SOLUTIONS

TEST SERIES-NEET [(4+1)(4+1)(+10)]

PART TEST - XII/02 TEST CODE : PT - XII/02

PART - I : PHYSICS 11. (1) Magnetic field due to a current carrying wire at a
distance r from the wire.
1. (2) Due to motion or oscillates of the coil, the eddy
current develops in the metallic material which oppose 10 -7 ´ 2 ´ 5 1
or, B = -2
= ´ 10 -5
the motion of the coil thus bringing the coil to rest. 20 ´ 10 2
2. (1) Given magnetic flux, f = 2t3 + 4t2 + 2t + 5
- df
Induced emf, e =
dt
df d
\ e = = [2t 3 + 4t 2 + 2t + 5] = 6t 2 + 8t + 2
dt dt
e(t) = 6t2 + 8t + 2
e(t = 5) = 6(5)2 + 8(5) + 2 = 150 + 40 + 2
\ |e| = 192 V
m0 2l 4 p ´10 -7 ´ 2 ´ 5
3. (1) Diamagnetic substance do not obey Curie’s law and B= =
cm is independent of T. 4p r 4p ´ 20 ´ 10 -2
4. (1) Laminated core provide less area of cross-section for 10-7 ´ 2 ´ 5
1
the current to flow. Because of this, resistance of the core or, B = ´10-5
-2
=
20 ´ 10 2
increases and current decreases there by decreasing the T upward to the plane of paper
energy loss due to eddy current. Therefore, force acting on electron
r r r
5.
m M
(3) Beq = 0
4
= 10-7 ´ = 5 ´ 10-8 T (
F = q v´B )
4p d 3 3 r 1
6. (2) Galvanometer has 25 divisions Ig = 4 × 10–4 × 25 F = 1.6 ´10 -19 ´ 105 ´ ´ 10 -5 = 8 ´10 -20 N
2
= 10–2 A 12. (2) The magnetic field due to two wires at P
G ig m0 i m 0i d
B1 = ; B2 =
R V = Ig Rnet 2p(d + x) 2p(d - x ) M P
50W x
Both the magnetic fields act in i i
v 2.5V
opposite direction.
v = Ig (G + R)
m ié 1 1 ù
2.5 = (50 + R) 10–2 \ R = 200W \ B = B2 - B1 = 0 ê -
2p ë d - x d + x úû
7. (2) Wattless current flow in a circuit only when circuit is
resistanceless i.e. circuit is purely capacitive or inductive. m 0i é d + x - d + x ù m0 ix
= = .
8. (1) Given, area of rectangular coil, A = 14 ´ 10–2 m2 2p êë d 2 - x 2 úû p( d 2 - x 2 )
Magnetic field, B = 3T R
13. (2) Power factor, f =
Number of turns, n = 100 2
æ 1 ö 2
emax = NABw çè wL - ÷ +R
wC ø
360 ´ 2 p 8 8 8
= 100 ´ 14 ´ 10 -2 ´ 3 ´ = 1584 V = = = 0.8 =
60 (31 - 25) + 8 2 2
6 +8 10 2 2
9. (3) dI (0 - 2)
r r 14. (4) Induced emf, e = -L Þ 20 = -L -3
dt
10. (3) ò B × dl = m0i Hence, inductance of the coil.
10

or 3.83 × 10–7 = (4p × 10–7) i L = 10 mH

\ i = 0.3 A.
12 NEET PT - XII/02

Pi 4000 m0 nI
15. (4) As E p Ι p = Pi \ Ιp = = = 40 A. B=
Ep 100 2R
16. (1) AC Generator:- It converts mechanical energy into 4 p ´ 10-7 ´1000 ´1
electrical energy. = = 10 -3 T
-2
2 ´ 62.8 ´ 10
Galvanometer:- It shows deflection when current passes
through it, so it is used to show presence of current in the
wire. 22. (1) We know that, Nf = Li
Transformer:- It is used to step up or step down the Li 8 ´ 10-3 ´ 5 ´ 10 -3
voltage. \ f= = = 10 -7 Wb
N 400
Metal detector:- It contain inductor coil and use principle
of induction and resonance in AC circuit. m0
= Wb .
V 4p
17. (2) Current in the loop I = equal for both loops.
R dB 1 ´ æ 2 ö = 1 V
Magnetic moment of equilateral triangle of side a 23. (1) e = A = ç ÷
dt è 2ø
æ 12a ö 3 2 e 1
÷ × I × 4 a = 3Ia [Q M = NIA]
2
MT = ç \ i= = = 0.1 A .
è 3a ø R 10
Similarly magnetic moment of square of side a 24. (4) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (i); (D) - (iii)

æ 12a ö I I
÷ × I × a [Q M = NIA] = 3 or I g =
2 25. (2) 1/3rd deflection means =
=ç Ig
è 4 a ø 3
Ig G = (I – Ig)S Þ Ig
MS = 3Ia2
(G + S) = IS
18. (1) Magnetic susceptibility c for dia-magnetic materials
only is negative and low |c| = –1; for paramagnetic Ig S 1 S
substances low but positive |c| = 1 and for ferromagnetic Þ = Þ =
I G+S 3 G+S
substances positive and high |c| = 102. Þ G + S = 3S Þ G = 2S
r r r
19. (3) Lorentz force, F = q(v ´ B) 26. (3) Impedance in LCR circuit
r
(
= qv ´ Biˆ + Bjˆ + B0 kˆ ) Z= ( X L - X C )2 + R 2
r
\ q = 1, v = 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6kˆ and Q X L = XC = R \Z = R
ur
F = 4iˆ - 20 ˆj + 12kˆ (given) 27. (1) The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is equal

(
\ 4iˆ – 20 ˆj + 12kˆ ) to zero.
ig S
( )( )
= -1´ éê 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6 kˆ ´ Biˆ + Bjˆ + B0 kˆ ùú
ë û
28. (3) Using,
i
=
S +G
or (4 ˆi - 20 ˆj + 12 kˆ) or
8
=
8
40 8 + G
= i (4 B0 - 6 B ) - j (2B0 - 6 B ) + kˆ(2 B - 4 B ) \ G = 32 W.
Comparing L.H.S and R.H.S, we get
4B0 – 6B = 4 Þ 2B0 –3B = 2 ...(i) re Pe eB 2meK me
29. (2) = = =
–(2B0 – 6B) = –20 Þ B0 – 3B = 10 ...(ii) rp Pp eB 2m p K mp
2B – 4B = 12 Þ B = –6 ...(iii)
As, mp > me, so, rp > re
From eq. (ii) and (iii)
30. (4)
B = –6 and B0 = –8
r 31. (3) Given,
\ Complete expression for B = -6iˆ - 6 ˆj - 8kˆ
Magnetic Field, B = (2iˆ + 3 ˆj – 4kˆ)T
S
20. (1) ig = i
S +G Magnetic force acting on a current carrying wire is
r r r
or 100 ´ 10-6 = i æ 0.1 ö F = Il ´ B
è 100 + 0.1ø
or i = 100.1 × 10–3 A. = ILiˆ ´ (2iˆ + 3 ˆj – 4kˆ) = 3ILkˆ + 4 ILjˆ
21. (1) Magnetic field at the centre of the coil
NEET PT - XII/02 13

Magnitude of force, attract weekly in the direction of field. Hence, N2 will weakly
r attracted. Diamagnetic substances do not have magnetic
| F | = (3 IL) 2 + (4 IL) 2 = 5IL dipole but in the presence of external magnetic field due to
their orbital motion of electrons these substances are
32. (3) i2 = (i1 cos wt + i2 sin wt)2 repelled. Hence, N3 will be repelled.
= i12 cos2 wt + i22 sin2 wt + 2i1i2 cos wt sin wt 38. (3) Capacitive reactance,
2 1 2 1 1 1 1
i 2 = i1 ´ + i2 ´ + 0 Xc = = \ Xc µ
2 2 wC ( 2pf ) C f
XC vs f graph is rectangular hyperbola
or irms = i 2 = (i12 + i2 2) / 2
Inductive reactance
220 XL = wL = (2pf)L
33. (4) As V(t) = 220 sin 100 pt so, I(t) = sin 100 pt
50 \ XL µ f
i.e., I = Im = sin (100 pt) For I = Im
\ XL vs f graph is straight line.
p 1 1 I 39. (3)
t1 = ´ = sec. and for I = m
2 100p 200 2 V
40. (4) Current, I =
I Z
Þ m = I m sin(100 pt 2 ) When frequency of an a.c. source increases impedance
2
(Z) first decreases and then increases.
p 1
Þ = 100 pt 2 Þ t 2 = s \ Current will first increase, attains its maximum value
6 600 and then decreases.
1 1 2 1 R
\ treq = - = = s = 3.3 ms Power factor, cos f =
200 600 600 300 Z
34. (4) Magnetic field at the centre of solenoid, At Resonance Z = R
Bsolenoid = m0ni \ cos f = 1
Given : No. of turns / length, 2 2m 0I
41. (3) Bs =
N 100 pa
n= = = 200 turns/ m 4a = 2pr
L 50 ´10-2
2a
Current, I = 2.5 A r=
p
\ Bsolenoid = m0nI = 4p × 10–7 × 200 × 2.5
m 0I m I ´p
Bc = ´ 2p = 0
= 6.28 × 10–4 T 4pr 2 ´ 2a
35. (3) When bar magnet is dropped through a metallic Bs 2 2´4
cylindrical pipe, magnetic flux linked with cylindrical pipe Bc = p2
increases and eddy currents are produced. This oppose
the motion of magnet through a metallic cylindrical pipe. 1
42. (1) MB sin q = MB
As a result it takes more time to come down as compared 2
to a non-magnetic bar with same geometry and mass. 1
\ sin q =
2
m0 I or q = 30°
36. (3) B1 = ...(i)
2R The angle between magnetic field and plane of the coil
m 0 IR 2 is 60°.
B2 = ...(ii)
2(R + 3R 2 ) 3/ 2
2 B1 B2 mv sin 30° (1.67 ´ 10-27) ´ (2 ´ 106) sin 30°
43. (3) r = = = 0.1 m
qB 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 0.104
1 æ m0 I ö B1 44. (2) ftotal = B largeAsmall
= =
8 çè 2R ÷ø 8
m0 i
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get = (2sin 45°) ´ l2
4p L / 2
B1 8 l2
Þ = On comparing with ftotal = Mi, we get M µ
B2 1 L
37. (2) Ferromagnetic substance has magnetic domains 1 1 25
whereas paramagnetic substances have magnetic dipoles 45. (2) f= = = Hz
2p LC 2p 5 ´ 80 ´ 10-6 p
which get attracted to a magnetic field. Ferromagnetic
material magnetised strongly in the direction of magnetism 46. (1)
field, Hence, N1 will be attracted. Paramagnetic substance
14 NEET PT - XII/02

47. (2) Power, P = Vrms Irms

P 1
Þ i rms = = 3d 4s 4p
v rms 2
Peak current,
1
i 0 = i rms ´ 2 = = 0.707A sp3 hybridization
2
m 0 æ ii i2 i1i2 ö m ii 61. (4) It is true that generally b.p. increases with increase
(3) F = - ´a = 012
2 p çè a 2 a ÷ø
48. in molar mass but due to H-bonding in H2O, the correct
4p
order of b.p. is:
49. (4) t = MB sin45° = N (iA) B sin 45°
H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
1 62. (2) The correct order of ionic radii :-
= 100 ´ 3(5 ´ 2.5) ´ 10-4 ´ 1 ´ = 0.27 N-m
2 3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
70 Yb < 66 Dy < 62Sm < 59 Pr
m N2A
50. (4) Inductance = 0 (86 Pm) (91) (96) (101)
L
This order can be explained on the basis of lanthanide
PART - II : CHEMISTRY contraction due to which the atomic and ionic radii
51. (1) +3 oxidation state is most common for lanthanoids. decrease steadily.
But occasionally +2 and +4 states are also obtained due to 63. (2) Ni in zero oxidation state with any ligand always form
tetrahedral complex with sp3 hybridization.
extra stability of empty, half-filled or filled f-subshell.
52. (1) Due to small size and high electronegativity of Ni2+ ion with strong field ligand form square planar
fluorine it can not expand its oxidation state and show complex with dsp2 hybridisation.
only one oxoacid i.e., HOF. Ni2+ ion with weak field ligand such as Cl– form tetrahedral
53. (1) IUPAC name of K 3 [Co(C 2 O 4 )3 ] is Potassium complex.
trioxalatocobaltate(III) [Ni(CN)4]2– : d8 configuration, SFL, sq. planar splitting
54. (4) Zn, Cd, Hg : (n – 1)d10ns2 (dsp2), diamagnetic.
\ Zn2+, Cd2+, Hg2+ : (n – 1)d10ns0 [Ni(CO)4] : d10 configuration (after excitation), SFL,
55. (1) Bond energy of F2 less than Cl2 due to lone pair-lone tetrahedral splitting (sp3), diamagnetic.
pair repulsions and small size of fluorine. [NiCl4]2– : d8 configuration, WFL, tetrahedral splitting
\ Bond energy order Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (sp3), paramagnetic (2 unpaired e–).
56. (1) Lanthanum is the first element of Lanthanide series 64. (3) The complex is a cationic complex with two ammine
and size decreases with increase in atomic number, so La3+ (NH3), one chloro (Cl) and one methanamine ligand.
has the largest atomic radii. Thus, the name will be :-
57. (2) NH3 is only a mild reducing agent while BiH3 is the Diamminechloro (methanamine) platinum (II) chloride.
strongest reducing agent amongst all the hydrides due to 65. (3) Due to d 5 configuration, metallic bonds are weak.
the longest bond length. d 5 orbital is half filled as a result 3d electrons are more tightly
held by the nucleus and this reduces the delocalization of
NH3 electrons resulting in weaker metallic bonding.
66. (1) HF is a weak acid than HCl due to intermolecular
H3N Cl hydrogen bonding.
58. (2) Co 67. (1) [MA3B3] type of compound exists are facial and
meridonial isomer.
H3N Cl
A A
Cl
mer-isomer A B A B
The Cl – Co – Cl bond angle in above octahedral complex
is 90°. B B fac-isomer
B A
59. (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
A B
60. (4) ms = n ( n + 2 ) = 5.9 B. M. 68. (4) Lanthanoid contraction, causes the radii of the members
Þ m2 = n (n + 2) = 34.81 Þ n = 5 of the third transition series to be very similar to those of
Thus, Mn will have five unpaired electrons so Mn will be the corresponding members of the second series.
in +2 state with Br– being weak- field ligands. 69. (3) The conversion of dichromate to chromate
Thus, x = 2 for [Mn Br4]2– K 2 Cr2 O7 + 2KOH ® 2K 2 CrO 4 + H 2 O
1424 3
yellow
NEET PT - XII/02 15

70. (2) Cr = [Ar] 3d5 4s1 so Cr2+ = [Ar] 3d4 NH3 NH3
Þ Number of d-electrons = 4 O2N NH3 H3N NO2
71. (1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii) Co Co
2+ O2N NH3 O2N NO2
72. (3) Fe 2+ in éë Fe ( H2 O )6 ùû
NO2 NH3
3d 4s 4p 4d fac – mer –
´´ ´´ ´´ ´´ ´´ ´´ 76. (1) t2 orbitals have higher energy by (2/5)Dt.
77. (2) K4[Fe(CN)6] ¾® 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–
Hyb. : sp3d 2
[Fe(CN)6]4–
Colour : Pale green µ = 4.9 B.M.; octahedral
x–6=–4
4-
Fe 2 + in ëéFe (CN )6 ûù x=+2
3d 4s 4p Fe: 4s2 3d6
´´ ´´ ´´ ´´ ´´ ´´ Fe2+ : 3d6

2 3 eg
Hyb. : d sp
Colour : Yellow; µ = 0; octahedral t 2g
In spherical field
73. (3) We know that IUPAC name of 78. (2) IUPAC name is Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III).
[Pt(NH 3 ) 3 (Br) (NO 2)Cl]Cl is tr iammine-
bromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride. 79. (3) Magnetic moment, n(n + 2) = 5.92 BM
74. (3) Þ n (unpaired electrons) = 5
(i) [Fe (CN)6]3–:-
3d 5 4s 4p
Fe is in +3 state and CN– is a strong-field ligand. 2+
Thus, Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5 or Mn : ´´ ´´ ´´ ´´

sp3 hybridization (tetrahedral)

3d 80. (1) Magnetic moment, m = n ( n + 2 )BM

Thus, there is only one unpaired electron.
Complex No. of unpaired m(BM)
(ii) [MnCl6]3–:-
Mn is in +3 state and Cl– is a weak-field ligand. electron (s)
Thus, Mn3+ = [Ar] 3d4 or (A) [Fe(CN)6]3– 1 1.73
(B) [Fe(H2O)6] 3+ 5 5.92
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4– 0 0
3d (D) [Fe(H2O)6] 2+ 4 4.90
Thus, there are four unpaired electrons. 81. (4) As positive oxidation state increases, the acidic
(iii) [FeF6]3–:-
character increases.
Fe is in +3 state and F– is a weak-field ligand. Thus, Fe
Pentavalent oxides, E2O5 has E in +5 oxidation state.
will be [Ar] 3d5 with five unpaired electron.
Trivalent oxides; E2O3 has E in +3 oxidation state.
Fe3+ = So, Acidic character E2O5 > E2O3
Down the group non-metallic/acidic character decreases.
3d
(iv) [Co (NH3)6]3+ :- 82. (2) We know that, magnetic moment (m) is related to
Co is in +3 state here and NH3 is a strong-field ligand. number of unpaired electron 'n', as
Thus, Co will be [Ar] 3d6 with zero unpaired electrons.
m = n(n + 2) BM = 24 BM Þn=4
Co3+ = Fe2+ has 4 unpaired electrons as
3d 3d 6
Thus, the increasing order of the number of unpaired Fe2+ =
electrons will be :-
(iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii) 83. (4) According to spectrochemical series, the order of
75. (1) Facial and meridional isomers occurs in octahedral ligand field strength is :
coordination entities of the type [Ma3b3] like [Co(NO2)3
(NH3)3].
16 NEET PT - XII/02

I– < Br– < SCN < Cl– < S2– < F– < OH < C2O42–
m n = n(n + 2)
< H2O < NCS < EDTA4– < NH3 < en < CN < CO
So, correct order is I– < F– < H2O < CO. \ m n = 4(4 + 2) = 24 BM = 4.9 BM
84. (1) Due to absence of d-electron in Ti4+ ([Ar]18 3d0 4s0), 92. (2) Pr, Nd, Tb and Dy exhibit +4 state in their oxides as
d – d transition is not possible. they acquire configurations closer to stable 4f° and 4f7
85. (3) Cis and trans isomerism. configurations.
86. (2) [NiCl4]2– has Ni2+ that has the configuration Pr4+ = [Xe]4f1, Nd4+ = [Xe] 4f2, Pm4+ = [Xe] 4f3,
Sm4+ = [Xe] 4f4, Eu4+ = [Xe] 4f5, Gd4+= [Xe] 4f6,
[Ar]3d8. Since Cl– is a weak-field ligand, the configuration
Tb4+ = [Xe]4f7, Dy4+ = [Xe]4f8.
of the complex will be:-
93. (1) In the modern periodic table, moving down the group
as the size of halogen atom increases, the H – X bond length
[NiCl4]2– = also increases as a result the bond enthalpy decreases.
3d 4s 4p Hence, The acidic strength also increases.
94. (3) Both Eu+2 and Yb+2 tends to acquire common
3
oxidation state of +3 by loosing 1 electron and becomes
sp -hybridization highly stable.
95. (3)
Thus, it is a tetrahedral complex.
It is paramagnetic due to unpaired electrons. C2O4

[Ni (CO)4] has neutral and strong-field ligand CO.

C2O4
Thus, (1) K3 Cr

[Ni(CO)4] =
4p C2O4
3d 4s
Oxidation state = +3
2 Coordination number = 6, sum = 3 + 6 = 9
dsp -hybridization
CO
CO CO
Thus, [Ni (CO)4] is a square-planar and diamagnetic
complex. (2) CO Cr CO
Therefore, (ii) is incorrect and only (i) and (iii) are correct.
87. (3) CO CO
88. (1) In the given complex, the CN of Co is 6, and the CO
complex has octahedral geometry.
Oxidation state = 0
Cl en Coordination member = 6
sum = 0 + 6 = 6
en Co en Co en Cl
Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
trans (optically inactive) cis (optically active) (3) K2 Cl Fe Cl
89. (3) Group 12 elements
90. (2) Zr4+ and Hf 4+ possess almost the same ionic radii
Cl Cl
due to lanthanide contraction and Ce4+ is an oxidizing
Cl
agent. Yb2+ is reductant.
91. (1) Electronic configuration of Cr2+ = [Ar] 3d4 Oxidation state = +4
Coordination number = 6
n=4 Sum = 4 + 6 = 10
NEET PT - XII/02 17

108. (4)
CN
CN CN 109. (2) Linked genes do not undergo hybridisation and thus,
they do not affect homozygosity.
110. (3) 111. (2)
(4) K4 CN Cr CN 112. (1) The inheritance of blood group is determined by some
allelic genes which are IA, IB & I°. In one individual two
allelic genes are present. IA & IB are dominant while Io is
CN CN recessive in heterozygous condition. So if a child has a
CN blood group O he/she must have IoIo & he/she cannot
Oxidation state = +2 have the parents of blood group AB & AB/O.
Coordination number = 6 113. (4) Sickle cell anaemia (in which nucleotide triplet GAG
Sum = 2 + 6 = 8 is changed to GUG) affects the -globin chain of
haemoglobin. Since these changes occur at a particular
96. (3) Transition metals form a large number of complex
locus or point of a chromosome where specific gene is
compounds.
located, they are called as point mutation.
97. (2) Ionic character of metal halide :- 114. (2)
M – F > M – Cl > M – Br > M – I 115. (4) Mendel selected Garden of pea as material for his
This is due to low polarizability of fluorine due to very hybridization experiments because of the following
small size which gives more ionic character. reasons:
Thus, II is incorrect. (i) Hybridization or crossing in pea is easy.
Order of bond dissociation enthalpy :- (ii) It has bisexual flowers.
(iii) It has a number of well defined contrasting characters.
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(iv) It shows predominantly self-fertilization.
This is due to very small size and F – F bond length that (v) It has a short life span.
causes repulsion between the atoms and possible multiple 116. (3) 117. (2)
bonds between Cl2, Br2 and I2 due to availability of d- orbitals. 118. (3) A pleiotropic gene regulates multiple traits
Thus, III is incorrect. (characteristics) in an individual.
98. (3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces hence they 119. (4) 120. (3)
have low melting and boiling points. 121. (2) Chromosomal theory of inheritance believes that
99. (1) The Lanthanoids are transition metals from atomic chromosomes are vehicles of hereditary information.
numbers 58 (Ce) to 71(Lu). 122. (3) 123. (3)
Hence the electronic configuration becomes : 124. (2) In the monohybrid test cross, both dominant and
(n –2) f 1– 14 (n – 1) s2p6 d0 – 1 ns2. recessive traits are obtained in 1 : 1 ratio.
100. (2) 125. (1)
126. (3) The frequency of recombination is the number of
(i) 2MnO -4 + 10I- + 16H + ¾¾
® 2Mn 2 + + 512 + 8H 2 O
crossovers formed between any two genes. Alfred
X
Sturtevant explained that the recombination frequency
(ii) 2MnO4- + I- + H2 O ¾¾
® 2MnO2 + IO3- + 2OH- between gene pairs is the measure of distance between
Y the genes.
127. (1) 128. (1)
Hence, (X) and (Y) are respectively I2 and IO3- 129. (2) Hemophilia A and hemophilia B are inherited in an
X-linked recessive pattern.
PART - III : BOTANY 130. (2) 131. (4) 132. (1)
101. (2) Incomplete dominance is the phenomenon where 133. (4) Homozygous individuals have identical Mendelian
none of the alleles are dominant, with the effect that the factors or genes for a character (TT or tt). They are always
hybrid produced by crossing two pure individuals is a pure for a particular trait (character).
mixture between the parents. 134. (4) Both the statement are correct.
102. (2) 135. (1)
103. (3) Seven pairs of contrasting characters were selected in 136. (2) Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that
pea plant and studied by Mendel in his experiment. the alleles of two (or more) different genes get sorted
104. (1) into gametes independently of one another. In other
105. (1) Myotonic dystrophy is a autosomal dominant trait. words, the allele a gamete receives for one gene does not
106. (2) influence the allele received for another gene. This law
107. (3) Down’s syndrome is the chromosomal disorder due does not hold good for the genes that are closely located.
to the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome Therefore, assertion is correct and reason is not correct.
number 21 (trisomy of 21). The affected individual is short 137. (2)
statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and 138. (1) Statements (i), (iii) and (v) are correct.
partially open mouth and mental development is retarted. 139. (2)
18 NEET PT - XII/02

140. (3) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III 156. (4) Retrovirus has the ability to transform normal cells
141. (2) In ZW-ZZ type of sex determination, the male has into cancerous cells. Hence, it can used as a vector for
two homomorphic sex chromosomes (ZZ) and is cloning desirable genes into animal cells.
homogametic, and the female has two heteromorphic sex 157. (4) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
chromosomes (ZW) and is heterogametic. 158. (4) In gel electrophoresis, agarose extracted from sea
142. (4) The production of gametes (n) by the parents (2n), weed used as gel agarose, made of 0.7% gel show good
the formation of zygote (2n), the F1 and F2 plants can be resolution of large DNA and 2% gel will show good
understood from a diagram called punett square. resolution of small fragments.
143. (1) 144. (2) 159. (3)
145. (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome as they are associated with 160. (4) Cloning vector is a DNA molecule that carries foreign
Down’s syndrome. DNA into a host cell, replicates inside a bacterial (or yeast)
146. (4) 147. (4) cell and produces many copies of itself and the foreign
148. (4) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I DNA. Origin of replication, selectable marker and cloning
149. (2) Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism is sites are required to facilitate cloning of vector.
also inherited as the autosomal recessive trait. Sickle cell 161. (3) When more individuals of a population acquire mean
anemia is an autosomes linked recessive trait that can be character value, the type of natural selection is called
transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the stabilizing selection. It favours the average or normal
partners are carrier for the gene (or heterozygous). phenotypes and eliminates the extreme variants. Disruptive
Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder that causes selection is just the opposite of stabilizing selection, i.e.,
your body to have less hemoglobin than normal. the extremes have more adaptable phenotypes than the
Hemoglobin enables red blood cells to carry oxygen. average ones. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is defined as
Thalassemia can cause anemia, leaving you fatigued. the relative frequencies of various kinds of genes in a
Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive disease, which shows large and randomly mating sexual population which tend
its transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of to remain constant from generation to generation in the
the male progeny. absence of mutation, selection and gene flow.
150. (4) Genotype of heterozygous violet flowers is Ww. 162. (1) Restriction endonucleases are molecular scissors,
Genotype of homozygous white flower is ww. which cut a DNA molecule within certain specific site called
restriction site. Common restriction endonucleases are Eco
RI, Bam II, Hind III, etc.
163. (2) The correct option is (2) because herbicide resistant
weeds, drug resistant eukaryotes and man-created breeds
of domesticated animals like dogs are examples of
evolution by anthropogenic action. Darwin’s Finches of
Galapagos islands are example of natural selection,
adaptive radiation and founder’s effect.
164. (2) The first recombinant DNA was constructed by
According to the cross, the white and violet flowers will Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972.
be produced in equal proportion that is (20 : 20). 165. (2)
Out of 40 progenies Mole and flying squirrel are placental mammals.
The expected ratio of violet and white flower plant is 1 : 1. Lemur and wolf are placental mammals.
Bobcat is a placental mammal
PART - IV : ZOOLOGY Therefore only option (2) is correct.
151. (2) Hardy-Weinberg principle describes a theoretical 166. (3) Agarose gel electrophoresis is a technique of separation
situation in which a population is undergoing no evolutionary of DNA fragments by forcing them to move towards the
change. It states that allele frequencies in a population are anode under the influence of electric field.
stable and constant from generation to generation. There are 167. (1)
five factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg Principle. These are 168. (2) DNA fragments can be separated with the help of gel
- mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, genetic recombination electrophoresis, where DNA (-vely charged) moves
and natural selection. towards the anode (+vely charged). The DNA fragments
152. (1) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that makes are separated according to their size through sieving effect
cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule. They of agarose gel.
acts as molecular scissors. 169. (1) Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry- proteins.
153. (4) Thermus aquaticus is a source of thermostable DNA
154. (4) Both the statements are correct. polymerase (Taq polymerase) used in PCR. Agrobacterium
155. (4) Genetic recombination leads to variation results in tumefaciens is a cloning vector. The construction of 1st
changed frequency of gen es and alleles in future recombinant DNA molecule was performed using native
generation. plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
NEET PT - XII/02 19

170. (1) 171. (4) Recombinant E.coli loses the ampicillin resistance when
the gene for beta-galactoside is inserted in the ampicillin
172. (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
resistance gene with the help of Pst I.
173. (1)
The recombinant cell (host) produces a protein,
174. (1) Endonuclease are restriction enzymes which cut the
b -galactoside that is not a novel protein and it does not
DNA internally.
have dual ability.
175. (1) Organic compounds that first evolved in earth which
When the transformed cells loose ampicillin resistance
required for origin of life were protein and nucleic acid.
property then they cannot resist ampicillin.
All life forms were in aquatic environment only.
176. (3) Polymerase chain reaction is a technique used to
replicate a fragment of DNA so as to produce many copies
of a particular DNA sequence.
177. (2) Australopithecus is one of the longest-lived and best-
known early human species whose remains were found
between 3.85 and 2.95 million years ago in Eastern Africa
(Ethiopia, Kenya, and Tanzania). Evidences shows that
they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruits.
178. (4)
179. (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III. Fig.: E. coli cloning vector pBR322
180. (1) Marsupials in Australia and placental mammals in 193. (1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
North America show convergent evolution. These two 194. (1) Natural selection can lead to stabilisation (in which
subclasses of mammal have adapted in similar ways to a more individuals acquire mean character value), directional
particular food supply, locomotor skill or climate. change (more individuals acquire value other than the mean
181. (1) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the character value) or disruption (more individuals acquire
plasmid vector became possible with DNA ligase. peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution
182. (2) A. Adaptative - Darwin finches. curve).
radiation 195. (1) Restriction endonucleases make cuts at specific
B. Convergent - Wings of Butterfly positions within the DNA. They cut the strand of DNA a
evolution and Bird. little away from the centre of palindrome sites. They
C. Divergent - Bones of forelimbs function by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
evolution in man and whale. Restriction endonuclease binds to the DNA and cut the
D. Evolution by - Selection of two strands of double helix at specific points in their sugar-
anthropogenic resistance varieties due to phosphate backbones. They are used in genetic
action excessive used of herbicides engineering to form recombinant molecules of DNA. DNA
and pesticides. ligases join the DNA fragments.
183. (1) Genetic engineering is the artificial synthesis, 196. (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.
isolation, modification, combination, addition and repair 197. (2) Bacteriophage is used in constructing vectors for
of the genetic material (DNA) to alter the phenotype of gene cloning. Ethidium bromide is used for staining DNA.
the host organims to suit human needs. 198. (1) Even though Mendel had talked of inheritable ‘factors’
184. (1) influencing phenotype, Darwin either ignored these
185. (3) observations of kept silence. Darwin developed a mechanism
186. (1) A stirred – tank reactor is usually cylindrical with a for how evolution worked so know as father of evolution.
curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor contents. Hugo deVries based on his work on evening primrose
Small volume cultures cannot yield appreciable quantities of through forth the idea of mutations–large difference arising
products. To produce in large quantities, the development of suddenly in a population. He believed that it is mutation
bioreactors was required, where large volumes (100 -1000 which causes evolution and not the minor variations
litres) of culture can be processed. (heritable) that Darwin talked about. Mutations are random
187. (3) and directionless while Darwinian variations are small and
188. (4) directional. Evolution for Darwin was gradual while deVries
189. (2) During isolation of the genetic material, purified DNA believed mutation caused speciation and hence called it
ultimately precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol saltation (single step large mutation).
190. (3) The eye of the octopus and of mammals or the flippers 199. (4) Plant cells are treated with cellulase. DNA
of Penguins and Dolphins are the example of analogy precipitates on addition of chilled ethanol.
(analogous organ). 200. (4) Homo erectus is an extinct species of hominid that
191. (2) The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only lived throughout most of the Pleistocene, with the earliest
after staining the DNA with a compound known as first fossil evidence dating to around 1.5 million years ago
ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation. and the most recent to around 70,000 years ago. They had
192. (2) pBR322 is a type of cloning vector that contains a large brain capacity around 900cc and probably ate meat.
antibiotic resistance gene for Ampicillin and tetracycline.