01.

Railway Organizational Structure

01 There are _______ centralized training institutions on Indian Railways.

(a) SEVEN (b) SIX (c) FIVE (d) FOUR
02 National Academy of Indian Railway is situated at __________.
(a) Vadodara (b) Delhi (c) Chennai (d) Pune
03 Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering is situated at ______.
(a) Pune (b) Nashik (c) Secunderabad (d) Lucknow

04 Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunications is situated

at ___________.
(a) Secunderabad (b) Lucknow (c) Pune (d) Nashik
05 Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering is situated at __.
(a) Jamalpur (b) Lucknow (c) Pune (d) Nashik
06 Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering is situated at ________.
(a) Nashik (b) Pune (c) Lucknow (d) Jamalpur
07 ____number of RRB’s in Indian Railway
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) None
08 Southern Railway has _______ Division
(a) 06 (b) 04 (c) 05 (d) 3
09 Indian Railway has ___________Divisions.
(a) 68 (b) 70 (c) 65 (d) 69
10 Indian Railway has _______zonal railways.
(a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 16 (d)19
11 Head quarter of Southern Railway is at__________
(a) MAS (b) CBE (c) TPJ (d) MDU
12 The headquarters of RRT is at _______.
(a) Chennai (b) New Delhi (c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai
13 Presentation of the first ever railways budget in India held in
(a) 1853 (b) 1888 (c) 1925 (d) 1905
14 What is the shortest station name in Indian Railways?
(a) Pune (b) Be (c) Goa (d) Ib
15 Which is the Longest name in Indian Railways?
(a) Chennai Central Docter M.G. Ramachandran Railway Station
 02. Railway Quarters allotment Policy

01 Staff in Pay Matrix Pay Level _______ are eligible for allotment of type IV quarters
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8
02 Quarter can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during leave.
(a) 4 months (b) 12 months (c) 10 months (d) 24 months
03 Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during sick
leave.
(a) Indefinite period (b) 4 months (c) 1 year (d) 24 months
04 Railway quarters can be retained for a period _____ on normal rent during
suspension.
(a) Without any time limit (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) 60
05 Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on
Resignation / removal / dismissal from service.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
06 Quarter can be retained for ____months on normal rent in the event of death.
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 4 (d) 2
07 Quarter can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on retirement.
(a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 2
08 In no case retention of accommodation should exceed _________ months
from the date of retirement or date of school session whichever is earlier.
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 12
09 Quarter can be retained for _____ on normal rent on transfer.
(a) 2 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 12 months
10 Retention of Railway quarters in case of death is permissible for ______ months.
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 36 (d) 12
11 Special license fee is _______ times the normal license fees.
(a) Double (b) Single (c) 1.5 (d) None
12 Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type IV quarter is Rs.
______ p.m.
(a) 35 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) 5
 03. Hours of Work and Period of Rest

01 Staff of essentially intermittent category must have a minimum of ______

consecutive hours of rest in a week include a full night
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 22 (d) None
02 The staffs whose daily hours of duty include periods of inaction aggregating to
_______ hours or more are declared as essentially intermittent.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
03 The intensive worker must have a minimum of ______ hours of rest in a week.
(a) 30 (b) 24 (c) 48 (d) None
04 The roster hours of duty of an intensive worker in a week shall be ____ hours.
(a) 42 (b) 48 (c) 72 (d) 60
05 Roster hours of duty of essentially intermittent worker in a week shall be ____.
(a) 72 (b) 48 (c) 42 (d) None
06 Continuous staff are allowed a period of rest of _______ hours each week.
(a) 30 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) None
07 The period of averaging for overtime will be ____days in case of EI workers.
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 8 (d) None
08 The period of averaging for overtime will be ____days in case of Intensive
workers.
(a) 14 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) None
09 Essentially Intermittent staff are allowed a period of rest of __ hours each week.
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 22 (d) None
10 When an employee works overtime beyond statutory limits, the payment of OT will
be made _________ times the ordinary rate of pay.
(a) Twice (b) Single (c) 1.5 (d) None
11 Saloon attendants are classified as ______ under HWPR.
(a) Essentially Intermittent (b) Continuous (c) Intensive (d) Excluded
 04. Allowances

01 Waiting duty allowance is paid to ______________ staff.

(a) Running (b) Non-running (c) Both (d) None
02 ________ % of the running allowance is reckoned as pay for passes/PTOs.
(a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) None
03 National Holiday Allowance is paid to________ staff.
(a) Non-Gaz. (b) Gaz (c) Both (d) None
04 Non-practising Allowance paid to Doctors is _______%.
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 25 (d) None
05 The classification of cities for the purpose of HRA is ___.
(a) XYZ (b) ABC (c) Both (d) None
06 The classification of cities for the purpose of TPTA is _____.
(a) XYZ (b) ABC (c) Both (d) None
07 Night duty allowance is payable to _______employees.
(a) Non-gaz. (b) Gaz. (c) Both (d) None
08 Additional charge allowance will be admissible only if the additional charge is held
for a period exceeding _______ days.
(a) 45 (b) 30 (c) 180 (d) 90
09 The rate of cycle allowance to Group D employee is Rs. __________ per month.
(a) 180 (b) 150 (c) 160 (d)190
10 Breach of rest allowance is paid to ________ staff.
(a) Running (b) Commercial (c) Mechanical (d) None
11 Employee is eligible to ______% Traveling Allowance when he is on duty out of
HQ for 8 hours.
(a) 70% (b) 30% (c) 100% (d) None
12 Staff of which department is eligible for Hospital Patient Care Allowance.
(a) Medical (b) Personnel (c) Operating (d) Accounts
 05. Railway Services (Conduct) Rules, 1966

01 Railway Service Conduct Rules come into force on________

(a) 1966 (b) 1965 (c)1956 (d) 1942
02 Railway Service Conduct Rules apply to______staff.
(a) All (b) Non-Gaz (c) Gaz. (d) None
03 Railway Service conduct Rules, Rule 3(1) has_____ sub rules.
(a) 03 (b) 13 (c) 18 (d) 21
04 Rule _____is related with Insolvency and Habitual Indebtedness of Railway
Service conduct rules.
(a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 16 (d) 14
05 Connection with press & radio is under Rule ______of railway service Conduct
rules.
(a) 08 (b) 07 (c) 13 (d) 09
06 Taking part in politics and election is related with Rule ____of railway service
Conduct rules.
(a) 05 (b) 06 (c) 07 (d) 04
07 Govt. means__ in railway service Conduct Rules
(a) Central Govt. (b) State Govt (c) Both (d) None
08 Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women defined in ____of railway
service Conduct rules.
(a) 3-C (b) 3-A (c) 3-B (d) None
09 Promptness and Courtesy of railway service Conduct rules explained in ___ rule.
(a) 3-A (b) 3-B (c) 3-C (d) None
10 Observance of Government’s policies defined in ____of railway service Conduct
rules.
(a) 3-B (b) 3-A (c) 3-C (d) None
 06. Seniority Rules

01 The general principles that may be followed in determining the seniority of non-
gazetted Railway servants are enumerated in Chapter ______ of the IREM, Vol.I.
(a) III (b) II (c) IV (d) V
02 The seniority among the incumbents of a post in a grade is governed by the ___.
(a) DOA (b) DOP (c) Both A & B (d) None
03 The criterion for determination of seniority of a direct recruit should be
(a) DOJ (b) DOP (c) Both A &B (d) None
04 The criterion for determination of seniority of a promotee should be __________.
(a) DOP (b) DOA (c) Both A & B (d) None
05 When the dates of entry into a grade of the promotee and direct recruits are the
same, they should be put in ________positions, the promotee being senior to the
direct recruits.
(a) Alternate (b) Promotee (c) DR (d) None
06 In case training period is curtailed, the date of joining the working post in case of
direct recruit shall be
(a) Normally date of completion of training
(b) Actual date of completion of training
(c) Both A & B (d) None
07 The seniority of the candidates recruited through RRB and sent for initial training is
to be fixed in the order of
(a) Merit at the examination held at the end of training (b) Merit of RRB
(c) Both A & B (d) None
08 In case no initial training is prescribed, the seniority of the candidates recruited
through RRB is fixed in the order of
(a) Merit assigned by RRB
(b) Merit at the examination held at the end of training
(c) Both A & B (d) None
09 When two or more candidates are declared of the equal merit at one and the same
examination, their relative seniority is determined by the _______.
(a) Date of birth (b) Date of Appointment (c) Both A & B (d) None
10 In case of mutual transfer to a different seniority unit, their seniority is based on the
____________ of the railway servant with whom they have exchanged; whichever
of the two may be lower.
(a) Date of promotion (b) Date of appointment (c) Both A &B (d) None
 07. SC / ST / OBC RESERVATION POLICY

01 Article 16 of Indian Constitution placed under the heading of “Right to Equality” a

part of which indicates the provision of reservation in favour of any backward class
of citizen.
(a) Article 16(4) (b) Article 16(3) (c) Article 16(2) (d) Article 16(1)
02 When SC/ST Reservation provided first in Direct Recruitment?
(a) 13.09.50 (b) 13.09.49 (c) 13.09.51 (d) 13.09.52
03 When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by selection in Gr.’C’ & Erstwhile Gr.‘D’
posts provided?
(a) 1963 (b) 1957 (c) 1972 (d) 1976
04 When Reservation percentage increased from 12% to 15% for SC and 5% to 7-
1/2% for ST ?
(a) 25.03.70 (b) 13.09.50 (c) 13.09.51 (d) 13.09.63
05 When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by seniority-cum-suitability in Gr. ‘C” &
Erstwhile Gr. ‘D’ posts provided?
(a) 1972 (b) 1957 (c) 1963 (d) 1976
06 When 27% reservation provided for OBC candidates in Civil posts and services
under the Govt. of India?
(a) 08.09.93 (b) 13.08.90 (c) 25.09.91 (d) 10.10.91
07 Delay Submission of SC/ST Caste certificate may be accepted from the date
of_____
(a) Submission (b) Issue (c) Both A & B (d) None
08 If a candidate belonging to SC/ST/OBC Community is unable to produce his caste
certificate in time, he may be considered for offer of______
(a) Provisional Appointment (b) Appointment (c)Temporary Apptt. (d) None
09 On verification through the District Magistrate, if the caste certificate produced by
SC/ST/OBC candidate is revealed false, such candidate would be:-
(a) Terminated (b) Suspended (c) Punished under D&A rules (d) None
10 10% Quota for SC/ST is applicable for allotment of ______Quarter where total
numbers of Quarter are 50 or more.
(a) Both Type I & II (b) Type-I only (c) Type-II only (d) None
 08. NEW PENSION RULES

01 New pension scheme is effective from______

(a) 01.01.2004 (b) 01.07.2004 (c) 01.04.2004 (d) None
02 New entrants in Railway Service will come under New Pension Scheme
(a) Automatically (b) By option (c) C On Administrative option (d) None
03 New Pension Scheme is________
(a) Contributory (b) Non contributory (c) Both A & B (d) None
04 New Pension Scheme is _______ Tier
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) Four
05 The contribution payable by the employee _______
(a) Monthly basis (b) Quarterly basis (c) Half yearly basis (d) Yearly basis
06 Permanent Pension Account Number will consist of______ digits
(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 20
07 The Nodal Officer for each Railway is________
(a) PFA (b) GM (c) PCPO (d) DGM
08 The Officer-in-charge at HQ Office is______
(a) Dy. CAO(G) (b) FA&CAO (c) C FA&CAO(HQ) (d) SAO(Pension)
09 The employee contribution towards New Pension Scheme is_____
(a) @10% of pay (b) @8 % of pay (c) @16% of pay (d) @12% of pay
10 The Govt. contribution towards New Pension Scheme is_______
(a) @14% of pay (b) @8 % of pay (c) @16% of pay (d) @12% of pay
 09. RECRUITMENT

01 Indents against Direct Recruitment Quota for Group-C categories are Placed
on______
(a) RRB (b) CPO (c) GM (d) DRM
02 How many times indents for various Group-C posts are placed with Railway
Recruitment Board in a year
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) Four
03 Reservation Quota for candidates belonging to OBC.
(a) 27% (b) 15% (c) 7.5% (d) 22%
04 Educational Qualification for recruitment of Prob. Station Master against Direct
Recruitment Quota is_______.
(a) Graduate (b) Diploma (c) Degree (d) Higher Secondary
05 What is the percentage for Direct Recruitment Quota of SM.
(a) 60% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 35%
06 Currency of Group-C panels supplied by RRBs is…
(a) One year (b) Two year (c) Six month (d) Three month
07 Education Qualification for recruitment of Group-D posts is….
(a) Class X + ITI (b) Class IX + ITI (c) Class VIII + ITI (d) Class XII + ITI
08 The currency of the panels issued by RRB for Group C can be extended beyond one
year for one more year with the approval of __________.
(a) GM (b) PCPO (c) DRM (d) RLY BD
09 There are __________ Railway Recruitment Boards in the Indian railway.
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) 19
10 The quota of reservation for recruitment of ex-servicemen in Group C is _____.
(a) 20% (b) 27% (c) 10% (d) 15%
11 Medical classification of Loco Pilot (Driver) is _____ .
(a) A-2 (b) A-3 (c) A-4 (d) A-1
12 Medical classification of Station Master is ____ .
(a) A-3 (b) A-2 (c) B-1 (d) A-1
13 Medical classification of SE (P.Way) is ____ .
(a) A-3 (b) A-2 (c) B-1 (d) A-1
14 Medical classification of Office Clerk is ____ .
(a) B-2 (b) C-2 (c) B-1 (d) C-1
15 Medical Examination Fee for recruitment to Erstwhile Group D candidate is Rs.____ .
(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 16 (d) 26
16 Medical Examination Fee for recruitment to Group C candidate is Rs.____ .
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 24
17 Medical classification of C Class Level Crossing Gateman is ____ .
(a) A-3 (b) A-2 (c) B-1 (d) A-1
18 Medical classification of Section Controller, which of the following is correct?
(a) B-1 (b) B-2 (c) C-1 (d) C-2
19
 10. Factory Act, 1948

01 Factory Act is commenced from____________

(a) 1948 (b) 1923 (c) 1947 (d) 1936
02 In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, a
Canteen for the use of the workers shall be provided.
(a) 250 (b) 200 (c) 150 (d) 500
03 In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, adequate
shelters and lunch room with drinking water facility shall be provided.
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 250
04 In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, First Aid
boxes/cup boards equipped with prescribed contents shall be provided.
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 250
05 In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, an
ambulance room containing prescribed equipment in charge of medical / nursing
staff shall be provided.
(a) 500 (b) 450 (c) 250 (d) 600
06 In a factory where more than _______ women workers are ordinarily employed, a
suitable room or rooms for the use of their children below 6 years old shall be
provided. (crèches)
(a) 30 (b) 50 (c) 20 (d) 10
07 In every factory, wherein __________ workers are ordinarily employed, the
occupier shall employ the prescribed number of Welfare Officers.
(a) 500 (b) 450 (c) 250 (d) 600
08 No woman shall be employed in Factory between the hours of _________.
(a) 7 pm -6 am (b) 8 pm-8 am (c) 7 am -6 pm (d) 8 am-8 pm
09 If a worker works continuous for ____ days, he shall be entitled for one day rest.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 10
10 Children below the age of _____ years should not be employed in a Factory
_____
(a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18
 11. Payment of Wages Act, 1936
01 The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 applies to persons whose wages in respect of a
wage period average below Rs. __________ per month.
(a) 24,000 (b) 18,000 (c) 6,500 (d) 9,000
02 Normally ________officer is nominated a pay master in the divisions.
(a) Personnel (b) Medical (c) Operating (d) Account
03 No Wage period shall exceed _____________.
(a) One month (b) Quarter (c) Half yearly (d) Yearly
04 Wages shall be paid within ______ days of the last day of the wage period in an
establishment where less than 1000 are employed.
(a) 07 (b) 10 (c) 05 (d) 15
05 Wages hall be paid within ______ days of the last day of the wage period in an
establishment where more than 1000 are employed.
(a) 10 (b) 07 (c) 05 (d) 15
06 If the employment of any person is terminated by the employer, the wages earned
by him shall be paid before _ from the day on which his employment is terminated.
(a) 48 hrs (b) One week (c) No time limit (d) None
07 The total amount of deduction from wages in a wage period shall not exceed
______ % in case whole or part of such deduction is made for payment to Co-
operative Societies.
(a) 75 (b) 50 (c) 80 (d) 45
08 The total amount of deduction from wages in a wage period shall not exceed
______ %.
(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 80
09 Under PWA, Delay in payment, non-payment or un-authorized deductions, penalty
upto____
(a) Rs.7,500 (b) Rs.5,500 (c) Rs.2,500 (d) Rs.6,500
10 Under PWA, Non-display of notices, non-maintenance of register etc. fine up to
Rs.______
(a) 7,500 (b) 5,500 (c) 2,500 (d) 6,500
 12. Employees Compensation Act, 1923

01 Employees Compensation Act is implemented from__________

(a) 01.07.1924 (b) 01.07.1923 (c) 01.07.1936 (d) 01.07.1947
02 In case of death minimum Rs.______________ is payable as compensation
(a) 1,20,000 (b) 1,40,000 (c) 90,000 (d) 80,000
03 In case of disability minimum Rs.________ is payable as compensation.
(a) 1,40,000 (b) 1,20,000 (c) 90,000 (d) 80000
04 Loss of both hands and amputation at higher sites is ______% of loss of earning
capacity.
(a) 100 (b) 90 (c) 70 (d) 50
05 Loss of hand and a foot is ______% of loss of earning capacity.
(a) 100 (b) 90 (c) 70 (d) 50
06 Give all concerned massages including associated Accounts officer within ____
hours.
(a) 48 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) None
07 Loss of thumb is ______% of loss of earning capacity
(a) 30 (b) 50 (c) 20 (d) 10
08 Loss of two fingers of one hand is ______% of loss of earning capacity
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 05
09 Loss of partial vision of one eye is ______% of loss of earning capacity
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 50
10 Schedule IV of the Employees Compensation Act is concerned to __________
(a) Age Factor (b) Occupational (c) List of person (d) List of Injuries
 13. Industrial Relation

01 In division level, the PNM is held once in ____________.

(a) 02 months (b) 03 months (c) 06 months (d) None
02 At Zonal level, the PNM is held once in __________
(a) 03 months (b) 02 months (c) 06 months (d) None
03 At Railway Board level, PNM is held once in ________.
(a) 3 months (b) 06 months (c) 02 months (d) None
04 _________ is the chairman of PNM at HQ level.
(a) GM (b) PCPO (c) SDGM (d) None
05 _________ is the chairman of PNM at Divisional level.
(a) DRM (b) SDPO (c) ADRM (d) None
06 _________ is the chairman of PNM at Railway Board level.
(a) Member Staff (b) CRB (c) SRB (d) None
07 _________ is the chairman of JCM at National level.
(a) Cabinet Sec (b) Member staff (c) Head of Region (d) None
08 _________ is the chairman of JCM at Departmental.
(a) Member staff (b) Cabinet Sec (c) Head of Region (d) None
09 _________ is the Convener of PNM at HQ level.
(a) CPO(IR) (b) CPO(A) (c) PCPO (d) None
10 _________ is the Convener of PNM at Divisional level.
(a) SDPO (b) DPO (c) APO(W) (d) None
 14. Pension

01 Minimum Pension is Rs. ______________.

(a) 9000 (b) 18000 (c) Last pay (d) None
02 Minimum Family Pension is Rs. ______________.
(a) 9000 (b) 18000 (c) Last pay (d) None
03 _____% of pension can be commuted on retirement.
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) None
04 The qualifying service required for pensionable staff to accept voluntary retirement is
___years.
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 33 (d) None
05 Maximum amount of gratuity payable to retired railway employees is _______lakhs.
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 3.5 (d) None
06 Maximum qualifying service reckoned for fixing the pension is _________ years.
(a) 33 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) None
07 Maximum _______days leave encashment at the time of retirement.
(a) 300 (b) 60 (c) 300+15 (d) None
08 The minimum service required to sanction of Pension is _________ years.
(a) 10 (b) 33 (c) 20 (d) None
09 Pensioner is eligible for Additional Pension on __________years of age.
(a) 80-85 (b) 75-80 (c) 70-75 (d) None
10 The railway employees who had rendered not less than ______years continuous
service were granted ex-gratia pension.
(a) 20 (b) 33 (c)10 (d) None
11 The benefit of Family Pension scheme, 1964 will also be admissible to the
……………. spouses from the date following the date of death of the pensioner. (RBE
No.013/1991)
(a) Two (b) three (c) Post-retiral (d) None of these
12 The family pension to the eligible family members of the Government employees
kidnapped by insurgents / terrorists may be sanctioned after a period of …… months
from the date of registration of FIR with the police. (RBE No.75/2009)
(a) Four (b) Six (c) Nine (d) Twelve
13 The family pension / retirement death gratuity to the eligible family members of the
Government servant / pensioner reported missing and whose whereabouts are not
known may be sanctioned after a period of …….. months from the date registration
of an FIR with the police. (RBE No.98/2010)
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Nine (d) Six
 15. Promotions

01 The posts are declared as selection or non-selection for the purpose of promotion
by __.
(a) Railway Board (b) GM (c) DRM (d) None
02 The assessment of vacancies for non-selection post shall include existing vacancies
plus anticipated during the next _________ months.
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 24 (d) None
03 MACP scheme is made effective from ____________.
(a) 01.09.2008 (b) 01.09.2016 (c) 01.01.2006 (d) None
04 The assessment of vacancies for selection post shall include existing vacancies plus
anticipated during the next _________ months.
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 06 (d) None
05 There shall be no ad hoc promotions in __________ posts.
(a) Safety (b) Non-Safety (c) Both A & B (d) None
06 Selection committee for selection to the Group C posts shall be constituted with the
orders of _________.
(a) SAG (b) JAG (c) Sr.Scale (d) None
07 Selection Board shall be consisting of not less than______ officers.
(a) 03 (b) 02 (c) 04 (d) None
08 The assessment of vacancies for Trade Test shall include existing vacancies plus
anticipated during the next _________ months.
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 06 (d) None
09 In case of selection to ex-cadre posts, actual vacancies plus those anticipated in the
next ________ should be taken into account for the purpose of assessment.
(a) 02 years (b) 12 Months (c) 01 year (d) None
10 The candidates graded as outstanding and are allowed to supersede not more than
_________ % of total field of eligibility.
(a) 50 (b) 80 (c) 40 (d) None
 16. Joining Time Rules

01 1 If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is 1,000
Kms., or less, the joining time admissible is __________ days
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) None
02 If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is more than
1,000 Kms. and less than 2000 kms, the joining time admissible is __________
days.
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) None
03 If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is more than
2,000 Kms., the joining time admissible is __________ days.
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) None
04 If the distance between the old headquarters and new headquarters is more than
2,000 Kms., and the travel is permitted by air, the joining time admissible is
__________ days.
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) None
05 Extension of Joining time beyond the limits can be granted up to a maximum limit of
30 days by ________.
(a) DRM/HOD (b) GM/AGM (c) Rly. Board (d) None
06 Extension of Joining time beyond 30 days can be granted by ___________.
(a) Rly. Board (b) GM/AGM (c) DRM/HOD (d) None
07 Joining time can be combined with any other kind of leave except ______.
(a) Casual Leave (b) LAP (c) CCL (d) None
08 A railway servant on joining time shall be regarded as on _______
(a) Duty (b) Leave (c) Online (d) None
09 __________ days Joining time is admissible to an employee on temporary transfer.
(a) NIL (b) 01 (c) 10 (d) None
10 Not more than ______ days joining time shall be allowed to a Railway servant to join
a new post within same municipal area
(a) One (b) Nil (c) Two (d) None
 17. Leave Rule
01 How many days of LAP in a calendar year, a permanent/ Temporary Railway
servant shall be entitled to get?
(a) 30 days (b) 20 days (c) 15 days (d) 45 days
02 How many days of LHAP in a year, can be credited to an employee?
(a) 20 days (b) 30 days (c) 10 days (d) 15 days
03 A female Railway employee shall be entitled to maternity leave for……..
(a) 180 days (b) 120 days (c) 90 days (d) 130 days
04 For miscarriage, including abortion, what period of Maternity leave may be granted?
(a) 45 days (b) 06 days (c) 43 days (d) 07 days
05 Paternity leave is admissible with two surviving children for a period of
(a) 15 days (b) 20 days (c) 10 days (d) 25 days
06 Maximum days of leave on average pay that can be accumulated is
(a) 300 days (b) 200 days (c) 180 days (d) 315 days
07 LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of…….
(a) 2 ½ days per month (b) 02 days per month (c) 03 days per month (d) 1 ½
days per month
08 How many days of LAP per year can be credited to a school staff?
(a) 10 days (b) 05 days (c) 15 days (d) 07 days
09 How many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employee in his service life?
(a) Unlimited (b) 300 days (c) 450 days (d) 600 days
10 A male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having ______surviving
children
(a) Two (b) One (c) Four (d) Three
11 The existing ceiling of 135 days Maternity Leave provided in Rule 551 (1) shall be
enhanced to ……….. days. (RBE No.158/2008)
(a) 140 (b) 160 (c) 175 (d) 180
12
 18. The Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968
01 Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed
suspension?
(a) SF-02 (b) SF-01 (c) SF-03 (d) SF-04
02 How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum?
(a) 04 (b) 02 (c) 03 (d) 05
03 Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on
disciplinary proceedings?
(a) SF-05 (b) SF-11 (c) SF-06 (d) SF-10
04 Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made?
(a) P.F. subscription(b) House Rent (c) Income Tax (d) None
05 Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?
(a) Court attachment (b) House Rent (c) Income Tax (d) None
06 Review of suspension cases is done……..
(a) After 3 months (b) After 4 months(c) After 2 months (d) After 6 months
07 D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to
(a) Apprentice (b) Permanent employee (c) Casual lab our with temporary
status (d) None
08 Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of
suspension?
(a) SF-1 (b) SF-2 (c) SF-3 (d) SF-4
09 Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Minor penalty charge sheet on
disciplinary proceedings?
(a) SF-11 (b) SF-10 (c) SF-5 (d) SF-9
10 Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of
revocation?
(a) SF-4 (b) SF-3 (c) SF-6 (d) SF-5
 19. Pass Rules

01 How many sets of School Pass (scholar) is issued to Railway employee?

(a) 03 sets per year (b) 06 sets per year (c) 04 sets per year (d) 05 sets per year
02 Maximum validity for a Privilege Pass?
(a) 05 months (b) 04 months (c) 03 months (d) 02 months
03 Attendants of Pass Holder is………
(a) Full time paid servant (b) Part time servant (c) Servant (d) Any person
04 Pass to widows/widower of Railway employee was implemented w.e.f………
(a) 12.03.1987 (b) 12.03.1986 (c) 12.03.1988 (d) 12.03.1989
05 Maximum Reservation berth given to Railway Officer on duty?
(a) 04 berths (b) 06 berths (c) 02 berths (d) 05 berths
06 Rs._____ Penalties for not filling the date of commencement of journey
(Privilege/Duty) 2nd Class Pass holder
(a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 20/- (c) Rs.15/- (d) Rs. 5/-
07 Penalties for not filling the date of commencement of journey (Privilege/Duty) 1st
Class Pass holder -
(a) Rs. 25/- (b) Rs. 15/- (c) Rs. 35/- (d) Rs. 05/-
08 Rs.___ is penalties for loss of a 2nd Class Post Retirement Complimentary Pass?
(a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 20/- (c) Rs. 15/- (d) Rs. 5/-
09 Minimum ______ years’ service is required for Post Retired Complimentary Pass.
(a) 20 years (b) 10 years (c) 25 years (d) 33 years
10 What will be the colour of “II Class” ‘A’ Pass?
(a) Yellow (b) Green (c) Pink (d) White
20. Advance

01 Who is entitled for Computer Advance?

(a) All Rly. Servant (b) Only Gaz. (c) Only Non-Gaz. (d) None
02 First time Amount admissible for Computer Advance?
(a) Rs.50,000 (b) Rs.40,000 (c) Rs. 30000 (d) None
03 Computer Advance is admissible Max.______ number of times in entire service.
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Six (d) Three
04 Recovery of Computer Advance is done in _____ installment.
(a) 150 (b) 180 (c) 240 (d) None
05 Interest on Computer Advance is _____% p.a.
(a) 11.5% (b) 10.5% (c) 9.5% (d) None
06 Employee is entitled for Second time Computer Advance after ____ years
(a) 03 (b) 04 (c) 05 (d) None
07 Second time Amount admissible under Computer Advance?
(a) Rs.40000 (b) Rs. 50000 (c) Rs. 30000 (d) None
08 Who is entitle for House Building Advance?
(a) All permanent Rly. employee (b) Only Gaz. (c) Only Non-Gaz. (d) None
09 Only _____ time HB advance shall be sanctioned to the Govt. servant during his
/ her entire service.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None
10 HBA is subject to a maximum of Rs. ____ lakhs only.
(a) 25 (b) 34 (c) 30 (d) None
 21. Provident Fund

01 Normally Railway servants who have completed _______ years of service may be
granted final withdrawal from Provident Fund
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 05 (d) None
02 A new advance from PF shall not be granted unless ____________ of the previous
advance has been repaid
(a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 30% (d) None
03 For illness, education, obligatory expenses etc. the limit of with drawl of PF advance
is ____months of pay or ¾ of the amount at credit, whichever is less.
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 06 (d) None
04 For illness, education, obligatory expenses etc. the limit of with drawl of PF advance
is 12 months of pay or _____of the amount at credit, whichever is less.
(a) ¾ (b) ½ (c) 90% (d) None
05 The amount of advance will be recoverable in a maximum of _____ installments.
(a) 60 (b) 40 (c) 24 (d) None
06 What is the maximum time limit for payment of advance?
(a) 15 days (b) 07 days (c) 10 days (d) None
07 In case of emergency like illness etc. the maximum time limit for payment of advance
is _____days
(a) 7 days (b) 15 days (c) 5 days (d) None
08 State Railway Provident Fund are contained in Rule____ of the IREC VOL.I
(a) 923 (b) 1203 (c) 823 (d) None
09 PF withdrawal of 90% may be allowed for upto _____ year before superannuation.
(a) 02 (b) 01 (c) 03 (d) 04
10 For illness the PF withdrawal may be allowed upto ___% of the amount standing at
credit.
(a) 90 (b) 50 (c) 70 (d) 100
 22. The Right to Information Act

01 The Right To Information Act commenced w.e.f._______

(a) 12 October 2005 (b) 15 June 2005 (c) 12 Feb. 2005 (d) None
02 Section 2 (h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 explains about
(a) "Public Authority" (b) "Record" (c) "Information" (c) Competent Authority"
03 The Act covers the whole of India except _______
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) None
04 Supply of information in normal course is ______ days.
(a) 30 days (b) 48 days (c) 45 days (d) None
05 Supply of information concerning life or liberty of a person is _____.
(a) 48 hours (b) 30 hours (c) 45 hours (d) None
06 For information under Sub-Sec.(1)of Sec.6 of RTI Act(which relates to an information
from PIO)
(a) Rs.10/- (b) Rs.20/- (c) Rs. 30/- (d) None
07 Charge per copy of records is _______under RTI.
(a) Rs. 2/- (b) Rs. 10/- (c) Rs. 5/- (d) None
08 For information through per diskette or floppy charge is Rs._______ under RTI.
(a) Rs.50/- (b) Rs.10/- (c) Rs.45/- (d) None
09 Any information can be sought except those expressly excluded under _____of the
RTI Act
(a) Section 8 (b) Section 6 (c) Section 7 (d) None
10 Appeal can be filed within _____days after receipt of information under RTI.
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days (c) 90 days (d) None
 23. Contract Labour Act,1970

01 ___Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, _____

(a) 1970 (b) 1971 (c) 1972 (d) None
02 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act extends to the ______
(a) whole of India (b) J & K Except J&K (c) Except Tamil Nadu (d) None
03 It applies to every establishment in which _____or more workmen are employed
(a) 20 (b) 100 (c) 25 (d) None
04 It applies to every contractor who employees or who employed on any day of the
preceding twelve months _______ or more workmen
(a) 20 (b) 100 (c) 25 (d) None
05 What is the minimum number of employees for which a canteen need to be present,
as per the Contract labour (R&A) Rule 1970?
(a) 150 (b) 100 (c) 25 (d) 50
06 Which category does the Contract Labour (R&A) Act 1970 can be classified
into_______
(a) Social Security (b) Welfare (c) Industrial Relation (d) Commercial
07 What are the other facilities are needed for employees by an organization, as per the
Contract Labour (R&A) Act 1970?
(a) All of these (b) Drinking water (c) Washing facilities (d) Latrines and Urinals
08 Which section of the Contract Labour (R&A) Act 1970, enlists requirement of
canteen?
(a) Section 16 (b) Section 10 (c) Section 14 (d) Section 11
09 Which type of organization is exempted under the Contract labour (R&A) Act,1970
(a) Work only of an Casual Nature (b) None of these (c) Both of these (d) Work
only of an intermittent nature
10 Which section of the Contract Labour (R&A) Act 1970, enlists requirement of licensing
of contractor?
(a) Section 16 (b) Section 10 (c) Section 14 (d) Section 11
 24. Cashless Treatment Scheme in Emergency

01 Cashless treatment scheme in emergency (CTSE) in empanelled hospitals

for______
(a) Retired Emp. (b) Serving Emp. (c) Both A & B (d) None
02 The fee, to join CTSE per family (comprising of all eligible members as per RELHS
Card) shall be __________,those entitled to Pvt Ward
(a) Rs.50,000/- (b) Rs.25000/- (c) Rs. 15000/- (d) None
03 The fee, to join CTSE per family (comprising of all eligible members as per RELHS
Card) shall be ________,those entitled to Semi-Pvt Ward.
(a) Rs.25,000/- (b) Rs.15,000/- (c) Rs. 10000/- (d) None
04 The fee, to join CTSE per family (comprising of all eligible members as per RELHS
Card) shall be __________,those entitled to General Ward
(a) Rs.10,000/- (b) Rs. 25000/- (c) Rs. 15000/- (d) None
05 One card to each beneficiary will be issued on payment of____under CTSE.
(a) Rs. 200/- (b) Rs.100/- (c) Rs. 50/- (d) None
06 The new CTSE card shall be valid throughout the________
(a) Country (b) Railway (c) Division (d) None
07 In every case, the hospital will take the ____of the patient treated in the case
sheet
(a) Fingerprint (b) Aaadhar card (c) RELHS Card (d) None
08 At time of admission in Private Hospital the beneficiary will have to make a deposit
_____ those entitled to Pvt Ward.
(a) Rs. 10000/- (b) Rs. 25000/- (c) Rs. 15000/- (d) None
09 At time of admission in Private Hospital the beneficiary will have to make a deposit
_____ those entitled to Semi- Pvt Ward
(a) Rs. 5000/- (b) Rs. 3000/- (c) Rs. 2000/- (d) None
10 At time of admission in Private Hospital the beneficiary will have to make a deposit
_____ those entitled to General Ward
(a) Rs. 2000/- (b) Rs. 3000/- (c) Rs. 5000/- (d) None
 25. RAILWAY SERVICE CONDUCT RULES, 1966

01 The Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966 are mentioned in which of these?
(a) Indian Rly EstablishmentManual Vol I (b) Indian Rly Establishment Manual Vol II
(c) Indian Rly Establishment Code Vol I (d) Indian Rly Establishment Code Vol II
02 What is mentioned under Rule 3 (1) (ii) of the Railway Service (Conduct)
Rules,1966?
(a) Maintain absolute integrity (b) Maintain devotion to duty
(c) Do nothing which isunbecoming of a railway servant. (d) None of these
03 The rule regarding prohibition of sexual harassment of working women under
Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966 is?
(a) Rule 3 (A) (b) Rule 3 (B) (c) Rule 3 (C) (d) None of these
04 The prohibition of taking part in politics and elections by a railway employee is given
under which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966.
(a) Rule 4 (b) Rule 5 (c) Rule 6 (d) Rule 7
05 Under which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, collection of donation is
prohibited?
(a) Rule 11 (b) Rule 12 (c) Rule 13 (d) Rule 14
06 Under which rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, accept or give dowry is
prohibited?
(a) Rule 12 (b) Rule 13 (c) Rule 13(A) (d) Rule
07 Which category of staff in Railways has to submit a return of their property at the
time of promotion?
(a) ECRC (b) Booking/ Parcel Clerk (c) TC/ TTE (d) All of them
08 Every Railway Servant shall inform the Government regarding purchase of movable
property, if the value of such property is above the limit of basic pays of which
month?
(a) Rule 7 (b) Rule 8 (c) Rule 9 (d) Rule 11
09 Under which rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, permission is required
from Government for transaction of property in foreign country?
(a) Rule 17 (b) Rule 18 (c) Rule 18 (A) (d) Rule 19
10 Any political or other influence is prohibited under which rule of Railway Service
(Conduct) Rules 1966?
(a) Rule 19 (b) Rule 20 (c) Rule 21 (d) Rule 22
11 Under which rule of the Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, consumption of
intoxicated drinks is prohibited?
(a) Rule 21 (b) Rule 22 (c) Rule 23 (d) Rule 24
12 Running staff shall not take any intoxication within which hours before the
commencement of duty?
(a) 5 hrs (b) 8 hrs (c) 10hrs (d) 12 hrs