PRESSURISED METAL AIRFRAME CURRENT OCTBER ,2020

1. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?.
Option A. To the centre.
Option B. To the right.
Option C. To the left.

2. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
Option A. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.
Option B. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Option C. To increase the lift.

3. Which repair would required a landing gear retraction test?

a) Landing gear safety switch
b) Red warning light bulb
c) Gear down lock micro switch

4. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of.

Option A. frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines.
Option B. longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines.
Option C. frame stations, water lines and buttock lines.

5. The purpose of a restrictor in a hydraulic system is to restrict:

a) The rate of building – up of hydraulic pressure
b) The distance of travel of a actuator
c) The rate of operation of a service component

6. Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to:

a) Relieve system pressure
b) Discharge the preload
c) Drain the reservoir

7. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft. Component must be.

Option A. 0.5 in wide.
Option B. 22 AWG.
Option C. 0.25 in wide and 22 AWG.

8. The tropopause exists at about.

Op9on A. 18,000 ft.
Op9on B. 36,000 ft.
Op9on C. 30,000 ft.

9. Semi-monocoque construction.
Option A. u9lizes the safe-life design concept.
Option B. is used only for the fuselage.
Option C. offers good damage resistance.

10. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?.

Option A. Pressure Cycles.
Option B. Flying Hours.
Option C. Landings.
11. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the.
Option A. altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure.
Option B. pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions.
Option C. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft.

12. In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by.

Option A. adding heat to the pressurising air.
Option B. varying cabin pressure.
Option C. extracting heat from the pressurising air.

13. Which best describes cabin differential pressure:

a) Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and Mean Sea Level Pressure
b) Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure
c) Difference between cabin pressure controller setting and actual cabin pressure

14. During a normal pressurized climb following Take – off:

a) The cabin ROC is less than the aircraft’s ROC
b) The cabin ROC is more than the aircraft’s ROC
c) The ROC is constant

15. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a.

Option A. cabin V.S.I.
Option B. cabin altimeter.
Option C. cabin pressure gauge.

16. Failure of the normal maximum differential control is catered for by fitting:
a) Safely relief valves
b) Inward relief valves
c) Altitude selector valves

17. In a pneumatic pressurization system, positive pressure signals from the controller will cause:
a) The discharge valve to move towards closed
b) The discharge valve to move towards open
c) An excessive rate of cabin air discharge

18. Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be.
Option A. cross connected.
Option B. disconnected.
Option C. connected.

19. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the.
Option A. discharge valve should be adjusted.
Option B. pressure controller should be adjusted.
Option C. outward relief valve is inoperative.

20. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate

a. High oil pressure, low oil temperature, low oil pressure, high oil.....
b. Low oil pressure, low oil temperature
c. Low oil pressure, high oil temperature
21. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground
speed is.
Option A. 450 knots.
Option B. 350 knots.
Option C. 400 knots.

22. Which of the following instruments normally have operating range and unit markings?
a) Directional gyro and airspeed indicator
b) Cylinder head temperature gage (CHT) and altimeter
c) Airspeed indicator and CHT

23. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. A.er passing
over the station, on the same course, the indications will be.
Option A. 120° and FROM.
Option B. 300° and FROM.
Option C. 300° and TO.

24. A radar altimeter determines attitude by:

a) Transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal
b) Receiving signals transmitted from ground radar stations
c) Means of transponder interrogation

25. The airdata computer inputs to.

Option A. altimeter, FMC, secondary radar.
Option B. mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI.
Option C. cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter.

26. Toilets must have a smoke detection

a. Aural and visual warning in the main cabin
b. Light in the cockpit
c. Connected to a pump to pump the smoke out

27. How do you clean seat belts?

a. With MEK
b. With white spirit
c. With warm water with low alkalinity soap

28. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by

a. Ac or dc
b. Dc
c. Ac

29. Control surface flutter may be caused by.

OptionA. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Option B. high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
Option C. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.

30. Symmetry checks should be carried out.

Option A. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels.
Option B. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels.
Option C. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
31. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down.
Option A. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.
Option B. aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens.
Option C. outflow valve opens immediately.

32. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have.

Option A. separate venting for each tank.
Option B. no airspace.
Option C. air spaces interconnected.

33. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to.
Option A. soft reversion.
Option B. hard reversion.
Option C. mechanical reversion.

34. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag
should be wetted with.
Option A. Water.
Option B. Methylated Spirit. Option C. Kerosene.

35. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated – increase acidity

36. How is the hydraulic pump depressurizing solenoid actuated – energized closed for fail-safe?

37. How you prevent hydraulic frothing – by pressuring

38. How much oxygen is in tyre (as a maximum)

a. 5% by pressure
b. 15% by volume
c. 5% by volume

39. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon:

a. Type of fluid most readily available
b. The type of seal material
c. Heat generated in operation of the system

40. When AC generators are operated in parallel, the;

a. Amperes and voltage must be equal
b. Amperes and frequency must be equal
c. Frequency and voltage must be equal.

41. Grounding means electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One
purpose of this is to;
a. Prevent the development of radio frequency potential
b. Prevent current return path
c. Allow static charge accumulation

42. Using a hand pump, a force of 100 psi has been built up in a hydraulic system. The handpump
piston is 1inch in diameter. A 1/2inch line connects to the pump to an actuatingcylinder 2inch in
diameter. What is the pressure in the line between the hand pump and the actuating cylinder?
a. 150 PSI
b. 100 PSI
c. 200 PSI

43. Which of the following lists only desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid?
a. High viscosity, low flash point, chemical stability and high fire point
b. Low viscosity, chemical stability, high flash point and high fire point
c. High flash point, chemical stability, low viscosity and low fire point

44. How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator system prevented from entering fluid system?
a. By including a valve that automatically closes when the fluid level lowers to a presetamount
b. By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with a flexible ormovable
separator
c. By forcing the air/oil mixture through a centrifugal separating chamber that prevents the air
from leaving the chamber.

45. Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?

a. Red warning light bulb
b. Landing gear safety switch
c. Gear downlock microswitch

46. When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications that the air has been purged out is;
a. Full brake pedal travel
ii. Normal braking
iii. Fail safe protection
iv. Locked wheel skid control
v. Touchdown protection
vi. Takeoff protection
a. 1, 2, 5 and 6
b. 1, 3, 4 and S
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

47. Which of the following is most likely to cause landing gear warning system to sound?
a. Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded
b. Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded
c. Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced

48. A radar altimeter determines altitude by?

a. Means of a transponder interrogation
b. Receiving signals transmitted from a ground radar station
c. Transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal

49. A radar altimeter indicates?

a. Altitude above ground level
b. Altitude above sea level
c. Flight level (pressure) altitude

50. A fully integrated auto pilot controls the aircraft around how many axis?
a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
51. When installing pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boot system,
a. Apply a solution of glycerin and water between the rubber and the wing skin
b. Apply a silastic compound between the boot and the wing skin
c. Remove all paint from the area to be covered with the boots

52. What may be used to clean the surface of the deicer boots?
a. Unleaded gasoline or Jet Al fuel
b. Naptha
c. Soap and water

53. What controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator?

a. Cabin altitude
b. Bleed air pressure
c. Compression air pressure

54. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be.

A.0.5 in wide.
B. 22 AWG
C. 0.25 in wide and 22 AWG

55. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?

A. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing
B. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centerline of the right
wing
C. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centerline of the right wing

56. Semi-monocoque construction.

A. utilizes the safe-line design concept.
B. is used only for thefuselage.
C. offers good damage resistance.

57. Symmetry checks should be carried out.

A.in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels
B.on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels
C. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks

58. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to

A ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded
B. Maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes
C. control the airflow out of the cabin

59. What would you use to neutralize nicad battery spillage?

Option A. Boric acid
Option B. distilled water
option C. bicarbonate F soda

60. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?

Option A. HI oil temperature and low oil press.
Option B. Low oil press and CSD speed.
Option C. Low oil temperature and low oil press.
61. Toilets must have a smoke detection.
Option A. aural and visual warning in the main cabin.
Option B. lightin the cockpit
Option C. connected to a pump to pump the smoke out.

62. Mass balance weights are used to.

Option A. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces.
Option B. counteract flutter on control surfaces.
Option C. balance the tabs.

63. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual
reversion is that it must be.
Option A. operated by the standby hydraulic system.
Option B. automatic and instantaneous.
Option C. possible, but not recommended.

64. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with.

Option A. aileron
Option B. elevators.
Option C. rudder.

65. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have.

Option A. separate venting for each tank.
Option B. no airspace
Option C. air spaces interconnected.

66. As fuel level increases, system capacitance.

Option A. decreases.
Option B. no change.
Option C. Increases

67. When refueling.

Option A. the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full.
Option B. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.
Option C. it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank.

68. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to.
Option A. soft reversion
Option B. hard reversion.
Option C. mechanical reversion.

69.What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?

Option A. Depends on altitude.
Option B. Increases
Option C. Decreases.

70. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would.
Option A. close the cross bleed valve.
Option B. close the HP fuel lock.
Option C. pull the fire handle.
71. Calciu Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before Installation the linen bag should
be wetted with.
Option A. Water
Option B. Methylated Spirit.
Option C. Kerosene.

72. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?

Option A. By pressurising.
Option B. Vent Reservoir to atmosphere.
Option C. Pass over a tray.

73. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?

Option A. 5% by pressure.
Option B. 15% by volume.
Option C. 5% by volume.

74. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?

Option A. Increase acidity.
Option B. Increase viscosity.
Option C. Increase alkalinity.

75. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120°and TO'. After passing over
the station, on the same course, the indications will be.
A. 120° and FROM.
B. 300° and FROM.
C. 300° and TO.

76. "After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible
causes are."
Option A. shorted sensor.
Option B. out of adjustment sensor.
Option C. wiring problem.

77. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down.
A. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.
B. aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens.
C. outflow valve opens immediately.

78. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a.

A. cabin V .S.I.
B. cabin altimeter.
C. cabin pressure gauge.

79. ‘Pilot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be.
A. cross connected.
B. disconnected.
C. connected.

80. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the.
A. discharge valve should be adjusted.
B. pressure controller should be adjusted.
C. outward relief valve is inoperative.

81. If an aircraft flying in still air at400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed
is.
A. 450 knots.
B. 350 knots.
C. 400 knots.

82. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?

A. Pressure Cycles.
B. Flying Hours.
C. Landings.

83. How do you clean seat belts?

Option A. With MEK.
Option B. With white spirit.
Option C. With warm water with low alkalinity soap.

84. Control surface flutter may be caused by.

A. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
B. high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
C. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.

85. Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?

a) Landing gear safety switch
b) Red warning light bulb
c) Gear down lock micro switch

86. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to
sound?

a) Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced

b) Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded
c) Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded

87. Landing gear warnings systems usually provide which of the following indications?
a) Red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up
b) Green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear
c) Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for
gear up

88. The purpose of a restrictor in a hydraulic system is to restrict:

a) The rate of building - up of hydraulic hydraulic pressure
b) The distance of travel of an actuator
c) The rate of operation of a service component

89. Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to:
a) Relieve system pressure
b) Discharge the preload
c) Drain the reservoir
90. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called:
a) Volatility
b) Viscosity
c) Acidity

91. Failure of the normal maximum differential control is catered for by fitting:
a) Safely relief valves
b) Inward relief valves
c) Altitude selector valves1

92. Which of the following instruments normally have operating range and unit markings?
a) Directional gyro and airspeed indicator
b) Cylinder head temperature gage (CHT) and altimeter
c) Airspeed indicator and CHT