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Test Bank For Abrams’ Clinical Drug Therapy:
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Geralyn Frandsen
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Abrams’ Clinical Drug Therapy: Rationales for Nursing Practice 10e,

Geralyn Frandsen
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology

Multiple Choice

1. A woman has been prescribed paroxetine hydrochloride, which is an antidepressant agent

administered in pill form. The medication is administered for her obsessive-compulsive disorder.
This medication will produce which of the following effects?
A) Curative
B) Systemic
C) Local
D) Parenteral

Ans: B
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 1
Page and Header: 4, Introduction
Feedback: Drugs that produce systemic effects are taken into the body, circulated through the
bloodstream to their sites of action in various body tissues, and eventually eliminated from the
body. Curative agents are given to cure a disease process. In this case, paroxetine hydrochloride
will control the symptoms but not cure the disorder. Drugs with local effects, such as sunscreen
and local anesthetics, act mainly at the site of application. Paroxetine hydrochloride is not
administered parenterally. Parenteral agents are administered subcutaneously, intramuscularly, or
intravenously.
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2. A patient has been prescribed an antibiotic.
M This medication is a naturally occurring substance
that has been chemically modified. What is another name for this type of medication?
A) Synthetic drug
B) Semisynthetic drug
C) Biotechnology drug
D) Prototype drug
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Ans: B
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 1
Page and Header: 4, Drug Sources
Feedback: Semisynthetic drugs (e.g., many antibiotics) are naturally occurring substances that
have been chemically modified. Synthetic drugs are more standardized in their chemical
characteristics, more consistent in their effects, and less likely to produce allergic reactions.
Biotechnology drugs involve manipulating DNA and RNA and recombining genes into hybrid
molecules that can be inserted into living organisms. Prototype drugs are the first drug of a
particular group to be developed.

3. A patient is administered morphine. Morphine is a prototypical drug that can be classified in

different ways. Which of the following classifications applies to morphine?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Central nervous system stimulant
C) Anti-inflammatory
D) Antihypertensive

Ans: A
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 3
Page and Header: 4, Drug Classifications and Prototypes
Feedback: Drugs are classified according to their effects on particular body systems, their
therapeutic uses, and their chemical characteristics. For example, morphine can be classified as a
central nervous system depressant and a narcotic or opioid analgesic. A central nervous system
stimulant increases attention and raises mood. An anti-inflammatory agent decreases
inflammation at the site of tissue or joint inflammation. An antihypertensive agent reduces blood
pressure.

4. A patient is administered amoxicillin (Amoxil). The generic name of this medication indicates
that it belongs to which drug group?
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A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

B) Diuretics
C) Penicillins
D) ACE inhibitors

Ans: C
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Easy
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 2
Page and Header: 4, Drug Names
Feedback: The generic name often indicates the drug group (e.g., drugs with generic names
ending in ìcillinî are penicillins). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are medications that
have antidepressant effects; SSRI is a broad classification, not a generic name. Diuretics are
medications that increase urine output; diuretic is a broad classification, not a generic name.
ACE inhibitor is the broad classification for the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, not
the generic name.

5. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl), which is an over-the-counter medication,

is regulated by which government agency?
A) Public Health Service
B) Federal Trade Commission
C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D) Food and Drug Administration

Ans: D
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 8, Drug Approval
Feedback: The Food and Drug Administration approves drugs for over-the-counter availability,
including the transfer of drugs from prescription to OTC status, and may require clinical trials to
determine the safety and effectiveness of OTC use. The Public Health Service is regulated by the
state to maintain the health of individual citizens of the state. The Federal Trade Commission
regulates imports and exports throughout the nation. The Occupational Safety and Health
Administration regulates safety within the workplace.
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6. The administration of anabolic steroids is regulated by which of the following laws?

A) The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
B) The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act
C) The Harrison Narcotic Act
D) The Shirley Amendment

Ans: B
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 3
Page and Header: 5, American Drug Laws and Standards
Feedback: The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act regulates the
manufacture and distribution of narcotics, stimulants, depressants, hallucinogens, and anabolic
steroids. The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 revised and broadened FDA powers and
responsibilities, giving the FDA control over drug safety. The Harrison Narcotic Act restricted
the importation, manufacture, sale, and use of opium, cocaine, marijuana, and other drugs that
the act defined as narcotics. The Shirley Amendment of 1912 prohibited fraudulent claims of
drug effectiveness.

7. A nurse is responsible for maintaining an accurate count and record of the controlled
substances on the nursing unit. This nursing action is regulated by which of the following laws or
agencies?
A) Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
B) Public Health Service
C) Drug Enforcement Administration
D) Shirley Amendment

Ans: C
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 3
Page and Header: 5, American Drug Laws and Standards
Feedback: The Drug Enforcement Administration enforces the Controlled Substances Act.
Under this enforcement, nurses are responsible for storing controlled substances in locked
containers, administering them only to the people for whom they are prescribed, recording each
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dose given, and maintaining an accurate inventory. The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
revised and broadened FDA powers and responsibilities, giving the FDA control over drug
safety. The Public Health Service is regulated by the state to maintain the health of individual
citizens of the state. The Shirley Amendment of 1912 prohibited fraudulent claims of drug
effectiveness.

8. In Phase I clinical trials, the potential uses and effects of a new drug are determined by which
of the following methods?
A) Administering doses to healthy volunteers
B) Administering doses to people with the disease
C) Administering in placebo-controlled design
D) Calculating the risk-to-benefit ratio

Ans: A
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 7, Testing Procedure
Feedback: Phase I studies allow for the administration of the medication to healthy volunteers to
determine safe dosages, routes of administration, absorption, metabolism, excretion, and toxicity.
In Phase II studies, a few doses are given to a certain number of subjects with the disease or
symptom for which the drug is being studied and responses are compared with those of healthy
subjects. Placebo-controlled designs are used in the Phase III studies, in which half of the
subjects receive the new drug and half receive the placebo. Calculating the risk-to-benefit ratio is
used in Phase II studies to determine whether the potential benefits of the drug outweigh the
risks.

9. A new medication for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease is being administered to a group of
subjects with the disease. The subjects receiving this medication are unaware of whether they are
being administered the medication or whether they are receiving a placebo. This testing occurs in
which phase of the drug approval process?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV

Ans: C
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Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 7, Testing Procedure
Feedback: In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger and more representative group of subjects.
In double-blind, placebo-controlled designs, half of the subjects receive the new drug and half
receive a placebo (an inactive substance similar in appearance to the actual drug), with neither
subjects nor researchers knowing which subjects receive which formulation. In Phase I, a few
doses are given to a certain number of healthy volunteers to determine safe dosages, routes of
administration, absorption, metabolism, excretion, and toxicity. In Phase II, a few doses are
given to a certain number of subjects with the disease or symptom for which the drug is being
studied and responses are compared with those of healthy subjects. In Phase IV, the FDA
evaluates the data from the first three phases for drug safety and effectiveness, allows the drug to
be marketed for general use, and requires manufacturers to continue monitoring the drug's
effects.

10. Which organization is responsible for approving new drugs in the United States?
A) American Medical Association
B) American Pharmaceutical Association
C) Food and Drug Administration
D) United States Pharmacopeia

Ans: C
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 7, Drug Approval Processes: Food and Drug Administration
Feedback: The Food and Drug Administration is responsible for approving new drugs in the
United States. The American Medical Association represents the physicians of the United States.
The American Pharmaceutical Association represents the pharmacists of the United States. The
United States Pharmacopeia was adopted in 1906 and is issued every 5 years under the
supervision of a national committee of pharmacists, scientists, and physicians.

11. Which of the following reference books provides information from the drug manufacturers'
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inserts?
A) American Formulary Service
B) Drug Facts and Comparisons
C) Physicians' Desk Reference
D) Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide

Ans: C
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 7
Page and Header: 13, Sources of Drug Information
Feedback: The Physicians' Desk Reference is published yearly and contains manufacturers'
published inserts for selected drugs. American Formulary Service is an authoritative source of
drug information. Drug Facts and Comparisons is an authoritative source of drug information.
Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide is an example of a drug handbook, not a compilation of
manufacturers' inserts.

12. A nursing student in a pharmacology class should be encouraged to study the medications
according to which categorization?
A) Prototype
B) Controlled substance
C) Drug use
D) Generic names

Ans: A
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
Objective: 6
Page and Header: 13, Strategies for Studying Pharmacology
Feedback: The nursing student should concentrate on therapeutic classifications and their
prototypes. Controlled substances limit the medications studied to one broad classification. Drug
use is only one part of the broad classification. Generic names are only one aspect of the
medication.
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13. A patient with a long-standing dermatological health problem has been advised to use a drug
with a local effect. The nurse should recognize what characteristic of this drug?
A) It affects only the organ system in which it is metabolized.
B) The drug requires application at multiple sites.
C) It is effective only as long as it is in contact with skin.
D) The drug acts primarily at the site where it is applied.

Ans: D
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 1
Page and Header: 4, Introduction
Feedback: Drugs with local effects, such as sunscreen lotions and local anesthetics, act mainly at
the site of application. Those with systemic effects are taken into the body, circulated through the
bloodstream to their sites of action in various body tissues, and eventually eliminated from the
body. A drug with local effect does not necessarily have to be applied at multiple sites, and its
action may affect tissues long after contact.

14. A patient with an autoimmune disorder has just been prescribed a synthetic drug. Which of
the following characteristics is a noted advantage of synthetic drugs?
A) Synthetic drugs are less likely to cause an allergic reaction than naturally occurring
substances.
B) Synthetic drugs typically require less frequent dosing than naturally occurring substances.
C) Synthetic drugs are normally available on an over-the-counter basis.
D) Synthetic drugs are available in a wider variety of administration routes than naturally
occurring substances.

Ans: A
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 2
Page and Header: 4, Drug Sources
Feedback: Synthetic drugs are more standardized in their chemical characteristics, more
consistent in their effects, and less likely to produce allergic reactions. They do not necessarily
require less frequent dosing and may or may not be available OTC. They are not noted to be
available in a wider variety of administration routes than naturally occurring substances.
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15. A patient is confused about her care provider's advice and has stated to the nurse, ìI wasn't
sure whether he recommended Tylenol or whether he recommended acetaminophen.î The nurse
should include which of the following information in an explanation of generic and trade names?
A) Prescribers should refer solely to generic names in their recommendations and written
prescriptions.
B) A generic name is independent of any particular drug manufacturer.
C) Generic names change frequently, but trade names are more consistent.
D) Prescribers should refer solely to trade names in their recommendations and written
prescriptions.

Ans: B
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Application
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
Objective: 2
Page and Header: 4, Drug Names
Feedback: A generic name is related to the chemical or official name and is independent of the
manufacturer. Drugs may be prescribed and dispensed by generic or trade name. Generic names
do not change, while trade names vary according to time and place.

16. A nurse is aware that American drug laws have a long and complex history, with numerous
jurisdictions being involved. What is the primary purpose of drug laws in the United States?
A) To ensure maximum choice for consumers
B) To expedite the workload of care providers
C) To protect the safety of the public
D) To enhance the efficient delivery of health care

Ans: C
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 5, American Drug Laws and Standards
Feedback: The main goal of drugs laws is to protect the public by ensuring that drugs marketed
for therapeutic purposes are safe and effective. Efficiency and choice are valid considerations but
neither is the primary goal of American drug legislation.
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17. A nurse who provides care on a postsurgical unit frequently administers Schedule II drugs to
patients. Which of the following aspects of administering these drugs falls under the auspices of
the Drug Enforcement Agency?
A) Performing a thorough patient assessment prior to administration
B) Recording each dose administration on an agency narcotic sheet
C) Informing patients of the potential risks and benefits of Schedule II drugs prior to the first
dose
D) Assessing the patient shortly after administration to ensure therapeutic effect

Ans: B
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Difficulty: Diffcult
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 5, American Drug Laws and Standards
Feedback: Nurses are responsible for storing controlled substances in locked containers,
administering them only to people for whom they are prescribed, recording each dose given on
agency narcotic sheets and on the patient's medication administration record, maintaining an
accurate inventory, and reporting discrepancies to the proper authorities. The other given actions
are appropriate nursing activities, but they are not within the scope of the DEA authority.

18. Trials of a new drug are scheduled to soon begin and the testing methodology will integrate
the stipulations of the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Revitalization Act. According to this
act, the manufacturer must
A) independently fund the entire testing process.
B) make the results of the testing process publicly available.
C) include women and minorities in the testing process.
D) exclude any potential for financial gain during the testing process.

Ans: C
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 7, Testing Procedure
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Feedback: In 1993, Congress passed the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Revitalization Act,
which formalized a policy of the NIH that women and minorities be included in human subject
research studies funded by the NIH and that women and minorities be included in clinical drug
trials. This act does not specifically address the financial structure of testing or the accessibility
of information.

19. A hospital nurse is vigilant in ensuring the safe use of medications and consistently applies
the rights of medication administration. Which of the following is one of the traditional rights of
medication administration?
A) Right to refuse
B) Right route
C) Right education
D) Right evaluation

Ans: B
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 5
Page and Header: 9, Rights of Medication Administration
Feedback: The traditional rights of medication administration (right drug, right dose, right
patient, right route, right time, right reason, and right documentation) now include additional
rights that should also be considered (right education, right evaluation, and right to refuse the
medication).

20. A patient's current medication administration record includes a drug that the nurse
recognizes as an Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) high-alert medication. This
designation signals the nurse to what characteristic of the drug?
A) It can only be administered by a physician or advanced practice nurse.
B) Administration must be cosigned by a second registered nurse or practical/vocational nurse.
C) It is currently undergoing Phase IV testing and is pending full FDA approval.
D) Administration errors carry a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm.

Ans: D
Chapter: 1
Client Needs: D-2
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Moderate
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Integrated Process: Nursing Process

Objective: 5
Page and Header: 12, High-Alert Medications
Feedback: The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) identifies drugs that when used in
error have a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm. Such drugs are not limited to
physician or advanced practice nurse administration. The drug would have completed the testing
and approval procedure and administration does not necessarily require a cosignature.
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G/25405 May, H.
T/3598 May, T. W.
L/8315 Mayatt, W.
G/15 Maybourne, E. E.
G/22297 Mayes, F.
G/27388 Mayes, W. G.
G/22461 Mayes, W. I.
G/1420 Maygold, G. E.
G/19026 Mayled, W.
S/11 Maynard, A. E.
T/204219 Maynard, W.
T/240093 Maytum, W. G.
G/5060 McCarthy, D. J.
G/3162 McCarthy, J.
G/1092 McCarthy, P. M. V.
G/6702 McClatchie, J. E.
G/13234 McDonald, J.
G/13267 McDonnell, M.
G/15637 McEwen, J.
S/39 McGee, C.
G/23785 McGeorge, E. W. C.
G/15638 McGill, G. W.
L/6388 McGrath, D. J.
L/7035 McGregor, M.
G/3909 McLearie, J. T.
G/5393 McMahon, A.
G/2058 McMillan, H.
G/4404 McNamara, O.
G/5833 McQuillian, S.
G/8134 McWilliams, J.
G/14657 Mead, E.
G/10198 Mead, F.
L/8600 Mead, F. C.
G/12839 Mead, J.
G/3600 Meader, R. A.
G/14882 Mealing, S. J.
G/4042 Medcalf, W. H.
L/8362 Medgett, A. R.
S/10572 Medhurst, J. A.
L/5985 Medway, H.
G/2959 Meek, F.
G/13235 Mekins, L.
G/10826 Melhuish, R. M.
G/2104 Melville, E.
T/242044 Mercer, A. W. G.
G/13404 Mercer, H. J.
T/204083 Mercer, T.
G/4083 Mercer, T. F.
G/6841 Merifield, G.
G/3726 Merricks, G.
G/3604 Merriman, W. A.
G/9031 Metcalfe, J. W.
G/6842 Meyrick, J.
L/6211 Miles, A.
G/21139 Miles, H.
L/10020 Miles, S.
G/3368 Miles, W.
L/8971 Millard, P. W.
L/7571 Millen, C.
G/5013 Millen, C. V.
G/9600 Miller, A. G.
G/685 Miller, A. J.
G/5342 Miller, C.
G/5684 Miller, C. B.
T/270187 Miller, F. J.
G/4195 Miller, F. S.
L/6979 Miller, G.
G/1410 Miller, J. H.
G/4907 Miller, J. T.
L/9359 Miller, J. W.
G/4577 Miller, L. A.
G/6184 Milling, R. A.
G/1554 Millington, H.
G/337 Mills, A.
T/241697 Mills, A.
G/262 Mills, C. H.
G/8864 Mills, E. W.
G/26654 Mills, L. C.
G/22529 Mills, R. A.
L/7770 Mills, S.
L/8541 Mills, W. H.
G/5896 Mills, W. J.
G/17981 Millward, W. O.
T/1092 Milton, F. C.
G/23811 Milton, F.
T/241560 Milton, L.
G/5638 Milton, S. E.
G/15647 Minter, E.
G/4671 Missen, E. J.
L/8441 Mitchell, A.
T/242520 Mitchell, A. L.
T/204280 Mitchell, C. H.
G/20205 Mitchell, C. T.
L/9482 Mitchell, F. T.
L/10327 Mitchell, H.
L/9076 Mitchell, L.
G/2975 Mitchell, R.
L/8991 Mitchell, W.
G/5200 Mitchell, W. S.
G/12718 Mizen, S. H.
G/8820 Moat, A. G.
G/20934 Molyneux, N. W.
G/243 Monk, A. R.
S/10771 Monk, W. G.
G/13407 Monro, W. J.
T/242198 Montgomery, E. M.
G/7982 Moon, A.
T/6102 Moon, H.
G/745 Moor, W.
L/6829 Moore, A.
G/7644 Moore, A.
G/17697 Moore, A. E.
T/270965 Moore, B. P.
L/9380 Moore, B.
G/3167 Moore, C.
L/10441 Moore, C. W.
T/270258 Moore, F. J.
G/17601 Moore, H.
G/925 Moore, J.
T/265252 Moore, J.
L/9929 Moore, L. T.
T/265310 Moore, R.
G/22644 Moore, S.
S/10720 Moore, S. A.
G/22587 Moore, S. H.
G/29182 Moore, T. W.
G/1451 Moore, W. D.
G/26571 Moore, W. E.
G/18672 Moore, W. I.
L/8656 Moorman, F. G.
T/206090 Moran, J.
T/270709 Morecroft, J. C.
L/10329 Moren, H. A.
T/3130 Morgan, A.
G/3950 Morgan, B. L.
G/6829 Morgan, L. P.
G/14215 Morgan, R. A.
G/5519 Morgan, W.
G/3619 Morley, E. S.
G/2458 Morley, R. W.
G/1446 Morley, W.
G/11979 Morris, A.
L/10133 Morris, A. E.
G/739 Morris, C.
G/2132 Morris, C.
G/13948 Morris, E.
G/1428 Morris, G.
G/4303 Morris, H. W.
G/25399 Morris, T. E.
G/5425 Morris, W. T.
T/3435 Morrison, A. H.
G/21235 Morrison, D.
G/6167 Mortley, F. G.
G/5245 Morton, A.
G/14849 Morton, A. J.
G/23382 Morton, E. A.
G/25408 Moscovsky, H.
G/13155 Moss, A.
L/9193 Moss, B.
G/13947 Moss, S.
T/2757 Moss, W.
G/21140 Mosser, H.
L/6712 Mosto, R. W.
G/7206 Moulton, J. S.
G/14849 Mount, A. J.
G/15749 Mount, C.
T/241625 Mount, E.
T/270379 Mount, G.
G/4613 Mount, H.
L/9997 Mount, W. G.
L/9601 Mount, W. J.
T/3601 Mountford, R. J.
G/2737 Mower, E. J.
T/240673 Moy, G. W.
G/2327 Moyes, W.
T/204237 Mugeridge, R. H.
S/175 Muir, T. M.
S/250 Mullett, A. L.
L/7551 Mumford, H.
G/24728 Mumford, T. E.
G/3035 Mummery, A. E.
L/10012 Mummery, A. E.
G/417 Mummery, W. A.
T/2135 Munday, L. R.
S/10923 Munday, S. G.
G/9368 Munds, A. E.
L/6833 Munn, T. W.
S/716 Munton, A.
L/9394 Murdock, A. V.
T/242638 Murphy, J.
G/3563 Murphy, T. W.
L/8190 Murphy, W.
G/20843 Murray, P. S.
S/9429 Murrell, F. G.
G/2733 Myall, B. L.

G/3496 Nash, E. A.
G/9540 Nash, F.
G/2358 Nash, J.
T/241836 Naylor, M. E.
G/12842 Naylor, W. H.
G/10151 Naylor, W. J.
G/25758 Neal, W.
L/7832 Neame, J.
G/13240 Neave, A.
G/14699 Needham, H.
G/12954 Neeves, J. C.
S/10607 Neill, C.
G/2168 Nelson, B. A.
L/9892 Nevard, F. R.
S/62 Neve, A. W.
G/8280 Neves, C. H.
G/12733 Neville, A.
G/1884 Newbold, C. F.
G/24726 Newby, W.
G/3616 Newcombe, H. V.
L/6432 Newell, F.
G/821 Newell, F.
T/202566 Newell, W. J.
L/9108 Newick, I. O.
G/2523 Newington, H.
G/237 Newland, F. T.
G/21934 Newman, C.
G/17750 Newman, G. A.
G/9733 Newman, J. W.
G/25412 Newman, J. W.
G/2508 Newport, C.
G/940 Newport, J. J.
G/13086 Newson, G. A.
L/7133 Newton, T. H.
G/5162 Nicholas, A.
G/5536 Nicholas, A.
G/17997 Nicholas, R.
G/6707 Nicholas, T.
L/10343 Nicholls, A.
L/10252 Nicholls, A. E.
G/17434 Nicholls, C.
G/12728 Nicholson, W. A.
T/241973 Ninnis, A. E.
G/2639 Nixon, J.
G/1399 Nixon, S. C.
G/2316 Nobbs, R. D.
G/7691 Noble, E.
G/4470 Nolte, F. H. D.
T/243167 Norkett, W. T.
T/203266 Norman, C. D.
G/18207 Norman, F.
G/2199 Norman, O.
G/19025 Norman, W. H.
G/4374 Norrington, F.
T/270391 Norris, A. E.
L/7781 Norris, F.
G/3454 Norris, S. L.
L/8705 Norris, W.
G/500 North, C. G. A.
G/3895 Norton, A. D.
L/9324 Norton, A. E.
G/830 Norton, C. T.
G/20897 Notley, W. T.
G/17809 Nowell, H. H.
T/3133 Nunn, A. W.
G/2600 Nunn, R. G.
G/7004 Nutley, G.
G/20827 Nutt, P. J.
T/203248 Nye, A.

G/20204 Oakley, E. W.
T/202494 Oakley, H.
G/3272 O’Brien, A. J.
G/3951 O’Brien, J.
G/634 O’Brien, T. E.
T/1737 O’Brien, W.
G/25994 Ockenden, F.
S/673 Oclee, C.
T/3033 Oclee, F. W.
G/20858 Odd, F. A.
G/13241 Oddy, C.
G/5571 O’Dell, J.
G/2905 Offord, E. L.
L/8570 Ogilvie, W.
G/3118 Ohlson, E. J.
G/12349 Old, J.
G/14874 O’Leary, M. J.
G/22995 Oleson, R. C. K.
G/12060 Oliff, E. G.
L/9186 Olive, C.
G/9713 Olive, R.
G/2908 Oliver, E.
G/3267 Oliver, H.
G/19133 Omerod, R. B.
T/240807 Onions, W. G.
T/270867 O’Regan, M.
T/242555 Orgar, G. E.
S/10481 Orpin, H.
G/6862 Orton, W. H.
G/13588 Osborn, T. A.
G/2527 Osborne, C.
G/21258 Osborne, H.
G/9286 Osborne, H.
G/25954 Osborne, J. S.
G/13648 Osborne, W. T.
L/6453 Ost, A. E.
G/14701 Oswald, W.
G/20161 Ottaway, A.
L/10196 Ottaway, F. H.
G/7548 Ottaway, J. W.
G/499 Ottaway, L. J.
G/21416 Ovenden, F. W.
G/2417 Ovenell, H.
G/20807 Overbury, H. H.
G/1364 Overton, T. W.
G/7727 Overy, T. J. D.
G/25415 Owen, E. H.

T/270284 Pack, J. H.
G/6274 Pack, S.
G/35535 Pack, S. R.
G/14803 Pack, W. W.
G/5677 Packard, W. H.
L/10453 Packer, G. A.
G/19038 Packer, H. E.
L/8875 Packman, B. E.
T/2817 Packman, S. A.
L/8262 Packman, W. J.
G/3770 Padgham, A.
T/270372 Pagden, S.
G/3788 Page, A. P.
G/571 Page, C. W.
G/15654 Page, F. H.
L/8700 Page, F. O.
G/6182 Page, H.
G/7885 Page, H. J.
L/7901 Page, J.
G/5237 Page, J.
G/6858 Page, J. W.
L/8590 Page, P.
G/17406 Page, W. J. F.
G/4190 Paget, A. E.
G/13378 Paice, A. S.
G/2875 Pain, E. S.
T/1418 Paine, A.
G/9136 Paine, A.
G/9183 Paine, F.
G/17445 Paine, J. H.
S/10921 Paine, R.
G/14069 Paine, S.
G/14875 Painter, A.
G/241 Painter, H. V.
G/1068 Palethorpe, R. E.
G/13630 Pallant, A. A.
G/12038 Palmer, A. E.
G/15518 Palmer, C.
T/202506 Palmer, C. W.
G/5181 Palmer, G. T.
G/5439 Palmer, J.
G/21232 Palmer, R. J.
G/6149 Palmer, T. J.
G/241742 Palmer, T. M.
G/2829 Palmer, W.
T/270492 Pankhurst, F.
G/26249 Parish, J. B.
L/9079 Parish, W.
S/330 Parker, A.
T/240678 Parker, A.
G/560 Parker, A.
G/4647 Parker, C. H.
G/567 Parker, F. R.
G/9297 Parker, G. W. G.
S/10453 Parker, J.
L/8420 Parker, J. T.
G/678 Parker, R. C. W.
G/18762 Parker, S.
G/2069 Parker, S.
G/787 Parker, W.
G/17440 Parkins, H. C.
G/12800 Parks, E.
G/8613 Parrish, E.
G/5432 Parrott, G. F., M.M.
L/8432 Parson, W. C.
L/8300 Parsons, H.
L/9255 Partridge, E. J.
G/5546 Pashby, F.
G/23829 Passingham, J. B.
G/7594 Paterson, H. L.
G/5366 Patrick, F.
G/13160 Patrick, G.
G/737 Patten, W.
G/18092 Pattenden, G. T.
T/20344 Pattenden, H.
G/15655 Patterson, G.
G/24540 Paul, E. W.
T/1361 Pavey, A. V.
G/1490 Pavey, J. H.
T/202530 Pavitt, C.
G/199 Pay, J. J.
S/10271 Pay, J. W.
L/9116 Pay, T. J.
G/3461 Payne, E. J., M.M.
G/20846 Payne, F.
G/2988 Payne, G.
S/10934 Payne, H.
L/10230 Payne, J.
L/9784 Payne, J. F.
G/26635 Payne, W.
G/26586 Payne, W. T. H.
G/202773 Peacocke, G. F.
G/6790 Pearce, A.
G/19182 Pearce, A. J.
G/8719 Pearce, E.
G/14467 Pearce, E. A.
G/6774 Pearce, P.
G/24857 Pearce, R. W.
G/13420 Pearce, T.
G/5413 Pearce, T.
G/1019 Pearman, A. E.
G/13405 Pearman, W. H.
G/5791 Pearse, W. M.
L/8264 Pearson, A. C.
T/1810 Pearson, A.
G/6505 Pearson, J. F.
S/10780 Pearson, J. G.
G/21055 Pearson, T.
S/9257 Pearson, W.
G/3274 Peate, G.
G/5876 Peck, W. B.
G/3299 Peel, C.
G/5118 Peel, G.
G/14353 Peers, C. L.
G/14832 Pegden, R. G. B.
S/9226 Pegg, J.
T/3190 Peirce, A. E.
G/5502 Peirce, C. H.
G/167 Pemble, F. W.
G/24251 Pendry, W.
G/7657 Penfold, A.
L/8153 Penfold, A.
G/5489 Penfold, C. E.
G/8243 Penfold, T.
G/12515 Penman, R.
G/11916 Penny, E. D.
T/1628 Pentecost, F.
G/21056 Pepper, E. B.
G/15521 Pepper, S. M.
T/202275 Percival, G.
G/12190 Perfect, A. J.
L/6868 Perfitt, W.
G/4249 Perkins, E. G.
G/14912 Perkins, J. T.
G/25822 Perkins, P.
G/15797 Perriman, G.
G/5139 Perriman, H.
G/5659 Perrin, E. J. H.
L/10180 Perrins, D. S.
G/17448 Perrott, A. E.
L/7791 Perry, W. J.
G/11560 Petch, J.
G/15658 Petchey, W.
G/13159 Peters, F.
G/1794 Petifer, F. A.
G/18995 Pettican, C. W.
G/6297 Pettifer, H.
G/15771 Pettman, A. L.
G/6386 Pettman, E. S. M.
G/1376 Petts, W.
G/5255 Petts, W. A.
G/22025 Philcox, W. A.
G/8395 Phillips, H.
G/6585 Phillips, H. R.
G/15519 Phillips, R. H.
G/165 Phillpott, C. V.
G/3395 Phillpott, E.
G/5166 Philpott, A. C.
G/7944 Philpott, D.
S/771 Philpott, F. J.
G/7807 Philpott, R.
G/8226 Philpott, R. W.
G/5360 Phipps, C.
G/5493 Phipps, C.
G/21458 Phipps, E. W.
G/24348 Pickering, J. W.
G/20919 Pickett, H. A.
G/12032 Pierce, G.
T/240268 Pierce, J.
G/2958 Piesley, C. E.
G/5853 Piggott, H. W.
G/21024 Piggott, H.
G/12928 Piggott, J.
L/7974 Pigott, R.
G/22598 Pike, A.
G/6730 Pike, B.
L/7124 Pike, S.
S/10975 Pike, S. S.
T/1021 Pilbeam, A.
T/1141 Pilbeam, E.
G/5169 Pilcher, A.
G/861 Pilcher, G.
G/18667 Pilcher, W.
G/15517 Pilcher, W. H.
T/1060 Pile, E. T.
T/240837 Pile, G.
T/243066 Pinfold, G. H.
G/15520 Pink, H. H.
G/17646 Pinnell, H.
G/12925 Pinnock, E.
G/15659 Piper, E. G.
L/10529 Pipier, W. J.
G/4680 Pippard, S.
G/15660 Piprell, S.
G/140 Pitcher, E.
G/4979 Pitcher, R. C.
G/23939 Pitt, S.
G/9310 Pittock, G.
G/2853 Pitts, W.
L/9445 Plant, A.
G/24554 Platts, J. D.
G/17950 Player, H. J.
G/15661 Playford, G. T.
G/13158 Pledge, A. E.
G/21926 Plummer, R. J.
G/3924 Pointer, A. E.
L/9790 Pollard, J.
G/2718 Polley, B.
G/5750 Poole, F. W.
T/201668 Poole, J.
L/8360 Poole, J.
G/13692 Poole, H. E. W.
G/14469 Poole, L. J.
G/5104 Pope, J. G.
G/10327 Popeley, H.
G/203524 Pordage, S.
G/9408 Port, J. A.
L/5219 Port, W.
G/12557 Porter, P. S.
G/18320 Portlock, H.
G/19123 Pott, E. H.
G/12604 Potter, B. L.
T/202484 Potter, C. A.
S/399 Potter, F. A.
L/9473 Potter, G.
G/1052 Potter, S. D.
G/13626 Potts, G.
T/2997 Potts, R. V.
G/25820 Poulter, H. W.
G/1022 Poutney, G.
G/892 Povey, H.
G/553 Powell, F.
G/12612 Powell, L.
G/11798 Powell, P. J.
G/9344 Powell, T. G.
L/9654 Poynter, W. R.
S/10485 Pratt, C.
G/6614 Pratt, H.
T/241155 Preece, A. J.
S/489 Prendergast, D. E.
G/8600 Prescott, E. G.
L/7028 Prescott, W.
G/8964 Prett, F. H.
G/2914 Price, A.
G/7614 Price, A.
G/1607 Price, A. W.
T/20081 Price, E. G.
T/2797 Price, F. A.
G/4895 Price, F. H. W.
G/4785 Price, G.
G/20004 Price, H. C.
G/8761 Price, J. W.
G/12927 Price, J. E. F.
G/1962 Price, L.
G/1920 Price, W.
G/5345 Price, W. B.
S/358 Price, W. T.
G/887 Pride, A. J. F.
G/13615 Priest, C. W.
G/29202 Priest, J.
G/2089 Priest, S.
T/271000 Prince, P. O.
G/14703 Pring, C. C.
G/18901 Prior, A.
G/25419 Pritchard, D.
G/6142 Proctor, J. B.
G/8662 Pryke, A.
G/3704 Puckett, F.
G/2053 Pugh, S.
G/5619 Pull, O. C.
G/5108 Pullee, W.
G/4013 Pullman, H.
G/3124 Purdey, J.
G/6463 Purdie, W. T.
G/25881 Purkiss, H. E.
L/10655 Pursglove, W. S.
L/9413 Pye, F. R. C.
L/7861 Pyefinch, L. T.
G/10330 Pyett, G. H.

G/9198 Quaife, H.
G/9963 Quaife, R. W.
T/270324 Quaife, T.
G/18752 Quantrill, H.
G/5095 Queen, F. W.
T/201898 Quinn, F. G.
L/8750 Quittenden, L. F.

G/12095 Racher, R.
L/9785 Radford, S.
G/18864 Rainbow, A.
L/10366 Rainer, G. H.
L/10210 Raines, G.
G/5240 Ralph, A.
L/9880 Ralph, A.
G/425 Ralph, E.
G/9088 Ralph, F.
S/82 Ralph, J.
G/21188 Ramboux, A.
T/200871 Ramsden, C. A. L.
G/5981 Randall, A. E.
T/202924 Randall, C. R.
G/4074 Randall, H. G.
T/204236 Randle, H. G.
G/3326 Ranger, C.
G/25166 Ransom, E. J.
G/13165 Ransome, F.
G/14226 Rason, H. F.
G/19572 Rastall, C.
G/8745 Ratcliffe, H. F.
G/15522 Raven, A.
L/7689 Raven, F.
L/8760 Raven, I.
G/3738 Raynor, E. G.
G/5315 Read, A. J.
G/1530 Read, C. F.
G/2645 Read, E.
L/10033 Read, F. W.
T/270892 Read, H.
G/1928 Read, J. A.
G/3331 Read, P. W.
G/4391 Read, W.
G/2866 Read, W.
G/17634 Read, W. W. J.
G/661 Reader, H. W.
S/10156 Reader, J. H.
G/13660 Reader, W.
L/10408 Real, F. W. G.
T/270512 Reardon, F.
G/3469 Reddick, C. A.
G/8700 Redford, A.
G/5532 Redhead, T.
G/19150 Redhouse, E.
L/8453 Redman, L.
L/9251 Redman, W. S.
L/9058 Redmond, R. L.
G/23841 Reed, C.
L/8278 Reed, G.
S/8313 Reed, J.
T/201799 Reed, T. G.
G/24030 Reeve, C. S.
G/3638 Reeve, G. A.
L/9201 Reeve, H. G.
G/14227 Reeve, J.
G/5117 Reeves, F. V.
T/240098 Reeves, J. E.
G/1471 Reeves, R.
G/7942 Reeves, W. J.
L/9668 Regan, P. H.
G/24776 Reid, M. C.
G/6255 Reid, W. J.
G/18794 Reilly, A.
T/240764 Relf, F.
G/557 Relf, F.
S/152 Relf, R. G.
G/6690 Rendle, W.
G/36 Renouf, F. G.
G/18996 Rew, E. J.