DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT

MODEL EXIT EXAMINATION FOR MANAGEMENT

Date: 30/May/2023
Time Allowed: 3:00 hours.

Student Name: ________________________________Student ID: _________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
 Read all the questions specifically before you try to answer them.

 Attempt all the questions on your own.

 Any form of cheating will nullify your result.

 Do not use red or green pen or pencil to write your answers.

 Make sure the exam booklet has two parts and five pages including the cover.

 Give your answers on answer sheet provided.

 Switch off your mobile phone

 Any action taken by exam invigilator during exam time will not be compromised.

 Do not turn this page until you are told to do so.

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MULTPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (120%)
THEME 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF MANAGEMENT, MARKETING AND
INFORMATION
Instruction: Read the questions and choose the right answer from the given choices
(alternatives) and write the letter of Your Choice on the space provided on the separate
answer sheet (1 point each)
1. Which one of the management function involves arranging human and non-human
resources to accomplish organizational objectives?
A. Directing C. Organizing
B. Planning. D. Leading
2. The Last step in delegation of Authority process is:
A. Assignment of task
B. Delegation of authority
C. Acceptance of responsibility
D. Creation of Accountability
3. Sources of power that a leader possesses as a result of occupying a particular position
refer to?
A. Legitimate power
B. Expert power
C. Reward power
D. Coercive power
4. Douglas McGregor has hypothesized two sets of assumptions about people that serve as a
philosophical base for leadership action. These are?
A. Trait theory of leadership
B. Behavioral theory of leadership
C. Theory X and theory Y assumption
D. Situational leadership theory
5. The process through which mangers assure that activities conform to plan is?
A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Leading
D. Organizing
6. The managerial role emphasis on manager’s responsibility of resolving conflicts among
employees in the organization refers to
A. Spokesperson role
B. Disseminator role
C. Disturbance handler role
D. Negotiator role
7. The type of leadership styles decision making is solely by manger includes:
A. Democratic leadership styles
B. Autocratic leadership styles
C. Laissez faire leadership style
D. Situational leadership style

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8. The theories of motivation related to the use of rewards and punishments as best
motivating factors regarded as.
A. Carrot and stick approach
B. Theory X and theory Y
C. Maslow’s need hierarchy
D. Both A and C
9. “A marketing manager can give a direct command for the departments in organizations
concerning the marketing and sales issue.” This can be considered as a practice of one of
the following authority.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. All the above
10. All of the following is true about Maslow’s Need hierarchy theory except
A. Only an unsatisfied need can influence behavior
B. A persons need are arranged in a priority order of importance
C. This theory assumes that unless a lower-level need is satisfied an individual cannot
proceed to the higher-level need
D. This theory argues that an individual can work on higher level need even if his/her
basic/lower-level need remain unsatisfied
E. None
11. Identify the one which is the characteristics of formal organization?
A. It is based on well-defined authority
B. It is a social structure formed to meet personal needs
C. Spontaneously formed organization as people associate each other
D. It operates outside of formal authority relationship
E. All of the above
12. Downward pushing of authority from superiors to subordinates to make decision is
known as
A. Authority
B. Power
C. Delegation of authority
D. Span of management
13. Identify the one which is not the importance of delegation of authority?
A. Relieves the manager from his/her heavy workload
B. Its speedup decision-making
C. It helps train and builds moral of subordinates
D. It helps to create the organization structure
E. None of the above
14. Which of the following statement is correct about patterns of target market selection.
A. Product specializations strategy is used to sell the product in single markets
B. Market specialization strategy is used to sell the product in various market
C. In the full market coverage, a company sells only single specialized product in various
markets.
D. In the single segment concentration, various products can be sold in a single
specialized market.
E. None of the above
15. Which one of the following is correct about international price transfer strategy?
A. It reduces the tax burden of the foreign company
B. It is adjusted to enhance the ultimate profit of a company as a whole.

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 C. It makes the financial statement of the foreign company in loss position
D. All
E. None of the above
16. From the following statement one is not correct about the difference between consumer
and business market
A. Industrial market is geographical concentrated
B. The demand of the consumer market is direct
C. The price of business market is inelastic
D. The number of business market are small but they are large quantity purchasers
E. None of the above
17. From the following which marketing orientation focus on promoting green marketing
A. Marketing concept
B. Product concept
C. Societal marketing concept
D. Selling concept
E. Production concept
18. From the following factors one can affect both consumer and organizational buyers
A. Cultural factor
B. Personal factor
C. Individual factor
D. Social Factor
E. Psychological
19. From the following promotion mix one is the most credible then others
A. Advertising
B. Sales promotion
C. Personal selling
D. Direct marketing
E. None of the above
20. Which of the following is an effective segmentation prerequisite that focus on programs
designed for attracting and serving a given market segment?
A. Measurability
B. Sustainability
C. Action ability
D. Differentiation
E. None of the above
21. _____ levels of markets market segmentation that focus -one-size -fits all
A. Local marketing
B. Niche marketing
C. Differentiated marketing
D. Individual marketing
E. None of the above
22. Which one of the following marketing concepts that explain the process of dissemination
of innovation across different national borders?
A. Comparative costs
B. International product life cycle
C. International marketing
D. overlapping life cycle
E. All

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23. From the following, which marketing concept states consumer will buy goods that are
available and highly affordable
A. The product concept
B. The production concept
C. The selling concept
D. Social responsible marketing
E. All the above
24. Which of the following individuals principally have less formal, High educational
degrees tend to process rather than creating Information system
A. Knowledge workers
B. Executives
C. System Analysts
D. Data Workers
E. None
25. Summarized transactions data, High volume data and Simple Models are information
inputs characteristic of------
A. Decision support system
B. Management Information System
C. Process Control System
D. Expert systems
26. In system concepts, integration and synergy refers to-------------------
A. Structure and order
B. parts of a computer system depend on other
C. the whole is less than the sum of its parts
D. Holism of the system
27. Which one of the following is the function of the system Analysis Stage?
A. Developing functional requirements of system
B. Hard ware acquisition
C. Conducting feasibility study
D. Developing entity Relationship and work flow
E. All
28. With the ______________ form of data processing, each transaction is processed
immediately.
A. Online Transaction processing
B. Batch processing
C. Active processing
D. Automated transaction processing
E. Process controls
29. Whose responsibility is it to see that the potential consequences of IS use are fully
considered?
A. System designers
B. Information system analysts
C. Information system professionals
D. Data workers
E. Users
30. The first stage in the problem-solving process is called the ______________ stage.
During this stage, potential problems or opportunities are identified and defined.
A. Choice D. Intelligence
B. Design E. Execution
C. Monitoring

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THEME 2: HUMAN RESOURCE AND ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOR
31. One of the following was not the changes which necessitated the emergence of personnel
management principles and practices?
A. Large scale productions
B. Employment of small number of workers in factories
C. Introduction of division of labor
D. Rise of materialism
E. None of the above
32. Which one of the following is not the negative impact of economic factors on HRM?
A. Some firms reduce pay and benefits in order to retain workers.
B. Employers are forced to downsize, by offering attractive early retirement and early
leave programs or by laying off and terminating employees.
C. Unemployment rates rise and employers are often overwhelmed with applicants when
vacancies are advertised.
D. Companies often hire more workers as demand for products and services increases
E. None of the above
33. Which of the following are the major factors influencing the organizational climate?
A. Management’s leadership style
B. HR policies and practices,
C. Amount and style of communication
D. All of the above
34. Which one is not among the key components of social environment of human resource
management?
A. Changing values regarding work life-balance
B. Changing values regarding non-work life-balance
C. Changing workforce demographics
D. Rapid technological advancement
35. Which one is not part of external environmental factors of human resource management?
A. Labor force
B. Union
C. Turnover
D. Legal
36. Which one is wrong about labor market?
A. It is a marketplace where recruiters and employees meet
B. It refers to the supply of and demand for labor
C. It is a place where employees provide the demand and employers provide the supply
D. It represents the relationship between employees and employers
37. Among the following which type of information is not part of job analysis?
A. Performance appraisal
B. Job description
C. Job specification
D. Job position
38. Which one is not component of job description?
A. Hazards C. Qualifications
B. Job duties D. Job summary
39. Which one is not a benefit of job analysis?
A. Creating static business processes systems and organizational structures
B. Reengineering of business processes
C. Achieving dramatic improvement in business performance
D. Job enlargement and enrichment

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40. Which one is not among objectives of Human Resource Planning?
A. Ensuring optimum use of existing human resources
B. Forecasting future requirement of human resources
C. Linking human resource planning with organizational planning
D. Maintaining surplus and shortage of human resources
E. Meeting the needs of expansion and diversification programs
41. Which of the following alternative is not among external factors affecting recruitment?
A. Organization’s image
B. Recruitment policy
C. Labor market
D. Supply and demand
42. ____Refers to a person’s predetermined negative attitudes towards people based on some
group identity.
A. Prejudice
B. Halo effect
C. Selective Perception
D. Recency effect
43. The magnitude of degree of favorableness or un favorableness toward the event
A. Multiplicity
B. Valence
C. Relation to Needs
D. Centrality
44. ____is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts and interacts with others
A. Attitude
B. Perception
C. Personality
D. Learning
45. Which type of learning theory deals with Response - Stimulus (R-S) connection?
A. Classical Conditioning
B. Operant Conditioning
C. Cognitive Theory
D. Social Learning
E. A&B
46. Which type of group development the Members have developed relatively similar mental
model?
A. Storming D. Performing
B. Norming E. None
C. Forming
47. _____an acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group’s members.
A. Culture
B. Role
C. Task
D. Authority
E. Norm
48. Which is /are not behavioral consequences of stress?
A. Lower job performance
B. Job dissatisfaction
C. Higher absenteeism
D. Work –place aggression
E. More accidents

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49. Which one of the following odd?
A. Time based conflict
B. Strain based conflict
C. Role conflict
D. Role –behavior conflict
E. None
50. Which of the following is not strain based conflict stressors?
A. Financial difficulties
B. Mortgage
C. Relationship problem
D. New responsibilities
E. None
51. Which approach of dealing with resistance to change is commonly used where speed is
important and the change initiators possess considerable power?
A. Information and communication
B. Facilitation and support
C. Negotiation and agreement
D. Manipulation and co-optation
E. Coercion
52. Identify the distinctive features of leadership in comparison with management
A. Creates vision and meaning for the organization
B. Asks “how” and “when” to act
C. Focuses on efficiency
D. Relies on control strategy
53. All are characteristics of servant leadership, but one
A. Healing
B. Empathy
C. Stewardship
D. Foresight
E. Absolute power
54. Which one is wrong?
A. An effective leader helps achieve goals: an ineffective leader does not
B. Effective leaders are capable of creating sense of rejuvenation
C. The trait theory asserts that leaders are born not made
D. Good leaders are empathetic and selfless
55. All are characteristics of great man theory, but one
A. Born leaders
B. Leaders have unique natural endowment
C. Merit based
D. Situation dictates great leader

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56. Identify the correct statement
A. Dysfunctional conflicts benefit the operation of the organization
B. Dysfunctional conflict can increase the amount of information for decision making
C. Coercion should be used if other approaches to resistance are not feasible
D. Cynicism about change led to such outcomes as high commitment, satisfaction, and
motivation
57. According to Beckhard and Harris’s change formula, which one is not a factors that need
to be in place for change to occur?
A. Level of dissatisfaction with the status quo
B. Desirability of the proposed change
C. The first practical steps of the change
D. Strong and irreversible resistance
58. Which one is individual source of resistance to change?
A. Habit
B. Structural inertia
C. Organizational resource allocation
D. Limited focus of organization change
59. Which path-goal leadership behavior is recommended when individuals have difficulty
doing tasks or the tasks are ambiguous?
A. Supportive
B. Participative
C. Directive
D. Achievement oriented
THEME 3: INNOVATION, STRATEGY AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT
60. Harvard’s Ted Levitt says that creativity is ------- new things, and innovation is ----- new
things
A. Thinking; doing
B. Doing; thinking
C. Seeing; doing
D. Thinking; applying
61. Research shows that anyone can learn to be creative but, the problem is ------.
A. Many organizations fail to foster an environment that encourage creativity
B. Most people never tap in to their pools of innate creativity
C. Most people have never been taught to be creative
D. All of the above
62. Which stage of creativity process require one to develop a solid understanding of the
problem or decision
A. Preparation
B. Incubation
C. Insight
D. Evaluation
E. Elaboration
63. Which stage of creativity process involves viewing the similarities and the difference in
the information collected?
A. Preparation
B. Incubation
C. Insight
D. Evaluation
E. Elaboration

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64. At which stage of creativity process does a spontaneous breakthrough occur, allowing all
the previous stages to come together to produce the “Eureka factor” or the “light bulb
goes on”?
A. Preparation
B. Incubation
C. Insight
D. Evaluation
E. Elaboration
65. The focus of which of the following step in the creativity process is to transform ideas in
to reality?
A. Preparation
B. Incubation
C. Insight
D. Evaluation
E. Elaboration
66. Which of the following is the area of innovation?
A. New product
B. New Services
C. New Production Techniques
D. New Operating Practices
E. All of the above
67. Which of the following is correct Linkage among creativity, Innovation and
Entrepreneurship?
A. Innovation  Creativity  Entrepreneurship
B. Creativity  Innovation  Entrepreneurship
C. Creativity  Entrepreneurship  Innovation
D. Innovation  Entrepreneurship  Creativity
68. Identify the correct statement.
A. Creativity is a process that can be developed & improved.
B. Creativity is an act, an idea, or product that changes an existing domain
C. Innovation is the transition of creative idea into a useful application
D. Creativity is the ability to bring something new into existence.
E. All of the above
69. Identify the INCORRECT statement.
A. Creativity is a process that can be developed & improved.
B. Creative behaviors possessing an element of newness, novelty, and difference.
C. Creativity is an act, an idea, or product that changes an existing domain
D. Creativity is the transition of creative idea into a useful application
E. Creativity is the ability to bring something new into existence.
70. --------- a legal definition of ideas, inventions, artistic works and other commercially
viable products created out of one’s own mental processes.
A. Physical property
B. Intellectual property
C. Legal property
D. All of the above
71. A property right granted by the government to an inventor is---------.
A. Copy right
B. Patent right
C. Trade mark
D. All of the above

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72. Which of the following is/are true about brain storming?
A. Criticism and prior judgment of any idea is not allowed
B. Good ideas are welcome even absurd (irrational) one
C. Large quantity of ideas generated has value
D. Sharing and combining ideas, and constructing ideas for producing new ideas.
E. All of the above
73. Which type of innovation that involves the creation of a new product, service, or process,
often one that is novel or untried?
A. Invention
B. Extension
C. Synthesis
D. Duplication
74. One is not among advantages of divisional organization
A. Clear authority & responsibility
B. Improved communication
C. Minimum of direct hierarchical control
D. Faster decision making
75. Which one of the following is odd?
A. Payback period
B. Benefit Cost Ratio
C. Net Present Value
D. Internal Rate of Return
76. ……is a detailed analysis of the promising/most viable project ideas
A. Project plan
B. Business plan
C. Feasibility study
D. A and B
77. The first step in sample survey when conducting market and demand analysis for the
project should be
A. Develop the questionnaire
B. Recruit and train the field investigators
C. Select the sampling scheme and sample size
D. Obtain information from the sample respondents
78. The nature of the work organization is important as it:
A. Define responsibility and authority
B. Outlines reporting arrangements
C. Determines the management overhead cost
D. All
E. All except ‘C’

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THEME 4: BUSINESS RESEARCH AND MANAGEMENT SCIENCE
79. The distinguishing feature of an LP model is
A. Relationship among all variables is linear
B. It has single objective function & constraints
C. Value of decision variables is non-negative
D. All of the above
80. While solving a LP model graphically, the area bounded by all the constraints is called
A. Feasible region
B. Infeasible region
C. Unbounded solution
D. None of the above
81. Non-negativity condition is an important component of LP model because
A. Variables value should remain under the control of the decision-maker
B. Value of variables make sense & correspond to real-world problems
C. Variables are interrelated in terms of limited resources
D. None of the above
82. Maximization of objective function in an LP model means
A. Value occurs at allowable set of decisions
B. Highest value is chosen among allowable decisions
C. Neither of above
D. Both a & b
83. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the LP
A. The problem must be of minimization type
B. Resources must be limited
C. Only one objective function
D. Parameters value remains constant during the planning period
84. Non-negativity condition in an LP model implies
A. A positive coefficient of variables in objective function
B. A positive coefficient of variables in any constraint
C. Non-negative value of decision variables
D. None of the above
85. Non negative condition in an LP model implies
A. A positive coefficient of variables in objective function
B. A positive coefficient of variables in any constraint
C. Non negative value of resource
D. None of the above
86. A set of decision variable which satisfies all the constraints of the LPP is called
as----------
A. Basic solution C. Feasible solution
B. Solution D. None of the above
E.
87. Total cost is the sum of fixed costs and
A. Implicit costs.
B. Accounting costs.
C. Explicit costs.
D. Variable costs.
88. A constraint in an LPP model restricts
A. Value of objectives function
B. Value of a decision variable
C. Use of the available resources

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 D. All of the above
89. The distinguishing feature of an LP model is
A. Relationship among all variables is linear
B. It has single objective function and constraints
C. Value of decision variables is non negative
D. All of the above
90. Which of the following is not the characteristic of Linear Programming?
A. Resources must be limited
B. Only one objective function
C. Parameters value remains constant during planning period
D. The problem must be of minimization type
91. The following are methods used to test hypotheses except:
A. Traditional (computed value) method
B. P-value method
C. Confidence interval method
D. Survey method
92. What hypothesis states no equality or existence of differences, relationship, or effect?
A. Statistical hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Alternative hypothesis
D. All
93. Which value separates the critical region from the noncritical region in a normal curve
when testing the hypothesis?
A. computed value
B. t-value
C. z-value
D. critical value
94. A result was said to be significant at the 5% level. This means:
A. the null hypothesis is probably wrong
B. the result would be unexpected if the null hypothesis were true
C. the null hypothesis is probably true
D. none of the above
95. What does it mean to say a test is two-tailed?
A. There is no predicted direction for the alternative hypothesis
B. There are two alternative hypotheses
C. There are two types of error
D. All
96. A Type I error is committed when:
A. We reject the null hypothesis when it is actually true
B. We obtain the wrong test statistic
C. We fail to reject the null hypothesis when it's actually false
D. We reject the alternate hypothesis when it's actually true

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97. _______ aims at establishing the cause and effect relationship between variables.
A. Descriptive research
B. Explanatory research
C. Exploratory research
D. None of the above
98. Which one of the following is the criteria of a good research?
A. Good research is structured with specified steps to be taken in a specified.
B. Good research is guided by the rules of logical reasoning
C. Good research is related basically to one or more aspects of a real situation
D. All of the above
99. A research problem does exist if the following conditions are met, except;
A. There must be an individual or a group with difficulty
B. There must be some objective(s) to be attained at.
C. There must be a single alternative means for obtaining the objective(s)
D. There must remain some doubt about the selection of alternatives.
100. To properly define the Management problem, the assessment areas that help the
researcher are the following, except;
A. Assessing the background of the company
B. Clarify The Symptoms of the Problem
C. Assess The Adequacy of Information On Hand.
D. All of the above
101. Which one of the following is not a research problem?
A. Determining whether the advertising campaign be changed or not.
B. Determining consumers purchase intentions
C. Determining the effectiveness of the current advertising campaign
D. Determining the price impact on sales.
102. The purpose of research is to
A. Discover questions rather than the answers.
B. To find out the unhidden truth which has been discovered as yet.
C. To portray the characteristics of a particular group or situation.
D. To develop hypothesis rather than testing it.
103. Research design must, at least, contain
A. Procedures and techniques to be used for gathering information
B. The population to be studied
C. Methods to be used in processing and analysing data.
D. All of the above
104. The variables that used to minimize the influence of extraneous variables are
A. Dependent variable
B. Independent variable
C. Extraneous variable
D. Control variable
105. The different conditions under which experimental and control groups are put are
usually referred to as,
A. Treatments C. Hypothesis-testing
B. Experiment D. Controlling
106. A research design that determine the pattern of change in relation to time is
A. The cross-sectional study design
B. Descriptive study design
C. The pre- test/post-test design
D. The longitudinal study design

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107. The possible motives for doing research includes the following, except;
A. Desire to bring challenges in studying the solved problems
B. Desire to get intellectual joy of doing some creative work
C. Desire to understand causal relationships
D. Social thinking and awakening
THEME 5: FINANCIAL, OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT AND MANAGERIAL
ECONOMICS
108. Which one of the following statements is not true about facility location decisions?
A. Require long-term commitments in buildings and facilities that can be difficult to
correct
B. Location decision require sizable financial investment and can have a large impact on
operating costs and revenues.
C. Poor Location can result in high transportation costs, inadequate supplies of raw
materials and labour, loss of competitive advantage.
D. There is one best location for a facility
E. None of the above
109. The process of dismantling and inspecting competitors’ products for the purpose of
uncovering secret information is:
A. Group technology
B. Reverse engineering
C. Value analysis
D. Modular design
E. None of the above
110. Select the incorrect statement
A. Layout is performed only when a new facility is being designed
B. Layout planning is performed any time when there is an expansion in the facility
C. Layout planning is performed any time when there is a space reduction
D. Proper layout planning can be critical in building good working relationships.
E. None of the above.
111. Which one of the following could not describe challenges of service design?
A. Difficult to describe
B. High customer contact
C. Similar requirements of customers
D. Difficult to measure
E. None of the above
112. Identify the true statement
A. If further processing the product decreases the product, it is better to locate nearer to
the market rather than nearer to the raw material
B. If transportation cost of moving the finished good is very expensive, it is better to
locate the plant nearer to market rather than nearer to raw material
C. If the product to be produced is perishable, it is better to locate the plant near to the
market rather than nearer to the raw material
D. B and C only E. All of the above
113. Identify the incorrect statement about layout design considerations?
A. Higher utilization of space, equipment, and people
B. Improved employee morale and safer working conditions
C. Improved customer interaction
D. Flexibility
E. None of the above

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114. ---------- is the vertical expansion of a job. The job designer adds worker
responsibility for work planning and/or inspection.
A. Job rotation
B. Job enlargement
C. Job enrichment
D. Job specialization
E. None of the above
115. Which among the given alternatives does not explain the characteristics of product
layout?
A. Resource used are specialized
B. Greater flexibility relative to the market
C. Processing rates are faster
D. Lower space requirements
E. None of the above
116. Expanding an existing facility location is an option in locating planning when:
A. The existing location has desirable features not readily available elsewhere
B. There is high cost of production in existing location
C. There is shift in a market
D. Raw materials are exhaustively depleted in existing location
E. None of the above
117. Which of the following is/are not Financial management decisions?
A. Maintaining optimum cash balances
B. Decision whether to extend credit or not
C. Decision whether to acquire other firm or not
D. Decision whether to borrow from bank or not
E. None of the above
118. The decision function of financial management can be broken down into the. .
decisions.
A. financing and investment
B. investment, financing, and asset management
C. financing and dividend
D. capital budgeting, cash management, and credit management
119. Which of the following is/are the correct ways of transferring funds from savers to
borrowers in the financial system?
A. Funds flow from ultimate lenders to borrowers directly through insurance company
B. Funds flow from ultimate lenders to borrowers indirectly with the aid of agent and
brokers
C. Funds flow from ultimate lenders to borrowers indirectly in financial market
D. Funds flow from ultimate lenders to borrowers directly through commercial bank.
E. All accept A
F. None of the above
120. Which one of the following statements is false about Money market?
A. It deals with near money
B. It deals with equity instrument
C. It is a market for currency
D. It is a market where bond and stock are traded
E. A and B are answer

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 ANSWER SHEET

Kotebe University of Education

Faculty of Business & Economics
Department of Management
Model Exit Exam
Date: Feb 17, 2023
Time Allowed: 3:00 hours.

Name ID. No. ____________ Dept, ________

MULTIPLE CHOICES (120 pts)

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C
5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A
9. C 10. D 11. A 12. C
13. D 14. E 15. E 16. E
17. C 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. E 22. B 23. B 24. D
25. B 26. D 27. A 28. A
29. C 30. C 31. B 32. D
33. D 34. D 35. C 36. C
37. A 38. C 39. A 40. D
41. B 42. A 43. B 44. C
45. B 46. B 47. E 48. B
49. C 50. D 51. E 52. A
53. E 54. C 55. C 56. C
57. D 58. A 59. C 60. A
61. D 62. A 63. D 64. C
65. E 66. E 67. B 68. E
69. D 70. B 71. B 72. E
73. A 74. C 75. A 76. C
77. C 78. D 79. D 80. A
81. B 82. B 83. A 84. C
85. C 86. A 87. D 88. C
89. D 90. D 91. D 92. B
93. C 94. A 95. A 96. A
97. B 98. D 99. C 100. D
101. A 102. C 103. D 104. D
105. A 106. D 107. A 108. D
109. B 110. A 111. C 112. D
113. E 114. C 115. B 116. A
117. E 118. B 119. B/F 120. BONUS

17
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