RADIO` 14.

After an automatic direction finding antenna

1. When leveling co-axial cable, it should be has been installed, the; Loop must be
secured firmly along the cable length. at 2 calibrated
foot interval 15. Doublers are used when antennas are
2. When must the emergency locator installed to: Reinstate the structural strength
transmitter ELT battery be replaced other of the aircraft skin
than reading the replacement? ELT Battery 16. One antenna can be used for the radio range
replacement when transmitter has been in and standard broadcast bands in light
use for more than one cumulative hour aircrafts because the Two ranges are close
3. An Emergency locator transmit ELT battery together
must be capable of furnishing power for 17. What characteristics of the installation of a
signal transmission for at least. 48 hours rigid antenna on a vertical stabilizer should
4. The preferred Location of ELT is as far aft as be evaluated? Flutter and vibration.
possible but forward of the vertical fin. 18. A gasket or sealant is used between the
5. An ELT is normally activated by inertial antenna mast and fuselage skin: To prevent
switch or equivalent mechanism if subjected the entry of moisture
to a force of a prescribed intensity and 19. The preferred location of a VOR antenna on
duration, it must activate when the force light aircraft is on: Top of the cabin with the
applied is Parallel to the longitudinal axis of apex of the V pointing forward
the aircraft 20. The purpose of a localizer is to align the
6. Static dischargers help eliminate radio airplane with the centre of the runway.
interference by dissipating static electricity 21. What is the approximate drag load on an
into the atmosphere at Low current levels antenna with a frontal area of 0.125 square
7. Long rang navigation LORAN systems feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of
determine aircraft Location by Means of 225MPH? (D=0.000327AV Squared): 2.073
pulsed signals transmitted from ground pounds
stations 22. What is the approximate drag load on an
8. An aircraft antenna installation must be antenna with a frontal area of 0.0137 square
grounded to the Airframe of Aircraft feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of
9. VHF radio signals are commonly used in: 275 MPH? (D = 0.000327AV Squared):3.387
Both VOR and ATC communication pounds
10. On modern large aircraft, what electronic 23. A DME antenna should be located in a
device typically monitors flight parameters position on the aircraft that will Not be
and performs autopilot functions Flight blanked by the wing when the aircraft is
management computer banked.
11. In the landing configuration GPWS typically 24. When bending coaxial cable, the bend radius
monitors the radio altimeter: air data should be at least 10 times the diameter of
computer, instrument landing system and the cable
Landing gear and flap position 25. When installing a DME antenna, it should be
12. In general, the purpose an aircraft aligned with the: Centerline on the airplane
transponder is to Received an interrogation 26. The addition of Avionics and associated
signal from a ground station and antenna systems forward of the CG limit will
automatically send a reply back. affect Empty weight and useful loads
13. When an antenna is installed, it should be 27. The purpose of a glide slope system is to
fastened: So that loads imposed are Assist the pilot in making a correct angle of
transmitted to the aircraft structure. descent to the runway
1
28. How much clearance from the seat bottom is 45. A hot mic is Microphone which is
required when installing radio equipment permanently live regardless of switch
under a seat? 1 inch with the seat occupied positions and fed to the CVR
and subjected to maximum downward seat 46. Impatt diode is a P-N junction Reverse biased
spring deflection. to its avalanche threshold and it is used in
29. What kind of antenna is used for VHF oscillators.
communications? A Horizontally polarized 47. To provide a low resistance radio frequency
whip antenna path across brushes, commutators and
30. What does the three marker beacon indicate contacts: Capacitors are used
to the pilot? Blue indicate passage over the 48. Suppression is: a form of protection
outer marker in an ILS approach 49. Pick up is the term used when the interfering
31. On what frequency is the marker beacon source: An AC power source
signal transmitted? 75MHz. 50. A cross talk is interference from a Signal
32. An electromagnetic wave of frequency carrying cable
30MHz will have a wavelength of: 10m 51. Double screening is highly essential for
33. A loop antenna is used for: VOR and ADF integrity: In communication equipments
34. Above 30MHz propagation is by Sky wave 52. The earth points for screened cable and AC
35. Fading at low frequency and medium power must be Does not really matter
frequency may be due to: Simultaneous 53. The electrical alterable read only memory
reception of sky and ground wave EAROM: will store data for an indefinite
36. A carrier of amplitude 5v, is amplitude period without power
modulated by a signal of amplitude 3v the 54. During ramp testing Transmission can be
percentage modulation is: 60% done during refueling as long as
37. A wavelength amplitude modulating precautionary measures are taken
frequency of 540Hz causes a carrier to vary Transmission cannot be done while
between 8798.5MHz and 8798.8MHz the refuelling
modulation index is 3 55. Loop Alignment Error in ADF will exist: If the
38. An address bus usually consist of 16 longitudinal loop plane is not in alignment
unidirectional lines with the aircraft longitudinal axis.
39. Rho theta navigation is the basis of 56. The procedures for determining the sign and
VOR/DME size of errors in an ADF installation is known
40. To avoid earth loops in audio systems, cable as: Loop swing
screens should be: Earthed at one end only. 57. The radiation from a conventional VOR
41. An aircraft VHF communication transceiver station is: Horizontally polarized VHF wave
will provide: 720 channels at 25KHz. mode
42. An aircraft at flight level 100 will be able to 58. If the compass heading information is
communicate with a VHF ground station at combined with the VOR derived bearing the
100ft above means sea level at an relative bearing of the station can be
approximate maximum range of 135 NM presented to the pilot: this is the difference
43. TACAN beacons transmit in the range between the magnetic bearing from the
 962 to 1213 MHz station and aircraft
44. Typical radiated power from an airline 59. The VOR system can be used as a ground to
standard VHF Comms transmitter will be air communication channel as long as this
10w (2-25w) does not interfere with its basic navigational
functions.

2
  The frequency range of the voice 72. The most vulnerable parts of the body
modulation is limited to 300 to 3000Hz exposed to the hazards when operating
 The frequency range of voice modulation is weather radar are: Eyes and testes
limited to 30 to 300 MHz 73. The DH Lamp comes on when the Aircraft is:
 the frequency range of voice modulation is Below the pilot set radio altitude
limited to 30 to 300MHZ 74. A radio Altimeter would not be connected
60. Which of this frequency is identification to: Flight director
signal keyed to provide Morse code 75. An X band weather radar will operate at
identification. 1020 Hz AM 9375 MHz
61. Considerable site errors where the station is 76. C Band weather radar will operate at 5400
installed in the vicinity of obstruction is MHz
always associated with: Conventional VOR 77. The 3DB band width of than ATC
62. Which of this statement is correct: VOR and transponder receiver is 6MHz
ILS localisers occupy the same band of 78. The VSWR of a localiser antennae should be
frequencies more than 1.5:1
63. In order to be able to land the Aircraft safely 79. Which of the following is a localiser
under Visual Flight Rules VFR, the pilot must frequency 108.10 MHz
have at least: 80. A typical AF response of a VHF transceiver is
 5miles horizontal visibility with a ceiling  300 to 2500HZ (300hz to 3khz)
not less than 1000ft 81. The usable night range of DECCA is about:
 4 mile horizontal visibility with visibility 240 nm
not less than 800 ft. 82. The VOR audio identification tone is at 1020
 3 mile horizontal visibility with visibility HZ
not less than 100 ft. 83. The microwave aircraft digital guidance
64. Which of these provides lateral steering for equipment MADGE is? Not a radar system.
both front and back course? Localiser 84. V.S.W.R is
65. Distance measuring equipment DME is A  Ratio of minimum to maximum voltage of
Primary radar pulse ranging system the standing wave set up on a mis-
operating in the band 978 -1213MHz matched line.
66. In weather radar the elapsed time between  The ratio of maximum to minimum voltage
transmission and reception. Directly of standing wave set up on a mis-matched
proportional to range R line
67. Primary surveillance radar Rely on the active  The ratio of the voltage of the standing
target only wave set up on a mis-matched line.
68. Which of this statement is correct In radar, 85. What is a radar mile The time taken for an
degradation increase with frequency EM wave to travel 1 nm and back approx
69. In radar a generally accepted Maximum 12.36 micro seconds
Permissible Exposure Level (M.P.E.L) is 10 86. Encoding Altimeter is A Pneumatic altimeter
Mwcm2 with a parallel coded output of 11 to 14 bits
70. The majority of radars in service and representing the Aircraft height above MSL.
currently manufactured are; C band 87. The VOR system can be used as ground to air
71. Which of this statement is correct when communication channel
operating weather radar? Aircraft cannot be  True
refueled or refueled 88. An address bus usually consist of 16 uni-
directional lines

3
89. Which statement is correct about the control 8. 111.1 MHz is an ILS frequency.
bus? The number of lines varies with the 9. The aviation distress frequency is 121.5 MHz.
system and have uni- and bi-directional lines. 10. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective
90. Of particular interest to an aircraft radio to 2500 ft.
system engineer in ATA 100 are: 23 and 34 12. What does a DECCA Navigation system
(Comm and nav) operate on? Low Frequency.
91. The lateral steering is provided by localizer: 13. Which of the following has an hyperbolic
Both front course and back course curve? LORAN
approaches only 14. A GPS satellite will come into view 15°
92. The following are examples of secondary above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
radar: DME TCAS ATC transponder 15. Restrictions to the use of hand held
93. The Bandwidth practically used by non- microphones apply to transport category
directional beacon extends from: 200KHz to aircraft only.
400 KHz 16. Track mode of an RA is operational from 0
94. The DME as secondary radar operates in the to 2,500 feet.
UHF Band on the following frequency Band: 17. How many aerials are there in a TCAS
960 MHz to 1215 MHz system? 2.
95. The selective calling (SELCAL) system 18. Wavelength of band radar is 3 cm.
Relieves the pilot from continuously 19. Precipitation static is caused by skin to air
monitoring communication channel. particle collisions.
96. Radio concept can be used on aircraft for: 20. HF aerials have weak points designed at the
Communication and Navigation. back end.
97. The disadvantage of a moving coil 21. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft
microphone is that: It has a diaphragm transponder? 1090 MHz.
resonance 22. CAT 2 RVR limit is 1200 ft.
98. The selective calling (SELCAL) system 23. A hyperbolic system is LORAN C.
Relieves the pilot from continuously 24. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what
monitoring communication channel. is the pulse frequency? Amount of times reply
99. The minimum frequency required for an signal is sent per second.
aerial to be able to radiate electromagnetic 25. CAT 2 RVR limit is 400 m.
energy is about: 9KHz and above 26. How does an IRS calculate velocity?
100. Which one is true of Electromagnetic Integration of accelerometers.
waves? The fields are 900 to each other and 27. Static dischargers help eliminate radio
to direction of propagation interference by dissipating static electricity into
the atmosphere at low current levels.
1. Which category are hand mikes considered 28. What is the wavelength of C band radar? 7
essential?. Light aircraft. cm.
2. Emergency frequency is 121.5 MHz 29. What is primary radar? Radar that sends
3. 121.5 MHz is what frequency? VHF. out pulse and receives reflected pulse.
4. 112.1 MHz is what frequency? VOR. 30. What is ILS marker beacon frequency? 75
5. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be MHz.
used Not cellulose. 31. TCAS is selected by a switch, by pilot on
6. When painting a neoprene coated radio selector panel.
antenna do not use cellulose paint. 32. The manual VOR input is for course
7. ILS marker beacon lights are blue, amber, deviation bar.
white.
4
33. What is the colour of the middle marker magnetic indicator (DDRMI)? From VOR and
beacon? Amber. ADF systems.
34. A GPS system is formed from space, control, 54. Which frequency is used to achieve line of
user. sight radio communication? VHF and UHF.
35. Laser gyros are aligned to the aircraft 55. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high
structure. frequency (HF) communication system? To
36. Laser gyros do not have rotational parts. electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for
37. A radio coupled approach is localiser first, optimum matching of impedance.
followed by glideslope 56. What would be the purpose of an input
38. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS changes from an inertial reference system being
with radio altitude. connected to a weather radar? To provide
39. What frequency are VOR and ILS? VHF stabilisation for the radar antenna.
40. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used 57. Which systems provide envelope
for HF communications. modulation information for a Ground Proximity
42. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when Warning System (GPWS) Flaps/undercarriage.
close to ground will give red caption and aural 58. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB)
'whoop whoop pull up'. corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How
43. The components of an ILS are a localizer, a does it operate? Azimuth and elevation
glide slope and the marker beacons. transmitters produce a narrow beam which is
44. An inertial navigation unit uses pin rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN.
programming for location. 59. In an IRS system you would expect to find
45. In ILS, the glideslope provides vertical ring laser gyros.
steering. 60. In an INS system the accelerometer is a
46. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer mass suspended between two springs in a tube.
receiver predominates, the deviation indicator 61. VHF frequency is 108 - 136 MHz.
will show fly right. 62. The call system for the captain will have the
47. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails audio signal of a hi tone chime.
Radio altimeter. 63. Channel 3 on a CVR records flightdeck.
48. INS has mercury switches on all gimbals. 64. DME works on the frequency of UHF.
49. If the runway picture in the EADI moves 65. A radial is referenced from a beacon.
down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must 66. ADF works by using both loop and sense
fly down. aerial.
50. What modulation is used for the beams of a 67. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is
localiser in an ILS? 150 Hz right of runway used primarily for communications between
centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline. the aircraft and base.
51. In what frequency range does the 68. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop,
automatic direction finding (ADF) system Pull-up' command? Mode 2.
operate? 190 - 1759 KHz. 69. A transponder that is compatible for use
52. How does an aircraft distinguish its own with a TCAS system would be Mode S.
Distance Measuring Equipment reply from 70. GPS uses 24 satellites equally spaced
those for other aircraft? By changing at random around 6 orbits.
the time delay between the pulse pairs of the 71. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring
interrogation signal. is detected by placing mercury switches on
53. From where is bearing information received inner gimbal ring.
for display on the digital-distance radio- 72. The IRS laser gyro is a rate gyro.

5
73. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the 93. Coriolis effect is corrected for by adding a
pilot to make? RA. correction term to the accelerometer outputs
74. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a 94. In an IN system, the output of the
TCAS display? White diamonds, red squares accelerometer is linear because of a force
and amber circles. balance system.
75. The laser ring gyro does not have gimbal 95. The three accelerometers on a stable
and rotating parts. platform are mounted orthogonally.
76. Decca navigation uses LF. 96. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable
77. Which of the following has priority over platform is to prevent unwanted acceleration
TCAS warnings? Stall warning. affecting the accelerometers.
78. The ILS marker beacon operates at a 97. The type of gyro generally used in an IN
frequency of 75 MHz. system is a rate integrating gyro.
79. The manual input for the VOR course 98. Earth rate is approximately 15 degrees per
corrector is related to the CDI offset bar. hour.
80. A flat plate antenna is a series of slots and 99. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is
wave guides. the azimuth gimbal.
81. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS 100. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable
receiver must be in line of sight of 4 satellites. platform it is normal to use four gimbals.
82. Which of the following systems is inhibited 101. When the inertial platform is torqued to
when a test is performed of the Radalt system? perform like a Schuler pendulum the platform
GPWS. oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
83. The GPS satellite system consists of 21 102. A Schuler pendulum has a period of
satellites and 3 standby satellites. oscillation of 84.4 minutes.
84. A Mode C transponder gives the following 103. An IN system requires data from the air
info: Altitude. data computer.
85. When will the decision height aural warning 104. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert
sound?. At decision height. lamp of the IN system will flash two minutes
86. Before the aeroplane is moved from the before the next waypoint.
loading pier, the pilot must insert the latitude 105. TK (cross track) is the perpendicular
and longitude of the pier into the INS. distance from the desired track.
87. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system 106. The output of an INS can be fed to attitude
has accelerometers and gyros fixed to the indicators.
airframe 107. The three accelerometers on a strapdown
88. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN platform are mounted 90º to each other.
system has the acceleration force balanced by a 108. A basic I.N.S. platform has 2
linear force. accelerometers and 3 gyros.
89. An accelerometer in an IN system must be 109. Using I.N.S., an aircraft flies great circle
able to detect accelerations down to 10-6 g. arc.
90. A laser gyro output is directly proportional 110. What must be entered in to the I.N.S.
to angular turning rate. before the aircraft moves? Present position
91. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result 111. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit
of the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable (MSU) to ATT REF is made when navigation
platform. information is lost.
92. The Inertial Navigation System computes 112. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides both
distance from acceleration by two successive when airborne and on the ground.
integrations.
6
113. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE 129. When an aircraft is flying along the
displays difference in degrees that the aircraft extended centre line of the runway it is in the
track is to the right or left of the desired track. equi-signal sector.
114. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed 130. The localiser system offers approach
from the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) guidance to the runway in terms of the
times the sine of the latitude. horizontal plane.
115. INS wind speed is calculated from the 131. The glideslope transmitter is located
vectorial addition of TAS and GS. adjacent to the touch-down point of the
116. Centripetal error compensation is runway.
achieved by an additional signal is added to the 132. The glideslope and localiser frequencies
N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal are paired and one frequency selector suffices
error. for both.
117. Transport Rate compensation is achieved 133. The glideslope system offers approach
by the platform being torqued by a computed guidance to runways in terms of the vertical
torquing signal. plane.
118. If the battery fails on the ground (INS 134. The glideslope equipment operates in the
System) a red warning light appears on the UHF band.
MSU and a horn sounds. 135. The localiser equipment operates in the
119. An IRS alignment takes 10 minutes and VHF band.
present position can be entered any time 136. The aircraft equipment determines the
during the alignment. bearing of a ground station by comparing the
120. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment phase of two 30 Hz modulations.
System Performance Test' the latitude entered 137. The number of different radials provided
must be within given limits of the latitude by a ground station is Infinite
computed by IRU. 138. Which of the following frequencies is
121. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures allocated to VOR? 114.3 MHz.
that optical 'backscatter' does not cause the 139. Aerial masts may be damaged by Skydrol
contra-rotating beams to lock together. hydraulic fluids.
122. The localiser deviation signal for the flight 140. Most radio aerial masts are bonded.
director comes from the VHF nav system. 141. When an aircraft is heading due north
123. The heading error signal used in the (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference
heading select mode is the difference between and variable signals will be 180° out of phase.
the desired heading and the actual heading. 142. The middle marker modulation is keyed
124. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR with alternate dots and dashes.
or LOC modes is displayed by the difference 143. The modulation of the outer marker is 400
between the course arrow and aircraft heading. Hz.
125. VOR left-right deviation signals come from 144. The approximate distance of the middle
the VHF nav set. marker from the runway threshold is. 3500 ft.
126. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope 145. Marker information is usually provided to
signal modulation is. 90 Hz the pilot both visually and aurally.
127. The localiser modulation signal to the left 146. An over station sensor (OSS) detects the
of the localiser centre line, as seen from the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of
localiser transmitter, is. 150 Hz confusion.
128. The correct sense demand generated for a 147. The VOR system comprises variable and
selected heading 180°, when the aircraft reference phase signals.
heading is 150° is turn right.
7
148. The most sensitive system between ILS 168. For radio communication over a distance
and VOR is ILS. of over 250 miles we use HF.
149. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 1. An aircraft radio tuned to 14.890MHz
away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM would be using: Sky wave propagation
indicator would show from. 2. A transverse electro-magnetic wave is
150. How does the flight director computer said to be vertically polarized when: The
differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies? ‘’E’’ field oscillates in the vertical plane
Frequency discriminator in receiver 3. Automatic gain control in radio
152. During ATC transponder operation, side receivers is use to: Maintain Rx gain
lobe suppression acts to mute the DME constant for varying strength input
operation during transmit phase. signals
153. During operation of a twin HF radio system 4. The presence of sidetone in a headset
transceiver #1 HF system operation is inhibited confirms the correct operation of: The
during #2 operation. modulation process in both VHF and HF
154. L band DME transmits on a frequency of coms system
1090 MHz. 5. The main selectivity of a super-
155. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in heterodyne radio receiver is provided
navigation system with reference to aircraft by: The IF amplifier
and beacon is; the first provides bearing line 6. E Field and H field are at:
from aircraft to beacon and latter provides a) Right angles to each other
distance between aircraft and beacon. b) Right angles to the direction of
157. Localizer beam width is the angle where propagation
the two edges of beam are apart at the runway c) All of the above
threshold by 700 ft. 7. In the electromagnetic spectrum, radio
158. What happens if frequency decreases waves occupy frequency range of: 3 KHz
without altering the physical length of aerial? – 300 GHz
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. a) In ground wave, as the frequency
159. What happens if frequency increases increased EMF induced in the
without altering the physical length of aerial? ground increase
The aerial becomes inductively reactive. 8. Sky wave propagation varies with the
160. Aerials provide optimum output at one condition of the ionosphere
particular frequency, when its load is purely. 9. The following layers occurs only during
Resistive the daytime D, F1 & F2 layers
161. Most aerials are bonded. 10. The frequency ranges for MF and HF
162. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour respectively are: 300 KHz – 3 MHz – 30
Amber. MHz
164. Laser gyros are aligned to aircraft 11. The impedance of a dipole antenna is:
structure. 70Ω
165. ACARS is a way of reporting defects to 12. The radiation characteristics of rod
maintenance base in flight. antenna is equivalent to: Half of the
166. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' dipole characteristic
selected ON? The ATC control panel. 13. Low bunching in short horn antennas
167. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for? can be overcome by using: Lens
A. Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain antenna as phase correcting systems
closure rate. 14. The radiation diagram of a vertical slot
radiation is: Horizontally polarized
8
 15. If the generator is connected at the 36. The following are the function of audio
centre of the antenna, the line is said to selector Box
be: Current fed a. Select TX in use
16. Wave guide is the optimum solution for b. Receiver output section
radio wave transmission at high c. All of the above
frequency 38. R/T relay is operated via
17. Characteristic impedance is a. PTT switch
independent of the b. Flip switch
a) Frequency of the RF energy c. All of the above
b) length of the line 39. PTT switch and flip switch are
c) all of the above connected in Parallel
18. reflected travelling wave occurs when 40. When the flip switch is in position I/C
RL ≠ Zo what happens? Interphone connection is
19. Balance modulator suppresses Carrier made
frequency 41. How many type of interphone system
20. The following factors affect frequency do we have? 3
stability 42. Communication between the cockpit
a) Loading crew members are done via Flight interphone
b) Temperature 43. Communication between cabin
c) All of the above attendant and cockpit are done via Cabin
In low level modulation, modulation is interphone
applied to: Drive amplifier 44. Communication between cockpit and
21. Receivers in which the radiated service jacks are done via Service
frequency is not changed between the interphone
antenna and the detector are called: 45. PA priority No 1 is for Cockpit Mike
Tuned radio frequency (TRF) receiver 46. PA priority No 3 is for Emergency
22. The solution to image frequency Announcement
selectivity is: High IF 47. PA priority No 2 is for Attendant
23. Semi conductor noise include the stations
following except: Cosmic noise 48. PA priority No 4 is for Boarding music
24. Fault condition causes the missing of: 49. Main MUX converts 16 parallel audio
Sidetone input to serial signal
25. VHF – Comm system are propagated by: 50. Advantage of multiplexing include the
Space wave following except adds weight
31. A device produces sound by varying The 51. When more than one film projection is
pressure of the surrounding air installed, no 2 projector goes to SUBMUX
32. Sound waves affect Only one side of the no 2
diaphragm of a mic 52. Another name for de-Multiplexer is Seat
33. What type of microphone operate electronic box
under ‘variable contact resistance’ principle 53. PCU perform the following function
Carbon mic a. Assessment to entertainment
34. Measure of sensitivity is The ratio of system by the passenger
electric output to the intensity of sound input b. Operating controls for the
35. Piezoelectric Mic Is a high impedance passenger service system
Mic c. All of the above

9
 54. Oxygen mask mic is used during 75. Modern microwave generator include
emergency Tunnel diodes
55. The PTT button connects in Two ground 76. TCAS advisory information that tells
56. The ELT is Self battery powered flight crew what action to take is RA
57. The ELT is automatically activated when 77. TCAS advisory information that gives
the switch is in Auto only the position of the threat aircraft is TA
58. Modern ELT transmit on how many 78. Sensor inputs to TCAS include
frequency Two a. Radio height
59. Modern type ELT Is satellite based b. Pressure altitude
60. What is used to locate a submerged CVR c. All of the above
Underwater locator beacon 79. The VHF-com system reserved for
61. CVR possesses Two recording head and ACARS operation is VHF3
four track 80. What is used for side lobe interrogation
62. For complete tape erasure, the erase suppression? p2
button is pressed for 7 seconds 1) The runway heading is QDM
63. The eraser head is in Front of first 2) In ILS, the glide slope provides The flag
recording head 3) VOR provides an aircraft with Bearing
64. The monitor head is Behind the information
recording head 4) 111.1 MHz is An ILS frequency
65. The CVR has how many input channel 5) What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a
Four VOR system? 10 degrees
66. The following are possible on the solid 6) Which of the following frequencies is not
state CVR an ILS frequency 110.05MHz
a. 30min recording 7) When approaching to land the left hand
b. 120min recording localiser lobe is modulated by: 90Hz
c. All of the above 8) An o/p of alternating dots and dashes
67. SSCVR receives four cockpit audio signal from the marker Rx will be accompanied
and generate Six internal audio information by a: Amber light
segment 9) An o/p from the 400Hz filter in the
68. Signals from channels 1 through 4 are marker Rx indicates the aircraft is
called High quality signals Passing over the outer marker
69. Internal recorded signals 5 & 6 are 10) Marker beacons transmit on a carrier
called Standard quality signals frequency of 75MHz
70. CVR Tape must withstand a 11) ADF is Theta
temperature of 11000c for 30 min 12) The MLS frequency range is: 5031 –
71. The Number of pulses present in each 5090MHz
sweep of the antenna is Pulse repetition 13) Microwave landing system are
frequency modulated with Phase drift keying
72. What determines the minimum range 14) Enroute VOR beacons have a power o/p
Pulse width of: 200 watts
73. Advantage of flat antenna include 15) Which of the following frequency is not a
Narrower beam VOR frequency? 109. 35MHz
74. Transmission line used for transmitting 16) DME reply pulses are 63MHz Higher or
E.M. waves at UHF and microwave lower
frequencies is Wave guide. 17) The frequency of 112.1MHz is used by
ILS localiser
10
 18) The ADF ground beacon transmits a 51) A sensitive instrument that measures the
signal which is: Vertically polarised and amount of force exerted on an object because
non-directional of its acceleration is an accelerometer. True
19) The ADF frequency range is? 0.19 to 52) The Inertial Navigation System
1.75MHz computes distance from acceleration by Two
20) Quadrantal error may be corrected by successive integrations
connecting: Inductors in the loop aerial 53) What is a great circle? An imaginary
fore/aft coil circuit circle on the surface of the earth, whose
21) An EM waves is said to be vertically centre and radius are those of the earth.
polarised when The E field is vertically at 54) A geodesic line is; A course plotted on a
right angles to the direction of great circle between two points on the surface
propagation of the earth
22) How are ADF beacons identified by 2 or 55) The distance in nautical miles that the
3 letter Morse code group aircraft is left or right of the desired great
23) DME transponder transmit or receipt Of circle path is; XTK
a pair of pulses separated by 12 56) Which of the following types of INS
microseconds dispenses with the gimbal assembly?
41) The ratio of the maximum frequency Strapdown system
deviation to the maximum modulating 57) ‘Turning points’ information is to be
frequency in a radio Altimeter is inputted to the INS in the aircraft Before take –
Modulating index off
42) When the radio altimeter experiences 58) Waypoints information, when keyed
too much radio noise Failure warning into the INS computer results in Roll command
flag appears information being automatically produced at
43) Doppler VOR (DVOR) is A radio certain points during flight.
navigation system 60) The types of gyros generally used in
44) American NAVSTAR GPS has an orbital the INS are the Rate integrating gyro
period of; 12 hrs 61) In an INS, the purpose of the stable
45) The angular difference between the platform is to: Prevent inaccurate sensing of
directions an aircraft is headed in acceleration by the accelerometers
flight and the direction of Movement 62) GPS ranging signal is broadcast at two
over the ground is Drift angle frequencies A signal at 1227.6 MHz and a
46) The Radio Altimeter system of changing the signal at 1575.42 MHz
voltage value of a radio frequency 63) The use of GPS signals in a differential
carrier to allow it to carry information is carrier mode implies: That two receivers at
referred to as Amplitude Modulation different locations are used
47) . Which of the following is a cautionary 64) In the INS the DIM CONTROL switch is
indication of GPWS Sink rate located on the CDU
48) When GPWS is inoperative, panel light 66) Which of the following instruments does
indication is? Amber warning light not receive signals from the INS? FDR
49). ‘Dead reckoning’ is a navigation method; 67) DVOR’S method of modulation is
In which a log of direction and velocity is completely different from CVOR But both on -
maintained and plotted on a chart board systems are completely compatible
50) In the inertial calculations of INS, the 68) Differential GPS requires; 4 satellites and
first integrator; Asks the question for how long 2 ground based
did the acceleration take place? 69) GPS has; 4 satellites in each of 6 orbits
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70) Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from 93) In a CVOR the 30Hz variable phase signal is;
Rad alt decrease AM Modulated
71) DSR TK (desired track) means; A great 94) The VOR course deviation indicator
circle path on surface of earth connecting two especially in light aircrafts Gives left-right
way points steering commands
72) In a Doppler VOR the 30Hz reference phase 95) Which of the following is not correct? The
signal is AM Modulated RMI displays Glideslope information
73) The battery unit for INS provides Both 96) What is the function of the switch marked
when airborne and on the ground. ‘BFO’ in an ADF unit? To generate audio for
74) The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings NDB stations broadcasting without audio tone
are repeated Once only 97) Which of the following has 50
75) An accelerometer has High inertia, microseconds time delay? DME
restrained 98) Why is there need for side lobe
76) ‘No GPS RAIM’ is: A warning light. suppression? The side lobe suppression circuit
78) The decision height on the Radio Altimeter prevents the transponder from replying if it
system is adjusted by Moving a bug on the senses reception of a side lobe
Radio Altitude indication 99) The transponder interrogation “What is
79) The most common type of gyro used in an your identity?” is Mode A
INS is A single rate integrating gyro with 100) Which of the following is correct? A Radio
viscosity damping Altimeter measures absolute altitude.
80) The DVOR is preferred in comparison to
CVOR because DVOR is relatively insensitive to
SITE errors
82) A Strap down Inertial Navigation System
has: Accelerometers and gyros fixed to the
airframe.
84) A laser gyro has: Two anodes and one
cathode.
86) The two main groups of GPS receivers
exclude: Those that track only 3 satellites
simultaneously.
87) The angle of Pitch that will invalidate
Radio altimeter altitude indication is: >200
88) The Airborne application of Doppler
navigation system cannot give aircraft ground
speed information. False.
89) On the INS CDU, when HDG DA is selected,
The left display reads aircraft heading from
zero to 3600
90) The GPWS message “Don’t Sink” is An
advanced equipment alert
91) The major purpose of RAIM is To enable
the GPS receiver check itself
92) For GPS to achieve range measurement
The satellites transmit a continuous data
stream
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