25/07/2021 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test – 12

Mock Test for NEET (Complete Syllabus of class XI & XII)

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(vii) There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 3. A particle thrown up vertically reaches at half of
the maximum height in  
2  1 s. The speed of
SECTION-A projection of the particle is (g = 10 m/s2)
1. The displacement of a particle is given as (1) 5 2 m/s
P (2) 10 m/s
x (1  e Qt ) , where t is time and P and Q are
Q (3) 40 m/s
dimensional constant. The dimension of PQ will (4) 10 2 m/s
be 4. Virat Kohli can throw a ball to a maximum
(1) [M0LT –1] (2) [M0LT–2] horizontal distance of 50 m. How much high
above the ground can he throw the same ball?
(3) [MLT–2] (4) [M0L –2T]
(1) 25 m (2) 50 m
2. The least count of a stopwatch is 0.2 s. The time
(3) 100 m (4) 75 m
of 100 oscillations is found to be 50 s. The  
5. If A  2iˆ  3 jˆ and B  3i  3 j  2k , then the unit
maximum error in the measurement is  
vector in the direction of A  B is
(1) 0.4%
5iˆ  5 jˆ  3kˆ 5iˆ  5 jˆ  3kˆ
(2) 0.2% (1) (2)
59 59
(3) 2%
5iˆ  6 ˆj  2kˆ 5iˆ  6 ˆj  2kˆ
(4) 4% (3) (4)
65 65
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 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

6. A body of a mass 40 kg is suspended by two 11. 1 kg sugar have maximum mass

massless strings as shown in the figure, then
(1) At poles

(2) At equator

(3) In India

(4) Mass will be same everywhere

) and
(1) 2 T1  3 T2  0 (2) 3 T1  2 T2  0 12. The curve between potential energy (U
) between atoms of a diatomic
distance (r
(3) 3 T1  2 T2  0 (4) 3T1  2T2  0    
molecule is shown in the figure. If FA , FB , FC , FD
7. Two blocks A and B are connected with an ideal
string are pulled horizontally by a force of 10 N as  are forces of interaction between atoms
and FE
shown in the figure. The force of friction acting on of molecules corresponding to points shown on
block A is
curve, then

(1) 4 N (2) 10 N
(3) 6 N (4) Zero
8. The work done by an agent applying a force

F  (iˆ  2 jˆ  3kˆ ) N on a particle in moving it from
A(0, 0, 0) m to B(3, 4, 5) m is 
(1) FB  0
(1) 26 J (2) 20 J

(3) 13 J (4) 39 J (2) FA  0
9. Kinetic energy of any moving particle is  
(1) Scalar, positive (3) FE  FC  0
 
(2) Scalar, may be negative (4) FC  FE  0 ) of a steel wire varies with the
(3) May be vector, positive the graph (within
(4) Vector, may be zero 13. Elongation (E
10. A solid sphere placed on a rough horizontal
elongation force (F) according to
elastic limit)
surface, is pulled horizontally by a force F. If it
undergoes pure rolling, then the frictional force
developed is
(1) (2)

5 3
(1) F (2) F
7 7 (3) (4)
3F 2
(3) (4) F
5 7
(2)
 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)

14. Pressure inside the two soap bubbles are 18. An ideal diatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process
1.01 atm and 1.02 atm. The ratio of their free as shown in P–V diagram. The dotted curves are
surface area is
(1) 2 : 1 isothermal. The efficiency of the heat engine
(2) 1 : 8 based on these processes is
(3) 101 : 102
(4) 4 : 1
15. If the temperature of the liquid rises, then its
coefficient of viscosity
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains same
(4) Increases and decreases periodically
16. An anisotropic material has coefficient of linear
2
expansion , 2, 2 along x, y and z-axis (1)
13
respectively. The coefficient of cubical expansion
is 2
(2)
19
(1) 2
 (2) 3 1
(3)
(3) 5 5
5
 (4)  1
3 (4)
17. In the spectrum of a black body at two 7
temperature T and 2T, let A1 and A2 be area 19. As the temperature of a sample of a gas
under the two curves respectively. The value of increases, the most probable speed
A1
will be (1) Increases
A2

(1) 1 : 16 (2) Decreases

(2) 4 : 1 (3) Remains same
(3) 8 : 1
(4) Depends on atomicity of the gas
(4) 2 : 1

(3)
(
 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

20. The time period of a given spring-mass-string 23. An infinite number of charges, each of charge
system is 1 C are placed on x-axis with co-ordinates
x(m) = 1, 2, 4, 8, ……. If a charge 2 C is placed at
origin, then the net force on 2 C charge is
(1) 18000 N
(2) 24000 N
m
(1) 2 (3) 48000 N
2K
(4) 72000 N
m 24. The figure shows some of the equipotential
(2) 2
K surfaces. The magnitude and direction of the
m electric field is given by
(3)  2 1  2K

m
(4)  2 1  K
(1) 200 V/m, – 60° with +x-axis
21. If graph between fundamental frequency (f) and
corresponding tension (T) in a sonometer wire is (2) 200 V/m, 120° with +x-axis
plotted, then it is best represented by (3) 100 V/m, 30° with +x-axis
(4) 100 V/m, 120° with +x-axis
(1) (2) 25. In the given arrangement of parallel plates. Each
plate has area A and distance between two
consecutive plates is d. The equivalent
capacitance of the system between x and y is
(3) (4) given as

22. A tuning fork is kept between two organ pipes

A and B. Organ pipe A is closed at one end and is
of length 18 cm while organ pipe B is opened at
both ends as shown in the figure. If fourth over-
tone of pipe B and first overtone of pipe A are in
resonance with tuning fork, then the length of 0 A
(1)
open organ pipe B is d
20 A
(2)
d

(1) 60 cm 3 0 A
(3)
(2) 50 cm d
(3) 40 cm 40 A
(4)
(4) 30 cm d
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 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)

26. The potential difference between points P and Q 30. The end points of a current-carrying wire lie on the
in the given circuit is x-axis and y-axis as shown in the figure. The
magnetic force on the wire is

(1) 2 V
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N
(2) 1 V (3) 30 N (4) Zero
(3) 3 V 31. Consider the following statements.
(4) 4 V a. Eddy current loss is minimized by using
laminated cores
27. The V – I characteristics of a non-linear device is b Self-inductance is called inertia of electricity.
shown in the figure. The region showing negative Choose the correct statements.
resistance is (1) Only a (2) Only b
(3) Both a and b (4) Neither a nor b
32. The variation of an alternating current (I) varies
with time (t) as shown in the figure. The average
value of current for half cycle is

(1) OA
(2) AB
(3) CD I0
(1) Zero (2)
2
(4) BC
2I0 I0
28. The magnetic field at point O in the figure shown (3) (4)
 
below is
33. Which one of the following rays (or wave) has
maximum speed in air?
(1) -rays (2) -rays
(3) Sound wave (4) Heat radiations
34. In compound microscope, intermediate image
formed is
(1) Virtual, erect and magnified
(2) Real, erect and diminished
0 i 0 i (3) Real, inverted and magnified
(1)  3  1 (2)
4d   8d (4) Virtual, erect and diminished
35. A convex mirror is dipped in a liquid whose
0 i
(3)
8 d
 
3 1 (4) Zero refractive index is equal to the refractive index of
material of mirror. Then its focal length will
29. The ratio of magnetic length to geometrical length (1) Become zero
of a bar magnet is about (2) Become infinite
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.84 (3) Remain unchanged
(3) 0.16 (4) 1 (4) Become small but not zero
5)
 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

SECTION-B 43. If a small amount of a trivalent atom is dopped

with silicon crystal, then
36. In the double-slit experiment, what should be the
width of each slit to obtain 8 maxima of the double (1) Its resistance is increased
slit pattern within the central maxima of single slit (2) It becomes n-type semiconductor
pattern with d = 3 mm?
(3) Semiconductor becomes electrically positive
(1) 0.6 mm (2) 0.4 mm
(4) There will be holes in majority
(3) 0.75 mm (4) 0.3 mm
44. An amplifier A with a negative feedback is shown
37. The wave nature of electrons was first
in the diagram. Choose the correct expression for
experimentally verified independently by the close loop gain of the amplifier.
(1) Davisson and Germer
(2) Louis de Broglie
(3) Hallwachs and Lenard
(4) J.J. Thomson
38. The work function of a photosensitive surface is
3.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident radiation
for which the stopping potential is 3 V lies in the A A
(1) (2)
(1) Visible region (2) IR region 1  A 1  A
(3) UV region (4) Radiowave region A A
(3) (4)
39. The angular momentum of an electron in a 1  A 1  A
hydrogen atom is proportional to (n is principle 45. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in the
quantum number) figure will be
(1) n2 (2) n
3
(3) n (4) n
40. 1 mg mass is equivalent to
(1) 5.66 × 1029 eV
(2) 4.2 × 1026 eV (1) A  B (2) A  B
10
(3) 9 × 10 eV (3) A · B (4) A + B
(4) 5.66 × 1026 eV
46. A 2 V battery, a 990  resistor and a
41. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B potentiometer of 2 m length all are connected in
are 20 hours and 40 hours respectively. Initially
series. The resistance of potentiometer wire is
the sample of A and B have equal number of
nuclei. The ratio of remaining number of A to that 10 , then potential gradient of potentiometer wire
of B nuclei after 80 hours is is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (1) 0.5 V m –1
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16 (2) 0.1 V m –1
42. The ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to (3) 0.01 V m –1
Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is (4) 0.02 V m –1
5 47. A long straight wire of radius R carries a current I
(1)
36 distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The
5 magnitude of magnetic field is
(2)
27 (1) Maximum on the axis of straight wire
5 (2) Maximum at the surface of the wire
(3)
9 (3) Minimum at the surface of the wire
3 (4) Maximum at 2R distance from axis of the
(4)
4 wire

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 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)

48. In the circuit as shown in diagram R = 10 , 53. Convulsions is caused by the deficiency of which
E = 10 V, I = 2 A and L = 5 H. The current in part
of the circuit is decreasing at rate of 2 A/s. What is vitamin?
potential difference VAB at this instant. (1) Ascorbic acid (2) Thiamine
(3) Riboflavin (4) Pyridoxine
(1) 25 V (2) 35 V 54. Species having two unpaired electrons is
(3) 40 V (4) 20 V
(1) O2 (2) O 2
49. A stepdown transformer increases input current
from 4 A to 24 A in secondary coil. If the number
(3) O 2 (4) O22
of turns in primary is 660, the number of turns in
secondary coil (consider ideal transformer) 55. Non-polar molecule among the following is
(1) 3960 (2) 110
(1) CCl4 (2) CH3Cl
(3) 66 (4) 33
(3) CH2Cl2 (4) CH2Br2
50. A plano-concave lens is made of glass of
refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature of its 56. Shape of XeO2F2 molecule is
curved surface is 50 cm. What is power of this
lens.
(1) See-saw (2) Bent-T-shape
(1) –1 D (2) –5 D (3) Tetrahedral (4) Octahedral
(3) –2 D (4) 1 D 57. Overlapping of which pair of orbitals form -bond
(Internuclear axis is z-axis)
CHEMISTRY
(1) 2px + 2py (2) 2px + 2pz
SECTION-A (3) 2px + 2px (4) 2pz + 2pz
51. Number of atoms in 0.2 g molecule Br3O8 is (molar 58. Ratio of average speed of oxygen and root mean
mass of Br3O8 is 368 g mol–1) square speed of CO2 at same temperature is

(1) 0.22 NA (2) 2.2 NA 11 3

(1) (2)
3 11
0.2
(3) 0.2 NA (4)  11NA
368 11 3
(3) (4)
52. Spectral lines of which series of atomic hydrogen 3 11
falls in ultraviolet region? 59. Extensive property among the following is
(1) Lyman (2) Paschen (1) Pressure (2) Density
(3) Bracket (4) Pfund (3) Volume (4) Vapour pressure
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 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

60. Incorrect relation among the following is 69. Select the polymer in which formaldehyde is not
used as one of the monomeric unit
(1) H = U + (PV) (2) U = Q + W
(1) Novolac
(3) H = QP (4) U = QP
(2) Melamine-formaldehyde polymer
61. If Enthalpy of combustions of C(graphite) and
CO(g) are x1 and x2 kJ mol–1 respectively then the (3) Terylene
enthalpy of formation (in kJ mol–1) of CO(g) will be (4) Bakelite
(1) x1 + x2 (2) x1 – x2 70. Select the correct statement among the following

(x1  x2 ) (x1  x2 ) (1) The prescribed upper limit concentration of

(3) (4) lead in drinking water is 500 ppm
2 2
62. 1 L aqueous solution contains 1 mol CH3COOH (2) Excessive nitrate ion in drinking water can
cause methemoglobinemia
and 1 mol CH3COONa. If 1 L water is added in the
above mixture then pH of the solution will be (pKa (3) Na3AsO3 is used in dry cleaning of clothes
(CH 3COOH) = 4.74) (4) H2O2 is a herbicide
(1) 4.74 (2) 5.74 71. Fraction of total octahedral voids present at body
(3) 3.74 (4) 4.44 centre of fcc unit cell is

63. If solubility of Ca3(PO4)2 is x then solubility product 1

(1) (2) 1
of Ca3(PO4)2 will be 2
(1) x2 (2) 4x3 1 1
(3) (4)
(3) 27x4 (4) 108x5 4 8

64. Select the compound in which central atom 72. Ferromagnetic solid among the following is
present is in its highest oxidation state (1) MnO (2) Gadolinium
(1) HNO2 (2) H2S2O8 (3) MgFe2O4 (4) Fe3O4
(3) H2S (4) H2N2O2 73. In a binary solution of A(PAº = 700 torr) and
65. Group of highest +R effect among the following is B(PBº = 500 torr), if A and B were added in molar
ratio of 2 : 3 then vapour pressure of B in the
(1) – OH (2) – F
solution will be
(3) – NH2 (4) – NHCOCH3
(1) 280 torr (2) 300 torr
66. CH3OC3H 7 and C2H5OC2H 5 are
(3) 580 torr (4) 680 torr
(1) Chain isomers (2) Functional isomers
74. Select the ion of lowest limiting molar conductivity
(3) Position isomers (4) Metamers in water at 298 K
67. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen (1) OH– (2) Cl–
present in an organic compound, ammonia
(3) Br– (4) Na+
evolved from 0.8 g of a sample is neutralized by
20 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen 75. Ecell of Pt|H2(1 atm)| H+ (1 M) || Au3+ (0.1 M)| Au,
in the organic compound will be
(1) 40% (2) 35%

is Eº
Au3  /Au
 1.4 V 
(3) 25% (4) 90% (1) 1.2 V (2) 1.38 V
(3) 2.58 V (4) 1.51 V
68. During the generation of electrophile in nitration of
benzene, acid and base respectively are 76. Which among the following is not affected by
catalyst?
(1) H2SO4, SO3 (2) H2SO4, HNO3
(1) Activation energy (2) Rate constant

(3) SO2, SO3 (4) H2SO4, NO 2 (3) Reaction path (4) H of reaction

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 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)
77. Unit of half life time of zero order reaction is
SECTION-B
(1) mol L–1s–1 (2) s
86. Thermal decomposition of which does not give
(3) mol L–1 s (4) mol–1 L s–1
oxygen gas as one of the product?
78. The process of settling of colloidal particles is
(1) Pb3O4 (2) PbO2
known as
(3) KClO3 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(1) Electrophoresis
87. Select the halide of highest ionic character
(2) Brownian movement
(1) NaF (2) NaCl
(3) Coagulation
(3) NaBr (4) NaI
(4) Peptization
88. Cationic species obtained on reaction of XeF4 with
79. Correct formula of cuprite ore is
SbF5 is
(1) Cu2O (2) Cu2S
(1) [XeF]+ (2) [XeF7]+
(3) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 (4) CuFeS2
(3) [XeF5]+ (4) [XeF3]+
80. Select among the following which is observed in
89. Spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of Mn 2+ ion is
the form of brown precipitate
(1) 0 (2) 1.75
(1) AgCl (2) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(3) 5.92 (4) 4.89
(3) Zn(OH)2 (4) Fe 2O3. xH 2O
90. Correct electronic configuration of d-orbital of iron
81. Select the correct statement about phosphine
in complex anion [Fe(CN)6]4– is (Atomic No. of iron
among the following
is 26)
(1) It can be absorbed in copper sulphate solution
(2) It is more basic than ammonia (1) t42ge2g 4 3
(2) t2g eg

(3) It cannot react with acids (3) t42ge0g (4) t62ge0g

(4) It is non-poisonous as well as non-reactive
91. Which among the following compound undergoes
with HNO3
nucleophilic substitution most easily?
82. Pair of oxyacids of phosphorous having equal
number of P-OH bonds is
(1) H3PO2, H3PO3 (2) H3PO2, H4P2O5 (1) (2)
(3) H3PO3, H4P2O5 (4) H4P2O5, H4P2O6
83. Select the positive sol among the following
(1) Ag sol (2) Au sol
(3) Sb2S3 sol (4) TiO2 sol (3) (4)
84. Select the vinylic halide among the following
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2Cl
92. Select the alcohol which will give immediate
(2) turbidity on reaction with conc. HCl in presence of
anhydrous ZnCl2
(3) (1) CH3CH2OH
(2) CH3CH2CH2OH
(4) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl
OH
85. Which among the following acids has highest pKa? |
(3) CH3 CH 2 – CH – CH3
(1) CCl3COOH (2) C6H5COOH
(3) CH3COOH (4) HCOOH (4) (CH3)3C – OH

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 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

93. Which does not give Cannizzaro reaction?

(1) HCHO (2) PhCHO BOTANY
(3) (CH 3)3CCHO (4) CH3CH2CHO
SECTION-A
94. Select the correct statement among the following
101. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mesosomes.
(1) 1º amines do not give carbylamine reaction (1) They are formed by the extension of plasma
(2) Tertiary amines do not react with Hinsberg’s membrane into the cell
reagent (2) These are present in the form of vesicles,
tubules and lamellae
(3) Aniline does not undergo electrophilic (3) They contain photosynthetic pigments in some
aromatic substitution with aqueous bromine prokaryotes
(4) Aniline is more basic than ethyl amine (4) They help in cell wall formation

95. Cationic detergent among the following is 102. All of the given functions are associated with
endomembrane system, except
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate (1) Synthesis of glycoproteins
(2) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate (2) Photosynthesis
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide (3) Detoxification of drug
(4) Autolysis
(4) Condensation product of stearic acid and
103. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by which
polyethylene glycol
of the given event?
96. Molarity of an aqueous solution of 0.1 mole (1) Bivalent formation
glucose present in 500 ml solution is (2) Crossing over
(1) 0.2 M (2) 0.5 M (3) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) 0.15 M (4) 0.8 M (4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
104. If a diploid cell has 18 chromosomes. How many
97. pH of an aqueous solution of 0.1 M CH3COONa is bivalents are possible to form during the process
(pKa of CH3COOH = 4.7) of cell division?
(1) 9 (2) 18
(1) 7 (2) 7.5
(3) 36 (4) 4
(3) 8.85 (4) 11.35
105. How many kingdoms w.r.t. Whittaker’s kingdom
98. Zone refining is used for refining of classification system exhibit only autotrophic and
only heterotrophic mode of nutrition respectively?
(1) Na (2) Fe (1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2
(3) Ga (4) Al (3) 2 and 1 (4) 2 and 4
99. Which among the following compound gives 106. Which of the given protozoan causes ‘sleeping
sickness’?
fastest rate of nucleophilic addition reactions?
(1) Entamoeba (2) Paramoecium
(1) CH3CHO (2) (CH3)2CO (3) Trypanosoma (4) Amoeba
(3) (C2H5)2CO (4) (C6H 5)2CO 107. From which of the given regions of root-tip, root
hairs develop?
100. Products of electrolysis of aq. solution of CuSO4
(1) Region of root cap
using platinum electrodes are
(2) Region of meristematic activity
(1) H2(g), O2(g) (2) H2(g), SO2(g) (3) Zone of elongation
(3) Cu(s), O2(g) (4) Cu(s), H2(g) (4) Zone of maturation

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 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)

116. What will be the direction of flow of water when a

108. is the floral formula of
plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution?
(1) Gloriosa (2) Petunia
(1) There is no flow of water in any direction
(3) Potato family (4) Indigofera
(2) Water will flow into the cell
109. Which of the given is a non-defining property of
(3) Water will flow out of the cell
living organisms?
(4) Water will flow in both direction
(1) Metabolism
117. Which of the given elements is activator for both
(2) Cellular organisation
RuBisCo and PEPCase?
(3) Consciousness (1) Mg2+ (2) Zn2+
(4) Growth (3) Mn2+ (4) Cl–
110. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic
118. Which of the given moneran is autotrophic and
categories of housefly
fixes nitrogen symbiotically as well as in free-living
(1) Genus – Musca state?
(2) Order – Insecta (1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia
(3) Family – Muscidae (3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter
(4) Phylum – Arthropoda 119. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. photosystem
111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in II
(1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root (1) The reaction centre is P680
(3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem (2) PS II occurs on outer surface of thylakoids
112. There is no secondary growth in monocot root, (3) Found in grana lamellae
because (4) Associated with splitting of water and release
(1) Of presence of large pith of O2
(2) Vascular bundle is polyarch in them 120. For every CO2 molecule entering Calvin cycle,
(3) Of absence of cambium how many molecules of ATP and NADPH are
required respectively?
(4) Root never increases its girth
(1) 3 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
113. The characteristic red colour in members of
rhodophyceae is due to the predominance of (3) 4 and 5 (4) 5 and 4

(1) r-phycoerythrin 121. Which of the given steps is catalysed by

Pacemaker enzyme w.r.t. EMP pathway?
(2) r-phycocyanin
(1) Glucose to Glucose-6-phosphate
(3) Fucoxanthin
(2) Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1, 6-
(4) Chlorophyll b bisphosphate
114. Life-cycle of Polysiphonia and Cedrus respectively (3) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
are
(4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1, 3-bisphos-
(1) Haplontic and Diplontic phoglyceric acid
(2) Haplodiplontic and Diplontic 122. Which one of given respiratory substrate has
(3) Haplodiplontic and Haplontic minimum RQ?
(4) Diplontic and Haplontic (1) Glucose (2) Protein

115. Which one of the following is not a feature of (3) Oxalic acid (4) Tripalmitin
facilitated transport in plants? 123. All of the given are features associated with
(1) Requires special membrane proteins meristematic cells, except

(2) Net transport of molecules occurs from a low (1) Have dense protoplasm
to a high concentration (2) Increased vacuolation
(3) Transport saturates (3) High respiration rate
(4) Respond to protein inhibitors (4) Contain large nucleus

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 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
124. Which of the given can help in shortening the 134. All of the given statements are correct w.r.t.
period between germination and flowering? Saccharum officinarum, except
(1) Vernalisation (2) Scarification (1) Is a noble sugarcane
(3) Bolting (4) Vivipary (2) Grow well in North India
125. Select the incorrect match. (3) Has higher sugar content
(1) Conidia – Penicillium (4) Had thicker stem
(2) Rhizome – Banana 135. During primary treatment of sewage, all solids that
(3) Zoospores – Chlamydomonas settle forms _____.
(4) Sucker – Pistia (1) Primary sludge (2) Primary effluent
126. Which of the given is a polycarpic plant? (3) Activated sludge (4) Flocs
(1) Apple (2) Wheat SECTION-B
(3) Rice (4) Marigold
136. Which of the given bioactive molecule is used as
127. The stalk of the ovule by which it remains an immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant
attached to placenta is called patients?
(1) Funicle (2) Hilum (1) Streptokinase (2) Cyclosporin A
(3) Micropyle (4) Chalaza (3) Statins (4) Amylase
128. How many nuclei are present in a mature embryo 137. All of the given are stenothermal organisms,
sac?
except
(1) 2 (2) 7
(1) Polar bear (2) Lizards
(3) 8 (4) 3
(3) Birds (4) Abies
129. In mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 96 individuals
138. Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an
obtained in F2 generation, how many have atleast
example of which of the given population
one dominant allele?
interaction?
(1) 6 (2) 90
(1) Competition (2) Parasitism
(3) 16 (4) 48
(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism
130. Which of the given gametic fusion reflects
139. Which of the given is not the characteristics of
nullisomic condition? anthropogenic ecosystem?
(1) n × (n – 1) (2) (n – 1) × (n – 1) (1) Possess self regulatory mechanism
(3) n × (n + 1) (4) (n + 1) × (n + 1) (2) Have little diversity
131. How many of the given enzymes are involved in (3) Little cycling of nutrients
DNA replication?
(4) Simple food chain
Helicase, DNA dependent RNA polymerase, DNA 140. Which of the following is least productive
ligase, Peptidyl transferase, Topoisomerase ecosystem?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) Desert (2) Coral reefs
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) Tropical rain forest (4) Sugarcane field
132. Opening of DNA helix and continuation of 141. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. biodiversity in
elongation process in transcription is achieved by Amazonian rain forest
(1) Helicase (2) RNA polymerase (1) Mammals – 427
(3) Sigma-factor (4) Rho-factor (2) Birds – 13000

133. The backbone or root of any breeding programme (3) Reptiles – 378
is (4) Fishes – 3000
(1) Genetic variability 142. Which of the given is an ex-situ conservation
strategy for conservation of biodiversity?
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents
(1) National park (2) Sanctuaries
(3) Cross-hybridisation among selected parents
(3) Biosphere reserve (4) Wildlife safari park
(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
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 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)

143. All of the given are primary air pollutants, except

(1) CO2 (2) Ozone ZOOLOGY
(3) SO2 (4) NOX
SECTION-A
144. Biomagnification is found to be maximum at which
of the given organisms in an aquatic food chain? 151. Which of the following set of organisms have
tissue grade of organisation, blind sac plan and
(1) Zooplankton (2) Small fish
exhibit radial symmetry?
(3) Large fish (4) Fish-eating birds
(1) Asterias, Echinus (2) Pila, Aedes
145. Refer the following cross (3) Hydra, Physalia (4) Fasciola, Ascaris
PpQqRR × PPQQRr 152. Cells of the loose connective tissue that play a
What is the probability of occurrence of a progeny major role to ingest cell debris and foreign matter
with PpQqRr genotype? is
1 1 (1) Fibroblast (2) Mast cell
(1) (2)
2 4 (3) Macrophage (4) Adipocyte
1 1 153. All of the following are examples of neutral amino
(3) (4) acid except
16 8
(1) Glycine
146. What will be the amount of DNA in S-phase of cell
cycle if its meiotic product has 8 pg of DNA? (2) Alanine

(1) 16 pg (2) 32 pg (3) Valine

(3) 8 pg (4) 4 pg (4) Lysine

147. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. wind 154. How many of the given organisms exhibit bilateral
symmetry in adult form?
pollinated flowers.
a. Balanoglossus b. Cucumaria
(1) The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
c. Echinus d. Nereis
(2) The flower have well-exposed stamens
e. Fasciola f. Sepia
(3) Flowers have large feathery stigma
Choose the correct option.
(4) Flowers have long, sticky unwettable stigma
(1) Two
148. Which of the given is autosomal recessive
(2) Four
disorder?
(3) Five
(1) Colourblindness (2) Thalassemia
(4) Six
(3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Haemophilia
155. Heart receives only deoxygenated blood in all the
149. The Lac operon is switched off when repressor
given organisms except
protein produced by regulatory gene binds to
(1) Pristis (2) Labeo
which of the given gene?
(3) Bufo (4) Pterophyllum
(1) Regulator gene (2) Operator gene
156. Which of the following statement is not applicable
(3) Promoter gene (4) Structural gene
to secretin hormone?
150. A population is said to be mature or stable, when
(1) Target organs of secretin are pancreas,
(1) The age pyramid for human population stomach and liver
appears an urn-shaped (2) Stimulates the secretion of bicarbonates in the
(2) The size of population increases rapidly pancreatic juice
(3) The population shows a declined growth (3) Inhibits the gastric secretion and motility
(4) Growth rate of population being almost zero (4) Decrease secretion of bile from liver

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 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

157. Which of the given protochordate retains the (3) Efferent nerve fibre (4) Cerebrum
following characters throughout life? 164. Which of the following can be taken as common
a. Dorsal notochord feature between stomach and small intestine?
b. Perforated lateral pharyngeal gill slits (1) Oblique layer of muscles
c. Post anal tail (2) Finger like foldings, villi
d. Dorsal hollow nerve cord (3) Digestion of protein
(1) Ascidia (2) Salpa (4) Presence of rugae
(3) Branchiostoma (4) Doliolum 165. Adrenaline released from adrenal medulla under
stress and performs following function so as to
158. The junction in the epithelial tissue which facilitate
cope with emergency situation, except
the cells to communicate with each other by
connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for (1) Increase alertness, pupillary dilation
rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and large (2) Increase the breakdown of lipids and proteins
molecules is (3) Elevate blood glucose by converting glycogen
(1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction to glucose
(3) Gap junction (4) Desmosome (4) Constrict arterioles of skeletal muscle
159. If an enzyme can act on more than one substrate, 166. Urea is added to the interstitial fluid of the
then how Km is related to such enzyme? medullary region by diffusing out from the
collecting duct. It re-enters the filtrate by
a. Km value remains same for all substrates but
Vmax varies (1) Active secretion in DCT
b. Km value will be different for different (2) Passive secretion into thick ascending limb of
substrates loop of Henle
c. Km value for a particular substrate is fixed (3) Diffusion into thin ascending limb of loop of
Henle
(1) a, c (2) b, c
(4) Passive secretion into descending limb of loop
(3) a, b (4) a only
of Henle
160. Which of the following would be true if a person
167. Which of the following condition is applicable
has less body fluid?
during passive filling of ventricles during joint
a. Decreased renin and angiotensin level
diastole?
b. Increased angiotensin II and aldosterone level
Auricles Ventricles Auriculoventricular
c. Non-functioning of RAAS valves
d. Increased renin and ADH level (1) Contract Relax Open
Choose the correct option. (2) Relax Relax Close
(1) a, b only (2) b, c only (3) Relax Relax Open
(3) b, d only (4) a, d only (4) Contract Contract Open
161. When a person breathes normally, the amount of 168. The developing embryo of bird removes the
air left in his lungs after normal expiration is nitrogenous waste material in the form of
represented by
(1) NH3
(1) ERV (2) RV
(2) Urea
(3) VC (4) FRC
(3) Uric acid
162. Pectoral girdle includes
(1) Patella (2) Vomer (4) N2
(3) Radius (4) Clavicle 169. Head of which muscle protein exhibits ATPase
163. A knee jerk reflex does not include activity?
(1) Muscle spindle (2) Afferent nerve fibre (1) Troponin (2) Actin
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 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)
(3) Myosin (4) Tropomyosin (4) Cereals
170. A person is suffering from macrocytic anaemia 174. Select the odd one w.r.t. unconditional reflex.
which can be due to degeneration of ______ cells. (1) Release of bile from gall bladder
Fill the blank with appropriate option. (2) Suckling reflex during breast feeding

(1) Chief cells (3) Playing guitar

(2) Oxyntic cells (4) Swallowing in newborn babies

(3) Peptic cells 175. Which pair of hormones cause hyperglycemia?

a. Epinephrine b. Insulin
(4) Zymogen cells
c. Aldosterone d. Glucagon
171. Which of the following statements are related to
the hyperpolarisation of a nerve fibre? (1) a, b (2) b, c
a. It involves the decrease in membrane (3) a, d (4) a, c
potential from –70 to –90 mV 176. The membrane bisects I-Band in the center is
(1) M-line (2) Z-line
b. It is due to prolonged opening of K+ channels,
(3) H-zone (4) A-line
causing efflux of K+ ions
177. Select the correct option depicting the difference
c. It is due to closing of K+ channels and opening between meiocytes and gametes w.r.t. number of
of Na + channels chromosomes.

d. It involves closing of both Na+ and K+ Meiocytes Gamete

channels and opening of Na+ – K+ pump (1) Haploid Haploid

(2) Haploid Diploid
Choose the correct option.
(3) Diploid Haploid
(1) b, c only
(4) Diploid Diploid
(2) a, b only
178. What will happen if the temperature of the testes
(3) c, d only in human is maintained to the level of abdominal
(4) a, d only temperature?
172. Choose the factors which stimulate (1) More sperms will be produced by germinal
chemosensitive area situated adjacent to epithelium
respiratory rhythm center of the brain. (2) Necessary development of normal sperm
does not take place
a. pCO2 in arterial blood
(3) Spermatogenesis will be normal
b. pO2 in venous blood
(4) Androgen binding proteins will lower the
c. H+ level in arterial blood temperature and bring it 2-2.5ºC lower than
d. pCO2 in venous blood the body temperature
(1) a, c (2) a, b 179. Which of the following cells secrete perforin?
(3) b, c (4) b, d (1) Basophils
173. Agrobacterium tumefaciens contain a large Ti (2) Neutrophils
(3) B-cells
plasmid which can pass on its crown gall disease
(4) NK cells
causing gene into the genome of all the given host 180. The drug which is consumed by people during the
cells except festive of Mahashivratri in India is
(1) Tobacco (1) Opioids
(2) Tomato (2) Cannabinoids
(3) Potato (3) Cocaine
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 Test-12 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

(4) Sedatives (3) Chimpanzee (4) Australopithecus

181. Bt toxin kills the insect as
187. Which of the following can’t be taken as a
(1) It attacks the nervous system and blocks the character of Homo sapiens fossilis?
enzyme, acetylcholinesterase
(1) Strictly herbivorous
(2) It is converted into active form in the alkaline
(2) Could walk and run
pH of midgut that create pores, which leads to
lysis of cells (3) Made sophisticated tools

(3) Toxin is competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine (4) Man like dentition

(4) Toxin blocks their spiracles 188. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. disruptive
selection.
182. The immunoglobulins which protect us from
(1) Selection does not favour the mean character
inhaled and ingested pathogens is
value
(1) IgM (2) IgG (2) It changes the frequency of alleles in a
(3) IgE (4) IgA divergent manner
183. All the given options are the examples of (3) The extreme individuals are eliminated from
convergent evolution except the population

(1) Australian marsupials and placental mammals (4) Both peripheral character values are selected

(2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins 189. Which protein of HIV helps in the attachment with
CD4 receptor of T-helper cells?
(3) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(1) GP-120 (2) P17
(4) Wings of birds and flippers of whale
(3) GP-40 (4) P24
184. Which of the following drug was extracted earlier
190. The causative agent of malignant malaria is
from slaughtered cattle but are now produced
(1) Plasmodium vivax
using biotechnology?
(2) Plasmodium ovale
(1) Cortisol (3) Plasmodium falciparum
(2) Insulin
(4) Plasmodium malariae
(3) Testosterone
191. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. the diseases of
(4) Estradiol the poultry birds and the pathogen associated with
185. In test tube baby programme, if the embryo is with them:
Disease Pathogen
more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into
(1) Newcastle disease Virus
which region of the female reproductive tract so as
(2) Pullorum Bacteria
to complete further development?
(3) Coryza Virus
(1) Ampulla part
(4) Bird flu H5N1
(2) Ostium
192. Which of the following technique involves the
(3) Vestibule administration of a hormone to induce
(4) Uterus superovulation?
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
SECTION-B
(3) MOET (4) ICSI
186. About 15 mya, ______ existed, which is regarded
193. The recognition site for restriction enzyme EcoRI
as a common ancestor of man and apes. is
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
5GGATCC3 5G AATTC3
(1)  (2)
(1) Homo habilis (2) Dryopithecus 3CCTAGG5 3CTTAAG5
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 Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-12 (Code-A)
 
5AG TACT3 5CCC GGG3 (2) T T F
(3) (4)
3TCATGA5 3GGGCCC5 (3) T T T
194. Select the incorrect statement regarding Saheli, (4) T F T
an oral contraceptive pills.
199. How many of the following enzymes given in a box
(1) Developed by CDRI, Lucknow below are present in pancreatic juice?
(2) Once a week pill with minimum side effects
Chymotrypsinogen, amylases, nucleases,
(3) Non-steroidal preparation
nucleosidases, sucrase
(4) Works by inhibiting the release of FSH and LH
Choose the correct option.
195. Which of the following method can postpone
menstrual bleeding if a female wish to do so to (1) One (2) Two
participate in some sports event? (3) Three (4) Four
(1) By taking tablet, containing FSH and LH 200. Observe the following given figure which depicts
(2) Progesterone containing drug can be started the formation of a product from a substrate under
3-4 days before expected date the influence of an enzyme. Choose a suitable
(3) By taking single dose of Saheli about 1 day option which correctly identifies the labellings A,
before the cycle B, C and D.

(4) By taking POP for one day, about 1 week

before expected date
196. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Maltose  Glucose + Glucose
(2) Lactose  Glucose + Mannose
(3) Sucrose  Glucose + Fructose
(4) Cellulose  Homopolymer of glucose
197. Each coxal bone is formed by fusion of
a. Ilium
b. Ischium
A B C D
c. Pubis
(1) Transition Potential Activation Activation
Choose the correct option. state energy energy without energy with
(1) Only a and c (2) Only a and b enzyme enzyme
(3) Only b and c (4) a, b and c
(2) Potential Transition Activation Activation
198. Read the following statements and state them as energy state energy without energy with
true(T) or false (F). enzyme enzyme
Statement-A : A single U-shaped bone called
hyoid is present at the base of the buccal cavity. (3) Potential Transition Activation Activation
energy state energy with energy
Statement-B : Malleus, incus and stapes are
enzyme without
collectively termed as ear ossicles.
enzyme
Statement-C : Cranial bones are 14 in number
whereas facial bones are 8 in number. (4) Activation Transition Potential energy Activation
Choose the correct option. energy with state energy
enzyme without
A B C
enzyme
(1) F F T
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