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5/18/23, 8:56 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 18 May - 24 May / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Thursday, 18 May 2023, 8:53 AM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 18 May 2023, 8:53 AM
Time taken 9 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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5/18/23, 8:56 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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5/18/23, 8:56 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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5/25/23, 9:38 PM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 25 May - 31 May / Self-Quiz Unit 8

Started on Thursday, 25 May 2023, 9:35 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 25 May 2023, 9:35 PM
Time taken 10 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

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5/25/23, 9:38 PM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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5/25/23, 9:38 PM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 9 ►

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4/30/23, 4:05 AM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 27 April - 3 May / Self-Quiz Unit 4

Started on Sunday, 30 April 2023, 4:03 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 April 2023, 4:05 AM
Time taken 1 min 46 secs
Marks 5.00/5.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

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4/30/23, 4:05 AM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is correct.

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.

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4/30/23, 4:05 AM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is correct.

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4/30/23, 4:05 AM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is correct.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 4

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 4 ►

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5/7/23, 12:21 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 4 May - 10 May / Self-Quiz Unit 5

Started on Sunday, 7 May 2023, 12:17 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 7 May 2023, 12:18 AM
Time taken 19 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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5/7/23, 12:21 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type

b. Class/Objects

c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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5/7/23, 12:21 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 5

Jump to...

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5/12/23, 11:54 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 11 May - 17 May / Self-Quiz Unit 6

Started on Friday, 12 May 2023, 11:39 PM


State Finished
Completed on Friday, 12 May 2023, 11:40 PM
Time taken 9 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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5/12/23, 11:54 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin

If N =0
Then Factout = 1

Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)


End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously

until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect. 


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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5/12/23, 11:54 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 6

Jump to...

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4/8/23, 4:44 AM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 6 April - 12 April / Self-Quiz Unit 1

Started on Saturday, 8 April 2023, 4:42 AM


State Finished
Completed on Saturday, 8 April 2023, 4:44 AM
Time taken 2 mins 11 secs
Marks 5.00/5.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is correct.

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4/8/23, 4:44 AM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is correct.

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4/8/23, 4:44 AM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False 

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True 

False

◄ Learning Journal Unit 1

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4/15/23, 5:57 AM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 13 April - 19 April / Self-Quiz Unit 2

Started on Saturday, 15 April 2023, 5:53 AM


State Finished
Completed on Saturday, 15 April 2023, 5:54 AM
Time taken 19 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Case workers

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4/15/23, 5:57 AM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

◄ Learning Journal Unit 2

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4/23/23, 10:22 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T4 / 20 April - 26 April / Self-Quiz Unit 3

Started on Sunday, 23 April 2023, 10:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 23 April 2023, 10:22 PM
Time taken 2 mins 58 secs
Marks 5.00/5.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True 

False

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4/23/23, 10:22 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True

False 

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is correct.

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4/23/23, 10:22 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is correct.

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True  
False

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◄ Learning Journal Unit 3

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Graded Quiz Unit 7 Attempt review

Software Engineering 2 (University of the People)

Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university


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11/4/21, 10:49 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403 - AY2022-T1 / 14 October - 20 October / Graded Quiz Unit 7

Started on Wednesday, 20 October 2021, 3:52 AM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 20 October 2021, 4:08 AM
Time taken 16 mins 14 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams 

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration 

d. Software

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.

Select one:
a. QA test package

b. Regression test package 

c. System test package

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Regression test package

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Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without
ever executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.

Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser

b. Coverage analyser

c. Tuning analyser

d. Static code analyser 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Static code analyser

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Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when
they are defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking 

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 11
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update may be performed until the lock is
removed.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring 

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic 

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.

Select one:
a. Consistency Checking

b. Correctness Checking 

c. Completeness Checking

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Correctness Checking

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Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 19
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams 

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 20
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Derivation

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 8 ►


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ea g Gu de U t 8 ►

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Downloaded by Rawa Almaidan ([email protected])
1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Saturday, 24 December 2022, 10:04 AM


State Finished
Completed on Saturday, 24 December 2022, 10:34 AM
Time taken 29 mins 57 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

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Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 11
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.

Select one:
a. QA test package

b. Regression test package

c. System test package

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Regression test package

Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

There are four types of requirements: technical, managerial,__________, and company.

Select one:
a. General

b. Financial

c. System

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Financial

Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.
Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

Question 18
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 19
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flow

b. Efferent Flow

c. Central Transform

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Central Transform

Question 20
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 2204-01 - AY2022-T5 / 30 June - 6 July / Graded Quiz Unit 3

Started on Wednesday, 6 July 2022, 12:14 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 6 July 2022, 12:42 PM
Time taken 28 mins 19 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are
sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The terms “throughput” and “data rate” are considered to mean the same thing.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

Select one:
a. generally uses LEDs as the light source

b. no longer in use

c. uses relatively larger core with multiple light paths

d. is cheaper than multi-mode fiber

e. generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What are the frequency bands used by Wi-Fi 802.11n?

Select one:
a. 5 GHz exclusively

b. 2.4 GHz exclusively

c. 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz 

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Fast (100 Mbps) Ethernet uses the following encoding:

Select one:
a. NRZI

b. Manchester

c. AMI

d. 4B/5B 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 4B/5B

Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Switches are used to connect distant LANs whereas a Router is most often used to connect individual computers.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the Internet, most packet losses are due to:

Select one:
a. Packet corruption

b. Software bugs

c. Protocol flaws

d. Congestion 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Congestion

Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

Select one:
a. the metal braiding in the shielding

b. the reflective cladding around core

c. the twisting of the wires in the cable 

d. the insulating material in the outer jacket

e. the type of metal used for the wires

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: the twisting of the wires in the cable

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the bandwidth delay to get 1500 bytes onto the wire for Gigabit Ethernet?

Select one:
a. 1 millisecond

b. 1 microsecond

c. 120 microseconds

d. 12 microseconds 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 12 microseconds

Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The popular USB (Universal Serial Bus) standard for connecting computer peripherals uses Manchester encoding.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Select one:
a. Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.

b. An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.

c. Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss. 

d. Data bits will get inverted.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.

Question 12

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

Select one:
a. It is used as a pad for data

b. It identifies the source address

c. It marks the end of timing information

d. It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros 

e. It identifies the destination address

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The use of _________ lets the base station receive CDMA messages from unsynchronized mobile phones.

Select one:
a. large antennas

b. expensive digital filter components

c. sophisticated software algorithms

d. pseudorandom sequences 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: pseudorandom sequences

Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The term “frames” normally refers to data packets at which layer?

Select one:
a. Transport (e.g. TCP)

b. Application (e.g. WWW)

c. Data Link (e.g. Ethernet) 

d. Network (e.g. IP)

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Data Link (e.g. Ethernet)

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In bridged LANs, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path
only.

Select one:
a. binary tree

b. unary tree

c. routing

d. shortest path

e. spanning tree 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: spanning tree

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Category 5 UTP cable is often used in which networks?

Select one:
a. Telephone

b. USB

c. 10 Mbps Ethernet

d. 100 Mbps Ethernet 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 100 Mbps Ethernet

Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A network cable lies in the ____________ layer.

Select one:
a. Network

b. Transport

c. Data Link

d. MAC

e. Physical 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Physical

Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the context of data networking, a protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that governs how computers exchange
information over a network medium. A protocol implements the functions of one or more of the OSI layers.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 3

Jump to...

CS2204 U2 Solution ►

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 2204-01 - AY2022-T5 / 21 July - 27 July / Graded Quiz Unit 6

Started on Wednesday, 27 July 2022, 12:13 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 27 July 2022, 12:30 PM
Time taken 17 mins 4 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In distance-vector routing, each node has a complete view of the network topology.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which information is found in the UDP header?

Select one:
a. Sequencing

b. Flow Control

c. Acknowledgement

d. Urgent data flag

e. Source and Destination Port 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Source and Destination Port

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

UDP packets with spoofed source address are difficult to deliver to the application.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the primary reason for the development of IPv6?

Select one:
a. security

b. header format specification

c. expanded addressing capabilities 

d. addressing simplifications

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: expanded addressing capabilities

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the size of IPv6 addresses?

Select one:
a. 256 bits

b. 96 bits

c. 32 bits

d. 128 bits 

e. 64 bits

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: 128 bits

Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What OSI layer identifies the communicating applications?

Select one:
a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4 

e. Layer 5

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Layer 4

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

Select one:
a. acknowledgement of data delivery

b. minimal delays in data delivery 

c. high reliability of data delivery

d. same order data delivery

e. flow control

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: minimal delays in data delivery

Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What version of IP is the most common in the world?

Select one:
a. IPv3

b. IPng

c. IPv5

d. IPv6

e. IPv4 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: IPv4

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Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In Sliding Windows, the sender is allowed to send up to this many packets (starting with the next packet after the last acknowledged
packet):

Select one:
a. half of the window size

b. window size minus 1

c. window size 

d. window size plus 1

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: window size

Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The IPv6 fixed header is twice the size of the IPv4 header, so it amounts to:

Select one:
a. 32 bytes

b. 60 bytes

c. 50 bytes

d. 40 bytes 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: 40 bytes

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the primary reason for the eventual retirement of IPv4?

Select one:
a. security

b. header format specification

c. limited addressing capabilities 

d. addressing simplifications

e. performance issues

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: limited addressing capabilities

Question 12

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Generally speaking, IPv6 addresses consist of a 64-bit network prefix (perhaps including subnet bits) followed by a 64-bit part called:

Select one:
a. LAN address

b. link-local address

c. interface identifier 

d. h/w address

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: interface identifier

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The size of the UDP port field is:

Select one:
a. 8 bits

b. 16 bits 

c. 32 bits

d. 48 bits

e. 64 bits

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 16 bits

Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Routers have the option of fallback-to-flooding for unknown destinations (i.e. those which are not in their routing table).

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intra-domain routing protocol based on _________ routing

Select one:
a. distance vector 

b. link state

c. path vector

d. OSPF

e. path state

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: distance vector

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Split Horizon fix to the slow-convergence problem prevents all linear routing loops.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which statement describes the purpose of a default route?

Select one:
a. to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.

b. to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.

c. to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.

d. to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists. 

e. to send packets whose destination address is unknown

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What enables an Internet site to appear to the outside world as a single IP network, but further IP-layer routing to be supported inside
the site?

Select one:
a. IPv6 only

b. source routing

c. subnets 

d. Classless Inter-Domain Routing

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: subnets

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

To avoid stop-and-wait becoming a performance bottleneck, TFTP has an option to allow small window size sliding windows operation.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is not supported by IPv6?

Select one:
a. LAN multicast

b. IP multicast

c. IP unicast

d. LAN broadcast 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: LAN broadcast

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 6

Jump to...

CS2204 WA5 Sol ►

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Started on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:11 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:41 PM
Time taken 30 mins 1 sec
Marks 14.00/20.00
Grade 70.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also
delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 5
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed.
This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.

Select one:
a. Control

b. Execute

c. Common

d. Content

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Content

Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the
outcome to be realized

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 7
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating Groups," which processes are decomposed?

Select one:
a. Rental/Return

b. Accounting

c. Purchasing

d. Personnel / Payroll

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Rental/Return

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Five

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and
entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the logical and physical data
definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might complicate the
program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Started on Friday, 11 November 2022, 6:05 AM


State Finished
Completed on Friday, 11 November 2022, 6:05 AM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

◄ Learning Journal Unit 1

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 17 November 2022, 4:23 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 17 November 2022, 4:23 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 2

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Started on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:01 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 4

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 8 December 2022, 5:17 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 8 December 2022, 5:17 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

◄ Learning Journal Unit 5

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 7:42 AM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 7:42 AM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 6

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 6:14 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 6:15 PM
Time taken 48 secs
Marks 1.00/5.00
Grade 20.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

Question 2
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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Question 3
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:52 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:52 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.

Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:53 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:55 PM
Time taken 1 min 39 secs
Marks 3.00/5.00
Grade 60.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414552&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.

Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414552&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414553&cmid=329410 1/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414554&cmid=329410 1/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414554&cmid=329410 2/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414556&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414556&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414556&cmid=329410 3/3
12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 10 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414557&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414557&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 3/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414574&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414574&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414574&cmid=329410 3/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 3/3
1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463135&cmid=329417 1/15
1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the
intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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State Finished
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Time taken 6 secs
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Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 13
Not answered

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Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

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Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 8 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

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Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

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Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

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Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the
application.

Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 10

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

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Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 19

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

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Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and equipment
for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence equipment such as a disk
drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 5

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

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◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure of
confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 2401-01 - AY2023-T4 / 18 May - 24 May / Graded Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 21 May 2023, 10:17 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 21 May 2023, 10:32 AM
Time taken 15 mins 3 secs
Marks 10.00/10.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

To prioritize the work on use cases, we use

Select one:
a. Product Matrix
b. Process Matrix
c. Traceability Matrix
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Traceability Matrix

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

On the Ordinal Cohesion Scale, rate the following in the Lowest to Highest order of cohesion.

Select one:
a. Logical , Coincidental, Sequential, Temporal, Functional
b. Coincidental, Sequential, Functional, Temporal, Logical
c. Coincidental, Logical, Temporal, Sequential, Functional
d. Logical, Sequential, Coincidental, Temporal, Functional

The correct answer is: Coincidental, Logical, Temporal, Sequential, Functional

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Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

7. -------------------measures the degree to which the specification or code of a software program has been exercised by tests. ---------
----------measures the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested.

Select one:
a. Test coverage, Code coverage
b. Code coverage, Test coverage
c. Acceptance Test, Unit Test
d. Unit Test, Acceptance Test

The correct answer is: Test coverage, Code coverage

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The observer pattern , separates the display of the state of an object from the object itself and allows alternative displays to be
provided. When the object state changes, all displays are automatically notified and updated to reflect the change.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Match with the correct choices. In context diagrams, what are the following used for?

Select one:
a. A-2, B-3, C-1
b. A-1 ,B-2, C-3
c. A-3, B-1, C-2
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: A-3, B-1, C-2

Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Advanced Encryption Standard has a fixed block size of ________bits and a key size of _______ , ________ and _________ bits

Select one:
a. 256, 128, 192, 256
b. 128, 128, 192 and 256
c. 192, 128, 192, 256
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: 128, 128, 192 and 256

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Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Symmetric cryptosystems are also known as Public Key systems

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The encrypted message in cryptography is known as --------------

Select one:
a. Cleartext
b. Ciphertext
c. Plaintext
d. Jumbled text

The correct answer is: Ciphertext

Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

We call a function f a trapdoor function if f is easy to compute, but f -1 is very hard, indeed impossible for practical purposes.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

'Velocity' of the development team ( in effort estimation ) is defined are the -----------?

Select one:
a. Duration needed to develop the system
b. Effort needed to develop the system
c. Productivity of the team
d. Speed of the team

The correct answer is: Productivity of the team

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 8 ►

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11/4/21, 10:49 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403 - AY2022-T1 / 14 October - 20 October / Graded Quiz Unit 7

Started on Wednesday, 20 October 2021, 3:52 AM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 20 October 2021, 4:08 AM
Time taken 16 mins 14 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams 

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration 

d. Software

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.

Select one:
a. QA test package

b. Regression test package 

c. System test package

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Regression test package

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Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without
ever executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.

Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser

b. Coverage analyser

c. Tuning analyser

d. Static code analyser 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Static code analyser

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Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when
they are defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking 

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 11
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update may be performed until the lock is
removed.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring 

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic 

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.

Select one:
a. Consistency Checking

b. Correctness Checking 

c. Completeness Checking

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Correctness Checking

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Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 19
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams 

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 20
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Derivation

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 8 ►


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ea g Gu de U t 8 ►

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T3 / 9 March - 15 March / Graded Quiz Unit 7

Started on Wednesday, 15 March 2023, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 15 March 2023, 2:28 PM
Time taken 27 mins 58 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

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Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.

Select one:
a. Consistency Checking

b. Correctness Checking

c. Completeness Checking

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Correctness Checking

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flow

b. Efferent Flow

c. Central Transform

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Central Transform

Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without ever
executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.

Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser

b. Coverage analyser

c. Tuning analyser

d. Static code analyser

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Static code analyser

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 12

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type

b. Class/Objects Object

c. Class

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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24/03/2023, 21:00 Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.

Select one:
a. QA test package

b. Regression test package

c. System test package

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Regression test package

Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

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24/03/2023, 21:00 Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 8 ►

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7

CS 4403 Software Engineering 2 - Term 3, 2018-2019


Home ► My courses ► CS 4403 - AY2019-T3 ► 14 March - 20 March ► Graded Quiz Unit 7

Started on Wednesday, 20 March 2019, 5:49 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 20 March 2019, 6:15 PM
Time taken 26 mins 14 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1 A version le is used to store the di erences between versions of a


Correct program.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2 _____________Normal modules perform one action on data from one object.
Correct ____________Polymorphic modules perform one action on data from many
Mark 1.00 out of objects of di ering data types.
1.00
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 3 ___________management is the identi cation, organization, and control of
Correct modi cations to software built by a programming team.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Con guration

d. Software

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Con guration

Question 4 A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.


Correct

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:


1.00 True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5 A version le is used to store the di erences between versions of a


Correct program.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 6 The following gure depicts the ___________ testing technique.
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of


1.00

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: White box testing

Question 7 True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of


1.00
Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 8 An __________ is the new, user-de ned data type that encapsulates
Correct de nitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

Question 9 A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code


Correct modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
Mark 1.00 out of load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that
1.00 work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 10 The baseline is the o cial version of a code module that is in production
Correct use at any time.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 11 ____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits


Correct operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
Mark 1.00 out of de ned in the same module.
1.00
Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 12 ______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept
Correct and handle program errors without abending a program.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 13 A ___________ is a list that identi es the speci c versions of multiple


Correct modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
Mark 1.00 out of resident work unit.
1.00
Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Derivation

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 14 There are four types of requirements: technical, managerial,__________, and
Correct company.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. General

b. Financial

c. System

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Financial

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 15 Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given
Correct below is true or false.
Mark 1.00 out of Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD
1.00

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 16 The following is an example of Booch diagram?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of


1.00

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 17 A ___________ depicts speci c transformations and outputs as e ects and
Correct identi es the input data causing those e ects
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-e ect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Cause-e ect graph

Question 18 An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application,
Correct including both service and problem domain objects.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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3/27/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 7


Question 19 A ___________ is a list that identi es the speci c versions of multiple
Correct modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
Mark 1.00 out of resident work unit.
1.00
Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 20 A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of
Correct data records based on programmer speci cations
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 8 ►

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8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 13 July - 19 July / Self-Quiz Unit 5

Started on Monday, 17 July 2023, 12:58 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 17 July 2023, 12:58 AM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11067928&cmid=370862 1/4
8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type

b. Class/Objects

c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence
equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Process Diagram

◄ Learning Journal Unit 5

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 6 ►

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 13 July - 19 July / Self-Quiz Unit 5

Started on Monday, 17 July 2023, 12:58 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 17 July 2023, 12:58 AM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11067930&cmid=370862 1/3
8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

◄ Learning Journal Unit 5

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 6 ►

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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 13 July - 19 July / Self-Quiz Unit 5

Started on Monday, 17 July 2023, 12:58 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 17 July 2023, 12:58 AM
Time taken 9 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11067932&cmid=370862 1/3
8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

◄ Learning Journal Unit 5

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 6 ►

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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 20 July - 26 July / Self-Quiz Unit 6

Started on Monday, 24 July 2023, 1:53 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 24 July 2023, 1:53 AM
Time taken 9 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11154086&cmid=370867 1/3
8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin

If N =0
Then Factout = 1

Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)


End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously

until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

◄ Learning Journal Unit 6

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 20 July - 26 July / Self-Quiz Unit 6

Started on Monday, 24 July 2023, 1:54 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 24 July 2023, 1:54 AM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11154091&cmid=370867 1/3
8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

◄ Learning Journal Unit 6

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 20 July - 26 July / Self-Quiz Unit 6

Started on Monday, 24 July 2023, 1:54 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 24 July 2023, 1:54 AM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11154098&cmid=370867 1/3
8/2/23, 10:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11154098&cmid=370867 2/3
8/2/23, 10:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 6

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 27 July - 2 August / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM
Time taken 19 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Configuration

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8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262641&cmid=370871 2/3
8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 27 July - 2 August / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262649&cmid=370871 1/3
8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262649&cmid=370871 2/3
8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 27 July - 2 August / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262651&cmid=370871 1/3
8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 27 July - 2 August / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262654&cmid=370871 1/3
8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 27 July - 2 August / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262656&cmid=370871 1/3
8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262656&cmid=370871 2/3
8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 27 July - 2 August / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:22 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262657&cmid=370871 1/3
8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Configuration

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262657&cmid=370871 2/3
8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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8/2/23, 10:15 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 27 July - 2 August / Self-Quiz Unit 7

Started on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:23 PM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 July 2023, 12:23 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262658&cmid=370871 1/3
8/2/23, 10:15 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Configuration

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11262658&cmid=370871 2/3
8/2/23, 10:15 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 7 ►

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403 - AY2022-T1 / 14 October - 20 October / Graded Quiz Unit 7

Started on Wednesday, 20 October 2021, 3:52 AM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 20 October 2021, 4:08 AM
Time taken 16 mins 14 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams 

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration 

d. Software

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.

Select one:
a. QA test package

b. Regression test package 

c. System test package

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Regression test package

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Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without
ever executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.

Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser

b. Coverage analyser

c. Tuning analyser

d. Static code analyser 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Static code analyser

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Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when
they are defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking 

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 11
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update may be performed until the lock is
removed.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring 

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic 

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.

Select one:
a. Consistency Checking

b. Correctness Checking 

c. Completeness Checking

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Correctness Checking

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Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 19
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams 

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 20
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Derivation

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 8 ►


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ea g Gu de U t 8 ►

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Started on Saturday, 24 December 2022, 10:04 AM


State Finished
Completed on Saturday, 24 December 2022, 10:34 AM
Time taken 29 mins 57 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

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Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 11
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.

Select one:
a. QA test package

b. Regression test package

c. System test package

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Regression test package

Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

There are four types of requirements: technical, managerial,__________, and company.

Select one:
a. General

b. Financial

c. System

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Financial

Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.
Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

Question 18
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 19
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flow

b. Efferent Flow

c. Central Transform

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Central Transform

Question 20
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 2204-01 - AY2022-T5 / 30 June - 6 July / Graded Quiz Unit 3

Started on Wednesday, 6 July 2022, 12:14 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 6 July 2022, 12:42 PM
Time taken 28 mins 19 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are
sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The terms “throughput” and “data rate” are considered to mean the same thing.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

Select one:
a. generally uses LEDs as the light source

b. no longer in use

c. uses relatively larger core with multiple light paths

d. is cheaper than multi-mode fiber

e. generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What are the frequency bands used by Wi-Fi 802.11n?

Select one:
a. 5 GHz exclusively

b. 2.4 GHz exclusively

c. 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz 

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Fast (100 Mbps) Ethernet uses the following encoding:

Select one:
a. NRZI

b. Manchester

c. AMI

d. 4B/5B 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 4B/5B

Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Switches are used to connect distant LANs whereas a Router is most often used to connect individual computers.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the Internet, most packet losses are due to:

Select one:
a. Packet corruption

b. Software bugs

c. Protocol flaws

d. Congestion 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Congestion

Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

Select one:
a. the metal braiding in the shielding

b. the reflective cladding around core

c. the twisting of the wires in the cable 

d. the insulating material in the outer jacket

e. the type of metal used for the wires

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: the twisting of the wires in the cable

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the bandwidth delay to get 1500 bytes onto the wire for Gigabit Ethernet?

Select one:
a. 1 millisecond

b. 1 microsecond

c. 120 microseconds

d. 12 microseconds 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 12 microseconds

Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The popular USB (Universal Serial Bus) standard for connecting computer peripherals uses Manchester encoding.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Select one:
a. Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.

b. An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.

c. Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss. 

d. Data bits will get inverted.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.

Question 12

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

Select one:
a. It is used as a pad for data

b. It identifies the source address

c. It marks the end of timing information

d. It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros 

e. It identifies the destination address

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The use of _________ lets the base station receive CDMA messages from unsynchronized mobile phones.

Select one:
a. large antennas

b. expensive digital filter components

c. sophisticated software algorithms

d. pseudorandom sequences 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: pseudorandom sequences

Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The term “frames” normally refers to data packets at which layer?

Select one:
a. Transport (e.g. TCP)

b. Application (e.g. WWW)

c. Data Link (e.g. Ethernet) 

d. Network (e.g. IP)

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Data Link (e.g. Ethernet)

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In bridged LANs, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path
only.

Select one:
a. binary tree

b. unary tree

c. routing

d. shortest path

e. spanning tree 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: spanning tree

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Category 5 UTP cable is often used in which networks?

Select one:
a. Telephone

b. USB

c. 10 Mbps Ethernet

d. 100 Mbps Ethernet 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 100 Mbps Ethernet

Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A network cable lies in the ____________ layer.

Select one:
a. Network

b. Transport

c. Data Link

d. MAC

e. Physical 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Physical

Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the context of data networking, a protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that governs how computers exchange
information over a network medium. A protocol implements the functions of one or more of the OSI layers.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 3

Jump to...

CS2204 U2 Solution ►

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 2204-01 - AY2022-T5 / 21 July - 27 July / Graded Quiz Unit 6

Started on Wednesday, 27 July 2022, 12:13 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 27 July 2022, 12:30 PM
Time taken 17 mins 4 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In distance-vector routing, each node has a complete view of the network topology.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which information is found in the UDP header?

Select one:
a. Sequencing

b. Flow Control

c. Acknowledgement

d. Urgent data flag

e. Source and Destination Port 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Source and Destination Port

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Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

UDP packets with spoofed source address are difficult to deliver to the application.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the primary reason for the development of IPv6?

Select one:
a. security

b. header format specification

c. expanded addressing capabilities 

d. addressing simplifications

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: expanded addressing capabilities

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the size of IPv6 addresses?

Select one:
a. 256 bits

b. 96 bits

c. 32 bits

d. 128 bits 

e. 64 bits

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: 128 bits

Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What OSI layer identifies the communicating applications?

Select one:
a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4 

e. Layer 5

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Layer 4

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Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

Select one:
a. acknowledgement of data delivery

b. minimal delays in data delivery 

c. high reliability of data delivery

d. same order data delivery

e. flow control

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: minimal delays in data delivery

Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What version of IP is the most common in the world?

Select one:
a. IPv3

b. IPng

c. IPv5

d. IPv6

e. IPv4 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: IPv4

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Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In Sliding Windows, the sender is allowed to send up to this many packets (starting with the next packet after the last acknowledged
packet):

Select one:
a. half of the window size

b. window size minus 1

c. window size 

d. window size plus 1

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: window size

Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The IPv6 fixed header is twice the size of the IPv4 header, so it amounts to:

Select one:
a. 32 bytes

b. 60 bytes

c. 50 bytes

d. 40 bytes 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: 40 bytes

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the primary reason for the eventual retirement of IPv4?

Select one:
a. security

b. header format specification

c. limited addressing capabilities 

d. addressing simplifications

e. performance issues

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: limited addressing capabilities

Question 12

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Generally speaking, IPv6 addresses consist of a 64-bit network prefix (perhaps including subnet bits) followed by a 64-bit part called:

Select one:
a. LAN address

b. link-local address

c. interface identifier 

d. h/w address

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: interface identifier

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The size of the UDP port field is:

Select one:
a. 8 bits

b. 16 bits 

c. 32 bits

d. 48 bits

e. 64 bits

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 16 bits

Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Routers have the option of fallback-to-flooding for unknown destinations (i.e. those which are not in their routing table).

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intra-domain routing protocol based on _________ routing

Select one:
a. distance vector 

b. link state

c. path vector

d. OSPF

e. path state

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: distance vector

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Split Horizon fix to the slow-convergence problem prevents all linear routing loops.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which statement describes the purpose of a default route?

Select one:
a. to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.

b. to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.

c. to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.

d. to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists. 

e. to send packets whose destination address is unknown

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What enables an Internet site to appear to the outside world as a single IP network, but further IP-layer routing to be supported inside
the site?

Select one:
a. IPv6 only

b. source routing

c. subnets 

d. Classless Inter-Domain Routing

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: subnets

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Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

To avoid stop-and-wait becoming a performance bottleneck, TFTP has an option to allow small window size sliding windows operation.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is not supported by IPv6?

Select one:
a. LAN multicast

b. IP multicast

c. IP unicast

d. LAN broadcast 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: LAN broadcast

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 6

Jump to...

CS2204 WA5 Sol ►

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Started on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:11 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:41 PM
Time taken 30 mins 1 sec
Marks 14.00/20.00
Grade 70.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also
delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

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Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 5
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed.
This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.

Select one:
a. Control

b. Execute

c. Common

d. Content

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Content

Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the
outcome to be realized

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 7
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating Groups," which processes are decomposed?

Select one:
a. Rental/Return

b. Accounting

c. Purchasing

d. Personnel / Payroll

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Rental/Return

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Five

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and
entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9260773&cmid=329396 11/12
12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the logical and physical data
definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might complicate the
program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Started on Friday, 11 November 2022, 6:05 AM


State Finished
Completed on Friday, 11 November 2022, 6:05 AM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9034815&cmid=329381 1/3
12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

◄ Learning Journal Unit 1

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 17 November 2022, 4:23 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 17 November 2022, 4:23 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 2

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Started on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:01 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 4

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9260711&cmid=329395 3/3
12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 8 December 2022, 5:17 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 8 December 2022, 5:17 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9286616&cmid=329401 1/3
12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

◄ Learning Journal Unit 5

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 7:42 AM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 7:42 AM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9331864&cmid=329406 1/3
12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 6

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 6:14 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 6:15 PM
Time taken 48 secs
Marks 1.00/5.00
Grade 20.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

Question 2
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 3
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:52 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:52 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.

Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:53 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:55 PM
Time taken 1 min 39 secs
Marks 3.00/5.00
Grade 60.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.

Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414552&cmid=329410 3/3
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414553&cmid=329410 1/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414554&cmid=329410 2/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 10 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414557&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414574&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 3/3
1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463135&cmid=329417 1/15
1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the
intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:13 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

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Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 8 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

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Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

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Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

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Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the
application.

Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 10

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

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Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 19

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

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Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and equipment
for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence equipment such as a disk
drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463154&cmid=329417 9/13
1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463115&cmid=329415 1/3
1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463119&cmid=329415 1/2
1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 5

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463119&cmid=329415 2/2
1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463121&cmid=329415 1/3
1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463121&cmid=329415 2/3
1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463123&cmid=329415 1/2
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463123&cmid=329415 2/2
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463124&cmid=329415 1/3
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463124&cmid=329415 2/3
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463124&cmid=329415 3/3
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463127&cmid=329415 1/2
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463127&cmid=329415 2/2
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463128&cmid=329415 1/3
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463128&cmid=329415 2/3
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure of
confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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Software Engineering Quiz


Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?
Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 2

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 3

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above

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The correct answer is: Data

Question 4

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.

The correct answer is: Data.

Question 5

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 8

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 9

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:

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a. Remove Repeating Groups


b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 10

Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 11

FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

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Question 12

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 13

True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

Question 17

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 18

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 20

In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?

Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance

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c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment

The correct answer is: Data fulfillment

Question 21

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 22

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

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Question 23

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 24

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

Question 25

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 28

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 30

True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 31

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 32

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In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 33

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 34

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding

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d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 35

True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 36

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 37

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 38

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 39

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 40

In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal

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b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system

Question 41

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in
the�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uer is 'True'.

Question 42

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 43

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 44

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms

Question 45

Legacy Systems are in what phase?


Select one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 46

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)

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b. Target Distribution (TD)


c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 47

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 48

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 49

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.

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Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 50

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer


A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:
Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 2

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See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Object

Question 3

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for


custo`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Uare
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 4

True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

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True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ubr />Select
one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 7

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 9

There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Take a vacation

Question 10

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART

Question 11

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:

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a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 12

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 15

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 17

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:

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a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 18

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 19

True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20

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In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system

Question 21

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications
b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD
c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 22

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 23

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 24

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 25

True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 26

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 27

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 28

Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4

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The correct answer is: 3,4

Question 29

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 30

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 31

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

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The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 32

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C

Question 33

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 34

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression
b. System

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c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 35

Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:


Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 36

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

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Question 37

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 38

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 39

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

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Question 40

Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 41

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 42

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms

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c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms

Question 43

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 44

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 45

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True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 46

Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 47

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

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Question 48

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 49

"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code


includ�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle

Question 50

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:

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Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 2

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 4

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True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 6

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

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True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 9

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

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Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 11

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.
c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts
`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Ue correct
answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule
of the change.

Question 12

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

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The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 13

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurre��O�U��O�U��O�Up
�O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Uis: Process Data

Question 14

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 15

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist

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d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 16

True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 17

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 19

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 21

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

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Question 22

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications
b. plans for testing
c. conversation
d. training and installation

The correct answer is: conversation

Question 23

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 24

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 25

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 27

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 28

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 29

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 30

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”

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d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 31

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 32

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 33

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer

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c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 34

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 35

An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 36

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Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 37

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 38

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 39

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The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 40

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

The correct answer is: Critical

Question 41

True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?


Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
The correct answer is: Human

Question 43

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 44

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:

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a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production


environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 45

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 46

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 47

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 48

True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 49

In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?

Select one:

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a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment

The correct answer is: Data fulfillment

Question 50

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

The Project Manager’s job is to:


Select one:
a. Must understand the customer requirements for the team and keep the SE’s on track.
b. Leads the design, coding and testing effort. Decides which process to use (data, or object
oriented design) and directs and reviews the SE2 products.
c. Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and timeliness.
d. Documents the figures, diagrams for process, data, or object oriented design.

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e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.

The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.

Question 3

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 7

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 8

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 9

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10

FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 11

Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:


Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

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The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 12

True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.

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c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an


application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 15

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 17

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True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3

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c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 21

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 22

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

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Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 24

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 25

True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 26

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Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 27

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

Question 28

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

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The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 29

"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:

Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle

Question 30

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 31

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Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 32

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 33

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above

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The correct answer is: Object

Question 34

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 35

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 36

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression

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b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 37

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 38

True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 39

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

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b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 40

True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 41

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 42

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications

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b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD


c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 43

There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Take a vacation

Question 44

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms

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Question 45

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 46

The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 47

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 48

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 49

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 50

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system

Question 3

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:

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a. Remove Repeating Groups


b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 4

Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4

The correct answer is: 3,4

Question 5

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

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Question 6

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 8

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

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The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 9

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10

Temporal Metrics include all but the


foll�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�U
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 11

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 12

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.

The correct answer is: Data.

Question 13

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?


Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

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The correct answer is: Human

Question 15

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 16

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 17

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:

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a. Base metrics plus vector


b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C

Question 18

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications

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b. plans for testing


c. conversation
d. training and installation

The correct answer is: conversation

Question 21

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 22

True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The
c`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Uanalysis
:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

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The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 24

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal ��O�U��O�U��O�Up
�O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Uat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 26

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

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The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 27

True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 28

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 29

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 30

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.
c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 31

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 32

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Legacy Systems are in what phase?


Select one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 33

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 34

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

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The correct answer is: Critical

Question 35

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 36

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 37

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 38

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 39

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 40

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Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 41

In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?

Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment

The correct answer is: Data fulfillment

Question 42

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 44

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

Question 45

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 46

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 47

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

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Question 48

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 49

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 50

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART

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True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 4

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True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

Question 6

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

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Question 7

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 9

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.

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d. Hardware/Operating System.

The correct answer is: Data.

Question 10

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 11

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

The correct answer is: Critical

Question 12

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True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 14

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15

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True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 17

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

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Question 18

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uer functioning.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 21

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 22

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications
b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD
c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 23

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 24

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Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 25

FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 26

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist

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d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 27

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 28

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 29Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 30

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 31

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test ca��O�U��O�U��O�Up


�O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ue:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.

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c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.


d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 33

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 34

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 35

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:

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Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 36

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 37

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 38

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The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 39

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 40

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 41

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 42

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 43

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 44

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 45

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications
b. plans for testing
c. conversation
d. training and installation

The correct answer is: conversation

Question 46

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”

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b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 47

Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 48

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 49

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True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 50

"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:

Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle


Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 2

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True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 4

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 5

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

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Question 8

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 9

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 10

The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

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b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Table III-3 discusses all but:
Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 2

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:

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a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 4

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 6

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True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 8

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:

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Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data


Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?
Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 2

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:

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a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 4

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to
exi�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Ubr />The Goal of 3NF Is
to:
Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 6

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 7

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 8

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 9

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve


Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 2

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

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d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.


Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 3

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 4

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 5

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Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Ur />A
Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:
Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 7

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output,


storage,��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Uion
10

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 11

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 16

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 17

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 18

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis


An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects

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c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 2

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

The Project Manager’s job is to:


Select one:
a. Must understand the customer requirements for the team and keep the SE’s on track.
b. Leads the design, coding and testing effort. Decides which process to use (data, or object
oriented design) and directs and reviews the SE2 products.
c. Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and timeliness.
d. Documents the figures, diagrams for process, data, or object oriented design.
e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.

The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.

Question 4

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True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 6

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False

The response was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

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Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4

The correct answer is: 3,4

Question 8

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.

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The correct answer is: Data.

Question 10

True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False

Your answer was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.
A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?
Select one:
a. Regression
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 2

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 4

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 5

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True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 6

True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

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Question 8

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 9

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.
c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 10

Restructuring is:
Select one:

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a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.


b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:
Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 2

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

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Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 4

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

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Question 6

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 8

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�U>

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True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART


True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False

The response was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

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b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.


c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 6

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 7

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

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The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 8

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

Question 10

Jenkins (2005)
stated`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Un
order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

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The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 11

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 12

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following


av��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ung
material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 13

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

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The correct answer is: Unit

Question 14

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 16

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

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Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 17

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 18

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

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Question 19

An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 20

In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system


See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object

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d. None of the above


The correct answer is: Object

Question 2

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 4

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 6

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 7

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

Legacy Systems are in what phase?


Select one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 9

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework

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c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework


d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework
Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

Question 2

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False

Question 3

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above

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Question 4

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C

Question 5

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False

Question 6

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False

Question 7

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.

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Select one:
True
False

Question 8

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

Question 9

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

Question 10

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication

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c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability


d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:
Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 2

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

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The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 4

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications
b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD
c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 5

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 8

There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Take a vacation

Question 9

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change

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b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.


c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 10

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Object

Question 11

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12

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True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 14

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False

The response was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 17

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications
b. plans for testing
c. conversation
d. training and installation

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The correct answer is: conversation

Question 18

True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

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The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 21

The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 22

The Project Manager’s job is to:


Select one:
a. Must understand the customer requirements for the team and keep the SE’s on track.
b. Leads the design, coding and testing effort. Decides which process to use (data, or object
oriented design) and directs and reviews the SE2 products.
c. Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and timeliness.
d. Documents the figures, diagrams for process, data, or object oriented design.
e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.

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The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.

Question 23

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 24

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 25

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?


Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
The correct answer is: Human

Question 28

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True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C

Question 30

Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

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Question 31

Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:


Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 32

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 33

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 34

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 35

An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 36

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer

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c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 37

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 38

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 39

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"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:

Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle

Question 40

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

The correct answer is: Critical

Question 41

True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 42

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 43

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART

Question 44

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 45

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 46

Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 47

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Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 48

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 49

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1

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d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 50

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Software Engineering Quiz


Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?
Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 2

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 3

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above

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The correct answer is: Data

Question 4

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.

The correct answer is: Data.

Question 5

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 8

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 9

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:

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a. Remove Repeating Groups


b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 10

Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 11

FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

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Question 12

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 13

True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

Question 17

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 18

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 20

In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?

Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance

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c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment

The correct answer is: Data fulfillment

Question 21

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 22

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

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Question 23

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 24

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

Question 25

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 28

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 30

True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 31

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 32

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In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 33

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 34

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding

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d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 35

True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 36

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 37

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 38

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 39

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 40

In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal

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b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system

Question 41

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in
the�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uer is 'True'.

Question 42

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 43

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 44

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms

Question 45

Legacy Systems are in what phase?


Select one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 46

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)

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b. Target Distribution (TD)


c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 47

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 48

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 49

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.

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Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 50

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer


A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:
Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 2

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See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Object

Question 3

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for


custo`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Uare
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 4

True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

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True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ubr />Select
one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 7

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 9

There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Take a vacation

Question 10

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART

Question 11

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:

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a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 12

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 15

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 17

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:

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a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 18

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 19

True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20

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In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system

Question 21

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications
b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD
c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 22

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 23

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 24

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 25

True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 26

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 27

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 28

Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4

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The correct answer is: 3,4

Question 29

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 30

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 31

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

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The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 32

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C

Question 33

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 34

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression
b. System

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c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 35

Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:


Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 36

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

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Question 37

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 38

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 39

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

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Question 40

Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 41

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 42

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms

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c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms

Question 43

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 44

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 45

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True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 46

Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 47

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

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Question 48

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 49

"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code


includ�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle

Question 50

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:

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Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 2

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 4

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True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 6

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

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True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 9

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

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Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 11

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.
c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts
`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Ue correct
answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule
of the change.

Question 12

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

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The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 13

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurre��O�U��O�U��O�Up
�O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Uis: Process Data

Question 14

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 15

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist

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d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 16

True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 17

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 19

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 21

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

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Question 22

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications
b. plans for testing
c. conversation
d. training and installation

The correct answer is: conversation

Question 23

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 24

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 25

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 27

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 28

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 29

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 30

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”

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d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 31

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 32

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 33

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer

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c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 34

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 35

An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 36

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Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 37

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 38

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 39

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The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 40

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

The correct answer is: Critical

Question 41

True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?


Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
The correct answer is: Human

Question 43

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 44

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:

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a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production


environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 45

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 46

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 47

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 48

True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 49

In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?

Select one:

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a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment

The correct answer is: Data fulfillment

Question 50

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

The Project Manager’s job is to:


Select one:
a. Must understand the customer requirements for the team and keep the SE’s on track.
b. Leads the design, coding and testing effort. Decides which process to use (data, or object
oriented design) and directs and reviews the SE2 products.
c. Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and timeliness.
d. Documents the figures, diagrams for process, data, or object oriented design.

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e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.

The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.

Question 3

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 7

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 8

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 9

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10

FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 11

Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:


Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

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The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 12

True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.

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c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an


application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 15

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 17

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True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3

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c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 21

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 22

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

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Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 24

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 25

True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 26

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Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 27

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

Question 28

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

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The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 29

"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:

Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle

Question 30

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 31

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Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 32

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 33

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above

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The correct answer is: Object

Question 34

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 35

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 36

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression

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b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 37

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 38

True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 39

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

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b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 40

True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 41

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 42

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications

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b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD


c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 43

There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Take a vacation

Question 44

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms

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Question 45

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 46

The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 47

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 48

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 49

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 50

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system

Question 3

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:

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a. Remove Repeating Groups


b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 4

Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4

The correct answer is: 3,4

Question 5

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

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Question 6

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 8

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

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The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 9

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10

Temporal Metrics include all but the


foll�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�U
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 11

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 12

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.

The correct answer is: Data.

Question 13

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?


Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

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The correct answer is: Human

Question 15

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 16

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 17

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:

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a. Base metrics plus vector


b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C

Question 18

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications

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b. plans for testing


c. conversation
d. training and installation

The correct answer is: conversation

Question 21

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 22

True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The
c`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Uanalysis
:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

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The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 24

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal ��O�U��O�U��O�Up
�O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Uat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 26

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

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The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 27

True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 28

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 29

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 30

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.
c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 31

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 32

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Legacy Systems are in what phase?


Select one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 33

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 34

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

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The correct answer is: Critical

Question 35

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 36

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 37

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 38

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 39

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 40

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Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 41

In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?

Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment

The correct answer is: Data fulfillment

Question 42

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 44

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

Question 45

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 46

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 47

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

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Question 48

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 49

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 50

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART

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True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 4

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True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

Question 6

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

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Question 7

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 9

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.

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d. Hardware/Operating System.

The correct answer is: Data.

Question 10

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 11

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

The correct answer is: Critical

Question 12

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True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.

Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 14

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15

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True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 17

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

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Question 18

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uer functioning.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 21

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 22

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications
b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD
c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 23

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework
c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework
d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework

Question 24

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Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 25

FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 26

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist

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d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 27

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 28

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 29Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 30

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 31

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test ca��O�U��O�U��O�Up


�O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ue:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.

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c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.


d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 33

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 34

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 35

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:

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Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 36

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 37

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 38

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The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 39

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?


Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 40

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 41

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 42

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 43

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 44

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 45

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications
b. plans for testing
c. conversation
d. training and installation

The correct answer is: conversation

Question 46

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”

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b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 47

Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 48

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 49

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True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 50

"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:

Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle


Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 2

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True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 4

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:


Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 5

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

The correct answer is: Champion

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Question 8

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 9

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 10

The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

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b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Table III-3 discusses all but:
Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 2

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:

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a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 4

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 6

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True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 8

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:

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Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data


Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?
Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 2

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:

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a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 4

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to
exi�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Ubr />The Goal of 3NF Is
to:
Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 6

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 7

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 8

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 9

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve


Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 2

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:


Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than one location.
b. Data are copied in more than one location.
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

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d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.


Some data may be accessed by remote sites.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.

Question 3

The Goal of 3NF Is to:


Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

The correct answer is: Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code

Question 4

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 5

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Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Ur />A
Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:
Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 7

True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output,


storage,��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Uion
10

True or False: Both ADW and IEF are CASE tools.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 11

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14

True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15

True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 16

Table III-3 discusses all but:


Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification

The correct answer is: Coding

Question 17

In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll

The correct answer is: Rental/Return, Purchasing

Question 18

True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?


Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Business System Analysis
d. Construction

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis


An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects

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c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 2

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

The Project Manager’s job is to:


Select one:
a. Must understand the customer requirements for the team and keep the SE’s on track.
b. Leads the design, coding and testing effort. Decides which process to use (data, or object
oriented design) and directs and reviews the SE2 products.
c. Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and timeliness.
d. Documents the figures, diagrams for process, data, or object oriented design.
e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.

The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.

Question 4

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True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 6

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False

The response was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

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Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4

The correct answer is: 3,4

Question 8

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9

See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.

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The correct answer is: Data.

Question 10

True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False

Your answer was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.
A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?
Select one:
a. Regression
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

The correct answer is: Unit

Question 2

True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 4

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 5

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True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 6

True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

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Question 8

A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question 9

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change
b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.
c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 10

Restructuring is:
Select one:

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a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.


b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:
Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 2

True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

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Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10

The correct answer is: 6

Question 4

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

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Question 6

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 7

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 8

All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�U>

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True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART


True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

True or False: The purpose of a project plan is to maintain control of a project.


Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False

The response was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

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b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.


c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 6

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 7

A Structured Walk-Through does not include which work product?


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design

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The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 8

True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project plan:


Select one:
a. What location is involved
b. When it needs to be done by
c. Who is to do it
d. How it is to be achieved

The correct answer is: What location is involved

Question 10

Jenkins (2005)
stated`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Un
order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

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The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 11

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 12

An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following


av��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ung
material
d. All of the above

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 13

A ____ test is performed for each of the smallest units of code?


Select one:
a. Regression
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit

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The correct answer is: Unit

Question 14

The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 16

Based on this diagram return on investment (ROI) will be reached:

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Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 17

True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 18

Boilerplate code means that the code:


Select one:
a. does vary from one program to another
b. is critical to maintaining applications at the functional level rather than at the code level.
c. does not vary from one program to another
d. meaning not changeable after it is accepted as complete, motivates users to be as complete in
their thinking as possible

The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another

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Question 19

An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 20

In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:

Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system

The correct answer is: Release system


See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object

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d. None of the above


The correct answer is: Object

Question 2

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires Business Entity Analysis?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 4

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 6

According to Table 13-5; Which methodology is MOST predictable and consistent:

Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data

Question 7

True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:

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True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8

Legacy Systems are in what phase?


Select one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance

Question 9

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 10

Two methods of analyzing methodology classes are:


Select one:
a. Information systems methodology framework
b. Humphrey's maturity framework

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c. Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity framework


d. None of these
The correct answer is: Information systems methodology framework and Humphrey's maturity
framework
Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

Question 2

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False

Question 3

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above

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Question 4

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C

Question 5

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system,


device, or service that could lead to a failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False

Question 6

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False

Question 7

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.

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Select one:
True
False

Question 8

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:


Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

Question 9

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

Question 10

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication

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c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability


d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:
Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 2

True or False: In "FIGURE 9-17 ABC Rental Processing-First-Cut Entity-Relationship


Diagram," the three entities are: Customer, Video, Rental and Request.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”

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The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”

Question 4

The major activities of structured design are all except:


Select one:
a. Develop program specifications
b. Transform or transaction analysis of DFD
c. Define the logical database
d. Refine and complete structure chart

The correct answer is: Define the logical database

Question 5

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.


Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 6

True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

The Base Metrics include all the following except:


Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 8

There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Take a vacation

Question 9

The purpose of the Sample Change Request Impact Form:


Select one:
a. Document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the change

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b. The PM and SE define the schedule and cost.


c. The PM and SE redefine the schedule and the cost.
d. impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost and schedule of the
change.

The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.

Question 10

See Table 13-1; which methodology requires human interface guidelines?


Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Object

Question 11

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12

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True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 13

____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing

The correct answer is: Test cases

Question 14

True/False: Object oriented design has seven steps.


Select one:
True
False

The response was correct.


The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15

True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

"FIGURE 9-7 ABC Video Partial Functional Decomposition of Purchasing" is a:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow

The correct answer is: Process flow

Question 17

The results of structured design are all BUT the following:


Select one:
a. programming specifications
b. plans for testing
c. conversation
d. training and installation

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The correct answer is: conversation

Question 18

True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 19

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20

Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.

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The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.

Question 21

The critical path of a project is defined as:


Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

Question 22

The Project Manager’s job is to:


Select one:
a. Must understand the customer requirements for the team and keep the SE’s on track.
b. Leads the design, coding and testing effort. Decides which process to use (data, or object
oriented design) and directs and reviews the SE2 products.
c. Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and timeliness.
d. Documents the figures, diagrams for process, data, or object oriented design.
e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.

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The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.

Question 23

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 24

The purpose of the system test is:


Select one:
a. demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in the actual production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
b. is a system test and NOT a documentation test.
c. test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a simulated production
environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
d. ensure that the changes do not cause the application to regress to a nonfunctional state, that is,
that the changes do not introduce errors into the processing.

The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.

Question 25

True or False: Information systems methodology framework is NOT used to compare


methodologies.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?


Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
The correct answer is: Human

Question 28

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True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29

See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C

Question 30

Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

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Question 31

Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:


Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project

The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time

Question 32

True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 33

True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 34

The R in CRUD matrix stands for:


Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Report
d. Retrieve

The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 35

An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class

The correct answer is: Object

Question 36

A Structured Walk-Through does not include this work product:


Select one:
a. Program code
b. Programmer

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c. Test plan
d. Test design

The correct answer is: Programmer

Question 37

See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process

Question 38

How many types in "FIGURE 9-27 Types of Process Dependency Connections?"


Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

The correct answer is: Five

Question 39

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"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:

Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit

The correct answer is: Oracle

Question 40

Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?

Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major

The correct answer is: Critical

Question 41

True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True

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False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 42

True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 43

The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:

Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: SMART

Question 44

True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.

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Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 45

The Data Dictionary Process Contents does not include:


Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name

The correct answer is: Process Data

Question 46

Project Managers must exhibit all these qualities except:


Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Trust
c. Budgeting
d. Empathy

The correct answer is: Budgeting

Question 47

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Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:


Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 48

The specific activities in structured systems analysis:


Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams

The correct answer is: Develop a structured data dictionary

Question 49

Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1

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d. Process 2.0

The correct answer is: Entity Name 1

Question 50

True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Saturday, 24 December 2022, 10:04 AM


State Finished
Completed on Saturday, 24 December 2022, 10:34 AM
Time taken 29 mins 57 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9420516&cmid=329411 1/10
1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9420516&cmid=329411 2/10
1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 11
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.

Select one:
a. QA test package

b. Regression test package

c. System test package

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Regression test package

Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

There are four types of requirements: technical, managerial,__________, and company.

Select one:
a. General

b. Financial

c. System

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Financial

Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.
Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

Question 18
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 19
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flow

b. Efferent Flow

c. Central Transform

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Central Transform

Question 20
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 2204-01 - AY2022-T5 / 30 June - 6 July / Graded Quiz Unit 3

Started on Wednesday, 6 July 2022, 12:14 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 6 July 2022, 12:42 PM
Time taken 28 mins 19 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are
sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The terms “throughput” and “data rate” are considered to mean the same thing.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

Select one:
a. generally uses LEDs as the light source

b. no longer in use

c. uses relatively larger core with multiple light paths

d. is cheaper than multi-mode fiber

e. generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What are the frequency bands used by Wi-Fi 802.11n?

Select one:
a. 5 GHz exclusively

b. 2.4 GHz exclusively

c. 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz 

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Fast (100 Mbps) Ethernet uses the following encoding:

Select one:
a. NRZI

b. Manchester

c. AMI

d. 4B/5B 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 4B/5B

Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Switches are used to connect distant LANs whereas a Router is most often used to connect individual computers.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the Internet, most packet losses are due to:

Select one:
a. Packet corruption

b. Software bugs

c. Protocol flaws

d. Congestion 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Congestion

Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

Select one:
a. the metal braiding in the shielding

b. the reflective cladding around core

c. the twisting of the wires in the cable 

d. the insulating material in the outer jacket

e. the type of metal used for the wires

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: the twisting of the wires in the cable

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the bandwidth delay to get 1500 bytes onto the wire for Gigabit Ethernet?

Select one:
a. 1 millisecond

b. 1 microsecond

c. 120 microseconds

d. 12 microseconds 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 12 microseconds

Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The popular USB (Universal Serial Bus) standard for connecting computer peripherals uses Manchester encoding.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Select one:
a. Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.

b. An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.

c. Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss. 

d. Data bits will get inverted.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.

Question 12

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

Select one:
a. It is used as a pad for data

b. It identifies the source address

c. It marks the end of timing information

d. It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros 

e. It identifies the destination address

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The use of _________ lets the base station receive CDMA messages from unsynchronized mobile phones.

Select one:
a. large antennas

b. expensive digital filter components

c. sophisticated software algorithms

d. pseudorandom sequences 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: pseudorandom sequences

Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The term “frames” normally refers to data packets at which layer?

Select one:
a. Transport (e.g. TCP)

b. Application (e.g. WWW)

c. Data Link (e.g. Ethernet) 

d. Network (e.g. IP)

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Data Link (e.g. Ethernet)

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In bridged LANs, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path
only.

Select one:
a. binary tree

b. unary tree

c. routing

d. shortest path

e. spanning tree 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: spanning tree

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Category 5 UTP cable is often used in which networks?

Select one:
a. Telephone

b. USB

c. 10 Mbps Ethernet

d. 100 Mbps Ethernet 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 100 Mbps Ethernet

Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A network cable lies in the ____________ layer.

Select one:
a. Network

b. Transport

c. Data Link

d. MAC

e. Physical 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Physical

Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the context of data networking, a protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that governs how computers exchange
information over a network medium. A protocol implements the functions of one or more of the OSI layers.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 3

Jump to...

CS2204 U2 Solution ►

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 2204-01 - AY2022-T5 / 21 July - 27 July / Graded Quiz Unit 6

Started on Wednesday, 27 July 2022, 12:13 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 27 July 2022, 12:30 PM
Time taken 17 mins 4 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In distance-vector routing, each node has a complete view of the network topology.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which information is found in the UDP header?

Select one:
a. Sequencing

b. Flow Control

c. Acknowledgement

d. Urgent data flag

e. Source and Destination Port 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Source and Destination Port

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Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

UDP packets with spoofed source address are difficult to deliver to the application.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the primary reason for the development of IPv6?

Select one:
a. security

b. header format specification

c. expanded addressing capabilities 

d. addressing simplifications

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: expanded addressing capabilities

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the size of IPv6 addresses?

Select one:
a. 256 bits

b. 96 bits

c. 32 bits

d. 128 bits 

e. 64 bits

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: 128 bits

Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What OSI layer identifies the communicating applications?

Select one:
a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4 

e. Layer 5

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Layer 4

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

Select one:
a. acknowledgement of data delivery

b. minimal delays in data delivery 

c. high reliability of data delivery

d. same order data delivery

e. flow control

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: minimal delays in data delivery

Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What version of IP is the most common in the world?

Select one:
a. IPv3

b. IPng

c. IPv5

d. IPv6

e. IPv4 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: IPv4

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Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In Sliding Windows, the sender is allowed to send up to this many packets (starting with the next packet after the last acknowledged
packet):

Select one:
a. half of the window size

b. window size minus 1

c. window size 

d. window size plus 1

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: window size

Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The IPv6 fixed header is twice the size of the IPv4 header, so it amounts to:

Select one:
a. 32 bytes

b. 60 bytes

c. 50 bytes

d. 40 bytes 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: 40 bytes

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the primary reason for the eventual retirement of IPv4?

Select one:
a. security

b. header format specification

c. limited addressing capabilities 

d. addressing simplifications

e. performance issues

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: limited addressing capabilities

Question 12

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Generally speaking, IPv6 addresses consist of a 64-bit network prefix (perhaps including subnet bits) followed by a 64-bit part called:

Select one:
a. LAN address

b. link-local address

c. interface identifier 

d. h/w address

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: interface identifier

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The size of the UDP port field is:

Select one:
a. 8 bits

b. 16 bits 

c. 32 bits

d. 48 bits

e. 64 bits

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: 16 bits

Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Routers have the option of fallback-to-flooding for unknown destinations (i.e. those which are not in their routing table).

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intra-domain routing protocol based on _________ routing

Select one:
a. distance vector 

b. link state

c. path vector

d. OSPF

e. path state

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: distance vector

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Split Horizon fix to the slow-convergence problem prevents all linear routing loops.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which statement describes the purpose of a default route?

Select one:
a. to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.

b. to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.

c. to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.

d. to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists. 

e. to send packets whose destination address is unknown

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What enables an Internet site to appear to the outside world as a single IP network, but further IP-layer routing to be supported inside
the site?

Select one:
a. IPv6 only

b. source routing

c. subnets 

d. Classless Inter-Domain Routing

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: subnets

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Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

To avoid stop-and-wait becoming a performance bottleneck, TFTP has an option to allow small window size sliding windows operation.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is not supported by IPv6?

Select one:
a. LAN multicast

b. IP multicast

c. IP unicast

d. LAN broadcast 

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: LAN broadcast

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 6

Jump to...

CS2204 WA5 Sol ►

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Started on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:11 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:41 PM
Time taken 30 mins 1 sec
Marks 14.00/20.00
Grade 70.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also
delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

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Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 5
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed.
This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.

Select one:
a. Control

b. Execute

c. Common

d. Content

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Content

Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the
outcome to be realized

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 7
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating Groups," which processes are decomposed?

Select one:
a. Rental/Return

b. Accounting

c. Purchasing

d. Personnel / Payroll

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Rental/Return

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Five

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and
entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the logical and physical data
definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might complicate the
program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Started on Friday, 11 November 2022, 6:05 AM


State Finished
Completed on Friday, 11 November 2022, 6:05 AM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9034815&cmid=329381 1/3
12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

◄ Learning Journal Unit 1

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 17 November 2022, 4:23 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 17 November 2022, 4:23 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 2

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 24 November 2022, 12:08 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Started on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:01 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 6 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 4

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 8 December 2022, 5:17 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 8 December 2022, 5:17 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

◄ Learning Journal Unit 5

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 7:42 AM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 7:42 AM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 6

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 6:14 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 15 December 2022, 6:15 PM
Time taken 48 secs
Marks 1.00/5.00
Grade 20.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

Question 2
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 3
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:52 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:52 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.

Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:53 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 1:55 PM
Time taken 1 min 39 secs
Marks 3.00/5.00
Grade 60.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.

Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414552&cmid=329410 3/3
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414553&cmid=329410 1/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414554&cmid=329410 1/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414554&cmid=329410 2/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414556&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:00 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 10 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414557&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:01 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414561&cmid=329410 3/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414574&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

◄ Learning Journal Unit 7

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414574&cmid=329410 3/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 22 December 2022, 2:03 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 3/3
1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463135&cmid=329417 1/15
1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the
intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:13 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

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Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 8 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:21 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

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Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 10
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

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Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

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Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the
application.

Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

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Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 6
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 8
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 10

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 11
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

Question 12
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 13
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

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Question 15
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Five

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Question 17
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 19

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 20
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

Question 21
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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Question 22
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

Question 23
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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Question 24
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 25
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

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Question 26
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 28
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 29
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 30
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Exception handling

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:22 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)
End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Recursive Pseudo Code

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Class/Objects

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and equipment
for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence equipment such as a disk
drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Process Diagram

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Champion

Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Restructuring

Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Configuration

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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463119&cmid=329415 1/2
1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 5

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463119&cmid=329415 2/2
1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463121&cmid=329415 1/3
1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463123&cmid=329415 1/2
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463123&cmid=329415 2/2
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:19 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463124&cmid=329415 1/3
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463124&cmid=329415 2/3
1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463124&cmid=329415 3/3
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463127&cmid=329415 1/2
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463127&cmid=329415 2/2
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9463128&cmid=329415 1/3
1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

The correct answer is: Temporal vector's

Question 4
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

The correct answer is: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Started on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 December 2022, 4:20 PM
Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms

Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure of
confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review

Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True
False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 8

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3/20/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 4

CS 4403 Software Engineering 2 - Term 3, 2018-2019


Home ► My courses ► CS 4403 - AY2019-T3 ► 21 February - 27 February ► Graded Quiz Unit 4

Started on Wednesday, 27 February 2019, 6:50 AM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 27 February 2019, 7:20 AM
Time taken 29 mins 23 secs
Marks 18.00/20.00
Grade 90.00 out of 100.00

Question 1 The _____________scope de nes the location of work for each activity.
Correct The_______________ scope de nes technology platform by location.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 2 The goal of 3NF is to


Correct

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:


1.00 a. Remove non key dependencies program code

b. Remove repeating groups

c. Remove partial key dependencies

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Remove non key dependencies program code

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3/20/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 4


Question 3 Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:


1.00 a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with di erent data in more
than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Di erent data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more
than one location

Question 4 True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign


Correct of business processes, data, and technology
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 5 One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another
Incorrect module or when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed. This is the
Mark 0.00 out of highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________
1.00 level of coupling.

Select one:
a. Control

b. Execute

c. Common

d. Content

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Content

Question 6 True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) de nes some essential
Correct process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Mark 1.00 out of realized
1.00
Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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3/20/2019 Graded Quiz Unit 4


Question 7 Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER
Correct diagram
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Crow

Question 8 Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:


1.00 a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and


retirement

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Question 9 Sequential interdependence de nes highly interrelated activities that are
Correct worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
Mark 1.00 out of adjustment.
1.00
Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 10 In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data owing from
Correct Process 2.0 to
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 11 The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the
Correct organization
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 12 The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for
Correct customer, video and ___________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 13 __________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and
Correct audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the
Mark 1.00 out of application.
1.00
Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Data

Question 14 ______________________ combine hierarchic and network logical models to form


Incorrect a lattice-structured hierarchy.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Relational logical data model

b. Pooled Interdependence

c. Reciprocal Interdependence

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Reciprocal Interdependence

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Question 15 A critical success factor (CSF) de nes some essential process, data, event,
Correct or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 16 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Correct Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00

Select one:
a. Rental/Return

b. Accounting

c. Purchasing

d. Personnel / Payroll

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Rental/Return

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Question 17 Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:


1.00 a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 18 IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented
Correct design technique context
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: CASE

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Question 19 Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:


1.00 a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

Question 20 ___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes


Correct based on their major functions.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. A erent Flows

b. E erent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Transform Analysis

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 4

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 5 ►

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T3 / 16 February - 22 February / Graded Quiz Unit 4

Started on Wednesday, 22 February 2023, 4:16 PM


State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 22 February 2023, 4:43 PM
Time taken 26 mins 12 secs
Marks 19.00/20.00
Grade 95.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 2

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 3

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 4

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Champion

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Question 6

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 7

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Five

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Five

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Question 8

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 9

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?

Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis

b. Business Area Analysis

c. Business System Analysis

d. Construction

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

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Question 10

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 11

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Elements of a procedure are combined because they are all required to complete one specific function. This is the strongest type of
cohesion and is the goal. This level of cohesion is called the ______________ level.

Select one:
a. Sequential

b. Functional

c. Temporal

d. Procedural

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Functional

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Question 12

Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

__________defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant adjustment.

Select one:
a. Sequential Interdependence 

b. Pooled Interdependence

c. Reciprocal Interdependence

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Reciprocal Interdependence

Question 13

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Data

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Question 14

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 15

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

Question 16

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome
to be realized

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 17

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Five

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Question 18

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Crow

Question 19

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

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Question 20

Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 4

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 5 ►

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 6 July - 12 July / Self-Quiz Unit 4

Started on Thursday, 6 July 2023, 12:13 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 6 July 2023, 12:13 PM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Retrieve

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Crow

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 4

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 4 ►

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 29 June - 5 July / Self-Quiz Unit 3

Started on Monday, 3 July 2023, 2:16 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 3 July 2023, 2:16 AM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

◄ Learning Journal Unit 3

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 4 ►

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‫ م‬6:14 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 22 June - 28 June / Self-Quiz Unit 2

Started on Sunday, 25 June 2023, 3:36 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 25 June 2023, 3:36 AM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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‫ م‬6:14 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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‫ م‬6:14 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 2

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 3 ►

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lOMoARcPSD|7278408

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lOMoARcPSD|7278408

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lOMoARcPSD|7278408

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lOMoARcPSD|7278408

Downloaded by Raghad Abdulsalam ([email protected])


lOMoARcPSD|7278408

Downloaded by Raghad Abdulsalam ([email protected])


lOMoARcPSD|7278408

Downloaded by Raghad Abdulsalam ([email protected])


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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 6 July - 12 July / Self-Quiz Unit 4

Started on Thursday, 6 July 2023, 12:13 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 6 July 2023, 12:13 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Crow

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: CASE

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Five

◄ Learning Journal Unit 4

Jump to...

Graded Quiz Unit 4 ►

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 29 June - 5 July / Self-Quiz Unit 3

Started on Monday, 3 July 2023, 2:15 AM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 3 July 2023, 2:15 AM
Time taken 4 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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‫ م‬6:13 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review

◄ Learning Journal Unit 3

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 4 ►

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‫ م‬6:14 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 22 June - 28 June / Self-Quiz Unit 2

Started on Sunday, 25 June 2023, 3:36 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 25 June 2023, 3:36 AM
Time taken 8 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

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‫ م‬6:14 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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‫ م‬6:14 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 2

Jump to...

Learning Guide Unit 3 ►

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• Graded Quiz Unit 4

Started on Tuesday, 10 December 2019, 10:22 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 10 December 2019, 10:52 PM
Time taken 30 mins 2 secs
Marks 20.00/20.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes,
data, and technology

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 3

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 4

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Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement


d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

Question 5

Correct
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Question text

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation

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c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 6

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls,
relating each topic to the data and processes in the application.

Select one:
a. Process
b. Object

c. Data
d. System

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Data

Question 7

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Flag question

Question text

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be
present for the outcome to be

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 8

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________
scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network

Feedback

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Network, Technology

Question 9

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information,


partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Normalization

Question 10

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text

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How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three

d. Five

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Five

Question 11

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Flag question

Question text

Which of the following is NOT a major phase of information engineering?

Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis

c. Business System Analysis


d. Construction

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Business System Analysis

Question 12

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and
work independently to service their personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the
marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

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c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 13

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows
on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Data Couples

Question 14

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Flag question

Question text

Elements of a procedure are combined because they are all required to complete one specific
function. This is the strongest type of cohesion and is the goal. This level of cohesion is called
the ______________ level.

Select one:
a. Sequential

b. Functional
c. Temporal
d. Procedural

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Functional

Question 15

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal
linkage mechanisms are bypassed. This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This
is called the ___________ level of coupling.

Select one:
a. Control

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b. Execute
c. Common

d. Content

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Content

Question 16

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique
context

Select one:

a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: CASE

Question 17

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Flag question

Question text

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not
synchronize their process completion.

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 18

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization

Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor

c. Champion
d. User

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

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The correct answer is: Champion

Question 19

Correct
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Question text

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to
identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to define what other
transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 20

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

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True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'False'.


Finish review

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• Graded Quiz Unit 7

Started on Tuesday, 31 December 2019, 7:46 AM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 31 December 2019, 8:16 AM
Time taken 30 mins 1 sec
Marks 19.00/20.00
Grade 95.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to


software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project

c. Configuration
d. Software

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Configuration

Question 2

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Flag question

Question text

The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its
incoming state to some other state.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flow
b. Efferent Flow

c. Central Transform
d. None of the above

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Central Transform

Question 3

Correct
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Question text

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

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The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data
plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object
b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type


d. Meta Class

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

Question 5

Correct
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Question text

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently.
There is a constant part and a variable part to each reentrant module.

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Select one:
True

False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 6

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update
may be performed until the lock is removed.

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

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Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits,
conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 8

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs.
It signifies that the updating of a charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 9

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Flag question

Question text

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The
____________ model defines all actions and associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

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The correct answer is: Mealy, Moore

Question 11

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text

Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.

Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD

Select one:

True

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False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 12

Correct
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Question text

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been
compiled and link-edited together, forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a
series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work


d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

Question 13

Correct
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Flag question

Question text

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input
data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

Question 14

Incorrect
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Question text

A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the
syntax and executability of code without ever executing the code. They cross-reference all
references to a line of code.

Select one:

a. Dynamic code analyser


b. Coverage analyser

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c. Tuning analyser
d. Static code analyser

Feedback

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Static code analyser

Question 15

Correct
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Question text

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both
service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True

False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 16

Correct
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Question text

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True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:

True
False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 17

Correct
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Question text

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing


c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: White box testing

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Question 18

Correct
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Question text

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:

True

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False

Feedback

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19

Correct
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Question text

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all
objects.

Select one:

a. Time Event Diagrams


b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

Question 20

Correct
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Question text

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to


software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change
b. Project

c. Configuration
d. Software

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Configuration


Finish review

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‫ م‬6:12 2023/‫‏‬7/‫‏‬11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 6 July - 12 July / Self-Quiz Unit 4

Started on Thursday, 6 July 2023, 12:12 PM


State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 6 July 2023, 12:12 PM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Retrieve

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Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 15 June - 21 June / Self-Quiz Unit 1

Started on Tuesday, 20 June 2023, 1:49 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 20 June 2023, 1:50 PM
Time taken 9 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Champion

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

◄ Learning Journal Unit 1

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 22 June - 28 June / Self-Quiz Unit 2

Started on Sunday, 25 June 2023, 3:36 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 25 June 2023, 3:36 AM
Time taken 5 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Large

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Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 2

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / 15 June - 21 June / Self-Quiz Unit 1

Started on Tuesday, 20 June 2023, 1:49 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 20 June 2023, 1:49 PM
Time taken 10 secs
Marks 0.00/5.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Rental Processing

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Journal Unit 1

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Learning Guide Unit 2 ►

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3/31/2020 Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review

    

Charles Solomon

Home  My courses  CS 4403 - AY2020-T3  20 February - 26 February  Graded Quiz Unit 4

Started on Monday, 24 February 2020, 1:31 PM


State Finished
Completed on Monday, 24 February 2020, 2:01 PM
Time taken 29 mins 27 secs
Marks 18.00/20.00
Grade 90.00 out of 100.00

Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:

True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 2 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

__________de nes highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple
units requiring feedback and constant adjustment.

Select one:

a. Sequential Interdependence

b. Pooled Interdependence

c. Reciprocal Interdependence

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Reciprocal Interdependence

Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of


business processes, data, and technology

Select one:

True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and
completion times estimated for the development e ort.

Select one:

a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The goal of 3NF is to

Select one:

a. Remove non key dependencies program code

b. Remove repeating groups

c. Remove partial key dependencies

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Remove non key dependencies program code

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Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly


line approach.

Select one:

True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Program speci cations document the program's purpose, process
requirements, the logical and physical data de nitions, input and output formats,
screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might
complicate the program.

Select one:

True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning
to end and work independently to service their personal customers. In addition,
they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:

a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Case workers

Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that


re ects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:

True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data
ows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to
de ne what other transformations are required to link the input and output
boundary processes.

Select one:

a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:

a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following rules summarize ____________ analysis technique.

Identify the central transform


Produce a rst-cut structure chart
Based on the design strategy, decompose the processes into their component
activities
Complete the structure chart
Evaluate the structure chart and redesign as required.

Select one:

a. Transform

b. Transaction

c. Structure Chart

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Transform

Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the
project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:

True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design
technique context

Select one:

a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: CASE

Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:

a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Retrieve

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Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to


vendors to bid on.

Select one:

a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but
do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:

True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:

a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Champion

Question 19 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or
when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed. This is the highest level of
coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.

Select one:

a. Control

b. Execute

c. Common

d. Content

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Content

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Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:

a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with di erent data in more
than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Di erent data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one
location

◄ Self-Quiz Unit 4

Jump to...

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Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and re nement of an
entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.

Select one:

True

False

Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video
and ___________.

Select one:

a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is correct.

Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the


o cial, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:

a. Data

b. Module

c. Con guration

d. System

Your answer is correct.

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Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are :
Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.

Select one:

True

False

Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence de nes highly interrelated activities that are worked


on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant adjustment.

Select one:

True

False

Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:

a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.

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Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data ows, and processes across the levels
of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:

True

False

Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage,
and retrieval.

Select one:

True

False

Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit
controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the application.

Select one:

a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is correct.

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Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an in ows context


called patients claims processing:

Select one:

True

False

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Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the


old application.

Select one:

a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is correct.

Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application,
including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:

True

False

Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on


their major functions.

Select one:

a. A erent Flows

b. E erent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is correct.

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Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have
to a user's environment.

Select one:

True

False

Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts speci c transformations and outputs as e ects and identi es


the input data causing those e ects

Select one:

a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-e ect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is correct.

Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only
on data objects of the same data type when they are de ned in the same module.

Select one:

a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is correct.

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Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:

True

False

Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and
completion times estimated for the development e ort.

Select one:

a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is correct.

Question 21 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:

a. Environmental Metrics

b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)

c. Remediation Level (RL)

d. Report Con dence (RC)

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Question 22 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware


engineering process.

Select one:

True

False

Question 23 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:

a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is correct.

Question 24 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _____________scope de nes the location of work for each activity.


The_______________ scope de nes technology platform by location.

Select one:

a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is correct.

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Question 25 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following gure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:

a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is correct.

Question 26 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data
ows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to
de ne what other transformations are required to link the input and output
boundary processes.

Select one:

a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is correct.

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Question 27 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:

True

False

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Question 28 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following
diagram?

Select one:

a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is correct.

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Question 29 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under
the category of

Select one:

a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is correct.

Question 30 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules


that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the load module.
whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a
dynamic, real-time environment.

Select one:

a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data owing from Process
2.0 to

Select one:

a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is correct.

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Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only
on data objects of the same data type when they are de ned in the same module.

Select one:

True

False

Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is de ned as:

Select one:

a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the
tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the
tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is correct.

Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of


con guration management

Select one:

True

False

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Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that


re ects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:

True

False

Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and


handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:

a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is correct.

Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) de nes some essential process, data, event, or action
that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:

True

False

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Question 13 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:

a. Base

b. Temporal

c. Environmental

d. Human

Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________
modules perform one action on data from many objects of di ering data types.

Select one:

a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is correct.

Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:

True

False

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Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data ows, and processes across the levels
of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:

True

False

Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The baseline is the o cial version of a code module that is in production use at any
time.

Select one:

True

False

Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video
and ___________.

Select one:

a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is correct.

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Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of


business processes, data, and technology

Select one:

True

False

Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an in ows context


called patients claims processing:

Select one:

True

False

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Question 21 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:

a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is correct.

Question 22 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:

a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with di erent data in more than
location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Di erent data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is correct.

Question 23 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional speci cations are met, that the human
interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the intended
operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:

True

False

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Question 24 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:

True

False

Question 25 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness,
Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:

True

False

Question 26 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to


vendors to bid on.

Select one:

a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is correct.

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Question 27 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-de ned data type that encapsulates de nitions of
object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:

a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is correct.

Question 28 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence de nes highly interrelated activities that are worked


on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant adjustment.

Select one:

True

False

Question 29 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, aw, weakness, or exposure of an application,


system, device, or service that could lead to a failure of con dentiality, integrity, or
availability.

Select one:

True

False

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Question 30 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:

a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is correct.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

Jump to...

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Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identi es the speci c versions of multiple modules that
were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident work unit.

Select one:

a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is correct.

Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and
completion times estimated for the development e ort.

Select one:

a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is correct.

Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly


line approach.

Select one:

True

False

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Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_________________ is the re nement of data relationships to remove repeating


information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.

Select one:

a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _____________scope de nes the location of work for each activity.


The_______________ scope de nes technology platform by location.

Select one:

a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is correct.

Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as sca olding, to support
the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.

Select one:

True

False

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Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing


via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs

Select one:

True

False

Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware


engineering process.

Select one:

True

False

Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?

After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a


______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and equipment for the
application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and
devices, that is, limited-intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:

a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is correct.

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Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identi es relationships


between processes.

Select one:

a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is correct.

Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:

True

False

Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________management is the identi cation, organization, and control of


modi cations to software built by a programming team.

Select one:

a. Change

b. Project

c. Con guration

d. Software

Your answer is correct.

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Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a
charge-out occurs. It signi es that the updating of a charge in module to remove
the lock.

Select one:

True

False

Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on


their major functions.

Select one:

a. A erent Flows

b. E erent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is correct.

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Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning
to end and work independently to service their personal customers. In addition,
they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:

a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.

Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:

a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is correct.

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Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data
ows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to
de ne what other transformations are required to link the input and output
boundary processes.

Select one:

a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is correct.

Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:

a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is correct.

Question 21 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group re ects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:

True

False

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Question 22 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and


techniques in the development of computer-based applications.

Select one:

True

False

Question 23 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

________________ identify the ow of data into and out of modules and match the
data ows on the DFD.

Select one:

a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is correct.

Question 24 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks


concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each reentrant
module.

Select one:

True

False

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Question 25 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:

a. Access Vector

b. Authentication

c. Con dentiality, Integrity, Availability

d. Con dentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

Question 26 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design
technique context

Select one:

a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is correct.

Question 27 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:

a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is correct.

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Question 28 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that
is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.

Select one:

a. Abstract Data Type

b. Class/Objects Object

c. Class

Your answer is correct.

Question 29 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that


addresses what issue?

Select one:

a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms

b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms

c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and


software platforms

d. None of the above

Question 30 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the
project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:

True

False

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

Jump to...

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Started on Friday, 29 October 2021, 5:50 PM


State Finished
Completed on Friday, 29 October 2021, 5:53 PM
Time taken 3 mins 1 sec
Marks 30.00/30.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram 

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

Question 2
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 3
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also 
delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 4
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization 

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normalization

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Question 5
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large 

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Large

Question 6
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic 

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Normal, Polymorphic

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Question 7
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement 

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

Question 8
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers 

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Case workers

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Question 9
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 10
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 11
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 12
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 13
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric 

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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Question 14
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In 

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 15
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 16
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE 

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: CASE

Question 17
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 18
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 19
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams 

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Time Event Diagrams

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Question 20
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 21
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix 

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: synchronization matrix

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Question 22
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 23
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1 

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 24
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True 

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 25
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP) 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 26
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt 

d. None of these

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Gantt

Question 27
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.

Select one:
True

False 

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 28
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics 

b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)


c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

Question 29
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work 

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Load , Joint memory resident work

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Question 30
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation 

Your answer is correct.


The correct answer is: Derivation

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

Jump to...

Final Exam ►

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / Final Exam (Days 1 - 4) / Review Quiz

Started on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:08 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:08 AM
Time taken 13 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Request for proposal (RFP)

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Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Outward In

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Cause-effect graph

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Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

The correct answer is: Environmental Metrics

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Question 6

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence
equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Process Diagram

Question 7

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

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Question 8

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is
also delayed

Question 9

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

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Question 10

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Five

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Question 11

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Abstract Data Type

Question 12

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Derivation

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Question 13

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 14

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: White box testing

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Question 15

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 16

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Pseudostrong type checking

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Question 17

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

The correct answer is: B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

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Question 18

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Entity 1

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Question 19

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Enterprise Architecture

Question 20

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

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Question 21

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Data

Question 22

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Gantt

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Question 23

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 24

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: State Transition Diagram

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Question 25

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

Question 26

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: Data Couples

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Question 27

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

The correct answer is: Human

Question 28

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.


The correct answer is: System Retirement

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Question 29

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'False'.

Question 30

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True

False

The correct answer is 'True'.

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

Jump to...

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / Final Exam (Days 1 - 4) / Review Quiz

Started on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:09 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:09 AM
Time taken 36 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
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Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True

False

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Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True

False

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True

False

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True

False

Question 6

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 7

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True

False

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Question 8

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 9

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 10

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True

False

Question 11

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False

Question 12

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 13

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 14

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

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Question 15

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 16

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 17

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 18

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 19

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 20

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 21

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 22

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False

Question 23

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 24

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 25

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 26

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 27

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True

False

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Question 28

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)

Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1

Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)


End {Function Fact};
FACT is a function that recurs continuously
until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 29

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 30

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Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True

False

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / Final Exam (Days 1 - 4) / Review Quiz

Started on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:10 AM


State Finished
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Time taken 6 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True

False

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Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True

False

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 6

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False

Question 7

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.

Select one:
True

False

Question 8

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True

False

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Question 9

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True

False

Question 10

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 11

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 12

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 13

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True

False

Question 14

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 15

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 16

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 17

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Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 18

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 19

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 20

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 21

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 22

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 23

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type

b. Class/Objects

c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 24

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 25

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 26

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 27

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True

False

Question 28

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True

False

Question 29

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 30

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / Final Exam (Days 1 - 4) / Review Quiz

Started on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:10 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:10 AM
Time taken 13 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data

Select one:
a. Object

b. Class

c. Abstract Data Type

d. Meta Class

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.

Select one:
a. Modularization

b. Inheritance

c. Exception handling

d. Polymorphism

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True

False

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.

Select one:
a. Process

b. Object

c. Data

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 6

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A project plan is a map of tasks, times, and their interrelationships.

Select one:
True

False

Question 7

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True

False

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Question 8

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.

Select one:
a. Partitioning

b. Normalization

c. Coupling

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 9

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 10

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True

False

Question 11

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type

b. Class/Objects

c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 12

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 13

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 14

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 15

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 16

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 17

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 18

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 19

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 20

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects

Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis

b. Cause-effect graph

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 21

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a group of CVSS?

Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human

Question 22

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 23

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.

Select one:
True

False

Question 24

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True

False

Question 25

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 26

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True

False

Question 27

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 28

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 29

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.

Select one:
True

False

Question 30

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True

False

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / Final Exam (Days 1 - 4) / Review Quiz

Started on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:10 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:10 AM
Time taken 23 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence
equipment such as a disk drive.

Select one:
a. State Diagram

b. Process Diagram

c. Object Diagram

d. None of the above.

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.

Select one:
a. Load , Compilation

b. Load , Memory Resident Work

c. Load , Joint memory resident work

d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be

Select one:
True

False

Question 6

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True

False

Question 7

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Useful tools for software engineers DO NOT include:

Select one:
a. process dependencies

b. synchronization matrix

c. process hierarchies

d. object diagrams.

Your answer is incorrect.

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8/6/23, 5:12 PM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 8

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Draw _________ feet to show cardinality of each relationship in an ER diagram

Select one:
a. Crow

b. Bird

c. Sparrow

d. Eagle

Your answer is incorrect.

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8/6/23, 5:12 PM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 9

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True

False

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Question 10

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?

Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric

Question 11

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Horizontal (or Subset) Data Partitioning:

Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location

b. Data are copied in more than one location

c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location

d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 12

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.

Select one:
a. Data

b. Module

c. Configuration

d. System

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 13

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 14

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 15

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 16

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.

Select one:
a. Strong type checking

b. Pseudostrong type checking

c. Typeless checking

d. Mixed mode type checking

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 17

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?

Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above

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Question 18

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Temporal Metrics include all but the following except:

Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)

Question 19

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.

Select one:
True

False

Question 20

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 21

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True

False

Question 22

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs

Select one:
True

False

Question 23

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 24

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts

Select one:
True

False

Question 25

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.

Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams

b. Booch diagrams

c. Process Diagrams

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 26

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 27

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True

False

Question 28

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The critical path of a project is defined as:

Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed

c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.

d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 29

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 30

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.

Select one:
True

False

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

Jump to...

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / Final Exam (Days 1 - 4) / Review Quiz

Started on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:11 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:11 AM
Time taken 8 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.

Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type

b. Class/Objects

c. Class

Your answer is incorrect.

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8/6/23, 5:12 PM Review Quiz: Attempt review

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:

Select one:
True

False

Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.

Select one:
True

False

Question 6

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Environmental Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's

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Question 7

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 8

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In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 9

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram

Select one:
True

False

Question 10

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.

Select one:
a. Afferent Flows

b. Efferent Flows

c. Transform Analysis

d. Partitioning

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 11

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____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.

Select one:
a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Restructuring

d. Rebuilding

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 12

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following figure depicts the ___________ testing technique.

Select one:
a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Bottom up testing

d. Top down testing

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 13

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.

Select one:
True

False

Question 14

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.

Select one:
a. Bidding document

b. Project request

c. Request for bid

d. Request for proposal (RFP)

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 15

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 16

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Marked out of 1.00

A version file is used to store the differences between versions of a program.

Select one:
True

False

Question 17

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.

Select one:
True

False

Question 18

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Goal of 3NF Is to Remove Partial Key Dependencies

Select one:
True

False

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Question 19

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A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.

Select one:
a. Pert

b. CPM

c. Gantt

d. None of these

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 20

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 21

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The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.

Select one:
a. Technology, Network

b. Network, Technology

c. Data, Process

d. Enterprise, Network

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 22

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The following is an example of Booch diagram?

Select one:
True

False

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Question 23

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 24

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 25

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 26

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.

Select one:
True

False

Question 27

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 28

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 29

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.

Select one:
True

False

Question 30

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True

False

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◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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Dashboard / My courses / CS 4403-01 - AY2023-T5 / Final Exam (Days 1 - 4) / Review Quiz

Started on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:11 AM


State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 6 August 2023, 9:11 AM
Time taken 9 secs
Marks 0.00/30.00
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00

Question 1

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.

Select one:
a. Assembly workers

b. Case workers

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. None of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 2

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 3

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to

Select one:
a. Entity 1

b. Entity 2

c. Process 2.0

d. Process 3.0

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 4

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.

Select one:
a. Control Couples

b. Data Couples

c. Factoring

d. Morphology

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 5

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.

Select one:
a. Rental Processing

b. Software

c. Hardware

d. Networks

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 6

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.

Select one:
a. Change

b. Project

c. Configuration

d. Software

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 7

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 8

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

___________________is an abstract summary of some organizational component's design.

Select one:
a. Data Architecture

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Process Architecture

d. Network Architecture

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 9

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.

Select one:
a. Top Down

b. Bottom Up

c. Outward In

d. Functional Sequence

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 10

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?

Select one:
a. One

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 11

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of

Select one:
a. Very Large

b. Large

c. Intermediate

d. Medium

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 12

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.

Select one:
a. DFD

b. State Transition Diagram

c. Flowcharts

d. Gantt Chart

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 13

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Base Metrics include all the following except:

Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts

Question 14

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Function FACT (N)


Begin

If N =0
Then Factout = 1

Else Factout = N * FACT(N-1)


End {Function Fact};

FACT is a function that recurs continuously


until N = O

Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code

b. Recursive Pseudo Code

c. Reusable Pseudo Code

d. None of above

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 15

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management

Select one:
True

False

Question 16

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.

Select one:
True

False

Question 17

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 18

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Threat is the likelihood or frequency of a harmful event occurring.

Select one:
True

False

Question 19

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology

Select one:
True

False

Question 20

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.

Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy

b. Mealy, Moore

c. State, transition

d. Transition, state

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 21

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:

Select one:
a. Project Manager

b. Sponsor

c. Champion

d. User

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 22

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which is NOT a phase of project lifecycle (PLC)?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design

b. Project Initiation

c. System Retirement

d. Preparation for Software Engineering

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 23

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context

Select one:
a. CASE

b. UML

c. ERD

d. DFD

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 24

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 25

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

The R in CRUD matrix stands for

Select one:
a. Repeat

b. Return

c. Retrieve

d. Report

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 26

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:

Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement

b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance

c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement

d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement

Your answer is incorrect.

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Question 27

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.

Select one:
a. Module

b. Link

c. Code

d. Derivation

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 28

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.

Select one:
True

False

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Question 29

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.

Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic

b. Polymorphic, Normal

c. Encapsulated, Reusable

d. Reusable, Encapsulated

Your answer is incorrect.

Question 30

Not answered

Marked out of 1.00

True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.

Select one:
True

False

◄ Learning Guide Unit 9

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