions on both sides are not equal.

(d) y =

2.15 A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ mo of a particle in terms
of its speed v and the speed of light, c (This relation first arose as a consequence of special relativity
due to Albert Einstein). A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but forgets where to put the
constant c. He writes :

m=
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

Answer:

The relation given is

2.16 The unit of length convenient on the atomic scale is known as an angstrom and is denoted by
Å: 1 Å = 10–10 m. The size of a hydrogen atom is about 0.5 Å. What is the total atomic volume in m3 of
a mole of hydrogen atoms?

Answer:

hydrogen atom radius = 0.5 A = 0.5 x 10-10 m

Volume =
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

= 0.524 x 10-30 m3

1 hydrogen mole contains 6.023 x 1023 hydrogen atoms.

Volume of 1 mole of hydrogen atom = 6.023 x 1023 x 0.524 x 10-30

= 3.16 x 10-7 m3.

2.17 One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume).
What is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen (Take the size of the
hydrogen molecule to be about 1 Å)? Why is this ratio so large?

Answer:

Radius = 0.5 A = 0.5 x 10-10 m

Volume =

= 0.524 x 10-30 m3

1 hydrogen mole contains 6.023 x 1023 hydrogen atoms.

Volume of 1 mole of hydrogen atom = 6.023 x 1023 x 0.524 x 10-30

= 3.16 x 10-7 m3

Vm = 22.4 L = 22.4 x 10-3 m3

The molar volume is 7.1 x 104 times more than the atomic volume. Hence, the inter-atomic separation in
hydrogen gas is larger than the size of the hydrogen atom.

2.18 Explain this common observation clearly: If you look out of the window of a fast-moving train,
the nearby trees, houses etc., seem to move rapidly in a direction opposite to the train’s motion, but
the distant objects (hilltops, the Moon, the stars etc.) seem to be stationary (In fact, since you are
aware that you are moving, these distant objects seem to move with you).
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

Answer:

An imaginary line which joins the object and the observer’s eye is called the line of sight. When we observe
the nearby objects, they move fast in the opposite direction as the line of sight changes constantly, whereas
the distant objects seem to be stationary as the line of sight does not change rapidly.

2.19. The principle of ‘parallax’ in section 2.3.1 is used in the determination of distances of very
distant stars. The baseline AB is the line joining the Earth’s two locations six months apart in its
orbit around the Sun. That is, the baseline is about the diameter of the Earth’s orbit ≈ 3 × 1011m.
However, even the nearest stars are so distant that with such a long baseline, they show parallax
only of the order of 1” (second) of arc or so. A parsec is a convenient unit of length on the
astronomical scale. It is the distance of an object that will show a parallax of 1” (second of arc) from
opposite ends of a baseline equal to the distance from the Earth to the Sun. How much is a parsec in
terms of metres?

Answer

Diameter of Earth’s orbit = 3 × 1011 m

Radius of Earth’s orbit r = 1.5 × 1011 m

Let the distance parallax angle be θ=1″ (s) = 4.847 × 10–6 rad.

Let the distance of the star be D.

Parsec is defined as the distance at which the average radius of the Earth’s orbit subtends an angle of 1″

Therefore, D = 1.5 × 1011 /4.847 × 10–6= 0.309 x 1017

Hence 1 parsec ≈ 3.09 × 1016 m.

2. 20. The nearest star to our solar system is 4.29 light-years away. How much is this
distance in terms of parsecs? How much parallax would this star (named Alpha
Centauri) show when viewed from two locations of the Earth six months apart in its
orbit around the Sun?

Answer

1 light year is the distance travelled by light in a year.

1 light year = 3 x 108 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 = 9.46 x 1015 m

Therefore, distance travelled by light in 4.29 light years = 4.29 x 9.46 x 1015 = 4.058 x 1016 m

Parsec is also a unit of distance

1 parsec = 3.08 x 1016 m
Therefore, the distance travelled by light in parsec is given as

4.29 light years =4.508 x 1016/3.80 x 1016 = 1.318 parsec = 1.32 parsec

Using the relation,

θ=d/D
here,
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

d is the diameter of Earths orbit, d = 3 × 1011 m

D is the distance of the star from the earth, D = 405868.32 × 1011 m
∴ θ = 3 × 1011 / 405868.32 × 1011 = 7.39 × 10-6 rad
But the angle covered in 1 sec = 4.85 × 10–6 rad
∴ 7.39 × 10-6 rad = 7.39 × 10-6 / 4.85 × 10-6 = 1.52″

2.21 Precise measurements of physical quantities are a need for science. For example, to ascertain
the speed of an aircraft, one must have an accurate method to find its positions at closely separated
instants of time. This was the actual motivation behind the discovery of radar in World War II. Think
of different examples in modern science where precise measurements of length, time, mass etc., are
needed. Also, wherever you can, give a quantitative idea of the precision needed.

Answer:

Precise measurement is essential for the development of science. The ultra-short laser pulse is used for
measurement of time intervals. X-ray spectroscopy is used to find the interatomic separation. To measure
the mass of atoms, the mass spectrometer is developed.

2.23 The Sun is a hot plasma (ionised matter) with its inner core at a temperature exceeding 107 K,
and its outer surface at a temperature of about 6000 K. At these high temperatures, no substance
remains in a solid or liquid phase. In what range do you expect the mass density of the Sun to be, in
the range of densities of solids and liquids or gases? Check if your guess is correct from the
following data: a mass of the Sun = 2.0 × 1030 kg, the radius of the Sun = 7.0 × 108 m.

Answer:

Mass = 2 x 1030 kg

Radius = 7 x 108 m

Volume V =
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

The density is in the range of solids and liquids. Its density is due to the high gravitational attraction on the
outer layer by the inner layer of the sun.

2.24. When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million kilometres from the Earth, its angular
diameter is measured to be 35.72″ of arc. Calculate the diameter of Jupiter.

Answer:

Distance of the planet Jupiter from Earth, D= 824.7 million kilometres = 824.7 x 106 km

Angular diameter θ = 35.72 “= 35.72 x 4.85 x 10-6 rad

= 173.242 x 10-6 rad
Diameter of Jupiter d = θ x D= 173.241 x 10-6x 824.7 x 106 km
=142871 = 1.43 x 105 km

2.25. A man walking briskly in the rain with speed v must slant his umbrella forward, making an
angle θ with the vertical. A student derives the following relation between θ and v: tan θ = v and
checks that the relation has a correct limit: as v →0, θ →0, as
expected (We are assuming there is no strong wind and that the rain falls vertically
for a stationary man). Do you think this relation can be correct? If not, guess the
correct relation.

Answer

According to the principle of homogeneity of dimensional equations,

Dimensions of L.H.S. = Dimensions of R.H.S.

In relation v = tan θ, tan θ is a trigonometric function, and it is dimensionless. The dimension of v is [L1 T-1].
Therefore, this relation is incorrect.
To make the relation correct, the L.H.S. must be divided by the velocity of rain, u.

Therefore, the relation becomes

v/u= tan θ

This relation is correct dimensionally

2.26. It is claimed that two caesium clocks, if allowed to run for 100 years, free from any disturbance,
may differ by only about 0.02 s. What does this imply for the accuracy of the standard caesium clock
in measuring a time interval of 1 s?

Answer

Total time = 100 years = 100 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 s

Error in 100 years = 0.02 s

Error in 1 second=0.02/100 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

=6.34 x 10-12 s
The accuracy of the standard caesium clock in measuring a time-interval of 1 s is 10-12 s.

2.27. Estimate the average mass density of a sodium atom, assuming its size to be about 2.5 Å (Use
the known values of Avogadro’s number and the atomic mass of sodium). Compare it with the mass
density of sodium in its crystalline phase: 970 kg m–3. Are the two densities of the same order of
magnitude? If so, why?

Answer

The diameter of sodium= 2.5 A = 2.5 x 10-10 m

Therefore, the radius is 1.25 x 10-10 m

The volume of a sodium atom, V= (4/3)πr3

= (4/3) x (22/7) x (1.25 x 10-10) 3= 8.177 x 10-30 m3

Mass of one mole atom of sodium = 23 g = 23 x 10-3 kg

1 mole of sodium contains 6.023 x 1023 atoms

Therefore, the mass of one sodium atom, M= 23 x 10-3/6.023 x 1023= 3.818 x 10-26 kg

The atomic mass density of sodium, ρ= M/V

=3.818 x 10-26/8.177 x 10-30

= 0.46692 x 104= 4669.2 kg m-3

The density of sodium in its solid state is 4669.2 kg m-3, but in the crystalline phase, the density is 970 kg m-3.
Hence, both are in a different order. In the solid phase, atoms are tightly packed, but in the crystalline phase,
atoms arrange a sequence which contains a void. So, the density in the solid phase is greater than in the
crystalline phase.

2.28. The unit of length convenient on the nuclear scale is a fermi: 1 f = 10–15 m. Nuclear sizes obey
roughly the following empirical relation :
r = r0 A1/3
where r is the radius of the nucleus, A its mass number, and r0 is a constant equal to
about 1.2 f. Show that the rule implies that nuclear mass density is nearly constant
for different nuclei. Estimate the mass density of the sodium nucleus. Compare it with the average
mass density of a sodium atom obtained in Exercise. 2.27.

Answer:

The radius of the nucleus

r = r0 A1/3

ro = 1.2 f = 1.2 x 10-15 m

Considering the nucleus is spherical. Volume of nucleus

= 4/3 πr3 = 4/3 π [r0 A1/3]3 = 4/3 πr03A
Mass of nucleus = mA
m is the average mass of the nucleon.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

A is the number of nucleons.

Nuclear mass density = Mass of nucleus/Volume of the nucleus
= mA/(4/3πr3) = 3mA/4πr3 = 3mA/4πr03A
= 3m/4πr03
Using m = 1.66 x 10-27 kg and ro = 1.2 f = 1.2 x 10-15 m in the above equation
= 3 x 1.66 x 10-27 /4 x 3.14 x ( 1.2 x 10-15)3= 4.98 x 10-27/21. 703 x 10-45= 2.29 x 1017 kg/m3
So, the nuclear mass density is much larger than the atomic mass density for a sodium atom we got in 2.27.

2.29. A LASER is a source of very intense, monochromatic, and unidirectional beam of light. These
properties of laser light can be exploited to measure long distances. The distance of the Moon from
the Earth has already been determined very precisely using a laser as a source of light. A laser light
beamed at the Moon takes 2.56 s to return after reflection at the Moon’s surface. How much is the
radius of the lunar orbit around the Earth?

Answer

Time taken for the laser beam to return to Earth after reflection by the Moon’s surface = 2.56 s

The speed of laser light is c = 3 x 108 m/s.

Let d be the distance of the Moon from the Earth,

The time taken by laser signal to reach the Moon, t = 2d/c

Therefore, d = tc/2 = (2.56 x 3 x 108)/2 = 3.84 x 108 m

2. 30. A SONAR (sound navigation and ranging) uses ultrasonic waves to detect and locate objects
underwater. In a submarine equipped with a SONAR, the time delay between the generation of a
probe wave and the reception of its echo after reflection from an enemy submarine is found to be
77.0 s. What is the distance of the enemy submarine? (Speed of sound in water = 1450 m s–1).

Answer:

Speed of sound in water,v = 1450 m s–1

The time between generation and the reception of the echo after reflection, 2t= 77.0 s

Time taken for the sound waves to reach the submarine, t = 77.0/2 = 38. 5 s

Then v = d/t

Distance of enemy submarine, d = tv

Therefore, d=vt=(1450 x 38. 5) =55825 m=55.8 x 103 m or 55.8 km.

2.31. The farthest objects in our Universe discovered by modern astronomers are so distant that
light emitted by them takes billions of years to reach the Earth. These objects (known as quasars)
have many puzzling features which have not yet been satisfactorily explained. What is the distance
in km of a quasar from which light takes 3.0 billion years to reach us?

Answer
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 -
Units and Measurements

Time taken by light from the quasar to reach the observer, t = 3.0 billion years = 3.0 x 109 years = 3.0 x 109 x
365 x 24 x 60 x 60 s

= 94608000 x 109 s

= 9.46 x 1016 m

Speed of light = 3 x 108 m/s

Distance of quasar from Earth = 3.0 x 108 x 9.46 x 1016 m
= 28.38 x 1024 m

2.32. It is a well-known fact that during a total solar eclipse-the disk of the moon almost completely
covers the disk of the Sun. From this fact and the information you can gather from examples 2.3 and
2.4, determine the approximate diameter of the moon.

Answer

From examples 2.3 and 2.4, we get the following data

Distance of the Moon from Earth = 3.84 x 108 m

Distance of the Sun from Earth = 1.496 x 1011 m

Sun’s diameter = 1.39 x 109 m

Sun’s angular diameter,θ = 1920″ = 1920 x 4.85 x 10-6 rad = 9.31 x 10-3 rad [1″ = 4.85 x 10-6 rad]

During a total solar eclipse, the disc of the moon completely covers the disc of the sun, so the angular
diameter of both the sun and the moon must be equal.

Therefore, the Angular diameter of the moon, θ = 9.31 x 10-3 rad

The earth-moon distance, S = 3.8452 x 108 m

Therefore, the diameter of the moon, D = θ x S

= 9.31 x 10-3 x 3.8452 x 108 m = 35.796 x 105 m
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Multiple Choice Questions (Type-1)

1. Two students performed the same experiment separately and each one of
them recorded two readings of mass which are given below. The correct reading
of mass is 3.0 g. Based on given data, mark the correct option out of the
following statements.
Student Readings

(i) (ii)
A 3.01 2.99
B 3.05 2.95

(i) Results of both the students are neither accurate nor precise.
(ii) Results of student A are both precise and accurate.
(iii) Results of student B are neither precise nor accurate.
(iv) Results of student B are both precise and accurate.

Solution:
Option (ii) is the answer.

2. A measured temperature on the Fahrenheit scale is 200 °F. What will this reading
be on a Celsius scale?
(i) 40 °C
(ii) 94 °C
(iii) 93.3 °C
(iv) 30 °C
Solution:
Option (iii) is the answer.

3. What will be the molarity of a solution, which contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per
500 mL?
(i) 4 mol L-1
(ii) 20 molL-1
(iii) 0.2 molL-1
(iv) 2molL-1
Solution:
Option (iii) is the answer.

4. If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity of

the solution obtained?
(i) 1.5 M
(ii) 1.66 M
(iii) 0.017 M
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

(iv) 1.59 M
Solution:
Option (ii) is the answer.

5. The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro

number. Which of the following element contains the greatest number of
atoms?
(i) 4g He
(ii) 46g Na
(iii) 0.40g Ca
(iv) 12g He
Solution:
Option (iv) is the answer.

6. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in the blood is 0.9 g L-1, what will be the
molarity of glucose in the blood?
(i) 5 M
(ii) 50 M
(iii) 0.005 M
(iv) 0.5 M
Solution:
Option (iii) is the answer.

7. What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in
500 g of water?
(i) 0.1 m
(ii) 1 M
(iii) 0.5 m
(iv) 1 m
Solution:
Option (iv) is the answer.

8. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023 atoms/molecules. Number

of molecules of H2SO4 present in 100 mL of 0.02M H2SO4 solution is ______.
(i) 12.044 × 1020 molecules
(ii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
(iii) 1 × 1023 molecules
(iv) 12.044 × 1023molecules
Solution:
Option (i) is the answer.

9. What is the mass per cent of carbon in carbon dioxide?

(i) 0.034%
(ii) 27.27%
(iii) 3.4%
(iv) 28.7%
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Solution:
Option (ii) is the answer.

10. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and
180 g respectively. What will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(i) C9H18O9
(ii) CH2O
(iii) C6H12O6
(iv) C2H4O2
Solution:
Option (iii) is the answer.

11. If the density of a solution is 3.12 g mL-1, the mass of 1.5 mL solution in
significant figures is _______.
(i) 4.7g
(ii) 4680 × 10 -3g
(iii) 4.680g
(iv) 46.80g
Solution:
Option (i) is the answer

12. Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect?

(i) A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.
(ii) A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by
physical methods of separation.
(iii) A compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements.
(iv) The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.
Solution:
Option (iii) is the answer.

13. Which of the following statements is correct about the reaction given below:
4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(g)
(i) The total mass of iron and oxygen in reactants = total mass of iron and
oxygen in product therefore it follows the law of conservation of mass.
(ii) The total mass of reactants = total mass of product; therefore, the law of multiple
proportions is followed.
(iii) Amount of Fe2O3 can be increased by taking any one of the reactants
(iron or oxygen) in excess.
(iv) Amount of Fe2O3 produced will decrease if the amount of any one of the
reactants (iron or oxygen) is taken in excess.
Solution:
Option (i) is the answer.

14. Which of the following reactions is not correct according to the law of
conservation of mass.
(i) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) →2MgO(s)
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

(ii) C3H8(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g)

(iii) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s)
(iv) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O (g)
Solution:
Option (ii) is the answer.

15. Which of the following statements indicates that the law of multiple proportions is
being followed.
(i) Sample of carbon dioxide taken from any source will always have carbon
and oxygen in the ratio 1:2.
(ii) Carbon forms two oxides namely CO2 and CO, where masses of oxygen
which combine with a fixed mass of carbon are in the simple ratio 2:1.
(iii) When magnesium burns in oxygen, the amount of magnesium taken
for the reaction is equal to the amount of magnesium in magnesium
oxide formed.
(iv) At constant temperature and pressure, 200 mL of hydrogen will combine
with 100 mL oxygen to produce 200 mL of water vapour.
Solution:
Option (ii) is the answer.

Multiple Choice Questions (Type-11)

In the following questions, two or more options may be correct.

16. One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to _______.

(i) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of oxygen
(ii) 6.022 × 1023 atoms of oxygen
(iii) 16 g of oxygen
(iv) 32 g of oxygen
Solution:
Option (i) and (iv) are the answers.

17. Sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide as follows:

H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4+ 2H2O
When 1L of 0.1M sulphuric acid solution is allowed to react with 1L of 0.1M
sodium hydroxide solution, the amount of sodium sulphate formed and its
molarity in the solution obtained is
(i) 0.1 mol L-1
(ii) 7.10 g
(iii) 0.025 mol L-1
(iv) 3.55 g
Solution:
Option (ii) and (iii) are the answers.

18. Which of the following pairs have the same number of atoms?
(i) 16 g of O2(g) and 4 g of H2(g)
(ii) 16 g of O2 and 44 g of CO2
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

(iii) 28 g of N2 and 32 g of O2
(iv) 12 g of C(s) and 23 g of Na(s)
Solution:
Option (iii) and (iv) are the answers.

19. Which of the following solutions have the same concentration?

(i) 20 g of NaOH in 200 mL of solution
(ii) 0.5 mol of KCl in 200 mL of solution
(iii) 40 g of NaOH in 100 mL of solution
(iv) 20 g of KOH in 200 mL of solution
Solution:
Option (i) and (ii) are the answers.

20. 16 g of oxygen has the same number of molecules as in

(i) 16 g of CO
(ii) 28 g of N2
(iii) 14 g of N2
(iv) 1.0 g of H2
Solution:
Option (iii) and (iv) are the answers.

21. Which of the following terms is unitless?

(i) Molality
(ii) Molarity
(iii) Mole fraction
(iv) Mass per cent
Solution:
Option (iii) and (iv) are the answers.

22. One of the statements of Dalton's atomic theory is given below:

"Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in a fixed
ratio"
Which of the following laws is not related to this statement?
(i) Law of conservation of mass
(ii) Law of definite proportions
(iii) Law of multiple proportions
Solution:
Option (i) and (iv)

III. Short Answer Type

23. What will be the mass of one atom of C-12 in grams?
Solution:
1 mole of carbon atom = 12g= 6.022 × 1023 atoms.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

24. How many significant figures should be present in the answer to the following
calculations?
2.5 1.25 3.5/2.01
Solution:
Two significant figures should be present in this.
Since the least number of significant figures from the given figure is 2 (in 2.5 and 3.5).

25. What is the symbol for the SI unit of a mole? How is the mole defined?
Solution:
The symbol for the SI unit of the mole is mol. A mole is defined as the amount of substance that
contains as many entities as there are atoms in 12g carbon.

26. What is the difference between molality and molarity?

Solution:
Molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 litre of the solution. Molality is the number of
moles of solute present in 1kg of the solvent.

27. Calculate the mass percent of calcium, phosphorus and oxygen in calcium
phosphate Ca3(PO4)
Solution:
Molecular mass of Ca3(PO4) = 3*40+2*31+8*16 =310
Mass per cent of Ca = 3*40/310*100 = 38.71%
Mass per cent of P = 2*31/310*100 = 20%
Mass per cent of O = 8*16/310 = 41.29%

28. 45.4 L of dinitrogen reacted with 22.7 L of dioxygen and 45.4 L of nitrous
oxide was formed. The reaction is given below:
2N2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O(g)
Which law is being obeyed in this experiment? Write the statement of the law?
Solution:
The above experiment proves Gay-Lussac's law which states that gases combine or produced in a
chemical reaction in a simple whole-number ratio by volume provided that all gases are the same
temperature and pressure.

29. If two elements can combine to form more than one compound, the masses of
one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element, are in whole-number ratio.
(a) Is this statement true?
(b) If yes, according to which law?
(c) Give one example related to this law.
Solution:
(a) Yes, the statement is true.
(b) According to the law of multiple proportions
(c), Hydrogen and oxygen react to form water and hydrogen peroxide
H2 + 1/2O2 → H2O
H2 + O2 → H2O2
Masses of oxygen which combine the fixed mass of hydrogen are in the ratio 16:32 or 1
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

30. Calculate the average atomic mass of hydrogen using the following data :

Isotope % Natural abundance Molar mass

1H 99.985 1
2H 0.015 2

Solution:
Average atomic mass = 99.985*1+0.015*2/100
=099.985*1+0.015*2/100
=1.00015u

31. Hydrogen gas is prepared in the laboratory by reacting dilute HCl with
granulated zinc. Following reaction takes place.
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP when 32.65 g of zinc
reacts with HCl. 1 mol of a gas occupies 22.7 L volume at STP; atomic mass of
Zn = 65.3 u.
Solution:
1 mol of gas occupies = 22.7L Volume at STP atomic mass of Zn = 65.3u
From the above equation,
65.3g of Zn when reacts with HCl produces = 22.7L H2 at STP
Therefore, 32.65g of Zn when reacts with HCl will produce = 22.7 * 32.65/65.3 =11.35L of H2 at STP

32. The density of 3 molal solutions of NaOH is 1.110 g mL–1. Calculate the molarity
of the solution.
Solution:
3 molal solution of NaOH = 3 moles of NaOH dissolved in 1000g water
3 mole of NaOH = 3*40g = 120g
Density of solution = 1.110gmL-1
Volume = mass/density = 1120g/1.110gmL-1 =1.009L
Molarity of the solution = 3/1.009 = 2.97M

33. The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature, then, will the molality
of the solution be affected by temperature? Give a reason for your answer.
Solution:
Mass does not change as the temperature changes. Therefore, the molality of a solution does not change.
Molality = moles of solute/ weight of solvent (in g) *1000

34. If 4 g of NaOH dissolves in 36 g of H2O, calculate the mole fraction of each

component in the solution. Also, determine the molarity of solution (specific
Gravity of solution is 1g mL–1).
Solution:
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Mole fraction of H2O = No; of moles of H2O/ Total no: of moles (H2O+NaOH)
No: of moles of H2O = 36/18=2moles
No: of moles of NaOH = 4/40=0.1mol
Total no: of moles = 2+0.1= 2.1
Mole fraction of H2O = 2/2.1 = 0.952
Mole fraction of NaOH = 0.1/2.1 = 0.048
Mass of solution = Mass of H2O + Mass of NaOH = 36+4=40G
Volume of the solution = 40/1 = 40mL
Molarity = 0.1/0.04 = 2.5M

35. The reactant which is entirely consumed in the reaction is known as limiting reagent.
In the reaction 2A + 4B → 3C + 4D, when 5 moles of A react with 6 moles of B,
then
(i) which is the limiting reagent?
(ii) calculate the amount of C formed?
Solution;
(i) B will be the limiting reagent as it gives a lesser amount of product.
(ii) Let B is completely consumed
4 mol B gives 3 mol C
6 mol B will give 3/4 *6 mol C =4.5 mol C

Match The Following Type

36.

(i) 88 g of CO2 (a) 0.25 mol

(ii) 6.022 ×1023 molecules of H2O (b) 2 mol
(iii) 5.6 litres of O2 at STP (c) 1 mol
(iv) 96 g of O2 (d) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
(v) 1 mol of any gas (e) 3 mol

Solution:
A→a
B→c
C→a
D→e
E→d

37. Match the following

Physical quantity Unit
(i) Molarity (a) g mL–1
(ii) Mole fraction (b) mol
(iii) Mole (c) Pascal
(iv) Molality (d) Unitless
(v) Pressure (e) mol L–1
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

(vi) Luminous intensity (f) Candela

(vii) Density (g) mol kg–1
(viii) Mass (h) Nm–1
(i) kg

Solution:
(i → e)
(ii → d)
(iii → b)
(iv → g)
(v → c)
(vi → f)
(vii → a)
(viii → i)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a
statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the
choices given below each question.

38. Assertion (A): The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R): The empirical formula represents the simplest whole-number
the ratio of various atoms present in a compound.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) A is true but R is false.
(iii) A is false but R is true.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
Solution:
Option (i) is correct.

39. Assertion (A): One atomic mass unit is defined as one-twelfth of the mass of
one carbon-12 atom.
Reason (R): Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundant isotope of carbon
and has been chosen as the standard.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
Solution:
Option (ii) is correct. Carbon-12 is considered a standard for defining the atomic and molecular mass.

40. Assertion (A): Significant figures for 0.200 is 3 whereas for 200 it is 1.
Reason (R): Zero at the end or right of a number are significantly provided
they are not on the right side of the decimal point.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
Solution:
Option (iii) is correct. Significant figures for 0.200 = 3 and for 200 =1
Zero at the end of a number without decimal point may or may not be significant depending on the
accuracy of the measurement.

41. Assertion (A): Combustion of 16 g of methane gives 18 g of water.

Reason (R): In the combustion of methane, water is one of the products.
(i) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(ii) A is true but R is false.
(iii) A is false but R is true.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
Solution:
Option (iii) is correct.
16g of CH4 on complete combustion will give 36g of water.

Long Answer Type Question

42. A vessel contains 1.6 g of dioxygen at STP (273.15K, 1 atm pressure). The
gas is now transferred to another vessel at a constant temperature, where
the pressure becomes half of the original pressure. Calculate
(i) the volume of the new vessel.
(ii) a number of molecules of dioxygen.
Solution:
(i) Moles of oxygen = 1.6/32 = 0.05mol
At STP, 1 mol of O2 = 22.4L
Then volume of O2 = 22.4*0.05=1.12L
V1 = 1.12L
V2 =?
P1 = 1atm
P2 = ½ = 0.5atm
According to Boyle's law, p1V1 = p2V2
Substituting the values
V2 = 1*1.12/0.5= 2.24L
(ii) No of molecules in 1.6g or 0.005mol = 6.022* 1023 * 0.05 = 3.011* 1022

43. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 and CO2 according
to the reaction given below:
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
What mass of CaCl2 will be formed when 250 mL of 0.76 M HCl reacts with
1000 g of CaCO3? Name the limiting reagent. Calculate the number of moles
of CaCl2 formed in the reaction.
Solution:
No: of moles of HCl taken = MV/1000 = 0.76*250/1000 = 0.19
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 11 Chemistry
Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry

No: of moles of CaCO3 = Mass/Molar mass = 1000/100 = 10

1. When CaCO3 is completely consumed
1 mol of CaCO3 = 1 mol CaCl2
10 mol CaCO3 = 10mol CaCl2
2. When HCl is completely consumed.
2 molHCl = 1 mol CaCl2
0.19mol HCl = ½ *0.19mol CaCl2 = 0.095mol CaCl2
HCl will be the limiting reagent and the number of moles of CaCl2 formed will be 0.095mol

44. Define the law of multiple proportions. Explain it with two examples. How
does this law point to the existence of atoms?
Solution:

When two elements combine to form two or more chemical compounds, then the masses of one of the
elements which combine with a fixed mass of the other bear a simple ratio to one another is the law of
multiple proportions.
For example, carbon combines with oxygen to form two compounds they are carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide
The masses of oxygen which combine with a fixed mass of carbon in carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide are 32 and 16. Therefore oxygen bear: 32:16 ratio or 2:1
Example 2: Sulphur combines with oxygen to form sulphur trioxide and sulphur dioxide
The masses of oxygen which combine with a fixed mass of sulphur in SO3 and SO2 are 48 and 32.
Therefore oxygen bear a ratio of 48:32 or 3:2

45. A box contains some identical red coloured balls, labelled as A, each weighing
2 grams. Another box contains identical blue coloured balls, labelled as B,
each weighing 5 grams. Consider the combinations AB, AB2, A2B and A2B3
and show that the law of multiple proportions is applicable.
Solution:
AB ab2 A,B A2B3

Mass of A (in g) 2 2 4 415

Mass of B (in g) 5 10 5

Masses of B which combine with a fixed mass of A are

10g, 20g, 5g, 15g
2 : 4 : 1 : 3
This is the simple whole-number ratio.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Exercise:
Q 1. Calculate the molar mass of the following:
(i) CH4 (ii) H2O (iii) CO2

Ans.

(i) CH4:
Molecular mass of CH4 = Atomic mass of C + 4 x Atomic mass of H
= 12 + 4 x 1
= 16 u

(ii) H2O:
Molar mass of water H2O
Atomic mass of H = 1
Atomic mass of O = 16
H2O = 2xH+1xO
Molar mass of water = 2x1+16 = 18g/mol

(iii) CO2:
Molecular mass of CO2 = Atomic mass of C + 2 x Atomic mass of O
= 12 + 2 x 16
= 44 u

Q2. Calculate the mass per cent of different elements present in sodium sulphate (Na2SO4).

Ans.
Now for Na2SO4.
Molar mass of Na2SO4
= [(2 x 23.0) + (32.066) + 4(16.00)]
= 142.066 g

Formula to calculate mass percent of an element

Therefore, mass percent of the sodium element:

= 32.379
= 32.4%

Mass percent of the sulphur element:

= 22.57
= 22.6%
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Mass percent of the oxygen element:

= 45.049
= 45.05%

Q3. Determine the empirical formula of an oxide of iron, which has 69.9% iron and 30.1%
dioxygen by mass.
Ans.
Given there is an oxide of iron which has 69.9% iron and 30.1% dioxygen by mass:
Relative moles of iron in iron oxide:

= 1.25

Relative moles of oxygen in iron oxide:

= 1.88
The simplest molar ratio of iron to oxygen:
⇒ 1.25: 1.88 ⇒ 1: 1.5 ⇒ 2: 3
Therefore, the empirical formula of the iron oxide is Fe2O3.

Q4. Calculate the amount of carbon dioxide that could be produced when
(i) 1 mole of carbon is burnt in air.
(ii) 1 mole of carbon is burnt in 16 g of dioxygen.
(iii) 2 moles of carbon are burnt in 16 g of dioxygen.
Ans.
(i) 1 mole of carbon is burnt in air.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
1 mole of carbon reacts with 1 mole of O2 to form one mole of CO2.
Amount of CO2 produced = 44 g

(ii) 1 mole of carbon is burnt in 16 g of O2.

1 mole of carbon burnt in 32 grams of O2 it forms 44 grams of CO2.

Therefore, 16 grams of O2 will form

= 22 grams of CO2

(iii) 2 moles of carbon are burnt in 16 g of O2.

Here again, dioxygen is the limiting reactant. 16g of dioxygen can combine only with 0.5mol of carbon.
CO2 produced again is equal to 22g.

Q5. Calculate the mass of sodium acetate CH3COONa required to make 500 mL of 0.375 molar
aqueous solution. Molar mass of sodium acetate is 82.0245 g mol–1.

Ans.
0.375 M aqueous solution of CH3COONa
= 1000 mL of solution containing 0.375 moles of CH3COONa
Therefore, no. of moles of CH3COONa in 500 mL

= 0.1875 mole
Molar mass of sodium acetate = 82.0245 g mol-1
Therefore, the mass of CH3COONa

= 15.38 grams

Q6. Calculate the concentration of nitric acid in moles per litre in a sample which has a density,
1.41 g mL–1 and the mass per cent of nitric acid in it being 69%
Ans.
Mass percent of HNO3 in sample is 69 %
Thus, 100 g of HNO3 contains 69 g of HNO3 by mass.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Molar mass of HNO3
= { 1 + 14 + 3(16)} g.mol-1
= 1 + 14 + 48
= 63g mol-1

Now, no. of moles in 69 g of HNO3

= 1.095 mol

Volume of 100g HNO3 solution

= 70.92mL
= 70.92 x 10-3 L

Concentration of HNO3

= 15.44mol/L
Therefore,
Concentration of HNO3 = 15.44 mol/L

Q7. How much copper can be obtained from 100 g of copper sulphate (CuSO4)?
Ans.
1 mole of CuSO4 contains 1 mole of Cu.
Molar mass of CuSO4
= (63.5) + (32.00) + 4(16.00)
= 63.5 + 32.00 + 64.00
= 159.5 grams
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
159.5 grams of CuSO4 contains 63.5 grams of Cu.

Therefore, 100 grams of CuSO4 will contain of Cu.

= 39.81 grams

Q8. Determine the molecular formula of an oxide of iron, in which the mass percent of iron and
oxygen are 69.9 and 30.1, respectively.
Ans.
Here,
Mass percent of Fe = 69.9%
Mass percent of O = 30.1%
No. of moles of Fe present in oxide

= 1.25

No. of moles of O present in oxide

=1.88

Ratio of Fe to O in oxide,
= 1.25: 1.88

= 1: 1.5
= 2: 3
Therefore, the empirical formula of oxide is Fe2O3

Empirical formula mass of Fe2O3

= [2(55.85) + 3(16.00)] g
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
= 159. 7g

The molar mass of Fe2O3 = 159.69g

Therefore n =
= 0.999
= 1(approx)

The molecular formula of a compound can be obtained by multiplying n with the empirical formula.
Thus, the empirical of the given oxide is Fe2O3 and n is 1.
Therefore, the molecular formula of the oxide is Fe2O3

Q9. Calculate the atomic mass (average) of chlorine using the following data:

Percentage Natural Abundance Molar Mass

35
Cl 75.77 34.9689

37
Cl 24.23 36.9659

Ans.
Fractional Abundance of 35Cl = 0.7577 and Molar mass = 34.9689
Fractional Abundance of 37Cl = 0.2423 and Molar mass = 36.9659
Average Atomic mass = (0.7577 x 34.9689)amu + (0.2423 x 36.9659)
= 26.4959 + 8.9568 = 35.4527

Q10. In three moles of ethane (C2H6), calculate the following:

(i) Number of moles of carbon atoms.
(ii) Number of moles of hydrogen atom
(iii) Number of molecules of ethane
Ans.
(i) 1 mole of C2H6 contains two moles of C- atoms.
∴ No. of moles of C- atoms in 3 moles of C2H6.
=2x3
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
=6

(ii) 1 mole of C2H6 contains six moles of H- atoms.

∴ No. of moles of H- atoms in 3 moles of C2H6.
=3x6
= 18

(iii) 1 mole of C2H6 contains 1 mole of ethane- atoms.

∴ No. of molecules in 3 moles of C2H6
= 3 x 6.023 x 1023
= 18.069 x 1023

Q11. What is the concentration of sugar (C12H22O11) in mol L–1 if its 20 g are dissolved in enough
water to make a final volume up to 2L?
Ans.
Molarity (M) is as given by,

= 0.02925 mol L-1

Therefore, Molar concentration = 0.02925 mol L-1

Q12. If the density of methanol is 0.793 kg L–1, what is its volume needed for making 2.5 L of its
0.25 M solution?

Ans.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Molar mass of methanol (CH3OH)
= 32 gmol-1= 0.032 kgmol-1
molarity of the given solution

24.78 x V1 = 0.25 x 2.5 L

or V1 = 0.02522L = 25.22mL

Q13. Pressure is determined as force per unit area of the surface. The SI unit of pressure, pascal
is as shown below:
1Pa = 1N m–2
If mass of air at sea level is 1034 g cm–2, calculate the pressure in pascal
Ans.
Pressure is the force (i.e., weight) acting per unit area
But weight = mg
∴ Pressure = Weight per unit area

= 1.01332 x 105 Pa

Q14. What is the SI unit of mass? How is it defined?

Ans.
The S.I unit of mass is kilogram (kg). A kilogram is equal to the mass of a platinum-iridium cylinder kept
at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures at Service, France.

Q15. Match the following prefixes with their multiples:

 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Ans.

Q16. What do you mean by significant figures?

Ans.
Significant figures are the meaningful digits which are known with certainty. Significant figures indicate
uncertainty in experimented value.
e.g.: The result of the experiment is 15.6 mL in that case 15 is certain and 6 is uncertain. The total
significant figures are 3.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Therefore, “the total number of digits in a number with the last digit that shows the uncertainty of the
result is known as significant figures.”

Q17. A sample of drinking water was found to be severely contaminated with chloroform, CHCl3,
supposed to be carcinogenic in nature. The level of contamination was 15 ppm (by mass).
(i) Express this in per cent by mass.
(ii) Determine the molality of chloroform in the water sample.
Ans.
(i) 1 ppm = 1 part out of 1 million parts.
Mass percent of 15 ppm chloroform in H2O

Q18. Express the following in the scientific notation:

(i) 0.0048
(ii) 234,000
(iii) 8008
(iv) 500.0
(v) 6.0012
Ans.
(i) 0.0048= 4.8 × 10-3
(ii) 234,000 = 2.34 × 105
(iii) 8008 = 8.008 x 103
(iv) 500.0 = 5.000 × 102
(v) 6.0012 = 6.0012 × 100

Q19. How many significant figures are present in the following?

(a) 0.0025
(b) 208
(c) 5005
(d) 126,000
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
(e) 500.0
(f) 2.0034
Ans.
(a) 0.0025: 2 significant numbers.
(b) 208: 3 significant numbers.
(c) 5005: 4 significant numbers.
(d) 126,000:3 significant numbers.
(e) 500.0: 4 significant numbers.
(f) 2.0034: 5 significant numbers.

Q20. Round up the following upto three significant figures:

(a) 34.216
(b) 10.4107
(c)0.04597
(d)2808
Ans.
(a) The number after round up is: 34.2
(b) The number after round up is: 10.4
(c)The number after round up is: 0.0460
(d)The number after round up is: 2810

Q21. The following data are obtained when dinitrogen and dioxygen react together to form
different compounds:

(a) Which law of chemical combination is obeyed by the above experimental data?
Give its statement.
(b) Fill in the blanks in the following conversions:
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
(i) 1 km = …………………. mm = …………………. pm
(ii) 1 mg = …………………. kg = …………………. ng
(iii) 1 mL = …………………. L = …………………. dm3
Ans.
(a)
Here if we fix the mass of dinitrogen at 14g, then the masses of dioxygen that will combine with the fixed
mass of dinitrogen are 16g, 32g, 32g, and 80g.
The masses of dioxygen bear a whole number ratio of 1:2:2:5.
Hence, the given experimental data obeys the Law of Multiple Proportions.
(b)

1 mL = 1 cm3

Q22. If the speed of light is 3.0 × 108 m s–1, calculate the distance covered by light in 2.00 ns
Ans.
Time taken = 2 ns
= 2 x 10-9 s
Now,
Speed of light = 3 × 108 ms-1
We know that,
Distance = Speed x Time
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
So,
Distance travelled in 2 ns = speed of light x time taken
= (3 x 108) (2 x 10-9)
= 6 x 10-1 m
= 0.6 m

Q23. In a reaction
A + B2 → AB2
Identify the limiting reagent, if any, in the following reaction mixtures.
(i) 300 atoms of A + 200 molecules of B
(ii) 2 mol A + 3 mol B
(iii) 100 atoms of A + 100 molecules of B
(iv) 5 mol A + 2.5 mol B
(v) 2.5 mol A + 5 mol B
Ans.
Limiting reagent:
It determines the extent of a reaction. It is the first to get consumed during a reaction, thus causes the
reaction to stop and limits the amount of product formed.

(i) 300 atoms of A + 200 molecules of B

1 atom of A reacts with 1 molecule of B. Similarly, 200 atoms of A reacts with 200 molecules of B, so
100 atoms of A are unused. Hence, B is the limiting reagent.

(ii) 2 mol A + 3 mol B

1 mole of A reacts with 1 mole of B. Similarly, 2 moles of A reacts with 2 moles of B, so 1 mole of B is
unused. Hence, A is the limiting reagent.

(iii) 100 atoms of A + 100 molecules of Y

1 atom of A reacts with 1 molecule of Y. Similarly, 100 atoms of A reacts with 100 molecules of Y.
Hence, it is a stoichiometric mixture where there is no limiting reagent.

(iv) 5 mol A + 2.5 mol B

1 mole of A reacts with 1 mole of B. Similarly 2.5 moles of A reacts with 2.5 moles of B, so 2.5 moles of
A is unused. Hence, B is the limiting reagent.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

(v) 2.5 mol A + 5 mol B

1 mole of A reacts with 1 mole of B. Similarly, 2.5 moles of A reacts with 2.5 moles of B, so 2.5 moles of
B is unused. Hence, A is the limiting reagent.

Q24. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other to produce ammonia according to the
following chemical equation:
N2 (g) + H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
(i) Calculate the mass of NH3 produced if 2 x 103 g N2 reacts with 1 x 103 g of H2?
(ii) Will any of the two reactants remain unreacted?
(iii) If yes, which one and what would be its mass.
Ans.
(i) 1 mol of N2 i.e., 28 g reacts with 3 moles of H2 i.e., 6 g of H2

Thus, N2 is the limiting reagent while H2 is the excess reagent

2 mol of N2 i.e., 28 g of N2 produces NH3 = 2 mol
= 34 g

= 2428.57 g
(ii) H2 will remain unreacted
(iii) Mass left unreacted = 1000g – 428.6g = 571.4g

Q25. How are 0.50 mol Na2CO3 and 0.50 M Na2CO3 different?

Ans.

Molar mass of Na2CO3:

= (2 × 23) + 12 + (3 × 16)
= 106 g mol-1

1 mole of Na2CO3 means 106 g of Na2CO3

Therefore, 0.5 mol of Na2CO3

= 53 g of Na2CO3
0.5 M of Na2CO3 = 0.5 mol/L Na2CO3
Hence, 0.5 mol of Na2CO3 is in 1 L of water or 53 g of Na2CO3 is in 1 L of water.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Q26. If 10 volumes of dihydrogen gas reacts with five volumes of dioxygen gas, how many
volumes of water vapour would be produced?

Ans.
Reaction:

2 volumes of dihydrogen react with 1 volume of dioxygen to produce two volumes of water vapour.
Hence, 10 volumes of dihydrogen will react with five volumes of dioxygen to produce 10 volumes of
water vapour.

Q27. Convert the following into basic units:

(i) 28.7 pm
(ii) 15.15 pm
(iii) 25365 mg
Ans.
(i) 28.7 pm
1 pm = 10-12 m
28.7 pm = 28.7 x 10-12 m
= 2.87 x 10-11 m

(ii) 15.15 pm
1 pm = 10-12 m
15.15 pm = 15.15 × 10-12 m
= 1.515 × 10-11 m

(iii) 25365 mg
1 mg = 10-3 g
1 mg = 10-6 kg
25365 mg = 25365 x 10-6 kg
25365 mg = 2.5365 × 10-2 kg

Q28. Which one of the following will have the largest number of atoms?
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
(i) 1 g Au (s)
(ii) 1 g Na (s)
(iii) 1 g Li (s)
(iv) 1 g of Cl2 (g)
Ans.
(i) 1 g of Au (s)

= 3.06 x 1021 atoms of Au (s)

(ii) 1 g of Na (s)

= 0.262 x 1023 atoms of Na (s)

= 26.2 x 1021 atoms of Na (s)

(iii) 1 g of Li (s)

= 0.86 x 1023 atoms of Li (s)

= 86.0 x 1021 atoms of Li (s)

(iv)1 g of Cl2 (g)

(Molar mass of Cl2 molecule = 35.5 × 2 = 71 g mol-1)

 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

= 0.0848 x 1023 atoms of Cl2 (g)

= 8.48 x 1021 atoms of Cl2 (g)
Therefore, 1 g of Li (s) will have the largest no. of atoms.

Q29. Calculate the molarity of a solution of ethanol in water, in which the mole fraction of
ethanol is 0.040 (assume the density of water to be one).
Ans.
Mole fraction of C2H5OH

No. of moles present in 1 L water:

Substituting the value of nH2O in eqn (1),

Therefore, molarity of solution

= 2.314 M
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Q30. What will be the mass of one 12C atom in g?

Ans.
1 mole of carbon atoms
= 6.023 x 1023 atoms of carbon
= 12 g of carbon
Therefore, mass of 1 atom of 12C

= 1.993 x 10-23 g

Q31. How many significant figures should be present in the answer of the following
calculations?

(ii) 5 × 5.364
(iii) 0.0125 + 0.7864 + 0.0215
Ans.

Least precise number = 0.112

Therefore, no. of significant numbers in the answer
= No. of significant numbers in 0.112
=3

(ii) 5 × 5.364
Least precise number = 5.364
Therefore, no. of significant numbers in the answer
= No. of significant numbers in 5.364
=4

(iii) 0.0125 + 0.7864 + 0.0215

 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
As the least no. of decimal place in each term is 4. Hence, the no. of significant numbers in the answer
is also 4.

Q32. Use the data given in the following table to calculate the molar mass of naturally occurring
argon isotopes:

Ans.
Molar mass of Argon:

= [0.121 + 0.024 + 39.802] g mol-1

= 39.947 g mol-1

Q33. Calculate the number of atoms in each of the following

(i) 52 moles of Ar
(ii) 52 u of He
(iii) 52 g of He
Ans.
(i) 52 moles of Ar
1 mole of Ar = 6.023 x 1023 atoms of Ar
Therefore, 52 moles of Ar = 52 x 6.023 x 1023 atoms of Ar
= 3.131 x 1025 atoms of Ar
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
(ii) 52 u of He
1 atom of He = 4 u of He
OR
4 u of He = 1 atom of He

= 13 atoms of He

(iii) 52 g of He
4 g of He = 6.023 x 1023 atoms of He

= 7.829 x 1024 atoms of He

Q34. A welding fuel gas contains carbon and hydrogen only. Burning a small sample of it in
oxygen gives 3.38 g carbon dioxide, 0.690 g of water and no other products. A volume of 10.0 L
(measured at STP) of this welding gas is found to weigh 11.6 g. Find:
(i) Empirical formula
(ii) Molar mass of the gas, and
(iii) Molecular formula
Ans.
(i) Empirical formula
1 mole of CO2 contains 12 g of carbon
Therefore, 3.38 g of CO2 will contain carbon

= 0.9218 g

18 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen

Therefore, 0.690 g of water will contain hydrogen
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

= 0.0767 g

As hydrogen and carbon are the only elements of the compound. Now, the total mass is:
= 0.9217 g + 0.0767 g
= 0.9984 g

Therefore, % of C in the compound

= 92.32 %
% of H in the compound

= 7.68 %

Moles of C in the compound,

= 7.69

Moles of H in the compound,

= 7.68

Therefore, the ratio of carbon to hydrogen is,

7.69: 7.68
1: 1
Therefore, the empirical formula is CH.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
(ii) Molar mass of the gas
Weight of 10 L of gas at STP = 11.6 g
Therefore, weight of 22.4 L of gas at STP

= 25.984 g

(iii) Molecular formula

Empirical formula mass:
CH = 12 + 1
= 13 g

=2
Therefore, molecular formula = 2 x CH = C2H2.

Q35. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 and CO2 according to the
reaction, CaCO3 (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
What mass of CaCO3 is required to react completely with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl?
Ans.
0.75 M of HCl
≡ 0.75 mol of HCl are present in 1 L of water
≡ [(0.75 mol) × (36.5 g mol–1 )] HCl is present in 1 L of water
≡ 27.375 g of HCl is present in 1 L of water
Thus, 1000 mL of solution contains 27.375 g of HCl
Therefore, amt of HCl present in 25 mL of solution

= 0.6844 g
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Given chemical reaction,

2 mol of HCl (2 × 36.5 = 73 g) react with 1 mol of CaCO3 (100 g)

Therefore, amt of CaCO3 that will react with 0.6844 g

= 0.9375 g

Q36. Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating manganese dioxide (MnO2) with aqueous
hydrochloric acid according to the reaction:
4 HCl (aq) + MnO2(s) → 2H2O (l) + MnCl2(aq) + Cl2 (g)
How many grams of HCl react with 5.0 g of manganese dioxide?
Ans.
1 mole of MnO2 = 55 + 2 × 16 = 87 g
4 mole of HCl = 4 × 36.5 = 146 g
1 mole of MnO2 reacts with 4 mol of HCl
Hence,
5 g of MnO2 will react with:

= 8.4 g HCl
Therefore, 8.4 g of HCl will react with 5 g of MnO2.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology Chapter
2 Biological Classification.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to

a. Monera
b. Protista
c. Fungi
d. Bacteria
Solution:
Option b is the answer.

2. The five-kingdom classification was proposed by

a. R.H. Whittaker
b. C.Linnaeus
c. A. Roxberg
d. Virchow
Solution:
Option (a) is the answer.

3. Organisms living in salty areas are called as

a. Methanogens
b. Halophiles
c. Heliophytes
d. Thermoacidophiles
Solution:
Option (b) is the answer.

4. Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic is the characteristics of

a. Monera
b. Protista
c. Fungi
d. Slime moulds
Solution:
Option (d) is the answer.

5. An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called

a. Lichen
b. Fern
c. Mycorrhiza
d. BGA
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

6. A dikaryon is formed when

a. Meiosis is arrested
b. The two haploid cells do not fuse immediately
c. Cytoplasm does not fuse
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology Chapter
2 Biological Classification.

d. None of the above

Solution:
Option (b) is the answer.

7. Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by

a. D.J. Ivanowsky
b. M.W. Beijerinek
c. Stanley
d. Robert Hook
Solution:
Option (b) is the answer.

8. Associations between Mycobiont and Phycobiont are found in

a. Mycorrhiza
b. Root
c. Lichens
d. BGA
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

9. Difference between Virus and Viroid is

a. Absence of protein coat in viroid but present in virus
b. Presence of low molecular weight RNA in the virus but absent in viroid
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Solution:
Option (a) is the answer.

10. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of
events
a. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
b. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
c. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
d. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

11. Viruses are non-cellular organisms but replicate themselves once they infect
the host cell. To which of the following kingdom do viruses belong to?
a. Monera
b. Protista
c. Fungi
d. None of the above
Solution:
Option (d) is the answer.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology Chapter
2 Biological Classification.

12. Members of Phycomycetes are found in

i. Aquatic habitats
ii. On decaying wood
iii. Moist and damp places
iv. As obligate parasites on plants
Choose from the following options
a. None of the above
b. I and iv
c. ii and iii
d. All of the above
Solution:
Option (d) is the answer.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is the principle underlying the use of cyanobacteria in agricultural fields for crop
improvement?
Solution:
Cyanobacteria are capable of fixing nitrogen with the help of specialised cells called the heterocyst.
They enrich the soil fertility. Hence BGA’s are used in agricultural fields. E.g. Colonies of Nostoc and
Anabaena grow in Paddy field.

2. Suppose you accidentally find an old preserved permanent slide without a label. In your effort
to identify it, you place the slide under the microscope and observe the following features:-
a. Unicellular
b. Well defined nucleus
c. Biflagellate–one flagellum lying longitudinally and the other transversely.
What would you identify it as? Can you name the kingdom it belongs to?
Solution:
According to the listed features, the organism must be a dinoflagellate. All the eukaryotic unicellular
organism belonging to the kingdom Protista.

3. How is the five-kingdom classification advantageous over the two kingdom classification?
Solution:
Two kingdom classifications did not distinguish between the prokaryotes and eukaryotes
They did not distinguish between unicellular and multicellular organisms
They also did not distinguish between autotrophic/photosynthetic and heterotrophic/non-photosynthetic
organisms.

4. Polluted water bodies have usually a very high abundance of plants like Nostoc and Oscillitoria.
Give reasons.
Solution:
Polluted water bodies are rich in nutrients especially in nitrogen content which provides favourable
condition to algae like Nostoc and Oscillotoria to bloom in the water bodies.

5. Are chemosynthetic bacteria-autotrophic or heterotrophic?

 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology Chapter
2 Biological Classification.

Solution:
Chemosynthetic bacteria are autotrophic. They gain energy for the synthesis of food by oxidising
inorganic substances.

6. The common name of pea is simpler than its botanical (scientific) name Pisum sativum. Why
then is the simpler common name not used instead of the complex scientific/ botanical name in
biology?
Solution:
Pea is known by different names in different countries. So instead of calling a variety of names,
scientific names are provided which are same in the world throughout. It is worldwide standardization of
name.

7. A virus is considered as a living organism and an obligate parasite when inside a host cell. But
the virus is not classified along with bacteria or fungi. What are the characters of the virus that
are similar to non-living objects?
Solution:
1. Viruses have no complete cellular structure.
2. Don’t show growth, division, metabolism and lack respiration.
3. High specific gravity
4. Don’t follow Robert Koch’s postulate
5. Cannot be grown under “in vitro” condition.

8. In the five-kingdom system of Whittaker, how many kingdoms are eukaryotes?

Solution:
Eukaryotes are the organisms whose nucleus and cell is bounded by a membrane. Four kingdoms have
eukaryotic organisms- a) Protista b) Fungi c) Plantae d)Animalia.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Diatoms are also called as ‘pearls of the ocean’, why? What is diatomaceous
earth?
Solution:
Diatoms are majorly phytoplankton’s which are the chief producers of ocean. Hence known as “pearls of
oceans”

2. There is a myth that immediately after heavy rains in forest, mushrooms appear in large
number and make a very large ring or circle, which may be several metres in diameter. These are
called ‘Fairy rings’. Can you explain this myth of fairy rings in biological terms?
Solution:
This naturally occurring ring or arch of mushrooms, occurring as a common turf disease, is identified as
large dead rings or arch of grass in lawns during the spring or summer and is known as a ‘fairy rings’.

3. Neurospora - an ascomycetes fungus has been used as a biological tool to understand the
mechanism of plant genetics much in the same way as Drosophila has been used to study animal
genetics. What makes Neurospora so important as a genetic tool?
Solution:
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology Chapter
2 Biological Classification.

Neurospora is used as a genetic tool because

Fastest growing in vitro can be grown in minimal media.
• Due to its haploid nature it can express both dominant as well as recessive traits.
• Analysis of genetic combination is facilitated by the ordered sequence of the products in the form of
eight ascospores

4. Cyanobacteria and heterotrophic bacteria have been clubbed together in Eubacteria of

kingdom Monera as per the “Five Kingdom Classification” even though the two are vastly
different from each other. Is this grouping of the two types of taxa in the same kingdom justified?
If so, why?
Solution:
Cyanobacteria synthesis their food and they are autotrophic. Heterotrophic bacteria depend on other
organisms for their food. Both Cyanobacteria and heterotrophic bacteria are categorised under
Eubacteria of kingdom Monera. Therefore the classification according to the cellular structure is
justified.

5. At a stage of their cycle, ascomycetes fungi produce the fruiting bodies like apothecium,
perithecium or cleistothecium. How are these three types of fruiting bodies different from each
other?
Solution:
Apothecium: It’s a saucer or cup-shaped, open fruiting body. Perithecium: Flask shaped fruiting body.
With an opening lid called the ostiole. Cleistothecium: It’s a closed spherical structure. Ostiole is absent.

6. What observable features in Trypanosoma would make you classify it under kingdom Protista?
Solution:
Trypanosoma is a unicellular eukaryotic organism.
Locomotion is facilitated by flagella.
Method of reproduction is asexual.
The reserve food material is present in the form of granules.

7. Fungi are cosmopolitan. Write the role of fungi in your daily life.
Solution:
Used in the brewery and baking industry: Saccharomyces cerivesea is used. Under anaerobic conditions
process of fermentation takes place which releases ethanol and CO2. The release of CO2 helps the
dough to rise. Fungi are used as biological control agents: Soil inhabiting fungus Trichoderma kills
Pythium fungus known to cause root rot.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Algae are known to reproduce asexually by a variety of spores under different environmental
conditions. Name these spores and the conditions under which they are produced.
Solution:
Zoospores are thin-walled spores that are motile and flagellated. They are produced under favourable
conditions
Aplanospores are thin-walled non-motile spores and produced under unfavourable condition.
Hypnospores are thick-walled spores and produced under unfavourable condition.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology Chapter
2 Biological Classification.

Akinites are from the vegetative cells, thick cell wall. It is formed under unfavourable condition.
Hormogonia are the fragments of filaments formed due to breakage of thallus due to the formation of
mucilaginous filled necridia. It is formed under unfavourable condition.

2. Apart from chlorophyll, algae have several other pigments in their chloroplast. What pigments
are found in blue-green, red and brown algae that are responsible for their characteristic colours?
Solution:
Blue-green algae phycocyanin and r-phycoerythrin pigments are present beside chlorophyll a
Brown algae possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls. They are olive green in colour.
Red algae possess chlorophyll a, d and phycoerythrin in their body

3. Make a list of algae and fungi that have commercial value as a source of food, chemicals,
medicines and fodder.
Solution:
1. Importance of algae
Algae is used as food in many species like Porphyra, laminaria etc. Chlorella and spirulina are
unicellular algae rich in protein
Some kind of marine algae produce a large number of hydrocolloids and used commercially. Example
like agar obtained from delirium and gracilaria are used to grow microbes in ice-creams.

2. Importance of fungi
There are edible fungi like mushrooms
Yeast is used in the [production of alcohol and also for fermenting malted cereals juices to produce
ethanol.
Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients.
Statins are produced by Monascus purpureus and used as a blood-cholesterol reducing agent.

4. ‘Peat’ is an important source of domestic fuel in several countries. How is ‘peat’ formed in
nature?
Solution:
Peat is formed from the wetland vegetation especially from the Sphagnum (bog moss).
Sphagnum likes to grow in acidic nature in the bog, due to the acidity the complete degradation of the
cell could not take place due to the presence of less number of bacteria. Sphagnum uptakes water from
the dead hyaline pores and holds a great amount of water. Due to the fossilization of Sphagnum, Peat is
formed.

5. Biological classification is a dynamic and ever-evolving phenomenon which keeps changing with
our understanding of life forms. Justify the statement taking any two examples.
Solution:
C. Linnaeus classified the organisms based on morphological characters like Plantae and Animalia.
But it was not sufficient as there were certain organisms claimed by both botanist and zoologist. Later
R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification system. Euglena and slime moulds were given
place under kingdom Protista. Blue-green algae and bacteria were been placed under Monera. In 1977
Carl Woese proposed six kingdom classification. In this classification, the Kingdom Monera was split
into two more domains i.e. Eubacteria and Archebacteria this was done based on some major differences
in the cell wall. Many more organisms like virus, viroids and prions are there without being classified
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology Chapter
2 Biological Classification.

under any kingdom. Hence it can be said that the biological classification is an ever-evolving
phenomenon.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number

of common characteristics
. Will decrease
b. Will increase
c. Remain the same
d. May increase or decrease
Solution:
Option (a) is the answer.

2. Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for units of classification in plants

indicates a taxonomic category of ‘family’.
a. – Ales
b. – Onae
c. – Aceae
d. – Ae
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

3. The term ‘systematics’ refers to:

a. Identification and study of organ systems of plants and animals
b. Identification and preservation of plants and animals
c. Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
d. Study of habitats of organisms and their classification
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

4. Genus represents
a. An individual plant or animal
b. A collection of plants or animals
c. A group of closely related species of plants or animals
d. None of these
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

5. The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent

to which hierarchical level in classification of plants
a. Class
b. Order
c. Division
d. Family
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

6. Botanical gardens and zoological parks have

 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

a. Collection of endemic living species only

b. Collection of exotic living species only
c. Collection of endemic and exotic living species
d. Collection of only local plants and animals
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

7. A taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the identification and

classification of plants and animals. It is used in the preparation of
a. Monographs
b. Flora
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Solution:
Option (c) is the answer.

8. All living organisms are linked to one another because of

a. They have the common genetic material of the same type
b. They share common genetic material but to varying degrees
c. All have common cellular organization
d. All of the above
Solution:
Option (b) is the answer

9. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of living organisms?

a. Growth
b. Ability to make sound
c. Reproduction
d. Response to external stimuli
Solution:
Option (d) is the answer

10. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Column I Column II
A. Family i. tuberosum
B. Kingdom ii. Polymoniales
C. Order iii. Solanum
D. Species iv. Plantae
E. Genus v. Solanaceae
Options
a. A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-i, E-iii
b. A-iv, B-iii, C-v, D-ii, E-i
c. A-iv, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-ii
d. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-v, E-i
Solution:
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

Option (a) is the answer.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Linnaeus is considered as Father of Taxonomy. Name two other botanists

known for their contribution to the field of plant taxonomy?
Solution:
George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker are known botanists who gave the natural system of
classification of flowering plants.

2. What does ICZN stand for?

Solution:
ICZN stands for International Code of Zoological Nomenclature. It regulates a uniform system of
zoological nomenclature.

3. Couplet in taxonomic key means ________________ .

Solution:
The taxonomic key provides a certain structure on the basis of which the user can sort out the taxonomic
position of the unknown species. Couplet means a pair which is of contrasting characters of an
organism.

4. What is Monograph?
Solution:
A description of a single ting or a group of things is known as a monograph. It will have the information
regarding anyone taxon.

5. Amoeba multiplies by mitotic cell division. Is this phenomena growth or reproduction? Explain.
Solution:
Amoeba is a single cell organism; its growth through mitosis is the same as reproduction since it divides
to give rise to the new individual. Mitosis is responsible for growth.

6. Define metabolism.
Solution:
Metabolism is defined as the total of all biochemical reactions taking place within any living organism
to sustain and maintain life.

7. Which is the largest botanical garden in the world? Name a few well known botanical gardens
in India.
Solution:
The world’s largest botanical garden is situated in London which is known as Kew Royal Gardens.
Other known botanical gardens are:
1. Sanjay Gandhi Jaivik Udyan in Patna
2. Hyderabad Botanical Garden
3. NTR Garden, Hyderabad
4. Botanical Garden Sarangpur
5. Cubbon Park, Bangalore
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A ball of snow when rolled over snow increases in mass, volume and size. Is this comparable to
growth as seen in living organisms? Why?
Solution:
The growth in case of ice ball is completely indifferent from growth. This happens due to the extrinsic
growth by the deposition of the same material.

2. In a given habitat we have 20 plant species and 20 animal species. Should we call this ‘diversity’
or ‘biodiversity’? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Biodiversity is nothing but the total of organism present in a particular area whereas diversity is termed
for a large area which may be used for living or non-living things.

3. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature →ICBN) has provided a code for classification of
plants. Give hierarchy of units of classification botanists follow while classifying plants and
mention different ‘Suffixes’ used for the units.
Solution:
The hierarchy followed in plants:
Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class →Division → Kingdom
Suffixes used by botanists are as follows:

Taxon Suffix
a) Division -phyta
b) Class -ae
c) Order -ales
d) Family –aceae

4. A plant species shows several morphological variations in response to an altitudinal gradient.

When grown under similar conditions of growth, the morphological variations disappear and all
the variants have common morphology. What are these variants called?
Solution:
These variants are called the ‘ecotypes’. Plants show changes in morphological features in response to
the altitudinal gradient.

5. How do you prepare your herbarium sheets? What are the different tools you carry with you
while collecting plants for the preparation of a herbarium? What information should a preserved
plant material on the herbarium sheet provide for taxonomical studies?
Solution:
For preparing a herbarium sheet, the paper is cut in the desired length →say, 29 x 41 cm.)
The dried specimen is taken and mounted on the sheers with the help of glue. You may use sellotape if
desired.
Labels are out underneath each specimen.

Collections tools will include:

1. Digger
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

2. Knife and Scissors

3. Newspaper
4. Blotting sheet
5. Plant press
6. Notebook
7. Magnifying glass

The information that will be provided:

1. The scientific name of the specimen

2. Taxonomical details
3. Common name
4. Collector’s name
5. Place of collection
6. Date and Time

6. What is the difference between flora, fauna and vegetation? Eichhornia crassipes is called as an
exotic species while Rauwolfia serpentina is an endemic species in India. What do these terms
exotic and endemic refer to?
Solution:
Flora is a plant life occurs in a particular region or time.
Fauna is the total number of animals found in a particular region or time
Vegetation is a term used for plant forms which do not include particular taxa or botanical
characteristics
Exotic species is any species of a plant living in any other place except its native and endemic species
which are restricted to a particular area.

7. A plant may have different names in different regions of the country or world. How do botanists
solve this problem?
Solution:
They have given a scientific name for each plant and animals. It became the common name throughout
the world. Example: Mango is scientifically termed as Mangifera indica. Mango is called as Aam in
India. But the scientific term is common.

8. Brinjal and potato belong to the same genus Solanum, but two different species. What defines
them as separate species?
Solution:
In terms of reproduction, these two species varies. They share the same genus but they remain different
species.

9. Properties of cell organelles are not always found in the molecular constituents of cell
organelles. Justify.
Solution:
This phenomenon of all living organism is due to underlying interactions. The properties of cellular
organelles are not present in the molecular constituents.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

10. The number and kinds of the organism are not constant. How do you explain this statement?
Solution:
Some factors are there which plays an important role in this.
Season, extinction and human activities. Many of the living organisms are present at a particular time
and some species are wiped out and mainly the deforestation by the hands of human being causes
depletion in population.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is meant by living? Give any four defining features of life forms.
Solution:
The ability of an object which can self-replicate and self regulate is known as Living.
The 4 defining characteristics are-
i) Growth
ii) Reproduction
iii) Metabolism
iv) Consciousness
Growth: There are two types. Extrinsic and intrinsic growth. Which is deposited on the outer surface and
one is inside the cell
Reproduction: Biological process in which an organism gives rise to individuals similar to themselves.
The process is of two types. Asexual and sexual reproduction.
Metabolism: It is the total of all chemical & biological reactions occurring simultaneously inside the
cells. It is two types catabolism and anabolism. One involves the breakdown of molecules and one is
building up of biomolecules
Consciousness: Ability of the body to sense & respond to the external stimuli.

2. A scientist has come across a plant which he feels is a new species. How will he go about its
identification, classification and nomenclature?
Solution:
A new identify species can be easily classified by taxonomic aids. The scientist has to do comparative
studies of the morphological & anatomical features with the features of existing plants present in the
taxonomical aids and according to binomial nomenclature given by Carl Linnaeus, the species can be
classified. Some of the taxonomical aids that can be used are flora, manuals, monographs, catalogues
etc.

3. Brassica campestris Linn

a. Give the common name of the plant.
b. What do the first two parts of the name denote?
c. Why are they written in italics?
d. What is the meaning of Linn written at the end of the name?
Solution:
a. Mustard
b. The first name represents genus and second denotes specific epithet
c. To indicate their Latin origin
d. It refers to Linnaeus, Linnaeus was the first to discover this plant.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

He identified & classified the plant hence to give him credit and honour Linnaeus is added as the suffix.

4. What are taxonomical aids? Give the importance of herbaria and museums. How are Botanical
gardens and Zoological parks useful in conserving biodiversity?
Solution:
Collection of information, techniques, procedures which helps to identify & classify an individual is
called taxonomic aids.

Importance of herbarium
a) Collection of dried, pressed & preserved plants in sheets is called herbarium.
b) These sheets are arranged systemically according to the accepted system of classification.
c) It is used to provide information about flora.
d) It is used to study the morphology of plants.
e) Hence its comparative studies are used in the identification of unknown plants.
Importance of museums
It consists of a collection of preserved plants & animal used for study & references.
Many museums publish journals, research papers to make available the results of research in their
collection.

5. Define a taxon. What is meant by taxonomic hierarchy? Give a flow diagram from the lowest to
the highest category for a plant and an animal. What happens to the number of individuals and
number of shared characters as we go up the taxonomical hierarchy?
Solution:
The grouping of organisms at any level is known as Taxon. This can be ranked as
Species-genus-family-order-class-phylum/division-kingdom
As we go from species to kingdom there is a decrease in the number of common characteristics and the
number of individuals goes on increasing. Higher the category, it will be very difficult to determine the
relationship to other taxa at the same level.

6. A student of taxonomy was puzzled when told by his professor to look for a key to identify a
plant. He went to his friend to clarify what ‘Key’ the professor was referring to? What would the
friend explain to him?
Solution:
A key is used to identify plants and animals based on their similarities and dissimilarities. The keys
made are based on the contrasting characters that are depicted by the organisms, these are known as
couplets. Each statement in the key is called the lead.

7. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms without exception. Isolated metabolic
reactions in vitro are not living things but surely living reactions. Comment.
Solution:
Metabolism is defined as the total of all chemical reactions that take place inside the body. Metabolism
is purely characteristic of living beings. No living organism can exhibit metabolism. In a cell-free
system, these reactions can be replicated that is outside a living body.
These reactions never lead to a new life or maintenance of life. Therefore it can’t be called living.
 NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 11 Biology
Chapter 1 The Living World.

8. Do you consider a person in coma-living or dead?

Solution:
A coma is defined as a prolonged state of unconsciousness. The person who is suffering coma will be
unaware of the surroundings. A state of mind which keep the person sleepy even though the person is
alive. The working of the brain will be at its lower stage of alertness. The person will live with the help
of machines which is linked to the organs. However, a lot many metabolic activities still take place and
people often come out of their comatose state, so they are living.

9. What is the similarity and dissimilarity between “whole moong daal” and “broken moong daal”
in terms of respiration and growth? Based on these parameters classify them into living or
nonliving?
Solution:
Whole moong daal has an intact embryo whose respiration rate is slow during the phase of dormancy.
When these are provided with growth condition, like providing it with water, growth is restored and the
seed →moong daal) germinates and forms a new plant and the broken moong daal’s embryo isn’t intact.
As a result of this, it cannot respire and doesn’t grow or germinate.

10. Some of the properties of tissues are not the constituents of their cells. Give three examples to
support the statement.
Solution:
Blood is a connective tissue that is made up of RBCs, WBCs and Platelets. It functions as a nutrient
transporter inside the body whereas the blood cells don not play this function.
Bone is a specialized connective tissue which functions as mechanical support that is made up of
osteocytes. These osteocytes do not provide mechanical support.
Dry skin is made up of epithelial cells. Epithelial tissues will function as a protection from chemical and
mechanical stress whereas epithelial cells do not play this role
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1
The Living World

1. Why are living organisms classified?

Solution:
The earth contains millions of organisms, and we may know the plants and animals that
live near us by their native names. These local names vary from place to place within a
country. This leads to confusion in identifying and studying specific species. Therefore, it
must be called by common name throughout the world to standardize the nomenclature
and study of organisms. To achieve this, organisms are named and categorized according
to their roles.

2. Why are the classification systems changing every now and then?
Solution:
Scientific study is ever a work in progress and new species and organisms are often
added. The initial system of classification focuses only on habit and habitat of organisms.
Gradually external morphology became a toll for classification. After this, the
morphology and embryology are taken into account, followed by the phylogenetic
relationship, the cytology of the organism. Modern-day uses biochemical techniques to
classify the organisms based on their nucleic acid components.

3. What different criteria would you choose to classify people that you meet often?
Solution:
The people we meet most often are categorized by characteristics such as gender, skin
color, education, career, hobbies, and nature.

4. What do we learn from the identification of individuals and populations?

Solution:
By identifying individuals and populations, we learn the following things
(i) Sex
(ii) Skin colour
(iii) Native place
(iv) Mother tongue
(v) Food habit
(vi) Religion
(vii) Caste

5. Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica
Mangifera indica
Solution:
The answer is Mangifera indica. Here mangifera is its genus name, and indica is its
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1
The Living World

species name which is always written in lowercase.

6. Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchical levels.

Solution:
A taxon is a level of hierarchy in the system of classifying organisms.
Following are the hierarchical levels.
(i) Kingdom
(ii) Phylum
(iii) Class
(iv) Order
(v) Family
(vi) Genus
(vii) Species

7. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories?

(a) Species Order Phylum Kingdom
(b) Genus Species Order Kingdom
(c) Species Genus Order Phylum
Solution:
From the given options (a) and (c) is the correct sequence of taxonomical categories.

8. Try to collect all the currently accepted meanings for the word ‘species’. Discuss
with your teacher the meaning of species in case of higher plants and animals on one
hand, and bacteria on the other hand.
Solution:
A group of individual organisms with basic similarities is called species. This is the basic
unit of classification. Species are defined as individuals who share the same gene pool.
Higher plants and animals: Criteria of reproductive isolation can be used to classify the
species.
Bacteria: interbreeding and reproductive isolation cannot be used in case of bacteria here
gene pool can be used to classify species.

9. Define and understand the following terms:

(i) Phylum (ii) Class (iii) Family (iv) Order (v) Genus
Solution:
i) Phylum is a taxonomical hierarchy below Kingdom and above Class. It is a taxon with
one or more classes organisms with similar characters.

ii) Class is a taxonomical hierarchy higher than Order and lower than Phylum. Class
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1
The Living World

includes related to orders of the organisms. Example: Presence of notochord in mammals.

iii) Family has a group of related genera with still less number of similarities as compared
to genus and species. Example: Fox and dog belongs to the same family. It is a group of
entities below Order and above Genus.

iv) Order is a taxon below higher than Family and lower than class. Order being a higher
category is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters.

v) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in
comparison to species of other genera. Ex: Lion, tiger and leopard are classified under
genus Panthera. It is above species and below family.

10. How is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?

Solution:
The key is a taxonomic aid used to identify plants and animals, based on similarities and
dissimilarities. It represents the choice between two opposite characters. This is useful for
identifying contrasting characters. They are two contrasting characters, where one
character's choice rejects another when the species, family, or genera is identified.
If the entity is not already recorded, efforts are made for the first verification and
reconsider its discovery before naming it. Therefore, each entity can be classified as it is
known or unknown.

11. Illustrate the taxonomical hierarchy with suitable examples of a plant and an
animal.
Solution:
The table below depicts the taxonomic hierarchy with wheat as an example for the plant
and the human as an example for animal.

Taxonomic categories Wheat Human

Kingdom Plantae Animalia
Phylum/Division Angiospermae Chordata
Class Monocotylydonae Mammalia
Order Poales Primata
Family Poaceae Homonidae
Genus Triticum Homo
Species Aestivum Sapiens
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 -
Biological Classification
1. Discuss how classification systems have undergone several changes over a period of time.

Solution:

Aristotle was the first to introduce scientific classification. He used simple morphological characters to classify plants
into trees, shrubs, and herbs. He divided the animals into two groups, one with red blood and one without.

Linnaeus introduced a two-kingdom classification, which includes Plantae and Animalia, respectively, of plants and
animals. But this classification does not classify eukaryotes and prokaryotes, single-celled and multicellular organisms,
photosynthetic (green algae) and non-photosynthetic (fungal) organisms. Therefore, the system was found to be less
significant as it did not include more features.

Thus, the classification of living organisms has undergone several changes. R.H. Whittaker introduced a five-kingdom
classification, including Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. Some of the characteristics included in this
classification are the structure of cells, body organisation, mode of nutrition, mode of reproduction, and phylogenetic
relationship to classify organisms. Subsequently, a three-domain system was proposed, which divided Kingdom
Monera into two domains, leaving the remaining eukaryotic kingdoms in the third domain, thereby classifying the six
kingdoms.

2. State two economically important uses of:

(a) heterotrophic bacteria

(b) archaebacteria

Solution:

a) Heterotrophic bacteria are used in the production of vitamins, antibiotics, cheese and curd.

They help fix nitrogen and are used in the formation of humus.

b) Archaebacteria are used in Biogas production.

They are used in the bioleaching of mines.

3. What is the nature of cell walls in diatoms?

Solution:

In diatoms, cell walls are embedded with silica imparting characteristic patterns onto the walls and are indestructible.
These diatoms leave large amounts of cell wall deposits in their habitat to accumulate to form the diatomaceous earth.

4. Find out what the terms ‘algal bloom’ and ‘red tides’ signify.

Solution:

Algal blooms are found in contaminated water. They are an overgrowth of algae, especially blue-green algae
(cyanobacteria). Their growth leads to water pollution. They inhale carbon dioxide and exhale oxygen.

Rapid multiplication of red-pigmented dinoflagellates, such as Gonaulax, gives the sea a red colour, a phenomenon
known as red tides. These algae produce toxins that kill fish and other aquatic organisms.

5. How are viroids different from viruses?

 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 -
Biological Classification
Solution:

(i) Viroids are small infectious agents with single-stranded RNA without a protein coat, but viruses have single-
stranded or double-stranded RNA bound with a protein coat.

(ii) Viroids are very small in size compared to viruses.

(iii) Viroids infect only plants, while viruses infect plants, animals, and microorganisms.

6. Describe the four major groups of Protozoa briefly.

Solution:

Four major groups of Protozoa are as follows:

Amoeboid protozoans: Found in the aquatic environment, they move and catch their prey using pseudopodia.

Flagellated protozoans: These protozoans are free-living or parasitic. Their locomotory structure is flagella.

Ciliated protozoans: They live in aquatic environments, and the presence of cilia makes them actively moving.

Sporozoans: They contain a wide variety of organisms, producing infectious spores throughout their life cycle. Their
spore-like phase helps them move from one host to another.

7. Plants are autotrophic. Can you think of some plants that are partially heterotrophic?

Solution:

Insectivores and carnivorous plants are partially heterotrophic; these organisms are green and autotrophic, but they prey
on and digest small components for their nitrogen supply.

Ex; Utricularia, Drosera, Nepenthes.

8. What do the terms phycobiont and mycobiont signify?

Solution:

Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and algae. Phycobiont is part of algae and part of mycobiont fungi.
Mycobiont provides structural cover that protects the algae from unfavourable conditions. Similarly, phycobionts
prepare food through the process of photosynthesis, which is used by both organisms.

9. Give a comparative account of the classes of Kingdom Fungi under the following:

(i) mode of nutrition (ii) mode of reproduction

Solution:

Phycomycetes Ascomycetes Basidiomycetes Deuteromycetes

 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 -
Biological Classification

Mode of Saprophytic or Decomposers, Saprophytic Decomposers,

nutrition parasitic Saprophytic or Saprophytic or
parasitic or parasitic
coprophilous

Mode of Asexual Through By vegetation Through asexual

reproduction reproduction by asexual spores reproduction spores called
zoospore called conidia, through budding. conidia.
(motile) and and sexual The fusion of
Aplanospore spores are two somatic cells
(non-motile) known as for the formation
ascospores of basidiospores
Sexual is Plasmogamy
reproduction –
zygote can be
similar or
dissimilar in
morphology
10. What are the characteristic features of Euglenoids?

Solution:

The typical features of Eugenoids are:

(i) Absence of cell wall.

(ii) Their body is flexible because there is a protein-rich layer called a pellicle.

(iii) Two flagella of different lengths are found.

(iv) They are autotrophic in the presence of sunlight and heterotrophic in the absence of sunlight.

11. Give a brief account of viruses with respect to their structure and nature of genetic material. Also, name four
common viral diseases.

Solution:

Viruses are infectious agents that crystallise in structure when found outside the host cell. The genetic material is either
DNA or RNA (never both), and they are located within the protein core. If the virus that infects plants has single-
stranded RNA, then the viruses that infect animals are single or double-stranded DNA or RNA. The capsid is their
protein coat, which in turn is made up of small subunits called capsomers, which protect nucleic acid.

Common viral diseases are Influenza, AIDS, Herpes and Rabies.

12. Organise a discussion in your class on the topic ‘Are viruses living or nonliving’?

Solution:
 NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 -
Biological Classification
Non-living Characters

(i) No cellular structure

(ii) They can be stored in bottles like crystals

(iii) There will be no energy storage or energy liberation systems

(iv) They cannot grow or multiply outside the host

Living Characters

(i) They are host-specific

(ii) The presence of genetic material

(iii) The ability to multiply

(iv) They have antigenic properties

(v) They are obligate parasites

(vi) Mutations occur