4 3 2 1.

Choose 720MM
:
(Code-l)
Test-5
The Two wave iSx
0.0(3)2 (1) when wires tension (3) (1) represented (1) waves Tworemains(3) T
A120(3) Number stationary
acceleration
system
(1)be wil (k) A
istransverse spring-mass
0.04 fractionalidentical 4 in 240 sUspended the
bothwhich m/s m/s metres vibrating
given
have 3 2T correct
of
the beats
and by by gl2 lift.
wires wil
increase a wave
fundamental piano yx, : y1
produced tuning from
lead t = If (m) answer:
then SECTION-A
oscillated is 2sin(200rt) the system
ceiling,
wires, propagating
tO in in t)=
forks time
0.0(12)
0.03(4) 0Ccurrence the m/(4s) 4 m/(2r2s)seconds.
r 8sin 480(4) (2)60 (4)be
T (2be
) lift
per
kept period ishaving has
tension
together frequency 2x4rt produce
minute and 2
under The descending time
along y2 of spring
r of of =2sin
is
would speed + progressive spring-mass period
4one ofthe 4
Space beats/s, 200 X-axis constant
(204t). T
[PHYSICS] TEST-5
be of same ofwhere with in
the Hz. the
for is a
Rough 5
9. 8. 7. 6. All
10.
India
Work constant
P-1TE P'T-=
(3) (1) idealWhich
The constant (3) keeping
gaswil be Heat
(1) pressure Qisfundamental
(3)Hz
30(1)Hz 200(3) ms-1100(1) tension
15 ends The ms1transverse A
Planck's
Kirchhoff's la(w2Newton's
) la(w1) temperature
la(w4) (3) Stefan's 10%(3) 30%(1reservoir
) string
twO
Aakash
Wien's 3Q o
efficiency gas of 5 are in of
nearest
undergoing th ¹ supplied to 120 wave the Test
displacement
law temperature
frequency length
of 27°C following string Series
harmonics Hz on
cooling of constant.
may the 5
a and is n for
heat adiabatic
relationship a of string 400 has
be (2) monoatomic (4Hz
75
) (2Hz
60
) the ms-1(450
) ms1400(2) NEET-2025
law is (4) 20%(2) constant
Pi-T=
(4) (2) (4) N,
a of The
150 of
is rnass Time:
special engine PT1 2Q tube? a then
5 4Q 5
All 327°C change? work Hz. tube
of
these = is the 0.05 3
case operating gas What open Hrs.
constant correct done
sink
and very speed kg.
of 20
theby ís at If Min.
for siowBy ofthe
the both
with an a
 Alllndia Aakash Test Serles for NEET-2025

11. Particle velocity of a mechanical vibration is

represented by v = 10c0s (30t + 10)m s- with tin
seconds. The amplitude of displacement of the
particle is

(1)
1
m
(2) 3 m
16. The
diameter
as

(1)
mean free path

J2 nnd2
d and

1
number for a

(2)
Test (o
density gasncan with
1
1
(3)
1
(4) 6 m (3)
6x (4)
12. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion 17. TwO points on a
travelling
S2 nd
600 Hz and velocity
(starting from mean position) having time period T
then the minimum 300 ms1waveare havi
60° ng
and amplitude A. The time taken to cOver 3A distance
distance is
2 (1)
1
m between two points,
(2) 12m
(1)T (2) T (3)
(4) 1
m
18. Figure shows 4
(3) 7

13. Asolid ballof metal has a

(4)
12
concentric spherical cavity
thermodynamic pre
does the work process
done
ssur
fore-vone
in the
olume
mole ofdiaagram
within it. If the ball is heated,
will
the volume of the cavity
time?
prOcess changegas. H
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain unaffected B
(4) May A
increase or
14. On centigrade scaledecrease
the temperature of a
increases by 30°C. The increase body (1) Decreases continuously
in
Fahrenheit scale is temperature on (2) Increases continuously
(1) 50°F (3) Remains constant
(2) 40°F
(3) 30°F
15. (4) 54°F (4)First increases then decreases
Agaseous mixture consists of 2 moles of
and 4 moles
19. Aparticle starts
oscilating simple harmonicaly T
of Helium is Hydrogen its equilibrium position
Neglecting all vibrational kept at temperatúre T. with
kinetic energy and potentialamplitude
A. The rat
energy the system is
of modes, the total internal energy of the parte
(1) 5RT position x = A is
(3) 11RT (2) 15RT
(4) 9RT (1) 1:1 (2) 1:2
(3) 1:4 (4) 1:3
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 Test-5 (Code-) AlIndiaAakash Test Series for NEET-2025
20. The equivalent spring constant for the
of springs as shown in figure is combination 24. For an isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the
AP
value of is equal to (Symbols have their usual
meaning)
6K
V
(1) AV (2) "V
AV AV
2K 4K
(3) (4) y
25. Two different gases are initially maintained at
pressure (P), temperature (T) and volume (V). They
(1) 2K (2) 12K are mixed in a container of volume V kept at
(3) 3K (4) 4K temperature T, then final pressure of the mixture is
21. Fora SHM, relation between
displacement (x) and (1) PI2 (2) P
velocity (v) is given as =1. (3) 2P (4) 4P
25 50 26. The kinetic energy of one mole of a gas at
The time period of SHM is
temperature 200 Kis E. If at 400 Kits kinetic energy
(1) (2) V2 is E, then the value of EIE is
(3) 2V2r (4) 2r 1
22. The displacement of a particle executing simple (1) 2 (2)
harmonic motion is given by
y=10+3 sin ot + 4sin ot+ where y is in (3) V2 (4)
centimeter. The amplitude of its oscillation is given by 27. The velocity of a particle performing
(1) 15 cm
simple
(2) 5 cm harmonic motion, when it passes through its mean
(3) 5/5 cm (4) 7 cm position is
23. The curve between absolute
temperature andvn (1) Infigity (2) Zero
is [Vmp ’ most probable speed] (3) Minimum (4) Maximum
Vnp 28. Inthe standingwave shown, particles at the position
Vnp Aand B have a phase
(1) (2)
difference of

B
V
(3) (4) (1) (2) T
2

(3) 2r (4)
3
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 NEET-2025
Test Series for
All India Aakash
speed of sound in air and C be the rms
35. If C be the
sound in gases will be
Newton's formula for the velocity of molecule, then
29. usual meaning) speed of air
is (Symbols have their
l2P (2)
(1) v=, (2) V= 3
(1)
3
(4) V 3 (4)
(3) V= (3)
to
goes from one medium
30. When a sound wave that remains
SECTION-B
another medium, the quantity
energy required to raise the
unchanged is 36. The amount of heat T,Kto
(1) Frequency (2) Amplitude of 8g of oxygen molecules from
temperature
their
(3) Wavelength (4) Speed T2K in an isochoric process is (Symbols have
metal rod are maintained at usual meaning)
31. The two ends of a heat flow in
temperature 90°Cand 80°C. The rate of (1)
3
Naks (T2 Ti)
J/s. If the ends are
the rod is found to be 7 8
180°C, the
maintained at temperature 190°C and 5
rate of heat flow willbe (2) Nake (T2 - Ti)
(1) 7 J/s (2) 77 J/s
5
(3) 107 J/s (4) 74.8 J/s (3) NAke (T2 -Ti)
2.
32. A black body is at temperature 123°C.lt emits
energy at a rate which is proportional to (4) 85NA
KB (T2-Ti)
(1) (396) (2) (123)
(3) (419)4 (4) (321)4 37. The amplitude of damped oscillator becomes 5
33. What is the dimensional formula for thermal
resistance?
times of original value in 2 seconds. Its amplitude
(1) [M-LT-K] after 6 seconds is times the original. Then n is
(2) [ML2T-K-] equal tO
(3) [ML-STK-1] (1) 23 (2) 52
(4) [M-1L-2T'K] (3) 53 (4) 51/3
34. Acontainer full of water at 90°C is kept in a room. If 38. If a simple pendulum is taken to a place where g
it cools from 85°Cto 75°C in t1 minutes, from 75°C decreases by 3% then the time period
to 65°C in t2 minutes and from 65°C to 55°C in
(1) Increases by 1.5%
ts minutes, then (2) Increases by 3%
(1) t1 < te < t3 (2) ti > t2> ts (3) Decreases by 1.5%
(3) t1= t = ts (4) t= t <ts (4) Decreases by 3%
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 Test-5 (Code-!) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

39. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the 44. The volume of air increases by2%, in its adiabatic
same
material have same dimension. Both are at the expansion. The percentage decrease in its pressure
same temperature 120°C and kept in same
surrounding, then initially will be
(1) Both the spheres cool down at the same rate
(2) The hollow sphere cools down faster than the (1) 2.8% (2) 1.4%
solid sphere (3) 2% (4) 3.33%
(3) The solid sphere cools down faster than the 45. In changing the thermodynamic state from Ato B,
hollow sphere the heat required is Q and the work done by the
(4) The hollowsphere emits radiation at faster rate system is W. The change in its internal energy is
than the solid sphere (1) Q+ W (2) Q-W
40. The amount of heat (in calories) required to convert Q+W
(3) Q (4)
10 gof ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C is 2
(1) 7200 (2) 1800 46. Amass m is suspended separately by two dífferet
(3) 6400 (4) 6200 springs of spring constants Kt and K2 then time
41. A rod of length 2 m having cross-sectional area periods are t and tt respectively. When it is
0.5 m² has heat flow through it at the rate of conneçted by both the springs as shown in figure its
6000 J/s. Then find the temperature difference time period becomes to, then correct relation is
between the ends of the rod if K= 200 Jm- K-1
(1) 100°C (2) 120°C
(3) 60°C (4) 50°C SK,
42. A copper block of mass 2 kg is heated in a furnace
to a temperature 400°C and then placed on alarge
ice block. The mass of ice that will melt in this
process will be (specific heat of copper = 500J kg-1
°C-1 and heat of fusion of ice=330 kJ kg-1)
(1) 0.2 g (2) 0.2 kg
(3) 1.2 g (4) 1.2 kg
43. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes
are shown in figure. Plots 1 and 2 should correspond (2) ( -t +
respectively to
(4) to = tt + te
47. The number of possible natural oscillation of air
column in apipe closed at one end having length
170 cm, whose frequencies lie below 1000 Hz are
(velocity of sound = 340 m s-1)
(1) He and N2 (2) O2 and N2 (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) He and Ar (4) O2 and He (3) 30 (4) 40
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 All IndiaAakash Test Series for NEET-2025 Test-5 (Code-4)

A8 The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe 50. Fout moles of an idealgas performs a cyclic process
is egual to the third harmonic of an open organ pipe. shown in figure. If the temperature are TA = 600 K
Hthe length of the open organ pipe is 20 cm, the Ta = 800 K, To =2200 K, and To= 1200K, the work
length of the closed organ pipe is done per cycle is (R= 8.3 J moi K-1)
(1) 120 cm (2) 3.33 cm P‘ B
(3) 60 cm (4) 6.67 cm
A9 Six identical metallic rods are joined together in a
pattern as shown in figure. Points A andD are
maintained at temperature 40°C and 120c. The
temperature of the junction B will be
B
A D
40°C 120°C
(1) 66.67°C (2) 93.34°C (1) 26.6 kJ (2) 46.5 kJ
(3) 60°C (4) 80°C (3) 19.9 kJ (4) 100 kJ

EAAIOTDVI
 SECTION-A
[CHEMISTRY]
(3) Diamond has higher C - C bond order as
51. Given below are two statements: compared to graphite
Statement i: Al forms [AIFG]3- but B doesn't form (4) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity as
[BFe]-. compared to diamond
Statemnent ll: BF3 on reaction with LiAlH4. gives 53. Producer gas is a mixture of
diborane. (1) CO and H2 (2) CO and N2
In the light of above statements, choose the correct (3) CH4 and Co (4) CO2 and H2
answer from the options given below. 54. Silicon hasa strong tendency to form polymers like
(1) Both statement Iand statement Il are correct silicones. The chain length of silicone polymer can
be controlled by adding
(2) Both statemernt Iand statement l|l are incorrect (1) MeSiCls (2) Me2SiCl2
(3) Statement Iis correct but statement II is incorrect (3) Me4Si (4) Mes3SiCI
(4) Statement Iis incorrect but statement Il is correct 55, Which of the following oxides is acidic in nature?
52. Which of the following statements is correct with (1) B2O3 (2) AlzO3
respect to graphite and diamond? (3) GazO3 (4) In203
(1) Graphite is harder than diamond 56. The hybridization of boron in diborane is
(2) In graphite, carbon is sp³ hybridised while in (1) sp (2) sp?
diamond it is sp² hybridised (3) sp³ (4) sp°d
 Test-5 (Code-l) AllndlaAakash Test Serles for NEET-2025
statements
57 Consider the following (1) A> s, B’r, C > 4, D >p
ia) Diborane is colourless and highly toxic gas (2) A >s, B>r, C>p, D -’ q
(b) Diborane catches fire spontaneously upon (3) A->r,B> s, C’4,D>p
exposure to air.
(4) A’ s, B’ q, C ’r,Dp
(c) Diborane on aqueous hydrolysis gives boric acid. 61. In sulphur estirmation, 0.5 gof an organic compound
The correct statements are gave 0.932 g of bariun sulphate. The percentage of
sulphur in the cormpound is (Molar mass of
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
BaSO4 = 233 g mol-)
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (1) 48.2% (2) 56.5%
of five-membered and six-membered rings
58. Number (3) 25.6% (4) 40.8%
present in Buckminsterfullerene respectively are 62. Given below are the two statements: One is
(1) 12 and 20 (2) 20 and 12 labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
(3) 12 and 18 (4) 18 and 10 Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Peroxide effect is not observed in
sO Which of the following statements is/are correct? addition of HCI and HI in unsymmetrical alkenes.
I Terminal alkynes liberate H2 on reaction with Reason (R): HCI bond being stronger than HBr is
sodium metal.
not cleaved by free radical whereas H-i bond is
II. Ethyne is more acidic in nature than ethene. weaker and iodine free radicals combine to form l2
L. Ethyne on warming with mercuric sulphate and molecules.
dilute sulphuricacid at 333 Kgives ethanol. Choose the correct option.
IV. Ethyne on reaction with excess HBr gives (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1,2-dibromoethane as major product. explanation of (A)
(1) Ilonly (2) II, II and IV only (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) Iland IV only (4) land ll only correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
60. Match the following reactions in column-I with the (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
corresponding products in column-ll. 63. Most stable carbocation among the following is
Column-1 Column-ll
H, H,
A. Benzene + Clz Benzene
Anhyd. AICkR
(2)
B. Benzene+CH3CI q.Methyl pheny
Anhyd. AlIClg ketone NO,
C. Benzene r Toluene CH,
+CH:COCI
Anhyd. AlCi, (3) (4)
D Chlorobenzene
Phenol
OCH, CHO

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025 Test-5 (Code-l)
following statements regarding 68. Which of the folowing statements
64. Consider the is/are correct
conformations. regarding Kolbe's electrolytic process?
The repulsive interaction between the electron A Alkanes containing even number of C-atoms
clouds which affects stability of conformation is are prepared.
called torsional strain.
B. Sodium /Potassium salts of carboxylic acids are
Staggered form has the maximum torsional taken as substrate.
strain in ethane.
C. Methane can be prepared by this method.
. Eclipsed form is the least stable conformation in D. H2 gas is liberated at anode.
ethane.
The correct option is
IV. The energy difference between staggered and (1) A and B only
eclipsed form is of the order 12.5 kJ mol-1 in (2) Band C only
ethane. (3) A and D only (4) Bonly
The correct statements are 69. Match the species given in List-l with their respective
(1) land ll only (2) I, iI and IV only colour given in List-II.
(3) I, Il and Ill only (4) I, I, Il and IV List-! List-Il
65. In the Carius method for estimation of halogen, (NH4)3PO4-12MoO3 () Violet
1.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.94 g of AgBr. b [Fe(CN)sNOS] (ii)Blood red
The percentage of bromine in the compound is C [Fe(SCN)2* (ii) Prussian blue
(Atomic mass of Ag = 80 u, Molecular mass of d. Fea[Fe(CN)6]3-xH20 (iv) Yellow
AgBr = 188 u) (1) a(iv), b(i), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) 56% (2) 64% (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(il)
(3) 48% (4) 32% 70. The Correct order of stability of following
66. The most suitable reagent for the following carbocations is
Conversion is
CH,
||.
H,C -C = C-CH,
H,C
(1) Na/Lig.NH3 (2) H2; Pd/C, Quinoline
(3) Zn/HCI (4) Hg2/H*, H20 (2) I|> I|>|
formed in the following (1) > I|> ||
67. ldentify the major product (4) Il|> |> ||
(3) |>|> ||
reaction. compound is
71. The lUPAC name of the given
n-C,H6 773 K, 10-20 atm
A (Major) C,Hs
CH,

(1) (2 NO,
(1) 5-Ethyl-2-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(2) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
(3) 3-Ethyl-5-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
(3 (4) (4) 4-Ethyl-6-nitro-1-fluorobenzene
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 Test-5(Code-|) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

the following is least reactive towards (3) 1-Chloro-3-methylbutane

Which one of
72. electrophilicattack?
(4) 2-Chloropentane
CH, 76. Methane on reaction with oxygen in presence of
copper at 523 Kand 100atrn pressure gives
(2)
(1) Methanal (2) Methanoic acid
(3) Methanol (4) Ethanol
NO,
77. Correct order of stability of the given redicals is
(3)
(4)
() CH, =CH- CH,
73. Which of
the following compounds doesn't show
tautomerism? (i) CH, - CH,
(ii) CH, - CH - CH,
(1) (i) > (i) > (i) (2) (0)> () > (i)
(3) (i) > (1) > (0) (4) () > (i) > (i)
(2) CH,-CH,-C- CH, 78. Kjeldahl's method can't be used for the estimation of
nitrogen in
(a) CoHs -N=N-CsHs
(3)

(b)
(4) H,C-C- CH,
74. Which of the following islare aromatic in nature? NO,

(©)
(b
(1) Onty a)
a) (2) (a) and (c) Only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) Only
(C) (d) 79.Which of the following will give Lassaigne's test for
the detection of nitrogen?
(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (c) only (1) NH2NH2 (2) NH2OH
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b)and (c) only (3) NaNO3 (4) NH2CONH2
75. Which of the following alkyl chlorides will give 80. The correct order of melting point of group 13
2-methylbut-2-ene on dehydrohalogenation by a elements is
strong base?
(1) B> Al> Ga >In > TI (2) TI > In > Ga > Al> B
(1) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
(3) B> Al> T|> In > Ga (4) TI> In > Ga > B> Al
(2) 1-Chloro-2-methylbutane
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 Al India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

81. Sec-Butylgroup and isobutyl group respectively are

CH,
A5 Given below are
Statement I: Tin
and H2.
the tWO
statements Test-5(Code)
decomposes steam to
unaffected watefro.rn S,
(1) CH, - CH - CH, - and CH, - C- Statement ll: Lead is
staternents. by
CH, CH, In the light of above
(2) CH, -CH, - CH- and CH, - CH- CH, -
answer.
choose the
CH, CH,
(1) Statement | is
(2) Statement Tis correct but
incorrect but staternent cotech
(3) CH, CH, - CH - and (3) Both statement l and
(4) Both statement | and staternent Il i
staternent
CH,
statement I| are
CH, -CH,-CH,- CH,
(4) CH,-CH-CH,- and CH, -CH, - CH - 86. E° for M³*/M is
SECTIONB inoror)
(1) TI
positive for which elemen
CH, CH, (2) In
(3) Ga
82. In which of the following species, hyper-conjugation 87. The correct order of first (4) Al
ionization
does not take place? 13 elements is
(1) B> Ga> Tl> Al> In enthaloy o
(2)
(1) (2)
(3) In > Al > TI> Ga > B(4) B>T|> Ga>A
B> Tl> A|> Gal
88. TeDdency to show +2
Oxidation state for the tven
elements increases the sequence.
(3) Ph (1) Ge <Pb< Sn (2) Pb < Sn< Ge
(4) (3) Ge < Sn< Pb
83. Correct order of priority 89. Which of the (4) Sn < Pb< Ge
sequence for the given following
functional groups is of acidic strength of represents the correct orde:
(1) -CONH2 >-C0C| >-OH given acids?
>NH2 (1) CI-CH2COOH >
(2) -COCl>-cONH2 >-OH>-NH2 (2) Br-CH2COOH >
F-CH2COOH > Br-CH:COOH
(3) (3) C-CH2COOH > F-CH:C0CH
(4) -COCl>-CONH2
-CONH2
>-NH2 >-OH (4) F-CH2C0OH>
F-CHCOOH> CHCH2C0OH> Br-CH:C00H
>-C0C|
84. Given below are the
>- NH2 >-OH 90. Which of the Br-CH2COOH> C-CH;COOH
following
isomers of but-2-ene statements about cis and trans the resonance? statements is not true acou
(a) cis form is more (1) The difference in energy
polar than trans form. between the aCUa
structure and highest energy resOnant
(b) Dipole
moment of
(c) Melting point of trans form is zero. structure is called resonance
cis form is (2) Number of unpaired electronsenergyremain same
The correct higher than trans form. the resonating structures
statements are
(1) (a) and (c) (3) Contributing structures represent hypenea
(3) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c)
only molecules having no real existence
only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (4) the
Contributing structures are less stablethan
resonance hybrid
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Test-5 (Code-) All lndia Aakash Test Serles for NEET-2025

91. Consider the following reaction sequence 95. Duringestirmation of ritrogen present in an
organic
Br Compound by Kjeldahl's rnethod, the arnmonia
Ethanol
KOH/A
> A(Major) Baeyer
rengent
's B(Major) evolved from 1.0 g of cornpoundwas neutralised by
15 m of 1.5 M HSOA solution. The
OH
nitrogen present in the cornpound is
percentage of
(1) OH (2) (1) 63%
OH (2) 49%
HO. (3) 36%
(3 CHO (4) (4) 27%
96. An alkene on vigorous oxidation with hot acidified
Conc. HNO, KMnO4 gives only acetic acid, the alkene is
92. ’ X(Major) (1) CH3CH,CH = CHz
(2) CH;CH =CHCH
Conc. H,SO,
(3) (CHa)2C = CH2
(4) CH%CHCH = CHCH;
H 97. A compound 'X on reductive ozonolysis gives
The major product X is acetaldehyde and acetone. The compound 'X is
(1) 2-Methylbut -2-ene (2) Pent -2-ene
(1) (3) 2-Methylbut-1-ene (4) But-2-ene
98. Consider the following statements:
(a) Borax dissolves in water to give an alkaline
solution.
(b) Boric acid is prepared by acidifying an aqueous
2 solution of borax.
(c) In borax, all the boron atoms are sp hybridised.
H NO, The correct statements are
NO, (2) (b) and (c) oniy
(1) (a) and (b) only
(3 (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
99. Which pair.represents activating groups when
H attached with benzene ring towards electrophilic
substitution reaction?

4
(1) -CN and -NO
(2) -NHCOCH3 and -CH3
(3) -NHCOCH3 and -CHO
DD
(4) -0CH3 and -SOsH
93. Which of the following compounds cannot be
prepared by Wurtz reaction? 100. Which of the following has most acidic hydrogen?
(1) Propane (2) Butane
(3) Methane (4) Ethane (1) (2
94. Arrange the following in order of their increasing
reactivity with alkanes in presence of light.
(1) l2 < Br2 < Cl < F2 (2) Br2 <Cle < F2 < I2 (3 (4)
(3) F2 < Clh < Br2 < l2 (4) Br2 < h< Clz <F2
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[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 105. Internode elongation in cabbages and deep water
rice plants, respectively can be promoted by
101. Which of the following is not a function of accessory (1) Gibberellins and auxin
pigments? (2) Gibberellins and ethylene
(1) Absorption of light (3) Auxin and ethylene
(2) Transfer of electrons to NADP (4) Cytokinin and ABA
(3) Enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming 106. Environmental heterophylly can be observed in
light to be utilized for photosynthesis (1) Cotton (2) Larkspur
(4) Protect chlorophylla from photo-oxidation (3) Buttercup (4) Coriander
102. All of the following reasons support that plants can 107. Which of the following is not exemplifying ABA?
get along without respiratory organs, except (1) Inhibitor B (2) Abscission Il
(3) Dormin (4) Zeatin
(1) Each plant part takes care of its own gas 108. Which hormone controls xylem differentiation and
exchange needs.
helps in cell division?
(2) Plants always present great demands for gas (2) Ethylene
exchange. (1) GA
(3) ABA (4) Auxin
(3) Distance that gases must diffuse is not large. 109. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(4) In photosynthesising cells, O2 is released within' (1) Joseph Priestley Sunlight is essential
the celI. for the plants
103. Which of the following hormones respectively (2) Jan Ingenhousz Green parts of plant
promotes and initiates flowering in pineapples? release oxygen in
presence of sunlight
(1) Auxin and ethylene (2) Cytokinin and ABA Glucose is made in
(3) ABA and ethylene (4) Auxin and ABA (3) Julius von Sachs
the green parts of the
104. With reference to factors affecting rateof
plant
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is
not correct? (4) Cornelius van Niel - Oxygen evolved by
between plants comes from
(1) There is always a linear relationship H20
incident light and CO2 fixation rates at high light
intensities. 110. Efficieny index
that
availability to (1) Is characteristic feature of those plant cells
(2) Water stress reduces the CO2
plants. lose the capacity to divide.
temperature (2) Can only be calculated if the plant is growing in
(3) Tropical plants have a higher an environment with unlimited
resources.
optimum than the plants adapted to temperate
plant to
(3) Is the measure of the ability of the
climates. produce new plant material.
for
(4) Carbon dioxide is the major limiting factor (4) ls estimated only in lag phase of sigmoid cuve.
photosynthesis.
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111. The phenomenon in which flowering of a plant is 417. Which of the following staternents is correct w.r.t
dependent on exposure to low temperature is cytochrome c?
termed as (1) It is a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons
(1) Plasticity (2) Bolting between complex land II|
(3) Vernalization (4) Dormancy (2) It is amobile carrier between complexland IV
112. Which of the following is not an example of biennial (3) It isa small protein attached to the outer sSurface
plant? of the inner mitochondrial membrane
(1) Radish (2) Cabbage (4) It serves the role of complex |
(3) Carrot (4) Wheat 118. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t
113. Which of the following plant growth regulators can photoperiodism?
be used as a herbicide for dicot weeds?
1) It is the response of plants to periods of
(1) Zeatin (2) 2, 4-D day/night
(3) Kinetin (4) GA3 (2) Site of perception of lightdark duration are the
114. Bakanae disease of rice seedlings is caused by stem
(1) Gibberella fujikuroi
(3) Florigen migrates from leaves to shoot apices
(2) E. coli for inducing flowering
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae (4) Day-neutral plants show no correlation between
(4) Salmonella typhi exposure to light duration and induction of
115. How many of the following statements islare flowering response
incorrect?
119. In which of the following reactions, CO2 is not
A. Glucose is the favoured substrate for respiration. released?
B. Glycerol enters the respiratory pathway after (1) Link reaction
being converted into glucose-6-phosphate.
(2) Alcoholic fermentation
C. Pure- proteins or fats are directlyused as
respiratory substrates in the respiratory (3) Lactic acid fermentation
pathway (4) Krebs cycle
D. NADH is oxidized to NAD* rather slowly in 120. Which of the following is the key product of EMP
aerobic respiration if compared to fermentation pathway?
(1) One (2) Two (2) NAD
(1) FADH2
(3) Three (4) Four (4) Pyruvic acid
(3) ADP
116. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis, ATP
synthesis is a direct outcome of 121. Which of the following is not a component of
(1) Formation of proton gradient complex IV of ETS of mitochondria?
(2) Breakdown of proton gradient (1) Cytochrome a
(3) Diffusion of protons to the outer membrane of (2) Two copper centres
chloroplast (3) Cytochrome as
(4) Diffusion of electrons to the lumen
(4) FMN
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122. Observe the following figure and select the correct (3) Cytokinin and auxin
option. (4) Ethylene and cytokinin
126. LHCis made up of
B (1) Hundreds of pigment molecules bound to
proteins
A
(2) Only chlorophyll a
(3) Only reaction centre
(4) Primary electron acceptor only
127. Law of limiting factors was given by
(1) A is the site for cyclic photophosphorylation only (1) Julius von Sachs (2) Ruben
(2) B lacks NADP reductase (3) Kamen (4) Blackman
(3) Cisthe site for non-cyclic photophosphorylation 128. Chemiosmosis does not require
(4) The membrane system found in the given figure (1) Membrane (2) Proton pump
is not responsible for trapping the light energy (3) NADP reductase (4) ATP synthase
123. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation can be 129. Match the column-l with column-il and select the
differentiated from cyclic photophosphorylation, as correct option.
in the former Column Column-1
(1) Only ATP is synthesized (Chemical Composition) (PGR)
(2) Only PS Ilis functional (i) Kinetin
A. Indole compound
(3) Oxygen is evolved B. Adenine derivative (ii) ABA
(4) Only PS Iis functional C. Carotenoid derivative (iii) GA
D. Terpene (iv) IAA
124. Which of the followingreactions is not exemplifying
substrate level phosphorylation? (1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(ii)
(1) 1, 3-bisphosphogly- ’ 3-phosphoglyceric (2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(ii)
ceric acid acid (3) A-(i), B-(), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(2) Fructose-1, 3-phosphogly (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(1), D-(iv)
ceraldehyde 130. Which of the following processes need the external
6-bisphosphate
electron donor for its continuous occurrence?
(3) Phosphoenolpyruvate ’ Pyruvate
(1) The photophosphorylation process showing
(4) Succinyl CoA ’ Succinic acid
cyclic flow of electrons
125. Which of the following hormones are used to hasten (2) Photochemical phase exhibiting Z-scheme
fruit riperning and induce parthenocarpy respectively (3) Photochemical phase that takes place in stroma
in tomatoes? lamellae
(1) Auxin and ethylene (4) The photochemical reaction that only utilizes the
(2) Ethylene and auxin photosystem having P700 reaction centre
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131.Read the following statements and select the (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
correct option. explanation of (A)
Statement A: Yeast poison themselves to death when (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 per cent. correct explanation of (A)
Statement B: In fermentation less than seven per (3) (A)is true but (R) is false
cent of the energy in the glucose is released. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) Both the statements Aand B are correct 137. How many ATP and NADPH are required to fix a
(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect molecule of sucrose vía Calvin cycle?
(3) Only statement Ais correct (1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(4) Only statement B is correct (2) 12 ATP and 18 NADPH
(3) 36 ATP and 24 NADPH
132.Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t
factors affecting growth? (4) 24 ATP and 36 NADPH
(1) Water provides the medium for enzymatic 138. The number of ATP molecules synthesised in ETS
activities of mitochondria depends on the
(1) Speed of electron flow between different
(2) Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy
complexes
(3) Macronutrients are required for the synthesis of (2) Number of subunits present in ATP synthase
protoplasm (3) Number of Oxygen molecules involved in the
(4) Only micronutrients act as source of energy procesS
133. Primary CO2 acceptor in Cs plants isa (4) Nature of the electron donor
(1) 5C compound (2) 3C compound 139. Which of the following methods cannot be used to
(3) 4C compound (4) 2C compound break seed dormancy?
134. Splitting of one molecule of water can yield (1) Application of para-ascorbic acid
(1) 4e (2) 2H* (2) Application of nitrates
(3) 6e (4) 6H* (3) Subjecting the seed to chilling conditions
135. Which of the following is not a plant factor that (4) Usage of mechanical abrasions
affects photosynthesis? 140.With respect to dormancy, a plant hormone that acts
(1) Water (2) Amount of chlorophyll as an antagonist to GA, also
(3) Orientation of leaves (4) Size of leaves (1) Plays an important role in seed development
(2) Causes internode elongation in sugarcane
SECTION-B (3) Aids in lateral shoot growth
136. Read the following statements and select the (4) Speeds up the malting process
correct option. 141. If CO2 : O2 is nearly equal, then RuBisCO will
Assertion (A): In Ca plants, photorespiration does (1) Show greater affinity for CO2 than O2
not occur. (2) Show lower affinity for COz than O2
Reason (R): C4 plants have a mechanism that (3) Function as both carboxylase and oxygenase at
the same time
increases the concentration of COz at the enzyme
site. (4) Become non-functional
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET2025
Test5 (Code-)
142. During the conversion of PGAL to BPGA (3) Fructose-6-phosphate ’ FructoSe-1,6
(1) ATP is utilized
(2) Two redox-equivalents are removed in the form (4) 3-phosphoglyceric bisphosphate
2-phosandphoglselectycerir,
of H* from PGAL
acid
(3) NADH gets oxidised acid
147. Match column-l with column-|
(4) ATP is synthesized
143. Select the incorrectly matched pair. correct option. the
(1) Phase of cell division Cells possess large Column-4

(2) Meristematic phase

conspicuous nuclei (Respiratory substrate) Column
(RQ)
- Cell enlargement A. Tripalmitin
(3) Elongation phase New cell wall B. Glucose 1.0
i. 1.33
deposition C. Oxalic acid
(4) Maturation phase Cells with maximal ii. 0.7
D. Malic acid
size in terms of their iv. 4
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (2) A-i,
protoplasmic
(3) A-i, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (4) A-ii,
B-iv, C-ii, D-ii
modifications B-i, C-i, D-iy
144. Read the folowing statements and 148. Maize can be
correct option.
select the
former
differentiated from bell pepper, as the
Assertion (A): Presence of oxygen is vital for (1) Performs calvin cycle in mesophyll cells
electron transport system in
Reason (R): Oxygen drivesmitochondria.
(2) Shows no
tolerance towards high
the whole process of
oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria by (3) Is incapable to produce ATP or temperature
(4) Has leaves that show NADPH
removing hydrogen from the system. 'Kranz' anatomy
(1) Both (A) and (R)are true and 149. In both
explanation of (A)
(R) is the correct photophosphorylation
phosphorylation
and
during synthesis of ATP oxidative
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true
but (R) is not the ATP synthase through
Correct explanation of (A) (1) Uphill transport of
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false protons occurs across the
membYane
(4) (A) is false but (R) is (2)
145. Which of the true Downhill transport of protons occurs across
following the
Sorghum and tormato? pathway common to both
is membrane
(1) Ca cycle 3) Light energy is utilised for the
(3) CAM pathway (2) Photorespiration proton gradient production of
146.Which of the (4) Ca cyle (4) Energy of
following reaction is considered as the oxidation-reduction is utilized for the
rate
limiting step of
glycolysis where production of
150. Link reaction is proton gradient
phosphofructokinase
(1) Glucose works? catalysed by
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
’ Glucose-6
(2) Citrate synthase
(2) PEP phosphate (3) Hexokinase
Pyruvate
(4) lsocitrate dehydrogenase
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(ZOOLOGY]
SECTION -A 159, Corals have a skeletorn cornp0sed rnainly of
mostly HY Calciurn carbonate (2) Calciurrn oxalate
are
Sponges
(1)
151. Radiallysymmetrical (3) Calciun phosphate (4) Calciurn chloride
fourid to be divided
Asymmetrical T60. Insome animal phyla, the body is sorne
least
13)Bilaterallysymmetrical into segments with a serial repetition of at
(4) Biradiallysymmetrical organs. This characteristic feature is called
(1) Pseudosegmentation
undifterentiated layer mesoglea, is present in
152.An and endodermin 2Y Metamerism
betweenthe ectoderm (3) Metamorphosis
(1) Poriferans (2) Cnidarians
(4) Roundworms (4) Metagenesis
(3) Flatworms of animals hare
COnnectedto lungs supplement respiration in 161. Which one of the folowing groups
four charmbered heart
153. AirsaCS (2) Pterophyllum acommon feature of having
(1) Psittacula among them?
(4) Pristis reptiles
(3)Pteropus
mammalian feature is the (1) Amphibians, crocodiles and
most unique
154.The (2) Crocodiles, birds and mammals
presenceof lizards
(3) Turtles, mammals and
(1) Scales and mammals
(2) Calcareous endoskeleton (4) Fishes, amphibians
characteristic shared by both
heart 162.Cho0se a common
(3) Four chambered given below.
birds and mammals from the options
Mammaryglands skin with sweat glands
are placed in the (1) Presence of pigmented
55 Triploblastic, acoelomate animals some modifications such
(2) Alimentary canal with
phylum as crop and gizzard
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Arthropoda
(3) Viviparity
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Annelida (4) Homeothermous nature
shed their scales as animals belong to
156. Which of the following animals 163. Which of the following groups of
skin cast? the same class?
(2) Turtles
(1) Snakes
(4) Tortoises (1) Jellyfish,silverfish, dog fish
cuttlefish
(3) Crocodiles (2) Flying fish, devil fish,
157. Choose a tailed amphibian from the options given
(3) Saw fish, star fish, hagfish
below.
(2) Rana (4) Macaca, Canis, Felis
w.r.t. frogs.
(1) Bufo
(4) Salamandra 164. Cho0se the incorrect statement
species of frog
(3) Hyla
nature and (1) Rana tigrina is the most common
158. Select the organism which is marine in found in India.
four pairs of
Shows presence of operculum to cover (2) They are amphibious in
habitat.
gills. body temperature.
(3) They do not have constant
(1) Dog fish (2) Saw fish neck and trunk.
(4) Electric fish (4) The body is divisible into head,
(3) Filyingfish
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during peak 169, ChO0se the odd one w.r.t. econornicaly beneficial
465 Assertion(A): The frogs are not seen
summer and winter. insects.
Reason (R): During this period, they take shelter in
(1) Apis (2) Bormbyx
48 Locusta x Laccifer
deep burrows to protect them from extreme heat and 170, Which of the following staternents is incorrect%
Cold (1) In cockroaches and prawns, respiration occurs
In the light of above given statements, choose the through trachealtubes.
correct option. (2) In ctenophores, locomotion take place with he
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the help of ciliated cornb plates.
correct explanation of (A). (3) Flame cells are excretory structures in rotifters
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) 0s the correct and cephalochordates.
explanation of (A). (4) Earthworms perforrn cross fertilisation although
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false they are hermaphrodites.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false 171. Choose an option containing only poisonous
reptiles.
166.Which of the following structures of frog receives
openings of ureters and open exterior through an (1) Chelone, Testudo, Chameleon
aperture? (2) Calotes, Crocodilus, Testudo
(1) Urinary bladder (2) Urethra (3) Naja, Bangarus, Vipera
(4) Crocodilus,Hemidactylus, Naja
(3) Duodenum .(4) Cloaca 172. Presence of all of the following features are true for
167. Match the following columns w.r.t. Rana tigrina. Ascaris, except
Column Column I| (1) Monoecious condition
A. Mimicry () Finally opens outside by (2) Parasitic lifecycle
the cloacal aperture (3) Body is circular in cross-section
B. Rectum
(4) Pseudocoelom
(i)Site of final digestion 173. Choose the correct option to complete the analogy
C. Bile (ii) Protective coloration w.r.t frog.
D intestine (iv) Emulsification of fat Winter sleep: Hibernation Summer sleep
Choose the correct option.
(1) Camouflage (2) Protective coloration
B C D 3 Aestivation (4) Metamorphosis
(1) (i) (ii) (ü) (iv) 174. Cho0se the incorrect statement w.r.t. respiration in
(2) (
frogs.
(ii) (i) (iv)
(1) During aestivation., frogs respire through skin.
(ii) (0) (iv) () (2) Lungs are present in the upper part of trunk
(4) (iv) (ii) (ü) () region.
168. All of the following mammals are viviparous, except (3YThe respiration by lungs is called branchial
(1) Whale respiration.
(2) Macropus
(3) Ornithorhynchus (4) On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as
(4) Flying fox respiratory organs
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the following categories of animals is

Which one of (3) Vasa efferentia with fat bodies
correctly described without any exception in it? (4) Bidder's canal with kidneys
(1)All mammals are viviparous and possess body 182. Special venous connection is present between
hair. largest gland of the body and largest part of
alimentary canal as well as between main exGretory
All reptiles possess scales and have three
(2)chambered heart. organ and lower parts of the body in frogs which are
bony fishes have four pairs of gills which are called 'A' and 'B' respectively. Identify 'A' and 'B and
(3) All operculum on each side choose the correct option.
covered by an
and have collar cells. A
A) Allsponges are marine
characters/features are present (1) | Hepatic portal Renal portal system
of the following
176.inAlsponges, except system
(1)Choanocytes (2) |Hypophyseal portal Renal portal systern
system |system
(2) Water canal
numerous ostia Hepatic portal
(3) Presence of (3) Renal portal system
4) Gastro-vascular cavity system
match w.r.t. animals and their Hypophyseal portal
477 Choose the incorrect (4) Hepatic portal
organisation. system
level of body Cellular level
system
following structures has no
(1) Sycon Tissue level 183. In frogs, which of the
(2) Obelia
Organ level
functional connection with kidneys?
(3) Fasciola (1) Nephrons 2) Ovaries
(4) Pleurobrachia Organ system level (4) Ureters
(3) Testes
shows presence of file-like are present in
178. Select the phylum that its members. 184. Statocysts as balancing organ
rasping organ for feeding in(2) Aschelminthes (1) Locusta (2) Prawn
(1) Echinodermata (3) Taenia (4) Ascaris
(3) Mollusca
(4) Annelida vertebrates are chordates but al
phyla exhibit radial 185. Assertion (A): All
179. Animals of which of the following chordates are not vertebrates.
depending on the stage of cephalochordates, notochord is
or bilateral symmetry Reason (R): In
in vertebrates.
their life?
(2) Platyhelminthes persistent throughout life, whereas bony
cartilaginous or
(1)) Ctenophora notochord is replaced by a
(3) Echinodermata (4) Chordata vertebralcolumn in the adult.
CNS which passes out statements, choose the correct
180. In Rana tigrina, the pat of and continues into a In the light of above below.
through the foramen magnum answer from the options given (R) is the correct
are true and
Cord-like structure, is
(2) Cerebellum (1) Both (A) and (R)
(1) Spinal cord explanation of (A)
is not the
3 Medullaoblongata (4) Optic lobes (R) are true but (R)
(2) Both (A) and
double fold of peritoneum correct explanation of (A)
l81. In frogs, mesorchium is
false
which adheres (3) (A)is true, (R) is
are false
(1) Testes with upper part of kidneys (4) Both (A) and (R)
of testes
(2) Kidneys with upper parts Work
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SECTION B 191. In ecosystem, frogs maintain ecological balance

186. Cyclostomes migrate for spawning most likely to because they serve as an important
(1) Brackish water (2) Rivers (1) Food for all hurnans
(2) Connecting link between fishes and arnphibians
(3) Sea water (4) Oceans
187. Cho0se the incorrect statement w.r.t. roundworms. (3) Link of food chain and food web
(4) Bait in game 'fishing'
(1) Their body have organ system level of
organisation. 192. In Periplaneta americana, how many fused,
segmentally arranged ganglia are present in thorax
(2) They have well developed muscular pharynx. and abdomen respectively?
(3) Often males are longer than females. (1) 6 and 12
(4) Fertilisation is internal and development may be (2) 4 and 8
direct or indirect.
(3) 3 and 6
188. Bioluminescence is the property of living organisms
(4) 2 and 5
to emit light. This property is well marked in
Ctenophores (2) Annelids
193. In each body segment of earthworm, there are rows
of S-shaped setae, except
(3) Echinoderms (4) Poriferans
189. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Clitellar region only
correct option. (2) First segment, last segment and clitellar region
Staterment (A): Hemichordata consists of a small (3) Pre-typhlosolar region only
group of worm-like marine animals. (4) Post-typhlosolar region only
Statement (B): Fertilisation internal in 194. Choose the incorrect statement.
Balanogiossus and development is indirect through (1) All members of the kingdom Animalia do not
a larval stage. exhibit the same pattern of organisation of cells.
(1) Both statements (A)and (B) are correct (2) In sponges, cells are arranged as loose cel
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect aggregates and some division of labour occur
(3) Statement (A) is incorrect and statement (B) is among. cells.
Correct (3) Organ level of organisation is exhibited by the
(4) Statement (A) is correct and statement (B) is members of phylum Molluscaonly.
incorrect (4) Organ. system in different group of animals
190. Heart of cockroach consists of an exhibit various patterns of complexities.
elongated 195. Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs
muscular tube lying along
(1) Mid ventral line of only thorax by the presence of copulatory pad on
(2) Mid ventral line of thorax and (1) First digit of hind limbs
abdomen (2) First digit of fore limbs
(3) Mid dorsal line of thorax and
abdomen (3) Last digit of fore limbs
(4) Mid ventral line of head, thorax and
abdomen (4) Last digit of hind limbs
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196. Which of the following organisms dies within few
days after spawning but its ammocoete larva (c) In Clenoplana, the body bears eight internal
undergoes metamorphosisin fresh water? rows of ciliated conb plates for locomotion.
(d) Cormb jellies are dioecious and radially
(1) Petromyzon (2) Pristis
syrnmetrical anirnals.
(3) Eptatretus (4) Neormyxine (e) Pleurobrachia bears one pair of tentacles.
197. Choose the incorrect match. Choose the option with only correct features.
(1) Torpedo Electric organ (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Trygon Air bladder (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (b) and (e)
(3) Clarias Operculum 200. Read the following staternents
(4) Pierophylum Aquarium fish Statement (A): Molluscs are triploblastic, normally
an2 How many of the below given features are found in bilaterally symmetrical animals in which
insects? development takes place through various larval
ia) Metamerically segmented body stages.
(b) Schizocoelom as body cavity Statement (B): Birds and reptiles are sirnilar in
(c) Open type of blood circulation presence of scales and being homeothermous.
(d) Exoskeleton composed of Statement (C): Crop and gizzard are two additionai
N-acetyl parts in alimentary canal of birds and insects.
glucosamine
Choose the correct option. Choose the correct option.
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct but (C)
(1) 2 (2) 1 is incorrect
(3) 4 (4) 3
199. Read the following features w.r.t. ctenophores. (2) Both statements (B) and (C) are correct but (A)
is incorrect
(a) They are commonly known as sea walnuts.
(3) Both statements (A) and (C) are correct but (B)
(b) Diploblastic animals with tissue level is incorrect
organisation. (4) All statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct