TECH 3 MST Study Guide

1. The purpose of a thrust bearing?

a. Contain axial motion of the shaft
b. React against radial forces
c. Allow for axial misalignment
d. Reduce vibration and wear

-A thrust bearing is a particular type of rotary bearing. Like other bearings they permanently rotate
between parts, but they are designed to support a predominantly axial load. Thrust bearings come in
several varieties.

2. What force, as shown in the diagram given, is required to lift a 200lb. weight?

a. 25lb
b. 50lb
c. 100lb
d. 800lb

3. Which of the figure provides an up and down motion about pivot?

A. A
b. B
c. C or D. none of the above
4. The life of a bearing is most affected by
 A. temperature
B. metallurgy
C. speed
D. humidity

5. Ultrasound technology is useful in detecting wear patterns and

A. locating compressed air or steam leaks
B. locating temperature changes
C. finding the night location for a gas line
D. finding the end of a plastic pipe

6. In the circuit shown, what is the voltage V?

A. +12 VDC
B. -12 VDC
C. 0 VDC
D. 0.7 VDC

7. What is this symbol?

A. Fuse

B. Terminal Strip

C. Overload

D. Open contact

8. Which of the symbols shown is a holding contact?

A.4
B.5
C. 6
D. 7
E.8

9. Using the schematic shown, once energized, what would cause the MX2 relay to de-energize?

A. Tank is empty
B. Overload contacts are open
C. Start button is released
D. Power loss on wire 109A15D
10. With all conveyors running, what happens when OL3 opens?

A. Conveyors M1 and M3 stop

B. Conveyors M2 and M3 stop

C. Conveyors M1 and M2 stop

D. All conveyors stop

11. In the circuit shown, at what points should your voltage tester be placed to check the limit
switch?

A. X2 and 3
B. 4 and 5
C. 2 and 3
D. X2 and 4 with start button depressed
 12. If a 20 tooth sprocket turns at a speed of 10rpm, how many rpm will a 10 tooth sprocket
turn when driven by the same chain?

A. 100

B. 20

C. 10

D. 5

13. The X gear has 5 teeth and is connected to a motor. The Y gear has 10 teeth and is an
intermediate idler gear. The Z gear has 20 teeth and is connected to a roller. If the motor rotates
at 100 rpm, what is the speed of the roller in rpm?

A. 400 rpm

B. 100 rpm

C. 50 rpm

D. 25rpm

14. When pressing a bearing onto a shaft, you should press against?

A. the inner race only

B. the outer race only

C. both the inner and outer race

D. the seal

When installing a bearing tight fit on a shaft, the pressure should be applied against the inner ring.
When installing a bearing tight fit in a housing, you should apply pressure against the outer ring.

15. Uneven wear in gears is most likely caused by

A. misalignment from worn parts

B. excessive lubrication

C. contaminated lubricants

D. an improper lubricant
 16. The diagram shown is a cross section view of a “v” belt in a sheave. A gap of about ¼” where
the bottom of the “v” belt is not touching the sheave is visible. What should be done?

A. Leave it alone
B. Tighten the pulley to make the “v” belt close the gap and touch the sheave
C. Change the belt and put a smaller belt on so “v” belt touches the sheave
D. Spray belt dressing and change the sheave next downturn

17. Taper roller bearings are used

A. to counteract thrust

B. when the speed is high

C. when the load is light

D. When the speed is slow

Tapered roller bearings are commonly used for moderate speed, heavy duty applications where
durability is required.

18. Which of the following sleeve bushings is self-lubricating?

A. Steel

B. Ceramic

C. Aluminum

D. Sintered Bronze
19. V-belt drive has just had its belts replaced. After about 24 hours of operations, what must be
done?

A. Re-tension belts

B. Belt dressing must be applied

C. Replace belt guard

D. Check sheave alignment

20. When a torque-limiting clutch is overload during operation,

A. the clutch is destroyed, but the machine is protected.

B. the pins shear.

C. slip occurs.

D. the motor overload is trimmed by the clutch lever.

When a torque overload occurs, the transmitted torque will exceed the set torque point of the
Torque Limiter. When this occurs, the frictional force is no longer strong enough to transmit the
torque from the driving shaft to the driven member, and the driven member slips between the
friction disks.

21. The three basic shapes of roller bearings are

A. barrel, staggered, and tapered

B. cylindrical, barrel, and staggered

C. staggered, tapered, and cylindrical

D. tapered, cylindrical, and barrel

 Tapered Roller Bearing.

 Spherical Roller Bearing.
 Single-Direction Thrust Ball Bearing.
 Single-Row Deep Groove Ball Bearing.
 Single-Row Angular Contact Ball Bearing.
 Cylindrical Roller Bearing.
22. Balancing has the greatest effect on

A. Vibration

B. Speed

C. Heat

D. Motor amperage

23. Infrared analysis would be most useful to evaluate

A. friction between moving parts

B. relay voltage

C. air leakage

D. oil contamination

24. What is the measurement shown on the 1”-2” micrometer?

A. 0.423
B. 1.473
C. 1.423
D. 1.430
 25. What is the measurement shown on the dial caliper?

A. 3.312
B. 3.302
C. 3.300
D. 3.0312

26. What is the length of Side X?

A. 8”
B. 9”
C. 10”
D. 12”
E. 14”
27. What is Dimension X on the sketch shown?

A. 1/8”
B. ¼”
C. 3/8”
D. 5/8”
E. 7/8”

28. As compared to hydraulic cylinders of the same strength, compressed air cylinders are

A. faster

B. larger

C. longer

D. more accurate

29. Several pneumatic actuators on a machine have been getting progressively slower over last few
days. The most probable cause of the problem would be

A. the wrong fittings were installed

B. insufficient air flow is being supplied to the circuit

C. the rod seals are binding.

D. the solenoid valves controlling the cylinders are faulty.

30. What is the best way to change the speed of a cylinder?

A. Change air pressure. D. Change software settings

B. Adjust the flow control valve.

C. Adjust a solenoid operated valve

31. When gas is compressed, the pressure goes

A. Down and the volume goes up.

B. up and the volume goes down.

C. up and the volume goes up.

D. down and the volume goes down.

During compression, the volume (V) of a gas decreases. When this happens, the pressure (P) of the gas
increases if the number of moles (n) of gas remains constant. If you keep the pressure constant,
reducing the temperature (T) also causes the gas to compress

32. Which cylinder will exert the most force when 100 psi is applied to the head side of the piston?

33. One sign of cavitation is

A. no discharge flow

B. excessive discharge flow

C. uneven discharge flow

D. a milky flow

34. Solenoids found on directional valves used in pneumatic circuits are typically actuated by

A. regulators

B. flow valves

C. L.E.D card

D. PLC output

35. How many main-line contactor assemblies are used in an across the line AC reversing motor control?
A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

36. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit shown?

A. 0.0183
B. 0.598
C. 54.55
D. 600
https://www.swtc.edu/Ag_Power/electrical/lecture/parallel_circuits.htm good website to
break down formulas.

37. The start button in a motor control circuit is released. The motor starter contacts open or the coil
does not remain energized. The trouble is likely to be in the

A. stop switch contacts.

B. overload resets.

C. auxiliary contact circuit.

D. motor starter coil

An overload condition, opening the overload contacts, would cause the starter coil in the ladder
diagram to be de-energized. A motor is controlled by momentary contact START/STOP pushbuttons
and a holding contact. If a power failure stops the motor, it will restart when power is restored.

38. For normal starting of motors, the bimetallic element of a circuit breaker provides the required
A. temperature correction.

B. time delay

C. varying current.

D. voltage variation.

39. The power dissipated by this circuit is

A. 3.0 watts
B. 4.8 watts
C. 30 watts
D. 48 watts

40. An overload relay is a device used to sense

A. current

B. voltage

C. power

D. torque

41. A voltage is applied to a pure resistance and the voltage is decreased. The current through the
resistor will

A. increase

B. remain the same

C. decrease

D. square

By Ohm’s law; Current will decrease when voltage decreases, and will do so by a constant proportion.
42. Ohms Law states the mathematical relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. Solve the
following using Ohm’s Law equation.

12 amps flow through a 4 ohm resistor. What is the voltage?

A. 3V
B. 12V
C. 16V
D. 48V

43. If a DC motor runs faster than the nameplate speed, which of the following would NOT be the
cause?

A. Series motor running without a load

B. Differential connection in a compounded motor

C. Worn bearings

D. Open shunt field circuit

44. The use of a diode to convert alternating current into direct current is commonly referred to as

A. a commutator

B. a regulator

C. an alternator

D. a rectifier

The task of turning alternating current into direct current is called rectification, and the electronic
circuit that does the job is called a rectifier.

45. How would you locate a shorted coil in an armature?

A. Jog the motor

B. Hipot the armature

C. Use a 110 test tight

D. Use a megger

46. Which connection represents a low voltage “Y”? A, B, C, or D

47. What is the simplest switch that could select either one of two circuits depending on switch
position?

A. Single-pole, single-throw

B. Single-pole, double- throw

C. Double-pole, single throw

D. Double-pole, double- throw

The simplest form of a switch is an SPST switch. An SPST switch embraces a basic "ON/OFF" control of
a single circuit and consists of two terminals that serve as electrical connection points. Power the
switch "ON" to establish a connection between the two terminals. Turn the switch to "OFF" to
eliminate the terminals' connection.

48. With 480 volts primary voltage, what would be the primary current at full for a secondary full load of
11.2 amps at 240 volts?

A. 3.2 amps

B. 5.6 amps

C. 7.0 amps

D. 22.4 amps
49. The circuit shown is a typical power distribution schematic. The W, X, Y units are used for?

A. Determining the power factor.

B. Reporting how much power (watts) the load used.
C. Overcurrent protection.
D. Line voltage metering.
50. A garage door opener control diagram is shown. According to switch and control positions, what is
happening within the garage door opening system?

A. It is operating in an open mode

B. It is operating in a closed mode
C. Nothing, awaiting an opening push-button signal
D. Nothing, awaiting a closing push-button signal
51. In the motor control circuit shown, at what points should voltmeter probes be placed to check the
stop button?

A. 2 and 3 with start button depressed

B. 3 and 5
C. 1 and 7
D. 2 and 7

52. What causes a voltage change from a transformer primary to its secondary?

A. the position of the core

B. the direction of the coil windings and the frequency of the applied voltage

C. the length of the primary and secondary leads

D. the turn ratio

The ratio between the numbers of actual turns of wire in each coil is the key in determining the type
of transformer and what the output voltage will be.

53. A common predictive maintenance procedure used on electrical systems is?

A. sonic

B. tribology

C. infrared

D. time cycle
54. “Single-phasing” normally occurs on a motor when?

A. voltage drops

B. a fuse blows

C. a capacitor burns out

D. Two wires are reversed

55. Before disconnecting any wires from a circuit,

A. jumper the wires on one end

B. use a clamp-on to determine that current is not flowing through the circuit

C. check the kilowatt hour meter to verify that it is not turning

D. use a voltage meter to verify the circuit is not “hot”

56. If the insulation resistance reading using a megohmmeter shows a sudden drop, it indicates that..

A. tests are being made at wrong points

B. incorrect voltage is being used for testing

C. routine inspections are needed.

D. trouble is developing

57. A device used to convert electromagnetic energy to mechanical energy is a?

A. rectifier

B. solenoid

C. transformer

D. capacitor

58. When taking a resistance measurement in a circuit, the first thing that should be done is?

A. remove the resistor from the circuit

B. connect the black lead of the meter to ground

C. remove power from the circuit

D. touch the resistor to ensure it is not hot.

59. In the figure shown, what DMM function would be used to check for a blown fuse with the circuit
de-energized?

A. B. C. D.

60. To measure total voltage in a three-phase circuit, the leads of a multimeter should be connected
between?

A. phase A and ground

B. phase B and ground

C. phase C and ground

D. phases A and B, phases A and C, and phase B and C

61. A voltage tester placed across points 1 and 9 in the diagram shown indicates full control voltage. This
tells you that

A. There is a faulty control fuse

B. There is an open auxiliary contact
C. The overload are good
D. The overloads are faulty

62. The first range you should select when using a multimeter is the

A. lowest

B. middle

C. highest

D. Any range is acceptable

63. To measure current to a 3-phase AC motor, the clamp-on ammeter show is

A. Incorrect. The jaws should be shut

B. Incorrect. All three phases must be in the jaws
C. Incorrect. Clamps on ammeter are for DC use only and cannot be used
D. correct

64. The function of a thermocouple is to

A. control velocity

B. measure temperature

C. measure resistance

D. measure force
65. Before using a digital multimeter to measure resistance, after the proper scale is selected the
technician should

A. touch the leads together to make sure the meter zeros

B. disconnect the resistor from the circuit

C. secure power to the circuit

D. immediately take the measurement

66. What does the programming logic control run light indicate when it is on?

A. The programmable logic control processor has fallen out of the run mode

B. The processor is running and all is ready to operate

C. Some other device is communicating with the programmable logic control

D. A communication cable is broken or not connected

67. To prevent electrostatic discharge damage to solid-state devices

A. moisten the hand used to handle the devices

B. always use two hands to handle the device

C. ensure the equipment is grounded

D. wear a grounded wrist strap on the hand used to handle the devices

68. In a PLC indicates a fault conditions, to clear the fault you should

A. change the programmable controller

B. check to see if the output devices are functioning

C. shut off the power for about 30 seconds

D. check the fuses on the input boards

69. After the motor starter output is “on” (energized), which input must be detected “on” (before the
times out) to keep the motor output “on”?

A. 10012
B. 10020
C. 10025
D. 10067

70. Basically, the function of a PLC is to?

A. amplify various weak signal sources

B. control a high voltage output with a low voltage input

C. control the speed of motors

D. make logical decisions and provide outputs

71. Which of the following devices does NOT require an analog input module on a PLC?

A. Photo-switch

B. Potentiometer

C. Thermocouple

D. load cell

72. An indicator light is controlled by a programmable controller is failing to energize. The first place
to start in troubleshooting the problem would be at the

A. PLC program

B. indicator light itself

C. power supply

D. control station