Cambridge IGCSE™

COMBINED SCIENCE 0653/21

Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2024
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*4954319202*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB24 06_0653_21/2RP
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1 The diagram shows a plant cell and an animal cell as seen under a light microscope.

plant cell animal cell

What is structure P and what is one of its functions?

structure P function

A cell membrane controls the entry of substances into the cell

B cell membrane supports the cell
C cell wall controls the entry of substances into the cell
D cell wall supports the cell

2 The diagram represents the enzyme amylase and the products of digestion by amylase.

amylase X

What are products X and Y?

X Y

A amino acid amino acid

B fatty acid glycerol
C glycerol fatty acid
D simple sugar simple sugar

3 Which type of cell needs a supply of magnesium ions to carry out its main function?

A a ciliated cell
B palisade mesophyll cell
C a red blood cell
D a root hair cell

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4 Which process produces food molecules that are small enough to be absorbed?

A chemical digestion
B egestion
C ingestion
D mechanical digestion

5 Which statement about the structure and function of blood vessels is correct?

A Arteries have valves and always carry oxygenated blood.

B Arteries have a thick muscular wall to maintain a high blood pressure.
C Veins have a narrow lumen to allow the blood to flow quickly.
D Veins have a thin wall so that they can exchange molecules with tissue cells.

6 Which processes use the energy released by respiration?

protein
diffusion growth osmosis
synthesis

A     key
B      = yes
C      = no
D    

7 Molecules from the balanced chemical equation for aerobic respiration are listed.

1 C6H12O6
2 6CO2
3 6H2O
4 6O2

What represents the correct equation for aerobic respiration using these molecules?

A 1 + 2  3 + 4

B 2 + 3  1 + 4

C 1 + 4  2 + 3

D 3 + 4  1 + 2

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8 Which statement about adrenaline is correct?

A It is produced by a gland.
B It is transported in the red blood cells.
C It only has one target organ.
D It reduces the size of the pupils.

9 Auxin stimulates cell elongation.

If a light shines onto a shoot, why does it grow towards the direction of the light?

A Auxin spreads evenly through the shoot.

B Auxin stays in the shoot tip.
C More auxin collects on the side of the shoot furthest from the light.
D More auxin collects on the side of the shoot nearest the light.

10 Which statement about sexual reproduction is always correct?

A It involves only one parent.

B It involves the fusion of nuclei.
C It produces genetically identical offspring.
D It takes place only in animals.

11 Which row describes adaptations of a wind-pollinated flower?

anthers stigma
large petals
inside flower outside flower

A   
B   
C   
D   

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12 The list shows the adaptive features of some gametes.

1 a flagellum
2 a jelly coat
3 a sac of enzymes at one end
4 a store of energy

Which features are present in a human male gamete?

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

13 The diagram shows a food web.

python eagle

wolf thrush
rat

dragonfly
frog

grasshopper fruit fly

butterfly

corn mangoes
flowering lavenders
plant

How many of the food chains in this food web support the wolf?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

14 50 g of a liquid alkane at 20 C is left in an open, insulated beaker for 30 minutes.

After this time, the mass of the liquid is 42 g and its temperature is 18 C.

Which statement is correct?

A Some of the liquid evaporates in an exothermic process.

B The evaporation is an endothermic process because covalent bonds in the alkane molecules
are broken.
C The temperature decreases because energy is used to overcome attractive forces between
the liquid molecules.
D There are fewer molecules in the remaining liquid so they move further apart.

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15 What is an example of a physical change?

A carbon dioxide turning limewater milky

B the crystallisation of copper(II) sulfate from solution

C the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide

D the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate

16 Which statement defines the nucleon number of an atom?

A It is the total number of neutrons and protons in the atom.

B It is the total number of neutrons and electrons in the atom.
C It is the total number of neutrons, protons and electrons in the atom.
D It is the total number of neutrons in the atom.

17 The formula of magnesium nitrate is Mg(NO3)2.

Which symbols represent the ions in magnesium nitrate?

magnesium nitrate

A Mg+ NO3–
B Mg+ NO32–
C Mg2+ NO32–
D Mg2+ NO3–

18 Which rows identify the electrode products for the named electrolyte?

product product
electrolyte
at anode at cathode

1 dilute sulfuric acid oxygen hydrogen

2 dilute sulfuric acid sulfur dioxide hydrogen
3 concentrated aqueous sodium chloride chlorine hydrogen
4 molten lead(II) bromide lead bromine

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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19 Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce water as shown.

2H–H + O=O o 2H–O–H

The reaction causes the surroundings to heat up.

Which row identifies the type of reaction and explains why it is endothermic or exothermic?

type of reaction explanation

A endothermic the bonds formed are stronger than the bonds broken
B endothermic the bonds formed are weaker than the bonds broken
C exothermic the bonds formed are stronger than the bonds broken
D exothermic the bonds formed are weaker than the bonds broken

20 An experiment is set up to investigate the rate of reaction between calcium carbonate and dilute
hydrochloric acid.

A fixed mass of solid calcium carbonate is placed in a conical flask, and an excess of the acid is
added using a measuring cylinder. Carbon dioxide is produced in the reaction.

Which other pieces of apparatus are used to find the rate of reaction?

1 a balance
2 a thermometer
3 a stop-watch

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

21 Which aqueous substances form a white precipitate when they are mixed?

A barium chloride and hydrochloric acid

B barium chloride and nitric acid
C silver nitrate and nitric acid
D silver nitrate and hydrochloric acid

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22 All sodium compounds are soluble. Magnesium hydroxide is insoluble.

An excess of a solid is added to dilute nitric acid, mixed, filtered and then the filtrate is left to
crystallise.

Which solids react with dilute nitric acid and can be used separately to prepare crystals of
magnesium nitrate?

A magnesium hydroxide and sodium carbonate only

B magnesium and magnesium hydroxide only
C magnesium and sodium carbonate only
D magnesium, magnesium hydroxide and sodium carbonate

23 Astatine is an element near the bottom of Group VII in the Periodic Table.

Which row shows properties of astatine?

physical state at reacts with

room temperature iodide ions

A gas no
B solid no
C gas yes
D solid yes

24 Which statement about the properties of the elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table is correct?

A The elements on the left lose electrons more readily.

B The elements on the left are less malleable.
C The elements on the right are metallic.
D The elements on the right form cations.

25 Iron is extracted from its ore in a blast furnace.

Which statement about this process is correct?

A Carbon dioxide reduces iron(III) oxide.

B Iron(III) oxide reduces carbon monoxide.

C Carbon oxidises iron(III) oxide.

D Carbon dioxide oxidises carbon.

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26 A water supply contains small insoluble impurities. It also contains bacteria.

Which statement describes how the insoluble impurities are removed and how the bacteria are
killed?

A The water supply is filtered.

B The water supply is filtered and treated with chloride ions.
C The water supply is filtered and treated with chlorine.
D The water supply is treated with chlorine and chloride ions.

27 Which products are obtained by the cracking of larger alkane molecules?

A smaller alkane molecules, smaller alkene molecules and hydrogen

B smaller alkane molecules only
C smaller alkene molecules and hydrogen only
D smaller alkene molecules only

28 Five identical solid spheres are placed in a measuring cylinder containing a liquid. The diagrams
show the measuring cylinder before and after the spheres are placed inside.

200 200
3
cm cm3
150 150

100 100

50 50 sphere

The mass of one sphere is 12 g.

What is the density of the material used to make the spheres?

A 0.40 g / cm3 B 0.50 g / cm3 C 2.0 g / cm3 D 2.5 g / cm3

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29 A book rests on a table.

Which two quantities are needed to calculate the pressure exerted by the book on the table?

A the density of the book and the volume of the book

B the density of the book and the area of contact between the book and the table
C the weight of the book and the volume of the book
D the weight of the book and the area of contact between the book and the table

30 Which row shows the expressions for the gravitational potential energy (GPE) and the kinetic
energy (KE) of an object?

GPE KE
mg
A 1
2 mv 2
h
mg
B 1
2 (mv)2
h
C mgh 1
2 mv 2
D mgh 1
2 (mv)2

31 Which row compares the distances between the molecules and the forces between the molecules
in a solid and in a gas?

distances between forces between

the molecules the molecules

A larger in a gas larger in a gas

B larger in a gas larger in a solid
C larger in a solid larger in a gas
D larger in a solid larger in a solid

32 Which statement is correct for evaporation?

A Evaporation occurs only at the boiling point of the liquid.

B Evaporation occurs only at the surface of a liquid.
C Evaporation involves a vapour changing into a liquid.
D Evaporation increases the temperature of the remaining liquid.

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33 A sea wave reaches the shore at a rate of three wavelengths every 60 s.

What is the frequency of the wave?

A 0.050 Hz B 1.0 Hz C 3.0 Hz D 20 Hz

34 A sound wave moves from a solid into a liquid.

The frequency of the sound does not change.

What happens to the speed and what happens to the wavelength of the sound wave?

speed wavelength

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

35 A thin converging lens has a focal length of 5.0 cm.

The lens is placed at different distances from the object.

At which distance does the lens act as a magnifying glass?

A 15 cm B 10 cm C 6.0 cm D 3.0 cm

36 A plastic rod becomes negatively charged when rubbed with a cloth.

The cloth becomes positively charged.

Which statement describes the charging process?

A The rod and the cloth both gain electrons.

B The rod and the cloth both lose electrons.
C The rod gains electrons and the cloth loses electrons.
D The rod loses electrons and the cloth gains electrons.

37 Which list contains a material that prevents electrical charge from flowing through it?

A aluminium, copper, mercury

B brass, nickel, steel
C glass, gold, zinc
D silver, iron, lead

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38 Which expression is equal to current?

A charge  time
charge
B
time
C resistance  potential difference (p.d.)
resistance
D
potential difference (p.d.)

39 The diagrams show four circuits, each containing an ammeter and two lamps of different
resistances.

Which circuit shows an ammeter with a reading equal to the current in each lamp?

A B C D

A
A A
A

40 There is a current of 20 mA in an electrical component when there is a potential difference (p.d.)

of 10 V across it.

How much energy is transferred by the component in 30 minutes?

A 6.0 J B 360 J C 6000 J D 360 000 J

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2024 0653/21/M/J/24

 The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2024
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0653/21/M/J/24
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium nihonium flerovium moscovium livermorium tennessine oganesson
– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).