05/08/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST –1
Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer: 4. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity
SECTION-A of 20 m/s from top of multi-storey building. The
height of the point from where ball is thrown is 25
1. The dimensional formula for Reynold’s number is
m above ground, with what speed the ball will hit
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [MLT] the ground.
(3) [ML–1T–1] (4) [ML2T–1]
(1) 25 m/s (2) 35 m/s
2. Two forces whose magnitude are in the ratio of (3) 40 m/s (4) 30 m/s
3 : 5 give a resultant of 28 N, if the angle of their
inclination is 60°. Find magnitude of each force 5. A graph between square of velocity of a particle
(in newton) and distance S moved by the particle is shown in
figure. The acceleration of the particle is
(1) 12, 16 (2) 4, 20
(3) 12, 20 (4) 24, 4
3. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere
B are of same mass and same outer radius.
Their moment of inertia about their diameters are
IA and IB respectively. Such that

(1)IA > IB (2) IA < IB

I (1) – 8 m s–2 (2) – 4 m s–2
(3) IA = IB (4) A = 2
IB (3) – 6 m s–2 (4) – 16 m s–2

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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021
6. A solid cylinder rolls down on inclined plane that 12. A block of mass 16 kg is released from top of a
has friction sufficient to prevent sliding. The ratio smooth inclined plane as shown in figure. The
of rotational energy to total kinetic energy is block comes to rest after compressing the spring
by 1 m. If spring constant of the spring is 200
1 1
(1) (2) N/m, what is distance travelled by block before
3 2
coming to rest? (g = 10 m/s2)
2 3
(3) (4)
3 4
7. A projectile has range of 40 m and reaches a
maximum height of 10 m. Find the angle at which
projectile is fired
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(1) 6 m (2) 2.5 m
(3) 75° (4) 60°
(3) 4.5 m (4) 1.25 m
8. On a mine site, a rock is exploded. On explosion,
rock breaks into three parts. Two parts go off at 13. The speed of a particle moving in a circle of
right angles to each other. These two parts are radius 2 m varies with time as v = t2, where t is in
1 kg and 2 kg moving with velocity of 12 m/s and second and v in m s–1. What is the acceleration
8 m/s respectively. If third part has mass of 5 kg, at t = 2 s?
its speed would be
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(1) 6 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 80 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s (4) 5 m/s
14. The bob of a 0.2 m long pendulum describes an
9. A body of mass 10 kg is kept on horizontal floor arc of circle in a vertical plane. If the tension in
of coefficient of static friction s = 0.5 and
cord is 3 times the weight of the bob when
coefficient of kinetic friction k = 0.45 as shown.
cord makes an angle of 30° to the vertical, then
The contact force on the body when applied force
acceleration of bob in that position is
is 40 N is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) g/2 (2) 3 g/ 2

(3) g/4 (4) g

(1) 125 N (2) 106 N 15. The linear density of a thin rod of length 1 m
(3) 98 N (4) 138 N varies as  = (1 + 2x) kg/m, where x is distance
10. A wooden block of mass 8 kg slides down on an from its one end placed at origin. What is
incline plane of inclination 30° to the horizontal distance of centre of mass from this end.
with constant acceleration of 0.4 m/s2. The force 7 m 5
of friction between the block and inclined plane is (1) (2) m
12 6
(g = 10 m/s2)
4 2
(1) 12.2 N (2) 24.4 N (3) m (4) m
5 3
(3) 36.8 N (4) 45.4 N 16. An object of mass 40 kg and having velocity
11. A force F = 2 + x (N) acts on a particle in x- 4 m/s collides with another object of mass 60 kg
direction, where is x in meter. What is work done having velocity 2 m/s in same direction. What is
by the force during a displacement from x = 1 loss in KE during this process under perfectly
m to x = 2 m? inelastic collision?
(1) 6.2 J (1) 36 J
(2) 4.8 J (2) 48 J
(3) 3.5 J (3) 72 J
(4) 9.3 J (4) 16 J
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-1 (Code-A)
17. A flywheel of moment of inertia 10 kg m2
is 24. If two rods of length L and 2L having coefficient
rotating with angular velocity 50 rad/s. It is of linear expansion  and 2 respectively are
brought to rest in 10 second. The required connected end to end. The average coefficient of
average power is linear expansion of composite rod is
(1) 1250 W (2) 625 W 3 5
(1)  (2) 
(3) 2500 W (4) 500 W 2 2
18. At what height, the acceleration due to gravity 5 4
(3)  (4) 
decreases by 51% of its value on the surface of 3 5
earth? 25. The number of molecules in one litre of gas
3R 3R at temperature 27°C and pressure of
(1) (2)
5 7 106 dyne cm–2 is
3R 2R (1) 2.4 × 1021 (2) 2.4 × 1020
(3) (4) (3) 3.2 × 1021 (4) 2.4 × 1022
8 7
19. A thin rod of length L is bent to form a semi- 26. One mole of a gas is expanded isothermally at
circle. The mass of the rod is M. What will be the 127°C so that its volume increases two times,
gravitational potential at the centre of the circle? then work done by the gas is
(1) 548 cal (2) 243 cal
GM GM
(1)  (2)  (3) 645 cal (4) 412 cal
L 2L
27. Electric flux emanating through a surface
 GM  GM → ‸
(3)  (4)  element ds  5i placed in an electric field
L 2L →
20. Frequency of oscillation of a body is 6 Hz when E  4‸i  4 j‸  4k‸ is
a force F1 is applied and when force F2 is applied (1) 10 unit (2) 60 unit
it is 8 Hz. If both forces F1 and F2 are applied (3) 30 unit (4) 20 unit
together, then what is frequency of oscillation? 28. The outer sphere of a spherical capacitor is
(1) 9 Hz (2) 12 Hz earthed. For increasing its capacity
(3) 10 Hz (4) 6 Hz (1) Vacuum is created between two spheres
21. The length of simple pendulum is 16 cm. It is (2) The space between spheres is increased
suspended by the roof of a lift which is moving (3) Earthing of outer sphere is removed
upwards with an acceleration of 6.2 m/s2. The (4) Dielectric material is filled between two
period of oscillation is (g = 9.8 m/s2) spheres
(1) 2 s (2) 1 s 29. A conducting wire of cross-sectional area 1 cm2
(3) 0.16 s (4) 0.63 s has 3 × 1023 charge carrier per m3. If wire carries
22. If the angle of shear is 30° for a cubical body and a current of 24 mA, the drift velocity of carriers is
change in length is 250 cm, then volume of (1) 5 × 10–2 m s–1 (2) 0.5 m s–1
cubical body is (3) 5 × 10–3 m s–1 (4) 4 × 10–2 m s–1
(1) 81.3 m3 (2) 27.1 m3 30. The current drawn from battery of emf 5 V is
(3) 36.3 m3 (4) 9 m3
23. A water tank standing on floor has two small
holes punched in vertical wall one above the
other. The holes are 2.4 cm and 7.6 cm above
the floor. If the jet of water from holes hit the floor
at the same point, then height of water in tank is
(1) 10 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 2.5 cm (1) 0.33 A (2) 0.5 A
(4) 6.8 cm (3) 0.67 A (4) 0.17 A

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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021
31. In figure shown, there are two semicircles of radii 37. Nichrome and manganin is widely used in wire
r1 and r2 in which current is flowing. The magnetic wound standard resistors, this is because of their
induction at centre O will be (1) Temperature independent resistivity
(2) Strong dependent of resistivity on
temperature
(3) Mechanical strength
(4) Very weak temperature dependent resistivity
38. What is magnitude of magnetic force per unit
length of conducting wire carrying current of 8 A
0 i 0 i and making an angle of 30° with the direction of
(1) (r1  r2 ) (2) (r1  r 2 )
4 4 uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T?

0 i  r1  r 2  0 i  r1  r2  (1) 0.6 N m–1 (2) 1.2 N m–1

(3)   (4)  
4  r1r2  4  r1r2  (3) 0.6 2 N m1 (4) 0.3 N m–1
32. What is magnetic flux density at a point 9 cm 39. A 1 m long metallic rod is rotated with angular
from the long straight wire carrying a current frequency of 400 rad s–1 about an axis normal to
of 6 A? the rod passing through one of its end. The other
(1) 1.33 × 10–5 T (2) 1.7 × 10–4 T end of the rod is in contact with a circular metallic
ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field of
(3) 2.3 × 10–2 T (4) 1.36 × 10–4 T
0.5 T parallel to axis exist everywhere. The emf
33. The given logic network is equivalent to induced between centre and ring is
(1) 40 V (2) 100 V
(3) 160 V (4) 50 V
(1) OR gate (2) AND gate 40. Eddy currents are produced when
(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate
(1) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field
34. Susceptibility is positive and large for a
(2) A metal is kept in a steady magnetic field
(1) Paramagnetic substance
(3) A circular coil is placed in magnetic field
(2) Ferromagnetic substance
(4) Through a circular coil current is flowing
(3) Diamagnetic substance
41. A 100 ohm resistor is connected in series with a
(4) Non-magnetic substance
4 H inductor. The voltage across resistor is
35. If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third V0 = 2 sin (1000 t). The voltage across inductor is
orbit to second orbit, wavelength of emitted
(1) 60 sin (1000 t + /2)
radiation is given by
(2) 8 sin (1000 t – /2)
(1)   27 R (2)   36
5 5R (3) 80 sin (1000 t + /2)
(4) 6 sin (1000 t + /2)
(3)   R (4)   5R
6 36 42. Focal length of a concave lens in air is 10 cm.
What is its focal length in water?  g  3 ,  w  
4
SECTION-B
 2 3
36. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of
atoms are 16 × 104. Its half-life period is 4 years. (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
The number of atoms will remain 1 × 104 after (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
interval of 43. In optical fibre, the refractive index of core is
(1) 8 years (1) Greater than that of cladding
(2) 16 years (2) Equal to that of cladding
(3) 20 years (3) Smaller than that of cladding
(4) 24 years (4) Independent of that of cladding

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-1 (Code-A)
44. In Young’s double slit experiment two slits are 48. A policeman on duty detects a drop of 10% in the
separated by 0.1 mm and they are 0.5 m from pitch of horn of a motor car as it crosses him. If
screen. The wavelength of light used is the velocity of sound is 323 m s–1, then the speed
th
500 nm. The distance between 7 maxima and of car was
11th minima on screen is
(1) 20 m s–1
(1) 6.7 mm (2) 4.3 mm
(2) 30 m s–1
(3) 5.2 mm (4) 8.75 mm
(3) 17 m s–1
45. For detection of intensity of light, we use
(4) 22 m s–1
(1) Photo diode in forward bias
49. Two bulbs marked 100 W, 220 V and 200 W,
(2) LED in forward bias 220 V are connected in series and the
(3) LED in reverse bias combination is now connected across a 220 V
(4) Photo diode in reverse bias main supply. Total power dissipated in the circuit
is
46. A Carnot cycle of reversible heat engine consists
(1) 80 W (2) 40 W
of
(3) 33.5 W (4) 66.67 W
(1) One isothermal and two adiabatic processes
(2) Two isothermal and two adiabatic processes 50. At two different places on earth, angle of dip are
45° and 30°. At these places the ratio of
(3) Two isothermal and two isobaric processes
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is
(4) Two adiabatic and two isochoric processes (Total earth magnetic field is same at all places
47. Waves set up in a closed organ pipe are on earth)
(1) Longitudinal and progressive 3 3
(1) (2)
(2) Longitudinal and stationary 2 2
(3) Transverse and progressive
2 2
(4) Transverse and stationary (3) (4)
3 3

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 55. Shape of XeO3 molecule is
51. Number of hydrogen atoms in 0.1 mol of NH3(g) (1) Linear (2) Tetrahedral
is
(3) Pyramidal (4) Bent T-shape
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.3 NA 56. Select the polar molecule among the following.
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.1 NA (1) XeF2 (2) SF6
52. Azimuthal quantum number of last electron of (3) CCl4 (4) CHCl3
sodium (atomic number 11) is 57. Density (in g/L) of CH4(g) at 2 atm and 320 K is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 1.22 (2) 0.122
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2.44 (4) 0.244
53. Element of highest electronegativity is 58. Enthalpy of formation is non zero for
(1) Na (2) N (1) H2(g) (2) O2(g)
(3) K (4) Rb (3) Cl2(g) (4) I2(g)
54. Select the diamagnetic species among the 59. If an ideal gas expanded against 1 atm pressure
following. from 10 L to 20 L at 300 K then select the correct
option among the given.
(1) O2 (2) O2
(1) W = 0 (2) U  0
(3) C2
2 (4) N2 (3) W = 20 L atm (4) Q = 10 L atm
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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

60. Aqueous solution of which acid generates 68. Incorrect match of nature of oxide is
maximum hydrogen ion concentration under (1) CO : Neutral (2) SiO2 : Acidic
equal molar concentration condition
(3) GeO : Basic (4) PbO : Amphoteric
(Ka of acids are in the order of HF > HCIO > 69. Select the functional group among the following
HCN > C6H5OH) of highest priority.
(1) HF (2) C6H5OH (1) – COOH (2) – SO3H
(3) HClO (4) HCN (3) – HC = O (4) > C = O
61. If at T(K), Kw is 10–12
then pH of an aqueous 70. Among the following which species can act as an
solution of 0.1 M HCl will be electrophile.
(1) 6 (2) 1 (1) Cl+ (2) HS–
S 
(3) 5 (4) 7
(3) H2 N (4) (CH3 )3 N
62. Which pair of solution can form acidic buffer?
71. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of
(1)NaClO4 and HCl nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia
(2)Na2SO4 and NaOH evolved from 0.65 g of sample neutralised 15 ml
of 0.75 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in
(3)CH3COONa and NaOH
the soil sample is
(4) HCN and NaOH
(1) 48.46 (2) 98.46
63. Total number of -bond(s) formed by bromine
(3) 56.46 (4) 86.46
atom(s) of +4 oxidation state in Br3O8 is
72. Select the molecule which can form maximum
(1) 1 (2) 2 number of tautomers?
(3) 5 (4) 6
(1) (2)
64. Percentage strength of 20 volume solution of
hydrogen peroxide is
(1) 5.5% (2) 6.5%
(3) (4)
(3) 6.0% (4) 7.5%
65. On reaction of excess of air, potassium forms 73. Which one of the following is most reactive
stable towards electrophilic attack?
(1) KO2 (2) K2O
(3) K2O2 (4) KO3
(1) (2)
66. Select the incorrect among the following
(1)Hydrated form of MgCl2 is MgCl2.8H2O
(2)Hydrated form of CaCl2 is CaCl2.6H2O
(3) (4)
(3) NaCl and KCl do not form hydrate like Ca
and Mg 74. Greenhouse gas which is produced naturally
(4)Be(OH)2 due to its amphoteric nature on when vegetation is burnt, digested or rotted in the
reaction with NaOH produce BeO absence of oxygen is
67. In the given reaction (1) Ozone (2) Water vapour
(3) Nitrous oxide (4) Methane
B2H6  NH3 (1:2)mo   A B  H2 (g)
l arr ati o
75. Contribution of an atom present at edge centred
A and B respectively are in a unit cell is
(1)H3BO3, B2O3
(1)
1 (2) 1
(2)H3BO3, HBO2 3 2
(3) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]–, B2O3
(3)
1 (4) 1
(4) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]–, B3N3H6 4 8

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-1 (Code-A)
76. Elevation of boiling point of an aqueous solution SECTION-B
of 0.02 m CaCl2 is (Assume 100% ionization) 86. Incorrect statement about ozone is
(Kb(H2O) = 0.5 K molal–1)
(1) It has two identical oxygen-oxygen bond
(1) 0.03 K (2) 0.3 K lengths
(3) 0.6 K (4) 0.06 K (2) It has angular shape and expected bond
77. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode of pH angle of about 172º
of 10 and pH 2 of 10 atm is
(3) Its formation from oxygen is endothermic in
(1) Zero (2) –0.6205 V nature
(3) –0.1205 V (4) –0.44 V (4) It acts an as oxidising agent for the
78. Time required to complete a zero order reaction manufacture of potassium permanganate
of 75% if its half-life is 10 minutes, will be 87. Select the hydrogen halide which has highest
(1) 10 minutes (2) 15 minutes enthalpy of dissociation (in kJ/mol).

(3) 20 minutes (4) 30 minutes (1) HF (2) HCl

79. Select the positive sol among the following. (3) HBr (4) HI
(1) Sb2S3 sol (2) Fe2O3.xH2O 88. Pair of elements of almost equal density is
(3) CdS sols (4) Clay (1) Sc, Zn (2) Ni, Cu
80. Select the correct statement among the following. (3) Fe, Zn (4) Ti, Cu
(1) Copper is refined by electrolytic method 89. Select complex ion which absorbs light of least
(2) Zinc is refined by liquation method wavelength.
(3) Boron is refined by electrolytic method (1) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (2) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+
(4) Ni is refined by van Arkel method (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
81. Strongest reducing agent among the hydrides of 90. Diamagnetic complex among the following is
group 15 elements is
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(1) NH3 (2) PH3
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2
(3) SbH3 (4) BiH3
91. Which of the following compounds will undergo
82. Select the correct statement among the following.
racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
(1)N2O3 is blue colour acidic solid
(2)NO2 is colourless basic gas (1) (2)
(3) NO is colourless acidic gas
(4)N2O4 is colourless acidic gas Cl
83. When phosphine absorbed in copper sulphate, it |
gives
(3) (CH3)2CH–Br (4) CH3  C H – C3H7

(1) Cu2S and H2O (2) Cu3P2 and H2S 92. Most acidic phenol derivative among the
following is
(3) Cu3P2 and H2SO4 (4) Cu2S and H2SO4
84. Oxoacids of phosphorus which has only one of
P-OH bond is
(1) (2)
(1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO2
(3) H3PO4 (4) (HPO3)3
85. Select the pair of acidic and mixed oxides
respectively among the following. (3) (4)
(1) MgO, Al2O3 (2) Pb3O4, Fe3O4
(3) MgO, SO2 (4) Cl2O7, Fe3O4
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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021
93. Select the pair of compounds that can be 96. Select the element of highest first ionization
distinguished by iodoform test. energy among the following
(1)CH3CH2OH and CH3CHO (1) Be
(2)CH3OH and HCHO (2) Mg
(3)2-pentanone and CH3CHO (3) N
(4) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2OH (4) C
94. Amine on reaction with arylsulphonyl chloride 97. Aqueous solution of which of the following has
forms sulphonamide which is insoluble in KOH, is highest pH?
(1)CH3CH2NH2 (1) NaCl (2) Na2SO4
(2)CH3CH2NHCH3 (3) CH3COONa (4) NH4Cl
CH3 98. Anhydride of nitric acid (HNO3) is
|
(3) CH3 – CH – NH2 (1) N2O4 (2) N2O
(4) (CH3)2NC2H5 (3) N2O5 (4) N2O3
95. Select the correct statement among the following. 99. Ambidentate ligand among the following is
(1) Nylon-6 is an example of biodegradable (1) NO2 (2) H2O
polymer
(3) NH3 (4) OH–
(2) Buna-N is an example of natural rubber
100. Bond dissociation enthalpy is maximum for
(3) Aspirin is an example of narcotic analgesics
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(4) Equanil can be used in controlling
hypertension (3) Br2 (4) I2

BOTANY
SECTION-A (3) Radial symmetry – Datura
101. Choose odd one w.r.t. purpose of transpiration. of flower
(1) Supplies water for photosynthesis (4) Cymose – Termination of
(2) Creates transpiration pull inflorescence main axis in a
(3) Cools leaf surfaces flower
(4) Excessive water loss during summer
104. Which one is odd w.r.t. green algae?
102. Match the columns and choose the correct
option. (1) Ulothrix (2) Eudorina
Column-I Column-II (3) Chara (4) Fucus
a. Sulphur (i) Synthesis of auxin 105. Read the given statements and choose the
b. Iron (ii) Pollen germination correct option.
c. Boron (iii) Constituent of Statement A: All succession whether taking
ferredoxin place in water or on land, proceeds to a similar
d. Zinc (iv) Constituent of vitamin climax community-mesic.
thiamine Statement B: In secondary succession, the rate
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) of succession is slower than primary succession
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) rate.
103. Select incorrect match. (1) Only A is incorrect
(1) Whorled – Calotropis
(2) Only B is incorrect
phyllotaxy
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(2) Inferior ovary – Guava
(4) Both A and B are correct
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-1 (Code-A)
106. In which of the population interactions, only one 114. Identify the given statements as true (T) or false
species gets benefit? (F) and select the correct option accordingly.
a. Mutualism b. Predation a. Centrioles duplicate in cytoplasm during S-
c. Parasitism d. Amensalism phase.
e. Commensalism b. Golgi apparatus is the site for the synthesis of
glycoproteins and glycolipids.
(1) a, b, and c only
c. RER is frequently observed in the cells
(2) b, c and e only
actively involved in lipid synthesis.
(3) c, d and e only
d. Fimbriae help attach the bacteria to rocks.
(4) a, d and c only
a b c d
107. Keoladeo National park is situated in
(1) T T T F
(1) Gujarat (2) Madhya Pradesh
(2) T T F T
(3) Rajasthan (4) Karnataka
(3) F T F T
108. Commonly known green house gases are
(4) T F T F
(1) CO2 and CH4 (2) CH4 and CFCS
115. In a cell, mitochondria increase their number by
(3) CO2 and N2O (4) CFCS and N2O
(1) Fusion (2) Fission
109. High BOD of water implies that
(3) Mitosis (4) Fragmentation
(1) Dissolved oxygen content is high
116. During meiosis splitting of centromeres occur
(2) Water is heavily polluted
(1) Once during reductional phase
(3) Lower amount of organic matter is present in
it (2) Twice in overall process
(4) Water is pure (3) Once during equational phase
110. All of the following are example of in-situ (4) Twice in equational phase
conservation strategies, except 117. Which one is not correct about interkinesis?
(1) Hotspots (1) It is followed by prophase II
(2) Biosphere reserve (2) It is generally long lived
(3) Sanctuaries (3) No DNA replication occur
(4) Botanical gardens (4) Centriole duplication takes place
111. What is not true about water pollination? 118. If Fructose-6-phosphate is used as repiratory
(1) Quite rare in flowering plants substrate then how many ATP will be formed at
the level of substrate phosphorylation, when it is
(2) Limited to about 30 genera, mostly
undergone complete oxidation?
monocotyledons
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) Stigma is large often feathery
(4) Pollen grains are protected from wetting by a (3) 4 (4) 3
mucilaginous covering 119. Which one is odd w.r.t. redifferentiated tissue?
112. In majority of angiosperms shedding of pollen (1) Cork
grains from anther occurs at (2) Phelloderm
(1) 3-celled stage (2) 2-celled stage (3) Interfascicular cambium
(3) 4-celled stage (4) Single celled stage (4) Secondary phloem
113. Select odd one w.r.t. monocarpic plants 120. Choose the correct match.
(1) Bamboo species (1) Polysiphonia – Haplo-diplontic life cycle
(2) Strobilanthus kunthiana (2) Selaginealla – Homosporus sp.
(3) Banana (3) Funaria – Liverworts
(4) Apple (4) Cedrus – Unbranched stem
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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021
121. A fungus has following features, as (1) X-linked recessive disorder
a. Mycelium is branched and septate (2) Y-linked disorder
b. Sex organs are absent (3) Autosomal recessive disorder
c. Plasmogamy takes place by fusion of two (4) Both (1) and (3)
vegetative cell 128. Some amino acids are coded by more than one
d. Sexual spores are produced exogenously codons hence the code is
On the basis of given feature identify the class of (1) Universal
fungus. (2) Degenerate
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (3) Of commaless nature
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes (4) Overlapping
122. Protozoans are 129. Which ribosomal RNA in bacteria acts as a
(1) Autotroph catalyst for the formation of peptide bond?
(2) Chemoautotroph (1) 5 S rRNA (2) 28 S rRNA
(3) Heterotroph (3) 23 S rRNA (4) 18 S rRNA
130. The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA,
(4) Mostly autotroph and few are heterotroph
referred to as
123. In cyanobacteria heterocysts are meant for
(1) Microsatellite (2) Mini-satellite
(1)CO2 assimilation (2) N2-fixation
(3) Macrosatellite (4) Non-repetitive DNA
(3) Sexual reproduction (4) Mineral absorption
131. If in a prokaryote nucleotide sequence of
124. Which one is not used as a criteria for m-RNA is 5AGUCCGACGGUA3, then what will
classification by R.H. Whittaker? be nucleotide sequence of coding strand?
(1) Mode of nutrition
(1) 3TCAGGCTGCCAT5
(2) Cell structure
(2) 5AGTCCGACGGTA3
(3) Phylogenetic relationship
(3) 3AGTCCGACGGTA5
(4) Mode of respiration
(4) 5TACCGTCGGACT3
125. Parents having genotype AaBBCc and AabbCc
132. In taxonomic hierarchy, at which category
get crossed. In F1 generation progenies of
common characters are maximum?
different genotypes are produced, among them
what will be probability of progeny having (1) Species (2) Family
genotype AaBbCc? (3) Class (4) Division
5 2 133. In monocot stem hypodermis is
(1) (2)
16 16 (1) Collenchymatous (2) Sclerenchymatous

1 (3) Parenchymatous (4) Chlorenchymatous

(3) (4) 4
16 16 134. How many given functions are related to
pericycle?
126. Traits of which of the following characters in pea
plant show incomplete dominance? a. Mechanical support

(1) Stem height (2) Pod colour b. Lateral root formation

(3) Seed shape (4) Starch grain size c. Storage organs

127. What does below given pedigree chart show? d. Meristematic activity
e. Radial conduction of water
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5
135. Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle is a
(1) 3-carbon keto sugar (2) 5-carbon keto sugar
(3) 5-carbon aldo sugar (4) 3-carbon aldo sugar
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-1 (Code-A)
SECTION-B (1) Cell A (2) Cell B
136. In Hatch-Slack pathway malic acid is first formed (3) Cell C (4) Cell D
in _ _.
143. In a monoecious plant
(1) Mesophyll cells
(1) Only xenogamy is possible
(2) Cytoplasm of bundle sheath cells
(2) Autogamy is prevented but not geitonogamy
(3) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cells
(4) Epidermal cells of leaf (3) Only autogamy is possible
(4) Only geitonogamy is possible
137. In floral formula of a family indicates
144. Statin is a blood cholesterol lowering agent,
obtained from a
(1) Epipetalous condition
(1) Bacteria (2) Yeast
(2) Epitepalous condition
(3) Gamopetalous condition (3) Blue green algae (4) Multicellular fungus
(4) Cohesion of stamens 145. Pathogen free clones of plants can be obtained
138. Match the columns and choose correct option. through meristem culture because meristem is
free of virus due to
Column-I Column-II
(1) High concentration of auxin only
a. Offset (i) Cucumber
(2) Rapid rate of cell division only
b. Stem thorn (ii) Oxalis
(3) High concentration of auxin and rapid rate of
c. Runner (iii) Eichhornia cell division
d. Stem tendril (iv) Citrus (4) High concentration of cytokinin
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) 146. Mineral ion related to opening and closing of
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) stomata by changing osmotic concentration in
139. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. placentation guard cells is
Placentation Example (1) Iron (2) Nitrogen
(1) Axile – China rose (3) Molybdenum (4) Potassium
(2) Free central – Dianthus 147. The bark which is formed early in the season is
(3) Basal – Sunflower called
(4) Parietal – Primrose
(1) Soft bark (2) Hard bark
140. In electron transport system (ETS) in
(3) Late bark (4) Both (2) and (3)
mitochondria, enzyme NADH dehydrogenase is
associated with 148. In most situations ABA acts as antagonist to
(1) Complex IV (2) Complex III (1) Cytokinins (2) Gibberellins
(3) Complex II (4) Complex I
(3) Auxins (4) Ethylene
141. Which one property is not related to active
transport? 149. In ABO blood group in human, three alleles
(1) Transport saturation governing the character. For these three alleles
how many genotype and phenotype respectively
(2) Requirement of ATP
are possible in population?
(3) No movement of membrane proteins
(4) Uphill transport (1) 4, 6 (2) 6, 4

142. Which cell will show maximum absorbing (3) 4, 4 (4) 5, 5

capacity? 150. Which one is odd w.r.t population attributes?
(1) Death rates
(2) Birth
(3) Sex ratio
(4) Population age

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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. Antigen binding site of antibody molecule is
151. X and Y are hormones, ‘X’ stimulates the made up of
secretion of ‘Y’ which exerts negative feedback (1) Only variable region of light chain
on the cells that secrete 'X'. What happens when (2) Only variable region of heavy chain
the blood level of ‘Y’ decreases?
(3) Variable region of both light and heavy
(1) Less X is secreted chains, present at N-terminal end
(2) More X is secreted (4) Constant regions of light and heavy chains
(3) Secretion of X stops present at C-terminal end
(4) Blood level of X and Y will continuously 156. If the sodium-potassium pump of a neuron failed
decreases what effect would this likely have on the
152. Iodothyronines neurons?
(1) Bind to cell membrane receptors (1) The concentration of positive and negative
ions would cause the neuron to become
(2) Bind to mRNA
positively charged inside and in ECF also
(3) Eventually form hormone-receptor
complexes that bind to DNA (2) Voltage gated potassium channels and
voltage gated sodium channels would
(4) Never enter into the cells
function for longer time
153. The diagram given below shows how mutations
(3) The neurons could not generate action
in certain genes (X and Y) can lead to cancer.
potential until the resting potential is fully
Use the diagram to answer the question that
follows restored
(4) The concentration of sodium ions would be
higher outside the cell and potassium ions
would be higher inside
157. Otolith organ consist of
(1) Semicircular canals and cristae
(2) Utricle and saccule
(3) Crista ampullaris and macula
(4) Organ of Corti
158. Select the option which is incorrect for
difference between rods and cones
What do X and Y represent? Function Rods Cones
X Y (1) Vision Scotopic Phototopic
(1) Mutagen Carcinogens vision vision

(2) Proto-oncogenes Tumor suppressor (2) Photopigments Rhodopsin Iodopsin

gene
(3) Threshold Low High
(3) Carcinogen Proto-oncogenes (4) Absent in Blind spot Fovea
(4) Proto-oncogenes Carcinogens
159. The development which takes place in foetus by
154. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. morphine? the end of second month of pregnancy, is
(1) Obtained from taxol (1) Development of limbs and digits
(2) Used to test the refractive index of eyes (2) First movement of foetus
(3) Sedative and pain killer (3) Formation of eyelashes
(4) CNS stimulant (4) Formation of most of the major organ system
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-1 (Code-A)
160. Choose the extra embryonic membrane in 166. Select the odd one.
human which takes part in formation of placenta. (1) Hisardale (2) Frieswal
(1) Amnion (2) Chorion (3) Sunandini (4) Jersey
(3) Allantois (4) Yolk sac 167. Which of the following viral disease of poultry is
161. Read the following statements and choose the also known as ‘Newcastle disease’?
correct answer. (1) Anthrax (2) Coryza
A. Saheli acts by preventing ovulation.
(3) Pebrine (4) Ranikhet
B. Cu ions released from the LNG-20 suppress
168. Reduction in fertility due to continued inbreeding
sperm motility.
is called inbreeding depression which is
(1) Both statements are correct preferably removed by mating the animal with
(2) Only statement A is correct (1) Superior animal of different breed
(3) Only statement B is correct (2) Unrelated superior animal of same breed
(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) Superior animal of same breed related to the
162. Identify the correct statement w.r.t. ART. animal through common immediate ancestry
(1) ZIFT involves in-vivo fertilisation (4) Superior animal of different species
(2) IUT involves transfer of embryo upto eight 169. Insulin is formed of two short polypeptide chains
blastomeres into fallopian tube A and B. How many sulphide linkage(s) is/are
(3) In IUI, the semen is artificially inseminated present between A and B chains?
into vagina (1) One (2) Two
(4) GIFT involves transfer of gametes into (3) Three (4) Four
fallopian tube
170. Choose the odd one w.r.t. nucleases.
163. Population is said to be non-evolving if all the
(1) DNase (2) Pst I
following features exist, except
(3) RNase (4) Phosphatase
(1) No gene flow
171. If desired gene segment is inserted at Sal I site in
(2) Population size is large
pBR322, the resulting recombinants will confer
(3) Non-random mating resistance to
(4) No mutation
(1) Tetracycline (2) Ampicillin
164. The Galapagos island are home of more than a
(3) Kanamycin (4)  galactosidase
dozen species of closely related finches, it is the
example of all except 172. Match column I with column II and select the
correct answer.
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Natural selection Column-I Column-II
(3) Adaptive divergence a. Bioremediation (i) Produce Bt toxin
(4) Sympatric speciation b. Recombivax HB (ii) Second
165. Some marsupials of Australia resemble placental generation
mammals as they faced similar environmental vaccine
pressure. Which of the following combination
c. Bacillus (iii) Production of
does not show phenotype convergence?
thuringiensis human insulin
Placental mammal Australian
marsupial d. E. coli (iv) Pseudomonas
putida
(1) Anteater Numbat
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) Lemur Spotted cuscus
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Bobcat Tasmanian tiger cat
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Flying phalanger Sugar glider (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021
173. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t the animal 177. Given below is a list of fatty acids
illustrated. (a) Stearic acid
(b) Oleic acid
(c) Linoleic acid
(d) Linolenic acid
(e) Arachidonic acid
How many of them have more than two double
bonds between carbon and carbon?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
178. Choose the option which includes homopolymer.
(1) Starch, glucogen, chitin, insulin
(2) Trypsin, cellulose, pectin, agar
(3) Starch, cellulose, glycogen, inulin
(4) Pectin, heparin, pepsin, cellulose
(1) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and
coelomate 179. In ciliated epithelium, the function of cilia is to
move particles or mucus in any direction over the
(2) Body is divided into proboscis, collar and
epithelium, such as in
trunk
(1) Bronchioles
(3) Fertilisation is internal and development is
indirect (2) Duct of salivary glands
(4) Circulatory system is open and respiration (3) PCT
takes place through gills (4) Small intestine
174. Both molluscs and annelids 180. In female cockroach, all the given structures are
associated with brood or genital pouch, except
(1) Are true segmented animals
(2) Have closed circulatory system (1) Female gonopore
(3) Are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and (2) Spermathecal pores
coelomate animals (3) Oviduct
(4) Are dioecious with direct development (4) Collaterial glands
175. Which of the following pairs of animals are similar 181. Number of premolar teeth in upper jaw of adult
to each other pertaining to the feature stated human is
against them? (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) Canis and – Presence of (3) 8 (4) 12
Macropus cloaca
182. Identify the correct set which shows the name of
(2) Testudo and – Four chambered the enzymes, from where it is secreted and
Alligator heart substrate upon which it acts.
(3) Hippocampus and – Poikilotherm (1) Nucleases – Pancreas – Nucleotides
Hyla (2) Lactase – Pancreas – Lactose
(4) Columba and – Lungs with air (3) Pepsin – Stomach wall – Casein
Calotes sacs (4) Ptyalin – Salivary gland – Starch
176. Choose the incorrect match. 183. Which of the following has smallest diameter?
(1) Ascidia – Sessile chordate (1) Primary bronchi
(2) Pterophyllum – Angel fish (2) Secondary bronchi
(3) Torpedo – Ctenoid scales (3) Terminal bronchi
(4) Hyla – Tree frog (4) Respiratory bronchioles

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-1 (Code-A)
184. The maximum volume of air a person can inhale 191. Which of the following bones in human body
after forceful expiration is called contribute to the formation of hinge joint?
(1) Total lung capacity (1) Scapula and humerus
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume (2) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(3) Expiratory reserve volume (3) Femur and tibia

(4) Vital capacity (4) Atlas and occipital condyles

192. A saddle shaped depression called sella turcica
185. Which of following is main stimulus for excitation
is present in bone of
of chemosensitive area?
(1) Appendicular skeleton
(1)pCO2 in venous blood
(2) Skull
(2)pO2 in venous blood
(3) Pectoral girdle
(3)pCO2 in arterial blood
(4) Facial
(4)pO2 in arterial blood 193. The part of conducting system present in
SECTION-B ventricular wall of human heart is
186. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) SAN (2) AVN
w.r.t. loop of Henle?
(3) Internodal fibre (4) Purkinje fibres
(1) Reabsorption in loop of Henle is minimum as
compared to other parts of nephron 194. Gap junctions are present in
(a) Smooth muscles
(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
concentrating segment (b) Cardiac muscles
(3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle allow (c)Skeletal muscles Choose
transportation of electrolytes passively only the correct answer.
(4) Mammals have long loop of Henle (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
187. During ventricular systole, (3) (c) and (a) (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Blood gets filled in right atrium from vena 195. The cortex extends in between the medullary
cava pyramids as renal columns called
(1) Columns of Bertini
(2) Atrio-ventricular valves remain open
(2) Duct of Bellini
(3) 70 ml blood is pumped by both ventricles into
aorta (3) Collecting duct

(4) Ventricles receive blood from atria (4) Renal calyx

196. Which of the following is characteristic of
188. The number of QRS complexes observed per
poriferans?
minute in an ECG of a person was 85. What
could be the heart rate of the person during (1) Presence of hooks and suckers
observation? (2) Tissue level of organisation
(1) 72 (2) 85 (3) Triploblastic body
(3) 65 (4) 90 (4) Multicellular organisms
189. Antennal glands are excretory structure of 197. How many diseases from given in box below are
caused by bacteria?
(1) Crustaceans (2) Earthworm
(3) Cockroach (4) Platyhelminthes Malaria, Dengue, Polio, Chikungunya
190. The anatomical unit of muscle is Tuberculosis, Small pox

(1) Sarcomere (1) One

(2) Fascia (2) Two
(3) Muscle fibre (3) Three
(4) Myofilaments (4) Four

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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021
198. All of the following are functions of specialised 199. In Periplaneta the nephrocytes play role in
connective tissue except (1) Digestion (2) Respiration
(1) Helps in locomotion (3) Excretion (4) Locomotion
(2) Haemopoiesis
200. Podocytes are present in
(3) Transporation of gases
(1) PCT (2) Bowman’s capsule
(4) Serves as a support frame work for
(3) DCT (4) Loop of Henle
epithelium

  

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