22/11/2023 Code-C

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : System of Particles & Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids
Chemistry : Equilibrium, Redox Reactions, Electrochemistry
Botany : Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Plant Kingdom
Zoology : Body Fluids & Circulation, Excretory Products & their Elimination, Locomotion & Movement

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. The change in potential energy when a body 3. A uniform wire of length 2L is bent to form an
of mass m is raised to a height 3R from the alphabet ‘L’ as shown. Find the distance of
surface of earth will be (R-radius of earth) centre of mass from the vertex O.
(1) 3 mgR
2

(2) 3mgR
(3) 3 mgR
4

(4) 9
mgR
5

(1) L
2. Position of centre of mass of a hollow 2

hemisphere of radius 20 cm from its centre is (2) L

(1) 5 cm 2√2

(2) 7.5 cm (3) L

√2
(3) 10 cm
(4) L

(4) 15 cm 4√2

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

4. If a projectile is launched from a point at a 8. Three masses m, 2m and 3m are placed at

height “h” from surface of earth in a direction the corners of an equilateral triangle of side
tangent to earth surface with speed of a as shown in the figure. The gravitational
−−−−−
3GM
, what will be path followed by it? potential energy of the system will be
√
2(R+h)

(1) Circle
(2) Parabola
(3) Ellipse
(4) Hyperbola
(1) −
5Gm
2

5. A sphere rolling purely over a rough a

horizontal surface encounters a rough (2) −

6Gm
2

a
inclined plane, as shown in the figure. It rolls
up to certain height and comes down by (3) −
8Gm
2

a
rolling. Which one of the following
statements is correct? (4) −
11Gm
2

9. Two persons of masses 60 kg and 80 kg

respectively, are at the opposite ends of a
boat. The length of the boat is 4.0 m and
weighs 100 kg. Both persons move towards
each other and sit in the middle of the boat.
(1) Due to friction, mechanical energy of The centre of mass of the system shifts by
the sphere decreases (neglect water friction)
(2) Friction acting on the sphere is directed (1) 0.25 m
down the plane when it is rolling up (2) 0.5 m
(3) Friction acting on the sphere is directed (3) 0.75 m
down the plane when it is rolling down (4) zero
(4) Friction acting on the sphere is directed
up the plane whether it is rolling up or
10. A wire of length l is stretched by a force F to
down
cause an extension x. Another wire of same
material and same volume but 50% larger in
6. When a force F is applied on a wire of length than the first wire, the force required
uniform cross-section area 5 mm2 and for the same extension will be
length 4 m, length of wire increases by 0.1 (1) 4 F
9
cm. Then energy stored in wire will be (if Y =
(2) 9
1011 Nm–2 ) 4
F

(1) 62.5 J (3) 2

F
3
(2) 62.5 mJ
(4) 3
F
(3) 125 mJ 2

(4) 125 J
11. A body of mass 20 kg kept at rest, suddenly
7. The minimum speed with which a body must explodes into two parts such that ratio of
R their masses are 2 : 3. The velocity of centre
be thrown to reach a height 4 above the
of mass of system is
surface of the earth (R → radius of the earth) (1) 5 ms–1
−−−
(1) gR
√
2
(2) Zero
(2)
−
−− (3) 10 ms–1
√gR

−
−− (4) 20 ms–1
(3) gR
√
5

−−−
(4) 2gR 12. The value of (2^ ^ ^ ^
i + 4 j ) × ( i + 2 j ) is
√
5
(1) Zero
(2) −8k^

(3) ^ ^
2 i − 8k

(4) ^ ^
−2 i + 8k

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

13. If the gravitational force between two objects 17. A : Steel is more elastic than rubber.
varies as F ∝
1
, where r is distance R : When same deforming force is applied,
steel deforms more than rubber.
3
r

between the objects, then orbital speed of

an object in a circular path, of radius R (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
around other mass, under influence such a the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
force will be proportional to
(1) R (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(2) R2 explanation of the assertion
(3) 1
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
2
R
is false
(4) 1
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
R

statements

14. If radius of earth shrinks by 2%, then

percentage change in value of g is 18. A wire can sustain a mass of 15 kg. If it is cut
into 4 equal parts, then each part can
(1) – 2%
sustain a mass.
(2) + 2% (1) 5 kg
(3) + 4% (2) 45 kg
(4) – 4% (3) 15 kg
(4) 30 kg
15. A hollow sphere of mass 1 kg and radius 10
cm is free to rotate about a fixed axis
passing through its centre. If a force 30 N is 19. A disc is rolling on a rough surface without
applied tangentially to it, its angular slipping. C is the centre of the disc and P
and Q are equidistant points from C. VC, VP
acceleration is (in rad/s2 )
and VQ are magnitude velocities of C, P and
(1) 5000
Q respectively, then
(2) 450
(3) 50
(4) 5

16. A rod is hinged at point P, vertically standing (1) VQ > VC > VP

upward. Due to slight jerk rod starts to come (2) VQ < VC < VP
down. The angular velocity of rod after
turning angle θ is (Hinge is smooth) (3) VQ = VP > VC
(4) VQ = VP < VC

20. If a planet of mass ‘m’ is revolving around

the sun in a circular orbit of radius ‘2r’ with
time period T, then mass of the sun is
(1) 32π r 2 3

2
GT

(2) 4π
2
r
3

2
GT
−−
(1) 3g
√ cos
θ
(3) 16π
2
r
3

L 2 2
GT
−−
(2) 6g θ (4) 8π
2
r
3

√ cos
L 2 2
GT
−−
(3) 6g θ
√ sin
L 2
21. If two wire of same material and of same
−−
(4) 3g θ length have ratio of their radii 1 : 3, then
√ sin
L 2 under the effect of same stretching force,
their respective elongation will be in ratio
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 1
(4) √– 3 : 1

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

22. A : Strain is dimensionless quantity. 26. The ratio of the masses and radii of two
R : Strain is force per unit area of a body. planets are 2 : 3 and 8 : 27. The ratio of
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and respective escape speeds from their
the reason is the correct explanation of surfaces are
– –
the assertion (1) √3 : √2
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) 9 : 4
the reason is not the correct
(3) 3 : 2
explanation of the assertion
(4) 3 : 4
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 27. The angular velocity of a body is
→
statements ˆ ˆ ˆ
ω = (2 i + j + 5k) rad/s under a torque
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
23. The strain-stress graph of three wires P, Q, τ = (5 i + 2 j + 3k) N-m acting on it.
and R of different materials are as shown in The instantaneous rotational power is
figure, from graphs we conclude that
(1) 27 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 18 W
(4) 24 W

28. Moment of inertia of uniform circular disc

(1) Elasticity of wire P is maximum about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
(2) Elasticity of wire Q is maximum passing through a point on its rim will be
(3) Elasticity of wire R is maximum (1) 5I
(4) None of these (2) 3I
(3) 6I
24. Two blocks connected with an ideal string (4) 4I
are passing over a smooth pulley as shown
in the figure. The acceleration of centre of
mass of the system (two blocks) is (g = 10 29. A force ^ ^ ^
(5 i + 7 j − 3k)N acts on a particle
m/s2 ) at position ^ ^ ^
( i + j − k)m . Find torque of this
force on the particle about origin.
(1) (4^ ^ ^
i + 2 j + 2k)N − m

(2) ^ ^ ^
(−4 i + 2 j − 2k)N − m

(3) ^ ^ ^
(10 i − 8 j + 12k)N − m

(4) ^ ^ ^
(4 i − 2 j + 2k)N − m

(1) 2
30. A shell moving along a parabolic path
ˆ ˆ
(1.6 i + 2.4 j ) m/s explodes somewhere in its flight. The centre
of mass of fragments will
(2) ˆ ˆ
2
(2.4 i − 3.6 j ) m/s (1) Move in any direction
(3) 2
(2) Move in straight line
ˆ ˆ
(2.4 i − 1.6 j ) m/s (3) Move along the vertical direction
(4) ˆ ˆ
2 (4) Continue to move along the same
(1.6 i − 2.4 j ) m/s parabolic path

25. A rigid body has translational as well as 31. If energy of a body-planet system is positive,
rotational motion. If a force couple is applied then body will
on the object then, which of the following (1) Escape out from planet
quantities remains unchanged due to the (2) Move around the planet in elliptical
force couple? orbit
(1) Rotational kinetic energy (3) Move around the planet in circular orbit
(2) Translation kinetic energy (4) Move to certain maximum height and
(3) Total kinetic energy come back to surface of the planet
(4) Angular momentum about centre of
mass

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

32. If S is stress and Y is Young’s modulus of 34. Infinite number of bodies of masses m, 2m,
material then the energy stored per unit 4m, … are situated on x-axis at x = 1, 2, 4, …
volume is respectively. The resulting gravitational field
(1) S due to this system at origin will be
2Y
(1) 4Gm
(2) S
2

(2) 2Gm
2Y

(3) 1 (3) 8
Gm
SY 3
2

(4) 1
S
2
Y
(4) 4
Gm
3
2

33. A body weighs 63 N on the surface of earth. 35. If the mass of a body on the earth surface is
What is the gravitational force on it at a M, then its mass at the centre of earth is
height equal to half of radius of the earth? (1) Zero
(1) 32 N (2) M
(2) 45 N (3) M

2
(3) 36 N
(4) M

(4) 28 N 6

SECTION-B

36. Match the situations given in Column I with 39. Choose the incorrect statement among the
appropriate entries in Column II for a uniform following.
rod. (1) Internal forces do not affect the motion
Column I Column II of centre of mass of a system
Uniform tensile stresses (2) Centre of mass of a body lies towards
(A) (P)
developed in the rod heavier side
Non-uniform (3) Centre of mass may lie inside and
(B) (Q) compressive stresses outside of the material of the body
developed in the rod (4) Centre of mass of a body is
Uniform compressive independent of distribution of mass
(C) (R) stresses developed in
the rod
40. When a sphere is taken to bottom of sea 1
Non-uniform tensile km deep, it contracts by 0.01%. The bulk
(D) (S) stresses developed in modulus of elasticity of material of sphere is
the rod
(density of water = 1 gm/cc, g = 9.8 m/s2 )
(1) (A) – (P), (B) – (Q), (C) – (R), (D) – (S) (1) 0.98 × 1010 N
(2) (A) – (Q), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (R) m
2

(3) (A) – (R), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (Q) (2) 9.8 × 10
10 N

2
m

(4) (A) – (P), (B) – (R), (C) – (Q), (D) – (S) (3) 10 N
8.4 × 10
2
m

37. A disc is rotating with angular velocity ω. If a (4) 10.2 × 10

10 N

2
m
block is gently placed on its edge, which
physical quantity will be conserved?
(1) Linear momentum 41. Two persons of masses m and 2m are
standing on a horizontal smooth surface.
(2) Angular momentum
They are initially separated by a distance X0 .
(3) Kinetic energy They slide on the horizontal surface as they
(4) Moment of inertia pull a rope towards each other. They meet at
a distance
38. If the polar ice caps of the earth melts. Then (1) 2X from heavier person
0

4
the length of day will
(2) 2X0
from heavier person
(1) Increase 3

(2) Decrease (3) X0

3
from lighter person
(3) Remains same
(4) X0
from heavier person
(4) Earth stops to rotate 3

5
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

42. At what altitude from earth surface, the 46. If a torque,

acceleration due to gravity be 50% of that ^ ^ ^
τ ⃗ = −5 i + 30 j − 20k N − m acts on a
the earth’s surface? (Radius of earth = R) rotating body, due to a force
(1) R ⃗ ^ ^ ^ ^
–
F = x i + 2j + k and r ⃗ = 2^ ^
i + y j + 4k ,
(2) √2R then the values of x and y respectively are
–
(3) ( √2 − 1)R (1) 8 and 3
(4)
– (2) 3 and 8
( √2 + 1)R
(3) –8 and –3
(4) –3 and –8
43. If potential at surface of earth is taken as
zero, find potential at centre of earth.
(Symbols have usual meanings) 47. A uniform rod of length l is hinged at A and
(1) − 3 GM suspended with vertical string as shown in
2 R figure. If string is cut then acceleration of
(2) GM centre of mass at this instant will be (g = 10
−
2R
m/s2 )
(3) 3 GM

2 R

(4) GM

2R

44. A block of mass M is supported by a

massless string wound round a uniform solid
cylinder of mass M and radius R. On
releasing block from rest, it will fall with
acceleration
(1) 8.5 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 7.5 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

48. A body of mass 10 kg moves along a straight

line y = x + 5, where x and y are in metres,
–
with velocity 2√2 m/s . Its angular
momentum about a point having co-ordinate
(1) g (0,1) is
(2) g
(1) 100 kg m2 s–1
3

(3) 2g (2) 80 kg m2 s–1

3
–
(3) 2 −1
50√2 kg m s
(4) g

−
−
2
(4) 2 −1
100√2 kg m s

45. Four rods each of mass m and length l are

arranged in the form of square as shown in 49. Two particles A and B of different masses
figure. The moment of inertia about initially at rest start moving towards each
perpendicular bisector of opposite sides is other under a mutual force of attraction. At
the instant when speed of A is v and speed
of B is 2v, the speed of centre of mass is
(1) v
(2) 2v
(3) 3 v
2

(4) Zero

50. Consider two bodies A and B with respective

angular speeds 2 rad/s and 4 rad/s. If they
have same mass and same rotational kinetic
(1) ml2 energy then the ratio of radius of gyration is
(2) ml2 /6 (1) 2 : 1
(3) 2/3 ml2 (2) 1 : 3
(4) ml2 /3 (3) 5 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

6
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. For the following reaction 56. For the reversible reaction by
AB(g) ⇌ A(g) + B(g) , AB is PCl5 (g) + heat ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
1
rd dissociated at a total equilibrium The equilibrium shifts in forward direction by
3

pressure of P. P is related to Kp by which one (1) Adding catalyst

of the following options? (2) Increasing pressure
(1) P = Kp (3) Decreasing temperature
(2) P = 8Kp (4) Removing Cl2

(3) P = 4Kp
(4) P = 3Kp 57. pKa and pKb of weak acid HA and weak
base BOH are 4.5 and 4.69 respectively. The
pH of 0.2 M solution of salt (BA) will be
52. 0.12 mole of CH3 NH2 (Kb = 5 × 10–5 ) is (1) 7.095
mixed with 0.08 mole of HCl and diluted to (2) 6.905
one litre. The pH of the resulting solution is (3) 4.89
(1) 10.09
(4) 5.99
(2) 9.40
(3) 8.50
58. 92 g N2 O4 is heated in 1 L vessel. At
(4) 11.30
equilibrium, 50% N2 O4 was found to be
dissociated into NO2 . The equilibrium
53. Which one of the following condition will constant of the reaction will be
favour maximum formation of the product in (1) 0.2 mol L–1
the reaction at equilibrium
A2 ( s) + 2 B ( g) ⇌ C(g), Δr H =
(2) 2 mol L–1
2

−1 (3) 0.5 mol L–1

+50 kJ mol
(4) 5 mol L–1
(1) High temperature
(2) Low pressure
(3) Adding more A2 59. Equal volumes of acidic solutions having pH
3, 4 and 5 are mixed. H+ concentration in
(4) Adding more C
mixture will be
(1) 1.85 × 10–5 M
54. Solubility product of M(OH)X is 4 × 10–12 . If (2) 3.7 × 10–4 M
its solubility is 10–4 M then x will be
(3) 1.11 × 10–5 M
(1) 2
(4) 1.85 × 10–4 M
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4 60. Which one of the following pairs is not an
acidic buffer?
(1) NaHCO3 and H2 CO3
55. A : H3 O+ and OH– are not conjugate acid
(2) NaHSO4 and H2 SO4
base pair.
R : NaOH is non-electrolyte. (3) HCOONa and HCOOH
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (4) NaCN and HCN
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
61. In lead storage battery, electrolyte used is
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(1) aq. KOH
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (2) aq. NaOH
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) aq. H2 SO4
is false (4) aq. NH4 Cl
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

7
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

62. The minimum concentration of Ag+ ions 68. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 (Molar mass =
required in order to initiate the precipitation M) in acidic medium is
of AgCl from a solution containing 0.004 mol (1) M
L–1 of Cl– ion will be [Ksp of AgCl = 1.8 × 10– 5
10
] (2) M

(1) 4.5 × 10–8 M 3

(3) M
(2) 2.0 × 10–8 M 1

(3) 3.8 ×10–7 M (4) M

6
(4) 4.2 × 10–6 M

69. Oxidation state of Sulphur in H2 S2 O8 is

63. Which of the following salts will produce a
(1) –2
minimum pH solution due to hydrolysis?
(2) +4
(1) NaCl
(2) NH4 CN (3) +6
(4) +7
(3) Na2 CO3
(4) NH4 Cl
70. If oxidation states of A, B and C respectively
are +2, +3 and –2 then the possible formula
64. The possible oxidation states of two chlorine of the compound is
atoms in bleaching powder (CaOCl2 ) are (1) A3 (B2 C)2
(1) –1, +1 (2) A2 (BC)3
(2) 0, 0 (3) B3 (AC3 )2
(3) –1, –1 (4) A3 (BC3 )2
(4) –1, 0

71. For the redox reaction

65. The disproportionation reaction among the
Cr2 O 7 + Fe2+ + H+ → Fe3+ + Cr3+ + H2 O
2−

following is
(1) 2F2 + 2OH− → 2F− + OF 2 + H2 O The correct coefficients of the reactants for
the balanced equation are
(2) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2 O

(3) Cl2 + OH
−
→ ClO
−
+ Cl
−
+ H2 O Fe2+ H+
(4) Fe + 3H2 O → Fe2 O3 + 3H2
(1) 1 6 8

(2) 2 8 9
66. The correct order of oxidising power among
the following is (3) 1 6 14
I. Mg2+/Mg E° = –2.36 V
(4) 6 3 12
II. Zn2+/Zn E° = –0.76 V
III. Cu2+/Cu E° = 0.34 V (1) (1)
(1) III < II < I (2) (2)
(2) I < II < III (3) (3)
(3) II < I < III (4) (4)
(4) III < I < II
72. Which of the following decomposition
67. In the following reaction, reactions is not a redox reaction?
2HgCl2 + SnCl2 → Hg2 Cl2 + SnCl4 (1) H2 O(l) → H2 (g) + O2 (g)
The oxidation number of mercury changes (2) NaH(s) → 2Na(s) + H2 (g)
from
(3) CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
(1) + 2 to + 4
(4) KClO3 (s) → KCl(s) + O2 (g)
(2) + 4 to + 2
(3) + 2 to + 1
(4) + 2 to zero 73. In carbon suboxide, the oxidation states of
carbon are
(1) +2 and +3
(2) +2 and 0
(3) +2 only
(4) +1 and +3

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

74. To oxidise 1 mol FeSO4 how many moles of 79. Molar conductivities ( Λm )
0
at infinite dilution
acidic K2 Cr2 O7 are required? of NaCl, HCl and CH3 COONa are x, y and z
(1) 6 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. Λm for CH3 COOH
0

(2) 1/3 will be

(3) 3 (1) x + y + z
(4) 1/6 (2) x – y – z
(3) y + z – x
75. Which of the following produces H2 (g) and (4) y – z – x
O2 (g) at cathode and anode respectively
upon electrolysis? 80. In a galvanic cell
(1) NaCl (aqueous) (1) Chemical reaction produces electrical
(2) K2 SO4 (Dilute) energy
(3) CuCl2 (aq) (2) Electrical energy produces chemical
reaction
(4) AgNO3 (aq)
(3) Reduction occurs at anode
(4) Oxidation occurs at cathode
76. The values of resistance and resistivity of 0.1
M solution of an electrolyte are 50 Ω and 77
Ω cm respectively. The molar conductivity of 81. For hypothetical cell reaction
the solution is A
2+
(aq) + B(s) → A(s) + B
2+
(aq)

(1) 158 S cm2 mol–1 if E

o
is 0.236 V then the equilibrium
cell
(2) 130 S cm2 mol–1 constant of the reaction will be
(3) 105 S cm2 mol–1 (1) 1012
(4) 50 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 104
(3) 106
77. Ni(s) | Ni2+ (1 M) || H+(pH = x) | H2 (1 bar) | (4) 108
Pt
The value of x for which the emf of the cell is
zero at 25°C, will be [Given
82. For the cell reaction Ni(s) + 2Ag+(aq) ⇌ Ni2+
(aq) + 2Ag(s), Ecell is
= 0.236 V]
o
E 2+
∣
Ni ∣ N i
(1) ∘ RT
[Ni
2+
]
E − ln
(1) 4 cell 2F [Ag
+
]
2

(2) 6
(2) ∘ RT
2+
[Ni ]
2

(3) 3 E
cell
− ln
+
2F [Ag ]

(4) 2
(3) 0 RT
2+
[Ni ]
2

E − ln
cell 2F + 2
[Ag ]
78. Given below are two statements : one is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is (4) ∘ RT
2+
[Ni ]
E − ln
labelled as Reason R : cell 2F [Ag
+
]

Assertion A : Metallic conduction increases

with increase in temperature.
Reasons R : Electrolytic conduction 83. If E
0
2+
is x1 , E
0
3+ 2+
is Y and
Fe |F e Fe |F e
decreases with increase in temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose E
0

Fe
3+
|F e
is x2 , then the value of Y will be
the correct answer from the options given (1) 3x2 – 2x1
below :
(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the (2) x2 – x1
reason is the correct explanation of the (3) x2 + x1
assertion
(4) 2xz1 + 3x2
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false
statements

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

84. The quantity of electricity required to convert

0.5 mol of MnO4 – into Mn2+ is
(1) 5 × 96500 C
(2) 2.5 × 96500 C
(3) 1 × 96500 C
(4) 0.5 × 96500 C

85. 11.2 g of tin is deposited on passing 1

ampere of current for 5 hours in its aqueous
salt solution. Tin is present in the form of (At.
wt. of Sn is 120)
(1) Sn+
(2) Sn2+
(3) Sn3+
(4) Sn4+

SECTION-B

86. Which of the following compounds can act 90. Given below are two statements : one is
as both oxidising and reducing agent w.r.t labelled as Assertion A and the other is
central atom? labelled as Reason R :
(1) SO3 A : Fe3 O4 is a mixed oxide of iron.
R : Oxidation state of Fe in Fe3 O4 is either
(2) NO2
+3 or +4.
(3) Cl2 O7 In the light of the above statements, choose
(4) CO2 the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
87. Which among the following will not liberate the reason is the correct explanation of
H2 gas on reaction with dilute HCl? the assertion
(1) Na (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(2) Mg the reason is not the correct
(3) Cu explanation of the assertion
(4) Zn (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
88. In which of the following oxidation number of statements
1
oxygen is − 2 ?
(1) Na2 O 91. Which among the following is a Lewis acid?
(2) KO2 (1) H2 O
(3) H2 O2 (2) B2 H6
(4) OF2 (3) NH3
(4) CH3 OH
89. If pH of neutral water at 90°C is 5 then the
ionic product of water at 90°C is 92. The number of mole of K2 Cr2 O7 that will be
(1) 10–7 needed to react with one mole of oxalate ion
(2) 10–10 in acidic solution is
(1) 2/3
(3) 10–12
(2) 3/5
(4) 10–14
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/6

10
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

93. The pH of 10–8 M HCl solution is 97. If for the electrochemical cell
(1) 8 A(s)|A2+ (0.1 M) || B+(0.1 M) | B(s) the emf is
5 V, then Eºcell of the reaction is
(2) 6
(1) 6.78 V
(3) 3
(4) 6.97 (2) 5.03 V
(3) 2.18 V
(4) 10.07 V
94. The acid having weakest conjugate base
among the following is
(1) HF 98. E
∘
+3
= −0.42 V ??
( Cr /Cr)
(2) H2 O ∘ +2
E ( Fe /Fe) = −0.44 V
(3) H2 S ∘
E +
= −2.71 V
(4) HCl ( Na /Na)

E° 3+ =– 1.66 V
(Al /Al)
95. If Kb of NH3 is 2 × 10–5 , then the Ka of NH4 + Based on this data, which is the poorest
ion is reducing agent?
(1) 5 × 10–10 (1) Na
(2) Al
(2) 2 × 10–10
(3) Fe
(3) 5 × 10–5
(4) Cr
(4) 2 × 10–5
99. The mass ratio of Al and Ag deposited using
96. For a spontaneous reaction ΔG, Kc and the same quantity of current is
E
0
will be respectively (1) 9:108
cell
(2) 2:12
(1) –ve, >1, +ve
(3) 108:9
(2) –ve, >1, –ve
(4) 3:8
(3) +ve, >1, –ve
(4) –ve, <1, –ve
100. Zn can not displace following ions from their
salt solution:
(1) Ag+
(2) Na+
(3) Fe2+
(4) Cu2+

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Periderm includes 103. Select the mismatch.

(1) Phellogen and phellem only (1) Metaxylem - Later formed secondary
(2) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm xylem
(3) Phellem and phelloderm only (2) Endarch condition - Seen in stems
(4) Primary cortex and pericycle only (3) Protophloem - Narrow sieve tubes
(4) Sclereids - Highly thickened dead cells
102. Companion cells
(1) Are specialised sclerenchymatous cells 104. Stele does not consist of
(2) Are closely associated with sieve tube (1) Pericycle
elements (2) Endodermis
(3) Lack nucleus at maturity (3) Pith
(4) Are found in gymnosperms (4) Phloem

11
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

105. Water containing cavities are seen inside 112. Intercalary meristems are intercalated in
vascular bundles of between the
(1) Dicot root (1) Permanent tissues
(2) Monocot stem (2) Cells of meristematic tissues
(3) Dicot stem (3) Cells of lateral meristem
(4) Monocot root (4) Cells of root cap

106. Secondary medullary rays are 113. The dead component of phloem is
(1) Narrow band of collenchyma which (1) Phloem parenchyma
passes through secondary xylem and (2) Phloem fibres
secondary phloem
(3) Sieve tube elements
(2) Developed due to redifferentiation
(4) Companion cells
(3) Developed from cambium and
translocates only water in radial
direction 114. Root hair and trichome both are
(4) Developed due to dedifferentiation (1) Always unicellular
after redifferentiation (2) Branched
(3) Epidermal outgrowths
107. Heartwood differs from sapwood in (4) Responsible for preventing water loss
(1) Being lighter in colour
(2) Being actively involved in conduction of 115. “Protoxylem lies towards the A in stem.
water ¯¯¯¯¯¯
(3) Providing mechanical support to the Such arrangement of xylem is called B .”
¯¯¯¯¯¯
stem and in not conducting water Select the correct option for A and B.
(4) Having lignified cell walls of tracheids (1) A – Centre, B – Exarch
(2) A – Periphery, B – Exarch
108. Mesophyll cells are divided into palisade (3) A – Centre, B – Endarch
and spongy parenchyma in (4) A – Periphery, B – Endarch
(1) Grass leaf
(2) Monocot leaf 116. The endodermis is also known as starch
(3) Isobilateral leaf sheath in
(4) Dicot leaf (1) Monocot stem
(2) Dicot stem
109. Suberin deposited barrel shaped cells are (3) Monocot root
found in (4) Dicot root
(1) Epidermis
(2) Endodermis 117. Embryo sac represents female gametophyte
(3) Pericycle in
(4) Hypodermis (1) Gymnosperms
(2) Liverworts
110. The ring arrangement of vascular bundles is (3) Horsetails
a characteristic of (4) Dicots
(1) Monocot stem
(2) Dicot stem 118. In flowering plants, after fertilization
(3) Monocot root (1) Ovary develops into seeds
(4) Dicot root (2) Ovule develops into fruit
(3) Zygote forms embryo
111. A few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of the (4) Egg apparatus changes into
guard cells become specialised in their endosperm
shape and size, are known as
(1) Subsidiary cells
119. Double fertilisation and triple fusion events
(2) Complementary cells are unique to
(3) Bulliform cells (1) Algae
(4) Passage cells (2) Angiosperms
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

12
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

120. Anteriorly placed, equal, 2-8 flagella are 128. Gemmae are
characteristic to ?? (1) Green, unicellular, sexual buds
(1) BGA
(2) Green, multicellular, asexual buds
(2) Green algae
(3) Non-green, unicellular, asexual buds
(3) Red algae (4) Non-green, multicellular, sexual buds
(4) Brown algae

129. Microphylls are found in

121. The tallest gymnosperm is (1) Selaginella
(1) Eucalyptus (2) Pteris
(2) Pinus (3) Dryopteris
(3) Sequoia (4) Adiantum
(4) Ginkgo

130. In pea plant, egg apparatus is

122. Sporophyte is dominant plant body of (1) 7-celled
(1) Sphagnum
(2) 3-celled
(2) Marchantia
(3) 8-nucleated
(3) Laminaria
(4) 8-celled
(4) Psilotum

131. Identify the given organism and label A, then

123. The vascular amphibians of plant kingdom select the suitable option.
(1) Are homosporous only
(2) Produce naked seeds
(3) Are always dioecious
(4) Produce free-living gametophytes

124. The spread of living pteridophytes is limited

and restricted to narrow geographical
regions because
(1) Gametophytes are dependent on
sporophytes
(2) Sporophytes require cool, damp place
to produce gametes Organism Label A
(3) Gametophytes require cool, damp and (1) Laminaria Kelp
shady places to grow. (2) Porphyra Frond
(4) They do not need water for fertilisation (3) Fucus Air bladder
(4) Polysiphonia Branches
125. Agar-agar commonly used in culture (1) (1)
medium is obtained from??
(2) (2)
(1) Gelidium
(3) (3)
(2) Chara
(4) (4)
(3) Sargassum
(4) Dictyota
132. Select the set of organisms in which
flagellated gametes are not formed.
126. Cytotaxonomy is based on all of the (1) Ulothrix, Volvox, Spirogyra
following, except.
(2) Porphyra, Gelidium, Spirogyra
(1) Chromosome number
(3) Sargassum, Fucus, Ulothrix
(2) DNA sequencing
(4) Ulothrix, Chara, Chlamydomonas
(3) Chromosome structure
(4) Chromosome behaviour
133. Reserve food material present in the
members of Rhodophyceae is
127. A fresh water colonial green alga is (1) Paramylon
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Mannitol
(2) Volvox (3) Structurally similar to amylopectin and
(3) Fucus glycogen
(4) Laminaria (4) Starch and laminarin

13
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

134. First stage of gametophyte in mosses is

(1) Leafy stage
(2) Upright, slender axis bearing spirally
arranged leaves
(3) Creeping, green, branched and
frequently filamentous stage
(4) The stage which bears sex organs

135. In conifers, ovules are borne on A which

¯
¯¯¯¯¯
may be clustered to form the B .
¯
¯¯¯¯¯
(1) A - megasporophylls, B - female cone
(2) A - megasporophylls, B - male cone
(3) A - microsporophylls, B - female cone
(4) A - microsporophylls, B - male cone

SECTION-B

136. Bark includes all, except 141. Conjoint open vascular bundles are present
(1) Periderm in
(2) Secondary phloem (1) Dicotyledonous root
(3) Pericycle (2) Monocotyledonous stem
(4) Secondary xylem (3) Dicotyledonous stem
(4) Monocotyledonous root
137. All of the following are primary meristems,
except 142. Vascular cambium in dicot root is
(1) Intrafascicular cambium (1) Completely primary
(2) Intercalary meristem (2) Partially secondary
(3) Shoot apical meristem (3) Completely secondary
(4) Interfascicular cambium (4) Not functional

138. Vascular bundles are considered open 143. A tissue is a group of cells that are
when (1) Different in origin
(1) Xylem is present towards the periphery (2) Common in function
(2) Cambium is present between xylem (3) Always similar in structure
and phloem
(4) Only meristematic in activity
(3) Xylem and phloem are surrounded by
bundle sheath
(4) Protoxylem is present towards centre 144. The first vascular terrestrial plant group is
(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
139. Autumn wood differs from spring wood as
the former (3) Gymnosperms
(1) Is dark in colour (4) Angiosperms
(2) Has lower density than later
(3) Has vessels with wider lumen 145. Floridean starch is the stored food in
(4) Is formed during rainy season (1) Ectocarpus
(2) Eudorina
140. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks (3) Fucus
(1) Phloem fibres (4) Porphyra
(2) Phloem parenchyma
(3) Albuminous cells and sieve cells
(4) Sieve tubes and companion cells

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

146. Complex post-fertilization developments 149. Algin and carrageen are respectively
occur in obtained from
(1) Ulothrix (1) Brown algae and red algae
(2) Chlamydomonas (2) The members of Chlorophyceae and
(3) Gracilaria Rhodophyceae
(4) Volvox (3) Green algae and brown algae
(4) Red algae and green algae
147. A structure that is absent in gymnosperms is
(1) Seed 150. In algae, transport of male gamete occurs
through
(2) Embryo
(1) Water
(3) Archegonia
(2) Wind
(4) Fruit
(3) Birds
(4) Insect
148. Choose the odd one w.r.t. haplodiplontic life
cycle pattern.
(1) Fucus
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Pteridophytes

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Systemic heart refers to 155. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in
(1) Two ventricles together number can cause clotting disorder, leading
to excessive loss of blood from the body.
(2) Left auricle and right ventricle
(1) Erythrocytes
(3) Left auricle and left ventricle
(2) Leucocytes
(4) Right auricle and right ventricle
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Thrombocytes
152. The volume of blood that enters into the
aorta with each ventricular systole in a
cardiac cycle is called 156. Identify the WBCs, that are responsible for
(1) Cardiac volume phagocytosis
(2) Stroke volume (1) Basophils
(3) Cardiac output (2) Neutrophils
(4) Vital capacity (3) Eosinophils
(4) T-lymphocytes
153. Serum differs from blood in
(1) Lacking globulins 157. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement w.r.t. electrocardiogram?
(2) Lacking albumins
(1) P-wave represents depolarisation of
(3) Lacking clotting factors atria
(4) Lacking antibodies (2) Ventricular systole begins shortly after
Q wave
154. In the heart of mammals the bicuspid valve (3) T-wave represents the return of
is present between A and B . ventricles from excited to normal state
Choose the correct option that fills the (4) The end of T-wave marks the end of
blanks A and B respectively. atrial systole
(1) Left auricle, left ventricle
(2) Right auricle, right ventricle
(3) Right auricle, left auricle
(4) Right ventricle, pulmonary aorta

15
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

158. The correct order of flow of deoxygenated 164. Substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+
blood starting from the heart is in the filtrate are reabsorbed by
(1) Left atrium Left ventricle (1) Active transport
Pulmonary artery
(2) Passive transport
(2) Right atrium Right ventricle
(3) Facilitated transport
Pulmonary artery
(4) Osmosis
(3) Right atrium Right ventricle
Pulmonary vein
(4) Left atrium Left ventricle 165. The capacity of concentrating the urine is
Pulmonary vein largely related to
(1) Diameter of the blood vessels
159. Which of the following is not a part of (2) Thickness of the filtration membrane
systemic circulation? (3) Permeability of the filtration membrane
(1) Aorta (4) Length of the loop of Henle
(2) Heart
(3) Pulmonary artery 166. JGA is formed by cellular modifications of
(4) Vena cava (1) PCT and efferent arteriole
(2) DCT and afferent arteriole
160. In mammals, which blood vessel would (3) PCT and afferent arteriole
normally carry largest amount of urea? (4) DCT and efferent arteriole
(1) Renal vein
(2) Dorsal aorta
167. Which of the following is not a part of renal
(3) Hepatic vein tubule?
(4) Hepatic portal vein (1) Bowman’s capsule
(2) Collecting duct
161. During and immediately after ventricular (3) Proximal convoluted tubule
systole (4) Distal convoluted tubule
(A) Blood gets filled in atria from vena cava
(B) Atrio – ventricular valves get opened
(C) Semilunar valves get opened 168. On an average how much volume of blood is
(D) About 70 ml blood is pumped by each filtered by the kidneys per minute in a
ventricle into large arteries normally healthy individual under normal
(1) C & D physiological conditions?
(2) A, B, C & D (1) 100-200 ml
(3) A, C & D (2) 500-600 ml
(4) A & C (3) 1500-2000 ml
(4) 1100-1200 ml
162. By the end of joint diastole, the ventricles are
almost ­__________ filled. 169. In a healthy individual, the glomerular
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. filtration rate (GFR) is approximately ____
(1) 30% litre/day.
Choose the option that correctly fills the
(2) 70%
blank.
(3) 90% (1) 125
(4) 40% (2) 7.5
(3) 180
163. Complete the analogy by selecting the (4) 145
correct option.
Planaria : Protonephridia :: Amphioxus :
_____ 170. Select the odd one from the options given
(1) Antennal glands below w.r.t. excretory structure present in
animal.
(2) Green glands
(1) Rotifers
(3) Flame cells
(2) Flatworms
(4) Nephridia
(3) Crustaceans
(4) Amphioxus

16
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

171. In hemodialysis, dialysing fluid contains all 176. Consider the following statements w.r.t.
the constituents as in plasma, except functions of tubules in a nephron.
(1) NaCl a. PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush
border epithelium which increases the
(2) Urea
surface area for reabsorption.
(3) H2 O b. DCT helps in maintaining the pH and
(4) K+ sodium-potassium balance in blood.
c. Collecting duct allows small amount of
urea into medullary interstitium to keep up
172. Read the given statements and select the the osmolarity.
option that correctly classifies them as Choose the option that mention all correct
true(T) or false(F). statements.
(a) Human skeleton has total six girdle (1) Only a and b
bones.
(2) Only a and c
(b) There are usually 12 pairs of ribs in man.
(c) Sternum is present on the dorsal side of (3) Only a
the human body. (4) a, b and c
(d) Myasthenia gravis refers to progressive
degeneration of smooth muscles mostly due
to genetic disorder. 177. Which of the following organisms perform
flagellar movement?
a b c d
(1) Euglena
(1) T T F T (2) Amoeba
(2) F F T T (3) Paramecium
(3) F T F F (4) Hydra
(4) T T F F
(1) (1) 178. Decrease in the levels of which ion in the
body fluid results in tetany?
(2) (2)
(1) Na+
(3) (3)
(4) (4) (2) Ca++
(3) Cl–
173. Read the following statements carefully and (4) Mg+2
select the correct option.
Statement A : In gout, inflammation of joints
occurs due to deposition of uric acid crystals. 179. Each A has many parallely arranged
Statement B : Decrease in levels of ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
B . Fill the blanks A and B with a
oestrogen in old age females is a common
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
cause of osteoporosis. suitable option.
(1) Statement A is correct but statement B (1) A-Myofibril, B-Neurofibrils
is incorrect (2) A-Myofibril, B-Muscle fibres
(2) Only statement B is correct (3) A-Muscle fibre, B-Neurofibrils
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) A-Muscle fibre, B-Myofibrils
(4) Both statements A and B are correct
180. Type of joint where flat skull bones fuse end
174. The nitrogenous wastes are excreted mainly to end with the help of dense fibrous
as uric acid by all the given animals except connective tissue is called
(1) Pigeon (1) Synovial joint
(2) Cockroach (2) Cartilaginous joint
(3) Lizards (3) Gliding joint
(4) Monkey (4) Fibrous joint

175. Acromion process articulates with the 181. In the human body, the total number of
(1) Head of femur floating ribs and collar bones respectively
are
(2) Head of humerus
(1) 4 and 2
(3) Collar bone
(2) 6 and 4
(4) Sternum
(3) 14 and 4
(4) 4 and 8

17
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

182. Cross bridge between myosin head and 184. Synovial fluid is present in
actin filament breaks when (1) Fibrous joint
(1) ADP + Pi is released from globular (2) Cartilaginous joint
head of myosin
(3) Freely movable joint
(2) ATP gets hydrolysed into ADP + Pi
(4) Intervertebral joint
(3) New ATP binds to myosin head
(4) Low calcium levels causes remasking
of actin filaments 185. Read the following given statements and
choose the correct option.
Statement A: Red muscle fibres have few
183. Select the activity which would essentially mitochondria in them, but exhibit high
involve movement but not result in amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum.
locomotion. Statement B: White muscle fibres are also
(1) Walking termed as aerobic muscle fibres and
produce huge amount of ATP.
(2) Climbing
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Talking
(2) Both statements are correct
(4) Swimming
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

SECTION-B

186. Select the factor which decreases the rate of 190. If repeated checks of blood pressure of an
heart beat along with speed of conduction of individual show pressures as 140/90, it is
action potential and thereby the cardiac considered as
output. (1) Hypotension
(1) Release of adrenaline (2) Hypertension
(2) Simultation of somatic neural system (3) Bradycardia
(3) Simultation of sympathetic neural (4) Heart block
system
(4) Simultation of parasympathetic neural
system 191. Glycosuria and ketonuria are the symptoms
of
(1) Diabetes insipidus
187. Pacemaker in human heart is a modified
(2) Diabetes mellitus
(1) Nerve
(3) Gull’s disease
(2) Cardiac muscle
(4) Conn’s syndrome
(3) Bone
(4) Cartilage
192. Extension of renal cortex in between the
medullary pyramids is known as
188. The site of production of blood cells in an (1) Hilum
adult human is
(2) Duct of Bellini
(1) Kidney
(3) Column of Bertini
(2) Liver
(4) Juxtamedullary apparatus
(3) Bone marrow
(4) Spleen
193. Human heart is
(1) Myogenic because it is composed of
189. Which valves prevent the backward flow of autoexcitable nodal tissues
blood into the ventricles from pulmonary
(2) Neurogenic because ANS can regulate
artery and systemic aorta?
heart beat
(1) Tricuspid valves
(3) Myogenic because it is made of
(2) Semilunar valves voluntary, cardiac muscles
(3) Bicuspid valves (4) Neurogenic because it has an
(4) Thebesian valves extensive nerve supply

18
Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P3)-Test-04C

194. Which of the following factors acts 199. Which of the following is a storehouse of
antagonistic to RAAS? calcium ions in a muscle fibre?
(1) Aldosterone (1) Centromeres
(2) ANF (2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) Angiotensin II (3) Myofilaments
(4) Renin (4) Sarcolemma

195. Our lungs remove approximately 200. The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule
(1) 800 mL CO2 in a minute called xare arranged in an intricate manner
so as to leave minute spaces between them
(2) 12 Litres CO2 in a hour which are called Y .
(3) 600 Litres CO2 in a day Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ from the above statement.
(4) 200 mL CO2 in a second (1) X - Podocytes, Y - Slit pores
(2) X - JG cells, Y - Filtration slits
(3) X - Podocytes, Y - Interstitium
196. The total number of bones in axial and
appendicular skeleton in an adult human (4) X - JG cells, Y - Slit pores
are respectively (1) (1)
(1) 80 and 26 (2) (2)
(2) 206 and 80 (3) (3)
(3) 80 and 126 (4) (4)
(4) 126 and 206

197. Bones of lower limb in humans do not

include
(1) Carpals
(2) Phalanges
(3) Metatarsals
(4) Tarsals

198. Choose the incorrect match for the structure

found in sarcomere.
(1) ‘M’ line – Thin fibrous membrane in
centre of H zone
(2) ‘H’ zone – Region in centre of ‘I’ band
(3) ‘A’ band – Comprises of myosin and
actin
(4) ‘Z’-disc – Separates one sarcomere
from the next

19