AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REVIEWER SHEET c.

An embossed letter ‘H’

12. The purpose of a relief system valve in a brake
assembly system is to
Aircraft Landing Gear System
a. Reduce pressure for break application
1. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire b. Prevent the tire from skipping
is an indication of c. Compensate for the thermal expansion
a. Overinflation 13. In shock struts, chevron seals are used to
b. Excessive toe-in a. Absorb bottoming effect
c. Underinflation b. Prevent oil from escaping
2. How long should you wait after a flight before c. serve as a bearing surface
checking tire pressure? 14. The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane
a. At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather) on which no recent brake service work has been
b. At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather) performed. The most probable cause is.
c. At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather) a. Foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder
3. Aside from an external leak in the line, what will compensating port.
cause parking brakes to continually bleed off b. Excessively worn brake linings.
pressure? c. Low fluid supply in the brake system reservoir.
a. An internal leak in the master cylinder 15. A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and
b. Insufficient hydraulic fluid in the reservoir extending onto the sidewall of a tube-type tire is a
c. Glazed brake linings a. Slippage mark.
4. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to b. Wheel-to-tire balance mark
a. Relieve pressure to a sensitive component c. Wheel weight reference mark
b. Restrict flow in one direction and allow free 16. Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tire to
flow in the other help
c. Relieve pressure in one direction and prevent a. Nose gear extension at higher air speeds.
flow in the other direction b. Reduce the possibility of hydroplaning.
5. Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to c. Deflecting water away from the fuselage.
operate the brakes generally 17. An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing
a. Use independent master cylinder systems gear would most likely be a
b. Do not use brake system accumulators a. Shunt field series-wound motor.
c. Use power brake control valves b. Split field shunt-wound motor.
6. Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing c. Split field series-wound motor.
valves that 18. What device in a hydraulic system with a constant-
a. Allow full debooster piston travel without fluid delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid no
from the high pressure side entering the low demands are on the system?
pressure chamber a. Pressure relief valve.
b. Cannot allow full debooster piston travel b. Shuttle valve
without fluid from the high pressure side c. Pressure regulator
entering the low pressure chamber 19. A hydraulic system referred to as a ‘power pack’
c. Must be bled separately after brake bleeding has system will
been completed a. Have an engine-driven pump for greater
7. What would be the effect if the piston return spring pressure
broke in a brake master cylinder? b. Have all hydraulic power components located in
a. The brakes would become spongy one cucuit.
b. The brake would become excessive c. Have a pressurized reservoir.
c. The brakes would drag 20. What is the purpose of the torque links attached to
8. What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
to isolate the emergency brake system from the a. Limit compression stroke.
normal power brake control valve system? b. Hold the strut in place.
a. A bypass valve c. Maintain correct wheel alignment.
b. An orifice check valve 21. Debooster valves are used in brake system primarily
c. A shuttle valve to
9. Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount a. Ensure rapid application and release of the
of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found brakes.
a. On the airplane data plate b. Reduce brake pressure and maintains static
b. In the aircraft operations limitations pressure.
c. In the aircraft manufacturer’s service manual c. Reduce the pressure and release the brakes
10. The metering pin in oleo shock struts serve to rapidly.
a. Lock the struts in the DOWN position. 22. In brakes service work, the term ‘bleeding brakes’ is
b. Retard the flow of oil as the struts are the process of:
composed. a. Withdrawing air only from the system.
c. Meter the proper amount of air in struts. b. Withdrawing fluid from the system for the
11. On an air valve core stem, what indicates high- purpose of removing air that has entered the
pressure type? system.
a. An embossed letter ‘NP’ c. Replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.
b. An embossed letter ‘HP’
23. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to 32. If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing
determine the: gear wheel assemblies in intersects aft of the aircraft,
a. Amount of oil in the strut. the wheels can be termed as having
b. Physical condition of the strut itself. a. Toe-out
c. Proper operating position of the strut. b. Toe- in
24. Many brake types can be adapted to operate c. Negative amber
mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not 33. An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic system
adaptable to mechanical operation? using MIL-H5606 (mineral base) fluid will be
a. Single-disk spot type. marked with
b. Single-servo type. a. A blue striper or dot
c. Expander-tube type. b. one or more white dots.
25. Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems c. A white and yellow stripe.
primarily to: 34. When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care
a. Reduce brake pressure and maintain static should be ta to extend and compress the strut
pressure. completely at least two times to
b. Relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive a. Thoroughly lubricate the piston rod
release. b. Force out any excess fluid
c. Reduce the pressure to the brake and increase c. Ensure proper packing ring sealing and removal
the volume of fluid flow. of air bubbles.
26. What condition would most likely cause excessive 35. When installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft
fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal should
pump is operating? face
a. Accumulator air pressure low a. Opposite direction of fluid pressure
b. Inadequate supply of fluid b. Up or forward when the unit is installed in a
c. System relief valve sticking closed horizontal position.
27. If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and c. The direction of fluid pressure.
single-disk brake pedal travel, but the brakes are 36. Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can
hard and effective, the probable cause is cause
a. The master cylinder one-way cup is leaking a. Fading brakes
b. Worn brake linings b. Slow release of brakes
c. Worn brake disk causing excessive clearance c. The pedal to slowly creep down while pedal
between the notches on the perimeter of the disk pressure is applied.
and the splines or keys on the wheel 37. Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend
28. A flexible hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8788 that the tubes in newly installed tire must be first
will have a stripe running the length of the hose. The inflated, fully deflated and the re-inflated to the
stripe correct pressure?
a. Is used to ensure that the hose is installed a. To allow the tube to position itself correctly
without excessive twisting inside the tire.
b. Identifies that the hose is for high pressure b. To eliminate all the air between the tube and the
fluids, with a 60 degree flexing range inside of the tire
c. Identifies that the hose is constructed of Teflon c. To test the entire assembly leaks
and is suitable for a wide temperature range 38. Exposure to and/or storage near which of the
29. An automatic damping action at the steering damper following is considered harmful to the aircraft tires?
if for any reason the flow of high-pressure fluid is 1. Humidity 5. Helium
removed from the 2. Fuel 6. Electrical equipment
a. Outlet of the steering damper 3. Oil 7. Hydraulic fluid
b. Inlet of the steering damper 4. Ozone 8. Solvents
c. Replenishing check valve
30. A brake debooster valve is installed in systems a. 2,3,4,5,6,7,8
where the high pressure of the hydraulic system (300 b. 1,2,3,5,7,8
psi) is used to operate brakes c. 2,3,4,6,7,8
a. That are designed to work with lower pressure 39. What action of any, should be taken when there is a
b. That are used in conjunction with an antiskid difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure in
system tires mounted as duals?
c. That are used on aircraft having high landing a. Replace both tires
speeds b. Correct the discrepancy and enter in the aircraft
31. The repair of an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of records
main landing gear wheels determined not to be the c. Replace the tire with the lowest pressure
result of bent or twisted components consists of 40. Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an
a. Shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion aircraft tire is an indication of
b. Inserting, removing, or changing the location of a. Incorrect camber
washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of b. Excessive toe-out
the scissors torque links c. Over inflation
c. Placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of 41. How can it be determined that all air has been
the out-of-tolerance wheel or wheels. purged from a master cylinder brake system?
 a. By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the b. As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold
system pressure gauge for smooth, full- scale the wheel halves together have been damaged or
deflection. weakened.
b. By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy c. To remove the static load imposed upon the
c. By noting the amount of fluid return to the wheel bearing by the inflated tire.
master cylinder upon brake release. 51. Nose gear centering cams are used in many
42. After performing maintenance of an aircraft’s retractable landing gear systems. The primary
landing gear system which may have affected the purpose of the centering device is to:
system’s operation, it usually necessary to a. Align the nosewheel prior to touchdown.
a. Conduct a flight test. b. Engage the nosewheel steering.
b. Re-inspected the area after the first flight. c. Center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel
c. Make an operational check with the aircraft on well.
jacks 52. A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a
43. What is the purpose of compensating port or valve in landing gear oleo shock strut to:
a brake master cylinder of an independent brake a. Limit the extension of the torque arm.
system? b. Limit the extension stroke.
a. Permits the fluid flow toward or away from the c. Reduce the rebound effect.
reservoir as temperature changes. 53. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is
b. Assists in the master cylinder piston return. spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a
c. Prevents fluid from flowing back to the normal manner. The probable cause is:
reservoir. a. The hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking.
44. A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose b. Air in the brake hydraulic system.
paper is identified as a c. The hydraulic master cylinder piston return
a. Sediment trap spring is weak.
b. Cuno filter 54. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a
c. Micronic filter torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-
45. A landing gear positon and warning system will pounds are required?
provide a warning in the cockpit when throttle is a. 36.8
a. Retarded and gear is not down and locked. b. 38
b. Advanced and gear is down and locked. c. 36.6
c. Retarded and gear is down and locked. 55. If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake
system, its position in the system will be:
a. Between the pressure manifold of the main
46. The hydraulic packing seal used in a landing gear hydraulic system and the power brake control
shock strut are valve.
a. Generally designed to be compatible with more b. Between the brake control valve and the brake
than one type of fluid. actuating cylinder.
b. Keep from direct contact with fluid Teflon or c. In the brake pressure line between the brake
nylon back up rings. pedal and the brake accumulator.
c. Used only with a specific type of fluid. 56. Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft
47. The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk
tires are type brake assemblies?
a. Proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and a. There are no minimum or maximum disk
ground rolls into the wind clearance checks required due to the use of self-
b. Short ground rolls, sloe taxi speeds, minimum compensating cylinder assemblies.
braking and proper tire inflation b. Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot.
c. Minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and c. No parking brake provisions are possible for this
long ground rolls. type of brake assembly.
48. The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear 57. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a
tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate on an master cylinder will have on a brake system?
aircraft owned or operated is considered to be a. The brakes will operate normally.
a. A violation of the Federal Aviation Regulations b. The reservoir will be filled by revers flow.
b. A minor repair c. The restriction will cause slow release of the
c. Preventive maintenance brakes.
49. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose 58. On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing
landing gear shock strut? gear, some means must be provided to:
a. Provides an internal shimmy damper a. Retract and extend the landing gear if the
b. Straightens the nose wheel normal operating mechanism fails.
c. Provides steering of aircraft during ground b. Extend the landing gear if the normal operating
operation. mechanism fails.
50. Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often c. Prevent the throttle from being reduced below a
recommended that the tires on split rim wheels be safe power setting while the landing gear is
deflated before removing the wheel from the axle? retracted.
a. To relive the strain on the wheel retaining nut 59. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the:
and axle threads. a. Brake linings.
b. Wheel hub.
 c. Wheel flange. 71. The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is
60. When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk
the strut should be: between two opposite brake linings. How is equal
a. Collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening. pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured?
b. Fully extended and fluid added at the filler a. By allowing the brake rotor to float to
opening. automatically equalize as pressure is applied to
c. Partially extended and fluid added at the filler the rotor.
opening. b. By allowing the caliper to float to automatically
61. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked: equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
a. Using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1- c. By allowing the brake linings to automatically
pound increments. equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
b. At least once a week or more often. 72. If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly
c. As soon as possible after each flight. serviced, the
62. A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive a. Strut should be disassembled and the metering
travel. A probable cause is: pin orifice plate replaced.
a. Weak return springs. b. Air pressure should be increased.
b. Lack of fluid in the brake system. c. Strut should be removed, disassembled, and
c. Oil or some foreign matter on the brake rotors inspected.
and linings. 73. Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that
63. What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms have:
during a landing? a. High landing speeds.
a. Air pressure. b. Low normal hydraulic system pressure.
b. Packing seals for correct installation. c. More than one brake assembly per axle.
c. Fluid level. 74. The pressure source for power brakes is:
64. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel a. The main hydraulic system.
assemblies is to: b. The power brake reservoir.
a. Prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration. c. A master cylinder.
b. Distribute the aircraft weight properly. 75. A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body
c. Reduce excessive wear and turbulence. and bead may be recapped
65. A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides: a. A maximum of three times.
a. Air pressure to the various hydraulic b. Only by the tire manufacturer.
components. c. An indefinite number of times.
b. A source for additional hydraulic power when 76. When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is
heavy demands are place on the system. used, the initial shock of landing shock of landing is
c. Positive fluid flow to the pump inlet. cushioned by:
66. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can a. Compression of the air charge.
be obtained from: b. The fluid being forced through a metered
a. Tire manufacturer’s specifications. opening.
b. The aircraft service manual. c. Compression of the fluid.
c. The information stamped on the aircraft wheel. 77. To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock
67. When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed strut after initial compression resulting from landing
a tire to deflate, the tire should be: impact,
a. Replaced. a. Various types of valves or orifices are used
b. Externally inspected for damage. which restrict the reverse fluid flow.
c. Removed from the wheel and inspected for b. The metering pin gradually reduces the size of
carcass and tread damage. the orifice as the shock strut extends.
68. If it is determined that spongy brake action is not c. The air is forced through a restricted orifice in
caused by air in the brake system, what is the next the reverse direction.
most likely cause? 78. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic
a. Worn brake lining. retractable landing gear system is to:
b. Internal leakage in the master cylinder. a. Prevent heavy landing gear from falling too
c. Deteriorated flexible hoses. rapidly upon extension.
69. If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon b. Provide a means of disconnecting the normal
initial landing contact, but functions correctly during source of hydraulic power and connection the
taxi, the most probable cause is: emergency source of power.
a. Low fluid. c. Ensure the operation of the landing gear and
b. Low air charge. gear doors in the proper order.
c. A restricted metering pin orifice. 79. When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications
70. On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock that the air has been purged from the system is:
strut is check by: a. Partial brake pedal travel.
a. Removing the oil filler plug and inserting a b. Full brake pedal travel.
gauge. c. Firm brake pedals.
b. Measuring the length of the strut extension with 78. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels
a certain air pressure in the strut. will:
c. Releasing the air and seeing that the oil is the a. Indicate tire tread separation.
level of the filler plug. b. Prevent over inflation.
 c. Melt at a specified elevated temperature. 9. What is indicated by a black ‘smoky’ residue
streaming back from some of the rivets on an
aircraft?
Sheetmetal & Non-Sheetmetalic Structure
a. The rivets were excessively work hardened
1. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on during installation
composite structure, a change in sound may be due b. Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the
to damage or to transition to a different internal structure
structure c. Fretting corrosion is occurring between the
(2) The extent of separation damage in composite rivets and the skin
structures is most accurately measured by a ring 10. What type of bit should be used to drill holes in
(coin tap) test Plexiglas?
Regarding the above statements, a. A standard twist drill
a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true b. A specially modified twist drill
b. Only No.1 is true c. A dulled twist drill
c. Only No.2 is true 11. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent
2. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb
they structure?
a. Can be heat treated much easier than the other a. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and
forms of aluminum seal from the atmosphere
b. Are less subject to corrosion than uncoated b. Paint the outside area with several coats of
aluminum alloys exterior paint
c. Are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys c. None. Honeycomb is usually made from a man-
3. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to made or fibrous material which is not
a. Compressive loads susceptible to corrosion
b. Shear loads 12. Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
c. Tension loads a. Nickel-steel parts
4. If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using b. Magnesium parts
a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should c. Steel parts
first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold 13. A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt
and securely fastened in place. The bumping tension and shear fasteners (other than their
operation should be application) is in the
a. Distributed evenly over the face of the a. Number of locking collar grooves
aluminum at all times rather than being started b. Shape of the head
at the edges or center. c. Method of installation
b. Started by tapping the aluminum lightly around 14. What is the minimum spacing for a single row of
the edges and gradually working down into the aircraft rivets?
center a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
c. Started by tapping the aluminum in the center b. Three times the length of the rivet shank
until it touches the bottom of the mold and then c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank
working out in all directions 15. The coefficient of expansion of most plastic
5. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance enclosure materials is
problem and bend allowance tables are not available, a. Greater than both steel and aluminum
the neutral axis of the bend can be b. Greater than steel but less than aluminum
a. Represented by the actual length of the required c. Less than either steel or aluminum
material for the bend 16. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for
b. Found by adding approximately one-half of the soft metals?
thickness to the bend radius a. 118°
c. Found by subtracting the stock thickness from b. 90°
the bend radius c. 65°
6. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent 17. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy
in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked designation indicates the primary alloying agent used
a. One-half radius from either bend tangent line in its manufacture?
b. One radius from either bend tangent line a. 2
c. One radius from the bend tangent line that is b. 17
placed under the brake c. 20
7. On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, 18. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance
allow for stretching by between the
a. Adding the setback to each leg a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows
b. Subtracting the setback from one leg b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row
c. Subtracting the setback from both legs c. Heads of rivets in the same row
8. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually 19. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?
acceptable for machining composite laminates? a. It has nonadjustable lift struts
a. Water soluble oil b. No external bracing is needed
b. Water displacing oil c. It requires only one lift strut on each side
c. Water only 20. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a
laminated sandwich structure
 a. May be repaired c. 2017-T3
b. Must be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous 31. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current
stress concentrations standard category airplanes must
c. May be filled with putty which is compatible a. Be fireproof
with resin b. Be at least flame resistant
21. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to c. Meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43
a. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where 32. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should
shear strength is desired a. Have the same radius as the rivet head
b. Attach parts or components with screws to sheet b. Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head
metal c. Be nearly flat on the end, with a slight radius on
c. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where the edge to prevent damage to the sheet being
bearing strength is desired riveted
22. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for 33. The general rule for finding the proper rivet dimeter
hard metal? is
a. 118° a. Three times the thickness of the materials to be
b. 100° joined
c. 90° b. Two times the rivet length
23. When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, c. Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
the major consideration in the design of the patch 34. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet
should be which has
a. The shear strength of the riveted joint a. A shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head)
b. To use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the skin b. A shank length 5/32 inch (excluding head)
c. That the bond between the patch and the skin is c. An overall length of 5/16 inch
sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion 35. Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain
24. A factor which determines the minimum space erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be
between rivets is the repaired by applying
a. Length of the rivets being used a. A piece of resin-impregnated glass fabric facing
b. Diameter of the rivets being used b. One or more coats of suitable resin (room-
c. Thickness of the material being riveted temperature catalyzed) to the surface
25. What is the material layer used within the vacuum c. A sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface
bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during and one or more coats of resin cured with
curing called? infrared heat lamps
a. Bleeder 36. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely
b. Breather through one facing and into the core
c. Release a. Cannot be repaired
26. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, b. Requires the replacement of the damaged core
the belt must conform to the strength requirements in and facing
which documents? c. Can be repaired by using a typical metal facing
patch
a. STC 1282 37. When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you
b. 14 CFR Part 39 should
c. TSO C22 a. Straighten cold and reinforce
27. What is one of the determining factors which permit b. Straighten cold and anneal to remove stress
machine countersinking when flush riveting? c. Apply heat to the inside of the bend
a. Thickness of the material and rivet diameter are 38. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass
the same used in aircraft structure is
b. Thickness of the material is less than the a. E-glass
thickness of the rivet head b. S-glass
c. Thickness of the material is greater than the c. G-glass
thickness of the rivet head 39. Repairs o splices involving stringers on the lower
28. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually
honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that a. Not permitted
a. The grain is parallel to the skin b. Permitted only if the damage does not exceed 6
b. It is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient inches in any direction
bonding material to be applied c. Permitted but are normally more critical in
c. The grain is perpendicular to the skin reference to strength in tension than similar
29. Under certain conditions, type a rivets are not used repairs to the upper surface
because of their 40. Which is correct concerning the use of a file?
a. Low strength characteristics a. Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only,
b. High alloy content except when filing very soft metals such as lead
c. Tendency toward embrittlement when subjected or aluminum
to vibration b. A smoother finish can be obtained by using a
30. Which rivet may be used as received without further double-cut file than by using a single-cut file
treatment? c. The terms ’double-cut’ and ‘second-cut’ have
a. 2024-T4 the same meaning in reference to files
b. 2117-T3
41. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, c. Ordinary hand tools
grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is 52. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic
measured in plastics?
a. Tenths of an inch a. Zinc chloride will have no effect
b. Hundredths of an inch b. Acrylic has a yellowish tint when viewed from
c. Sixteenths of an inch the edge
c. Acetone will soften plastic, but will change its
42. Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are color
not driven within the prescribed time after heat 53. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of
treatment or removal from refrigeration metal without critically weakening the part is called
a. Must be reheat treated before use the
b. Must be discarded a. Bend allowance
c. May be returned to refrigeration and used later b. Minimum radius of bend
without reheat treatment c. Maximum radius of bend
43. Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum 54. What is the most common method of cementing
sheet stock must have all transparent plastics?
a. Bends made with a small radius to develop a. Heat method
maximum strength b. Soak method
b. Bends 90° to the grain c. Bevel method
c. Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be 55. Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?
held to a minimum a. 2024-aluminum
44. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite b. Mild steel
structures c. Monel
a. May be constructed of any of the metals 56. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit
commonly used in aircraft fasteners fine cracks which may extend in a network over or
b. Must be constructed of material such as titanium under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is
or corrosion resistant steel said to be
c. Must be constructed of high strength aluminum- a. Hazing
lithium alloy b. Brinelling
45. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must c. Crazing
line up with the adjacent original is the 57. Which of the following drill bit types work best
a. Cell side when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar©) composite
b. Ribbon direction laminate?
c. Cell edge a. Tool steel with standard grind
46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a b. Diamond dust coated
semi-monocoque fuselage are called c. Carbide W-point
a. Spars and ribs 58. The purpose of a joggle is to
b. Longerons and stringers a. Allow clearance for a sheet an extrusion
c. Spars and stringers b. Increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion
47. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should c. Decrease the weight of the part and still retain
have an included angle of the necessary strength
a. 90° and turn at a low speed 59. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024
b. 118° and turn at a high speed aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
c. 140° and turn at a low speed a. To accelerate age hardening
48. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft b. To relieve internal stresses
rivets? c. To retard age hardening
a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank 60. Which fiber to resin (percent) ration for advanced
b. Two times the diameter of the rivet head composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the
c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank best for strength?
49. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum a. 40:60
alloy rivets indicate the b. 50:50
a. Degree of dimensional and process control c. 60:40
observed during manufacture 61. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb
b. Head shape, shank size, material used, and construction ae used on modern aircraft because this
specifications adhered to during manufacture type of construction
c. Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the a. Has a high strength to weight ratio
rivets b. May be repaired by gluing replacement skin to
50. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The the inner core material with thermoplastic resin
curvature of the bend is referred to as the c. Is lighter than single sheet skin of the same
a. Bend allowance strength and is more corrosion resistant
b. Neutral line 62. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a
c. Bend radius stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have
51. The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-lok been critically loaded?
rivets is accomplished by utilizing a. If rivets show no visible distortion, further
a. Rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar investigation is unnecessary
b. A pulling tool
 b. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks c. Lower speed with less pressure applied to the
will be joggled drill
c. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of 72. How does acoustic emission testing detect defects in
consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the composite materials?
same direction a. By picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration
63. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, that may be present
grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is b. By analyzing ultrasonic signals transmitted into
measured in the parts being inspected
a. Hundredths of an inch c. By creating sonogram pictures of the areas
b. Tenths of an inch being inspected
c. Sixteenth of an inch
64. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed 73. One of the best ways to assure that a properly
angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is
a. 165° to
b. 105° a. Perform a chemical composition analysis
c. 90° b. Have mixed enough for a test sample
65. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used c. Test the viscosity of the resin immediately after
in the construction and repair of aircraft structures? mixing
a. To hold structural members in position 74. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic
temporarily until the permanent attachment has enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces
been completed should be
b. To provide access for inspection of structural a. Polished with rubbing compound applied with a
attachments damp cloth
c. To join and reinforce intersecting structural b. Buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth
members c. Covered with a thin coat of wax
66. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces 75. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain
of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet in a workable state is called the
holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the a. Pot life
rivets to be used will be b. Shelf life
a. 5/32 inch c. Service life
b. 3/16 inch 76. Which is considered good practice concerning the
c. 5/16 inch installation of acrylic plastics?
67. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the a. When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic should
area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The be installed hot and tightened to a firm fit before
final cleaning should be made using the plastic cools
a. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone) b. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other
b. Soap, water, and a scrub brush satisfactory means to prevent excessive
c. A thixotropic agent tightening of the frame to the plastic should be
68. What type loads cause the most rivet failures? provided
a. Shear c. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted
b. Bearing holes are not recommended
c. Head 77. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated
69. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine by the number
supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet a. 2
metal, are normally b. 20
a. Repairable, using approved methods c. 24
b. Repairable, except when subjected to 78. How many of the following are benefits of using
compressive loads microballoons when making repairs to laminated
c. Not repairable, but must be replaced when honeycomb panels?
damaged or deteriorated 1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and
70. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) corners
should not be used in composite structures primarily 2. Improved strength to weight ratio
because of the 3. Less density
a. Possibility of causing delamination 4. Lower stress concentrations
b. Increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the
fastener a. 2,3, and 4
c. Difficulty in forming a proper shop head b. 1,2 and 4
71. When comparing the machining techniques for c. All of the above
stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum 79. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice a. By the manufacturer and do not require heat
to drill the stainless steel at a treatment before being driven
a. Higher speed with less pressure applied to the b. By the manufacturer but require reheat treatment
drill before being driven
b. Lower speed with more pressure applied to the c. To a temperature of 910 to 930°F and quenched
drill in cold water
80. One look of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type c. Trimming the rough edges and sealing with
fasteners over earlier generations is that paint
a. They can be removed and reused again 91. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have
b. The squeezed can be installed with ordinary a. Dimples
hand tools b. Smooth heads without markings
c. They can be installed with ordinary hand tools c. A raised dot
92. Composite fabric material is considered to be the
81. The most important Factors needed to make a flat strongest in what direction?
pattern layout are a. Fill
a. Radius, thickness, and mold line b. Warp
b. Radius, thickness, and degree of bend c. Bias
c. The lengths of the legs (flat sections) 93. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify
82. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can the
usually be made on damages less than a. Body diameter, type of head, and length of the
a. 4 inches in diameter fastener
b. 2 inches in diameter b. Body type, head diameter, and type of material
c. 1 inch in diameter c. Manufacturer and type of material
83. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by 94. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed
a. Burnishing composite buildup depends primarily on
b. Buffling a. A 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio
c. Stop drilling b. The orientation of the plies to the load direction
84. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the c. The ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the
strength of matrix
a. Longerons and formers 95. When riveting dissimilar metals together, what
b. Skin or covering precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic
c. Bulkheads and longerons action?
85. You can distinguish between aluminum and a. Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a
aluminum alloy by process called anodic treatment
a. Filing the metal b. Place a protective separator between areas of
b. Testing with an acetic solution. potential electrical difference
c. Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic c. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by
soda redesigning the unit according to the
86. When bending metal, the material on the outside of recommendations outlined in AC 43.13-1A
the curve stretches while the material on the inside of 96. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
the curve compresses. That part of the material a. Harden and increase strength
which is not affected by either stress is the b. Relieve internal stresses
a. Mold line c. Soften to facilitate riveting
b. Bend tangent line 97. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using
c. Neutral line minimum radius for the type and thickness of
87. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required material
to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of a. The piece should be bent slowly to eliminate
rivets, minimum edge distance and 4D spacing? cracking
a. 56 b. The layout should be made so that the bend will
b. 54 be 90° to the grain of the sheet
c. 52 c. Less pressure than usual should be applied with
88. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which the movable (upper) clamping bar
are retained by bolts extending through the plastic 98. Which of the following are generally characteristic
material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be of carbon/graphite fiber composites?
a. Tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn. 1. Flexibility
b. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full 2. Stiffness
turn 3. High compressive strength
c. Tightened to a firm 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum
89. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal 5. Ability to conduct electricity
faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the a. 1 and 3
doubler should be tapered to b. 2,3 and 4
a. Two times the thickness of the metal c. 1,3 and 5
b. 100 times the thickness of the metal 99. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement
c. Whatever is desired for a neat, clean material that has high resistivity and is the most
Appearance common is
90. Fiberglass laminate damage out exceeding the first a. E-glass
layer or play can be repaired by b. S-glass
a. filling with a putty consisting of a compatible c. G-glass
resin and clean, short glass fibers. 100. When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester
b. Sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One
smoothness is obtained method of reducing the amount of warpage is to
a. Add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin
 b. Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair c. By heat treating just prior to being driven
c. Use less catalyst than normal so the repair will be 110. A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a
more flexible section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of
101. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable
a. Bearing failure overlap will be
b. Torsion failure a. ½ inch
c. Shear failure b. ¾ inch
102. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are c. 13/16 inch
a. 1/8 inch in diameter and ¼ inch long 111. The length of rivet to be chosen when making a
b. 1/8 inch in diameter and1/2 inch long structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032-
c. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is
103. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring a. 7/16 inch
test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate b. 5/16 inch
a. Less than full strength curing of the matrix c. ¼ inch
b. Separation of the laminates 112. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of
c. An area of too much matrix between fiber layers 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes
104. Which of the following, when added to wet resins, are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the
provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener rivets to be used will be
holes in composite panels? a. 1/8 inch
1. Microballoons b. ¼ inch
2. Flox c. 5/16 inch
3. Chapped fibers 113. Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the
a. 2 and 3 a. Inside radius of the metal being formed
b. 1 and 3 b. Inside radius plus one-half the thickness of the
c. 1,2, and 3 metal being formed
105. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to c. Radius of the metal axis plus one-half the
finish a drilled hole to the correct size? thickness of the metal being formed
a. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when 114. Which of the following need not be considered when
enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to determining minimum rivet spacing?
remove from the hole a. Rivet diameter
b. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction b. Rivet length
c. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when c. Type of material being riveted
starting the cut and reduce the pressure when 115. The preferred way to make permanent repairs on
finishing the cut composites is by
106. Which part (s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage a. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches
prevents (s) tension and compression from bending b. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches
the fuselage? c. Laminating on new repair plies
a. The fuselage covering
b. Longerons and stringers
c. Bulkhead and skin
107. What is generally the best procedure to use when 116. Which of these methods may be used to inspect
removing a solid shank rivet? fiberglass/ honeycomb structures for entrapped water?
a. Drill through the manufactured head and shank 1. Acoustic emission monitoring
with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a 2. X-ray
punch 3. Backlighting
b. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head a. 1 and 2
with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank b. 1 and 3
and remove the rivet with a punch c. 2 and 3
c. Drill through the manufactured head and shank 117. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of
with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and .032-inch aluminum?
remove the rivet with a punch a. MS20425D-4-3
108. What is the minimum edge distance allowed for b. MS20470AD-4-4
aluminum alloy single lap sheet splices containing a c. MS20455DD-5-3
single row of rivets as compared to a joint with 118. Select the alternative which best describes the
multiple rows, all rivets being equal I diameter? function of the flute section of a twist drill
a. The minimum edge distance for the single row is a. Provides a method for cooling oil to be delivered
greater than that for the multiple row to the cutting surface
b. The minimum edge distance for the single row is b. Forms the area where the drill bit attaches to the
less than that for the multiple row drill motor
c. The minimum edge distance for the single row is c. Forms the cutting edges of the drill point
equal to that for the multiple row 119. Which of the following are generally characteristic of
109. When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites?
strength is obtained 1. High tensile strength
a. Only after a period of age hardening 2. Flexibility
b. By the cold working of the rivet metal in forming 3. Stiffness
a shop head 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum
 5. Ability to conduct electricity c. Heat treatment
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 5 130. The shop head of a rivet should be
120. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass a. One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet
structure that has been subjected to damage is to shank
a. Strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a b. One-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
strong light through the structure c. One and one-half times the diameter of the
b. Use dye-penetrant inspection procedures, manufactured head of the rivet
exposing the entire damaged area to the
penetrant solution.
Aircraft Fuel System
c. Use an eddy current probe on both sides of the
damaged are 1. To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude,
121. The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032- some aircraft are equipped with:
inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to a. Vapor separators
a. Two times the rivet diameter plus .064 inch b. Direct-injection type carburetors
b. One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus c. Booster pumps
.096 inch 2. (1) Gas-turbine engine fuel systems are very
c. Three times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch susceptible to the formation of ice in the fuel filters.
122. Rivet pitch is the distance between the
a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows (2)A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to
b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row warm the fuel.
c. Heads of rivets in the same row Regarding the above statements,
123. A category of plastic material that is capable of a. Only no.1 is true
softening or flowing when reheated is described as a b. Only no.2 is true
a. Thermoplastic c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true
b. Thermocure 3. What minimum required markings must be placed on
c. Thermoset or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility
124. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy category aircraft?
structures? a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade,
a. Mild steel and the total fuel tank capacity.
b. 5056 aluminum b. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade or
c. Monel designation for the engines, and the usable fuel tank
125. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally capacity.
accomplished by c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
1. Applying external heat 4. A fuel system must be designed to prevent fuel-vapor
2. Room temperature exposure ignition caused by:
3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin a. over-heating
4. Applying pressure b. back-fire
a. 2 and 3 c. lightning
b. 1 and 4 5. What are the four general types of fuel quantity
c. 1, 2, and 4 gauges?
126. The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal 1. Sight glass
from which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 2. Mechanical
inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the 3. Electrical
desired bend. The bracket which will require the 4. Electronic
greatest amount of material is one which has a bend 5. Bourdon tube
radius of 6. Vane-type transmitter
a. 1/8 inch 7. Litmus indicator
b. ½ inch 8. Direct-reading static pressure type
c. ¼ inch a. 1,2,3,4
127. What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber b. 1,3,6,8
is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric? c. 2,3,5,7
a. Fill clock (or compass) 6. Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral
b. Bias clock (or compass) stability when jettisoning fuel?
c. Warp clock (or compass) a. Two separate independent systems
128. Repairing advanced composites using materials and b. Crossfeed system
techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is c. Two interconnected systems
likely to result in 7. Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to:
a. Restored strength and flexibility a. reduce pressure
b. Improved wear resistance to the structure b. prevent a negative pressure
c. An unairworthy repair c. act as check valves
129. The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are 8. A drip gauge may be used to measure:
usually hardened by which method? a. the amount of fuel in the tank
a. Cold-working b. system leakage with the system shutdown
b. Aging c. fuel pump diaphragm leakage
9. The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some 20. When moving the mixture control on a normally
problems not normally associated with aviation operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine
gasolines. One of these problem is RPM should
a. increasing viscosity of fuel as fuel temperature a. Slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
lowers at altitude. b. Slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.
b. higher vapor pressure. c. Remain the same Until the cutoff is effected, then
c. microbial contaminants. drop rapidly.
10. Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard 21. Which of the following would be most useful to locate
because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel
through the filters. What are common methods of system?
preventing this hazard? a. Aircraft structure repair manual.
a. micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater. b. Illustrated parts manual.
b. high-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater. c. A fuel system schematic.
c. anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater. 22. What is the purpose of flapper-type check valves in
11. Aircraft defueling should be accomplished integral fuel tanks?
a. With the aircraft’s communication equipment on and a. To allow defueling of the tanks by section
in contact with the tower in case of fire. b. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost
b. In a hangar where activities can be controlled. pumps.
c. In the open air for good ventilation. c. To allow the engine-driven pumps to draw fuel
12. A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks directly from the tank if the boost pump fails.
on some turbine-powered airplanes to tell when the 23. What flight safety-related advantage does a pressure
fuel may be: fueling system provide?
a. Getting cold enough to form hard ice. a. Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance
b. In danger of forming ice crystals. limitations.
c. About to form rime ice. b. Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.
13. (1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an c. Reduces the time required for fueling.
aircraft positive-displacement fuel pump. 24. What type of fuel-booster pump requires a pressure
(2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an relief valve?
aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump. a. Concentric
Regarding the above statements, b. Sliding vane
a. Only no.1 is true c. Centrifugal
b. Only no.2 is true 25. A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the:
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true a. Total amount of fuel being consumed by all engines.
14. The electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system b. Amount of fuel in any given tank.
consists of a bridge circuit, c. Amount of fuel in all tanks.
a. An amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit. 26. As a general rule, which statement is true regarding
b. A tank, an amplifier, and an indicator fuel leaks?
c. A tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier a. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards.
15. What precautions must be observed if a gravity-feed b. All fuel leaks regardless of location or severity are
fuel system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine considered a hazard to flight.
form more than one tank at a time? c. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps (in addition to
a. The tank airspaces must be interconnected. running leaks) are considered flight hazards when
b. The fuel outlet ports of each tank must have the located in unvented areas of the aircraft.
same cross-sectional area. 27. The location of leaks and defects within the internal
c. Each tank must have a valve in its outlet that portions of the fuel system can usually be determined
automatically shuts off the line when the tank is empty. by:
16. What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel a. Visual inspection for evidence of wet spots and
tank before welding? stains, and feeling for unusually warm components.
a. Purge the tank with air. b. Performing a fuel flow check.
b. Flush the inside of the tank with clean water. c. Observing the pressure gauge and operating the
c. Steam clean the tank interior. selector valves.
17. When installing a rigid fuel line, ½ inch in diameter, at 28. Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are:
what intervals should the line supported? a. Usually constructed of nonmetallic material.
a. 24 inches b. Readily removed from the aircraft.
b. 12 inches c. Formed by the aircraft structure.
c. 16 inches 29. What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a
18. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system?
improved? a. Outer shell of the capacitor.
a. By adding a knock inhibitor. b. Fuel in the tank.
b. By adding a knock enhancer. c. Fuel and air in the tank.
c. By adding a fungicide agent.
19. What type of remote-reading fuel quantity indicating
system has several probes installed in each fuel tank?
a. Electromechanical 30. A transducer in a fuel pressure system serves what
b. Electronic function?
c. Direct reading
 a. Transmits an electrical signal to the transmitter for b. Add CO(2) as a purgative.
fluid pressure. c. Keep the fuel tank topped off.
b. Transmits electrical signal proportional to the fluid 42. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
pressure. a. To allow the feeding of engine from any tank.
c. Converts fluid pressure directly through a transmitter b. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for
to the indicator. defueling.
31. Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large c. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any
aircraft? desired level.
a. To reduce fire hazards. 43. Fuel-boost pumps are operated:
b. To facilitate servicing. a. To provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.
c. To reduce weight. b. Primarily for fuel transfer.
32. A capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system c. Automatically from fuel pressure.
measures fuel in: 44. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity
a. Pounds indicating systems is that:
b. Pounds per hour a. The indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no
c. Gallons conversion is necessary.
33. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an b. Only one transmitter and one indicator are needed
extended period of time, the inside of the tank should regardless of the number of tanks.
be coated with a film of: c. Several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.
a. Engine oil 45. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of
b. Linseed oil fuel quantity indicating system?
c. Ethylene glycol a. Selsyn
34. How many vents, arranged so that they are not likely to b. Capacitor
become plugged at the same time, must be used in c. Synchro
multiengine fuel systems? 46. A fuel jettison system is required under certain
a. Two conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the
b. Four maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the
c. Six requirements of fuel jettisoning?
35. A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close and a. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91.
warning light is turned on when: b. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25, and CAM
a. A measured quantity of fuel has passed through it. 4b.
b. The fuel flow stops. c. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 21, 43 and CAM 8.
c. The fuel pressure drops below specified limits.
36. Which of the following is necessary to effectively 47. In an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system,
troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system? the tank sensing unit is a:
a. The manufacturer’s maintenance manuals. a. Capacitor
b. AC 43.13-1B, Acceptable methods, techniques, and b. Variable resistor
practices—Aircraft inspection and Repair. c. Variable resistor
c. A set of Federal Aviation Regulations. 48. What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum
37. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted tank after welded repairs?
fittings the line should: a. Soft brush and warm water.
a. Have at least one bend between such fittings. b. 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
b. Be straight length of tubing and clamped to the c. Mild solution of soap and warm water.
aircraft structure. 49. What is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter
c. Have a flexible line added between two metal lines installed in a fuel tank?
to allow for ease of installation. a. It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity
38. When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all indicator.
valves located downstream of boost pumps with the b. It senses the total amount of fuel density.
pumps: c. It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in the
a. At idle tank.
b. Dormant 50. Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal
c. Operating Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by:
39. An electrical-type fuel quantity indicating system a. Closely monitoring the fuel quantity and turning off
consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a: the fuel dump switch/es.
a. Float-operated transmitter installed in the tank. b. Dump limit valves or a low-level circuit.
b. Float resting on the surface of the tank. c. Standpipes in the fuel tanks.
c. Float-operated receiver installed in the tank. 51. The type of fuel-boost pump that separates air and
40. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is: vapor from the fuel before it enters the line to the
a. Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive carburetor is the:
gasoline. a. Gear-type pump.
b. Higher than the vapor pressure of automotive b. Centrifugal-type pump.
gasoline. c. Sliding vane-type pump.
c. Approximately 20PSI at 100F 52. (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines
41. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel
microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank? flow.
a. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
 (2) A measure of a gasoline’s tendency to vapor lock is 63. What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to
obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test. read during level flight when the quantity of fuel
Regarding the above statements, remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?
a. Only no. 2 is true a. The total unusable fuel quantity.
b. Both no. 1 and no.2 are true b. Both the total unusable fuel quantity and the
c. Neither no. 1 nor no.2 is true unusable fuel quantity in each tank.
53. (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a c. Zero.
pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will 64. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an
permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks aircraft fuel?
of an aircraft. a. 7 PSI
(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more b. 5 PSI
advantages to a pressure fueling system in light c. 3 PSI
aircraft. 65. When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks
Regarding the above statements, what procedure should be followed?
a. Only no.1 is true a. Pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy
b. Only no.2 is true water.
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true b. Fill the tank with water and pressurize with air and
54. The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would brush with soapy water.
indicate: c. Pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to
a. Too much fuel pressure. locate leaks.
b. Excessive airflow across the venturi. 66. Pressure fueling or aircraft is usually accomplished
c. Clogged fuel nozzle. through:
55. (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of a. Pressure connections on individual fuel tanks.
heat. b. At least one single point connection.
(2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a c. Individual fuel tank overwing and/or fuselage access
source of heat. points.
Regarding the above statements, 67. How many engine drive fuel pumps per engine are
a. Only no.1 is true. required for engines requiring fuel pump?
b. Both no.1 and no.2 are true. a. Two engines can share one fuel pump
c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true. b. One fuel pump for each engine.
56. How does temperature affect fuel weight? c. Two fuel pumps for each engine.
a. Cold fuel is heavier per gallon. 68. According to Part 23, what minimum required
b. Warm fuel is heavier per gallon. markings must be placed at or near each appropriate
c. Temperature has no effect. fuel filler cove for reciprocating engine-powered
57. Which of the following may be used for the repair of airplanes?
fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks? a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
a. Welding and resealing. b. The word ‘Fuel’ and usable fuel capacity.
b. Brazing and resealing. c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the total fuel capacity.
c. Riveting and resealing. 69. The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to:
58. Why are centrifugal-type boost pumps used in fuel a. Provide an expansion space for the fuel.
systems of aircraft operating at high altitude? b. Resist fuel surging within the fuel tank.
a. Because they are positive displacement pumps. c. Provide internal structural integrity.
b. To supply fuel under pressure to engine-driven 70. The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is
pumps. essentially a:
c. To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor. a. Float-actuated variable capacitor.
59. An aircraft’s integral fuel tank is: b. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
a. Usually located in the bottom of the fuselage. c. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.
b. A part of the aircraft structure. 71. What method is used on turbine-powered aircraft to
c. A self-sealing tank. determine when the condition of the fuel is
60. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?
quantity indicating systems is that the indicator: a. Fuel pressure warning.
a. Can be located an distance from the tank/s. b. Fuel pressure gauge.
b. Has no movable devices. c. Fuel temperature indicator.
c. Always measures volume instead of mass. 72. What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel
61. When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of pressure warning limits?
gallons, the measurement will be more accurate a. Fuel flowmeter bypass valve.
because fuel volume: b. Pressure-sensitive mechanism.
a. Varies with temperature change. c. Fuel pressure relief valve.
b. Increases when temperature decreases. 73. (1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow
c. Varies with changes in atmospheric pressure. flight personnel to close the valve during any part of
62. Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank? the jettisoning operation.
a. Helium or argon. (2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must
b. Carbon dioxide. discharge clear of any part of the airplane.
c. Carbon monoxide. Regarding the above statements,
a. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
b. Only no.2 is true.
 c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true. 84. What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation
74. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest fuels?
point in the fuel system? a. A fuel intercooler is required.
a. It traps any small amount of water that may be b. Deteriorates rubber parts.
present in the fuel system. c. Results in low fuel volatility.
b. It provides a drain for residual fuel. 85. Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system
c. It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be incorporates a signal amplifier?
present in the fuel system. a. Electronic
75. Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks? b. Sight glass
a. To ensure a positive head pressure for a submerged c. Electrical
boost pump. 86. Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water
b. To exhaust fuel vapors. contamination than aviation gasoline?
c. To limit pressure differential between the tank and a. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.
atmosphere. b. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is
76. Which of the following precautions is most important more easily suspended.
during refueling operations? c. Condensation is greater because of the higher
a. All outside electrical sources must be disconnected volatility of jet fuels.
from the aircraft. 87. What is the minimum distance allowed between a fuel
b. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified. tank and the fire wall separating the engine?
c. All electrical switches must be in OFF position. a. One-half inch
77. A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves b. One inch
what function? c. Two inches
a. Transmits an electrical signal to fluid pressure. 88. Fuel baffles are installed in tanks to prevent _________
b. Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal. caused by changes in the attitude of the aircraft.
c. Transmits fluid pressure directly to the indicator. a. Vapors.
78. What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank b. Surging.
before attempting repairs? c. Starvation.
a. Carbon dioxide 89. Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine
b. Water aircraft
c. Steam a. Calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct
79. A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system lateral instability.
allows how many of the following? b. Reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during
1. All tanks can be serviced through a single fueling or defueling operations.
connection. c. Provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load
2. Any engine can be fed from any tank condition.
3. All engines can be fed from all tanks 90. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide
simultaneously. a:
4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the a. Positive system of maintaining the design minimum
fuel system. fuel supply for safe operation.
a. 1 and 2. b. Place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank
b. 1, 2, and 3. can collect and be drained.
c.1, 2, 3, and 4. c. Reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to land
80. Which statement concerning an electronic capacitance- safely in the event of fuel exhaustion.
type fuel quantity indicating system is true? 91. What method would be used to check for internal
a. It has no moving parts in the tank. leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve
b. It has two tubes separated by an electronic field in from the aircraft?
the tank. a. Place the valve in OFF position, drain the strainer
c. It utilizes a variable capacitor to indicate the fuel bowl and with the boost pump on, watch to see if fuel
tank capacity. flows to the strainer bowl.
81. The primary purpose of an aircraft’s fuel jettison b. Remove fuel cap/s, turn boost pump/s on, and watch
system is to quickly achieve a: for bubbling in the tanks.
a. Lower landing weight. c. Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side
b. Balanced fuel load. of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the
c. Reduced fire hazard. valve.
82. How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a 92. Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded
submerged, single-speed, centrifugal-type fuel pump? in order to:
a. By the engine-driven pump’s design and internal a. Drain off static charges.
clearance. b. Prevent stray currents.
b. By the first check valve downstream from the pump. c. Retard galvanic corrosion.
c. By the pump’s design and internal clearances. 93. Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems
83. Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional by:
procedures are normally placarded on the: a. Boost pumps.
a. Fuel control panel access door. b. Gravity.
b. Lower wing surface adjacent to the access door. c. Gravity and engine-driven fuel pumps.
c. Aircraft ground connection point.
94. In some aircraft with several fuel tanks, the possible 103. What is used in may aircraft to prevent bubbles in the
danger of allowing the fuel supply in one tank to fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure
become exhausted before the selector valve is switched is lower than fuel vapor pressure?
to another tank is prevented by the installation of: a. Air-fuel separators.
a. A fuel pressure warning signal system. b. Anti-foaming additives.
b. A fuel pressure relief valve. c. Boost pumps.
c. An engine fuel pump bypass valve. 104. Which procedure must be followed when defueling
95. Which of the following would give the first positive aircraft with sweptback wings?
indication that a change-over from one fuel tank to a. Defuel all the tanks at one time.
another is needed? b. Defuel the inboard wing tanks first.
a. Fuel pressure warning. c. Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.
b. Fuel pressure gauge. 105. If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank
c. Fuel quantity indicator. which is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or
96. Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished: water, periodic checks of the aircraft’s fuel tank sumps
a. Through a common manifold and outlet in each and system strainers:
wing. a. Can be eliminated except for the strainer check
b. By gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and before the first flight of the day and the fuel tank sump
overboard through a common outlet in each wing. check during 100hour or annual inspections.
c. Through individual outlets for each tank. b. Are still necessary due to the possibility of
97. Where is fuel pressure taken for the pressure warning contamination from other sources.
signal on most aircraft engines? c. Can be sharply reduced since contamination from
a. Outlet side of the boost pump. other sources is relatively unlikely and of little
b. Fuel pressure line of the carburetor. consequence in modern aircraft fuel systems.
c. Between the fuel pump and the strainer.
98. (1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine
fuel system from ice formation.
(2) An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in 106. A digital fuel totalizer automatically indicates the
the fuel screen. amount of fuel used, fuel remaining, current rate of
Regarding the statements above, consumption, and fuel
a. Only no.1 is true. a. Weight, aboard at takeoff.
b. Only no.2 is true. b. Remaining at the 45-minute IFR fuel reserve.
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true. c. Remaining, flight time at the current power setting.
99. Microbial growth is produced by various forms of 107. (1) A fuel pressure gauge is a differential pressure
microorganisms that live and multiply in the water indicator.
interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could (2) A fuel pressure gauge indicates the pressure of the
result if microbial growth exists in a jet fuel tank and is fuel entering the carburetor.
not corrected? Regarding the statements above,
1. Interference with fuel flow. a. Only no.2 is true.
2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators. b. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
3. Engine seizure. c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true.
4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank. 108. The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel pump
5. Lower grade rating of the fuel. is to:
6. Electrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank. a. Equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
a. 1, 2, 4 b. Vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting.
b. 2, 3, 5 c. Compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
c. 1, 5, 6 109. Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling
100. What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure method, what precaution should be observed?
warning system? a. The truck pump pressure must be correct for that
a. Fuel flowmeter. refueling system.
b. Pressure-sensitive mechanism. b. The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for
c. Fuel pressure gauge. minimum filter pressure.
101. Fuel heaters are used with fuel systems for turbine c. The aircraft’s electrical system must be on to
engines to prevent _________ indicate quantity gauge readings.
In the fuel from clogging system filters. 110. Select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on
a. Moisture. turbine-powered aircraft.
b. Ice crystals. a. Engine bleed air to the fuel filter.
c. Contamination. b. Engine bleed air to the fuel tank.
102. If it is necessary to enter an aircraft’s fuel tank, which c. Engine bleed air to a heat exchanger.
procedure should be avoided? 111. Many fuel tanks incorporate _________ valves to
a. Continue purging the tank during the entire work prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pump
period. or tank outlet when the aircraft is in a high ‘G’
b. Station an assistant outside the fuel tank access to maneuver.
perform rescue operations if required. a. Flapper
c. Conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in b. Check
an air-conditioned building. c. Dump
 112. Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system 9. In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a
more accurate in measuring fuel level than a mechanic should be familiar with
mechanical type? a. Likely ambient exposure conditions and
a. Only one probe and one indicator are necessary for intended use of the part, along with type
multiple tank configurations. of weld and original part material
b. It measures in gallons and converts to pounds. composition
c. It measures by weight instead of volume. b. The welding technique, filler material,
113. What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent? and temperature range used
a. To maintain atmospheric pressure. c. The parts, proportions, and formation of
b. To decrease fuel vapor pressure. a weld
c. To decrease tank internal air pressure. 10. What nondestructive testing method requires
little or no part preparation, is used to detect
surface or near-surface defects in most metals,
Materials and Processes
and may also be used to separate metals or
1. What two types of indicating mediums are available alloys and their heat-treat conditions?
for magnetic particle inspection? a. Eddy current inspection
a. Iron and ferric oxides b. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Wet and dry process materials c. Magnetic particle inspection
c. High retentivity and low permeability material 11. Which of the following is a main determinant of
2. What precision measuring tool is used for measuring the dwell time to use when conducting a dye r
crankpin and main bearing journals for out-of-round fluorescent penetrant inspection?
wear? a. The size and shape of the discontinuities
a. Dial gauge being looked for
b. Micrometer caliper b. The size and shape of the part being
c. Depth gauge inspected
3. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct? c. The type and/or density of the part material
a. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled 12. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to
bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is detect which defects?
permissible to overtighten the nut to permit a. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part
alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin b. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the
hole part
b. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the c. Defects perpendicular to the concentric
material thickness circles of magnetic force within the part
c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼ -inch diameter 13. If it is necessary to accurately measure the
should not be used in primary structure diameter of a hole approximately ¼ inch in
4. How many of these factors are considered essential diameter, the mechanic should use a
knowledge for x-ray exposure? a. Telescoping gauge and determine the size
1. Processing of the film of the hole by taking a micrometer reading
2. Material thickness and density of the adjustable end of the telescoping
3. Exposure distance and angle gauge
4. Film characteristics b. 0 - to 1-inch inside micrometer and read the
a. One measurement directly from the micrometer
b. Three c. Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the
c. Four hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball
5. On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement end of the gauge
includes what percentage(s) of the base metal 14. Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing
thickness? inspection method is true?
a. 100 percent a. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily
b. 25 – 50 percent apparent
c. 60 – 80 percent b. It is used in practically all circular and
6. What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel longitudinal magnetizing procedures
during after it has been annealed? c. It may be used with steels which have been heat
a. Rapid cooling; high strength treated for stressed applications
b. Slow cooling; low strength 15. Which of the following defects are not acceptable for
c. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear metal lines?
1. Cracked flare
7. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a 2. Seams
a. Class 1 fit for the threads 3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than 20% of the
b. Class 2 fit for the threads diameter
c. Class 3 fit for the threads 4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend less than
8. Which tool can be used to determine piston pin 10% of wall thickness
out-of-round wear? 5. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube
a. Telescopic gauge diameter
b. Micrometer caliper a. 1,2,3,4 and 5
c. Dial indicator b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2,3 and 5
16. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp a. Case hardening
and clear, the most cause is that part b. Annealing
a. Was not correctly degaussed before the c. Tempering
developer was applied 26. Alclad is a metal consisting of
b. Has no appreciable damage a. Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure
c. Was not thoroughly washed before the aluminum core
developer was applied b. Pure aluminum surface layers on an
17. Which heat-treating operation would be performed aluminum alloy core
when the surface of the metal is changed chemically c. A homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum
by introducing a high carbide or nitride content? and aluminum alloy
a. Tempering 27. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft
b. Normalizing bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is
c. Case hardening a. Upward, or in rearward direction
18. (1) In nondestructive testing a discontinuity may be b. Upward, or in a forward direction
defined as an interruption in the normal physical c. Downward, or in a forward direction
structure or configuration of a part 28. The society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and
(2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the the American Iron and Steel Institute use a
usefulness of a part numerical index system to identify the
Regarding the above statements, composition of various steels. In the number
a. Only No.1 is true ‘4130’ designating chromium molybdenum
b. Only No.2 is true steel, the first digit indicates the
c. Both No.1 and No.2 are true a. Percentage of the basic element in the alloy
19. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for b. Percentage of carbon in the alloy in
tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to hundredths of a percent
a. Clean, dry threads c. Basic alloying element
b. Clean, lightly oiled threads 29. Which of the following describe the effects of
c. Both dry and lightly oiled threads annealing steel and aluminum alloys?
20. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut 1. Decrease in internal stress
obtained? 2. Softening of the metal
a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert 3. Improved corrosion resistance
b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base a. 1,2
of the load carrying section b. 1,3
c. By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly c. 2,3
smaller than those in the load carrying section 30. What method of magnetic particle inspection is
21. When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, used most often to inspect aircraft parts for
where can the recommended torque value be found? invisible cracks and other defects?
a. AC 43. 13-1B a. Residual
b. Technical Standard Order b. Inductance
c. AC43. 13-2A c. Continuous
22. Which of the following occurs when a mechanical 31. (1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by
force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room subjecting it to a magnetizing force from
temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or alternating current that is gradually reduced in
bending? strength
1. The metals become artificially aged. (2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by
2. The metals become stress corrosion cracked subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct
3. The metals become cold worked, strain or work current that is alternately reversed in direction
hardened and gradually reduced in strength
a. 2 Regarding the above statements,
b. 1 and 3 a. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
c. 3. b. Only No.2 is true
23. In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the c. Only No.1 is true
developer 32. What aluminum alloy designations indicate that
a. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the the metal has received no hardening or
presence of a defect tempering treatment
b. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication a. 3003-F
c. Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to b. 5052-H36
inspection c. 6061-O
24. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is 33. What is steel tempered after being hardened
classified as an a. To increase its hardness and ductility
a. NAS standard aircraft bolt b. To increase its strength and decrease its
b. NAS close tolerance bolt internal stresses
c. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt c. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its
brittleness
25. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a 34. Identify the correct statement
hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough a. An outside micrometer is limited to
core? measuring diameters
 b. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be 44. Which of the following materials may be
an approved type inspected using the magnetic particle inspection
c. Dividers do not provide a reading when method?
used as measuring device 1. Magnesium alloys
35. Which condition indicates a part has cooled too 2. Aluminum alloys
quickly after being welded? 3. Iron alloys
a. Cracking adjacent to the weld 4. Copper alloys
b. Discoloration of the base metal 5. Zinc alloys
c. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions a. 1,2,3
36. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type b. 1,2,3,4
locknut obtained? c. 3
a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking 45. Why is it considered good practice to normalize
insert a part after welding?
b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the a. To relieve internal stresses developed
base of the load carrying section within the base metal
c. By making the threads in the fiber insert b. To increase the hardness of the weld
slightly smaller than those in the load c. To remove the surface scale formed during
carrying section welding
37. Which number represents the Vernier scale 46. What is generally used in the construction of
graduation of a micrometer? aircraft engine firewalls?
a. .00001 a. Stainless steel
b. .001 b. Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel
c. .0001 c. Titanium nickel alloy
38. One characteristics of a good weld is that no 47. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies
oxide should be formed on the base metal at a what type of aluminum
distance from the weld of more than a. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent
a. ½ inch copper
b. 1 inch b. Aluminum alloy containing zinc
c. ¼ inch c. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum
39. Which material cannot be heat treated 48. What tool is generally used to set a divider to an
repeatedly without harmful effects? exact dimension?
a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form a. Machinist scale
b. 6061-T9 b. Surface gauge
c. Clad aluminum alloy c. Dial indicator
40. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a 49. The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is
a. Class 1 fit for the threads a. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the
b. Class 2 fit for the threads surface material is commercially pure
c. Class 3 fit for the threads aluminum
41. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be b. Commercially pure aluminum, and the
a. Equal to the thickness of the material which surface material is heat-treated aluminum
is fastened together, plus approximately one alloy
diameter c. Strain- hardened aluminum alloy, and the
b. Equal to the thickness of the material which surface material is commercially pure
is fastened together aluminum
c. One and one half times the thickness of the 50. The clearance between the piston rings and the
material which is fastened together ring lands is measured with a
42. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is a. Micrometer caliper
correct? b. Thickness gauge
a. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled c. Depth gauge
bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, 51. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant
it is permissible to overtighten the nut to inspection usually requires
permit alignment of the next slot with the a. That the developer be applied to a flat
cotter pin hole surface
b. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal b. A longer-than-normal penetrating time
the material thickness c. The surface to be highly polished
c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼-inch 52. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to
diameter should not be used in primary detect
structure a. Distortion
43. A mechanic has completed a bonded b. Deep surface flaws
honeycomb repair using the potted compound c. Flaws on or near the surface
repair technique. What nondestructive testing 53. Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on
method is used to determine the soundness of the bolthead are
the repair after the repair has cured? a. Made of aluminum alloy
a. Eddy current test b. Close tolerance bolts
b. Metallic ring test c. Standard steel bolts
c. Ultrasonic test 54. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld
 a. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient cotter pin hole does not align within the
to ensure fusion of the filler rod recommended torque range, the acceptable
b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 practice is to
inch above the base metal a. Exceed the recommended torque range by
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the no more than 10 percent
base metal b. Tighten below the torque range
55. What defects will be detected by magnetizing a c. Change washers and try again
part using continuous longitudinal 64. In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is
magnetization with a cable? perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines
a. Defects perpendicular to the axis of the part generally causes
b. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part a. A large disruption in the magnetic field
c. Defects parallel to the concentric circles of b. A minimal disruption in the magnetic field
magnetic force within the part c. No disruption in the magnetic field
56. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane 65. Which of the following methods may be suitable
a. For tension and shear load conditions to use to detect cracks open to the surface in
b. Where external tension loads are applied aluminum forgings and castings?
c. Only for shear load applications 1. Dye penetrant inspection
57. When checking an item with the magnetic 2. Magnetic particle inspection
particle inspection method, circular and 3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection
longitudinal magnetization should be used to 4. Eddy current inspection
a. Reveal all possible defects 5. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Evenly magnetize the entire part 6. Visual inspection
c. Ensure uniform current flow a. 1,4,5,6
58. One way a part may be demagnetized after b. 1,2,4,5,6
magnetic particle inspection is by c. 1,2,3,4,5,6
a. Subjecting the part to high voltage, low 66. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft
amperage ac or other cylindrical work
b. Slowly moving the part out of an ac a. Combination set
magnetic field of sufficient strength b. Dial indicator
c. Slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic c. Micrometer caliper
field of sufficient strength 67. A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant
59. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable inspection should be clean with
terminal secured? a. A volatile petroleum-based solvent
a. With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but b. The penetrant developer
with no strain imposed on the fork and safe c. Water-base solvents only
tied with a cotter pin 68. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is
b. With a castle nut tightened until slight classified as an
binding occurs between the fork and the a. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
fitting to which it is being attached b. NAS standard aircraft bolt
c. With a shear nut and cotter pin or thin self- c. NAS close tolerance bolt
locking nut tightened enough to prevent 69. Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be
rotation of the bolt in the fork used on which of the following?
60. A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be 1. Porous plastics
used on an aircraft if the bolt is 2. Ferrous metals
a. Under shear loading 3. Nonferrous metals
b. Under tension loading 4. Smooth primer-sealed wood
c. Subject to rotation 5. Nonporous plastics
61. Why should an aircraft maintenance technician a. 2,3,4
be familiar with weld nomenclature? b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3,5
a. So that accurate visual (pictorial) 70. What tool is generally used to calibrate a
comparisons can be made micrometer or check its accuracy?
b. In order to gain familiarity with the welding a. Gauge block
technique, filler material and temperature b. Dial indicator
range used c. Machinist scale
c. In order to compare welds with written 71. In the four-digit aluminum index system number
(non-pictorial) description standards 2024, the first digit indicates
62. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic a. The major alloying element
particle inspection using either circular or b. The number of major alloying elements
longitudinal magnetization used in the metal
a. 45* c. The percent of alloying metal added
b. Longitudinal 72. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld
c. Transverse a. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient
63. A particular component is attached to the to ensure fusion off the filler rod
aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8
and a castle tension nut combination. If the inch above the base metal
 c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the 83. The reheating of het treated metal, such as with
base metal a welding torch
73. The twist of a connecting rod is checked by a. Has little or no effect on a metal’s heat
installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported treated characteristics
by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. b. Has a cumulative enhancement effect on the
Measurements are taken between the arbor and original heat treatment
the parallel bar with a c. Can significantly alter a metal’s properties
a. Dial gauge in the reheated area
b. Height gauge 84. Holes and a few projecting globules are found in
c. Thickness gauge a weld. What action should be taken?
a. Reweld the defective portions
74. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic b. Remove all the old weld, and Reweld the
particle build up forming joint
a. A fernlike pattern c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect,
b. A single line and Reweld all gaps/holes
c. Parallel lines 85. Normalizing is a process of heat treating
75. Which tool can be used to measure the a. Aluminum alloys only
alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of b. Iron-base metal only
rotation of a disk? c. Both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals
a. Dial indicator 86. The testing medium that is generally used in
b. Shaft gauge magnetic particle inspection utilizes a
c. Protractor ferromagnetic material that has
76. What type of corrosion may attack the grain a. High permeability and low retentivity
boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat b. Low permeability and high retentivity
treatment process has been improperly c. High permeability and high retentivity
accomplished
a. Concentration cell
MAINTENANCE FORMS AND RECORDS
b. Intergranular
c. Fretting 1. For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the
77. Which tool is used to measure the clearance following records must be retained for at least one
between a surface plate and a relatively narrow year, or until the work is repeated or superseded?
surface being checked for flatness? a. Records of time since overhaul of items
a. Depth gauge requiring overhaul on a time specified basis
b. Thickness gauge b. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive
c. Dial indicator maintenance, 100-hour, annual and progressive
78. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will inspections
be identified as having a fatigue crack under c. Records of the current inspection status of the
which condition? aircraft, including time since last required
a. The discontinuity pattern is straight inspections
b. The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed 2. Which of the following may a certificated airframe
area of the part and powerplant mechanic perform on aircraft and
c. The discontinuity is found in a highly approve for return to service?
stressed area of the part 1. A 100-hour inspection
79. What may be used to check the stem on a 2. An annual inspection, under specified
poppet-type valve for stretch? circumstances
a. Dial indicator 3. A progressive inspection, under specified
b. Micrometer circumstances
c. Telescoping gauge a. 1,2
80. Which of these nondestructive testing methods b. 1,3
is suitable for the inspection of most metals, c. 1,2,3
plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface 3. If work performed on an aircraft has been done
defects? satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized person
a. Eddy current inspection on the maintenance records for maintenance or
b. Magnetic particle inspection alterations performed constitutes
c. Ultrasonic inspection a. Approval of the aircraft for return to service
81. What metal has special short-time heat b. Approval for return to service only for the work
properties and is used in the construction of performed
aircraft firewalls? c. Verification that the maintenance or alterations
a. Stainless steel were performed referencing approved
b. Chrome molybdenum alloy steel maintenance data
c. Titanium alloy 4. Which aircraft record entry is the best description of
82. How can the dimensional inspection of a the replacement of several damaged heli-coils in a
bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished? casting?
a. Depth gauge and micrometer a. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coils were
b. Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted ,
c. Telescopic gauge and micrometer
 the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts a. Aircraft engine maintenance record
installed, and tangs removed b. Aircraft minor repair and alteration
b. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coils were c. FAA Form 337
installed in place of damaged ones 12. When a 100-hour inspection is completed, if separate
c. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coil inserts were maintenance records for the airframe, powerplant(s),
repaired by replacing the damaged inserts with a and propeller(s) are maintained, where is the entry
lock-type insert, after the tapped holes were for the inspection recorded?
checked for corrosions a. In each record
5. What is the means by which the FAA notifies b. In the airframe record only
aircraft owners and other interested persons of c. In any one of the records
unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under 13. When work is performed on an aircraft that
which the product may continue to be operated? necessitates the use of FAA Form 337, who should
a. Airworthiness Directives prepare the form?
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts a. The person who performs or supervises the
c. Aviation Safety Data work
6. Which maintenance record entry best describes the b. The person who approves for return to service
action taken for a .125-inch deep dent in a straight c. The aircraft owner or operator
section of 1/2 –inch aluminum alloy tubing? 14. A certificated mechanic without an inspection
a. Dented section removed and replaces with authorization who signs the appropriate block on
identical new tubing flared to 45° FAA Form 337 is doing what?
b. Dent within acceptable limits, repair not a. Certifying that he work was done in accordance
necessary with the requirements of 14CFR Part 43
c. Dented section removed and replaced with b. Approving the work for return to service
identical new tubing flared to 37° c. Certifying the maintenance information used as
7. Which is an appliance major repair? FAA-approved data
a. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump 15. For the aircraft operated under part 91, what
b. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control difference is there, if any, between the record entry
c. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in requirements for maintenance (e.g., repair or
landing light circus alteration) and the record entry requirements for
8. When approving for return to service after a inspections (beyond the description of the work
maintenance or alteration, the approving person must performed and the type and extent of inspection?
enter in the maintenance record of the aircraft
a. The date the maintenance or alteration was a. There is no difference
begun, description (or reference to acceptable b. Aircraft total time is required to be included
data) of work performed, the name of the person only in the maintenance entry
performing the work (if someone else), c. Aircraft total time is required to be included
signature and certificate number only in the inspection entry
b. A description ( or reference of acceptable data) 16. What is the status of data used as a basis of
of work performed, date of completion, the approving major repairs or alternations for returning
name of the person performing the work (if to service?
someone else), signature and certificate number a. Data must be least FAA-acceptable when it is
c. A description (or reference of acceptable data) used for that purpose.
of work performed, date of completion, the b. Data must be FAA-approved prior to its use for
name of the person performing the work (if that purpose.
someone else) , signature, certificate number c. Data may be FAA-approved after its used for
and kind of certificate held that purpose.
9. Who is responsible for upkeep of the work required 17. Where is the record of compliance with
maintenance record of an aircraft? Airworthiness Directives or manufacturer’s service
a. The maintaining repair station or authorized bulletins normally indicated?
inspector a. FAA form 337
b. The maintaining certified aircraft mechanic b. Aircraft maintenance record
c. The aircraft owner c. Flight manual
10. Which is statement is true regarding the 18. If more spaces is needed for a work description
requirements for maintenance record format? entered o FAA Form 337, what information should
a. Any format that provides record continuity and be included on the attached sheet (s), in addition to
includes the required information may be used the rest of the work description?
b. The format provided by the manufacturer of the a. Make, model, and serial number of the aircraft
aircraft must be retained b. Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and
c. Any desired change from manufacturer provided the date the work was accomplished
format requires approval from the Federal c. Name, date, and office designator of the FAA
Aviation Administration inspector from the supervising district office
11. Where should you find this entry? 19. After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine
‘Removed right wing from aircraft and remove skin that is to be returned to service, an FAA Form 337 is
from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches prepared. How many copies are required and what is
and in figure 8 in the manufacturer’s structural repair the disposition of the completed forms?
manual No. 28-1.’
 a. Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one 26. Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA
copy for the FAA Form 337?
b. Two; one coy for the FAA and one copy for the a. FAA Form 337 is unauthorized for use with
permanent records of the repairing agency or both U.S. and foreign registered aircraft
individuals b. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with U.S.
c. Three; one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy registered aircraft, and foreign registered aircraft
for the FAA, and one copy for the permanent when located in the United States
records of the repairing agency or individual c. FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with
20. An aircraft owner was provided a list of other U.S. registered aircraft
discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved 27. An FAA form 337 is used to record and document
for return to service after an annual inspection. a. Preventive and unscheduled maintenance and
Which of the following statements is/are true special inspections.
concerning who may correct the discrepancies? b. Major and minor repairs, and major and minor
1. Only a mechanic with an inspection alterations.
authorization c. Major repairs and major alterations.
2. An appropriately rated mechanic 28. What is /are the appropriate action (s) concerning
3. Any certified repair station minor repairs performed on a certificated aircraft?
a. 2&3 1. FAA form 337’s must be completed
b. 2 2. Entries must be made in the aircraft
c. 1 maintenance record.
21. Which aircraft record entry best describes repair of a 3. The owner of the aircraft must submit a record
dent in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster? of all minor repairs to the FAA at least annualy.
a. Removed and replaced the damaged member a. 2.
b. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area b. 2 and 3.
c. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal an c. 1 and 2.
dressed to the original contour 29. A person installing a product , part, or appliance on a
22. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found type certificated product must make certain that the
which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person item’s records document what type of statement?
disapproving must a. The product, part, or materials meets FAA
a. Void the aircraft’s airworthiness certificate airworthiness standards.
b. Submit a malfunction defect report b. A product produced by an owner or operator
c. Provide a written notice of the defect to the does not need a statement.
owner c. The product or material was not produced under
23. When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft an FAA production approval.
owner or operator after an inspection, it says in 30. After a mechanic holding an airframe an powerplant
effect that rating completes a 100-hour inspection, what action
a. The item inspected is unairworthy is required before the aircraft is returned to service?
b. Except for these discrepancies, the item a. Make the proper entries in the aircraft’s
inspected is airworthy maintenance record.
c. The item inspected may or may not be airworthy b. An operational check of all systems.
depending on the discrepancies found c. A mechanic with an inspection authorization
must approve the inspection.
31. Which maintenance action is an airframe major
repair?
a. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable
24. For aircraft operated under part 91, when is aircraft control surfaces which affect flutter and
total time is required to be recorded in aircraft vibration characteristics.
maintenance records? b. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical
a. After satisfactorily completing maintenance, accessory.
preventive maintenance, rebuilding and c. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making
alteration (excluding inspection) additional seams.
b. After satisfactorily completing inspections 32. Which maintenance record entry best describes the
c. After satisfactorily completing airframe, action taken for a control cable showing
component, or propeller maintenance approximately 20 percent wear on several of the
25. For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the individual outer wires at a fairlead?
following records must be retained and transferred a. Wear within acceptable limits, repair not
with the aircraft when it is sold? necessary.
a. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive b. Removed and replaced the control cable and
maintenance, 100-hour, annual and progressive rerigged the system.
inspections c. Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from
b. Records of inspections performed in accordance fairlead.
with 14 CFR part 43, Appendix D 33. Who is responsible for making the entry in the
c. Records of the current status of applicable AD’s, maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or
and date and time when recurring AD’s are next progressive inspection?
due a. The owner or operator of the aircraft.
 b. The person approving or disapproving for b. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of
return so service. the high-pressure rotor due to the lower density air.
c. The designee or inspector representing the FAA c. low-pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the
Administrator. compressor load decreases in the lower density air.
34. An aircraft was not approved for return to service 6. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?
after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to a. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
fly the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which
b. Turbine, combustion, and stator.
statement is correct?
c. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
a. The owner must obtain a special flight permit.
b. The aircraft may be flown without restriction up 7. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine
to 10 hours to reach another maintenance base. will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to
c. The aircraft becomes a restricted category type a. increase and the velocity to decrease.
until it is approved for return to service. b. increase and the velocity to increase.
35. In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft c. decrease and the velocity to increase.
maintenance records, what is it necessary to 8. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a
establish? function of the
a. Dates of all maintenance, preventive a. number of compressor stages.
maintenance and alterations. b. rotor diameter.
b. Dates and/ or times of all 100-hour, annual, or
c. air inlet velocity.
progressive inspections.
9. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a
c. Total time-in-service of the airframe.
function of the
36. Each person performing an annual or 100-hour
inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least a. number of compressor stages.
those items in the appendix of b. rotor diameter.
a. 14CFR Part 43. c. air inlet velocity.
b. 14CFR Part 65. 10. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff EPR before
c. AC 43.13-3. its EGT limit is reached, this is an indication that the
a. Fuel control must be replaced.
TURBINE ENGINES b. EGT controller is out of adjustment.
1. Turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures c. Compressor may be contaminated or damaged.
generally may NOT be marked with 11. Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest
1. layout dye. advantages for both starting flexibility and improved high-
altitude performance?
2. commercial felt tip marker.
a. Dual-stage, centrifugal-flow.
3. wax or grease pencil.
b. Split-spool, axial-flow.
4. chalk.
c. Single-spool, axial-flow.
5. graphite lead pencil.
12. Who establishes the recommended operating time
a. 1,2, and 3.
between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in general
b. 3 and 5.
aviation?
c. 4and 5.
a. The engine manufacturer.
2. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection
b. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend
must be reinstalled in
analysis) working in conjunction with the FAA.
a. a specified slot 1800 away.
c. The FAA.
b. a specified slot 900 away in the direction of
13. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine
rotation.
propulsion?
c. the same slot.
1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small
3. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine amount of
a. is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul. acceleration to a large mass of air.
b. should be performed parallel to the length of the 2. Tu.rbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large
blade using smooth contours to minimize stress amount of
points. acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
c. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine 3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the
installed, ordinarily using power tools. exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the
4. One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust
to thrust.
a. Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases. a. 1,2,3.
b. Center the fuel spray in the combustion chamber. b. 1,2.
c. Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades c. 1.3.
at the desired angle. 14. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on
5. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet engines are turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause
equipped with two-spool or split compressors. When these a. Profile.
engines are operated at high altitudes, the b. Creep.
a. low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the c. Galling.
compressor load decreases in the lower density air.
15. The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt b. Self-ionizing or shunted-gap type plug.
deposits on compressor blades is called c. Recessed surface gap plug.
a. the soak method. 27. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a
b. field cleaning. convergent nozzle
c. the purging process. a. increases.
16. The stators in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine b. decreases.
a. increase the velocity of the gas flow. c. remains constant.
b. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
c. increase the pressure of the gas flow. 28. When starting a turbine engine,
17. What is the first engine instrument indication of a a. a hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas
successful start of a turbine engine? temperature exceeds specified limits.
a. A rise in the engine fuel flow. b. an excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot
b. A rise in oil pressure. start.
c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature. c. release the starter switch as soon as indication of
18. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle light-off occurs.
located? 29. Hot section inspections for many modern turbine engines
a. Combustion. are required
b. Turbine. a. only at engine overhaul.
c. Exhaust. b. only when an overtemperature or overspeed has
19. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne occurred.
particulates into a turbine engine can result in c. on a time or cycle basis.
a. foreign object damage to the compressor section. 30. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal
b. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of compressor?
the engine. a. Turbine and compressor.
c. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine b. Bucket and expander.
sections. c. Impeller and diffuser.
20. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of 31. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine
the fuel and air? are possible indicators of
a. Combustion section. a. faulty igniter plugs.
b. Compressor section. b. dirty compressor blades.
c. Diffuser section. c. malfunctioning fuel nozzles.
21. Which two elements make up the axial-tlow compressor 32. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the
assembly? efficiency of a turbojet engine?
a. Rotor and stator. a. More turbine wheels can be used.
b. Compressor and manifold. b. Higher compression ratios can be obtained.
c. Stator and diffuser. c. The velocity of the air entering the combustion
22. Three types of turbine blades are chamber is increased.
a. reaction, converging, and diverging. 33. (1) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, each
b. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction. consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades constitutes a
pressure stage.
c. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
(2) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, the number of
23. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning
rows of stages is determined by the amount of air and total
stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is
pressure rise required.
to
Regarding the thove statements,
a. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a
compressor stall. a. only No. 1 is true.
b. control excessively high RPM to prevent a b. only No. 2 is true.
compressor stall. c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
c. vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a 34. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main
compressor stall. sections: the cold section and the hot section.
24. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its (1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor,
a. low starting power requirements. and turbine sections.
b. low weight. (2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and
exhaust sections.
c. high peak efficiency.
Regarding the above statements,
25. Who establishes mandatory replacement times for critical
components of turbine engines? a. only No. 1 is true.
a. The FAA. b. only No. 2 ¡s true.
b. The operator working in conjunction with the FAA. c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
c. The engine manufacturer. 35. If the RPM of an axial-flow compressor remains constant,
the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by
26. What type igniter plug is used in the low tension ignition
system of an aircraft turbofan engine? a. changing the velocity of the airflow.
a. Low voltage, high amperage glow plug. b. changing the compressor diameter.
 c. increasing the pressure ratio. a. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.
36. Which of the following factors affect the thermal b. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion
efficiency of a turbine engine? chambers.
1. Turbine inlet temperature. c. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion
2. Compression ratio. chambers.
3. Ambient temperature. 47. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine
4. Speed of the aircraft. engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their
5. Turbine and compressor efficiency. maintenance manuals as
6. Altitude of the aircraft. a. Pt7.
a. 3, 4, 6. b. Pt2.
b. 1,2,5. c. Tt7.
c. 1.2.6. 48. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is
performed primarily in order to
37. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a
divergent nozzle a. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent
engine bearing wear or damage.
a. increases.
b. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and
b. decreases.
compressor areas for defects or FOD.
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
c. prevent engine performance degradation, increased
38. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine
fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path
blades?
surfaces.
a. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree.
49. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea
b. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge. level temperature is
c. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle a. 59°F
to the edge length.
b. 59°C.
c. 29°C.
39. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant
50. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are
a. volume. usually what type(s)?
b. pressure. a. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
c. density. b. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
40. What is meant by a double entry centrifugal compressor? c. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
a. A compressor that has two intakes. 51. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible
b. A two-stage compressor independently connected to indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or
the main shaft. a. a faulty combustion chamber.
c. A compressor with vanes on both sides of the b. a faulty igniter plug.
impeller.
c. an improperly positioned tail cone.
41. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a
52. What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches
divergent nozzle
fire when starting?
a. increases.
a. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with
b. decreases. the starter.
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature. b. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire
42. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine? extinguisher into the intake.
a. Ignition, starter, fuel. c. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the
b. Starter, ignition, fuel. fire.
c. Starter, fuel, ignition. 53. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates
43. Which of the following types of combustion sections are no change in power setting parameters, but oil temperature is
used in aircraft turbine engines? high?
a. Annular, variable, and cascade vane. a. High scavenge pump oil flow.
b. Can, multiple-can, and variable. b. Engine main bearing distress.
c. Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular. c. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency.
44. Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter 54. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor
should be disengaged a. convert velocity energy into pressure energy.
a. after the engine has reached self-accelerating speed. b. convert pressure energy into velocity energy.
b. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM. c. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the
c. when the ignition and fuel system are activated. proper angle.
45. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is 55. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side
the case and liner removed and installed as one unit during of each turbine wheel are used in the gas turbine engine to
routine maintenance? a. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing
a. Can. past this point.
b. Can annular. b. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line
c. Annular. of the turbine blades.
46. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the c. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing
discharge end of a typical axial-flow compressor? past this point.
56. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is 66. Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine
accomplished in order to compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to
a. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called
contracts around it. a. buckets.
b. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel b. rotors.
lines. c. stators.
c. prevent seizure of the engine bearings. 67. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an
57. What is meant by a shrouded turbine? aircraft gas turbine engine, are called
a. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a. pressurization vanes.
a band or shroud. b. stator vanes.
b. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud c. bleed vanes.
to contain the blades in case of failure.
c. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which 68. Standard sea level pressure is
provides cooling air to the turbine blades. a. 29.00” Hg.
58. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of b. 29.29” Hg.
compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation?
c. 29.92” Hg.
a. Stator vanes and rotor vanes.
69. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will
b. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed usually cause
valves.
a. bowing.
c. Pressurization and dump valves.
b. cracking.
59. In a turbine engine with a dual-spool compressor, the low
c. galling.
speed compressor
70. What is the function of the inlet guide vane assembly on
a. always turns at the same speed as the high speed
an axial-flow compressor?
compressor.
a. Directs the air into the first stage rotor blades at the
b. is connected directly to the high speed compressor.
proper angle.
c. seeks its own best operating speed.
b. Converts velocity energy into pressure energy.
60. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine?
c. Converts pressure energy into velocity energy.
a. At the outlet of the tailpipe section.
71. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow
b. At the entrance of the turbine section. characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by
c. In the entrance of the burner section. a. fir-tree blade attachment.
61. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial- b. impulse type blades.
flow engine is to
c. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
a. reduce vibration.
72. Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly
b. increase tip speed. accomplished by
c. reduce air entrance. a. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a vanes.
turbofan engine? b. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas.
1. Engine overspeed. c. electrical heating elements located within the engine
2. Engine overtemperature. air inlet cowling.
3. Large, rapid throttle movements. 73. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the
4. FOD. compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but
a. 1,2 which of the following?
b. 1,2,3,4 a. Turbine blades.
c. 1,4. b. Casings.
63. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative c. Inlet guide vanes.
deformation of the turbine blades of a turbojet engine? 74. A weak fuel to air mixture along with normal airflow
a. Stretch. through a turbine engine may result in
b. Distortion. a. a rich flameout.
c. Creep. b. a lean die-out.
64. What is the primary advantage of an axial-flow c. high EGT.
compressor over a centrifugal compressor? 75. Newton’s Law of Motion, generally termed the “Law of
a. High frontal area. Momentum,” states:
b. Less expensive. a. Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a
c. Greater pressure ratio. mass. The greater the mass, the greater the amount of
65. In a dual axial-flow compressor, the first stage turbine force needed.
drives b. For every action there is an equal and opposite
a. N(2) compressor. reaction.
b. N(1) compressor. c. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion
c. low pressure compressor. in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside
force.
76. In an axial-flow compressor, one purpose of the stator b. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the
vanes at the discharge end of the compressor is to incoming gas flow.
a. straighten the airflow and eliminate turbulence. c. drives the compressor section.
b. increase the velocity and prevent swirling and 86. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor
eddying. forward fan engine is the same as the
c. decrease the velocity, prevent swirling, and a. low-pressure compressor.
decrease pressure. b. forward turbine wheel.
77. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure c. high-pressure compressor.
ratio of an axial-flow compressor? 87. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant
a. Number of stages in compressor. a. pressure cycle.
b. Compressor inlet pressure. b. temperature cycle.
c. Compressor inlet temperature. c. mass cycle.
78. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine 88. What is the purpose of the dump valve used on aircraft
engine is to gas turbine engines?
a. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise a. The fuel is quickly cut off to the nozzles and the
suppressor. manifolds are drained preventing fuel boiling off as a
b. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single result of residual engine heat.
exhaust jet. b. The valve controls compressor stall by dumping
c. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid compressor bleed air from the compressor discharge
exhaust jet. port under certain conditions.
79. What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade? c. Maintains minimum fuel pressure to the engine fuel
a. The leading edge of the blade. control unit inlet and dumps excessive fuel back to
b. A reduced blade tip thickness. the inlet of the engine-driven fuel pump.
c. The curvature of the blade root. 89. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if
80. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air the engine
density of a turbine engine? a. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
1. Speed of the aircraft. b. fails to reach idle RPM.
2. Compression ratio. c. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.
3. Turbine inlet temperature. 90. The abbreviation Pt7 used in turbine engine terminology
4. Altitude of the aircraft. means
5. Ambient temperature. a. the total inlet pressure.
6. Turbine and compressor efficiency. b. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
a. 1,3,6. c. the total pressure at station No. 7.
b. 1,4,5. 91. When the leading edge of a first-stage turbine blade is
c. 4. 5. 6. found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following
should be suspected?
81. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to
which kind of damage? a. Faulty cooling shield.
a. Scoring. b. Overtemperature condition.
b. Cracking. c. Overspeed condition.
c. Galling. 92. What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in
a turbine engine?
82. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in
aircraft jet engines? a. Impeller and diffuser.
a. Reaction. b. Hot and cold.
b. Impulse. c. Stator and rotor.
c. Impulse-reaction. 93. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the
83. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are a. burner cans.
a. single entry and double entry. b. turbine inlet guide vanes.
b. rotor and stator. c. turbine blades.
c. impeller and diffuser. 94. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive
heat stress, what type of failures would you expect?
84. Newton’s First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law
of Inertia, states: a. Bending and torsion.
a. To every action there is an equal and opposite b. Torsion and tension.
reaction. c. Stress rupture.
b. Force is proportional to the product of mass and 95. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a
acceleration. convergent nozzle
c. Everybody persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a. increases.
a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside b. decreases.
force. c. remains constant.
85. The turbine section of a jet engine 96. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine
a. increases air velocity to generate thrust forces. engine?
a. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
 b. To convert pressure to velocity. as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally
c. To reduce pressure and increase velocity. include
97.Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of 1. layout dye.
turbine engine operation? 2. commercial felt tip marker.
a. Compressor inlet air temperature. 3. wax or grease pencil.
b. Turbine inlet temperature. 4. chalk.
c. Burner-can pressure. 5. graphite lead pencil.
98.In the dual axial-flow or twin spoil compressor system, the a. 1, 2, and 4.
first stage turbine drives the b. 1, 3, and 4.
a. N(1) and N(2) compressors. c. 2.4. and 5.
b. N(2) compressor. 108. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the
c. N(1) compressor. compressor section of a turbine engine?
a. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
b. Control the direction of the airflow.
99. Which of the following engine variables is the most c. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
critical during turbine engine operation? 109. Why do some turbine engines have more than one
a. Compressor inlet air temperature. turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
b. Compressor RPM. a. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
c. Turbine inlet temperature. b. To help stabilize the pressure between the
100. (1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating compressor and the turbine.
airfoils does not require special equipment. c. To extract more power from the exhaust gases than
(2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating a single wheel can absorb.
airfoils is commonly recommended by the manufacturer. 110. Which of the following influences the operation of an
Regarding the above statements, automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine?
a. only No. 1 is true. a. Burner pressure.
b. only No. 2 is true. b. Mixture control position.
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. c. Exhaust gas temperature.
101. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a 111. (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor of a
turbojet engine? turbojet engine reduces aerodynamic efficiency of the blades.
a. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the (2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits from
tailpipe. turbojet engine compressor blades are a fluid wash and an
b. Supplies the power to turn the compressor. abrasive grit blast.
c. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases. Regarding the above statements
102. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to a. only No. 1 is true.
operating damage than compressor blades because of b. only No. 2 is true.
a. higher centrifugal loading. c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
b. exposure to high temperatures.
c. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.
103. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller 112. The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between
bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise have no a. the burner section and the turbine section.
defects, they b. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
a. cannot be used again. c. the compressor section and the burner section.
b. are in an acceptable service condition. 113. The compressor stators in a gas turbine engine act as
c. must be degaussed before use. diffusers to
104. Stator blades in the compressor section of an axial-flow a. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
turbine engine b. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
a. increase the air velocity and prevent swirling. c. increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of
b. straighten the airflow and accelerate it. the gas.
c. decrease the air velocity and prevent swirling. 114. Which statement is true regarding jet engines?
105. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been a. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly
replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine? with small increases in RPM.
a. Perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow. b. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly
b. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles. with small increases in RPM.
c. Retrim the engine. c. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is
106. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a less at high altitude than at low altitude.
turbine engine is 115. The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to
a. used to support combustion and to cool the engine. a. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.
b. entirely combined with fuel and burned. b. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity.
c. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. c. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure.
107. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed 116. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on
to high temperatures may only be marked with such materials both sides of the impeller is a
 a. double entry centrifugal compressor. b. Detonation
b. double entry axial-flow compressor. c. Hard starting
c. single entry axial-flow compressor.
117. condition known as ‘hot streaking’ in turbine engines is 8. When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing,
caused by it is important to
a. Test the brakes
a. a partially clogged fuel nozzle.
b. Closely monitor the instruments
b. a misaligned combustion liner.
c. Notify the control tower
c. excessive fuel flow. 9. Generally, when an induction fire occurs during
118. An advantage of the centrifugal-flow compressor is its starting of a reciprocating engine, the first course of
high action should be to
a. pressure rise per stage. a. Discharge carbon dioxide from a fire
b. ram efficiency. extinguisher into the air intake of the engine
c. peak efficiency. b. Continue cranking and start the engine if
119. At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures the possible
greatest? c. Close the throttle
a. Compressor inlet. 10. The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed
engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control
b. Turbine outlet.
lever in the
c. Compressor outlet.
a. IDLE-CUTOFF position
120. At what point in an axial-flow turbojet engine will the b. AUTO-RICH position
highest gas pressures occur? c. FULL-RICH position
a. At the turbine entrance. 11. A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the
b. Within the burner section. pilot’s field of vision whenever the engine is running
c. At the compressor outlet. in order to avoid
a. The tail rotor
b. The main rotor
GROUND OPERATIONS &SERVICING
c. Blowing dust or debris caused by rotor
1. If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine
downwash
powerplant, what is the likely cause? 12. When taxiing (or Towing) an aircraft, a flashing red
a. The starting unit overheated
light from the control tower means
b. The ambient air temperature was too high (over
a. Stop and wait for a green light
100 degrees F)
b. Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately
c. The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich
c. Return to starting point
2. Which of the following is the most satisfactory
13. The color of 100LL fuel is
extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake
a. Blue
fire?
b. Colorless or straw
a. Dry chemical c. Red
b. A fine, water mist
14. Characteristics of aviation gasoline ae
c. Carbon dioxide
a. High heat value, high volatility
3. Jet fuel number identifiers are
b. High heat value, low volatility
a. Performance numbers to designate the volatility
c. Low heat value, low volatility
of the fuel
15. The most important condition to be monitored during
b. Performance numbers and are relative to the
start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the
fuel’s performance in the aircraft engine
a. EGT, TIT or ITT
c. Type numbers and have no relation to the fuel’s b. RPM
performance in the aircraft engine c. Oil pressure
4. When stopping a nosewheel-type airplane after
16. During starting of a turbine powerplant using a
taxiing (or towing), the nosewheel should be left
compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select
a. Unlocked and pointed straight ahead
the proper procedure
b. Turned at a small angle towards uphill if the
a. Advance power lever to increase RPM
parking area is not perfectly flat
b. Re-engage the starter
c. Pointed straight ahead
c. Shut the engine down
5. Weathervaning tendency is greatest when taxiing
17. Characteristics of detonation are
a. Both nosewheel and tailwheel-type airplanes in
a. Cylinder pressure remains the same, excessive
a quartering tailwind
cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in
b. A tailwheel-type airplane in a direct crosswind
engine power
c. A nosewheel-type airplane in a quartering
b. Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive
headwind
cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in
6. A hung start in a jet engine is often caused by
engine power
a. Malfunctions in the ignition system
c. Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head
b. The starter cutting off too soon
temperature normal, and a decrease in engine
c. An excessively rich fuel/air mixture power
7. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can
18. Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages
cause
for use as turbine fuel. Which statement is true in
a. Vapor lock
reference to the advantages of each?
 a. Kerosene has a higher heat energy/ value per b. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms
unit weight than gasoline deposits on the turbine blades
b. Gasoline has a higher heat energy/ value per unit c. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms
volume than kerosene deposits on the compressor blades
c. Kerosene has a higher heat energy/ value per 28. When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing
unit volume than gasoline white light from the control tower means
19. When taxiing an airplane with a quartering tailwind, a. Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately
the elevators and b. Ok to proceed but use extreme caution
a. Upwind aileron should be held in the up position c. Return to starting point
b. Upwind aileron should be held in the down 29. The main differences between grades 100 and 100
position LL fuel are
c. Both ailerons should be kept in the neutral a. Volatility and lead content
position b. Volatility, lead content and color
20. Why is ethylene dibromide added to aviation c. Lead content and color
gasoline?
a. To remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark 30. When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating
plugs red and green light from the control tower means
b. To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder a. Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately
combustion chambers b. OK to proceed but use extreme caution
c. To increase the antiknock rating of the fuel c. Return to starting point
21. When approaching the front of an idling jet engine, 31. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause
the hazard area extends forward of the engine a. Hard starting
approximately b. Detonation
a. 10 feet c. Vapor lock
b. 15 feet 32. When starting and ground operating an aircraft’s
c. 25 feet engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into
22. Which statement below reflects a typical the wind primarily
requirement when towing some aircraft? a. To aid achieving and maintaining the proper air
a. Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent flow into the engine induction system
accidental operation of the nosewheel steering b. For engine cooling purposes
mechanism c. To help cancel out engine torque effect
b. Tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards 33. Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to
c. If the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the a. Retard the formation of corrosives
torque-link lock should be set to full swivel b. Improve the gasoline’s performance in the
23. What must accompany fuel vaporization? engine
a. An absorption of heat c. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
b. A decrease in vapor pressure 34. When towing a large aircraft
c. A reduction in volume a. A person should be in the cockpit to watch for
24. When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet or obstructions
turbofan engine, the hazard area extends aft of the b. Persons should be stationed at the nose, each
engine approximately wingtip, and the empennage at all times
a. 200 feet c. A person should be in the cockpit to operate the
b. 100 feet brakes
c. 50 feet 35. (1) Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation
25. How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float-type gasoline and therefore holds contaminations better,
carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel? (2) Viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel
a. Crank the engine with the starter o by hand, with Regarding the above statement,
the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off, a. Only no. 1 is true
and the throttle fully open, until the fuel charge b. Both No.1 and No.2 is true
has been cleared c. Neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
b. Turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue 36. Which of the following conditions has the most
the starting attempt until the excess fuel has potential for causing engine damage when starting os
cleared attempting to start a turbine engine?
c. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, a. Hung start
with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition b. Cold start
switch on, and the throttle fully open, until the c. Hot start
excess fuel has cleared or until the engine starts 37. Which statement (s) is/are true regarding tiedown of
26. How are aviation fuels, which possess greater small aircraft?
antiknock qualities than 100 octanes, classified? 1. Manila (hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch
a. According to the milliliters of lead when it gets wet
b. By reference to normal heptane 2. Nylon or dacron rope is preferred to manila rope
c. By performance numbers 3. The aircraft should be headed downwind in
27. What effect, if any, will aviation gasoline mixed order to eliminate or minimize wing lift
with jet fuel have on a turbine engine? 4. Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked
a. No appreciable effect a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
 c. 2 a. Soak in a 20 percent caustic soda solution
b. Spray with MEK ( methyl ethyl ketone)
38. If a radial engine has been shut down for more than c. Wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize,
30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through and scrape or grip blast
at least two revolutions to 10. Why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after
a. Check for hydraulic lock the corrosion preventive mixture has been put into
b. Check for leaks the cylinders on engines prepared for storage?
c. Prime the engine a. Fuel may be drawn into one or more cylinders
and dilute or wash off the corrosion preventive
mixture
CLEANING AND CORROSION CONTROL
b. The seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be
1. (1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or
broken
dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes
c. Engine damage can occur from hydraulic lock
(2) In the Galvanic or Electro-Chemical Series for
11. For which of the following reasons would a water
metals, the most anodic metals are those that will
break test be conducted?
give up electrons most easily
a. To make certain that a newly alodized
Regarding the above statements
aluminum surface is sufficiently coated
a. Only No.1 is true
b. To make certain that a bare metal surface is
b. Only No.2 is true
thoroughly clean
c. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
c. To make certain that an anodizing coating has
2. A non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum
been sufficiently removed before an electrical
alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint-
bonding connection be made
bonding qualities is called
12. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due
a. Anodizing
to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the
b. Alodizing
pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is
c. Dichromating
called
3. When an anodized surface coating is damaged in
a. Brinelling
service, it can be partially restored by
b. Granulation
a. Applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer
c. Exfoliation
b. Chemical surface treatment
13. Which of the following are acceptable to use when
c. Use of a suitable mild cleaner
utilizing chemical cleaning agents on aircraft?
4. Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum
a. Synthetic fiber wiping cloths when using a
structures have the effect of producing
flammable agent
a. Passive oxidation
b. Cotton fiber wiping cloths when using
b. Improved corrosion resistance
flammable agent
c. Corrosion
c. Atomizing spray equipment
5. The interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing
a. 2 and 3
would be best protected against corrosion by which
b. 1
of the following?
c. 2
a. Charging the tubing with dry nitrogen prior to
14. Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur
sealing
a. When two surfaces fit tightly together but can
b. Evacuating moisture from the tubing before
move relative to one another
sealing
b. Only when two dissimilar metals are in contact
c. A coating of linseed oil
c. When two surfaces fit loosely together and can
6. What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration
move relative to one another
when oil or grease comes in contact with a tire?
15. Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces
a. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth, and
which have been affected by electrolyte should be
then rinse with clean water
neutralized with a solution
b. Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a
a. Boric acid
wash down and rinse with soap and water
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with
c. Potassium hydroxide
aromatic naphtha and then wipe dry with a clean
16. Which of these materials is the most anodic?
cloth
a. Cadmium
7. One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress
b. 7075-T6 aluminum alloy
corrosion cracking is by
c. Magnesium
a. Relieving compressive stresses (via heat
17. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is
treatment) on the metal surface
a. Improper heat treatment
b. Creating compressive stresses (via shot peening)
b. Dissimilar metal contact
on the metal surface
c. Improper application of primer
c. Producing nonuniform deformation while cold
18. Which of the following is an acceptable first step
working during the manufacturing process
procedure to help prevent scratching when cleaning a
8. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of
transparent plastic surface?
a. Excessive anodization
a. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, dry, soft
b. Contact between two unlike metals
cloth
c. Excessive etching
b. Flush the surface with clean water
9. How many magnesium engine parts be cleaned?
 c. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, soft cloth b. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a
moistened with de-mineralized or distilled water cathodic area
19. Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber c. The presence of a passive oxide film
a. Aliphatic naphtha 28. Flayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning
b. Methyl ethyl ketone because of the danger of
c. Aromatic naphtha a. Forming passive oxides
20. Which of the following are the desired effects of b. Entrapping corrosive materials
using Alodine on aluminum alloy? c. Corrosion by imbedded iron oxide
1. A slightly rough surface 29. Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts
2. Relived surface stresses a. May be detected by surface pitting, and white,
3. A smooth painting surface powdery deposit formed on the surface of the
4. Increased corrosion resistance metal
a. 3 and 4 b. Commonly appears ad threadlike filaments of
b. 1,2 and 4 corrosion products under a dense film of paint
c. 1 and 4 c. Cannot always be detected by surface
21. Spilled mercury on aluminum indications
a. Greatly increases susceptibility to hydrogen 30. What may be used to remove corrosion from highly
embrittlement stressed steel surfaces?
b. May cause impaired corrosion resistance if left a. Steel wire brushes
in prolonged contact b. Fine-grit aluminum oxide
c. Causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very c. Medium-grit carborundum paper
difficult to control 31. Which of these materials is the most cathodic?
22. Of the following, when and/or where is galvanic a. Zinc
corrosion is most likely to occur? b. 2024 aluminum alloy
a. When an electrolyte (water) covers the surface c. Stainless steel
of an aluminum skin, seeps into the cracks 32. Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and
between lap joints, and oxygen is exclude from severe when
the area a. The surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller
b. At the interface of a steel fastener and aluminum than surface area of the anodic metal
alloy inspection plate in the presence of an b. The surface areas of the anodic and cathodic
electrolyte metals are approximately the same
c. In an area of unprotected metal exposed to an c. The surface area of the anodic metal is smaller
atmosphere containing battery fumes, exhaust than the surface area of the cathodic metal
gases, or industrial contaminants 33. Which of the following ae acceptable to use in
23. Which of the following may not be detectable even cleaning anodized surfaces?
by careful visual inspection of the surface of 1. Steel wool
aluminum alloy parts or structures? 2. Brass wire brush
a. Filiform corrosion 3. Aluminum wool
b. Intergranular corrosion 4. Stainless steel wire brush
c. Uniform etch corrosion 5. Fiber bristle brush
24. Select the solvent recommended for wipe down of a. 1,3, & 5
cleaned surfaces just before painting b. 2 & 4
a. Aliphatic naphtha c. 3 & 5
b. Dry-cleaning solvent 34. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts
c. Aromatic naphtha with a
25. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals is a. Stiff, nonmetallic brush
the result of b. Silicon carbide brush
a. A tendency for them to return to their natural c. Carborundum abrasive
state
b. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous
RECIPROCATING ENGINES
metals, or between dissimilar metals
c. Electron flow in or between metals from 1. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a
cathodic to anodic areas conventional reciprocating engine?
26. A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise non- a. When the piston has reached top dead
approved cleaning compounds should not be used center of the intake stroke.
when washing aircraft is because their use can result b. Shortly before the piston reaches the top
in of the compression stroke.
a. Hydrogen embrittlement in metal structures c. When the piston reaches top dead center
b. Hydrogen embrittlement in nonmetallic on the compression stroke.
materials
c. A general inability to remove compound
residues 2. Direct mechanical push-pull carburetor heat control
27. Which of the listed conditions in NOT one of the linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop
requirements for corrosion to occur? located on the diverter valve will be contacted
a. The presence of an electrolyte
 a. before the stop at the control lever is 10. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic
reached in both HOT and COLD lifters, when the lifters are completely flatl, or
positions. empty, should not exceed
b. before the stop at the control lever ¡s a. 0.00 inch
reached in the HOT position and after the b. a specified amount above zero.
stop at the control lever is reached in the c. a specified amount below zero.
COLD position. 11. What does valve overlap promote?
a. Lower intake manifold pressure and
c. after the stoD at the control lever is
temperatures.
reached in both HOT and COLD
b. A backflow of gases across the cylinder.
positions.
c. Better scavenging and cooling characteristics.
3. At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder 12. During ground check an engine is found to be
of a four-stroke cycle engine is to be fired 200 times rough-running, the magneto drop is normal, and the
a minute? manifold pressure is higher than normal for any
a. 800 RPM. given RPM. The trouble may be caused by
b. 1,600 RPM. a. Several spark plugs fouled on different
c. 400 RPM. cylinders.
b. a leak in the intake manifold.
4. Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine
c. a dead cylinder.
a. increases valve overlap. 13. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine ,
b. increases valve opening time. a deposit of small , bright , metallic particles which
c. decreases valve overlap. do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered
in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter.
5. On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally
This condition
operating engine will the greatest amount of wear
a. may be a result of abnormal plain type
occur?
bearing wear and is cause for further
a. Near the center of the cylinder where piston
investigation.
velocity is greatest.
b. is probably a result of ring and cylinder
b. Near the top of the cylinder.
wall wear and is cause for engine removal
c. Wear is normally evenly distributed.
and/ or overhaul.
6. During the inspection of an engine control system in
c. is normal in engines utilizing plain type
which push-pull control rods are used, the threaded
bearings and aluminum pistons and is not
rod ends should
cause for alarm.
a. insure that the safety wire passes thru the hole
14. Master rod bearings are generally what type?
in shank of the rod-end.
a. Plain
b. Be checked for the thread engagement of at
b. Roller
least two threads but more than four threads.
c. Ball
c. Be checked for the amount of thread
15. A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the
engagement by means of the inspection holes.
propeller is being pulled through manually indicates
7. Some aircraft engine manufactures equip their
a. a cracked exhaust stack
product with choked or taper-ground cylinders in
b. exhaust valve blow-by
order to
c. worn piston rings
a. Provide a straight cylinder bore at operating
16. If the exhaust valve of a four – stroke cycle engine is
temperatures.
closed and the intake valve is just closed , the
b. Flex the rings slightly during operation and
piston is on the
reduce the possibility of the rings sticking in the
a. intake stroke
grooves.
b. power stroke
c. Increase the compression pressure for starting
c. compression stroke
purposes.
17. When will small induction system air leaks have the
8. An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine,
most noticeable effect on engine operation?
operated at full throttle from sea level, to 10,000
a. At high RPM.
feet, provided the RPM is unchanged, will
b. At maximum continuous and takeoff power
a. Lose power due to the reduced volume of air
settings.
drawn into the cylinders.
c. At low RPM.
b. Produce constant power due to the same volume
18. What special procedure must be followed when
of air drawn into the cylinders.
adjusting the values of an engine equipped with a
c. Lose power due to the reduce density of the air
floating cam ring?
drawn into the cyclinders.
a. Adjust valves when the engine is hot.
9. As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating
b. Adjust all exhaust valves before intake
engine compression check using a differential
valves.
pressure tester, what would a movement of the
c. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when
propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate?
making valve adjustment.
a. The piston was on compression stroke.
b. The piston was on exhaust stroke.
19. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of
c. The piston was positioned past top dead center.
crankshaft travel
a. during which both valves are off their seats.
 b. between the closing of the intake valve and 29. The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a
the opening of the exhaust valve. reciprocating engine is known as the
c. during which both valves ate on their seats. a. shaft horsepower
b. indicated horsepower
c. brake horsepower
20. Which of the following engine servicing operations 30. An increase in manifold pressure with a constant
generally requires engine pre-oiling prior to starting RPM will cause the bearing load in an engine to
the engine? a. decrease
a. Engine oil and filter change. b. remain relatively constant
b. Engine installation. c. increase
c. Replacement of oil lines. 31. Which of the following will decrease volumetric
21. What is the best indication of worn valve guides? efficiency in a reciprocating engine?
a. High oil consumption. 1. Full throttle operation.
b. Low compression 2. Low cylinder head temperatures.
c. Low oil pressure. 3. Improper valve timing.
22. How may it be determined that a reciprocating 4. Sharp bends in the induction system.
engine with a dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently? 5. High carburetor air temperatures.
a. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate a. 2,4, and 5
normal oil pressure. b. 1,2,3, and 4
b. Oil will flow from engine return line or c. 3,4, and 5
indicator port. 32. A nine –cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches
c. When the quantity of oil specified by the and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston
manufacturer has been pumped into the displacement of
engine. a. 740 cubic inches
23. If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or b. 1,425 cubic inches
oil filler during a differential compression check, c. 1,283 cubic inches
What is this an indication of? 33. The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing
a. Exhaust valve leakage and overlap is to
b. Intake valve leakage a. permit the best possible charge of fuel / air
c. Piston ring leakage. mixture into the cylinders.
24. Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of b. gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging.
valve opening to c. obtain the best volumetric efficiency and
a. increase for both intake and exhaust valves. lower cylinder operating temperatures.
b. decrease for both intake and exhaust
valves.
c. decrease for intake valves and decrease for 34. Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked
exhaust valves. 1. during engine overhaul.
25. Which statement is correct regarding a four- stroke 2. during annual inspection.
cycle aircraft engine? 3. after a “prop strike” or sudden engine stoppage.
a. The intake valve closes on the compassion 4. during 100 – hour inspection.
stroke. a. 1,3 and 4
b. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust b. 1 and 3
stroke. c. 1,2 and 3.
c. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke. 35. A condition that can occur in radial engines but is
26. A characteristic of dyna- focal engine mounts as unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is
applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the a. oil- fouled spark plug
a. shock mounts eliminate the torsional b. valve overlap.
flexing of the powerplant. c. hydraulic lock.
b. engine attaches to the shock mount at the 36. Which statement is true regarding bearings used in
engine’s center of gravity. high-powered reciprocating aircraft engines?
c. shock mount point toward the engine’s a. The outer race of a single-row,self –
center of gravity. aligning ball bearing will always have a
27. Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true? radius equal to the radius of the balls.
a. The mixture ratio which gives the best b. There is less rolling friction when ball
power is richer than the mixture ratio bearings are used than when roller bearings
which gives maximum economy. are employed.
b. A rich mixture is faster burning than a c. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the
normal mixture. ball-type due to their ability to withstand
c. The mixture ratio which gives maximum extreme loads without overheating.
economy may also be designated as best 37. Excessive valve clearance results in the valves
power mixture. opening
28. One cause of afterfiring in an aircraft engine is
a. late and closing early.
a. sticking intake valves.
b. early and closing late.
b. an excessively lean mixture.
c. an excessively rich mixture. c. late and closing late.
 38. What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps 47. By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is
happen to be aligned when performing a differential- determined that the
pressure compression check on a cylinder? No. 3 cylinder of a nine-cylinder radial engine will not hold
a. Little or no effect. pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 2600 from top
b. The rings will not be seated. dead center compression stroke
c. A worn or defective ring(s) indication. No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be
39. Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the interpreted?
engine to a. A normal indication.
a. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific b. Exhaust valve blow-by.
altitude. c. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust
b. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and valve clearance.
low weight per horsepower ratio. 48. One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine
c. run smoothly and give the desired combustion chamber
performance at all speeds. problems is
40. An engine misses in both the right and left positions a. excessive engine vibration.
of the magneto switch. The quickest method for b. starting difficulties.
locating the trouble is to c. spark plug condition.
a. check for one oi more cold cylinders. 49. If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either
b. perform a compression check. LEFT or RIGHT during a magneto check, a normal operation
c. check each spark plug. is usually indicated by
41. After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been a. no change in RPM.
serviced, in what position should they be reinstalled? b. momentary interruption of both ignition systems.
a. Next in firing order to the one from which they c. slight drop in RPM.
were removed. 50. The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an
b. Swapped bottom to top. opposed engine is
c. Next in firing order to the one from which they to
were removed and swapped bottom to top. a. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the
42. Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a greatest extent possible.
feather edge is likely to result in b. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far
a. normal operation and long life. apart as possible in order to obtain the greatest
b. excessive valve clearance. mechanical efficiency.
c. preignition and burned valves. c. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as
43. Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an close as possible in order to obtain the greatest
increased tendency to detonate? mechanical efficiency.
1. High manifold pressure. 51. Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the
2. High intake air temperature. incoming air to a
3. Engine overheated. reciprocating engine will normally result in which of the
4. Late ignition timing. following?
a. 1,2,3. a. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and
manifold pressure.
b. 1,2,3,4.
b. Increased power output due to increased volumetric
c. 1,4
efficiency.
44. Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from
c. A leaning effect on engines which use non-automatic
0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine
carburetors.
cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch.
52. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the
This is because aircraft engine cylinders
engine is cold, what
a. have more limited cooling capacity.
will occur during operation of the engine?
b. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided.
a. The valves will open early and close early.
c. operate at high temperatures.
b. The valves will open late and close early.
45. The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft
c. The valves will open early and close late.
engines is to
53. Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine
a. equalize side pressure on the valve stems.
temperature (all
b. eliminate valve spring surge.
other factors remaining constant)?
c. equalize valve face loading.
a. A mixture leaner than a rich best-power mixture of
.085.
b. A mixture richer than a full-rich mixture of .087.
c. A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of .060.
46. What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the
54. What is the principal advantage of using propeller
crankcase of a reciprocating engine?
reduction gears?
a. Plugged crankcase breather.
a. To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without
b. Improper warmup operation. an accompanying increase in engine RPM.
c. An excessive quantity of oil.
 b. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an 64. The floating control thermostat, used on some
accompanying increase in power and allow the reciprocating engine
propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient RPM. installations, helps regulate oil temperature by
c. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an a. controlling oil flow through the oil cooler.
accompanying increase in propelter RPM. b. recirculating hot oil back through the sump.
55. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing? c. controlling air flow through the oil cooler.
a. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine). 65. Which of the following would most likely cause a
b. Master rod bearing (radial engine). reciprocating engine to
c. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine). backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation?
56. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle a. Idle mixture too rich.
reciprocating b. Clogged derichment valve.
aircraft engine open? c. Lean mixture.
a. Power and exhaust. 66. What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating
b. Intake and compression. engine?
c. Exhaust and intake. a. To check magneto drop.
57. To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a b. To determine satisfactory performance.
constant-speed c. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate.
propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, the 67. To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea
a. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control level pressure?
before the RPM is reduced with the propeller a. Critical altitude.
control. b. Service ceiling.
b. manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller c. Pressure altitude.
control before the RPM is reduced with the throttle
68. Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been
control.
shut down for more
c. RPM is reduced with the propeller control before the
than 30 minutes,
manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle
a. turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions
control.
in the opposite direction of normal rotation to check
58. Which of the following would indicate a general weak-
for liquid lock.
engine condition when operated with a fixed-pitch propeller
b. turn the ignition switch on before energizing the
or test club?
starter.
c. turn the propeller by hand three to four revolutions in
a. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle
the normal direction of rotation to check for liquid
operation.
lock.
b. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static
69. If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial indicator are
RPM.
plus .002 inch
c. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given
and minus .003 inch, the runout is
RPM.
a. .005 inch.
59. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by
b. pIus .001 inch.
a. nitriding.
c. minus .001 inch.
b. shot peening.
c. tempering.
70. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow motion
60. Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine
between the pin and
increase with a greater number of cylinders?
a. the piston.
a. The power impulses are spaced closer together.
b. both the piston and the large end of the connecting
b. The power impulses are spaced farther apart.
rod.
c. The engine has larger counterbalance weights.
c. both the piston and the small end of the connecting
61. Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust rod.
bearing used in most radial engines?
71. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are
a. Tapered roller. usually degreased
b. Double-row ball. with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water-
c. Deep-groove ball. mixed degreasers
62. Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by primarily because
failed or failing engine bearings? a. solvent degreasers are much more effective.
a. Excessive oil consumption. b. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil
b. High oil temperatures. contamination in the overhauled engine.
c. Low oil temperatures. c. water-rn i xed deg rea sers cause corrosion.
63. Valve clearance changes on opposed-type engines using
hydraulic lifters are accomplished by
a. rocker arm adjustment. 72. When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an
b. rocker arm replacement. aircraft reciprocating engine?
c. push rod replacement.
 a. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning of 80. Backfiring through the carburetor generally results from
the intake stroke. the use of
b. At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of a. an excessively lean mixture.
the exhaust stroke. b. excessively atomized fuel.
c. At the end of the compression stroke and the c. an excessively rich mixture.
beginning of the power stroke. 81. Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect
73. Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts? on carburetion,
a. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the resulting in a reduction of engine power by
dynamic vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating a. excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture.
engine. b. excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture.
b. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the c. reducing fuel vaporization.
torsional vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating
engine.
82. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead
c. Moveable counterweights are designed to resonate at
to detonation?
the natural frequency of the crankshaft.
a. Late ignition timing.
74. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the
b. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating.
piston îs at bottom
c. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating.
center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the
volume equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression 83. How many of the following are factors in establishing the
ratio? maximum compression
a. 1 : 7 ratio limitations of an aircraft engine?
b. 7 : 10 1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used.
c. 7 : 1 2. Design limitations of the engine.
75. Which of the following is most likely to occur if an 3. Degree of supercharging.
overhead valve engine is operated with inadequate valve 4. Spark plug reach.
clearances?
a. The valves will not seat positively during start and a. Four.
engine warmup. b. Two.
b. The further decrease in valve clearance that occurs c. THREE
as engine temperatures increase will cause damage to 84. Cam-ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines
the valve-operating mechanism. to
c. The valves will remain closed for longer periods a. provide a better fit at operating temperatures.
than specified by the engine manufacturer. b. act as a compensating feature so that a compensated
76. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an magneto is not required.
inspection, c. equalize the wear on all pistons
a. It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the 85. What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled
particles are nonferrous. exhaust valves in
b. the cause should be identified and corrected before aircraft reciprocating engines?
the aircraft is released for flight. a. Increased strength and resistance to cracking.
c. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the b. Reduced valve operating temperatures.
deposit exceeds a specified amount.
c. Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve
77. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order temperatures.
of their occurrence are
86. The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial
a. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust. engine as compared to
b. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust. cold valve clearance is
c. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust. a. greater.
78. Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke b. less.
cycle engine, and the
c. the same.
intake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many degrees of
87. When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it
crankshaft travel after
is inadvisable to soak
ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder
them in solutions containing soap because
only.)
a. some of the soap will become impregnated in the
a. 707°.
surface of the material and subsequently cause
b. 373°. engine oil contamination and foaming.
c. 347°. b. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing
79. What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when them to become more susceptible to corrosion.
performing an annual/100- c. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal
hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft? electrolytic action if they are placed together in the
a. Magneto timing check. solution for more than a few minutes.
b. Cylinder compression check. 89. Using the following information, determine how many
c. Valve clearance check. degrees the crankshaft
will rotate with both the intake and exhaust valves seated.
Intake opens 15°: BTDC. engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
Exhaust opens 700: BBDC. a. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure.
Intake closes 45°: ABDC. b. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle
Exhaust closes 10°: ATDC. to obtain the correct RPM.
a. 290°. c. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM.
b. 245°. 98. Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve
c. 25°. clearance of a
90. What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine?
rotation in degrees? a. Reduced valve overlap period.
a. Dial indicator. b. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close
b. Timing disk. late.
c. Prop Protractor. c. A power increase by shortening the exhaust event.
91. How îs proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings 99. If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of
assured during the operation of a four
overhaul of an engine? stroke cycle engine, it may result in
a. By accurately measuring and matching the outside a. im proper scavenging of exhaust gases.
diameter of the rings with the inside diameter of the b. engine kickback.
cylinders. c. backfiring into the induction system.
b. By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer. 100. (1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing.
c. By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring (2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion
the end-gap with a feeler gauge. chamber becomes
92. An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture in advance of
lifters is observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating normal timed
mechanism after the minimum inlet ignition.
oil and cylinder head temperatures for takeoff have been Regarding the above statements,
reached. When can a. only No. 1 is true.
this condition be expected? b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
a. During normal operation. c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
b. When the lifters become deflated. 101. If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position
c. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming trapped in in the cylinder
the lifter and restricting its otion. should the piston be?
93. Compression ratio is the ratio between the a. Bottom dead center.
a. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the b. Top dead center.
intake stroke. c. Halfway between top and bottom dead center.
b. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion 102. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are
stroke and on the exhaust stroke. checked for stretch
c. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center a. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
and at top dead center. b. with a contour or radius gauge.
94. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timîng is correct, the c. by placing the valve on a surface plate and
combustion measuring its length with a vernier height gauge.
process should be completed 103. The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft
a. 20 to 300 before top center at the end of the engine is called
compression stroke. a. friction horsepower.
b. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the b. brake horsepower.
power stroke. c. indicated horsepower
c. just after top center at the beginning of the power 104. If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000
stroke. RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder will be
95. If an engine operates with a low oil pressure and a high oil a. at maximum velocity around TDC.
temperature, the b. constant during the entire 360° of crankshaft travel.
problem may be caused by a c. at maximum velocity 90° after TDC.
a. leaking oil dilution valve. 105. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range
b. sheared oil pump shaft. from zero to normal
c. clogged oil cooler annular jacket. operating pressure, the most likely cause is
96. What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is a. low oi supply.
operated at high power b. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
settings before it is properly warmed up? c. air lock in the scavenge pump intake.
a. Oil starvation of bearings and other parts.
b. Excessive thinning of the engine oil. 106. What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on
some valve stems?
c. Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation.
a. To hold the valve guide in position.
97. What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the
b. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in
power output of an
position.
 c. To prevent valves from falling into the combustion 8. In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized
chamber. with turbine-engine compressor bleed air, which unit
107. If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir.
normal operating a. Relief valve.
temperatures, the b. Air bleed relief valve.
a. oil system relief valve should be readjusted. c. Air pressure regulator.
b. engines lubrication system is probably operating 9. Quick – disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems
normally. provide a means of
a. Easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where
c. oil dilution system should be turned on immediately.
leaks are common.
108. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated
b. Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic
cylinders.
lines and eliminate the possibility of
(2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders.
contaminates entering the system.
Regarding the above statements,
c. Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic
a. only No. 1 is true. lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into
b. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. the system.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 10. Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic
fluid may be cleaned with
a. Stoddard solvent.
HYDRAULIC &PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEM b. Naphtha
c. Carbon tetrachloride
1. A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an
11. Characteristic of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid are
accumulator usually indicates
a. Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire
a. Air in the fluid.
resistant uses butyl rubber seals.
b. Too much preload in the accumulator.
b. Blue color, will burl, uses natural rubber seals.
c. To low or no preload in the accumulator.
c. Red color, petroleum base will burn uses
2. (1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic system as
synthetic rubber seals
damage-preventing units.
12. Some hydraulic system incorporate a device which is
(2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and
designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in
pneumatic systems. Regarding the above statements
the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an
a. both no.1 and no.2 are true.
established rate. This device is generally referred to as a
b. neither no.1 and nor no.2 is true.
a. Hydraulic fuse
c. only no.1 is true.
b. Flow regulator
3. The main system pressure relief valve in a simple
c. Metering check valve
hydraulic system equipped with a power control valve
13. A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be
should be adjusted.
detected by
a. With the power control valve held in the Closed
a. Hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain
position.
line
b. While one or more actuating units are in
b. Evidence of hydraulic fluid combined in the
operation.
engine oil.
c. With the power control valve in the OPEN
c. The presence of hydraulic fluid around the
position
pump mounting pad.
4. Hydraulic accumulator is charge with an air preload of
14. (1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic system, use the
1000 PSI. when a hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI
type fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer’s
is developed, the pressure on the air side of the
maintenance manual or on the instructions plate affixed
accumulator will be
to the reservoir or unit.
a. 1000psi
(2)Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed as specific
b. 3000psi
color for each type of fluid regarding the statement
c. 4000psi
a. only No. 1 is true
5. Which seals are with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?
b.only No. 2 is true
a. Polyester
c.both No.1 and 2 are true
b. Butyl rubber
c. Buna-N
6. What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic motors 15. If two actuating cylinder which have the same cross-
over electric motors? sectional area but different lengths of stroke connected to
a. They are considerably quieter in operation. the same source of hydraulic pressure they will exert
b. There is no fire hazard if the motor s is stalled. a. Different amounts of force but will move at the
c. They are satisfactory over a wider temperature same rate of speed.
range. b. Equal amounts of force will move at different
7. An emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the rate speed
main hydraulic system reservoir by the use of a c. Equal amounts of force and will move at the
standpipe. The supply line is connected to the same rate of speed.
a. Inlet the main hydraulic system. 16. The internal resistance of fluid which tend to prevent it
b. Inlet of the emergency pump. from flowing is called
c. Outlet of the main system pump. a. Volatility
b. Viscosity
c. Acidity
17. When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units b. Shuttle.
fail to function properly. How are most systems protected c. Selector.
against over pressure 27. Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic
a. A shear section on the main hydraulic pump reservoir , in order to service the system, you must
drive shaft a. Relieve the hydraulic system pressure.
b. One or more hydraulic fuses installed in the b. Pressurized all hydraulic components in the
pressure and return lines system.
c. A shuttle valve interconnecting the main and c. Relieve the air pressure.
emergency systems 28. If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of
18. One of the distinguishing characteristic of an open-center the accumulator is depressed , it is evidence
selector valve use in a hydraulic system is that. a. Excessive accumulator air pressure.
a. Fluid flow through the valve in the OFF position b. A leaking check valve.
b. Fluid flows in three directions on the ON c. A ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.
position
c. A limited amount of flows on one directions and
no fluid flows in the opposite directions. 29. What is the purpose of using backup rings with o-rings in
19. Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some hydraulic systems above 1500 psi?
aircraft hydraulic system because of a. Prevent and external leakage of all moving
a. Fluid flammability parts within a hydraulic system.
b. High pressure and high rates of fluid flow b. Provide a seal between two parts of a unit which
c. The high heat generate from braking . move in relation to each other.
20. Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 psi has been built up c. Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal
in a hydraulic system . the hand pump piston is 1 inch in between the moving and stationary part.
diameter . A ½-inch line connects the hand pump to an 30. Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible,
actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube
pressure in the line between the hand pump and the providing they are less than what percent of the tube
actuator? damenter
a. 100 psi. a. 5
b. 150psi. b. 10
c. 200psi. c. 20
21. The air that is expended and no longer needed when an 31. What types of selector valve is one f he most commonly
actuating unit is operated in a pneumatic system is used in hydraulic system to providing for simultaneous
a. Exhausted or dumped, usually overboard. flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
b. Returned to the compressor. a. Four-port, closed-center valve
c. Charged or pressurized for use during the next b. Three-port, four-way valve
operating cycle. c. Two-port, open-center valve
22. Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area. 32. What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a
Pressure is usually expressed in hydraulic system?
a. Pounds per square inch. a. Prevent tank collapse a altitude
b. Pounds per inch. b. Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation
c. Pounds per cubic inch. c. Prevent hydraulic fluid foaming
23. What function does the absolute pressure regulator 33. A unit which transform hydraulic pressure which linear
perform in the pneumatic power system? motions is called
a. Regulates the compressor outlet air pressure to a. An actuating cylinder
stabilize the system pressure. b. N accumulator
b. Regulates the pneumatic system pressure to c. A hydraulic pump
protect the moisture separator from internal 34. (1) materials which are skydrol compatible or resistant
explosion. include most common aircraft metals and polyurethane
c. Regulates the compressor inlet air to provide a and epoxy paints.
stabilized source of air for the compressor. (2) skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and
24. Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from natural fivers regarding the above statements
being exposed to high pressure or temperature should a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
a. Not be straightened or bent further. b. Neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
b. Not be reinstalled once removed. c. Only No.1 is true
c. Be immediately replaced 35. Characteristic of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are
25. An aircraft pneumatic system which incorporates an a. Red, petroleum, will burn synthetics rubber
engine-driven multistage reciprocating compressor, also seals
requires b. Light purple color base phosphate ester base fire
a. An oil separator. resistant butyl rubber seals
b. A surge chamber. c. Blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural
c. A moisture separator. rubber seals
26. Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs 36. After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump. It is
pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping
simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from directions (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an
the other end. incorrectly installed
a. Sequence. a. Hand pump inport check valve
 b. Inport/outport orifice check valve 47. If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat
c. Hand pump outport check valve before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening
37. Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in a. Is acceptable.
civil aircraft are b. May distort the flare.
a. Mineral base, and phosphate ester base c. May distort the cone.
b. Mixed mineral base phosphate 48. Which of the following is adversely affected by
c. Petroleum base mixed mineral base atmospheric humidity if left unprotected? 1. MILH-H-
38. Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base 5606 hydraulic fluid. 2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid. 3. None
hydraulic fluids? of the above.
a. Silicone rubber a. 1 and 2
b. Butyl rubber b. 3
c. Neoprene rubber c. 2
39. How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented 49. How many of these seals are used with petroleum base
from entering the fluid system? hydraulic fluids?
a. By forcing the oil/air ,mixture through a a. Natural rubber, ethylene-propylene.
centrifugal separating chamber that the b. Neoprene, Buna-N.
accumulator c. Natural rubber , butyl rubber.
b. By physically separating the air chamber from 50. Excluding lines, which components are required to make
the oil chamber with a flexible movable up a simple hydraulic system?
separation a. Actuator, pressure reservoir, accumulator, and
c. By including a valve hat automatically closes selector valve.
when the fluid level lower to a preset amount b. Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.
40. A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to c. Pump, reservoir, relief valve, and shuttle valve.
a. Linear motion 51. Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?
b. Rotary motion a. Purple
c. Angular motion b. Blue
41. One of the main advance of skydrol is its c. Red
a. Wide operation temptation 52. What safety device is usually located between the diving
b. High operation pressure unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft?
c. Inability to mix with water a. Thermal relief valve.
42. If an aircraft’s constant-pressure hydraulic system and no b. Pump motor safety switch.
more frequently than detected the most probable cause is c. Pump drive coupling shear section.
a. A too high relief valve setting 53. A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from
b. Pump volume output too high one side of an actuating cylinder to the side, under certain
c. Low accumulator airpreload conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the
43. Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of pours a. Flap overload system.
paper are normally. b. Engine cowl flap system.
a. Cleaned and reused c. Landing gear system.
b. Discarded at regular intervals and replaced with 54. If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing
new filtering elements materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the
c. Not approve for use in certification system is
a. Mineral base oil.
44. Characteristic of MIL-H-8446 (skydrol 500 A & B b. Synthetic base oil.
hydraulic fluids are c. Phosphate ester base oil.
a. Blue color ,phosphate ester base, fire resistant, 55. The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to
butyl rubber seals transform
b. Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire a. Fluid motion into mechanical pressure and back
resistant, butyl rubber seals again.
c. Light green color, phosphate ester base, fire b. Fluid pressure into useful work.
resistant, butyl rubber seals. c. Energy form one form to another
45. A hydraulic system operational check during ground 56. Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a
runup the wing flaps cannot be allowed using the main standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure
hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using the emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the
emergency likely cause standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the
a. The flaps selector valve has a severe internal a. Emergency pump when the fluid supply to the
leak normal system has been depleted.
b. The pressure accumulator is not suppling b. Emergency pump at any time it is required.
pressure to the system c. Normal system power pump.
c. The fluid level in the reservoir is low 57. Unloading valves are used with many engine-driven
46. A pilot reports that when the hydraulic ump is running, hydraulic pumps to
the pressure is normal. However when pump is stopped a. Dampen out pressure surges.
no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of b. Relieve the pump pressure.
a c. Relieve system pressure.
a. Leaking selector 58. Where can information be obtained about the
b. Low accumulator fluid preload compatibility of fire resistant hydraulic fluid with aircraft
c. Leaking accumulator air valve materials?
 a. Fluid manufactures technical bulletins. 68. To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft
b. Aircraft manufacturers specifications. hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is
c. AC 43.13-1A the
59. Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to a. O-ring seal.
contamination from b. Gasket seal.
a. Teflon seal material. c. Chevron seal.
b. Water in the atmosphere. 69. Generally the first step in removing an accumulator from
c. Ethylene-propylene elastomers. an aircraft is to
a. Relieve system pressure.
60. A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic b. Discharge the preload.
components is c. Drain the reservoir.
a. Cold fluid. 70. Pneumatic systems utilize
b. Restricted orifices. a. Return lines.
c. Internal leakage in the actuating unit. b. Relief valves.
61. Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid c. Diluter valves.
flow in the other direction? 71. The primary function of the flap over load valve is to
a. Check valve. a. Prevent the flaps from being lowered at
b. Metering piston. airspeeds which would impose excessive
c. Shutoff valve. structural loads.
62. What type of packings should be used in hydraulic b. Cause the flap segments located on opposite
components to be installed in a system containing side of the aircraft centerline to extend and
skydrol? retract .
a. An packing made of natural rubber. c. Boost normal system pressure to the flaps in
b. Packing materials made for ester base fluids. order to overcome the air loads acting on the
c. An packing made of neoprene. relatively large flap are.
63. Hydraulic system accumulating serve which of the 72. The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid
following functions?1. dampen pressure surges. 2. from either the normal source or an emergency source to
Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond an actuating cylinder is called a
the pump’s capacity.3. store power for limited operation a. Bypass valve.
of components if the pump is not operating. 4. Ensure a b. Shuttle valve.
continuous supply of fluid to the pump . c. Crossflow valve.
a. 2,3 73. Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an
b. 1,2,3,4 indication
c. 1,2,3 a. Of low accumulator preload.
64. If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating b. That the main system relief valve is sticking
valves in a hydraulic system , what particular sequence , open.
if any, should be followed ? c. That air is entering the pump.
a. Units most distant from the hydraulic pump 74. Which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have the
should be adjusted first. highest pressure setting?
b. Units with the highest pressure settings and a. Pressure regulator valve.
adjusted first. b. Main relief valve.
c. Units are independent of each other , and c. Thermal relief valve.
therefore , no particular sequence is necessary.
65. Most variable displacement aircraft hydraulic pumps in 75. The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be
use. made with
a. Must be driven at a nearly constant speed in a. A straight tube to withstand the shocks and
order to be practical for use. vibration to which it will be subjected.
b. Are not practical for use with a closed-center b. A straight tube to permit proper alignment of the
hydraulic system. fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through
c. Contain a built- in means of system pressure leakage.
regulation. c. Enough bends to allow the tube to expand and
66. Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a contract with temperature changes and to absorb
main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure vibration.
regulator? 76. The purpose of the pressure regular in a hydraulic system
a. Eliminate the action of the unloading valve. a. Maintain system operating pressure within a
b. Adjust all other system relief valves which have pressure a predetermined range and to unload
lower pressure setting. the pump
c. Manually unseat all system check valves to b. Regulate the amount of fluid flow to the
allow unrestricted flow in both directions. actuating cylinders within the system
67. In a gear-type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety c. Prevent failure of components of hydraulic lines
device incorporated to protect the pump from overload is under excessive pressure.
the 77. Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap
a. Bypass valve. operating mechanism which has just been installed?
b. Check valve. a. If the time required to operate the mechanism
c. Shear pin. increase with successive operations, it indicates
the air is being worked out of the system.
 b. If the time required tp operate the mechanism c. Low viscosity, high flash point, high fire point
decrease with successive operations, itindicates 88. How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be
the air is being worked out of the system determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system
c. All hydraulic lines and components should be still has hydraulic pressure?
checked for leaks by applying soapy water to all a. Read it directly from the main system pressure
connections. gauge with all actuators inoperative
78. Relief valves are used in pneumatic system b. Build up system pressure with the emergency
a. For one direction flow control pump and then read the pressure on a gauge
b. To reduce rate of airflow attached to the air side of the accumulator
c. As damage-preventing units. c. Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the
79. What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins
permits fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts as it goes toward zero
the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other 89. What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?
direction? a. The increase in volume of a fluid due to
a. Check valve temperature change
b. Orifice restrictor b. The fluids ability to resist oxidation and
c. Orifice check valve deterioration for long periods
80. If an engine-drive hydraulic pump of the correct capacity c. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to
fails to maintain normal system pressure during the prevent it from flowing
operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable 90. Extrusion of an O-ring seal is prevented in a high-
cause is pressure system by the use of a
a. Mechanical interference to the movement of the a. Backup ring in the side of the O-ring next to the
cowl flap pressure
b. A partial restriction in the inport of the selector b. U-ring on the side of the O-ring away from the
valve pressure
c. Restriction in the pimp outlet. c. Backup ring on the side of the O-ring away from
81. What happens to the output of a constant-displacement the pressure
hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure 91. Many hydraulic reservoir contain a small quantity of
regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the fluid which is not available to the main system pump.
reservoir? This fluid is retained to
a. The output pressure remains the same, but the a. Prime the main system.
volume reduces b. Supply fluid the auxiliary pump.
b. The output pressure reduces, but the volume c. Supply fluid to the pressure accumulator.
remains the same 92. The component in the hydraulic system that is used to
c. The output pressure and volume remain the direct the flow of fluid is the
same a. Check valve.
82. What is used to flush a system normally serviced with b. Orifice check valve.
MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid? c. Selector valve.
a. Methyl ethyl ketone or kerosene 93. The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is
b. Naphtha or varsol generally accomplished
c. Lacquer thinner or trichloroethylene a. Through automatic bleed valves on individual
83. If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the components during system operation.
engine driven pump is running, but there is no pressure b. By operating the various hydraulic components
after the engine has been shut off, it indicates through several cycles.
a. The system relief valve setting is too high c. By allowing the system to remain inoperative
b. No air pressure in the accumulator for several hours.
c. The pressure regulator is set too high 94. After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air
84. The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure
a. Prevent the system pressure from rising above a gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until
predetermined amount due to thermal expansion a. At least one selector valve has been actuated to
b. Boost the pressure in portions of the system allow fluid to flow into the fluid side of the
c. Relieve the pump of its load when no actuating accumulator.
units are being operated b. The air pressure has become equal to the fluid
85. Which is a characteristics of petroleum base hydraulic pressure.
fluid? c. The fluid side of the accumulator has been
a. Flammable under normal conditions charged.
b. Compatible to natural rubber seals and packings 95. If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base
c. Nonflammable under all conditions hydraulic fluid, but phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid
86. A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a is used, what will be the effect on the system?
a. Compound a. No effect.
b. Packing b. System will be contaminated, fluids will not
c. Gasket blend, and the seals will fail.
87. Which of the following list only desirable properties of a c. System will be contaminated, fluids will not
good hydraulic fluid that has chemical stability? blend, but there will be no seal problem.
a. High viscosity, low flash point, high fire point 96. Which statement about fluids is correct?
b. High flash point, low viscosity, low fire point a. Any fluid will completely fill its container.
 b. All fluids are considered to be highly c. The hand pump outlet check valve is sticking
compressible. open.
c. All fluids readily transmit pressure. 107. A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it
97. To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator, a. Produces an unregulated constant pressure.
a. Reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the b. Produces a continuous positive pressure.
reading on the accumulator air gauge. c. Delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.
b. Observe the first reading on the hydraulic 108. How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an
system gauge while operating a component in airplane be determined?
the system. a. Refer to the aircraft parts manual.
c. Read it directly from the auxiliary pressure b. Consult the aircraft type certificate data sheet.
gauge. c. Consult the aircraft manufacture’s service
98. Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at manual.
a
a. Lower pressure than the system relief valve.
b. Higher pressure than the system relief valve. FUEL METERING SYSTEMS
c. Lower pressure than the system pressure 1. If the main air bleed of a float-type carburetor becomes
regulator. clogged, the engine will run
99. Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic fluid are a. lean at rated power.
identified by which color code? b. rich at rated power.
a. Green dash.
c. rich at idling.
b. Blue dot or stripe.
2. One of the best ways to increase engine power and control
c. Yellow dot or stripe.
detonation and preignition is to
100. Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by
a. enrich the fuel/air mixture.
a. Excessive system pressure.
b. use water injection.
b. Insufficient system pressure.
c. Air in the system. c. lean the fuel/air mixture.
101. If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure 3. One purpose of an air bleed in a float-type carburetor is to
hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, what a. increase fuel flow at altitude.
will result? b. meter air to adjust the mixture.
a. Fluid will spray violently out of the reservoir c. decrease fuel density and destroy surface tension.
when the filler neck cap is removed. 4. An excessively lean fuel/air mixture may cause
b. The fluid level will increase when system a. an increase in cylinder head temperature.
pressure is reduced. b. high oil pressure.
c. Air will be drawn into the system , when the c. backfiring through the exhaust.
filler neck cap is removed. 5. When checking the idle mixture on a carburetor, the engine
102. What is commonly used to connect an emergency source should be idling normally, then pull the mixture control
of power, and at the same time disconnect the normal toward the IDLE CUTOFF position. A correct idling mixture
hydraulic source from critical parts of a landing gear or will be indicated by
wheel braking system for operation (usually when the
a. an immediate decrease in RPM.
normal source system fails)?
b. a decrease of 20 to 30 RPM before quitting.
a. Selector valve.
c. an increase of 10 to 50 RPM before decreasing.
b. Shuttle valve.
c. Sequence valve. 6. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture
103. The purpose of restrictors in the hydraulic system is to a. burns too fast.
a. Control the rate of movement of hydraulically b. ignites before the time of normal ignition.
operated mechanism. c. is too rich.
b. Allow the flow of fluid in one direction only. 7. What component is used to ensure fuel delivery during
c. Lower the operating pressure of selected periods of rapid engine acceleration?
components. a. Acceleration pump.
104. In a typical high-pressure pneumatic system, if the b. Water injection pump.
moisture separator does not vent accumulated water c. Power enrichment unit.
when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a 8. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the
a. Saturated chemical dryer, fuel control, manufacturers generally recommend that all final
b. Malfunctioning pressure transmitter. turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the
c. Malfunctioning solenoid dump valve. a. increase direction.
105. Which is a characteristics of synthetic base hydraulic
b. decrease direction.
fluid?
c. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
a. Low moisture retention.
9. If the idling jet becomes clogged in a float-type carburetor,
b. High flash point.
the
c. Low flash point.
106. Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump a. engine operation will not be affected at any RPM.
handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate b. engine will not idle.
which of the following? c. idle mixture becomes richer.
a. The hand pump inlet check valve is sticking 10. A carburetor is prevented from leaning out during quick
open. acceleration by the
b. The main system relief valve is set too high. a. enrichment system.
 b. mixture control system. 20. What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the
c. accelerating system. operation of a jet engine?
11. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control a. Decreases engine pressure ratio.
unit trimmed? b. Decreases compressor and turbine RPM.
a. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired. c. Has little or no effect.
b. To properly position the power levers. 21. The throttle valve of float-type aircraft carburetors is
c. To adjust the idle RPM. located
12. What is the relationship between the pressure existing a. ahead of the venturi and main discharge nozzle.
within the throat of a venturi and the velocity of the air b. after the main discharge nozzle and ahead of the
passing through the venturi? venturi.
a. There is no direct relationship between the pressure c. between the venturi and the engine.
and the velocity. 22. On a float-type carburetor, the purpose of the economizer
b. The pressure is directly proportional to the velocity. valve is to
c. The pressure is inversely proportional to the a. provide extra fuel for sudden acceleration of the
velocity. engine.
13. The fuel metering force of a conventional float-type b. maintain the leanest mixture possible during cruising
carburetor in its normal operating range is the difference best power.
between the pressure acting on the discharge nozzle located c. provide a richer mixture and cooling at maximum
within the venturi and the pressure power output.
a. acting on the fuel in the float chamber. 23. In turbine engines that utilize a pressurization and dump
b. of the fuel as it enters the carburetor. valve, the dump portion of the valve
c. of the air as it enters the venturi (impact pressure). a. cuts off fuel flow to the engine fuel manifold and
14. A major difference between the Teledyne-Continental and dumps the manifold fuel into the combustor to burn
RSA (Precision Airmotive or Bendix) continuous flow fuel just before the engine shuts down.
injection systems in fuel metering is that the b. drains the engine manifold lines to prevent fuel
a. RSA system uses air pressure only as a metering boiling and subsequent deposits in the lines as a
force. result of residual engine heat (at engine shutdown).
b. Continental system utilizes airflow as a metering c. dumps extra fuel into the engine ¡n order to provide
force. for quick engine acceleration during rapid throttle
c. Continental system uses fuel pressure only as a advancement.
metering force. 24. If a float-type carburetor becomes flooded, the condition
15.(1) The mixture used at rated power in air cooled is most likely caused by
reciprocating engines is richer than the mixture used through a. a leaking needle valve and seat assembly.
the normal cruising range. b. the accelerating pump shaft being stuck.
(2) The mixture used at idle in air cooled reciprocating c. a clogged back-suction line.
engines is richer than the mixture used at rated power. 25. Which of the following is NOT an input parameter for a
Regarding the above statements, turbine engine fuel control unit?
a. only No. 1 is true. a. Compressor inlet pressure.
b. only No.2istrue. b. Compressor inlet temperature.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. c. Ambient humidity.
16. Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to 26. An aircraft should be facing into the wind when trimming
a. turn all accessory bleed air off. an engine. However, if the velocity of the wind blowing into
b. turn all accessory bleed air on. the intake is excessive, it is likely to cause a
c. make adjustments (as necessary) for all engines on a. false low exhaust gas temperature reading.
the same aircraft with accessory bleed air settings b. trim setting resulting in engine overspeed.
the same — either on or off. c. false high compression and turbine discharge
17. The device that controls the volume of the fuel/air mixture pressure, and a subsequent low trim.
to the cylinders is called a 27. When troubleshooting an engine for too rich a mixture to
a. mixture control. allow the engine to idle, what would be a possible cause?
b. metering jet. a. Economizer valve not operating correctly.
c. throttle valve. b. Mixture setting too rich.
18. During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it c. Air leak in the intake manifold.
will 28. An aircraft engine equipped with a pressure-type
a. increase fuel/air ratio. carburetor is started with the
b. increase engine RPM. a. primer while the mixture control is positioned at
c. decrease the air density to the carburetor. IDLE CUTOFF.
19.Anine-cylinder radial engine, using a multiple-point b. mixture control in the FULL-RICH position.
priming system with a central spider, will prime which c. primer while the mixture control is positioned at the
cylinders? FULL-LEAN position.
a. One, two, three, eight, and nine. 29. The back-suction mixture control system operates by
b. All cylinders. a. varying the pressure within the venturi section.
c. One, three, five, and seven. b. varying the pressure acting on the fuel in the float
chamber.
 c. changing the effective cross-sectional area of the c. decreases and RPM increases momentarily before
main metering orifice (jet). the engine ceases to fire.
30. On an engine equipped with a pressure-type carburetor,
fuel supply in the idling range is ensured by the inclusion in 39. Which method is commonly used to adjust the level of a
the carburetor of float in a float-type carburetor?
a. a spring in the unmetered fuel chamber to a. Lengthening or shortening the float shaft.
supplement the action of normal metering forces. b. Add or remove shims under the needle-valve seat.
b. an idle metering jet that bypasses the carburetor in c. Change the angle of the float arm pivot.
the idle range. 40. Under which of the following conditions will the
c. a separate boost venturi that is sensitive to the trimming of a turbine engine be most accurate?
reduced airflow at start and idle speeds. a. High wind and high moisture.
31. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of b. High moisture and low wind.
a turbine engine performance check if an alternate fuel is to c. No wind and low moisture.
be used? 41. What factor is not used in the operation of an aircraft gas
a. Fuel specific gravity setting. turbine engine fuel control unit?
b. Maximum RPM adjustment. a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
c. EPR gauge calibration. b. Mixture control position.
32. The device that controls the ratio of the fuel/air mixture to c. Power lever position.
the cylinders is called a 42. Which statement is correct regarding a continuous-flow
a. throttle valve. fuel injection system used on many reciprocating engines?
b. mixture control. a. Fuel is injected directly into each cylinder.
c. metering jet. b. Fuel is injected at each cylinder intake port.
33. Select the statement which is correct relating to a fuel c. Two injector nozzles are used in the injector fuel
level check of a float-type carburetor. system for various speeds.
a. Use 5 pounds fuel pressure for the test if the 43. At what engine speed does the main metering jet actually
carburetor is to be used in a gravity fuel feed function as a metering jet in a float-type carburetor?
system. a. All RPM’s.
b. Block off the main and idle jets to prevent a b. Cruising RPM only.
continuous flow of fuel through the jets. c. All RPM’s above idle range.
c. Do not measure the level at the edge of the float 44.When a new carburetor is installed on an engine,
chamber. a. warm up the engine and adjust the float level.
34. If an aircraft engine is equipped with a carburetor that is b. do not adjust the idle mixture setting; this was
not compensated for altitude and temperature variations, the accomplished on the flow bench.
fuel/air mixture will become
c. the engine is warmed up to normal temperatures,
a. leaner as either the altitude or temperature adjust the idle mixture, then the idle speed.
increases.
45. What carburetor component measures the amount of air
b. richer as the altitude increases and leaner as the delivered to the engine?
temperature increases.
a. Economizer valve.
c. richer as either the altitude or temperature increases.
b. Automatic mixture control.
35. An aircraft engine continuous cylinder fuel injection
c. Venturi.
system normally discharges fuel during which stroke(s)?
46.What is the relationship between the accelerating pump
a. Intake.
and the enrichment valve in a pressure injection carburetor?
b. Intake and compression.
a. No relationship since they operate independently.
c. All (continuously).
b. Unmetered fuel pressure affects both units.
36. What carburetor component actually limits the desired
c. The accelerating pump actuates the enrichment
maximum airflow to the engine at full throttle?
valve.
a. Throttle valve.
47.Which of the following is NOT a function of the
b. Venturi. carburetor venturi?
c. Manifold intake. a. Proportions the fuel/air mixture.
37. The desired engine idle speed and mixture setting b. Regulates the idle system.
a. is adjusted with engine warmed up and operating. c. Limits the airflow at full throttle.
b. should give minimum RPM with maximum 48.A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a
manifold pressure. system that receives all the necessary data for engine
c. is usually adjusted in the following sequence; speed operation and
first, then mixture. a. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit
38. An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been to obtain the most effective engine operation.
obtained occurs when the mixture control is moved to IDLE b. develops the commands to various actuators to
CUTOFF and manifold pressure control engine parameters.
a. decreases momentarily and RPM drops slightly
c. controls engine operation according to ambient
before the engine ceases to fire. temperature, pressure, and humidity
b. increases momentarily and RPM drops slightly 49. One of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed
before the engine ceases to fire. helps to accomplish (at a given altitude) in a carburetor is
 a. pressure in the float chamber to increase as airflow a. prevent an overly rich mixture during sudden
through the carburetor increases. acceleration
b. a progressively richer mixture as airflow through b. prevent detonation at high altitudes.
the carburetor increases. c. provide a means of enriching the mixture during
c. ‘better fuel vaporization and control of fuel sudden acceleration.
discharge, especially at lower engine speeds. 61. How will the mixture of an engine be affected if the
50. During the operation of an aircraft engine, the pressure bellows of the automatic mixture control (AMC) in a pressure
drop in the carburetor venturi depends primarily upon the carburetor ruptures while the engine is operating at altitude?
a. air temperature. a. It will become leaner.
b. barometric pressure. b. No change will occur until the altitude changes.
c. air velocity. c. It will become richer.
51. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today’s 62. A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a system
turbine engines? that receives engine operating information and
a. Electromechanical. a. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit
b. Mechanical. to obtain the most effective engine operation.
c. Hydromechanical or electronic. b. develops the commands to various actuators to
53. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is control engine parameters.
adjusted to c. controls engine operation according to ambient
a. produce as much power as the engine is capable of temperature, pressure, and humidity.
producing.
63. Where is the throttle valve located on a float-type
b. set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR.
carburetor?
c. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without
a. Between the venturi and the discharge nozzle.
regard to power output
54. On a carburetor without an automatic mixture control as b. After the main discharge nozzle and venturi.
you ascend to altitude, the mixture will c. After the venturi and just before the main discharge
a. be enriched. nozzle.
b. be leaned. 64.The economizer system in a float-type carburetor
c. not be affected. a. keeps the fuel/air ratio constant.
55. What corrective action should be taken when a carburetor b. functions only at cruise and idle speeds.
is found to be leaking fuel from the discharge nozzle?
c. increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings.
a. Replace the needle valve and seat.
b. Raise the float level. 65. Under which of the following conditions would an engine
run lean even though there is a normal amount of fuel
c. Turn the fuel off each time the aircraft is parked.
present?
56. In a supervisory EEC system, any fault in the EEC that
adversely affects engine operation a. The use of too high an octane rating fuel.
a. causes redundant or backup units to take over and b. Incomplete fuel vaporization.
continue normal operation. c. The carburetor air heater valve in the HOT position.
b. usually degrades performance to the extent that 66. The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC
continued operation can cause damage to the engine. system aids turbine engine efficiency by
c. causes an immediate reversion to control by the
a. adjusting stator vane position according to operating
hydromechanical fuel control unit.
conditions and power requirements.
57. Which of the following is least likely to occur during
b. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are
operation of an engine equipped with a direct cylinder fuel
kept to a minimum by controlling case
injection system?
temperatures.
a. Afterfiring.
b. Kickback during start. c. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a
desired EPR.
c. Backfiring.
58. If the volume of air passing through a carburetor venturi is 67. What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed
reduced, the pressure at the venturi throat will adjustments on a float-type carburetor?
a. decrease. a. An adjustable throttle stop or linkage.
b. be equal to the pressure at the venturi outlet. b. An orifice and adjustable tapered needle.
c. increase. c. An adjustable needle in the drilled passageway
59. The purpose of the back-suction mixture control in a float- which connects the airspace of the float chamber
type carburetor is to adjust the mixture by and the carburetor venturi.
a. regulating the pressure drop at the venturi. 68. Which of the following best describes the function of an
b. regulating the pressure on the fuel in the float altitude mixture control?
chamber.
a. Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge
c. regulating the suction on the mixture from behind entering the engine.
the throttle valve.
b. Regulates the air pressure above the fuel in the float
60. The function of the altitude compensating, or aneroid
chamber.
valve used with the Teledyne-Continental fuel injection
system on many turbocharged engines is to c. Regulates the air pressure in the venturi.
69. What could cause a lean mixture and high cylinder head a. a stoichiometric mixture.
temperature at sea level or low altitudes? b. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
a. Mixture control valve fully closed. c. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
b. Defective accelerating system. 79. What will occur if the vapor vent float in a pressure
c. Automatic mixture control stuck in the extended carburetor loses its buoyancy?
position. a. The amount of fuel returning to the fuel tank from
70. A punctured float in a float-type carburetor will cause the the carburetor will be increased.
fuel level to b. The engine will continue to run after the mixture
a. lower, and enrich the mixture. control is placed in IDLE CUTOFF.
b. rise, and enrich the mixture. c. A rich mixture will occur at all engine speeds.
c. rise, and lean the mixture. 80. The metered fuel pressure (chamber C) in an injection-
71. Which of the following causes a single diaphragm type carburetor
accelerator pump to discharge fuel? a. is held constant throughout the entire engine
a. An increase in venturi suction when the throttle operating range.
valve is open. b. varies according to the position of the poppet valve
b. An increase in manifold pressure that occurs when located between chamber D (unmetered fuel) and
the throttle valve is opened. chamber E (engine-driven fuel pump pressure).
c. A decrease in manifold pressure that occurs when c. will be approximately equal to the pressure in
the throttle valve is opened. chamber A (impact pressure).
72. During idle mixture adjustments, which of the following 81. Why must a float-type carburetor supply a rich mixture
is normally observed to determine when the correct mixture during idle?
has been achieved? a. Engine operation at idle results in higher than normal
a. Changes in fuel/air pressure ratio. volumetric efficiency.
b. Fuel flowmeter. b. Because at idling speeds the engine may not have
enough airflow around the cylinders to provide
c. Changes in RPM or manifold pressure.
proper cooling.
73. Idle cutoff is accomplished on a carburetor equipped with
c. Because of reduced mechanical efficiency during
a back-suction mixture control by
idle.
a. introducing low pressure (intake manifold) air into
82. If a float-type carburetor leaks fuel when the engine is
the float chamber.
stopped, a likely cause is that the
b. turning the fuel selector valve to OFF.
a. float needle valve is worn or otherwise not seated
c. the positive closing of a needle and seat. properly.
74. The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate on-site b. float level is adjusted too low.
temperature prior to performing engine trimming is to
c. main air bleed is clogged.
a. call the control tower to obtain field temperature.
83. A reciprocating engine automatic mixture control
b. observe the reading on the aircraft Outside Air responds to changes in air density caused by changes in
Temperature (OAT) gauge.
a. altitude or humidity.
c. hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose wheel-
b. altitude only.
well until the temperature reading stabilizes.
c. altitude or temperature.
75. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the
dump valve in a jet engine fuel system when the engine is 84. When air passes through the venturi of a carburetor, what
shut down? three changes occur?
a. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open. a. Velocity increases, temperature increases, and
pressure decreases.
b. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
b. Velocity decreases, temperature increases, and
c. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed
pressure increases.
76. What is a function of the idling air bleed in a float-type
c. Velocity increases, temperature decreases, and
carburetor?
pressure decreases.
a. It provides a means for adjusting the mixture at idle
85. Float-type carburetors which are equipped with
speeds.
economizers are normally set for
b. It vaporizes the fuel at idling speeds.
a. their richest mixture delivery and leaned by means of
c. It aids in emulsifying/vaporizing the fuel at idle the economizer system.
speeds.
b. the economizer system to supplement the main
77. If an engine is equipped with a float-type carburetor and system supply at all engine speeds above idling.
the engine runs excessively rich at full throttle, a possible
c. their leanest practical mixture delivery at cruising
cause of the trouble is a clogged
speeds and enriched by means of the economizer
a. main air bleed. system at higher power settings.
b. back-suction line. 86. What is the possible cause of an engine running rich at
c. atmospheric vent line. full throttle if it is equipped with a float-type carburetor?
78. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to a. Float level too low.
 b. Clogged main air bleed. 97. The fuel level within the float chamber of a properly
c. Clogged atmospheric vent. adjusted float-type carburetor will be
87. The use of less than normal throttle opening during a. slightly higher than the discharge nozzle outlet.
starting will cause b. slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet.
a. a rich mixture. c. at the same level as the discharge nozzle outlet.
b. a lean mixture. 98. What is the purpose of the carburetor accelerating system?
c. backfire due to lean fuel/air ratio. a. Supply and regulate the fuel required for engine
88. The primary purpose of the air bleed openings used with speeds above idle.
continuous flow fuel injector nozzles is to b. Temporarily enrich the mixture when the throttle is
a. provide for automatic mixture control. suddenly opened.
b. lean out the mixture. c. Supply and regulate additional fuel required for
engine speeds above cruising.
c. aid in proper fuel vaporization.
89. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and
air to obtain a correct fuel-to-air ratio. Which of the following FLUID LINES & FITTINGS
weighs the most?
1. Flexible lines must be installed with
a. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor. a. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length
b. 100 parts of dry air. b. A slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of the length
c. :50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor. c. Enough slack to allow maximum flexing during
operation
90. Reciprocating engine power will be decreased at all
2. Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized
altitudes if the
area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may
a. air density is increased.
be repaired
b. humidity is increased. a. By cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a
c. manifold pressure is increased. swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends
91. Select the correct statement concerning the idle system of b. Only by replacing the tubing section run
a conventional float-type carburetor. (connection to connection) using the same size
and material as the original
a. The low-pressure area created in the throat of the
c. By cutting out the damaged section and
venturi pulls the fuel from the idle passage.
soldering in a replacement section of tubing
b. Climatic conditions have very little effect on idle 3. Rolling-type flaring Tools are used to flare X, X, and
mixture requirements. X tubing
c. The low pressure between the edges of the throttle a. Stainless steel, hard copper, mild steel
valve and the throttle body pulls the fuel from the b. Titanium, soft copper, corrosion resistant steel
idle passage. c. Soft copper, aluminum, brass
93. An aircraft carburetor is equipped with a mixture control 4. If a flared tube coupling nut is overtightened, where
in order to prevent the mixture from becoming too is the tube most likely to be weakened/damaged?
a. Along the entire length of the sleeve and tube
a. lean at high altitudes.
interface
b. rich at high altitudes. b. At the edge of the sleeve and straight portion of
c. rich at high speeds. the tube
94. To determine the float level in a float-type carburetor, a c. At the sleeve and flare junction
measurement is usually made from the top of the fuel in the 5. The maximum distance between end fittings to
float chamber to the which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is
a. parting surface of the carburetor. 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a
connection should be
b. top of the float.
a. 54-1/2 inches
c. centerline of the main discharge nozzle. b. 51-1/2 inches
95. The economizer system of a float-type carburetor c. 52-1/2 inches
performs which c following functions? 6. Which statement (s) about Military Standard (MS)
a. It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all flareless fittings is/are correct?
engine speeds. 1. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
normally tightened by turning the nut a specified
b. It supplies and regulates the additional fuel required
amount, rather than being torqued
for all engine speeds abovecruising.
2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should be
c. It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds assembled clean and dry without lubrication
and all altitudes. 3. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
96. Fuel is discharged for idling speeds on a float-type normally tightened by applying a specified
carburetor torque to the nut
a. from the idle discharge nozzle. a. 1
b. in the venturi. b. 1 and 2
c. 3
c. through the idle discharge air bleed.
7. Which statement is true regarding flattening of
tubing in bends?
 a. Flattening by a maximum of 20 percent of the a. Clear obstacle and make turns in aircraft
original diameter is permissible structures
b. Flattening by not more than 25 percent of the b. Provides for access within aircraft structures
original diameter is permissible c. Prevent excessing stress on the tubing
c. The small diameter portion in the bend cannot 15. What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting
exceed more than 75 percent of the diameter of a. Black
straight tubing b. Blue
8. From the following sequences of steps, indicate the c. Red
proper order you would use to make a single flare on 16. The material specifications for a certain aircraft
a piece of tubing require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from
1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the 3/4 –inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What
flaring block is the inside dimension of this tubing?
2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the top a. 0.606 inch
of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime b. 0.688 inch
3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube c. 0.750 inch
4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a 17. Which tubings have the characteristics (high
lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a
plunger one-half turn after each blow high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for
5. Tightened the clamp bar securely to prevent operation of landing gear and flaps?
slippage a. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminum alloy
6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube b. Corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4H
a. 1,3,5,2,4,6 c. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2 H aluminum alloy
b. 3,1,6,2,5,4 18. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness
c. 3,1,2,6,5,4 and
9. A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is a. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
a. A dual-purpose pneumatic and/or hydraulic line b. Inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
for normal and emergency system use c. Outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments
b. Used to carry a hazardous substance 19. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when
c. A pneumatic or hydraulic system drain or installing metal tubing
discharge line (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when
10. Which coupling nut should be selected for use with installing wiring
½ -inch aluminum oil lines which are to be Regarding the above statements,
assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN a. Only No.1 is true
nuts, sleeves, and fittings? b. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
a. AN-818-5 c. Neither o.1 nor No.2 is true
b. AN-818-16 20. What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum
c. AN-818-8 tubing?
11. Which statement concerning Bernoulli’s principle is a. Ease of construction
true? b. More resistant to damage when the joint is
a. The pressure of a fluid increases at points where tightened
the velocity of the fluid increases c. Can be applied to any size and wall-thickness of
b. The pressure of a fluid decreases at points where tubing
the velocity of the fluid increases 21. A 3/8 aircraft high pressure flexible hose as
c. It applies only to gases and vaporized liquids compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same
12. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube system will
connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used a. Have higher flow capabilities
when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type b. Have equivalent flow characteristics
connector eliminates c. Usually have interchangeable applications
a. The flaring operation prior to assembly 22. When flaring aluminum tubing for use AN fittings,
b. The possibility of reducing the flare thickness the flare angle must be
by wiping or ironing during the tightening
process a. 37°
c. Wrench damage to the tubing during the b. 39°
tightening process c. 45°
13. Which of the following hose materials are 23. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of
compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no
fluids? deeper than
1. Butyl a. 20 percent of the wall thickness
2. Teflon b. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness,
3. Buna-N whichever is less
4. Neoprene c. 10 percent of the wall thickness
a. 1 and 2 24. When installing bonded clamps to support metal
b. 2 and 4 tubing
c. 1 and 3 a. Paint removal from tube is not recommended as
14. The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in it will inhibit corrosion
fluid and pneumatic metal tubing runs is to
 b. Paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to c. Exceed 10 percent of the tube OD on a straight
prevent corrosion section
c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp 32. A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible
location hose during installation because, when under
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding pressure, it
minimum allowable bend radii for 1.5 inches OD or
less aluminum alloy and steel tubing of the same a. Expands in length and diameter
size? b. Expands in length and contracts in diameter
a. The minimum radius for steel is greater than for c. Contracts in length and expands in diameter
aluminum 33. In a metal tubing installation,
b. The minimum radius for steel is less than for a. Rigid straight line runs are preferable
aluminum b. Tension is undesirable because pressurization
c. The minimum radius is the same both steel and will cause it to expand and shift
aluminum c. A tube may be pulled in line if the nut will start
26. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing on the threaded coupling
caused by expansion and contraction due to 34. The best tool to use when cutting aluminum tubing,
temperature changes can best be avoided by or any tubing of moderately soft metal is a
a. Using short, straight sections of tubing between a. Hand operated wheel-type cutter
fixed parts of the aircraft b. Fine-tooth hacksaw
b. Using tubing of the same material as the c. Circular-saw equipped with an abrasive cutting
majority of the adjoining structure wheel
c. Providing bends in the tubing 35. Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in
27. Which statement is true regarding the variety of size according to the
symbols utilized on the identifying color-code bands a. Outside diameter
that are currently used on aircraft plumbing lines b. Wall thickness
a. symbols are composed of various single colors c. Inside diameter
according to line content
b. symbols are always black against a white
INDUCTION AND ENGINE AIRFLOW SYSTEM
background regardless of line content
c. symbols are composed of one to three 1. The action of a carburetor air scoop is to supply air
contrasting colors according to line content to the carburetor, but it may also
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct in a. cool the engine.
reference to flare fittings? b. keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock.
1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder c. increase the pressure of the incoming air by ram
between the end of the threads and the flare cone effect.
2. What are the three basic regulating components of a sea-
2. AC and AN fittings are considered identical
level boosted turbocharger system?
except for material composition and identifying 1. Exhaust bypass assembly.
colors 2. Compressor assembly.
3. AN fittings are generally interchangeable with 3. Pump and bearing casing.
AC fittings of compatible material composition 4. Density controller.
a. 1 5. Differential pressure controller.
b. 1 and 3 a. 2,3,4.
b. 1,4,5.
c. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2,3.
29. The term ‘cold flow’ is generally associated with 3. If carburetor or induction system icing is not present when
a. The effects of low temperature gasses or liquids carburetor heat is applied with no change in the throttle
flowing in hose or tubing setting, the
b. Impressions left in natural or synthetic rubber a. mixture will become richer.
hose material b. manifold pressure will increase.
c. engine RPM will increase.
c. Flexibility characteristics of various hose
4. Carburetor icing on an engine equipped with a constant-
materials at low ambient temperatures speed propeller can be detected by
30. When a Teflon hose has been in service for a time, a. a decrease in power output with no change in
what condition may have occurred and/or what manifold pressure or RPM.
precautions should be taken when it is temporarily b. an increase in manifold pressure with a constant
removed from the aircraft? RPM.
a. The hose interior must be kept wet with fluid c. a decrease in manifold pressure with a constant
RPM.
carried to prevent embrittlement/deterioration
5. The application of carburetor heat will have which of the
b. The hose may become stiff and brittle if not following effects?
flexed or moved regularly a. The manifold pressure will be increased.
c. The hose may have developed a set, or have b. The mixture will become leaner.
been manufactured with a pre-set shape, and The mixture will become richer.
must be supported to maintain its shape 6.Which of the following statements regarding volumetric
31. A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be repaired efficiency of an engine is true?
a. The volumetric efficiency of an engine will remain
provided it does not
the same regardless of the amount of throttle
a. Appear in the heel of a bend opening.
b. Appear on the inside of a bend
 b. It is impossible to exceed l00 percent volumetric c. Sharp airflow directional change to take advantage
efficiency of any engine regardless of the type of of inertia and/or centrifugal force, and filters or
supercharger used. engine inlet screens.
c. It is possible to exceed 100 percent volumetric 19. Which of the following would be a factor in the failure of
efficiency of some engines by the use of an engine to develop full power at takeoff?
superchargers of the proper type. a. Improper adjustment o carburetor heat valve control
6. When starting an engine equipped with a carburetor air Linkage.
heater, in what position should the heater be placed? b. Excessively rich setting on the idle mixture
a. Hot. adjustment.
b. Cold. c. Failure of the economizer valve to remain closed at
c. Neutral takeoff throttle setting.
8. What is used to drive a supercharger? 20. What part of an aircraft in flight will begin to accumulate
a. Exhaust gases. ice before any other?
b. Gear train from the crankshaft. a. Wing leading edge.
c. Belt drive through a pulley arrangement. b. Propeller spinner or dome.
9. Where would a carburetor air heater be located in a fuel c. Carburetor.
injection system? 21. In addition to causing accelerated wear, dust or sand
a. At the air intake entrance. ingested by a reciprocating engine may also cause
b. None is required. a. silicon fouling of spark plugs.
c. Between the air intake and the venturi. b. sludge formation.
10. Into what part of a reciprocating engine induction system c. acid formation.
is deicing alcohol normally injected? 22. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of the
a. The supercharger or impeller section. following methods?
b. The airstream ahead of the carburetor. a. Alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct.
c. The low-pressure area ahead of the throttle valve. b. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air.
11. As manifold pressure increases in a reciprocating engine, c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.
the 23. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of the
a. volume of air in the cylinder increases. following methods?
b. weight of the fuel/air charge decreases. a. Alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct.
c. density of air in the cylinder increases. b. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air.
12. When an engine with a subsonic divergent type inlet duct c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.
is running in place at high speed on the ground, the air 24. The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine- powered
pressure within the inlet is aircraft to prevent engine FOD utilize
a. negative. a. variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable first
b. positive. stage fan
c. ambient. blades.
13. What is the purpose of a turbocharger system for a small b. variable geometry inlet ducts.
reciprocating aircraft engine? c. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the
a. Compresses the air to hold the cabin pressure ground ahead of the
constant after the aircraft has reached its critical engine.
altitude. 25. The purpose of a bemouth compressor inlet is to
b. Maintains constant air velocity in the intake a. provide an increased ram air effect at low airspeeds.
manifold. b. maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet.
c. Compresses air to maintain manifold pressure c. provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet.
constant from sea level to the critical altitude of the 26. An increase in manifold pressure when carburetor heat is
engine. applied indicates
14. On small aircraft engines, fuel vaporization may be a. ice was forming in the carburetor.
increased by b. mixture was too lean.
a. cooling the air before it enters the engine. c. overheating of cylinder heads.
b. circulating the fuel and air mixture through passages 27. The differential pressure controller in a turbocharger
in the oil sump. system
c. heating the fuel before it enters the carburetor. a. reduces bootstrapping during part-throttle operation.
15. If the turbocharger waste gate is completely closed. b. positions the waste gate valve for maximum power.
a. none of the exhaust gases are directed through the c. provides a constant fuel-to-air ratio.
turbine. 28. Carburetor icing is most severe at
b. the turbocharger is in the OFF position. a. air temperatures between 30 and 40°F.
c. all the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine. b. high altitudes.
16. Bootstrapping of a turbocharged engine is indicated by c. low engine temperatures.
a. an overboost condition of the engine on takeoff. 29. When operating an engine, the application of carburetor
b. a transient increase in engine power. heat will have what effect on the fuel air mixture?
c. a maximum increase in manifold pressure. a. Enriching the mixture because the AMC cannot
17. If a fire starts in the induction system during the engine make a correctionfor increased temperature.
starting procedure. what should the operator do? b. Enriching the mixture until the AMC can make a
a. Turn off the fuel switches to stop the fuel. compensation.
b. Continue cranking the engine. c. Leaning the mixture until the AMC can make a
c. Turn off all switches. compensation.
18. What method(s) is/are used to provide clean air to the 30. The purpose of an engine/inlet anti-ice system is primarily
engines of helicopters and turboprop airplanes that have to
particle (sand and ice) separators installed? a. remove ice from engine and/or inlet areas.
a. Positive and negative charged areas to attract and/or b. prevent ice formation in engine and/or inlet areas.
repel c. remove ice from engine and/or inlet areas and
particulates out of the airflow. prevent ice formationin engine and/or inlet areas.
b. Air/moisture separators, and washing the air clean 31.Boost manifold pressure is generally considered to be any
utilizing water manifold pressure above
droplets. a. 14.7 inches Hg.
b. 50 inches Hg.
 c. 30 inches Hg. c. increase the velocity of the fuel/air charge.
32. A carburetor air pre-heater is not generally used on 43.Vortex dissipator systems are generally activated by
takeoff unless absolutely necessary because of the a. a landing gear switch.
a. loss of power and possible detonation. b. a fuel pressure switch anytime an engine is
b. possibility of induction system overboost. operating.
c. inability of the engine to supply enough heat to make c. an engine inlet airflow sensor.
a significant difference.
33.During full power output of an unsupercharged engine
equipped with a float-type carburetor, in which of the
following areas will the highest pressure exist?
a. Venturi.
b. Intake manifold.
c. Carburetor air scoop.
34.What is the purpose of the density controller in a
turbocharger system?
a. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
produced at
other than full throttle conditions.
b. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
produced by the
turbocharger at full throttle.
c. Maintains constant air velocity at the carburetor
inlet.
35. What is the purpose of the rate-of-change controller in a
turbocharger system?
a. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
produced by the turbocharger at full throttle
conditions.
b. Controls the rate at which the turbocharger discharge
pressure will increase.
c. Controls the position of the waste gate after the
aircraft has reached its critical altitude.
36. What directly regulates the speed of a turbocharger?
a. Turbine.
b. Waste gate.
c. Throttle.
37. The absolute pressure controller on some small engines is
designed to sense oil pressure which flows through the waste
gate actuator and then
through the controllers on the turbocharger system the
pressure between the turbocharger and the throttle valve is
called
a. turbocharger boost pressure.
b. induction manifold pressure.
c. upper deck pressure.
38. In an airplane equipped with an alternate air system, if the
main air duct air filter becomes blocked or clogged
a. the system will automatically allow warm,
unfiltered air to be drawn into the engine.
b. flow of air into the engine will be slowed or cut off
unless alternate air is selected.
c. system will automatically allow warm, filtered
alternate air to be drawn into the engine.
39. What indications nay shift when a turbofan engine anti-
icing (bleed air) system is turned on?
1. Tachometer.
2. EGT.
3. EPR.
a. l and 2.
b. 2and 3.
c. 1, 2 and 3,
40.The application of carburetor heat during engine operation
will
a. decrease the weight of the fuel/air charge.
b. decrease the volume of air in the cylinder.
c. increase the density of air in the cylinder.
41.A method commonly used to prevent carburetor icing is to
a. preheat the intake air.
b. mix alcohol with the fuel.
c. electrically heat the venturi and throttle valve.
42.The purpose of a sonic venturi on a turbocharged engine is
to
a. limit the amount of air that can flow from the
turbocharger into the cabin for pressurization.
b. increase the amount of air that can flow from the
turbocharger into the cabin for pressurization.