Yct Ece Vol 2

ALL INDIA ENGINEERING SERVICES AND
PSU'S EXAMINATIONS
Electronics &
Communication
Engineering
VOLUME-2
Previous Years Chapterwise and
Sub-topicwise Objective Solved Papers
Useful for : UPSC ESE (Pre), ISRO SCIENTIST/ENGINEER, UPPCL AE, UPRVUNL AE, RRB SSE,
DMRC/LMRC AM, UPJN AE, UPPSC AE, UKPSC AE, UPSC JWM, UJVNL AE, PTCUL,
ASSAM PSC, APPSC, BPSC, CGPSC, DRDO Scientist, GATE, Gujarat PSC, Haryana PSC,
HPPSC, JPSC, J&K PSC, Kerala PSC, Karnataka PSC, KPTCL AE, Maharashtra PSC, MP
PSC, Mizoram PSC, Odisha PSC, Punjab PSC, RPSC, TNPSC, TANGEDCO AE, Tamilnadu
TRB, Telangana PSC, Vizag Steel MT, JUVNL AE, TSGENCO AE, AP TRANSCO AE,
GPSC, DFCCIL AM, AAI, NAGALAND PSC, NIELIT SCIENTIST, SIKKIM PSC.
Chief Editor
A.K. Mahajan
Compiled by
Er. Pradeep Kumar
Edited by
Er. Anil Kumar, Er. Rakesh Patel
Computer Graphics by
Balkrishna Tripathi, Charan Singh
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Publisher Declaration
Edited and Published by A.K. Mahajan for YCT Publications Pvt. Ltd.
and printed by R.A. Security Printers, Prayagraj. In order to publish the book,
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still your suggestions and queries are welcomed. Rs. : 895/-
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Electronics &
Communication Engineering
Chapterwise solved Papers
VOLUME -I
Electronic Devices and Circuits
Analog Electronics
Electronics Measurements and Instrumentation
Digital Electronics
Advanced Electronics
Power Electronics & Drives
Control system
Signals and Systems Processing
VOLUME - II
Network Theory
Electromagnetic Field Theory
Communication System
Advance Communication System
Microprocessor and Microcontroller
Computer Organization and Architecture
Basic Electrical Engineering
Material Science
Engineering mathematics
Microwave Engineering
2
CONTENT
Electronics & Communication Engineering AE Syllabus ....................... 5-6
Electronics & Communication Engineering AE Previous
Year Exam Paper Analysis Chart ............................................................ 7-11
Trend Analysis of Previous Year Papers
Through Bar Graph and Pie Chart.............................................................. 12
Network Theory ..................................................................................................... 13-391
Basics of Network Analysis............................................................................................13
Transient State Analysis & Steady State Analysis .......................................................114
Network Theorems .......................................................................................................177
Two Port Network ........................................................................................................221
Magnetic Coupled Circuit.............................................................................................268
Network Synthesis and Function ..................................................................................277
Graph Theory ................................................................................................................304
AC supply .....................................................................................................................319
Resonance .....................................................................................................................357
Filter ..............................................................................................................................381
Electromagnetic Field Theory ......................................................................... 392-611
Co-ordinate System & Vector Calculus........................................................................392
Electrostatic and Magnetostatic Field ...........................................................................406
Time Varying & Electromagnetic Field .......................................................................466
EM Wave & Transmission Line ...................................................................................480
Communication System ..................................................................................... 612-800
Random Signals and Noise ...........................................................................................612
Analog Communication System ...................................................................................641
Information Theory and Coding ...................................................................................718
Digital Communication System ....................................................................................738
Advance communication system .................................................................... 801-911
Communication Network ..............................................................................................801
Antenna & Microwave Communication .......................................................................815
Radar & Satellite Communication ................................................................................869
Optical Fiber Communication ......................................................................................890
TV, Audio and Video....................................................................................................906
Microprocessor and Microcontroller ........................................................... 912-966
Basics of 8085 Microprocessor.....................................................................................912
Instruction set and Programming of 8085.....................................................................920
Interrupts of 8085..........................................................................................................942
Interfacing of Memory Devices with 8085 ...................................................................946
8086 Microprocessor ....................................................................................................957
Microcontroller .............................................................................................................961
3
Computer Organization and Architecture ............................................... 967-1019
Basics of Computer Organization, Architecture & Memory ........................................967
Data structure and DBMS .............................................................................................991
Programming and operating system ...........................................................................1000
Basic Electrical Engineering ........................................................................ 1020-1055
Battery.........................................................................................................................1020
Electromagnetism .......................................................................................................1023
Transformer ................................................................................................................1027
DC Machine ................................................................................................................1038
Induction Machine ......................................................................................................1045
Synchronous Machine.................................................................................................1050
Electrical Power Source ..............................................................................................1052
Single phase Motor .....................................................................................................1055
Materials Science ............................................................................................. 1056-1148
Structure of materials ..................................................................................................1056
Dielectric Properties of Materials ...............................................................................1067
Magnetic Properties of Materials ................................................................................1087
Semiconductors ...........................................................................................................1105
Conductive Materials ..................................................................................................1122
Super Conductor .........................................................................................................1136
Ceramic Materials .......................................................................................................1143
Nanotechnology ..........................................................................................................1147
Engineering mathematics ............................................................................. 1149-1228
Linear Algebra ............................................................................................................1149
Calculus ......................................................................................................................1165
Differential Equation ..................................................................................................1187
Complex Variable .......................................................................................................1202
Probability and Statistics ............................................................................................1211
Fourier Series & Transform Theory ...........................................................................1219
Numerical Method ......................................................................................................1225
Microwave Engineering................................................................................. 1229-1264
Introduction .................................................................................................................1229
Waveguides .................................................................................................................1231
Microwave Hybrid Circuit ..........................................................................................1255
Microwave Transistor and Tunnel Diode ...................................................................1257
Transferred Electron Devices .....................................................................................1260
Microwave Linear Beam Tubes (O-type) ...................................................................1260
Avalanche Transit Time Device .................................................................................1263
Microwave Crossed Field Tubes (M-type) .................................................................1263
Microwave Measurements ..........................................................................................1264
Note : Electronic Devices and Circuits, Analog Electronics, Electronics Measurements and
Instrumentation, Digital Electronics, Advanced Electronics, Power Electronics &
Drives, Control system, Signals and Systems Processing (Study Volume-I)
4
Electronics & Communication Engineering
AE, State PSC, PSU SYLLABUS
Networks Theory:
Basic of Network Theory, Nodal and Mesh analysis, Network Theorems- Superposition Theorem, Thevenin and
Norton's Theorem, Maximum power transfer Theorem, Star-Delta transformation, Duality Steady state,
Sinusoidal analysis, Time domain analysis of simple linear circuits, Frequency domain analysis of RLC (Series
and Parallel) circuits, Two port network parameters, Graph Theory.
Electromagnetics:
Electrostatics, Maxwell's equations, wave equation, Poynting theorem & vector. Plane waves- Reflection and
refraction, polarization, phase and group velocity, calculation of skin depth, Transmission lines- Equations,
characteristic impedance, impedance matching, impedance transformation, S-parameters, Smith chart,
Waveguides- Basic of Waveguides. Antennas- Basic Concept, Definition, Types of Antenna, radiation pattern,
gain, and directivity return loss etc.
ELECTRONIC COMPONENTS AND MATERIALS
Materials : Classification of materials , Conducting, semi-conducting and insulating materials through a brief
reference to their atomic structure. Conducting Materials : Resistors and factors affecting resistivity such as
temperature, alloying and mechanical stressing. Classification of conducting materials into low resistivity and
high resistivity materials. Insulating Materials : Important relevant characteristics (electrical, mechanical and
thermal) and applications of the following material: Mica, Glass, Copper, Silver, PVC, Silicon, Rubber,
Bakelite, Cotton, Ceramic, Polyester, Polythene and Varnish. Magnetic Materials : Different Magnetic
materials; (Dia, Para, Ferro) and their properties. Ferro magnetism, Domains, permeability, Hysteresis loop.
Soft and hard magnetic materials, their examples and typical applications.
Electronics measurement and instrumentation:
Electronics measurement and non-electrical quantities, Electronics measuring instruments, Error analysis,
Measurements of basic electrical quantities, Transducers, Working principle of measuring instruments.
Electronic Devices Circuits (EDC):
Energy bands in intrinsic and extrinsic silicon, Carrier transport- diffusion current, Drift current, Mobility and
Resistivity, Diffusion constant, Generation and recombination of carriers, Diode, BJT (Bipolar Junction
Transistor), P-N junction, Transistor, Zener diode, LED (Light Emitting Diode), a photodiode and solar cell.
Analog Electronics:
BJT (Bipolar Junction Transistor), and MOSFETs, Simple diode circuits- clipping, clamping and rectifiers, BJT
and MOSFET amplifiers- multi-stage, differential, feedback, power and operational, Operational Amplifier
circuits, Active filters, Oscillators- criterion for oscillation, RC Phase Shift, using transistor and FET, Wein
bridge, Clapp's, Colpitts oscillator only Formula, Function generators, wave-shaping circuits and 555 timers,
Voltage reference circuits, Power supplies- ripple removal and regulation.
Power Electronics:
Power semiconductor: Power semiconductor devices their symbols and static characteristics and
specifications of switches, types of power electronics circuits Operations, steady state & switch
characteristics & switching limits of Power Transistor Operation and steady state characteristics of Power
MOSFET and IGBT Thyristor Operation V-I characteristics, two transistor mode, methods of turn-on
operation of GTO, MCT and TRIAC.
Phase Controlled Rectifiers: Phase Angle Control, Single-phase half-wave Controlled Rectifier (One
quadrant), Single-phase Full-wave Controlled Rectifier (Two quadrant Converters), Performance Factors of
Line-commutated Converters. The Performance Measures of Two-pulse converters, Three phase Controlled
Converters.
Signal and System:
Time Shifting, Scaling & Reversal, System- Linear, causality, stability, Fourier series and Fourier transform
representations, Sampling theorem, Discrete- Time signals – discrete-time Fourier transform, DFT (Discrete
Fourier transform), FFT and Z-transform, LTI systems- Properties, frequency response, group delay, phase
delay.
Control Systems:
Basic control system, Transfer function mason's formula, Block diagram representation, Signal flow graph,
Transient and steady-state analysis of LTI systems- First and Second Order System, Frequency response-
5
Routh-Hurwitz criterion, Polar Plot analysis, and Nyquist stability criteria, Bode plot and root-locus plots,
Calculation of Gain and Phase Margin, Lag, lead and lag-lead compensation, P, PI, PD, and PID, State variable
Analysis- State model solution of LTI systems, State model to transfer function, Controllability, and
Observability. Non-Linear Control System : Introduction, behaviour of non-linear control system. Different
types of nonlinearities, saturation, backlash, hysteresis, dead zone, relay, fiction, characteristics of non-linear
control system, limit cycles, jump resonance, jump phenomenon. Difference between linear and non-linear
control system.
Digital Electronics:
Number systems, Code converters: BCD, Binary, HEX, Octal other codes, Combinational Circuits, Boolean
algebra, Karnaugh map, CMOS implementations, Arithmetic Circuits Multiplexers, Encoder & Decoders,
Sequential circuits- latches and all flip-flops, counters, shift-registers, Data converters- ADC (Analog to Digital
Converter) and DAC (Digital to Analog Converter). Semiconductor memories: ROM (Read Only Memory),
SRAM (Static Read Access Memory), DRAM (Dynamic read Access Memory).
Microprocessor and Microcontroller:
Architecture, All Instruction, Programming, Memory. Architecture of a typical microprocessor, configurations
and instructional pair configuration systems and working of various peripheral interface chips. 8085
Microprocessors, architecture, instruction sets and introduction to 8086.Micro controller: Introduction,
Microcontrollers and Embedded systems, Overview of the 8051, Inside the 8051, Addressing modes, assembly
programming, 8051 data types and directives, interfacing with 8051, Programming the 8051 times.
Communication System:
Analog Communication System: Amplitude modulation and demodulation For Sinusoidal, Rectangular and
Triangular Signal, Angle modulation (Frequency and Phase Modulation) and demodulation, AM and FM
Spectrum Analysis, super heterodyne receivers. Digital communications: PCM (Pulse Code Modulation),
DPCM (Delta Pulse Code Modulation), digital modulation schemes, Bandwidth Calculation, SNR (Signal to
Noise ratio) and BER/Probability error for digital modulation, Fundamentals of error correction, Hamming
codes, Inter-symbol interference, Basics of TDMA, FDMA and CDMA (Code-division Multiple access),
Information theory-Entropy, mutual information and channel capacity theorem.
Telephone instruments and signal: Introduction, the subscriber loop, standard telephone set, basic call
procedure, cordless telephones, electronic telephones. Telephone circuit: Introduction, the local subscriber
loop, channel noise and units of power measurements, transmission parameters, voice frequency circuit
arrangements. Public telephone network: Transmission system, public telephone network, automated central
office switches and exchanges, telephone switching hierarchy, common channel signaling system. Multiplexing
of telephone channels: TDM, digital hierarchy, digital carrier line encoding, T-carrier systems, digital carrier
frame synchronization, FDM, WDM. Digital telephony: Introduction, voice digitization, TDM of PCM signals,
digital carrier, Fractional T-Carrier Service, Data Terminal, Digital Carrier Line Encoding, Error Detection, T
Carrier System, T-1 Carrier Computer Networking: Network features- Network topologies, protocols-
TCP/IP, UDP, FTP, models, types, network components, network medias, Specification and standards, types of
cables, UTP, STP, Coaxial cables, Network components like hub, Ethernet switch, router, NIC Cards,
connectors, media and firewall. Difference between PC & Server.
COMPUTER AIDED INSTRUMENTATION
Computer aided Instrumentation, Buses and Standards : Introduction , BUS types : The I/O BUS a) ISA
bus b) EISA Bus c) PCI bus , GPIB 2.5 RS-232, Linear Circuits and Signal Conditioning, Parallel Port (PP)
Interfacing Techniques, Serial Port (SP) Interfacing Techniques, USB Port Interfacing Techniques.
Microwave Engineering:
Rectangular wave Guide: Field components, TE, TM modes, Dominant TE10 mode, Field Distribution, Power
Attenuation. Circular waveguides: TE, TM mode, Wave velocities, Microstrip Transmission line (TL),
Coupled TL, Strip TL, Coupled Strip Line, Coplanar TL, Microwave Cavities. Scattering Matrix, Passive
microwave devices: Microwave Hybrid Circuits, Terminations, Attenuators, Phase Shifters, Directional
Couplers: Two Hole directional couplers, S Matrix of a Directional coupler, Hybrid Couplers, Microwave
Propagation in ferrites, Faraday Rotations, Isolators, Circulators. Microwave Tubes: Limitation of
Conventional Active Devices at Microwave frequency, Two cavity Klystron, Reflex Klystron, Magnetron,
Traveling Wave Tube, Backward Wave Oscillators: Their Schematic, Principle of Operation, Performance
Characteristics and their applications. Solid state amplifiers and oscillators: Microwave Bipolar Transistor,
Microwave tunnel diode, microwave Field-effect Transistor, Transferred electron devices, Avalanche Transit-
time device: IMPATT Diode, TRAPATT Diode. Microwave Measurements: General setup of a microwave
testbench, Slotted line carriage, VSWR Meter, microwave power measurements techniques, Crystal Detector,
frequency measurement, wavelength measurements, Impedance and Reflection coefficient, VSWR, insertion
and attenuation loss measurement, measurement of antenna characteristics, microwave link design.
6
Electronics & Communication Engineering AE Previous Year
Exam Paper Analysis Chart
S.L. Exam NAME EXAM DATE/TIME No. of Questions

Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission
1. UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. Paper-I 22.03.2022 1 × 100
2. UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. Paper-II 22.03.2022 1 × 100
3. UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director 09.01.2022 1 × 100
ISRO Scientist / Engineer
4. ISRO Scientist / Engineer 12.01.2020 1× 80
12. ISRO Scientist / Engineer 2012 1× 80
Union Public Service Commission
19. ESE 20.02.2022 1 × 150
20. ESE 18.07.2021 1 × 150
21. ESE 05.01.2020 1 × 150
22. ESE 06.01.2019 1 × 150
23. ESE 07.01.2018 1 × 150
24. ESE 08.01.2017 1 × 150
25. ESE 2016 2 × 120
26. ESE 2015 2 × 120
27. ESE 2014 2 × 120
28. ESE 2013 2 × 120
29. ESE 2012 2 × 120
30. ESE 2011 2 × 120
31. ESE 2010 2 × 120
32. ESE 2009 2 × 120
33. ESE 2008 2 × 120
34. ESE 2007 2 × 120
35. ESE 2006 2 × 120
36. ESE 2005 2 × 120
37. ESE 2004 2 × 120
38. ESE 2003 2 × 120
39. ESE 2002 2 × 120
40. ESE 2001 2 × 120
41. ESE 2000 2 × 120
42. ESE 1999 2 × 120
43. ESE 1998 2 × 120
44. ESE 1997 2 × 120
7
45. ESE 1996 2 × 120
46. ESE 1995 2 × 120
47. ESE 1994 2 × 120
48. ESE 1993 2 × 120
49. ESE 1992 2 × 120
50. ESE 1991 2 × 120
51. UPSC Poly. Lect. 10.03.2019 1 × 100
52. UPSC JWM 2016 1 × 100
Uttar Pradesh Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited
53. UPRVUNL AE, Shift-II 19.07.2021 1 × 150
54. UPRVUNL AE 2016 1 × 150
55. UPRVUNL AE 2014 1 × 150
Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation Limited
56. UPPCL AE 30.03.2022 1 × 150
57. UPPCL AE 05.11.2019 1 × 150
58. UPPCL AE 31.12.2018 1 × 150
59. UPPCL AE 16.11.2013 1 × 150
UKPSC/UJVNL/PTCUL/UPCL Uttarakhand
60. UKPSC Asstt. Radio officer 2011 1 × 100
61. UJVNL AE 08.05.2016 1 × 126
Andhra Pradesh PSC
62. APPSC Poly. Lect. 14.03.2020 1×150
63. APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 1×150
64. APGENCO AE 23.04.2017 1×70
Airports Authority of India
65. AAI ATC 2015 1 × 85
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
66. BARC Scientific Officer 2016 1 × 75
Bihar Public Service Commission
67. BPSC Asstt. Prof. 12.04.2022 1 × 80
68. BPSC Poly. Lect. 2014 1 × 80
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL JTO)
69. BSNL JTO 2009 1 × 100
70. BSNL (JTO) 2006 1 × 100
71. BSNL(JTO) 2002 1 × 100
72. BSNL JTO 2001 1 × 100
Chhattishgarh PSC
73. CGPSC Scientific Officer 14.02.2016 1 × 100
Defence Research and Development
74. DRDO Scientist 2009 1× 100
75. DRDO Scientist 2008 1 × 100
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE)
76. GATE 2022 1 × 55
77. GATE 2021 1 × 55
78. GATE 2020 1 × 55
79. GATE 2019 1 × 55
80. GATE 2018 1 × 55
81. GATE 2017 SET-1 1 × 55
82. GATE 2017 SET-2 1 × 55
83. GATE 2016 SET-1 1 × 55
84. GATE 2016 SET-2 1 × 55
85. GATE 2016 SET-3 1 × 55
86. GATE 2015 SET-1 1 × 55
8
87. GATE 2015 SET-2 1 × 55
88. GATE 2015 SET-3 1 × 55
89. GATE 2014 SET-1 1 × 55
90. GATE 2014 SET-2 1 × 55
91. GATE 2014 SET-3 1 × 55
92. GATE 2014 SET-4 1 × 55
93. GATE 2013 1 × 55
94. GATE 2012 1 × 55
95. GATE 2011 1 × 55
96. GATE 2010 1 × 55
97. GATE 2009 1 × 60
98. GATE 2008 1 × 60
99. GATE 2007 1 × 60
100. GATE 2006 1 × 60
101. GATE 2005 1 × 60
102. GATE 2004 1 × 60
103. GATE 2003 1 × 40
104. GATE 2002 1 × 40
105. GATE 2001 1 × 40
106. GATE 2000 1 × 40
107. GATE 1999 1 × 40
108. GATE 1998 1 × 40
109. GATE 1997 1 × 40
110. GATE 1996 1 × 40
111. GATE 1995 1 × 40
112. GATE 1994 1 × 40
113. GATE 1993 1 × 40
114. GATE 1992 1 × 40
115. GATE 1991 1 × 40
Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Ltd.
116. DFCCIL Executive S &T 29.09.2021 1×96
117. DFCCIL Executive S &T 11.11.2018 1×96
118. DFCCIL Executive S &T 2016 1×80
Gujarat Public Service Commission
119. GPSC Asstt. Prof. 02.04.2017 1×200
120. GPSC Asstt. Prof. 18.03.2017 1×100
121. GPSC Lect. 16.10.2016 1×100
122. GPSC Asstt. Prof. 21.08.2016 1×100
Himachal Pradesh PSC
123. HPPSC Poly. Lect. 27.03.2016 1×80
124. HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 28.12.2014 1×80
KVS TGT (Work Experience)
125. KVS TGT (WE) 2018 1×100
126. KVS TGT (WE) 2017 1×150
127. KVS TGT (WE) 2016 1×150
128. KVS TGT (WE) 2014 1×150
9
Kerala PSC
129. Kerala PSC AE 06.04.2017 1×80
130. Kerala PSC Lect. (NCA) 04.07.2017 1×200
131. Kerala PSC Lect. 09.12.2016 1×80
132. Kerala Asstt. Prof. 06.05.2016 1×80
UPMRCL/LMRC/DMRC Asstt. Manager
133. UPMRCL AM 2021 1×90
134. UPMRCL AM (Operation) 20.01.2020 1×90
135. LMRC AM (S&T) 13.05.2018 1×75
136. DMRC AM (S&T) 2020 1×75
Madhya Pradesh PSC
137. MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 2014 1×150
Maharashtra Public Service Commission
138. MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. 2013 1 × 80
Mizoram PSC
139. Mizoram PSC IOLM Paper- I 2018 1×100
140. Mizoram PSC IOLM Paper-II 2018 1×100
141. Mizoram PSC IOLM Paper-III 2018 1×100
142. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade Paper-I 2018 1×50
143. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade Paper-II 2018 1×50
144. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade Paper-III 2018 1×50
145. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade Paper-I 2015 1×50
146. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade Paper-II 2015 1×50
147. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade Paper-III 2015 1×50
148. Mizoram PSC AE/SDO Paper-I 2012 1×200
149. Mizoram PSC AE/SDO Paper-III 2012 1×150
150. Mizoram PSC IOLM Paper-I 2010 1×150
151. Mizoram PSC IOLM Paper-II 2010 1×150
Nagaland PSC
152. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma), Paper-I 2018 1 × 200
153. Nagaland Psc CTSE (Diploma), Paper-II 2018 1 × 200
154. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree), Paper-I 2018 1 × 200
155. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree), Paper-II 2018 1 × 200
156. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma), Paper-I 2017 1 × 200
157. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma), Paper II 2017 1 × 200
162. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) , Paper I 2015 1 × 200
Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
164. NPCIL ET 2015 1×90
NLC India Limited
165. NLC GET 24.11.2020 1×80
10
National Institute of Electronics & Information Technology
166. NIELIT Scientist-B 2017 1×60
167. NIELIT Scientist-B 2016 1×60
Odisha Public Service Commission
168. OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation & Control), Paper-I 2018 1 × 100
169. OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation & Control), Paper-II 2018 1 × 100
170. OPSC Poly. Lect. (Electronic Engineering), Paper-I 2018 1 × 100
171. OPSC Poly. Lect. (Electronic Engineering), Paper-II 2018 1 × 100
Punjab PSC
172. Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 1 × 100
Rajasthan Public Service Commission
173. RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 1 × 120
174. RPSC Vice Principal ITI/Suptdt. 2016 1 ×100
175. RPSC Lect. (Tech. Edu. Dept.) 10.01.2016 1 ×100
176. RPSC Lect. (Tech. Edu. Dept.) 2011 1 ×100
177. RPSC Vice Principal ITI/Suptdt. 05.11.2019 1 ×100
Railway Recruitment Board
178. RRB JE Shift-I 01.09.2019 1 × 100
179. RRB JE Shift-II 31.08.2019 1 × 100
180. RRB SSE Shift-I 01.09.2015 1×21
181. RRB SSE Shift-II 01.09.2015 1×22
182. RRB SSE Shift-III 01.09.2015 1×20
183. RRB SSE Shift-I 02.09.2015 1×20
184. RRB SSE Shift-II 02.09.2015 1×21
185. RRB SSE Shift-III 02.09.2015 1×22
186. RRB SSE Shift-I 03.09.2015 1×22
187. RRB SSE Shift-II 03.09.2015 1×21
188. RRB SSE Shift-III 03.09.2015 1×20
189. RRB SSE (Green) 21.12.2014 1×21
190. RRB SSE (RED) 21.12.2014 1×22
191. RRB SSE (yellow) 21.12.2014 1×20
Sikkim PSC
192. Sikkim PSC SI (Mains) 2018 1×50
Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission
193. TNPSC AE 2019 1 ×200
194. TNPSC AE 2018 1 ×200
195. TNPSC AE 2014 1 ×200
196. TNPSC AE 2013 1 ×200
197. TNPSC AE 2008 1 ×200
198. TANGEDCO AE 2018 1×60
199. TANGEDCO AE 2015 1×60
200. TRB Poly. Lect. 2012 1×150
201. TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 1×150
202. TRB Poly. Lect. 2021 1×150
Telangana PSC
203. TSGENCO AE 2015 1×80
204. TSPSC Manager (Engg.) 2015 1×150
205. TSTRANSCO AE 2018 1×80
206. TSPSC Manager (Engg.) in HMWSSB 12.11.2020 1×150
Total 23515
11
Trend Analysis of Previous Year Electronics &
Communication Engineering Exams Papers Through
Pie Chart and Bar Graph
12
01.
Network Theory
(a) I = – 12A (b) I = –9A
(i) Basics of Network Analysis (c) I = 12A (d) I = 9A
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper -I
1. Determine the equivalent resistance between Ans. (a) :
terminal A and B in the following circuit -
(a) 6.4Ω (b) 8.4Ω Apply KCL at loop (2)

(c) 10.5Ω (d) 9.6Ω 3VR − 5I − 4 − 2 ( I − 2 ) = 0
3  2 ( I − 2 )  − 5I − 4 − 2 ( I − 2 ) = 0
Ans. (b) :
6 ( I − 2 ) − 5I − 4 − 2 ( I − 2 ) = 0
4 ( I − 2 ) − 5I − 4 = 0
4I − 8 − 5I − 4 = 0
– I – 12 = 0
I = –12A
4. Find the voltage V1 with respect to ground in
R AB = 15 10 + 6 4 the figure given below -
R AB = 6 + 2.4
R AB = 8.4Ω
2. Determine the current ‘i1’ in the circuit of
figure shown below-
(a) 24V (b) 34V

(c) 10V (d) 5V
Ans. (b) :
(a) i1 = 0.125A (b) i1 = 0.0125A
(c) i1 = 1. 5A (d) i1 = 1.25A
Ans. (d) : Apply nodal at point A
Vx − 2Vx − 5 Vx Vx − 3
+ + =0
4 4 2
Vx − 2Vx − 5 + Vx + 2Vx − 6 = 0
From given circuit -
2Vx = 11 V − 24
Vx = 5.5 Volt 5= 1
2
5.5 − 3 2.5 10 = V1 – 24
i1 = = = 1.25A
2 2 V1 = 34 V
3. Obtain the current 'I' in the network shown 5. In the circuit shown in figure, determine the
below - value of ix -
Network Theory 13 YCT

(a) ix = 1A (b) ix = 1.5A 7. In the circuit of the figure, the voltage v(t) is
(c) ix = 0.14A (d) ix = 1.4A
10 − V1
Ans. (d) : i x =
2
V1 = 10 − 2i x ………….. (i)
(a) eat – ebt (b) eat + ebt
10 − V1 2i − V1 (c) aeat – bebt (d) aeat + bebt
+3+ x =0
2 1 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
10 − V1 + 6 + 4i x − 2V1 = 0 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper-I
GATE-2000
−3V1 + 4i x + 16 = 0 Ans. (d) :
Put the value of V1 from equation (i)
−3 (10 − 2i x ) + 4i x + 16 = 0
−30 + 6i x + 4i x + 16 = 0
10i x = 14
ix = 1.4A
6. Simplify circuit given below into current source Voltage across inductor–
-
V(t) = L
(
d eat + e bt )
dt
V ( t ) = aeat + b.ebt
8. Which is the value of the source current (Is) of
the given network in the figure?
(a) (a) 1.2 A (b) 12 A

(c) 1.2 mA (d) 12 mA
ESE-2022
Ans. (c) : Delta to star conversion in loop …(i)
(b)
(c)
Req = 6 + (6||12)
Req = 6 + 4 = 10kΩ
12
(d) IS = = 1.2 × 10−3 A
10kΩ
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper -I IS = 1.2 mA
Ans. (b) : Apply source conversion method - 9. The measure of a coil’s ability to produce flux
is called
(a) electromotive force
(b) magnetic lines of force
(c) magnetomotive force
(d) magnetism
ESE-2022
Ans. (c) : The measure of a coil’s ability to produce
flux is called magnetomotive force.
10. The voltage induced in a coil by a changing flux
will be of such a polarity that if a current could
flow as a result of that induced voltage, the flux
established by that current would oppose the
causing or original flux change. It is known as

(a) Faraday’s law Ans. (b) : Current (I) flowing through the 10Ω resistance
(b) Lenz’s law is zero because there is no any return path for current.
(c) Biot-Savart law 14. In the figure given below, the value of voltage
(d) Ampere’s circuital low drop across the resistor R1 is
ESE-2022
Ans. (b) : The Lenz's law gives the direction of induced
current.
According to this law, the induced current oppose the
cause that produces it.
11. Which one of the following represents a single
element such as a voltage source or a resistor? (a) 100 V (b) 10 V
(a) Branch (b) Node
(c) 1 V (d) 0.1 V
(c) Loop (d) Circuit
ESE-2022
ESE-2022
Ans. (b) : Applying voltage division rule -
Ans. (a) : Branch represents a single element such as a
Voltage drop across R1 resistor is -
voltage source or a resistor.
R1
12. The current I in the circuit shown is _____. VR1 = V ×
R1 + R 4
100
= 40 ×
400
VR1 = 10 Volt
15. The nodal method of circuit analysis is based
(a) 1.25 × 10–3 A (b) 0.75 × 10–3 A on
(c) –0.5 × 10–3 A (d) 1.16 × 10–3 A (a) KVL and Ohm's law
GATE-2022 (b) KCL and Ohm's Law
Ans. (b) : (c) KVL, KCL and Ohm's Law
(d) KVL and KCL
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-I
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
GATE-1998
Ans. (b) : For nodal method of circuit analysis is based
on Kirchhoff's current law and Ohm's law.
Apply to nodal analysis- 16. Compute the power absorbed in dependent
5−V V voltage source for the circuit shown below.
3
+ 10−3 =
2 × 10 2 ×103
5−V+2 V
=
2 × 103 2 × 103
5–V+2 = V
7–V = V
2V = 7
(a) 960 Watt (b) -960 Watt
V = 3.5 volt
(c) 1920 Watt (d) -1920 Watt
5 − 3.5 1.5
∴ Current (I)= = RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021
2 × 103 2 × 103 Ans. (d) :
–3
I = 0.75×10 A
13. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The
current I flowing through the 10 Ω resister is
_______.
Apply KVL in the circuit -

–120 + 30I +2VA – VA = 0
VA + 30I = 120...................(i)
(a) 1 A (b) 0 A VA = –15I.............................(ii)
(c) 0.1 A (d) –0.1 A from equation (i) and (ii) -
GATE-2022 –15I + 30I = 120
15I = 120 19.
I = 8A
Putting I = 8A in equation (ii)
VA = –15 × 8 = –120V
Power absorbed by dependent source-
P = 2VA.I
P = –120 × 8 × 2
P = –1920 Watt
17. Determine the value of i1 in the following In the given circuit, compute V2.
circuit: (a) –10 V (b) 10 V
(c) 15 V (d) –15 V
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
Ans. (a) : Apply KVL in loop
20 − 4 + V2 − 6 = 0
V2 = –10 V
20. What is the unit of sheet resistivity?
(a) Ohms per centimeter
(b) Ohms-centimeter
(c) Ohms per square centimeter
(d) Ohms-square centimeter
(a) -20 A (b) -40 A RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021
(c) -25 A (d) -22 A
ohm ohm
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 Ans. (c) : Unit of sheet resistance = 2
or
cm mm2
Ans. (a) :
21. Find the value of Current I2 for the network
shown in the given figure.
Current through 3Ω resistor -

I3Ω = 15–i1+3i1 (a) 6 A (b) 12 A
=15 + 2i1 (c) 2 A (d) 8 A
KVL in loop(1) UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
2i1 – 3(15 + 2i1) – (15 – i1) = 0 Ans. (d) :
2 i1 – 45 –6 i1 – 15 + i1 = 0
–3 i1 = 60
i1 = –20A
18. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Source transformations allow us to convert a
practical voltage source into a practical
current source, and vice versa.
(b) Repeated source transformations can greatly
simplify analysis of a circuit.
(c) Maximum power transfer occurs when the
loop resistance match the Thevenin Apply nodal at point Va-
equivalent resistance of the network to which Va − 36 Va
+ =9
it is connected. 12 6
(d) For nodal analysis, first make certain that the Va –36 +2Va = 108
network is a planar network. 3Va = 108 +36
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 3Va = 144
Ans. (d) : For nodal analysis it is not necessary to make Va = 48V
the network planar just indentify a proper node then we V 48
I2 = a = = 8A
can apply the nodal analysis. 6 6
22. (a) i1 = −2.5A and i 3 = 3.93A
(b) i1 = 7.5A and i3 = 2.5A
(c) i1 = 3.93A and i 3 = 2.14A
(d) i1 = −7.5A and i 3 = 3.93A
ESE-2021
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
Calculate the value of I3. Ans.(d) : In figure meshes 1& 2 and 2 & 3 are
(a) 4 A (b) 8 A supermesh because independent current source and
(c) 10 A (d) 6 A dependent current source are common respectively.
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021 Applying KVL to larger supermesh ,
Ans. (b) : Apply KCL at node- 6i2 + 2i1 + 4i3 + 8(i3 – i4) = 0
I1 + I4 = I 2 + I3 i1 + 3i2 + 6i3 – 4i4 = 0 ........... (i)
I3 = I1 + I 4 − I 2 from independent current source
i2 = i1 + 5 .......(ii)
I3 = 7 + 3 − 2 from dependent current source
I3 = 8A i2 = i3 + 3I0
23. Which of the following is a valid form of a i2 = i3 – 3i4 ................(iii) ∵{I0 = –i4}
voltage reference circuit? Now applying KVL in mesh 4
(a) Summing reference –10 = 2i4 + 8(i4–i3)
(b) Multiplexer voltage reference 5i4 – 4i3 = –5 .........(iv)
(c) Divider reference from equation (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Band gap reference i1 = –7.5A, i3 = 3.93A
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
Ans. (d) : Band gap reference is a valid form of a 26. What is the equivalent resistance Rab in the
voltage reference circuit. given circuit?
24. A wire of resistor 10 Ω is drawn out so that its
length is increased to twice its original length.
Then, the new resistance is
(a) 20 Ω (b) 5 Ω
(c) 30 Ω (d) 40 Ω
ESE-2021
Ans.(d) : Given that R1 = 10 Ω
When length is increased to double of original length by (a) 34.08 Ω (b) 11.20 Ω
wire drawn out. (c) 42.16 Ω (d) 17.82 Ω
ℓ ESE-2021
R1 = ρ 1 -------------(i) Ans.(b) :
a1
∴ According to question ℓ 2= 2ℓ1
∴ Volume of wire will be constant
So, V1 = V2
ℓ1 a 1 = ℓ2 a 2
a Solving to point d
a2 = 1
2 = (1+5)||4||12
  = 2.4||12
ℓ2  2ℓ1   ρℓ1  =2Ω
∴ R2 = ρ = ρ   = 4  Solving to point c
a2 a
 1   a1  = (2+1)||6||3
 2  = 2||3
R2 = 4R1 [Put equation (i) ]
=1.2 Ω
R2 = 4×10
∴Rab = 10+1.2 = 11.2 Ω
R2 = 40 Ω
27. Consider the following statements for
25. For the given circuit, the currents i1 and i3 are inductors:
1. An inductor acts like a short circuit to DC.
2. The current through an inductor cannot
change instantaneously.
3. The current through an inductor can
change instantaneously.
4. An inductor acts like an open circuit to
DC.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Apply nodal analysis at point VA -
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only I1 + I2 = I3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only 20 − VA 10 − VA VA
ESE-2021 + =
10 50 100
Ans.(b): When DC supply use than no instantaneously V
change in the current and voltage across the inductor will 100 - 5VA + 10 – VA = A
be zero and inductor behaves as a short circuit and current 2
through an inductor can't change instantaneously. 220
VA = = 16.92 V
28. Calculate output Vo for the given circuit. 13
Current in first loop -
20 − 16.92
I1 = = 0.3077A
10
Current in second loop -
16.92
I3 = = 0.169A
100
(a) 20 V (b) 40 V 30. The Req for the following network is .
(c) 60 V (d) 80 V
UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (a) :
In circuit 15||20
15 × 20 60
R eq = = Ω
35 7
(a) 4 Ω (b) 10 Ω
(c) 48 Ω (d) 2 Ω
Nodal analysis at point A UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
V0 − 80 V0 7 ( V0 + 40 ) Ans. (a) :
+ + =0
5 4 60
12V0 − 960 + 15V0 + 7V0 + 280
=0
60
34V0 = 680
V0 = 20V
29. Find the current in first and second loop,
respectively.
5
R eq = + ( 4.375 || 5)
3
Req = 1.66 + 2.33
Req = 4Ω
(a) 0.3077 A; 0.179 A (b) 0.3077 A; 0.169 A 31.
(c) 0.4077 A; 0.269 A (d) 0.3177 A; 0.169 A
Ans. (b) :
In the divider circuit, if RL is attached in

parallel to R2, the voltage across R1 doubles.
What is the value of RL?
(a) 1 kΩ (b) 2 kΩ Ans. (a) :
(c) 3 kΩ (d) 1.5 kΩ
UPMRC AM - 2020
Ans. (d) : Without RL –
R1 Apply KVL in loop ABCDA

VR1 = Vs ––––(i)
R1 + R 2 I I I
Now with 'RL' V = × 1 + ×1 + ×1
3 6 3
I I I
V= + +
3 6 3
1 1 1
Req = + +
3 6 3
5
R eq = Ω
R1 6
VR' 1 = Vs –––––(2)
R1 + R eq 33. A network contains linear resistors and ideal
Given that - voltage sources. If values of all the resistors are
doubled, then voltage across each resistor is
VR' 1 = 2VR1 (a) Halved (b) Doubled
from equation (i) & (ii) we have - (c) Increases by 4 times (d) Remains the same
VS R1 2VS R1 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
= Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
R1 + R eq R1 + R 2 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I
R1 R 2 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
+ = R1 + R e q GATE-1993
2 2
R − R1 Ans. (d) : A network contains linear resistors and ideal
Req = 2 voltage source. If values of all the resistors are doubled,
2 then current across the resistor will be half and the
3 −1 voltage across each resistor will be the same.
Req = = 1kΩ
2 34. Kirchhoff's Laws fail in case of
since Req = R2RL, we have (a) Linear networks
1 1 1 (b) Non-linear networks
= + (c) Dual networks
R eq R 2 R L
(d) Distributed parameter networks
1 1 1 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
= −
R L R eq R 2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
1 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
= 1− Ans. (d) : Kirchhoff's laws applicable for
3 (i) Unilateral and bilateral network
RL = 1.5kΩ (ii) Active or passive network
32. Twelve 1 Ω resistance are used as edges to form (iii) Linear or non- linear
a cube. The resistance between two diagonally (iv) Lumped network
opposite corners of the cube is (v) Dual network
5 35. In the interconnection of ideal sources shown in
(a) Ω (b) 1Ω
6 the figure, it is known that the 60 V source is
6 3 absorbing power.
(c) Ω (d) Ω
5 2
I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I 1
TANGEDCO- 2015
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012, Paper-I
GATE-2003
Which of the following can be value of the 38. An inductance of 1 H is realized using air core
current source I? with 100 turns. What will be the inductance if
(a) 10 A (b) 13 A the number of turns are doubled?
(c) 15 A (d) 18 A (a) 1 H (b) 0.5 H
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017 (c) 2 H (d) None of these
NIELIT Scientists - 2017 ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 Ans. (d) : As given that,
GATE-2009 L1 = 1H , N1 = 100
Ans. (a) : It is given that 60V voltage source is always L2 = ? N2 = 200
absorbing power, so that the current on 60V voltage We know that,
source entering at (+ve) terminal of voltage source at
leaving at (–ve) terminal. µ µ N2A
L= 0 r
Let I1 be the current on 60 volt of voltage source ℓ
Thus, L∝N 2
I + I1 = 12 2
L1  N1   100  1
2
or I = 12 − I1 =  =  =
L 2  N 2   200  4
It is clear from above assumptions that I is always less L2=4L1
than 12A
L2 = 4H
Therefore from hit and trial method option (A) is correct.
36. A delta-connected network with its star 39. An inductor of inductance 0.1 H, carrying
equivalent is shown in the figure below. The current of 6 Amps will store energy of
resistance R1, R2 and R3 (in ohms) are (a) 6 Joules (b) 36 Joules
respectively. (c) 1.8 Joules (d) 3.6 Joules
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
Ans. (c) : L = 0.1H, I = 6A
1
Stored energy (E) = LI2
2
1 1
= × 0.1× 62 = × 0.1× 36
2 2
(a) 1.5, 3 and 9 (b) 3, 9 and 1.5 = 1.8 Joules
(c) 9, 3 and 1.5 (d) 3, 1.5 and 9 40. Following four resistances are connected in
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 parallel; the largest power is dissipated by…
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 1) 2.4 Ω, 1 W 2) 5.1Ω, 2W
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014 3) 10Ω, 5W 4) 22 Ω, 10 W
Ans. (b) : (a) 2.4Ω, 1W (b) 5.1Ω, 2W
(c) 10Ω, 5W (d) 22Ω, 10W
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
Ans. (a) : As we know that:-
In parallel combination, the voltage across each branch
remains same.
R1 ,R 2 ,R 3 = ? V2
Power ( P ) =
5 × 30 R
R1 = = 3Ω 1
50 so, ↑ P ∝
30 × 15 R↓
R2 = = 9Ω
50 So, branch with minimum resistance have largest power
5 ×15 3 dissipation.
R3 = = = 1.5Ω In given option, 2.4 Ω and 1W gives the largest power
50 2
dissipation.
37. An ideal current meter should have
(a) Zero resistance 41. In the circuit shown below, the current through
(b) Finite resistance 10 Ω resistor is:
(c) Infinite resistance
(d) Very large resistance
Ans. (a) : An ideal current meter should have zero
resistance and an ideal voltmeter should have infinite
resistance.
The internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is zero (a) 5A (b) 10 A
and the internal resistance of an ideal current source is (c) -5A (d) None of these
infinite. ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
Ans. (d) : (a) 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω
(c) 4 Ω (d) 0.5 Ω
Ans. (b) :
Apply Nodal analysis at node V

150 − V V + 150 V Put RAB = Req
= +
20 20 10
150 − V − V − 150 V
=
20 10
–2V = 2V
–4V = 0
V=0
V 0 2 × R eq
I= = R eq = 1 +
10 10 2 + R eq
I10Ω = 0 A
42. The rms value of the periodic waveform as 2 + R eq + 2 R eq
R eq =
shown in figure is 2 + Req
2 R eq + R eq
2
= 2 + 3R eq
2
R eq − R eq − 2 = 0
When compared to, ax2 + bx + c = 0
a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
(a) 3 / 2A (b) 2 / 3A
−b ± b 2 − 4ac
(c) 1/ 3A (d) 2A R eq =
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 2a
( −1)
2
1 T 2 1± − 4 × 1 × −2
R eq =
T ∫0
Ans. (b) : Arms = A dt
2 ×1
1± 1+ 8
1  T / 2  2A  
2
T R eq =
 ∫0  t  dt + ∫ ( −A ) dt 
2
= 2
T   T  T/2
 1± 3
R eq =
4A 2 T/2 A2 T 2
=
T3 ∫ 0
t 2 dt +
T ∫T/2
dt On taking (–ve) sign -
−2
T/2 R eq = = −1 [not possible]
4A 2  t3  A2 T 2
=   + [t] On taking (+ve) sign -
T3  3 0 T T/2
4
R eq = = 2 [possible]
4A 2 T 3 A 2  T 2
= × +  T − 2 
3T 3 8 T Req = 2Ω
44. For a network shown in figure, Calculate
A2 A2
= + current i2.
6 2
A 2 + 3A 2 4A 2 2
= = = A
6 6 3
43. The approximate equivalent resistance between
terminals A and B for the following infinite
ladder network comprising of 1 Ω & 2 Ω (a) 2/3 A (b) 3/2 A
resistors is : (c) 1/3 A (d) None of the above
Ans.(a): Apply superposition theorem -
2V Voltage source is replace with short circuit . The
bridge is balanced bridge then I2 = 0 for considering 1A
and 4V source individually.
Ans. (a) :
Apply Nodal analysis at point V.

V − 50 V
+ +4 =0
6 7
7V − 350 + 6V + 168
=0
42
13V + 168 – 350 = 0
182
V=
13
V = 14
V
∵ R=
I
14
R=
4
R = 3.5 Ω
46. For the circuit shown in the given figure, the
voltage VAB is
(a) 6 V (b) 10 V
(c) 25 V (d) 40 V
Ans. (a) :
9 3 12
Req = + = = 3Ω
4 4 4
2
i2 = A
3
2
+0+0 A
So, total current (i2) =
3 Apply Nodal analysis at node A.
2 VA +10 VA VA − 50
i2 = A + + =0
3 5 5 10
2VA + 20 + 2VA + VA – 50 = 0
45. The value of resistance R shown in the given
figure is 5VA = 30
VA = 30
VA = VAB = 6 V
47. The equivalent capacitance across 'ab' will be
(a) 3.5 Ω (b) 2.5 Ω

(c) 1Ω (d) 4.5Ω
(a) 0.2 µF (b) 0.1 µF Ans. (b) : Given circuit is -
(c) 0.5 µF (d) 0
IES-1992, 1993
Ans. (b) : The circuit can be redrawn as:
equivalent circuit can be drawn as:-
The bridge is balanced and the current through middle

branch will be 0.
R X1X = 20 + ( 40 || 44 )
2
∴ Cab = C1 + C2 40 × 44
= 20 + = 20 + 20.94 = 40.94
= 0.05 + 0.05 84
Cab = 0.1µF R X1 X2 ≃ 40Ω
48. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in 50. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of
(a) Dielectric two resistors is 12Ω. One of the resistance wires
(b) Metal plates breaks and the effective resistance becomes
(c) Dielectric as well as metal plates 18Ω. The resistance of the broken wire is
(d) Neither dielectric nor metal plates (a) 48 Ω (b) 18 Ω
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 (c) 36 Ω (d) 24 Ω
Ans. (a) : In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
dielectric. Ans. (c) :
ε0 ε r A 1
C= E C = CV 2
d 2
Two conductors are separate by Insulator and when an
electric field is applied electrical energy is stored in it as
a charge.
49. The approximate equivalent resistance at the R1 × R 2
R eq =
points X1 and X2 in the circuit shown below R1 + R 2
R × R2
12 = 1 ................ (i)
R1 + R 2
If one resistance is break then
(a) 60 Ω (b) 40 Ω
(c) 80 Ω (d) 20 Ω
Req = R1 Ans. (c) :
R1 = 18 Ω
from equation (i) -
18 × R 2
12 =
18 + R 2
216 + 12R2 = 18R2
216 = 6 R2 1 1 1 2 1 7
⇒ + + = + =
R2 = 36Ω 3 3 2 3 2 6
The resistance of the broken wire is 36Ω. 6
= µF
51. For the circuit shown below the current I 7
flowing through the circuit will be
6 20
⇒ 2+ = µF
7 7
(a) 1/ 2A (b) 1 A
(c) 2 A (d) 4 A
Ans. (c) : All 3Ω resistors are connected in parallel
1 1 1
⇒ + +
3 3 20 / 7
2 7 40 + 21 61
⇒ + = =
3 20 60 60
60
= µF
61
R 3
Req = = =1Ω
3 3
hence, Req = 1Ω
60 122 + 60 182
⇒ 2+ = = µF
61 61 61
V 2
I= = = 2A 1 1 1 1
R eq 1 = + +
CAB 3 3 182 / 61
52. In the circuit if C1 = 2 µF and C2 = 3 µF, the
equivalent capacitance between points A and B 1 2 61
= +
is: CAB 3 182
1 364 + 183
=
CAB 546
1 547
=
CAB 546
546
CAB = = 0.998µF
(a) 4 µF (b) 3 µF 547
(c) 1 µF (d) 2 µF CAB ≃ 1µF
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
53. A practical current source is usually 1F and 1F in parallel-
represented by Ceq = 1F + 1F = 2F
(a) A resistance in series with an ideal current
source.
(b) A resistance in parallel with an ideal current
source. B
(c) A resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage
source.
(d) None of the above
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 Star to delta conversion in capacitors at point ABC
Ans. (b) : A practical current source usually have some
resistance value connected in parallel with current
source while in Ideal current source has infinite value of
resistance connected with current source.
54. An electric iron designed for 110V AC supply
was rated at 500W. It was put across a 220V
supply. Assuming that at 110V it supplied
500W output (i.e. no losses) at the new voltage C1 = 4 × 2 = 8 = 4 F
it will supply 4 + 4 + 2 10 5
(a) 2500W (b) 250W 4× 2 4
(c) 500W (d) 2000W C2 = = F
10 5
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 4× 4 8
Ans. (d) : As given that, V = 110, P = 500W C3 = = F
10 5
V 2
110 ×110 11×11 Ω 8
R= = = 2F || F
P 500 5 5
V 2
220 × 220 × 5 8 18F
P= = = 2000W 2F + F =
R 11× 11 5 5
55. What is the value of C such that equivalent 4
capacitance across x-y is 5F. 2F || F
5
4 14
2F + F = F
5 5
18F 14
and F are in series
5 5
18 14
F× F
5 5 = 63 F
18F 14
+ F 40
5 5
63 4
F & F are in parallel -
40 5
(a) 20F (b) 23F
63 4 63 + 32 95 19
(c) 22F (d) 21F Ceq = F+ F = F= F= F
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 40 5 40 40 8
Ans. (d) : 19 3C 
CXY =  F and are in parallel
8 3 + C 
19 3C
5= +
8 3+ C
40 − 19 3C
=
8 3+ C
3C = 63
C = 21 F
56. With fixed value capacitor C and variable
3F and C in series-
voltage V across it, the energy stored in the
3× C 3C
Ceq = = F capacitor is
3+ C 3+ C (a) CV2 (b) 0.5 CV2
1F and 3F are in parallel (c) 2 CV 2
(d) CV
Ceq = 1 + 3 = 4F ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
Ans. (b) : Energy stored in the capacitor- 59. Two resistance R1 and R2 give combined
1 resistance of 4.5 ohms when in series and 1 ohm
E = CV 2 when in parallel. The resistances are
2 (a) 3 ohms and 6 ohms
E = 0.5CV 2 J (b) 3 ohms and 9 ohms
57. Three resistors of 6 Ω each are connected as (c) 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms
shown in the following fig. The equivalent (d) 1.5 ohms and 0.5 ohms
resistance between X1 and X2 is ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
Ans. (c) : As given that,
R1 + R2 = 4.5 Ω
R1 R 2
= 1Ω
R1 + R 2
R1 (4.5 – R1) = R1 + (4.5 – R1)
(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω 2
R1 − 4.5R1 + 4.5 = 0
(c) 8 Ω (d) 12 Ω (R1 – 3) (R1 – 1.5) = 0
TNPSC AE-2008 R1 = 3 Ω
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 R2 = 1.5 Ω
Ans. (a) : Re-arranging the circuit:- 60. Which of the following bulbs will have the least
resistance?
(a) 220V, 60 W (b) 220 V, 100 W
(c) 115 V, 60 W (d) 115 V, 100 W
Ans. (d) : By checking option -
V 2 220 × 220
(i) R1 = = = 806.67 Ω
P 60
V 2 220 × 220
(ii) R 2 = = = 484 Ω
1 1 1 1 P 100
= + +
R x1x 2 6 6 6 V 2 115 × 115
(iii) R 3 = = = 220.42 Ω
6 P 60
R x1x 2 =
3 V 2 115 × 115
(iv) R 4 = = = 132.25 Ω
R x1x 2 = 2Ω P 100
58. Two bulbs marked 200 watt-250 volts and 100 for least resistance, power should be more and voltage
watt-250 volts are joined is series to 250 volt should be less.
supply. Power consumed in circuits is 61. A resistance of 5 ohms is further drawn so that
(a) 33 watt (b) 67 watt its length becomes double. Its resistance will
(c) 100 watt (d) 300 watt now be
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I (a) 5 ohms (b) 7.5 ohms
(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms
Ans. (b) : Ans. (c) : As given that,
R1 = 5Ω, R2 = ?
ℓ1 = ℓ, ℓ2 = 2ℓ
ρℓ
R=
A
R∝ ℓ
R 2 ℓ 2 2ℓ
= =
R 1 ℓ1 ℓ
R2 = 2R1 = 2×5 = 10Ω
62. The power rating of a 470 ohm resistor
In series circuit then power is parallel - carrying a current of 40 mA should be
100 × 200 (a) 1/4 W (b) 1/2 W
Peq = (c) 2 W (d) 1 W
300
200
Peq = Ans. (*) : P = I 2R
3 P = 40 × 40 × 10–6 × 470
Peq = 66.67 W
P = 752 × 10–3
Peq ≃ 67 W P = 0.75 W
63. Equivalent Resistance between X and Y is 66.
Choose the wrong statement. In the nodal
analysis, the choice of a reference node does not
(a) affect the voltages of various nodes
(b) affect the operation of the circuit
(c) change the voltage across any element
(d) alter the potential difference between any pair
nodes
(a) 75 Ω (b) 50 Ω TNPSC AE - 2018
(c) 275 Ω (d) None of above Ans. (a) : In nodal analysis, the choice of reference
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 node affects the value of Voltages of various reference
Ans. (a) : Equivalent circuit:- node.
67. Minimum no. of resistors required to form a
series-parallel circuit is
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
75 TNPSC AE - 2018
Rxy = 50 +
3 Ans. (b) : For series parallel combination–
= 50 + 25 = 75 Ω R1 R3
64. Determine the value of voltage V1 in the figure
shown below.
at least 3 resistor required to from a series-parallel

circuit
68. What is the power absorbed in the 5Ω resistor?
The value of voltage V1 in volts is

(a) 100 V (b) 14.28 V
(c) 50 V (d) 68.25 V
Ans. (a) : The figure, as given in the question is further
simplified as - (a) 0.8 W (b) 0.6 W
(c) 0.5 W (d) 0.4 W
TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (a) : Voltage across 5Ω resistor = 2V
V 2 22 4
P= = = = 0.8 W
R 5 5
69. Determine the value indicated by a DC
voltmeter for the waveform given below
By applying Nodal analysis at node, we gets-

V1 V1 V1
+ + + 5 = 0.2V1
25 10 100
4V1+10V1+V1+500 = 20V1
5V1 = 500
V1 = 100V
65. For a particular toroidal inductor core, the
inductance value obtained for 50 Turns is
200µH. If two such inductors are wired in (a) 0 V (b) 2.5 V
parallel, the resulting inductance is (c) 10 V (d) 5 V
(a) 200 µH (b) 50 µH ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008
(c) 400 µH (d) 100 µΗ
Ans. (b) : D.C voltmeters are measures only average
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 values.
Ans. (d) : If two inductors are connected in parallel
1
then overall inductance is given as : ∴ Vavg = × [10 × 10]
40
L1 × L 2 200 × 200 40000
L eq = = = 100
L1 + L 2 200 + 200 400 = = 2.5V
40
= 100µH Vavg = 2.5V
70. The value of R for i = 2A is Z b Zc
∴ Z1 =
Z a + Z b + Zc
Za Z c
Z2 =
Z a + Z b + Zc
Za Z b
Z3 =
Z a + Z b + Zc
(a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω Option (d) is correct.
(c) 40 Ω (d) 60 Ω
73. For the Delta-Wye transformation in figure,
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 the value of the resistance R is
Ans. (d) : As given circuit,
VA
Apply nodal analysis at point VA:-

VA − 40 1 2
+ 2 − 10 = 0 (a) Ω (b) Ω
10 3 3
VA − 40 3
=8 (c) Ω (d) 3Ω
10 2
VA = 120 V DRDO-2008
V 120 Ans. (a) : Given that R∆ = 1Ω
R= A = = 60 Ω
I 2 R
Ry = ∆
71. If each branch of a delta circuit has impedance 3
√3Z, then each branch of the equivalent Wye 1
circuit has impedance Ry = Ω
3
(a) Z/√3 (b) 3Z 74. Three resistance of 15Ω each are connected in
(c) 3√3Z (d) Z/3 delta. The resistance of equivalent star will
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018 have a value of
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 (a) 7Ω (b) 5Ω
Ans. (a) : If each branch of a delta circuit has (c) 9Ω (d) 2Ω
impedance = 3Z Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
Z TANGEDCO AE- 2018
Then , Z y = ∆ Ans. (b) : When three equal resistance are connected in
3
(when all impedances are same) delta connection then –
Z∆ = 3.Z y
Z∆ 3Z Z
Zy = = = 15
3 3 3 Zy =
72. If the ∆ impedances are Za, Zb and Zc and the y 3
impedance are Z1, Z2 and Z3 then which one of Z y = 5Ω
the following relations is correct? 75. The development of nodal equations is based
1 on
(a) Z1 = Za Zb Zc (b) Z1 = (a) KVL (b) KCL
Za + Z b + Zc
(c) Ohm's Law (d) Ampere's Law
Z b Zc GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
(c) Z1 = Za + Zb + Zc (d) Z1 =
Za + Z b + Zc Ans. (b) : Nodal equation is based on Kirchhoff's current
UPMRC AM - 2020 law, (KCL) states that "The algebraic sum of all currents
Ans. (d) : entering and exiting a node must be equal to zero".
76. When the plate area of parallel plate capacitor
increases keeping the capacitor voltage
Zb Zc constant, the force between the plates
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
Za (d) may increase of decrease
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
Ans. (a) : When the plate area of a parallel plate Ans. (d) :
capacitor increases keeping the capacitor voltage Colour Digit Multiplier Tolerance
constant, the force between the plates increases. (%)
Plate area of parallel plate capacitor increases, The Black 0 10° = 1
capacitance increases. Brown 1 101 1
ε ε A↑ Red 2 102 2
↑C= 0 r
d Orange 3 103
Voltage is constant capacitance increase so charge Yellow 4 104
q↑ Green 5 105 0.5
increases ↑C∝ (V = constant) 6
V Blue 6 10 0.25
charge increases so force increases. Violet 7 107 0.1
qq ↑ Gray 8 108
↑ F ∝ 1 22
r White 9 109
–1
77. For carbon resistors what is the color for 5? Gold 10 5
(a) green (b) black Silver 10–2 10
–2
(c) orange (d) gray None 10 20
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I 5 – Stand for green
Ans. (a) : For carbon resistor, the colour for 5 is Green. 7 – Stands for violet
Colour Digit Multiplier Tolerance (%) 104 – For yellow
Black 0 100 = 1 + 55 K is for none.
Brown 1 101 1 80. The colour band on the extreme left in general
Red 2 102 2 purpose fixed resistors represents:
Orange 3 103 (a) Tolerance
Yellow 4 104 (b) First significant digit
Green 5 105 0.5
(c) Wattage Rating
Blue 6 106 0.25
(d) Voltage Rating
Violet 7 107 0.1
Gray 8 108 RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016
White 9 109 Ans. (b) : The colour band on the extreme left in
Gold 10–1 5 general purpose fixed resistors represents first
Silver 10–2 10 significant digit.
None 10–2 20
78. If the color code of a carbon composition
resistance is “orange, orange, red, gold”, its
value will be
(a) 2200 ohms ± 5%
(b) 3300 ohms ± 10%
(c) 22000 ohms ± 100%
A = First significant digit
(d) 3300 ohms ± 5%
B = Second significant digit
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
C = Multiplier
Ans. (d) : As given color codes are ,
D = Tolerance
orange, orange, red, gold
E = Temperature coefficient
Orange → 3
Red → 102 formula - AB ×10C ± Tolerance
Gold → ± 5% 81. The four band colour code on a carbon
formula →AB×10C ± Tolerance composite resistor is as follows:
Hence , 33×102 ± 5% First band colour : Yellow
R = 3300Ω ±5% Second band colour : Violet
Third band colour : Red
79. A color coded carbon composition resistance of
Fourth band colour : Silver
570K ± 55K is represented by:
(a) Green, violet, silver The specification of the resistor is
(b) Yellow, orange, gold (a) 25 kΩ ± 10% (b) 4.7 kΩ ± 10%
(c) Green, yellow, gold (c) 6.8 kΩ ± 5% (d) 46 kΩ ± 2%
(d) None of these Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 IES-2015
Ans.(b):The colour code of the carbon resistor is given as– 84. The colour bands on a fixed carbon resistor are
Colour Digit Multiplier Tolerance (%) : brown, red and black. Its value is
Black 0 10° = 1 (a) 12 ohm (b) 21 ohm
Brown 1 101 1 (c) 120 ohm (d) 210 ohm
2
Red 2 10 2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
Orange 3 103 Ans. (a) :
Yellow 4 104
5 Colour Digit Multiplier Tolerance
Green 5 10 0.5
Blue 6 10 6
0.25 (%)
Violet 7 10 7
0.1 Black 0 10° = 1
Gray 8 108 Brown 1 101 1
White 9 10 9
Red 2 102 2
Gold 10–1 5 Orange 3 103
Silver 10–2 10 Yellow 4 104
None 10–2 20 Green 5 105 0.5
Formula for the resistance– Blue 6 106 0.25
2
A= 4, B = 7, C = 10
Violet 7 107 0.1
R = AB×10C ± tolerance 8
R = 47×10 ± 10%
2 Gray 8 10
R = 4.7 kΩ ± 10%. White 9 109
–1
82. What does the fourth color band on a resistor Gold 10 5
mean? Silver 10–2 10
(a) The value of the resistor in ohms None 10–2 20
(b) The power rating in watts Hence, Brown, red and black
(c) The resistance material
(d) The resistance tolerance in percent formula, R = AB×10C ± tolerance
RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I R = 12×10 ± 20%
0
Ans. (d) : R = 12Ω ± 20%

85. Resistivity of a wire depends on
(a) length (b) material
(c) cross sectional area (d) none of these
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
R = ab×10C ± d%
a→ digit Ans. (b) : Resistivity is the property of the material
b→ digit which depends on the nature and the composition of the
c→ multiplier material so effected by temperature also.
d→ tolerance in percent 86. Resistance of a wire is r ohms. The wire is
fourth colour band on a resistor mean the resistance stretched to double its length then its resistance
tolerance in percent. in ohms is
83. The color code of 1k Ω resistance is (a) r/2 (b) 4r
(a) black, brown, red (b) red, brown, brown (c) 2r (d) r/4
(c) brown, black, red (d) black, black, red RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-III
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Given that, Ans. (b) : When length will be doubled, area will be
R = 1 kΩ = 1000Ω = 10×10 Ω 2
half. So
Formula, R = AB×10C ± Tolerance R1 = r, R2 = ?
A = 1, B = 0, C = 2 ℓ1 = ℓ , ℓ 2 = 2 ℓ
Colour Number Degree
Black 0 10 0 A1 = A , A2 = A/2
Brown 1 101 R 2 ρ ℓ 2 A1
Red 2 102 =
3 R 1 ρ ℓ1 A 2
Orange 3 10
Yellow 4 104 2ℓ A
R 2 = R1 × × = 4.R1
Green 5 105 ℓ A/2
6
Blue 6 10
Violet 7 107 R 2 = 4R1
Gray 8 108 Hence, R2 = 4r
White 9 109 87. When P = Power, V = Voltage, I = Current, R =
hence, Brown, Black, Red– Resistance and G = Conductance. Which of the
• The first two colours tell the first two digit in the following relation in incorrect?
resistance value. (a) V = √ (PR) (b) P = V2G
• The third band tells how many zeros follow, the first (c) G = P/I 2
(d) I = √ (P/R)
two digits.
Ans. (c) : (d) Two resistors of 500Ω each, in parallel and the
V2 combination in series with another 500Ω resistor
P = VI = = V2G - option (b) is correct. Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
R
Ans. (d) :
V = PR - option (a) is correct.
P = i2R
P
I= - option (d) is correct.
R
R .R 500 × 500
88. For dc voltage an inductor behaves like a R eq = R + = 500 +
(a) short circuit R+R 1000
(b) open circuit = 500 + 250
(c) depends on polarity = 750Ω
(d) depends on voltage Hence, Two resistors of 500Ω each, in parallel and the
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I combination in series with another 500Ω resistor gives
Ans. (a) : For DC voltage, f=0 an effective resistance of 750Ω.
X L = 2πfL 93. Two bulbs of 100W/ 250 V and 150W/250 V are
connected in series across a supply of 250 V.
XL = 2π×0×L = 0 The power consumed by the circuits is
XL = 0 (a) 100 W (b) 60 W
Hence, short circuited. (c) 100 W (d) 250 W
89. Which of the following theorem is a Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
manifestation of the law of conservation of Ans. (b) :As given that,
energy?
(a) Thevenin's theorem
(b) Tellegen's theorem
(c) Reciprocity theorem
(d) Compensation theorem
Ans. (b) : Tellegen's theorem is a manifestation of the
law of conservation of energy. P1 = 100 W P2 = 150 W
Tellegen's theorem states that the power consumed by hence, net consumed power by circuit is –
all the passive element is always equal to power
P ⋅P 100 × 150
delivered by all active elements. P= 1 2 =
90. If ID = 10mA at VD = 1V at a point of operation, P1 + P2 250
then maximum power dissipation is P = 60W
(a) 1.0 mW (b) 1.0 W
(c) 0.1 mW (d) 10 mW 94. A circuit having neither any energy source nor
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I emf source is called
(a) Unilateral circuit (b) Bilateral circuit
Ans. (d) : Power dissipation (P) = VD × ID
(c) Passive circuit (d) Active circuit
P = 1 ×10×10–3
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
P = 10 mW
Ans. (c) : A circuit having neither any energy source
91. Voltage is a form of nor emf source is called passive circuit.
(a) potential energy A passive element can't introduce net energy into the circuit.
(b) kinetic energy Examples of passive elements are-
(c) either kinetic or potential energy
• Resistors • Capacitors
(d) none of the above
• Inductors • Transformers.
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Ans. (a) : Voltage is a form of 'potential energy' this is 95. The constant voltage source is
due to the fact that voltage is expressed as the potential (a) Active and bilateral
P.E (b) Passive and bilateral
energy per unit charge i.e. V= (c) Active and unilateral
Q (d) Passive and unilateral
Joule Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
Volt =
Coulomb Ans. (c) : A constant voltage source is active and
92. How are 500Ω resistors connected so as to give unilateral. It has very low source resistance.
an effective resistance of 750Ω? Active element- The element that supply energy to the
(a) Three resistors of 500Ω each, in parallel circuit is called active element.
(b) Three resistors of 500Ω each, in series Unilateral element - These elements allow conduction
(c) Two resistors of 500Ω each, in parallel of current in only one direction.
96. Ideal current source have Apply Nodal at node A -
(a) Zero internal resistance I1+I3 = I2
(b) Infinite internal resistance 10 − VA V
(c) Low value of voltage +5 = A
(d) Large value of current 5 5
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I 10–VA + 25 = VA
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I 2VA = 35
Ans. (b) : An ideal current source has infinite internal VA = Vout = 17.5V
resistance connected in parallel with current source. A
practical current source has very high source resistance. So voltage across the current source is 17.5Volt.
99. In the circuit shown below Vi/IL is equal to
= ∞ Hence, open circuited
RL = ∞
97. In a circuit shown below, the voltage and
current sources are ideal. The voltage (Vout) (a) 805 Ω (b) 205 Ω
across the current source is (c) 105 Ω (d) 405 Ω
Ω
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
Ans. (b) :
(a) 0 V (b) 5V
(c) 10 V (d) 20 V Vi − Va Va − Vb Va
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I = + ………… (i)
10 10 5
Ans. (d) :
5A Va − Vb Vb Vb
= + ……………(ii)
− + 10 5 15
From figure-
Vout Vb
= I L ⇒ Vb = 15I L
15
From equation (ii)
Apply KVL in the loop-
Va − 15I L 15I L 15I L
–Vout + 2 × 5 + 10 = 0 = +
Vout = 10 + 10 10 5 15
Vout = 20V V 15I
a
= L
+ 4I L
10 10
98. What is the voltage across the current source
for the below-shown circuit? Va = 55I L
5Ω
From equation (i)-
Vi − 55I L 55I L − 15I L 55I L
= +
10 10 5
5Ω
Vi 55I L
= + 4I L + 11IL
10 10
Vi = 55I L + 150I L
(a) 5V (b) 7.5 V Vi
(c) 12.5 V (d) 17.5 V = 205Ω
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I I L
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 100. A network contains only an independent
Ans. (d) : current source and resistors. If the values of all
5Ω
A V I3 resistors are doubled, the value of the node
I
1
2I voltage will-
5Ω
(a) remain unchanged (b) become half
(c) become double (d) become zero
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
Ans. (c) : Let I1, I2, I3.......... are independent current 102. Consider the following circuit
source which are connected in parallel with resistors
R1,R2, R3,........
find current I in the above circuit.

VA VA VA (a) 0 A (b) 2 A
I1+I2+I3+....= + + + ...
R1 R 2 R 3 (c) 5 A (d) 6 A
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
 1 1 1 
= VA  + +  Ans. (a) :
 R1 R 2 R 3 
I1 + I2 + I3 + .......
VA =
 1 1 1 
 + + + ....... 
R
 1 R 2 R 3 
Now according to question, if the values of all resistors
are doubled then,
I1 + I2 + I3 + ....... 2 ( I1 + I 2 + I3 + .......)
VA1 = =
 1 1 1   1 1 1 
 + + + .......   + + + ....... 
 12R 2R 2R  R
 1 R R 
2 3 2 3
60 − Va Va − Vb Va
  = +
  10 10 20
VA1 = 2
( I1 + I 2 + I 3 + ....... )  120 − 2Va = 2Va − 2Vb + Va
 1 1 1 
 + + + .......   −5Va + 2Vb = −120
  R1 R 2 R 3   5Va − 2Vb = 120 …………..(i)
VA1 = 2VA
Va − Vb Vb Vb − 60
Hence, the value of node voltage will become double. = +
10 20 10
101. The equivalent resistance RAB in the circuit is 2Va − 2Vb = Vb + 2Vb − 120
2Va − 5Vb = −120 …………….(ii)
From equation (i)×2 and (ii)×5
Va = 40V, Vb = 40V
Va − Vb 40 − 40
= I=
(a) 10 Ω (b) 12 Ω (c) 9 Ω (d) 3 Ω 10 10
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011 = 0A
Ans. (c) : 103. The three primary colours are
(a) Red, Yellow, Orange (b) Red, Blue, Yellow
(c) Red, Blue, Cyan (d) Red, Blue, Green
TNPSC AE-2014
Ans. (d) : Red, Blue and Green are the primary colors
of light. A mixture of two primary colors of light can
Apply star to delta conversion- make cyan, yellow or magenta. A mixture of all three
makes white colour.
A Primary colours are colours that can not be created
through the mixing of other colours.
104. With the increase in temperature, the
B
resistance of the pure metals
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
TNPSC AE-2008
Ans. (a) : We know that,
Rt = R0 (1 + αt)
18 × 18 α = Temperature coefficient of resistance
R AB =
36 α is always positive for metal. Hence resistance will
RAB = 9Ω increase as temperature increase.
105. Which of the following statements is false in (a) R1 (b) R2
case of a series circuit? (c) R3
(a) The voltage drop across each resistor is the (d) all of these are with same resistance
same TNPSC AE-2008
(b) The current flowing through each resistor is Ans. (c) : Resistance of any circuit or element is the
the same ratio of voltage and current for lower slope (gradient),
(c) Applied voltage is equal to the sum of the lower will be the value of resistance.
voltage drops across individual resistors
(d) Resistors are additive V↓
=R↓
TNPSC AE-2008 I↑
Ans. (a) : For a series circuit– Hence, R3 will have least value.
V = I(R1 + R2 + R3 + ................ + Rn) 109. A capacitor
V = IR1+ IR2+ IR3+ .............+I.Rn (a) offers easy path to a.c. but blocks d.c.
V = V1 + V2 + V3 + ................. + Vn (b) offers easy path to d.c. but blocks a.c.
Voltage drop in series circuit depends on their each (c) offers easy path to both a.c. and d.c.
circuit resistances. (d) blocks a.c.
106. Which of the following relations is not correct? Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
V TNPSC AE-2008
(a) P = 2 (b) P = VI Ans. (a) : A capacitor offers easy path to a.c. but blocks
R
d.c.
P For capacitor, the capacitive reactance is given by
(c) I = (d) V = PR
R 1
TNPSC AE-2008 XC =
2πfC
Ans. (a) : We know that, For DC f=0 XC = ∞ Block dc.
W For AC f≠0 XC ≠ ∞ Allow ac.
V=
Q 110. Unit of density is
W (a) kg/m3 (b) g/m3
V= (c) kg/m 2
(d) kg/m
I× t
W TNPSC AE-2008
V×I= Ans. (a) : Unit of density = kg/m3
t
P = VI Mass = Volume × Density
From Ohm's law, Mass kg
V = IR Density = = 3
Volume m
P 111. If the diameter of a current carrying conductor
P = I2R and I = is doubled, its current carrying capacity will
R
become
V2 (a) Two times (b) Half
P= (c) Four times
R
(d) No change in current carrying capacity
107. All the rules and laws which apply to dc Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
networks also apply to ac networks consisting MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
of
Ans. (c) : Current carrying capacity of any conductor
(a) resistance only (b) inductance only depends on cross sectional area of conductor.
(c) capacitance only (d) all of these
ℓ
TNPSC AE-2008 R =ρ
Ans. (a) : All the rules and laws which apply to dc A
networks also apply to ac networks consisting of 1
resistance only because in case of dc there is only ∵R ∝
I
resistive part presents while capacitive and inductive
2
parts are absent but resistance is common in both ac & R1 I 2 A 2  d 2 
dc network. ∝ = = 
R 2 I1 A1  d1 
108. The resistor with least resistance is
if the diameter of a current carrying conductor is double
d2 = 2d1
then,
2
I2  2d1  4
=  =
I1  d1  1
I2 = 4 I1

112. If the diameter of a wire is halved, its current 114. The average power in a pure resistive circuit of
carrying capacity will become : 10 ohms when the current flowing through it is
(a) One-fourth (b) Half 10 cos ωt Amperes, will be
(c) Twice (d) Four Times (a) 500 W (b) 0 W
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I (c) 5000 W (d) None of these
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Red) MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
Ans. (a) : We know that, Ans. (a) : As given that -
ℓ R = 10 Ω
R =ρ I = 10 cosωt
A
Im = 10 A
ℓ ℓ ℓ Pavg = ?
R =ρ 2
= ρ 2 = 4ρ 2
d πd πd I
π  ∵ Irms = m
2 4 2
d 2
If diameter is halved d ' = Pavg = I rms .R
2
I2
ℓ ℓ = m .R
R ' = 4ρ = 4ρ 2
πd '2 d
2
10 × 10
π  = × 10
2 2
ℓ Pavg= 500W
R ' = 4ρ 2
d 115. The current through the 10 ohms resistance in
π the circuit shown below will be
4
ℓ
R ' = 4 × 4ρ 2
πd
R' = 4R
 V
∵ I = 
 R
V (a) 0.293 amperes (b) 0 amperes
I' = (c) 0.129 amperes (d) cannot be determined
R' MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
V
I' = Ans. (a) :
4R
1V VA
I' =  
4 R  I 1 I2 I32
I
I' =
4
113 . An ideal voltage source of 5 volts having
internal resistance of 2 ohms will be equivalent Apply nodal analysis at point A -
to an ideal current source of I 1+ I 2 + I 3 = 0
(a) 10 Amperes in parallel with 2 ohms VA + 8 VA VA + 2
(b) 5 Amperes in parallel with 2 ohms + + =0
12 10 8
(c) 2.5 Amperes in parallel with 1 ohms
10VA + 80 + 12VA + 15VA + 30
(d) 2.5 Amperes in parallel with 2 ohms =0
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 120
Ans. (d) : 37VA = –110
−110
VA =
37
 −110 
 
I(10Ω ) = A = 
V 37 
R 10
V 5
Is = s = = 2.5A 1
Rs 2
−11
I(10Ω ) =
37
I(10Ω) = – 0.297 A
≃ 0.293
(– ve) sign show the direction of current is opposite.
116. The current flowing through a 5 ohms 119. If the given ∆ configuration of capacitor is
resistance will be converted into Y the value of each side of the Y
10 ohms
will be
(a) 10 amperes (b) 0 amperes

(c) 6 amperes (d) 16 amperes (a) C = 1F (b) C = 3F
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 (c) C= 9F (d) None of these
Ans. (c) : Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
Ans. (c) :
Having converting delta to star-
The value of each side of the Y-network is C.

Now, converting ∆ to Y of capacitance C.
3F × 3F
Ceq of each branch = 3F+3F+
3F
= 9F
120. Find Re in kΩ (Assume R = 1Ω)
5
–50 + 5I + ( I + 3) + 5 ( I + 3 ) = 0
6
5I 5
.–50+5I+ + + 5I + 15 =0 (a) 2.5 (b) 2.64
6 2 (c) 2.79 (d) 2.97
−65 65I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
+ =0
2 6 Ans. (b) :
65 6
I= ×
2 65
I=3
Hence, current through 5Ω is (I + 3) = 3+3 = 6A
117. Which of the following is NOT a non-linear
resistor?
(a) Varistor (b) Precision resistor
(c) NTC thermistor (d) PTC thermistor
+R
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 1
Ans. (b) : Precision resistor is NOT a non -linear RR1

resistor. R1 = +R
118. Resistance is analogous to R + R1
(a) Resistance (b) Conductance RR1 + R 2 + RR1
(c) Reluctance (d) Capacitance R1 =
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I R + R1
Ans. (c) : The analogy between Electric circuit and RR1 + R 1 = RR1 + R2 + RR1
2
magnetic circuit - R 12 – RR1 = R2

Electric circuit Magnetic circuit
Resistance Reluctance R1 (R1 – R) = R2
Resistivity Reluctivity R 12 – R1 = 1 [Given, R = 1Ω]
Conductance Permeance 2
R 1 – R1 – 1 = 0
Conductivity Permeability
Current Flux 1 ± 12 − 4 × 1× −1
R1 =
EMF MMF 2
1± 5 124. If a current source is to be neglected, the
R1 = terminals across the source are
2 (a) replaced by a source resistance
1+ 5 (b) open circuited
R1 =
2 (c) replaced by a capacitor
R1 = 1.618 (d) short circuited
Re = R1 + R Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Re = 1 + 1.618 Ans. (b) : We know that when current source is
Re = 2.62 Ω neglected, means there is no current in that branch.
121. The energy stored in the inductor is? Hence that branch will be open circuited. Hence
(a) Li2/4 (b) Li2/2 resistance will be infinite.
2
(c) Li (d) Li2/8 125. Which of the following cannot be connected in
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I series unless they are identical?
Ans. (b) : The energy stored in inductor - (a) Voltage source (b) Current source
1 (c) Both (1 & 2) (d) Resistance
E = Li 2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
2
where, L = inductance Ans. (b) : A different current source can not be
i = current connected in series until and unless they are identical
122. Find total current (mA) in the circuit. otherwise the circuit will be unvalid.
126. Kirchhoff's Voltage law is based on law of
conservation of
(a) Charge (b) Energy
(c) Momentum (d) Mass
Ans. (b) : Kirchhoff's voltage law states that in any
complete loop within a circuit, the sum of all voltages
(a) 1 (b) 2
across component which supply electrical energy must
(c) 3 (d) 4
equal the sum of all voltages across the other
components in the same loop.
Ans. (a) : From the circuit–
R2 and R3 are in parallel ∑E – ∑IR = 0
127. With some initial charge at t = 0+, a capacitor
1 R will act as
(a) short circuit (b) open circuit
(c) a voltage source (d) a current source
Current in circuit Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
V Ans. (c) : When capacitor is initially charge at t = 0+
I= Capacitor will act as a voltage source because of
R capacitor is oppose rate of change of voltage.
3V 3V
I= = 128. The resistance of a 230V, 100W lamp is
(1 + 1 + 1) kΩ 3kΩ (a) 529 Ω (b) 2300 Ω
I = 1mA (c) 5290 Ω (d) 23 Ω
123. Which of the following is true about an ideal
voltage source? Ans. (a) : Given, V= 230V , P = 100W, R = ?
(a) zero resistance (b) small emf V2
(c) large emf (d) infinite resistance ∵ R =
P
230 × 230
Ans. (a) : An ideal voltage source has zero source R=
resistance. 100
Vab = Vs R = 529 Ω
129. A 1 µF capacitor is connected to 12 V battery.
The energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 12 × 10–6 J (b) 24 × 10–6 J
–6
(c) 48 × 10 J (d) 72 × 10–6 J
Ans. (d) : Given, C = 1µF = 1×10–6F
V = 12V
E=?
Energy store in the capacitor - 134. A network N' is dual of network N if
1 (a) Both of them have same mesh equation
E = CV 2 (b) Both of them have the same node equation
2
(c) Mesh equation of one is the node equations of
1
E = × 1× 10−6 × 122 the other
2 (d) KCL and KVL equations are the same
E = 72 ×10−6 J Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Two electrical networks are said to be dual
130. Specific resistance of a conductor depends networks if the mesh equations of one network are
upon equal to the node equation of others. The dual network
(a) Dimensions of the conductor is based on Kirchhoff's current law and Kirchhoff's
(b) Composition of conductor material voltage law.
(c) Resistance of the conductor 135. The Voltage across the last resistor is V. All
(d) Both (a) and (b) resistors are unity. Then Vs is given by
Ans. (b) : The specific resistance of a conducting wire
depends on the nature of material of the body and
independent of shape and size of the body.
131. The resistance of a metallic wire would
(a) 13 V (b) 8V
(a) Increase as the operating frequency increase
(c) 4V (d) 1V
(b) Decrease as the operating frequency increases
(c) Number of the free electron available become
less
(d) Number of free electron available become
more Ans. (a) :
Ans. (a) : When we increase the frequency of the
supply there would be an increase in the temperature
and the increase in temperature increases the resistance
of the wire.
132. Four 100 W bulbs are connected in parallel
across 200 V supply line, if one bulb gets fused From voltage division circuit
(a) No bulb will light V1 = V+V
(b) All the four bulbs will light V1 = 2V ..........(i)
(c) Rest of the three bulbs will light Assume a current flow in the circuit -
(d) None of the above I1 = I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I So, I2 = 2I [ Because R is half ]
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 So, I3 = I+2I
Ans. (c) : I3 = 3I ..........(ii)
∵ I2 = 2I , V1 = 2V, R= 1Ω
Then, V = IR
2V = 2I×1
V = I ..........(iii)
V2 − V1
From figure, = 3I
1
V2 = 3I + 2V ..........(iv)
Nodal analysis at point - V2
V2 − VS V2 V2 − V1
For parallel connection, if one bulb gets fused, still the + + =0
current will flow in the remaining three bulbs. Only the 1 1 1
fused one gets disconnected from the supply. 3V2 – VS –V1 = 0
133. Maxwell's loop current method of solving 3(3I + 2V) – VS – 2V = 0 [From eq. (i) & (iv)
electrical networks 3(5V) – VS – 2V = 0
(a) Uses branch currents VS = 13V
(b) Utilizes Kirchhoff's voltage law 136. In the circuit shown, I is given by
(c) Is confined to single–loop circuits
(d) Is a network reduction method
Ans. (b) : Maxwell's loop current method of solving
electrical networks utilizes Kirchhoff's voltage law.
(a) –2A (b) 2A Ans. (a) : In a practical voltage source, the source
(c) 3A (d) 4A resistance is very low compared to load resistance.
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I S

Ans. (b) :
RS <<< RL
140. Six light bulbs are connected in parallel across
110 volt. Each bulb is 75 Watt. The current
flows through each bulb is
Apply KVL- (a) 0.682 A (b) 0.482 A
−8 + 2 ( I + 1) + 2 = 0 (c) 0.382 A (d) 0.282 A
−8 + 2I + 4 = 0 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
2I = 4 Ans. (a) :
I = 2A
137. What happens to the resistance of a conductor
if its length is increased three times and
diameter is halved?
(a) Resistance remains the same
(b) Resistance is increased by 3 times Total Power (P) = P1+ P2 + P3 + P4 + P5 + P6
(c) Resistance is increased by 6 times = 75+75+75+75+75+75
(d) Resistance is increased by 12 times = 450W
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I P = VI
ρℓ 450
Ans. (d) : We know that R = I= = 4.09A (Total current)
A 110
When ℓ 2 = 3 ℓ 1 and d2 = d1/2 Power in each bulb is same then current in each branch
R2 = ? will be same.
2 Then current flow through the each bulb is same-
R1 l1 A 2 l1  d 2 
= . = ×  4.09
R 2 l2 A1 l2  d1  = 0.682A
6
2
R1 1  1  141. The passive element among the following is
= ×  (a) Voltage Source (b) Current Source
R2 3  2 
(c) Inductor (d) Transistor
R1 1 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
=
R 2 12 Ans. (c) : A passive element is an electrical component
that does not generate power, but instead dissipates
R 2 = 12 ⋅ R1 stores, and/or releases it. Resistors, capacitors,
138. An ideal current source is one whose internal inductors, transformers and even diode are all
resistance is considered passive devices.
(a) Very High (b) Zero 142. A piece of graphite has a cross-sectional area of
(c) Very Low (d) Infinite 10 mm2. If its resistance is 0.1 Ω and its
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I resistivity 10 × 10–8 Ωm, its length is:
Ans. (d) : In ideal current source, the internal resistance (a) 10 km (b) 10 cm
(c) 10 mm (d) 10 m
is infinite.
A Ans. (d) : Given,
A = 10 mm2 = 10×10–6m
I R=∞ R = 0.1Ω
ρ = 10×10–8Ωm , ℓ = ?
B ℓ
∵ R =ρ
139. In a practical voltage source, the source A
resistance is RA 0.1× 10 ×10−6 Ωm 2
(a) Very low compared to load resistance ℓ= =
(b) Very high compared to load resistance
ρ 10 × 10 −8 Ωm
(c) Equal to load resistance ℓ = 0.1×102 m
(d) Zero ℓ = 10 m
143. A 10 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 146. The potential difference across a 10 µF
15 Ω resistor and the combination in series capacitor to charge it with 10 mC is
with a 12 Ω resistor. The equivalent resistance (a) 10 V (b) 1 kV
of the circuit is: (c) 1 V (d) 10 V
(a) 37 Ω (b) 18 Ω Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
(c) 27 Ω (d) 4 Ω Ans. (b) : Given,
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I C = 10 µF = 10×10–6 F
Ans. (b) : Q = 10 mC = 10×10–3C
V=?
Q 10 × 10−3
V= = = 1kV
C 10 ×10−6
V = 1kV
10 × 15
R AB = + 12 147. Calculate the voltage at point C in the given
25 circuit.
RAB = 6+12
RAB = 18Ω
144. Four 2µF capacitors are connected in series.
The equivalent capacitance is
(a) 8 µF (b) 0.5 µF
(c) 2 µF (d) 6 µf
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I (a) +1.48 V (b) +0.94 V
Ans. (b) : (c) +11.6 V (d) +3 V
Ans. (c) :
C1 = C2 = C3 = C4 = 2µF
1 1 1 1 1
= + + +
Ceq C1 C2 C3 C4
1 1 1 1 1
= + + +
Ceq 2 2 2 2
1 1+1+1+1 4 9–47KI –27KI–56KI–20KI–12 = 0
= =
Ceq 2 2 150KI = –3
1
1 I = − mA
Ceq = = 0.5µF 50
2
VC – 20 KI–12 = 0
145. The length of a certain conductor of resistance  1 
100 Ω is doubled and its cross-sectional area is VC – 20 K×  − mA  –12 = 0
halved. Its new resistance is:  50 
(a) 100 Ω (b) 200 Ω 2
VC + –12 = 0
(c) 50 Ω (d) 400 Ω 5
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I VC + 0.4 –12 = 0
VC –11.6 = 0
Ans. (d) : ℓ1 = ℓ, ℓ2 = 2 ℓ
VC =11.6V
R1 = 100Ω R2 = ?
148. A capacitor has 25 V across its plates and a
A1 = A A2 = A/2
stored charge of 1500 C. What is the
ℓ
∵ R =ρ capacitance value?
A (a) 60 pF (b) 60 F
R 1 ℓ1 A 2 (c) 16.67 mF (d) 37.5 mF
= ×
R 2 ℓ 2 A1 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
100 ℓ A / 2 Ans. (b) : Given,
= × V = 25 Volt
R 2 2ℓ A
Q = 1500 C
100 1 1 Q 1500
= × C= =
R2 2 2 V 25
R2 = 400Ω C = 60 F
149. If a 1 k ohm and a 2 k ohm resistor are 153. Three resistances of 15Ω, 10Ω and 3Ω are
parallel-connected across a 12 V supply, how connected in parallel. The overall resistance is
much current is received by the 2 k resistor? (a) Less than 3Ω
(a) 4 mA (b) 6 mA (b) Between 15 and 10Ω
(c) 8 mA (d) 12 mA (c) Between 10 and 3Ω
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I (d) More than 3Ω
Ans. (b) : Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I
Ans. (a) :
Ω
R1 Ω R2 Ω
Ω
Ω
I
V 12
I1 = = = 6mA + −
R1 2k V
150. After a capacitor has charged for 1 ms, what 1 1 1 1
percentage of current remains in the capacitor = + +
R eq R1 R 2 R 3
(a) 63.2 (b) 36.8
(c) 13.5 (d) 5.0 1 1 1 1
= + +
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I R eq 15 10 3
Ans. (b) : For 1 time constant the capacitor discharge
63.2% of its final value. Hence there is 36.8% charging 1 2 + 3 + 10
=
remaining in capacitor. R eq 30
151. What is the total inductance, assuming no 30
mutual inductance? Req = = 2Ω
15
2Ω < 3Ω
So, option (a) will be correct.
154. For node 1 in figure, KCL, equation is
(a) 12 mH (b) 6 mH
(c) 0.73 mH (d) 0 mH
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I V1 d
Ans. (a) : Leq = L1 + L2 + L3 (a) i(t) = + C1 ( V2 + V1 )
R1 dt
Leq = 1 + 5 + 6
V d
Leq = 12 mH (b) i ( t ) = − 1 + C1 ( V1 + V2 )
152. If 220Ω, a 100Ω, and a 180Ω resistor are R1 dt
connected in series across a 12 V source, the V d
circuit current equals (c) i ( t ) = 1 + C1 ( V1 − V2 )
R1 dt
(a) 41.67 A (b) 120 mA
(d) None of these
(c) 500 A (d) 24 mA
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (d) : Given,
R1 = 220Ω, R2 = 100Ω, R3 = 180Ω
i(t) = i1(t) + i C1
V1 d
i(t) = + C1 ( V1 − V2 )
R1 dt
155. Electrolytic Capacitors are generally made of
V 12 (a) Aluminium (b) Copper
I= = (c) Gold (d) Plastic
R1 + R 2 + R 3 220 + 180 + 100
12 Ans. (a) : Electrolytic capacitors are normally made
I= A = 0.024A = 24mA
500 from one of three different materials; aluminium,
I = 24 mA tantalum and niobium.

156. The internal resistance of a battery which has (c) Parallel combination of two 1 kΩ resistors
an open circuit voltage of 12V deliver a current (d) 1 kΩ resistor
of 100A to a load resistance of 0.1Ω is Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
(a) 2 Ω (b) 200 mΩ TRB Poly. Lect.-2012
(c) 20 mΩ (d) 2 mΩ Ans. (a) :
Ans. (c) : Given, R1
R
r = ?, E = 12V, I = 100A, RL = 0.1Ω 330Ω R2
E
∵ I= A R3
R+r
12 R4
100 =
0.1 + r
10+100r =12
2
r= 1 1 1 1 1
100 = + + +
R T R1 R 2 R 3 R 4
r = 20mΩ
1 1 1 1 1
157. A parallel plate air filled capacitor has plate
–4 2 –3
= + + +
area of 10 m and plate separation of 10 m. R T 1000 1000 1000 1000
It is connected to a 0.5V, 3.6GHz source. 1 4
Magnitude of displacement current is =
R 1000
ε0 = (1/ 36)π 10−9F/m T
(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA R T = 250Ω

(c) 10 A (d) 1.59 mA Req = R + RT
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I Req = 330 + 250
Ans. (d) : The capacitance - Req = 580Ω
Current through 330Ω resistor -
εo A 8.85 ×10−12 × 10−4 −13
C= = = 8.85 × 10 V 100
d 10−3 Total current (Ieq) = = = 0.1724
R eq 580
The charge on capacitor is -
Q = CV = 8.85 × 10–13 × 0.5 = 4.427 × 10–13C The current through each 1kΩ resistance can be found
Displacement current in one cycle - as-
0.1724
I=
Q
= 4.427×10–13×3.6×109 I(1kΩ) = = 0.043A
T 4
I(1kΩ) = 0.043A
I= 1.59 mA
So, maximum current flows through the 330Ω resistor.
158. A series circuit consists of a 4.7 kΩ, 5.6 kΩ,
160. A practical voltage source consists of
9 kΩ and 10 kΩ. Which resistor has the most (a) An ideal voltage source in series with an
voltage across it? internal impedance
(a) 4.7 kΩ (b) 5.6 kΩ (b) An ideal voltage source in parallel with an
(c) 9 kΩ (d) 10 kΩ internal resistance
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (d) : Given, (d) None of the above
R1 = 4.7 kΩ, R2 = 5.6 kΩ Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
R3 = 9 kΩ, R4 = 10 kΩ Ans. ( a ) : A practical voltage source consists of an
V=IR 2 ideal voltage source in series with an internal
We know that current is same in series circuit- impedance.
V∝R
∵ R4 > R3 > R2 > R1
∴ V4 > V3 > V2 > V1
161. In the network shown below, the voltage
So, voltage will be maximum across 10 kΩ resistor.
between points a and b is
159. A 330Ω resistor is in series with the parallel
combination of four 1 kΩ resistors. A 100 V
source is connected in the circuit. Which
resistor will carry the most current through it?
(a) 330 Ω
(b) Parallel combination of three 1 kΩ resistors
(a) 14 V (b) 5 V L
(c) 10 V (d) None of the above 166. The Dimension of is
RC
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Volt Ampere 2
(a) (b) sec
Ampere Volt
(c) Seconds (d) None of these
I1 I2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : We know that unit of time constant (τ) =
sec.
15 L
I1 = = 1A τ = = RC = sec
10 + 5 R
I1 = 1A L L R
∵ = ×
Drop in 5Ω resistor (V5Ω) = 1×5 = 5V RC RC R
10 L 1
I2 = = 1A = × ×R
4+6 R CR
I2 = 1A 1
= sec × ×Ω
Va − 5V − 5V − 10V + 6V − Vb = 0 sec
Va − Vb = 14V volt
=Ω=
Vab = 14 V ampere
162. If the initial conditions in a system are zero, it L volt
=
means that system is RC ampere
(a) working with zero reference input
(b) working but does not store energy 167. Voltage divider circuits use
(c) at rest and has no energy stored in any of its (a) Parallel circuits
parts (b) Series parallel circuits
(d) at rest but stores energy (c) Only series circuits
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 (d) None of the above
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : If the initial condition in a systems are zero, it
means that system is at rest and has no energy stored in Ans. (c) : In parallel circuit voltage is constant. Hence
any parts. series circuit is used as voltage divider circuit.
163. A system composed of purely resistive 168. For α = – 1, the value of V2 is
networks is
(a) Dynamic (b) Linear
(c) Time-invariant (d) Static
Ans. (b, c) : A system composed of purely resistive
network is time-invariant & Linear.
164. The hot resistance of a bulb's filament is higher
than its cold resistance because the (a) ∞
temperature coefficient of the filament is : (b) 0
(a) Zero (b) Negative (c) V1
(c) Positive (d) About 2Ω per ºC (d) None of the above options
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I NIELIT Scientists- 2017
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (c) : The filament used in bulb has positive
temperature coefficient of resistance. i.e. The resistance
of material increases with increasing temperature.
165. If all the n sources in a linear network are
multiplied by a constant kn, then the response
gets multiplied by
(a) kn (b) k
k n KCL at node A-
(c) (d)
n k –I1+I2+I1 = 0 (∵ α = –1)
I2 = 0
Ans. (a) : In a linear network , if all the source are
V2
multiplied by a constant then all the quantity also get =0
multiplied by constant. Hence response gets multiplied R 2
by kn. V2 = 0

169. If two capacitors of 4 pF each are connected in 173. The equivalent star impedance of a balanced
series, their total capacitance is- delta connected load of value 6+9jΩ is given by
(a) 2 pF (b) 4 pF (a) 9 + 6jΩ (b) 2 + 3jΩ
(c) 16 pF (d) 8 pF (c) 18 + 27jΩ (d) 6 – 9jΩ
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Given that- Ans. (b) : We know that
R Y → star,
RY = ∆
3 ∆ → delta
1 1 1
= + Given that
Ceq C1 C2 R∆ = 6 + 9j Ω
1 1 1 6 + 9j
= + RY = Ω
Ceq 4 4 3
RY = 2 + 3j Ω
1 2
= 174. The ohm's law for conduction in metal is
Ceq 4 σ
4 (a) J = σE (b) J =
Ceq = E
2 σ
Ceq = 2pF (c) J ∝ σE (d) J ∝
E
170. Which of the following capacitors has the Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
highest cost per µF? Ans. (a) : The Ohm's law for conduction in metal is :
(a) Plastic (b) Electrolytic J = σE
(c) Mica (d) Air where, J → current density
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I σ → conductivity
Ans. (b) : Electrolytic capacitors has the highest cost E → Electric field.
per µF. An electrolytic capacitor is a polarized capacitor 175. If the length of a wire of resistance R is
whose anode or positive plate is made of a metal that uniformly stretched to n times its original
forms an insulating oxide layer through anodization. value, its new resistance is
This oxide layer acts as the dielectric of the capacitor. (a) nR (b) R/n
171. The following constitutes an active circuit (c) n2R (d) R/n2
element Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
(a) FET (b) BJT ℓ
(c) Diode (d) a current source Ans. (c) : R = ρ volume → constant
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 A
If wire uniformly stretched to n times of original value
Ans. (d) : An active element delivers energy whereas
passive elements absorb the energy. ℓ2 = nℓ1
Example of active source – (i) Current source Volume1 = ℓ1A1
(ii) Voltage source
172. In any network of linear impedances, the Volume2 = ℓ2A2
current flowing at any point is equal to the ℓ1A1 = ℓ2A2
algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at
that point by each of the sources of emf taken ℓ 2 A1
= =n
separately with all other emf reduced to zero, ℓ1 A 2
this statement represents ℓ
(a) Kirchhoff's current law R1 = ρ 1 ............(i)
(b) Norton's theorem A1
(c) Thevenin's theorem ℓ
(d) Superposition theorem R 2 = ρ 2 ............(ii)
A2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I equation (ii) divided by equation (i)
Ans. (a) : According to Kirchhoff's current law "The
algebraic sum of all currents entering and exiting a ℓ
ρ 2
junction must equal to zero." R2 A2
=
R1 ρ ℓ1
A1
R 2 ℓ 2 A1
= ×
i1+ (–i2) + i3 + i4 + (–i5) = 0 R1 ℓ1 A 2
Kirchhoff's current law is based on the law of R2
conservation of charge. = n×n
Kirchhoff's voltage law is based on the law of R1
conservation of energy. R2 = n2R1
176. When three registers each having resistance of (a) voltage (b) resistance
18Ω are connected in parallel. What is the (c) current (d) power
equivalent resistance? RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I
(a) 8Ω (b) 6Ω Ans. (d) : A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and
(c) 9Ω (d) 2Ω starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating
AAI-2015 too much power.
Ans. (b) : If resistor is hot, it will burn
R1= ∵ Power dissipated = i2R
Heat = i2RT
R2= 181. In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and
R3= several branch resistors, how is the total
current related to the current in the branch
1 1 1 1 resistors?
= + + (a) It equals the sum of the branch current
R R1 R 2 R 3 through each resistor
1 1 1 1 (b) It equals the average of the branch current
= + + through each resistor
R 18 18 18
1 1+1+1 3 (c) It decreases as more parallel resistors are
= = added to the circuit
R 18 18 (d) It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop
R = 6Ω multiplied by the total number of resistors
177. To increase the voltage output, several cells are RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I
connected in: Ans. (a) :
(a) parallel (b) series-parallel
(c) resonance (d) series
RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : To increase the voltage output, several cell
are connected in series.
I = I1+I2+I3
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several
branch resistor, it equals the sum of the branch current
through each resistor.
V = V1+V2+V3 182. The fundamental unit of enthalpy is
178. A current of one quarter ampere may be (a) MLT–2 (b) ML–2T–1
2 –2
written as: (c) ML T (d) ML3T–2
(a) 0.5 amperes (b) 0.25 milliampere RRB SSE-03.09.2015, Shift-III
(c) 250 microampere (d) 250 milliamperes Ans. (c) : The fundamental unit of enthalpy is ML2 T −2
RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I Enthalpy (H) = U + PV
1 Where, U → internal energy
Ans. (d) : I = = 0.25A
4 P → Pressure
0.25 × 1000 V → Volume
= A Fundamental unit of H = Fundamental unit of U =
1000
= 250×10–3A Fundamental unit of PV
−2
I = 250 mA F  MLT   −1 −2 
179. Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in Pressure (P) = = =  ML T 
A  L2 
use?  
(a) Their reactance makes them heat up Volume (V) = m3 = L3
(b) Hotter circuit components nearby heat them PV = [ML–1T–2]×[L3] = [ML2T–2]
up U =[ML2T–2]
(c) Some electrical energy passing through them
H = U + PV
is lost as heat
(d) They absorb magnetic energy which them hot = [ML2T–2] +[ML2T–2]
RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I H = 2[ML2T–2]
Ans. (c) : According to Joules law, when a current H = U+PV = [ML2T–2]
flowing through a resistor, it's consumes energy and 183. Units for thermal conductivity
generate heat. (a) J/kg.K (b) J/mol.K
Generated Heat (H) = I2RT (c) J.ohm/sec.K2 (d) W/m.K
180. A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and RRB SSE-03.09.2015, Shift-III
starts to burn. This is because the resistor is Ans. (d) : Thermal conductivity is measured in watts
dissipating too much: per meter-kelvin (W/m.K) or (Wm–1K–1)
184. If two equal-value capacitors are connected in 1 1 1 1 1
parallel, what is their capacitance? + + + =
R R R R Rp
(a) The same value of either capacitor
(b) The value of one capacitor times the value of 4 1
the other =
R Rp
(c) Half the value of either capacitor
(d) Twice the value of either capacitor R = 4× Rp
RRB SSE-03.09.2015, Shift-III = 4 × 0.25
BSNL(JTO)-2002 R = 1Ω
Ans. (d) : When two capacitor are connected in parallel.
Series equivalent resistance (RS) = R+ R+ R+ R
= 4R
= 4×1
RS = 4Ω
CAB = C1+C2 188. In a series circuit, three resistances of
∵ [C1 = C2 =C] 2Ω,4Ω and 6Ω are connected to a 12 V DC
CAB = C+C = 2C supply. The voltage across the 4Ω resistance is:
185. When a body is moving along a circular path (a) 4 V (b) 6 V
with constant speed (c) 2 V (d) 8 V
(a) Work done on it is zero UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
(b) Force acting on it is zero Ans. (a) :
(c) Its velocity remains constant
(d) Its acceleration is zero
RRB SSE-03.09.2015, Shift-III
Ans. (a) : W = F.d
Where, W→ workdone
F → force From voltage division rule-
d → displacement 4
For circular path displacement = 0 V2 = 12 ×
W = F.d 8+ 4
W = F×0 V2 = 4Volt
W=0 189. In a parallel circuit having two resistances
186. Which one of the following has the dimensions 4 Ω and 6 Ω connected across a DC voltage of
of pressure ? 12 V, the current through the 4 Ω resistance
(a) MLT–2 (b) ML–1T–2 is:
–2 –2 –1 –1
(c) ML T (d) ML T (a) 5 A (b) 2 A
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Red) (c) 3 A (d) 1 A
Force(F) UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
Ans. (b) : Pressure (P) =
Area(A) V
Ans. (c) : I1 =
[MLT −2 ] R1
P= 2
[L ]
P = [ML–1T–2]
187. Four wires of same material, same cross section
area and the same length, when connected in
parallel, give effective resistance of 0.25 ohm. If
these four wires are connected in series, then In parallel circuit voltage is same across 4Ω and 6Ω
the effective resistance will be : resistor
(a) 4 ohm (b) 1 ohm So, current in 4Ω resistor-
(c) 2 ohm (d) 0.50 ohm V 12
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Red) I1= I4Ω = = = 3A
R1 4
Ans. (a) : Given that ,
I1 = 3A
Parallel equivalent resistance (RP) = 0.25Ω
190.

In the above circuit, R1=R2=R3=3Ω, what 1 1 1 1
would be the values of RA, RB,RC respectively = + +
R 3 3 3
(a) 4.5Ω, 4.5 Ω, 4.5 Ω (b) 1.5 Ω,1.5 Ω,1.5 Ω 1 1+1+1
(c) 3 Ω,3 Ω, 3Ω (d) 1 Ω, 1Ω,1 Ω =
R 3
DMRC AM S&T-2020
1 3
Ans. (d) : =
RA RB R 3
1
=1
RC R
R1 = 3 Ω R3 = 3 Ω
R = 1Ω
R2 = 3 Ω 194. Heating effect of electric current is used in-
R1 × R 3 3× 3 9 (a) Both fan and television
RA = = = = 1Ω (b) Television
R1 + R 2 + R 3 3 + 3 + 3 9
(c) Fan
R1 × R 2 3× 3 9 (d) Electric bulb
RB = = = = 1Ω
R1 + R 2 + R 3 3 + 3 + 3 9 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
R 2 × R3 3× 3 9 Ans. (d) : When a electric current flows through a
RC = = = = 1Ω conductor then heat energy generates in the conductor.
R1 + R 2 + R 3 3 + 3 + 3 9
Electric Bulb works on the principle of heating effects.
191. What is the work done to move a unit charge The heating effects of electric current depend on three
from one point to another in an electric circuit factors.
carrying some current, between those two (i) The resistance of the conductor
points? (ii) flow of current
(a) Pressure distance (b) Pressure difference (iii) Time
(c) Potential distance (d) Potential difference Heat - H = I2RT
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
195. In an electrical circuit, fuse is blown and the
Ans. (d) : Potential Difference - Potential difference circuit is cut-off due to-
between any two points is defined as the amount of (a) Low voltage (b) Excessive current
work done in moving a unit charge from one point to (c) High inductance (d) Excessive voltage
another point. RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
dw Ans. (b) : In an electrical circuit, fuse is blown and the
dv =
dq circuit is cut-off due to excessive current.
Fuse:- A fuse is an electrical safety device that operates
Joule to provide over current protection of an electrical
Unit → or Volt
Coulomb circuit.
192. Which of the following is an example of an It is a sacrificial device-
active device? The material mainly used for fuse element are tin, lead,
(a) Electric bulb (b) Transformer silver, copper, zinc, aluminium.
(c) Resistor (d) Transistors An alloy of lead and tin is used for small current rating
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM fuses.
Ans. (d) : Active device :- The device which is capable Fuse element properties:
to delivered energy is called active device. (i) Low melting point
Ex- Current source, Voltage source, Transistor etc. (ii) High conductivity
193. Three resistors each of 3 Ω are connected in (iii) Low resistivity
parallel; the equivalent resistance is- 196. The reciprocal of resistance is-
(a) 1 Ω (b) 6 Ω (a) Coulomb (b) Conductance
(c) 9 Ω (d) 1/3 Ω (c) Impedance (d) Henry
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
Ans. (a) : Given that, RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I
R1 =3Ω, R2 =3Ω, R3 = 3Ω Ans. (b) : The reciprocal of resistance is conductance.
Ω 1
R∝
Ω G
A B
Resistance → Conductance
Reactance → Susceptance
Ω
Impedance → Admittance
1 1 1 1
= + + Reluctance → Permeance
R R1 R 2 R 3 Permeability → Reluctivity

197. If three resistors of each 16Ω are connected in In parallel circuit, voltage is same in both resistor RA
parallel then the equivalent resistance is and RB -
(a) 48Ω (b) 5.33Ω ∵ According to Ohm's law
(c) 24Ω (d) 5Ω V = IR
SAIL- 2014 IARA = IBRB
Ans. (b) : R1=R2=R3 = 16Ω R A IB I
= =
R B IA 2I
RA 1
=
RB 2
1 1 1 1
= + + R
R R1 R 2 R 3 RA = B
2
1 1 1 1
= + + 200. The reactance of capacitors increases as:
R 16 16 16 (a) applied voltage increases
1 1+1+1 3
= = (b) AC frequency increases
R 16 16 (c) applied voltage decreases
16 (d) AC frequency decreases
R= Ω
3 RRB SSE 03.09.2015 Shift-II
R = 5.33 Ω 1
Ans. (d) : Capacitive reactance (XC) =
198. Three resistors 68Ω, 57Ω, 72Ω are in series and ωC
connected with a voltage source 40V. Find the 1
voltage across 68Ω? XC =
2πfC
(a) 31.2 (b) 17.8
1
(c) 13.8 (d) 21.8 ↑ XC ∝
SAIL- 2014 f ↓
Ans. (c) : Given that, The reactance of capacitor increases as ac frequency
decreases.
R1 = 68Ω , R2 = 57Ω, R3 = 72Ω capacitive reactance is measure in ohm.
V = 40V
201. An electric current is maintained through a
conductor. The accompanying electric field
must be
(a) Zero
+ − (b) perpendicular to current flow
(c) Parallel to current flow
40V (d) ant -parallel to current flow
Apply voltage division rule - RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-II
R1 Ans. (b) : An electric current is maintained through a
V1 = V×
R1 + R 2 + R 3 conductor. The accompanying electric field must be
68 68 2720 perpendicular to current flow.
= 40 × = 40 × = 202. A Network that does not have either voltage or
68 + 57 + 72 197 197
V1 = 13.8 V current sources is called
(a) Active network (b) Passive network
199. Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries (c) Resistive network (d) Dummy network
twice the current of resistor B, which means RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-III
that:
Ans. (b) : Passive Network : - A network that does not
(a) the voltage across B is twice that across A
have either voltage or current sources is called passive
(b) the voltage across A is twice that across B network.
(c) A has half the resistance of B Ex- Resistor, Inductor, Capacitor.
(d) B has half the resistance of A
RRB SSE 03.09.2015 Shift-II 203. Which of the following will remain the same in
all parts of a series circuit?
Ans. (c) : If resistor A carries twice the current of (a) Voltage (b) Current
resistor B, then A has half the resistance of B. (c) Power (d) Resistance
RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-III
Ans. (b) : Current will remain the same in all parts of a
series circuit.
204. Consider a conductor of area of cross-section
A, length l and volume V. When a current I
flows through it, heat is produced at a rate
given by I2 R. If j is the current density and ρ
the resistivity, the rate at which heat is Ans. (a) : When the value of resistance is suddenly
produced per unit volume per unit volume of decreases the current through the resistor will increases.
the conductor is V
(a) j/ρ (b) j2ρ I=
R
(c) Vj (d) V2/ρ
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-II 1
I ↑∝
Ans. (b) : Given that, R↓
A = Area 208. What is the applied voltage on a circuit in
ℓ = Length which 5A is following and 10 W is generated?
V = Volume (a) 2V (b) 5V
I = Current (c) 20V (d) 50V
j = Current density RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III
ρ = resistivity Ans. (a) : Given that,
So, Current (I) = 5A
heat is produced per unit volume Power (P) = 10W
I2 R  I P = VI
= ∵ J =  P 10
V  A V= = = 2V
J 2 A 2 ρℓ J 2 Aρℓ I 5
= = V = 2V
AV V
209. What is the term used to describe the ability of
= J 2ρ (∵ A × ℓ = V ) a device to store energy in the form of an
205. Three elements having conductance G1, G2 and electrical charge?
G3 are connected in parallel. Their combined (a) inductance (b) conductance
conductance will be (c) reactance (d) capacitance
(a) 1/(1/G1 + 1/G2 + 1/G3) RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III
(b) (G1G2 + G2G3 + G3G1)/(G1 + G2 + G3) Ans. (d) : A capacitor device store energy in the form
(c) 1/(G1 + G2 + G3) of an electrical charge. The ability of a device to store
(d) G1 + G2 + G3 energy in the form of an electrical charge is called
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III capacitance.
Ans. (d) : When 3 conductance is connected in parallel, 1 1
E C = CV 2 = QV
then equivalent conductance will be - 2 2
G = G1 + G2 + G3 An inductor device store energy in the form of a
But if 3 conductance is connected in series then magnetic field.
equivalent conductance will be - 210. In 0.025 W, there are
1 1 1 1 (a) 25 kW (b) 0.00025 mW
= + + (c) 2,500 µW (d) 25 mW
G eq G1 G 2 G 3 RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III
206. Which of the following circuit configurations Ans. (d) : Given that,
has the same amount of voltage drop across 0.025 W = 25×10–3 W = 25 mW
each of its components? 211. One coulomb-per-second is equal to one:
(a) parallel (b) series-parallel (a) watt (b) joule
(c) series (d) combination (c) volt (d) ampere
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III
Ans. (a) : In parallel circuit configuration has the same Ans. (d) : One coulomb - per - second is equal to one
amount of voltage drop across each of its components ampere.
but current will be different q = it
I
I2 q
I1 i= Coulomb per second =ampere
t
212. The charge when C = 0.001 µF and V = 1kV is
V = I1R1 = I2R2 (a) 0.001C (b) 1 µC
207. If a resistor suddenly decreases in value (c) 1 C (d) None of these
(resistance decreases), what will happen to the TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
current through the resistor? Ans. (b) : We know that-
(a) increases Q = CV
(b) remains unchanged Q = 0.001 ×10–6 × 1×103
(c) decreases Q = 1 ×10–6
(d) fluctuates
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III Q = 1µC

213. A parallel combination of N resistances is (a) 5Ω (b) 1.33Ω
connected an ideal current source of I (c) 15Ω (d) 10Ω
Amperes. The expression of the current in the TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
kth resistor Rk is Ans. (*) :
 Rk  R
(a)  I RY = ∆
R
 1 + R 2 + ... + R N  3
5
 1  RY =
 Rk  3
(b)  I RY = 1.67Ω
 1 + 1 + ... + 1 
R R 216. A current of 0.5 A is flowing through a 60 W
 1 2 R N  light bulb. How many electron will flow
 1  through the bulb each minute?
 Rk  (a) 1.875 x 1012 electrons
(c)   I (b) 1.875 x 109 electrons
 1 1 1  (c) 1.875 x 1020 electrons
 R + R + ... + R  (d) –1.875 x 1012 electrons
 1 2 N 
 1  UPMRC AM - 2020
 Rk  Ans. (c) : Given that,
(d)  I I = 0.5A , T = 60 sec
 Rk  ∴ [ Q = IT ]
 R + R + ... + R 
 1 2 N  = 0.5×60 = 30C
BSNL(JTO)-2009 [ Q = n.e ]
Ans. (b) : Q 30
n= =
e 1.6 ×10−19
n = 1.875×1020 electrons
217. For the circuit shown in figure vs represents
voltage source and v2 = 15 V, then values of vs
 1  and is are :
 Rk 
 I
 1 + 1 + ... 1 
R R R N 
 1 2
214. A 33 Ω half-watt resistor and a 330 Ω half-watt
resistor are connected across a 12 V source.
Which one(s) will overheat? (a) 20 V and 1 mA respectively
(a) 33 Ω (b) 330 Ω (b) 10 V and 2 mA respectively
(c) both resistors (d) neither resistor (c) 30 V and 1 mA respectively
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-III (d) 15 V and 0.5 mA respectively
Ans. (a) : MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
Ans. (a) :
i1
i2
V2
∵ P=
R
V2 15 15
Power dissipated across 33 Ω resistor - i1 = = = = 0.5mA
R 24 + 6 30
V 2 122 V 15
P= = = 4.36W i2 = 2 = = 0.5mA
R 33 R 30
Power dissipated across 330 Ω resistor - is = i1 + i2
V 2 122 = 0.5 + 0.5
P= = = 0.436W
R 330 is = 1mA
P33 > P330 Req = 5 + 30||30
So, P33 gets overheated than P330 Req = 20 kΩ
215. Three equal resistance of 5 Ω are connected in VS = is × Req
delta. What is the resistance in one of the arms = 1mA × 20 kΩ
of the equivalent star circuit? VS = 20V
218. Which of the following statement is wrong with 221. In an element, let w be the energy, and q be the
respect to the given network? charge, what is the voltage across the element?
(a) w – q (b) w × q
dw
(c) (d) w + q
dq
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ans. (c) : In an element let w be the energy, and q be
the charge so voltage across the element
Joule
1 Volt =
coulomb
dw
(a) i1 = is (b) i2 = i3 V=
dq
(c) i3 = is (d) i1 = i2 + i3
NLC GET -24.11.2020 222. Which of the following components shows the
Ans. (d) : effect "as they become hotter, they conduct less
efficiently, and their resistance increases"?
(a) Insulators (b) Thermistors
(c) Semiconductors (d) Conductors
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ans. (d) :
All resistance are connected in series - The resistivity of a conductor will increases when
So, i1 = i2 + i3 is wrong. temperature increases.
Hence option (d) is correct. 223. Which of the following devices absorb 0.03 W?
219. Which components are used in electronics to
block direct current, to couple ac signals and
for bypassing?
(a) Resistors (b) Diodes
(c) Transistors (d) Capacitors
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ans. (d) : Capacitors components are used in
electronics to block direct current to couple ac signals
and for bypassing.
220. Determine the current i1 in the network.
Ω
(a) A and D (b) A and B
(c) B and D (d) B and C
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ω Ans. (d) : In case of absorbing current enters a device
at its positive terminal and exit from negative terminal.
(B)
(a) 3.5 A (b) 2A
(c) 5.5 A (d) 1.5 A
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ans. (c) : ∵ P = V×I
Ω ∴ P = 5 × 6 × 10–3
P = 0.03W
(C)
Ω
∵ P=V×I
Current i1 in the network
i1 = 2 + 3.5 ∴ P = 6×5×10–3
i1 = 5.5A P = 0.03W
224. Find the Req in the given resistive network. 227. A cylindrical block of a certain material has a
resistance R as measured between its circular
faces. To have the resistance all the dimension
of the block must be
(a) doubled (b) halved
(c) decreased by 2π (d) increased by 2π
BSNL (JTO)-2001
Ans. (a) : A cylindrical block of a certain material has a
(a) 45 Ω (b) 56 Ω resistance R as measured between its circular faces. To
(c) 65 Ω (d) 60 Ω have the resistance all the dimension of the block must
NLC GET -24.11.2020 be doubled
Ans. (b) : ℓ
R =ρ
A
R∝ℓ
1
R∝
A
In network.
R∝ 2
1
r
(∵ A = πr 2 )
Req = [(52+28) || 20] + 15 + 25 228. The following is generally true
= [80 || 20] + 15 + 25 = 16+15+25 (a) A capacitor using air as dielectric has greater
Req = 56Ω capacitance than one using any other material
225. Find Pin for an amplifier with a power gain of as dielectric
20 and an output power of 1 W. (b) An air cored inductor has a highly linear B/H
(a) 50 mW (b) 5 W characteristic
(c) 50 W (d) 0.5 W (c) The voltage across an inductor will decrease
NLC GET -24.11.2020 with increasing frequency of the applied
Ans. (a) : Given that, current
(d) The current in a capacitor will decrease with
Power gain (P) = 20
increasing frequency of the applied voltage
Pout = 1W
BSNL (JTO)-2001
Pout Ans. (b) : An air cored inductor has a highly linear B/H
∴ Power gain =
Pinput characteristics.
1
Pinput = W
20
Pinput = 0.05W
Pinput = 50mW
226. Find the voltage v2 in the given network.
∵ VL = i L X L = jωL.i L
VL ∝ ω
VC
ic =
= jωC.VC
XC
(a) 6 V (b) 4 V iC ∝ ω
(c) 8 V (d) 2 V 229. The time rate of change of a voltage applied
NLC GET -24.11.2020 across a 1 µF capacitor is 2 V/s. This means that
Ans. (a) : the current flowing through the capacitor is
(a) 2 × 10 −6 A (b) 2 A
−6
(c) 0.5 × 10 A (d) 0.5 A
BSNL (JTO)-2001
Ans. (a) : Given that,
C = 1 µF
Apply voltage divider rule - dv
400 =2
V2 = ×12 dt
100 + 400 + 300 dv
400 ∴ IC = C = 1× 2 × 10−6 A
V2 = ×12 dt
800
V2 = 6V IC = 2 ×10−6 A

230. For the circuit shown in figure 232. A capacitive divider network has an
input/output voltage ratio under no load of 1 :
0.2. If its input and output terminals are
interchanged, the new output voltage, when
compared to the new input voltage under no
load is
(a) The current depends on the resistor (a) one-fifth (b) five times
(b) The voltage across the current source depends (c) equal (d) zero
on the resistor BSNL (JTO)-2001
(c) The current depends on the voltage source Ans. (b) : Given that
(d) If the resistor were zero, the current would Input = 1
tend to infinity
Output = 0.2
BSNL (JTO)-2001
After interchanged,
Ans. (b) :
New input 0.2 1
= =
New output 1 5
New output = 5× new input
233. The reactances of a 10µF capacitor at f = 0 Hz
(d.c.) and f = 50 Hz are respectively
The voltage across the current source depends on the (a) ∞ and 318.47 Ω (b) 100Ω and 318.47Ω
resister. (c) ∞ and 31.84Ω (d) 0.01Ω and 31.84Ω
231. The circuit shown in figure is an infinite ladder IES-2014
of identical repeating sections R1, R2, R3. Let R
Ans. (a) : As given that,
be the net resistance as seen from AB.
Reactance of a capacitor (Xc) = ?
at, [ f = 0Hz , f = 50 Hz ]
Capacitance of capacitor = 10µF
[ Xc at f = 0 Hz ]
1 1
Xc = =
2πfc 2π× 0 × 10
(a) R is independent of R3 Xc = ∞
(b) given R, it uniquely determines the values of [ Xc at f = 50 Hz ]
R1, R2, R3
1 105
(c) R increases as R3 decreases Xc = =
(d) R depends only on the sum R1 + R2 and not 2π× 50 ×10 × 10−6 314
upon their individual values Xc = 318.47Ω
BSNL (JTO)-2001 234. The current i in figure show below is :
Ans. (d) :
5
(a) 0.5 A (b) A
∴ R = R1 + R2 + (R3||R) 6
R .R (c) 1.5 A (d) 2.5 A
R = R1 + R2 + 3 DRDO-2009
R3 + R
Ans. (a) : Convert current source to voltage source
R1R 3 + R1R + R 2 R 3 + R 2 R + R 3R
R=
R3 + R
2
R3R+R = R1R3 + R1R + R2R3 + R2R + R3R
R2– (R1+R2)R–(R1R3+R2R3) = 0
R1 +R 2 ± (R1 +R 2 ) 2 + 4(R1 +R 2 )R 3 ∴ Total resistance = 6Ω
R= V 4 −1 3
2 ∴ current (I) = = = = 0.5A
Hence, R depends only on the sum R1 + R2 and not upon R 6 6
their individual values. I = 0.5 A

235. The current i through the 1 Ω resistor shown in ε W
figure below is : Eliminate  0  in both side-
 d 
x + 3L − 3x = 2L
L = 2x
L
x=
2
237. The current in the network in figure is
1 1
(a) − A (b) − A
3 5
2
(c) A (d) 1 A
5
DRDO-2009 (a) 1 A (b) 3 A
Ans. (c) : Convert current source to voltage source (c) 5 A (d) 7 A
DRDO-2008
Ans. (c) : Converting in to current source
i
Total resistance = 2 + 2 + 1 = 5Ω
4−2
∴ current (I) =
5
2 Total resistance = 0.5+1+0.5 = 2Ω
I= A
5 12.5 − 2.5
∴ I=
236. Two parallel plate capacitors shown in figure 2
(a) and figure (b) have capacitance C1 and C2, 10
respectively. If C2 = 2C1, which one of the I = = 5A
2
following relations is TRUE ? (Neglect fringing 238. In the network in figure, the mesh current I
effect)
and the input impedance seen by the 50V
source, respectively, are
125 11 150 13
(a) A and Ω (b) A and Ω
13 8 13 8
150 11 125 13
L L (c) A and Ω (d) A and Ω
(a) x = (b) x = 13 8 13 8
4 2 DRDO-2008
L 2L Ans. (b) :
(c) x = (d) x =
3 3
BSNL(JTO)-2009
εA ε0 ε r A
Ans. (b) : ∵ C = =
d d
ε0 WL
C1 =
d
Solving to point B
ε0 Wx 3ε0 W ( L − x )
C2 = + = (1+1)||1
d d 2
According to question = 2 ||1 =
C2 = 2C1 3
Solving to point A
ε0 Wx 3ε0 W ( L − x ) 2ε0 WL
+ = 2
= ( +1)||1
d d d 3
5 We know that,
×1 P= VI = I2R
5
= 3 = In series connection current will be same-
5
+1 8 P∝R
3
5 13 V2
Req = + 1 = ∵P=
8 8 R
Resistance across 40 W bulb > Resistance across 80W
13
R eq = Ω bulb
8 So,
50 400 The voltage across the 80W bulb is lesser than that
From figure total current (I') = = A
13/ 8 13 across the 40W bulb.
241. Two identical resistive loads consume a total of
W watts when connected in parallel across an
ideal dc current source. If, instead, they were
connected in series with the same source, their
total consumption :
Impedance Z = (2||1)+1 (a) would halve
5 (b) would double
Z= Ω
3 (c) would remain the same
1 (d) would increased by a factor of 4
∴Current (I) = I' ×
Z +1 KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
400 1 400 3 BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001
= × = × Ans. (d) : When 2 identical resistance connected in
13 5 + 1 13 8
series -
3
150
I= A
13
239. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Thevenin reduction can be used only if there W1 = I2R+I2R
are no current sources. W1 = 2I2R
(b) In ac circuits KCL holds only for average When 2 identical resistance connected in parallel
currents and not for instantaneous currents.
(c) Capacitors are generally less lossy than
inductors.
(d) Linear networks can have dependent sources.
BSNL(JTO)-2002
Ans. (d) : Linear network - A linear circuit is a circuit
2 2
in which all its voltage and current are also since-curved I I
of frequency (f) when an input voltage of frequency (f) W2 =   R +   R
is applied. but it is not necessary that all the voltage and 2 2
currents are in the same phase of the input. Linear I2 R I2 R 2I 2 R
network can have dependent source. W2 = + =
4 4 4
240. Two incandescent lights of 40 W and 80 W are 2
connected in series : I R
W2 =
(a) The current drawn is lesser than what either 2
bulb would draw alone W1 2I2 R
(b) The voltage across the 80 W bulb is lesser =
than that across the 40 W bulb W2 I 2 R / 2
(c) The power dissipated by the 80 W bulb is W1
greater than that by the 40 W bulb =4
W2
(d) The current drawn in the average of what of
either bulb would draw alone W1 = 4W2
BSNL(JTO)-2002 242. A house served by a 220 V supply light, is
Ans. (b) : protected by a 9-Ampere fuse. The maximum
number of 60W bulbs in parallel that can be
turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44
BSNL (JTO)-2006
Ans. (b) : Given that , V = 220V, I = 9A 246. ________ is shuttled back and forth between
∴ Total power (P) = V×I = 220×9 = 1980W the source and load
Maximum number of bulb that can be turned on - (a) True power (b) Reactive power
(c) Apparent power (d) Impedance power
Total Power
= Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
Maximum number of W bulbs Ans. (b) : Reactive power is shuttled back and forth
1980 between the source and load. The reactive power is
= = 33 measured in kilovolt-ampere reactive (kVAR) or MVAR.
60
243. In the circuit shown below, the current through 247. Siemens is a unit for measuring
the 3/11Ω resistance between terminals A & B (a) Conductance (b) Resistance
is (c) Flux density (d) Electric field
Ans. (a) : Siemens is a unit of electrical conductance.
In case of electrical, the conductance is reciprocal of
resistance.
248. Non-linear resistors
(a) produce harmonic distortion
(b) follows Ohm's law at low temperatures only
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp (c) result in non-uniform heating
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps (d) cannot realized
BSNL (JTO)-2006 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Applying nodal analysis method Ans. (a) : For a non-linear resistor, the graph of voltage
3 − VA 2 − VA 1 − VA 11VA and current is not linear.
+ + = Hence non linear resistor produces harmonic distortion.
3 2 1 3
249. The four stripes of a resistor are yellow-violet-
VA VA VA 11VA
1− +1− +1− = orange-gold. The value of the resistance should be
3 2 1 3 (a) 470Ω ± 5% (b) 47 kΩ ± 5%
11VA VA VA (c) 47MΩ ± 5% (d) 47 kΩ ± 10%
3= + + + VA
3 3 2 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
18 Ans. (b) : Yellow violet orange gold
VA = volt R = AB × 10C ± Tolerance
33
Now current through 3/11Ω resistor R = 47 ×103 ± 5%
18 11 R = 47 kΩ ± 5%
I= × = 2A
33 3 250. Energy needed to move 4 coulombs of charge is
244. If the period of a clock waveform is 1 µs, 4 joules. The potential difference is
calculate its frequency. (a) 2 Volt (b) 1 Volt
(a) 1 kHz (b) 2 kHz (c) 0.1 Volt (d) 0.2 Volt
(c) 1 MHz (d) 2 MHz RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 Ans. (b) : Given,
Ans. (c) : Time period: It is the time taken to complete Energy(E) = 4 joule
one full oscillation or cycle by the wave. Charge(q) = 4 coulomb
1 E = qV
Time period =
frequency E 4
V = = = 1V
Given that, T = 1µs q 4
1 251. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by
f= = 1MHz connecting it to a battery of e.m.f. (E). The
1µs
capacitor is now disconnected and reconnected
245. Which of the following is a passive component? to the battery with the polarity reversed. The
(a) Semi-conductor device heat developed in the connecting wires is
(b) Vacuum tube device (a) 0.5 CE2 (b) CE2
(c) Capacitors (c) 2 CE2 (d) 3 CE2
(d) All of these IES-2012
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I Ans. (c) : According to question
Ans. (c) : Capacitor is a passive component. Passive
network is one which contains no source of e.m.f.
A passive component is an electronic component which
can only receive energy, which it can either dissipate,
absorb or store it is an electric field or a magnetic field. ∆Q = Q1 – Q2 = CE – (– CE) = 2 CE
e.g R, L, C Then, Heat (H) = ∆Q × E = 2 CE × E = 2 CE2

252. What will be the value of Va in the given 256. In the given circuit what is value of current
circuit? through C1 and C2?
I = 10mA,C1 = 2µF,C2 = 3µF
(a) 4mA, 6mA (b) 6mA, 4mA

(a) 89 V (b) 142.8 V (c) 12mA, 2mA (d) 2mA,12mA
(c) 77 V (d) 100V KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II Ans. (a) : Given, I=10 mA, C1= 2 µF ,C2= 3µF
Ans. (b) :
Apply current division rule

I × C1 10 × 2
I1 = = = 4mA
C1 + C2 2 + 3
I × C2 10 × 3 30
Apply current division rule- I2 = = = = 6mA
The current flowing in 10Ω is - C1 + C2 5 5
20 × 25 257. An electric iron was rated 110V, 500W, If it
i10Ω =
( + 25)
10 was put across 220V, The new output power
will be
= 14.28A
(a) 250 W (b) 500 W
∴Va = i10Ω ×10
(c) 1000 W (d) 2000 W
=14.28 × 10 KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
Va =142.8Volt V 2
253. The algebraic sum of the voltages around any Ans. (d) : ∵ R = P
closed path is equal to: 110 × 110 121
(a) Infinite (b) 1 Resistance (R) = = Ω
(c) Indefinite (d) 0 500 5
DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II New output power -
Ans. (d) : Kirchhoff 's voltage law states that the V 2 220 × 220
algebraic sum of all voltages within a closed network or P = = = 2000W
R  121 
loop is equal to zero.  
 5 
254. What does the following figure represent?
258. What is product of form factor and peak
factor?
max.value max.value
(a) (b)
(a) Current controlled voltage source. rms value avg.value
(b) Voltage controlled current source. rms value avg.value
(c) Current controlled current source. (c) (d)
avg.value rms value
(d) Voltage controlled voltage source.
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014 KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) : We know that,
RMS value Max.value
Form factor×Peak factor = ×
Avg.value RMS value
Max.value
=
Given figure is a current controlled current source, Avg.value
because current is dependent on KIx
255. The voltage division and the current division 259. Power dissipation in an ideal inductor is
forms a (a) Infinity (b) Zero
(a) Orthogonal pair (b) Dual pair (c) Very low (d) Very high
(c) Complementary pair (d) Conjugate pair KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014 Ans. (b) : Power dissipation in an ideal inductor is zero.
Ans. (b) : The voltage division and the current division Power is dissipated only in the resistor. Capacitor and
forms a Dual pair. inductor only store energy not dissipate any power.
260. Find equivalent capacitance of the following 262. A gang capacitor has ______ varied by
circuit. changing ______ respectively.
(a) One capacitance, dielectric
(b) Two capacitances, plate area
(c) One capacitance, No of plates
(d) Two capacitances, distance between plates
2 1 UPRVUNL AE-2016
(a) 2 µF (b) 3 µF
3 3 Ans. (b) : Gang capacitor in general consists of inter
2 woven sets of metallic plates in which one is fixed and
(c) 4 µF (d) 6µF other is variable. It has two capacitances.
3
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
Ans. (a) :
The value of capacitance vary between 10 to 500µF.

263. For the ladder network of figure, obtain the
Equivalent Capacitance (Ceq )= 4 + ( 4 || 4 ) transfer resistance as expressed by the ratio of
4 × 8 32 Vin to I4.
= =
4 + 8 12
2
= 2 µF
3
261. The equivalent capacitance of the network
shown in the figure will be:
(All capacitance are in µF rage)
(a) 512 RL +125 (b) 125 RL + 187
(c) 41 RL + 150 (d) 150 RL +41
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (c) :
(a) 15 µF (b) 17 µF
(c) 16 µF (d) 18 µF
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (c) :
For Rth,
After solving
{
R th = (10 5 + 10 ) 5 + 10} 5
R th = 3.66Ω
For Vth,
10 × 10 100
Ceq1 = = = 5µF
10 + 10 20 Vin
10 ×10 100 Vth =
Ceq 2 = = = 5µF 40.97
10 + 10 20
For parallel capacitor
Ceq3 = 10 + 5 = 15µF
For series capacitor
15 ×10 150
Ceq 4 = = = 6µF
15 + 10 25
For parallel capacitor Vin
= 41R L + 150
Ceq5 = 10 + 6 = 16µF I4

264. Obtain the current Is in 10Ω resistor in figure Point A convert in delta
below:
⇓
(a) –4A (b) –1A
(c) –3.2A (d) –7A
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (b) : Apply source conversion method-
⇓
12
50 − 100
Is =
10 + 20 + 20 R XY = 17.4 ≃ 16.175Ω
−50
Is = = −1A 267. Obtain the current IT for the circuit below:
50
265. Use branch currents in the network shown in
below figure to find the current supplied by the
60 V source.
(a) 2A (b) 15 A
(c) 5 A (d) 10 A
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (c) :
(a) 8A (b) 6A
(c) 12A (d) 3A
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (b) : From given figure- Apply nodal at point –V
R eq = 7 + (12 || 6 ||12 ) V − 25 V V
+ + =0
R eq = 7 + 3 = 10Ω 2 6 6
3V − 75 + V + V = 0
60 5V = 75
I1 = = 6A
10 V = 15V
266. Find the equivalent resistance across the 25 − 15 10
terminals X–Y, for the below figure. IT = = = 5A
2 2
268. A practical current source has a current of 22.0
A. Loading the source with 50.0 Ω results in a
terminal voltage of 390.3V. Obtain the source
constants, I and R.
(a) 10.0A, 50Ω (b) 50.2A, 10Ω
(c) 27.5A, 50Ω (d) 22.0A, 27.5Ω
(a) 32.35Ω (b) 64.5Ω TNTRB AE– 2017
(c) 16.175Ω (d) 5.35Ω Ans. (d) : From the question-
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (c) :
Apply KCL at node A

390.3 390.3
22 = +
R 50
390.3
22 − 7.80 =
R
390.3 Ans. (b) : Consume it is a silicon diode-
R= = 27.5 Ω The voltage across the resistor-
14.2
Given that constant source current VR = 5 − 0.7
So, I=22A VR = 4.3V
269. Determine the power delivered by the current Current in the circuit-
source in figure below:
5 − 0.7
I= = 8.43 × 10−3 A = 8.43 mA
510
272. The color code for a 47 Ω resistor with 1%
tolerance would be :
(a) yellow, violet, black, brown
(b) yellow, blue, black, black
(c) yellow, green, brown, gold
(a) 156 W (b) 498 W (d) yellow, blue, brown, silver
(c) 228 W (d) 59 W KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
TNTRB AE– 2017 Ans. (a) : Color code for resistor is-
Ans. (c) : Current in 2Ω resistor = 4A 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
∴ Current in 4Ω resistor = 2A B BR O Y G BV G W
Total current (I) = 4+2=6A 47 Ω → Color coding with 1% tolerance means-
19
R eq = 5 + (4 || 2) = Ω
3
Power delivered by the current source-
P = I2 R Hence, we have (yellow, violet, black, brown)
19 273. Using mesh analysis the current through the 4
= 36 ×
3 ohm resistor in a circuit shown below is :
P = 228W
270. Find the current I in figure below:
35 40
(a) A (b) A
22 22
39 5
(c) A (d) A
22 12
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
(a) 16.2A (b) 6.5A Ans. (a) : Given circuit is-
(c) –25A (d) 35.7A
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (a) : Apply source conversion-
By KVL (for first loop)

10 − 2I1 − 4 ( I1 + I 2 ) = 0
10 − 2I1 − 4I1 − 4I2 = 0
750 + 60 6I1 + 4I 2 = 10 ........................(i)
I= Similarly, KVL for second loop.
50
I = 16.2A 5 − 6I2 − 4 ( I 2 + I1 ) = 0
271. For a series circuit having a voltage source, a 5 − 6I2 − 4I 2 − 4I1 = 0
resistor and an ideal diode, the voltage across 4I1+10I2 =5 .......(ii)
the resistor and the circuit current are- from equation (i) and (ii)
20 −5
I1 = , I2 =
11 22
Hence, current through the 4 ohm resistor is-
I4Ω = I1+I2
20 5 40 − 5
= − =
11 22 22
(a) 4.3V and 8.34 mA (b) 4.3V and 8.43 mA
35
(c) 3.4V and 4.83 mA (d) 3.4V and 3.48 mA I4Ω = A
TNTRB AE– 2017 22
274. If I is the current flowing through conductor 12 × 110 ×11
and V is the potential difference across its end, + 12R = 23 R
4
then Ohm's Law is expressed as :
12 × 110 × 11
L1 1L = 11 R
(a) V = I (b) V = I 4
Aρ σA
R = 330 Ω
L A
(c) V = σ I (d) V = σ I 277. If a capacitor stores 100 µC charge at 10 volts,
A L
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017 the capacitance value is :
Ans. (b) : We know that, (a) 100 µF (b) 1000 µF
(c) 10 µF (d) 1 µF
ℓ
R = ρ .....(i) KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
A Ans. (c) : Given,
V = IR .....(ii)
Capacitor charged store (q) = 100µC,
Put the value of R in equation (ii)
voltage = 10 volts
ρℓ q = CV
V= I
A
∵ Resistivity is the reciprocal of conductivity- q 100 × 10−6
C= =
1 V 10
∴ρ = C = 10 µF
σ
278. An equivalent single current source between
1 ℓ 'A' and 'B' in the following figure will be :
V= I
σA
275. The resistances in the higher range are mostly
made of :
(a) Carbon (b) Aluminium
(c) Silicon (d) Germanium
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
Ans. (a) : The resistances in the higher range are mostly
made of carbon.
ρ = resistivity of carbon = 3.5–4.6×10–5Ωm.
Melting point = 3500°C
Carbon is used automatic voltage regulator for making
the pressure sensitive pile resistor.
(a) 2A, 10Ω (b) 1A, 5Ω
It is high resistive material.
(c) 2A, 5Ω (d) 1A, 10Ω
276. A filament lamp of 40W, 110V is connected in
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
series with resistance R. If the supply voltage is
230 V, the value of resistance R should be : Ans. (c) : Using source conversion method,
(a) 330 ohm (b) 340 ohm Equivalent circuit diagram-
(c) 130 ohm (d) 240 ohm
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
Ans. (a) : Given, P1 = 40 Watt, V1 = 110 V, R1 = ?
V12 110 ×110
∵ R1 = =
P 40
279. Using the method of mesh currents, any

resistance common to two meshes has:
(a) two opposing mesh currents
(b) one common mesh currents
(c) zero current
Vbulb = 110V (d) half of sum of the two mesh currents
VR = 230 – 110 = 120 V KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
By using voltage division rule, Ans. (b) : Using the method of mesh currents, any
230 × R resistance common to two meshes has one common
120 = mesh currents.
110 × 11
+R If branch is common to two meshes, the branch current
4 will be equal to the sum (or difference) of the two mesh
 110 × 11  currents when they are in the same (or opposite)
∴ 12  + R  = 23 R
 4  direction.

280. The inductor is a two-terminal energy storage 284. Power dissipated in 10 Ω resistor will be:
device whose voltage is proportional to the:
(a) Integral of the current passing through it
(b) Integral of the flux across it
(c) Derivative of the current passing through it
(d) Derivative of the charge across it
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (c) : The inductor is a two-terminal energy storage
device whose voltage is proportional to the derivative of
the current passing through it. (a) 40 W (b) 30 W
di (c) 20 W (d) 10 W
VL = L KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
dt
Ans. (d) : In the given circuit-
281. A 100 Ω resistor has a conductance of:
(a) 0.01 S (b) 0.1 S
(c) 0.001 S (d) 1 S
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (a) : Conductance is reciprocal of resistance
1
G=
R
1
G= = 0.01 S
100 20 × 60 1200
R eq1 = = = 15Ω
282. The motion of ion charges in a liquid or gas is 20 + 60 80
called: R eq1 = 10 + 15 + 30 = 55Ω
(a) Corona effect
(b) Hole flow 120 − 65 55
Total current (I) = = = 1A
(c) Superconductivity 55 55
(d) Ionization current Power dissipation in 10 Ω resistor
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018 P10Ω = I2R = 1 × 10 = 10W
Ans. (d) : The motion of ion charges in a liquid or gas 285. How many equations are necessary to solve a
is called ionization current. circuit with two principal nodes?
283. The equivalent resistance seen between 'P' and (a) 3 (b) 2
'Q' will be: (c) 4 (d) 1
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (d) : Number of equation in KCL = N–1
N = number of nodes
So, 2–1 = 1
Number of equation in KVL = b – (N – 1)
Where, b = Number of branch
286. What is unit of reciprocal of reluctance ?
(a) 15 Ω (b) 10 Ω (a) Henry (b) Henry/meter
(c) 20 Ω (d) 25 Ω (c) meter/Henry (d) Henry–1
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018 UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
Ans. (c) : Ans. (a) : Reciprocal of reluctance is – Permeance
flux φ
Permeance = =
mmf NI
Weber
Unit of permeance = = Henry
Amp − Turn
287. What is the average value of periodic function
v(t) shown in the figure given below?
R eq1 = ( 30 || 30 ) + 5 = 20Ω
R eq2 = ( 20 || 20 ) = 10Ω
R eq3 = 10 + 10 = 20Ω
R eq 4 = 20 || 20 = 10 Ω
(a) ( V cos φ ) / π (b) ( V sin φ ) / π
R PQ = R eq5 = 10 + 10 = 20Ω
(c) ( 2V cos φ ) / π (d) V/π
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
Ans. (a) : (d) All these
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
Ans. (d) :
1 T
f ( t ) dt
T ∫0
f avg =
1 π−φ π+φ
f avg = ∫ V sin ( t ) dt + ∫ V sin ( t ) dt
2π 0 π
From circuit-
1
f avg = ( −V cos ( π − φ ) + V cos 0 ) + ( V cos φ − V )  (i) Both the resistors carry same amount of current-
2π  (ii) R eq = R 1 + R 2
V cos φ
f avg = Total resistance equals the sum of all series resistances
π (iii) E = IR 1 + IR 2
288. Consider the following given figure and
calculate RAB. ∑ E = ∑ IR
Sum of individual voltage drop (IR) equals the applied
voltage
292. Which of the following is false about three
unequal resistances connected in parallel?
(a) Voltage across each branch is same
(b) Reciprocal of the net resistance of the entire
(a) 0.5 Ohm (b) 2 Ohm circuit equals the sum of reciprocals of the
(c) 3 Ohm (d) 7 Ohm individual resistance
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 (c) The sum of the branch currents is equal to the
Ans. (b) : RAB = 1+1 = 2Ω total current supplied by the battery
289. In an open device, current through it is (d) Current in each branch is equal
(a) zero and voltage is unknown KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
(b) known and voltage is zero Ans. (d) :
(c) zero and voltage is also zero
(d) unknown and voltage is also unknown
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
Ans. (a) : In an open device, current through it is zero
and voltage is unknown.
290. An energy source forces a constant current of 5
(i) V = I1R 1 = I2 R 2 = I3 R 3
ampere for 4 sec to flow through a light bulb. If
3 kJ is give in terms of light energy, the voltage 1 1 1 1
drop across the bulb is ________. (ii) = + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
(a) 150 V (b) 75 V
(c) 25 V (d) 100 V (iii) I = I1 + I2 + I3
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016 293. The algebraic sum of all voltage drops and
Ans. (a) : Given that, I = 5 A, T = 4 sec, E = 3kJ EMFs in any closed loop of a circuit is zero.
E = I2RT This law is called
(a) Ohm's law
V  V
= I2 × × T ∵ R =  (b) Kirchhoff's Current Law
I  I (c) Kirchhoff's Voltage Law
∴ E = I × V ×T (d) Snell's Law
∴ 3×103 = 5×V×4 KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
3 ×103 Ans. (c) Kirchhoff’s voltage law- The algebraic sum of
V= all voltage drops and EMFs in any closed loop of a
20 circuit is zero.
V = 150 volt
291. Which of the following is true about the two
resistors connected in series?
(a) Both the resistors carry same amount of
current
(b) Total resistance equals the sum of all series
resistances E − I1R 1 − I 2 R 2 = 0
(c) Sum of individual voltage drop (IR) equals
the applied voltage ∑ E −∑ IR = 0
294. A principal node is a 299. Find the resistance R1 and R3 in the following
(a) junction where branch current can combine or circuit
divide
(b) closed path or loop where the algebraic sum
of voltages must be zero
(c) simple possible closed path around a circuit
(d) None of these
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
Ans. (a) : A principal node is a junction where branch
current can combine or divide.
A principal node is one that has three or more
connection.
(a) 4.11, 6.78 (b) 4.11, 5.78
295. The reluctance offered by a magnetic circuit
(c) 7.23, 3.19 (d) 5.09, 3.18
consisting of two parallel paths acted upon by
DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
same magneto motive force is equal to
(a) half the reluctance of each path ( )
Ans. (d) :Voltage a cross R2 resister VR 2 = 24 –5–8
(b) the reluctance of each path
VR 2 = 11V
(c) twice the reluctance of each path
(d) thrice the reluctance of each path
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
Ans. (a) : The reluctance offered by a magnetic circuit
consisting of two parallel paths acted upon by same
magneto motive force is equal to half the reluctance of
each path.
296. A current source of 2 mA has an internal
resistance of 20 MΩ. Current source is stiff,
when the load resistance is from _____. VR 11
(a) 0 to 200 kΩ (b) 0 to 20 kΩ Current (I) = 2 = A
R2 7
(c) 0 to 100 kΩ (d) 0 to 2 kΩ
( )
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016 Voltage across R1 register VR1 = I × R1
Ans. (b) : A current source of 2 mA has an internal 11
resistance of 20 MΩ. Current source is stiff, when the 8 = × R1
load resistance is from 0 to 20 kΩ. 7
56
297. Which of the following is not true about voltage R1 = = 5.09 Ω
source? 11
(a) Source resistance (Rs) is typically low
(b) Load resistance is greater than 100 Rs
( )
Voltage across R3 register VR 3 = I × R3
(c) Load voltage is constant 11
5 = × R3
(d) Load current is constant and independent of 7
load resistance (RL) R3 = 3.18Ω
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
300. Find the current flowing through the resistor
Ans. (b) : We know about voltage source- R 3?
Source resistance (Rs) is typically low
Load voltage is constant
Load current is constant and independent of load
resistance (RL)
298. If all the elements in a circuit are carrying the
equal amount of current then the elements are
said to be in _____ connection.
(a) Parallel (b) Series
(a) 0.48 A (b) 0.96 A
(c) Undefined path (d) closed
(c) 0.24 A (d) 1.2 A
DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
Ans. (b) : If all the elements in a circuit are carrying the Ans. (b) :
equal amount of current then the elements are said to be
in series connection.

According to Ohm's law at 2Ω resistance 305. Kirchhoff's junction rule and loop rule for an
Vm = 2i electrical network are respectively based on
Apply KVL in loop A B E F A (a) Conservation of energy, Conservation of
10-2i - 5 (i-i1) - 3Vm = 0 [Vm = 2i] charge
13i - 5i1 = 10 ..........(1) (b) Conservation of charge, conservation of
Again apply KVL in loop B C D E B momentum
-3i1 - 5i1 +3Vm + 5(i-i1) = 0 [Vm= 2i] (c) Conservation of energy, conservation of
11i - 13 i1 = 0 momentum
(d) Conservation of charge, conservation of
13i energy
i= 1
11 RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I
Put value of "i" in equation ...(i) Ans. (d) : Kirchhoff's junction rule is based on
 13i  conservation of charge and Kirchhoff’s loop rule is
13  1  − 5i1 = 10 based on conservation of energy.
 11  306. One Coulomb is equal to charge on _____
i1 = 0.96 Amp. electrons.
301. Siemens is a unit for measuring (a) 1.602×10-19 (b) 6.28×1018
(a) Conductance (b) Resistance (c) 1.67×10-27 (d) 6.18×10-28
(c) Flux density (d) Electric field Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I Ans. (b) : q = ne
Ans. (a) : Siemens is the unit of measuring q = 1 C e = 1.6 × 10–19
conductance. q 1
Conductance is reciprocal of resistance. n= =
e 1.6 × 10−19
1
R∝ n = 6.28 × 1018
G
307. A network N consists of resistors and
302. Watt hour is the unit of independent voltage and current sources. Its
(a) Electric power (b) Electric capacity value of the determinant based on the node
(c) Electric energy (d) Electric charge analysis
RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-III 1. cannot be negative
Ans. (c) : Watt hour is the unit of electrical energy. 2. cannot be zero
303. In house wiring the green wire indicates the 3. is independent of the values of voltage and
(a) Phase (b) Neutral current sources
(c) Earth wire (d) Dead wire (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-II (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c) : In house wiring green wire indicates earth IES-2013
wire and black wire indicates neutral wire. Ans. (a) : In electric circuit nodal analysis is a method
304. A material has conductivity of 10–2 mho/m and of determining the voltage between "nodes" in an
a relative permittivity of 4. The frequency at electrical circuit in terms of the branch current. When
network consist of resistor and independent voltage and
which the conduction current in the medium is
current source. The value of the determinant based on
equal to the displacement current is the node analysis cannot be negative or zero. It is
(a) 45 MHz (b) 90 MHz independent of the values of voltages and current
(c) 450 MHz (d) 900 MHz sources.
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016 308. The equivalent resistance between the points A
Ans.(a): Given, conductivity ( σ ) = 10–2 mho/m and D is
Relative permittivity ( εr ) = 4
J C = σE
δD
JD = = ωD = ωε 0ε r E
δt
Both current are equal
JC = J D (a) 10 Ω (b) 20 Ω
σE = ωε0 ε r E (c) 30 Ω (d) 40 Ω
σ IES-2015
ω=
ε0ε r Ans. (c) : R eq = 10 + (10 + 10 ) || (10 + 10 )  + 10
10−2 R AD = R eq = 10 + [ 20 || 20] + 10
f=
2π× 8.85 × 10−12 × 4 Req = 10 + 10 + 10
f = 45 MHz Req = 30Ω

309. For the active network shown in figure, the Ans. (d) : To find equivalent resistance (Req)
value of V/I is 1Ω & 1Ω are in series then,
Now 2Ω & 2Ω are in parallel then-

Req = 2+1 = 3Ω
(a) 2 Ω (b) 2.4 Ω 312. In the below circuit, find the equivalent
(c) 3.6 Ω (d) 10 Ω resistance (Req)
IES-2015
Ans. (c) :
(a) 0.32Ω (b) 0.56Ω

(c) 32Ω (d) 5.6Ω
SAIL- 2014
Apply KVL in loop Ans. (a) :
4(I − I1 ) + 2I − 6I1 = 0
4I − 4I1 + 2I − V = 0 [V = 6I1]
V V
6I − 4 × −V = 0 ∴ I1 =
6 6 Since given figure change in another form, we have
10V V 1
6I = current (I) = = = 1A
6 R 1
V 1 25
= 3.6Ω Thus, I1 = I + 2I + =
I 8 8
310. A bar of certain material having rectangular = 3.125A
cross section is one metre in length and has a V 1
cross section of 0.0001 square metres. The Req = = = 0.32Ω
I1 3.125
value of its longitudinal resistance is 100 ohms.
The value of its resistivity would be : 313. Find the current 'I' in the following diagram
(a) 1 ohm metre (b) 0.01 ohm metre
(c) 0.0001 ohm metre (d) 100 ohm metre
BSNL(JTO)-2002
ℓ
Ans. (b) : R = ρ
A
RA (a) 7A (b) 8A
ρ= (c) 9A (d) 10A
ℓ
BEL-2015
100 × 0.0001
= Ans. (a) :
1
= 0.01 ohm metre
311. In the below circuit, find the equivalent
resistance (Req)
Apply Nodal at point 'V'

V V−5
+ − 10 = 0
5 10
2V + V–5 = 100
3V = 105
(a) 6Ω (b) 5Ω V = 35
2 Thus,
(c) Ω (d) 3Ω 35
3 I= = 7A
SAIL- 2014 5
314. What is the power delivered by the current 317. For the circuit given below the Voltage across
source 12Ω is
(a) 50W (b) –50W

(c) 90W (d) 100W (a) 28V (b) 12V
BEL-2015 (c) 34V (d) 18V
Ans. (a) : BARC Scientific Officer-2016
Ans. (a) :
Apply Nodal at point 'V' we have-

V V −3
+ −2=0
6 12 Apply source conversion method-
2V + V–3 – 24 = 0
V = 9V
Thus, –V2A + (2×8)+9 = 0
V2A = 25V
P = 25×2 = 50 W Apply nodal at point V-
315. What power absorbed by R V − 80 V − 16 V
+ + =0
12 6 12
V − 80 + 2V − 32 + V = 0
4V = 112
V = 28V
V12Ω = 28V
318. Find the Resistance value showing by graph.
(a) 5W (b) 0W
(c) 4W (d) 1W
BEL-2015
Ans. (b) : 50×40 = 100×20
2000 = 2000
Since the circuit is in balance condition, Hence No
current flow in the resistor R so, power absorbed R will
be zero.
316.
(a) 0.5Ω (b) 2Ω

(c) 0.25Ω (d) 4Ω
BARC Scientific Officer-2016
Calculate the equivalent resistance in the above Ans. (b) : Given as, graph between voltage & current
circuit we have-
(a) 6Ω (b) 9 Ω
(c) 7.7 Ω (d) 12 Ω
DMRC AM S&T-2020
Ans. (a) :
Since resistance R is a linear device

Req = 4+(3||6) ∆V 8
Req = 4+2 = 6Ω R= = = 2Ω
∆I 4
319. Find V0 in the following circuit? 2V2 –2V1 +5V2 +V2 –15 = 0
8V2–2V1 = 15 –––––(iv)
After solving equation (ii) and (iv) we get
V2 = 2.79
V1 = 3.69
Voltage across 10Ω resistor is →
= 15 –V2
(a) 7.76V (b) 8.95V = 15 – 2.79 = 12.21V
(c) 5.43V (d) 12V Power loss in 10Ω resistor
V 2 (12.21)
BARC Scientific Officer-2016 2
Ans. (a) : P= =
R 10
= 14.9 W.
321. Find V in the following circuit?
Apply nodal, analysis at point V-

V−2 V V (a) – 3.4V (b) – 4.3V
+ + −2=0 (c) – 5.2V (d) – 9.5V
10 20 16
8V − 16 + 4V + 5V − 160 = 0 AAI-2015
176 Ans. (a) :
V=
17
Apply voltage division rule-
12
V0 = V ×
12 + 4
Applying KVL in loop-
176 12 132
× = = 7.764V 1.5 – 5I – 10 = 0
17 16 17 5I = –8.5
320. What is the power loss in the 10Ω resistor in −8.5
the network shown in figure? I= = – 1.7
5
from, V = IR
V = –1.7×2
= –3.4V
322. The magnitude of emf induced in a wire does
not depend upon
(a) length of wire (b) diameter of wire
(c) speed of wire (d) flux density of field
(a) 15.31 W (b) 15.13 W Ans. (c) : The magnitude of emf induced in a wire does
(c) 12.3 W (d) 13.2 W not depends upon speed of wire.
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017
323. Two capacitance of 80µF and 50µF are
Ans. (*) : connected in series. When 200V at 50 Hz are
applied across the series circuit, the maximum
energy stored in the circuit will be
(a) 0.63 J (b) 1.23 J
(c) 2.66 J (d) 3.26 J
IES-2020
Ans. (a) :
KCL at V1
V1 − 15 V1 V1 − V2
+ + = 0 ––––(i)
8 3 5
15V1–225+40V1+24V1 +24V2 = 0
79V1 –24V2 = 225 –––––(ii)
Now KCL at node V2- The series equivalent capacitance of circuit
V2 − V1 V2 V2 − 15  CC 
+ + = 0 –––––(iii) Ceq =  1 2 
5 2 10  C1 + C 2 
80 × 50 400 Req = RL || RAD
Ceq = = µF
130 13 200 × 200
R eq = = 100 Ω
Then the maximum energy stored in the circuit 200 + 200
1 R e q = 100 Ω
E = Ceq V 2
2
1 400 326. Two resistors R1 and R2 give combined
E= × ×10−6 × 200 × 200 resistance of 4.5 Ω When in series and 1Ω when
2 13 in parallel, the resistances are
8 (a) 2Ω and 2.5Ω (b) 1Ω and 3.5Ω
E=
13 (c) 1.5Ω and 3Ω (d) 4Ω and 0.5Ω
E = 0.63 J UJVNL AE-2016
Ans. (c) : Form Given information -
324. V-I characteristics of a device are shown in
figure below- the element is R1+R2 = 4.5Ω …..(i)
R1 ⋅ R 2
=1
R1 + R 2
R1 ⋅ R 2 = 4.5Ω ....(ii)
From equation (i) & (ii)
R1 = 1.5 Ω & R 2 = 3Ω
327. The condition for the validity of Ohm’s law is
that the
(a) Temperature should be remain constant
(a) non-linear, active, bilateral (b) Current should be proportional to the voltage
(b) non-linear, passive, bilateral (c) Resistance must be wire wound type
(c) non-linear, active, unilateral (d) All of these
(d) linear, passive, unilateral Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
Ans. (d) : The condition for the validity of Ohm’s law
Ans. (b) : (i) Given element is non-linear because V-I is that-
characteristic is non-linear. Temperature should be remain constant
(ii) Given element is passive because the product of V Current should be proportional to the voltage
and I is positive. Resistance must be wire wound type
(iii) Given element is bilateral because characteristic is From Ohm’s law-
symmetrical about origin. I∝V
325. Find the equivalent resistance R for the V
network shown in the figure. I=
R
V = IR
328. The wavelength of emitted radiation by
electron while transiting from one energy state
of –15eV to other energy state of –5eV is
(a) 1000Å (b) 1240Å
(c) 1280Å (d) 1300Å
(a) 200 ohms (b) 101 ohms ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
(c) 220 ohms (d) 100 ohms Ans.(b): We know that,
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 hc
E=
Ans. (d) : λ
λ=?
Energy E = –5eV –(–15 eV)
= 10 eV
hc 6.62 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
∴ λ= = = 1240 Å
E 10 × 1.6 × 10 −19
329. The unit of resistivity is:
Resistance across A and C (a) ohms (b) ohm millimeter
R AC = R 2 || R 3 (c) ohm metre (d) ohm/metre
200 × 200
R AC = Ans. (c) : R = ρ
ℓ
200 + 200 A
RAC = 100Ω
Now, RA Ω − m 2
Resistivity (ρ) = = =Ω–m
RAD = 100 + 100 = 200Ω ℓ m
330. The unit of electrical conductivity is 334. The relationship between the electric field E
(a) mho/meter (b) mho/m2 and the current density J in a conducting
(c) ohm/m (d) ohm/m2 medium (where σ is the conductivity) is:
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I (a) J = σE (b) J = σ/Ε
Ans. (a) : The unit of electrical conductivity is defined (c) J = E/σ (d) J = σ2Ε
by reciprocal of electrical resistivity. It is equal to APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
Siemens/meter or mho/meter. Ans. (a) : ∵ Ohm’s law-
331. Percentage tolerance in the resistance values of V = IR
carbon film resistors is I
(a) 1% to 3% (b) 2% to 8% ∵Current dencity (J) =
A
(c) 5% to 20% (d) 8% to 25%
ℓ
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I Resistance R = ρ
Ans. (c) : Typical resistor tolerances for film resistors A
range from 1% to 10% while carbon resistors have RA
Resistivity ( ρ ) =
tolerances up to 20% ℓ
332. An ideal constant voltage source is connected in 1
series with an ideal constant current source. Conductivity (σ) =
Resistivity (ρ)
Considered together, the combination will be a
(a) Constant voltage source ℓ
σ=
(b) Constant current source RA
(c) Constant voltage and a constant current ℓ  ℓ  I  1
source or a constant power source σ= =    = .J
(d) Resistance  V   V  A  E
 A
IES-1999  I
Ans. (b) : An ideal constant current source is connected J = σE
in series with an ideal constant voltage source, then the
335. The time constant for given circuit will be
voltage source is redundant as the current in the circuit
is independent of any element connected in series.
Therefore, the combination will be constant current
source
(a) 1/9s (b) 1/4s

(c) 4s (d) 9s
Ans. (c) : Equivalent capacitance
2 ×1
333. A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is Ceq = R eq = 6 Ω
connected across an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. 2 +1
The maximum current in the circuit is 2 2
Ceq = τ = RC = × 6
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1A 3 3
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A
BSNL (JTO)-2006 τ = 4sec
Ans. (b) : C = 1µF V = 10V 336. In the network shown below, the voltage
Energy store in capacitor between points a and b is
E = CV 2 = × 1× 10−6 × 102
1 1
C 2 2
= 50×10–6
Lets I is the maximum current
Store energy in inductor
1 (a) 14 V (b) 5 V
E = LI 2 (c) 10 V (d) None of the above
2 TNTRB AE– 2017
Which is equal to V Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
1 1 ∵ L = 0.1mH  Ans. (a) :
CV 2 = LI 2  −4 
2 2  L = 10 H 
1
50 ×10–6 = 10−4 I2
2
100×10–2 = I2 = 1 Vab = 5×1 + 5 + 10 – 6 × 1
I = 1 =1 I = 1A = 14V

337. (a) –94.34 mA (b) –70.34 mA
(c) 70.34 mA (d) 94.34 mA
BSNL(JTO)-2009
Ans. (a) :
Apply nodal at point VA-

VA − 15 VA VA + 51Vx
+ + =0 ……….(i)
7 7 19
Vx = 2I ………………… …(ii)
VA + 51Vx
The periodic square wave is applied across the ∵ =I
19
terminals of a 15Ω resistor. The value of Vm is
VA + 51× 2I
60V and T is 5 ms. The DC component of V(t); =I
(a) 12V (b) 75V 19
(c) 15V (d) 9V VA =19I–102I
UPMRC AM - 2020 VA= –83I……………………..(iii)
Ans. (c) : for DC voltage÷ Put the value of VA and Vx in question (i)
1 T −83I − 15 ( −83I ) ( −83I ) + 51× 2I
VDC = ∫ V ( t ) dt + + =0
T 0 7 7 19
1 T/4 −83I − 15 ( −83I ) ( −83I ) + 2I × 51
VDC = ∫ 60dt + + =0
T 0 7 7 19
VDC =
T
(
60 T
4
−0) −166I − 15 19I
7
+
19
=0
VDC = 15V –166 I –15 +7I = 0
–159I = 15
338.
−15
I=
159
I = –94.34 mA
340. One electron volt is equal to
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 Joule (b) 54.6 × 10–9 Joule
–12
(c) 4.6 × 10 Joule (d) 1.3 × 10–7 Joule
Ans. (a) : 1 eV is equal to 1.6 × 10–19 Joule. It is a unit
The conductance and power for the given of energy which used in semiconductor physics.
circuit, respectively are : 341. Which of the following is a passive component?
(a) 0.2S and 180mW (b) 0.2mS and 180 mW (a) Semi-conductor device
(c) 0.2mS and 180W (d) 0.2S and 180W (b) Vacuum tube device
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 (c) Capacitors
V2 302 (d) All of these
Ans. (b) : Power (P) = = = 180mW Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I
R 5 × 1000
1 1 Ans. (c) : Passive network is one which contains no
Conductance (G) = = = 0.2ms source of e.m.f.
R 5000 A passive component is an electronic component which
339. In the circuit shown in figure, the can only receive energy, which it can either dissipate,
current/through 2 Ω resistor is absorb or store it in an electric field or a magnetic field.
e.g R, L, C etc.
342. A resistor of 1500 ohms is required in a radio
but only 1000 ohms resistors are available.
How will the available 1000 ohms resistors be
connected to serve the purpose?
(a) One in series and two in parallel
(b) Three in parallel
(c) Four in parallel and one in series
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) : When we have resister of 1000 Ω and need Ans. (c) : Kirchhoff’s voltage law (KVL) – The
total equal resistance of 1500 Ω. Then there is one algebraic sum of all the voltage drop in any closed loop
resistor in series and two resistor are in parallel. of a network is always zero.
R1= R2 = R3 = 1000 Ω
According to KVL -
R .R
R AB = R 1 + 2 3 ΣE − IR = 0
R2 + R3
E1 − IR − E 2 = 0
R AB = 1500Ω
Note- KVL law is based on “conservation of energy”.
343. Find the value of V0 in the figure
345. Ohm's law is applicable to
(a) DC circuit only
(b) AC circuit only
(c) DC circuit as well as AC circuit, provided
account is taken of the induced emf resulting
from the self-inductance of circuit in cross
section of circuit
(d) DC circuit as well as AC circuit, provided
account is taken of the induced emf resulting
(a) 1/2 V (b) –1/2 V from mutual inductance of circuit and of the
(c) 0 V (d) –3/2 V distribution of current in cross section of
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 circuit.
Ans. (b) : IES-2020
Ans. (d) : Ohm’s law- The ratio of potential difference
(V) at two point on a conductor to the current (I)
flowing them is constant, when all the physical
parameter does not change.
for DC circuit -
V
= Constant
I
V
=R
I
Where, R= resistance of conductor between two point.
For AC circuit -
I = 1+I1 V V
I= =
I1 = I–1 Z R + jX
Apply KVL in the circuit- Where, X = L1 + L2 ± 2M
–1+1×(–I)+(–I1)+1 = 0 So, we can say Ohm's law's applicable to both DC as
–1–I–(I–1) +1 = 0 well as AC circuit provided that mutual inductance of
–1–I–I+1+1 = 0 the circuit is taken into account.
1 • Ohm’s law is applicable for linear and bilateral circuit.
I= 346. Two coils are connected in parallel and a
2
voltage of 200 V is applied to the terminals. The
1 1
I1 = − 1 = − total current taken is 15 A and the power
2 2 dissipated in one of the coils is 1500 W, the
V0 = I1 R resistance of each coil will be nearly
1 (a) 26.7Ω and 23.4Ω (b) 22.4Ω and 23.4Ω
= − ×1
2 (c) 26.7Ω and 26.7Ω (d) 22.4Ω and 26.7Ω
IES-2020
1
V0 = − V Ans. (c) :
2
344. According to Kirchhoff's voltage law, the
algebraic sum of all the voltage in any closed
loop of a network is always
(a) Negative (b) Positive
(c) Zero (d) Determined by the battery emf
IES-2020
∵ DC source of 200V connected across the parallel Ans. (a) : Kirchhoff's current law works on the
network then the inductor L1, L2 will be short circuited. principle of conservation of charge.
The equivalent resistance of the circuit- Kirchhoff’s current law is “the algebraic sum of all
V 200 40 current entering and leaving a node must equal to zero”.
R eq = = = Ω Ientering = Ileaving
I 15 3
Power dissipated in one coil = 1500W
V2
Then resistance of these coil R1 =
P
200 × 200 400 80
R1 = = = = 26.67Ω
1500 15 3
40
∵ Req = Ω
3
80
And R1 = Ω I1 + I4 = I 2 + I3 + I5
3
I1 − I 2 − I3 + I4 − I5 = 0
80
× R2 349. The current in a coil self-inductance of 4H
40
Then- = 3 changes from 10 A to 2A in t seconds and the
3  80 
 + R2  induced emf is 40V. The time is
 3  (a) 0.2s (b) 0.4s
80 (c) 0.6s (d) 0.8s
R2 = = 26.67Ω
3 IES-2018
347. Two resistance, one of 30Ω and another of Ans. (d) : As we know that,
unknown value, are connected in parallel. The di
total power dissipated in the circuit is 450 W e = −L
dt
when the applied voltage is 90 V. The unknown
resistance is ( I2 − I1 )
=L
(a) 45Ω (b) 35Ω dt
(c) 30Ω (d) 20Ω (-ve sign will be neglected for calculation )
IES-2019 4(10 − 2)
Ans. (a) : As given that, 40 =
dt
Total power = 450W
32 4
VI = 450W t= = = 0.8s
450 40 5
I= = 5A
90 350. A network in which all the elements are
In 30Ω resistance current will be- physically separable is called a
90 (a) distributed network (b) lumped network
I' = = 3A (c) passive network (d) reactive network
30
In RΩ resistance the current will be = 5−3 = 2A IES-2017
90 Ans. (b) : A network in which all the elements are
Hence, resistance (R) = = 45Ω physically separable is called a lumped network.
2 Lumped network-
Use simple geometry with a few RLC elements
(e.g. π equivalent circuit).
Efficient but lack accuracy.
I Should only be used for low performance/speed
design.
The voltage and currents in such a circuit are
functions of time only.
In circuit theory, we assume the physical dimension
of a circuit element are much smaller than the
+ −
electrical wavelength.
348. The Kirchhoff's current law works on the
principle of conservation of 351. Consider the following factors:
1. charge 2. energy 1. Number of turns of the coil
3. power 2. Length of the coil
Which of the above is/are correct? 3. Area of cross-section of the coil
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. Permeability of the coil
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 On which of the above factors does inductance,
IES-2018 depend?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Ans. (a) :
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only
IES-2017
Ans. (c) : As we know that,
N 2µ0µr A RB RC
L=
ℓ
Where, N = No. of turns of the coil
µ0 = Permeability of the coil in air
µr = Relative permeability of the coil Delta to star conversion
A = Area of the coil R AB × R AC R∆ × R∆
RA = =
ℓ = Length of the coil R AB + R BC + R AC R ∆ + R ∆ + R ∆
Inductance (L) depends on following factors-
R AB × R BC R∆ × R∆ R
(i) Number of turns of the coil RB = = = ∆
(ii) Length of the coil R AB + R BC + R AC R ∆ + R ∆ + R ∆ 3
(iii) Area of cross-section of the coil R∆
(iv) Permeability of the core Similarly, R A = R B = R C =
3
352. Consider the following statements pertaining to
354. Seven resistances each of 5 Ω are connected as
the resistance of a conductor: shown a figure. The equivalent resistance
1. Resistance can be simply defined as the between the points A and B is
ratio of voltage across the conductor to the
current through the conductor. This is, in
fact, Georg Ohm's law
2. Resistance is a function of voltage and
current
3. Resistance is a function of conductor
geometry and its conductivity
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3Ω (b) 11Ω
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 15Ω (d) None of the above
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 IES-2015
IES-2016 Ans. (d) :
Ans. (c) : Ohm's law:- It states that the current through
a conductor between two points is directly proportional
to the voltage across the two points. It is given by 5Ω
M N
mathematical equation
O
(i) I∝V
1
I =  V
R By converting delta to star-
V = IR 5×5 25 5
We can see that R is actually the proportionality OM = = = = 1.25 Ω
5 + 5 + 10 20 4
constant, it does not depends upon V and I. 5 × 10 50 5
ℓ ON = = = = 2.5 Ω
(ii) R= ρ 5 + 5 + 10 20 2
A 5 ×10 50 5
ℓ OB = = = = 2.5 Ω
R= 5 + 5 + 10 20 2
σA
Here we can see that resistance is a function of
conductor geometry and its conductivity.
353. If the three resistors in a delta network are all M N
equal in values i.e. RDELTA then the value of the 1.25Ω 2.5Ω
resultant resistors in each branch of the O
equivalent star network i.e. RSTAR will be equal
to:
R DELTA R DELTA
(a) (b) Hence, the equivalent resistance between two point A
3 2 and B are-
(c) 2 RDELTA (d) RDELTA
R AB = (11.25 || 7.5 ) + 2.5 = 7Ω
IES-2016
355. The capacitance of each capacitor is C = 3 µF in 10 − VA V − 2i x
the figure shown. The effective capacitance +3= A
2 1
between points A and B is
10 − VA + 6  10 − VA 
= VA − 2i x ∵ i x = 
2  2 
10 − VA + 6 2 (10 − VA )
= VA −
2 2
(a) 2µF (b) 3µF 10 − VA + 6
= VA − 10 + VA
(c) 4µF (d) 5µF 2
IES-2015 16 − VA = 4VA − 20
Ans. (d) : 36
VA = = 7.2 volt
5
10 − 7.2
Now, i x = = 1.4A
2
357. A 12 V automobile light is rated at 30 W. The
total charge flows through the filament in one
minute is
Equivalent circuit will be (a) 30 C (b) 12 C
(c) 150 C (d) 180 C
B
IES-2014
O
Automobile light voltage (V) = 12V
Power (P) = 30W
Hence, P = VI
The capacitance between O and B are in parallel-
30
C1 = C + C = 2C I= = 2.5A
now, capacitance 2C and C are in series- 12
2C × C 2C now, charge (Q) flowing through filament in 1 minute
Hence, C2 = = Q = It = 2.5 ×60
3C 3 Q = 150C
2C 358. How many 6µF, 200V capacitors are needed to
Now, and C are in parallel
3 make a capacitor of 18µF 600V?
2C 5C (a) 18 (b) 9
Ceq = +C = (c) 3 (d) 27
3 3
IES-2014
given C = 3µF
Ans. (d) : To get 1 equivalent 600V, 18µF capacitor,
5×3
Hence, Ceq = = 5µF place three 200V, 6µF capacitor is series.
3 Hence, there will be need of 9 of these equivalent 600V,
356. In the circuit the value of ix is 2µF capacitors in parallel
Hence, Total no of capacitor will be required to make
18µF, 600V capacitor is 27.
(a) 2 A (b) –0.6 A

(c) 2.6 A (d) 1.4 A
IES-2015
Ans. (d) : 359. The current waveform i(t) in a pure resistor of
A
20Ω is shown in the figure
Applying KCL at node A :-

i x + 3 = i1

The power dissipated in the resistor is If we double the current value, then current flowing
(a) 135 W (b) 270 W through all the resistor will be double.
(c) 540 W (d) 14.58 W Case (iii)
IES-2014
Ans. (c) :
2I
V − 2I
I= ≠ 2I
R1 + R 2 + R 3 + .....R N
Hence we can say that current through each resistor will
get double, when independent voltage and current
Irms value of triangular wave form- sources are double.
Im 9 361. Consider the following statements:
I rms = = A Any element is redundant if connected in
3 3
1. series with an ideal current source
Power dissipated in the 20Ω resistor is-
2. parallel with an ideal current source
P = (i rms ) R
2
3. series with an ideal voltage source
2
 9  4. parallel with an ideal voltage source
=   × 20 Which of the above statements are correct?
 3 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
P = 540W (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
360. A network N consists of resistors, dependent IES-2014
and independent voltage and current sources. Ans. (b) : • An ideal current source has infinite internal
If the current in one particular resistance is I resistance connected in parallel so that change in load
A, it will be doubled if the values of all the resistance will not change the required current.
(a) independent voltage sources are doubled
(b) independent current sources are doubled A
A A
(c) dependent and independent voltage and
current sources are doubled ⇒
(d) independent voltage and current sources are
doubled
B B
IES-2014 B
Ans. (d) : A network N consists of resistors, dependent • An ideal voltage source has zero internal resistance
and independent voltage and current sources. If the connected in series so that changes in load resistance
current in one particular resistance is I A, it will be will not change the voltage supplied.
doubled if the values of all the independent voltage and 362. Inductive reactance X is a function of
current sources are doubled. inductance L and frequency f. The value of X
case (i) increases when
(a) both L and f increases
(b) L increases and f decreases
(c) both L and f decreases
(d) L decrease and f increases
IES-2014
V Ans. (a) : As we know that-
I=
R1 + R 2 + R 3 + ......R N Inductive reactance (XL) = 2πfL
if we take V = 2V XL ∝ f
2V XL ∝ L
I=
R1 + R 2 + R 3 + ......R N Hence, XL increases when both L and f increases.
I = 2I 363. A current of 2.0 A passes through a cell of
case (ii) e.m.f. 1.5V having internal resistance of 0.15Ω.
The potential difference across the terminals of
the cell is
(a) 1.35 V (b) 1.50 V
(c) 1.00 V (d) 1.20 V
IES-2014
Ans. (d) : Ans. (c) : Let, C1 and C2 are capacitance of the
capacitor when capacitor is connected in parallel, then
C1+ C2 = 25F ....(i)
When capacitor are connected in series, then
C1 C2
= 4F ....(ii)
C1 + C2
now, C1 C2 = 4 × 25 = 100 F (∵C1 + C2 = 25F)
As we know that
(C1 − C 2 ) 2 = (C1 + C 2 ) 2 − 4C1C 2
V = E − ir
= 1.5 −2× 0.15 ∴ (C1 − C 2 ) 2 = (25) 2 − 4 × 100 = 225 F
= 1.5 − 0.30 C1 − C2 = 15 F .....(iii)
From equation (i) and (iii) we get
V = 1.20V
C1 = 20 F, C2 = 5 F
364. A capacitor of 100µF stores 10 mJ of energy. 367. A coil having an inductance of 4 H and a
What is the amount of charge (in Coulomb) resistance of 2 Ω is connected across a 20 V dc
stored in it? source. The steady state current (in amperes)
–6 –3
(a) 1.414 × 10 (b) 1.414 × 10 through the coil is
–6 –3
(c) 2.303 × 10 (d) 2.303 × 10 (a) 5 (b) 3.3
IES-2014 (c) 10 (d) 6.6
1 Q2 IES-2013
Ans. (b) : Energy stored in the capacitor (E) =
2 C Ans. (c) : As given that, V = 20V, L = 4H, R = 2Ω
1 Q2
= 10 × 10−3
2 C
1 Q2
× = 10 × 10−3 I
2 100 × 10−6
Q2 = 2 × 10−6
A B
Q = 1.414 ×10−3 C
At a steady state condition inductor works as a short
365. Two lamps each of 230 V and 60 W rating are circuit then,
connected in series across a single phase 230 V V
supply. The total power consumed by the two I=
lamps would be R
(a) 120 W (b) 60 W 20
I= = 10A
(c) 30 W (d) 15 W 2
IES-2013 368. A coil of inductance 2 H and resistance 1 Ω is
Ans. (c) : Total power given by at same supply voltage connected to a 10 V battery with negligible
in series connected lamp. internal resistance. The amount of energy
stored in the magnetic field is
(a) 8 J (b) 50 J
(c) 25 J (d) 100 J
IES-2013
Ans. (d) : As given that,
R = 1Ω, L = 2H , V=10V
For DC circuit-
[f = 0]
P1 × P2 XL = 2πfL = 0
PT =
P1 + P2
60 × 60
PT = = 30W
60 + 60
366. The total capacitance of two capacitors is 25 F
when connected in parallel and 4 F when
connected in series. The individual capacitance
of the two capacitors are A B
(a) 1 F and 24 F (b) 3 F and 21 F
(c) 5 F and 20 F (d) 10 F and 15 F Hence, total impedance = R + jXL = 1+ 0
IES-2013 = 1Ω
V 10 371.
Current (I) = = = 10A
Z 1
1 2
Energy stored in the magnetic field (E) = LI
2
1
= × 2 × 102
2
E = 100 J
369. A capacitor of 100µF is charged to 10V
through a resistance of 10 kΩ. It would be fully In the delta equivalent of the about star
charged in connected circuit, ZQR is equal to
(a) 5 sec (b) 0.1 sec (a) 40Ω (b) (20 + j10) Ω
(c) 1.0 sec (d) 0.5 sec
j10
IES-2013 (c) 5 + Ω (d) (10 + j30)Ω
Ans. (a) : Time constant of capacitor (τ) = RC 3
IES-2013
It will fully charged at time constant of (5τ) = 5RC
As given that, Ans. (d) :
R = 10kΩ, C = 100 µF
∴ τ = 5 ×10 ×103 ×100×10−6
τ = 5 sec.
370. A battery is connected to a resistance causing a
current of 0.5 A in the circuit. The current
drops to 0.4 A when an additional resistance of
5Ω is connected in series. The current will drop
to 0.2 A when the resistance is further
increased by 10 × ( j10 ) + j10 × 5 + 5 ×10
(a) 10Ω (b) 15Ω ZQR =
5
(c) 25Ω (d) 40Ω 150 j + 50
IES-2013 ZQR= = 10 + 30 j
Ans. (c) : Let Resistance (R) connected to voltage V 5
372. The number of branches in a network is 'b' the
number of nodes is 'n' and number of
dependent loop is 'l'. The number of
0.5A independent current equations will be
(a) n – l – 1 (b) b – l
(c) b – n (d) n – 1
IES-2013
Ans. (d) : If the number of nodes is 'n', then the number
V = IR of independent current equation will be (n-1).
V = 0.5R ....(i) (given, I = 0.5A)
Number of KVL equations = b − n +1
Current drops to 0.4A when an additional resistance of
Where, b = Branch
5Ω is connected in series
n = no. of nodes
373. The total resistance faced by the voltage source
having zero internal resistance in the circuit is
1 0.4A
A B
V = 0.4 (5 + R)
V = 2 + R (0.4) .....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
0.5 R = 2 + 0.4R (a) 10Ω (b) 5Ω
R = 20 Ω (c) 2.5Ω (d) 1.5Ω
Putting R = 20Ω in equation (i) - IES-2012
then, V = 0.5 × 20 = 10V Ans. (c) :
Now, when further resistance (R1) will be added then,
10
I1 =
20 + 5 + R
0.2 (25+R1) =10 [∵ I1 = 0.2A]
R1 = 25Ω

By applying KCL- Ans. (d) : The circuit have infinite capacitance
I = I1+I2 +0.5 The equivalent circuit will be
5 5
= + + 0.5 (∵ VA = 5V )
5 10
I = 2A
Total resistance faced by the voltage source-
5
R = = 2.5Ω
2
Hence, Total capacitance across A & B are-
374. In the circuit, the voltage across 3Ω resistance
is CT = C + C || CT k
C ×C
CT = C + T
( CT + C )
CT2 + C T C = 2C T C + C 2
 1+ 5 
⇒ CT = 
CT2 − CT C − C 2 = 0
 2 
C
 
376. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by
connecting it to a battery of emf E. The
(a) 1 V (b) 3 V capacitor is now disconnected and reconnected
(c) 6 V (d) 9 V to the battery with the polarity reversed. The
IES-2012 heat developed in the connecting wires is
Ans. (b) : (a) 0.5 CE2 (b) CE2
2
(c) 2 CE (d) 3 CE2
IES-2012
Ans. (c) :
Voltage across capacitor = –2E

1 1
Total voltage across AB will be ∴ Energy Stored = CV 2 = C(−2E) 2 = 2CE 2
2 2
3 + 3 + 3 = 9V 377. The total power developed in the circuit, if
Current in 3Ω resistance will be Vo = 125 V is
I − (I / 3 + I / 3) = I / 3
Now,
I
9 = 2I + 3 ×
3 50
∴ I = 3A
Hence, voltage drop across 3Ω resistance will be
V = I× R
(a) 0 Watt (b) 4000 Watts
I 3 (c) 8000 Watts (d) 16000 Watts
V = × 3 = × 3 = 3V
3 3 IES-2012
375. The effective capacitance across AB of the Ans. (c) : Voltage across 10A current source-
infinite ladder shown in the below figure is V = 125 + 50 = 175V
Power deliver by 10A source-
P = VI = 175 × 10 = 1750W
For branch (ii)-
5I x = 5 × 10 = 50A
Power deliver by 5Ix-
P2 = V0 × 5I x
(a) (1 + 3)C (b) (1 + 7)C = 125 × 50 = 6250W
(1 + 5) Total Power deliver by the source-
(c) (1 + 5)C (d) C =
2 P P1 + P2 = 1750 + 6250
IES-2012 P = 8000W
378. The current through the branch AB in the Ans. (d) : The V-I characteristic of an ideal voltage
figure shown is source can be given as:
(a) 10 A, from A to B The internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is

(b) 10 A, from B to A zero.
(c) 0 Hence, voltage will be constant at any given current.
(d) 20 A, from B to A 380. The value of resistance as measured by a
IES-2011 Wheatstone bridge is 10.0kΩ using a voltage
Ans. (c) : By current to voltage source conversion the source of 10.0V. The same resistance is
circuit can be given as: measured by the same bridge using 15.0 V.
The value of resistance is
(a) 15.0 KΩ (b) 15.5 KΩ
(c) 16.6 KΩ (d) 10.0 KΩ
IES-2010
Ans. (d) : As balance bridge diagram given below-
Let, R4 will be known resistor.
At balance condition (IG = 0)
R R
∴ R4 = 2 3
R1
Current through the branch A.B
20 − 20
I= = 0A
4
379. Which one of the following gives the V-I
characteristic of an ideal voltage source?
(a) Value of known resistance (R4) does not depends on the

value of voltage.
Hence, The value of resistance will be same as 10.0 kΩ.
381. The power dissipated in the 1Ω resistor is 1W
due to the 5V voltage source alone and 576W
due to 30A current source alone. The total
power absorbed in the same resistor due to
both the sources is
(b)
(c) (a) 577 W (b) 575 W

(c) 625 W (d) 529 W
IES-2010
Ans. (c) : By applying the superposition theorem the
current due to both the source will add up.
I = I1 + I2
(d) P1
P1 = I12 R , I1 =
R
P
P2 = I 22 R , I 2 = 2
IES-2011 R
Total power- Apply KCL at node A-
2 I1 = I 2 + I3
 P P 
P = (I1 + I 2 ) 2 R =  1 + 2  R 50 − VA VA VA
 R R  = +
 4 80 20
( ) ( ) 50 − VA 5VA
2 2
= P1 + P2 = 1 + 576 =
= (1+24)2 = 625 Watt 4 80
382. The value of R in the below circuit is 1000 − 20VA = 5VA
1000
VA = = 40V
25
V 40
I2 = A = = 0.5A
80 80
384. In the circuit shown below, the current through
RL is
(a) 4Ω (b) 40Ω

(c) 44Ω (d) 440Ω
IES-2010
Ans. (c) :
(a) 6 A (b) 4 A
(c) 2 A (d) 0
IES-2010
Ans. (a) :
I VA I2
I1
Value of current I1 in the branch AB
24
I1 = = 1A
24
24
Value of current (I2)= = 3A
8
By applying KCL Applying KCL at node A -
I = I1 + I2 I = I1 + I2
200 − 24 440 − VA VA − 440 VA − 0
= 1+ 3 = +
R 120 60 30
R = 44Ω 440 − VA ( VA − 440 + 2VA )
=
383. The value of current in 80Ω resistor of below 120 60
circuit is 440 − VA = 2(3VA − 440)
440 − VA = 6VA − 880
880 + 440 1320
VA = = V
7 7
Current in 30Ω resistance-
1320
I2 = = 6.28A ≃ 6A
7 × 30
(a) 0.5 A (b) 2.0 A
385. In the circuit shown below, the current I is
(c) 5.0 A (d) 20.0 A
IES-2010
Ans. (a) : Equivalent resistance of circuit will be
(a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A

(c) 2.5 A (d) 4 A
IES-2010
Ans. (b) : By voltage division rule
voltage across load resistance-
5 × 100
V= = 33.33V
5 + 10
∵ R2 & RL are in parallel
Hence voltage across RL will be 33.33V
387. If the two circuits shown below are equivalent,
then which of the following is/are correct?
By applying KCL-
I = 5 + I1
20 − V V
= 5+
32 8
20 − V V
− =5
32 8 1. E = 2V, R = 5Ω 2. E = 4V, R = 4Ω
20 − 5V = 32 × 5 3. E = 6V, R = 3Ω 4. E = 10V, R = 1Ω
V = −28 volt Select the correct answer using the code given
Value of current (I)- below:
20 − (−28) 48 (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
= = 1.5A (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None
32 32
IES-2006
386. What is the voltage across the load resistance,
RL in the below circuit? The value of each Ans. (c) :
resistor connected in the circuit is 10Ω
Value of current in the given circuit will be-

18
(a) 3.33 V (b) 33.33 V I= = 2A
(c) 333.33 V (d) 0V 3+6
IES-2010
Ans. (b) :
∵ Circuit (1) and circuit (3) are equivalent

V = I0 R 0 = 18
and R0 = 2Ω
The circuit (1) and circuit (3) will be equivalent when-
⇓ (1) E = 2 and R = 5Ω
I R −E 18 − 2
I= 0 0 = = 2A
R0 +1+ R 2 +1+ 5
(2) E = 4V, R = 4Ω
18 − 4
I= = 2A
2 +1+ 4
(3) E = 6V, R = 3Ω
18 − 6
As given that, R1 = R2 = RL = 10Ω I= = 2A
R2 & RL are in parallel hence, equivalent resistance will 2 +1+ 3
be- (4) E = 10V, R = 1Ω
10 ×10 18 − 10
Req = = 5Ω I= = 2A
10 + 10 2 +1+1

388. If a unit step current is passed through in Case (I)-
capacitor what will be the voltage across the IC =5, RC = 2Ω
capacitor? 5 × 2 10
(a) 0 (b) A step function I2 = = A
(c) A ramp function 2 +1 3
(d) An impulse function I 2 ≠ I1
IES-2005 Case (II) -
Ans. (c) : As we know that- IC =10, RC = 1Ω
1 10 ×1
Vc (t) = ∫ i c ( t ).dt I2 = = 5A
C 1+1
When unit step current passed through a capacitor, I1 = I2
voltage across it increases steadily, Hence it is a ramp Case (III)-
function. IC = 15A, RC = 1/2Ω
389. Consider the following statements: 1
Network NA in figure (A) can be replaced by 15 ×
the network NB shown in figure (B) below, I2 = 2 = 5A
1
when IC and RC, respectively, are: 1+
2
I1 = I2
Case (IV)-
IC = 30A, RC = 1/5Ω
1
30 ×
I2 = 5 = 5A
1
1+
5
1. 5A and 2Ω 2. 10A and 1Ω I1 = I2
3. 15A and 1/2Ω 4. 30A and 1/5Ω 390. R and C are connected in parallel across a
Which of the following statements given above sinusoidal voltage source of 240 V. If the
is/are correct? currents through the source and the capacitor
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 are 5A and 4A respectively, what is the value of
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 R?
IES-2005 (a) 24Ω (b) 48Ω
Ans. (b) : (c) 80Ω (d) 240Ω
IES-2005
Fig (a) Network NA is equivalent to network NB in fig Total current given by-
(b) I 2 = IC2 + I R2
52 = 4 2 + I R2
I R = 9 = 3A
Voltage across resistance (R) is 240 V
240V
∴ R= = 80Ω
From Fig. 3A
IC R C = 10 , R C = 1Ω 391. Consider the following network:
IC =10A
10
I1 = = 5A
1+1
I R
I2 = C C
RC +1
Fig. A and Fig. B are equivalent - Which one of the following is the differential
[ I1 = I2 ] equation for V in the above network?
dV dV 60 120
(a) C + GV = 0 (b) C + CV = 0 =
dt dt 30 60
1 dV ∵ This is balance bridge
(c) C + GV = 0 (d) C − GV = 0 Hence no current will flow through resistance (R)
dt dt Hence, Power delivered to resistance (R) will be zero.
IES-2004 P = I 2R = 0
Ans. (a) : By applying Kirchhoff's voltage law -
394. Consider the following circuit:
i
+V =0
G
i + GV = 0
dV
C + GV = 0
dt In the above circuit, the current I2 is 2A when
392. Consider the following circuit: the value of R1 is 20Ω. What will be the value of
I2, when R1 is changed to 10Ω?
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 3 A (d) 4 A
IES-2004, 1999
Ans. (b) :
If V1 = 5V and V2 = 3V then what is the input

impedance of the CRO in the above circuit?
(a) 1 MΩ (b) 1.5 MΩ
Since, the resistance (R1)
(c) 3 MΩ (d) 5 MΩ
in series with current source (3A). Hence current will be
IES-2004 same in this branch at any resistance. Therefore, the
Ans. (b) : Voltage across CRO (V2) = 3V value of current I2 will be same when resistance R1
V − V2 changes from 20Ω to 10Ω.
and current in CRO (I) = 1
R 395. Consider the following circuit:
5−3
= = 2×10–6
1×106
3
∵ input impedance of CRO (Zin) =
2 × 10−6
Zin = 1.5MΩ
393. Consider the following circuit: What is the current I in the above circuit?
(a) 0 A (b) 2 A
(c) 5 A (d) 6 A
IES-2004
Ans. (a) : The circuit can be redrawn as:
What is the power delivered to resistor R in the I 1
above circuit?
(a) – 15W
(b) 0 W
(c) 15 W
(d) Cannot be determined unless the value of R is By applying KCL
known I1 = I2 + I3
IES-2004 60 − V1 V1 V1 − V2
Ans. (b) : The circuit can be redrawn as: = +
10 20 10
6 12 2 ( 60 − V1 ) = V1 + 2V1 − 2V2
120 − 2V1 = 3V1 − 2V2
5V1 − 2V2 = 120 .....(i)
3 6
I3 = I4 + I5
V1 − V2 V2 V2 − 60
= +
30V 10 20 10
2 ( V1 − V2 ) = V2 + 2V2 − 120 Ans. (a) :
2V1 − 2V2 = 3V2 − 120 Inverse time constant of inductor (R/L) → (Second)-1
Oscillation (1/LC) → (Radian/Second)2
5V2 − 2V1 = 120 ....(ii) Time constant of capacitor (CR) → Second
On solving equation (i) and (ii) we get,
V1 = 40V, V2= 40V
Surge Impedance (
L / C → Ohm)
Hence, the value of current 398. In the circuit shown below, the voltage across
V1 − V2 40 − 40 2Ω resistor is 20V. The 5Ω resistor connected
I3 = = =0 between the terminals A and B can be replaced
10 10
by an ideal
Therefore the value of current for the given branch is
zero.
396. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
In a four branch parallel circuit, 50 mA
current flows in the each branch. If one of the
branches opens, the current in the other
branches
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) are unaffected (d) double
IES-2004 (a) Voltage source of 25V with + terminal
upward
Ans. (c) : The circuit given as following for four branch (b) Voltage source of 25V with + terminal
parallel circuit: downward
50mA (c) Current source of 2A upward
(d) Current source of 2A downward
50mA IES-2003
Ans. (a) :
50mA
I3
50mA
I
+ −
Let us considered voltage source (V) connected across 20
parallel circuit. Current ( I1 ) =
= 10A
2
The current in all branches are same i.e. 50mA, and also 10 A divided in two parallel branches so,
voltage across each branch is same in parallel. 10 × 5
Therefore, value of resistance will be same for each Current in 5Ω resistance ( I3 ) = = 5A
branch. 5+5
If one of the branch opens, then the current in the other Voltage across 5Ω resistor = 5 × 5 = 25Volt
branches are unaffected, because voltage and resistance Open circuit voltage across terminal A and B
are same in each branch. VAB = 25V [(+ve) terminal upward]
V 399. The current flowing through the voltage source
i= in the circuit shown below is
R
397. Match List-I (Quantities) with List-II (Units)
and select the correct answer:
List-I List-II
A. R/L 1. Second
B. 1/LC 2. Ohm
C. CR 3. (Radian/Second)2
D. L/C 4. (Second)–1
Codes: (a) 1.0 A (b) 0.75 A
A B C D (c) 0.5 A (d) 0.25 A
(a) 4 3 1 2
IES-2003
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 Ans. (a) : Current through 4Ω resistor is-
(d) 3 4 1 2 3
I1 = = 0.75A
IES-2003 4
Apply KCL at node A-
A
The charge (in micro coulomb) acquired by the

I = I 1+ I 2 capacitor after 5µs is
I = 0.75 + 0.25 (a) 7.5 (b) 13.5
I = 1A (c) 14.5 (d) 15
400. The V-I characteristics of an element is shown IES-2002
in the below figure. The element is Ans. (d) :
dQ
i=
dt
dQ =i ×dt
Q = ∫ i dt
(a) Non-linear, active, non-bilateral

A
(b) Linear, active, non-bilateral
(c) Non-linear, passive, non-bilateral C
(d) Non-linear, active, bilateral
IES-2003 B
Ans. (a) :
Q = Area under curve upto 5 µ sec

Q = Area of triangle (0,3,A) +
Area of trapezium (3,4,B,A) +
Linear circuit- A circuit whose parameters are not Area of trapezium (4,5,C,B)
changed with respect to current and voltage is called 1 1 1
linear circuit. Q = × (3 × 5) + × 1× (5 + 3) + × 1× (4 + 3)
2 2 2
Ex: Resistance, inductance, capacitance.
15 7
Non-linear circuit- A non-linear circuit is an electric Q= +4+
circuit whose parameters are varied with respect to 2 2
current and voltage. Q = 15µC
Ex. Diode, Transistor, Transformer. 402. Consider the following
Active component: Active component are the element Energy storage capability of basic passive
or devices which are capable of providing or delivering elements is due to the fact that
energy to the circuit. 1. resistance dissipates energy
2. capacitance stores energy
Passive component- Passive component are the one
3. inductance dissipates energy
who do not require any external source for the operation Which of the above is/are correct?
and are capable of storing energy in the form of voltage (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
or current in the circuit. (c) 3 alone (d) 1 and 2
Bilateral element- The characteristics of element is IES-2002
independent with direction of the current, such element Ans. (d) :
is known as bilateral element. • Resistance, capacitance and inductance are passive
Ex. Resistor, Inductor, Capacitor. elements.
Unilateral element - The characteristics of the element • Resistance works as the load which dissipates energy
is dependent with direction of the current, such element in the form of heat (i2R).
is known as unilateral element. • Capacitance stores energy in the form of electrical
Ex. Diode. potential energy. It does not dissipates energy like
401. A current i(t) as shown in the figure is passed resistance.
through a capacitor. • Inductor stores energy in the form of magnetic energy.
L by star (Y) to delta conversion method
403. has the dimension of R × RB + RB × RC + RC × R A
C RAB = A
(a) time (b) capacitance RC
(c) inductance (d) resistance 3 ×1.5 + 1.5 × 9 + 9 × 3
IES-2002 = = 5Ω
9
L Thus,
Ans. (d) : The given expression is surge
C R × RB + RB × RC + RC × R A
impedance, which unit is ohm and resistance has also RBC = A
RA
unit ohm. Therefore L / C has the dimension of 3 ×1.5 + 1.5 × 9 + 9 × 3
resistance. = = 15Ω
404. A network 'N' is a dual of network N if 3
(a) both of them have same mesh equations 406. For the given circuit, the current is
(b) both of them have the same node equations
(c) mesh equations of one are the node equations
of the other
(d) KCL and KVL equations are the same
IES-2002
Ans. (c) : A network 'N' is a dual of network N if mesh (a) 2 A (b) 5 A
equations of one are the node equations of the other. (c) 7 A (d) 9A
The dual networks are based on Kirchhoff current law IES-2001
and Kirchhoff voltage law. Ans. (c) :
As in dual circuit mesh equation are replaced by node
equation.
Element Dual network
1. Mesh → Node
2. Voltage source → Current source
3. π-network → T-network
4. Resistance → Conductance By applying KCL
5. Inductance → Capacitance 4 = I + I1
6. Charge → Flux linkage
V V − 20
405. For the equivalent figure circuit shown in the 4= +
given figure, the values of RAB and RBC are 2 2
respectively 8 = 2V − 20
V = 14V
V 14
∴ I= = = 7A
2 2
407. The dual of a parallel R-C circuit is a
(a) series R-C circuit
(b) series R-L circuit
(c) parallel R-C circuit
(d) parallel R-L circuit
(a) 5Ω and 15Ω (b) 15Ω and 30Ω IES-2001
(c) 30Ω and 5Ω (d) 20Ω and 35Ω Ans. (b) : A dual of a relationship is formed by
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021 interchanging voltage and current in an expression. The
ESE-2021, 2001 dual expression thus produced is of the same form, and
Ans. (a) : the reason that dual is always a valid statement can be
traced to the duality of electricity and magnetism.
Capacitor and inductor - differential form
dV di
i C = C C ⇒ VL = L L
dt dt
408. In the circuit shown in the figure below, the
power consumed in the resistance R is
measured when one source is acting at a time,
these values are 18 W, 50 W and 98 W. When
all the sources are acting simultaneously, the
possible maximum and minimum values of
power in R will be
Ans. (c) : The given circuit is:
(a) 98 W and 18 W (b) 166 W and 18 W

(c) 450 W and 2 W (d) 166 W and 2 W
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
I = IR + IL
IES-2000
Ans. (c) : I 2 = I 2R + I 2L
I = 122 + 162
I = 144 + 256
I = 20A
410. In the circuit below, if the power dissipated in
the 6Ω resistor is zero then V is
Let the value of R is 2Ω
By using superposition theorem
Case 1: When source E1 is taken-
Let current I1 flows through source E1
P1 = 18W = I12 R
18 (a) 20 2∠45º (b) 20∠30º
I1 = ± = ± 3A
2 (c) 20∠45º (d) 20 2∠30º
Case 2: When source E2 is taken- IES-2000
Let current I2 flows through source E2 Ans. (a) :
P2 = 50 W = I 22 R VA VB
50
I2 = ± = ± 5A
2
Case 3 : When source E3 is taken-
Let current I3 flows through source E3
If the power dissipated in the 6Ω resistor is zero,
P3 = 98 W = I32 R
Pdiss = 0
98 then, either I =0 or
I3 = ± = ± 7A
2 VA − VB = 0
Maximum value of power in R will be- means VA = VB
P = (5 + 3 + 7 ) × 2 By voltage division rule
2
j1
P = 225 × 2 = 450W VA = 20∠0º ×
1 + j1
Minimum value of power in R will be-
5
P = ( 5 + 3 − 7 ) × 2 = 12 × 2
2 VB = ×V
5+5
P = 2W ∵ VA = VB
1∠90º 1
409. In the circuit shown in the figure below, the ∴ × 20 ∠0º = V
current supplied by the sinusoidal current 2 ∠45º 2
source is 40
∠45° = V
2
V = 20 2∠45°
411. In the circuit below, V1 = 40 V when R is 10Ω.
When R is zero, the value of V2 will be
(a) 28 A
(b) 4A
(c) 20 A
(d) not determinable from the data given
IES-2000
(a) 40 V (b) 30 V Apply KCL at Node-
(c) 20 V (d) 10 V I1 + I2 = I
IES-2000 V V
Ans. (a) : The circuit can be redraw as: (Due to source R + R = I
1 2
conversion)
 RR 
V = I× 1 2 
 R1 + R 2 
Now, Resistance becomes double, then
 2R × 2R 2   R 1R 2 
V' = I× 1  = 2I  
 2R1 + 2R 2   R1 + R 2 
By applying KCL
Given, V1 = 40V V ' = 2V
I = I1 + I2 Hence, node voltage become double.
60 − V1 V1 V1 − V2 414. A coil would behave as
= + (a) an inductor at high frequencies
10 20 R (b) a capacitor at very low frequencies
60 − 40 40 40 − V2 (c) a capacitor at very high frequencies
= +
10 20 R (d) a resistor at high frequencies
40 − V2 IES-2000
2 = 2+ Ans. (a) : At higher frequency, the XL become high ,
R
then the coil would behave as an Inductor.
V2 = 40V 415. The circuit shown in Figure-I is replaced by
∵ V1 = V2 = 40V that in Figure-II. If current 'I' remains the
Hence, Now current will flow for any value of same, then R0 will be
resistance R.
412. Consider the following statements:
If a network has an impedance of (1–j) at a
specific frequency, the circuit would consist of
series
1. R and C
2. R and L
3. R, L and C
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
IES-2000
(a) zero (b) R
Ans. (b) : As given that, Impedance (Z) = 1-j (c) 2 R (d) 4 R
On comparing with impedance triangle equation = IES-1999
R−jXC
Where XC is only capacitive or may be combination of Ans. (d) :
capacitance and inductance whose magnitude is 1.
413. A network contains only independent current
sources and resistors. If the values of all
resistors are doubled, the values of the node
voltages
(a) will become half
(b) will remain unchanged
(c) will become double
(d) cannot be determined unless the circuit
configuration and the values of the resistors
are known ∵ Voltage and Current are same, then Equivalent
IES-2000 Resistance of both circuit will be same.
Ans. (c) : So, 32R || 16R || 8R = R0 + 4R || 2R || R
I2 32R 4R
= R0 +
I1 7 7
28R
R0 =
7
R 0 = 4R

416. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current (c) constant voltage and a constant current source
'I' is or a constant power source
(d) resistance
IES-1999
Ans. (b) : An ideal constant voltage source is
connected in series with an ideal current source, then
whole combination consider as constant current source.
(a) indeterminable due to inadequate data

(b) zero
(c) 4A
(d) 8A 419. If the π-network of Figure-I and T-network of
Figure-II are equivalent, then the values of R1,
IES-1999
R2 and R3 will be respectively
Ans. (d) :
Taken ground at point D.

VD = VC (due to ground.) (a) 9Ω, 6Ω and 6Ω (b) 6Ω, 6Ω and 9Ω
⇒ VB – VC = 4R × 1 = 4R Volt (c) 9Ω, 6Ω and 9Ω (d) 6Ω, 9Ω and 6Ω
V 4R IES-1999
I 2 = BC = = 2A Ans. (b) :
2R 2R
V V 4R
I1 = B = BC = = 1A
4R 4R 4R
So, I3 = I1 + ( I2 + 1)
I3 = 4A
VA – VB = I3 × 3R = 4 × 3R = 12R V
Fig-I is a ∆-connection and fig. II is a star connection
( VA − VB ) + ( VB − VC ) = 12R + 4R So, ∆ to star conversion
VA – VC = 12R + 4R = 16R
16 × 24
16R R1 = = 6Ω
∴ Current in 2R, (I) = = 8A 64
2R
16 × 24
417. In the circuit shown in figure, output V0 (jω) is R2 = = 6Ω
64
24 × 24
R3 = = 9Ω
64
420. A particular current is made up of two
components a 10A dc and a sinusoidal current
(a) indeterminable as values of R and C are not of peak value of 14.14A. The average value of
given the resultant current is
(b) 2.5 V (a) zero (b) 24.14
(c) 10 A (d) 14.14 A
(c) 5 2V IES-1998
(d) 5 V
Ans. (c) : As given that, Idc = 10A
IES-1999
IP = 14.14 A
Ans. (a) : The value of R and C are not given, Average value of the Resultant Current =
So, it is not possible to find the value of V0. Average value of dc Component + Average value
418. An ideal constant voltage source is connected in of AC component
series with an ideal constant current source. = 10 + 0
Considered together, the combination will be a = 10 A
(a) constant voltage source
∵[Average value of AC in a full cycle is always = 0]
(b) constant current source
421. In the circuit shown in the figure, the effective 423. In the circuit shown in the Figure, if I = 2, then
resistance faced by the voltage source is the value of the battery voltage V will be
(a) 1Ω (b) 2Ω
(c) 3Ω (d) 3.3Ω (a) 5 V (b) 3 V
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 (c) 2 V (d) 1 V
IES-1998 IES-1997
Ans. (b) : Ans. (c) :
According to question, Simplification of circuit is–

2I
Current in 3Ω resistance = (I – I/3) = A
3
Internal resistance (R ' ) of current source
I 2I
× R ' = ×3
3 3
R ' = 6Ω Total current supplied by the battery i.e.
The effective resistance faced by the voltage source is
1
Req = 6||3 I2 = I ×
Req = 2Ω 2
I
422. The total power consumed in the circuit shown 2=
in the figure, is 2
I = 4A.
1× 1
and equivalent resistance of the circuit = = 0.5Ω
1+1
So, the voltage of the battery V = 4 × 0.5
V = 2V
424. The effective resistance between the terminals
(a) 10 W (b) 12 W A and B in the circuit shown in the figure. is
(c) 16 W (d) 20 W
IES-1997
Ans. (b) :
(a) R (b) R – 1
According to question,
R 10
(c) (d)
I1= 2 = 1A 2 2
2 IES-1997
Apply KCL at node A
Ans. (c) :
2 + I2 = I1
I2 = −1Amp
Total power consumed by the circuit
PT = (2)2 × 2 + (1)2 × 2 + 1 × 2
PT = 12W

We can change star connection into delta connection. 426. A delta connection contains three equal
impedances of 60 ohms each. The impedances
of the equivalent star connection will be
(a) 15 Ω each (b) 20 Ω each
(c) 30 Ω each (d) 40 Ω each
So, the network becomes like given network- IES-1996
Ans. (b) :
Delta to star conversion-

60 × 60
RA = = 20Ω
3R × R 3R 2 3R 60 + 60 + 60
= =
3R + R 4R 4 60 × 60
RB = = 20Ω
60 + 60 + 60
60 × 60
RC = = 20Ω
60 + 60 + 60
427. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
current I in the 2 ohm resistor is
3R  3R 3R 
R AB = ||  + 
4  4 4 
R
R AB = −
2
425. A certain network consists of two ideal voltage
sources and a large number of ideal resistors. (a) zero (b) –2 A
The power consumed in one of the resistor is (c) 2 A (d) 1 A
4 W when either of the two sources is active IES-1996
and the other is replaced by short-circuit. The Ans. (a) :
power consumed by the same resistor, when
both the sources are simultaneously active
would be
(a) zero or 16 W (b) 4 W or 8 W
(c) zero or 8 W (d) 8 W or 16 W
IES-1997
Ans. (a) : Suppose the resistance in a circuit is R. Re-arrange the circuit in the Bridge form-
∵ There are two independent source.
So the current flowing through resistance R is I1 and I2
when source one is active and other one source is
inactive, sequentially.
Power consumed by R, when the 1st source is active–
4 = (I1)2 R
4
∴ I1 = According to the condition of balance bridge of circuit–
R 3×8=6×4
Power consumed by R, when the 2nd source is active- 24 = 24
4 = (I2)2 R Hence, bridge is balanced.
4 So, the current in 2Ω = 0 A.
∴ I2 =
R 428. For the circuit shown in the given figure, the
So, total power consumption by resistance R will be: voltage VAB is
P = (I1 ± I2)2 × R
2
 4 4 
P=  ±  ×R
 R R 

P = 0W,16W

(a) 6 V (b) 10 V Vs R m Vs RR m
(c) 25 V (d) 40 V (c) (d)
RR s + R m R s R + R s R m + RR m
IES-1995
IES-1995
Ans. (a) :
Ans. (d) :
VSs
Apply KCL at Node A

Req = RS + (R||Rm)
I1 = I2 + I3
RR m
50 − VA VA − 0 VA − ( −10 ) Req = RS +
10
=
5
+
5
(R + Rm )
So,
50 – VA = 2VA + 2VA + 20
∴ Current in resistance R is I1
5VA = 30
VA = 6V I× Rm Vs Rm
I1 = = ×
(R + Rm )
 RR m  ( R + R m )
429. For a given voltage, four heating coils will  RS + 
produce maximum heat when connected  R + Rm 
(a) all in parallel Vs R m × ( R + R m ) 1
I1 = ×
(b) all in series ( s
R R + R R
s m + RR m) ( Rm )
R +
(c) with two parallel pairs in series
∴ Voltage across resistance,
(d) one pair in parallel with the other two in
series Vs R m R
V = I1 × R =
IES-1995 ( R s R + R s R m + RR m )
Ans. (a) : Case : (i) All resistor connected in parallel- 431. The total capacitance across points 'a' and 'b'
R in the given figure is
Req =
4
V2
∵ P=
R
V2 4V 2
∴ Peq = = ................(i)
( R 4) R
Case : (ii) All resistor connected in series-
Req = 4R (a) 1.66 µF (b) 2.66 µF
V 2 (c) 3.5 µF (d) 4.5 µF
∵ P= IES-1994
R
Ans. (b) :
V2
∴ Peq = ............(ii)
( 4R )
From equation (i) and (ii)
Pparallel > Pseries
• Properties of heating coil material
(i) High resistivity
(ii) High melting pointing
(iii) low temperature coefficient of resistance ∵ 1µF and 1µF capacitor are connected in parallel,
430. A resistor R is connected to a voltage source VS then–
having an internal resistance RS. A voltmeter of C = (1 + 1) = 2 µF
resistance Rm is connected across the terminals So, now circuit becomes,
of the resistor R. The voltmeter will read a
voltage of
Vs R m Vs R
(a) (b)
R s R + R s R m + RR m R + Rs

 2 ×1 
Cab =   || 2
 2 +1 
(b)
2
Cab = + 2
3
Cab = 2.66 µF
432. The equivalent resistance between the terminal
points X and Y of the circuit shown is
(c)
(d)
(a) 150 ohms (b) 45 ohms

(c) 55 ohms (d) 30 ohms
IES-1994
IES-1994
Ans. (a) : According to the dual of a network
Ans. (d) :
Voltage Current
Series Parallel
Inductance Capacitance
Resistance Conductance
Applying above duality on a the Given circuit.
This circuit is a balance bridge circuit so, the branch BC

is removed, because there are no current in it.
Now, new circuit becomes– 434. Which one of the following circuits is the delta
Y equivalent of the star circuit given in the figure
∴ RXY = (30 + 30) || (30 + 30)

(a)
R XY = 30Ω
433. The dual of the network shown in the figure, is
(b)
(a) (c)

The equivalent resistance of circuit–
R = (1|| 3) + ( 2 || 4 )
25
R= Ω
(d) 12
 10  24
Total current in the circuit (I1) =  × 12  = A
 25  5
IES-1994 So, current is divided between branches hence apply the
Ans. (a) : current division rule-
∴ Current in the 3Ω branch
1 24 6
(I3Ω) = × = A
3 +1 5 5
∴ Current in the 1Ω branch
3 24 18
(I1Ω) = (I2) = × = A
Star to Delta conversion– 1+ 3 5 5
Z13 = ( j1) Ω + ( − j1) Ω +

( j1) Ω × ( − j1) Ω So, current of 24/5 Ampere will be flow through the
(2||4) Ω branch but current is divided in branch
( − j1) Ω So, current through 4Ω-
Z13 = ( j1) Ω 2 24 2 × 24 8
(I4Ω) = × = = A
( − j1) Ω × ( − j1) Ω 4+2 5 6×5 5
Z32 = ( − j1) Ω + ( − j1) Ω + Current through 2Ω -
( j1) Ω 4 24 4 24 16
Z32 = ( − j1) Ω (I2Ω) = (I3) = × = × = A
2+4 5 6 5 5
Apply KCL at node A-
Z21 = ( − j1) Ω + ( j1) Ω +
( − j1) Ω × ( j1) Ω I 2 = I3 + I
( − j1) Ω
18 16
I = I2 – I3 = A− A
Z21 = ( j1) Ω 5 5
435. In the circuit shown in the given figure, current 2
I is I= A
5
436. For the circuit shown in the given fig. The
current through R, when VA = 0 and VB = 15 V
is 1 amp. Now, if both VA and VB are increased
by 15 volts, then the current through R will be
2 24
(a) − A (b) A
5 5
18 2
(c) A (d) A
5 5
IES-1994 (a) 1 amp (b) 1/2 amp
Ans. (d) : (c) 3 amp (d) 1/3 amp
A IES-1993
Ans. (a) : According to Question,–
Apply KCL, at node C -

I1 = I2 + 1
15 − VC VC − 0
= +1
3 6
VC = 8 Volt

Apply KCL at node D -
[1= I3 + I4 ]
V − 0 VD − 0
1= D +
6 3
VD = 2 Volt (c)
VC − VD 8 − 2
∴Resistance (R) = = = 6Ω
1 1
Now, VA and VB are increased by 15 Volt.
Then New circuit becomes,
(d)
Apply KCL at node C - IES-1993

30 − VC VC − VD VC − 0 Ans. (c) :
= +
3 6 6
4VC – VD = 60 …(i)
Apply KCL at node D -
15 − VD VC − VD VD − 0
+ =
3 6 6
4VD – VC = 30 …(ii) 2 3
After solving Equation (i) and (ii) –
VC = 18V and VD = 12V Delta to star conversion–
So, the current in the Resistance - j5 × j5
VC − VD 18 − 12 Z1 = = j5
I= = ( j5 + j5 − j5 )
6 6
j5 × ( − j5 )
I =1A Z2 = = − j5
437. Which one of the following networks is the Y ( j5 + j5 − j5 )
equivalent of the ∆ circuit shown below? j5 × ( − j5 )
Z3 = = − j5
( j5 + j5 − j5 )
Then, the star circuit become–
2 3
438. A dc supply of 35 V is connected across 600Ω

resistance in series with an unknown
resistance. The voltmeter having a resistance of
(a) 1.2 kΩ is connected across 600Ω resistance
which reads 5 V. Then the unknown resistance
should be
(a) 50 Ω (b) 1.7 Ω
(c) 7.2 Ω (d) 2.4 kΩ
IES-1992
Ans. (d) :
(b)

∵ Voltage across voltmeter = 5V Apply nodal analysis at point A-
∵ Voltage across unknown resistance - V − 2 VA − 1 VA − 1kV
VR = 35–5 =30 V = A + + =0
2k 1k 3k
So, I = ( I1 + I 2 ) 3VA − 6 + 6VA − 6 + 2VA − 2kV
30 5 5 =0
= + 6k
R 600 1200 11VA–2000–12=0
6 3 11VA = 2012
=
R 1200 2012
VA =
R = 2400Ω = 2.4kΩ 11
439. When will the resistance in the circuit are of 2012
−1
one ohm each, the equivalent resistance across 2012 − 11 2001
the points A and B will be I = 11 = =
1k 11k 11000
= 0.1818
I ≃ 0.2A
441. In the circuit shown, the value of I is
(a) 1 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω

(c) 2 Ω (d) 1.5 Ω
IES-1992
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
Ans. (b) : Given that, R = 1Ω (c) 4 A (d) 8 A
Reform circuit,
IES-1992
Ans. (b) :
10A
At balance bridge condition branch CD no current flow
So,
Convert current source into voltage source -
R eq = 2R || R || 2R
put the value R = 1
then
1 Apply KVL in the loop -
Req = R / 2 =
= 0.5Ω
2 – 40 +4I+28I+8I– 40=0
440. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will –80+40I = 0
be 40I = 80
I = 2A
442. In the circuit shown, the values of V1 and I1 will
be
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.4 A

(c) 0.6 A (d) 0.8 A
IES-1992
Ans. (a) : Convert current source into voltage source -
(a) 1 V, 1 A (b) 1 V, 6 A
(c) 5 V, 5 A (d) None of the above
IES-1992
Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) : Given, x = 3A
∵ 5V source and 1Ω resistance connected in parallel, By Applying KCL at node A

then the voltage across 1Ω, V1 = 5V i0 = 5x – x – 2
5 i0 = (5 × 3) – 3–2
and current in 1Ω, I1 = = 5 A i0 = 10 A
1
443. Current having waveform shown in the fig. is Hence, voltage across 10Ω or current source
flowing in a resistance of 10 ohms. D = 10 × 10 = 100 V
The average power is ∴ The power delivered by the dependent current source
D is = 100 × 5 × 3
P = 1500 W
445. What will be the power consumed by the
voltage source, current source and resistance
respectively?
1000 1000
(a) W (b) W (a) 1W, 1W, 2W (b) 0W, 1W, 1W
1 2 (c) 1W, 0W, 1W (d) 0W, 0W, 0W
1000 1000 IES-1991
(c) W (d) W
3 4 Ans. (b) :
IES-1992
Ans. (c) :
1
Current in 1Ω resistance = = 1A
1
rms value of current– Net current in voltage source = 0 A
 10  1
I= A Internal resistance of current source = = 1Ω
 3 1
The Average Power is = (I2 R) So, power loss in voltage source -
(P1) = V×I = 1×0 = 0 W
100 1000
= × 10 = W Power loss in current source (P2) = 12×1 = 1 W
3 3 Power loss in resistance (P3) = 12×1 = 1W
444. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current
x is 3A. The power delivered by the dependent 446. The two electrical sub networks N1 and N2 are
current source D is connected through three resistors as shown in
Fig. The voltages across 5 ohm resistor and 1
ohm resistor are given to be 10 V and 5 V,
respectively. Then voltage across 15 ohm
resistor is
(a) 50 Watts (b) 2250 Watts (a) –105 V (b) +105 V

(c) 2300 Watts (d) 1500 Watts (c) –15 V (d) + 15 V
IES-1991 GATE-1993
Ans. (a) : 448. The current i4 in the circuit of figure is equal to
Current in 5Ω resistor
10
I1 = = 2A (from N1 to N2)
5
Current in 1Ω resistor (a) 12 A (b) – 12 A
5 (c) 4 A (d) None of these
I 2 = = 5A (from N1 to N2) GATE-1997
1
Total current N2 to N1 = I1+I2 = 2+5 = 7A Ans. (b) :
Current in 15Ω resistors = –7A (N1 to N2)
Voltage across 15Ω resistor (V) = 15 × (–7) A C
= –105V
447. A dc circuit shown in figure has a voltage
source V, a current source I and several
resistors. A particular resistor R dissipates a
power of 4 Watts when V alone is active. The
same resistor R dissipates a power of 9 Watts D
when I alone is active. The power dissipated by B
R when both sources are active will be
Apply KCL at node A
I1 + I0+I4 = 0
So, 5+7+I4 = 0
I4 = –12A
449. The voltage V in figure is always equal to
(a) 1 W (b) 5 W
(c) 13 W (d) 25 W
GATE-1993
Ans. (d) : Applying the superposition theorem.
1st case- Voltage source is active and the other sources
are replace by their internal resistance.
(a) 3 V (b) 5 V
(c) 1 V (d) None of these
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2015, Paper - I
Power (P1) = I12 R = 4W GATE-1997
2nd case- Current source is active Ans. (a) :
Power (P2) = I 22 R = 9 W
When both source are active then
Total current (I) = ( I1 ± I 2 )
Total power = I2 R
= ( I1 ± I 2 ) R = I12 R + I 22 R ± 2I1I 2 R
2
( ) =( )
2 2
4 ± 9 = ( 2 ± 3)
2
= P1 ± P2 Applying Kirchhoff's voltage law in loop ABCDA
2
P = (2+3) = 25Watt −V − 5 + 4 + 4 = 0
I1 and I2 are same direction then positive sign take. V = 3V

450. The voltage V in figure is always equal to
(a) 9 V (b) 5 V
(c) 1 V (d) None of these 1 1 1
GATE-1997 = +
Zeq 8 4
Ans. (d) :
8
Zeq = Ω
3
453. In the circuit shown in the figure the current iD
through the ideal diode (zero cut in voltage and
zero forward resistance) equals
Voltage across 2A current source unknown. So we can

not determine value of voltage V.
451. The voltage V in figure is
(a) 0 A (b) 4 A
(c) 1 A (d) None of these
GATE-1997
Ans. (c) : Current source conversion in voltage source
(a) 10 V (b) 15 V then,
(c) 5 V (d) None of the these
GATE-1997
Ans. (a) : In parallel circuit voltage are same
Hence, V = 10V
452. In the circuit of Fig. the equivalent impedance
seen across terminals A, B is
Apply KCL at node A
VA − 10 VA − 0 VA − 2
+ + =0
4 4 1
VA = 3
So, diode current (ID) = VA − 2 = 3 − 2 = 1A
1 1
454. The voltage across the terminals a and b in fig.
is
(a) (16/3) Ω
(b) (8/3) Ω
(c) (8/3 + 12j) Ω
GATE-1997
Ans. (b) : (a) 0.5 V (b) 3.0 V
(c) 3.5 V (d) 4.0 V
Z1= = Z2 GATE-1998
Ans. (c) :
Z3= = Z4
For balance wheatstone bridge, Z1Z4 = Z2Z3 Apply KCL at node a -

2×4=4×2 I1 + I2 = I3

Va − 1 Va 457. For the circuit in the figure, the voltage Vo is
+ =3
2 2
6 +1
Va = = 3.5V
2
455. A delta-connected network with its Wye-
equivalent is shown in the figure. The resistances
R1, R2 and R3 (in ohms) are respectively
(a) 2 V (b) 1 V
(c) –1 V (d) None of these
GATE-2000
Ans. (d) :
VA I3
(a) 1.5, 3 and 9 (b) 3, 9 and 1.5 I1
(c) 9, 3 and 1.5 (d) 3, 1.5 and 9
GATE-1999
Ans. (d) :
In forward bias condition, diode is working as a short

circuit -
Apply the KCL at node VA -
b c I1+ID + I3 = 0
b c VA − 4 VA VA + 2
+ + =0
5 × 30 2 2 2
R1 = = 3Ω
5 + 30 + 15 3VA = 2
15 × 5 2
R2 = = 1.5Ω VA =
5 + 30 + 15 3
30 ×15 −2
R3 = = 9Ω here, V0 = −VA =
5 + 30 + 15 3
456. In the circuit of the figure, the value of the 458. The voltage e in the figure is
o
voltage source E is
4
(a) 2 V V
(b)
3
(c) 4 V (d) 8 V
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma) - 2017, Paper - I
(a) –16 V (b) 4 V GATE-2001
(c) –6 V (d) 16 V
Ans. (c) :
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 I1 A I3
GATE-2000 I2
Ans. (a) :
Apply KCL at A -
I1 + I2 + I3 = 0
e0 − 12 e0 e0
+ + =0
Apply the KVL 4 4 4
0 + 1 + E +5 + 10 =0 e0 –12+ e0 +e0 = 0
3e0 –12 = 0
E = −16 V e0 = 4V
459. If each branch of A Delta circuit has 461. The dependent current source shown in the
impedance 3Z, then each branch of the figure
equivalent Wye circuit has impedance.
Z
(a) (b) 3 Z
3
Z
(c) 3 3 Z (d) (a) delivers 80 W (b) absorbs 80 W
3
GATE-2001 (c) delivers 40 W (d) absorbs 40 W
Ans. (a) : Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
GATE-2002
Ans. (a) :
+V
V1 1
A
5
3Z × 3Z 3Z2 Z
ZA = = = Apply the KCL at node V
3Z + 3Z + 3Z 3 3Z 3 V − 20 V V1
+ = (V1 = 20V)
3Z × 3Z 3Z 2
Z 5 5 5
ZB = = =
3Z + 3Z + 3Z 3 3Z 3 V − 20 + V 20
=
3Z × 3Z 3Z 2
Z 5 5
ZC = = = 2V = 40
3Z + 3Z + 3Z 3 3Z 3
V = 20
460. The voltage eo in the figure is
Power across current source
V
P = 1 ×V
5
20
P= × 20 = 80 Watt
5
(a) 48 V (b) 24 V P = delivered 80 Watt
(c) 36 V (d) 28 V 462. If the 3-phase balanced source in the figure
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-I delivers 1500 W at a leading power factor
GATE-2001 0.844, then the value of ZL (in ohm) is
approximately-
Ans. (d) :
VA
(a) 90∠ 32.44º (b) 80∠ 32.44º

Apply source transformation (c) 80∠ –32.44º (d) 90∠ –32.44º
GATE-2002
Ans. (d) :
Apply Nodal at node VA -

VA − 80 VA − 16 VA
+ + =0 3 phase power formula-
12 6 12
P = 3 × VPH × I PH × cos φ ....(i)
VA − 80 + 2VA − 32 + VA
=0 We know that the value of phase current and phase
12
VA–80+2VA–32+VA=0 voltage in star connection.
4VA –112=0 IL = IPH
4VA = 112 V 
VPH =  L 
VA = e0 = 28  3
putting the value in power equation (i) Given, f = 500Hz
V  T= =
1 1
= 2msec
P = 3 ×  L  × I L × cos φ
 3 f 500
given, P = 1500 watt, VL = 400 volt C = 2µF
Putting the value in equation (i)
cos φ = 0.844 ZL = ?
I
400 3= T
1500 = 3 × × I L × 0.844 2µF
3 3× 2µF
1500 × 3 I=
IL = = 2.56A 2msec
3 × 400 × 0.844 6 ×10−6
I= = 3mA
V
Z = PH = L
V / 3 2 × 10−3
I PH IL So, charging required constant current source of 3mA
for 2 msec.
400 / 3 465. If R1 = R2 = R4 = R and R3 = 1.1 R in the bridge
Z= = 90.21Ω ≃ 90Ω
2.56 circuit shown in the figure, then the reading in
θ = cos −1 (0.844) [Leading] the ideal voltmeter connected between a and b
θ = ∠ − 32.44º is
463. The minimum number of equations required to
analyze the circuit shown in the figure is
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 0.238 V (b) 0.138 V
GATE-2003 (c) –0.238 V (d) 1 V
Ans. (a) : Number of Node = (4) GATE-2005
Maximum number of equation = N –1 Ans. (c) :
=4–1
=3
R1 = R 2 = R 4 = R and R3 = 1.1R
R × 10 R × 10
Va = 2 = = 5V
Where node ‘1’ voltage is known and node 2, 3 & 4 R1 + R 2 2R
voltage is unknown. R 3 ×10 R ×10 1.1×10 11
464. An ideal sawtooth voltage waveform of Vb = = 3 = = = 5.238
R 3 + R 4 1.1R + R 2.1 2.1
frequency 500Hz and amplitude 3V is
generated by charging a capacitor of 2 µF in Vab = Va − Vb
every cycle. The charging requires Vab = 5 − 5.238 = −0.238V
(a) constant voltage source of 3 V for 1 ms
(b) constant voltage source of 3 V for 2 ms 466. A fully charged mobile phone with a 12V
(c) constant current source of 3 mA for 1 ms battery is good for a 10 minute talk-time.
(d) constant current source of 3 mA for 2 ms Assume that, during the talk-time the battery
GATE-2003 delivers a constant current of 2 A and its
Ans. (d) : voltage drops linearly from 12 V to 10 V as
V (t)C
shown in the figure. How much energy does the
battery deliver during this talk-time?
3V
1 T
C ∫0
VC (t) = i c dt ....(i)

(a) 220 J (b) 12 kJ Ans. (a) :
(c) 13.2 kJ (d) 14.4 J
GATE-2009
Ans. (c) : Energy deliver by battery is given by the area
of voltage time graph as-
E = ∫ P.dt
E = ∫ Vidt Given that,
E = i ∫ Vdt VA − VB = 6V
∴ Current through 2Ω resistor -
E = i [area of V- t graph]
V − VB 6
 1  I AB = A = = 3A
E= 2 × 10 ×10 + × 2 × 10  × 60 2 2
 2 
E= 2×110×60
E= 13200 J
E = 13.2 kJ
467. In the circuit shown, the power supplies by the
voltage source is
Thus current flow at 1Ω branch = 5A
∴ Voltage at 1Ω branch = 1×5 = 5V
Branch VC to VD can be obtained as
∴ +VC+5–VD = 0
Or VC − VD = −5V
(a) 0 W (b) 5 W 469. Consider a delta connection of resistors and its
(c) 10 W (d) 100 W equivalent star connection as shown below. If
NIELIT Scientists -2017 all elements of the delta connection are scaled
GATE-2010 by a factor k, k > 0, the elements of the
Ans. (a) : corresponding star equivalent will be scaled by
a factor of
1Ω
3A
In outer loop, Apply KVL (a) k2 (b) k

2(3 + i) + 2(2 + i) = 10 (c) 1/k (d) k
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma) - 2017, Paper-I
6 + 2i + 4 + 2i = 10
GATE-2013
10 + 4i = 10
Ans. (b) :The voltage of ΣR A from ∆ to Y conversion
4i = 10 –10
i=0A is given by-
P = Vi R bR c
ΣR A =
P = 10 ×0 Ra + R b + Rc
P = 0 Watt If all the resistance of ∆ -connection is increases by k
468. If VA – VB = 6V, then VC – VD is time i.e.
R a = kR a 

R b = kR b 
R c = kR c 
Then,
New ΣR A =
( kR b )( kR c ) = k. R b R c
k (Ra + Rb + Rc ) Ra + Rb + Rc
(a) –5 V (b) 2 V ∴ R'A = kR a
(c) 3 V (d) 6 V
OPSC Poly Lect. (Instrumentution) -2018 Paper-I Hence, the elements of the corresponding star
GATE-2012 equivalent will be scaled by k times also.
470. The following arrangement consists of an ideal Ans. (c) :
transformer and an attenuator which
attenuates by a factor of 0.8. An AC Voltage
VWX1 = 100 V is applied across WX to get an
open circuit voltage VYZ1 across YZ. Next, an ac
voltage VYZ2 = 100 V is applied across YZ to get As we know that
open circuit voltage VWX2 across WX. Then, Q = CV
VYZ1/ VWX1, Vwx2/VYZ2 are respectively Given,
C1 = 10µF V1 = 10V
C2 = 5µF V2 = 5V
C3 = 2µF V3 = 2V
Q 1 = C1V 1
put value = 10×10–6×10 = 100 µC
Q2 = C2 ×V2 = 5×10–6×5 = 25µC
(a) 125/100 and 80/100 Q3 = C3× V3 = 2×10–6×2= 4 µC
(b) 100/100 and 80/100 Capacitor C2 and C3 are in series combination-
(c) 100/100 and 100/100 So charge is same in series connection
(d) 80/100 and 80/100 • In series the equivalent of C2 and C3
GATE-2013
C × C3 5µF × 2µF 10
Ans. (b) : C23 = 2 = = µF
C2 + C3 5µF + 2µF 7
Q 23 4 ×10−6
So voltage V23 = = = 2.8V
C23 10 × 10−6
7
In parallel, voltage is same
V1 = V23 = 2.8Volt
Voltage across VYZ1 = 100 × 1.25 × 0.8 = 100Volt Charge across C1
If 100 V applied across YZ terminal then 100 V will Q 1 = C1V 1
appear across the secondary winding. = 10µF×2.8 = 28µC
Total charge in parallel
VWX2 1
= Q = Q1 +Q23
VYZ2 1.25 = (28+4) µC
100 Q = 32 µC
VWX2 = = 80 V
1.25 472. If σ is the conductivity, What is the
VYZ1 100 relationship between the electric field E and the
= current density J in a conducting medium?
VWX1 100 (a) σ = J / E (b) σ = 1/(EJ)
VWX2 80 (c) σ = E / J (d) σ = EJ
=
VYZ2 100 DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
Ans. (a) : We know
471. Three capacitor C1, C2 and C3 whose values are
10µF, 5µF and 2µF respectively, have V
I= …(i)
breakdown voltages of 10 V, 5 V and 2 V R
respectively. For the interconnection shown l
below, the maximum safe voltage in volts that R= ρ
A
can be applied across the combination, and the
I
corresponding total charge in µC stored in the J=
effective capacitance across the terminals are, A
respectively Put R value in equation (i)
V
I=
l
ρ
A
I VA
J= =
A ρlA
(a) 2.8 and 36 (b) 7 and 119 1  V
(c) 2.8 and 32 (d) 7 and 80 J= E ∵ E = 
ρ  l 
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma) - 2017, Paper - I
GATE-2013 J = σE
473. If σ = 4.0J/m and E = 5.0 V m, the conduction (c) current controlled current source
current density is: (d) current controlled voltage source
(a) 10.0A / m 2 (b) 5.0A / m 2 GATE-2014
Ans. (c) :
(c) 1.25A / m 2 (d) 20.0A / m 2
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
Ans. (d) : Given,
σ = 4.0 J / m, E = 5.0 V / m
J = σ⋅E
A current source that dependent on a current input is
J = 4×5 generally referred to as a current controlled current
J = 20 A m 2 source.
476. In the given circuit, the value of V1 and V2
474. Consider the configuration shown in the figure respectively are
which is a portion of a larger electrical network
(a) 5 V, 25 V (b) 10 V, 30 V
For R = 1 Ω and currents i1 = 2A, i4 = –1A, i5 = (c) 15 V, 35 V (d) 0 V, 20 V
–4 A, which one of the following is TRUE?
APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017
(a) i6 = 5A
GATE-2015
(b) i3 = – 4A
(c) Data is sufficient to conclude that the Ans. (a) :
supposed currents are impossible
(d) Data is insufficient to identity the currents i2.
i3 and i6
GATE-2014
Ans. (a) : Given,
Let current flowing through 4Ω will be I -

Applying KCL at node A -
5 = I + I + 2I
5
I= A
Given, [ R = 1Ω, i1= 2A, i4 = –1A, i5 = – 4A ] 4
Apply KCL at node A. 5
∴ V2 = 5 × 4 + 4 × = 25V
i2 + i5 = i3 4
i2 – i3 = 4 ...............(i) V1 = 4I
Apply KCL at node B 5
i3 + i6 = i1 And V1 = 4I = 4 ×
4
i3 + i6 = 2 .............(ii)
Apply KCL at node C- V1 = 5V
i1 + i4 = i2 477. In the given circuit, each resistor has a value
i2 = 1 A equal to 1 Ω.
and using equation (i)
i3 = 1 – 4 = – 3 A
the value of i3 is substituting in equation (ii)
i6 = (2 + 3)
i6 = 5 A
475. The circuit shown in the figure represents a
What is the equivalent resistance across the

terminals a and b?
(a) 1/6 Ω (b) 1/3 Ω
(a) voltage controlled voltage source (c) 9/20 Ω (d) 8/15 Ω
(b) voltage controlled current source GATE-2016
Ans. (d) : Ans. (a) :
E = 1 kWh
= 1000 Wh
= 1000 × 3600J
1000 × 3600
= Cal
4.18
E = 860 kCal
Converted delta in star– 481. Resistivity is usually expressed in terms of
(a) ohm/0C (b) Mho
(c) Ohm meter (d) Ohm/cm square
Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017
Ans. (c) : We know that–
ρl
R=
A
RA
ρ =
l
Ω - m2
ρ =
m
ρ =Ω-m
Again by using star to delta conversion- 482. Three equal resistors are connected in series
across an emf source, dissipate 60 W of power.
What is the power dissipated if the same
resistors are connected in parallel?
(a) 270 (b) 60
(c) 20 (d) 180
Ans. (*) :
So, Rab = (1|| 4 ) + (1|| 4 ) || (1|| 4 ) 
4 8
Rab =   ||  
5 5
8
R ab = Ω
15
478. Three equal resistance of 3 ohm are connected V2
Total power = = 60W
in star. What is the resistance of one arm in 3R
equivalent delta?
V2
(a) 1 ohm (b) 3 ohm = 60 × 3 = 180W
(c) 9 ohm (d) 27 ohm R
TSGENCO AE-2015 If same resistance connected in parallel
Ans. (c) : We know that
R∆ = 3 RY
R∆ = 3 × 3
R∆ = 9Ω
2 2
479. The Ohm's laws deals with the relation Total power = V = 3V
between R /3 R
(a) Charge and capacity (b) Capacity and p.d. = 3 × 180 = 540W
(c) Charge and resistance(d) Current and p.d. 483. In the circuit shown, the value of VS is 0 when
Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017 I = 4A. The value of I when VS = 16 V, is:
Ans. (d) : The Ohm's law provide the relation between
the current and voltage difference.
V
= R = constant
I
480. One kWh is equal to _______ kCal.
(a) 860 (b) 735.5 (a) 6 A (b) 8 A
(c) 36 × 105 (d) 746 (c) 10 A (d) 12 A
Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017 RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
Ans. (b) : Thevenin's equivalent circuit
Here thevenin's equivalent circuit exist only.

VS = 0 , I’ = 4
By superposition theorem- 487. KCL is a consequences of law of conservation
of
(a) flux (b) energy
(c) potential (d) charge
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
Ans. (d) : KCL states that the current flowing into node
16 must be equal to current flowing out of it. This is a
I '' = =4A consequence of charge conservation .
4
Current (I) = I' + I''
(I) = 4 + 4 = 8A
484. Which of the following statement is true?
1. A capacitor is an open circuit to dc voltages.
2. An inductor is a short circuit to dc currents.
3. Series and parallel combinations of capacitors
work the opposite way as they do for
resistors.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 I1+I2 = I3
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All 1, 2 and 3 488. Which of the following is NOT a dependent
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 electrical energy source?
Ans. (d) : All statement are correct. (a) Voltage source
1. A capacitor is an open circuit to dc voltages. (b) Voltage controlled voltage source (VCVS)
2. An inductor is a short circuit to dc current. (c) Voltage controlled current source (VCCS)
3. Series and parallel combinations of capacitors work (d) Current controlled voltage source (CCVS)
the opposite way as they do for resistors. APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
485. A bulb rated at 50W, 100V is used for 40 Ans. (a) : A dependent source is a current or voltage
minutes. The charge associated with this source whose value is not fixed but rather which
operation is depends on some other circuit current and voltage.
(a) 3600 C (b) 1200 C
489. What is the characteristic of an ideal voltage
(c) 7200 C (d) 600 C
source?
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017
(a) It has zero series resistance
Ans. (b) : P = VI (b) It has infinite series resistance
q (c) It has zero output resistance
P = V× (as q = it )
t (d) It has infinite output resistance
P × t 50 × 40 × 60 APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
q= =
V 100 Ans. (a) : A voltage source is a two terminal device
q = 1200 C which can maintain fixed voltage. An Ideal voltage
source has zero series resistance.
486. An ideal voltage source and current sources are 490. Two resistors RA and RB give a combined
connected in parallel. This circuit has resistance of 2Ω when they are connected in
(a) neither Thevenin nor Norton's equivalent
parallel and 9Ω when connected in series. Then
(b) both Thevenin and Norton's equivalent
the values of the resistance are:
(c) a Thevenin equivalent but not Norton's
equivalent (a) 4Ω and 5Ω (b) 3Ω and 6Ω
(d) a Norton's equivalent but not Thevenin (c) 3Ω and 4Ω (d) 6Ω and 9Ω
equivalent APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 Ans. (b) : RA + RB = 9 ––––(i)
Ans. (c) : R AR B
=2 ––––(ii)
RA + RB
RA × RB = 2(RA + RB)
RA × RB = 18 ––––––(iii)
From equation (i) and (iii) -
R A = 3Ω, R B = 6Ω

491. The energy expended in a resistor R (in joules) V2
when a current of I flows through it for t Power (P) = R
T
second is :
( 20 )
2 2
(a) I Rt (b) IRt
4 3 70 =
(c) I Rt (d) IR t RT
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 20 × 20
Ans. (a) : Resister = R Ω RT = = 5.71
70
Current flow in resistor = I A R T = R + 4.8
Energy expended in resistor for t second -
5.71 = R + 4.8
E = I2Rt
R = 0.91Ω
492. A 4Ω resistance having a current of 1A flowing
through it will have a dissipated power of : 495. A 120 V ac circuit contains 10 Ω resistance and
(a) 12W (b) 4W 30 Ω reactance in series. The average power in
(c) 8W (d) 16W the circuit will be nearly:
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 (a) 134 W (b) 144 W
(c) 158 W (d) 168 W
Ans. (b) : Given,
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
Resistance (R) = 4Ω
Current flow in resistor (I) = 1 A Ans. (b) :
2
Dissipated power (P) = I R
P = (1)2 ×4
P = 4 Watt
493. An ideal voltage source will charge an ideal
120∠0º
capacitor : I=
10 + j30
(a) in infinite time (b) instantaneously
(c) exponentially (d) in 100 milliseconds I = 3.794 ∠–71.56º
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 Average Power (P) = Vrms × Irms × cosφ
Ans. (b) : An ideal voltage source will charge an ideal = 120 × 3.794 × cos (71.56)
capacitor instantaneously. = 144Watt
An ideal voltage source has zero internal resistance. 496. The average power delivered to an impedance
Time constant (τ) = RC (4 – j3)Ω by a current 5 cos (100πt + 100)A is
τ = 0×C (a) 44.2 W (b) 50 W
τ=0 (c) 62.5 W (d) 125 W
Hence, capacitor will charge instantaneously. APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017
GATE-2012
494. A resistance R is connected in series with a
parallel combination of two resistances 12 Ω Ans. (b) : Given, Z = ( 4 − 3j) Ω
and 8 Ω. If the power dissipated in the circuit is
∴| Z |= 42 + 32 = 5Ω
70 W when the applied voltage is 20 V across
the circuit. The resistance R will be nearly: R 4
∴ Power factor ( cos φ ) = = = 0.8
5 5
(a) 1.07 Ω (b) 0.91 Ω Given, I = 5cos (100πt + 100 ) A
(c) 0.83 Ω (d) 0.75 Ω Where, Im= 5A
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03.2019 ∴ rms value of current,
Ans. (b) : 5
( I rms ) = A
2
From above,
P = ( Irms ) Zcos φ
2
2
 5 
12 × 8 ∴P =   × 5 × 0.8 = 50Watt
Total resistance (RT) = R + = R + 4.8  2
12 + 8
497. In the circuit shown, the voltage Vx (in Volts) is 499. The resistance measured by the ohmmeter in
the figure will be :
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11 (a) 30Ω (b) 50Ω
APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017 (c) 60Ω (d) 120Ω
GATE-2015 APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
Ans. (a) : Applying KCL at node-x, we get Ans. (b) :
V V − 0.25Vx
−5 + 0.5Vx + x + x =0
20 10
−100 + 10Vx + Vx + 2Vx − 0.5Vx = 0
12.5Vx = 100 60 × 30
R e q = 30 + = 30 + 20 = 50Ω
Vx = 8Volts 60 + 30
498. Identify the Current-Controlled Voltage 500. For a 3-pF capacitor with 20V across it, the
Source (CCVS) : energy stored will be :
(a) 60J (b) 600 pJ
(c) 60 pJ (d) 6J
(a)
Ans. (b) : Energy stored in capacitor -
1 1
EC = CV 2 = × 3 × 10−12 × 202
2 2
EC = 600 pJ
501.
(b)
(c) For the given circuit, the value of v1 is :

(a) 0V (b) 5V
(c) 10V (d) 15V
Ans. (d) :
(d)

Ans. (a) : Current-Controlled Voltage Source (CCVS)

20 503. The ammeter in the following circuit indicates
v1 = 30 ×
20 + 20 1A and the voltmeter of resistance 1KΩ reads
20 100V. The value of R is :
v1 = 30 × = 15V
40
502.
(a) 1Ω (b) 1 kΩ
(c) 111 Ω (d) 100 Ω
Ans. (c) :
The voltage at nodes 1 and 2, respectively are :
(a) 13.33V and 20V
(b) 20V and 13.33V
(c) 6.66V and 12V
(d) 12V and 6.66V V= 100V
R = 1kΩ
Ans. (a) : Current through voltmeter -
100
IV = = 0.1A
1kΩ
Current through load -
IL = 1–0.1 = 0.9 A
So,
V = ILRL
V 100
Apply nodal analysis at node VA - RL = = = 111.11Ω
I L 0.9
VA VA − VB
+ −5 = 0 504. An ideal current controlled voltage source has
2 4
(a) Ri = ∞, Ro = ∞
2VA + VA − VB = 20
(b) Ri = 0, Ro = ∞
3VA − VB = 20 –––––(i)
(c) Ri = 0, Ro = 0
Apply nodal analysis at node VB -
(d) Ri = ∞, Ro = 0
VB VB − VA
+ + 5 − 10 = 0 Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
6 4
Ans. (c) : Ri = 0, Ro = 0
VB VB − VA
+ =5
6 4 505. When two coils are connected in parallel and a
5VB – 3VA = 60 ––––––(ii) voltage of 200V is applied between the
From equation (ii) and (i) - terminals, the total current taken by the circuit
is 25A and power dissipated in one of the coil is
1500W, the resistance of each coil is
(a) 25Ω and 5Ω
(b) 26.67Ω and 11.43Ω
Putting the value in equation (i) (c) 0.25Ω and 4.75Ω
40 (d) 35Ω and 5Ω
VA = = 13.33V
3 TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (b) : I1 = 2A
G2
I 2 = I.
G1 + G 2 + G 3
0.2
= 12 ×
0.6
I2= 4A
G3
I3 = I ×
G1 + G 2 + G 3
V 2 200 × 200 0.3
R1 = = = 26.67Ω = 12 ×
P 1500 0.6
P 1500
I1 = = = 7.5A I3 = 6A
V 200
I = I1 + I2 507. The value of R1 and R2 in the given circuit are
25 = 7.5 + I2 (in ohms)
I2 = 25 – 7.5
I2= 17.5 A
V 200
R2 = = = 11.43Ω
I 2 17.5
506. The values of currents in the circuit shown in

Fig. 1 are (a) R1 = 20 R2 = 2
(b) R1 = 10 R2 = 12
(c) R1 = 2 R2 = 20
(d) R1 = 12 R2 = 10
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (*) :
(a) I1 = 2A, I2 = 4A; I3=6A
(b) I1 = 3A, I2 = 5A; I3=4A
(c) I1 = 2.5A, I2 = 3.5A; I3 = 6A
(d) I1 = 1A, I2 = 6A; I3= 5A
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (a) :
I = 1+ 5 = 6 A
Apply KVL in loop (i)
– 100 + 5 × 6 + 1 × R1 + 50 = 0
–100 + 30 + R1 + 50 = 0
G1 –20 + R1 = 0
I1 = I.
G1 + G 2 + G 3 R1 = 20Ω
0.1 Apply KVL in loop (ii)
= 12 ×
0.6 –100 + 5 × 6 + R2 × 5 + 30 = 0

–100 + 30 + 5R2 + 30 = 0 Apply KVL in loop (1&3)
–100 + 60 + 5R2 = 0 2i1+6(i1–i2)+1(i3–i2)+i3=0
5R2 = 40 8i1–7i2+2i3=0
R2 = 8Ω Put [i3= 2+i1]
508. The total energy consumed by a 60 W lamp for 8i1–7i2+4+2i1=0
10 hours and a 1 kW heater for 30 minutes is: 10i1–7i2= – 4 ....(ii)
(a) 1.1kWh (b) 1.6kWh Apply KVL in loop 2
(c) 2.4kWh (d) 3.3kWh –5+(i2–i3)+6(i2–i1) =0
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-I i2–i3+6i2–6i1=5

7i2–6i1–i3=5
watt × hours
Ans. (a) : Energy = Put [ i3=2+i1]
1000
7i2 – 7i1 = 7 ........(iii)
for lamp,
From equation (ii) & (iii)
60 × 10
Energy = = 0.6 i1=1 A
1000
i2=2A
for heater,
Then, i3 = 2 + i1 = 2 + 1= 3A
1000 × 30
Energy = = 0.5 510. Find the energy expended moving a charge of
1000 × 60
40 µC through a potential difference of 5V:
Total energy (E) = 0.6+0.5
(a) 100µJ (b) 150µJ
E =1.1 kWh
(c) 400µJ (d) 200µJ
509. In the given circuit, the mesh currents I1,l2,l3
are respectively (in Ampere):
1
Ans. (a) : Energy ( E C ) = CV 2
2
1 1
EC = QV = × 40 × 10−6 × 5
2 2
EC = 100 µJ
511. The rms value of a voltage waveform consisting
of a 2Vd.c. superimposed with a 4V peak-peak
square wave is:
(a) 4,5,6 (b) 3,4,5
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,2,3
(c) 10 (d) 2
Ans. (d) :
Ans. (a) : V = 22 + 22
v= 8
The r.m.s value of a complex current wave is equal to

the square root of the sum of the squares of the r.m.s.
i3=2+i1 .....(i) values of its individual components'.

Time constant
(ii) Transient State Analysis & τ = RC = 5 × 1 × 10 −6
Steady State Analysis τ = 5 µs
VC ( t ) = VC ( ∞ ) +  VC ( 0− ) − VC ( ∞ )  e
−t
τ
1. A series RLC circuit with capacitor initially
charged to voltage V0 as shown in the figure. −t
The current i(t) – = 50 + [ 0 − 50] e 5
−t
= 50 1 − e 5  V
 
3. In the circuit shown below, find out the value of
di ( 0+ )
(a) i(t) = et sin t u(t) i ( 0 ) and
+
. If switch is closed at t = 0.
dt
(b) i(t) = e–t sin t u(t)
(c) i(t) = et cos t u(t)
(d) i(t) = e–t cos t u(t)
di ( 0+ )
Ans. (b) :
(a) i ( 0+ ) = 10 Amp, = 10 Amp / sec
dt
di ( 0+ )
(b) i ( 0+ ) = 0 Amp, = 10 Amp / sec
dt
1 di ( 0+ )
(c) i ( 0+ ) = 0 Amp,
= −10 Amp / sec
i (s) = s dt
2
+2+s di ( 0+ )
s (d) i ( 0+ ) = 10 Amp, = −10 Amp / sec
1 dt
i(s) = UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper -I
2 + 2s + s 2
1 Ans. (b) : At t = 0−
( )
i s = 2
s + 2s + 1 + 1
1
i (s) =
( s + 1)2 + 1
i(t) = e–t sint u(t) A
2. For the RC parallel circuit, determine the Switch is open
voltage across the capacitor using Laplace i ( 0− ) = 0
transform, assume capacitor is initially relaxed.
Hence i ( 0− ) = i ( 0+ ) = 0 Amp
at t = 0 + switch closed
(a) 50 1 − e ( −t
5
) (
(b) 50 1 + e
−t
5
)
(
(c) 5 1 − e
−t
5
) (
(d) 5 1 + e
−t
5
) VL ( 0+ ) =
di ( 0+ )
= 10V
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper -I dt
Ans. (a) : Given that, because i ( 0+ ) = i ( 0− ) = 0 & VC ( 0+ ) = 0
Initially capacitor is relaxed So, all voltage will apply across inductor.
VC ( 0 − ) = 0 4. For the circuit shown in figure, find current i(t)
At steady state capacitor is open circuit after the switch moves from position '1' to
VC ( ∞ ) = 10 × 5 position '2' -
= 50V

(a) e–5t (b) e+5t V
I=
(c) 2e–5t (d) 2e+5t Z0
Ans. (*) : Z 0 = 2Ω
where Z0 = R + JXL
Z0 = (1 + jωL ) Ω
(1)
2
| Z0 |= + ω2 L2
Switch of position 1 1 + ω2 L2 = 2
Steady state inductor is short circuit L2 = 1 (∵ ω = 1 rad / sec)
L = 1H
6. The value of the time constant in the R-L
circuit is?
(a) L/R (b) R/L
(c) R (d) L
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
i ( 0− ) =
20
= −2 Amp Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
10
at t = ∞ KVS TGT (WE) -2016, 2014
Switch of position 2 Ans. (a) : The time constant for series R-L network is
inductor act as defined as
Open circuit τ = L/R sec
7. Find the unit-impulse response of the given RC
circuit. v1 is the input and v2 is the output.
i(∞) = 0
time constant
L 4 1  t   t 
τ= = = = 0.2 sec −  − 
R 20 5 (a) RCe  RC 
u(t) (b) e  RC 
u (t)
−t
i ( t ) = i ( ∞ ) + i ( 0 ) − i ( ∞ )  e τ  t 
R − RC 
 t 
1 − RC 
(c) e u(t) (d) e u(t)
−t C RC
= 0 + [ −2 − 0] e .2
NLC GET -24.11.2020
= −2e −5t A Ans. (d) :
5. Consider the circuit shown in the figure with
input V(t) in volts. The sinusoidal steady state
current I(t) flowing through the circuit is
shown graphically (where t is in seconds). The
circuit element Z can be _______.
1/ Cs
V2 ( s ) = V (s)
1 1
R+
Cs
1
(a) a capacitor of 1 F V1 ( s )
=
(b) an inductor of 1 H RCs + 1
(c) a capacitor of 3F For unit impulse response V1(s) =1
 
(d) an inductor of 3H
1 1  1 
GATE-2022 V2 ( s ) = =  
RCs + 1 RC  s + 1 
Ans. (b) : As given the figure current i(t) is lagging
so element z is inductor  RC 
1  − RC 
t
1
i(t) max = V2 ( t ) =  e u(t)
2 RC  
8. Vo  −t
 Vo  e2− tτ 
(c) i(t) =  1 − e τ  (d) i(t) = 1 − 
2R   R 
Ans. (a) :
The time constant for the given circuit is :

(a) 2ms (b) 20µs
(c) 20ms (d) 2µs At t = 0 switch is move at 'b' point then circuit become-
Ans. (c) : Given circuit diagram-
At t > 0 current through the circuit is -

−t
V0  
Time constant - i(t) = 1 − e τ  A
τ = RC R 
τ = 10×103×2×10–6 11. A damped oscillatory voltage follows the
τ = 20×10–3 equation :
τ = 20msec i= 10e –10t sin 2π ×50t
9. The frequency of oscillation in Hz is
(a) 50 (b) 10
(c) 314 (d) 100
Ans. (a) : i = 10.e −10t sin 2π × 50t
For the given circuit, the switch has been in Compare with 10.e−ωt sin ωnt
position A for a long time. At t = 0, the switch ωn = 2π× 50
moves to B. The voltage across the capacitor 2πf = 2π × 50
just before t = 0 is v (0–). So, the value of v (0–)
is : f = 50Hz
(a) 15V (b) 0V 12. If a capacitor is energized by a symmetrical
(c) Infinite (d) 30V square wave current source, then the steady-
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 state voltage across the capacitor will be a
Ans. (a) : (a) square wave
(b) triangular wave
(c) step function
(d) impulse function
IES-2013
Ans. (b) : The voltage across the capacitor is given by
Switch is at A for long time (at = t = 0–) Hence 1
5 V = ∫ i dt
capacitor is open circuited v(0− ) = 24 × = 3 × 5 = 15V C
8 for a square wave current source, the resultant
10. waveform will be triangular.
13.
In the given circuit, the switch moves from

position a to position b at t = 0. The expression For the circuit shown in the figure, the switch is
of i (t) for t > 0 is given by : closed at t = 0. After some time when the
−t −2t
V   V   current in the inductor was 6A, the rate of
(a) i(t) = o 1 − e τ  (b) i(t) = o 1 − e τ  change of current through the inductor was
R  R  4A/sec. The value of the inductor is
(a) 0.5 H (b) 1.5 H Apply Nodal analysis at node a,
(c) 1.0 H (d) Indeterminate V − 10 V V − 5
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 + + =0
IES-2000, 1996 10k 10k 5k
V − 10 + V + 2V − 10 = 0
Ans. (a) : 4V = 20
I2
V = 5 Volts
So, current through R1 resistor is-
5−5 0
I= =
5k 5k
I = 0 mA
15. A switch is connected in between a 12 V battery
Inductor does not allow sudden change of current. and an uncharged capacitor and a 1 KΩ
t→ 0 resistor. At the time instant when the switch is
closed, the voltage across the capacitor is:
I L ( 0− ) = I L ( 0+ ) (a) 6 V (b) 12 V (c) 0 V (d) 24 V
After switching instant- ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
dI 2 ( t ) Ans. (c) : According to the question the circuit diagram
I 2 ( t ) = 6A, = 4A / sec, L = ? is
dt
dI ( t )
L 2 + 3I 2 ( t ) − 20 = 0
dt
L × 4 + 3 × 6 − 20 = 0
4L – 2 = 0
L = 2 / 4 = 0.5H A capacitor doesn't allow a sudden change in voltage
across it, i.e.
14. In the circuit shown below, switch S1 and S2 are V (0–) = Vc(0+)
in open and close position respectively for long At the timec instant when the switch is closed,
time. At t = t0, switch S1 is closed switch S2 is
opened. What would be the current through R1
immediately after the transition of switches?
Voltage across the capacitor at an instant just after the

switch is closed is 0 volts.
(a) 0 mA (b) 1 mA 16. If an input signal with non-zero dc component
(c) 0.5 mA (d) 2 mA is applied to a low pass RC network with single
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 resistor R and single capacitor C as shown
Ans. (a) : Given, below, the dc component in the output will be :
At t = t0, Switch S1 is closed switch S2 is opened.
at t = 0 −
(a) The same as the input

(b) Less than the input
(c) More than the input
(d) Zero
Voltage across capacitor- ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
VC ( 0− ) = VC ( 0+ ) = 5V Ans. (a) : If we apply D.C. voltage then
f (frequency) = 0 or ω = 0
at t = 0+ The impedance of the capacitor is defined as
1
Xc =
jωC
1 1
Xc = = = ∞ (open circuit)
jωC j0C
Since the capacitor is open circuit
V0 = Vin (output will be same as input)
17. A steady state is achieved in following Network
at t = 0, find the time when Vc(t) will be VC ( s ) ( s + 1)( s + 9 )  =
(
150 s2 + 10s + 9 + 108s )
maximum s
150 ( s + 1)( s + 9 ) + 108s
VC ( s ) =
s ( s + 1)( s + 9 )
150 108
= +
s ( s + 1)( s + 9 )
(a) In (9) sec (b) In(9)0.125 sec
(c) In (9)0.25 sec (d) 9 sec = V ( s ) = 150 + 108  1 −
1 
 
8  ( s + 1) ( 9 ) 
C
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 s s +
Ans.(b): Given that, Take inverse laplace-
 108 − t −9t 
VC ( t ) = 150 +
 8
e −e 

( )
For maximum value-
dVC ( t )
=0
– dt
for t = 0 dVC ( t )
inductor short circuit and capacitor open then - =
dt
= 0+
108 − t
8
(
e ( −1) − e −9t ( −9 ) )
108
8
(
−e − t + 9e −9t = 0 )
e–t = 9e–9t
–tlne = ln(9)–9tlne
for t > 0 –t = ln(9) – 9t
8t = ln(9)
So, inductor – ( )i L 0 – = i L (0+ ) t = 1 ln ( 9 )
capacitor– V ( 0 ) = V (0 )
– + 8
c c t = ln(9)1/8 = ln90.125 sec.
18. For a circuit given in figure, switch K is closed
to position 1 at t=0. After t = 1 TC (Time
Constant). switch is moved to position 2. Find
The Current I at 1TC(–) (just before one-time
constant time) and 1TC(+) (just after one-time
1
constant time) respectively (assume ≃ 0.37 )
e
Take laplace transform- (a)

0.0148 A and 0.055A
(b)
0.0148 A and –0.055 A
(c)
0.0296 A and 0.11A
(d)
0.0296 A and –0.11 A
Ans.(a): Given that
Apply source transformation-
for 0<t<1τ
By KCL at Vc(s)
108s +1350 +150s2 + 1500s
VC ( s ) s2 +10s + 9 =
s
20 − t / τ At t = 0+
I= e
500
When t = 1τ
1τ
20 − τ 20 1 20
I= e = × = × 0.37
500 500 e 500 100 − 200 / 3
= 0.0148 Amp i2(0+) =
Voltage across capacitor is- 20
VC(t) = 20(1–e–t/τ) 300 − 200 100 5
for t = τ– = = = A
VC(τ–) = VC(τ+) for capacitor 60 60 3
VC(τ ) = 20[1–e–1] = 20×0.63 = 12.6V
– When switch is close
for t = (τ+) 2di1
100 = 20i1 +
then equivalent circuit dt
100 =
+
20 × i1 (0 ) +
( )
2di1 0 +
dt
40 − 12.6 100= 20 ×
10
+2
di1 0+( )
I= = 0.0548 ≃ 0.055A
500 3 dt
19. For a network shown in figure a steady state is 200
reached with switch k is open. Switch is closed
at time t=0. Calculate (di1/dt) and (di2/dt) at
( )
di1 0 +
=
100 −
3
t=0+ dt 2
( ) = 100 = 16.67 A/sec
di1 0+
dt 6
Apply KVL -
∫ i ( 0 ) dt
200 1
100 = 20i 2 (0+ ) ++ +
2 ×10−6
2
3
Apply differentiation both side
0=
( ) + i (0 )
20di 2 0+ 2
+
dt 2 ×10−6
(a) 16.67 A / sec and – 4.16 ×104 A / sec
0=
20di 2 0 + ( )+ 5/3
2 × 10−6
4
(b) 16.67 A / sec and – 3.33 ×10 A / sec dt
4
(c) 25A / sec and – 4.16 × 10 A / sec
4
( ) = −5 × 10
di 2 0 + 6
= −4.16 × 104 A / sec
(d) 25A / sec and – 3.33 × 10 A / sec dt 6 20
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 20. A step voltage of 10 V applied to the circuit at
Ans.(a): for t = 0 t = 0. The current through the resistor R just
after t = 0 and at steady state are:
100 10
iL(0–) = = A (a) 100 mA, 50 mA (b) 50 mA, 50 mA
30 3 (c) 100 mA, 100 mA (d) 75 mA, 75 mA
for inductor ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
10 Ans. (a) : In steady state, capacitor behaves as open
iL(0–) = iL(0+) = A circuit
3
( )
VC 0 − = 20 ×
10 200
3
=
3
V IR(∞) IR(∞)
200
for capacitor - VC(0–) = VC(0+) = V
3

1 1 V
I= = = 50mA (c) (d) Zero
10 + 5 + 5 20 R + L2
2
+
At t = 0 , C behaves as short circuit,
+
Ans. (a) : Series R-L circuit:
IR(0 )
+
IR(0 )
1
I R (0+ ) = = 100mA In Steady state:-
10 When t→∞
21. Under steady state condition, the energy stored ∵ XL = ωL
in the circuit is: ∴ XL = 0
V
So, steady state current (I) =
R
23. The time-constant of the network shown in the
(a) 8.22 × 10–6J (b) 1.48 × 10–6J figure is
(c) 2.88 × 10–4J (d) 4.81 × 10–4J
Ans. (c) :
(a) CR (b) 2 CR
CR CR
(c) (d)
4 2
At steady state, capacitor will be open-circuited so, Ans. (a) :
equivalent circuit is-
⇓
∵ VAD = VBC
VAD =
( 2 + 4 ) ×16 = 12V
8
∴ VBC = 12V
In R-C circuit, the time constant,
So, energy stored T = RC
1 1 T = Req Ceq
= C1VAD + C 2 VBC
2 2
2 2 R
1 1 T = × 2C
−6 −6
= × 2 × 10 × 12 ×12 + × 2 × 10 × 12 ×12 2
2 2 T = RC
= 2.88 × 10−4 J 24. For the given circuit, switch remains closed for
22. A dc voltage V is applied to a series RL circuit. a long time and opens at t = 0 seconds.
The steady state current is Assuming ideal model for every device, find
(a) V/R (b) V/L steady state magnitude of voltage at capacitor.
Ans. (a) : Given that -
k
k k
(a) 1 (b) 25
k k
(c) 50 (d) 100
Ans. (c) : For t < 0 convert delta to star-
k
Inductor short circuit & capacitor open circuit.
IL(0–) = 10 A
VC (0–) = 10 V
k k
2× 4 8 2
R1 = = = kΩ
2 + 6 + 4 12 3
4× 6 24
for t > 0 when switch open then equivalent R2 = = = 2kΩ
circuit - 2 + 6 + 4 12
2×6 12
R3 = = = 1kΩ
s 2 + 6 + 4 12
So, equivalent circuit -
k
k k
steady state voltage -
0.5 × 10−2 k k
I(s) =
106
0.5 ×10−3 s + 2 14 × 4
20s Req = +
3 14 + 4
I(s) = 3.778 kΩ
then Vc(s) = charge equation for discharging capacitor
sC
Q(t) = Qe − t / RC
0.5 × 10−2
Vc(s) = Q
 106  = Qe − t / RC
−3
 0.5 ×10 s + ( ) −6
 20 × 10 s
20s 
2.72
 e − t / RC =
1
50 ×104 2.72
Vc(s) = 2 taking ℓn both side
s + 108
1
taking inverse laplace - ℓn e− t / RC = ℓn
 50 × 104  2.72
Vc (t) = L−1  2 8
−t
= −ℓn2.72
 s + 10  Rc
  t = RC ℓn2.72
104
= 50L−1   t = 3.778×103×18×10–6×1.0006
4 2
2
( )
 s + 10  = 3778×18×1.0006×10–6
= 68.412×10–3sec = 68.412 ms
Vc(t) = 50sin104t V
≃ 68ms.
25. A 18 µf capacitor holding charge of Q coulomb
is connected to the circuit at time t = 0 sec. 26. In the circuit shown below, switch S1 is closed
at t = 0 seconds. Switch S2 is opened at t = 0
seconds.
The time at which the capacitor will be

discharged to approximately Q/2.72 coulombs.
(a) 68 ms (b) 34 ms
(c) 17 ms (d) 2.72 ms
The current flowing through the inductor of 0.3
H at t = 8 mili seconds is
(a) 0.65 mA (b) 0.32 mA
(c) 0.26 mA (d) 0.18 mA
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 (a) 6e–4t A (b) 6 (1– e–4tV)
Ans. (a) : (c) 6 (1+ e–4t) V (d) 6V
TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (a) : When switch was closed for a long time-
Now equivalent circuit-

 40  12
i ( 0− ) =   × = 6A
 5  16
i(0–) = i(0+)
When switch was open i(∞) = 0
current through inductor then i(t) = i (∞) + [i(0+) – i(∞)].e–t/τ
i(t) = 6.e–t/τ
i(t) =
V
R
(
1 − e− t / T ) L 2 1
τ = = = Sec
L 0.3 R 8 4
Req = 50+100 = 150Ω , T = = sec i ( t ) = 6e −4 t A
R 150
−8×150×10−3
100   29. In the circuit shown the switch closes at t = 0.
i(t) = 1− e 0.3  The voltage across 4µF capacitor in ideal
150   condition changes to
 
100
= (1 − 0.0183)
150
100
= × 0.9817
150
≃ 0.65A
(a) 0 (b) 16 V
27. When a dc voltage of 100 V is applied to a (c) 15 V (d) 24 V
circuit having R = 10 Ω and L = 10 H ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008
connected in series, the current after 0.1 sec IES-1991
after switching on and the time taken to reach Ans. (b) : Given,
half of its final values are C1 = 2µf
(a) 0.95 A and 0.693 sec
C2 = 4µf
(b) 2 A and 1.786 sec
The circuit can be converted in Laplace domain -
(c) 0.5 A and 0.693 sec
(d) 0.95 A and 1.786 sec
TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (a) : Transient equation
V
i ( t ) = o (1 − e − t / τ )
R 24
L 10
i ( t ) = 10 (1 − e )
−t / τ
τ = = = 1 sec I(s) = s
R 10
1 1 1 
( )
i ( t ) = 10 1 − e −0.1 (t = 0.1 sec)  +
s  C1 C2 

i(t) = 10 × 0.095 24 ( C1C2 )
i(t) = 0.95A =
C1 + C 2
i(t) = io (1–e–t)
–t
e = 0.5 24 × 8 × 10−12
=
t = 0.693 sec 6 × 10−6
= 32 × 10–6 A
28. In the network the switch has been in closed
1
positive for a long time. At t = 0 the switch is ∴ V1 (s) = I ( s ) ×
opened. The current through the induction is, C1s

1 16 Ans. (c) : Under steady state inductor act as short
= 32 × 10−6 × −6
= circuit and capacitor act as open circuit. Hence the
2 ×10 s s
current flowing in the circuit will be zero the total D.C
V1(t) = 16u(t) V voltage drops across the capacitor only.
Apply KVL,
32. A DC voltage source is connected to a series
24 I ( s ) R-C circuit. In the steady-state, the ratio of
V2(s) − + =0 energy stored in the capacitor to the total
s C2 s
energy supplied by the voltage source is
24 I ( s ) (a) 0.362 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.632 (d) 1.00
V2(s) = − GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
s C 2s
24 I ( s ) GATE-1995
V2(s) = −
s C2s Ans.(b): The total energy supplied by the voltage source
WS = CVS2
24 32 × 10−6
V2 (s) = − The energy stored by the capacitor in the steady state is
s 4 × 10−6 s 1
16 WC = CVS2
V2(s) = volts 2
s WC 1 CVS2
Take inverse Laplace transform:- = = 0.50
WS 2 CVS2
V2(t) = 16u(t) volts
In ideal condition voltage across both capacitors are 33. Transient response to R-L circuit can be
same. obtained with
(a) Unit step signal (b) Sinusoidal signal
So, Vc1 = Vc2 = 16volts (c) DC signal (d) Periodic signal
30. The time constant for the circuit shown below GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
is Ans. (a) : A transient response of a system to a change
from an equilibrium or steady state. Transient response
of R-L circuit can be obtained with Unit step signal.
34. Time constant is series RC circuit is given by
the product
(a) R2C (b) R2C2 (c) RC (d) RC2
(a) 0.2 Microsecond (b) 0.8 millisecond KVS TGT (WE)-2017
(c) 0.4 millisecond (d) 0.2 milisecond Ans. (c) : In transient response the time constant in
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 series RC circuit is given by τ = RC R = Req, C = Ceq
IES-1991 35. The transient current in an RLC circuit is
Ans. (d) : oscillating when
(a) R = 2 √ (L / C) (b) R > 2 √ (L / C)
(c) R < 2 √ (L / C) (d) R = 0
TRB Poly. Lect. 2012
Ans. (c) : For RLC network, characteristic equation-
Req = 1 + (2||2) kΩ R 1
= (1 + 1) kΩ s2 + s + = 0 ––––(i)
L LC
= 2 kΩ Comparing equation (i) with the standard 2nd order
Ceq = 0.1 µF equation is –
In RC circuit, time constant (τ) = RC s 2 + 2ξωn s + ω2n = 0
τ = 2 ×103 × 0.1 × 10–6
1 R
τ = 0.2 m sec ωn = 2ξωn = (∵ ξ = 1)
31. A DC voltage source is connected across a LC L
series R-L-C circuit. Under steady state 1 R
2ξ =
conditions, the applied DC voltage drops LC L
entirely across the
(a) R only R C
ξ=
(b) L only 2 L
(c) C only For oscillatory ξ < 1
(d) R and L combination
L
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 R<2
GATE-1995 C
36. The steady state current in the R-C series Ans. (b) : Time constant equal to
circuit on the application of a step voltage of τ = Req . Ceq
magnitude E will be R .R
(a) zero (b) E/R R eq = 1 2 Ceq = C1 + C2
(c) (E/R)e -t/RC
(d) (E/RC)e -t R1 + R 2
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I R .R
Ans. (a) : At steady state capacitor will be open circuit, τ = 1 2 ( C1 + C2 )
R1 + R 2
Hence current will be zero.
37. An initially relaxed R-C series network with 40. For a parallel RLC network shown in below,
R=2MΩ and C = 1µF is switched on to a 10V the steady state output voltage V(t) for ω = 1
step input. The voltage across the capacitor rad/sec is
after 2sec will be
(a) zero (b) 3.68V
(c) 6.32V (d) 10V
Ans. (c) :Vc (0) = 0 Vc(∞) = 10 V
Vc ( t ) = V ( ∞ ) +  Vc ( 0 ) − Vc ( ∞ )  e − t / τ (a) sin t (b) 2 cos t
Vc(t) = 10 − 10e − t / τ ( τ = RC = 2sec ) (c) cos t (d) 2 cos ( t − 450 )
at t = 2 sec UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
Vc(2) = 10 − 10.e −2 / 2 Ans. (c) : at ω = 1 Rad/sec
XL = j ωL = jΩ, XC = 1/j ωc XC = –jΩ
Vc(2) = 6.32V
Circuit at resonance only resistive impedance will
38. The switch in the circuit shown below is at occurs so V(t) = i(t) × 1
position 1 for a long time. At time t = 0, it is
moved to position 2. The value of V at t = 0+ is V(t) = cos ωt = cost (∵ω = 1)
R
41. The value of dvc/dt and diL/dt at t = 0+ for the
given circuit shown in below is-
(a) –50 V (b) –100 V

(c) +50 V (d) –150 V (a) –106 A/sec, 0 V/sec (b) 106 A/sec, 0 V/sec
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018 (c) 0 A/sec, 106 V/sec (d) 0 A/sec, –106 V/sec
Ans. (d) : When switch at position 1 for long time then UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
– +
Vc(0 ) = 100 V. Now switch is at position (2) at t = 0 Ans. (c) : For t < 0
50V
Apply KVL ⇒ +50 + 100 + VR = 0 Capacitor will be open circuited and inductor will be
VR = −150 V short circuited.
39. For the circuit shown in the figure below, what So 1A current will be passed through inductor.
is the time constant? vc (t) = constant
dvc (t)
=0
dt
vL(t) = 100 e–t/τ
di +100 − t / c
= e
dt 10−3
6
= 10 V/sec
(a) (R1 + R2) (C1 x C2 / C1 + C2) 42. The transient response of a system is mainly
(b) (R1 xR2 / R1 + R2) (C1 + C2) due to
(c) (R1 + R2) (C1 + C2) (a) Internal forces (b) Stored energy
(d) (R1 x R2 / R1 + R2) (C1 x C2/ C1 + C2) (c) Friction (d) Inertia forces
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 UJVNL AE-2016
Ans. (b) : circuit containing only resistive element has Whenever the switch is closed momentarily an
no transients because resistance does not stored energy impulsive current will flow in the current and both
in any form. It dissipates energy in form of heat coming capacitor charge upto a common voltage. This circuit
from I2R loss. will remain constant at steady state.
Transient is shown mainly in circuit due to presence of 46. A system is at rest for t < 0. It is given by
inductor or capacitor. Hence transient is due to stored dy
energy by these devices. + 2y =u(t) sin (2t + α). It's steady state is
dt
43. A series RC circuit is fed from 5V d.c. source. reached at t = 0, then the value of angle α is
If R = 10Ω and C = 1 µF, the current will be given by
maximum (a) 0 (b) tan–1(1)
(a) 10 µ sec after turn on 1
(b) 50 µ sec after turn on (c) –tan–1(1) (d) tan–1  2 
(c) immediately after turn on
(d) after time t = ∞ Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
TNPSC AE-2013 Ans. (b) : A system relation as-
Ans. (c) : For RC series circuit, dy
+ 2y = sin (2t + α) u(t)
1  ∆V  dt
D c =  c  Hence it would not take more 2
c  ∆t  s.Y(s)+2Y(s) = 2 =0
time to get maximum. s +4
44. A 50 micro farad capacitor in series with a 40 k s+2=0
ohms resistor is charged to a potential jω + 2 = 0
difference of 400 volts. The time constant and j2+2=0, 1+j = 0
energy stored in the fully charged capacitor Value of α will be
will be = tan–1 (1)
(a) 20 seconds, 2 Joules 47. An R-L-C series circuit has R = 1Ω, L = 1H,
(b) 2 seconds, 20 Joules and C = 1F. Damping ratio of the circuit will be
(c) 2 seconds, 2 Joules (a) > 1 (b) unity
(d) 20 seconds, 20 Joules (c) 0.5 (d) zero
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
Ans. (*) : Time constant for RC circuit Ans. (c) :
τ = RC R
τ = 40 × 103 × 50 × 10–6 2ξωn =
L
τ = 2000 × 10–3 1 R
τ = 2 sec 2ξ × =
1 LC L
Energy = CV 2
2 1 C
ξ= R
1 2 L
E = × 50 × 10−6 × 160000
2 1
E = 4J ξ = × 1 1/1
2
45. In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal ξ = 0.5
capacitors. C1 has been charged to 12V before
the ideal switch S is closed at t = 0. The current 48.
A series R-L circuit with R = 100Ω, L=50H is
i(t) for all t is connected to a dc source of 100 V. the time
taken for the current to rise to 70% of its
steady value is
i(t) (a) 0.2s (b) 0.6s
(c) 2.4s (d) none of these
(a) Zero
(b) A step function Ans. (b) : i(t) = i(∞) + [i(0) − i(∞)].e − t / τ
(c) An exponentially decaying function i(0+) = 0
(d) An impulse function V 100
i(∞) = = =1
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I R 100
GATE-2012 i(t) = 1 − e −2t
Ans. (d) :
0.70 = 1 − e −2t
0.3 = e–2t
i(t)
ℓn ( 0.3) = −2t
–2t = –1.2
t = 0.6sec
49. In the circuit shown below, the initial charge on (a) 0V (b) 1V
the capacitor is 2.5mC, with the voltage (c) 2V (d) 3V
polarity as indicated. The switch is closed at Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
time t = 0. The current i(t) at a time t after the Ans. (b) : At steady state condition–
switch is closed is Capacitor will open circuited–
(a) i(t) = 15 exp (–2*103t)A

1
(b) i(t) = 5 exp (–2*103t)A V1 = 9 × = 3V
3 3
(c) i(t) = 10 exp (–2*10 t)A
(d) i(t) = –5 exp (–2*103t)A
Ans. (a) : at t< 0
2.5 × 10−3
Vc(0–) = = 50V
50 × 10−6
–
VC(0 ) = VC(0 ) + by voltage division rule -
V2 = 3 × 
at t > 0 net voltage = 100+50 = 150V 10 
τ = 
 RC   10 + 20 
V  
i ( t ) = e − t / τ  = 10 × 50 × 10−6  = 3×
10
R  −4  30
 = 5 ×10 sec  =1 V
−t
150 5×10−4
= e 53. In the circuit of figure, the switch is closed at
10 t = 0. At t = 0+ the current through C is
3
= 15e − t×2×10
i ( t ) = 15e−2×10
3
t
A
50. The current in the series R-L circuit at a time
t = 0 + is? (a) 4A (b) 2.5 A
(a) V/R (b) R/V (c) 3.1 A (d) 0
(c) V (d) 0 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I Ans. (a) : When circuit is closed at t = 0 and
Ans. (d) : For series R-L network Vc(0–) = 0V then capacitor will short circuited.
iL(0–) = iL(0+) at t = 0+ then circuit -
+
at t > 0
iL(0+) = 0
Inductor behaves as like open circuited.
51. After how many time constants, the transient taking Laplace then circuit -
part reaches more than 63 percent of its final
value?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I −20 I (s)
Ans. (a) : After '5' number of time constant, the + 5I ( s ) + =0
transient portion reaches more than 99% of its final s s
 1  20
value. I (s)  5 +  =
In '1' time constant, it reaches to 63.2 % of final value  s s
while charging. In '1' time constant it reaches to 37.8% I(s) (5s + 1) = 20
of final value while discharging. 20 20 4
52. In the dc circuit shown in the adjoining figure, I(s) = = =
( 5s + 1) 5 s+ 1   1
the node voltage V2 at steady state is   s + 
 5  5
taking inverse Laplace
1
− t
i(t) = 4e 5
+
i(0+) = 4 e0
i(0+) = 4 A
54. The circuit in figure is switched on at t = 0. At 57. In the circuit shown, steady state is reached
any time t, I(t)= with S open. S is closed at t = 0, the voltage
across L is given by
(a) 3 + 3e–t (b) 6 – 3e–t

(a) 0 (b) 6
(c) 3 – 3e–t (d) 6 – 6e–t
(c) –6 (d) 2
Ans. (c) : When switch is closed. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
6
i(0–) = 0, i(∞) = = 3A Ans. (c) :
2
2
i(t) = i(∞) + [i(0) – i(∞)]e–t/τ τ = = 1 sec
2 i=0
i(t) = 3 – 3.e–t
55. A 220 Ω resistor is in series with a 2.2 µF
capacitor. The time constant is When switch is open-
(a) 48 µs (b) 480 µs
(c) 2.4 µs (d) 24 µs i ( 0− ) = 2A
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I Now when switch is closed at t = 0, capacitor will close
Ans. (b) : the time constant (τ) = RC circuit
= 220 × 2.2 × 10–6 Apply KVL-
= 484 µ sec. ≃ 480µsec 3× 2 + V = 0
V = –6 Volt
56. In the circuit shown, steady state is reached 58. When a series RC circuit is connected to a
with S open, S is closed at t = 0. The current I constant voltage at t = 0, the current passing
in the 1 Ohm resistor connected is to be through circuit at t = 0+ is
determined at t = 0+. I is given by (a) Infinite (b) Zero
(c) V/R (d) V/wC
Ans. (c) :
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 3 A (d) 4/3 A
Ans. (b) : When switch is open
at t = 0
VC (0+) = VC (0–) = 0V
V
4V i(0+) = s A
R
59. The transient current in loss-free LC circuit
when excited from an ac source is an
i(0–) = 2A (a) Undamped sine wave
When switch is closed (b) Over damped Sine wave
(c) Under damped sine wave
1Ω (d) Critically damped sine wave
1Ω Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (a) :
At t = 0+
V
I = th
R
I = 2/1
I = 2A

The potential drop across the inductor is - 62. Transient behavior occurs in any circuit when
(a) There are sudden changes of applied voltage
VL = L di (b) The voltage source is shorted
dt (c) The circuit is connected from or disconnected
Q
VC = from the supply
C (d) All of the above happen
By applying KVL Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
VL+VC = 0 Ans. (d) : Transient are present in the network when the
di Q network is having any energy storage elements.
L + =0
dt C Inductor does not allow sudden change of current and it
di Q stores energy in the form of the magnetic field.
+ =0 63. The transient current in a circuit are due to :
dt LC
differentiating with respect to t , we get (a) Voltage applied to the circuit
di 1 dq (b) Impedance of the circuit
+ =0 (c) Resistance of the circuit
dt LC dt (d) Changes in the stored energy in inductors and
di capacitors
+ ω2i = 0
dt Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
1 Ans. (d) : The transient in any circuit is occurs due to
ω= rad/sec storing element(i.e. inductor and capacitor). storing
LC
element would not allow the sudden change in its
i(t) = Io cos (ωt – φ) A
parameter (voltage or current).
The transient current represents an undamped wave
64. The double energy transients occur in the
60. In a 20 Vac series RC circuit, if 20 V is read
(a) R-L circuit
across the resistor and 40 V is measured across
(b) R-C circuit
the capacitor, the applied voltage is
(c) Pure inductive circuit
(a) 45 Vac (b) Vac
(d) R-L-C circuit
(c) 60 Vac (d) 65 Vac
Ans. (d) : Double energy transient occurs in those
Ans. (a) :Given that
circuit where two storing element present. Hence in R-
VR = 20V
L-C circuit or LC circuit has two energy transient.
VC = 40V
65. In the given circuit, the initial current i(0) = 20
VT = VR2 + VC2 Amp. Then the current in amperes at time t is :
= ( 20 )2 + ( 40 )2
= 400 + 1600 = 2000
= 44.72≃ 45 V
61. In figure, the current supplied by battery (a) 10 e-21 (b) 12.5et
–2t
immediately after switching on the circuit is (c) 20 e (d) 40 e–2t
Ans. (c) Gievn that
i(0) = 20A, i (∞) = 0
4
(a) 0A (b) 1A i(t) = i ( ∞ ) + (i(0) − i(∞)]e − t / τ ; τ =
(c) 4A (d) 10A 8
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I i(t) = 20.e −2t A τ = 1/ 2
Ans. (b) :
66. In the circuit shown below, switch S is open for
a long time and is closed at t = 0. The value of
current i(t) when t → ∞ is
Behaviour of uncharged inductor after excitation i.e. at
t=0+ is open circuit.
(a) 0.9 A (b) 1.5 A

V 20
i= = = 1 Amp. (c) 0.3 A (d) 0.6 A
R 20 NIELIT Scientists- 2017
Ans. (c) : 1 2
(c) (d)
8 8
Ans. (c) : Given that VS= sin2t (ω = 2)
10
i1 = 1.5 ×
25
i1 = 0.6 A
1 1
Xc = =
jωC j2C
XL = j ωL = j2
10 R = 2Ω
i(t) = 0.6 × = 0.3 A
20 1
Zeq = (2+2j) 
67. A voltage of 24 V DC is applied through switch j2C
S to an R-L series circuit. Switch S was initially
1
open. At time t = 0, switch is closed. The rate of ( 2 + 2 j) ×
change of current through the resistor is j2C
=
8A/sec, while current through the inductor is 1
8A. If the value of inductor is 1H, then for this ( 2 + 2 j) +
j2C
condition the value of the resistor will be
(a) 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω =
( 2 + 2 j)
(c) 3 Ω (d) 4 Ω −4C + 1 + 4 jC
Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018
=
( 2 + 2 j)( −4C + 1 − 4 jC )
IES-2012 ( −4C + 1 + 4 jC )( −4C + 1 − 4 jC )
Ans. (b) : When switch is closed at t = 0
then circuit - −8C + 2 − 8jC − 8jC + 2 j − 8j2 C
=
( −4C + 1)2 − ( 4 jC )2
2 − 16 jC + 2 j
=
16C2 + 1 − 8C − 16 j2C2
2 + 2 j (1 − 8C ) 2 + 2 j(1 − 8C )
Apply KVL
= =
16C2 + 1 − 8C + 16C2 32C2 + 1 − 8C
dI when V & I in phase the imaginary part is
–24 + RI + L = 0
dt zero.
24 = RI +
dI 2 (1 − 8C )
dt 2
=0
current through the inductor and resistor are the same, 32C + 1 − 8C
therefore the rate of change of current through resistor - (1–8C) = 0
dI 8C = 1
= 8A / s
dt C = 18
I = 8A
So, 24 = 8R + 8×1 69. A parallel RLC with R1 = 10, L1 = 1/100 and C1
8R = 16 = 1/100 is scaled giving R2 = 104, L2 = 10–3 and
R = 2Ω C2 is
68. In the circuit shown, Vs = sin 2 t. C is chosen so (a) 10–3 (b) 10–5
–7
that I and Vs are in phase. (I is the current (c) 10 (d) 10–9
drawn from Vs). Then the value of C is given by Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Given ,
1 1
R1= 10, L1 = , C1 =
100 100
R2 = 104 , L2 = 10–3, C2 = ?
1 1 R 10000
(a) (b) K1 = 2 = = 1000
2 4 R1 10
Now , Ans. (a) : Given that -
L1 kω  t 
= Vin = V sin 
L 2 k1 
 mc 
L
kω = 1 × k1
L2
10−2
kω = × 1000
10−3 L L
kω = 104
C2 1
=
C1 kωk1  t 
Vin = V sin  
−2  MC 
10 −9
C2 = 4 = 1×10 The current in the circuit I
10 × 1000
dI
70. For the circuit of the figure the inductor Va = M + IX c
current IL just before t = 0 is dt
take laplace of the above equation.
1
Va(s) = sMI(s)+ I(s)
sC
 1 
=  sM +  I(s) –––––––(i)
 sC 
and
(a) 10A (b) 6A
(c) 4A (d) 2A V MC
I(s) = –––––(ii)
1 
Ans. (*) : At t= 0 then circuit - ( )

s 2 MC + 1  sL + 
 sC 
put the value of I(s) in equation (1)
 s 2 MC + 1  V MC
Va(s) =  
at t = ∞ then circuit-
 sC
( )
 s 2 MC + 1  sL + 1 
 sC 
1
V MC M LC
Va(s) = 2 =V
s LC + 1 2
L s + (1
LC)
take inverse Laplace of above equation–––
1× 10
IL = = 2.5 A M  t 
4 Va(t) = V sin  
71. The network shown in below figure consist of L  LC 
two coupled coils and a capacitor. At t = 0, the dVa (t) V M  t 
switch is closed connecting a voltage generator, = cos  
dt L C  LC 
 t 
Vin = V sin   . What will be the value At t = 0 dVa (t) = V M
 MC 
dt L C
dV
of a (0+)? 72. The voltage gain Vout/Vin of a circuit shown
dt below is zero. If ω = 333.33 rad s–1, the values
of C is
V M V
(a)   (b)  
L C L
 V  M  (a) 3.33 mF (b) 33.33 mF
(c) 0 (d)    
 L  C  (c) 3.33 µF (d) 33.33 µF
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 ISRO Scientist- May, 2017
Ans. (d) : Given that Ans. (d) : for t < 0
Vout
=0
Vin
IL(0–) = –4A
Vc = 8V
At t> 0 and take Laplace
Vout
Vth = 0, due to =0
Vin
then
Vth = j ωL2I2 + j ωMI1 = 0 Apply superposition theorem -
 −L  −16 −4 ( s + 2 )
I1 =  2  I 2 I L1 (s) = =
 M  4s + 8 +
4 ( s + 2 )2 + 1
V1 = jωL1I1 + JωMI 2 ––––(i) s+2
V1 also can be written - take inverse Laplace -
I I I L1 (t) = −4e−2t cos t ––––(i)
V1 = 2 + Vth = 2 (∵ Vth = 0 )
jωc jωc for another source -
I
∴ j ω L1I1+j ωMI2 = 2 ––––––(ii)
jωc
L1  −L2  I 2 + MI 2 = − I2
 M  ω2C
 L1L2  1 2 2 8/s
− M = 2 I L2 (s) = I(s) = ×
 4s + 10 4s + 10
 M  ωC ( )
( 4s + 8 ) 2 +
4
5
M = K L1L 2 = 0.5 ( 0.12 )( 0.27 ) = 0.09 H 2
2 2 I L2 (s) =
1
L1L2 =   M 2 = 
 1  2 2 ( s + 2 )2 + 1
 M = 4M
 
K  0.5  Taking inverse Laplace
value of L1L2 put in equation
I L2 (t) = 2e−2t sin t
 4M 2  1
 − M  = 2 I L (t) = IL1 + IL2
 M  ωC
IL(t) = –4e–2t cost +2e–2t sint
1
3M = 2 IL(t) = e–2t (2sint – 4cost) A
ωC 74. The unit impulse response of a system is
1 1 h(t) = e–t, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady-state
C= 2
= 2
3Mω  1000  value of the output for unit step input is equal
3 ( 0.09 )  
 3  to
= 33.33 µF (a) –1 (b) 0
73. In the network shown below, switch is opened (c) 1 (d) ∞
at t = 0 after long time. The current IL(t) for ISRO Scientist- May, 2017
t > 0 is given as Ans. (c) : Given that -
x(t) = u(t)
1
X(s) =
s
h(t) = e–t
1
H(s) =
s +1
1 1 1 1
–2t
(a) e (2cos t + 4 sin t) A Y(s) = X(s)H(s) = × = −
–2t
(b) e (3sin t – 4 cos t) A s s + 1 s s +1
–t
–2t
(c) e (–4 sin t + 2 cos t) A y(t) = 1–e
(d) e–2t(2 sin t – 4 cos t) A at steady state t → ∞
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 y(∞) = 1
75. The switch in the circuit in the figure is in Ans. (a) : Each RC- Section provides a phase shift of
position P for a long time and then moved to 90° then two RC-Section are provided in cascade
position Q at time t = 0. connection maximum phase shift = 90°+90° = 180°
77. The differential equation for the current i(t) in
the circuit shown in figure is :
dv(t)
The value of at t = 0+ is d 2i di
dt (a) + 3 + 3i ( t ) = sin t
(a) 3 V/s (b) –5 V/s dt 2 dt
(c) –3 V/s (d) 0 V/s d 2i di
GATE-2021 (b) 3 2 + 3 + i ( t ) = cos t
dt dt
Ans. (c) : Given that -
d 2i di
(c) 2
+ 3 + 3i ( t ) = cos t
dt dt
d 2i di
(d) 3 2 + 3 + i ( t ) = sin t
dt dt
MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
Ans. (b) : V(t) = sint
–
At t = 0 then circuit draw
dV ( t )
= cos t
dt
20 di ( t ) 1 t
iL(0–) = = 1mA = i L (0+ ) V ( t ) = 3i ( t ) + 3 + ∫ i ( t ) dt
20 ×103 dt 1 0
Apply voltage division rule- dV ( t ) 3.di ( t ) 3.d i ( t )
2
= + + i(t)
20 ×10 × 103
VC(0–) =
( 5 + 5 + 10 ) × 103
= 10V = VC 0+( ) dt dt dt 2
3.d 2i ( t ) 3.di ( t )
At t> 0 then circuit draw cos t = + + i(t)
dt 2 dt
78. In the circuit shown in Figure, the switch S is
open for a long time and closed at t = 0. The
value of I at t = 0+ is :
apply KCL-
10
+ iC (t) + 1mA = 0
5 × 103
iC(t)= –3mA
dv(t) (a) 9 A (b) –12 A
C = −3mA (c) 12 A (d) –6 A
dt
DFCCIL Executive (S&T)-11.11.2018, 4:30- 6:30PM
dVC (t) −3 × 10−3 MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
= −3
= −3V / sec
dt 1×10 Ans. (b) : When switch is closed at t = 0 so t < 0
76. RC network shown in the figure un provide
maximum theoretical phase shift of ––––– V
When switch is closed

V1 2Ω
6Ω I
(a) 180° (b) 120° −24

(c) 60° (d) 0° I= , I = −12A
BEL-2015 2
79. The steady state output voltage corresponding (c) The final charges on the two capacitors will
to input voltage (3 + 4 sin 100 t) V for circuit be of equal magnitude
shown in figure is : (d) the final voltage on the two capacitors will be
of equal magnitude
BSNL (JTO)-2001
Ans. (c) : Two linear capacitors C1 (with are initial
voltage of zero across it) and C2 (with V Volt across it
initially) and a resistor R are wired into a series circuit
which is closed at t = 0. The final charges on the two
( )V
capacitors will be of equal magnitude.
(a) 3 + 4sin 100t − π 81. The switch shown in figure below is ideal and
4
has been in position 1 for t < 0.
sin (100t + π ) V
3 4
(b) +
2 2 4
(c) 3 + 4 2 sin (100t − π ) V
4
sin (100t − π ) V
4
(d) 3+
2 4
MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013 If the switch is moved to position 2 at t = 0,
−1 1 then V0 for t > 0 is given by :
Ans. (d) : θ = tan (a) 0 V (b) 2+2(1 + e–1000 t)V
ωRC –1000 t
1 (c) 2(1 – e )V (d) 2e–1000 t V
θ = tan −1 DRDO-2009
100 × 1× 10 ×10−6 ×103 Ans. (a) : At t = 0 inductor act as short circuit then
θ = 450 = π / 4 circuit draw
Input voltage Vi = ( 3 + 4sin100t ) V
Applying superposition theorem
Case-1st , when 3V dc source active, then V0'
V0' = 3V (because due to dc supply 10 µF capacitor is
10
open circuit) iL(0) = = 2A
5
Case 2nd, when 4sin100t source active, then V0''
At t = ∞ inductor act as short circuit then circuit draw
1
jωC
V0'' = Vi'' ×
R + jωC
1 20
V0'' = Vi'' × iL(∞) = = 2A
1 + jωCR 5+5
1 Req = 5+5 = 10 Ω
V0'' = 4sin100t ×
10 × 10−3
−6
1 + j × 100 × 10 × 10 × 10 3
Current through inductor - τ = L/R = = 10–

1 10
V0 = 4sin100t ×
''
3
1+ j sec
1 iL(t) = iL(∞) – [iL(∞) – iL(0)] e–t/τ
V0 = 4sin100t ×
''
∠ − 45 0
= 2 – (2 – 2) e − t /10
−3
2
iL(t) = 2A
sin (100t − 450 ) V
4
V0'' = di (t)
2 V0 = L L = 0V
dt
Total voltage V0 = V0' + V0'' 82. A linear time invariant RLC network is shown
  in figure below :
sin (100t − 450 )  V
4
V0 = 3 +
 2 
80. Two linear capacitors C1 (with an initial
voltage of zero across it) and C2, (with V volts
across it initially) and a resistor R are wired
into a series circuit which is closed at t = 0.
(a) The initial series current depends on V but
not on R
(b) The final current is inversely proportional to
R
The state equation corresponding to the state equation (1), (2) and (3) in matrix form
variables v(t), i1(t) and i2(t) is :
 dv   −1 −1 
 dv   –1 –1   dt   0  0
 dt   0     C C 
 
   C C  di
 1= 1  − R 1
  −1  e
 di1   1 –R 1     0  +
 L1 
dt L L
 dt   L
0 
   1 
(a) = 1
 L1  di    
  1
 2 1 −R 2 0
 di 2   1 –R 2   dt   L

0
L

 dt   L 0
L 2 
  2 2 
 2 83. In the circuit in figure, the switch S is closed at
t = 0. Assuming that there is no initial charge in
 dv   1 1  the capacitor, the current ic(t) for t > 0 is
 dt   0 
   C C  v
  0
 1 –R 1 
(b)  1  =  0   i1  +  –1 e
di
 dt  L L1
   1  i   0 
 2  
di
 2  1 –R 2 
 0 
 dt   L 2 L 2 
 dv   –1 –1 
2t
Vs − RC Vs − RCt
 dt  0  (a) e A e A
(b)
 C C  R R
  v  0 
1   i  +  –1 e
2t
Vs − RC Vs − RCt
(c)  1  =
di –R 1
 0  (c) e A (d) e A
 dt   1   2R 2R
 L1 L1 
 
1 i 2   0  DRDO-2008
 di 2  –R 2 
 dt   0  Ans. (a) : At t =0 then circuit draw
 L 2 L 2 
 dv   1 1 
 dt  0 
   C C  v  0 
   i  +  –1 e
Vs
(d)  1 
di –R 1 ic (0) =
 dt  1 0   1   R
 L1 
  i 2   0  At t = ∞ then circuit draw
 di 2   –R 2 
 dt  1 0 
 L 2 
DRDO-2009
Ans. (a) : Given that
i c ( ∞ ) = 0, τ = R eq C
R×R R
Req = =
Apply KCL at node 'a' 2R 2
dV RC
i1 + i 2 = − C τ=
dt 2
dV 1 ic(t) = i(∞)+ ( i(0) – i(∞) )e–t/τ
= − ( i1 + i 2 ) ...........(1)
dt C − t
V  RC
Apply KVL in loop 1 = 0 +  s − 0e 2
di R 
L1 1 + R 1i1 + e − V = 0 V
dt ic(t) = s e −2t / RC A
di1 V R1i1 e R
= − − ..........(2) 84. For the circuit in figure, the switch was kept
dt L1 L1 L1
closed for a long time before opening it at time
Apply KVL in loop 2
t = 0. The voltage vL(0+) is
di
L 2 2 + R 2i 2 − V = 0
dt
di 2 V R 2
= − i 2 ........(3)
dt L 2 L 2

(a) –10 V (b) –1V V 311/ 2
(c) 0V (d) 10V Current I = = = 27.40 A
DRDO-2008 R +X2 2
L 52 + 6.282
Ans. (a) :At t < 0 then circuit draw X L = 2πfL
= 2π× 50 × 0.02
= 6.28Ω
X 
iL = 1A Phase angle θ = − tan −1  L 
At t > 0 then circuit draw  R 
 6.28 
θ = − tan −1  
 5 
θ = −51.47
[VR = –VL]
VR = 10×1 = 10 ∵ Circuit behaves as lagging load so phase angle will
∴ VL = –10V be negative.
85. A circuit consisting of two resistors, a capacitor 88. A coil having resistance of 10Ω and inductance
and a battery is shown in the figure. In the of 1H is switched on to a direct voltage of
steady state, the voltage across the capacitor 100V. The steady-state value of the current
would be : will be.
(a) 10 A (b) 15 A
(c) 20 A (d) 25 A
IES-2019
Ans. (a) : At steady state condition inductor behaves as
(a) Zero volts (b) V volts a short circuit so, circuit contain only Resistance.
(c) infinite value (d) (V/2) volts R L
BSNL(JTO)-2002
Ans. (d) : At steady state capacitor will open VR VL
V V
So, VC = × R = volt
R+R 2
86. A charged capacitor C (charged at V volts) and a
resistor R are in series with a switch is closed at t
~
= 0. Which of the following statements is true? Vmsinωt
−t / τ
(a) The initial voltage on C is inversely V L = V m e
proportional to the charge stored If t = ∞
(b) The current in the resistor varies as 1/t for V = 0
L
t>0
(c) The current for t > 0 is independent of the So that inductor is short circuit and resistor bear full
value of C voltage.
(d) The power dissipated by the resistor V 100
I= =
decreases as time passes R 10
BSNL(JTO)-2002
Ans. (d) : The current through the resistor decreases as I = 10 Amp
time passes. so power dissipated by the resistor 89. One of the basic characteristics of any steady-
decrease.  P = i 2 R  state sinusoidal response of a linear R-L-C
circuit with constant R, L and C values is
87. A 50 Hz sinusoidal voltage V = 311 sinωt is (a) the output remains sinusoidal with its
applied to an RL series circuit. If the
frequency being the same as that of the source
magnitude of resistance is 5Ω and that of the
inductance is 0.02 H, the r.m.s. value of the (b) the output remains sinusoidal with its
steady-state current and the relative phase frequency differing from that of the source
angle are nearly (c) the output amplitude equals the source
(a) 19.6 A and 51.5º (b) 27.4 A and – 51.5º amplitude
(c) 19.6 A and – 51.5º (d) 27.4 A and 51.5º (d) the phase angle difference between the source
IES-2019 and the output is always zero.
Ans. (b) : IES-2017
Ans. (a) : The basic characteristics of any steady state
sinusoidal response of a linear R-L-C circuit with
constant R-L and C value is the output remains
sinusoidal with its frequency being the same as that of
the source.
90. The steady-state response of a network to the The above representation in Laplace transform is
excitation Vcos (ωt + φ) may be found in three (a) V(s) = [sLI(s) – Li(0+)]
steps. The first two steps are as follows: (b) V(s) = [sLI(s)]
1. Determining the response of the network to (c) V(s) = [Li(0+)]
the excitation ejωt. (d) V(s) = [sLI(0+) + Li(s)]
2. Multiplying the above response by IES-2020
V = Ve jφ . Ans. (a) : Initial current = i (0+ )
The third step is di(t)
∵ V(t) = L
(a) finding the complex conjugate of the dt
expression after step 2. we know that,
(b) finding the magnitude of the expression after d 
step 2. L  f (t)  = sf (s) − f (0+ )
 dt 
(c) finding the real part of the expression after
 di(t) 
step 2. ∴ L [ V(t) ] = L  L
(d) finding the imaginary part of the expression  dt 
after step 2. V(s) = L {sI(s) − i(0+ )}
IES-2012
Ans. (c) : Given input = VCos ( ωt + φ ) V(s) = sLI(s) − Li(0+ ) 
Step 1 93. Consider the following RC circuit. The
e jωt =  cos ( ωt ) + j sin ( ωt )  capacitor has an initial charge q0 such that it
opposes the flow of charging current:
Step 2
Multiplying the above input with Ve jφ , it will
We get,
Ve jφe jωt = V [ cosφ + jsinφ][ cos ωt + jsinωt ]
V = cosφ cosωt + jcosφ sinωt + jsinφ cosωt + j2sinφ sinωt  The response of the circuit i(t) will be
t
= V {cosφ cosωt − sinφ sin ωt} + j{sinωtcosφ+ sinφcosωt} E q  − q − t
(a)  − 0  e RC (b) − 0 e RC
 R RC  RC
= V cos ( ωt + φ ) + jsin ( ωt + φ )  ------- (1) t t
E − RC E q  −
Step 3 the real part of the equation (1), we will give the (c) e (d)  + 0  e RC
response, since output is cosine signal. R  R RC 
91. What is the approximate steady state current IES-2019
in the circuit shown below? Ans. (a) :
Initial voltage across the capacitor

q
VC (0+ ) = 0
(a) 50 A (b) 25 A C
(c) 5 A (d) 1 A Initial current flowing through circuit
IES-2009 E − VC (0+ )
Ans. (*) : Given that, i ( 0 +
) =
R
V = 25cos (100t + 450 ) =
25 E − q0 / C E q0
∠450 +
i(0 ) = = −
2 R R RC
 1  at t = ∞ (after a long time) capacitor is fully charged
Z = 3 + j  ωL −  and it will be treated as open circuit is zero.
 ωC 
i (∞ ) = 0
 1  ∴
Z = 3 + j 100 × 0.08 − , Z = 3 + j7.75 Response current i(t)
 100 × 0.04  = i(∞) + {i(0+ ) − i(∞)} e − t / τ
V 25 / 2 Where , τ = time constant = RC
I= = = 2.127A
Z 3 + j7.75 E q 
∴ i(t) = 0 +  − 0  e − t / RC
92. The initial current is i(0+), clockwise, and the  R RC 
circuit current being i(t) and
 E q 
V(t) = L
di(t) i(t) =  − 0  e − t / RC
dt  R RC 
94. An R-L-C series circuit is excited by a DC L eq
voltage. If R = 40Ω, L = 0.2 H and C = 100µF, Ans. (c) : Time constant of given circuit (τ) =
the resulting current response is said to be R eq
(a) Critically damped (b) Undamped 1
(c) Over-damped (d) Under-damped τ = = 0.5sec.
IES-2018, 1995 Current equation 2
for R-L circuit
Ans. (d) : Given that,
m (1 − e )
−t / τ
R = 40 Ω, L = 0.2 H, C= 100µF i L (t) = I
−
For series RLC circuit. i L (t) = I m (1 − e ) 2t
Damping ratio When current reaches 0.63 of it's steady state-

Damping ratio (ξ) = .
R C 0.63 Im = I m (1 − e −2t )
2 L 1 − e −2t = 0.63
40 100 × 10−6 1 e −2t = 0.37
ξ= = 20 × t = 0.497
2 0.2 2000
ξ = 0.447(< 1) t ≃ 0.5sec
Value is less than 1 97. In the figure, initial voltage on C is V0. S is
Hence given system is under damped system. closed at t = 0. The IL for t > 0 is
95. A unit-step voltage is applied at t = 0 to a series where ω02 = 1/LC
R-L circuit with zero initial condition. Then
(a) it is possible for the current to be oscillatory
(b) The voltage across the resistor at t = 0+ is
zero
(c) the voltage across the resistor at t = 0– is zero
(d) The resistor current eventually falls to zero
IES-2017
Ans. (b & c) : Circuit according to given condition- (a) −ω0 CV0 sin ω0 t (b) ω0 V0 sin ω0 t
(c) −ω0 V0 sin ω0 t (d) ω0 CV0 sin ω0 t
IES-2015
Ans. (d) :
At, t = 0−, when switch is open, no current is flowing

through the circuit.
i.e. i(0 − ) = 0
So, VR ( 0− ) = R × i(0− ) Given circuit in s-domain- (for t > 0)
VR (0− ) = 0
At t = 0+, inductor does not allow sudden change in
current i.e. inductor will be treated as open circuit at t
=0+
So, i L (0 + ) = i R (0 + ) = 0
V0 / s
VR (0+ ) = R × i R (0 + ) = R × 0 I L (s) =
sL + 1/ Cs
VR (0+ ) = 0 ( V0 / s ) × Cs
=
Hence option (b) and (c) both are correct.  1 
96. For the R-L circuit shown, the current i(t) for LC  s 2 + 
 LC 
unit step input voltage will rise to 0.63 in
 
1  1/ LC 
= V0 C ×  2
 (
LC  s + 1/ LC 
2
)
 
 1/ LC 
= V0 C × ω0 ×  2
(a) 1 s (b) 2 s  ( )
 s + 1/ LC 
2

(c) 0.5 s (d) 1.5 s i L (t) = ω0 C V0 sin ω0 t A
IES-2015
98. Consider the following data: i(0 − ) = 2A
1. Input applied for t < t0 for t > 0, when switch is closed, current through
2. Input applied for t ≥ t0 resistance R2 is zero.
3. State of the network at t = t0
so i(∞) = 0
4. State of the network at t < t0
Which of these are needed for determining the i(t) = final value + {Initial value – final value}×e–t/τ
response of a linear network for t < t0 ? = 0 +{2–0}×e–t/τ
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 i(t) = 2e − t / τ
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only this value is not match option
IES-2013 101.
Ans. (a) : For determining the response of linear
network for t < t0, we need following points.
(i) Input applied for t < t0
(ii) State of network at t < t0
(iii) State of network at t = t0
Input applied for t ≥ t 0 is not necessary for response for
t < t0 .
99. The circuit shown above (L = 2 H and R = 4Ω)
is switched across a D.C. power supply of 20 V.
The current at time t = 1 sec is
(a) 5 A (b) 4.32 A
(c) 2 A (d) 0.5 A
IES-2013
For the network shown above, the current i(t) Ans. (b) : When switch is open (at t < 0), there is no
is any current flowing through the circuit.
(a) 2e–2(t–3) u(t–3) (b) 0.5e–2(t–3) u(t) i(0 − ) = 0
–(t–3) –(t–3)
(c) 2e u(t–3) (d) 2e u(t) From inductor properties, inductor does not allow
IES-2013 sudden change in current.
Ans. (a) : Given circuit in s-domain for t > 0 (switch is so, i(0 + ) = i(0 − ) = 0
closed) At t = ∞, inductor reaches at its steady state condition.
(treated as short circuit)
2e−3s 2e −3s
I(s) = = V
2 + s (s + 2)
By taking inverse Laplace transform-
i ( ∞ ) = 20 / 4 = 5A
i(t) = 2e −2( t −3) u(t − 3)
Time constant (T) = Leq/Req = 2/4=1/2 sec
100. so current
i(t) = i(∞) + {i(0) − i(∞)} e− t / T
i(t) = 5 + (0 − 5)e − t /1/ 2
i(t) = 5(1 − e −2t )
at t = 1 sec
i(1) = 4.32A
After closing the switch S at t = 0, the current
i(t) at any instant t in the above network is 102. The steady-state values of the currents i1(t) and
(a) 10 + 10e100t (b) 10 – 10e100t i2(t) in the circuit are
(c) 10 + 10e–100t (d) 10 – 10e–100t
IES-2013
Ans. (*) : For t < 0, when switch is open for long time,
capacitor is fully charged and it will treated as open
circuit-
(a) 2 A and 1 A (b) 1.5 A and 1.5 A

(c) 1A and 2 A (d) 1 A and 1 A
IES-2012
Ans. (a) : At steady state condition, inductor acts as 104. In the circuit shown, the initial current I0
short circuit. through the inductor is given in the figure. The
so source current from 15V. initial value of the voltage across the inductor
I = 15/5 = 3A V0(0+) is
from current division rule for inductors.
I × L2 3× 2
i1 (t) = = = 2A
(L1 + L 2 ) 1 + 2
I × L1 3 ×1
i 2 (t) = = = 1A
(L1 + L 2 ) (1 + 2 )
103. In the given circuit, the switch is closed at
t = 0+. the initial voltage on the capacitors are
(a) 12.5 V (b) 5.0 V
indicated in the diagram. The voltage Vc1 (t) (c) 10.0 V (d) 0.0 V
and Vc2 (t) for t ≥ 0 are respectively IES-2011
Ans. (a) : Circuit for t > (When switch is closed)
Vc1 Vc 2
Vc1 Vc 2
1 1
(a) (1 − e − t )and (1 + e − t ) Apply nodal at point a-
2 2 V − 10 V
(b) (1 – e-t) and (1 + e–t) + = 1.2
1 1 2.5 2.5
(c) (1 + e− t )and (1 − e − t ) V = 6.5 Volt.
2 2 The initial value of the voltage across the inductor
1 1
(d) (1 + e )and (1 − e − t / 2 )
−t
V0 (0 + ) = V + I0 × (2.5 + 2.5)
2 2
IES-2012 = 6.5 +1.2 ×5
+
Ans. (c) : V0 (0 ) = 12.5 Volt
1. Voltage across a capacitor cannot change
abruptly.
2. Voltage across an inductor cannot change
abruptly.
0.5 × 0.5 3. Current through a capacitor cannot
Ceq = µF = 0.25µF
( 0.5 + 0.5 ) change abruptly
4. Current through an inductor cannot
Time constant (T) = R. Ceq change abruptly
= 4×106 ×0.25×10−6 Which of these statements are correct?
= 1sec. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Final value of capacitor voltage- (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
C V × C2 V2 IES-2011
VC1 ( ∞ ) = VC2 (∞) = 1 1
C1 + C2 Ans. (d) : Current through capacitor is given by-
dv
0.5 × 10 −6 ×1 + 0 iC = C
VC1 ( ∞ ) = VC2 (∞) = = 0.5V dt
( 0.5 + 0.5 ) × 10−6 Hence voltage across a capacitor can-not change
Voltage equation for capacitor 1 for t > 0 abruptly
{
VC1 (t) = VC1 ( ∞ ) + VC1 (0) − VC1 (∞) e− t / T} VC (0− ) = VC (0+ )
−t
= 0.5 + (1−0.5) e
Voltage across inductor is given by-
VC1 ( t ) = (1 + e − t ) V
1 di
2 VL = L
dt
Voltage expression for capacitor 2 for t > 0. Hence current through an inductor can't change
abruptly.
VC2 (t) = (1 − e − t ) V
1
2 i L (0− ) = i L (0+ )

106. The circuit shown in the figure is in steady 108. In the below shown circuit, the independent
state before the switch is closed at t = 0. The current source generates zero current for t < 0
current is(0+) through the switch is and a pulse 5t e–4t A, for t > 0. At what instant
of time, will the current attain the maximum
value in the circuit?
(a) 1/3 A (b) 2/3 A

(c) 1 A (d) 0 A
IES-2011 (a) 0.25 sec (b) 0.5 sec
− (c) 1 sec (d) 2 sec
Ans. (a) : At t = 0 , when switch is open for long time IES-2010
the inductor and capacitor is fully charged.
Ans. (a) : Given, i(t) =5te −4tA t>0
Capacitor is treated as open circuit and inductor is
treated as short circuit. The instant of time of which current is maximum-
di(t)
=0
dt
= {5te −4t } = 0
di(t) d
dt dt
5e −4t − 20te−4t = 0
5e −4t (1 − 4t ) = 0
12
i L1 (0− ) = = 1A e −4t ≠ 0
8+ 4
1 − 4t = 0 ⇒ t = 0.25sec
VC (0− ) = 4 × i L 1 = 4 ×1 = 4V
Hence at t = 0.25 sec, current reaches its maximum
i L2 (0− ) = 0 value.
At switching condition, (t > 0), switch is closed. 109. The value of V that would result in a steady.
State current of 1 A through the inductor in the
below circuit is
(a) 30 V (b) 15 V
(c) 20 V (d) 25 V
IES-2010
Ans. (a) : Given, steady state current through the
I + is (0 + ) = 1 inductor = 1A.
When circuit is closed for long time then inductor
12 − 4
+ is (0+ ) = 1 reaches to its steady state and acts as short circuit.
12 for t = ∞, circuit become-
1
is (0 + ) = A
3
107. Time constants of R-L and R-C circuits are
respectively:
R = 1Ω; L = 1H and C = 1F
(a) 1 sec and 1 sec (b) 1 sec and 2 sec
(c) 2 sec and 3 sec (d) 2 sec and 4 sec From current division rule-
IES-2011 I × 10
Ans. (a) : Given, R = 1Ω, L = 1H, C = 1F 1= ⇒ I = 2A
(10 + 10 )
Time constant for R-L circuit,
Then
L 1 V = I × 10 + 1× 10
τ = = = 1sec
R 1 = 2×10+1×10
Time constant for R-C circuit,
τ = RC = 1×1 = 1 sec. V = 30 Volt

110. In the circuit shown below, shown S is closed at i2 (0+) = 10/1 = 10 A (Capacitor = short circuit)
t = 0. The time constant of the circuit and Final values of currents in both branches-
initial value of current i(t) are 10
i1 ( ∞ ) = = 10A (inductor = short circuit)
1
i2 ( ∞ ) = 0 (capacitor = open circuit)
Time constant for R-L circuit,
l
τ = L / R = = 1sec
1
(a) 30 sec, 0.5 A (b) 60 sec, 1.0 A Time constant for R-C circuit,
(c) 90 sec, 1.0 A (d) 20 sec, 0.5 A τ = R × C = 1×1 = 1sec
IES-2010 ∴ i1 ( t ) = i1 ( ∞ ) + {i1 (0+ ) − i1 (∞)} e − t / τ
Ans. (d) : Time constant of the circuit ( τ ) = Req × Ceq i1 ( t ) = 10 − 10 e − t
R = 10Ω
i 2 (t) = i 2 ( ∞ ) + {i 2 (0+ ) − i 2 ( ∞ )} e − t / τ
Here, two capacitors are connected in series
C × C2 3 × 6 i 2 ( t ) = 10 e − t
So, Ceq = 1 = = 2F
C1 + C2 3 + 6 Hence i(t) = i1 (t) + i 2 (t)
∴ Time constant (τ) = R × Ceq i(t) = (10 − 10 e − t ) + (10 e − t )
τ = 10 ×2
τ = 20sec i ( t ) = 10Amp
At the time of switching (t = 0), the initial charged 112. A first order circuit is excited with a dc source.
capacitor act as voltage source with same polarity as The current i(t) through any element of the
given. circuit can be written as (if and ii are the final
and initial values, respectively, of the current)
(a) i1 – (i1 – if) e-t/τ (b) if – (if – ii) e–t/τ
–t/τ
(c) ii – (if – ii) e (d) if – (ii – if) e–t/τ
IES-2010
Ans. (b) : Given that,
if = final; value of current
So, initial value of current ii = Initial value of current
i(0 + ) = (10 − 3 − 2) /10 Then the current i(t)
i(t) = final value + {initial value -final value} e-t/τ
i(0+ ) = 0.5A
i(t) = i f + (i i − i f )e − t / τ
111. The value of the current i(t) in amperes in the
below circuit is i(t) = i f − (i f − i i )e − t / τ
Where τ = time constant of 1st order circuit.
113. In the circuit shown below, the switch is closed
after a long time. The current is(0+) through the
switch is
(a) 0 (b) 10
(c) 10e–t (d) 10 (1 – e–t)
IES-2010
Ans. (b) : 2
(a) 1 A (b) A
3
1
(c) A (d) 0 A
3
IES-2010, 2000
Ans. (c) : When switch is closed for a long time then all
the energy storing elements (like L and C) reaches to its
initial values of currents in both branches- steady state condition i.e. at steady state, inductor
behaves like a closed circuit and capacitor behave like
open circuit.
i1 (0+) = 0 (inductor = open circuit)

12 (a) 1 A (b) 2 A
i L (0− ) = = 1A (c) 5 A (d) 10 A
(8 + 4) IES-2009
VC (0− ) = 4 × i L = 4 × 1 = 4 volt Ans. (a) : Given that- v(t) = 100 cos (100t + 30º)
Voltage across 3F capacitor- ω = 100 radian/sec
6 4×6 8 R = 80Ω , XL = ωL = 100×0.6 =j60Ω
VC1 (0− ) = VC (0− ) × = = Volt
( 6 + 3) 9 3
Voltage across 6F capacitor
4×3 4
VC2 ( 0− ) = VC (0− ) ×
3
= = volt.
( 6 + 3) 9 3
For t > 0, when switch is closed.
Initial charged capacitor act as voltage source. Current flowing through the circuit,
Initial charged inductor act as current source.
v(t) 100 cos(100t + 30º )
circuit for t > 0. (When switch is closed) i(t) = =
Z 80 + j60
Maximum amplitude of current
100 100
i(t) max = =
80 + j60 100
i(t) max = 1A
By applying KCL-
iR+ iS =1 116. In the circuit given below, the switch has been
( 8 / 3) in position 1 for quite a long time. At t = 0 the
+ iS = 1 switch is moved to position 2. At this position
4
what is the time constant?
is = 1/ 3A
114. The current in the below network is
(a) 0.1 s (b) 1 s

(c) 0.11 s (d) 1.11 s
IES-2009
−t
(a) t − 1 + e u(t) −t
(b) t − t + e u(t)
2 Ans. (a) :
−t
(c) t + 1 + e u(t) (d) t − 1 − e − t u(t)
IES-2010
Ans. (a) : Circuit in s-domain for t ≥ 0.
τ = R ×C = 100kΩ × 1µF
= 100 ×103 ×1×10-6
= 105×10–6
Apply kVL in loop circuit- τ = 0.1sec
V ( s ) 1/ s 2 1 117. In the circuit given below, the switch is open
I(s) = = =
Z ( s ) (1 + s ) s 2 (1 + s ) for a long time. At time t = 0, the switch is
closed. what are the initial and final values of
−1 1 1 voltages across the inductor?
I(s) = + 2+
s s ( s + 1)
By taking inverse Laplace transform-
i(t) =  t − 1 + e − t  u(t)
115. The voltage applied to an R-L circuit at t = 0
when switch is closed at 100 cos (100t + 30º).
The circuit resistance is 80Ω and inductance is
0.6H (in which initial current is zero). What is (a) 0 V and 0 V (b) 0 V and 80 V
the maximum amplitude of current flowing (c) 80 V and 0 V (d) 80 V and 80 V
through the circuit? IES-2009
Ans. (c) : At t = 0− ( t < 0 ) when switch is open for a 119.
long time, inductor reaches its steady state condition-
In the circuit shown above, the switch is open

for a long time and closed at time t = 0. What is
100 the current through the switch after the switch
i L (0− ) = = 10A
(1 + 8 + 1) is closed?
At the time of switching (t = 0+) (a) Zero (b) 1 A
(c) 2 A (d) 5 A
8Ω resistance is get shorted and inductor is treated as a
IES-2008
current source of 10A.
Ans. (a) : For t < 0, when switch is open for a long
time, 2F capacitor reaches its steady state.
VC (0 − ) = 10 Volt
from the property of capacitor-
VC (0− ) = VC (0 + ) = 10 Volt
for t > 0, (switch is closed) capacitor act as voltage
source with initial value of voltage circuit for t > 0.
Apply kVL in this circuit-
−100 + 1×10 + 1× 10 + VL ( 0+ ) = 0
VL (0+ ) = 80V
When circuit is closed for long time, finally inductor
again reaches, its steady state condition and treated as
short circuit. Voltage across at point A
so final value of voltage across the inductor is 20 × 10
VA = = 10V
VL (∞) = 0 (10 + 10 )
118. For a series R-L-C circuit, the characteristic Voltage at point B
equation is given as VB = 10 Volt
R 1 I2Ω = 0
s2 + s + =0 VA =VB
L LC
Iswitch = 0A
If R/2L is denoted by α and 1/ LC by β, then So, current through the switch is equal to zero.
under the condition of β > α , the system will 120. In the circuit shown below, the switch is closed
2 2
be at t = 0. What is the initial value of the current

(a) critically-damped (b) under-damped through the capacitor?
(c) un-damped (d) over-damped
IES-2009
Ans. (b) : For a R-L-C series circuit, characteristic
equation is given by-
R 1
s2 + s + =0
L LC
R 1
and α = , β= (a) 0.8 A (b) 1.6 A
2L LC (c) 2.4 A (d) 3.2 A
roots of characteristic equation is given as- IES-2008
2
−R  R  1 Ans. (a) :
s1 ,s 2 = ±   −
2L  2L  LC
s1 ,s 2 = −α ± α 2 − β2
for β2 > α 2
Roots of characteristic equations are imaginary.
We know that, If system is under-damped then roots of
its characteristic equation is imaginary and lies in left i L (0 − ) = 12 /(2 + 1) = 4A
half of s-plane. and VC (0− ) = 1 × i L (0 − ) = 4 × 1 = 4 Volt
For inductor and capacitor properties- 122. x(t) : Input voltage
i L (0− ) = i L (0 + ) = 4A y(t) : Output voltage
Consider the circuit shown below:
VC (0− ) = VC (0+ ) = 4 Volt
At the time of switching (t = 0+) inductor acts as current
source while capacitor acts as voltage source.
What is the natural response of this system?

(a) A sinusoid with constant amplitude
(b) A growing sinusoid
(c) Zero
(d) A decaying sinusoid
IES-2007
Ans. (a) : By redrawing given circuit in s-domain-
12 − 4 8 By applying voltage division rule-

I= = = 3.2A
2.5 2.5 Y(s) 1/ 2s 1
Current through capacitor Transfer function = = =
X(s) 2s + 1/ 2s 4s 2 + 1
3.2 + i C (0+ ) = 4
Y(s) 1
H(s) = =
i C (0+ ) = 0.8A X(s) 4(s + 1/ 4)
2
121. In the circuit shown below, what is the voltage 1  1/ 2  1

Vab(t) ? =  ×
4  s 2 + (1/ 2) 2  1/ 2
By using inverse Laplace transform-
1 1
h(t) = sin t
2 2
• Roots of characteristic equation is given by natural
response.
• Hence, its natural response is a sinusoidal with
constant amplitude.
dV1 123. The circuit shown below is under steady-state
(a) + V1 (b) V1
dt condition with the switch closed. The switch is
dV1 dV1 opened at t = 0. What is the time constant of
(c) + RCV1 (d) RC + V1 the circuit?
dt dt
IES-2008
Ans. (d) : As given in the circuit,
(a) 0.1 s (b) 0.2 s

(c) 5 s (d) 10 s
IES-2006, 2002
Ans. (b) : Circuit for t > 0 (when switch is open)
current through the capacitor is-

d V (t)
i C (t) = C 1
dt
So, voltage across a-b Time constant of the circuit for t > 0
Vab = iC (t)×R +V1 (t) L 2H
d V (t)
τ= =
Vab = RC 1 + V1 (t) R 10Ω
dt τ = 0.2sec

124. If the switch S in the circuit shown below is 126. In the circuit shown below, the switch is closed
opened at t = 0, what are the values of v(0+) and at t = 0. The current through the capacitor will
dv + decrease exponentially with a time constant
(0 ), respectively?
dt
(a) 100 V, 10,000 V/s (b) 100 V, –10,000 V/s

(a) 0.5 s (b) 1 s
(c) –100V, 10,000 V/s (d) –100V, –10,000 V/s
(c) 2 s (d) 10 s
IES-2006
IES-2003
Ans. (b) : At t = 0+, when the switch is open.
Ans. (b) : For calculating the time constant for t > 0.
We shorted the voltage source and calculate.
Req from the capacitor terminal.
For Req-
At the time of switching inductor behaves as open

circuit (at t = 0)
So, V(0+ ) = 1 ×100
V(0+ ) = 100V
∴ Req = 1Ω
Apply nodal at point A in the given circuit.
and Ceq = 1F
V 1  1  time constant ( τ ) = Req × Ceq
1 = 1 + ∫ V1 (t)dt − (i) i L = ∫ V1dt  So,
100 L  L  τ = 1×1 = 1sec
Having differenciate the equation - (i) with respect to t τ = 1sec
1 dV1 (t) 1
0= + V1 (t) 127. In the circuit shown below, the switch is moved
100 dt L from position A to B at time (t) = 0. The
1 dV1 (t) 1 current through the inductor satisfies the
= − V1 (t) following conditions.
100 dt L
+
at t = 0 (at the time of switching)
dV1 (0+ ) −1
= ×100 ×100 {L = 1H}
dt 1
dV1 (0+ )
= −10, 000V / s
dt
125. A step voltage is applied to the circuit shown
below. What is the transient current response 1. i(0) = – 8A 2. di/dt(t = 0) = 3 A/s
of the circuit? 3. i(∞) = 4A
The value of R is
(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 2.0 ohm
(c) 4.0 ohm (d) 12 ohm
IES-2003
Ans. (a) : When switch move from A to B position-
(a) Undamped sinusoidal (b) Overdamped
(c) Underdamped (d) Critically damped
IES-2005
Ans. (d) : Given circuit is R-L-C series circuit.
R = 2Ω , L = 1H, & C = 1F
R C
Damping ratio ( ξ ) = R
2 L − t
i ( t ) = i ( ∞ ) + i ( 0 ) − i ( ∞ )  e L
2 1
ξ= dI ( 0 )
2 1 i ( ∞ ) = 4, i ( 0 ) = −8, = 3A / s
dt
ξ =1 R
− t
Hence response of the circuit is critically damped. i ( t ) = 4 + [ −8 − 4 ] e 2

R
− t The correct sequence of the time constants of
i ( t ) = 4 − 12e 2 …………..(i) the circuits shown above in the increasing
Differentiate equation (i) with respect to time order is
di ( t ) R
− t R
(a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 (b) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
= −12e 2 × − (c) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2 (d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
dt 2 IES-2003
At time t =0 Ans. (c) : •For figure -1 Time constant
di ( t ) R
− 0 R L
= −12e 2 × − τ1 =
dt t =0 2 R
 R
3 = −12 ×  − 
 2
1
R = = 0.5Ω
2 Time constant
128. In a circuit, the voltage across an element is
v(t) = 10(t –0.01)e–100tV. The circuit is • For figure -2
(a) Undamped (b) Underdamped L 2L
(c) Critically damped (d) Overdamped τ2 = =
R/2 R
IES-2003
−100t
Ans. (c) : Given that, v (t) = 10 (t−0.01) e V
= 10t e −100t − 0.1e −100t
Laplace transform of equation-
10 0.1
V (s) = −
( s + 100 ) + • For Figure -3
2
s 100
10 − 0.1( s + 100 )
V (s) =
( s + 100 )
2
0 − 0.1s
=
( s + 100 )
2
Characteristic equation s 2 + 200s + 10000 = 0

ωn = 100 L/4 L
Time constant ( τ3 ) = =
2 × ξ × ωn = 200 R / 2 2R
200 • For figure - 4
ξ= =1
2 ×100
ξ = 1 critically damped.
129. Given below circuit–
(1)
L/2 L
Time constant ( τ4 ) = =
2R 4R
Therefore increasing order of time constant is
(2) τ4 < τ3 < τ1 < τ2
130. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Internal 1. Forced response
impedance of an of the circuit
(3)
ideal current
source is
B. for attenuated 2. Natural response
natural of the circuit
oscillations, the
(4) poles of the
transfer function
must lie on the
C. A battery with 3. E2/4 R Time constant of this circuit τ = L/R
an e.m.f. E and Step voltage = Vu(t)
internal Initial voltage across resistance VR (0+) = 0
resistance R Initial voltage across inductor VL (0+) = V
delivers current Final voltage across resistance VR (∞) = V
to a load RL. Final voltage across inductance VL (∞) = 0
Maximum power Thus VR (t) = VR ( ∞ ) + {VR (0) − VR (∞)} e − t / τ
transferred is
D. The roots of the 4. E2/2 R VR (t) = V(1 − e − t / τ )
characteristic Voltage across inductor
equation give VL (t) = VL ( ∞ ) + {VL (0) − VL (∞ )} e− t / τ
5. Left hand part
of the complex VL (t) = Ve − t / τ
frequency plane When both voltage is same-
6. Right hand part VR (t) = VL (t)
of the complex
frequency plane V(1 − e − t / τ ) = Ve − t / τ
7. Infinite 1 = 2e− t / τ
8. Zero 1
Codes: e− t / τ = ⇒ − t / τ = −ℓn(1/ 2)
2
A B C D
(a) 7 6 3 1 t = τ ℓn(2)
(b) 8 5 4 2 133. For the following circuit a source of
(c) 8 6 4 1 V1(t) = e–2t is applied
(d) 7 5 3 2
IES-2003
Ans. (d)
(i) Ideal current source internal impedance is ∞ .
(ii) for attenuated natural oscillation the pole of transfer
function must be lie on left hand part of complex
frequency. Then the resulting response V2(t) is given by
(iii) Maximum power transfer to the load = E2/4R (a) e–2t + e–t (b) e–t
–t –2t
(iv) the roots of characteristics equation gives natural (c) e – e (d) e–2t/2
response or source free response of circuit. IES-2002
131. In a network containing resistances and Ans. (c) :
reactance the roots of the characteristic
equation given for the circuit
(a) the force response
(b) the total response
(c) the natural response
(d) the damped response
IES-2002 Circuit in s-domain-
Ans. (c) : If a network consist of resistance and
reactance then the roots of characteristic equation gives
the natural response of the circuit.
132. A series RL circuit is initially relaxed. A step
voltage is applied to the circuit. If τ is the time
constant of the circuit, the voltage across R and
L will be the same at time t equal to V2 (s) 1/ s 1
Transfer function = = =
1 V1 (s) 1 + 1/ s 1 + s
(a) τln2 (b) τln  
2 ∵ V1 (t) = e −2 t
1 1 1
(c) (d) ⇒ V1 (s) =
τ ℓn2 1 (s + 2)
τl n  
2 1
IES-2002, 1997 So, V2 (s) =
Ans. (a) : (s + 1) (s + 2)
1 1
V2 (s) = −
( s + 1) (s + 2)
Take inverse Laplace transform-
V2 (t) = (e − t − e −2 t ) V

134. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the (a) fixed voltage of 20V
values of I(0+) and I(∞) will be, respectively (b) fixed voltage of 10V
(c) fixed voltage of –10V
(d) sinusoidal voltage
IES-2001
Ans. (d) : Given circuit in s-domain after t = 0 (switch
is closed).
(a) zero and 1.5 A

(b) 1.5 A and 3 A
(c) 3 A and zero
(d) 3 A and 1.5 A
IES-2001, 1996 1/ 2s 20 10
Ans. (c) : Given circuit, VC2 (s) = × = 2
(Ls + 1/ 2s + 1/ 2s) s s (Ls + 1/ s)
10 / L
VC2 (s) = 2
s(s + 1/ L)
10 −10s
= + 2
s (s + 1/ L)
⇒ VC2 (t) = 10(1 − cos t / L)
circuit is s-domain- Hence voltage across capacitor C2 is sinusoidal.
v(t) = 3e − t u ( t ) 136. The circuit shown in the given figure is in the
3 steady state with the switch S closed
⇒ V(s) =
(s + 1)
3 /(1 + s) 3s 6s The current i(t) after S is opened at t = 0 is

I(s) = = = (a) a decreasing exponential
1+
1 (s + 1) (s + 1/ 2) ( s + 1)( 2s + 1) (b) an increasing exponential
2s (c) a damped sinusoid
6 3 (d) oscillatory
I(s) = −
(s + 1) (s + 1/ 2) IES-2001
i(t) = (6e − t − 3e − t / 2 ) Ans. (a) : (i) switch → ON
So, i(0+ ) = lim i(t) = lim(6e − t − 3e − t / 2 )
t →0 t →0
+
i(0 ) = 3A
i(∞) = lim i(t) = lim ( 6e − t − 3e − t / 2 )
t →∞ t →∞
t<0
i(∞) = 0
2
135. In the circuit shown in the given figure, IL(0–) = = 1A
2
C1 = C2 = 2F and the capacitor C1 has a voltage ∴IL(0 ) = IL(0+) = 1A
–
of 20 V when S is open VC(0–) = 2×IL(0–)
= 2×1 = 2V
∴VC(0–) = VC(0+)= 2V
(ii) Switch → Off
If the switch S is closed at t = 0, the voltage

VC2 will be a
t = 0+
circuit can be represented as laplace domain -
Now KVL-
(a) Unit step

(b) Unit impulse
(c) Unit ramp
(d) Unit step plus unit ramp
( ) + 4 I (s ) + 2I ( s ) = 0
Vc 0+ IES-2000
( )
2I ( s ) + sI ( s ) − LIL 0+ −
s 5
Ans. (b) : Given circuit is initially at rest.
so iL(0−) =0
( )
Vc 0+
( )
4 Current in closed circuit-
4I ( s ) + sI ( s ) + I ( s ) = LI L 0+ +
5 s V(s)
I(s) =
 4  2 R + Ls
I ( s )  4 + s +  = 1× 1 +
 s s 1  V(s) 
I(s) =  
 4  2 L s + R / L 
I (s ) 4 + s +  = 1 + • If voltage source is unit step then-
 s s
V(t) = u(t)
I ( s )  4s + s + 4 = s + 2
2
V(s) = 1/ s
s+2 s+2
I (s) = 2 = I  1/ s  1  L / R L/R 
( )
s + 4s + 4 ( s + 2 )2 ⇒ I(s) =  = 
L s + R / L  L  s
− 
s + R /L
1
I (s) = i(t) = (1 − e − R / L t )
1
s+2 R
taking inverse Laplace– ∴ i(0+) = 0
i ( t ) = e −2t • If voltage source is unit impulse
1 V(t) = δ(t)
time constant ( τ ) = = 0.5
2 V(s) = 1
It is exponentially decaying with a time constant 0.5 1 1  1 1 
sec I(s) =  =  
L R / L + s  L s + R / L 
137. A resistor R of 1 Ω and two inductors L1 and L2
of inductances 1H and 2H, respectively are 1
i(t) = e − R / L t
connected in parallel. At some time, the L
currents through L1 and L2 are 1A and 2A 1
respectively. The current through R at time i(0 + ) = A
t = ∞ will be L
(a) zero (b) 1 A For unit ramp input, circuit current is zero for t = 0+
(c) 2 A (d) 3 A Hence unit impulse source is produce for maximum
IES-2001 current.
Ans. (a) : According to the question- 139. On closing switch 'S' the circuit in the given
figure is in steady-state. The current in the
inductor after opening the switch 'S' will
At t = ∞, the both inductor reached to its steady state

condition and it can be treated as short circuit.
Hence current through R at t = ∞ is zero that means all (a) decay exponentially with a time constant of 2 s
current passes through inductors only and no current (b) decay exponentially with a time constant of
flow through resistance. 0.5 s
138. In the circuit shown in the figure, below, switch (c) consist of two decaying exponentials each
K is closed at t = 0. The circuit was initially with a time constant of 0.5 s
relaxed. Which one of the following sources of (d) be oscillatory
v(t) will produce maximum current at t = 0+? IES-1999
Ans. (b) For t = 0 − when switch is closed. Energy by current division rule-
storing elements are in its steady state condition. 1×1/ 8 1
i1 = = A
Inductor = Short circuit 1/ 2 + 1/ 8 5
Capacitor = Open circuit 1 1 1 1
So steady state value of V(t) = i1 ×
= × = V
2 5 2 10
= 0.1 Volt
141. Consider the following sets of values of E, R
and C of the circuit shown in the figure
i L (0 − ) = 2 / 2 = 1A
VC (0− ) = i L × 2 = 2V
Circuit in S-domain when switch is open.
1. 2V, 1Ω, and 1.25 F
2. 1.6V, 0.8Ω, and 1F
3. 1.6V, 1Ω, and 0.8 F
4. 2V, 1.25Ω, and 1F
Which of these sets of E, R and C values will
ensure that the state equation
dVC/dt = –1.25 VC + 2 is valid?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
IES-1999
Ans. (d) : Given circuit-
Apply kVL in loop circuit-

1+ 2 / s
I(s) =
4+s +4/s
E − VC
(s + 2) 1 i(t) =
I(s) = 2 = R
s + 4s + 4 (s + 2) i R = i C (t) = (E − VC ) / R
⇒ i(t) = e −2t u(t) dV −VC E
C C = +
Hence the current in the inductor decay exponentially dt R R
1 dVC −1 1
with a time constant of or 0.5 sec. = VC + × E ____(i)
2 dt RC RC
140. In the circuit shown in the figure, i(t) is a unit and from given in question-
step current. The steady-state value of v(t) is −1 1
= −1.25 ⇒ = 1.25sec –1
RC RC
1 2
and ×E = 2 ⇒ E = = 1.6 V
RC 1.25
Hence the value of E, R and C are either 1.6 V, 0.8Ω
and 1F or 1.6V, 1Ω and 0.8F.
(a) 2.5 V (b) 1 V 142. The transient current in lossless L-C circuit
(c) 0.1 V (d) zero when excited from an AC source is,_____ sine
IES-1999 wave
Ans. (c) : : In steady state condition, the energy storing (a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
element are in its steady state condition, i.e. capacitor is (c) Overdamped (d) Undamped
treated as open circuit and inductor is treated as short BSNL (JTO)-2006
circuit. Ans. (d) :
The circuit is redrawn as following in steady state-

Since the L-C circuit lossless, therefore the transient From the property of inductor and capacitor-
current is undamped sine wave. VC (0− ) = VC (0 + ) = 0 Volt
i L (0 − ) = i L (0 + ) = 1A
+
At t = 0 (When switch is open) switching condition.
143. For the circuit shown in the figure, the value of

R for critical damping will be
from the circuit,

VS (0 + ) = 5 × i L (0+ ) = 5 × 1
(a) 10.5 ohms (b) 6 ohm VS (0+ ) = 5 Volt
(c) 3.5 ohm (d) 3 ohm
IES-1998 145. In the network shown in the figure, the switch
Ans. (*) : had remained closed for a long time on the 10V
source side. At time t = 0, it is changed to the
12 V side, then after one time constant, the
voltage across 5Ω in the circuit will be
1 L
Damping ratio of parallel RLC circuit ξ =
2R C
For critical damping ξ = 1
1 7 1
1= = ×7 6
2R 1/ 42 2R (a) 5 V (b) 5e–1 V
R = 8.57 Ω (c) 10 V (d) 12 V
144. In the network shown, the switch is opened at IES-1998
−
t = 0. Prior to that, the network was in the Ans. (a) : At t = 0 , when capacitor is connected
steady-state, vs(t) at t = 0 is towards 10V source. Capacitor is reached to it's steady
state condition-
From voltage division rule-

(a) 0 (b) 5 V Vc (0 − ) = 5V
(c) 10 V (d) 15 V For a capacitor-
IES-1998 VC (0− ) = VC (0 + ) = 5V
Ans. (b) : At t = 0 − (When switch was closed), the At t = 0+ when switch is move from 10 V to 12 V.
network was in steady state. Capacitor is connected in parallel to 5Ω resistor. So,
Inductor → Short circuit voltage across 5Ω resistor is same as capacitor voltage.
V5Ω = VC (t)
Capacitor is finally reached to its steady state condition
of 5V.
5
i.e. VC (∞) = × 12 = 5 Volt.
(5 + 7)
so, VC (t) = VC (∞) + {VC (0+ ) − VC (∞)} e− t / τ
= 5 + {5 − 5} e − t / τ
VC (0− ) = 0 Volt VC (t) = 5 Volt
Hence after one time constant voltage across 5Ω resistor
i L ( 0− ) =
10
= 1A is 5V.
10
146. In the network shown in the Fig., the switch 'S' Ans. (a) : Time constant R-C = Req×Ceq
is closed and a steady state is attained. If the 2×3 6
switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) Req = =
through the inductor will be 2+3 5
Ceq = 5
6
Time constant = 5 ×
5
= 6µ second
(a) cos (50t) A (b) 2 A List-I
(c) 2 cos (100t) A (d) 2 sin (50t) A (C = charged capacitor)
IES-1997
Ans. (c) : When switch is closed and circuit is attained
it's steady state condition. Then capacitor become open
circuit and inductor become short circuit.
A. L
R=Rc
L
5
i L (0− ) = = 2A B.
2.5
VC (0− ) = 0 Volt
For t = 0+, when switch was opened, At switching R<Rc
condition capacitor behaves as voltage source and
inductor behaves as current source.
L
C.
⇓ D. L
List-II
1.
1 2s s
I(s) = = =2 2
5000 s 2 + 10000 s (100 )
2
0.5s + +
s 2.
i(t) = 2 cos (100t)A
147. The time constant associated with the capacitor
changing in the circuit shown in Fig. is
3.
(a) 6 µs (b) 10 µs 4.
(c) 15 µs (d) 25 µs
IES-1996
Codes: 150. In the following circuit, switch K is thrown from
A B C D position A to position B at time t = 0, the current
(a) 4 3 1 2 having previously reached its steady state:
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
IES-1996
Ans. (d) : For RLC series circuit
R C
Damping ratio ξ = The current i(t) after switching will be
2 L
Case I- If R = 0 (a) 5e–5t (b) 4e–5t
–5t
Then ξ = 0 - undamped (c) 3e (d) e–5t
IES-2019
R = 0, ξ = 0 undamped Ans. (d) : When switch is at position A for long time.
Case II- If R = very large Inductor is reached it's steady state condition i.e. short
Then ξ > 1 overdamped circuit condition.
Case III- R = critical R then ξ = 1 critical damping
Case IV- R< critical R
Then ξ < 1 .
149. After keeping it open for a long time, the switch
'S' in the circuit shown in the given figure is 5
closed at t = 0. The capacitor voltage VC(0+) i L (0− ) = = 1Amp
+
and inductor current iL(0 ) will be 5
∵ Inductor does not allow sudden change in current
flowing through it.
∴ i L (0 − ) = i L (0+ )
i L (0 + ) = 1A
For t > 0 (When switch is at position B).
The energy stored by inductor is dissipated through the
resistances.
(a) 60 V and –0.3 A (b) 150 V and zero Final current through the inductor is zero.
(c) zero and 0.3 A (d) 90 V and – 0.3 A i(∞) = 0
IES-1996 Leq
Ans. (a) : At t = 0−, when switch is open for long time, Time constant (T) =
the energy storing element is reaches to its steady state Req
i.e. capacitor reaches to open circuit and inductor to its Leq = 2
short circuit. Req = 5+ 5 = 10
Circuit for t = 0− 2
∴ T= = 1/ 5
10
current through inductor (for t > 0).
iL (t) = final value + {Initial value - final value}× e − t / T
= i L (∞) + {i L (0+ ) − i L (∞)} e − t /1/ 5
= 0 + {1 − 0} e −5t
Current through inductor i L (t) = e −5t

−150 −150 151. When a current source of the value, 'I' is
i L (0− ) = =
( 300 + 200 ) 500 suddenly connected across a two-terminal
relaxed RC network at time t = 0, the observed
i L (0− ) = −0.3A nature of the voltage across the current source
is shown in the given figure.
Voltage across capacitor,
The RC network is
VC (0− ) = −(200) × (−0.3)
VC (0− ) = 60 Volt
From the properties of inductor and capacitor, voltage
and current are same in before and after the switching.
∴ i L (0 − ) = i L (0 + ) = −0.3A
VC (0− ) = VC (0 + ) = 60V
(a) a series combination of R and C 1 1
(b) a parallel combination of R and C i L (∞ ) = = A
(c) a series combination of R and parallel (1 + 2 ) 3
combination of R and C 1 2
(d) a pure capacitor. VC ( ∞ ) = 2 × i L ( ∞ ) = 2 × = V
3 3
IES-1995
1
+
Ans. (c) : A parallal RC network initial voltage across Hence i L (0 ) = 0, iL ( ∞ ) = A
the capacitor is equal to source voltage and will remains 3
same and series RC network initial voltage across 2
capacitor zero which is not the case. VC (0 + ) = 0 , VC ( ∞ ) = V
3
For a series combination of R and parallal combination
153. The steady state current through the 1H
of R and C. The initial voltage across the capacitor is
non zero and will depend on the ratio of R1 and R2 and inductance in the circuit shown in the given
Fig. is
with time capacitor will change upto the source
voltage.
152. In the network shown in Fig. there is no initial
current through L's and no initial voltage
across C and the switch 'S' is closed at time
t = 0. The current iL1 in the inductor L1 and the
voltage VC across C are calculated at t= 0+ and (a) zero (b) 3 A
t = ∞. Which of the following sets of results is (c) 5 A (d) 6 A
correct? IES-1993
Ans. (b) : At steady state, inductor behaves like short
circuit. Circuit become -
i L1 (0+ ), i L1 (∞), VC (0+ ), VC (∞) Steady state current through inductor

1 1 2 2 i L (∞) = 3 /1 = 3A
(a) A A V V
3 3 3 3 154. In the network shown in the given fig. the
1 switch K is closed at t = 0 with the capacitor
(b) 0A A 0V 1V uncharged. The value for di(t)/dt at t = 0+ will
3
1 2 be
(c) A 0A V 0V
3 3
1 2
(d) 0A A 0V V
3 3
IES-1994
Ans. (d) : Given network has no initial condition for
inductor and capacitor.
(a) 100 amp/sec (b) –100 amp/sec
So, i L (0 − ) = VC (0 − ) = 0 (c) 1000 amp/sec (d) –1000 amp/sec
At t = 0+ ( after the switching), from the property of IES-1993
inductor and capacitor they does not allow sudden Ans. (b) : The capacitor is initially uncharged.
change in current and voltage respectively.
so, VC (0 − ) = 0
∴ i L (0 − ) = i L (0+ ) = 0
for t > 0, when switch is closed.
VC (0− ) = VC (0 + ) = 0
At t = ∞ , After long time of switching, both energy
storing element reaches to its steady state condition and
behaves likes open circuit (capacitor) and short circuit
(inductor).
circuit be come (for t = ∞) - From the properties of capacitor,
VC (0− ) = VC (0 + ) = 0
Current in circuit after t = 0+
i(0 + ) = 100 /1000 = 0.1A
at t = ∞, no current flow through it due to open circuit
behavior of capacitor.
i(∞) = 0
T = RC (a)
V − R 1t / L
e

so i(t) = i(∞) + {i(0+ ) − i(∞)} e − t / T  = 1000 × 10
−6 R2
 −3
−t
T = 10 (b)
V L / R2
e
−3 R1
= 0.1e − t /10
VR 2 − L(R1 + R 2 ) t / R1R 2
i(t) = 0.1e −1000t A (c) e
R1 + R 2
di(t)
∴ = 0.1× (−1000) e −1000t V
dt (d) e− Lt / R 2
R1 + R 2
di(0+ ) IES-1993
= −100A / S
dt Ans. (b) : At t = 0− (when switch is closed for long
155. The time constant of the network shown in the time) the inductor is in steady state condition, so it
given fig. is given by behaves like short circuit.
iL (0−)= V/R1
L L +
At t = 0 , when switch is opened, from the property of
(a) (b)
RR
R3 + 1 2 R1 + R 2 + R 3 inductor (inductor does not allow sudden change in
R1 + R 2 current).
L L V
(c) (d) So, i L (0+ ) = i L (0− ) =
1 1 1 R 1R 2 R1
+ +
R1 R 2 R 3 R1 + R 2 for t = 0+, circuit become
IES-1993
Ans. (a) : Given circuit is R-L circuit,
L
so, Time constant (τ) = eq
R eq
from the circuit Leq = L
I(0+) = iL (0+)
for Req - (current source = open circuited)
V
I(0+ ) =
R1
and finally the current is reaches to zero because all
energy is dissipated through R2.
I (∞) = 0
Time constant (T) = L/Req
Req = (R1||R2) +R3 Req = R2
R 1R 2 so,
R eq = +R L
( R1 + R 2 ) 3 T=
R2
L eq
Therefore time constant τ = Hence I(t) = I(∞) + ( I(0+ ) − I(∞) ) e − t / T
R eq
V − t / L / R2
L e A =
τ= R1
RR
R3 + 1 2 157. In the network shown in the given figure, the
R1 + R 2 capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0
156. The circuit shown in the given Fig., has been in before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In
the steady-state. When the switch S is opened, the steady state,
the current I after the switch opened is given
by

(a) C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages so,
(b) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs i L (0 − ) = i L (0+ ) = 0
(c) C1 and C2 are discharged fully Hence the current through inductor at t= 0 is 0.
(d) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
IES-1993 i L (0) = 0
Ans. (c) : Here the capacitor C1 is initially charged with 160. The current through a series RL circuit
the voltage V0. 1 -t/2
Here two capacitor are connected in series with a e when excited by a unit impulse voltage.
resistance of 100 Ω. 4
When switch is closed for along time both capacitor get The values of R and L are respectively
fully discharge and all energy dissipate in 100Ω (a) 8, 4 (b) 4, 2
resistor. (c) 2, 4 (d) 1, 4
158. The voltage across R after t = 0 and t = 1 sec, BARC Scientific Officer- 2016
will be IES-1991
Ans. (c) : Series R-L circuit with impulse voltage-
(a) 100 V, 632 V (b) 0 V, 63.2 V

(c) 100 V, 36.8 V (d) 0 V, 26.8 V
IES-1992 1 −t / 2
+ i(t) = e
Ans. (c) : Circuit at t = 0 4
1 1 1 1/ 4
I(s) = × = = .....(i)
4 (s + 1/ 2) 2(2s + 1) ( s + 1/ 2 )
Apply kVL in circuit-
1
I(s) =
R + LS
100 100 1/ L
i(0+ ) = = = 50 × 10−6 I(s) = .....(ii)
R 2 × 10 6 (S + R / L)
i(∞) = 0 On comparing equation - (i) and (ii)
Time constant (τ) = RC 1 1
τ = 2 × 10 +6 × 0.5 × 10 −6 ⇒ = ⇒ L = 4H
L 4
τ = 1 sec ⇒ R/L = 1/2
So, i(t) = i(∞) + ( i(0) − i(∞) ) e − t / T A R 1
= ⇒ R = 2Ω
i(t) = 50 × 106 × e − t A 4 2
VR (t) = R × i(t) = 2 ×106 × 50 × 10 −6 e − t 161. The circuit shown in the figure is excited by
VR (t) = 100e − t Volt Vδ(t). The peak voltage at the capacitor is
at t = 0 , VR(0) = 100 Volt
at t = 1 , VR (1) = 100×e−1 = 36.8 Volt.
159. In the circuit shown, the switch is closed at t =
0. The current at t = 0 is (current through
inductance for t < 0 is 0).
(a) ∞ (b) V
V
(c) (d) None of the above
RC
IES-1991
Ans. (c) :
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 1/2 A (d) 0 A
IES-1991
−
Ans. (d) : iL (0 ) = 0
From the property of inductor, inductor does not allow
sudden change in current.
by voltage division rule- • Circuit for t = 0+
V ×1/ Cs
VC (s) =
( R + 1/ Cs )
0 I (s) s
V V 1
= = ×
( RCs + 1) RC ( s + 1/ RC )
Take inverse Laplace transform-
By source transformation-
V − t / RC I (s)
VC (t) = e u(t) 0
RC
V
Peak value of VC (t) = Volt
RC s
162. In the circuit shown in the figure. A, the switch
has been in position 1 for a long time. When the
switch is placed in position 2 at t = 0, the 163. When a unit impulse voltage is applied to an
current i(t) (t > 0) can be determined from the inductor of 1H, the energy supplied by the
transformed circuit given in the figure. source is
(a) ∞ (b) 1 J
(c) (1/2) J (d) 0
IES-1991
Ans. (c) : Given, V(t) = δ(t), L = 1H
(a)
s
Circuit in s-domain-
(b)
1
I(s) =
s
i(t) = u(t)
(c) i (t) = 1 when t > 0
1
Energy supplied by source ( E ) = L i(t)
2
2
1
E = × 1× 1 joule
2
2
(d)
1
E= J
2
IES-1991 164. The voltage applied across a capacitance is
Ans. (c) : Switch is at position 1 for long time i.e. triangular in waveform. The waveform of the
inductor L reaches to its steady state. current is
−
• Circuit for t = 0 (a) triangular (b) trapezoidal
(c) sinusoidal (d) rectangular
IES-1991
Ans. (d) : Voltage V(t) = triangular wave,
Current through the capacitor
V 1 d
i L (0− ) = = Amp i C (t) = C V(t)
R 2 dt
When switch is moved to position 2 (t = 0+). if V(t) = trangular wave
inductor does not allow sudden change in current so it dv(t) d
behaves as current source in parallel with inductor. so = (trangular wave)
dt dt
− + 1 = rectangular wave
i L (0 ) = i L (0 ) = A = I0
2 Hence current through capacitor is rectangular wave.
165. A 10 Ω resistor, a 1 H inductor and 1 µF 167. For the compensated attenuator of figure, the
capacitor are connected in parallel. The impulse response under the condition
combination is driven by a unit step current. R1C1 = R2C2 is
Under the steady state condition, the source
current flow through :
(a) the resistor
(b) the inductor
(c) the capacitor only
(d) all the three elements
GATE-1989
Ans. (b) : Under steady state condition-Inductor behave
a short circuit
R2  R lC1 
1
so, (a) 1 − e  u ( t )
Source current flow through the inductor R1 + R 3  
R2
(b) δ(t)
R1 + R 2
R2
(c) u (t)
R1 + R 2
1
R2
(d) e R1C1 u ( t )
R1 + R 2
GATE-1992
Ans. (b) :
166. If the Laplace transform of the voltage across a

1
capacitor of value of F is
2
s +1
VC ( S ) = 3 2 ,
s +s +s +1
the value of the current through the capacitor 1
R2 ×
at t = 0+ is sC 2 R2
(a) 0 A (b) 2 A V2 ( s ) = I ( s ) × = I (s ) ×
2R 2 + 1
1 sC
(c) (1/2) A (d) 1 A R2 +
sC 2
GATE-1989
Ans. (c) : Voltage across capacitor  1   1 
s +1  R1 × sC   R 2 × sC 
VC ( s ) = 3 2 V1 ( s ) = I ( s ) ×  1 + 2 
s + s + s +1  R + 1  R + 1 
1 1 2  1 sC   2 sC 
Impedance ZC ( s ) = = =  1   2 
sC s × 1 s
 R1 R2 
2 = I (s)  + 
VC ( s ) R C
 1 1 s + 1 R 2 2s + 1 
C
s +1 s
I ( S) = = ×
ZC ( s ) s 3 + s 2 + s + 1 2 I (s)
R2
V2 ( s ) sC 2 R 2 + 1
s ( s + 1) s ( s + 1) = [ R 2C2 = R1C1 ]
= = V1 ( s )  R1 
2 ( s + s + s + 1) 2 ( s + 1) ( s + 1)
R2
3 2 2
I (s)  + 
 R 1C1s + 1 R 2 C 2s + 1 
s 1
I (s) = × 2 R 2 / ( R 2 C 2s + 1) R2
2 s +1 = =
s2
( R1 + R 2 ) / ( R 2C2s + 1) R1 + R 2
I ( 0+ ) = limsI ( s ) = lim
1
= R2
s →∞ s →∞  2
s2  2 + 2 
2 V2 ( s ) = V1 ( s )
 s  R1 + R 2
R2
I ( 0+ ) =
1 V2 ( t ) = δ(t)
A
2 R1 + R 2

168. A ramp voltage, v(t) = 100 t volts, is applied to 171. In the circuit of Fig. the energy absorbed by the
an RC differentiating circuit with R = 5 kΩ and 4 Ω resistor in the time interval (0, ∞) is
C = 4 µF. The maximum output voltage is
(a) 0.2 volt (b) 2.0 volts
(c) 10.0 volts (d) 50.0 volt
GATE-1994
Ans. (b) : Differential circuit output
(a) 36 Joules (b) 16 Joules
(c) 256 Joules (d) None of the above
GATE-1997
Ans. (b) : Initially at (t = 0+ )
VC ( 0 ) = VC ( 0− ) = VC ( 0+ ) = 6V
dVi
(V0) max = RC Now circuit becomes (capacitor replaced by initial voltage)
dt
d
(V0) max = 5 × 103 × 4 ×10−6 × 100t
dt
(V0) max = 5×103×4×10–6×100
(V0) max =2.0V 10 − 6 4
169. The impulse response of a series RLC circuit is: I R ( 0+ ) = = = 1 Amp.
(a) A rising exponential 4 4
At steady state (Capacitor behave as open circuit)
(b) A falling exponential
(c) A step function
(d) A parabolic function
Ans. (b) : The impulse response of series RLC circuit is
the combination of sine function and decreasing I ( ∞ ) = 0A
exponential function. which result a decrease Circuit time constant ( )
τ
oscillatory exponential function.
τ = R ⋅ C =4×2 = 8 sec.
170. The voltage VC1, VC2 and VC3 across the
During discharging current through the capacitor is-
capacitor in the circuit in Fig., under steady i(t) = I0e–t/τ
state, are respectively. i(t) = 1e–t/8
i ( t ) = e − t /8 A
Energy absorbed by 4Ω Resistor in time interval
( 0, ∞ )
∞ ∞
(a) 80 V, 32 V, 48 V (b) 80 V, 48 V, 32 V
E= ∫0
[i ( t )]2 ⋅ R ⋅ dt = ∫
0
( e− t /8 )2 × 4 ⋅ dt
(c) 20 V, 8 V, 12 V (d) 20 V, 12 V, 8 V 4 ∞
GATE-1996 = ⋅ [ e − t / 4 ]0 dt
 1 
Ans. (b) : As we know that − 
At steady state  4
Capacitor behaves as open circuit.  –∞ 1 1 
e = ∞ = =0 
Inductor behaves as short circuit. = −16 [ e−∞ − e0 ]  e ∞ 
Now circuit becomes – e º = 1 
= −16 [ 0 − 1]
E = 16 J
172. In the figure, The switch was closed for a long
time before opening at t = 0. The voltage Vx at
VC1 = I ( ∞ ) × 40 t = 0+ is
100
= × 40
50
= 80 V
Now using VDR (Voltage division Rule)
3
VC2 = 80 × = 48 V
3+ 2
2
VC3 = 80 × = 32 V
3+ 2
(a) 25 V (b) 50 V 1
(c) –50 V (d) 0 V V = volt
s
GATE-2002
1
Ans. (c) : Since initially switch is close for long time I1 ( s ) = A
then circuit become in steady state condition and s ( s + 2)
inductor behave as short circuit. Now apply partial fraction.
A B
I1 ( s ) = +
s (s + 2)
20Ω 1 A ( s + 2 ) + Bs s ( A+B ) + 2A
= =
s (s + 2) s (s + 2 ) s (s + 2)
Now compare both side
A+B=0 2A = 1
• At (t = 0+)
Now inductor is replaced by its initial current 1 1
B=− A=
2 2
Put the value of A and B in eqn I1 (s)
1 1
I1 ( s ) = −
2s 2 ( s + 2 )
+
1 1 1 
By ohm's law → =  − A
Vx = −I × R 2  s s + 2 
Taking inverse Laplace trans form both side.
= −2.5 × 20
1
Vx = −50V i ( t ) = [1 − e−2t ] A
2
173. For the R-L circuit shown in the figure, the 1
input voltage Vi(t) = u(t). The current i(t) is At t=0 i ( 0 ) = [1 − 1] = 0 A
2
1
t=∞ i ( ∞ ) = [1 − 0] = 0.5 A
2
1 1
t= i (1/ 2 ) = [1 − 0 − 0.36] = 0.31 A
2 2
(a) (b)
174. The circuit shown in the figure has initial

current iL(0–) = 1 A through the inductor and
(c) (d)
an initial voltage vC(0–) = –1 V across the
capacitor. For input v(t) = u(t), the Laplace
transform of the current i(t) for t ≥ 0 is
GATE-2004
Ans. (c) : Given that circuit diagram-
L = 1H , R =2Ω
s s+2
(a) (b)
s + s +1
2
s + s +1
2
s−2 s−2
(c) 2 (d) 2
s + s −1 s + s +1
Apply KVL in loop — GATE-2004
I1 ( s ) ⋅ s ⋅ L + R ⋅ I1 ( s ) = V ( s ) Ans. (b) : Given circuit diagram -
I1 ( s ) ⋅ s + 2 ⋅ I1 ( s ) = V ( s )
V (s)
I1 ( s ) =
(s + 2)
Vi (t) = u (t)
Apply KVL in the loop — 176. A 2mH inductor with some initial current can
di ( t ) 1 ∞ be represented as shown in the figure below,
v(t) = i(t) ⋅ R + L
dt
+
C 0 ∫
i ( t ) dt where s is the Laplace transform variable. The
value of the initial current is
Taking Laplace transform on both side —
( )
I ( s ) VC 0
+
 ( )
V ( s ) = RI ( s ) + L s I ( s ) − I 0+  +
 sC
+
s
In the given
I ( 0+ ) = 1A VC ( 0− ) = −1V {VC ( 0− ) = VC ( 0+ )}
V (s) = 1 s R = 1Ω L = 1H C = 1F (a) 0.5A (b) 2.0A
Now equation will be — (c) 1.0A (d) 0A
1 I (s ) 1 BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
= I (s ) + s ⋅ I (s ) − 1 + − GATE-2006
s s s
Ans. (a) : Initial current = lim IL ( s )
1 1 I (s) s→∞
+ +1 = [1 + s + s ]2
1
t
s s s ∵ I L ( t ) = ∫ v dt
1+1+ s I ()s L
= [1 + s + s2 ] 0
s s 1 VL ( 0+ )
= V (s) +
s+2
I (s ) = 2 A Ls L
s + s +1  1 VL ( 0 + ) 
175. A square pulse of 3 volts amplitude is applied Initial current = lim 
s →∞  Ls
V ( s ) + 
L 
to C-R circuit shown in the figure. The  
capacitor is initially uncharged. The output VL ( 0+ ) 1× 10−3
voltage V2 at time t = 2 sec is I ( 0+ ) = = = 0.5A
L 2 × 10−3
177. In the figure shown below, assume that all the
capacitors are initially uncharged. If
Vi(t) = 10u(t) Volts, V0 (t) is given by
(a) 3 V (b) –3 V
(c) 4 V (d) –4 V
GATE-2005
Ans. (b) : Time constant of circuit
( τ ) = RC
= 1× 103 × 0.1× 10−6
= 10−4 sec
= 100 µ sec
Time constant is very small, so capacitor charged very (a) 8 e–t/0.004 Volts
fast, and steady state reached in 2 sec (b) 8 (1–e–t/0.004)Volts
VC = 3V (c) 8u(t) Volts
Now capacitor becomes voltage source of 3V (d) 8 Volts
GATE-2006
Ans. (c) : Circuit is replaced by Laplace transform
Applying KVL–
3+1000I = 0
3 C k
I= − C
1000
I = −3 mA
V2 (Voltage across 1kΩ )
Given
V2 = −3mA × 1KΩ C1 = 4µF
V2 = −3V C2 = 1µF

Vi ( t ) = 10u ( t ) • At t → ∞
capacitor voltage is open circuit.
 10 
Vi ( s ) =   Circuit will becomes :-
 s 
1
1kΩ ×
C1s 1kΩ
Z1 = =
1kΩ +
1 1k Ω ⋅ C1s + 1
C1s
1k 1k IC ( ∞ ) = 0A.
= 3 −6
= Ω • Circuit time constant τ = R eq ⋅ Ceq
1× 10 ⋅ 4 ×10 s + 1 4×10 –3 ⋅ s + 1
1 20 × 20 400
4k × R e q = 20 20 = = ×103
C2 s 4k 20 + 20 40
Z2 = = Ω
4k +
1 4k ⋅ C 2s + 1 R eq = 10 × 103 Ω
C 2s
Ceq = 4µF
4k 4k
= = = 4 Z1
3 −6
4 ×10 ⋅1×10 ⋅ s + 1 4×10-3 s + 1 τ = 10 ×103 × 4 ×10−6
Z2 = 4Z1 = 40 × 10−3 = 40m sec
τ = 40m sec
Using VDR :-
IC ( t ) = IC ( ∞ ) +  IC ( 0− ) − IC ( ∞ )  e – t / τ
 Z2 
Vº ( s ) =   ⋅ Vi ( s )
 Z1 + Z2  = 0 + [ 0.5 × 10−3 − 0] e –t/40 m sec
−1000t
 4Z1 
Vº ( s ) =   ⋅ Vi ( s ) = 0.5 ×10−3e 40
 Z1 + 4Z1  IC ( t ) = 0.5e −25t mA.
4Z
Vº ( s ) = 1 Vi ( s ) 179. In the following circuit, the switch S is closed at
5Z1 di +
0.8 × 10 8 t = 0. The rate of change of current ( 0 ) is
Vº ( s ) = = dt
s s given by
Taking inverse Laplace transform both side.
Vº ( t ) = 8u(t)
178. In the circuit shown, VC is 0 volts at t = 0 sec.
For t > 0 the capacitor current iC(t) where t is
in seconds, is given by
R s Is
(a) 0 (b)
L
(c)
(R s
+ R s ) Is
(d) ∞
L
(a) 0.50 exp (–25t) mA GATE-2008
(b) 0.25 exp (–25t) mA Ans. (b) :
(c) 0.50 exp (–12.5t) mA
(d) 0.25 exp (–6.25t) mA • At t  → 0– (switch is open)
GATE-2007 Inductor will be short circuit .
Ans. (a) :
• At t = 0
Capacitor voltage is 0V, i.e. capacitor will be short
circuit will becomes :-
I L ( 0− ) = 0A
I L ( 0− ) = IL ( 0+ ) = 0A
10V • At t  → 0+ (switch is closed)
IC ( 0+ ) =
20 KΩ Inductor does not allow sudden change current so
= 0.5 mA Inductor becomes current source.

Vc ( t ) = [ t ]0 − [ t ]T = T − 0 − [ t − T ] = 2T − t
T t
Rs at t = 2T , Vc(t) = 0
For n = 1
1 ; 2T ≤ t ≤ 3T
Vc ( t ) = 
VL ( 0+ ) = Is ⋅ R s −1 ; 3T ≤ t ≤ 4T
( )
di 0+ 3T t
VL = L
dt
Vc ( t ) =
∫ ∫
1.dt − 1.dt
( )=V
di 0+ IR
2T 3T
Vc ( t ) = [ t ]2T − [ ] = ( 3T − 2T ) − t + 3T = 4T − t
3T t
L
= s s t 3T
dt L L
180. The circuit shown in the figure is used to Vc (t) = tu(t) − 2(t − T)u ( t −2T ) + 2 ( t −2T ) u ( t −2T ) .........
charge the capacitor C alternately from two ∞
current sources as indicated. The switches S1 Vc(t)= tu(t) +2
and S2 are mechanically coupled and connected n =1
∑
( −1)n ( t − nT ) u ( t − nT ) V
as follows. 181. The switch in the circuit shown was on position
For 2nT ≤ t < (2n + 1) T, (n = 0, 1, 2…) S1 to P1 a for a long time, and is moved to position b at
and S2 to P2. time t = 0. The current i(t) for t >0 is given by
For (2n + 1) T ≤ t < (2n + 2) T, (n = 0, 1, 2…) S1
to Q1 and S2 to Q2.
(a) 0.2 e–125t u(t) mA (b) 20 e–1250t u(t) mA

Assume that the capacitor has zero initial (c) 0.2 e–1250t u(t) mA (d) 20 e–1000t u(t) mA
charge. Give that u(t) is a unit step function, GATE-2009
the voltage VC(t) across the capacitor is given
by Ans. (b) : At t  → 0− (steady state)
∞ Capacitor will be open circuited
∑
( −1) tu ( t − nT ) Circuit will becomes :-
n
(a)
n =0
∞
(b) u ( t ) + 2 ∑ ( −1) ( t − nT ) u ( t − nT )
n
n =1
∞
(c) tu ( t ) + 2 ∑ ( −1) ( t − nT ) u ( t − nT )
n
n =1
∞
(d) ∑ 0.5 − e
n =0
−( t −2 nT )
+ 0.5e −( t−2 n−T ) 
I ( 0− ) = 0A
GATE-2008
0.8
Ans. (c) : Given that VC1 ( 0− ) = ×100
0.8 + 0.2
1 ; 2nT ≤ t ≤ ( 2n + 1) T  0.8
Vc (t) =   = × 100
 −1 ; ( 2n + 1) T ≤ t ≤ ( 2n + 2 ) T  1.0
Vc(t)
VC1 ( 0− ) = 80V
100 × 0.2
VC2 ( 0− ) =
1
2T
0 T
t 0.8 + 0.2
−1 20
VC2 ( 0− ) =
1.0
For n = 0
VC2 ( 0− ) = 20V
1 ; 0 ≤ t ≤ T 
Vc ( t ) =  
 −1 ; T ≤ t ≤ 2T  VC2 ( 0− ) = VC3 ( 0− ) = 20V
→ 0+ (switch position at "b")

T t
• At t 
∫
Vc ( t ) = 1.dt − 1.dt
0
∫
T
( at t → 0+ Capacitor is replaced by voltage source )

k
di(t)  R
− ∞

0× + Ri(t) = V0 1 − e L sin ∞  u(t)
k dt  
 
–∞
0 + Ri (t) = V0(1 – 0) {∵ e = 0}
Ri(∞) = V0
100 V0
IC ( 0+ ) = i (∞) = Amp
5kΩ R
IC ( 0+ ) = 20 mA 183. In the circuit shown, the switch S is open for a
long time and is closed at t = 0. The current i(t)
Circuit time constant ( τ ) = R eq ⋅ Ceq
for t ≥ 0+ is.
Ceq = ( 0.5 + 0.3) µF 0.2µF
0.8 × 0.2
=
0.8 + 0.2
Ceq = 0.16µF
R e q = 5kΩ
τ = 5 × 103 × 0.16 ×10−6 sec (a) i(t) = 0.5 – 0.125 e–1000t A
(b) i(t) = 1.5 – 0.125 e–1000t A
= .80 ×10−3 (c) i(t) = 0.5 – 0.5 e–1000t A
τ = 0.8msec (d) i(t) = 0.375 e–1000t A
Final expression :- GATE-2010
IC ( t ) = IC ( 0+ ) e − t τ u(t) Ans. (a) : Since switch of circuit is open for long time
then circuit becomes -
= 20 × 10−3.e − t / 0.8m sec u ( t )
− t×1000
= 20 × 10−3.e 0.8 u (t)
Ic (t) = 20.e −1250 t u ( t ) mA
182. The time domain behaviour of an RL circuit is
represented by
Initially inductor behave at short circuit
di
L + Ri = V0 ( 1 + Be-Rt/Lsint ) u ( t ) I ( 0− ) = 0A
dt
Using current division rule :-
V
For an initial current of I (0) = 0 , the steady 1.5 × 10
R I L ( 0− ) =
state value of the current is given by 10 + 10
V I L ( 0− ) = 0.75A
(a) i ( t ) → 0.
R • At t → 0+ (switch is closed)
2V0 (Inductor becomes a 0.75 A current source)
(b) i ( t ) →
R
V0
(c) i ( t ) → (1 + B )
R
2V0
(d) i ( t ) → (1 + B)
R
GATE-2009 Applying Nodal analysis :-
Ans. (a) : Given that - V V
Time domain behavior of an RL circuit is- 1.5 = + + 0.75
10 10
Ldi ( t )  R
− t  V
+ Ri(t) = V0  1 − Be L sin t  u(t) 0.75 =
dt   5
 
V V = 3.75 Volt
At t= ∞, i(∞) = ?, i(0–) = 0 3.75
R I ( 0+ ) = = 0.375 A
As we know that at steady state condition inductor 10
behave as short circuit i.e.- • At t → ∞ (Inductor will be short circuit)
[XL = 0] Using CDR :-
So, At t = ∞ I ( ∞ ) = 0.5

VC ( ∞ ) = 100V
I ( ∞ ) = 0A
• Circuit time constant ( τ ) = R ⋅ C
R = 10Ω C = 50µF
• Time constant of circuit 
→ τ = 10 × 50µF
= 500µ sec.
Req Complete Expression of Voltage  →

V ( t ) = V ( ∞ ) +  V ( 0+ ) − V ( ∞ )  e − t / τ
−t
R e q = (10 10 ) + 10 = 100 + [ −50 − 100] e − 500×10−6
= 5 + 10 t
= 15Ω = 100 − 150 e – 500×10
–6
Leq = 15 mH
d 
t
Leq 15mH dv ( t ) −6
τ= = = 10−3 sec. i(t) = C = C 100 − 150 e – 500×10 

dt dt  
R eq 15  
Final Expression :-
d  t 
I ( t ) = I ( ∞ ) + {I ( 0+ ) − I(∞)} e− t / τ = C  −150e – 500×10 
−6
dt  
−3  
= 0.5 + {0.375 − 0 ⋅ 5} e − t /10 t
−150
= 50 ×10−6 ×
−4
= 0.5 + {−0.125} e −1000t e – 5×10
−500 × 10−6
I ( t ) = 0.5 − 0.125e −1000t A 3
I ( t ) = 15 ⋅ e −2×10 t Amp
184. In the circuit shown below, the initial charge on
the capacitor is 2.5 mC, with the voltage 185. In the circuit shown, the switch SW is thrown
polarity as indicated. The switch is closed at from position A to position B at time t = 0. The
time t = 0. The current i(t) at a time t after the energy taken from the 3 V source to charge the
switch is closed is 0.1 µF capacitor form 0 V to 3 V is
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.45

(c) 0.9 (d) 3
GATE-2015
(a) i(t) = 15 exp (–2 × 103t) A Ans. (c) : • At → 0−
t 
(b) i(t) = 5 exp (–2 × 103t) A Circuit becomes :-
(c) i(t) = 10 exp (–2 × 103t) A
(d) i(t) = –5 exp (–2 × 103t) A
GATE-2011
Ans. (a) : Given Q (0–) = 2.5 mC
Q ( 0− )
Initial Voltage of Capacitor VC ( 0− ) =
C
−3
VC ( 0− ) = VC ( 0+ ) = 0V
2.5 × 10
VC ( 0− ) = • At t 
→∞
50 ×10−6
= 0.05 × 10 = 50 V
3
∴ Polarity of capacitor is opposite

• at t→0
Vc
Switch is closed and capacitor will be open circuited.
Apply KVL —
− VC ( ∞ ) + 0 + 3 = 0
VC ( ∞ ) = 3V

• Time constant of circuit — τ = 6 × 0.1 = 0.6sec.
τ = 120 × 0.1×10−6 the complete expression of capacitor voltage :-
τ = 12 µ sec VC ( t ) = VC ( ∞ ) +  VC ( 0+ ) − VC ( ∞ )  e− t / τ
VC ( t ) = V ( ∞ ) +  VC ( 0+ ) − VC ( ∞ )  e− t / τ = 10 + [ 4 − 10] e− t / 0.6
= 3[1 − e− t / τ ] V VC ( t ) = (10 − 6e− t / 0.6 ) V
Current through capacitor 187. The circuit shown below is driven by a
dV ( t ) 0.1×10−6 × 3e− t / τ 1 −t / τ sinusoidal input Vi = Vp cos (t/RC). The steady
iC ( t ) = C c = = e output V0 is
dt 12 ×10−6 40
∞
Energy (E) = ∫0
V ⋅ i C ( t ) dt
∞ ∞
1 −t / τ  3 
= ∫
0 40
e dt =  − × τ× e− t / τ 
3⋅
 40 0
−3 −6 9 −6
(a) (Vp/3) cos(t/RC) (b) (Vp/3) sin(t/RC)
E= ×12 × 10 [ 0 − 1] = × 10 J (c) (Vp/2) cos(t/RC) (d) (Vp/2) sin(t/RC)
40 10 GATE-2011
= 0.90 µJ
Ans. (a) :
186. The switch has been in position 1 for a long
time and abruptly changes to position 2 at t = 0.
1 1 + jωRC
Z1 = R + = Ω
jωC jωC
If time t is in seconds, the capacitor voltage VC
1 R
(in volts) for t > 0 is given by Z2 = R = Ω
(a) 4 (1 – exp (–t/0.5) jωC 1 + jωRC
(b) 10–6 exp (–t/0.5)  t 
(c) 4 (1 – exp (–t/0.6) ∵ It is gives that Vi = Vp cos  V
(d) 10–6 exp (–t/0.6)  RC 
GATE-2016 1
− ∵ ω= rad/sec
Ans. (d) At t  → 0 , switch position -1 RC
So that –
Z1 = (1 − j) R
R (1 − j)
Z2 =
10 2
I ( 0− ) = = 2A Applying node analysis at 'Vo'
5
Vº − Vi Vo
VC ( 0− ) = 2 × 2 = 4V + =0
R (1 − j) R (1 − j) / 2
VC ( 0− ) = VC ( 0+ ) = VC ( 0 ) = 4V
 1 2  Vi
• At t 
→∞ , switch position -2 or Vº  +  =
 (1 − j)
R R (1 − j)  R (1 − j)
3Vº Vi
or =
R (1 − j) R (1 − j)
VC ( ∞ ) = 5 × 2 = 10V 1
or Vº = Vi
• Time constant of circuit is ( τ ) 
→ 3
1  t 
Vº = Vp Cos  V
3  RC 
Req
188. A series RC circuit is connected to a DC
voltage source at time t = 0. The relation
R e q = 6Ω between the source voltage VS. the resistance R,
the capacitance C, and the current i(t) is given
Ceq = 0.1F below.
1
1
1 2
Vs = Ri ( t ) +
C0∫i ( t ) dt (a)
3 RC
(b)
3 RC
Which one of the following represents the 1 2
(c) (d)
current i(t)? RC RC
GATE-2014
Ans. (b) :
(a)
(b) Applying nodal analysis at Vº –

Vº − 1∠0º Vº Vº
+ + =0
R  1   2 
 jωC   jωC 
(c)    
º
1 jωC  1∠0
or Vº  + jωC +  =
R 2  R
2
(d) or Vº = ∠0º Volt
2 + 3jRCω
1
Given that A ( ω) = 0.25 =
GATE-2014 4
Ans. (a) : In series R-C circuit if VS is the forcing 1 1
∴ =
voltage, then voltage on capacitor for D.C. supply of VS 2 2 2 4
4+9R C ω
is given by –
VC ( t ) = Vs (1 − e − t / τ ) [ Where τ=RC] or 4 + 9R 2C 2 ω2 = 16
12
Thus current on capacitor – or ω2 =
dV ( t ) 9R 2 C 2
ic ( t ) = C C 2 3
dt or ω =
CVs –t/τ 3RC
= e
τ ω=
2
rad/sec
V 3 RC
= s e– t / τ
R 190. In the circuit shown, if v(t) = 2 sin (1000t) volts.
ic ( t ) = Iº e− t / τ R = 1. kΩ and C = 1 µF. Then the steady-state
current i (t), in mili amperes (mA), is
Whose graphical representation as given below –
(a) 3 sin (1000t) + cos (1000t)

(b) sin (1000t) + cos (1000t)
(c) sin (1000t) + 3 cos (1000t)
(d) 2 sin (1000t) + 2 cos (1000t)
189. The steady state output of the circuit shown in GATE-2019
the figure is given by Ans. (a) :
y(t) = A (ω) sin ( ωt + φ( ω)). If the amplitude
|A( ω)| = 0.25, then the frequency ω is

(a) 75.5 V (b) 77 V
(c) 78.6 V (d) 82.2 V
Ans. (c) : Given circuit diagram
This figure show the balance bridge condition
1 1
XC = = 3 = 103
2πfC 10 × 10−6
R = 103 Ω
V ( t ) = 2sin1000t
= 2∠00 Volt Voltage across capacitor is -
VC(t) = E(1–e–t/τ)
VC(t) = 80(1–e–t/τ)
Time constant
τ= RC = 4×103×5×10–6 = 20×10–3 sec
At t= 80msec
 − 80×10 −3 
VC(t) = 80 1 − e 20×10 
 −3
 
Equivalent admittance  
–4
3 1 VC(t) = 80(1–e )
y = y1 + y 2 = −3
+ j × 10−3 VC(t) = 80×0.98
2 × 10 2
VC(t) = 78.6V
i(t) = v(t) y(t) 193. Voltage and current expressions for the below
3 1 circuit are given at t ≥ 0 as V = 125 e–50t V, i =
= 2∠0  + j  × 10−3 5e–50t A. The value of L will be
2 2
= ( 3 + j1) × 10−3 A = ( 3 + j1) mA
= 3sin1000t + cos1000t mA
191. An inductance and a capacitance are connected
in series. If a unit step voltage is applied across
the combination, then the initial and final (a) 0.005 H (b) 0.05 H
currents in the circuit will be (c) 0.5 H (d) 5 H
(a) 0, ∞ respectively (b) 0, 0 respectively IES-2010
(c) ∞, ∞ respectively (d) ∞, 0 respectively Ans. (c) : As given that,
Ans. (b) :
V = 125 e−50t V .....(i)

On comparing with standard-
V(t) = V0 e− t / τ
v(t) = u(t) 1
τ= sec
Initial inductor behave as open circuit and capacitor 50
behave as short circuit i = 5e −50t ....(ii)
Initial current = 0 −50t
V 125e
Steady state inductor is short circuit and capacitor is R= = = 25 Ω
open circuit I 5e −50t
Final current = 0 L
Time constant ( τ ) =
192. At t = 0s the switch is closed. If E=80 V, R
R=4 kΩ and C = 5 µF. Determine capacitor 1 L
voltage at t=80ms. Assume initially there is no = L = 0.5H
charge stored in the capacitor: 50 25

194. If in an electric network R, L and C are 1 1
connected in series and supplied by a voltage = = e– t / 4u ( t )
 1 4
source then its dual network will be described 4s + 
by the differential equation:  4
196. In an inductive network, iL(0–) = 0A, what is
 di(t) 1 
(a) V(t) =  Ri(t) + L + ∫ i(t)dt  value of current iL(0+) _____.
 dt C  (a) 2A (b) 0A
1 di(t) 1 (c) 5A (d) None
(b) v(t) = i(t) + C + ∫ i(t)dt NPCIL-2015
G dt L
Ans. (b) : Inductors does not allow sudden change of
dv(t) 1
(c) i(t) = Gv(t) + C + ∫ v(t)dt current through it
dt L iL(0)+ = iL(0)-
di(t) 197. For the circuit in figure, if e(t) is a unit ramp
(d) v(t) = Ri(t) + L + C ∫ i(t)dt signal, the steady state value of the output
dt
voltage V0(t) is
IES-2009
Ans. (c) : The dual network for R, L, C series will be
described as following-
Current across resistance (R) will be
v(t)  1
i(t) = = G v(t) ∴G = 
R  R
Current across inductor (L)
As we know that,
(a) 0 (b) LC
di
v(t) = L (c) R/L (d) RC
dt DRDO-2008
1 1
∫ di = L ∫ v(t) dt Ans. (d) : Unit ramp signal at steady state E(s) = 2 by
s
1 voltage divider rule
i(t) = ∫ v(t) dt
L R
Vo (s) = × E(s)
Current across capacitor (C)- 1
As we know that, Ls + +R
Cs
dq = Cv(t) sRC 1
On differentiating both side- Vo (s) = 2 ×
s LC + 1 + sRC s 2
dq dv(t)
=C for t = ∞
dt dt s 2 RC 1
dv(t) Vo(∞) = lim sV(s) = lim 2 × = RC
i(t) = C s →0 s → 0 s LC + 1 + sRC s 2
dt 198. In the circuit shown, steady state is reached
Hence, dual network will be- with S open, switch closed at t = 0. The current
1 dv(t) I in the 1 Ohm resistor connected is to be
i(t) = G v(t) + ∫ v(t) + C
L dt determined at t = 0+. I is given by
195. The response of the LTI (Linear Time
Invariant) system:
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 3 A (d) 4/3 A
For input x(t) = δ(t) is: Ans. (b) : S is open to steady state then inductor L is
1 −t / 4 1 − 4t S.C.
(a) e u(t) (b) e u(t)
4 4 4
−1
−2t
Current (I) = = 2A
(c) 1 2t
e u(t) (d) 1 e u(t) 2
2 2 So voltage across inductor branch is
TNTRB AE– 2017 V' = 1×2 = 2V
1 1 Now S is closed at t = 0
y(t) The current (I) is 1Ω branch is
Ans. (a) : = 2s = 2s
x (t) 2 + 1 4s + 1 2
I = = 2A
2s 2s 1
199. With S1 closed in figure, what is the eventual 201. How many times constant is required to obtain
steady state value of current? the steady state response?
(a) 2 times (b) 3 times
(c) 4 times (d) 5 times
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
Ans. (c) : 4 times constant is required to obtain the
steady state response.
202. The time during which capacitor charging
(a) 12.5 mA (b) 16 mA current becomes 37% of its initial value is
(c) 0 mA (d) 25 mA called time constant of an
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018 (a) R-L circuit (b) R-L-C circuit
Ans. (d) : Given, (c) R-C circuits (d) None of these
R = 1 kΩ KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
L = 50 mH Ans. (c) : The time during which capacitor charging
current becomes 37% of its initial value is called time
constant of an R-C circuits.
τ = R×C
At steady state, inductor behave short circuit-

203. In a given network (shown in Figure), a steady
state is reached with switch k open. At t=0,
which is closed. Determine the values of I1, I2
and I3 at t = 0+.
So, steady state value of current-

V 25
I= =
R 1× 103
I = 25 mA
200. An RC circuit has an R of 10 kΩ and C = 0.05
(a) 1A, 1/3A, 0A (b) 1/3 A, 1/3A, 1/3A
µF. The applied voltage for charging is 36 V.
(c) 0A, 0A, 0A (d) 1A, 1A, 0A
How long will it take C to charge to 24 V?
(a) 6.2 msec (b) 4.5 msec ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
(c) 0.549 msec (d) 0.26 msec Ans.(a): When t > 0
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (d) : Given,
6V
∴ I1 = = 1A
6Ω
R = 10 kΩ, C = 0.05 µF Inductor does not allow sudden change of current
V = 36V therefore-
Time taken to charge up to 24 V - I L ( 0− ) = IL ( 0+ ) = 1A ………………..(i)
 −t 
  Similarly by voltage division rule, the voltage across
VC = VS × e RC 
0.5F capacitor is
V  4V × 0.5 4
t = –RC × ln  C  VC1 ( 0− ) = VC1 ( 0+ ) = = V
 VS  1.5 3
–3
= –0.5 × 10 × –0.51 The voltage across capacitor is
4 ×1 8
t = 0.255 ms VC2 ( 0− ) = VC2 ( 0+ ) = = V
t ≃ 0.26 ms 1.5 3
Thus, at t = 0+ Ans. (c) : Given that-
Let
v(t) = 2u(t – θ)
Taking laplace both side
2
V(s) = e−θs
s
∴I1 = 1A 2Ω
4/3 1
I2 = = A, I3 = 0A (As KVL violates)
4 3 I(s)
204. A unit step current is applied to a network
consisting of only passive elements. The voltage
across the current source observed is
V(t) = (1 + e–t/τ). The simplest possible network V (s)
I(s) =
will consist of the elements 1
(a) 1 resistor and 2 capacitors 2+
s
(b) 1 resistor and 2 inductors
(c) 2 resistors and 1 capacitor 2 −θs
e
(d) 2 resistors and 1 inductor =s
IES-2001 1
2+
Ans. (d) : Current I(t) = u(t) s
1
I (s) = e −θs
s I(s) =
1
Voltage V(t) = (1 + e − t / τ ) s+
2
1 1 taking inverse Laplace both side.
V (s) = +
s s+1 i(t) = u(t–θ) e–0.5(t–θ)
τ 206. The following series RLC circuit with zero
τs + 1 + sτ
V (s) = initial conditions is excited by a unit impulse
s ( sτ + 1) function δ(t).
2sτ + 1
=
s ( sτ + 1)
V (s)
Impedance Z(s) =
I (s)
2sτ + 1
s ( sτ + 1) 2sτ + 1
Z (s) = = For t>0, the output voltage Vc(t) is
1 sτ + 1
s 2  − 32 t −
3 
t 2  − 12 t 
(a) e − e 2  (b)  te 
3  
Admittance Y(s)
 3 
1
τs +
1 sτ + 1 2 + 1 2 − 12 t  3  2 − 12 t  3 
= = = (c) e  sin t  (d) e  cos t
Z ( s ) 2sτ + 1 2τs + 1 2 ( 2τs + 1) 3  2  3  2 
1 1
Y (s) = + Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017
2 4sτ + 2 Ans. (c) : Apply Laplace transform
This equation show that the network will consist of
resistance and inductor.
205. A unit step voltage 2u(t – θ) is applied in a
series RC circuit with R = 2Ω, C=1F.
Assuming zero initial conditions, find i(t).
(a) i(t) = u(t)e –0.5(t ) A
(b) i(t) = u(t – 2θ)e –0.5( t –2 θ) A
(c) i(t) = u(t – θ)e –0.5(t – θ ) A 1/ s 1
Vc ( s ) = =
(d) i(t) = u(t – θ)e –(t – θ ) A 1 s2 + s + 1
s +1+
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016 s

208. Find i1 (t) for t > 0
3 2
×
2 3
= 2
1 1  3
2
s + 2 × s +   + 
2

2  2   2 
2 3/2
= × 2
3  1  32
(a) 2.5 – 2.5e–2t
s +  +  
 2  2  (b) 2.5 – 1.25e–2t
By taking inverse Laplace transform- (c) 1.25 – 1.25e–2t
2 − 12 t 3 (d) None of the above options
e sin
Vc(t) = tV NIELIT Scientists- 2017
3 2
Ans. (b) : At t = 0 − switch open
207. In the circuit shown in figure, the switch closes
at t = 0. Assuming steady state condition for t = i ( 0 ) = 0
−
0− , the current iL at t = 0.15 sec is i ( 0− ) = i ( 0+ ) = 0 Amp

(approximately)
At t = ∞ switch closed
(a) 0.04 A (b) 0.5 A

(c) 0.76 A (d) 1.60 A
BSNL(JTO)-2009
i1 ( ∞ ) = 2.5Amp
Ans. (c) : At t = 0 − switch is open inductor is shot
circuit L 1
time constant τ = = = 0.5 sec
R 2
i ( t ) = i ( ∞ ) +  I ( 0+ ) − I ( ∞ )  e τ
−t
−t
i ( t ) = 2.5 − 2.5e .5
= 2.5 − 2.5e −2t

I L ( 0− ) = 2 ×
8 209. The circuit is driven by a voltage source
10 40e-4t V. The initial value of the voltage across
= 1.6 Amp the capacitor and the initial current through
the inductor are both zero. The current I is:
I L ( 0− ) = I L ( 0+ ) = 1.6 Amp
At t = ∞ switch closed in steady state inductor short
circuit
I L ( ∞ ) = 0 Amp 40 − t 80 −4t
(a) i = 40e −2t − e − e
3 3
Time constant τ
40 80
L 0.4 (b) i = 40e 2t + e t + e−4t
τ= = = 0.2 sec 3 3
R 2
40 80
i ( t ) = I t ( ∞ ) +  I L 0+ − I L ( ∞ )  e τ (c) i = −40e −2t − e − t − e−4t
−t
 ( )  3 3
−.15 40 80
= 1.6 × e .2 (d) i = 40e −2t + e − t + e−4t
3 3
= 0.76 Amp
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (a) : Apply Laplace transform 211. Consider the following given figure and
calculate steady-state value of v(t) is a unit step
current.
(a) 2.5 V (b) 1 V

(c) 0.1 V (d) 0
40 UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
i (s) = s+4 Ans. (c) : At steady state capacitor open circuit
 2
3+ s +  inductor short circuit
 s
40s
i (s ) =
( s + 4 ) ( s 2 + 3s + 2 )
40s
i (s) =
( s + 4 )( s + 1)( s + 2 ) V V
By partial differential + = i(t)
1 1
40s A B C
= + + 2 8
( s + 1)( s + 2 )( s + 4 ) ( s + 1) ( s + 2 ) ( s + 4 )
2V + 8V = i ( t )
−40 −80
A= ,C= , B = 40 10V = i ( t )
3 3
−40 40 80
i (s) = + − V=
1
= 0.1V {i ( t ) = 1u ( t )}
3 ( s + 1) ( s + 2 ) 3 ( s + 4 ) 10
Taking inverse Laplace 212. Assuming that the initial voltage across the
−40 − t 80
i(t) = e + 40e −2 t − e −4t capacitor C in the following circuit is
3 3 VC (0) = 1V, the value of VC (t) at time t = 2 sec
40 80
i ( t ) = 40e −2 t − e− t − e −4t is
3 3
210. In the figure given below, the initial capacitor
voltage is zero. Then after switch is closed at
t = 0 , Calculate the final steady state voltage
across the circuit:
(a) 1V (b) 2V
(c) 3V (d) 4V
TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
Ans. (a) : Given that-
Vc (0− ) = 1Volt
(a) 20V (b) 10V Now at t = 2 sec
(c) 5V (d) 0V
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 Voltage across capacitor maintain 1 Volt because there
Ans. (b) : Given that, is no resistive path to discharge the capacitor.
VC ( 0− ) = 0 213. The time constant (in seconds) for the network
shown in fig. below is
VC ( ∞ ) = ?
At t = ∞ switch closed capacitor is open circuit.
(a) RC3 (b) R[C1+C2+C3]

10 (c) R[C1+C3] (d) R[C2 + C3]
VC ( ∞ ) = 20 × = 10V
20 TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
Ans. (d) : Time constant τ
τ = Req Ceq
(a) e–t + e–3t (b) e–t + e–2t

(c) et + e3t (d) et + e2t
ESE-2022
Ans. (b) : Apply Laplace transform
Ceq = C 2 + C3
Req = R
τ = R ( C 2 + C3 ) sec
214. The switch K in Fig. was on position a for a
long time and moved to position b at time, t =0.
The current i(t) for t > 0 is,
5 2
+2−
I (s) = s s
2
3+s +
s
2s + 3 2s + 3
= 2 =
s + 3s + 2 (s + 1) (s + 2)
(a) 1.2e–400tmA (b) 1.2e–800tmA By partial differentiation
(c) 1.20e–400tmA (d) 12e–400tmA A B 2s + 3
TSTRANSCO AE- 2018 I(s) = + =
(s + 1) (s + 2) (s + 1)(s + 2)
Ans. (d) : At t = 0 −
Capacitor open circuit 1 1
I(s) = +
−
Vc (0 ) = 120 V (s + 1) (s + 2)
+
At t = 0 switch at point b Taking inverse Laplace i(t) = e − t + e −2t
capacitor act as voltage source
V (t) − t / τ 216. What is the output voltage V0(t) of the circuit
i c (t) = c e shown in the figure
R
120 −3
= +3
e − t / 2.5×10
10 × 10
= 12 e– 400t mA
(a) V0 ( t ) = 20 e − t − e −2t  u(t)V
(b) V0 ( t ) = 40 e − t − e −2t  u(t)V
(c) V0 ( t ) = 40 e − t − e −4t  u(t)V
(d) V0 ( t ) = 20 e − t − e −4t  u(t)V
ESE-2022
Ans. (c) : is (t) = 3e–t u(t) mA
3 × 10−3
is (s) = A
s +1
Apply CDR to find ic (s)
10 × 103
i c (s) = i s (s) ×
τ = RC  1 
10 × 10 +
3
−6 
= 10×103 ×.25 ×10–6  s × 25 × 10 
= 2.5 ×103m.sec 3 × 10−3 10 × 103 × 25 ×10−6 × s
i c (s) = ×
215. In the figure, the switch is thrown from (s + 1) (10 ×103 × 25 × 10−6 × s + 1)
position 1 to 2 at time t = 0. Just before the
switch is thrown, the initial conditions are 30 25 × 10 −6 × s
iL(0–) = 2 A, VC (0–) = 2V. What is the current i c (s) = ×
i(t) after switching action? ( s + 1) ( 0.25s + 1)
30 × 40 × 25 × 10−6 × s 218. The capacitor of the figure shown below has 25
i c (s) = V on it with polarity shown at the time the
(s + 1) (s + 4) switch is closed. The expression for VC is
1
Now V0 (s) = Vc(s) = i c (s) ×
25 ×10−6 × s
120 × 25 ×10 −6 × s 1
V0 (s) = ×
( s + 1)( s + 4 ) 25 × 10−6 × s
120
V0 (s) = (a) (40–15e–5t) volts (b) (40–20e–5t) volts
(s + 1) (s + 4)
(c) (40–25e–3t) volts (d) (40–40e–3t) volts
40 40 ESE-2022
V0 (s) = −
(s + 1) (s + 4) Ans. (a) : Given that-
−t −4t VC(0) = 25V
V0 (t) = 40e − 40e Volt
At t = ∞, switch closed, capacitor open circuit.
Vc (∞) = 40V
217. If the value of E = 100 V, R = 10kΩ and C = 10 τ = RC
mF in the circuit shown in the figure, then the = 200 × 1000 ×10–6
capacitor current (iC) at t = 150 ms is = 0.2 sec
Vc(t) = Vc(∞) + [Vc(0) –Vc(∞)] e–t/τ
Vc(t) = 40 + [25 – 40] e–t/.2
Vc(t) = 40 –15e–5t volt
219. A dc voltage V is applied at time t = 0 to a
series RC circuit. The steady state current is
V V
(a) (b)
(a) 100 e–1.5 mA (b) 50e–1.5 mA R C
(c) 10e–1.5 mA (d) 20 e–1.5 mA V
ESE-2022 (c) (d) Zero
Ans. (c) : Given that R 2 + C2
E = 100V ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
R = 10kΩ Ans. (d) : In steady state condition capacitor acts as
c = 10mf open circuit:-
ic = ?
t = 150ms
V
i(t) = e − t / RC
R
100 −150 ×10−3
= e
10 × 103 10 × 103 ×10 × 10−3
−150×10−3
i ( t ) = 10e 100
mA Steddy state condition
t→∞
i ( t ) = 10 e
−3
−1.5×10
mA
Vc = Vm (1-e-t/RC)
 ∞ 
−
Vc = Vm 1 − e RC 
 
 
Vc = Vm
then Capacitor is behave open circuit
So, that Ic = 0
220. A coil with a certain number of turns has a
specified time constant. If the no. of turns is
doubled, the time constant will be
(a) halved (b) doubled
(c) become four fold (d) unaffected
L Ans. (b) : Output of a differentiator circuit
Ans. (c) : Since time constant ( τ ) =
R dV ( t )
( R e ) = Vo ( t ) = RC
µN A2
dt
We know that = L =
d
ℓ = 5 ×10 × 4 × 10 × (100t )
3 −6
L ∝ N2 dt
= 2 Volt.
Therefore, τ1 = KN1 2
224. In a circuit a source of 50 V is connected in

When number of turns is doubled then.
with an inductor of value 1H and resister of
τ 2 = K ( 2N1 ) or τ2 = K4N12
2
value 10Ω. What is the steady state current
τ KN12 across the network?
∴ 1 = or τ 2 = 4 τ1 (a) 500 A (b) 60 A
τ 2 4KN12 (c) 5 A (d) 10A
When number of turns will be doubled then the time AAI-2015
constant will become four time of old. Ans. (c) : Given that,
221. When an unit impulse voltage is applied to an V = 50V, L = 1H, R = 10Ω
inductor of 1H, the energy supplied by the
source is (
IL = I0 1 − e − Rt / L )
(a) ∞ (b) 1 Joule for steady state condition,
(c) 0.5 Joule (d) zero at, t=∞
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I (
IL = I0 1 − e− R×∞ / L )
Ans. (c) : An inductor has V(s) = sL I (s)
when V(t) = δ(t) ⇒ V(s) = 1 (
IL = I0 1 − e −∞ )
I(s) =
1
⇒ i(t) = u(t) = 1A  1 
IL = I 0  1 − ∞ 
s  e 
1 1  1
So energy supplied = L I = × 1× 1 = 0.5J
2
IL = I 0  1 − 
2 2  ∞
222. Two coils having equal resistances but different IL = I0(1–0)
inductances are connected in series. The time V
constant of the series combination is the IL = I0=
R
(a) sum of the time constants of the individual
50
coils IL =
(b) average of the time constants of the individual 10
coils I L = 5A
(c) geometric mean of the time constants of the 225. A transient current in a network is
individual coils. i(t) = 2e-t − e-5t, t ≥ 0. the pole-zero
(d) Product of the time constants of the individual configuration of I (s) is
coils (a) poles : 1, 5 zeros : 9
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I (b) poles : -1, -5 zeros : -9
Ans. (b) : (c) poles : 2, -1 zeros : -1, -5
(d) poles : 2, -1 zeros : 1, 5
Req = R+R=2R Ans. (b) : i(t) = 2e − e−5t , t ≥ 0
−t
Leq = L1 +L2
L eq L1 + L 2 1  L1 L 2 
τ= = =  +
R eq 2R 2  R R  I (s) =
2
−
1
s +1 s + 5
τ +τ
τ= 1 2 2 ( s + 5 ) − 1( s + 1)
2 I (s) =
223. A ramp voltage, v(t) =100t Volts, is applied to a ( s + 1) ( s + 5 )
RC differentiating circuit with R=5kΩ and s+9
I (s) =
C=4µF. The maximum output voltage is ( s + 1)( s + 5 )
(a) 0.2 volts (b) 2.0 volts
(c) 10.0 volts (d) 50.0 volts Poles: s = −1, −5
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I Zeroes : s = −9
3. If VA–VB = 6V, then VC –VD is
(iii) Network Theorems
1. For the circuit shown in figure, the Thevenin's
voltage and resistance at terminals A and B,
respectively, are
(a) –5V (b) –2V
(c) 2 V (d) 6 V
BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022
Ans. (a) : VA –VB = 6 V
6
I = = 3A
2
(a) 8 V and 5 kΩ (b) 8 V and 10 kΩ
(c) 4 V and 5 kΩ (d) 4 V and 10 kΩ
BSNL(JTO)-2009
Ans. (b) : For Vth
Apply KCL at node VD
3 + 2 = 5A
VC –VD = –5×1 = –5 V
=Vth
4.
Apply KVL in loop

VX
–4 –2000× + Vth = 0
4000 For maximum power transfer in the circuit, the
Vth = 8V (VX = Vth) value of RL and maximum power, respectively
For Rth are :
(a) 9Ω and 13.44W (b) 5Ω and 13.44W
Isc
(c) 9Ω and 9.33W (d) 5Ω and 9.33W
ESE-2022
Ans. (a) : RL :-
4
Isc =
5kΩ
V 8
Now R th = th = = 10kΩ
Isc 4 / 5kΩ 6 ×12
R L = R th = 5 + = 5 + 4 = 9Ω
2. What should be impedance Z2 for maximum 18
power transfer, provided Z2 has no real part? R L = R th = 9Ω
Apply superposition theorem-
When current source is open circuited-
(a) 5j (b) –4 j
(c) – 5j (d) 4j 12 2
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 I1 = = A
18 3
Ans. (b) : Given that – When voltage source is short circuited-
Zth = 3+4j
Z2 = ?
Z2 has only imaginary part
Z2 = 0 + jx
For maximum power transfer
dPL 2 × 12
Z2 = Z*th =0 I2 =
dX L 18
So, XL + Xth = 0 4
I2 = A
XL = –Xth = –j4 3
I = I1 + I 2 Ans. (b) : Find RCD
4 2
I= −
3 3
2
I= A
3
Apply KCL- R CD = ( 4 || 6 ) + 8
2 4×6
VA − 2 × 0 − 3 × 2 − 6 × − 12 − VB = 0 = + 8 = 10.4Ω
3 10
VA − 22 − VB = 0 R CD = 10.4Ω
VAB = Vth = 22V
8. What is Thevenin's equivalent resistance for
( V )2 ( 22 )2 circuit shown in the given figure?
Pmax = th =
4R 2 4×9
Pmax = 13.44 watt
5.
(a) 3 Ω (b) 2 Ω
(c) 9 Ω (d) 6 Ω
Calculate the value of RL so that the power UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
transfer in the given circuit will be maximum. Ans. (b) :
(a) 6 Ω (b) 4 Ω
(c) 8 Ω (d) 2 Ω
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
Ans. (a) :
To calculate the Thevenin's equivalent resistance (RTh).

We have to make current source open circuit and
voltage source short circuit and remove the load
resistance,
R th = ( 3 || 6 + 4 ) Ω 3× 6
= 2 + 4 = 6Ω RTh = Rab = R1||R2, R ab =
3+ 6
R L = R th = 6Ω R ab = 2Ω
6. In which system, if an input consists of the 9. What is RN and IN using Norton theorem for
weighted sum of several signals, then the the following network?
output is the superposition?
(a) Linearity (b) Invertibility
(c) Stability (d) Casualty
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
Ans. (a) : In linear system if an input consists of the
weighted sum of several signals, then the output is the
superposition.
7.
(a) 9 Ω, 5.56 mA (b) 18 Ω, 5.56 A
(c) 19 Ω, 5.56 A (d) 9 Ω, 5.56 A
Ans. (d) :
Calculate thevenin equivalent resistance across

terminal CD
(a) 9.33 ohm (b) 10.4 ohm
(c) 12.5 ohm (d) 10.67 ohm
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
Replace load resistance RL by short circuit and find IN 11. Find the Thevenin equivalent circuit for a dc
power supply that has a 30V terminal voltage
when delivering 400 mA and a 27V terminal
voltage delivering 600 mA.
(a) VTH = 30V, RTH = 1 kΩ
(b) VTH = 36V. RTH = 100 kΩ
(c) VTH = 27V, RTH = ∞
(d) VTH = 36V, RTH = 15Ω
Ans. (d) : V 1 = 30 V, I1 = 400mA
50 V2 = 27V, I2 = 600mA
∴ IN = = 5.55A
9
For RN -
De-activate all independent sources.
V1 30 300
= × 1000 = = 75Ω
I1 400 4
Vth = I1Rth+V1.....................(i)
∴ I N = 5.56A R N = 9Ω
10. What is maximum power delivered to the load?
V2 27 9 × 10
= ×1000 = = 45Ω
I2 600 2
Vth = I 2 Rth + V2...........................(ii)
from equation (i) and (ii)
I1Rth+V1 = I 2 Rth + V2
(400-600)×10–3 Rth= 27-30
−3 × 1000
(a) 273.07 W (b) 27.30 W Rth = = 15Ω
(c) 2730.7 W (d) 2730 W −200
UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II Rth= 15Ω
2 From equation (ii)
V
Ans. (a) : Pmax = th Vth = 600 × 10- 3×15+ 27
4R th = 9 + 27
For Vth Remove load RL, find open circuit voltage- Vth = 36V
12. Which one of the following theorems becomes
important if the circuit has sources operating
at different frequencies?
(a) Norton theorem
(b) Thevenin theorem
For Rth (c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Current source → Open circuit, Voltage source → Short
ESE-2021
circuit
Ans.(c) : Superposition theorem becomes important if
the circuit has sources operating at different
frequencies.
Thevenin's and Norton's theorem are applicable only for
single frequency source.
13. What is the value of Zth at terminal a-b of the
V2 given Thevenin circuit?
Pmax = th
4R th
( −128 )
2
= W
4 × 15
Pmax = 273.07W
(a) Zth = ( 8.4 − j1.2 ) Ω Ans.(d): According to maximum power transfer
theorem maximum power transfer occurs when load R
(b) Zth = (10.3 − j2.3) Ω is equal to the R of network looking back at if from load
(c) Zth = (11.3 − j2.9 ) Ω terminals with all sources being replaced by their
respective internal resistance.
(d) Zth = (12.4 − j3.2 ) Ω 16. For the current shown in the figure, the
ESE-2021 Thevenin's equivalent voltage (in Volts) across
Ans.(d) : terminals a-b is ______.
Zth = 10 + (–j4 || 6+j2)
= 10 +
( 6 + j2 ) × ( − j4 ) = 10 + ( − j24 + 8 )
6 + j2 − j4 6 − j2
= 10 +
( 4 − j12 ) = 10 + ( 4 − j12 )( 3 + j)
(a) 8 (b) 10
( 3 − j) ( 3 − j)( 3 + j) (c) 12 (d) 11
12 − j36 + j4 + 12 24 − j32 APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
= 10 + = 10 + APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017
10 10
GATE-2015
100 + 24 − j32 124 − j32
= = Ans. (b):
10 10
= (12.4 − j3.2 ) Ω
14. Superposition theorem is not applicable to
networks containing
(a) non-linear elements (b) transformers
(c) dependent source (d) linear elements Apply KCL at Nodes in network-
DMRC AM S&T-2020 12 − Vth V
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-I + 1 = th
3 6
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I 12 − V V
th
− th = −1
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I 3 6
UJVNL AE-2016 24 − V − 2V = −6
th th
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 30 = 3V th
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 Vth= 10V
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 V = V = 10V
ab th
KVS TGT (WE)-2014
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 17. The internal impedance of a power source is
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 ( 3 + 4i ) Ω. Maximum power transfer occurs
when the load impedance ZL is equal to:
GATE-1998
Ans. (a) : Super-position theorem applicable only when (a) ( 3 + 4i ) Ω (b) ( 3 − 4i ) Ω
all the components of the circuit contain linear network. (c) 0 Ω (d) ∞
The superposition theorem states that a circuit with APPSC Poly. Lect.-14.03.2020
multiple voltage and current sources is equal to the sum UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
of simplified circuits using just one of the sources. GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
15. According to maximum power transfer Ans. (b) : For AC circuit, maximum power transferred
from source to load when
theorem, maximum power transfer occurs
when ZL = Z*S ∵ ZS = 3 + 4i
(a) Load R is equal to the half the R of network ZL = (3 – 4i)Ω
(b) Load R is equal to twice the R of network 18. Norton’s equivalent circuit consists of
(c) Load R is equal to the R of network looking (a) Voltage source in parallel with impedance
back at it from voltage terminal (b) Voltage source in series with impedance
(d) Load R is equal to the R of network looking (c) Current source in series with impedance
back at it from load terminals with all sources (d) Current source in parallel with impedance
being replaced by their respective internal RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
resistance APGENCO AE - 23.04.2017
UPMRC -AM-2020 GPSC Asstt. Prof. - 11.04.2017
Nagaland PSC CTSC(Dgree)-2018, Paper I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
TRB Poly. Lect.-2018 GATE-2014
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016 Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
IES-2015 Ans. (d) : According to Norton equivalent circuit any
RRB SSC-03.09.2015, Shift - II circuit can be converted into a current source and
Mizoram PSC IOLM - 2010, Paper - II
GATE-1994 equivalent resistor in parallel with it.
19. Which one of the following is applicable to any 22. Determine the values of Rt and Isc that cause
network linear or non-linear, active or passive, the given circuit to be the Norton equivalent
time-varying or invariant-as long as circuit.
Kirchhoff's laws are not violated?
(a) Tellegen's theorem
(b) Reciprocity theorem
(c) Maximum power transfer theorem
(d) Superposition theorem
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper - I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper – I (a) Rt = 6 Ω, Isc = 0.25 A
UJVNL AE-2016 (b) Rt = 8 Ω, Isc = 0.5 A
IES-2009, 2006 (c) Rt = 8 Ω, Isc = 0.25 A
Ans. (a) : Tellegen's theorem-It is applicable for any (d) Rt = 6 Ω, Isc = 0.5 A
lumped network which are linear or non-linear, active NLC GET -24.11.2020
or passive, time varying or time-invariant and may Ans. (c) :
contain independent or dependent sources. This theorem
is valid for any type of network untill Kirchhoff's law
are not violated.
b
∑v i
n =1
n n =0
b = No of branch.
vn = voltage drop in nth branch. Applying KCL at node A-
in = current in nth branch. VA − 3 VA VA
+ + =0
20. Find the Thevenin equivalent circuit parameter 3 6 6
for the given network. VA − 3 VA
+ =0
3 3
2VA = 3
VA = 1.5V
V 1.5
ISC = A = = 0.25A
(a) Vth = 20 V, Rth = 50 Ω R 6
(b) Vth = 30 V, Rth = 40 Ω Rth = 3 || 6 + 6
(c) Vth = 20 V, Rth = 40 Ω = 8Ω
(d) Vth = 30 V, Rth = 30 Ω 23. Consider the following statements:
NLC GET -24.11.2020 Superposition theorem is applicable to a linear
Ans. (c) : Apply KCL at node A network in determining
1. the current responses
2. the voltage responses
3. the power responses
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
VA − 125 V
+2+ A = 0 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
50 200 LMRC AM (S &T)-13.05.2018
4VA – 500 + 400 + VA = 0 IES-2005, 2001
5VA = 100 Ans. (a) : Superposition theorem - According to this
VA = 20V = Vth theorem the response in any element of linear, bilateral
50 × 200 network containing more than one sources is the sum of
Rth = = 40Ω the responses produced by the source each acting
250
21. Which of the following theorems/laws states independently. The superposition theorem does not
that "the average power in a periodic apply to the power responses. The power is proportional
waveform x(t) is the sum of powers in its to square of the current. Which is not a linear function.
harmonics"? 24. A linear element satisfies the property of :
(a) Kirchhoff's Law (a) Superposition and Homogeneity
(b) Paraseval's Theorem (b) Multiplicity and Superposition
(c) Maxwell's Theorem (c) Superposition
(d) Fourier's transform (d) Homogeneity
NLC GET -24.11.2020 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
Ans. (b) : Paraseval's relation for a periodic signal KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
relates total average power in the signal. AAI-2015
Ans. (a) : An element is said to be linear if it satisfies 29. A network contains linear resistors and ideal
homogeneity (scaling) properties and additive voltage sources. If values of all the resistors are
(superposition) property. doubled, then the voltage across each resistor is
It is linear element because its voltage current relation (a) halved (b) doubled
satisfies both homogeneity and additivity (super (c) increased four times (d) not changed
position) properties. GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
25. A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has a Ans. (d) : A network contains linear resistors and ideal
source impedance consisting of 1 Ω resistors in voltage sources. If values of all the resistors are
series with 1 H inductance. The load that will doubled, then the voltage across each resistor is not
obtain the maximum power transfer is changed. i.e remain constant.
(a) 1 Ω resistance 30. Thevenin resistance can be found by taking the
(b) 1 Ω resistance in parallel with 1 H inductance ratio (o.c = open circuit, s.c = short circuit, Vs =
(c) 1 Ω resistance in series with 1 F capacitor supply voltage, VL = load voltage)
(d) 1 Ω resistance in parallel with 1 F capacitor (a) Voc/Isc (b) Vsc/Ioc
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-I (c) Vs/Is (d) VL/IL
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 Ans. (a) : Vs = Supply voltage
GATE-2003
VL = load voltage
Ans. (c) : Given, ω = 1rad/sec, R = 1Ω , L = 1H Thevenin resistance (Rth) can be found by-
ZS = R + jωL R=1
V
ZS = 1 + j1 L=1 Rth = oc
For maximum power condition Isc
ZL = Z* 31. When a source is delivering maximum power
Z* = 1 – j1 to a load, the efficiency of the circuit
ZL = 1 – j1 (a) is always 50%
1 Ω resistance in series with 1F capacitor. (b) is always 75%
26. If the load connected to the source is inductive (c) depends on the circuit parameters
for maximum transfer of power from source to (d) none of these parameters
the load, the source impedance should be Mizoram PSC CTSE(Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
(a) Inductive (b) Capacitive TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
(c) Resistive (d) None of these Mizoram PSC AE/SDO -2012, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I Load power
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-II Ans. (a) : Power transfer efficiency =
Input power
Ans. (b) : For maximum power transfer load impedance
is a complex conjugate of a source impedance. Vth
Since I L =
th + R L
*
ZL = ZS R
Zs = R + jX L And PL = load power = I2L .R L
ZL = R − jX L  Vth 
2
Negative sign is indicate capacitive. Therefore PL =   × R L ........(i)

 R th + R L 
27. Which of the following statements is true
(a) Thevenin's and Norton theorem are one and Also Pinput = Vth × Load current (IL)
the same thing  Vth 
(b) Norton theorem is used to find the maximum. = Vth ×   ……………..(ii)
power transfer in a system  R th + R L 
(c) Short circuit flows through a load of zero For condition of maximum power transfer-
impedance R L = R th
(d) Thevenin's theorem results in a voltage source Equation (i) and (ii) become
only 2 2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I P = Vth and P = Vth
L i
Ans. (c) : Short circuit current flows through a load of 4R th 2R Th
zero impedance. 2
P V / 4R th
28. The Thevenin and Norton circuits are %η = L × 100 = th2 ×100
(a) Single frequency equivalent circuits Pi Vth / 2R th
(b) Multi frequency equivalent circuits η = 50%
(c) Equivalent independent of frequency
32. If all the elements in a particular network are
(d) Band frequency equivalent circuits
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 linear then the superposition theorem holds,
when the excitation is
Ans. (a) : The Thevenin and Norton circuits are single (a) dc (b) ac
frequency equivalent circuits. (c) dc or ac (d) impulse
Super position is different frequency circuit. Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Super-position theorem can be applied for Ans. (b) : Ideal voltage source =
both AC and DC excitation to calculate the voltage or
current. It holds for both DC and AC excitation, if
circuit is linear.
33. For what value of Vx such that maximum Ideal current source-
power is transferred from source to load
When both are connected in series
(a) 4 V (b) 2.5 V

(c) 7 V (d) 5 V
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
R th = ∞
Ans. (b) : Circuit can be redrawn as -
Vth = 0
ISC = I
From substitution theorem - We can replace a element if

we maintain same voltage at that terminal So it has a Norton's equivalent circuit.
With R N = ∞
35. For non-inverting adder, which theorem is
applicable to determine the expression for
(RL)eq = 100||(50 + RL) output voltage?
Then from maximum power transfer theorem - (a) Thevenin's (b) Norton's
(RL)eq = Rth .............(i) (c) Miller's (d) Superposition
For Rth - Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : For non-inverting adder, super position
theorem is applicable to determine the expression of
output voltage.
36. To check for the Reciprocity Theorem we
Rth = 50Ω consider _______ of response to excitation.
Then from equation (i) - (a) Ratio (b) Addition
100 ( 50 + R L ) (c) Product (d) Subtraction
= 50 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
100 + 50 + R L
100 + 2RL = 150+RL Ans. (a) : For the reciprocity theorem to satisfy the ratio
RL = 50Ω of response to the excitation of the circuit should be
Then, equal to the ratio of response to excitation after the
source is replaced.
37. A source has an emf of 10 volt and impedance
100Ω of 500 + j 100 ohm. The amount of maximum
power transferred to the load will be
10 10 (a) 0.5 mW (b) 0.05 mW
I= =
50 + (100 ||100 ) 50 + 50 (c) 0.25 mW (d) 0.05 W
1
I = A Ans. (d) : V = 10 volt
10 Zs = 500 + j100 Ω
I 1
and IL = = A V2 100
2 20 Pmax = th = = 0.05 watt
1 4R th 2000
Thus, Vx = ILRL = × 50
20 38. Norton's equivalent circuit
Vx = 2.5V (a) Is same as Thevenin's circuit
34. An ideal voltage and current sources are (b) Has no relation with Thevenin's circuit
connected in series. This combination will (c) Is dual of Thevenin's circuit
have- (d) Is reciprocal of Thevenin's circuit
(a) Both Thevenin and Norton equivalent Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I
(b) Norton but not Thevenin equivalent Ans. (c) : Thevenin's theorem is also known as the dual
(c) Neither Thevenin nor Norton equivalent of Norton's theorem because in Norton's theorem we
(d) Thevenin but not Norton equivalent find short circuit current which is the dual of open
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 circuit voltage as we find in Thevenin's theorem.
39. If an impedance ZL is connected across a Ans. (b) : As per Thevenin's theorem: if internal
voltage source V with source impedance Zs, impedances are not known, independent voltage and
then for maximum power transfer the load current sources will be replaced by short and open
impedance must be equal to circuit respectively.
(a) Source impedance Zs 44. The Thevenin’s impedance across the terminals
(b) Complex conjugate of Zs ab of the network shown below is
(c) Real part of Zs
(d) Imaginary part of Zs
Ans. (b) : (a) 2 Ω (b) 6 Ω
(c) 6.16 Ω (d) 4/3 Ω
Ans. (b) : Remove all independent source –
For maximum power transfer, the load impedance ZL

must be equal to the complex conjugate of the Thevenin
impedance or source impedance (Zs).
40. Reciprocity theorem is applicable to 45. The common voltage across parallel branches
(a) Linear networks only with different voltage sources can be
(b) Bilateral networks only determined by
(c) Linear/bilateral networks (a) Superposition theorem
(d) Neither of the two (b) Thevenin's theorem
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016 (c) Norton's theorem
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II (d) Millman's theorem
Ans. (c) : Reciprocity theorem applicable to RPCS Lect.-2011
Linear/bilateral networks. Ans. (d) : Millman's theorem states that in any circuit,
41. Compensation theorem is applicable to if the number of voltage sources is connected in series
(a) Linear networks only along with internal resistances in the circuit which are
(b) Nonlinear networks only in parallel, afterward these voltage sources may be
(c) Linear and non-linear networks changed through a single voltage source in series with a
resistance.
(d) Neither of the two
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II V G ± V2 G 2 ± ..... ± Vn G n
V= 1 1
Ans. (a) : Compensation theorem is applicable to linear G1 + G 2 + .......G n
time invariant network. In compensation theorem when 1 1
the resistor R is changed then current in all branches R= =
changed such that – G G1 + G 2 + .......G n
Vc = ∆R ⋅ I 46. The principles of homogeneity and
superposition can be applied to
42. Thevenin impedance ZTH is found (a) linear time-invariant systems
(a) By shorting the given two terminals (b) linear time variant systems
(b) Between any two open terminals (c) nonlinear time invariant systems
(c) By removing voltage sources along with the (d) nonlinear time variant systems
internal impedance RPCS Lect.-2011
(d) Between same open terminals as for VTH Ans. (a) : The principle of homogeneity and superposition
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II is applied to linear time invariant systems only.
Ans. (d) : Thevenin impedance ZTH is found 47. In a linear system, several sources acting
Between same open terminals as for VTH. simultaneously produce an effect which is sum
43. As per Thevenin's theorem: if internal of the separate effects caused by individual
impedances are not known, independent sources at a time. This is
voltage and current sources will: (a) Reciprocity theorem
(a) be replaced by open and short circuit (b) Superposition theorem
respectively (c) Millman theorem
(b) be replaced by short and open circuit (d) Norton's theorem
respectively RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
(c) will both be replaced by open circuit Ans. (b) : Superposition theorem is a circuit analysis
(d) will both be replaced by short circuit theorem that is used to solve the network where two or
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 more sources are present and connected.
48. Millman's theorem is best to find 51. The Norton equivalent to the network N to the
(a) Equivalent voltage source left of AB is a current source ISC = 5 Amp.
(b) Equivalent voltage and resistance of a circuit Upward (B to A) and Req = 2 ohm. A resistor R
(c) Equivalent voltage or current source is now connected across AB as shown in the
(d) None of the above figure. The current flowing through R is 2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I Amp. Then the value of R in ohms is
Ans. (c) : Millman's theorem is very useful to find out
voltage across the load and current through the load.
Hence this theorem is also known as parallel generator
theorem. (a) 6 (b) 3
49. The Thevenin impedance Zth between the (c) 2 (d) 1
nodes P and Q in the circuit is Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (b) :
1
(a) 1 (b) 1+s+ Above Norton's equivalent circuit
s
Shown, we have-
1 s2 + s + 1 Voltage across AB = 2×3 = 6V
(c) 2+s+ (d) 2
s s + 2s + 1 Now the value of R = ?
NIELIT Scientists- 2017 6
GATE-2008 R= = 3Ω
2
 1 
Ans. (a) : ZPQ = (1+ s) 1 +  52. Which one of the following theorems is a
 s manifestation of law of Conservation of
ZPQ = 2
( s + 1)( s + 1) energy?
( s + 2s + 1) (a) Tellegen's theorem
(b) Reciprocity theorem
( s + 1) (c) Thevenin's theorem
2
ZPQ = (d) Norton's theorem

( s + 1)
2
ZPQ = 1 IES-1993
50. Given Is = 10, Vs = 10, the current I in the 3 Ans. (a) :Tellegen's theorem is a expression of law of
ohm resistor is given by conservation of energy. The summation of
instantaneous power consumed by various element in
various branches is equal to zero for any network.
Tellegen's theorem depends on kirchhoff's law. This
theorem can be applied to the wide range of the network
having linear or non-linear, time variant or non-variant,
(a) –2 (b) 2 passive or active element.
(c) 4 (d) 6
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I 53. The power in the dependent source
Ans.(b): (a) 80W delivered (b) 80W Absorbed

Apply nodal at point 'V1' we have- (c) 40W delivered (d) 40W absorbed
V − 10 V1 AAI-2015
10 = 1 + Ans. (a) :
3 2
2V1 – 20 + 3V1 = 60
5V1 = 80
V1 = 16Volt
Now current in 3Ω
Resistor, we have-
V − 10 Apply Nodal at point V
I= 1 ( put V1 =16V ) V − 20 V 20
3 + − =0
I = 2A 5 5 5
V – 20 V – 20
+ =0
5 5
V − 20 V − 20 (c)
+ =0
5 5
2 ( V − 20 )
=0
5
2V = 40 (d)
V = 20 V
Power (P) = VI
Power = 4×20 = 80W
= 80 W delivered NPCIL-2015
54. Find RTh and VOC in the following network. Ans. (a) : Norton equivalent of the following circuit is
given below-
(a) 4Ω, 2V (b) 2Ω, 4V Norton's equivalent circuit consist a current source in
(c) 4Ω, 4V (d) 2Ω, 2V parallel with impedance .
NPCIL-2015 56. The Thevenin's equivalent circuit of the
GATE-2007 network shown in figure is across ab is
2i − V V V
Ans. (b) : +2 = +
1 1 2
3V
2i – V + 2 =
2
3V
+V – 2i = 2
2
3V (a) 1Ω (b) 2Ω
+ V– 2V = 2 ∵ V = i×1, V= i (c) 3Ω (d) 4Ω
2
3V
–V=2 Ans. (b) : For thevenin equivalent resistance short
2 circuit the independent voltage source and connect 1V
V = 4Volt (This is the open circuit voltage) source across terminal a-b
Now to find Rth Then-
V
Rth = th
ISC
from fig ISC = 2A
4
So, Rth = = 2Ω
2 1
55. Norton equivalent of the following circuit is I2 = A
6
1
⇒ 2I 2 = A
3
1 1 1 1
Thus I1 = I2 + = + = A
3 6 3 2
V
R= = 2Ω
(a) I
57.
.........
(b)
I = 0.998mA. then current flow through 2k?

(a) 0.535mA (b) 0.2495mA 59. Find the value of RL for maximum power
(c) 0.857mA (d) None transferred to the load
1 1 1 1
Ans. (b) : = + + + ...........
R eq 4k 8k 16k
1  1 1 
=  1 + + + ...... 
4k  2 4  (a) 29Ω (b) 8Ω
  (c) 20Ω (d) 9Ω
1  1  BARC Scientific Officer-2016
=  
4k  1 − 1  Ans. (b) :
 2
1
=
2k
Req = 2k
Now, given figure- For maximum power transfer to load, then
I1 R L = R th
1k 2k 2k 100
I R th = 20 || 5 + 4 = + 4 = 8Ω
25
RL = 8Ω
60. Superposition theorem can be applicable only
to circuits having______ elements
(a) Non- linear (b) Passive
(c) Resistive (d) Linear bilateral
Now, current in 2kΩ, flowing I1 is- RRB SSE 01.09.2015 Shit-I
2 UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
I× k
3 Ans. (d) : Superposition theorem can applicable only to
I1 = circuit having linear bilateral elements and is essentially
2
k + 2k based on the concept of linearity.
3
I 0.998 61. The internal resistance of a DC voltage source
= = = 0.2495 mA is 5Ω and a load resistance of RL is connected
4 4 to it. Maximum power will be transferred to
58. the load resistance when RL is equal to:
(a) 5 Ω (b) 2.5 Ω
(c) 0 Ω (d) ∞
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
Ans. (a) : When maximum power is transferred from
source to load, the load resistance should be equal to
source resistance.
Find RTh Hence. R L = R S
2 1 R L = 5Ω
(a) Ω (b) Ω
7 7
62. Calculate the current I in the following circuit
3 7
(c) Ω (d) Ω
7 2
Ans. (a) : Its figure changes into below we have -
(a) 5A (b) 12A
(c) 15A (d) 3A
DMRC AM S&T-2020
Ans. (d) :
Apply Kirchhoff's law we get
1V
i= = 1A
1Ω
1 7
I = i+2i+ A = A Apply KVL, we get
2 2 2I – 18+3 + 3I = 0
V 1 2 5I = 15
Rth = = Ω= Ω
I 7/2 7 I = 3A

63. Read the following statement a linear network 66. A circuit consists of two sources (voltage source
consisting of a number of voltage sources and & current source). If we are applying super
resistance can be replaced by an equivalent position theorem and finding the response
network having a single voltage source and a using current source then the Voltage source
single resistance. Which theorem does this can be treated as.
statement belongs to? (a) Short circuit
(a) Maximum power transfer theorem (b) Open circuit
(b) Ohm’s law (c) Either open circuit (or) short circuit depends
(c) Superposition theorem on situation
(d) Thevenin’s theorem (d) Acts as capacitor
DMRC AM S&T-2020 SAIL- 2014
Ans. (d) : According to Thevenin theorem a linear Ans. (a) : If we are applying super position theorem and
network consisting of a number of voltage source and finding the response using current source then the
resistance replaced by an equivalent network having a voltage source can be treated as short circuit and current
single voltage source and a single resistance. source can be treated as open circuit.
64. Find out the Thevenin equivalent for following 67. Thevenin's equivalent circuit consists of
circuit between two terminals a & b. ______.
(a) Series combination of RTh, ETh and RL
(b) Series combination of RTh, ETh
(c) Parallel combination of RTh, ETh
(d) Parallel combination of RTh, ETh and RL
Ans. (b) : Thevenin equivalent circuit consist of voltage
source (ETh) and in series with thevenin resistance (RTh)
68. The Norton equivalent admittance (in S) with
respect to terminals a-b of the circuit shown in
figure below is :
(a) 0.2 – j 0.4 (b) 0.1 – j 0.2

SAIL- 2014 (c) 1 – j 2 (d) 5 + j 2.5
Ans. (a) : To find Rth current source is replaced by DRDO-2009
open circuit and voltage source is replaced by short Ans. (a) :
circuit.
So, the equivalent circuit is -
To find the admittance across a-b terminal current

source open and 1A current source add at terminal a-b,
we have
65. For maximum power transfer to load, find the

value of ‘ZL’
Apply KCL at point 'V' we have-

V V
+ =1
(a) 35Ω (b) 12Ω 2 1j
(c) 7Ω (d) ∞ Ω Vj + 2V = 2j
SAIL- 2014 2j
Ans. (b) : For maximum power transfer to load circuit. V=
j+ 2
ZL = Z*S
2j
Thus,
j+ 2 j
ZL = 5+7 i1 = =
ZL = 12Ω 2 j + 2

Now voltage across 1A current source 71. In the network in figure, the Thevenin's
2j 3j 5j equivalent as seen by the load resistance RL is
V' = V + 3i1 = + =
j+ 2 j+ 2 j+ 2
V′ 5j
impedance (Z) = =
I 2+ j
1 2+ j
Thus Y = =
Z 5j (a) VTh = 10 V, RTh = 2 Ω
Y = (0.2 – 0.4j) mho (b) VTh = 10 V, RTh = 3 Ω
69. For the circuit shown in figure, a value of R (in (c) VTh = 15 V, RTh = 2 Ω
Ω) to which the voltage source would deliver (d) VTh = 15 V, RTh = 3 Ω
50% of the maximum deliverable power is DRDO-2008
Ans. (d) :
(a) 1 (b) 0.5

(c) 0.25 (d) 3– 8 For determining Rth, voltage source are short circuited,
BSNL(JTO)-2009 we get-
Ans. (d) : For maximum power delivers to load 4 ×12
resistance (R) = 1Ω Rth = = 3Ω
4 + 12
V2 1 For Vth
PR = = W
4R L 4
For 50% deliver power-
 R  R
VR =   ×1 =
 1+ R  1+ R
20
VR2 Vth = ×12
∵ PR = 16
R = 15V
2 72. A voltage source having a source impedance
1  R  1
× 50% =   Z S = R S + jXS can deliver maximum average
4 1+ R  R power to a load impedance ZL, when
1 R (a) ZL = R s + jX s (b) ZL = R s
=
8 1 + R 2 + 2R (c) ZL = jX s (d) ZL = R s − jX s
2
R + 2R + 1 = 8R
2
R – 6R + 1 = 0 RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016
IES-2015
6 ± 36 − 4 DRDO-2008
R= = 3± 8
2 GATE-2007
70. Consider the following statements regarding Ans. (d) : For maximum power transfer, load
duality: impedance is complex conjugate of source impedance
1. The dual networks are obtained for both ZL = Z*s Zs = R s + jX s
AC and DC circuits and they are based on Hence load impedance
Kirchhoff’s laws. ZL = R – jXS
2. Dual circuits are not obtained in planar
networks. 73. For a circuit containing linear dependent
3. Two networks are said to be dual networks if sources, the following holds in general :
mesh equations of one network have the (a) The superposition theorem cannot be applied
same form as the nodal equation of the other. (b) The solution requires the solving of multiple
Which of the above statements are correct? nonlinear equations
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) The Tellegen theorem does not apply
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) The superposition theorem is valid
ESE-2021 BSNL(JTO)-2002
Ans.(b) : (i) Dual networks are obtained for both AC Ans. (d) : The supperposition theorem is also valid for
and DC circuits and they are based on Kirchhoff’s laws. linear dependent source.
(ii) Dual circuits are obtained in planar networks. 74. Which one of the following statements
(iii) Since KVL is dual of KCL hence mesh equations of concerning Tellegen's theorem is correct?
one network have the same form as the nodal equation (a) It is useful in determining the effects in all
of the above. parts of a linear four-terminal network
(b) It is applicable for any lumped network have For Rth -
elements which are linear or nonlinear, active
or passive, time varying or time-invariant,
and may contain independent or dependent
sources
(c) It can be applied to a branch, which is not
coupled to other branches in a network
(d) It states that the sum of powers taken by all Apply KCL at node a
elements of a circuit with in constraints 0 − 1  0 −1 
+ 99  +I=0
1000 
imposed by KCL and KVL is non-zero.
IES-2016
1000 
−1 99
Ans. (b) : Tellegen's theorem-It is applicable for any − = −I
lumped network which are linear or non-linear, active 1000 1000
or passive, time varying or time-invariant and may −100
contain independent or dependent sources. This theorem 1000 = − I
is valid for any type of network so, KVL and KCL V 1
equations are valid. I = th = (Vth = 1V)
b R th 10
∑
n =1
vn in = 0
So, Rth = =
1 1
= 10Ω
b = No of branch. I 1/10
vn = voltage drop in nth branch. 76. A practical dc current source provides 20 kW
in = current in nth branch. to a 50Ω load and 20 kW to a 200Ω load. The
maximum power that can be drawn from it, is
75. For the network shown, Thevenin's equivalent (a) 22.5 kW (b) 30.3 kW
voltage source and resistance are, respectively: (c) 40.5 kW (d) 45.0 kW
IES-2015
Ans. (a) :
(a) 1 mV and 10Ω (b) 1 V and 1 kΩ

(c) 1 mV and 1 kΩ (d) 1 V and 10Ω Apply current division rule at load
IES-2016, 2012, 1995 I × RS
IRL = S
Ans. (d) : RS + R L
PR L = I 2R L R L
Is2 R s2 R L
=
( RS + R L )
2
When R L = 50Ω then PR L = 20kW

For Vth - IS2 R S2 50
20 = ......(i)
(R S + 50) 2
When R L = 200Ω then PR L = 20kW
IS2 R S2 200
20 =
(R S + 200)2
Compare equation (i) & (ii)
Apply Nodal analysis at node a – IS2 R S2 50 IS2 R S2 200
=
 1 − Vth  (R S + 50) 2 (R S + 200) 2
I1 + 99I1 = 0 ∵ I1 = 
 1  1 4
=
1 − Vth (1 − Vth ) (R s + 50) 2
(R s + 200)2
+ 99 =0
1 1 R s + 200
1–Vth + 99 –99Vth = 0 =2
R s + 50
100 Rs + 200 = 2Rs + 100
Vth = = 1V
100 Rs = 100Ω
For maximum power transfer to load RS = RL = 100Ω 79. Compensation theorem applicable to antennas
I2 × 1002 × 50 is also called as
20 = S (a) Millman's theorem
(100 + 50) 2 (b) superposition theorem
9 (c) substitution theorem
IS = kA (d) power transfer theorem
10 IES-2014
9 /10 × 1002
( )PR L
max
=
(100 + 100) 2
× 100 = 22.5 kW Ans. (c) : Substitution theorem- According
theorem any branch of a DC bilateral circuit can be
to this
77. Which of the following statements are correct replaced by combination of different circuit element but
association with the superposition theorem? the current & voltage across the branch remains
1. It is applicable to networks having more unchanged.
than one source.
2. It is used to determine the current in a
branch or voltage across branch.
3. It is applicable to direct current circuits
only. 80.
4. It is applicable to networks having linear
and bilateral elements.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network N is
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018 shown above (at terminals 1-1').
IES-2014, 2002 To determine the value of R
Ans. (b) : Superposition theorem- 1. all initial conditions are set to zero
♦ It is applicable to Network having linear and bilateral 2. all independent sources are turned off
element. 3. all controlled sources are turned off
♦ It is applicable to A.C and D.C Network Both. 4. small load connected to terminals 1-1'
♦ It is used to determine the current in a branch or (outside network N) is removed
voltage across branch. Which are correct statements:
♦ It is applicable to Network having more than one (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
source. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only
IES-2013
78. Tellegen's theorem {as applicable to any
lumped d.c. network, regardless of the elements Ans. (b) : (1) Temporarily remove the resistance
being linear or non-linear, time-varying or (Called load resistance RL) Whose current is required
time-invariant} implies that (2) Find the Open-circuit voltage which appears across
(a) sum of the voltage drops across each network the two terminals from where resistance has been
element is equal to the total voltage applied to removed. It is also called thevenin's voltage (Vth)
the network (3) Compute the resistance of the whole network as we
(b) sum of the powers taken by all elements, in looked into from these two terminals after all voltage
the network, with in the constraints imposed sources have been removed leaving behind their internal
by KCL and KVL is zero resistance. (if any) and current sources have been
(c) sum of the currents meeting at any node is not replaced by open circuit i.e. infinite resistance. It is also
the same as the current in that mesh called thevenin's resistance Rth.
(d) it is applicable to a branch which is not (4) Replace the entire Network by a single thevenin's
coupled to other branches of the network source, whose voltage is Vth or Voc and Whose internal
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 resistance is Rth or Ri.
IES-2014 81.
Ans. (b) : Tellegen's theorem - It is applicable for any
lumped network have element which are linear or non-
linear, active or passive, time varying or time-invariant
and may contain independent or dependent sources.
According to this theorem sum of the power taken by all
elements in the network, within the constrains imposed In the above circuit, the value of the load
by KCL and KVL is zero resistance R to absorb the maximum power is
b
(a) 14.14 Ω (b) 10 Ω
∑V i
n =1
n n =0
(c) 200 Ω (d) 28.28 Ω
b = No of branch. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)- 2018, Paper - I
Vn = Voltage drop in nth branch GATE-2013, 2001
In = Current in nth branch IES-2013, 2010
Ans. (a) : Ans. (d) :
For Rth-
As given that-
E = E m cos10t .....(i)
E = E m cos ωt .....(ii)
From eq. (i) and (ii)
ω = 10
XL = ωL = 1×10 = 10 Ω Rth = 80 +20
Z = R +jXL Rth = 100 Ω
Z = 10 +j10 For Vth-
For maximum power transfer-
R L = R 2 + X L2
R L = 100 + 100
R L = 10 2 = 10 ×1.414
RL = 14.14Ω
82. In the circuit, the value of the resistance RS
required for maximum power transfer from
the 10 V source to the 10Ω load is given by
Apply KVL-
Vth -20 ×2 −60 = 0
Vth = 100V
84. The maximum power that a 12 V DC source
with an internal resistance of 2 Ω can supply to
(a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω a resistive load is
(c) 0 Ω (d) 30 Ω (a) 72 W (b) 48 W (c) 24 W (d) 18 W
IES-2012 IES-2012, 2002
Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) : For maximum power
V2
= th (∵ RL = Rin = 2)
4R L
(12 )
2
144
= = 18W=
4×2 8
answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
If there is a variable resistance other than the load A. Superposition 1. Impedance
resistance, then the maximum power transfer theorem theorem matching in
cannot be applied and hence the resistance Rs should have audio circuits
minimum value i.e. zero for maximum power transfer. B. Thevenin's 2. Linear
83. In the circuit, Thevenin's voltage and theorem bilateral
resistance across the terminals XY will be networks
C. Kirchhoff's voltage 3. Large network
and current laws in which
currents in
few elements
to be
determined
D. Maximum power 4. Currents and
(a) 20 V and 100 Ω (b) 40 V and 93.33 Ω transfer theorem voltages in all
(c) 60 V and 93.33 Ω (d) 100 V and 100 Ω branches of a
IES-2012 network
Code: V
A B C D I= −2
(a) 1 4 3 2 5
(b) 2 4 3 1 V − 10
I= .....(i)
(c) 1 3 4 2 5
(d) 2 3 4 1 Apply KVL in equivalent circuit
IES-2011 V − Vth
Ans. (d) : I= ....(2)
Super position theorem - Linear bilateral network. R th
Thevenin's theorem - Large network in which Compare the equation (i) & (2)
current in few elements to be Vth = 10 , R th = 5Ω
determined 88. Which of the following statements are
Kirchhoff's voltage - Current and voltage in all associated with Thevenin's theorem?
and current laws branches of a network. 1. Impedance through which current is
Maximum power - Impedance matching in audio required is removed and open-circuit
transfer theorem circuit voltage is found.
86. A voltage source of 240 V having an internal 2. It is applicable to only d.c. circuits.
impedance of (3 – j4) Ω is supplying power to a 3. The network is replaced by a voltage
complex load impedance ZL. What will be the source and a series impedance remains
maximum power transferred to the load? after removing the load impedance.
(a) 2.4 kW (b) 3.6 kW Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) 4.8 kW (d) 6.0 kW below:
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
IES-2010 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) : As given that, IES-2008
V = 240V Ans. (b) : Thevenin's theorem: For any linear
Zs = (3–4j) electrical network containing voltage source, current
For maximum power transfer to load the condition is- source and resistance can be replaced at terminal by an
ZL = Z*s equivalent combination of a voltage source Vth in a
series connection with a resistance Rth.
Vth2 This theorem is not applicable for non-linear and
Pmax =
4R L unilateral element
Thevenin theorem is applicable for both A.C and D.C.
=
( 240 )2
= 4800W = 4.8kW
4×3
87. For the network shown below; I = (0.2 V – 2) A,
(I = the current delivered by the voltage source
V). The Thevenin voltage Vth and resistance Rth
for the network N across the terminals AB are
respectively 89. What are the source voltage and source
resistance, respectively for the Thevenin's
equivalent circuit as seen from the terminals
indicated in the circuit given below?
(a) – 10V, 5 Ω (b) 10V, 5 Ω

(c) – 10V, 0.2 Ω (d) 10V, 0.2 Ω
IES-2010
Ans. (b) : As given that (a) 2.0 V, 24 Ω (b) 20 V, 48 Ω
I = (0.2V−2)A (c) 20 V, 4.8 Ω (d) 20 V, 12 Ω
IES-2010, 2007
Ans. (b) :
(i) For Vth

VAB = Vth

40 ×100
VB = = 40V
100
60 × 100
VA = = 60V
100
Vth = VAB = VA −VB = 60 − 40 = 20V
(ii) For Rth-
⇒ Rth = 4 6 12
1 1 1 1
= + +
R th 4 6 12
3+ 2 +1
=
12
6
=
12
 40 × 60 
Rth = 2   = 48Ω 1
=
1
 100 
R th 2
90. What is the Thevenin resistance seen from the
terminals AB of the circuit shown in the figure Rth = 2Ω
below?
91. What is the value of R required for maximum

power transfer in the network shown below?
(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω
(c) 8 Ω (d) 12 Ω
IES-2007
Ans. (a) : (a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω
(c) 8 Ω (d) 16 Ω
GATE -2012
IES-2007
FOR Rth -
⇓
Maximum power transfer to R

∴ [Rth = R]

20 × 5 93. A network with independent sources and
R th = 4 + resistors shown below in figure (a) has a
25
Rth = 4 + 4 Thevenin voltage VT and Thevenin resistance
Rth = 8Ω RT. What are the Norton equivalent current IN
Maximum power transfer condition- and resistance RN in the figure (b)?
R = Rth
∴ R = Rth = 8Ω
92. The terminal volt-ampere conditions of a linear
reciprocal network N are shown in the figure
(a). What is the current I corresponding to the
terminal conditions shown in the figure (b)?
VT RTRL
(a) ,
 RTRL  RT + RL
(a) – 1 A (b) 9 A  
(c) 10 A (d) 11 A  RT + RL 
IES-2006 V
Ans. (d) : As given that- (b) T , R N = R T
RT
VT
(c) , RN = RL
RT
IES-2006
Ans. (b) :
Apply reciprocity theorem-

Response
= constant
Excitation Thevenins equivalent circuit-
12 30
=
4 I1
I1 = 10A
Considering 6V source-
By using source transformation then equivalent circuit-
12 −6
=
2 − I1′
I′1 = 1A VT
IN =
I = I1 + I′1 RT
= 10 + 1 = 11A RN = RT

94. If two identical 3A, 4 Ω Norton equivalent (a) 5 Volt source in series with 10 Ω resistor
circuits are connected in parallel with like (b) 7 Volt source in series with 2.4 Ω resistor
polarity, the combined Norton equivalent (c) 15 Volt source in series with 2.4 Ω resistor
circuit will be: (d) 1 Volt source in series with 10 Ω resistor
(a) 3A, 8Ω (b) 6A, 8Ω IES-2002
(c) 0A, 2Ω (d) 6A, 2Ω Ans. (b) :
IES-2005
Ans. (d) :
Norton equivalent circuit-

When, 5V source is short circuited then-
I = 1A
When 10V source is short circuited then-
1
ISC = I N = 3 + 3 I' = A
2
= 6A 1 1
Rth = 4 4 So, the total current in 10V source I = 1 − =
2 2
4×4 1
= I= A
8 2
Rth = 2Ω 1
VA − 10 + 6 × − VB = 0
95. Consider the following properties of a 2
particular network theorem: VA − VB = 7
1. The theorem is not concerned with type of
VAB = Vth=7V
elements.
For Rth -
2. The theorem is only based on the two
Kirchhoff's laws.
3. The reference directions of the branch
voltages and currents are arbitrary except
that they have to satisfy Kirchhoff's laws.
Which one of the following theorems has the
above characteristics? Rth = 6||4
6× 4
(b) Norton's theorem R th = = 2.4Ω
(c) Tellegen's theorem 6+4
IES-2005
Ans. (c) : Tellegen's theorem- It is applicable for any
lumped network have element which are linear or non-
linear, active or passive, time varying or time-invariant
and may contain independent or dependent sources.
According to this theorem sum of the power taken by all So circuit have 7V voltage source with 2.4Ω in series
elements in the network within the constrains imposed resistance.
by KCL and KVL is zero. It is energy conservation 97. In the circuit shown in the given figure. RL will
theorem. absorb maximum power when its value is
b
∑V i
n =1
n n =0
b = No of branch
96. In the circuit given below, viewed from AB, the
circuit can be reduced to an equivalent circuit
as
(a) 2.75Ω (b) 7.5Ω

(c) 25Ω (d) 27Ω
IES-2001
Ans. (c) : 4 20
I" = 5 × = A
19 19
According to super position theorem-
I = I'+I"
56 20 76
= + = = 4A
19 19 19
Power dissipation in 5Ω.
= 42 × 5
= 16×5
= 80 watts
1. Tellegen's theorem is applicable to any
lumped network.
2. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to
linear bilateral networks.
Rth = 10 +15 3. Thevenin's theorem is applicable to two
= 25Ω terminal linear active networks
4. Norton's theorem is applicable to two-
terminal linear active networks
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
For maximum power transfer condition-
IES-2000
R L = R th
Ans. (b) : Tellegen's theorem- This theorem is valid
∴ R L = 25Ω for any lumped network which may be linear or non-
98. In the circuit shown in the given figure, power linear active or passive, time varying or time invariant.
dissipated in the 5Ω resistor is Reciprocity theorem- In any linear network consisting
of linear and bilateral impedance and active source then
the ratio of voltage V introduced in one loop to the
current I in the other loop is same as the ratio obtained
if the position of V and I are interchanged in the
network.
Thevenin's Theorem- This theorem is applicable for
(a) zero (b) 80 W any linear electrical network containing only voltage
(c) 125 W (d) 405 W source and resistance can be replaced at terminal by an
IES-2001 equivalent combination of a voltage source Vth in series
Ans. (b) : connection with a resistance Rth.
This theorem is not applicable when network has non-
linear element and unilateral element.
Norton's Theorem- This theorem is applicable for any
linear electrical network containing only current source
and resistance can be replaced at terminal by an
equivalent combination of a current source IN in parallel
Applying superposition theorem with a resistance Rth.
When 4A current source is considered- This theorem is not applicable when network has non-
Then 5A source will be open circuit- linear element and unilateral element.
100. Which one of the following theorems can be
conveniently used to calculate the power
consumed by the 10Ω resistor in the network
shown in the figure below?
14 56
I′ = 4 × = A
19 19
When 5A current source is considered-
Then 4A current source is open circuit
(b) Maximum power transfer theorem
(c) Millman's theorem
IES-2000
Ans. (d) : When two voltage sources are given in the Ans. (d) :
circuit then, according to super position theorem the
response in any element of a linear, bilateral RLC
network containing more than one independent voltage
or current source is the algebraic sum of responses
produces by the independent source when each of them
acting alone then all other independent voltage source
are short circuit and all other independent current source
are open circuit. In this circuit resistor 30Ω dissipates maximum power
101. The resistance 'R' looking into the terminals when variable resistance R is minimum or zero
AB in the circuit shown in the figure will be 103. If a resistance 'R' of 1Ω is connected across the
terminals AB as shown in the given figure, then
the current flowing through R will be
(a) 0.5 Ω (b) 2 Ω

(c) 3 Ω (d) 7 Ω
IES-1999
Ans. (d) : (a) 1 A (b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.25 A (d) 0.125 A
IES-1999
Ans. (c) :
⇓
Vi = Apply voltage source at A and B terminal
According to super position theorem

When current source is open circuit-
Apply KVL in loop -1

VCD +1 I1 = 0
Apply KVL in loop -2
− V1 + I1 − 5VCD + I1 = 0
− V1 + I1 + 5I1 + I1 = 0 (5VCD = –5I1)
V1 = 7I1 At balanced bridge condition the I1 = 0 A
V1 When voltage source is short circuit-
= 7Ω
I1
[ R = 7Ω]
102. In the circuit shown in the figure, the power
dissipated in 30 Ω resistor will be maximum if
the value of R is
Apply current division rule

(a) 30Ω (b) 16Ω 0.5
I2 = × 1 = 0.25A
(c) 9Ω (d) zero 2
IES-1999 total current = 0 + 0.25A = 0.25A
104. A dc current source is connected as shown in Ans. (b) : Assume thevenin’s voltage is Vth and
Fig.1 thevenin’s resistance is Rth
Vth = 5(R th + 1)
Vth = 5 R th + 5 ....(i)
The Thevenin's equivalent of the network at
terminals a – b.
(a) will be
Vth – 7Rth–2 = 0
Vth = 7R th + 2
Vth value is put in equation (i)
(b) will be
7R th + 2 = 5R th + 5
2R th = 3
R th = 1.5Ω
From equation (i)
Vth = 7.5 + 5
(c) will be Vth = 12.5V
106. The Thevenin equivalent of the network shown
in Fig. I is 10 V is in series with resistance of
2Ω. If now, a resistance of 3Ω is connected
across AB as shown in Fig. II, the Thevenin
equivalent of the modified network across AB
will be:
(d) is NOT feasible
IES-1998
Ans. (d) :
for thevenin's resistance (Rth)- (a) 10 V in series with 1.2 Ω resistance.

(b) 6 V in series with 1.2 Ω resistance
(c) 10 V in series with 5 Ω resistance
(d) 6 V in series with 5 Ω resistance.
IES-1997
Ans. (b) :
We cannot find Vth at port a-b, because it is not satisfy
KVL equation.
105. A battery charger can drive a current of 5 A
into a 1 ohm resistance connected at its output
terminals. If it is able to charge an ideal 2V
battery at 7 A rate, then its Thevenin's
equivalent will be
(a) 7.5 V in series with 0.5 ohm
(b) 12.5 V in series with 1.5 ohm
(c) 7.5 V in parallel with 0.5 ohm
(d) 1.25 V in parallel with 1.5 ohm
IES-1998
For thevenin's voltage (Vth) -
When i = 0 then circuit opened-

3 Vth = VAB = 4V
Vth = Voc = 10 × = 6V
3+ 2 Vth = 4V
For thevenin's Resistance (Rth):- For Rth -
Network has only resistor therefore voltage and current
must be linear.
E = mi +C
m = Slope
C = intercept
Rth = 3||2 E 2 − E1 8 − 4
m= = =4
2×3 i 2 − i1 1− 0
Rth =
5 C = E|i=0 = 4
6 E = 4i +4
Rth = = 1.2Ω
5
Vth = 6,
for iSC :-
E=0
4i+4=0
107. Substitution Theorem applies to i = -1A
(a) linear networks iSC = –1A
(b) nonlinear networks V 4
(c) linear time-invariant networks R th = th = = 4Ω
iSC 1
(d) any networks
IES-1996 109. The value of the resistance R in the circuit
Ans. (c) : Substitution theorem- According to this shown in the given figure is varied in such a
theorem any branch of a DC bilateral circuit can be manner that the power dissipated in the 3 ohm
replaced by combination of different circuit element but resistor is maximum. Under this condition, the
the current & voltage across the branch remain value of R will be
unchanged.
(a) 3 Ω (b) 9 Ω
108. In the network shown in the given figure (c) 12 Ω (d) 6 Ω
current i = 0 when E = 4V, I = 2A and i = 1A IES-1996
when E = 8V, I = 2A. The Thevenin voltage and
the resistance looking into the terminals AB are Ans. (a) :
I
(a) 4 V, 2 Ω (b) 4 V, 4 Ω
(c) 8 V, 2Ω (d) 8V, 4 Ω When current through 3Ω register is maximum then
IES-1996 maximum power will be dissipated in resistance.
Ans. (b) : V
I m ax =
R eq
Req = (6 || R+3) Ω
for maximum current Req should be minimum
R should be as low as possible
According to the option (a) is correct.
∴ [R =3Ω]

110. Which one of the following impedance values of For Rth-
load will cause maximum power to be
transferred to the load for the network shown
in the given figure?
Vth 1
R th = =
(a) (2 + j2) Ω (b) (2 – j2) Ω I2 I2
(c) –j2 Ω (d) 2 Ω I2 = –I1 ………………………..(i)
IES-1995 Apply KVL in outer loop
Ans. (d) : For maximum power transfer the load −1 − 10 ×1.8I1 − 6I1 = 0
impedance (ZL)should be complex conjugate of the
equivalent thevenin resistance (Zth) across the load −24I1 = 1
terminal. 1
I1 = −
 ZL = Z*th  24
From equation (i)-
1
∴ I2 =
24
1 1
R th = = = 24Ω
I 2 1/ 24
For Vth-
Zth = ( 2 + j2 ) ( − j2 )  + j2 I1 = 0 for open circuit-
− j2 ( 2 + 2 j)
Zth = + j2
2 + j2 − j2
⇒ Zth = −2 j + 2 + j2
Zth = (2 +0j)Ω
ZL = Z*th = 2Ω (for maximum power transfer) equivalent circuit Vth = 40V
111. Thevenin's equivalent circuit of the network
shown in the given figure, between terminals T1
and T2 is
using the codes given below the list:
List-I List-II
(Properties of (Relevant theorems)
Network)
A. Linearity 1. Superposition
B. Structure 2. Norton's
C. Equivalent 3. Tellegen's
(a) circuit
D. Bilateral 4. Reciprocity
5. Millman's
(b) Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) (c) 2 3 4 5
(d) 1 3 5 2
IES-1994
(d) Ans. (b) :
Superposition theorem is used for linear element
IES-1994 circuit. It can not calculate power because power is
Ans. (a) : nonlinear.
Reciprocity theorem used for linear, passive and
bilateral network.
Thevenin's and Nortons's theorem are applicable to
find equivalent circuit.
Tellegen's theorem used for structure. It is linear,
nonlinear theorem.
113. "In any network of linear impedances, the 115. If the networks shown in figures I and II are
current flowing at any point is equal to the equivalent at terminals A-B, then the value of
algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at V (in volts) and Z (in ohms) will be
that point by each of the sources of emf taken
separately with all other emf's reduced to zero.
This statements represents.
(a) Kirchhoff's law
(b) Norton's theorem
(c) Thevenin's theorem
IES-1993
Ans. (d) : Superposition theorem-According to this
theorem the response in any element of linear, bilateral
network containing more than one source is the sum of the
responses produced by the source each acting
independently. The superposition theorem does not apply
to the power responses because power is non linear. V Z
114. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 100 12
answer using the codes given below the lists: (b) 61 12
List-I (Network List-II (Most (c) 100 30
Theorems) distinguished property (d) 60 30
of networks) IES-1993
A. Reciprocity 1. Impedance Ans. (c) :
Matching
B. Tellegen's 2. Bilateral
C. Superposition 3. b
∑ v jk (t1 )i jk (t 2 ) = 0
k =0
D. Maximum 4. Linear
power
Transfer
5. Non-linear
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 5
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 5 1
IES-1993 for Rth-
Ans. (c) : Reciprocity- In any linear network consisting
of linear and bilateral impedance and active sources, the
ratio of voltage V introduced in one loop to the current I
in the other loop is same as the ratio obtained if the
position of V and I are interchanged in the network.
Rth = 30Ω
response
For Vth
Response
= constant
Excitation
I2 I
= 1 , Z12 = Z21
V1 V2
Superposition theorem→ It is applicable to the response
in any element of linear, bilateral RLC network.
Tellegen's Theorem- According to this theorem the
No current is flowing through 30Ω due to circuit is
algebraic sum of power at any instant in circuit is zero.
b open.
∑V
k =0
JK (t1 ) i JK (t 2 ) = 0 VA − 30 × 0 − 100 − VB = 0
VA − VB = 100V
Maximum power theorem → This theorem is used for
impedance matching. VAB = 100V

116. Find the Norton's equivalent of the circuit Ans. (a) :
given below:
5 5 Applied voltage division rule-

(a) A, 2Ω (b) A,1Ω
2 2 1000
VA = × 10
2 2 1000 + 1000
(c) A,1Ω (d) A, 2Ω
5 5 VA = 5V
IES-1992
1020
Ans. (d) : VB = 10 ×
1000 + 1020
VB = 5.049V
V0 = VB − VA
V0 = 5.049 − 5 = 0.049V
V0 = 49mV
118. The value of Rx so that power dissipated in it is
maximum, is
4
R AB = R N = ( 3 || 2 ) +
5
R N = 2Ω (a) 33.4 K (b) 17.6 K
(c) 10 K (d) 5 K
Voltage divider rule is applied in network- TNTRB AE– 2017
2× 2 IES-1992
Vth =
5 Ans. (c) :
4
Vth = V
5
Thevenin network-
Voltage source is short circuited-
Converts in Norton theorem-
4 2
ISC = = A
5× 2 5
117. A Wheatstone bridge is shown with resistance
thermometer connected in one arm at 20ºC. At
20º, resistance of thermometer = 1020Ω. the
output voltage will be
5.2 × 7.1 10.9 ×19.4

R th = +
5.2 + 7.1 10.9 + 19.4
Rth = 10kΩ
(a) 49 mV (b) 51 mV For maximum power transfer condition
(c) 4.9 mV (d) 4.5 mV Rx = Rth
IES-1992 ∴ Rx= 10kΩ
119. Find the current in RL in the circuit below: For maximum power transfered the condition is-
R = Rth
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A

(c) 0.33 A (d) 2 A
IES-1992 ⇓
Ans. (c) :
Apply nodal in network

2 − V 1− V 0−V
+ +1+ =0
1 1 1
2 − V +1− V +1 = V
4 = 3V 12 × 14
R th = = 6.46Ω ≃ 6.5Ω
4 26
V = Volt
3 For maximum power transfer condition
Current flows in RL- R = Rth
[R = 6.5Ω]
1− V
IL = 121. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit
1 is:
4
IL = 1 −
3
1
IL = − A
3
Negative sign denote current flows in reverse so,
1
IL = A
3
I L = 0.33A
120. In the lattice network, find the value of R for
the maximum power transfer to the load IES-1992
Ans. (c) : Apply millman's theorem-
⇓
(a) 5 (b) 6.5
(c) 8 (d) 9
IES-1992
Ans. (b) :
V V V
+ +
V1 = R R R
1 1 1
+ +
R R R
1 1 1 Ans. (b) : The power transfer from source to load and
V + +  rate of heat dissipation is maximum when power
V1 = 
R R R transfer is maximum.
1 1 1 So,
 + +  For maximum power transfer
R R R
V1 = V Load resistance = Thevenin resistance
Req = R||R||R RL = r
Req = R/3 RL = 4Ω
Equivalent circuit-
V 24
∴ I= = = 3A
RL + r 4 + 4
When current to be I/2 then RL-
V
I′ =
r + RL
122. In the fig, shown, if we connected a source of 3 24  ′ I
2V, with internal resistance of 1Ω at A'A with 2 = r + R ∵ I = 2 
L
positive terminal at A', then the current
through R will be 3r + 3R L = 48
3R L = 48 − 12
36
RL =
3
R L = 12Ω
124. The value of R which will enable the circuit to
deliver maximum power to the terminals a and
(a) 2 A (b) 1.66 A b in the following circuit diagram is
(c) 1 A (d) 0.625 A
IES-1992
5 5
(a) ohms (b) ohms
9 8
5 5
(c) ohms (d) ohms
6 3
Apply nodal in network IES-1991
1− V 2 − V V Ans. (c) :
+ =
2 1 2
1–V+4–2V=V
5 = 4V
5
V= V
4
Current flows in R
All current source is open circuit and all voltage source
V 5 5
I= = = A is short circuit.
2 4× 2 8
I= 0.625A
123. A 24 V battery of internal resistance r = 4 ohm
is connected to a variable resistance R. The
rate of heat dissipation in the resistor is 5
R th = 5 ||1 = Ω
maximum when the current drawn from the 6
battery is I. Current drawn from the battery For maximum power transfer-
will be (I/2), when R is equal to R=Rth
(a) 8 ohms (b) 12 ohms 5
(c) 16 ohms (d) 20 ohms R= Ω
IES-1992 6
125. Obtain potential of node B with respect to node For Zth-
G in the network shown in the figure.
Zth = (3+j4) || (−5j)

( 3 + 4 j)( −5j) ( 3 + 4 j)( −5j) × 3 + j
64 = =
(a) V (b) 1 V 3− j 3− j 3+ j
63
63 32 =
( −15j + 20 ) × ( 3 + j)
(c) V (d) V 10
64 63
IES-1991 = −45 j + 60 + 15 + 20 j
Ans. (a) : 10
75 − 25j
= = 7.5 − 2.5 j
10
Zth = (7.5−2.5j) Ω
Impedance of the speaker (ZAB) = Z*th
= (7.5 + 2.5j)Ω
127. What is the value of R so that i = 2A?
Apply KCL at node 'B'

VB − 32 VB + 16 VB − 8 VB + 4
+ + +
32 16 8 4
VB − 2 VB  Assume 
+ + =0  
2 64  VG = 0  (a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω
2VB − 64 + 4VB + 64 +8VB − 64 +16VB + 64 + 32VB − 64 + VB = 0 (c) 40 Ω (d) 60 Ω
IES-1991
63VB − 64 = 0 Ans. (d) :
64
VB = V
63
126. A loud speaker is connected across terminals A
and B of the network illustrated. What should
its impedance be to obtain maximum power
dissipation in it? Apply nodal in network-
40 − V
10 − 2 + =0
10
80 + 40 − V = 0
V = 120V
V
R=
I
(a) 3 – j1 (b) 3 + j9 120
(c) 7.5 + j2.5 (d) 7.5 – j2.5 R= = 60Ω
IES-1991 2
Ans. (c) : 128. The value of the resistance, R, connected across
the terminals, A and B, (ref. Fig), which will
absorb the maximum power, is
For maximum power transfer to load. (a) 4.00 kΩ (b) 4.11 kΩ

 ZAB = Z*th  (c) 8.00 kΩ (d) 9.00 kΩ
GATE-1995
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c) : All voltage sources should be short circuited
and all current source is open circuit
5 × 20
Rth = ( 5 20 ) + 4 ⇒ +4
25
= 4 + 4 = 8Ω
Rth = 8Ω
R = Rth
3× 6 4 × 4
R AB = ( 3 6 ) + ( 4 4 ) ⇒ + R = 8Ω
9 8 131. Use the data of the figure (a). The current I in
RAB = 2 + 2 the circuit of the figure (b)
RAB = 4kΩ
Rth = RAB = 4kΩ
RAB = Rth
∴ RAB = 4kΩ
129. The Thevenin equivalent voltage VTH
appearing between the terminals A and B of
the network shown in the figure is given by (a) –2 A (b) 2 A
(c) –4 A (d) +4 A
GATE-2000
Ans. (c) : According to reciprocity theorem
(a) j16(3–j4) (b) j16(3+j4)

(c) 16(3+j4) (d) 16(3–j4)
GATE-1999
Ans. (a) : 100 ∠0° is parallel to 2j and - 6j impedance
both the impedance can be neglected.

100∠0º × j4
Vth =
3 + j4
So, k = −2
100 × j4 ( 3 − j4 ) i = −4A
Vth =
25 132. In the network of the figure, the maximum
Vth = j16 ( 3 − j4 ) power is delivered to RL if its value is
130. The value of R (in ohms) required for
maximum power transfer in the network
shown in the figure is
40
(a) 16 Ω (b) Ω
(a) 2 (b) 4 3
(c) 8 (d) 16 (c) 60 Ω (d) 20 Ω
GATE-1999 GATE-2002
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c) :
Rth = 100Ω
RL = Rth
RL = 100Ω
( V ) 10 ×10
2
Pmax = th =
4R L 4 × 100
Pmax = 0.25 W
134. For the circuit shown in the figure, Thevenin's
Let V = 1V is connected across terminal AB voltage and Thevenin's equivalent resistance at
terminals a-b is
Apply nodal analysis- (a) 5 V and 2 Ω (b) 7.5 V and 2.5 Ω

Vth (c) 4 V and 2 Ω (d) 3 V and 2.5 Ω
R th =
I GATE-2005
1 Ans. (b) :
0.5I1 + I = + I1
20
1
0.5I1 = I −
20
V 1
0.5   = I −
 
40 20
V 1
= I− for Rth, current source open circuited
80 20
1 1
+ =I
80 20
5
I= A
80
1
I= A
16 5× 5
R th = = 2.5Ω
Rth = 16Ω 10
For maximum power transfer condition Find Vab
RL = Rth
RL = 16Ω
133. The maximum power that can be transferred
to the load resistor RL from the voltage source
in the figure is
Apply nodal analysis-
V V − 10
1 = ab + ab
5 5
Vab + Vab − 10
1=
5
(a) 1 W (b) 10 W 15
= Vab
(c) 0.25 W (d) 0.5 W 2
GATE-2005 Vab = Vth = 7.5V
135. In the circuit shown, what value of RL 136. In the circuit shown below, the Norton
maximizes the power delivered to RL? equivalent current in amperes with respect to
the terminals P and Q is
8 (a) 6.4 – j 4.8 (b) 6.56 – j 7.87

(a) 2.4 Ω (b) Ω
3 (c) 10 – j 0 (d) 16 + j 0
(c) 4 Ω (d) 6 Ω Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
GATE-2009 GATE-2011
Ans. (c) : Ans. (a) :
Vx is change in 4Ω Resistance
For Rth
Independent voltage get short-circuited and dependent
source are unaffected.
Apply current division rules-

16∠0º ×25 400 ( 40 − j30 )
ISC = =
40 + j30 2500
16000 12000
= −j
2500 2500
ISC = 6.4 – j4.8
1 Norton current is-
Rth =
I ⇒ IN = ISC = 6.4 – j4.8
Vx = 4 (I – I1) ......(i)
137. The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in
1 = 8 (I – I1) ......(ii)
Apply KVL in loop- the given circuit is
–8 (I – I1) + Vx + 4 I1 = 0
– 8I + 8I1 + Vx + 4I1 = 0
Vx – 8I + 12I1 = 0
Vx = 8I – 12I1 ......(iii)
On solving equation (i) & (iii) we get
I = 2I1
From equation (ii)
1 = 8 (2I1 – I1) (a) 50 Ω (b) 100 Ω
1 = 8I1
(c) 5 kΩ (d) 10.1 kΩ
1
I1 = A GATE-2012
8 Ans. (a) : As given that,
1
I= A
4
1
Rth = = 4Ω
1/ 4
RL = Rth
RL = 4Ω

Equivalent circuit for Rth For thevenin impedance-
A voltage source 1V is connected across 1 & 2 Node.
Zth = R
So, modified circuit is
1 1
Ib = − ; R th =
10000 I
On applying KCL at Node we get
1  −1  1 Current in the circuit is-
− + 99 ×   +I =
10000  10000  100 10 − 3
I=
−
1
−
99
+I =
1 2+R
10000 10000 100 So,
100 1 Power delivered to circuit B by circuit A
− +I= P = (I)2 R + 3I
10000 100 2
1 1  10 − 3   10 − 3 
+ =  R + 3
 2 + R 
I=
100 100  2+R 
2 (7) 2 3× 7
I= A P= ×R +
100 (2 + R)2 2+R
1 49R + 21(2 + R)
I= A =
50 (2 + R) 2
1
Rth = = 50Ω 49R + 42 + 21R
1/ 50 =
(2 + R)2
138. Assuming both the voltage sources are in
phase, the value of R for which maximum 42 + 70R
P=
power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B (2 + R)2
is dP
P is maximum when =0
dR
dP 70(2 + R)2 − 2(R + 2)(42 + 70R)
=
dR (2 + R)2
= (2+R) [140 + 70R – 84 – 140R] = 0
56 – 70R = 0
56
R= = 0.8Ω
(a) 0.8 Ω (b) 1.4 Ω 70
(c) 2 Ω (d) 2.8 Ω 139. In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage
GATE-2012 Vs = 100∠53.13ºV then the Thevenin's
Ans. (a) : As given that, equivalent voltage in Volts seen by the load
resistance RL is
(a) 100∠90º (b) 800∠0º

(c) 800∠90º (d) 100∠60º
Thevenin equivalent of circuit B we have to find Vth &
GATE-2013
Rth
Ans. (c) :
For thevenin voltage-

Vth = 3∠0V because R & –j1Ω is parallel
j 40 I2 = 0 141. In the circuit shown below, Vs is constant
I2 = 0 (as port 2 is open circuited) voltage source and IL is a constant current
Vs × j4 100∠53.13º load.
VL1 = = × 4∠90º
3 + j4 5∠53.13º
VL1 = 80∠90º
Vth = 10 VL1 + I2 j6 + I2 × 5
Vth = 10 × 80∠90º + 0 × j6 + 0 × 5
The value of IL that maximizes the power
Vth = 800∠90º V absorbed by the constant current load is
140. In the given circuit, the maximum power (in Vs Vs
Watts) that can be transferred to the load RL (a) (b)
is………. 4R 2R
V
(c) s (d) ∞
R
GATE-2016
Ans. (b) : In maximum power, half of the voltage drop
V
across load resistance E drop = source
2
(a) 2.45 (b) 4.56
V
(c) 1.66 (d) 6.78 I L .R = S
APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017 2
GATE-2015 I = Vs
L
Ans. (c) For maximum power transfer condition- 2R
RL = |Zth| 142. Consider the two-port resistive network shown
in the figure. When an excitation of 5 V is
applied across Port 1, and Port 2 is shorted, the
current through the short circuit at Port 2 is
measured to be 1 A (see) (a) in the figure).
Now, If an excitation of 5 V is applied across
Port 2, and port 1 is shorted (see (b) in the
2 × j2 j4 j4 ( 2 − j2 ) figure), what is the current through the short
Zth = = ⇒ = 1+ j circuit at port 1?
2 + j2 2 + j2 ( 2 + j2 )( 2 − j2 )
Zth = 2∠45° Ω
For finding Vth
4∠0o × j2 4∠0o × 2∠90o

Vth = =
2 + j2 2 + j2
8∠90o 8
= = ∠45o
8∠45 o
8
= 2.82∠45° V
(a) 0.5 A (b) 2. 5 A
(c) 1 A (d) 2 A
GATE-2019
Ans. (c) : According to reciprocity theorem -
Excitation
= Constant
Vth 2.82∠45o Re sponse
Now Current I = = 5 5
R th + R L 2∠45o + 2 =
1 I
By solving I = 1. 08∠22.5oA I = 1A
Then power = I2R (Excitation to response always constant (same) either
= (1.08)2 × 2 = 1.649 Watt position inter changed)
143. In the circuit shown below, the Thevenin's Ans. (a) : RN :- (10V short circuited)
voltage VTh is
(a) 2.8 V (b) 3.6 V

(c) 2.4 V (d) 4.5 V
GATE-2020
Ans.(b) As given that, Short the terminal a and b for IN-
VA − 10
Apply KCL at node A :- = 2i x − I N
By using source transformation- 5
−10
⇒ = 2i x − i N ( VA = 0 )
5
10 −10 10
But i x = A ⇒ = 2 × − iN
4 5 4
20 10 i N = 7A
iN = + = 5 + 2 = 7A
4 5 R N = 5Ω
145.
By using source transormation-
For Thevenin’s theorem, find VTh at terminals

a-b.
(a) 6V (b) 12V
(c) 15V (d) 20V
6 18 Ans. (d) :
Vth = 3 × =
5 5
Vth = 3.6 Volt
144.
Using Norton’s theorem, the values of RN

and IN at the terminals a and b are
respectively.
(a) 5Ω and 7A (b) 7Ω and 5A Apply KCL at node-A :-
(c) 2.5Ω and 2A (d) 2Ω and 2.5A v th v th − v x v x − v th v x
+ + + =5
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 6 2 2 4
v th v x Ans. (c) : According to the option c
= + =5 If we put R1, R2 and R3 1,1 and 5Ω respectively then
6 4
we got the minimum value of resistance for maximum
super node- power transfer.
v x + 2v x = v th 149. When determining Thevenin’s resistance of a
v x = v th / 3 circuit
v v (a) all sources must be open circuited
⇒ th + th = 5 ⇒ v th = 20V (b) all sources must be short circuited
6 12 (c) all voltage sources must be short circuited and
146. all current sources must be open circuited
(d) all sources must be replaced by their internal
resistances
Ans. (c) : For calculating the Thevenin's equivalent
resistance we should short circuited the voltage source
For the above constant voltage configuration, and open circuit the current source.
the equivalent constant current source 150. Consider the resistive network shown below,
configuration will have : the value of Norton current across the terminal
(a) I = 1A and R = 10Ω series
(b) I = 1A and R = 10Ω in parallel
(c) I = 10A and R = 1Ω in series
(d) I = 10A and R = 1Ω in parallel
Ans. (b) : AB
(a) –6 A (b) 2 A
(c) 7 A (d) –4.5 A
Ans. (c) :
147. Consider a passive linear RLC network with
ideal parameters:
1. In evaluating the Thevenin's equivalent
voltage, the independent voltage sources of
the given network are replaced by zero
internal impedance and independent current
sources by infinite internal impedance
2. The ideal voltage source has infinite internal 6A current source change in voltage source.
impedance while the ideal current source has
zero internal impedance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC JWM-2016
120V voltage source change in current source-
Ans. (a) : Linear RLC network with ideal parameters in
evaluating the Thevenin's equivalent voltage, the
independent voltage sources of the given network are
replaced by zero internal impedance and independent
current sources by infinite internal impedance.
148. For the circuit shown in the figure below, the
maximum power is to be delivered to 2Ω
resistor, then the value of R1, R2, R3 is- 20A current source converted into voltage source-
Apply KVL in loop

−40 + 4I + 12 = 0
(a) 5, 5, 3 (b) 5, 5, 5 28
(c) 1, 1, 5 (d) 3, 3, 3 I= = 7A
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 4
151. A practical voltage source converted into a Ans. (d) : According to thevenin's theorem the
practical current source as shown below, then equivalent circuit-
find ‘I’ ? (1) For Rth-
Independent voltage source is short circuit-
(a) 50A (b) 2A 10 ×10

R th = = 5Ω
(c) 10A (d) 0.5A 10 + 10
SAIL- 2014 (2) For Vth-
Ans. (b) : Norton's equivalent circuit consist of current
source in parallel with impedance where as thevenin
equivalent voltage source in series with impedance.
V 10
Thus, I = = = 2A
R 5 Apply voltage division rule at terminal AB -
152. Consider the circuit shown below. The portion
10
of the circuit left to the terminals AB can be Vth = × 50 = 25V
replaced by 10 + 10
Thevenin's equivalent circuit-
Apply KVL -
−25 + 5 × 1 +VZ = 0
VZ = 20V
When 25V → 20V
and 5Ω → 0Ω then equivalent circuit
For Norton's equivalent-

(i) For IN -
(ii) For RN -
Rth = RN
then equivalent circuit
Which of the following is correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
IES-2011
If load current value is 1A then we use 1A current 1
source instead of 5A source. We use 1A current source I=
5
without any parallel register.
V 1
R th = , R th =
I 1/ 5
Rth = 5Ω
155. Superposition theorem is not applicable to a
network having which type of element?
153. In the circuit shown, Thevenin's voltage as seen (a) Unilateral element (b) Linear element
from the terminals AB is (c) Bilateral element (d) Passive element
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
Ans. (a) : Superposition theorem is not applicable to a
network having unilateral element.
156. A Norton equivalent circuit consists of a 100
µA current source in parallel with a 10 kΩ
(a) 0 V (b) 1.5 V resistance. If this is converted into a Thevenin
(c) 6.0 V (d) indeterminate equivalent, how much is VTh?
(a) 1 kV (b) 10 V
IES-2012
(c) 1 V (d) 0 V
Ans. (a) : KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (c) : Thevenin equivalent
VTh = IN × RN
= 100 × 10–6 × 10 × 103
VTh = 1000 × 10–3
VTh = 1 V
The circuit has only dependent source so, there are no
any independent source for excitation.
Then I = 0
3I = 0
VAB = 0V
154.
In the circuit shown above, the Thevenin

resistance seen from the terminals AB is
(a) 1 Ω (b) 1.5 Ω (c) 3 Ω (d) 5 Ω 157. The Thevenin equivalent resistance (RTh) for
IES-2013 the circuit shown in fig. is :
Ans. (d) :
For Rth- (a) 4 Ω (b) 0.4 Ω

(c) 0.5 Ω (d) 2 Ω
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
Ans. (b) : To find Rth with dependent source,
Assume 1-V source across Vab
∴ Vab = 1Volt
Apply nodal
V 1− V
3I + I = I=
1 1
4I = V I= 1–V…………..(i)
From equation (i)
I = 1–4I
5I= 1
So, (a) 0.377W (b) 123 W
1 (c) 9.88 W (d) 89 W
I = 2Vab + ( Vab = 1V ) DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
2
5 Ans. (a) : Given that-
I=
2
V
R th =
I
1 2
R th = =
5 5
 
2
R th = 0.4Ω
158. The "Superposition theorem" is essentially
based on the concept of: ⇒ For Rth-
(a) Duality (b) Linearity
(c) Reciprocity (d) Non-linearity
Ans. (b) : The "Superposition theorem" is essentially
based on the concept of linearity.
159. In which circuit, the condition of maximum
power transfer is not desired?
(a) Communicational Circuits
(b) Electric Circuits
(c) Electronic Circuits
(d) Computer Circuits
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016 14 × 5
Ans. (b) : The condition of maximum power transfer is (12 + 2 ) 5= = 3.684
14 + 5
not desired for Electric Circuits.
160. Thevenin's and Norton equivalents cannot be
developed in circuits containing
(a) DC independent sources
(b) AC independent sources
(c) independent and dependent sources
(d) None of these
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
Ans. (d) : Thevenin's and Norton equivalents can be Rth = 3 + 3.684 = 6.684 (i)
developed in dc and ac independent sources and as well ⇒ For Vth-
as independent and dependent source.
161. A constant current source supplies a current of
400 mA to a load of 2 kΩ. When the load is
changed to 200 Ω, the load current will be
_______.
(a) 400 mA (b) 200 mA
(c) 100 mA (d) 50 mA
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
Ans. (a) : A constant current source does not depends
on the load so it is not effected by changing to the load
hence load current will be 400 mA.
162. What will be the maximum power that can be
distributed in the load in the given circuit? 12 × 5
Vth = = 3.158V
(12 + 2 + 5)
Maximum power transfer to load-
2
Vth
( Pmax ) =
4R th
(3.158)
2
Pmax = = 0.377W
4 × 6.684

163. If Thevenin's voltage is 89.3 volts and (a) –94.34 mA (b) –70.34 mA
Thevenin's resistance is 46.98 ohms then what (c) 70.34 mA (d) 94.34 mA
will be the maximum power delivered to the BSNL(JTO)-2009
load present in the network? Ans. (a) :
(a) 88.09 W (b) 42.43 W
(c) 100 W (d) 456 W
DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
Ans. (b) : Given -
Vth = 89.3 Volt
R th = 46.98 Ω
Maximum power to be loaded Using KCL-
V2 VA − 15 VA VA + 51Vx
Pmax = th + + =0 ….(i)
4R th 7 7 19
Vx = 2I …(ii)
Pmax =
(89.3)2 VA + 51Vx
4 × 46.98 ∵ =I
Pmax = 42.43 W 19
V + 51× 2I
164. Find Thevenin's equivalent resistance for the ⇒ A =I
following circuit: 19
⇒ VA = –83I
Put this value in question (i)
−83I − 15 ( −83I ) ( −83I ) + 2I × 51
+ + =0
7 7 19
−166I − 15 19I
⇒ + =0
7 19
⇒ –166 I –15 +7I = 0
(a) 5.67Ω (b) 6.66Ω ⇒ –159I = 15
(c) 6Ω (d) 6.33Ω −15
DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM ⇒ I=
159
Ans. (b) : For Thevenin resistance equivalent open the ⇒ I = –94.34 mA
terminal A-B and short circuit the voltage source.
166. A source is delivering maximum power to a
resistance through a network. The ratio of
power delivered to the source power
(a) is always 0.5
(b) may be 0.5 or less or more
(c) may be 0.5 or more
(d) may be 0.5 or less
5× 7 6 ×10 Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017
5 || 7 = , 6 || 10 = Ans. (d) : A source is delivering maximum power to a
5+7 6 + 10
= 2.92Ω , = 3.75Ω resistance through a network. Then the ratio of power
delivered to the source power may be 0.5 or less.
167. The maximum power is extracted from any two
RTH = RAB = 2.92 + 3.75 given terminals of the circuit when load
R TH = 6.66Ω resistance across the terminals is
(a) Equal to the circuit resistance as viewed
165. In the circuit shown in figure, the current back from the terminals
through 2 Ω resistor is (b) Half of the resistance of the circuit as
viewed back from terminals
(c) Two times the resistance of the circuit as
viewed back from the terminals
(d) Four times back from the terminals
Ans. (a) : The maximum power transferred from
sources to load will be maximum when total resistance
seen from terminal will equal to the load resistance.
RL = Rth
168. The expression of Norton's current (IN) in the 172. A circuit contains a dependent voltage source
circuit shown below is? and two resistors. If Thevenin's equivalent is to
be found across one of the resistors, the
resulting Thevenin's equivalent has
(a) a voltage source and a resistor only
(b) a current source and a resistor only
(c) a resistor only
(d) either voltage source or current source only
(a) V/Z1 (b) V/Z2 TSGENCO AE-2015
(c) V(Z2/(Z1+Z2)) (d) VZ1/(Z1+Z2) Ans. (c) : When there is only dependent source in any
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I circuit then, this circuit is known as dead network It has
Ans. (a) : For Norton's current (IN), short circuited ab zero thevenin voltage and some finite resistance.
terminal. 173. A source vs(t) = V cos 100 pt has an internal
impedance of (4 + j3) Ω. If a purely resistive
load connected to this source has to extract the
maximum power out of the source, its value in
Ω should be
Z2 = 0 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7
Then Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
V Ans. (c) : Zin = (4 + 3j) Ω
IN =
Z1 When load resistance is purely resistive
169. In the circuit shown below, the value of RL such RL = Rth = R 2 + X 2L
that the power transferred to RL is maximum is
RL = 32 + 42 = 25
RL = 5 Ω
174. The value of RL which results in maximum
power transferred to the load in the circuit
given below is
(a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω
(c) 15 Ω (d) 20 Ω
Ans. (c) : For maximum power transfer Rth = RL
short circuit - voltage source, open circuit-current
source (a) 11.00 Ω (b) 10.75 Ω
(c) 5.00 Ω (d) 13.75 Ω
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
Ans. (a) : For maximum power transfer–
170. In the Thevenin equivalent circuit, Vth equals RL = Rth
(a) short-circuit terminal voltage For, Rth-
Ω Ω
(b) open-circuit terminal voltage a
(c) net voltage available in the circuit
(d) voltage of the source Ω ⇐ th
Ans. (b) : b
10 ×15
R th = +5
10 + 15
Rth = 6 + 5 ⇒ R th = 11Ω
171. The Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network 175. In the circuit shown, for different values of R,
consists only of a resistor (Thevenin voltage is the values of V and I are given, other elements
zero). Then which of the following elements remaining the same
might be contained in the network?
(a) resistor and independent sources
(b) resistor only
(c) resistor and dependent sources When R = ∞, V = 5V
(d) resistor, independent sources and dependent When R = 0, I = 2.5 A
sources When R = 3Ω, the value of V is given by
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I (a) 1 V (b) 2 V
Ans. (c) : The thevenin equivalent circuit of a network (c) 3 V (d) 5 V
consist only of a resistor, then resistor and dependent Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
source element might to be contained in the network. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : When R = ∞ , Vth = 5V
When R = 0, Isc = 2.5A
V 5
Rth = th =
Isc 2.5
Rth = 2Ω (a) 10 Amp (b) 4 Amp
(c) 2 Amp (d) 6 Amp
Ans. (b) : Given,
(i) R = 0, I = 6
(ii) R = 2, I = 3
(iii) R = 1, I = ?
RL th
V = Vth ×
R L + R th
3
V = 5× th L
3+ 2
V = 3V
176. (i) Isc = 6A
1kΩ Vth
= 6A
R th
6kΩ 3kΩ VOC Vth = 6 Rth
Vth
(ii) I=
R th + 2
The thevenin voltage and the Thevenin resistor
in the given circuit is ______and 6R th
3=
_____respectively. R th + 2
(a) 43.2V, 2.1 kΩ (b) 20.57V, 2.1 kΩ Rth = 2
(c) 20.57V, 20.57 kΩ (d) 43.2V, 20.57 kΩ ∴ Vth = 6×2 = 12V
UPMRC AM - 2020
Vth
Ans. (a) : For equivalent resistance current source (iii) I=
replaced by his internal resistance (∞) - R th + R L
12 12
= =4
2 +1 3
I = 4A
178. Determine the voltage vm in the given network.
7 × 3 21
∴ Rth = = = 2.1kΩ
7 + 3 10
R th = 2.1kΩ
When convert in voltage source
A
(a) 12 V (b) 24 V
(c) –16 V (d) –36 V
NLC GET -24.11.2020
From Nodal analysis at point A- Ans. (d) : Apply KVL in loop-
−3i a + 4i a + 12 = 0
Vth − 144 Vth
+ =0 i a = −12
7 3
Vm = –36V
3Vth − 432 + 7Vth
=0 179. For the circuit shown in figure, the following is
21 true in general
10 Vth = 432
Vth = 43.2V
177. The Black Box as shown in Fig. 10 contains
resistors and independent sources. For R = 0
ohms and R = 2 ohms, the value of current I is
6 Amps and 3 Amps respectively. The value of
current I for R = 1 ohms is :
(a) The current I through R is 0 (a) 2.5 V (b) 5 V
(b) the voltages across the two current sources (c) 8 V (d) 10 V
are equal BSNL(JTO)-2009
(c) The voltage across R will tend to increase
Ans. (c) :
without limit as R increases
(d) The superposition theorem is valid in the
present case
BSNL (JTO)-2001
Ans. (d) : The superposition theorem is valid in the
present case Apply nodal analysis
The superposition theorem is applicable to linear Vx − 10 Vx Vx − V2
network. + + =0
2 2 2
180. In figure show the voltage source : Vx –10 +Vx +Vx–V2 = 0
3Vx = V2 + 10
3×2×3 = V2 + 10 [∵ Vx = 3×2 = 6 ]
18 = V2 + 10
V2 = 8V
182. In the circuit shown in figure (a), the current
200 I1 = 2A. The current I2 in figure (b) is
(a) delivers W (b) absorbs 100 W
3
200
(c) delivers 100 W (d) absorbs W
3
DRDO-2009
Ans. (b) :
VX
(a) –6 A (b) –4 A
(c) 4 A (d) 6 A
BSNL(JTO)-2009
Ans. (d) : Using reciprocity theorem.
V1 V
= 2
Apply Nodal analysis at point VX I1 I2
Vx − 20 Vx
+ − 0.3Vx = 0 10 30
1 10 =
2 I2
Vx − 20 Vx
+ = 0.3Vx I 2 = 6A
1 10
10Vx − 200 + Vx 183. Bartlett's bisection theorem holds for which
= 0.3Vx
10 one of the following terminal networks?
10Vx + Vx − 200 = 3Vx (a) Reciprocal network
8Vx = 200 (b) Balanced network
Vx = 25 (c) Symmetric network
25 − 20 (d) Non-linear network
∴ Current (I) = = 5A IES-2003
1
power absorbed by voltage source because current is Ans. (c) : Bartlett's bisection theorem hold for
entering the voltage source. symmetric network.
P = VI According to this theorem the Z - Parameter are-
= 20×5 1
Z11 = Z22 = ( ZOC + ZSC )
P = 100 W 2
181. For the circuit shown in figure, if the current I 1
= 3 A, then the voltage V2 is Z12 = Z21 = (ZOC − ZSC )
2
ZOC - Open circuited impedance across half part of
symmetrical network.
ZSC - Short circuit impedance across half part of the
symmetrical network.
This theorem is applicable in symmetric network.
4. If Z1, Z2 be the Z-parameter matrix of two
(iv) Two Port Network networks connected in series, then the Z-
parameter matrix of the resultant matrix will
1. If a two-port network is reciprocal as well as be:
symmetrical, which one of the following (a) Z1 + Z2 (b) Z1Z2
relationships is correct? Z
(a) Z12 = Z21 and Z11 = Z22 (c) Z1–Z2 (d) 1
(b) Y12 = Y21 and Y11 = Y22 Z2
(c) AD – BC = 1 and A = D UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
(d) All of the above Ans. (a) : Series network-
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
IES-2019, 2012, 2009
Mizoram PSC Jr.Grade-2015, Paper-I
UPRVUNL AE-11.06.2014
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-I
GATE-1994
Ans. (d) : Condition for reciprocity and symmetry in
different parameters can be given as
Parameter Symmetry Reciprocity
Z Z11 = Z22 Z12 = Z21 [Z] = [Z1] +[Z2]
Y Y11 = Y22 Y12 = Y21  Z11 Z12   Z11 + Z11 Z12 + Z12 
' '' ' ''
T A=D AD – BC = 1   =  
 Z21 Z22   Z21 + Z21 Z22 + Z2 
' '' ' ''
h h11h22 – h12h21 = 1 h12 = – h21
2. With respect to inverse transmission 5. The ideal transformer CANNOT be described
parameter, which of the following options is
by :
correct?
(a) (V1,V2) = f (I1,I2) (b) (V1,I1) = f (V2,I2) (a) Z-parameters (b) g-parameters
(c) (I1,I2) = f (V1,V2) (d) (V2,I2) = f (V1,I1) (c) ABCD parameters (d) h-parameters
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Ans. (d) : Inverse transmission parameter T’ Ans. (a) : Ideal transformer can not be represented by
Z-parameter because self inductance and mutual
inductance of an ideal transformer is infinite.
The transmission parameter and the inverse
transmission parameter are dual of each other. Instead
of V1 and I1 quantities V2 and I2 are expressed in term
of V1 and I1 the resulting parameter ( A 'B'C 'D' ) are
called inverse transmission parameter
V2 = A 'V1 + B' ( −I1 )
6. Short circuit parameter for the network shown
I 2 = C'V1 + D' ( −I1 ) is :
f ( V2 , I 2 ) = f ( V1 ,I1 )
3. For the given linear time-invariant two-part
network, the admittance matrix [Y] will be :
(a)
(b)
Y 0 
(a)   (b) indeterminate (c)
 0 Y
(d)
 Y –Y  UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
(c)   (d) a null matrix
Y Y  Ans. (a) : Y-parameter of π network-
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Ans. (B) : For Y-parameter
I1 = Y11V1 + Y12 V2
I 2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2
Since V1 = V2
f(V1)=V2
Y-parameter will be inderminate.
 ya + y b − yb  V1 −AI2 R L − BI2 AR L + B
[Y] =   = =
I1 −CI2R L − DI2 CR L + D
 − yb yc + yb 
V1
0.6 + 0.3 − 0.3  0.9 −0.3 By definition, input impedance is Z1 =
= = I1
 − 0.3 0.3 + 0.4   −0.3 0.7 
Hence input impedance is
Y11 = 0.9, Y12 = −0.3, Y21 = 0.3, Y22 = 0.7
B + AR L
7. Find Z parameter Z11, Z22 in given network- Z1 =
D + CR L
9. The admittance parameter Y12 in the given

2-port network is
(a) Z11 = 25Ω, Z22 = 20Ω

(b) Z11 = 20Ω, Z22 = 20Ω
(c) Z11 = 25Ω, Z22 = 30Ω
(d) Z11 = 15Ω, Z22 = 30Ω
Ans. (c) :
(a) -20 mho (b) -0.05 mho
(c) +0.01 mho (d) -0.20 mho
GATE-2001
Z-parameter of T network- I1
Ans. (b) : Y12 = V1 = 0
Z + Z Zb  V2
[ Z] =  a b 
Z
 b Z b + Zc 
5 + 20 20   25 20 
= =
 20 20 + 10   20 30 
Z11 = 25, Z22 = 30
8. A two-port network is represented by ABCD
parameters given by
 V1   A B   V2 
 I  =  C D   −I 
 1   2 –E2 –20I1 = 0
If port-2 is terminated by RL, the input
impedance seen at port-1 is given by I1 -1
=
A + BR L AR L + C E 2 20
(a) (b)
C + DR L BR L + D I1
= -0.05 mho
DR L + A B + AR L E2
(c) (d)
BR L + C D + CR L
10. With 10 V DC connected at port A in the linear
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.0.2021 nonreciprocal two port network shown below,
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-I the following were observed
GATE-2006 i. 1 Ω connected at port B draws a current of
Ans. (d) : According to question 3A
ABCD-parameter- ii. 2.5 Ω connected at port B draws a current
V1=AV2 – BI2 (i) of 2 A
I1 = CV2 – DI2 (ii)
V2 = –I2 RL {By using KVL at output port}…….(iii)
Putting the value from (iii) in equation (i) & (ii)
V1 = A × –I2 RL + B(–I2).............. (iv)
The current drawn by 7 Ω connected at port B
I1 = C ×–I2 RL + D(–I2) ............... (v)
(a) 3/7 A (b) 5/7 A
By using operation of
( iv ) (c) 1 A (d) 9/7 A
( v) RPSC ACF & FRO 23.0.2021
Ans. (c) : 13. Two Two-port network are connected in
cascade. The combination is to be represented
as a single two-port network. The parameters
of the network are obtained by multiplying the
(i) When RL = 1Ω is individual
(a) Z-parameter matrices
connected . I1 = 3A
(b) h-parameter matrices
when RL = 2.5Ω is connected, I2 = 2A
(c) Y-parameter matrices
(d) ABCD parameter matrices
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
Vth = IRth + I RL IES-2013,IES-2009,IES-1993
From cond. (i) Vth= 3Rth + 3×1.........(1) GATE-1991
From cond. (ii) Vth = 2 Rth + 2.5×2........(2)
Ans. (d) : In ABCD parameter or transmission
From equation (1) & (2)
parameter used for transmission line when our
3 Rth + 3 = 2 Rth + 5 parameters are connected in cascade for cascade
Rth = 2Ω Vth = 9 V connection ABCD parameter used
when 7Ω is connected, For ABCD -parameter
Vth = (Rth + RL) I
9
I=
2+7 V2
I = 1A
11. For a two-port network, the condition of When two network are cascaded
reciprocity is Equivalent parameter is -
(a) Z11 = Z22 (b) Y21 = –Y12 [T]eq = [T']. [T'']
(c) h21 = –h12 (d) AD – BC = 0 A B  A ' B'   A" B" 
C = .
IES-2020, 2006, 1992  D   C' D' C" D"
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I 14. A reciprocal two-port network is symmetrical
TNPSC Manager (Engg.)-2015 if
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 (a) ∆A = 1 (b) A = C
Ans. (c) : (c) Z11 = Z22 (d) ∆Y = 1
S.N. Reciprocal Symmetrical Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
1. Z12 = Z21 Z11 = Z22 RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
2. Y12 = Y21 Y11 = Y22 IES-2008
3. A B A=D Ans. (c) : For symmetrical condition
=1 Z11 = Z22 → Z –Parameter
C D
Y11 = Y22 → Y – Parameter
4. h12 = –h21 h11 h12 A = D → T–Parameter
=1
h 21 h 22 h11 h22 – h12 h21 = 1 → h –Parameter
5. g12 = –g21 g11 g 22 15. The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two
=1 port network in figure is
g 21 g 22
12. Which is the correct condition of symmetry
observed in Z - parameters?
(a) Z11 = Z22 (b) Z11 = Z12
(c) Z12 = Z22 (d) Z12 = Z21
IES-2020
TNPSC Manager (Engg)-2015 2 −1  2 1 
(a)   (b)  
Ans. (a) : For reciprocity for Z-parameter  −1 2   −1 2 
Z12 = Z21 1 −2  2 1 
For Symmetricity for Z-parameter (c)   (d)  
 −2 1  1 2 
Z22 = Z11 DRDO-2008
Ans. (a) : In π -network. V2 = 0
I2
Y21 =
V1 V2 =0
V 2V
I1 = 1 = 1
3 3
 Y + YC −YC  2
Y=  A
 − YC YB + YC  I V
IA= 1 = 1
Given network. 2 3
I 1 I 2V1 V1
IB = 1 × = 1 = =
2 2 4 3× 4 6
V V V
–I2= IA+IB= 1 + 1 = 1
3 6 2
Comparing the network I2 −1
YA =YB = YC = 1mA/V =
V1 V2 =0
2
 2 −1
Y=   18. For a two port network to be reciprocal, its
 −1 2  Scattering parameters must satisfy the
16. Which two-port parameters are best suited for following condition, for i = 1, 2; j = 1, 2
analyzing a series-shunt feedback circuit? (a) Sij = Sji (i ≠ j) (b) Sij = Sji (i = j)
(a) Z-Parameters (b) H-Parameters
(c) Sij = 1/Sji (i ≠ j) (d) Sij = S*ji (i = j)
(c) Y-Parameters (d) S-Parameters
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
Ans. (b) : H-parameter of two port network are best Ans. (a) : Condition for a two port network to be
option for analyzing a series-shunt feedback circuit. reciprocal is:-
Every linear circuit having input and output terminal Sij = S ji ( i ≠ j)
can be analyzed by 4-parameter called h-parameter. The
h-parameter were initially called series -shunt 19. Y-parameter for following network is given as
parameter.
17.
The y21 parameter of the network shown in the

given figure will be
 9(s + 1) –3(2s + 2) 
(a) 1 (b) − 1  8 8 
6 6 (a)  
1  –3(2s + 2) 9(s + 1) 
(c) (d) − 1  8 8 
3 3
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009  9(2s + 1) –3(2s + 1) 
 8 8 
Ans. (*) : (b)  
Ω  –3(2s + 1) 9(2s + 1) 
 8 8 
 9(2s + 1) –3(2s + 1) 
 8 16 
(c)  
Ω Ω –3(2s + 1) 9(2s + 1)
 
Ω  16 8 
 9(s + 1) –3(2s + 1) 
 8 8 
(d)  
 I1   Y11 Y12   V1   –3(2s + 1) 9(s + 1) 
I  = Y    
 2   21 Y22   V2  8 8
I2 = Y21V1 + Y22V2 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
Ans.(*):This network having combination of two 20. Input reflection coefficient 'S11' of the 2-Port
network network for 50Ω system is:
For Ist
1/3Ω
(a) 1/3 ∠0° (b) 1/2 ∠180°
(c) 1/3 ∠180° (d) 1/2 ∠0°
A & B connected in series and C& D also connected in
Ans. (c) :
series then-
Y– parameter of T network
2 +1
Y11 = 3 3 =9 b1 = S11 a1 + S12 a2
4 +2 +2 8 b2 = S21 a1 + S22 a2
9 9 9
b1
1 S11 =
3 a1 a =0
Y12 = − 3 = − 2
8 8 Since b1 is reflected waveform and a, is incident
9 waveform
−1 1
Y21 = 3 = −3 S11 = ∠180°
8 8 3
9 21. The transmission parameters of the network
2 +1 given below is represented in the matrix form
Y22 = 3 3 =9 as calculate of transmission parameter B of [T]
8 8 matrix:
9
A B 
9 −3  [T] =  
Y1 = 
8 8  C D
 −3 9 
 8 8
For 2nd -
(a) j2 ohms (b) – j2 ohms

(c) – j2 + 4 ohms (d) 4 ohms
 y + y2 − y2  Ans. (b) : Transmission parameter
Y2 =  1
 − y2 y 2 + y3  V1= AV2–BI2
I1 = CV2 – DI2
Y 2= 
(
 3 +3 s
8 16 ) ( − 316) s  When V2 = 0
V1

(
3
 − 16 s ) ( 316 + 3 8 ) s B=
I2 V2 =0
 9s −3s 
16 16 
Y2 = 
 −3s 9s 
 16 16  4Ω
9 −3   9s −3s 
8 8   16 16 
Y= Y1+Y2 =  + Apply KVL
 −3 9   −3s 9s  –V1–j2I2=0
 8 8   16 16  –V1=j2I2
 9 (s + 2) −3 ( s + 2 )  V1
= − j2
  I2
16 16
Y=  
 −3 ( s + 2 ) 9(s + 2)  V
B = 1 = − j2Ω
  I2
 16 16 
22. For the following network, Z22 = and Ans. (d) : According to given options from question
Z12 = . only option (d) hybrid parameter (V1,I2) and (I1,V2) are
related with each other.
25. With usual notation a two port resistive
network satisfied the condition A = D = (3/2) B
= (4/3)C
(a) 2 Ω, 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω, 2 Ω The Z11 of the network is
(c) 1 Ω, 2 Ω (d) 1 Ω, 1 Ω (a) (5/3) Ω (b) (4/3) Ω
UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II (c) (2/3) Ω (d) (1/3) Ω
Ans. (a) : Given circuit diagram LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
Ans. (b) : We know that
V1
Z11 =
I1 I2 = 0
For T - parameter
Z11 = Za + Zc = 1+1 = 2Ω
V1 = A V2 − B I 2
Z12 = Zc = 1Ω
Z22 = Zb + Zc = 1+1=2Ω I1 = CV2 − D I2
23. The 2-port network of Fig A has open circuit ∵ A = D = 3 B = 4 C
impedance parameters given by matrix 2 3
∵ I2 = 0
V1 A
= = Z11
I1 C
A
R R R 0  Z11 = = 4/3
(a)   (b)   C
R R 0 R 4
∞ R R ∞  Z11 = Ω
(c)   (d)   3
R ∞ ∞ R  26. A 2-port network is represented by the
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 following equation
IES-1991 I1 = 5V1 + 3V2
Ans. (a) : I2 = 2V1 –7V2
The value of Z12 is
(a) 3 (b) –3
(c) 3/41 (d) 2/31
Ans. (c) : From above equation admittance matrix
V1 = R(I1 + I2) 5 3  −Y
Y=  Now Z12 = 12
V 1 = I 1R + I 2R ...(i)  2 −7  ∆Y
V2 = R(I1 + I2)
−3
V 2 = I 1R + I 2R ...(ii) Z12 =
From equation (i) & (ii) –35 – 6
 V1   R Zn = 3 / 41Ω
R   I1 
  =    27. h-parameters are defined by
 V2   R R   I2 
V1 = h11I1 + h12V2, I2 = h21I1 + h22V2
R R 
So, open circuit impedance =   The parameter h21 for the circuit shown below is
R R 
24. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched?
(a) Symmetrical two-port network : AD – BC = 1
(b) Reciprocal two-part network : Z11 = Z12
(c) Inverse hybrid parameter : A, B, C, D
(d) Hybrid parameter : (V1, I2), (I1, V2) (a) 5.0 (b) –0.4
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I (c) –0.5 (d) 4.0
IES-1995 UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
I2 1 + j 1.5 + 0.5j 1 + 0.5j 1.5 + 0.5j
TA =   , TB = 
Ans. (b) : h – parameter h21 =
I1  j 1 + 0.5j   j 1 + j 
V2 = 0
T = TA.TB
1 + j 1.5 + 0.5 j 1 + 0.5j 1.5 + 0.5j
T= 
 j 1 + 0.5 j   j 1 + j 
(1 + j)(1 + 0.5j) + j (1.5 + 0.5j) (1 + j)(1.5 + 0.5j) + (1.5 + 0.5j) (1 + j) 
= 
 j (1 + 0.5j) + j (1 + 0.5j) j (1.5 + 0.5j) + (1 + j) (1 + 0.5j) 
1 + 0.5j + j − 0.5 + 1.5j − 0.5 1.5 + 0.5j + 1.5j − 0.5 + 1.5 + 0.5j + 1.5j − 0.5
= 
Current through the 5Ω resistor = I2 + 0.1V1  j − 0.5 + j − 0.5 j1.5 − 0.5 + 1 + 0.5j + j − 0.5 
from figure V1 = 4I  3j 2 + 4 j
T=
–V1 + 4I1 – 5 (I2 + 0.1 V1) = 0
 −1 + 2 j 3j 
–4I1 + 4I1 –5 (I2 + 0.1 V1) = 0
I2 = –0.1 V1 29. The z-parameters of a network are:
I2 = –0.1 × 4 I1 z11 = 10, z21 = z12 = 5; z22 = 5. If a load of 5 Ω is
connected across 2-2 terminals, the input
I2 impedance across 1-1 terminals is
= h 21 = −0.4
I1 (a) 12.5 Ω (b) 10.0 Ω
(c) 7.5 Ω (d) 5.0 Ω
28. The transmission (T) parameters for the
network below is - UPSC JWM-2016
Ans. (c) :
Zin = 5+(5||5) = 7.5 Ω

 3j −1 + 2 j   3j 2 + 4 j
(a)   (b)   30. The impedance parameters of a two network
2 + 4j 3j   −1 + 2 j 3j  are Z11 = 6Ω, Z22 = 4 Ω, Z12 = Z21 = 3 Ω. What
 −3j −3 + 4 j   −3j 3 − 4 j  are the equivalent ABCD parameters?
(c)   (d)   (a) A = 5, B = 5, C = 1/3, D = 4/3
1 − 2 j −3j  1 + 3j −3j  (b) A = 1, B = 5, C = 1/3 D = 4/3
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 (c) A = 2, B = 5, C = 1/3, D = 4/3
Ans. (b) : (d) A = 2, B = 3, C = 5, D = 1
UPSC JWM-2016
TNPSC AE-2014
Ans. (c) : Given Z11 = 6Ω, Z22 = 4 Ω, Z12 = 3 Ω
| Z |= Z11 Z22 − Z12 Z21
Z11 6 = 6 × 4 − 3× 3
A= = =2
Z21 3 = 24 − 9
= 15
| Z | 15
B= = =5
Z21 3
ZA
A = 1+ 1 1
ZC C= =
Z21 3
ZA .ZB
B = ZA + Z B + Z 4
ZC D = 22 =
Z21 3
1 ZB 31. When a number of 2-port networks are
C= D = 1+ connected in cascade, the individual
ZC ZC (a) ZOC matrices are added
(b) VSC matrices are added
(c) Chain matrices are multiplied
(d) H-matrices are multiplied
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
TNPSC AE-2008
Ans. (c) : When two 2-port network are cascaded then  1.499 −0.638
their individual chain matrices or [T] matrices are Y = Z−1 =  
 −0.638 1.702 
multiplied.
Y = 2.143
[T] = [TA] . [TB]
34. The relation AD–BC =1, where A, B, C and D
32. The Z-parameters of a network are given by are the elements of a transmission the matrix of
4 1  a network, is valid for
 3 3  . Its transmission parameters will be (a) A passive and reciprocal network
 
(b) A passive and non-reciprocal network
3 3   4 / 3 3 (c) All passive networks
(a)   (b)  
 1 4   1/ 3 1  (d) All passive and active networks
 3 3  3 4 / 3 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
(c)   (d) 1 1/ 3  RPCS Lect.-2011
 4 1   IES-1994
TNPSC AE-2008 Ans. (a) : The relation AD – BC = 1. Where A,B,C and
 4 1 D are the elements of a transmission the matrix of a
Ans. (b) : Z =   network is valid for a passive and reciprocal network.
 3 3 35. Two two-port networks are connected in
V1 = 4I1+I2 .......... (i) parallel. The combination is to be represented
V2 = 3I1 + 3I 2 ..........(ii) as a single two-port network. The parameters
3I1 = V2–3I2 of this network are obtained by addition of the
individual
V
I1 = 2 − I 2 ...........(iii) (a) Z parameters (b) h parameters
3 (c) Y parameters (d) ABCD parameters
By putting the value of I1 in equation (i) we get- Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-I
 V2  Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
V1 = 4  − I2  + I2 IES-2005
 3 
4 Ans. (c) : For Y-parameter
V1 = V2 − 3I 2 ..........(iv)
3
For transmission line parameter -
V1 = AV2 – BI2 ...........(v)
I1 = CV2 – DI2 ............(vi)
by comparing equation (v) with equation (iv) and
equation (vi) with equation (iii) we get-
4 1
A = , B = 3, C = , D = 1
3 3
For transmission line parameter -
 4 / 3 3
T=  
1/ 3 1
Where
33. The Z-matrix of a two port network is given
Y11 = Y11
'
+ Y11
''
0.8 0.3
by-   what will be the value of Y = Y' + Y''
 0.3 0.7  12 12 12
admittance parameter? ' + Y"
Y21 = Y21 21
(a) 1.8 (b) 2.143
(c) 0.9 (d) 0.85 Y22 = Y22' + Y"
22
RPSC LECTURE-10.01.2016
Hence option (c) is correct choice
Ans. (b) : |Z| = 0.8 ×0.7 − 0.3 ×0.3
|Z| = 0.47 36. A network has series impedance Z1 and shunt
impedance Z2. This network will have pass
 0.7 −0.3
adj A ( A T ) =   band provided that :
 −0.3 0.8  (a) 0<Z1/4Z2<1 (b) 1<Z1/4Z2<1
adj A (c) –1<Z /4Z <0 (d) None of these
∴ ∴ Z−1 =
1 2
| Z| Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I

Ans. (c) : A Network has series impedance Z1 and shunt
 0.7 −0.3 1
Z−1 =   × impedance Z2. This network will have pass band
 −0.3 0.8  0.47 provided that –1<Z1/4Z2<0.
37. In the circuit shown below, the network N is  0.3 −0.2  15 5 
described by the following Y matrix : (a)   (b)  
 − 0.2 0.3   5 15
 0.1s −0.01s  V
Y=  The voltage gain 2 is 3.33 5   0.3 0.4 
 0.01s 0.1s  V1 (c)   (d)  
 5 3.33 0.4 0.3
GATE-2015
Ans. (a) : Given network is
(a) 1/90 (b) –1/90

(c) –1/99 (d) –1/11
GATE-2011
Ans. (d) : I1 = 0.1V1 + ( −0.01) V2 ...(i) Z equivalent Impedance network Y-equivalent
Admittance network
I2 = 0.01V1 + 0.1V2 …(ii) For Y-parameter for π network is given
Applying KVL at input part- We get,
100=25I1 + V1
From equation (i)
100=25(0.1V1–0.01 V2) + V1
100=2.5V1–0.25 V2 + V1
applying KVL at output port, we get
V2=–100 I2
from eqn. (ii)
 YC + Yi − YC 
V2 = –100 (0.01 V1 +0.1 V2)  Y  =  
V2 = –V1 – 10V2  −YC YC + Y0 
0 = –V1–11V2 1 1 
0 = V1 + 11V2 ––––(iii)  5 + 10 −1 
∴  Y  =  5 
From equation (iii)  1 1 1
 − 5 + 
We get 10 5 
V2
=− 1 0.3 − 0.2
[Y] =  
V1 11  −0.2 0.3 
38. Consider a two-port network with the 40. The ABCD parameters of the following 2-port
A B network are
transmission matrix : T =  
 C D
If the network is reciprocal, then
(a) T–1 = T
(b) T2 = T
(c) Determinant (T) = 0
(d) Determinant (T) = 1
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I 3.5 + j2 20.5  3.5 + j2 30.5 
(a)   (b) 
3.5 − j2 
GATE-2016
 20.5 3.5 − j2   0.5
Ans. (d) : Condition for reciprocal network when
ABCD parameter is given  10 2 + j0  7 + j4 0.5 
(c)   (d)  
AD – BC =1  2 + j0 10   30.5 7 − j4 
A B Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
=1
C D GATE-2015
determinant [T] =1 Ans. (b) :
39. The 2-port admittance matrix of the circuit,
shown is given by

From ABCD Parameters 3 2 15 5 
V1 = AV2 + B(–I2) Z1 =  , Z2 =  
I1 = CV2 + D(–I2) 2 3  5 25
( 5 + j4 + 2 ) I1 ∴ Zeq = Z1 + Z2
V
A= 1 = = 3.5 + j2
V2 I =0 2I1 18 7 
2 =  
I  7 28
I1 1 1
C= = = = 0.5℧ 44. For the network of figure, Z11 =
V2 I =0 I1 ( 2 + j0 ) 2
2
∵ only option (b) is match to the value of A and C

41. The relation between Z11 and Y parameters is?
(a) Z11 = Y22/∆Y (b) Z11 = –Y22/∆Y (a) 5/3Ω (b) 3/2 Ω
(c) Z11 = Y12/∆Y (d) Z11 = (–Y12)/∆Y (c) 2 Ω (d) 2/3 Ω
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : We know that V1
Ans. (a) : For Z11 =
[ Z] = [ Y ]
−1
I1 I2 = 0
Y Converted to the network delta to star
Z11 = 22
Y
Y22
Z11 =
∆Y
42. A two port network is reciprocal, if and only if  4 1 5
Z11 =  +  = Ω
(a) Z11 = Z22 (b) BC–AD = –1  3 3 3
(c) Y12 = –Y21 (d) h12 = h21
45. For the transfer function of a physical two port
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade- 2018, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I network which one of the following statement is
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I not true.
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I (a) All the zeroes must lie only in the left half of
UJVNL AE-2016 s plane
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2015, Paper-I (b) The poles may lie anywhere in the left half of
IES-2007, 2003, 1999 s plane
GATE-1998, 1992 (c) The poles lying on the imaginary axis must be
Ans. (b) : simple
For symmetrical For Reciprocal (d) A pole may lie at the origin
network network Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Z11 = Z22 Z12 = Z21 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Y11 = Y22 Y12 = Y21 Ans. (a) : For a physical network all poles must lie in
h11h22 – h12h21 = 1 h12 = –h21 the left half plane not zeros.
A=D AD – BC = 1 All zeros may lie anywhere in the s-plane. The poles
43. The impedance matrices of two, two-port lying on the imaginary axis must be simple. A pole may
networks are given by lie at origin.
3 2 15 5  46. two-port network is represented by the
 2 3  and  5 25 following pair of equations I1 = 2 V1 + V2 and I2
    = V 1 + V 2.
If these two networks are connected in series, Its impedance parameters are given by
the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port (a) 1, –1, –1, 2; (b) 1, 1, 1, 2;
network will be (c) 2, 1, 1, 1 (d) 2, –1, –1, 1.
3 5  18 7  Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
(a)   (b)  
 2 25  7 28 UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
Ans. (a) : I1 = 2V1 + V2 and I 2 = V1 + V2
15 2 
(c)   (d) indeterminate  I1   2 1  V1 
 5 3  I  = 1 1  V 
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I  2   2
IES-2000  2 1
Ans. (b) : Impedance matrix when connected in series
[ Y] =  
1 1
then
Zeq = Z1 + Z2 + Z3 + .........Zn  1 −1
Z = [Y] = 
−1

then as per question  −1 2 
47. Ideal transformer cannot be described by (a) Only A is correct
(a) h-parameters (b) ABCD parameters (b) Only B is correct
(c) g-parameters (d) Z-parameters (c) Both A and B are correct
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I (d) Both A and B are not correct
IES-1996 UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
Ans. (d) : The equivalent circuit diagram for an ideal Ans. (d) :
transformer can be expressed as-
Here I1= I2 (for ideal transformer)

For Z- port network ( V1 , V2 ) = f ( I1 ,I 2 )
i.e. there must be no any relationship between
independent variables I1 and I2 respectively.
Hence Z- port network can not be defined for an ideal
transformer. Z = Transform
48. The transmission parameter matrix [T] for an V1 = I1(Z11) + I2(Z12)
ideal transformer with a turns ratio of n1 : n2 is V2 = I1(Z21) + I2(Z22)
given by V1
= Z12 |I1 =0
 n1   n1  I2
n 1 n 0
V
(a) 
2  (b) 
2  Z22 = 2 |I1 =0
 n2   n2  I2
0  0  Port-1
 n1   n1 
V1 = 0.5V1 +I1(2) + (I1 + I2)×2 + KI1
 n1   n1  V1 = 0.5V1 +2I2 + 4I1 + KI1
n 0  n 0 
V 1 – 0.5V1 = 2I2
(c)   (d)  
2 2
 n2   n2  V
I1 = 0 Z12 = 1 = 4Ω
0 −  1 −  I2
 n1   n1 
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I Port-2
IES-2012 V2 = 2(I1 + I2) + KI1
Ans. (b) : As per given data from question transformer V2
= 2 = Z22
turns ratio → n1 : n2 I2
We know that for an ideal transformer 50. A two port network is described by the relation
V1 n1  n1  V1 = 2I1 + 3V2
= ⇒ V1 =   V2 …(i) I2 = –I1 + 2V2
V2 n 2  n2  Then Z-parameter of such network is
and current ratio –1
 2 3 3.5 1.5 
I 2 n1  n  (a)   (b) 0.5 0.5
= ⇒ I1 =  2  I2 …(ii)  –1 2  
I1 n 2 n
 1 –1
Then transmission parameter matrix (T) from equation  2 3 3.5 1.5 
(c)   (d)  
(i) & (ii)  –1 2  0.5 0.5
V  n / n 0  V  NIELIT Scientists- 2017
[T] =  1  =  1 0 2 n / n   2  Ans. (d) : V = 2I + 3V
 I1   1   −I 2 
1 1 2
2
I2 = –I1 + 2V2
49. For the circuit shown below, choose the correct I1 + I2 = 2V2
statement. I +I
V2 = 1 2
2
I +I 
V1 = 2I1 + 3  1 2 
 2 
3I 3I
V1 = 2I1 + 1 + 2
2 2
7 3
V1 = I1 + I 2
2 2
V2 = 0.5 I1 + 0.5 I2 (a) –20 (b) –1/4
3.5 1.5  (c) –25 (d) –1/20
Z=  Ω AAI-2015
0.5 0.5 Ans. (d) : For π − network
51. For the two-port shown, the short circuit
natural frequency at port (2) is given by
1 1 1
 y11 y12  10 + 20 −
20 
y = 
(a) s + 4 = 0 (b) s + 2 = 0  21 y 22   −1 1 1
+
(c) s + 1/4 = 0 (d) s + 1 = 0  20 20 5 
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I So that,
Ans. (a) : Given circuit diagram- −1
y12 =
20
54. In a two-port network when 2-networks are
parallel then which of the following parameter
gets added.
(a) Z-parameter (b) Y-parameter
(c) H-parameter (d) All
From figure at port (2) AAI-2015
 s 2 Ans. (b) : In a two port network Y-parameter are also
2 + × known as parallel-parallel connection two port network.
Zeq =  2 s
 s 2 Therefore when 2, two port network connected in
2+ +  parallel then Y-parameter get added.
 2 s
55. Find Z-parameter of a shunt element Z
2
( )
4 + s .
2s =  2 ( 4 + s ) 
= 2  
s + 4s + 4  s 2 + 4s + 4 
2s
For short circuit natural frequency-  Z Z − Z Z
Zeq = 0 (a)   (b)  
 Z Z − Z Z
 2 ( 4 + s) 
 2  =0 − Z −Z
 s + 4s + 4  (c)   (d) None
− Z −Z
4+s=0
NPCIL-2015
52. For a 2 port network, the output short circuit Ans. (a) : Given circuit diagram
current was measured with a 1 V source at the
input. The value of the current gives
(a) h12 (b) Y12
(c) h21 (d) Y21
Ans. (d) : As we know that short circuit parameter
I1 = Y11V1+Y12V2 ..........(i)
I2 = Y21V1+Y22V2 ............(ii) V1 = ZI1 + ZI2 .........(i)
for output port short circuited V2 = 0 V2 = ZI1 + ZI2 ............(ii)
By equation (ii) BY open circuited the port '2'
I2 = Y21V1 V
Given, Z11 = 1 =Z
I1 I =0
V1 = 1V 2
I2 = Y21×1 V
I2 = Y21 Z21 = 2 =Z
I1 I =0
53. The value of Y12 is 2
By open circuited the port '1'
V1
Z12 = =Z
I2 I1 =0

V By comparing eqn (i) with (iii) and eqn (ii) with (ii) we
Z22= 2 =Z get
I2 I1 =0 V
h11 = 1 = 5
For Z-parameter- I1
 Z11 Z12   Z Z  h12 = h21 = 0
Z =   1
 21 Z22   Z Z  h22 =
56. Find h-parameter of a transformer with turns 3
ratio n:1 ______. h12 = 0
n 0  58. 'h' parameters for two port network shown in
  n 0 Fig. 12 are given by :
(a) (b)  
0 1   n 0 
 n 
 1
 0 n  0 − 
(c)   (d) n
−n 0   
 n 0 
NPCIL-2015  40 Ω  50 Ω 
(a)  s 1  (b)  s 2 
Ans. (c) : Let us consider a two port network of a  2 0.1s  1 2s 
transformer is -
10s 2 
(c)  (d) None of the above
1 2s 
Ans. (a) :
From above figure-

V1 = nV2
V1 = 0I1 + nV2 ..........(i)
and
I2 = –nI1 By KVL equation,
I2 = –nI1 + 0V2 ............(ii) 40
for h- parameter - V1 = I1 + V2
V1 = h11 I1 + h12V2 ...............(iii) s
I2 = h21I1 + h22V2 ..............(iv) V
I 2 = 2I1 + 2
by comparing equation (i) with (iii) & equation (ii) with 10
(iv) we get I 2 = 2I1 + 0.1V2
 h11 h12   0 n  h h12   40 / s 1 
h  =  −n 0  h =  11 ⇒
 21 h 22     h 21 h 22   2 0.1s 
57. Find the value of ‘h12’ for the following
59. The h21 parameter of the two port network
network.
shown in figure shown below is :
(a) 0 (b) 3/5

1
(c) 5/3 (d) 3 (a) − (b) –1
SAIL- 2014 3
Ans. (a) : Applying KVL in Loop (1) 1
(c) (d) 2
V1 = 5I1 –––––(i) 3
Applying KVL in loop (2) DRDO-2009
V2 = 3I2 Ans. (b) : Given circuit diagram-
V
I2 = 2 –––––(ii)
3
For h-parameter-
V1 = h11I1 + h12V2 ––––– (iii)
I2 = h21I1 +h22V2 –––––– (iv)
From given network- Ans. (a) : Given-
V1 = 10I1 + 10(I1 – I2)
 1 1
V1 = 20I1 – 10I2 ––––––(1) Y= 
V2 = 20I2 + 10(I1 – I2)  −1 1
V2 = 10I2 + 10I1 For Z matrix
−10I1 + V2 Z = Y–1
I2 =
10 1 1
 − 
I2 = − I1 +
V2
––––––(2) 1 1 − 1 2 2
Z= = 
10 (1 + 1) 1 1   1 1 
V1 = h11I1 + h12V2 –––(3)
 2 2 
I2 = h21I1 + h22V2 ––––(4)
n n
By comparing eq (1) with (3) and eq (2) with (4) 1 1
 − 
h21 = –1  Z11 Z 12  2 2
Z Z  = 1 1 
60. Which one of the following is the transmission  21 22   
matrix equation for network Na if two  2 2 
networks Na and Nb are cascaded as shown in
the figure? 1
Z11 = Ω
2
62. Consider the following experimental readings
for a two port network
V1 V2 I1 I2
Output open 100V 60V 10A 0
Ba   −V2a  Input open 30V 40V 0 3A
V  A
(a)  1  =  a
D a   I 2a 
The values of Z11, Z12, Z21 and Z22 respectively
 I1   Ca are
V  A Ba   V2a  (a) 10Ω, 10Ω, 6Ω and 13.33Ω
(b)  1  =  a
 I1   Ca Da   −I 2a  (b) 6Ω, 10Ω, 10Ω, and 6Ω
V  A Ba   − V2a  (c) 10Ω, 6Ω, 10Ω, and 13.33Ω
(c)  1  =  a
 I1   Ca − Da   I 2a  (d) 6Ω, 10Ω, 6Ω, and 10Ω
IES-2020
V  A Ba   V2a 
Ans. (a) : Z-parameters are also known as the open
(d)  1  =  a
 I1   Ca Da   −I 2a  circuit impedance parameters, they are expressed in the
ESE-2021 form of matrix
Ans.(b) : Given Two port network-  V1   Z11 Z12   I1 
V  =  Z   
 2   21 Z22   I 2 
When the output is open circuit (I2 = 0)
V1 = 100V, V2 = 60V, & I1= 10A
V1 100
For the network Na - Z11 = ⇒ Z11 = = 10Ω
By ABCD parameter I1 I2 = 0
10
V1 = AaV2a – BaI2a
V2 60
I1 = CaV2a – DaI2a Also Z21 = ⇒ Z21 = = 6Ω
I1 10
 V1   A a Ba   V2a  I2 = 0
 I  =  C D  −I  When the input is open circuit (I1= 0)
 1  a a   2a 
V1 = 30V, V2 = 40V, & I2 = 3A
61. The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given
1 1 V 30
by Y =  Z12 = 1 ⇒ Z12 = = 10Ω
 A/V. The Z11 parameter of the I 2 I =0 3
 -1 1  1
same network is V 40
1 1 Z22 = 2 ⇒ Z22 = = 13.33 Ω
(a) Ω (b) Ω I 2 I =0 3
2 2 1
(c) 1 Ω (d) 2 Ω The value of Z11, Z12, Z21 and Z22 respectively are 10Ω,
DRDO-2008 10Ω, 6Ω, and 13.33Ω.

63. Which of the following statements is/are V1 100∠0º
correct? Z11 = ⇒ Z11 = = 5Ω
1. In hybrid parameter representation both I1 I2 = 0
20∠0º
short and open circuit terminal conditions
are utilized. V2 25∠0º
Z21 = ⇒ Z21 = = 1.25Ω
2. The voltage of output port and the current I1 I2 = 0
20∠0º
of input port are expressed in terms of
current of output and voltage of input Case II Given,
port. V2 = 100∠0º V, I2 = 10∠0ºA and V1 = 50∠0º
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only V1 50∠0º
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Z12 = ⇒ Z12 = = 5Ω
I2 I1 = 0
10∠0º
IES-2020
Ans. (a) : Hybrid parameters are represented between V2 100∠0º
voltage and current in two port network. Z22 = ⇒ Z22 = = 10Ω
I2 I1 = 0
10∠0º
 V1   h11 h12   I1 
I  =  h   The driving point impedance Z11 , Z22 are respectively
 2   21 h 22   V2  5Ω, 10Ω.
In equation form of h parameter and the transfer impedances Z21, Z12 are 1.25Ω, 5Ω.
V1 = h11I1 + h12V2 65. Consider the following equations:
I2 = h21I1 + h22V2 V1 = 6V2 – 4I2
From the above equation, we concluded that the input I1 = 7V2 – 2I2
port voltage (V1) and output port current (I2) is
expressed in the terms of input port current (I1) and A, B, C and D parameters are
output port voltage (V2). (a) 6, –4Ω, 7 mho and –2
So, Statement (b) is false. (b) 6, 4Ω, 7 mho and 2
Open circuit in input port- i.e. with (I1= 0) (c) –6, 4Ω, –7 mho and 2
V1 (d) 6, 4Ω, –7 mho –2
h12 = , it gives the voltage ratio IES-2019
V2 I1 = 0
Ans. (b) : ABCD parameters equation can be given as
I2 V1= AV2 + B (–I2) ......(i)
h 22 = , it gives the admittance I1 = CV2 + D (–I2) .....(ii)
V2 I1 = 0
Equation given from question
Short circuit of output port - i.e. with (V2 = 0)
V1 = 6V2 − 4I 2 .....(iii)
V1 I1 = 7V2 − 2I 2 ......(iv)
h11 = It gives the impedance
I1 V2 =0 Now comparing the given equations from (i) & (ii)
I2 respectively equation (iii) & (iv)
h 21 = It gives the current ratio A = 6, B = 4Ω
I1 V2 = 0
C = 7 ℧, D = 2
64. Consider the following measurements on a two
terminal network: 66. In hybrid parameter, h11 and h21 are called as
1. When a voltage 100∠0º volts applied at (a) input impedance and forward current gain
input port with output port open, (b) reverse voltage gain and output admittance
I1 = 20∠0ºA and V2 = 25∠0ºV. (c) input impedance and reverse voltage gain
2. When a voltage of 100∠0º volts applied at (d) output impedance and forward current gain
output port with input port open IES-2019
I2 = 10∠0ºA and V1 = 50∠0ºV Ans. (a) : h or hybrid parameter equations can be given
The driving point impedances Z11, Z22 and as
transfer impedances Z21, Z12 respectively V1 = h11I1 + h12 V2 ...(i)
are
(a) 5Ω,10Ω and 1.25Ω, 5Ω I 2 = h 21I1 + h 22 V2 ....(ii)
(b) 10Ω, 5Ω and 1.25Ω, 5Ω From equation (i) when V2 = 0
(c) 5Ω, 1.25Ω and 5Ω, 10Ω V
then h11 = 1 → Input impedance
(d) 10Ω, 1.25Ω and 5Ω, 5Ω I1
IES-2020 from equation (ii) when V2 = 0
Ans. (a) : Given,
I
Case I h 21 = 2 → forward current gain
V1 = 100∠0º , I1 = 20∠0º A and V2 = 25∠0º I1

67. In ABCD parameters, A and C are called 1 15 −10 
(a) reverse current ratio and transfer admittance =  −10 15
(b) reverse voltage ratio and transfer impedance 15 × 15 − 10 × 10  
(c) reverse current ratio and transfer impedance 1 15 − 10 
=
(d) reverse voltage ratio and transfer admittance 225 − 100  −10 15
IES-2019
Ans. (d) : Transmission or ABCD parameter equations = 1 15 −10
can be given as 125  −10 15
V1 = AV2 – BI2 .....(i) So none answer will be correct.
I1 = CV2 – DI2 ......(ii) 69. A two-port network is characterized by
for I2 = 0, from equation (i) I1 = 3V1 + 4V2
V1 6I2 = 2V1 – 4V2
A= → Reverse voltage ratio
V2 Its A, B, C and D parameters are, respectively
for I2 = 0, from equation (ii) (a) 2, 3, 6 and 9 (b) 2, –3, 10 and –9
(c) 3, 2, –9 and 6 (d) 3, –2, 9 and –6
I
C = 1 → transfer admittance IES-2017
V2 Ans. (b) : A, B, C, D parameters can be expressed as
68. What is the admittance matrix for a two-port  V1   A B   V2 
network shown in the figure given below? I  =  C D   −I 
1   2
or V1 = AV2 – BI2
I1 = CV2 – DI2
From question-
I1 = 3V1 + 4V2 .......(i)
6I 2 = 2V1 − 4V2 .......(ii)
From equation (ii)
15 5  1 15 −5 2V1 = 4V2 + 6I2
(a)   (b)
 5 15 20  −5 15 
or V1 = 2V2 + 3I 2 .......(iii)
 5 15 1  20 5  Putting the value of V1 in equation (i)
(c)   (d)
15 5  200 15 20  I1 = 3(2V2 + 3I 2 ) + 4V2
IES-2017 = 6V2 + 9I 2 + 4V2
Ans. (*) : I1 = 10V2 + 9I 2 .....(iv)
From equation (iii) & (iv)
A = 2, B = –3
C = 10, D = –9
70. The open circuit input impedance of a 2-port
network is
We know that,
Admittance parameter is-
I1 = Y11V1 + Y12 V2
I 2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2 A B
(a) Ω (b) Ω
I C D
Y11 = 1 ; WhenV2 = 0
V1 D A
(c) Ω (d) Ω
I C B
Y21 = 2 , When V2 = 0 IES-2016
V1
Ans. (a) : For A, B, C, D Transmission line equations
Z11 = Za + Zb = 5 + 10 = 15Ω can be given as
Z22 = Zb + Zc = 10 + 5 = 15Ω V1 = AV2 − BI 2 ......(i)
Z12 = Z21 = Zb = 10Ω I1 = CV2 − DI 2 ......(ii)
Admittance matrix- (Inverse of impedance) for open circuit input impedance
 Y11 Y12  1  Z22 − Z12  Let
Y  =   I2 = 0
 21 Y22  Z11 Z22 − Z12 Z21  − Z21 Z11  then from (i) & (ii)
V1 72.
For a symmetric lattice network, the value of
A= the series impedance is 3Ω and that of the
V2
diagonal impedance is 5Ω, then the Z.
I parameters of the network are
C= 1
V2 (a) Z11 = Z22 = 2Ω and Z12 = Z21 = 1/2Ω
dividing A & C (b) Z11 = Z22 = 4Ω and Z12 = Z21 = 1Ω
A V1 (c) Z11 = Z22 = 8Ω and Z12 = Z21 = 2Ω
= = ( Zin )OC (d) Z11 = Z22 = 16Ω and Z12 = Z21 = 4Ω
C I1
IES-2015
71. A 2-port Network is shown in figure. The Ans. (b) : According to question from given data
parameter h21 for this network can be given by symmetrical lattice network can be drawn as-
+ +
− −
(a) –1/2 (b) +1/2
Let series impedances are
(c) –3/2 (d) +3/2
Za = Zd = 3Ω
IES-2015
BEL-2015 and diagonal impedances
GATE-1999 Zb = Zc = 5Ω
Ans. (a) : h or hybrid parameter equation can be given then
as Z + Zb 3 + 5
Z11 = a = = 4Ω = Z22
V1 = h11I1 + h12 V2 ......(i) 2 2
Z − Za 5 − 3
I 2 = h 21I1 + h 22 V2 ......(ii) and Z12 = b = = 1Ω = Z21
2 2
for h21, Let V2 = 0
73. Z-Parameters for the network shown in the
I figure are
then h 21 = 2
I1
now from given network
(a) Z11 = Z, Z22 = Z, Z12 = Z21 = Z

Applying nodal at point K (b) Z11 = 1/Z, Z22 = 1/Z, Z12 = Z21 = 1/Z
Then (c) Cannot be determined
V1 − VK VK VK (d) Z11 = Z, Z22 = Z, Z12 = Z21 = 1/Z
= + IES-2015
R R R
V1 – VK = 2VK Ans. (c) : As per given diagram of two port network by
the question-
3VK = V1
V
or VK = 1
3
V
V1 − 1
V1 − VK 3 = 2V1
then I1 = =
R R 3R
V1
−
0 − VK V I1 = –I2 which shows dependency on each other and as
and I 2 = = 3 =− 1 per definition of Z parameter, I1 and I2 must be
R R 3R
independent variables.
I V / 3R −1
then h 21 = 2 = − 1 = So for the given network Z parameters can not be
I1 2V1 / 3R 2 determined.
74. For the two-port network shown in the figure Ans. (c) : As per question two port network having
the transmission parameter C is transmission matrix is
A B 
=  
 C D
There are two matrix of same value and cascaded
then resultant matrix
A B  A B 
=   
 C D  C D
 A 2 + BC AB + BD 
Z = 
(a) Za (b) 1 + a 2 
Zb  AC + CD BC + D 
76. In the following statements, choose the correct
1 combinations(s) :
(c) Zb (d)
Zb 1. If Z11 = Z22 and |h| = 1, the network is
IES-2014 symmetric
2. If h11 = h12 the network is symmetric
Ans. (d) : As per question figure
3. If h12 = – h21 the network is reciprocal
4. If A2 – BC = 0 the network is reciprocal
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
IES-2013
Ans. (a) : The condition for symmetry in Z-parameter
is given as
Z11 = Z22
A, B, C, D parameter equation can be given as and in h-parameter condition of symmetry
V1 = AV2 –BI2  h11 h12 
I1 = CV2 –DI2 h  =1
 21 h 22 
for C parameter I2 = 0
or h =1
I1
then C = ..........(i) condition for reciprocity in h-parameter can be given as
V2 h = –h
12 21
when I2 = 0, current I1 will flow through Zb 77.
The transmission parameters in inverse hybrid
then V2 = ZbI1 (g) parameter form are expressed in terms of
putting value of V2 in (i) the
I 1 (a) current of input port 1 and voltage of the
C= 1 = output part 2 and which are expressed in
Zb I1 Zb terms of the input voltage and output current
75. Two identical two-port networks having (b) input voltage and current of the input port 1
transmission matrix and which are expressed in terms of the
output voltage and current of the output port 2
A B (c) input voltage and output currents of port 1
 C D
  and port 2 respectively and which are
are cascaded. What will be the resultant expressed in terms of the input current and
output voltage of port 1 and port 2
transmission matrix of the cascade? respectively
A B  (d) None of the above
(a)  
 C D IES-2013
Ans. (a) : Inverse hybrid g-parameter can be given as
 2A 2B 
(b)    I1   g11 g12   V1 
 2C 2D  V  = g  
 2   21 g 22   I 2 
 A + BC AB + BD 
2
(c)  from above matrix I1 and V2 are dependent on V1 and I2.

2 
 AC + CD BC + D  Where,
I1 → Input port current
A B 
2 2
(d)  2 V2 → Output port voltage
2
C D  V1 → Input port voltage
IES-2014 I2 → Output port current
78. Two identical 2-port network NA and NB are 80. For a two port network V1 and V2 are given by
connected in cascade to form a composite V1 = 60 I1 + 20 I2
network N. The transmission parameters of N V2 = 20 I1 + 40 I2
are given by the matrix The Y-parameters of the network are
7 12  (a) Y11 = 20 × 10–3
4 7  Y12 = – 10 × 10–3
 
The transmission matrix for the individual Y21 = – 10 × 10–3
network is Y22 = 30 × 10–3
(b) Y11 = – 10 × 10–3
3.5 6  14 24
(a)   (b)   Y12 = 20 × 10–3
 2 3.5  8 14  Y21 = 20 × 10–3
2 3 3 2 Y22 = – 30 × 10–3
(c)   (d) 2 1  (c) Y11 = 10 × 10–3
1 2   Y12 = – 20 × 10–3
IES-2013 Y21 = – 20 × 10–3
Ans. (c) : According to question Two identical two port Y22 = 30 × 10–3
networks NA and NB to form network N (d) Y11 = – 20 × 10–3
∴ [NA] [NB] = [N] Y12 = 10 × 10–3
where N is a transmission matrix Y21 = 10 ×10–3
 7 12  Y22 = – 30 × 10–3
given as N =   IES-2012
4 7 
Ans. (a) : According to question
7 12 
∴ [ N A ][ N B ] =  
V1 = 60I1 + 20I2
4 7  V2 = 20I1 + 40I2
 A B   A B  7 12  After comparing with Z-parameter
=
 C D  C D  4 7   60 20 
     Z= 
 A 2 + BC AB + BD   7 12  20 40 
 2 
=  we know that Admittance matrix 'Y' is
 AC + CD BC + D   4 7  1 1
Y = = [ Z] = adj [ Z]
−1
By solving the values of A, B, C, D we get the
individual network Z z
2 3 Z = 60 × 40 − 20 × 20 = 2000
1 2
   40 −20 
adj Z =  
79.  −20 60 
then
1  40 −20 
Y=
2000  −20 60 
 20 × 10−3 −10 × 10−3   Y11 Y12 
=  −3 = 
 −10 ×10 30 × 10−3   Y21 Y22 
The condition of symmetry in ABCD 81. The h11 and h22 of a standard T-network with
parameters in the system shown above will be series impedances 2Ω and 7Ω, and shunt
(a) A = D (b) B =
1 branch impedance of 3Ω are
A (a) 5Ω and 10 mho respectively
1 (b) 10Ω and 5 mho respectively
(c) A = (d) B = D (c) 5Ω and 0.1 mho respectively
B
IES-2013 (d) 10 Ω and 0.2 mho respectively
Ans. (a) : According to question figure, the given figure IES-2012
is the two port network representation of ABCD Ans. (c) : As per data given from the question 'T'
parameter. network can be drawn as-
Which can be given as
 V1   A B   V2 
 I  =  C D   −I 
1    2
And condition of symmetry in ABCD parameter is →
A=D
Applying KVL in the above network Y Y12   V1 
V1 = 2I1 + 3(I1 + I 2 ) =  11   
 Y21 Y22   V2 
= 2I1 + 3I1 + 3I2 So Y12 = –YC
V1 = 5I1 + 3I2 ...............(i) 83. The condition under which the input
V2 = 7I2 +3(I1+I2) impedance at port 1 for the below network will
= 3I1 +10 I2 be equal to R0 is
10 I2 = –3I1+ V2
or I2 = –0.3 I1 + 0.1V2 ........(ii)
putting the value of I2 from equation (ii) in equation (i)
V1 = 5I1 + 3(−0.3I1 + 0.1V2 )
V1 = 5I1 − 0.9I1 + 0.3V2
V1 = 4.1I1 + 0.3V2 ................(iii)
Now from equation (iii) & (ii)
(a) Za + Zb = R0 (b) Za Zb = R 20.
 V1   4.1 0.3  I1 
 I  =  −0.3 0.1  V  (c) Za/Zb = 1 (d) Zb/Za = 1/2
 2    2 IES-2012
h h12   I1  Ans. (b) : From question figure it is clear that we can
=  11  V  represent it in wheat stone bridge.
 h 21 h 22   2 At balance condition-
from above matrix
h11 = 4.1 ≈ 5Ω
h 22 = 0.1 ℧
82. For the two-port network shown, the
parameter Y12 is equal to
R 0 Zb
=
Za R 0
∴ R 02 = Za Zb
84. In the 2-port network shown in the figure, the
value of Y12 is
(a) YC (b) YC + YB
(c) YA + YC (d) – YC
IES-2012
Ans. (d) : As given diagram is
1 1
(a) − mho (b) + mho
3 3
(c) –3 mho (d) +3 mho
IES-2011
from given network Ans. (a) : We know that
I1 = V1YA + (V1 − V2 )YC  I1   Y11 Y12   V1 
I  = Y   
I1 = V1YA + V1YC − V2 YC  2   21 Y22   V2 
I1 = V1 ( YA + YC ) − V2 YC ∴ I1 = Y11V1 + Y12V2
and I1
Y12 =
I2 = V2YB + (V2 –V1)YC V2 V1 = 0
= V2 YB + V2 YC − V1YC then shorting V1 terminal of given figure
= – V1YC + (YB + YC )V2
V1 = 0
And Admittance (Y) matrix can be given as
 I1   YA + YC −YC   V1 
 I  =  −Y YB + YC   V2 
 2  C

1. The network is reciprocal
2. Z11 = 4 and Z12 = 8
3. Z21 = 8 and Z22 = 16
4. Z11 = 2 and Z12 = 4
Which of these relations are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only
IES-2011
Ans. (c) : According to question
4I1 + 8I2 = 2V1
or V1 = 2I1 + 4I 2 ............(i)
I2 × 3 I2 V2 = 8I1 + 16I 2 ............(ii)
IA = = from equation (i) & (ii) comparison with Z parameter
4.5 1.5
V1 = Z11I1+Z12I2
I2 I2
I B = I 2 − IA = I2 − = V2 = Z21I1+Z22I2
1.5 3 So,
I2 Z11 = 2Ω , Z12 = 4Ω
Now V2 = 3 × IB = 3 × = I2
3 Z21 = 8Ω , Z22 = 16Ω
IA I This network is not reciprocal because Z12 ≠ Z21
I1 = − =− 2
2 3 87. For the network shown in the figure, Y11 and
I1 −I 2 / 3 −1 Y12 are, respectively
∴ Y12 = = = ℧
V2 I2 3 + +
85. In the circuit shown, 2-port network N has
Z11 = 103Ω, Z12= 10Ω, Z21 = –106Ω and
Z22 = 104Ω. The current gain I2/I1 is
− −
3 1
(a) mho and − mho
50 30
(a) –50 (b) +50 (c) +20 (d) –20 3 1
(b) mho and mho
IES-2011 50 30
Ans. (b) : From given data & figure 3 1
(c) − mho and − mho
V1 = 103 I1 + 10I2 ...........(i) 50 30
V2 = −106 I1 + 104 I2 ...........(ii) 3 1
(d) − mho and mho
From given network 50 30
V2 = −10 × 103 I 2 = −10 4 I 2 IES-2011
then Ans. (a) :
−104 I2 = −106 I1 + 104 I2 + −
−2 × 10 4 I 2 = −106 I1
I2 106 100
∴ = = = 50
I1 2 × 104 2
86. A two-port network satisfies the following
relations:
let voltage at node is VA
4I1 + 8I2 = 2V1 then
8I1 + 16I2 = V2
VA − V1 VA VA − 8I1 − V2
+ + =0
10 5 4
+ +
VA V1 VA VA 8I1 V2
− + + − − =0
10 10 5 4 4 4
− −
11 V V
VA − 1 − 2 = 2I1 ........(i)
20 10 4
V1 − VA 2Ia = VA − 2V1 − V2 ..........(i)
Also I1 =
10 and Ia = V1 –VA
VA = V1 − 10I1 ..........(ii) ∴ VA = V1 –Ia .........(ii)
put the value of VA from equation (ii) into equation (i) also V2 = 2Ia ×1
11 V V V
( V1 − 10I1 ) − 1 − 2 = 2I1 ∴ Ia = 2 ...........(iii)
20 10 4 2
Putting value of VA from equation (ii) into equation (i)
3V1 V2
− = I1 ..........(iii) 2Ia = V1 –Ia –2V1–V2
50 30 3Ia = –V1–V2
also Now putting the value of Ia from equation (iii)
V + 8I1 − VA
I2 = 2 V
3 × 2 = − V1 − V2
4 2
4I 2 = V2 + 8I1 − VA
3V2
(putting the value of VA) + V2 = −V1
2
4I 2 = V2 − V1 + 18I1 ..........(iv)
5V2
= −V1
Now putting the value of I1 from equation (iii) 2
V2 −2
 3V V  or = = G12
4I 2 = V2 − V1 + 18  1 − 2  V1 5
 50 30 
89. Match List-I (Excitation) with List-II (Two-
1 I
∴ I2 =
V1 + V2 ........(v) port parameters) and select the correct answer
50 10 using the code given below the lists:
Now from equation (iii) & (v) List-I List-II
3 −1 A. I1, I2 1. Z
Y11 = mho , Y12 = mho
50 30 B. V1, V2 2. Y
1 1 C. V1, I2 3. g
Y21 = mho , Y22 = mho D. I1, V2 4. h
50 10
88. The network below contains resistors and Codes:
controlled sources. G12 = V2/V1 is A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
IES-2010
Ans. (a) : We know that Z-parameter
 V1   Z11 Z12   I1 
V  =  Z   
(a) −
4
(b) −
3  2  21 Z22   I 2 
5 5 Y- parameter
2 1  I1   Y11 Y12   V1 
(c) − (d) −
5 5 I  =  Y   
 2   21 Y22   V2 
IES-2010
h- parameter
Ans. (c) :
 V1   h11 h12   I1 
I  =  h   
 2  21 h 22   V2 
g-parameter
 I1   g11 g12   V1 
 V  = g   
 2  21 g 22   I2 
90. Consider the following statements for a
symmetrical T section
Applying KCL at point A 1. Z11 and Z22 are equal
2. Z12 and Z21 are equal
V − 2V1 − V2
I a + Ia = A 3. Z11 and Z12 are equal
1 4. Z21 and Z22 are equal
Which of these statements are correct? 92. With reference to the below network the value
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only of Z11 will be
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
IES-2010
Ans. (a) : The condition in the symmetrical T networks
is that the total series arm impedance and shunt arm
impedance must be Zx and Zy respectively.
(a) –3 (b) 3
(c) –1 (d) –5
IES-2010
Ans. (d) : Given circuit diagram
Applying KVL in loop–1

V1 = I1 (Zx+Zy)+I2Zy
Applying KVL in loop–II
V2 = I1 Zy +I2 (Zx+Zy)
Now in matrix form Z-parameter
 V1   Zx + Z y Zy   I1  V1
V  =  Z Z x + Z y   I  ......(i) Z11 =
 2  y  2 I1 I2 = 0
comparing with Z-parameter Applying KCL at x

 V1   Z11 Z12   I1  V V − V2 ∴ VX = VZ 
V  =  Z    ......(ii) I1 = Z + Z  
 2  21 Z22   I2  5 5 & V2 = Vy 
Hence from equation (i) & (ii) 2V − V2
I1 = Z ...........(i)
Z11 = Z22 & Z12 = Z21 5
91. A two-port network has the ABCD parameters At Node y
V2 − 4VZ V2 − VZ
7 8  + =0
3 4 . Two such identical networks are 5 5
  2V − 5V = 0 2 Z
cascaded. The ABCD parameters of the overall
2
cascaded network will be VZ = V2 ......(ii)
5
14 16  73 88  Putting the value of VZ in equation (i)
(a)   (b)  
6 8 33 40  2 
2  V2  − V2
1 1  49 64   5 
(c)   (d)   I1 =
1 1  9 16  5
IES-2010 4V2
− V2
−V2
Ans. (b) : According to question = 5 =
5 25
ABCD parameters
V2 = −25I1 ………………….(iii)
7 8 
T1 =   V − VZ
3 4 Also I1 = 1
5
7 8  5I1 = V1 − VZ
also T2 =  
3 4 V1 = 5I1 + VZ
After cascading = T1 × T2 2
= 5I1 + V2
7 8  7 8  5
=   ×  Putting the value of V2 from (iii)
3 4  3 4 V1 = 5I1–10I1 = –5I1
73 88  V1
=   or = −5 = Z11
33 40 I1

93. In the case of ABCD parameters, if all the Codes:
impedances in the network are doubled, then A B C D A B C D
(a) A and D remain unchanged, C is halved and (a) 1 4 2 3 (c) 1 2 4 3
B is doubled (b) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
(b) A, B, C and D are doubled IES-2009
(c) A and B are doubled, C and D are unchanged Ans. (d) : From Z-parameter
(d) A and D are unchanged, C is doubled and B is V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I 2 ....(i)
halved.
V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I 2 ....(ii)
UPRVUNL AE-11.06.2014 Put I2 = 0 in equation (i)
IES-2012, 2010 so,
Ans. (a) : ABCD parameter can be given as V1
Z11 =
 V1   A B   V2  I1 I2 = 0
I  =  C D −I  Put I1 = 0 in equation (ii)
1    2
V1 = AV2 + B(− I2 ) , I1 = CV2 + D(−I2 ) V2
Z22 =
V1 I I2 I1 = 0
∴ B=− (Impedance) , C = 1 (Admittance)
I2 V2 from T-parameter
V1 I V1 = AV2 − BI 2 ....(iii)
A= , D=− 1 I1 = CV2–DI2 ....(iv)
V2 I2
Put I2 = 0 in equation (iii) & (iv)
from question when Impedance is doubled B will be So,
doubled and C will be halved. Other parameters will not
change. V I
A= 1 C= 1
94. With respect to transmission parameters, V2 I = 0 V2 I = 0
2 2
which one of the following is correct?
(a) A and B are dimensionless 96. A two-port network has Z 11 = 13/35,
Z12 = Z21 = 2/35, Z22 = 3/35. Its Y11 and Y12
(b) B and C are dimensionless
parameters will respectively, be
(c) A and D are dimensionless (a) 3, –2 (b) 3, 2
(d) B and D are dimensionless (c) 13, –2 (d) 13, 2
IES-2009 IES-2008
Ans. (c) : In ABCD parameter Ans. (a) : As the data given Z parameter can be
V V expressed as
A= 1 , B=− 1Ω
V2 I2 13 / 35 2 / 35
I I
[ V] =  I
C= 1 ℧, D=− 1  2 / 35 3 / 35 
V2 I2 V = [Z][I]
In given parameters A & D are voltage gain and 1 1
We know that Y = =  Z−1  = adj[ Z]
current gain respectively so these are dimensionless and Z | Z|
the unit of B and C is ohm and mho respectively.
13 × 3 2× 2 1
95. Match List-I (Network parameter) with List-II | Z |= − =
(Measured under open-circuit conditions) and 35 × 35 35 × 35 35
select the correct answer using the code given 3 / 35 −2 / 35
below the lists: adj[Z] =35
−2 / 35 13 / 35
List-I List-II
3/ 35 −2 / 35 3 −2
V2 ∴ Y = 35 =
A. Z11 1. −2 / 35 13/ 35 −2 13
I2 I = 0
1 ∴ Y11 = 3 & Y12 = −2
V1 97. What are the ABCD parameters of the single
B. A 2.
V2 element circuit given below?
I2 = 0
V1
C. C 3.
I1 I2 = 0
I1
D. Z22 4.
V2 I2 = 0

1 Z 1 1 Codes:
(a)  (b) 
1  0 
A B C D
0 Z (a) 2 1 4 3
1 Z Z 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c)  (d) 
1 0  1 1 (c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
IES-2007
IES-2007,1998,1994
Ans. (a) :
Ans. (c)
when I2 = 0
V1 = V2
and I1=I2 = 0 Apply KVL in loop (1)
ABCD - parameter V1 = (re + rb )I1 + µ bc V2 ....(i)
V1 = AV2 – BI2 Apply KCL at Node x
I1 = CV2 –DI2
 1 
V I 2 = α ab I1 + V2   ....(ii)
A = 1 =1
V2  re + rd 
From equation (i) & equation (ii) comparison with
I1 h-parameter
C= =0
V2 V1 = h11I1+h12V2
I2 = h21I1 +h22V2
so,
h11 = re + rb , h12 = µbc
1
h21= αeb , h 22 =
rc + rd
V1 = I1Z = –ZI2 99. Which of the following is/are correct? The
−V1 circuit shown in the figure below.
=Z=B
I2 +
+
then B=Z
−I1
also =1= D
I2
 A B  1 Z 
then  C D = 0 1  − −
   
98. Consider the two port transistor circuit as 1. is reciprocal
given below: 2. has Z11 = 2, Z22 = 2
Match List-I (Hybrid Parameter) with List-II 3. has Z11 = 4, Z22 = 2
(Circuit Element) and select the correct answer 4. has Z11 = 0, Z22 = 2
using the code given below the lists: Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
c (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 only
IES-2007
Ans. (a) :
List-I List-II
1
A. h11 1.
rc + rd
B. h12 2. rb + rc
C. h21 3. µbc
D. h22 4. αeb
Applying KVL in loop-1 101. Two 2-port networks with transmission
V1–2I1 –I1 – (I1+I2) = 0 matrices
V1 –3I1–I1–I2 = 0  1 2  2 4
V1 = 4I1 + I2 .........(i) TA =   and TB =  
0.1 4  0.5 3
KVL in loop-2 are connected in cascade. Which is the
V2–I2 – (I1+I2) = 0 transmission matrix of the combination?
V2–I2 –I1–I2 = 0
 3 10   3 6 
V2 = 2I2 + I1 (a)   (b)  
or V2 = I1 +2I2 ........(ii)  2.2 12.4  0.2 12.4 
equation (i) & (ii) comparison with Z parameter 1 10   3 10 
V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2 (c)   (d)  
 2.0 12.0  12.4 2.2 
V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2 IES-2006
so,
Ans. (a) : From question
Z11 = 4 , Z12 =1
Z21 = 1, Z22 = 2  1 2  2 4
TA =   and TB =  0.5 3 
then Z12 = Z21 → Reciprocal  0.1 4   
100. Which one of the following is correct? When cascaded, combination matrix will be
= [ TA ] × [ TB ]
+ +
 1 2  2 4
=  × 
0.1 4  0.5 3 
 2 +1 4+6   3 10 
=   =  
− − 0.2 + 2 0.4 + 12   2.2 12.4 
102. Which one of the following is the transmission
(a) is reciprocal but not symmetrical
matrix for the network shown in the figure
(b) is not reciprocal but symmetrical given below?
(c) is both reciprocal and symmetrical
(d) is neither reciprocal nor symmetrical
IES-2007
Ans. (a) :
 1 1 + YZ  1 + YZ Z 
(a)  (b) 
Y Z   Y 1 
1 Z  1 1 + YZ 
(c)   (d) 
 Y 1 + YZ  Z Y 
IES-2006
Applying KVL in loop-1 Ans. (c) :
V1+3I1–RI1 –R (I1+I2) = 0
V1 + 3I1 – RI1–RI1–RI2 = 0
V1 + 3I1 –2RI1–RI2 = 0
V1 = –(3–2R) I1 + RI2 ...........(i)
KVL in loop –2
V2 –RI2 –R(I1+I2) = 0
V2 –RI2 –RI1 –RI2 =0
V2 –2RI2 –RI1 = 0 Transmission parameters can be given as
V2 = RI1 + 2RI2 .........(ii) V1 = AV2 – BI2
Equation (i) & (ii) comparison with Z parameter I1 = CV2 – DI2
V1 = Z11I1 + Z12I2 V1
V2 = Z21 I1 + Z22I2 A=
V2 I2 = 0
Z11 = –(3–2R) , Z12 = R
Z21 = R , Z22 = 2R When I2 = 0 then V1 = V2 from figure
Here, ∴ A=1
Z12 = Z21 ⇒ Reciprocal I1
C=
Z11 ≠ Z22 ⇒ Not symmetrical V2 I2 = 0

I1 32
or C= .........(i) (V1 = V2) Rc = =2
V1 16
from figure
I1
V1 =
Y
I1
or = Y = C .........from equation (i)
V1
Now putting V2 = 0, then figure will be like this
Applying KVL in loop-1 & loop-2
E1 = 5I1 + 2 (I1 + I2)
= 7 I1 + 2I2 ........(i)
E2 = 6I2 + 2(I1+I2)
= 2I1 + 8I2 ........(ii)
E1
We know that h12 =
E2 I1 = 0
I × 1/ Y I1
− I2 = 1 = then from (i) & (ii)
Z+
1 1 + ZY E1 = 2I2
Y E2 = 8I2
−I1 dividing E1 & E2
or = 1 + ZY = D
I2 E1 2 1
= = = 0.25
Also V1 = –I2Z E2 8 4
V1 104. The currents I1 and I2 at the output of 2-port
=Z=B network can be written as
−I 2
Hence
A B   1 Z 
 C D  =  Y 1 + YZ 
   
103. What is the value of the parameter h12 for the
2-port network shown in the figure given
below?
+ + I1 = 5V1 – V2
I2 = –V1 + V2
Which one of the following gives the
E1 E2 parameters of an equivalent π network shown
above?
− −
(a) Y1 = 4℧, Y2 = 0, Y3 = 1℧
(a) 0.125Ω (b) 0.167Ω (b) Y1 = 4℧, Y2 = 4℧, Y3 = 1℧
(c) 0.250Ω (d) 0.625Ω (c) Y1 = 1℧, Y2 = 1℧, Y3 = 1℧
IES-2006
(d) Y1 = 4℧, Y2 = 0, Y3 = 2℧
Ans. (c) : According to given figure
IES-2006
+ + Ans. (a) : Given,
I1 = 5V1 – V2
E1
I2 = –V1+V2
E2
− −
Converting π to Y
4× 4
Ra = =1
16
By comparison
4×8 Y11 = 5 , Y12 = –1
Rb = =2
16 Y21 = –1, Y22 = 1

from figure Ans. (b) : Let, Z1 = 2Ω & Z2 = 1Ω
Y11 = Y1 + Y3 = 5 ...(i)
Y21 = Y12 = –Y3 = –1 ...(ii)
Y22 = Y2 + Y3 = 1 ....(iii)
from equation (i)
Y1+Y3 = 5
Put Y3 = 1
Y1+1 = 5
The given network is symmetrical and reciprocal lattice
Y1 = 4℧ network
From equation (iii) so,
Y2 +Y3 =1 Z − Z1 1 − 2
Z21 = Z12 = 2 = = −1/ 2
Put Y3 = 1 2 2
Y2 +1 = 1 Z12 = –1/2Ω
Y2 = 0 107. What is the expression for h12 in respect of
And from equation (ii) Y3 = 1℧ network shown below?
105. What is the open circuit impedance Z11(s) of
the network shown in the figure given below?
Z2 − Z1 Z1 + Z2
(a) (b)
Z1 + Z2 Z2 − Z1
 4 Z1 + Z2 Z1 − Z2
(a) 10 + 2s (b) 10 −  (c) (d)
 s Z1 − Z2 Z1 + Z2
 4 IES-2005
(c) 10 +  (d) 10 – 2s
 s Ans. (a) :
IES-2006
Ans. (c) : Given circuit diagram- + +
− −
Converting the network into s-domain From h-parameter equation

V1
h12 =
V2 I1 = 0
From figure at point P, I2 is divided in two parts

Then from figure-
Z11(s) = ZA+ZC I   −I 
V1 = Z2  2  + Z1  2 
 4  
2  2 
Z11 (S) =  10 + 
 s I 
V1 = ( Z2 − Z1 )  2 
106. What is the value of Z21 for the network shown 2
below?
Also
I  I 
V2 = Z2  2  + Z1  2 
2 2
I2
V1 = ( Z2 + Z1 )
2
(a) –2Ω (b) –1/2Ω V1 Z2 − Z1
(c) 1Ω (d) 2Ω Then h12 = =
V2 Z1 + Z2
IES-2006
108. For the network shown below. s
− I2 = .I1
s +1
 s +1
I1 = −   .I2 ……………(ii)
 s 
Putting the value of I1 from equation (ii) into equation (i)
−s  s + 1 
V1 = .  .I 2
s +1  s 
Match List-I (Y-parameter) with List-II
(Value) and select the correct answer using the V1 = −1, Y = V1 = −1
code given below the lists: I2
12
I2
List-I List-II
I
A. Y11 1. s + 1 Let V1 = 0, Y22 = 2
B. Y12 2. –1 V2
C. Y22 + Y21 3. 1 + 1/s
D. Y22 4. s
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 1×
1
(d) 1 2 4 3 V2 = s × I 2 = I2
1+
1 s + 1
IES-2005
s
Ans. (a) : Given circuit diagram- I2
Y22 = = s +1
V2
1
Y11 = 1 +
s
Y12 = Y21 = −1
Y22 = s+1
Converting the branches in s parameter and Y Y + Y = s + 1 − 1
22 21
configuration
Y22 +Y21 = s
109. The 2-port network shown in the circuit given
below is connected in parallel with another
2-port network which has
Y11 = Y22 = –Y12 = –Y21 = Y
Y-parameter standard equation

I1 = Y11V1 + Y12 V2
I 2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2 The Y-parameters of the composite network
will satisfy which one of the following?
I1 (a) Y11 = Y + g (b) Y12 = – Y + g
Let V2 = 0, Y11 = (c) Y21 = – Y + g (d) Y22 = Y + g
V1 V2 = 0
IES-2004
Ans. (c) : Y-parameter of the network
 0 0
y' =  
 g 0
and y-parameter of another network
 y – y
y" =  
s ×1 – y y 
V1 = × I1 …………..(i)
s +1 ∵ Parameter of composite network
I s +1 1 = y' + y"
Y11 = 1 = =1+
V1 s s  y – y
= 
Y11 = 1 +
1 – y + g y 
s then y21 = – y+ g
110. The input voltage V1 and current I1 for linear V1
passive network is given by V1 = AV2 – BI2 and A= = n , B = 0, C = 0
V2
I1 = CV2 – DI2
Now consider the following network: −I1 −1
D= =
I1 I2 I2 n
+ +
V1 n 0 
V2 A B  
− − then  = 1 
 C D  0
Which one of the following is the transfer  n
A B 112. For a two-port reciprocal network, the output
matrix   of the network shown above? open-circuit voltage divided by the input
C D  current is equal to
 1 0   1 10  (a) B (b) Z12
(a)   (b)   (c) 1/Y12 (d) h12
0 10  0 1  IES-2000
 0 1 0 10  Ans. (b) : Let the output open circuit voltage is V2 and
(c)   (d)   input current is I1 then according to question
10 0  1 0 
IES-2004 V2
= Z12 = Z21
Ans. (b) : Given circuit diagram- I1
As from reciprocity theorem for Z–Parameter
Z12 = Z21
113. In the transmission parameters of the below
network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3, then
the value of Zin is
Apply KVL & KCL in above network

V1 = V2 –10I2 ...(i) (∵ I1= –I2)
I1 + I2 = 0
I1= 0V2 – I2 ...(ii)
From equation (i) & (ii) comparison with T parameter 12 13
(a) Ω (b) Ω
V1 = AV2 – BI2 13 12
I1 = CV2 –DI2 (c) 3Ω (d) 4Ω
Hence, IES-2000
A = 1, B = 10Ω Ans. (a) : According to question-
C = 0, D = 1 A=C=1, B = 2, D = 3
So, we can write T-parameter From given network
1 10  V2 = I2R2 = I2 ×10
[T] =   V2 = 10I2
0 1  We know that
111. For an ideal step-down (n : 1) transformer, V1 = AV2 + BI2 (∵ A =1, B =2)
which one of the following is the ABCD = V2 +2I2
parameter matrix? V1 = 10I2 + 2I2 = 12I2
n 1  n 0  Also
(a)   (b)   I1 = CV2 + DI2 (∵ C = 1, D = 3)
1 n  0 n 
= V2 + 3I2 = 10I2 + 3I2
n 0   n 1/ n  I1 = 13I2
(c)   (d)  
 0 1/ n  1/ n 1  V 12I2 12
Then Zin = 1 = = Ω
IES-2004 I1 13I 2 13
Ans. (c) : We know that for an ideal transformer 114. In a two-terminal network, the open-circuit
V1 I2 n voltage measure at the given terminals by an
= = (I2 = – nI1) electronic voltmeter is 100V. A short-circuit
V2 I1 1
current measured at the same terminals by an
also for ABCD parameter ammeter of negligible resistance is 5A. If a load
V1 = AV2 + B ( −I2 ) resistor of 80Ω is connected at the same
terminals, then the current in the load resistor
I1 = CV2 + D ( − I2 )
will be.
(a) 1A (b) 1.25A (a) 2, 6 and –6 (b) 2, 6, and 0
(c) 6A (d) 6.25A (c) 2, 0 and 6 (d) 2, 6 and 8
IES-2000 IES-1998
Ans. (a) : According to question Ans. (c) : Given circuit diagram-
measured voltage V = 100V
Measured current I = 5A
Then Input Impedance of two port network
V 100
Zin = = = 20Ω
I 5 According to question
Also load resistor = 80Ω (given) Y11 = 8 mho, Y12 = Y21 = –6 mho
Let ZL = 80Ω Y22 = 6 mho
then V = (Zin + ZL )IL From given network
100 = (20+80) IL Y11 = YA+ YC = 8 .......(i)
Y12 = Y21 = –6= –YC
100
∴ IL = = 1A YC = 6 ......(ii)
100 Y22 = YB + YC = 6 ......(iii)
115. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct By solving equation (i), (ii) & (iii)
answer using the codes given below the Lists: YA = 2 , YB = 0, YC = 6
List-I 117. Z1 and Z2 in the figure shown represent L, C or
A. Bridged T-network R. For the transformation of square wave of
B. Twin T- network period "T" into a triangular wave, the values
C. Lattice network of Z1, Z2 and L/R or RC as the case may be,
D. Ladder network should be
List-II
1.
L
2. (a) Z1 = R, Z2 = L and << T
R
L
(b) Z1 = L, Z2 = R and << T
R
3. (c) Z1 = R, Z2 = C and RC >> T
(d) Z1 = C, Z2 = R and RC >>T
IES-1998
Ans. (c) :
4.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 When input wave is square wave and output wave is
(b) 4 2 3 1 triangular wave, then it will be an integrator circuit for
(c) 4 2 1 3 integrator
(d) 2 4 1 3 Z1 = R, Z2 = C
IES-1998 and RC >> T
Ans. (d) : From the given networks option 'd' will 118. The two-port network shown in the fig. is
correctly match the network diagrams. characterized by the impedance parameters
Z11, Z12, Z21 and Z22. For the equivalent
116. In respect of the 2-port network shown in the Thevenin's source looking to the left of port 2,
figure, the admittance parameters are: VT and ZT will be respectively
Y11=8 mho, Y12=Y21= –6 mho and Y22=6mho.
The values of YA, YB and YC (in units of mho)
will be respectively.

Z11 119. Which one of the following is the ratio V24/V13
(a) VT = Vg ; ZT = Z22 − Z12 of the network shown in the given figure?
Z11 + Zg
Z12
(b) VT = Vg ; ZT = Z22 − Z12
Z11 + Zg
Z21Vg Z12 Z21
(c) VT = ; ZT = Z22 −
Z11 + Zg Z11 + Zg
Z21Vg Z12 Z21
(d) VT = ; ZT = Z22 −
Z11 + Zg Z11 + Zg
IES-1997 1 2
(a) (b)
Ans. (d) : 3 3
3 4
(c) (d)
4 3
IES-1996
Ans. (a) :
From figure
V1 = Vg –ZgI1
V2
Zth = ZT =
I2 Vg = 0
V1 = –ZgI1 .........(i)
We know that apply voltage divider in above circuit
V1=Z11I1+Z12I2 ........(ii) 1× V13 V13
V2=Z21I1+Z22I2 ........(iii) V24 = =
Putting the value of V1 from equation (i) into 1+1+1 3
Equation (ii) V 1
or 24 =
–ZgI1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2 V13 3
I1(–Zg–Z11) = Z12I2 120. The network shown in the given figure is a
Z I gyrator which satisfies the equations V1 = R0I2
∴ I1 = − 12 2 and V2 = –R0I1. A bridging resistor R is
Zg + Z11
connected as shown. The y-parameters of the
Then putting the value of I1 in equation (iii) entire two-port network will be
Z ×Z I
V2 = − 21 12 2 + Z22 I2
Zg + Z11
V2 − Z21 Z12
Then = ZT = + Z22
I2 Z11 + Zg
From above equations
V1 = Vg − Zg I1
and V1= Z11I1 (for I2 = 0) IES-1996
then Y11 Y22 Y12 Y21
Z11I1 = V g − Zg I1 (a) 1 1  1 1   1 1
R R − +   − 
Vg  R R0   R0 R 
∴ I1 =
Z11 + Zg (b) 1 1 1 1
and VT = Z21I1 (for I 2 = 0) R R R0 R0
Vg (c) 1 1 1 1
put I1 = −
Z11 + Zg R R R0 R0
Z21Vg (d) 1 1 1 1
VT =
Z11 + Zg R R R0 R0

Ans. (*) : List-I List-II
Given, αrc + rb
A. h11 1. ( re + rb ) - rb
V1 = R 0 I 2 …………………….(i) rc + rb
V2 = − R 0 I1 ………………..(ii) rb + αrc
B. h12 2. −
These above equation can be written as rc + rb
 −1   1  1
C. h21 3.
I1 =   V2 + 0 and I 2 =   V1 + 0 rc + rb
R
 0  R0 
rb
Y-parameter D. h22 4.
rc + rb
I1 = Y11V1 + Y12 V2
I 2 = Y21V1 + Y22 V2
Then,
 1 
I1 = ( 0 ) V1 +  −  V2 …………..(iii)
 R0 
V
I 2 = 1 + ( 0 ) V2 …………………..(iv)
R0
Codes:
From equation (iii) and (iv) A B C D
I = Y1V (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
 1
0 −  (c) 1 4 2 3
 I1   R  V1 
I  =  1   (d) 2 3 4 1
 2  0  2
V IES-1996
 R 0 
Ans. (c) :
When bridging resistor R is connected between 2-port
then Y matrix is-
( I = Y2 V )
 1 −1 
 I1   R R   V1 
 =  
 I 2   −1 1   V2 
 R R 
Two network connected in parallel equivalent Y From figure in loop–1 applying KVL
parameter Vb = reI1 + rb (I1+I2)
Y = [ Y1 ] + [ Y2 ] = r e I 1 + r bI 1 + r bI 2
= (re + rb) I1 + rbI2 .......(i)
 −1   1 −1  Applying KVL in loop-2
0 R    Vc = rc (I2+αI1) + rb(I1+I2)
Y=
0
 + R R 
 1   −1 1  = rcI2 + rcαI1 + rbI1+ rbI2
 R 0   R R  Vc = I2 (rc + rb) +I1(rb+rcα)
 0 
Vc –I1 (rb+ αrc) = I2(rc + rb)
1  1 1  Vc (r + αrc )
 − +  ∴ I2 = − b I1......(ii)
R  R 0 R  rc + rb rc + rb
Y= 
 1 − 1  1 Putting the value of I2 from equation (ii) into equation
 (i)
 R 0 R  R 
 ( r + αrc ) r  + V rb
Vb = I1  re + rb − b
So, no option is match. b
rb + rc rb + rc
c
 
121. With reference to the equivalent circuit of a
Comparing with h-parameter of transistor model
transistor shown in the given figure match List-
I with List-II and select the correct answer h = h = (r + r ) − ( rb + αrc ) r
11 i e b b
using codes given below the lists: rb + rc

rb 124. A two-port network is represented by
h12 = V1 = 24I1 + 8I2 and V2 = 8I1 + 32I2. Which one
rb + rc
of the following networks is represented by
 r + αrc  these equations?
h 21 = −  b  (a)
 rc + rb 
1
h 22 =
rc + rb
122. A two-port network is symmetrical if
(a) Z11Z22 – Z12Z21 = 1 (b) AD – BC = 1 (b)
(c) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1 (d) Y11Y22 – Y12Y21 =1
IES-1995
Ans. (c) : Condition for symmetrical condition
Z11 = Z22 ⇒ Z – Parameter
Y11 = Y22 ⇒ Y – Parameter (c)
A = D ⇒ T – Parameter
∆h = 1 
or  → h − paramter
h11h 22 − h12 h 21 = 1
123. An ideal transformer has turns ratio of 2:1. (d)
Considering high voltage side as port 1 and low
voltage side as port 2, the transmission line
parameters of transformer will be
 0 −2  2 0 
(a)   (b)  
0.5 0   0 −0.5 IES-1995
2 0  0.5 0  Ans. (b) : According to question
(c)   (d)  0 2 V1 = 24I1 + 8I2 .......(i)
 0 0.5   V2 = 8I1 + 32I2 .....(ii)
IES-1995 Comparing above equations with Z–Parameter
Ans. (c) : According to question let's here is an ideal Z11 = Za + Zc = 24 ...(i)
transformer with turns ratio (2:1)
Z12 = Z21 = Zc = 8 ...(ii)
Z22 = Zb + Zc = 32 ...(iii)
After solving equation (i), (ii) and (iii)
Za = 16Ω, Zb = 24Ω, Zc = 8Ω
We know that for an ideal transformer Z- network can be drawn as
V1 N1 2 n  2
= = = ∵ n = 1 
V2 N 2 1 1
V1 n
=
V2 1
V1 = nV2 = 2V2 125. The Y parameters of a four-terminal block are
I1 − N 2 −1 1 4 2 
and = = = −   I2
I2 N1 n 2 1 1  . A single element of 1 ohm is connected
 
1 across as shown in the given figure. The new Y
I1 = −   I 2 parameters will be
n
from T-parameters
V1 = AV2 – BI2
I1 = CV2 – DI2
5 1   4 3
(a)   (b)  
0 2  2 2
Then transmission matrix is-
3 2   4 2
A B   2 0  (c)   (d)  
=  =  1 2  1 1 
 C D   0 0.5 IES-1994
Ans. (a) : Given circuit diagram- P2
– log10 = 0.6
P1
P2 1 1
∴ = =
P1 3.98 4
1
Breaking the above diagram in two parts ∴ P2 = P1
4
127. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the
given figure, the characteristic impedance R0 is
From the circuit

I1 = V1–V2
I2 = –V1 +V2
 1 −1
Y1 =  
 −1 1  R1 + R 2 2R1R 2
(a) (b)
then Y1 = Admittance matrix 2 R1 + R 2
R2
(c) R1R 2 (d) R 1 +
2
IES-1993
Ans. (c) : We know that characteristic impedance 'R0'
can be given as
4 2 R 0 = R OC .R SC
Let Y2 =  
1 1  Calculating RSC by shorting C & D
As both networks are connected in parallel
then
Y = Y1 + Y2
 1 −1  4 2 
=  + 
 −1 1   1 1 
5 1 
Y =   2R 1R 2
0 2  R SC =
R1 + R 2
126. Any two-port network having a 6 dB loss will Calculating ROC by opening C & D
give
(a) an output power which is one-quarter of the
input power
(b) an output power which is one-half of the
input power
(c) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input
voltage
(d) an output power which is 0.707 of the input R + R2
R OC = 1
power 2
TSPSC Manager (Engg.)-2015
2R 1R 2 R 1 + R 2
IES-1993 ∴ R0 = ×
Ans. (a) : Formula for power loss in decibel R 1 + R2 2
P R 0 = R1R 2
PdB = 10 log10 2
P1 128. The value of G12 or (V2/V1) for the circuit
Where, P2 = Output power shown in the figure is
P1 = Input power
As per question given that
PdB = 6dB
P
– 10log10 2 = 6
P1

1 1  4 3R   2 3R 
(a) (b) (a)   (b)  
4s + 2s 2 + 1
4 4
s + 2s + 1
2
1/ R 1  1/ R 2 
1 1  2 1/ R   4 1/ R 
(c) 4 (d) (c)  (d) 
s +1 16s + 12s 2 + 1
4
 1 
IES-1991 3R 2  3R
Ans. (d) : Converting the given question network in s- IES-1991
domain Ans. (b) : According to question by multiplying the
transmission parameters which are connected in
cascade, we can find the resultant ABCD network for C
so,
 1 0
1 R    1 R 
[T] =    1  
Let the node voltage is Vr(s) 0 1  1  0 1 
R 
 1 1
 
 2s +  2 3R
 2s  2s = 1 
∴ Vr (s) = V1 (s) 
 1 1 2
 2s +  + 2s R 
 2s  2s
130. The open circuit parameters of 2-port network
4s 2 + 1 Z Z12 
= V1 (s) .......(i) N shown in the figure, are  11
16s 4 + 12s 2 + 1  . When
 Z21 Z22 
1 the network is extended by a resistance R as
Vr (s)
2s V (s) shown in the figure, the input impedance of the
V2 (s) = = r2 ....(ii)
2s +
1 4s + 1 network at points A, B will be
2s
from equation (i) & (ii)
1  4s 2 + 1 
V2 (s) =   V1 (s)
4s + 1  16s + 12s + 1 
2 4 2
Then
V2 (s) 1
G12 = =
V1 (s) 16s + 12s 2 + 1
4
(a) Z11 + Z12 + Z21 + Z22 + R
129. If the transmission parameters of network A (b) Z12 + Z21 + R
(c) Z12 + Z21 + R
1 R 
are   and those of network B are (d) Z11 + R
0 1  IES-1991
 1 0 Ans. (d) :
1/R 1  , then the transmission parameters of
 
network C are
from the network

V
Z11 = 1 ......(i)
I1
from the network

V1' = RI1 + V1
V1' RI1 + V1 V
'
Z11 = = = R + 1 = R + Z11
I1 I1 I1

131. The voltage transfer ratio for the network s2 s2
shown in the fig, is (a) (b)
(s + 1) (s + s + 1)
2
s2 s
(c) (d)
(s3 + s 2 + s + 1) (s + 1)
IES-1991
Ans. (b) :
1 2
(a) (b)
13 13
3 4
(c) (d)
13 13
IES-1991 circuit converted into S domain,
Ans. (b) : According to the question so,
apply Nodal on Vx
Vx − V1 Vx Vx − V2
+ + =0
R R R
V + V2 Apply current divider rule
Vx = 1 ....(i)
3 s / ( s + 1)
I 2 (s) = I1 (s)
apply Nodal on V2 1 s
+
V2 − Vx V2 V2 s s +1
+ + = 0 ...(ii)
R R 2R I 2 (s) s2
= 2
V + V2 I1 (s) s + s + 1
put Vx = 1 in equation (ii)
3
I 2 (s)
 V + V2  133. The transfer function y12 = for the
V2 −  1  V1 (s)
 3  + V2 + V2 = 0 network shown in the fig. is
R R 2R
2V2 V2 V2 V
+ + = 1
3R R 2R 3R
 13  V
V2   = 1
6 3
V2 2
=
V1 13 s2 s
(a) (b)
s2 + s + 1 s +1
I 2 (s)
132. The current transfer ratio for the circuit 1 s +1
I1 (s) (c) (d) 2
shown in the fig. is s +1 s +1
IES-1991
Ans. (a) : According to question converting the given
diagram in s-domain

Applying KVL −6 16
(a) Z11 = Ω; Z21 = Ω
 1 11 11
V1 (s) = I1 (s)  1 + s || 
 s 6
(b) Z11 = Ω; Z21 = Ω
4
 s  11 11
= I1 (s)  1 + 2  6 −16
 s +1 (c) Z11 = Ω ; Z21 = Ω
11 11
 s2 + 1 + s 
= I1 (s)  2  ....(i) 4 4
 s +1  (d) Z11 = Ω ; Z21 = Ω
11 11
By using current division rule GATE-2001
s2 V E
I 2 (s) = I1 (s) × 2 ....(ii) Ans. (c) : Z11 = 1 = 1
s +1 I1 I =0 I1
2
By dividing equation (ii) from equation (i)
∵ E1 = 2I1 + 4I1 −10E1
I (s) s2 11E1 = 6I1
y12 = 2 = 2
V1 (s) s + s + 1
E1 = 6 I1
134. The network shown in the fig. draws a current 11
I. If the ends, a, b are shorted, the current E 6
drawn, would be Z11 = 1 = Ω
I1 11
E2 = 4I1 – 10 E1
6
Put E1 = I1
11
60
E 2 = 4I1 − I1
11
E 16
Z21 = 2 = − Ω
(a) 6 I (b) 4 I I1 11
(c) 2 I (d) I 137. The impedance parameters Z11 and Z12 of the
IES-1991 two-port network in the figure are
Ans. (d) : By looking at the circuit when a & b are
L L
shorted impedance will be = + = L
2 2
When a & b are open then impedance
= 2L ||2L = L
In both cases Impedance is same so the current drawn (a) Z11 = 2.75 Ω and Z12 = 0.25 Ω
will be I. Which is same as well. (b) Z11 = 3 Ω and Z12 = 0.5 Ω
135. The short-circuit admittance matrix of a two- (c) Z11 = 3 Ω and Z12 = 0.25 Ω
port network is (d) Z11 = 2.25 Ω and Z12 = 0.5 Ω
 0 −1/ 2  GATE-2003
1/ 2 
 0  Ans. (a) : Z11= 1
V
The two-port network is I1 I =0
2
(a) non-reciprocal and passive

(b) non-reciprocal and active
(c) reciprocal and passive
(d) reciprocal and active
Ans. (b) : Short circuit admittance matrix is non- 3 ×1
reciprocal and active because Y12 ≠ Y21 . Z11 = 2 +
3 +1
136. The Z parameters Z11 and Z21 for the 2-port =11/4
network in the figure are =2.75
V1
Z12=
I2 I1 =0

1 139. The ABCD parameters of an ideal n : 1
I′2 = I 2
4 n 0 
transformer shown in the figure are  .
1 0 X
V1 = 1× I′2 = I2
4 The value of X will be
V1 1
Z12 = = = 0.25
I2 4
138. For the lattice circuit shown in the figure,
Za = j2Ω and Zb = 2Ω. The values of the open
Z Z12 
circuit impedance parameters Z =  11  1
 Z 21 Z 22  (a) n (b)
are n
2 1
(c) n (d) 2
n
GATE-2005
Ans. (b) : ABCD Parameters
V1 = AV2 + B(–I2) …(i)
I1 = CV2 + D(–I2) …(ii)
 V1   A B   V2 
 I  =  C D   −I 
 1   2
Given that
1 − j 1 + j  1 − j 1 + j V1 − I2 n
(a)   (b)   = =
1 + j 1 + j  −1 + j 1 − j  V2 I1 1
1 + j 1 + j  1 + j −1 + j From equation (i)
(c)   (d)  
1 − j 1 − j  −1 + j 1 + j  A= 1
V
GATE-2004 V2 I =0
2
Ans. (d) : Equation for z-parameter A=n

V1 = Z11I1 + Z12I2  From equation (ii)

V2 = Z21I1 + Z22I2  −I
D= 1
V1 I2 V =0
Z11 = 2
I1 I =0
2
1
D=
=
( Za + Zb ) I1 2
=
( 2 + 2 j) I1 2
= 1+ j
n
I1 I1 1
I2 =0 So, the value of X =
( Z + Zb ) I2 / 2 n
2+ 2j
Z22 = a = =1+ j 140. The h-parameters of the circuit shown in the
I2 I1=0 2
figure are
V
Z21 = 2
I1 I =0
2
−2 + 2 j
= = −1 + j
2
V
Z12 = 1
I2 I =0
1
=
( −Z + Z ) I
b a 2 2  0.1 0.1 10 −1 
I2 (a)   (b)  
 −0.1 0.3  1 0.05
−2 + 2 j 30 20 10 1 
= = −1 + j
2 (c)   (d)  
Z Z12  1 + j − 1 + j   20 20   −1 0.05
 Z =  11 =  Punjab PSC Poly. Lect.20.08.2017
 Z21 Z22   −1 + j 1 + j
GATE-2005
Ans. (d) : Standard equation for h-parameter 142. For the two-port network shown below, the
V1 = h11I1 + h12V2 short-circuit admittance parameter matrix is
I2=h21 I1+h22V2
V
h11 = 1
I1 V =0
2
10I
= 1
I1 V =0  4 −2   1 −0.5
2
(a)  S (b)  S
h11 = 10Ω  −2 4   −0.5 1 
h12 =
20I2  1 0.5 4 2
20I2 I =0 (c)  S (d)  S
1 0.5 1  2 4
h12 = 1 GATE-2010
I Ans. (a) : Standard equation for Y-parameter
h 21 = 2
I1 V =0 I1 = Y11 V1 + Y12 V2 (i)
2
I2 = Y21 V1 + Y22V2 (ii)
−I1
= Y11 =
I1
I1 V =0 V1
2
V2 = 0
h21= –1
I1  I I 
= = 4 ∵ V1 = 1 × 0.5 = 1 
I I1 1  2 4
h 22 = 2 ×
V2 I =0 2 2
1
I1
I Y12 =
= 2 V2 V1 =0
20I2 I =0
1
V / 0.5
h22 = 0.05 =− 2 = −2
V2
h h12  10 1 
 h  =  11 =  I2 −V1 / 0.5
 Y21 = = = −2
 h 21 h 22   −1 0.05 V1 V2 =0
V1
141. In the two port network shown in the figure Similarly,
below, Z12 and Z21 are, respectively I2
Y22 = =4
V2 V1 =0
Y Y12 
∵ [ Y ] =  11 S
 21 Y22 
Y
4 − 2
= S
 −2 4 
(a) re and βro (b) 0 and –βro 143. Consider the building block called 'Network N'
(c) 0 and βro (d) re and –βro shown in the figure.
GATE-2008 Let C = 100 µF and R = 10 kΩ
Ans. (b) : For Z-parameter, we can follow given
equation-
V1=Z11 I1 + Z12 I2
V2= Z21 I1+Z22 I2
V
Z21 = 2
I1 I =0
2
−βI1r0
=
I1
{∵ V2 = βI1r0}
Two such blocks are connected in cascade, as
Z21= –βro shown in the figure.
V
Z12 = 1
I2 I =0
1
0
= {∵ V1 = 0,when I1 = 0}
I2
=0
∴ Z12 = 0 and Z21 = −βr0

V3 ( s ) 144. For the two-port network shown in the figure,
The transfer function of the cascaded the impedance (Z) matrix (in Ω) is
V1 ( s )
network is
s s2
(a) (b)
1+ s 1 + 3s + s 2
2
 1  s
(c)   (d)
 1+ s  2+s
GATE-2014  6 24 9 8 
(a)   (b)  
Ans. (b) : The given two port network can be reduces to  42 9  8 24 
s-domain as-
9 6   42 6 
(c)   (d)  
6 24   6 60 
GATE-2014
Ans. (c) : Standard equation for Z-parameter
V1=Z11 I1+ Z12 I2
V2=Z21 I1 + Z22 I2
1
Where, Z1= Z3= V1 9I
CS Z11= = 1 = 9 {By using KVL at input port}
And Z2 = Z1 = R I1 I =0 I1 I =0
2 2
Since all the elements in the circuits are interactive Z11 = 9

elements, converting ∆ -connection into Y-connection, V1
the reduced circuit diagram becomes- Z12 =
I2 I =0
Z 2 Z3 1
Where, Za =
Z1 + Z3 + Z4 10 × 6 I2
= 10 {By current divider rule at output port}
Z3 Z 4 I2
Zb =
Z 2 + Z3 + Z 4 I1 =0
Z12=6
Z 2 Z4
And Zc = V2 I ×10 × 60
Z 2 + Z3 + Z 4 Z21= = 1
I1 I =0 I1 ×100 I =0
Finally circuit can be reduces to- 2 2
Z21 = 6
120
V2 I2
Z22 = = 5
I2 I =0 I2
1 I1=0
Applying voltage division rule we get- Z22 = 24
V3 ( s ) Z2 Z 4  Z11 Z12  9 6 
=  Z  =  Z = 
V1 ( s ) Z1 ( Z2 + Z3 + Z4 ) + Z2 ( Z3 + Z4 )  21 Z22  6 24 
Substitute the value of Z1, Z2, Z3 and Z4 respectively we  Z11 Z 12 
145. The Z-parameter matrix  for the
get-
 Z 21 Z 22 
V3 ( s ) R.R two-port network shown is
=
V1 ( s ) 1  1   1 
R + R + + R +R
CS  CS   CS 
R2
=
1  1   1 
 2R + + R +R
CS  CS   CS 
( RCS)
2
=
( RCS) + 3RCS + 1
2
 2 −2  2 2
(a)   (b) 
Here RC = 10×103×100×10–6 second  −2 2  2 2
= 1 second
9 −3 9 3
V (s) s2 (c)   (d) 
∴ 3 = 2 6 9  6 9 
V1 ( s ) s + 3s + 1
GATE-2016
Ans. (a) : Given network is Ans. (d) : Given that :
I1 = 2V1 + V2 , I2 = 2V1 + 3V2
For Z Parameter
V1 = Z11I1 + Z12I2 …(i)
V2 = Z21I1 + Z22I2 …(ii)
∵ I1 = 2V1 + V2 ,
For Z- parameter  I − 2V1 
I2 = 2V1 + 3V2 ∵  V2 = 2 
 3 
I2 − 2V1
I1 = 2V1 +
3
3I1 = 6V1 + I2 – 2V1
3 I
V1 = I1 − 2 …(iii)
4 4
Equation (iii) comparing with equation (i)
V1 = Z11I1 + Z12 I2 −1
V2= Z21 I1 +Z22 I2 Z12 = = −0.25Ω
4
I1 × 3
V1 ×6 148. In hybrid parameter representation, the
Z11 = = 9 voltage of the input port and the current of the
I1 I =0 I1
2 output port are expressed in terms of the:
Z11 = 2Ω (a) Voltage of input port and current of output
 I2 × 3  port
 ×6 (b) Current of input port and voltage of output
V1 9 
Z12 = = − port
I2 I =0 I2
1 (c) Voltage of input port and current of input port
Z12 = −2Ω (d) Current of output port and voltage of output
V port
Z21 = 2 UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
I1 I =0
2 Ans. (b) : In hybrid parameter representation
 I ×3  V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2
−  1  × 6
=  9  I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2
I1 149. Find the value of h11 if :
Z21 = –2 18 6
I2 × 3 Z= 
V ×6  6 9
Z22 = 2 = 9 (a) 14 (b) 2/3
I2 I =0 I2
1 (c) –2/3 (d) 1/9
Z22 = 2 APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
Z
Z12   2 − 2 18 6 
 =
 Z  =  11  Ans. (a) : Z = 
Z22   −2
 Z21 2  
 6 9
146. The transformation of Y22/∆y into one of the z-
parameters is  V1 = h11I1 + h12 V2 
I = h I + h V 
(a) Z11 (b) Z12  2 21 1 22 2 
(c) Z21 (d) Z22 V1 = 18I1 + 6I 2 .....(1)
TSGENCO AE-2015
−1
V2 = 6I1 + 9I 2 .....(2)
 Y11 Y12 
Ans. (a) : [Z] = [Y] ⇒ [Z] = 
–1
  V − 6I1   V2 6 
⇒ I2 =  2  ⇒ V1 = 18I1 + 6  − I1 
 Y21 Y22   9   9 9 
Y
Z11 = 22  36  6
∆Y V1 =  18 −  I1 + V2
 9  9
147. A two-port network is defined by the relations
I1 = 2V1 + V2 and I2 = 2V1 + 3V2. Then Z12 is : V
h11 = 1 = 18 − 4
(a) – 2. 0Ω (b) 1.0Ω I1 V =0
(c) 0.25Ω
2
(d) – 0.25Ω
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 h 11 = 14 Ω

150. By applying KVL in the loop 1
2(I1 – I3) + 2 (I1 – I3) – 4I3 = 0
2I1 – 2I3 + 2I1 – 2I3 – 4I3 = 0
4I1 – 8I3 = 0
4 (I1 – 2I3) = 0
I1 = 2I3 ...(i)
Determine Y12 for the above circuit. By applying KVL in loop 2,
1 1 –V2 + 2(I1 – I3) + 2I1 = 0
(a) S (b) − S V2 = 4I1 – 2I3 ...(ii)
56 56
Put I1 value in equation. (ii)
1 1
(c) S (d) − S V2 = 4(2I3) – 2I3 = 8I3 – 2I3
14 14 V2 = 6I3
I 
I1 V2 = 6  1 
Ans. (b) : Y12 = 2
V2 V =0 V 2 = 3I 1
1
V2
Z21 = =3
I1
Z21 = 3
152. For determining the network functions of a
−8 two-port network, it is required to consider
I1 = × I2
32 that
I 2 = −4I1 ……………(i) (a) all initial conditions remain same
From KVL (b) all initial conditions are zero
(c) part of initial conditions are equal to zero
V2 = 8I 2 + 8 ( I1 + I2 ) [ put I2 = −4I1 ] (d) initial conditions vary depending on nature of
V2 = 8 ( −4I1 ) + 8 ( I1 − 4I1 ) network
= −32I1 + 8I1 − 32I1 IES-2009
Ans. (b) : A network function of a two port network is
V2 = −56I1 the ratio of Laplace transform of output network to
I1 −1 input network by assuming all the initial conditions are
= zero.
V2 56
153. What is the open circuit impedance Z'11(s) of
−1 the network shown in the figure given below?
Y12 = S
56
151. For the given 2-port network, the value of
transfer impedance in ohms is Z21.
 4
(a) 10 + 2s (b) 10 − 
(a) 1 (b) 2  s
(c) 3 (d) 4  4
(c) 10 +  (d) 10 – 2s
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-I  s
Ans. (c) : IES-2006
V1 = Z11 I1 + Z12 I2 Ans. (c) : Circuit converted into s-domain-
V2 = Z21 I1 + Z22 I2
V2
Transfer Impedance Z21 =
I1 I 2 =0
At I2 = 0
Open circuit impedance Z11(s) = Z1 + Z2

4
= 10 +
s
154. Consider the two-port network shown in the 156. They parameters of the two port network are
figure. Y11 = Y22 = 6 ℧ ; Y12=Y21 = 4 ℧ :
The driving point admittance at port 2-2’ if the

source voltage is 100V and has a impedance of
1Ω is:
The admittance parameters, in siemens, are
(a) 3.741 ℧ (b) 3.714 ℧
(a) y11=2, y12= –4, y21= –1, y22= 2
(b) y11 = 1, y12 = −2, y 21 = −1, y 22 = 3 1 1
(c) ℧ (d) ℧
3741 3714
(c) y11 = 2, y12 = −4, y 21 = −4, y 22 = 3
TNTRB AE– 2017
(d) y11 = 2, y12 = −4, y 21 = −4, y 22 = 2 Ans. (b) : Y11= Y22=6 Vs = 100V
GATE-2021 I2
Ans. (a) : At node V1- Y12 = Y21 = 4, =?
V2
KCL
We know that,
V − V2 V1
I1 + 3V2 = 1 + I2 Y22 Ys + Y22 Y11 − Y21Y12
1 1 =
I1 = V1 − V2 + V1 − 3V2 V 2 Ys + Y11
I1 = 2V1 − 4V2 ................(i) 6 ×1 + 6 × 6 − 4 × 4
=
at node V2- 1+ 6
I
KCL 2
= 3.714 ℧
V2 V2 − V1 V2
I2 = +
1 1 157. Asymmetrical two port networks have
I 2 = − V1 + 2V2 ................(ii) (a) Zsc1 = Zoc2
I1 = y11V1 + y12V2 .................(iii) (b) Zsc1 = Zsc2
I2 = y21V1 + y22V2.................(iv) (c) Zoc1 ≠ Zoc2
comparing (i), (ii) with (iii) & (iv) (d) Zoc1 ≠ Zoc2 and Zsc1 ≠ Zsc2
We get TANGEDCO AE- 2018
y11 = 2, y12 = −4 Ans. (d) : The ratio of excitation to the response at both
port are independently equal with respect to defined
y 21 = −1, y22 = 2 network condition such as open circuit and short circuit
155. The Z-matrix of a two port network is called to be symmetrical.
0.7 0.1
 0.1 0.6  ; what is Y12 and Y22?
 
(a) 1.667, –0.238 (b) 1.667, 0.3238
(c) –1.667, –0.238 (d) –1.667, 0.238 If the network is symmetrical
UPRVUNL AE-2016 V1 V2
= , Zoc1 = Zoc2
adj[ z ] I1 I2
Ans. (*) : ∵ y = [ z ] =
−1
z
 0.7 0.1
[z] =  
 0.1 0.6  If the network is symmetrical
z = 0.7 × 0.6 − 0.1× 0.1 = 0.42 − 0.01 = 0.41 V1 V2
= , Zsc1 = Zsc2
 0.6 −0.1 I1 I2
adj z =  
 −0.1 0.7  158. What are the open-circuit reverse voltage gain
adj[ z ] and the short – circuit forward current gain
1  0.6 −0.1
[ y] = = respectively for the two-port networks shown
z 0.41  −0.1 0.7  in the figure?
– 0.1
y12 = = −0.243
0.41
0.7
y 22 = = 1.703
0.41
1 1 1 1 42
(a) and − (b) − and − I3 = I1 ×
3 3 3 3 42 + 10.5 + 21
2 2 2 2 I1 1
(c) and − (d) − and = S → Open circuit transfer admittance.
3 3 3 3 V2 6
ESE-2022
Ans. (c) :
Again,
Negative short circuit current ratio
V1 I2
h12 = D=
V2 I2 V2 = 0
I1 = 0
42
I2 I 2 = I1 ×
h 21 = 42 + 21
I1 V2 = 0
−I1 3
So, =
I2 2
V1 − 12I1 − 6 ( I1 + I2 ) = 0
V1 − 12I1 − 6I1 − 6I2 = 0
V1 = 18I1 + 6I 2 …………………(i)
By KVL in loop (2)
V2 − 3I2 − 6 ( I1 + I 2 ) = 0
V2 = 3I 2 + 6I1 + 6I 2 160. For the two port network shown in the figure
V2 = 9I2 + 6I1 …………….(ii)
V1 6I 2 2
h12 = = =
V2 I1 = 0
9I 2 3
The value of [h] parameter matrix is
I −6 −2  1 0  0 1
h 21 = 2 = = (a)   (b)  
I1 V2 = 0
9 3  −1 1   −1 1
159. What are the open-circuit transfer admittance 0 1  0 1
and the negative short-circuit current ratio (c)   (d)  
respectively for the two-port network shown in 1 −1 1 1
the figure? RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
Ans. (b) :
V1 = I 1 + I 2
V2 = I 1 + I 2
2 2 1 3
(a) Sand S and
(b) 1 1
3 3 3 2 Z=  
1 2 2 2 1 1
(c) Sand (d) Sand  0 1
6 3 3 3 h=  
ESE-2022  −1 1
Ans. (b) : Open circuit transfer admittance parameter 161. Find Zin, Z0 in the following figure.
will be calculated by ABCD parameter.
I1 = CV2 − DI2
I1
C=
V2 I2 = 0

Z Ans. (b) : The line is terminated with 50Ω at the ends
(a) Zin = , Z0 = [1 + A ] so matched on both the sides thus
1+ A
S11 = 0,S22 = 0 and S12 = S21 = 1
Z Z
(b) Zin = , Z0 = 163. If the scattering matrix [S] of a two port
1+ A 1+
1
network is
A
 0.2∠0º 0.9∠90º 
(c) Zin = Z = [1 + A ] , Z0 =
Z [S] =  
[1 + A ]  0.9∠90º 0.1∠90º 
then the network is
Z
(d) Zin = , Z0 = AZ (a) lossless and reciprocal
1+ A (b) lossless but not reciprocal
NPCIL-2015 (c) not lossless but reciprocal
Ans. (b) : (d) neither lossless nor reciprocal
GATE ECE - 2010
Ans. (c) : For the network to be reciprocal the S matrix
should be symmetric
S = ST
For the network to be lossless the sum of magnitude square
for each column of the S matrix must be equal to 1
Vin − V0 For a two part network the scattering matrix
= Zin
Iin S S   0.1∠0º 0.9∠90º 
V0 = AVin [S] = S11 S12  =  
 21 22  0.9∠90º 0.1∠90º 
Vin − AVin
Now the network to be symmetric [S] = [S]
T
=Z
Iin
We have
Vin
[1 − A ] = Z  0.1∠0º 0.9∠90º 
[S] =   = [S]
T
Iin
0.9∠90º 0.1∠90º 
Zin [1 − A ] = Z
The network is symmetric
Z For the network to be lossless the sum of magnitude
Zin = squares of elements in each column should be one.
1− A
2 2
If A-Ve feedback S11 + S21 = 0.01 + 0.81 = 0.82 ≠ 1
Z
Zin = 2 2
S21 + S22 = 0.81 + 0.01 = 0.82 ≠ 1
1+ A
By Millers theorem 164. A two-port network has scattering parameters
AZ Z s s 
Z0 = = given by [S ] =  11 12  . If the port-2 of the
1 + A 1/ A + 1 s 21 s 22 
162. A load of 50Ω is connected in shunt in a 2-wire two-port is short circuited, the s11 parameter
transmission line of Z0 = 50Ω as shown in the for the
figure. The 2-port scattering parameter matrix s −s s −s s
(S-matrix) of the shunt element is (a) 11 11 22 12 21
1 + s 22
s +s s −s s
(b) 11 11 22 12 21
1 + s 22
s +s s −s s
(c) 11 11 22 12 21
 1 1  1 − s 22
− 2 2  0 1 
(a)   (b)  s − s s +s s
1 1 1 0  (d) 11 11 22 12 21
 −    1 − s 22
 2 2 
GATE ECE - 2014
 1 2   1 3 Ans. (b) :
− 3 3   4 − 4
(c)   (d)  
 2 − 1 − 3 1 
 3 3   4 4 
GATE ECE-2007 Scattering parameter

At port 2 - hence, draw the circuit once again-
b 2 = −a 2
b1 = S11a1 + S12 a 2 .......... (i)
b 2 = S21a1 + S22a 2 ......... (ii)
Now, Apply KVL for loop-2 we gets-
−a 2 = S21a1 + S22a 2 (∵ b 2 = −a 2 )  
V2 = I 2  1  + I 2 R 2
−S a  SC1 
a 2 = 21 1 V 1
1 + S22 ⇒ 2 = + R 2 = Z22 ––––(iii)
I2 SC1
S11 (1 + S22 ) − S12S21  a1
and b1 =  Apply KVL for loop1 we gets -
1 + S22 V1 = 0(R1)+I2(R2)
V1
b S +S S −S S = Z12 = R 2 ––––(iv)
S11 = 1 = 11 11 22 12 21 I2
a1 1 + S22
Having observing all equations like (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
165. For a network shown in figure, which of the Z11 ≠ Z22 so, the network is not symmetrical
following statement is true. Z12 ≠ Z21 so, the network is not reciprocal.
166. ABCD parameters of a two-port network is
V    V 
defined as  1  =  A B   2  . If the port-2 is
 l1   C D   - l 2 
terminated by a resistance RL, the admittance
looking into the port-1 is
(a) Reciprocal and symmetric C + DR L CR L + D L
(a) (b)
(b) Reciprocal but not-symmetric A + BR L AR L + B
(c) Symmetric but non-reciprocal CR L + D C + DR L
(c) (d)
(d) Neither symmetric nor reciprocal A + BR L AR L + B
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 BSNL(JTO)-2009
Ans.(d): Ans. (a) : Transmission parameter
V1 = AV2 – BI2
I1 = CV2 – DI2
Admittance on port - 1
I CV2 – DI 2
Y1 = 1 = {∵ V2 = – I2RL}
V1 AV2 – BI 2
–I 2 ( CR L + D )
Y1 =
–I2 ( AR L + B )
apply KVL in loop-1
V1–I1R1–I1R2 = 0 Y1 =
( CR L + D )
V1 = I1(R1+R2) ( AR L + B )
V1 167. Find I1 in the following circuit. V1 = V2 =1V:
= R1 + R 2 = Z11––––(i)
I1
apply KVL on loop-2
 1 
V2 −   .βI1 – I1R 2 = 0
 SC1 
  
V 2= I 1   β  + R 2  (a) 0.1 A (b) 0.4 A
 SC1   (c) 0.3 A (d) 0.2 A
V2 β DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
= + R 2 = Z21 ––––––(ii) Ans. (d) :
I1 SC1
to get Z12 and Z22 opened the input parts-
now, I1 = 0
βI1 = 0
2I1 + 2I1 + 2I2 = V1 The circuit has to be matched over 6 GHz to 18
4I1 + 2I 2 = V1 GHz. What is the very best Γ that can be
achieved.
4I1 + 2I 2 = 1 –––––– (I)
(a) 0 (b) 0.05 (c) 0.1 (d) 1
4I 2 + 2I 2 + 2I1 = 1 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
6I 2 + 2I1 = 1 ––––––(II) Ans. (c) : Given that, R = 20 Ω, C = 0.9 pF
12I2 + 4I1 = 2 time constant of RC circuit -
2I 2 + 4I1 = 1 τ = RC = 18 pico second
− − − 1
10I 2 = 1 frequency ( f ) = = 55 ×109 Hz = 55GHz
Z
I2 = 0.1 ω = 2πf = 345.7 × 109 rad / sec.
From Equation (I) & (II),
Similarly - Now for R = 50 Ω
4I1 = 1 – 2 × 0.1
time constant of RC circuit -
0.8
= = 0.2 τ = RC = 45 pico second.
4
For frequency (f)
168. The impedance matrices of two, two-port
1 1
 3 2 15 5  = −12
= 22 × 109 Hz = 22GHz
networks are   and  5 25  . τ 45 × 10
 2 3  
If these two networks are connected in series, ω = 2πf = 138.3 × 109 rad / sec.
the impedance matrix of the resulting 2 port Now the very Γ that can be achieved is calculated as
network will be: follows.
3 5  18 7  2π
(a)   (b)   ω=
 2 25  7 28 RC
15 2 
∞ 1 π
(c)   (d) Indeterminate ∫0 ℓn Γ dω ≤ RC
 5 3
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018 ∞ 1 2π
Ans. (b) : ∫0
ℓn dω ≤
Γ 2RC
∞ 1 ω
∫
0
ℓn
Γ
dω ≤
2
Resultant impedance (Z) = Z1 + Z2 So that the very best Γ that can be achieved is Γ = 0.1
 3 2  15 5  18 7 
 2 3  +  5 25 =  7 28 (v) Magnetic Coupled Circuit
     
169. In a two-port network containing linear 1. The equivalent inductance across ‘ab’ for the
bidirectional passive circuit elements, which diagram shown below is :
one of the following conditions for [z]
parameters will hold?
(a) z11=z22 (b) z11z22 = z12 z21
(c) z11z12 = z22 z21 (d) z12 = z21
Ans. (b) : In a two-port network containing linear
bidirectional passive circuit elements follows as -
z11z22 = z12 z21 (a) 0.5 H (b) 0.15 H
170. For a parallel RC circuit shown in figure, (c) 0.3 H (d) 1 H
R = 20 Ω & C = 0.9 pF, which is to be matched UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
to 50 Ω over a bandwidth, Ans. (b) : Bridge is in balanced condition
So, CD branch open circuited.
L ab = 0.1 + 0.2 || 0.1 + 0.2 = 0.3 || 0.3

∞
1 π 0.3
∫ ℓ n | Γ | dω
0
R.C
Lab =
2
= 0.15H

2. All the three inductors are perfectly coupled as Ans. (c) : Mutual inductance for cylindrical core will be
shown below, the value of total inductance (in
Henry) across the terminal AB is
(a) 46 (b) 38
(c) 12 (d) 10 N 2 φ1
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 M= ....(i)
I1
Ans. (d) : Where, N2 = No. of turns of coils (2)
φ1 = Flux produced in coil (1)
I1 = Current flowing in coil (1)
Now,
NI NI N I µA
φ1 = 1 1 = 1 1 = 1 1
S 1 ℓ1 ℓ1
L = 6 + 8 + 10 − 2 × 5 − 2 × 4 + 2 × 2
µA
L eq = 24 − 10 − 8 + 4 Put φ1 values in equation (i)
L eq = 10H N N I µA N 2 N1µA
M= 2 11 =
3. A current of 5 A in primary coil of a circuit is ℓ1I1 ℓ1
reduced to zero at a uniform rate in 10–3
seconds. If coefficient of mutual inductance is Where, A = Cross- section Area of core ( πr )
2
2H, then the induced emf in the secondary coil Thus, Mutual inductance
is (1) Proportional to N1, N2
(a) 10 −4 V (b) 10 4 V (2) Proportional to µ
(c) 10 −6 V (d) 106 V (3) Inversely proportional to ℓ1
ESE-2021 (4) Directly proportional to r2
Ans.(b) : M = 2H 5. Impedance Z as shown in the given figure is
di
e= M
dt
5
e = 2 × −3
10
e= 104V
4. Two coils N1 and N2 turns are would
concentrically on a straight cylindrical core of
radius r and permeability µ. The windings have
length l1 and l2 respectively as shown in figure.
The mutual inductance will be (a) j29 Ω (b) j9 Ω
(c) j19 Ω (d) j39 Ω
GATE-2005
Ans. (b) :
1. Proportional to N1, N2
2. Proportional to µ
3. Inversely proportional to l1.
4. Inversely proportional to r2.
Which of these statements are correct? Z = X L1 + X L2 + X L3 + 2X M23 − 2X M13
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
Z = j5 + j2 + j2 + 2 × j10 − 2 × j10
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
IES-2011 Z = j9Ω
6. The equivalent inductance measured between 8. Two coils have self-inductances of 0.09 H and
the terminals 1 and 2 for the circuit shown in 0.01 H and a mutual inductance of 0.015 H.
the figure is The coefficient of coupling between the coils is
(a) 0.06 (b) 0.5
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.05
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
IES-2000
Ans. (b) : As given that,
L1 = 0.09H
(a) L1 + L2 + M (b) L1 + L2 – M L2 = 0.01H
(c) L1 + L2 + 2M (d) L1 + L2 – 2M M = 0.015H
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 We know that, the coefficient of coupling–
GATE-2004 M
K=
Ans. (d) : L1L 2
0.015
K=
0.09 × 0.01
0.015
K=
0.03
According to figure, the current entering in coil is
opposite, in nature. K = 0.5
So, Leq = L1 + L 2 − 2M 9. In the transformer shown in the figure below,

the inductance measured across the terminal 1
7. The equivalent inductance of two inductances and 2 was 4H with open terminals 3 and 4. It
with mutual coupling in between connected in was 3H when the terminal 3 and 4 were short
parallel having the following configuration is circuited. The coefficient of coupling would be
given by
L1L 2 + M 2 L1L 2 − M 2 (a) 1

(a) (b)
L1 + L 2 − 2M L1 + L 2 + 2M (b) 0.707
(c) 0.5
L1L 2 + M 2 L1L 2 − M 2
(c) (d) (d) indeterminate due to insufficient data
L1 + L 2 + 2M L1 + L 2 − 2M IES-2000
IES-1991 Ans. (c) :
Ans. (d) :
In this figure, the direction of current in this coil will be When terminal 3 and 4 are open then inductance across
same. terminal 1 and 2 = 4H
So, the mutual coupling is associative in nature. When terminal 3 and 4 are short circuit inductance
 L L − M2  across terminal 1 and 2 = 3H
Leq =  1 2  Terminal 3 and 4 are open then
 L1 + L 2 − 2M 
V1 = ωL p I1

Terminal 3 and 4 are short circuit M = 0.75 × 10 −3 × 14.14 = 10.60 × 10 −3 = 0.0106
V1 = ωL p I1 + ωMI2 di d ( 2sin 314t )
V=M , V = 0.0106
V2 = ωLs I2 + ωMI1 (V2 = 0 short circuits) dt dt
V = 0.0106 × 2 × 314 × cos314t V
0 = ωLs I 2 + ωMI1
V = 6.656 cos 314t V
M V ≃ 6.66cos314t V
I2 = − I1
Ls 12. Choose the incorrect answer related to mutual
Then inductance
 −M  (a) Mutual inductance is measured in Henry
V1 = 4ωI1 + ωM   I1 (Ls = 2H) (b) Mutual inductance may appear either as
 Ls  positive or negative quantity
M2 (c) The current in a coil generates magnetic flux
4− =3 in the same coil and nearby coil, inducing a
2 voltage in second coil
M2 (d) M12 = M21
=1
2 TNPSC AE - 2018
M2 = 2 Ans. (b) : Mutual inductance measure in Henry and it
never be negative. It will either zero or positive. And for
M= 2
a specific coil M12 = M 21 Hence option B is incorrect
M = K L p Ls
statement.
= K 4× 2 13. Two coils connected in series have an
equivalent inductance of 0.4 H when connected
2 = K×2 2
in aiding equivalent inductance 0.2 H when
K = 0.5 connected in opposing. Find the mutual
10. If a coil has diameter 'd', number of turns 'N' inductance of the coil.
and form factor 'F' then the inductance of the (a) 0.15 H (b) 0.65 H
coil is proportional to (c) 0.75 H (d) 0.8 H
(a) N2dF (b) Nd2F TNPSC AE - 2018
2 2
(c) N d /F (d) N2d/F Ans. (*) : L1 + L2 + 2M = 0.4 ––––––(i)
IES-2000 L1 + L2 – 2M = 0.2 ––––––(ii)
form equation (i) and (ii),
N2A
Ans. (c) : Inductance L ∝ 4M = 0.2H
F 0.2
2 2 M= = 0.05H
d d 4
∵ A = πr 2 = π   = π
2 4 14. Two similar mutually coupled coils have a total
inductance of 900mH co-efficient of coupling is
N2d 2
∴ L∝ 0.5. The self inductance of each coil is
F (a) 300 mH (b) 150 mH
11. Two coupled coils have self inductances (c) 75 mH (d) 50 mH
L1 = 10mH and L2 = 20mH. The co-efficient of Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
coupling (K) being 0.75 in the air. Voltage in Ans. (a) : Given,
the second coil when the current in circuit is K = 0.5, Leq = 900mH, L1 = L2 = L
given by I = 2 sin (314t) A is .............. M
K=
(a) 3.14 cos (314t) V (b) 3.33 sin(314t) V L1L 2
(c) 6.66 cos (314t) V (d) 6.28 cos (314t) V
M
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 K=
LL
Ans. (c) : Given that L1 = 10 mH, L2 = 20 mH, K =
M = KL
0.75
L eq = L1 + L 2 + 2M
I = 2 sin (314t) A
M 900 = L + L + 2 KL
K= 900 = 2L(1 + K)
L1 × L 2
900 = 2L(1+0.5)
M 900 = 2L(1.5)
0.75 =
10 × 10 × 20 ×10−3
−3
L = 300 mH
15. Two coils with self inductances 1 H & 3 H have a Ans. (d) : L1 = L2 = 2H
mutual inductance of 1H. The coupling factor is K = 0.1
(a) 1 (b) 3 M = K L1L 2
(c) 1/ 3 (d) 1.33
= 0.1 2 × 2
UJVNL AE-2016
M = 0.2
Ans. (c) : Coupling factor (K) is given by
Leq = L1 + L2 + 2M
M
K= Leq = 2 + 2 + 0.2×2
L1L 2 Leq = 4.4 H
Here L1 = 1, L2 = 3H & M = 1H 19. A 10 ohm resistor a 1 H inductor and 1 µF
1 capacitor are connected in parallel. The
∴K=
3 combination is driven by a unit step current.
Under the steady state conditions, the source
16. Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils
current flows through
have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen
operating frequency. Their respective (a) Resistor
resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in (b) Inductor
series, their effective Q factor at the same (c) Capacitor only
operating frequency is (d) All the three elements
(a) (1/q1) + (1/q2) Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
(b) (q1R1+q2R2)/(R1+R2) Ans. (b) : Given that-
(c) (q1R2+q2R1)/(R1+R2) R =10 Ω, L = 1H, C = 1µF
(d) q1 + q2 XL = ωL (f = 0)
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I = 0×1 = 0
ωL1 qR ωL 2 1
Ans. (b) : q1 = L1 = 1 1 , q2 = XC = =∞
R1 ω R2 ωC
Leq = L1 + L2 (Series connection) So, current flow through inductor.
ωLeq ωL1 + ωL 2 q1R 1 + q 2 R 2 20. The time rate of change of a current passed
qeq = = = through a 1 mH inductor is 2 mA/s. This means
R eq R1 + R 2 R1 + R 2
that the voltage across the inductor is :
17. Two coupled coils with self inductances of 4mH (a) 0.5 × 10–6 V (b) 0.5 V
and 16 mH are connected in series. The (c) 2 × 10–6 V (d) 2 V
maximum possible value of inductances can be
BSNL(JTO)-2002
(a) 36 mH (b) 20 mH
(c) 28 mH (d) 64 mH
di
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I = 2mA / s
Ans. (a) : Given that, dt
L1 = 4mH L = 1mH
di
L2 = 16 mH VL = L = 1× 10−3 × 2 × 10−3
Leq = L1 + L2 ± 2M dt
= 2×10–6V
M = K L1L 2 K=1
21. You are given that L1 = 2H and L2 = 8 H are
M = 4 × 16 perfectly lossless inductors which are
M = 8mH magnetically coupled. The coupling inductance
Leq = L1 + L2 + 2M M in Henrys will be :
= 4 + 16 + 2 × 8 = 36 mH (a) M = min (2, 8) (b) M < (2 + 8)/2
18. Two 2H inductance coil are connected in series (c) M = √(2 × 8) (d) M < √(2 × 8)
and are also magnetically coupled to each other BSNL(JTO)-2002
with coefficient of coupling being 0.1. The total Ans. (d) : Given that-
inductance of the combination can be L1 = 2H, L2 = 8H
(a) 0.4 H (b) 3.2 H for lossless -
(c) 4 H (d) 4.4 H
M< L1L 2
GATE-1995 M< 2×8
22. A Coil consists of 750 turns and current of 10A 8
in the coil give rise to a magnetic flux of M= ------ (i)
ω
1.2mWb. Calculate the inductance of the coil . Series connection of equivalent inductance (Leq)
(a) L = 0.09H (b) L = 1H Leq = L1+L2 +2M
(c) L = 0.12H (d) L = 10H for adding flux
TNPSC AE- 2019 8 8 8 32
Ans. (a) : Given that, Leq = + + 2 × =
ω ω ω ω
N= 750 For opposing flux-
I = 10A 8 8 8
φ = 1.2 mWb Leq = + − 2 ×
ω ω ω
Nφ 750 × 1.2 ×10−3
Inductance L = = Leq = 0
I 10
L = 0.09H R e q = R1 + R 2
23. Two inductively coupled coils have self = 5 + 3 = 8Ω
inductance L1=50mH, L2=200mH. Find the 32
value of maximum possible mutual inductance Leq = 0 or
ω
if the coefficient of coupling is 0.5.
(a) 50mH (b) 100mH So, impedance Z = R eq + jL eq
(c) 125mH (d) 150mH 32
= 8 + j0 or 8+j
TNPSC AE- 2019 ω
Ans. (a) : L1=50mH. 25. The effective inductance of two coils with self
L2 = 200 mH, K = 0.5 inductances L1, L2 and mutual inductance M
Here K = 1 for maximum possible mutual inductance (as connected shown in figure) will be:
M = K L1L 2
M = 0.5 50 × 200 × 10−6

M = 50 mH
24. The input impedance of the circuit shown in
the figure, if the respective coil impedance (a) L1 + L2 + M (b) L1 – L2 – 2M
Z1= (5 + j8) Ω and Z2 = (3 + j8) Ω is (c) L1 + L2 + 2M (d) L1 + L2 – 2M
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (d) : The effective inductance of two coils with
self inductances when connected in series opposition is
L1 + L2 – 2M.
26. The coils on the iron core have coefficient of
coupling ________.
(a) equals to unity (b) zero
(a) (8 + 16j) Ω (b) (2 + j0) Ω
(c) from 0.05 to 0.3 (d) 0.5
(c) (15 + 64j) Ω (d) (8 + 0j) Ω KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
IES-1991
Ans. (a) : Iron core highly permeable material so
Ans. (d) : Given that coupling coefficient is approx unity.
k = 1, Z 1 = 5 + j8, Z2 = 3 + j8
M
R1 = 5Ω R 2 = 3Ω K=
L1L 2
X L1 = 8Ω X L2 = 8Ω
27. The permeability and permittivity of a medium
ωL1 = 8Ω ωL 2 = 8Ω are
Mutual inductance (a) independent of each other
8 8 (b) related by the velocity of electromagnetic
M = k L1L 2 ∵ L1 = , L2 = wave
ω ω
(c) related by the Boltzmann's constant
8 8 64
M= × = (d) None of the above
ω ω ω2 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
Ans. (b) : It is known that the speed of light in free 30. The network shown in the figure draw a
space is related to the permittivity and permeability of a current I. If the ends a and b are shorted, the
medium, it is given by- current drawn would be
1
C=
µε
Where µ - permeability of material
ε - permittivity of material
28. The flux in a magnetic core is sinusoidally
varying at 200 Hz. The maximum flux density
is 2 Tesla and eddy current loss is 15 W. If the (a) 6 I (b) 4 I
frequency is raised to 400 Hz and maximum (c) 2 I (d) I
flux density reduced to 1 Tesla, the eddy ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008
current loss will Ans. (d) : When terminal a and b are open circuited
(a) Reduce to half then,
(b) Get doubled Leq = 2L||2L
(c) Reduce to one-fourth
2L × 2L 4L2
(d) Remain same = = =L
2L + 2L 4L
• When terminal a and b are short circuited then,
Ans. (d) :
Leq = (L||L)+(L||L)
Given, f1 = 200 Hz, Bm1 =2T ωe1 = 15W
L L
= +
f2 = 400, Bm2 = 1T, ωe2 = ? 2 2
=L
ωe ∝ f 2 B2m
Connecting equipotential notes A and B will not disturb
f 22 Bm2 current.
ωe2 = ωe1 × 2 2 2
f1 Bm1 So, in both cases Leq is same and hence the current
drawn by the circuit is the same
( 400 ) ×12
2
= ωe1 × 31. The effective inductance across 'AB' of the

( 200 ) × 22
2
infinite ladder shown in the figure below is-
160000
ωe2 = ωe1 ×
160000
ωe2 = ωe1
So, the eddy current loss will remain same.
29. for a pair of lossless magnetically coupled coils (
(a) 1 + 3 L ) ( )
(b) 1 + 5 L / 2
with respective self inductances L1, L2 (with
L1<L2) and mutual inductance M, the following (
(c) 1 + 5 L ) (d) (1 + 7 ) L
is generally true. UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
(a) M < L1 + L2 (b) M2 < L1L2 Ans. (b) :
(c) M < min(L1 + L2) (d) L1 < M < L2
BSNL (JTO)-2001
Ans. (b) : The maximum possible value of mutual
inductance is given by–
L LAB
When K = 1
M 2 = L1L 2
Where- L.L AB
L AB = L +
M = Mutual inductance, L1 & L 2 self inductance of coil L + L AB
respectively.
L ( L + L AB ) + LL AB
L AB =
then, M 2 ≤ L1 × L 2 ( 0 ≤ k ≤ 1) L + L AB

L AB .L + L2AB = L2 + LL AB + LL AB 35. What determines the inductance of a coil?
(a) The core material, the number of turns used to
L2AB − LL AB − L2 = 0 wind the core and the frequency of the current
+ L ± L2 − 4 ×1× −L2 through the coil.
L AB = (b) The core material, the core diameter, the
2
length of the coil and the number of turns of
L±L 5 wire used to wind the coil.
L AB =
2 (c) The core diameter, the number of turns of
wire used to wind the coil and the type of
L
= 1± 5
2
( ) metal used for the wire.
(d) The core material, the core diameter, the
taken positive value
length of the coil and whether the coil is
L
L AB = 1 + 5
2
( ) mounted horizontally or vertically.
RRB SSE 03.09.2015 Shift-II
32. Inductance has the dimensions of Ans. (b) : Inductance of a coil-
(a) Flux/current (b) Flux/length µ oµ r N 2 A
L=
(c) (Voltage)2/current (d) None of these ℓ
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I  d2 
Ans. (a) : As we know that – µoµ r N 2  π 
L=  4 
Nφ = Li ℓ
Nφ Flux Where,
L= =
i current N→ number of turn
33. A coil of inductance 2H and resistance 1Ω is ℓ → Length
connected to a 10V battery with negligible µr→ Relative permeability
internal resistance. The amount of energy µ0 → Absolute permeability of free space.
stored in the magnetic field is. d→ diameter of conductor
(a) 8J (b) 50J The inductance of a coil is determines by the core
(c) 25 J (d) 100J material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil.
36. To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you
1
Ans. (d) : V = IR Energy (E) = LI 2 could use:
2 (a) Two 20 millihenry chokes in series
V 1 (b) Two 5 millihenry chokes in series
I= = × 2 × (10) 2
R 2 (c) Two 30 millihenry chokes in parallel

10 (d) Two 5 millihenry chokes in parallel
I = = 10A E = 100J RRB SSE 03.09.2015 Shift-II
1
Ans. (b) : Series connection of inductance
I = 10A
L = L1 +L2
34. Which of the following statement is correct : [ L1 = 5mH, L2 = 5mH ]
(a) The flow of current in the electric circuit L = 5 mH + 5mH
involves discontinuous expenditure of energy L = 10 mH
(b) The flow of current in the electric circuit To replace a faulty 10mH choke, we can use two 5mH
requires energy for creating the current but chokes in series.
not to maintain it i 
37. The current ratio  2  for the circuit shown in
(c) In the magnetic circuit energy is needed  i 
continuously to maintain the flux fig. is :
(d) In the magnetic circuit energy is needed for
creating the flux initially but not maintain it
Ans. (d) : In the magnetic circuit energy is needed for
creating the flux initially but not maintain it.
−L1 di
(a) EMF (e) = − L
( L1 + L2 ) dt
− L2 di
(b) = rate of change of current
( L1 + L2 ) dt
–ve → show Lenz law.
L1
(c) 39. Two coils having equal resistance but different
( L1 + L2 )
inductances are connected in series. The time
L2 constant of the series combination is
(d)
( L1 + L2 ) (a) Sum of the time constants of the individual
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017 coils
Ans. (c) : Given circuit is- (b) Average of the time constants of the
individual coils
(c) Geometric mean of the time constants of
individual coils
(d) Product of the time constants of the individual
coils
Ans. (b) : As per question Let R is the resistance of
by using current divider theorem both coils and L1 & L2 be the inductance of two coils
i × L2 then after connecting in series
i1 = .....(i)
L1 + L 2 Equivalent R=R+R= 2R
Equivalent L=L1+L2
i × L1
i2 = .....(ii) L + L2
L1 + L 2 Time constant T = L / R = 1
2R
i2
Current ratio is– So time constant is the average of the individual coils.
i
40. Two coils X of 1000 turns and Y of 2000 turns
i × L1
i2 = are placed such that 60% of the flux produced
L1 + L 2
by coil X links coil Y. A current of 1 A in coil X
i2 L1 produces 0.1 mWb flux. The mutual inductance
=
i L1 + L 2 between the coils is
38. The induced emf in a coil is given as : (a) 0.12 H (b) 0.08 H
(c) 0.06 H (d) 0.04 H
d 2i dϕ
(a) e = L (b) e = L Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
dt 2 dt
Ans. (a) : As per question for coils X & Y
di di
(c) e = L (d) e = − L Coefficient of coupling K=60%=0.6
dt dt
also N1=1000, N2=2000
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
I1=1A, φ1 = 0.1mWb
Ans. (d) : The induced emf in a coil is equal to the
negative of the rate of change of magnetic flux times N1φ1 1000 × 0.1× 10 –3
then L1 = = = 0.1H
the number of turns in the coil. It involves the I1 1
interaction of charge with magnetic field. 2
L N  1
Also 1 =  1  =
L2  N2  4
0.1 1
=
L2 4
∴ L 2 = 0.4H
We know that
M = K L1L 2 = 0.6 0.1× 0.4 = 0.12 H

3. The first and the last critical frequency of an
(vi) Network Synthesis and RC driving point impedance function must
Function respectively be
(a) a zero and a pole (b) a zero and a zero
1. The minimum number of states required to (c) a pole and a pole (d) a pole and a zero
describe the network shown in the figure in a Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
state variable form is RPSC Vice Principle ITI -2016
GATE-2005
Ans. (d) : Properties of RC driving point impedance-
We know that the poles and zeros are called critical
frequencies, the critical frequency nearest to the
(a) 0 (b) 6 origin is always a pole.
(c) 1 (d) 3 The critical frequency at a greatest distance away
BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022 from the origin is always a zero, which may be
Ans. (d) : In a network the minimum number of states located at ∞ also
equal to the number of independent energy storing 4. Z(s) for the network shown in the below figure
elements in the network. is
So, in the given network there are three energy storing
elements.
2. The poles and zeros of the given circuit are
3 ( s 2 + 6s + 8 )
s 2 + 4s + 3
(a) poles: – 0.683 and – 7.317 The value of C and R are, respectively
zeros : – 1 and –3 (a) 1/ 6 F and 4Ω (b) 2/9 F and 9/2Ω
(b) poles : – 0.483 and – 5.317 (c) 2/3 F and 1/2Ω (d) 1/2 F and 1Ω
zeros : – 3 and – 4 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma) - 2017, Paper-I
(c) poles : – 0.383 and – 4.317 IES-2000
zeros : – 2 and – 3
3s 2 + 18s + 24
(d) poles : – 0.583 and – 6.317 Ans. (a) : Z ( s ) =
zeros : – 1 and – 4 s 2 + 4s + 3
ESE-2021 Applying continued fraction expansion
Ans.(a) : Conversion into s domain
I1 ( s )
Y=
V0 ( s )
1 1
Y= +
6 + 2s 10 + 10 / s
s ( s + 3 ) + 5 ( s + 1)
Y=
10 ( s + 1)( s + 3 ) Therefore, the final synthesized network is shown in
10 ( s + 1)( s + 3) 10 ( s + 1)( s + 3 ) below.
Z= =
s ( s + 3) + s ( s + 1) s 2 + 8s + 5
Poles: - s2 + 8s + 5 = 0
s = – 0.683 and – 7.317
zeros: - (s + 1)(s + 3) = 0
so, s = –3, –1 (i)
According to the question- Ans. (b) :
s 2 + 2s + 6
Z (s) =
s ( s + 3)
Note that we have a pole at s = 0, Lets remove it,
A Bs + C
Z(s) = +
(ii) s s+3
Comparison with circuit (i) and circuit (ii)- A = 2, B = 1, C = 0
1
C = F, R = 4Ω Z(s) = +
2 s
6 s s+3
5. The driving point impedance of the network Note that 2/s is a capacitor; while s/(s+3) is a parallel
shown in figure is connection of a resistor and an inductor.
Hence there are two storage elements.
8. Of the network, N1, N2, N3 and N4 of figure, the
network having identical driving point function
are
1
(a) 10 + 2s (b) 10 + 2s +
s
1
(c) 10 (d)
s
UPRVUNL AE - 11.06.2014
IES-2011
Ans. (b) : s-domain representation of the circuit
diagram -
1
∴ Z(s) = 10 + + 2s
s
6. The circuit represents a
(a) Foster I form (b) Foster II form (a) N1 and N2 (b) N2 and N4
(c) Couer I form (d) Couer II form (c) N1 and N3 (d) N1 and N4
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I GATE-1992
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2015, Paper-I Ans. (c) : for network 1-(N1)
Ans. (c) : From the given network first element is an 1 1
Y1 (s) = s + +
inductor and next element is should capacitor so this ( 2s + 1) 1
network synthesis by couer - I form. s +2
 
7. The driving-point impedance of a network is
given by Z(s) = (s2 + 2s + 6)/s(s + 3). Then the 2s 2 + 2s + 1
Y1 =
number of energy storage elements present in 2s + 1
the network is For, Network –2 (N2)
(a) 1 (b) 2 1 1 1+ s
(c) 3 (d) 4 Y2 (s) = + =
 1  ( 2s + 1) ( 2s + 1)
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I 2+ s 
IES - 1996  
For Network –3 (N3) (a) 3Ω, 6Ω (b) 6Ω, 3Ω
1 1+ s (c) 1Ω, 9Ω (d) 5Ω, 4Ω
Y3 (s) = s + =s+
1+
1 (s + 1 + s) BARC Scientific Officer-2016
 1 1
1 + s  V (s)
RL +
  Ans. (b) : 0 = Cs
2s 2 + 2s + 1 Vi (s) R + R + 1
Y3 (s) = 1 L
Cs
2s + 1
for Network – 4 (N4) R L Cs + 1
=
1 2s 2 + s + 1 R1Cs + R L Cs + 1
Y4(s) = s + =
2s + 1 2s + 1 R L Cs + 1
= …(i)
Hence, N1 and N3 network having identical driving Cs ( R1 + R L ) + 1
point function.
3s + 1
9. For the circuit given below, what is the = (Given) …(ii)
expression for the voltage V? 9s +1
Comparing we have
RLC = 3 …(iii)
(R1+RL)C = 9 …(iv)
C= 1 farad
From equation (iii) C = 1farad
So, R L = 3Ω
Put RLC = 3 in equation (iv), we have
(a) V1 + VC (b) VC R1C+3 = 9
dVC dVC R1 = 6Ω
(c) RC − VC (d) RC + VC
dt dt v (s) s + 3
IES-2005 11. For the network function = the v(t)
I ( s ) 2s + 3
Ans. (d) : Apply voltage division rule in the network-
at t = 0 for the relaxed circuit with unit step
i(t), is
(a) 0.5 V (b) 1.0 V
(c) 1.5 V (d) 2.0 V
s s Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
s s s+3 1
Ans. (a) : V ( s ) = .I ( s ) I (s) =
2s + 3 s
1 +
V ( 0+ ) = lims.
s 3 1
VS = I1R + I1 × ×
sC s →∞ 2s + 3 s
 RsC + 1  1 + 3/ s
=   I1 V ( 0+ ) = lim
s →∞ 2 + 3/ s
 sC 
VC ( s ) 1+ 0 1
I1 = = sCVC (s) = = 0.5
1/ sC 2+0 2
RsC + 1 12. A resistor and a capacitor are connected in
V( s ) = × VC (s) × sC series with a sine wave generator having
sC frequency such that the resistance and the
= VC (s) + VC (s) RsC capacitive reactance are same i.e. Voltage
dV (t) across capacitance, VC is equal to Voltage
V ( t ) = VC ( t ) + RC C across Resistance, VR. If the frequency of the
dt
sine wave generator is doubled, then
1 + 3s (a) VR < VC (b) VR = VC
10. If TF given as , C = 1F find R1, RL
1 + 9s (c) V R > V C (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) : Given,
R = XC
So, VR = VC
1
XC =
2πfC
If frequency increases, Then XC decreases but resistance (a) R (b) R
value not change. 4 2
So, VC decreases but VR remain same. (c) R (d) 2 R
∴ VR > VC MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
13. Find the driving point impedance of the circuit Ans. (b) :
given below
1
s3 + 2s 2 + s + 1 RL ×
(a) s3 + 2s 2 + s + 1 (b) CS RL
Z= =
s2 + 1 1 1 + R L .CS
RL +
s3 + 2s 2 + s + 1 s2 + 1 CS
(c) (d)
2s 2 + 1 s2 + s + 1 RL
UJVNL AE-2016 V0 Z 1 + R L .CS
= =
UPRVUNL - 11.06.2014 Vin Z + R RL
+R
Ans. (c) : Given circuit is Laplace domain 1 + R L CS
V0 RL 1
= =
Vin ( R L + R ) + RR L CS  R 
1 +  + RCS
Now driving point impedance is impact impedance, so  RL 
calculating input impedance from input side we have V0 1
= …(i)
1 Vin  R 
and s are in series 1 +
 R  + RCS
s  L 
1 1 + s2 V2 (s)
Given in question =
1
…(ii)
Z1 = +s=
s s V1 (s) 3 + SCR
Now Z1 and s are in parallel Now comparing equation (i) and (ii)
1 + s2  R 
×s 1 + = 3
Z2 = s  RL 
1 + s2 R = 2RL
+s
s R
s3 + s RL =
= 2 2
2s + 1 15. As the poles of a network shift away from the
Finally Z2 and 1Ω are in series axis the response becomes
s3 + s (a) Less oscillatory (b) More oscillatory
Zin (s)= 2 +1 (c) Constant (d) Does not change
2s + 1
s3 + 2s 2 + s + 1
Zin(s) = Ans. (a) : As the poles of a network shift away from the
2s 2 + 1 axis the response becomes less oscillatory.
V (S) 16. The poles and zeros of all–network are located
14. Transfer function 2 of network shown in
V1 ( S ) in which part of the s-plane?
(a) Poles and zeroes are in the right half s-plane
V2 ( S ) 1
Fig. 16 is given by = then value (b) Poles and zeroes are in the left half s-plane
V1 ( S ) 3 + SCR (c) Poles in the right half and zeroes in the left
of resistance RL is : half s-plane
(d) Poles in the left half and zeroes in the right
half s-plane
L Ans. (d) : For all pass system pole must lie on the left
and zeros on the mirror image of the pole can be on the
right side.

17. Zero of a network is the critical frequency at Ans. (c) : We have -
which network function becomes : P(s) = ansn + an–1sn –1+........+ a1s + a0
(a) Unity (b) Zero it must be Hurwitz's polynomial if
(c) Infinite (d) Sinusoidal (i) All the coefficients an, an–1,...a1,a0 > 0
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I (ii) If roots lies on imaginary axis or left half of s-plane,
Roots on imaginary axis are simple and interlace to
N (s) each other.
Ans. (b) : Network function =
D (s) 21. In the first Foster form, the presence of first
when N(s) = 0 so roots of N (s) is called zeros of element capacitor C0 indicates
(a) Pole at ω = 0 (b) Pole at ω = infinity
Network function. (c) Zero at ω = 0 (d) Zero at ω = infinity
18. Transfer impedance is defined as Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
(a) Ratio of transform voltage and transform Ans. (a) : In foster Ist form the first element is a capacitor
current at the same port is represented by Ao/s. Hence there is a pole at origin
(b) Ratio of transform voltage at one port to the 22. The function is said to be positive real, when
current transform at the other port (a) Poles and zeros lie on the right half s-plane
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Poles and zeros lie on the left half s-plane
(d) Ratio between transform of voltage at one (c) Poles and zeros are simple and lie on the
port to the transform of voltage at the other imaginary axis
port (d) Both (b) and (c)
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Transfer impedance of any two port network Ans. (d) : A function F(s) is called as a positive real
is defined as the ratio of voltage at one port and current function if fulfill these four important condition if
transfer at the another port. substitutes s = jω then on separating the real and
imaginary part the real part of the function should be
19. The necessary conditions for driving point greater than or equal to zero
function is
23. A pole of a driving point impedance function
(a) Real part of all poles and zeros must not be signifies :
zero or negative (a) An open circuit at that complex frequency
(b) P(s) and Q(s) may not have any missing terms (b) A short circuit at that complex frequency
between the highest and lowest degree unless (c) None of these
all even or all odd terms are missing (d) 10Ω impedance
(c) Degree of P(s) and Q(s) may differ by more Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
than one Ans. (a) : A zero of N(s) is a zero of V(s). It significant
(d) Lowest degree in P(s) and Q(s) may differ in a short circuit similarly, a pole of z(s) is zero of I(s), the
degree by more than two poles of driving point impedance are those frequency
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II corresponding to open circuit condition.
Ans. (b) : 24. In an impedance function, a pole at infinity is
(1) Coefficient of P(s) and Q(s) must be real and realized with the use of :
(a) A capacitance in series
P (s)
positive N(s) = (b) An inductance in series
Q (s) (c) And inductance in parallel with the driving
(2) Real part of all poles and zeros must be zero or point terminals
negative (d) None of these
(3) Polynomial P(s) for Q(s) may not have any missing Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
term between highest and lowest degree unless all Ans. (b) : If we divided numerator by denominator we
even and odd term are missing get term sL therefore, the network has inductance in series.
(4) Degree of P(s) and Q(s) may differ by zero or one 25. Brune's method of network synthesis is
only particularly used in
(a) RC network (b) RL network
20. A polynomial must satisfy the condition that (c) RLC network (d) None of these
(a) Z(s) is a real function Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
(b) All the roots of P(s) have zero real parts or Ans. (c) : A two element kind network (LC, RC, RL
negative real parts can be synthesised with foster or Couer synthesis. A
(c) Both (a) and (b) three element kind network (an RLC network) requires
(d) None of the above more advanced treatment such as Brune or Bott-Duffin
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II synthesis.

2s 2 + 2s + 1 by using current division rule
26. The function Y ( s ) = 2
is a 4 + 2s
s + 2s + 2 Io(s) = I (s)
(a) Positive real function 2 i
4 + 2s +
(b) Not a positive real function s
(c) Hurwitz polynomial Io (s) 2
2s + 4s
(d) None of these = 2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I I i (s) 2s + 4s + 2
2s 2 + 2s + 1 2s ( s + 2 )
=
Ans. (b) : Y(s) = 2
s + 2s + 2 (
2 s 2 + 2s + 1 )
s (s + 2)
2
s2+2s+2 2s +2s+1 2
2
2s +4s+4 = 2
− − − s + 2s + 1
∵ −2s−3 29. Which one of the following has all the poles of
the function lie on the j ω axis?
2s + 3
Y (s) = 2 − 2 (a) L-C function (b) R-L function
s + 2s + 2 (c) R-C function (d) Y function
since there is premature termination (P.T), it is not a
positive real function. ESE-2021
27. The real parts of all poles and zeros in a Ans.(a) : L-C function has all the poles of the function
driving point function must be: lie on the jω axis
(a) Zero (b) Negative 30. Which one of the following is an LC
(c) Zero or negative (d) Positive immittance function?
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 Ks ( s 2 + 4 )
Ans. (c) : The real part of all poles and zeros in a (a) Z ( s ) = 2
driving point function must be zero or negative. ( s + 1)( s2 + 3)
Because in practical all circuit should be disable and
s 5 + 4s3 + 5s
circuit element will store some finite amount of energy (b) Z ( s ) =
such that when equivalent transfer function is found the 3s 4 + 6s 2
system act as causal. K ( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 9 )
I (ω ) (c) Z ()s =
28. The current gain o for the given circuit is ( s2 + 2 )( s2 + 10 )
Ii (ω )
2 ( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 9 )
(d) Z ( s ) =
s (s2 + 4)
ESE-2021
2 ( s + 1)( s + 9 )
2 2
Ans.(d) : Z ( s ) =
s (s2 + 4)
The properties of LC immittance function are :
s (s + 2) (a) The poles and zeroes are alternate on jω axis.
(a) , where s = jω
s 2 + 2s + 1 (b) The poles & zeroes are located on jω axis only.
s ( s + 1) (c) LC immittance function is always the ratio of odd
(b) , where s = jω to even or even to odd polynomial.
s2 + s + 1
(d) The highest power of numerator & denominator
s (s + 2) must differ by unity.
(c) , where s = jω
s + 2s + 2
2
(e) The lowest power of numerator or denominator
s (s + 2) must differ by unity.
(d) , where s = jω (f) There must be either a pole or zero at the origin and
s2 + s + 2
ESE-2021 infinity as the function is a ratio of even to odd
polynomials.
Ans.(a) : (g) Residues at the imaginary axis poles are real and
Io(s) positive.
4
31. The driving point impedance with poles at
Ii(s)s 2/s
ω = 0(zero) and ω = ∞ (infinity) must have the
2s
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term
in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in Comparing equation (i) and (ii)
the denominator 1
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of = 0.5, R = 2Ω
terms in the numerator and denominator R
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number 1
= 10, L = 0.1H
of terms in the numerator and denominator L
BSNL (JTO)-2006 C = 5, C = 5F
Ans. (a) : The driving point impedance with pole at ω = 34. Consider the following driving point
∞, there will be an excess term in the numerator and impedances which are to be realized using
with pole at ω = 0, there will be s term in the passive elements:
denominator. s+3 s2 + 3
32. The lowest and the highest critical frequencies 1. 2 2. 2 2
of RC driving point admittance are, s (s + 5) s (s + 5)
respectively: Which of the above is/are realizable?
(a) a zero and a pole (b) a pole and a zero (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) a zero and a zero (d) a pole and a pole (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
IES-2016 IES-2016
Ans. (a) : In R-C network - s+3
RCs + 1 Ans. (d) : Let Z1 ( s ) = 2
Driving point impedance Z (s) = s ( s + 5)
Cs Poles P1 = 0, 0 P2 = –5
1
∴ Driving point admittance Y (s) = Zeros, Z = –3
Z(s)
s2 + 3
1 Z2 ( s ) =
= s2 ( s2 + 5)
RCs + 1/ Cs
Cs Poles P1 = 0, 0
=
1 + RCs P2 = ± j 5
Y (0) = 0, zeros of driving point admittance. Zeros Z = ± j 3
1
Y(ω) = − , poles of driving point admittance. A driving point impedance has following properties-
RC (i) All the poles and zeros are on left half of s-plane.
33. The driving point impedance of the circuit (ii) It may have simple pole on origin or imaginary axis;
0.2s but it cannot have pair of poles on origin. Hence both
shown is given by Z(s) = 2
s + 0.1s + 2 the driving point function are not realizable.
35. A reactance function in the first Foster form
has poles at ω = 0 and ω = ∞. The black-box
(B.B) in the network contains:
The component values R, L and C are

respectively:
(a) 0.5Ω, 1 H and 0.1 F
(b) 2Ω, 5H and 5F (a) An inductor (b) A capacitor
(c) 0.5Ω, 0.1 H and 0.1 F (c) A parallel L-C circuit (d) A series L-C circuit
(d) 2Ω, 0.1 H and 5F IES-2016
IES-2016
Ans. (d) : Poles at ω = ∞ simply implies that, the
0.2s network has simple poles on imaginary axis. Hence for
Ans. (d) : Given, Z(s) = 2
s + 0.1s + 2 the parallel L-C network, black box represent series L-C
1 1 s2 + 0.1s + 2 network to counterbalance of parallel network.
∴ Y(s) = = =
Z(s) 0.2s s + 0.1s + 2
2
0.2s 36. In the first Couer LC network, the first
element is a series inductor when the driving
10
= 5s + 0.5 + … (i) points function consists of a
s (a) Pole at ω = ∞ (b) Zero at ω = ∞
1 1
Also Y(s) = Cs + + … (ii) (c) Pole at ω = 0 (d) Zero at ω = 0
R sL IES -2015
Ans. (a) : If Z(s) is a function to be synthesised, then 1 4 1 4
continued fraction expansion is as follows - (a) ,1and (b) 1, and
4 29 4 29
1 4 1 2
Z(s) = L1s + (c) , and1 (d) 1, 2 and
1
C2s + 29 4 29
L2s + ..... IES-2014
Therefore, in first couer network, inductors are Ans. (b) : Given circuit converted into s- domain
connected in series and capacitors are connected in
shunt. Each poles exist at ω = ∞; Hence there is a pole
at ω = ∞ for first inductor.
37. If Y(s) = 1 + s, the network has 1Ω resistor and Driving point impedance
(a) 1 F capacitor in series 1
(b) 1 F capacitor in parallel ( R + sL )
(c) 1 H inductor in series Z (s ) = Cs
1
(d) 1 H inductor in parallel R + sL +
Cs
IES-2015
1 (s + R / L)
Ans. (b) : Given, Y(s) = 1 + s Z (s ) = …………..(i)
C  R 1 
Y (s) =
1 1
= 1+ s = +
1 s + s + 
Z (s) R 1/ Cs  L LC 
According to the question
By comparison Poles = −2 ± j5
1
=1 Zero = –4
R So, we can write
R = 1Ω k (s + 4)
Cs = s Z(s) =
( s + 2 ) − ( j5)
2 2
C= 1F
R = 1Ω, C = 1F k (s + 4)
Z (s ) = 2 ……………..(ii)
s + 4s + 29
Put s = 0
k ( 4)
Z ( 0) = =1
29
Hence resistance and capacitance are connected in 29
parallel k=
4
38. The network function, H(s) is equal to Put the value of k in equation (ii)
(a)
Y(s)
(b)
X(s)
Z(s) =
29 ( s + 4 ) ………..(iii)
X(s) Y(s) 4 ( s 2 + 4s + 29 )
1 Comparison with equation (i) and (iii)
(c) X(s) Y(s) (d)
X(s)Y(s)
1 29 4
IES-2014 = C= F
C 4 29
Ans. (a) :
1
Y = 29
LC
1
Output Y(s) = 29
Network function H(s) = =  4 
Input X(s) L ×  
 29 
39. The driving-point impedance of the network 1
shown in the figure has a zero at –4 and poles L = H
4
at –2 ± j5.
R
=4
L
R
=4
1
 
4
If Z(0) = 1, the values of R, L and C are
respectively R = 1Ω

(s + 4)(s + 9) s3 + 10s2 + 25s + 18
40. If Z(s) = is a driving point Ans. (d) : Z(s) =
(s + 1)(s + 16) (s + 1)(s + 3)(s + 5)
impedance, it represents an (s + 1.35)(s + 6.64)(s + 2)
(a) R-C impedance (b) R-L impedance =
(c) L-C impedance (d) R-L-C impedance (s + 1)(s + 3)(s + 5)
IES-2014 Pole-zero diagram as below -
(s + 4)(s + 9)
Ans. (a) : Z(s) =
(s + 1)(s + 16)
Z ( 0 ) > Z ( ∞ ) and poles and zero interlace on negative
real axis hence Z(s) is a RC driving point impedance
function.
41. Which of the following statements are not true Since poles and zeros of given function do not interlace
for the driving point functions of a lossless each other. Also these are not simple poles. Hence it
network? cannot be any of the driving point impedance.
1. They are the ratio of odd to even or even to 44.
odd polynomials.
2. They do not satisfy the separation
property.
3. They have either a pole or a zero at the
origin and infinity.
4. Their degree of the numerator and
denominator polynomial differ by 2 and
only 2. The driving-point impedance Z(s) of the circuit
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 shown in the above figure is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 s 2 + Rs Rs 2 + s + R
IES-2013 (a) (b)
1 + Rs Rs + 1
Ans. (d) : A driving point functions has following
properties - s 2 (R + 1) + 3 1
(c) (d)
(i) They are the ratio of even polynomial to odd 1 + Rs (1 + Rs)2
polynomial or vice-versa. IES-2013
(ii) They must have either pole or a zero at s = 0 and Ans. (b) : s-domain representation of the circuit
also at s = ∞. diagram as shown below -
(iii) Poles or zero on imaginary axis are simple.
42. For a driving point function, with n = degree of
numerator polynomial and m = degree of
denominator polynomial, the relationship
connecting n and m is
(a) n − m ≤ 1 (b) n − m = 0
(c) (n − m) < −1 (d) n – m > 1 ∴ Driving point impedance -
IES-2013 1
z(s) = s + || R
Ans. (a) : For a reliable and robust driving point s
function degree of numerator can not exceed the degree R
of denominator actually. =s+
1 + Rs
n − m ≤1
Rs2 + s + R
Where, n = degree of numerator Z(s) =
m = degree of denominator Rs + 1
If n-m > 1, It means that there is a multiple poles at 45. A two-terminal network consists of a coil
s=∞ having inductance L and resistance R shunted
by a capacitance C. The poles and zeros of the
s 3 + 10s 2 + 25s + 18 driving-point impedance function Z( ω) are
43. If Z(s) = , it is
(s + 1)(s + 3)(s + 5) 1 3
located as poles at − ± j and zero at –1.
(a) an RC driving-point impedance 2 2
(b) an RL driving-point impedance If Z(0) = 1, the values of R, L and C are
(c) an LC driving-point impedance (a) 1Ω, 1H and 1µF (b) 1Ω, 1H and 1F
(d) None of the above (c) 1Ω, 1µH and 1F (d) 1kΩ, 1H and 1F
IES-2013 IES-2012
Ans. (b) : Given circuit diagram - P(s) N(s)
Ans. (d) : H(s) = =
Q(s) D(s)
For a driving point impedance function, the degree of
numerator cannot exceed the degree of denominator by
more than unity. i.e. |n–m| ≤ 1.
However it n – m > 1. It would simply mean that there
Driving point impedance - is a multiple pole at s = ∞.
47. The valid pole-zero patterns for an RL driving
1
Z(s) = (R + sL) || point impedance function, are
sC
R + sL
1.
= sC
1
R + sL +
sC
sL + R
=
LCs2 + RCs + 1
R 2.
s+
Z(s) = L …(i)
RCs 1
Cs +
2
+
L L
According to the question Z ( s ) =

( s + 1)
2 3.
 1  j 3
2
 s +  − 
 2   2 
s +1
Z(s) = …(ii)
s + s +1
2
Comparing equation (i) and (ii) we have 4.

R
=1
L
C=1 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
= 1, L = 1H
L IES-2011
R = 1Ω Ans. (b) : The various properties of R-L driving point
impedance functions can be state as -
Thus, L = 1H (i) The poles and zeros are simple. There are no
C = 1F multiple poles or zeros.
(ii) The poles and zeros are located on negative real
P(s) axis.
46. For a network transfer function H(s) = ,
Q(s) (iii) The poles and zeros are interlace to each other on
where P(s) and Q(s) are polynomials in s, the negative real axis.
(iv) The value of ZRL(s) at s = 0 is always less than the
1. The degree of P(s) and Q(s) are same. value of ZRL(s) at s = ∞ i.e.
2. The degree of P(s) is always greater than
ZRL (0) < ZRL (∞ )
the degree of Q(s)
3. The degree of P(s) is independent of the 48. The Foster I realization of the driving point
degree of Q(s) impedance function
4. The maximum degree of P(s) and Q(s) 3(s 2 + 1)(s 2 + 49)
Z(s) = is shown below
differ at most by one. s(s 2 + 9)
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
IES-1994, 2011
TNPSC AE - 2008
The value of L0 and C0 are respectively. Ans. (a) : For R-C driving point impedance function we
49 3 have following properties -
(a) 3H and F (b) 3H and F (i) Poles and zeros are simple and interlace.
3 49
1 3 1 49 (ii) ZRC (0) > ZRC (∞)
(c) H and F (d) H and F 50. The driving point impedance of a network is
3 49 3 3
2s + 1
IES-2011 given by Z ( s ) = . The Foster realization
Ans. (b) : Given, s(s + 1)
of the network is
3(s2 + 1)(s2 + 49)
Z(s) =
s(s2 + 9)
Here degree of denominator is one less than degree of (a)
numerator. Since numerator contains on excess term,
while the denominator has one s-term. Hence two poles
exist at ω = 0 and at ω = ∞. Thus network consists of
first and last elements in the Foster-I form. So the
general representation of Z(s) will be -
A A A* (b)
Z(s) = 0 + 2 + 2 + Hs
s s + j3 s − j3
Where,
3(s2 + 1)(s2 + 49)
A0 =
s2 + 9 s =0 (c)
49
=
3
3(s2 + 1)(s2 + 49)
A2 =
s(s − j3) s =− j3
160 (d)
=
3
1 1 3
∴ C0 = = = F IES-2010
A0 49 49
3 2s + 1
Ans. (c) : Given, Z(s) =
L∞ = 3H = L0 s(s + 1)
By using partial fraction of Foster-I form
1 1 3
C1 = = = A B
2A2 2 × 160 320 Z (s ) = +
s s +1
3 After solution
2A 2 × 160 320
L2 = 2 2 = = A = 1, B = 1
ωn 3(3)2 27 1 1
Hence, So, Z ( s ) = +
s s +1
L0 = L∞ = 3H 
  1  1× 1/ s
and 3  = +
C0 = F  s  1+ 1
49    ( )
s
1. Poles and zeros are simple and interlace
2. Residues at the poles on the imaginary axis
are real.
3. ZRC (0) > ZRC (∞) Hence circuit can be drawn as.
4. The slopes of the reactance curves are
positive.
Which of these properties are correct for an
RC driving point impedance ZRC (s)?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
IES-2011
51. Consider the following statements: Ans. (a, c) :
There are given as necessary conditions for (a)
driving point functions with common factors in
p(s) and q(s) cancelled:
s(s + 3)
1. The coefficients of the polynomial in p(s) Z(s) =
(s 2 + 1)(s 2 + 9)
and q(s) must be real.
2. Poles and zeros must be conjugate pairs if
imaginary of complex.
(b)
3. The terms of lowest degree in p(s) and q(s)
may differ in degree by one at most
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (s 2 + 25)
Z(s) =
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only s(s 2 + 36)
IES-2010
p(s) (c)
Ans. (a) : A driving point function Z(s) = must
q(s)
have - (s 2 + 1)(s 2 + 36)
Z(s) =
(i) There coefficient must be real s(s 2 + 4)(s 2 + 25)
(ii) Poles and zeros must have complex conjugate
pairs on imaginary axis.
(iii) The degree of p(s) – q(s) ≤ 1 (d)
1. The coefficients in the polynomials p(s) and s(s 2 + 16)
q(s) must be real and positive. Z(s) =
(s 2 + 25)
2. Poles and zeros of Z(s) must be conjugate if
imaginary or complex.
Which of these statements are associated with According to the option (b) and (d) are LC network
p(s) because poles and zero are jω axis only and placed
the driving point function Z(s) = ?
q(s) alternatively.
(a) Both 1 and 2 Option (a) and (c) are not LC network because poles and
(b) 1 only zero are jω axis but not placed alternatively.
(c) 2 only 54. Consider the below network. Impedance of this
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 network as a function of the complex frequency
s consists of a certain number of zeros and
IES-2010 poles. What is the location of poles?
Ans. (a) : For a driving point impedance function -
(i) Coefficient of numerator and denominator must be
parts on pole-zero diagram.
(ii) For L-C functions simple poles and zeros lies on
imaginary axis.
53. Which one of the following driving point (a) –2 (b) –2,∞
functions does not represent an LC network? (c) 2 (d) 2, ∞
s(s + 3) IES-2009
(a) Z(s) = 2 Ans. (b) : Driving point impedance of the circuit is -
(s + 1)(s + 9)
2
Z(s) = 1 || (1 + s) + 2s
(s 2 + 25) 1+ s
(b) Z(s) = 2 = + 2s
s(s + 36) 2+s
(s 2 + 1)(s 2 + 36) 1 + s + 4s + 2s2
(c) Z(s) = 2 =
s(s + 4)(s + 25)
2
s+2
s(s 2 + 16) 2s2 + 5s + 1
(d) Z(s) = Z(s) =
(s 2 + 25) s+2
IES-2009 For proper transfer function poles are at s= –2 and s =∞.
55. All poles and zeros of a driving point 59. A reactive network has poles at ω = 0,
immittance function of an L-C network 4000 rad/s, and infinity and zeros at ω = 2000
(a) should lie on the jω axis and 6000 rad/s. The impedance of the network
(b) should lie on the +ve real axis is –j 700 Ohm at 1000 rad/s. What is the
(c) should lie on the –ve real axis correct expression for the driving point
(d) can lie anywhere in s-plane impedance?
Ans. (a) : All poles and zeros of a driving point

IES-2009
(a) − j(0.1ω)
(ω 2
− 4 × 106 )( ω2 − 36 × 106 )
Ω
immitance function of an L-C network should lie on the ω2 (ω2 − 16 × 106 )
jω axis and they should be interlace to each other. ω2 ( ω2 − 16 × 106 )
56. Which one of the following functions is an RC (b) j(0.1ω) Ω
driving point impedance? (ω2 − 4 × 106 ) ( ω2 − 36 ×106 )
(a)
s(s + 3)(s + 4)
(b)
(s + 3)(s + 4)
j(0.1ω)
(ω 2
− 4 × 106 )( ω2 − 36 ×106 )
Ω
(s + 1)(s + 2) (s + 1)(s + 2) (c)
ω2 ( ω2 − 16 ×106 )
(s + 3)(s + 4) (s + 2)(s + 4)
(c)
s(s + 1)(s + 2)
(d)
(s + 1)(s + 3) ω2 ( ω2 − 16 × 106 )
(d) − j(0.1ω) Ω
IES-2007 (ω 2
− 4 × 106 )( ω2 − 36 × 106 )
Ans. (d) : Main properties of ZRC networks are -
All poles and zeros are on negative real axis including origin
with first singularly is the pole and they are interlaced. IES-2007
57. Consider the following statements for a driving Ans. (c) : Given,
point function F(j ω) ωp1 = 0rad / sec , ωp 2 = 4000rad / sec
1. Re F(jω) is an even function of ω and is 0 ωz1 = 2000rad / sec , ωz 2 = 6000rad / sec
or positive for all values of ω.
2. Im F(j ω) is an even function of ω and is 0
∴ Z(s) =
(
k s2 + ω2z l )( s 2
+ ω2z 2 )
or positive for all values of ω.
3. Re F(j ω) is an odd function of ω and is 0 or (
s s +ω
2 2
p2 )
negative for all values of ω.
k s2 + ( 2000 )  s2 + ( 6000 ) 
2 2
4. Re F(s) = 0 for Re s = 0. =    
s s2 + ( 4000 ) 
2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?  
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 Put s = jω
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4 only k(−ω2 + 4 × 106 ) ( −ω2 + 36 × 106 )
IES-2007 Z( jω) =
Ans. (a) : A driving point function F(jω) has Re F(jω) jω ( −ω2 + 16 × 106 )
is an even function of ω and is zero or positive for all ∵ at ω = 1000 rad/sec.
values of ω.
Z(j1000) = –j 700 (given)
58. Consider the following expression for the
driving point impedance: k ( 3 ×106 )( 35 × 106 )
∴ − j700 =
2 ( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 9 ) ( j1000 ) (15 × 106 )
Z(s) = 2
s(s + 4) 700 = k × 7 × 103
1. It represents an LC circuit ∴ k = 0.1
2. It represents an RLC circuit
3. It has a pole lying on the jω axis. ( 0.1) ( −ω2 + 4 × 106 )( −ω2 + 36 × 106 )
∴ Z( j ω ) =
4. It has a pole at infinite frequency and a jω ( −ω2 + 16 ×106 )
zero and zero frequency.
Which of the following given above are j ( 0.1ω ) ( ω2 − 4 × 106 )( ω2 − 36 × 106 )
correct? =
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 ω2 ( ω2 − 16 ×106 )
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
60. What is the minimum number of elements
IES-2007 required to realize a given driving point
Ans. (b) : The given driving point function can not be susceptance function?
represented either RC, R-L function. So it can be treated (a) One greater than the total number of internal
as R-L-C network. poles and zeros
The poles of proper function is the infinite point at
(b) Equal to the total number of internal poles
s = ∞ and zeros are given by a value zero at s = 0. and zeros
(c) One less than the total number of internal Ans. (a) : Given,
poles and zeros ωp1 = 0 rad / sec, ωp2 = 40 rad / sec, ωp3 = ∞
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I ωz1 = 20rad / sec, ωz 2 = 60 rad / sec
IES-2007 Z(s) can be written as-
Ans. (a) : The minimum number of elements required k ( s 2 + ωz1 2
)( s2 + ωz22 )
to realize a given driving point susceptance function is Z ( s ) =
one greater than the total number of internal poles and s ( s 2 + ωp2 2 )
zeros.
Put s = jω
61. For the network shown in the figure given
below, what is the value of Z(s)? k ( −ω2 + 400 )( −ω2 + 3600 )
Z ( jω ) =
jω ( −ω2 + 1600 )
At ω = 10 rad / sec, z ( j10 ) = −70
So,
k ( 300 )( 3500 )
− j70 =
j10 × 1500
s 2 + 2s + 2 s+2
(a) (b) k=1
s +1 ( s + 1)
2
Hence driving point impedance-
( s + 1) 1( s 2 + 400 )( s 2 + 3600 )
2
s +1
(c) (d) Z (s) =
s + 2s + 2 (s + 2) s ( s 2 + 1600 )
2
IES-2006 By using partial fraction

Ans. (c) : Circuit converted into s-domain A 2A s
Z (s) = 0 + 2 i + H.s
s s + 1600
A A1 A1
= 0+ + + H.s
s s + j40 s − j40
1 A 0 1( s + 400 )( s + 3600 )
2 2
Z(s) = (s + 1) || ||1 =
s ( s 2 + 1600 )
s s
s =0
 1 
= (s + 1)   A0 = 900
 s +1
1 1
 1  ∵ C0 = = F
(s + 1)   A 0 900
 s +1
=
 1  A1
=
( s2 + 400 )( s2 + 3600 )
(s + 1) +  
 s +1 s + j40 s ( s + j40 )( s − j40 )
s =− j40
s +1
= 2 A1 = 750
s + 2s + 2 2A1 2 × 750 15
62. The driving point impedance of a reactive ∵ L 2 = 2 = = H
ωn ( 40 ) 16
2
network has poles ω = 0, 40 rad/s and infinity.
Zeros are located at ω= 20 and 60 rad/s. The 1 1 1
impedance at 10 rad/s is –j70Ω. Which one of C2 = 2A = 2 × 750 = 1500 F
1
the following gives the form of the first foster
network of the driving point impedance 1( s 2 + 400 )( s 2 + 3600 )
function? H.s =
(a) An inductor L1, a parallel combination of an s ( s 2 + 1600 )
s =∞
inductor L2 and a capacitor C2; and a
 400  3600 
capacitor C3 all in series. s 4  1 + 2  1 + 2 
(b) Two parallel combinations inductors and H.s =  s  s 
capacitors in series  1600 
s3  1 + 2 
(c) Two series combination of inductors and  s  s =∞
capacitors connected in parallel
H=1
IES-2004 L ∞ = H = 1H
Hence Foster-1 form can be drawn as Ans. (c) : Properties of R-L driving point impedance
The poles and zero lie on the negative real axis
(included origin) of the complex s-plane.
The poles and zeros interlaces along the negative
real axis.
The value of impedance (ZRL) at s = ∞ is always
less than the value of impedance ZRL (s) at s = 0.
63. Which one of the following statements is 66. The first Couer form realization of the driving
correct? point reactance
The poles and zeroes of driving point reactance 2(s 2 + a) ( s 2 + c )
function of an L-C network ;a < b < c is
(a) lie on the real axis of the s-plane s (s2 + b )
(b) alternate
(c) lie on the unit circle
(d) are arbitrary
IES-2004 (a) (b)
Ans. (b) : The poles and zeros of driving point
reactance function of L-C network are complex
conjugate on imaginary axis and they are interlace i.e.
alternate to each other.
(c) (d)
64. The driving point impedance of the network
shown in figure is given by :
s+3 IES-2001
Z(s) = 2
2 ( s + a )( s + c )
2s + 6s + 1 2 2
Ans. (a) : Z ( s ) =
s (s2 + b )
2 ( s 4 + s 2 c + as 2 + ac )
or Z(s) =
s 3 + sb
The continued fraction expansion is
The values of the components are :
(a) R = 3 Ω, L = 1 H and C = 2 F
(b) R = 3 Ω, L = 2 H and C = 1 F
(c) R = 3 Ω, L = 0.5 H and C = 4 F Let c+a–2b=x, ac = y
(d) R = 3 Ω, L = 4 H and C = 0.5 H So,
DRDO - 2 0 0 9
s+3
Ans. (a) : Given, Z ( s ) = ... (i)
2s + 6s + 1
2
1
( sL + R )
Z (s ) = sc
1
+ sL + R
sc y
Similarly let b − = Z
( sL + R ) x
Z (s) = 2 …(ii)
s LC + sRC + 1 So,
Now comparing equation (i) and (ii)
Z
R = 3Ω, C = 2F and L = 1H
65. Which one of the following statements is not a
property of R-L driving point impedance?
(a) The first critical frequency at the origin is a
zero Therefore, the synthesized network is shown in below.
(b) The last critical frequency is a pole
(c) The impedance at s = ∞ is always less than
the impedance at s = zero
(d) The slope of the impedance curve is positive
at all points
IES-2002
s ( s 2 + 1) 70.
Voltage transfer function of a simple RC
67. Driving point impedance Z(s) = is not
integrator has
s2 + 4 (a) a finite zero and a pole at infinity
realizable because the
(b) a finite zero and a pole at the origin
(a) number of zeros is more than the number of
poles (c) a zero at the origin and a finite pole
(b) poles and zeros lie on the imaginary axis (d) a zero at infinity and a finite pole
(c) poles and zeros do not alternate on imaginary IES-1999
axis Ans. (d) : R-C integrator circuit
(d) poles and zeros are not located on the real
axis
IES-2001
Ans. (c) : Pole - Zero diagram of driving point
impedance.
s(s2 + 1)
Z(s) = is -
s2 + 4
Voltage transfer function
V0 RCs
=
Vi 1 + RCs
s
=
1
s+
RC
Since poles and zeros are not interlace, Hence they are
not realizable.
3
68. The function s +2 + can be realized
s
(a) both as a driving point impedance and as a
driving point admittance
(b) as an impedance, but not as an admittance
(c) as an admittance, but not as an impedance
(d) neither as an impedance nor as an admittance Hence it has zero at ∞ and a finite pole at sP = − 1
IES-2001 RC
3 71. Driving-point impedance of the network shown
Ans. (a) : Z(s) = s + 2 + in the figure is
s
s + 2s + 3
2
=
s
s
and Y(s) =
s + 2s + 3
2
Since all the powers in numerator and denumerator are

real and +Ve in Z(s) and Y(s) respectively. Hence Z(s)
and Y(s) both are realizable. s 3 + 2s 2 + s + 1 s3 + s 2 + s + 1
(a) 2
(b)
69. Consider the following statements : If a 2s + 1 s2 + 1
network has an impedance of (1 – j) at a 2s + 1
2
s + 2s 2 + s + 1
3
specific frequency, the circuit would consist of (c) 3 (d)
series s + 2s 2 + s + 1 s2 + 1
1. R and C IES-1999
2. R and L Ans. (a) : The circuit converted into s-domain-
3. R, L and C
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
IES-2000
Ans. (b) : Given, Z(s) = 1–j
Since reactive part is –Ve and real part > 0 so it can be
represented either R-C or R-L-C network.
After conversion of delta into star connection Poles and Zero plot
s s3
Driving point impedance ( Z11 ) = 1 + + From the above poles zero plot we can say poles and
2s + 1 2s 2 + 1
2
zero alternate on the negative real axis.
Put s =0, in Y(s)
2s 2 + 1 + s + s 3
Z11 = ( 0 + 2 )( 0 + 0.5 )
2s 2 + 1 Y (s) =
72. Match the List-I (Network) with List-II (Poles ( 0 + 3)( 0 + 1)
of driving-point impedance) and select the Y 0 = 1
( )
correct answer using the codes given below the 3
lists: 74. An R-L-C circuit for the driving-point
List-I List-II  
A. LC 1. Negative real  1/RLs 
admittance function  + Cs  is
B. RC 2. Imaginary  1 + 1 
C. RLC 3. Either real or complex  R Ls 
D. RL
Codes: (a)
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 1 3
(c) 2 1 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 1
(b)
IES-1999
Ans. (d) : LC impedance network → Conjugate roots
on imaginary axis.
R-C & R-L network → negative real roots.
(c)
R-L-C network → Either real or complex roots.
73. Consider the following statements regarding
the driving point admittance function
s 2 + 2.5s + 1
Y(s) = (d)
s 2 + 4s + 3
1. It is an admittance of RL network
2. Poles and zeros alternate on the negative real
UPRVUNL AE - 11.06.2017
axis of the s-plane IES-1999
3. The lowest critical frequency is a pole
4. Y(0) = 1/3 1/RLs
Which of these statements are correct? Ans. (b) : Y(s) = + Cs
1 1
+
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 R Ls ↓
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Y1 + Y2 Y3
IES-1999 i.e.
Ans. (b) : Given,
Y (s) =
( s + 2 )( s + 0.5 )
( s + 3)( s + 1)
Poles P1 = –1, P2 = –3
Zeroes Z1 = –0.5, Z2 = –2
75. Match List-I (Form) with List-II (Networks) Ans. (b) : An R-C driving point impedance function has
and select the correct answer using the codes all the poles and zeros lie on negative real axis and they
given below the lists: alternate. At the origin or nearest must be a pole where
List-I List-II as the nearest at ∞ must be a zero.
A. Couer I 1. L in series arms and C in
shunt arms of a ladder
B. Couer II 2. C in series arms and L in
shunt arms of a ladder
C. Foster I 3. Series combination of L and
C in parallel
D. Foster II 4. Parallel combination of L Since poles and zeros are interlace to each other thus
and C in series admissible poles are at s = –1 and s = –3.
Codes: 79. The driving-point impedance function of a
A B C D reactive network is:
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3 Z(s) = ( s + 4 )
2 ( s + 16 )
2
(c) 2 1 4 3 s (s + 9)
2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Consider the following circuit in this regard:
UPRVUNL AE - 11.06.2014
IES-1999
Ans. (a) : Foster - I → Series combination of L & C in
parallel
Foster - II → Parallel combination of L & C in series.
Couer - I → L in series and C in shunt arms.
Couer - II → C in series and L in shunt arms. Figure I
76. Poles and zeroes of a driving-point function of
a network are simple and interlace on the j ω
axis. The network consists of elements.
(a) R and C (b) L and C
(c) R and L (d) R, L and C
IES-1999
Ans. (b) : For L-C impedance network, poles and
zeroes of a driving point function of a network are
simple and interlace on the jω axis. Figure II
77. Consider the following from the point of view
of possible realization as driving point
impedances using passive elements:
1 s+3
1. 2. 2
s (s + 5) s (s + 5)
s2 + 3 s+5
3. 4.
s (s2 + 5)
2
s (s + 3)
Among these Figure III
(a) 1, 2 and 4 realizable
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are realizable
(c) 3 and 4 are realizable
(d) none is realizable
IES-1998
Ans. (d) : In option (1) and (4) poles and zeroes are not
interlace.
Similarly in option (2) and (3) poles are not simple poles. Figure IV
Hence non is realizable. The first and second Foster forms will be as in
figures.
78. An RC driving-point impedance function has
zeros at s = –2 and s = –5. The admissible poles (a) I and III respectively
for the function would be (b) II and IV respectively
(a) s = 0; s = –6 (b) s = –1; s = –3 (c) I and II respectively
(c) s = 0; s = –1 (d) s = –3; s = –4 (d) III and IV respectively
IES-1998 IES-1997
Ans. (c) : By Foster's -I form we have - 1 1
= +
Z(s) =
(s 2
+ 4 s + 16 )( 2
) 12
5
s+
5
1 12
7
s+
7
1
(
s s +9 2
) 48
s
192
s
 12
⇒
Z(s)
=
(
s 2 + 4 s 2 + 16 )( ) 1 12 1 

L1 = H
5
= s+ 
( )
Y1 =
s s2 s2 + 9 Z1 5 5
s C1 = 5 F
2 48  48
replacing s = x on R.H.S. we get :-
 12
Z(s) ( x + 4 )( x + 16 ) L 2 = 7 H
= 1 12 1
s x ( x + 9) Y2 = = s+ 
Z2 7 7 C = 7 F
s
11x + 64 192  2 192
= 1+
x(x + 9) Hence, figure -II satisfies foster's -II form
by using partial fraction expression we get 80. Which of the following pairs are correctly
Z(s) 64 35 matched?
=1+ +
s 9 + x 9 ( x + 9) 1. Brune's realization ... Realization with ideal
transformer.
Z(s) 1 1
= 1+ + 2. Couer realization ... Ladder realization
s 9 2 9 2
64
s
35
s +9 ( ) 3. Bott-Duffin realization ... Realization with
non-ideal transformer.
1 1 Select the correct answer using the codes given
= 1+ +
9 2 9 2 81 below:
s s +
64 35 35 Codes:
1 1 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
or Z(s) = s + + (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
9 9 1
s s+ IES-1997
64 35 35s
81 Ans. (d) : Correctly matched circuits are -
1 9 (i) Couer realization → Ladder Network.
Z2 = , C= F (ii) Brune's realization → Realization with ideal
9 64
s transformer.
64
81. The polynomial P(s) = (s – 1) (s2 + 1) (s + 2)
1 9 1 9 35
Z3 = = s+ , L = H,C = F (s + 3) is
Y3 35 35 35 81
s (a) Hurwitz, but not strict Hurwitz
81 (b) not Hurwitz
Z1 = 1H (c) strict Hurwitz
Hence figure I satisfies foster's -I form (d) anti-Hurwitz
Foster's synthesisis gives - IES-1997
Y(s) =
1
= 2
s s2 + 9 ( ) 2
Ans. (b) : P(s) = (s – 1) (s + 1) (s + 2) (s + 3)
Since all the coefficient of the above polynomial of s
Z(s) s + 4 s 2 + 16 ( )( ) are not positive, So it is not Hurwitz.
Y(s) x+9 82. The poles and zeros of a driving -point function
= (assuming s2 = x) of a network are simple and on the negative
s ( x + 4 )( x + 16 ) real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can
5 7 be realized
= +
12 ( x + 4 ) 12 ( x + 16 ) (a) by an LC network
(b) as an RC driving-point impedance
y(s) 1 7
= + (c) as an RC driving-point admittance
S 12 2
5
s +4 ( 12 2
7
s + 16 ) ( ) (d) only by an RLC network
IES-1997
1 7
Y(s) = + Ans. (b) : It pole is closest to origin, it must be R-C
12 48 12 192 driving point impedance and for zero closest to origin it
s+ s+
5 5s 7 7s must be R-L driving point admittance.

83. Which one of the following circuits has a 84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
driving-point impedance of answer using the codes given below the lists:
2(s 2 + s + 1/2) List-I List-II
Z(s) = ?
( s + s + 1)
2 A. Poles and
of the driving
zeros 1. lie on the real axis
point reactance
function of LC
(a) network.
B. Canonic LC 2. a zero
network contains
C. The number of 3. maximum number
canonic of elements
(b) networks for a
given driving
point reactance
function is
D. The first critical 4. Four
frequency nearest
(c)
the origin of the
complex
frequency plan
for an RL
Driving point
(d) impedance will be
5. Minimum number
of elements
IES-1996 6. alternate
7. either a pole or
 1
2  s2 + s +  zero
Ans. (a) : Z(s) =  2 8. Three
s2 + s + 1 Codes:
Put s = 0 A B C D
 1 (a) 1 5 8 7
2 0 + 0 + 
Z (s ) =  2
= 2× =1
1 (b) 6 5 3 2
( 0 + 0 + 1) 2 (c) 6 5 4 2
(d) 1 3 4 7
 1 1  IES-1996
2 1 + + 2 
Z (s ) =  s 2s  Ans. (c) : (A) Poles and zeros of the driving point
1 1 reactance function of LC network→alternate to each other.
1+ + 2
s s (B) Canonic L-C network contains → minimum
2 (1 + 0 + 0 ) number of elements.
Now put s = ∞ , Z ( ∞ ) = =2 (C) The number of canonic networks for a given
1+ 0 + 0
From option (a) the circuit diagram for Z(0) is - driving point reactance function is → Four.
O.C. (D) The first critical frequency nearest to origin of a
complex frequency plain for an R-L driving point
impedance will be → a zero.
S.C.
85. A transfer function having open zero at right
half plane is a/an
(a) minimum phase function
i.e. Z(0) = 1Ω
(b) non-minimum phase function
The circuit diagram at Z(∞) at s = ∞
S.C. (c) unstable function
(d) constant phase function
O.C. IES-1996
Ans. (b) : If all the poles and zeros lies on left half in s-
plane called minimum phase function.
Z(∞) = 2Ω If one of the zeros lies on right half of s-plane. It is
Hence option (a) is correct. called non-minimum phase function.

86. Which one of the following is a positive real sL R 2 Cs
function? = −
R1 + sL 1 + R 2Cs
s ( s2 + 4)
(a) sL ( R 2Cs + 1) − R 2 Cs ( R1 + sL )
(s 2
+ 1)( s 2 + 6 )
=
( R1 + sL )( R 2Cs + 1)
s (s2 − 4) R 2Cs 2 L + sL − R1R 2Cs − R 2 LCs 2
(b) =
(s 2
+ 1)( s 2 + 6 ) ( R1 + sL )( R 2Cs + 1)
s 2 + 3s 2 + 2s + 1 =
( L − R1R 2C ) S
(c)
4 (s) ( R1 + sL )( R 2Cs + 1)
There is a zero at origin and since it contain two finite
s ( s 4 + 3s 2 + 1) poles so that a zero must contain at ∞.
(d)
( s + 1)( s + 2 )( s + 3)( s + 4 ) 88. The impedance function Z(s) of a one-port
IES-1996 network is given by
Ans. (a) : Properties of positive real function 3s(s 2 + 4)
Z(s) = 2
Both the numerator and denominator of F(s) should (s + 1) ( s 2 + 9 )
be Hurwitz polynomials.
Which one of the following is the correct
The degree of the numerator of F(s) should not reactance curve of the above function?
exceed the degree of denominator by more than
unity.
If F(s) is positive real function then reciprocal of (a)
F(s) should also be positive real function.
Poles and zeros on the imaginary axis should be
simple.
F(s) should have poles on the jω axis and the
residue of their poles must be real and positive. (b)
s (s2 + 4)
Polynomial F(s) = have all above
(s
+ 1)( s 2 + 4 )
2
properties for positive real function.

87. Voltage transfer function of the two-port (c)
network given in the figure has-
(d)
IES-1994
(a) a zero at the origin (b) a zero at ∞
Ans. (c) : Given that,
(c) no zero (d) a zero j1
IES-1994 3s ( s 2 + 4 )
Z (s) = 2
Ans. (a, b) : ( s + 1)( s2 + 9 )
Put s = jω
3jω ( −ω2 + 4 )
1
s
+ − Z ( jω ) =
( −ω + 1)( −ω2 + 9 )
V2 V2 2
sL Here poles = ±1, ± 3

Zeros = 0, ± 2
we have
sL R2 R 2 Cs
V2+ = , V2− = =
R1 + sL R2 +
1 1 + R 2 Cs
Cs
∴ V2 = V2+ − V2−

89. The circuit shown in the given figure 3
s z = −0.5 ± j
2
(a) Couer I form (b) Foster I form

(c) Couer II form (d) Foster II form
IES-1994
Ans. (b) : As first element is capacitor and all the
Here, poles located on right half of s-plane of F2(s) is
admittances are given by L-C combination. Hence it is
unstable.
represented by Foster I form.
90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Let F ( s ) = s + 4s + 3
2
3
answer using the codes given below the lists s 2 + 6s + 8
2
List-I List-II Poles : s +6s+8 =0
2
s -s +1 ( s + 4 )( s + 2 ) = 0
A. 2 1. RL admittance
s +s +1 P1 = −2, P2 = −4
s2 + s + 1 Zeros : s 2 + 4s + 3 = 0
B. 2. RL impedance
s2 – s + 1 ( s + 3)( s + 1) = 0
s 2 + 4s + 3 Z1 = –1, Z2 = –3
C. 2 3. Unstable
s + 6s + 8 Pole-Zero plot
4. Non- minimum phase
Codes:
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 1 4 2
(c) 4 3 2
(d) 4 3 1
IES-1994
From the above Pole-Zero plot, here Zero nearer to
s − s +1
2
Ans. (c) : Let F1 ( s ) = origin so, F3(s) is R-L impedance function.
s2 + s + 1 91. For a network transfer function
Poles : s2+s+1= 0 P (s)
H (s) = , where P(s) and Q(s) are
s p = −0.5 ± j
3 Q (s)
2 polynomials in s.
Zeros : s2 – s + 1=0 (i) the degree of P(s) and Q(s) are the same
3 (ii) the degree of P(s) is always greater than the
s z = 0.5 ± j degree of Q(s)
2
(iii) the degree of P(s) is independent of the
degree of Q (s).
(iv) the maximum degree of P(s) and Q(s) differ
at the most by one.
Which of these statements are correct -
(a) i, ii, iii and iv (b) i, ii and iii only
(c) i, ii and iv only (d) i, iii and iv only
IES-1994, 2011
Here zeros are lying on the right half of s-plane so,
Ans. (d) : In a driving point function the highest or
F1 ( s ) is a non-minimum phase system.
lowest power of numerator and denominator must differ
s2 + s + 1 by unity.
Let F2(s) = 2 92. For an RC driving-point impedance function,
s − s +1
Poles : s − s + 1 = 0
2 the poles and zeros.
(a) should alternate on real axis.
3 (b) should alternate only on the negative real axis
s p = 0.5 ± j
2 (c) should alternate on the imaginary axis
Zeros : s 2 + s + 1 = 0 (d) can lie anywhere on the left half plane
IES-1993
Ans. (b) : The various properties of R-C driving point 1 15
functions can be started as - ∴ s= ±j
(1) Poles and zeros are simple. There are no multiple 2 2
poles and zeros. (location of zeros)
(2) The poles and zeros are located on negative real 2
 1  15
axis and they are interlaced. If D(s) = 0 =  s +  + = 0
(3) Poles and zeros are interlaced to each other.  2 4
93. If an impedance has the pole-zero pattern 1 15
shown in the given fig., it must be composed of ∴ s=− ±j
jω
2 2
(location of poles)
Hence it is a non-minimum phase function.
s+4 s+4
(B) : F(s) = 2 =
s + 3s − 4 (s + 4)(s + 1)
Here zeros = –4
Poles = –4, –1
Since one pole lies on the right half of jω axis, It is an
(a) RC elements only (b) RL elements only unstable system.
(c) LC elements only (d) RLC elements s+4 s+4
(C) : F(s) = 2 =
IES-1993 s + 6s + 5 (s + 1)(s + 5)
Ans. (d) : In R-C or R-L network poles and zero must Poles = –1 , –5
lie on negative real axis. Zeros = –4
In L-C network simple poles and zeros on the imaginary
axis.
Since the given impedance has poles and zeros on the
complex plane, it must contain all the three types of
element i.e. R, L and C.
List-I List-II Here poles nearer to origin so this is RC impedance
[F(s)] [Type of F(s)] function-
s2 + 3s s ( s + 3)
s2 − s + 4 (D) : F(s) = = 2
A. 2 1. Non-positive real s4
+ 2s 2
+ 1 (s + 1)2
s +s+4
Poles = 0, –3
(s + 4)
B. 2 2. Non-minimum phase Zeros = ± j
s + 3s – 4
Pole - zero plot is given as –
(s + 4)
C. 2 3. RC-impedance
s + 6s + 5
s 2 + 3s
D. 4 4. Unstable
s + 2s 2 + 1
5. RL-impedance
Codes:
A B C D From pole-zero plot is satisfies only non-positive real
(a) 1 2 3 4 function.
(b) 1 2 4 5 95. The driving-point impedance function of a
(c) 2 4 3 1 reactive network is:
(d) 2 4 1 5 2 ( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 3 )
IES-1993 Z D (s) =
Ans. (c) : s ( s2 + 2)
2 Which one of the following diagrams realizes
 1  15
 s−  + the Couer network for the above ZD(s)?
s −s+ 4  2
2
4 N(s)
(A) : F(s) = 2 = =
s + s + 4  1 2 15 D(s)
s +  + (a)
 2 4
2
 1  15
If N(s) = 0 =  s −  + = 0
 2 4
Ans. (b) : The circuit transform into s-domain
(b)
1 1
Y(s) = + + sC
R sL
(c)
s2 LCR + sL + R
=
sLR
For proper transfer function, there is one pole at origin
and one pole at infinite.
97. The driving point impedance function
(d)
Z (s) =
( s + 3 ) behaves as-
(s + 4)
(a)
a resistance of 0.75Ω at low frequencies
IES-1993 (b)
a resistance of 1Ω at high frequencies
2 ( s 2 +1)( s 2 + 3) (c)
a resistance of 0.75Ω at high frequencies
Ans. (d) : ZD (s) = (d)
both (a) and (b) above
s ( s2 + 2 ) IES-1991
2s4 + 8s2 + 6 N(s) s+3
= = Ans. (d) : Z(s) =
s2 + 2s D(s) s+4
Couer - I form, we have to find first and last element. 0+3
∴ Z(0) = = 0.75Ω (for low frequency)
0+4
3
1+
Z(∞) = s = 1Ω (for high frequency)
4
1+
s
s+3
98. The driving point impedance function can
s+4
be realized by
(a)
So, Network representation are -
(b)
96. The driving point admittance function of the

(c) neither (a) nor (b) above
network shown in the fig. has
(d) both (a) and (b) above
IES-1991
Ans. (a) : According to the option (a), transform the
circuit in s-domain-
(a) pole at s = 0 and zero at s = ∞

(b) pole at s= 0 and pole at s = ∞
(c) pole at s = ∞ and zero at s = 0
(d) pole at s = 0 and zero at s = ∞
 3 3 s 3
TNPSC AE-2008 Z ( s ) = (1|| s / 4 ) +  ||  = +
IES-1991 4 s s+4 s+4
s+3 100. The driving point impedance of the network
Z (s ) = ………… (i) shown in fig. has
s+4
According to the option (b)
Transform the circuit in the s-domain
(a) zeros at 0 and infinity

Z ( s ) = ( s || 3 / s ) + 1.75 (b) poles at 0 and infinity
(c) pole at 0 and zero at infinity
3 7 (d) zero at 0 and pole at infinity
= +
s +3 4
2
IES-1991
7s 2 + 23 Ans. (d) : Put s = 0, then the circuit will be-
Z (s) = …………(ii)
4 ( s 2 + 3)
So it is clear that only option (a) is correct
99. The driving point impedance of a network at a
frequency of 1 Hz is j2. The impedance can be
realized as: Z(0) = 0
Put s = ∞, then the circuit will be
(a)
(b) Here Z ( ∞ ) = ∞
Hence a pole at ∞ and a zero at 0.
101. The necessary and sufficient conditions for a
rational function of s, T(s) to be a driving point
impedance of an RC network is that all poles
(c) and zeros should be
(a) Simple and lie on the negative real axis of the
s-plane
(b) Complex and lie in the left half of the s-plane
(c) Complex and lie in the right half of the s-
plane
(d)
(d) Simple and lie on the positive real axis of the
s-plane
GATE-1991
IES-1991 Ans. (a) : (i) Simple and lie on the negative real axis of
Ans. (a) : According to the option (a) the s-plane.
Circuit transform into s-domain- (ii) The poles and zeros of the ZRC(s) should be simple
and alternate on the negative real axis of the s-plane.
102. The driving-point impedance Z(s) of a network
has the pole-zero locations as shown in the
figure. If Z(0) = 3, then Z(s) is
1 1
Z (s) = 1 + s = 1+ jω
2π 2π
2πf
= 1+ j (∵ ω = 2πf , f = 1Hz )
2π
= 1+ j
| Z ( s ) |= 12 + 12 = 2

3 ( s + 3) 2 ( s + 3) (a) R neg ≤ Re Z1 ( jω) , ∀ω
(a) (b)
s 2 + 2s + 3 s 2 + 2s + 2
(b) R neg ≤ Z1 ( jω) , ∀ω
3 ( s − 3) 2 ( s − 3)
(c) 2 (d) 2 (c) R neg ≤ Im Z1 ( jω) , ∀ω
s − 2s − 2 s − 2s − 3
GATE-2003
(d) R neg ≤ ≤ Im Z1 ( jω ) , ∀ω
Ans. (b) :
GATE-2006
Ans. (a) :
Z1 = R1+jX1
R1 > 0, +ve real
Rneg = –RX , Rneg = RX
For Z2(s)
From the above polar plot- Z2(s) = Rneg + Z1(s)
k(s − z) k(s + 3) = Rneg +(R1+jX1)
Z(s) = = = (Rneg + R1) + j(X1)
(s − P1 )(s − P2 ) (s + 1 + j)(s + 1 − j)
Z2 = (R1–RX) +JX2
k(s + 3) k(s + 3)
Z(s) = = Z2 = is +ve real if
(s + 1) − ( j) (s + 1)2 + 1
2 2
Re[Z2] = R1–RX > 0
Given, Z (0) = 3 R1 > RX > 0
k(s + 3) Re[Z1] > Rx
=3
(s + 1)2 + 1 Re[Z1] > Rneg
Put, s=0 i.e. Rneg ≤ Re[Z1]
k ( 0 + 3) 105. The driving point impedance of the following
=3 network
( 0 + 1) + 1
2
3k
=3
2
k=2
2(s + 3) 0.2s
So, Z(s) = is given by Z ( s ) = 2 . The component
s2 + 2s + 2 s + 0.1s + 2
103. The first and the last critical frequencies values are
(singularizes) of a driving point impedance (a) L = 5 H, R = 0.5 Ω, C = 0.1 F
function of a passive network having two kinds
of elements, are a pole and a zero respectively. (b) L = 0.1 H, R = 0.5 Ω, C = 5 F
The above property will be satisfied by (c) L = 5 H, R = 2 Ω, C = 0.1 F
(a) RL network only (d) L = 0.1 H, R = 2 Ω, C = 5 F
(b) RC network only GATE-2008
(c) LC network only Ans. (d) : Given,
(d) RC as well as RL network 0.2s
GATE-2006 Z(s) = 2
s + 0.1s + 2
Ans. (b) : Properties of RC driving point impedance-
We know that the poles and zeros are called critical s2 + 0.1s + 2
Y(s) =
frequencies, the critical frequency nearest to the 0.2s
origin is always a pole. s2
0.1s 2
The critical frequency at a greatest distance away Y(s) = + +
from the origin is always a zero, which may be 0.2s 0.2s 0.2s
located at ∞ also. 10
= 5s + 0.5 + ………………….(i)
104. A negative resistance Rneg is connected to a s
passive network N having driving point 1 1
impedance as shown below. For Z2(s) to be Y(s) = Cs + + ………….(ii)
positive real R Ls
Comparing with equation (i) and (ii)-
1
C = 5F, R = = 2Ω
0.5
1
L = = 0.1H
10

106. If the transfer function of the following 0.5s + 1 3s + 6
network is (a) (b)
s +1 s+2
Vo ( s ) 1 s+2 s +1
= (c) (d)
Vi ( s ) 2 + sCR s +1 s+2
GATE-2013
Ans. (d) : The circuit transform into s-domain-
The value of the load resistance RL is :

(a) R/4 (b) R/2
(c) R (d) 2 R Apply voltage division
GATE-2009  s +1
104  
V2 ( s ) = V1 ( s ) × 4 
Ans. (c) : The circuit transform into s-domain- 4 
10 104
+ 104 +
s s
 s +1
104  
V2 ( s )  s 
=
V1 ( s ) s+2
104  
 s 
V2 ( s ) s + 1
=
V1 ( s ) s + 2
108. The total impedance Z (j ω) of the circuit shown
below is:

 RL 
Vi ( s )  
V0 ( s ) =  1 + sR L C 
R + R L 1 + sR L C
V0 ( s ) RL (a) (6 + j0) Ω (b) (7 + j0) Ω
= ...........(i)
Vi ( s ) R + sR L RC + R L (c) (0 + j8) Ω (d) (6 + j8) Ω
Ans. (b) :
V0 ( s ) 1 Ω
= ………………….(ii)
Vi ( s ) 2 + sCR
Comparison with equation (i) & (ii) Ω Ω
RL 1
= j Ω j Ω
=Z2
R + sR L RC + R L 2 + sCR
RL = R
V2 ( s )
107. The transfer function of the circuit Total impedance-
V1 ( s ) ( 3 − 4 j) × ( 3 + 4 j) + 17
Z=
shown below is 3− 4j+ 3+ 4j 6
25 17
= +
6 6
42
= + j0
6
Z = 7 + j0

( s + 1)( s + 3 ) 113. In case of RC driving point function
109. F (s) = represents an (a) ZRC cannot have a pole at infinity
s (s + 2)
(b) ZRC cannot have a pole at origin
(a) RC impedance and an RL admittance (c) YRC cannot have a pole at infinity
(b) RL admittance (d) ZRC and YRC are constant or zero at infinity
(c) RC impedance Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
(d) RC admittance Ans. (a) : The pole of an RC driving-point impedance
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 are on the negative real axis. It can be shown from a
Ans. (a) : F ( s ) =
( s + 1)( s + 3) parallel foster form that the poles of an RC admittance
function are also on the axis.
s (s + 2)
114. The driving point impedance function for the
Poles = 0, –2 network shown in the fig. has
Zeros = –1, –3
The singularly nearest to origin is a zero. So it may be
RL admittance or RC impedance function.
110. The time constant of an R-C circuit is?

(a) RC (b) R/C (a) poles at s = 0, s = ∞
(c) R (d) C
(b) poles at s = 0 and zero at s = ∞
(c) no pole at s = ∞
Ans. (a) : (d) no pole at s = ∞
R C
IES-1991
Time constant Ans. (a) : Circuit transform into s-domain-
For series RC circuit is the product of resistance and
capacitance.
τ = RC
111. The main disadvantage of the two-hole
directional coupler is
1
(a) low directional coupling Z ( s ) = R + sL +
(b) poor directivity Cs
(c) high SWR RCs + s 2 LC + 1
Z(s) =
(d) narrow bandwidth Cs
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011 Put s = 0
Ans. (d) : The main disadvantage of the two-hole 1
directional couple is narrow bandwidth. Z ( 0) = = ∞
0
112. The network function
 RC 1 
(s + 2) s 2  LC + + 2
F(s) = represents an Z(s) =  s s 
(s + 1)(s + 3) Cs
(a) RC impedance Put s = ∞
(b) RL impedance
(c) RC impedance and an RL admittance Z(∞) = ∞
(d) RC admittance and RL impedance
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I (vii) Graph Theory
Ans. (b) :
s+2 A B 1. Which of the following properties of the
Z(s) = = +
( s + 1)( s + 3) s + 1 s + 3 circuits of a graph are correct?
1. The minimum number of branches
1 1 1 1 possible in a circuit will be equal to the
Z(s) = + = +
2 ( s + 1) 2 ( s + 3) 2s + 2 2s + 6 number of nodes or vertices.
2. There are exactly two paths between any
pair of vertices in a circuit.
3. There are at least two branches in a circuit.
below.
(d) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE-2022
Ans. (b) : (c) b – n + 1
(i) The minimum number of branches possible in a (d) independent of the number of nodes
circuit will be equal to the number of nodes or Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
vertices. TSPSC Manager (Engg.) -2015
(ii) There are at least two branches in a circuit. IES-2019, 1991
2. The number of links in the graph shown in the GATE-1996
figure is Ans. (c) : The number of independent loops for a
network (ℓ) = b – n + 1
Where, b = number of Branch
n = number of Nodes
7. A network has 8 nodes and 5 independent
loops. The number of branches in the network
is
(a) 16 (b) 15
(c) 13 (d) 12
(a) 3 (b) 4 RPSC VP Suptd. ITI - 05.11.2019
(c) 2 (d) 5 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
ESE-2021 GATE-1998
Ans.(a) : No. of links (L) = B – N+1 Ans. (d) : Given, Nodes = 8, Loop = 5
= 6–4+1
=3 No. of branch (b) = ℓ + n – 1
3. Which one of the following contains lesser b=5+8–1
number of nodes than the original graph? b = 12
(a) Proper subgraph 8. Shown alongside is the graph of a network. The
(b) Improper subgraph number of independent mesh currents that
(c) Planar graph may be assigned in it is :
(d) Non-planar graph
ESE-2021
Ans.(a) : Proper subgraph contains lesser number of
nodes than the original graph.
(a) 4
4. Large networks can be divided into sub
networks by means of a/an: (b) 5
(a) single two port model (c) 6
(b) interconnected two port model (d) not fixed : it depends on the actual choice of
(c) isolated two port model the meshes
(d) maximum 3 two port model BSNL(JTO)-2002
UPMRC AM - 2020 Ans. (a) : Given that, n = 5, b=8
Ans. (b) : Large networks can be divided into sub ℓ =b −n+1
networks by means of interconnected two port model. = 8 − 5 +1
This is called there fundamental cut-set. = 3+1= 4
5. A graph is said to be connected graph if- 9. In an electrical network, the number of nodes
(a) only two nodes are connected is N. Then number of branches B equals
(b) you cannot get from any node to any other (a) N (b) N + 1
node by following a sequence of borders (c) N - 1 (d) N - 2
(c) you can get from any node to any other node RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
by following a sequence of edges
Ans. (c) : As we know that no. of nodes are given by
(d) only three nodes are connected
B=L+N–1
DMRC AM S&T-2020
where, B = number of branch
Ans. (c) : If there exists at least one branch between any
of the two nodes of a graph, then it is called as L = loop
connected graph that means each node in the connected N = number of nodes
graph will be having one or more branches that are 10. A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent
connected to it. loops. The total number of branches in the
6. The number of independent loops for a network is
network with n nodes b branches is (a) 13 (b) 12
(a) n – 1 (c) 11 (d) 10
(b) b – n Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : A network with b branches; n nodes and ℓ Ans. (b) : Given
independent loops then
b = ℓ+ n – 1
b= 5 + 7 – 1
b = 11
11. If the number of branches in a network is b,
the number of nodes is n and the number of We know
dependent loop is l, then the number of [C]twigs = -[C]Tlinks
independent node equation is
[ C]links = − [ M ]twigs
T
(a) n – 1 (b) n – b – 1
(c) n + 1 (d) n – b + 1 Where, C = Cut-set matrix
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I And M= Tie-set matrix
Ans. (a) : If the number of branches in a network is B Fundamental cut-set matrix
the number of nodes in N, the number of independent
loops is L, then the number of independent node
equation will be n-1.
12. The number of independent loops for a
network with n nodes and b branches is
(a) n–1
(b) b–n
14. The number of node equations for a network
(c) b–n+1 with the graph shown below
(d) independent of the number of nodes
Ans. (c) : The number of independent loops for a
network with n nodes and b branches is – ℓ = b – n + 1 (a)
depends on the choice of datum node
Where, b = no. of branch (b)
is less than 8
n = no. of nodes (c)
is exactly 8
(d)
is exactly 9
13. A network has 8 branches and 5 nodes. The
fundamental loop matrix B of the network is : BSNL (JTO)-2001
1 0 0 0 –1 1 0 0 Ans. (c) : The number of node equations = n–1
0 1 0 0 1 –1 1 1 
= 9–1
B= =8
0 0 1 0 0 –1 1 1 
  15. For any lumped network, for any cut sets and
0 0 0 1 0 –1 1 0
The fundamental cut-set matrix Q of the same at any instant of time the algebraic sum of all
network is : branch currents traversing the cut-set
branches is always
 –1 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 (a) One
(a)  1 –1 1 1 0 1 0 0 
 (b) Zero
 0 –1 1 1 0 0 1 0 (c) Infinity
 
 0 –1 1 0 0 0 0 1 (d) Greater than zero, but less than one
 1 –1 0 0 1 0 0 0 Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I
 1 0 0  IES-2016
(b)  –1 1 1 1 0
 0 –1 –1 –1 0 0 1 0 Ans. (b) :Fundamental cut set is a cut through a given
  graph which divides into two parts but in its path of
 0 –1 –1 0 0 0 0 1
cutting it should encounter only one twig. For any
 –1 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 lumped network, for any cut sets and at any instant of
 0 0 
time the algebraic sum of all branch currents traversing
(c)  1 –1 –1 –1 0 1 the cut-set branches is always zero.
0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0
  16. The corresponding graph for the circuit shown
0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 in given figure will be-
 –1 –1 0 0 1 0 0 0
 1 0 0 
(d)  –1 1 –1 1 0
 0 –1 –1 –1 0 0 1 0
 
 0 –1 –1 0 0 0 0 1
DRDO-2009
20. A terminal where three or more branches meet
(a) (b) is known as
(a) node (b) terminus
(c) combination (d) anode
(c) (d) Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : A terminal where two or more branches meet
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 is known as node. The node is a point in a network or
Ans. (d) : The given network is a coupling network. diagram at which lines or pathways intersect or
Eliminating all the sources and lumped parameters of branches to each other .
the network. We get the required connected graph as 21. A closed path made by several branches of the
shown below - network is known as
(a) branch (b) loop
(c) circuit (d) junction
Ans. (b) : A closed path made by several branches of
the network is known as loop.
22. According to the linear graph theory, the
number of possible trees is always equal to the
determinant of______
(a) Only complete incidence matrix
(b) Product of Reduced incidence matrix & its
transpose
(c) Cut-Set matrix
17. If A Matrix is Incidence matrix then which (d) Tie-set matrix
one of the following is true Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
(a) A = 1 (For closed loop) Ans. (b) : According to the linear graph theory, the
(b) |A| = 1 (For closed loop) number of possible trees is always equal to the
(c) |A| = 0 (For closed loop) determinant of product of reduced incidence matrix and
(d) Adj A / |A|= 0 (For closed loop) its transpose. Reduced incidence matrix is for current
DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II calculation and there transpose gives voltage
calculation.
Ans. (c) : If matrix A is a incidence matrix then
A = 0 (for closed loop). Number of trees = det [ A ][ A ]
T
{ }
The rank of the incidence matrix is (n–1). 23. A connected network of N>2 nodes has at most
The rows of incidence matrix A represent the number one branch directly connecting any pairs of
of nodes and the column of the matrix. nodes. The graph of the network
In incidence matrix A , the algebraic sum of element (a) Must have at least N branches for one or more
of all the column is zero. closed paths to exist.
18. A graph is said to be a directed graph if____of (b) Can have an unlimited number of branches.
the graph has direction. (c) Can only have at most N branches.
(a) 1 branch (b) 2 branches (d) Can have a minimum number of branches not
(c) 3 branches (d) every branch decided by N.
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : If every branch of the graph has direction, Ans. (a) : In a connected graph of N > 2 nodes have at
then the graph is said to be a directed graph. If the graph most one branch directly connecting any pair of nodes.
does not have any direction, called undirected graph. The graph of the network must have at least N branches
19. What is the number of edges present in a for one or more closed path to be existing.
complete graph having n vertices?
24. Tie-set schedule gives the relation between
(a) (n*(n+1))/2 (b) (n*(n–1))/2
(a) Branch current and link current
(c) n (d) n*(n–1)
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I (b) Branch voltage and link currents
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 (c) Branch current and link voltages
Ans. (b) : Number of ways in which every vertices can (d) None of the above
be connected to each other in n C 2 . Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Tie-set schedule gives the relation between
n n ( n − 1) branch current and link current. Tie-set matrix satisfy
C2 =
2 the KVL equation (Voltage equilibrium equation).
25. For a given connected network and for a fixed
tree, the fundamental loop matrix is given by
1 0 0 1 0 0 
B = 0 1 0 0 0 -1
0 0 1 1 -1 -1
The fundamental cut-set matrix Q
corresponding to the same tree is given by (a) 3, 1 (b) 3, 5
 −1 0 −1 1 0 0  (c) 5, 3 (d) 5, 7
(a) Q =  0 0 1 0 1 0 
Ans. (c) : Oriented graph of the network can be shown
 0 1 1 0 0 1  below as -
 −1 0 1 1 0 0 
(b) Q =  0 0 −1 0 1 0 
 0 1 1 0 0 1 
1 0 1 1 0 0 
(c) Q = 0 0 −1 0 1 0 
0 1 1 0 0 1 
0 0 0 1 0 0  We have -
(d) Q = 0 1 0 0 0 −1 V3 = 4V
V1 – V3 = 1V
1 0 1 1 −1 −1 V1 = 1 + V3
Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018 =1+4
IES-2012 V1 = 5V …………..(i)
Ans. (a) : Tie-set matrix is given as - Also,
 Link(I3 ) Twigs(B t )  V1 – V2 = 2V
1 0 0 1 0 0    V2 = V1 – 2
0 1 0 0 0 −1 ≡  1 0 0 1 0 0  =5–2 (from equation i)
  0 1 0 0 0 −1  V2 = 3V
0 0 1 1 −1 −1  
 0 0 1 1 −1 −1  ∴ Vx = V1 – 0
Vx = 5V
B = [I : Bt]
and Vy = V2 – 0
1 0 0  Vy= 3V
i.e. B t =  0 0 −1 27. A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent
1 −1 −1 loops. What is the total number of branches in
this network?
Fundamental cut-set loop. (a) 12 (b) 11
QL = –BtT (c) 13 (d) 10
T
 −1 0 0 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
QL =  0 0 1 
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
Ans. (b) : Given Node (n) = 7
 −1 1 1 
Loops (ℓ) = 5
 −1 0 −1
ℓ=b–n+1
QL =  0 0 1 
5=b–7+1
 0 1 1  b = 11
∴ Fundamental cut-set matrix - 28. In a 5 node graph. What is the number of
Q = [QL : I3] fundamental cut sets are ––––––––.
 −1 0 −1 1 0 0 (a) 5 (b) 25
Q =  0 0 1 0 1 0 
(c) 4 (d) 1
BEL-2015
 0 1 1 0 0 1  Ans. (c) : Fundamental cut-sets = total number of twigs
26. In the circuit shown, the voltages across some =N–1
elements are given. The values of Vx and Vy =5– 1
respectively are =4
29. In a graph, number of branch is 12 and  0 0 1 −1 0 0
number of node is 4. Then find the number of  1 −1
(d)  0 0 −1 0
links?  0 −1 0 1 1 0
(a) 8 (b) 9  
 1 0 −1 0 0 −1
(c) 7 (d) 5 MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
SAIL- 2014 Ans. (b) : Incidence matrix given by
Ans. (b) : Number of link/ chord = b–n+1 Where branch living from a node = +1 and
= 12 –4+1= 9 Branch interring to a node = –1 respectively
30. A network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. The
number of different node pair voltage would
be.
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 45 (d) 10
IES-2001, 1991 33. A network has 4 nodes and 3 independent
n(n − 1) loops. What is the number of branches in the
Ans. (c) : Number of node pair voltage = network?
2
(a) 5 (b) 7
10 × 9
= = 45 (c) 8 (d) 6
2 LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
31. The cut-set schedule gives the relation between Ans. (d) : Given that, ℓ = 3, n = 4
(a) branch currents and link currents
(b) branch voltages and tree branch voltage ℓ=b–n+1
(c) branch voltages and link voltages 3=b–4+1
(d) branch current and tree currents. b=6
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 34. Shown below is the graph of a network. The
Ans. (b) : The cut-set schedule gives the relation number of independent mesh currents that
between branch voltages and tree branch voltage. may be assigned in it is
We can express the branch voltage in terms of tree
branch voltage or twig voltage using cut-set matrix Q.
[ Vb ] = Q+  [ Vt ]
(a) 4
32. For the graph shown below, the incidence
(b) 5
matrix A is given by :
(c) 6
(d) not fixed : it depends on the actual choice of
the meshes
BSNL (JTO)-2001
Ans. (b) : No. of independent mesh or loop currents
Thus ℓ = b –n+1
= 12–8+1 = 5
35. The maximum number of trees of the graph in
figure is
 −1 −1 0 1 0 0
 0 0 −1 −1 1 
(a)  0
 0 −1 1 0 1 0
 
 1 0 −1 0 0 −1
 −1 1 0 1 0 0
 0 0 0 −1 −1 1 
(b)  
 0 −1 1 0 1 0
  (a) 16 (b) 25
 1 0 −1 0 0 −1
(c) 100 (d) 125
 −1 1 0 1 0 0 DRDO-2008
 1 
(c)  0 0 −1 0 −1 Ans. (d) : Given number of node = 5
 0 −1 0 1 1 0 So, total number of trees = nn–2 = 55–2
  = 125
 1 0 1 0 0 −1

36. Figure shows a graph and one of its trees Which of the above are correct?
(darker lines). Corresponding to the tree, the (a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
fundamental cut-set is
IES-2017
Ans. (d) : In the given graph -
1. Each nodes are connected to all remaining nodes so
that it is regular graph.
2. As any two vertices in the graph are connected by a
path. Therefore it is also a connected graph.
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 4, 6, 8, 3
(c) 5, 6, 8, 3 (d) 4, 6, 7, 3
DRDO-2008
Ans. (d) :Fundamental cut-set does not include more
than one tree branch.
37. What are the properties of a tree in a network
graph? 40. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It consists of all the nodes of the graph trees:
2. If the graph has N number of nodes, the
1. A tree contains all the nodes of the graph.
tree will have (N – 1) branches
3. There will be only closed path in the tree 2. A tree shall contain any one of the loops.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only 3. Every connected graph has at least one tree.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements are correct?
IES-2020 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c) : A tree is an interconnected open set of branch (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of which includes all the nodes of the given graph but IES-2017
there can not be any closed loops. Ans. (b) : A tree of a graph contains all the nodes, but
A tree containing N nodes has (N–1) branches. All the no any closed path (loop). A tree is defined a relation
branches of tree is called twigs and separated branches between branch current and link current.
are called links.
Every connected graph has at least one tree by reducing
38. Which one of the following is the property of one or more branches called links.
incidence matrix?
(a) Determinant of the incidence matrix of a 41. For a given fixed tree of a network, the
closed loop is zero following form an independent set:
(b) The number of independent node pair 1. Branch currents
terminal is equal to the number of tree 2. Link voltages
branches Which of the above is/are correct?
(c) Algebraic sum of the row entries of an (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
incidence matrix is zero (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Algebraic sum of the column entries of an
IES-2016
incidence matrix is always one
IES-2020 Ans. (d) : Branch currents and branch voltages are
Ans. (a) : The various properties of incidence matrix independent for a particular link, but they may have
are. different values for other link. Hence neither 1 nor 2
(i) Determinant of incidence matrix of a closed loop is statements are correct.
zero. 42. For the network graph, the number of trees (P)
(ii) Algebric sum of column entries is zero. and the number of cut-sets (Q) are
39. Consider the following with regard to graph as respectively:
shown in the figure given below:
1. Regular graph
2. Connected graph (a) 4 and 2 (b) 6 and 2
3. Complete graph (c) 4 and 6 (d) 2 and 6
4. Non-regular graph IES-2016, GATE-2008
Ans. (c) : Tree 'P' - Total no. of 4 trees shown below Ans. (d) : For a passive circuit all the three conditions
figure. are correct. This can be verified.
Example :
 Z11 Z12 Z13   2 −1 −2 
   
 Z21 Z22 Z23  =  −1 3 −3 
 Z31 Z32 Z33   −2 −3 4 
∆ Z = –25 < 0
• An impedance matrix is symmetric.
• All the diagonal elements are non zero.
• The determinant of impedance matrix is less then
zero.
45. In a tree number of branch b=10, number of
node n=5. No. of fundamental loop is
Total no. of tree 'P' = 4
(a) 14 (b) 4
Cut set 'Q' -:
(c) 6 (d) 16
AAI-2015
Ans. (c) : ℓ = b – n + 1
ℓ = 10 – 5 + 1
ℓ=6
C1 = (1, 3)
C2 = (1, 2) 46.
In a single connected network, if there are b
C3 = (5, 4) number of branches and n number of nodes,
C4 = (4, 6) then the number of independent meshes M and
independent nodes N are respectively.
C5 = (1, 2, 4, 6)
(a) n and b
C6 = (1, 3, 5, 4)
(b) b – n + 1 and n – 1
Total Cut set 'Q' = 6
(c) b – n and b
43. According to network graphs, the network (d) b + n – 1 and n + 1
with:
IES-2015
1. Only two odd vertices is traversable
2. No odd vertices is traversable Ans. (b) : Given,
3. Two or more than two odd vertices are Number of branches = b
traversable Number of nodes = n
Which of the above statements is/are correct? As we know that-
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Number of independent nodes = (n – 1)
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 Number of independent meshes = b – n + 1
47. A graph is which at least one path
IES-2016
Ans. (d) : A network graph is transversable only if the (disregarding orientation) exists between any
number of vertices with odd degree in graph is exactly 2 two nodes of the graph is a
or 0. (a) connected graph (b) directed graph
If the network has more than two odd vertices then the (c) sub-graph (d) fundamental graph
network is not transversable. IES-2014
44. Loop-voltage equations of a passive circuit are Ans. (a) : When at least one path along branches
given by: between any pair of nodes of a graph exists, it is called
 Z11 Z12 Z13   I1   V1  connected graph.
     48. If Qt and Ql be the sub-matrices of Qf
 Z 21 Z 22 Z 23   I 2  =  V2  (fundamental cut-set matrix) corresponding to
 Z 31 Z 32 Z 33   I 3   V3  twigs and links of a connected graph
respectively, then
1. Zij = Zji, i, j = 1, 2, 3 1. Qt is an identity matrix
2. Zii > 0, i = 1, 2, 3 2. Ql is a rectangular matrix
3. ∆Z ≤ 0 3. Qf is of rank (n – 1)
Which of the above relations are correct? Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
IES-2016 IES-2014
Ans. (d) : The submatrix corresponding to twigs (Qt) is Ans. (d) : Number of independent current equation can
an identity matrix. be obtained by total number of nodes from their reduced
The submatrix corresponding to link (Ql) is a incidence matrix which contain of (n–1) nodes.
rectangular matrix. Reduced incidence matrix can be obtained by reducing
The rank of a cut-set matrix is (n – 1). their datum (reference) node.
49. ∴ Total number of independent current equation = (n–1)
51. Number of fundamental cut-sets of any graph
will be
(a) Same as the number of twigs
(b) Same as the number of tree branches
(c) Same as the number of nodes
For the oriented graph as given above, taking (d) Equal to one
4, 5, 6 as tree branches the tie set matrix is IES-2009
Ans. (a) : A twig has (n–1) branches.
 −1 0 0 −1 1 0 
Total number of fundamental cut-set loop = total
(a)  0 −1 0 0 −1 1  number of twigs = n – 1
 0 0 −1 1 0 −1 Each fundamental cut-set will contain only one twig and
other will be links.
1 0 0 1 −1 0  Hence fundamental cut-set is same as total number of
(b) 0 1 0 0 1 −1 twigs in a tree.
0 0 1 −1 0 1  52. In a network with twelve circuit elements and
five nodes, what is the minimum number of
1 −1 0 −1 1 0  mesh equations?
(c) 1 0 0 0 −1 1 (a) 24 (b) 12
(c) 10 (d) 8
0 0 1 1 0 −1
UJVNL AE-2016
 −1 0 0 −1 0 0  IES-2009
(d)  0 −1 0 0 0 1 
 Ans. (d) : Number of mesh equation = Total number of
 0 0 0 1 0 −1  loops ℓ = b – n + 1
IES-2013 = 12 – 5 + 1
=8
Ans. (b) :
53. What is the number of chords of a connected
graph G of n vertices and e edges?
(a) n (n – 1)/2 (b) n – 1
(c) e – n – 1 (d) e – n + 1
IES-2008
Ans. (d) : Links:- Branches of co-tree are known as
links. Links are also called chord.
L3 Links/chord = e – n + 1
54. Consider the following statements with regard
Each individual link contain a loop current I1, I2, I3 to a complete incidence matrix:
respectively. 1. The sum of the entries in any column is
zero.
2. The rank of matrix is n – 1 where n is the
number of nodes.
3. The determinant of the matrix of a closed
loop is zero.
correct?
Current along the link is positive and against the link is (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
taken as negative respectively. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
IES-2008
50. The number of branches in a network is b, the
number of nodes is n and number of dependent Ans. (d) : (i) In any incidence matrix summation of
loop is l. The number of independent current entries of any column is always equal to zero.
equations will be (ii) For a tree having 'n' node, rank of matrix = n–1.
(a) n – l –1 (b) b – l It is given by –1 or +1
(c) b – n (d) n – 1 (iii) For any closed path determinant of the incidence
IES-2013 matrix is always equal to zero.

55. A network has 4 nodes and 3 independent 58. What is the total number of trees for the graph
loops. What is the number of branches in the shown below?
network?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
IES-2007
Ans. (b) : Given, node (n) = 4, loops (ℓ)= 3
∴ Number of branches : (a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 12 (d) 16
b=ℓ+n–1
IES-2006
=3+4–1 Ans. (d) : The number of trees for a given standard
=6 graph = nn–2
56. Where n = number of nodes
The graph of a network is shown in figure

above. Which one of the figures shown below is
not a tree of the graph?
Here, Number of nodes = 4
∴ Number of trees (4)(4–2) = 42 = 16
(a) (b)
59. For a network of 11 branches and 6 nodes,
what is the number of independent loops?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 11
(c) (d) IES-2005
Ans. (c) : Number of independent loops.
IES-2007 ℓ=b–n+1
Ans. (d) : From option (d), it is clear that total number
ℓ = 11 – 6 + 1
of nodes are equal to their connected graph, but it
contains a closed path. So that it does not satisfied the ℓ=5+1 =6
condition of tree. A tree does not contain any loop. 60. Which one of the following statements is not
57. For the network graph shown in the figure correct?
given below, which one of the following is not a (a) A tree contains all the vertices of its graph
tree? (b) A circuit contains all the vertices of its graph
(c) The number of f-circuits is the same as the
number of chords
(d) There are at least two edges in a circuit
IES-2005
Ans. (b) : From the given options, we have
(a) A tree contains all the vertices (nodes) of it's graph
but does not contain any loop.
(b) A circuit must contain a closed path it can be
(a) (b) obtained by rejoining a single link in a particular
twigs.
(c) The number of fundamental cut-set matrix is same
as the number of twigs (chord).
(d) In a connected graph there are at least two edges
(nodes).
Hence statement (b) is incorrect.
(c) (d) 61. Consider the following graph:
IES-2006
Ans. (d) : A tree has all the nodes as given in the graph
but it does not contain any close loop. Hence option (d)
is correct.

Which of the following is not a tree of the above 63. Figure given below shows a graph with 6
graph? vertices and 8 edges.
(a) (b)
With reference to the above graph, match List-

(c) (d)
I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 A. Fundamental circuit of chord 6'
IES-2004 B. Fundamental circuit of chord 7'
GATE-2004 C. Fundamental circuit of chord 8'
Ans. (c) : List-II
1. The edge set (1', 2', 4', 6')
2. The edge set (2', 4', 5', 7')
3. The edge set (2', 3', 5', 8')
4. The edge set (1', 2', 4', 7')
5. The edge set cannot be determined
Codes:
Twigs (3, 6) A B C
Links (1,2,4,5) (a) 1 2 3
According to definition of tree, it contain all the node (b) 4 3 2
but not any loop and all the node connected to each (c) 2 3 4
other by twig. (d) 2 5 3
In the given option all node are not connected with twig IES-2002, 1995
so it can be defined as a tree. Ans. (a) : Fundamental circuit/loop of chord/link 6' is
62. Consider a spanning tree of the connected (1' , 2' , 4' , 6' )
graph: Fundamental circuit/ loop of chord/ link 7' is
(2' , 4' , 5' , 7' )
Fundamental circuit/loop of chord/link 8' is (2' , 3' , 5' , 8')
64. In the graph shown in the figure, one possible
tree is formed by the branches 4, 5, 6, 7:
What is the number of fundamental cut-sets?

(a) 15 (b) 16
(c) 8 (d) 7
IES-2004
Ans. (d) : Then one possible fundamental loop is:
(a) 1, 4, 5 (b) 2, 3, 5
(c) 3, 4, 8 (d) 6, 7, 8
IES-2002
Ans. (d) : For the graph tree is formed by the branches
4, 5, 6, 7
Here, Number of nodes = 8

∴ Number of fundamental cut set
= number of twigs Here, Twigs ≡ 4, 5, 6, 7
= N-1 Links ≡ 1, 2, 3, 8
=8–1 Fundamental loop ≡ 6, 7, 8 with respect to link '8'
=7 Fundamental cut-set ≡ 1, 2, 3, 4 with respect to twig '4'
65. Match List-I with List-II for the co-tree 67. For a connected planner graph of 'v' vertices
branches 1, 2, 3 and 8 of the graph shown in and 'e' edges, the number of meshes is
the given figure and select the correct answer (a) e – v (b) v – 1
using the codes given below the lists: (c) e – v – 1 (d) e – v + 1
IES-1998
Ans. (d) : Number of meshes = Number of links
=e–v+1
68. For the graph shown in the given figure one set
of fundamental cut-sets would be
List-I List-II
A. Twigs 1. 4, 5, 6, 7
B. Links 2. 1, 2, 3, 8
C. Fundamental cut-set 3. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. Fundamental loop 4. 6, 7, 8
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 4 3 2 (a) abc, cde, afe (b) afdc, cde, abde
(d) 3 4 1 2 (c) cdfe, afe, bdf (d) cbd, abde, cde
IES-2001, 1995 IES-1998
Ans. (a) : For the graph tree is formed by the branches Ans. (a) :
4, 5, 6, 7
Here, Twigs = 4, 5, 6, 7
Links = 1, 2, 3, 8
Fundamental loop = 6, 7, 8 with respect to link '8' Fundamental cut-set is (a, b, c) with respect to branch 'b'
Fundamental cut-set = 1, 2, 3, 4 with respect to twig '4'Fundamental cut-set is (c, d, e) with respect to branch 'd'
66. Which one of the following is a cut set of the Fundamental cut-set is (a, f, e) with respect to branch 'f'
graph shown in the figure below? 69. The graph of a network has six branches with
three tree branches. The minimum number of
equations required for the solution of the
network is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
IES-1997
Ans. (b) : Minimum number of equations = minimum
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 number of twigs or number of links
(c) 1, 4, 5 and 6 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 As given,
IES-2000 Number of twigs = 3
Ans. (d) : ∴ Number of links = 6 – 3 = 3
∴ Number of equation required = No. of links = 3
70. In graph shown in the figure, for the tree with
branches b, d and f, the fundamental loop
would include
For node A;
Set : 1, 2, 3 is only required.
For node C;
Set : 3, 4, 6 is only required.
For node D : 1, 5, 6 is only required.
For node B : 1, 3, 4, 5 are required.
(a) abc, def, bdea (b) cea, bdea, abc 72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) cdb, def, bfa (d) abde, def, cdb answer using the codes given below the list to
IES-1996 indicate topological variables for the circuit
Ans. (c) : given in the figure to write loop equations:
List-I List-II
A. Number of branches 1. 3
B. Number of independent loops 2. 3
C. Order of B matrix 3. 3 × 6
D. Number of twigs 4. 4 × 7
5. 6
Branch of the tree ≡ b, d, f

Nodes of the tree ≡ 1, 2, 3, 4
Hence the fundamental loop will include
(i) bfa
(ii) def Codes:
(iii) cdb A B C D
71. For the graph shown in the given figure, the (a) 1 2 3 5
incidence matrix A is given by (b) 5 1 3 2
(c) 5 1 4 2
(d) 2 1 4 5
IES-1994
Ans. (b) :
 −1 −1 0  1 1 − 1
(a)  0 1 1  (b) 1 1 0 
 −1 0 −1 0 −1 1
Considering the given source are voltage source, the
 −1 −1 0   1 0 1 graph will look like
(c)  0 1 1  (d)  −1 1 0 
 1 0 −1  0 − 1 1 
IES-1996
Ans. (c) :
Number of nodes = 4
n ( n − 1) 4 × 3
Number of Branch (b) = = =6
2 2
Total number of twigs = n –1 = 4 – 1 = 3
Number of independent loops (L) = B – N + 1
Nodes = A, B, C =6–4+1
Branches = 1, 2 , 3 =3
Order of Matrix 'B' =
Number of links × Number of branch = 3 × 6
73. Which one of the following represents the total
number of trees in the graph given in the
figure?
If aij = 1 then branch j leaves away node i
aij = –1 then branch j enter node i
(a) 4 (b) 6
aij = 0 then branch j is not incident at node i (c) 5 (d) 8
IES-1994
Ans. (d) :
(2)
1 0
Reduce matrix-
(3)
{
Total number of tree = det [ A ][ A ]
T
}
1 0 0
 0 
1 1 0 0 0  1 −1
 
[ A ][ A ]
T
=  0 −1 1 −1 0  0 1 0
  (4)
 0 0 0 1 1  0 −1 1
0 0 1 
 2 −1 0 
=  −1 3 −1
Hence figure (1) and figure (2) have same fundamental
loop matrix.
0 −1 2  75. Relative to a given fixed tree of a network,
= 2 ( 6 − 1) + 1( −2 + 0 ) + 0 (a) Link currents form an independent set
(b) Branch currents form an independent set
= 2 (5) − 2 (c) Link voltages form an independent set
= 10–2 =8 (d) Branch voltages form an independent
74. Which of the following oriented graphs have Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
the same fundamental loop matrix? GATE-1992
Ans. (a) : Link currents from an independent set, as
each link with other tree branches from a unique loop or
fundamental loop. This gives rise to loop method of
1. 2. network analysis using KVL to each loop.
76. Indentify which of the following is NOT a tree
of the graph shown in the figure
3. 4.
Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) begh (b) defg
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) adhg (d) aegh
IES-1993 GATE-1999
Ans. (a) : Fundamental loop matrix of given figure are - Ans. (c) : Tree does not contain any loop.
(1)

77. Isomorphism in circuit theory is the property 81. A planar graph has total number of branches
between two graphs so that both have got b = 7. Number of meshes = 4. The dual graph
same: will have total number of nodes given by
(a) Sub-graph (a) 2 (b) 3
(b) Connected graph (c) 4 (d) 5
TSGENCO AE-2015
(c) Path
(d) Incidence matrix Ans. (c) : Number of node (n) = (b – ℓ) + 1
DFCCIL Executive S&T 17.04.2016, Shift-II n=7–4+1
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 n=4
Ans. (d) : Isomorphism in circuit theory is the property 82. Consider the following given figure in which
between two graph so that both have got the same the graph and tree (dotted) are shown.
Incidence matrix
78. A planer graph has 6 branches and 3 meshes.
Then the number of nodes is
(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2
Ans. (b) : ℓ= b – n+1
n = b – ℓ +1
= 6 –3+1 Choose the fundamental loops which include
=4 the set of lines.
79. How many distinct binary trees can be (a) (1,5,3), (5,4,2) and (3,4,6)
constructed using three nodes? (b) (1,2,4,3), (1,2,6), (3,4,6) and (1,5,4,6)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) (1,5,3), (5,4,2), (3,4,6) and (2,4,3,1)
(c) 3 (d) 5 (d) (1,2,4,3) and (3,4,6)
Mizoram PSC IOLM-, Paper-III UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
IES-1999
Ans. (d) :
Ans. (a) : The fundamental loop is obtained by single
link and number of twigs,
by two node
By three node
153 → i1
542 → i 2
346 → i3
The fundamental loop are (1,5,3) (5,4,2) and (3,4,6)
80. In an RC network having 3 loops, the size of with respect to the link ‘1’, ‘2’ and ‘6’ respectively.
the plant matrix A is: 83. A path is a particular subgraph consisting of an
(a) 3×3 (b) 4×4 ordered sequence of branches having which of
(c) 6×6 (d) 5×5 the following properties?
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 1. At all but two of its nodes, called internal
Ans. (a) : An RC between having 3 loops in shown nodes, there are incident exactly two
below figure - branches of the subgraph.
2. At each of the remaining two nodes, called
terminal nodes, there is incident exactly
one branch of the subgraph.
below.
(a) 1only (b) 2 only
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Both 1 and 2
Therefore the size of plant matrix A is 3×3. ESE-2022
Ans. (d) : A path is a particular subgraph consisting of If the resistance is remain independent of frequency
an ordered sequence of branches having properties are- .i.e. to have the same value of resistance at medium
At all but two of its nodes, called internal nodes, there frequency as with d.c.
are incident exactly two branches of the subgraph. We have, CR2 = 2L.
At each of the remaining two nodes, called terminal nodes, 2. Calculate the time period of a signal given as
there is incident exactly one branch of the subgraph. I = 34 sin (314t).
84. The planer graph has 4 nodes and 5 branches. (a) 40 msec (b) 30 msec
The number of meshes in the dual graph is (c) 20 msec (d) 10msec
(a) 5 (b) 4 LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
(c) 3 (d) 2 Ans. (c) : I = 34sin ( 314t )
∵ I = Im sin ωt
ℓ = b − n +1 ∴ ω = 2πf = 314
ℓ = 5 − 4 +1 314
f=
ℓ= 2 2 × 3.14
Since node pair and meshes are interchange in dual so f = 50Hz
in dual the number of meshes =3 1 1
85. The number of tree branches for a network T= = = 20 msec
f 50
with the graph shown in figure.
3. Which of the following relations is correct?
(a) Ripple factor = RMS value AC component of load voltage
of converter RMS value DC component of load voltage
(b) Ripple factor Average value AC component of load voltage
of converter = Average value DC component of load voltage
(a)
depends on the choice of tree
(b)
is less than 8 (c) Ripple factor = RMS value DC component of load voltage
of converter RMS value AC component of load voltage
(c)
is exactly 8
(d) Ripple factor Average value DC component of load voltage
(d)
is exactly 9 of converter = Average value AC component of load voltage
BSNL(JTO)-2002
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
Ans. (b) : Given that, n = 8
Ans. (a) :
number of tree = n–1 Ripple factor RMS value AC component of load voltage
= 8–1= 7 =
of converter RMS value DC component of load voltage
(viii) AC Supply 4.
1. The condition for a resistor to have the same

value of resistance at medium frequency as
with D.C. is -
(a) CR 2 = L (b) CR 2 = 2L
(c) CR = ωL
2
(d) CR 2 = 2ωL
Calculate i(t).
Ans. (b) : At high and medium frequencies, a resistor (a) 30 cos (500t–600)
can be represented as shown in figure. (b) 30 cos (500t + 600)
(c) 42.43 cos (500t +450)
(d) 42.43 cos (500t– 450)
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
The equivalent impedance Ans. (a) : Z = 5 + j500 × 10 3 ×10−3
 1  = 5 + j5000 3 × 10−3
  (R + jωL) R + Jω  L(1 − ω2 LC) − CR 2 
jωC 
Zeq =  =   = 5 + j5 3 = 10∠600 Ω
 1  
1 + ω C  CR − 2L 
2 2

R + jωL +   300 0
 jω C  We can write Vs(t) = 300cos500t = ∠0 V
2
Zeq = R eq + jX eq
300∠00 30
i(t) = = ∠ − 600
ω L (1 − ω LC ) − CR 
2 2
2 × 10∠60 0
, Xeq =  2
R 2
R eq =
1 + ω C(CR 2 − 2L) 1 + ω C CR 2 − 2L i ( t ) = 30cos ( 500t − 600 ) A
2

5. Ans. (a) : ZL = 3 + j4
4
ZL = 9 + 16 φ = tan–1  
3
ZL = 5 Ω
V = 50 sin100πt
The above circuit can be represented in
frequency domain as 50   4 
I= sin  100πt − tan −1   
5   3 
(a) = 10sin (100 πt − tan −1 ( 4 / 3) )
7. A power factor of 1.0 indicates:

(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) purely capacitive circuit
(c) purely resistive circuit
(b)
(d) purely reactive circuit
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
RRB SSE 01.09.2015 Shit-I
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Red)
(c) Ans. (c) : Power factor (cosφ) =1
Cosφ = 1
C os φ = cos 0
(d) φ = 00
Phase angle between V and I is zero Hence, load will be
DMRC AM S&T-2020 purely resistive circuit.
Ans. (d) : 8. The current, i(t), through a 10Ω resistor in
series with an inductance, is given by
i(t) =3 + 4 sin(100t + 450) + 4 sin(300 t + 600)
amperes the RMS value of the current and the
power dissipated in the circuit are :
After changing in frequency domain - (a) 41A 410 W, respectively
1 1 (b) 35A , 350 W, respectively
XC = =
jωC j50 × 1000 × 10−6 (c) 5A, 250 W, respectively
20 (d) 11A, 1210W, respectively
XC = = −20 j Ω Mizoram PSC Jr.Grade-2018, Paper-I
j
TSPSC Manager (Engg.)-2015
XL = jωL = j50 × 500 × 10−3 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
XL= j25 Ω GATE-1995
Ans. (c) :
i(t) =3 + 4 sin (100t + 450) + 4 sin (300 t + 600)
RMS value of the current,
6. In an electric circuit, the series impedance

1
(
IRMS = 32 + 42 + 42 = 5Amp
2
)
consists of a 3Ω resistance in series with an If this current passing through a resistance of 10Ω in
inductive reactance of j4Ω. If the circuit is series with an inductance then power dissipated will be:
energised by an AC voltage source of
50 sin 100 πt, find the current in the circuit. I 2RMS × R = 25×10 = 250 W.
(a) 10 sin (100 πt – tan–1 (4/3)) 9. The ratio of active power to apparent power is
(b) 10 sin (100 πt + tan–1 (4/3)) known as
(c) 25 sin (100 πt – tan–1 (4/3)) (a) power factor (b) load factor
(d) 25 sin (100 πt + tan–1 (4/3)) (c) form factor (d) demand factor
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Apparent power = S Ans. (c) : In delta connection
Active power = P
P
Power factor(cosφ) =
S
10. A buffer amplifier has a gain of

(a) Infinity Resultant voltage in delta connection
(b) Zero V resultent = V AB + V BC + V CA
(c) Unity From phasor diagram
(d) Depended upon the circuit parameters Vresultent = 0
UJVNL AE-2016
14. The function of bleeder resistor in a power
Ans. (c) : A buffer amplifier has a gain of unity because supply is
output voltage equal to input voltage. (a) To ensure minimum current drain in the
11. In each branch of a Delta circuit has circuit
impedance Z, then each branch of equivalent (b) To increase the output dc voltage
star circuit has impedance (c) To increase the output current
(a) Z/3 (b) 3Z (d) Same as that of local resistor
(c) 3Z (d) 6Z Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I Ans. (a) : The function of bleeder resistor in a power
NPCIL- 2015 supply is to ensure minimum current drain in the circuit
Ans. (a) : Each branch of a Delta network has not to increases the output voltage or current.
impedance Z. then each branch of equivalent star circuit 15. In a three-phase delta-connected balanced
has impedance = Z/3. load:
12. A voltage source Vs = 200 cos ωt has an (a) line current is equal to the phase current
impedance across it. The reactive power is 200 (b) line current is three times the phase current
VARs and the power factor is 0.866. The power (c) line current is √3 times the phase current
(Pav) drawn from the source is (d) line current is the 1/√3 of the phase currents
(a) 430 W (b) 400 W BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001
(c) 344 W (d) 200 W Ans. (c) : In a three-phase delta-connected balanced
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I load in delta(∆) I L = 3I ph , VL = Vph
But in star (Y) IL =Iph, VL = 3Vph
Ans. (c) : Q = 200VAR,
Vs = 200 cos ωt , cos φ = 0.866, sin φ = 0.5 16. A DC voltage source is connected across a
series R-L-C circuit. Under steady state
200= VIsin φ conditions, the applied DC voltage drops
200 = VI × 0.5 entirely across the
VI = 400 (a) R only (b) L only
P = VI cos φ (c) C only (d) R and L combination
= 400 × 0.866
Ans. (c) :
= 344W
13. Resultant voltage in a closed balanced circuit
delta circuit is
(a) Three times the phase voltage Under steady state condition
(b) times the phase voltage
(c) Zero
(d) Three times the line voltage
17. A supply of 250 V, 50 Hz is applied to a series From equation (i) and (ii)
RC circuit. If the power absorbed by the ω =1
resistor be 400 W at 160V, the value of the
| V |2
capacitor C will be nearly Pcomplex = rms*
(a) 30.5 µF (b) 41.5 µF Z
(c) 64.0 µF (d) 76.8 µF 3 25 / 2
+ 2 j = * ⇒ Z* =
25
×
( 3 − j4 )
IES-2019 2 Z 3 + 4 j ( 3 − j4 )
Ans. (b) : Z = 3 − 4 j ……………….(iii)
*
Compare with equation (iii)

(R-jωL) = 3− 4j
∴ R = 3Ω, ωL = 4
L = 4H (∵ω = 1)
Given that, 19.

The power losses in resistor = 400W
V 2 160 × 160
Then, resistance (R)= = = 64Ω
P 400
 V  160
Current in R–C circuit =   = = 2.5A
 R  64
( 250 ) − (160 )
2 2
Voltage across capacitor Vc =
The power absorbed by the network excited by
Vc = 36900 a 50∠0º sinusoidal source is 168 W. The value
Vc = 192.09 V of the mutual inductive reactance jXM should
Hence, capacitance of capacitor- be
(a) 13 Ω (b) 10 Ω
V
XC = c (c) 6.3 Ω (d) 3 Ω
I IES-2013
I 2.5
C= = = 41.5µF Ans. (d) :
2πf × Vc 314 × 192.09
18. VS = 5 cos t and the complex power drawn is
3
Pcomplex = + 2j, the value of R and L
2
respectively will be
As given that-
Power absorbed = 168W
P = I2R (Power is real)
168 = I2 ×10
I2 = 16.8A
3 4 16 16 I = 4.09A
(a) and (b) and Xeq = X1 +X2 − 2Xm
5 5 3 5
= 13j − 2jXm
(c) 4 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Zeq = R + Xeq
IES-2015
= 10 + 13j − 2jXm
= 10 + j (13 − 2Xm)
Vs = 5 cos t, Z = R +jωL
V
Vm = 5 I=
| Zeq |
Vm 5 50
Vrms = = 4.09 =
2 2 (13 − 2X m )
2
+ 100
Vs = Vm cos ωt .....(i)
50
(13 − 2X m )
2
Vs = 5cos t ......(ii) + 100 = = 12.22
4.09
(13 − 2X m ) + 100 = 149.32 (a) 3kW (b) 2kW
2
(c) 5kW (d) 0kW

(13 − 2X m ) = 49.32
2
NPCIL-2015
13 − 2X m = 7.022 Ans. (b) : Given ω = 1rad/sec
−2X m = −5.978 XL = ωLeq
= 1×5 = 5Ω
− X m = −2.989 Reactive power = 5kVAR
X m ≃ 3Ω I2XL = 5k
20. For the series RLC circuit in figure, if ω = 1000 5k
I2 =
rad/sec, then the current I (in Ampere) is 5
=1k
I2R = 2kW
23. For the circuit shown, the locus of the
impedance Z(j ω) is plotted as ω increases from
zero to infinity. The values of R1 and R2 are:
(a) 2∠–15o (b) 2∠15o

(c) 2∠ − 15o (d) 2∠15o
DRDO-2008
Ans. (c) : Since we know that-
j
Z = R + jωL – (a) R1 = 2 kΩ, R2 = 3 kΩ
ωC
j (b) R1 = 5 kΩ, R2 = 2 kΩ
= 1+ j×103 ×2×10–3 – (c) R1 = 5 kΩ, R2 = 2.5 kΩ
1000 × 1000 ×10 −6
(d) R1 = 2 kΩ, R2 = 5 kΩ
= 1+ j = 2 ∠45°
GATE-2022
V 2∠30° Ans. (a) :
i= = = 2∠ − 15°
Z 2∠45°
21. The average power consumed by the following
circuit is
1
At ω = 0, X C = = ∞ ( open − circuited )
ωc
Vrms = 20∠53.13°V From figure (i) Z(0) = R1+R2
(a) 100 W (b) 110 W From graph, it is clear that-
(c) 120 W (d) 160 W Z ( 0 ) = R 1 + R 2 = 5kΩ ……………..(i)
1
Ans. (c) : Average power consumed- Similarly at ω = ∞, X C = = 0 ( S.C.)
2
ω C
V From figure (2) Z ( ∞ ) = R 1 = 2kΩ ………..(ii)
P = rms
R
From relations (i) and (ii) we have-
=
( 20 )
2
=
400
= 120W R1 = 2kΩ
3.33 3.33 R 2 = 3kΩ
22. Power absorbed by branch A is 5kVAR, then
power deliver in branch A is ______kW. 24. A parallel RLC circuit has R = 10000 ohms,
L = 10 mH and C = 1 µF. The resonant
frequency ωo (rad/sec) and Q are respectively
given by
(a) 104 and 200 (b) 102 and 1
4
(c) 10 and 100 (d) 102 and 100
1 Ans. (a) : Given that-
Ans. (c) : Resonant frequency(ω) = IAC =5A , IDC = 5A
LC
2
1 I 
= Irms = ( IDC ) 2
+  AC 
10 × 10−3 × 1× 10−6  2
1 2
= = 104 rad/sec  5  3
−8 52 + 
Irms =  =5 2
10  2 
C so, Ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A.
Q for Parallel circuit = R
L 28. When a voltage V0 sin( ω0t) is applied to the
pure inductor, the ammeter shown in the figure
1× 10−6 reads I0. If the voltage applied is: –V0 sin( ω0t) +
= 104
10 × 10−3 2V0 sin (2 ω0t) + 3V0 sin(3 ω0t) + 4V0 sin(4 ω0t),
= 10 ×10–2
4
the ammeter reading would be
= 102
25. A series RC circuit has R = 5 Ω and C = 10 µF.
The current in the circuit is 5 sin 20000t. The
applied voltage is
(a) 25 2 sin ( 20000t + 45º )
(a) 0 (b) 10 I0
(b) 25 2 sin ( 20000t − 45º ) (c) 1 (d) 2 I0
IES-1991
(c) 25 2 sin 20000t
Ans. (d) : Given that
(d) 25 2 sin ( 20000t − 90º ) V = −Vº sin ( ωº t ) + 2Vº sin ( 2ωº t ) +
3Vº sin ( 3ωº t ) + 4Vº sin ( 4ωº t )
Ans. (b) : i(t) = 5 sin 20000t
ω = 20000 Rad/sec Current through by inductor -
1
 1 
θ = tan −1 
 ωRC 
−1 
 = tan 
1
−6

4 
 5 × 10 ×10 × 2 × 10 
I=
L
Vdt∫
1
θ = 45º So, I =
L ∫
Vº sin ωº t
V(t) = 25 2 sin ( 20000t − 45º )
V
26. RMS value of f(t) = 10 (1 + sin ωt) is Im = º
ωº L
10
(a) 10 (b) Vº
2 I rms =
2ωº L
10
(c) 150 (d) Now Ammeter will read-
2
IES-1996 I =  − 1 V Sinω t + 1 2V Sin2ω t + 1 3V Sin3ω t
Ans. (c) : f(t) = 10(1 + sinωt)
 L º ∫ º
L
º ∫ º
L
º ∫ º
1 
f(t) = 10 +10sinωt
2
+
L ∫
4Vº Sinωº t 

 10 
rms value = (10 ) +  V
2
 V V
I =  º Cos ωº t − º Cos 2ωº t − º Cos3ωº t
 2  ωL ωL ωL
rms value = 100 + 50 Vº 
− Cos 4 ωº t 
= 150 ωL 
Vº
27. An ac current of 5A and dc current of 5 A flow =
ωL
[Cos ωt–Cos 2ωº t − Cos3ωº t − Cos4ωº t ]
simultaneously through a circuit. Which of the
2 2 2 2
following statements is true?  1   1   1   1 
(a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10 A but I rms = 2 I º  2  +  2  +  2  +  2 
       
more than 5A.
(b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A 4
= 2 Iº = 2 Iº 2
(c) A dc ammeter will read 10A 2
(d) A dc ammeter will read zero. Irms = 2I º
IES-1991
29. In the circuit shown, VS = 250 sin 400t; (a)
current lags the applied voltage
V2 = 200. If R = 100, value of L is (b)
current lead the applied voltage
(c)
current is in phase with the applied voltage
(d)
voltage across L and C are equal
IES-1992
1
LC < 2
ω
1
ωL <
1 1 ωC
(a) (b) So, X L < XC
3 4
2 3 then the circuit is capacitive, so current lead the applied
(c) (d) voltage.
3 4
32. An alternating current source having voltage
IES-1991
 π
Ans. (a) : Given that | VL |= 200V, R = 100Ω e = 110 sin  ωt +  is connected in an a.c.
 3
Vs = 250V, ω = 400 circuit. If the current drawn from the circuit
So, Vs2 = VR2 + VL2  π
varies as i = 5sin  ωt –  , impedance of the
( 250 )2 = ( VR )2 + ( 200 )2  3
circuit will be
VR = 150 V (a) 22 ohms (b) 16 ohms
Current through circuit- (c) 30.8 ohms (d) none of the above
150 IES-1992
I= = 1.5A Ans. (a) :
100
Voltage across inductor (L)- e = 110sin ( ωt + π 3 ) Comparison with e = Vm sin ( ωt + φ )
VL = IX L = IωL Vm = 110 Volt
200 1 110
L= = H Vrms = V
1.5 × 400 3 2
30. Voltage on R, L, C in series circuit are shown  π
below. Value of voltage sources is i = 5sin  ωt −  comparison with i =Im sin ( ωt+φ )
 3
Im = 5 A
5
I rms = A
2
Vrms 110 2
Z= =
Irms 5 2
(a) 10 V (b) 15 V
(c) 27 V (d) 5 V Z = 22Ω
ISRO Scientist Engg.2007 33. Two impedance are connected in series. The
IES-1992 3 voltmeters, one connected across each
Ans. (d) : given that impedance and one across the combination,
VR = 3 Volt, VL = 14 Volt, VC = 10Volt read equal value. The phase angle between the
voltages across the two impedances is
as we know that (a) 30º (b) 60º
Vs = VR + ( VL − VC ) (c) 90º (d) 120º
2 2
IES-1995
= ( 3 ) + (14 − 10 )
2 2 Ans. (d) : According to the question -
= 9 + 16
Vs = 5 Volt
31. In a series R – L – C circuit excited by a
 1 
voltage, e =Esin ωt, where LC <  2 
ω 

Given that V3 = V1 = V2 = V then voltage across resistor 1Ω
1
so, resultant voltage VR = .1
2
V3 = V12 + V2 2 + 2V1V2 cosθ
1
= Volt
= V 2 + V 2 + 2V 2 cosθ ∵ V1 = V2 = V 2
From phasor
V = 2V 2 + 2V 2 cosθ ∵ V3 = V
Squaring both side
V 2 = 2V 2 + 2V 2cosθ
2V 2cosθ = −V 2
1
cosθ = −
2
VR
θ = 120º cos θ =
E
34. A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has a
source impedance consisting of 1Ω resistance in = (1 2 )
series with 1H inductance. The load that will 1
obtain the maximum power transfer is 1
(a) 1Ω resistance cos θ =
2
(b) 1Ω resistance in parallel with 1 H
(c) 1Ω resistance in series with 1F capacitor θ = 45 º
(d) 1Ω resistance in parallel with 1F capacitor 36. The circuit shown in the figure below, will act
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I as an ideal current source with respect to
Ans. (c) : Source impedance Zs = (1 + j) ohm, to terminals A and B, when frequency is
transfer the maximum power to load
ZL = Z*S = (1 − j) ohm. As angular frequency = 1 rad/sec.
ie C = 1 farad, so load will be a 1 ohm resistance in
series with 1 farad capacitor.
35. In the series RC circuit shown in the given
figure, the rms value of the voltage E is 1V. If (a) zero (b) 1 rad/s
the average power dissipated is equal to 500 (c) 4 rad/s (d) 16 rad/s
mW, then the phase angle between the voltage IES-2000
and current will be
Ans. (c) : given that
1
L = H, C = 1F
16
1
resonance frequency ( ωr ) =
LC
1
(a) 90º (b) 60º =
(c) 45º (d) 30º 1 16 × 1
IES-1996 ωr = 4 rad/sec
Ans. (c) :
37. For the circuit shown, if the power consumed
by 5Ω resistor is 10 W, then:
power dissipated by Resistor

P = I2R
500 × 10−3 = I 2 ×1
1. I = 2A
1
I= Amp 2. Total impedance = 5 Ω
2 3. Power factor = 0.866
Which of the above are correct? 39. An alternating voltage is given by the equation
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only  π
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 v = 282.84 sin  377t + 
 6
IES-2016
What are the values of r.m.s. voltage,
Ans. (a) : Power consumed by 5Ω frequency and time period?
P = I2 R (a) 20 V, 60 Hz and 0.0167 s
10 = I2 × 5 (b) 200V, 50 Hz and 0.02 s
(c) 200 V, 60 Hz and 0.0167 s
I2 = 2
(d) 20 V, 50 Hz and 0.0167 s
I = 2 Amp. IES-2014
 π
Ans. (c) : V = 282.84sin  377t +  V
 6
Comparison with V = Vm sin ( ωt + φ )
Vm = 282.84
Vm 282.84
Vrms = =
2 2
From above circuit 282.84
15 Vrms = = 200 V
R = 15Ω, X L = Ω 1.414
3 Vrms = 200V
Impedance (z) = R + ( X L ) ω = 377
2 2
2πf = 377
2
 15  377
= (15 ) + 
2
 Frequency f = = 60 Hz
 3 2π
1
Z = 300 Z = 17.32Ω time period ( T ) =
f
R 15 T = 0.0167sec
cos φ = = = 0.866
Z 17.32 40. A series R-L circuit {R = 4Ω and L = 0.01 H} is
cos φ = 0.866 excited by a voltage (in volt)
v(t) = 283 sin(300t + 90º). The current in the
Statement 1 and 3 is correct circuit will be
Option (a) is correct. (a) 40 sin {300t + 53.1º} A
38. When the frequency of the applied voltage (sine (b) 40 sin 53.1ºA
wave) across an inductor is increased then the
current will (c) 40 2 sin (300t + 53.1º) A
(a) Decrease (b) Increase (d) 40 2 sin 53.1ºA
(c) Remain same (d) Be zero IES-2014
Ans. (a) : As we know that,

IES-2015
(
Ans. (c) : Given v ( t ) = 283sin 300t + 90 0
)
Current through inductor R = 4Ω, L = 0.01H, ω = 300 rad/sec
X L = ωL = 300 × 0.01
X L = 3Ω
Z = R + jX L
Z = 4 + j3
V V
I= = Current through in the circuit
X L ωL
V I=
V
=
(
283sin 300t + 900 )
∠ − tan −1 ( 3/ 4 )
I=
2πfL Z ∠θ 5
1 = 56.6sin(300t + 90º )∠ − 36.86º
↓I∝
f↑ I = 40 2 sin {300t + ( 90° − 36.86° )}
From above relation if the supply frequency is increases
so the current will decreases. = 40 2 sin ( 300t + 53.1° ) A

41. In the circuit shown, if the power consumed by Veq = V cos ( 314t + θ )
the 5Ω resistor is 10W, then the power factor of
the circuit is: Veq = V1 + V2
Veq = 1∠0 + 3 2 ∠45
( )
Veq = 1 cos 0 + jsin 0 + 3 2 cos 45 + jsin 45 ( )
V(t) = 50cosωt = 1 + 3 + j3 = 4 + j3
( 4) + ( 3)
2 2
Veq =
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.6 = 5 Volt
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.2 ∠θ = ∠ tan −1 3/ 4
IES-2016, 2014
Ans. (b) : Power consumed by the 5Ω Resistor ∠θ = ∠36.87
P = I2 R (
Veq = 5sin 314t + 36.87 )
10 = I2 × 5 Veq = 5cos {90 − ( 314t + 36.87° )}
I = 2 Amp
= 5cos ( 53.2 − 314t )
Current flow through in series circuit is same
So, we can draw the circuit = 5cos ( 314t − 53.2° )
comparing with V cos ( 314t + θ )
V = 5Volt
θ = −53.2°
43. In a series R-L circuit, R is 10Ω and L is 20mH,
50 if the circuit current is 10 sin 314t A, the phase
VS = = 25 2V angle θ between v and i will be
2
(a) tan–1 (0.2 π) (b) tan–1 (0.4 π)
VR = IR
(c) tan (0.6 π)
–1
(d) tan–1 (0.8 π)
= 2 ×15 IES-2020
VR = 15 2 V Ans. (a) : Given that
R = 10Ω, L = 20mH
VR
cos φ = 10sin 314t comparision with I msinωt
VS
ω = 314 rad/sec
15 2 30 X L = ωL
cos φ = =
50 50
= 314 × 20 × 10−3
2
XL = 2πΩ
cos φ = 0.6
XL
42. In a two-element series network, the As we know that- tan θ =
R
instantaneous voltages across the elements are
sin 314 t and 3 2sin(314t + 45º )
The resultant voltage across the combination is
expressed as Vcos(314t + θ). Then the values of
V and θ are
(a) 5 and 36.8º (b) 3.5 and 36.8º
(c) 5 and – 53.2º (d) 3.5 and – 53.2º 2πfL
tan θ =
IES-2018 10
Ans. (c) : Let V1 = sin314t = 1∠0 θ = tan −1 ( 0.2π )
( )
V2 = 3 2 sin 314t + 45 = 3 2 ∠45 44. A 4Ω resistor is connected in series with a
10 mH inductor, across a 100V, 50 Hz voltage
source. The impedance of the circuit will be
(a) 5 – j 3.14 (b) 5 + j 3.14
(c) 4 – j 3.14 (d) 4 + j 3.14
IES-2020
Ans. (d) : According to the question Ans. (c) : Given
R = 10Ω, C = 25nF , VC = 1.76V
= 25 ×10−9 F
Maximum voltage across capacitor ( Vm ) = 2.5V
rms voltage across capacitor
2.5
X L = ωL Vrms = = 1.768 V
2
= 2πfL
= 2π× 50 × 10 × 10−3
X L = 3.14Ω
So, impedance ( Z ) = R + jX L
= ( 4 + j3.14 ) Ω XC =
1
2πfC
45. A 100V, 50 Hz a.c. supply is applied across a
1
series RLC circuit having R = 10Ω, L = 100 mH X C =
and C = 1000 µF The current through the 2 π× 50 × 10 6
× 25 × 10−9
circuit will be X C = 0.127 Ω
(a) 4.33∠ – 70.5ºA (b) 3.33∠ – 70.5ºA Total current through circuit
(c) 2.33∠ – 50.5ºA (d) 1.33∠ – 50.5ºA VC = I XC
IES-2020 V 1.76
I= C =
Ans. (b) : Given that, XC 0.127
f = 50Hz, V = 100 volt, I = 13.858Amp
R = 10Ω, L = 100mH , C = 1000µF rms voltage across Resistor
−3 −6
= 100 ×10 H C = 1000 × 10 F VR = IR
C = 10−3 F = 13.85 ×10 = 138.58 Volt
Total rms Voltage across series combination
X L = 2πfL
V = VR 2 + VC 2
= 2 × 3.14 × 50 ×100 × 10−3
= 31.4Ω (138.58) + (1.768)
2 2
=
1 1 V = 138.6 Volt
XC = =
2πfC 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 10−3 Total maximum voltage across series combination
X C = 3.184Ω Vm = 2 ×138.6
As we know that,
Vm = 196 Volt
Impedance ( Z ) = R + j( X L − XC ) ∵ X L > XC
Vm ≈ 196.3 Volt
Z = 10 + j ( 31.4 − 3.18 )
47. A sinusoidal voltage waveform has frequency
= 10 + j28.216
50Hz and RMS voltage 30V. The equation
Z ∠θ = 30.61∠70.48° ≃ 30.61∠70.5 representing the waveform is
(a) V = 30 sin 50t (b) V = 60 sin 20t
The current through circuit
(c) V = 42.42 sin 314t (d) V = 84.84 sin 314t
V 100
I= = IES-2018
Z∠θ 30.61∠70.5 Ans. (c) : Given
I = 3.3421∠ − 70.5°A f = 50Hz, Vrms = 30V
46. In a series RC circuit, the values of R = 10Ω
and C = 25 nF. A sinusoidal voltage of 50 MHz ω = 2πf Vm = 2 × 30
is applied and the maximum voltage across the = 2π× 50 = 42.42 Volt
capacitance is 2.5V. The maximum voltage = 314 rad/sec
across the series combination will be nearly Sinusoidal voltage equation-
(a) 172.7 V (b) 184.5 V V = Vmsinωt
(c) 196.3 V (d) 208.1 V
V = 42.42sin 314t V
IES-2019
48. The voltage (Vc) across the capacitor (in Volts) 51. In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of
in the network shown is node voltage V2 is-
(a) 100 (b) 90

(a) 22 + j2 V (b) 2 + j22 V
(c) 110 (d) 120
(c) 22 – j2 V (d) 2 – j22 V
APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017
GATE-2014
Ans. (d) :
Ans. (a) : V 2 = VR2 + ( VC − VL )
2
(100 ) = ( 80 ) + ( VC − 40 )
2 2 2
10000 = 6400 + ( VC − 40 )
2
3600 = ( VC − 40 )
2
By using super node Analysis–

60 = VC − 40
V1 – V2 = 10∠0 –(i)
VC = 100V
V V V
49. A voltage v(t) = 173 sin (314t + 10º) is applied and 4∠0o = 1 + 2 + 2
− j3 6 j6
to a circuit. It causes a current flow described
by −2V1 + jV2 + V2
4∠0o = …….(ii)
i(t) = 14.14 sin (314 t – 20º) 6j
The average power delivered is nearly The value of V1 by equation (i), is putting in equation
(a) 2500 W (b) 2167 W (ii)
(c) 1500 W (d) 1060 W
−2 ( V2 + 10 ) + jV2 + V2
IES-2017 4∠0o =
Ans. (d) : Given j6
Vm = 173 volt φ = 20 + 10 j24 = – V2 – 20 + jV2
20 + j24
I m = 14.14 A φ = 30 V2 =
( j − 1)
Vm Im
Average power (Pav) = × cos φ 31.24∠50.194o
2 2 V 2 = = 22.091∠ − 84.806o
2∠135o
173 14.14
= × × cos30 V2 = ( 2 − 22j) V
2 2
173 14.14 3 52. In the circuit shown below, the current I is
= × × equal to
2 2 2
Pav = 1060 W
50. A mathematical expression for 50 Hz sinusoidal
voltage of peak value of 80V will be
(a) v = 50 sin 314t (b) v = 50 sin 80t
(c) v = 80 sin 314 t (d) v = 80 sin 50t (a) 1.4 ∠0º A (b) 2.0 ∠0º A
IES-2017 (c) 2.8 ∠0º A (d) 3.2 ∠0º A
GATE-2011
Ans. (c) : Given
f = 50Hz, Vm = 80V Ans. (b) : Converting ( ∆ ) into Y on three 6Ω resistor
ω = 2πf the given circuit reduces to-
= 2 × 3.14 × 50
= 314 rad/sec
so, sinusoidal voltage equation
V = Vm sin ωt
V = 80sin 314t V
1 106
We have, (a) (b)
Z1 = 2 + j4 s + 106 s + 106
2
s 2 + 103 s + 106
103 106
Z2 = 2 − j4 (c) 2 (d) 2
s + 103 s + 106 s + 106 s + 106
Z1 Z2 GATE-2004
Now = + 2Ω
Z1 + Z2  1 
Ans. (d) : Vi(s ) = Is  R + sL + 
=
( 2 + j4 )( 2 − j4 ) +2 = ( 4 + 16 ) + 2 = 20 + 2 = 7Ω  sC 
2 + j4 + 2 − j4 4 4
Vi(s ) = ( RsC + s 2 LC + 1)
Is
V = IR sC
14∠0º I
I= = 2∠0º A V0(S) = S
7 sC
53. In the circuit shown below, the current through Transfer function-
the inductor is V0(S) IS / sC
H (s) = =
Vi(S) IS / sC × ( s 2 LC + RsC + 1)
1
=
s LC + RsC + 1
2
1/ LC
=
R 1
s2 + s +
L LC
1/10 × 10−3 ×100 ×10−6
2 −1 =
(a) A (b) A 10 × 103 1
1+ j 1+ j s2 + s+
10 × 10−3 10 × 10−3 × 100 × 10−6
1
(c) A (d) 0 A 106
1+ j = 2 V
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-I s + 106 s + 106
GATE-2012 55. The average value of the periodic function v(t)
of the given figure is
Ans. (c) :
B
1∠0−I1 I1
A D C
Vcosφ V sin φ
(a) (b)
π π
2V sin φ V
Let's assume current in inductive branch is I1 (c) (d)
Applying KVL in Loop ABCDA π π
1(1∠0°–I1) – jI1 + 1∠0 –1∠0 = 0 IES-1999
1 – I1 – jI1 = 0 Ans. (a) : As given that,
 1  V(t) = V sin (t + φ)
I 1=  A ∵ Average value of signal–
 1+ j  π
1
v ( t ) dt
T −∫π
54. For the circuit shown in the figure, the initial Vavg =
conditions are zero. Its transfer function
V (S ) 1 π
H (s ) = C V sin ( t + φ ) dt
2π ∫0
is Vavg =
Vi ( S )

V π 59. Time constant of a series R-L circuit equals
Vavg =  − cos ( t + φ )  (a) L/R second (b) LR second
2π 0
(c) L2R (d) LR2
V
=  − cos ( π + φ ) + cos φ ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
2π 
Ans. (a) : For R-L circuit -
V
=
2π
[cos φ + 0 + cos φ] Time constant (τ) =
L
second
R
V cos φ and for RC circuit time constant = RC sec
=
π 60. Average value of the waveform is:
56. If phasors P1 = 3 + 4j & P2 = 6 – 8j. Then
|P1–P2| is:
(a) 5 (b) 53
(c) 73 (d) 153
IES-2016
P1 = 3 + 4 j & P2 = 6 − 8j (a) 8V (b) 20V
(c) 10V (d) 4V
P1 − P2 = 3 + 4 j − (6 − 8j) ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
= 3 + 4 j − 6 + 8j 14 × 1 − 6 ×1
Ans. (d) : Vavg =
= −3 + 12 j 2
14 − 6
P1 − P2 = ( −3) + (12) 2 = 153 W
2
= = 4V
2
57. A particular current is made up of two 61. The voltage across the resistor R is:
components: a 10 A dc and a sinusoidal current
of peak value of 1.414 A:The average value of
the resultant current is
(a) Zero (b) 24.14 A
(c) 10 A (d) 14.14 A
Ans. (c) : The average value of the resultant current is:- (a) 1/ 3 ∠0° V (b) 1/ 2 ∠0° V
Iavg = 10 + 0 (c) 1/ 2 ∠45° V (d) 1/ 2 ∠45° V
= 10A
58. An inductor supplied with 50 V ac with a
Ans. (d) :
frequency of 10 kHz passes a current of
7.96 mA. The value of inductor is
(a) 1 mH (b) 10 mH
(c) 100 mH (d) 1 H
Ans. (c) : 1+ j
7.96mA Voltage across R = × 1∠0°× 1
1+ j +1− j
1+ j
= × 1∠0°× 1
2
2
= ∠45°
2
1
= ∠45° V
V = I XL 2
62. The value of C which gives the critical damping
V = IjωL in the given circuit is
50 = 7.96 × 10 −3 × 2π × 10 × 103 L
50
L=
7.96 ×10−3 × 2π× (10 × 103 )
L = 0.1H
L = 100 mH
(a) 2 F (b) 4 F The power factor of the above circuit as seen
(c) 8 F (d) 1 F by the source is
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 (a) 0.988 lag (b) 0.988 lead
Ans. (c) : (c) 0.235 lag (d) 0.235 lead
Ans. (b) :
In R-L-C series circuit, the critical damping:-

R C
ξ=
2 L Given, R1 = 6Ω, Xc = –j1Ω, R 2 = 4Ω, cos φ = ?
For critical damping ξ = 1 R
4L cos φ = eq , − j1Ω and 4Ω are in parallel and 6Ω in
R =
2
Zeq
C
series.
4× 2
(1) = [ Given, R = 1Ω, L = 2H ] 4 × ( − j1)
2
C Zeq = 6 +
4 + ( − j1)
8
1= − j4
C Zeq = 6 +
C = 8F 4 − j1
63. The rms value of current i(t) = I1sin ωt  − j4 ( 4 + j1) 
Zeq = 6 +  × 
+I2sin2 ωt is:
 4 − j1 ( 4 + j1) 
2 2 1/2 2 2 1/2
(a) (I1 + I2 ) (b) (I1 /2 + I2 /2)
(c) (I12/2 + 2I22)1/2 (d) (I12 + 4I22)1/2  −16 j − j2 4 
Zeq = 6 +  2 2 2 
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013  4 −j 1 
Ans. (b) : i(t) = I1sinωt +I2sin2ωt  −16 j + 4 
2 2 Zeq = 6 +  
 I   I   17 
rms value =  1  +  2 
 2  2 4 16 j
Zeq = 6 + − , R eq = 6.235
1 17 17
 I2 I2  2 Zeq = ( 6.235 − j0.941)
=  1 + 2 
2 2
| Zeq |= ( 6.235 ) + ( −0.941)
2 2
64. Consider the R-L-C network shown below

| Zeq |= ( 38.87 ) + 0.885
| Zeq |= 39.755 = 6.30Ω
6.235
cos φ = = 0.988
6.305
cos φ = 0.988 lead because of capacitive nature.
The average power absorbed by the inductor in 66. The total impedance of the circuit shown is
watts is
(a) 40 (b) 15
(c) 0 (d) 5
(a) 40 + j 43.98Ω (b) 40 – j 43.98 Ω
Ans. (c) : In R.L.C network the average power absorbed
(c) 40 + j 48.98 Ω (d) 40 – J 48.98 Ω
by the inductor is 0 watt
TNPSC AE - 2018
65. Consider the circuit shown below
Ans. (a) : f = 100 Hz Leq = L1 + L2 ⇒ Leq = 70 mH
XL = 2π fL
XL = 2 × 3.14 × 100 × 70 × 10–3
XL = 43.98Ω
Z = R+ jXL
Z = 40 + j43.98Ω
67. If an AC voltage wave is corrupted with an 2π
arbitrary number of harmonics, then the Ans. (d) : ω = = 2πf
T
voltage waveform differs from its fundamental
ω = 2π × 25
frequency component in terms of
ω = 50π
(a) Only the peak value
Irms = 30A
(b) Only the RMS value
(c) Only the average value Imax = 2 .i rms
(d) All the three (peak, RMS, average) values Imax = 2 × 30 = 42.42 A
i(t) = im.sinωt
Ans. (d) : In an AC voltage wave is corrupted by an
i(t) = 42.4 sin 50πt A
arbitrary number of harmonic then the voltage wave
form differ from its fundamental frequency component 73. The instantaneous impressed voltage and
in term of (peak, rms, average) values. current flowing through a AC series circuit at
68. In a series circuit with R = 10Ω, L = 20 mH, 50 Hz are e(t) = 200 2 sin(314t + 20°) Volt and
current is i(t) = 2 sin 500t. Let v(t) be the total I = 10 2 cos(314t–25°) Amperes respectively.
voltage across this combination, then The phase angle between e(t) and i(t) is
(a) i lags v by 45º (b) i leads v by 90º (a) 65 degree (b) 45 degree
(c) i leads v by 45º (d) i lags v by 90º (c) 0 degree (d) 10 degree
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018 MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
Ans. (a) : R = 10 Ω, L = 20 mH, ω = 500 rad/sec, Ans. (b) :
XL = ωL ⇒ 10Ω e(t) = 200 2 sin(314t+20°)
 ωL  −1 10 i(t) = 10 2 cos(314t–25°)
φ = tan −1   = tan ⇒ φ = 45º
 R  10 = 10 2 sin (314t+65°)
For RL circuit current will be lags by voltage by 45º for φ = 65°–20° ⇒[φ = 45°]
this condition. 74. The reactance of a purely capacitive AC circuit
69. In a parallel RLC Circuit the power factor at of frequency 50 Hertz is 10 ohms. If the AC
higher cut off frequency f = fH is- frequency is doubled the reactance offered
(a) 0.5 (lead) (b) 0.5 (lag) (a) 40 ohm (b) 2.5 ohm
(c) 0.707 (lead) (d) 0.707 (lag) (c) 5 ohm (d) 20 ohm
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
Ans. (c) : For RLC parallel circuit, for higher cut off 1 1
frequency f = fH, power factor is 0.707 (lead). Ans. (c) : We know that X c = ⇒ Xc ∝
2πfc f
70. For a series RLC circuit, the power factor at X f 10 100
c1
the lowest half power frequency is = 2⇒ =
(a) 0.707 lagging (b) 0.5 leading X c2 f 1 X c2 50
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.707 leading Xc2 = 5Ω
75. The rms value of the voltage :
R R 1
Ans. (d) : cos φ = = = = 0.707 V(t) = 3 + 4 cos(3t) is
Z 2R 2
(a) 7 volts (b) 5 volts
φ = 45 → leading.
(c) (3+2.9) volts (d) 17 volts
71. Two alternating quantities are added MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
(a) arithmetically (b) graphically
(c) vectorially (d) geometrically Ans. (d) : V ( t ) = 3 + 4cos3t
TNPSC AE-2008 2
Ans. (c) : Two alternating quantities of any frequency V(t)= 9 +  4  = 9 + 8
in a line diagram can be added algebraically in terms of  2
their instantaneous values. Hence it can also be added
V ( t )( rms ) = 17
vectorially.
72. The equation for 25 cycles current sine wave 76. In a series RLC circuit, the voltage across an
having rms value of 30 amperes, will be inductor will be maximum when:
(a) 30 sin 25t (b) 30 sin 50t (a) at resonance (b) at zero Hertz
(c) 42.4 sin 25πt (d) 42.4 sin 50πt (c) always (d) None of the these
TNPSC AE-2008 MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
Ans. (a) : When the circuit is in resonance, the current 1
= ⋅ 2 sin 103 t { ∵ Vi(t) = 2 sin103 t }
is too large and will produce large voltage drop across 2∠45º
inductance and capacitance, which will be equal in
∵ RC = 1ms, ω = 103 rad / sec. 
magnitude but opposite in phase and each may be  
several times greater than the applied voltage. V0 = sin (10 t − 45º ) V
3
Since in this resonance the voltage is maximum it is
called voltage resonance. 80. A two branch parallel circuit has a 20 Ω
resistance and 1 H inductance in one branch
77. If a small capacitance is added to a highly and a 100 µF capacitor in the second branch. It
inductive circuit is fed from 100 V ac supply, at resonance, the
(a) The power factor will increase input impedance of the circuit is
(b) The power factor will decrease (a) 500 Ω (b) 50 Ω
(c) The power factor will remain unchanged (c) 20 Ω (d) 5 Ω
(d) The power drawn will decrease Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (a) :
Ans. (a) : When some capacitance is added to L
inductive circuit then net impedance decreases hence At parallel resonance circuit impedance (Z) =
R RC
cos φ = will increase. Given , L = 1 H
Z R = 20Ω
78. A 4 ohms resistor is connected to a 10 mH C = 100µf
inductor in series at 50 Hz, the total impedance
of the circuit will be L
then Z=
(a) (4 + j3.14) Ω (b) 0 Ω RC
(c) (3.14 + j4) Ω (d) 50 Ω 1
= = 500Ω
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 20 ×100 ×10−6
Ans. (a) : 81. A sine wave voltage is applied across an
Z = R + jωL inductor. When the frequency of the voltage is
Z = 4 + j × 2π × 50 × 10 × 10–3 decreased, the current
(a) Is increased
Z = (4 + j3.14)Ω
(b) Is decreased
79. For the circuit shown in the figure, the time (c) Does not change
constant RC = 1 ms. The input voltage is
(d) Momentarily goes to zero
Vi(t) = 2 sin 103 t. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
The output voltage V0 (t) is equal to Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : The impedance of the inductor is
Z = jXL = jωL
Z = ωL∠90º
v m∠θ
current I =
ωL∠90º
(a) sin (103t–45º) (b) sin (103t+45º)

3
(c) sin (10 t–53º) (d) sin (103t+53º)
GATE-2004
The frequency of the supply voltage is decreased. So,
Ans. (a) : Applying voltage division Rule – denominator value is decreased resulting in the increase
Z2 in the fraction value.
Vº = Vi
Z1 + Z2 82. Examine the following lists
1 Circuit and Input Signal Output Wave Form
jωC
= Vi
1 i. Integrating circuit A. Triangular
R+ and square wave wave
jωC
ii. Differentiating B. Impulse wave
1 circuit and step
= Vi
1 + jRCω wave
1 iii. Differentiating C. Sawtooth
= Vi circuit and wave
1 + j ×10−3 ×103 triangular wave
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Ans. (b) : Vm = 12 volt
(a) ii and iii (b) i and ii RMS value = 8.48
(c) only i (d) i and iii
Peak value
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014 Crest factor =
Ans. (b) : According to question- RMS value
(i) Integrating circuit and square wave 12
=
→ Triangular wave 8.48
(ii) Differentiating circuit and step wave = 1.415
→ Impulsive wave 86. The form factor of any waveform is given by–
83. An ideal saw tooth voltage waveform of (a) RMS value/mean value
frequency 500 Hz and amplitude 3V is (b) RMS value/Average value
generated by charging a capacitor of 2µF in (c) Average value/mean value
every cycle. The charging requires (d) Average value/RMS value
(a) Constant voltage source of 3V for 1 ms Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
(b) Constant voltage source of 3V for 2 ms Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016 Paper-I
(c) Constant current source of 3mA for 1ns Ans. (b) : Both form factor and crest factor can be used
(d) Constant current source of 3mA for 2 ms to give information about the actual shape of the AC
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I waveform.
1 R.M.S.Value
Ans. (d) : f = 500 Hz, T = Form factor =
f Average Value
1 for a pure sinusoidal waveform the form factor will
T=
500 always be equal to 1.11
T = 2ms Peak value
Crest factor =
V = 1.5 × 103 × t R.M.S.value
V = 1500t V 87. The phase angle in the circuit in the given
circuit is approximately equal to
At t = 2m sec Vc(t) = 3Volt

Cdv
Ic =
dt (a) 53º (b) 90º
Ic = C ×1500 (c) 37º (d) 0º
Ic = 2 × 10 −6 × 1500 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
Ic = 3mA Ans. (c) : Given that -
84. An inductance of 10 mH connected across a R1 = 1kΩ
100 V, 50 Hz supply has an inductive reactance XL = 2πfL
of XL = 2π×5×103×24×10–3
(a) 10 π (b) 1000 π XL = 753.982Ω
(c) π (d) π H
Ans. (c) : Given, L = 10 mH
V = 100V, 50 Hz
Inductive reactance (XL) = 2πfL
= 2π × 50 × 10×10–3 X
tan θ = L
= 100π × 10×10 –3
R
=πΩ X
θ = tan −1 L
85. The crest factor of a sine wave having peak R
value of 12 V and rms value 8.48 is
−1 753.982
(a) 0.415 (b) 1.415 θ = tan
(c) 2.415 (d) 3.415
1000
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I θ = 37°
88. What has the voltage across the resistor (a) 75º (b) 15º
decayed to by the end of the pulse in the given (c) 105º (d) 45º
circuit?
Ans. (b) : θ1 = 30° θ3 = 120°
θ2 = 45° θ4 = 135°
∆θ = θ2 – θ1 ∆θ= θ4 – 03
∆θ = 45° – 30°
∆θ = 15°
92. The average power delivered to an impedance
(a) 0 V (b) 0.75 V (4-j3)Ω by a current 5Cos(100 πt + 100°)A is
(c) 5.55 V (d) 14.25 V (a) 44.2 W (b) 50 W
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I (c) 62.5 W (d) 125 W
Ans. (b) : Time constant (τ) = RC Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-I
3 –6 BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
= 470×10 ×0.002×10 = 940µsec
given that - Ans. (b) :
ton = 2.82ms
t = ton + toff
t = 2.82 + 0.94
t = 3.76 ms
VR = ton/t = 2.82/ 3.76 = 0.75V Z = (4 – j3)Ω
89. The maximum and the minimum values of the Z = 5∠–36.86º Ω
power factor can be
I = 5∠100ºA
(a) 1 and 0 (b) +1 and -1
the power dissipated only by the resistor
(c) +1 and -5 (d) +5 and -5
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I So, P = I 2rms R
Ans. (a) : Power factor is maximum and equal to 1 for Given that-
purely resistive load. Power factor is minimum and Im = 5A , R = 4Ω
equal to zero for purely inductive or capacitive circuit
load. 5
Irms = A
90. What is the applied voltage for a series RLC 2
circuit when IT = 3 mA, VL = 30 V, VC = 18 V, 2
 5 
and R = 1000 ohms? Pdelivered =   ×4
(a) 3.00 V (b) 12.37 V  2
(c) 34.98 V (d) 48.00 V 25
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I Pdelivered = × 4 = 50W
2
Ans. (b) : Given,
93. Indicate the dual of the series network
VC = 18V VL = 30V
consisting of voltage source (V), capacitor (C)
VR = I T × R
and inductor (L) in
VR = 3×10–3×1000 (a) Parallel combination of V, L and C
= 3V
(b) Series combination of current source, L and C
Vs = VR2 + (VL − VC ) 2 (c) Parallel combination of current source, L and
C
Vs = 32 + (30 − 18)2 (d) None of the above
Vs = 9 + 144 Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : According to duality of electric elements
Vs = 153
Voltage source Current source
Vs = 12.37V Capacitor Inductor
91. The phase angle between the two waveforms in Resistance Conductance
the given circuit equals ______.
94. Phasor combination of resistive power and
reactive power is called
(a) True power (b) Apparent power
(c) Reactive power (d) Average power
Ans. (b) : S* = P + jQ V02
= + 2V02 + 4.5V02 + 8V02
2
= ( 0.5 + 2 + 4.5 + 8)V0
= 15V0
= 3.87 V0
S = P 2 + Q2 99. What term means the number of times per
Where P =( Pc) active power, Q = (Qc) Reactive power second that an alternating current flows back
S = Apparent power. and forth?
95. To which component of an RC circuit is the (a) Speed (b) Pulse rate
power dissipation due? (c) Frequency (d) Inductance
(a) Capacitance (b) Resistance RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I
(c) Both (d) None
Ans. (c) : Frequency term means the number of times
per second that an alternating current flows back and
Ans. (b) : In RC network power dissipation is due to
1
resistance only because resistor is a real time element forth. f = Hz
96. In a setup for the determination of self T
capacitance of a coil, the standard variable 100. In a circuit in which resistance, capacitance
capacitor has value of 460 pF at 2 MHz and a and inductance are in series, the impedance
value of 100 pF at 4 MHz. The coil self would be-
capacitance is V
(b) R 2 + ( X L – X C )
2
(a) 2 pF (b) 20 pF (a)
R + ( XL – XC )
2 2
(c) 60 pF (d) 200 pF
RPCS Lect.-2011
1
(c) i R 2 + ( X L – X C ) (d)
2
Ans. (b) : C1 = 460 pF f1 = 2MHz
R + ( XL – XC )
2 2
C2 = 100 pF f 2 = 4MHz
For double frequency, n = 2 RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Green)
C1 − n 2 C2
Self capacitance, Cd = Ans. (b) : Z = R 2 + ( X L – X C )
2
n2 −1
460 − ( 2 ) (100 )
2
Where R = resistance
= XL = inductive reactance
4 −1
460 − 400 Xc = Capacitive reactance
=
3 101. For rms 100 value triangular wave, the peak
Cd = 20pF voltage will be:
97. In a linear network, when the a.c. input is (a) 173 V (b) 141 V
doubled, the a.c. output becomes (c) 111 V (d) 100 V
(a) two times (b) four times UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
(c) half (d) one-fourth Ans. (a) : Rms value for triangular wave
V
Ans. (a) : Linear network are those network in which Vrms = m
only R, L and C is present. So If when a.c input is 3
doubled its output become doubled. V
100 = m
98. If V0 sin ωt + 2V0 sin (2 ωt) + 3V0 sin (3 ωt) + 4V0 3
sin (4 ωt) is applied, then find the Voltage
measure by Voltmeter if it measures rms value. Vm = 100 3V ⇒ Vm = 173.2V
(a) V0 (b) 4 V0
(c) 3.8 V0 (d) 2.7 V0 102. When the frequency of the applied voltage
BARC Scientific Officer-2016 increases in a series RL circuit:
(a) the phase angle increases
Ans. (c) : If V0 sin ωt + 2V0 sin (2ωt) + 3V0 sin (3ωt) +
4V0 sin (4ωt) is applied then find the voltage measure (b) ZT decreases
by volt meter it is measure rms value- (c) ZT increases
2 2 2 2 (d) both (a) and (c)
 V   2V   3V   4V 
rms value =  0  +  0  +  0  +  0  RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
 2  2   2   2  KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
Ans. (d) : In an R-L series circuit when applied voltage Active Power
frequency increases then total impedance of the circuit Ans. (b) : Power factor (cosφ) = Apparent Power
is also increased.
106. In an AC circuit, the ratio of kW/kVA
X ωL ↑
Z = R 2 + X L2 tan φ ↑= L = represents
R R (a) Power factor (b) Load factor
∵ ↑ X L = 2πfL ↑ (c) Form factor (d) Diversity factor
RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : Power factor (cos φ)
Active Power(kW)
=
Apparent Power(kVA)
When we increases circuit frequency then inductive Form factor = rms value
reactance increases and when inductive reactance will average value
increases then circuit impedance will increased and the 107. For the network given below, find out the
phase angle also increased. power dissipated across the resistor in µW is
103. Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional
to−
(a) Voltage (b) Amplitude
(c) Frequency (d) Current
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
(a) 227 (b) 555
Ans. (c) : Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional (c) 456 (d) 831
to the frequency.
SAIL- 2014
Capacitive reactance is denoted by Xc we have
Ans. (c) : Given that
1 R = 5Ω
XC =
2πfC Leq = L1 + L2 = 5 + 5 = 10 H
1 XL = 2π×50×10 = 1000π = 3142.85Ω
XC ∝ Z = R+jXL
f Z = 5+j3142.85
As frequency Increases then capacitive reactance
Z = ( 5 ) + ( 3142.85 )
2 2
decreases.
104. The RMS value and mean value is the same in Z = 3142 Ω
the case of-
30
(a) Sine wave I= = 9.54 ×10−3 A
(b) Half wave rectified sine wave 3142
(c) Triangular wave Dissipated power in 5Ω
(d) Symmetrical Square wave P = I 2R
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM P = (9.54×10–3)2×5
P = 91.01 ×5×10–6 W
Ans. (d) : In case of symmetrical square wave rms
value and mean value is same P ≃ 456 µW
108. The frequency of DC supply is_______
(a) Zero (b) 16 2/3 Hz
(c) 50Hz (d) 100 Hz
RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : Frequency of DC supply is zero Hz where as
AC supply frequency taken as 50 Hz
R.M.S value = Imax 109. In AC circuit the product of voltage and
(Mean) Average Value = Iavg = Imax current is known as
RMS value = mean value (a) Power (b) Real power
105. Power factor is the ratio of (c) Resistive power (d) Apparent power
Apparent Power Active Power RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-II
(a) (b)
Active Power Apparent Power Ans. (d) : Apparent power = Voltage × current
Complex Power Re active Power
(c) (d)
Re al Power Complex Power
SAIL- 2014
110. The unit of inductance is
(a) Ohm (b) Mho
(c) Farad (d) Henry
θ
Ans. (d) : The unit of inductance is Henry(H),
capacitance is Farad, resistance is Ω and conductance is
Mho(℧).  1 
φ = tan −1  
111. The frequency of AC supply in India  ωRC 
(a) 20 Hz (b) 40 Hz 116. True power is defined as
(c) 55 Hz (d) 50 Hz (a) IV cos θ (b) VI
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-I (c) VI sin θ (d) none of these
Ans. (d) : The frequency of AC supply in India is taken TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
as 50 Hz where as other country taken above 50 Hz. Ans. (a) : True power or active power is given by
112. Which of the following is represented by the P = VIcos θ
symbol XL?
(a) impedance of a load Where cos θ ⇒ power factor.
(b) reactance of a coil 117. The periodic square wave is applied across the
(c) resonant frequency of a filter terminals of a 15Ω resistor. The value of Vm is
(d) output level of a source 60 V and T is 5 ms. The rms voltage is:
(a) 60V (b) 12V
(c) 30V (d) 15
Ans. (b) : Reactance of coil is represent by the symbol
UPMRC AM - 2020
XL. While impedance of load is represented by the
symbol ZL Ans. (a) : In square wave maximum value = rms value
= average value
113. What is the peak voltage of a sine wave that Then rms value = 60 V
measure 220 Vac rms?
(a) 155 V (b) 169 V 118. What is the rms of following waveform if the
average value is zero ?
(c) 311 V (d) 440 V
Ans. (c) : Peak voltage of sin wave
= 220× 2 = 311.1269 V
114. What is the relationship between current (I)
and voltage (V) in a circuit consisting of a
capacitor in series with a resistor?
(a) I and V are in phase across the capacitor
(b) I leads V across the resistor (a) 17 / 3 V (b) 8/ 3 V
(c) V leads I across the capacitor (c) 5 / 3 V (d) 1/ 3 V
(d) I and V are in phase across the resistor
ISRO Scientist December, 2017
Ans. (d) : I and V are in phase across the resistor is the Ans. (c) : V = 1  16 × T − 2 × T 
rms  
relationship between current (I) and voltage (V) in a T 3 2 2
circuit consisting of a capacitor in series with a resistor
16
115. What is the phase angle between the capacitor Vrms = −1
current and the applied voltage in a parallel 6
RC circuit? 5
(a) 90º (b) 0º Vrms = V
3
(c) 45º (d) 180º
119. For the circuit given in figure shown below, in
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 order to obtain maximum power transfer, the
Ans. (a) : For RC circuit load ZL (in Ω) should be :

(a) 1 – j (b) 1 + j 123. The waveform of a voltage has a form factor of
(c) 2 – j (d) – j 1.15 and peak factor of 1.5. If peak value of
DRDO-2009 voltage is 100V, what is the average and RMS
Ans. (c) : Maximum power of transfer theorem then value of voltage?
load impedance (ZL) = conjugate of source impedance (a) 57.97V, 66.67V (b) 66.67V, 57.97V
( )*
Z th (c) 57.97V, 70.71V (d) 66.67V, 70.71V
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Thus for Zth,
Ans. (a) : Given,
Zth =
(1 − j) j +1 Form factor = 1.15, Peak factor = 1.5
(1 − j) + j Vm = 100
( ) ( )
1 − j j + 1 − j + j V
P.F. = m =
100
= 1.5
=
1− j + j Vrms Vrms
= j + 1 + 1 = (j + 2)Ω 100
Vrms = = 66.67
then, ZL = ( 2 – j) Ω 1.5
120. In an AC circuit, the voltage source V is as RMS value 66.67
follows: V = 100 sin (100t) volt. The rms value
Average value = = = 57.97
F.F. 1.15
of voltage is
124. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal rms
(a) 35.35 V (b) 40.35 V
current of 1 A at a frequency of 50 Hz. The
(c) 80.7 V (d) 70.7 V
average power dissipated by the inductor is:
ESE-2021
(a) 0 W (b) 0.25 W
Ans.(d) : In an given circuit, applied voltage,
(c) 0.5 W (d) 1.0 W
V = 100sin(100t) Volts
Vm = 100V
Ans. (a) : Inductor and capacitor both are energy
V
Vrms = m storing element hence they can not dissipate power,
2 they can only store power in the form of magnetic field
= 100×0.707 = 70.7 volts and electric field.
121. What is the phase angle between That’s why power dissipated by inductor is 0 W.
i1 = –4sin ( 377t + 25º ) and 125. A 230 V rms source supplies power to two
i 2 = 5cos ( 377t – 40º ) ? loads connected in parallel. The first load
draws 10 kW at 0.8 leading power factor and
(a) 155º , ( i1 leads i 2 ) (b) 145º , ( i 2 leads i1 ) the second one draws 10 kVA at 0.8 lagging
(c) 135º , ( i1 leads i 2 ) (d) 125º , ( i 2 leads i1 ) power factor. The complex power delivered by
the source is
ESE-2021 (a) (18 + j 1.5) kVA (b) (18 – j 1.5) kVA
Ans.(a) : i1 = –4sin ( 377t + 25º ) (c) (20 + j 1.5) kVA (d) (20 – j 1.5) kVA
i 2 = 5cos ( 377t – 40º ) Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017
GATE-2014
Phase difference of i1 and i2 , we get
= 115°– (–40°) = 155° (i1 leads i2) Ans. (b) :
122. The current i in a series R-L circuit with
PF
R = 10Ω and L = 20 mH is given by i = 2sin500t PF
A. If V is the voltage across the R-L
combination, then i Total complex power from the source to parallel
(a) lags V by 45o (b) is in-phase with V connected Locus –
(c) leads V by 45o (d) lags V by 90o
S = S1 + S2
DRDO-2008
Ans. (a) : Given i = 2sin 500tA P
comparing standard equation we get S1 = leading
Cosφ
ω = 500
10
Z = R + jωL = ∠ − 36.86 = 12.5∠ − 36.86º KVA
= 10 + j×500×20×10–3 0.8
= 10+10j, it is inductive circuit S2 = 10 KVA lagging (given)
magnitude, 10 2 ,45° = 10∠36.86º
current (i) lags V by 45° because of inductive circuit ∴ S = S1 + S2
= 12.5∠ − 36.86º +10∠36.86º 130. The differential equation for the current i (t) in
= 12.5 ( 0.8 − j0.6 ) + 10 ( 0.8 + j0.6 ) the circuit of the figure is
= (10 + 8 ) − j ( 7.5 − 6.0 ) = (18 − j1.5 ) KVA

126. A series circuit has R = 4 Ω and L = 0.01 H. Its
impedance at 100 Hz will be nearly:
(a) 7.45 ∠ 37.5º Ω (b) 7.45 ∠ 57.5º Ω
d 2i di
(c) 8.25 ∠ 37.5º Ω (d) 8.25 ∠ 57.5º Ω (a) 2 + 2 + i ( t ) = sin t
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 dt 2 dt
d 2i di
Ans. (b) : The impedance at series (b) 2
+ 2 2i ( t ) = cos t
RL circuit Z = R + jωL = 4 + j6.283 dt dt
= 7.448 ∠ 57.52ºΩ d 2i di
(c) 2 2 + 2 + i ( t ) = cos t
127. In a series RLC circuit R = 3 Ω, XL = j 6Ω, dt dt
Xc = –j 2 Ω. If the current is 10 ∠ – 143º A, the d 2i di
voltage applied across the combination will be: (d) + 2 + i ( t ) = sin t
dt 2 dt
(a) 50 ∠ − 90° V (b) 50 ∠ 90° V GATE-2003
(c) 25 ∠ − 90° V (d) 25 ∠ 90° V Ans. (c) : Applying kVL,
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 di(t) 1
Ans. (a) : The impedance in series RLC circuit sin t = i(t) × R + L + ∫ i(t)dt
dt C
Z = 3 + j4 i = 10∠ − 1430 di(t) 1
dt 1 ∫
= 5∠ 53.13º Ω sin t = 2i(t) + 2 + i(t)dt
Voltage across the combination will be
(R, = 2Ω, L = 2H & C = 1F)
= 10∠ – 143º × 5 ∠ 53.13º = 50 ∠ – 90º V
Differentiating with respect to 't'
128. In a series R - L circuit, R = 20 Ω, while
L = 60 mH. The input current lags the supply 2di(t) 2d2i(t)
cos t = + + i(t)
voltage by 60º. The value of applied frequency dt dt 2
will be nearly: 131. A series R-C with R = 3Ω and XC = 4 Ω at 50
(a) 91.9 Hz (b) 87.7 Hz Hz is supplied with a voltage V = 50 + 141.4 sin
(c) 82.7 Hz (d) 78.9 Hz 314t. What is the RMS value of the current
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 flowing through the circuit?
X (a) 5 A (b) 10 A
Ans. (a) : In series RL circuit tan θ = L (c) 20 A (d) 22.36 A
R
R = 20Ω, L = 60mH IES-2009
Ans. (c) : For dc value capacitor behave as a open
ωL
tan 60º = circuit then rms value consider only ac source.
R
Z = 9 + 16 = 25 = 5Ω
60 × 10−3 × ω
3= Vrms 141.4 / 2
20 I rms = = = 20A
ω = 577.35 rad/sec R 5
ω 132. Which one of the following relations for power
f= = 91.93Hz is not correct?
2π
(a) P = VI cos φ
129. The average real power in watts delivered to a (b) P = Re part of [VI*]
load impedance ZL = 4+j3 Ω by an ideal
(c) P = Re part of [V*I]
current source i(t) = 4sin ( ωt+20°)
(a) 10 W (b) 24 W (c) 30 W (d) 32 W (d) P = VI sin φ
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-I IES-2008
Ans. (d) : Given that, Ans. (d) : Option (d) is not correct because P = VISinφ
ZL=4+j3 Z = R + jX is Reactive power.
133. An RLC series circuit has a resistance R of 20Ω
i(t) = 4sin(ωt + 20°)
and a current which lags behind the applied
i(t) = i m sin(ωt + 20°) voltage by 45º. If the voltage across the
Average real power inductor is twice the voltage across the
capacitor, what is the value of inductive
1 1
P = Vmi m = i m2 R reactance?
2 2 (a) 10Ω (b) 20Ω
1
= × 16 × 4 = 32 W (c) 40Ω (d) 60Ω
2 IES-2005
Ans. (c) : Given that 1
Z2 = 1 + Ω
R = 20Ω, VL = 2VC , φ= 45º j50
XL − Xc Z3 = 1Ω
tan φ =
R 1
Z4 = 1 +
X − Xc j50
tan 45º = L
R Z1 ×Z4 = Z2 ×Z3
R = XL − Xc  1   1 
1× 1 +  = 1 +  ×1
 j50   j50 
Bridge balance condition
So that 1 farad capacitor current flow is zero.
135. A series LCR circuit consisting of R = 10 Ω,
XL = 20 Ω and XC = 20Ω is connected across
an a.c. supply of 200 V rms. The rms voltage
R = 20Ω, X = 20 Ω across the capacitor is
Z = R + jX L − jX c (a) 200 ∠ –90º V (b) 200 ∠ +90º V
Z = 20 + j20 (c) 400 ∠ +90º V (d) 400 ∠ –90º V
GATE-1994
XL – XC = 20 ----------- (i) (∵ X = X L − X C ) Ans. (d) : By applying voltage division rule, the voltage
VL = 2VC across capacitor is given by –
XL – 2XC = 0 --------- (ii) Vrms
After solving equation (i) and (ii) VC = × ( − jXC )
R + ( XL − XC )
2 2
X C = 20Ω
so, XL = 2XC 200
= 2×20
= ( –j20 ) = − j400
(10 )2 + ( 20 − 20 )2
X L = 40Ω
VC = 400∠ − 90º
134. The value of current through the 1 Farad 136. Crest factor is defined as:
capacitor of figure is (a) Peak value/Avg. value
(b) RMS value/Peak value
(c) Average value/Peak value
(d) Peak value / RMS value
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (d) : Crest factor is defined as Peak value / RMS
(a) zero (b) one value.
(c) two (d) three V I
Peak factor = Crest factor = m = m
GATE-1987 Vrms I rms
Ans. (a) :Arrange the circuit- 137. The rms value of a rectangular wave of period
T, having a value of +V for a duration, T1 (<T)
and –V for the duration, T–T1 = T2 equals
T −T
(a) V (b) 1 2 V
T
V T1
(c) (d) V
2 T2
V = 2 sin 100t
Compare standard equation GATE-1995
V = Vm sin ωt Ans. (a) :
ω = 100
Z1 = 1Ω
1
Z2 = 1 +
jωC
1
= 1+
j × 100 × 0.5

1 T 140. When the angular frequency ω in the figure is
f ( t ) dt
T ∫0
2
R.M.S. value of f(t) = varied from 0 to ∞, the locus of the current
phasor I2 is given by
=
1
T  (∫
0
T1
) (∫
V 2dt +
T2 + T1
T1
V 2 dt 
)
1 2
=  V T1 + V 2 ( T1 + T2 ) − V 2 T1 
T
1
= × V 2 × ( T1 + T2 ) = V
T1 + T2
138. In Fig., A1, A2 and A3 are ideal ammeters. If A2,

and A3 read 3 A and 4 A respectively, then A1
should read (a)
(a) 1 A (b) 5 A
(c) 7 A (d) None of the above (b)
GATE-1996,1993
Ans. (b) : Reading of source current (A1)
I1 (c)
3
( I 2 ) 2 + ( I3 )
2
I1 = = ( 3)2 + ( 4 )2
I1 = 5A
139. In the circuit of figure, assume that the diodes
are ideal and the meter is an average indicating
ammeter. The ammeter will read
(d)
(a) 0.4 2 mA (b) 0.04 mA GATE-2001

0.8 0.4 Ans. (a) :
(c) mA mA (d)
π π
GATE-1996
Ans. (d) : Ammeter will read in positive half cycle. In
negative half cycle diode of D1 is open circuit and
ammeter will read 0A.
V
I(average value of ammeter) = m
πR E m cos ωt
Current I2 =
4 0.4 1
= = mA R2 +
π× 103 × 10 π jωC

1
R2 −
E m cos ωt jωC
= ×
1 1
R2 + R2 −
jωC jωC
 1  (a) 5 sin (2t + 53.1º)
(b) 5 sin (2t – 53.1º)
 R2 −  (c) 25 sin (2t + 53.1º)
(d) 25 sin (2t – 53.1º)
jωC 
= E m cos ωt  GATE-2004
 2  1 2 
 R2 +    Ans. (a) : Total admittance of the circuit at
  ωC   ω = 2rad / sec.
  Yτ = Y1 + Y2 + Y3
 
R2 1/ jωC  1 1 1 1
= E m cos ωt  − = + + jωC = + + j2C
 2  1 2  1  
2
R jωL R j2L
 2 
R +  R 2
+  ωC  
 ωC 
2
    2
We can say that = 3 + + j6 = 3 − 2 j + j6
j
E = 3 + j4 = 5∠53.1º
If ω = ∞ then I 2 ( ω) = m
R2 ∴ The resulting current —
In this condition I2 is leading with phase voltage. i ( t ) = Yτ V ( t )
If ω = 0, then I 2 ( 0 ) = 0 i(t) = 5sin ( 2t + 53.1º )
141. An input voltage v(t) = 10 2 cos (t + 10º) + 143. For the circuit shown in the figure, the
10 5 cos (2t + 10º) V is applied to a series instantaneous current i1(t) is
combination of resistance R = 1 Ω and an
inductance L = 1 H. The resulting steady-state
current i(t) in ampere is
(a) 10 cos (t + 55º) + 10 cos (2t + 10º+tan–12)
3
(b) 10 cos (t + 55º) + 10 cos(2t + 55º) 10 3 10 3
2 (a) ∠90º A (b) ∠ − 90º A
(c) 10 cos (t – 35º) + 10 cos (2t + 10º–tan–12) 2 2
(c) 5∠60ºA (d) 5∠–60º A
3
(d) 10 cos (t – 35) + 10 cos (2t – 35º) GATE-2005
2
Ans. (a) :
GATE-2003
Ans. (c) : Given
v ( t ) = 10 2 cos ( t + 10º ) + 10 5 cos ( 2t + 10º )
and Z = R + jωL
= 1 + jωL
Apply KCL at node A
∵ i ( t ) = I1 + I2
5∠0 + i1 = 10∠60
10 2 Cos ( t + 10º ) i1 = 10∠60 − 5∠0
Where I1 =
1 + j1 ω=1 rad / sec. = 10cos 60 + j10sin 60 − 5cos0 − j5sin 0
10 5 Cos ( 2t+10º ) 1 10 × 3
I2 = = 10 × + j − 5 ×1 − 0
1 + j2 ω= 2rad / sec.
2 2
10 3 10 3
10 2 cos ( t+10º ) 10 5 cos ( 2t+10º ) i1 = + j = ∠900
∴ i(t) = + 2 2
2 ∠45º 5 ∠tan -1 ( 2 )
144. In the AC network shown in the figure, the
= 10cos ( t + 10º −45º ) + 10 cos ( 2t + 10º − tan −1 ) ( 2 )  phasor voltage VAB (in Volts) in
= 10cos ( t − 35º ) + 10cos ( 2t + 10º − tan −1 ( 2 ) )
142. The circuit shown in the figure, with
1 1
R = Ω,L = H,C = 3F has input voltage
3 4
V(t) = sin 2t. The resulting current i(t) is
(a) 0 (b) 5∠30º Ans. (b) : Given that –
(c) 12.5 ∠30º (d) 17∠30º Vi ( t ) = 2Cos ( 200t ) + 4sin ( 500t )
GATE-2007 As there are two different voltage source with different
Ans. (d) : Let potential at node A is VA. Applying node frequencies, applying superposition theorem.
analysis at node A. Case-I
VA V
+ A = 5∠30º When ω = 200 rad/sec.
5 − j3 5 + j3
VA ( 5 + j3 + 5 − j3)
= 5∠30º
25 + 9
10VA
= 5∠30º
34
VA = 17∠30º Volts
145. The current I in the circuit shown is X L = jωL = j200 × 0.25 = 50 jΩ
1 1
XC = = = −50 jΩ
jωC 200 × 100 × 10−6
XL = XC
From series resonance this particular branch is short
(a) –j1 A (b) j1 A circuited.
(c) 0A (d) 20 A Then,
GATE-2010
Ans. (a) : We have –
X L = jωL = j × 103 × 20 × 10−3 Ω
= j20 Ω
Case - II
XC =
1
=
1
Ω = − j20 Ω For ω = 500 rad / sec
jωC j(103 × 50 × 10−6 ) X L = j0.4 × 500 = 200jΩ
Now node analysis at V will gives – 1 1000
V − 20∠0º V V XC = × 106 = = −200 jΩ
+ + =0 j500 × 10 5
j20 1 − j20 XL = XC
V V V
i.e. − + = − j1 From parallel resonance this particular branch is open
j20 j20 1 circuited
or V = − j1
V − j1
∴ I= =
R 1
I = − j1 A V0 ( t ) = Vi ( t )
146. In the RLC circuit shown in the figure, the Thus output V (t) = 2cos ( 200t ) + 4sin ( 500t )
0
input voltage is given by
Vi(t) = 2 cos (200 t) + 4 sin (500 t) 147. For the circuit given in the figure, the voltage
The output voltage V0(t) is V C (in volts) across the capacitor is
(a) 1.25 2 sin ( 5t − 0.25π )

(a) cos (200t) + 2sin (500t) (b) 1.25 2 sin ( 5t − 0.125π )
(b) 2cos (200t) + 4sin (500t) (c) 2.5 2 sin ( 5t − 0.25π )
(c) sin (200t) + 2 cos (500t)
(d) 2sin (200t) + 4cos (500t) (d) 2.5 2 sin ( 5t − 0.125π )
GATE-2016 GATE-2018
−j  3π 
Ans. (c) : X C = Ans. (a) : Given, i = 10sin  300t −  , V = 30sin300t
ωC  8 
−j ∵ i = imsin(ωt – θ)
=
5 × 10−6 im = 10
= − j200 kΩ i 10
irms = m = A
By using voltage division rule – 2 2
V = Vmsinωt
− j200
VC = ( 5sin ( 5t ) ) Vm = 30V
200 − j200 V 30
Vrms = m = V
−j 5 1
= ( 5sin ( 5t ) ) = − tan −1   sin ( 5t ) 2 2
1− j (1) 2
+ (1)
2 1 Vrms 30 / 2
Impedance (Z) = =
π i rms 10 / 2
5 
= −45° sin ( 5t ) = 2.5 2 sin  5t −  Z= 3Ω
2  4
150. If V = Vm sin ωt is the voltage across the
VC = 2.5 2 sin ( 5t − 0.25π ) V capacitor, then the current is :
148. The current I in the given network is  π I
(a) I m sin  ωt +  (b) m
 2 2
 π
(c) Im sin ωt (d) I m sin  ωt − 
 2
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
Ans. (a) : If V = Vm sinωt the voltage across the
capacitor, then the current in purely capacitive circuit
(a) 2.38 ∠–23.63º A (b) 0 A current I lead voltage V by 90°.
(c) 2.38 ∠ –96.37º A (d) 2.38 ∠ 143.63º A
GATE-2020
Ans. (d) :
So the equation of current

I = Im sin(ωt + π/2)A
151. Consider an inductor of 2 H with
ω = 100 rad/sec and with voltage
V = 10 cos ( ωt + 50°)V. The time domain
current is :
(a) (3 cost) A
I = − ( Ix + I y ) (b) 15 sin (50t + 40°) A
(c) 0.5 sin (100t – 45°) A
120∠ − 90° (d) 0.05 cos (100t – 40°) A
Ix =
80 − j35 KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
120∠ − 30° Ans. (d) : Given, V = 10 cos(ωt + 50º)V,
Iy = ω = 100, L = 2H
80 − j35
For inductive reactance-
120∠ − 90° 120∠ − 30° XL = ωL = 100 × 2 = 200 Ω
I=− − = 2.38∠143.7° A
80 − j35 80 − j35 The time domain current
 3π  10cos ( ωt + 500 ) 10cos ( ωt + 500 )

149. A current i = 10 sin  300t −  is produced I = =
 8  j200 200∠900
when a voltage V = 30 sin 300 t is applied to a = 0.05cos (100t − 400 ) ∵ ( ω = 100 )
circuit. The estimated value of impedance is :
152. In a series RL circuit, the current
(a) 3 Ω (b) 1 Ω i(t) = 5cos (628t+2π/3) and the voltage
(c) 30 Ω (d) 10 Ω v(t)=20 cos (628t+5π/6), find power factor and
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017 average power drawn by the circuit?
(a) 0.8666 (lagging), 43.3W θ1 = cos −1 ( 0.6 ) = 53.34
(b) 0.866 (leading), 43.3W
(c) 0.866 (leading), 100W θ2 = cos −1 ( 0.8 ) = 36.86
(d) 0.866(lagging), 50W θ1 + θ2 = 900
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (a) : Given Impedance angle θ1 + θ2 − 450 = 90 − 450 = 450
i ( t ) = 5cos ( 628t + 2π / 3) Zeq =
Z
∠450
1.4 2
V ( t ) = 20cos ( 628t + 5π / 6 )
Here current i(t) lag voltage V(t) by π / 6 .
Z  1 1 
=  +j
Hence power factor = cos φ 1.4 2  2 2 
π Z Z Z R
cos φ = cos ( lag ) Zeq= [1 + j] = + j = cos φ =
6 2.8 2.8 2.8 Z
= 0.866 ( lag ) Z
1
Pavg=Vrms. Irms cos φ cos φ = 2.8 =
Z. 2 2
5 20 π
= . .cos = 50 × 0.866 2.8
2 2 6
Cos φ = 0.707
=43.3W
154. In purely resistive, inductive (RL) and purely
153. Two circuits have the same numberical value of capacitive circuits, voltage always ____,
impedance. The power factor for them is 0.6
_____and ______current respectively.
and 0.8 respectively. What would be the power
factor if they are connected in i) parallel and ii) (a) In phase, leads, lags
series? (b) In phase, leads by 90º, lags by 90º
(a) 0.707, 0.5 (b) 0.707, 0.707 (c) In phase, leads, lags by 90º
(c) 0.5, 0.707 (d) 0.5, 0.5 (d) In phase, leads by 90º, lags
UPRVUNL AE-2016 UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (b) : Let impedance of circuit 1 : Z1 = Z∠θ1 Ans. (c) : Purely resistive
Impedance of circuit 2 : Z2 = Z∠θ2
cos θ1 = 0.6, sin θ1 = 0.8
cos θ2 = 0.8, sin θ2 = 0.6
Current and voltage are in phase.
Case I
Purely inductive
When both are connected in series
Zeq = Z1 + Z2
Zeq = Z∠θ1 + Z∠θ2
=  Z ( cos θ1 + jsin θ1 )  + Z ( cos θ2 + jsin θ2 )
Voltage lead current by 90º
Zeq = Z ( cos θ1 + cos θ2 ) + j( sin θ1 + sin θ2 )  Purely capacitive
Zeq = Z[1.4 + j1.4] Ω
1.4Z
cos θ = = 0.70 7
(1.4Z ) + (1.4Z )
2 2
Case-2 For R-L Load

When they are connected in parallel-
ZZ Z∠θ1Z∠θ2
Zeq = 1 2 =
Z1 + Z2 Z∠θ1 + Z∠θ2
Z ( ∠θ1 + ∠θ2 )
Zeq =
( Z∠θ1 + Z∠θ2 ) 155. In a series RL circuit, R = 20 ohms, L = 0.1 H
Z∠ ( θ1 + θ2 ) and frequency is 50 Hz. The impedance of the
Zeq = circuit would be doubled by making
1.4 2∠450 (a) R = 40 ohms (b) R = 52.6 ohms
Z (c) R = 67.5 ohms (d) R = 72.5 ohms
Zeq = ∠θ1 + θ2 − 450
1.4 2 TANGEDCO- 2015
Ans. (c) : Given, R = 20, L = 0.1, f = 50Hz Ans. (d): In Parallel resonance circuit bandwidth is-
1
Bandwidth =
CR
Where C = Capacitor, R = Resistance
In parallel resonance condition circuit impedance is
Z1 = R + jωL = 20 + j2π× 50 × 0.1 maximum and the value of current is minimum.
= 20 + j10π From above expression it is clear that if value of
resistance R increases then value of bandwidth
| Z1 |= 37.24 Ω decreased. And increment of inductance will not affect
For making impedance double the bandwidth because in parallel resonance circuit
bandwidth does not depends on inductance.
Z2 = 2Z = R + jX L
158. A sinusoidal ac has a frequency of 50 Hz and a
| Z2 |= R 2 + X L2 peak value of 20 A. Starting from zero, how
long will it take the current to reach 10 A for
| 2Z1 |= R 2 + (10π )
2
the first time?
(a) 1/200 s (b) 1/600 s
2 | Z1 |= R 2 + (10π )
2
(c) 1/ 400 s (d) 1/250 s
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
( 2 × 37.24 ) = R 2 + (10π )
2 2
Ans. (b) : Given- f = 50 Hz
R = 67.5 ohm Peak value = 20 A
I rms = Im Sinωt
156. When the frequency of the applied voltage
decrease in a parallel RL circuit: 10 = 20 Sin ωt
(a) the phase angle becomes less negative 1
(b) Zeq increases ∴ Sin ωt = Sin30º , sin 30º =
2
(c) Zeq decreases ∴ ωt = 30º
(d) both (a) and (b)
30º
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018 ∴ t=
Ans. (c) : In parallel RL circuit 2 πf
180º π
1 radian = 1º = = radian
π 180
30 × π
∴ t=
2π× 180 × 50
1
∴ t= sec
V = VR = VL 600
VL = I L X L 159. Two capacitors of 15µF and 30µF are

connected in series. The circuit current when
∵X L = 2πfL this combination is connected across 50 Hz,
200V supply mains is ________.
↓ X L = 2πf↓ L
(a) π/5 A (b) 1 A
RX ↓L (c) π/2 A (d) 2 A
Z↓ = KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
R 2 + X L2
Ans. (a) : Given-
If we reduce frequency then Z will decreases.
157. For a parallel RLC circuit which one of the
following statement is not correct?
(a) Bandwidth of the circuit decreases if R is
increased
(b) Bandwidth of the circuit remains same if L is C1 = 15 µF, C2 = 30µF
increased In series –
(c) At resonance input impedance is a real C × C 2 15 × 30
quantity Ceq = 1 =
C1 + C2 15 + 30
(d) At resonance the magnitude of input
impedance attains its minimum value 450
Ceq = = 10µF
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014 45
1 1 103 Ans. (c) : In a parallel RLC circuit if R, L, and C are
XC = = −6
= doubled, then bandwidth of the circuit will be half.
2πfc 2 × π× 50 × 10 ×10 π
Bandwidth of parallel R-L-C circuit
V 200π 200π π
Current, I = rms = = = A 1 L 1
XC 103 1000 5 BW ∝ ∝
160. A sinusoidal voltage v(t) = 100 sin 1000 t is R C Q
applied a pure capacitor of 100 µF. The power Now- R 1 = 2R L1 = 2L C1 = 2C
is given by than
(a) 500 sin 2000t watt (b) 100 sin 2000t watt
(c) 500 sin 1000t watt (d) 100 sin 1000t watt 1 L1 1 2L
BW1 ∝ 1 ∝
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016 R C1 2R 2C
Ans. (a) : Given- 1 1 L 1
V(t) = 100 sin 1000 t V ( t ) = Vm sin ωt BW1 = = BW
2 R C 2
C = 100 µF 1
BW1 = BW
∴ Vm = 100, ωt = 1000t 2
ω = 1000 163. The phase angle between V1 = –10 cos (ωt +
I m = Vm ( ωC ) = 100 × 100 × 10−6 × 1000 50º) and ν 2 = 12 sin ( ωt – 10º) will be
Im = 10Amp (a) 10 degrees (b) 30 degrees
(c) 90 degrees (d) 190 degrees
Instantaneous current-
TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
Ans. (b) : Given voltage are.
I = I m sin ( ωt + π / 2 ) V1 = –10 cos(ωt +50º)
Only capacitivecircuit V2 = 12 sin (ωt –10º)
I = 10sin (1000t + π / 2 )  We can write-
so current lead by ( π / 2 ) V2 = 12 sin (ωt + 80 –90)
I =10cos1000t V2 = –12 cos (ωt +80)
Instantaneous Power - (P) = I×V The phase difference between V1 and V2 is 30º.
P = 10cos1000t×100sin1000t 164. A fixed capacitor of reactance –j0.02 Ω is
= 500 (2cos1000t×sin1000t) connected in parallel across a series
2sin θ.cos θ = sin 2θ combination of a fixed inductor of reactance
j0.01 Ω R. As R is varied from zero to infinity,
P = 500 sin2000t the locus diagram of the admittance of this R-
161. A 100 µH coil has a Q value of 200 at 2 M Hz. L-C circuit will be
The effective resistance of the coil is ______. (a) A semi circle of diameter j100 and center at zero
(a) 2π Ω (b) 4π Ω (b) A semi circle of diameter j 50 and center at zero
(c) A straight line inclined at an angle
(c) 6π Ω (d) π Ω
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
(d) A straight the parallel to the x-axis
Ans. (a) : Given-
L = 100 µH Ans. (a) :
Q = 200 at 2MHz
We know,
ωL
Q=
R
ωL 2π× 2 × 106 ×100 × 10−6
R= = 1
Q 200 Yeq = + jωC
R + jωL
R = 2π Ω
1  1 
162. In a parallel R-L-C circuit, if R, L and C are = + j 
R + j0.01  0.02 
doubled, then bandwidth of the circuit will
1
(a) remain same = + j50
(b) be doubled R + j0.01
(c) be halved 100 100 [100R − j]
(d) be 8 times the original bandwidth Yeq = + j50 = + j50
100R + j (100R ) − ( j)
2 2
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016

(i) for R = 0 1
C= F
Yeq = 100 + j50 = − j50 = 50∠ − 900 5
j 1
= 0.5
1 RC
(ii) For R = Ω R = 10Ω
100
Yeq = 50 1
= 100
(iii) For R = ∞ LC
Yeq = j50 = 50∠900 1
L= H
20
167. In the circuit shown in figure, the voltage
across the terminals A-B (in Volt) is
Diameter = (j50×2) = 100j

165. The time rate of change of a current passed
through a 1 mH inductor is 2 mA/s. This means (a) 5∠30o (b) 12.5∠30o
that the voltage across the inductor is (c) 17∠30o (d) 25∠30o
(a) 0.5 × 10 −6 V (b) 0.5 V BSNL(JTO)-2009
(c) 2 × 10 −6 V (d) 2 V ( 5 − j3)( 5 + j3)
BSNL (JTO)-2001 Ans. (c) : Zeq = ( 5 − j3Ω ) || ( 5 + j3Ω ) =
Ans. (c) : Voltage across inductor
( 5 − j3 + 5 + j3)
di 25 + 9 34
VL = L = Ω
dt 10 10
= 1 × 10−3 × 2 × 10−3 = 2 × 10 −6 V Voltage across AB
166. The impedance of parallel RLC network is VAB = IZeq
5s 34
Z(s) = 2 . The values of R, L and C = 5∠300 × = 17∠300 V
s + 0.5s + 100 10
are respectively: 168. A higher value of quality factor results in
1 1 1 1 (a) Smaller Bandwidth
(a) 2Ω, H, F (b) 10Ω, H, F
20 5 20 2 (b) Larger Bandwidth
1 1 1 1 (c) Medium Bandwidth
(c) 1Ω, H, F (d) 10Ω, H, F
20 5 20 5 (d) No effect on Bandwidth
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Parallel RLC network- ω ω0
Equivalent admittance of network Ans. (a) : Q-factor (Q0) = 0 =
BW Bandwidth
1 1
y1 ( s ) = + + Cs Hence, A higher value of quality factor results in
R Ls
smaller bandwidth. Q0 ↑ BW ↓
Ls + R + RLCs 2
y1 ( s ) = 169. In a series RC circuit, the phase difference
RLs
between the current and source voltage
RLs RLs
Z1 ( s ) = = (a) depends on the values of R and C
RLCs 2 + Ls + R  1 1  (b) equals 0º
RLC s 2 + s+
 CR LC  (c) equals 90º
1 (d) depends on the amplitude of the input voltage
s
Z1 ( s ) = C
1 1 Ans. (a) : We know that phase angle
s +
2
s+
RC LC X
5s φ = tan–1 C
Compare with Z(s) and Z1(s) Z(s) = 2 R
s + 0.5s + 100 1
φ = tan −1
1 ωCR
=5
C Hence phase angle depends on the value of ω, R and C.
170. For a certain load, the true power is 100W and Capacitive reactance-
the reactive power is 100 VAR. What is the 1 1
apparent power? XC = = = 159.23Ω
2πfC 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 20 × 10−6
(a) 120 VA (b) 141.4 VA Now,
(c) 100 VA (d) 200 VA Current in RL branch-
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
230
Ans. (b) : Given that - I1 = = 1.27A
True power (P) = 100W 181
Reactive power (Q) = 100 VAR Total power taken by source will be,
Apparent power (S) = ? P = I12 R
2 2 2
S =P +Q = (1.27)2 × 90 = 145.16 W
2 2
= (100) + (100) ≈ 145W
= 2 ×100 173. A 2-terminal network consists of one of the
Apparent power, S = 141.4 VA RLC elements. The element is connected to an
a.c. supply. The current through the element is
171. The real Power of a network is given as 50W IA. When an inductor is inserted in series
and it’s power factor is 0.8 then the value of between the source and the element, the
apparent power is current through the element becomes 2IA.
(a) 40 VA (b) 62.5 VA What is the element?
(c) 100.5 VA (d) 20.5 VA (a) A resistor
SAIL- 2014 (b) An inductor
Ans. (b) : Real power or true power = 50 W (c) A capacitor
cos φ = 0.8 (d) Cannot be a single element
True power MPPSC Forest Service Exam-2014
∵ cos φ = IES-2007, 1995, 1994
Apparent power
Ans. (c) : Case-I
True power
⇒ Apparent power = When current flow I
cos φ then
50 V = IZ -------------------------- (i)
= = 62.50 VA
0.8
172. An inductor of 0.5 H inductance and 90 Ω
resistance is connected in parallel with a 20 µF
capacitor. A voltage of 230 V at 50 Hz is
maintained across the circuit. The total power Case-II
taken from the source is nearly When current flow 2I
(a) 588 W (b) 145 W then
(c) 135 W (d) 125 W V = 2I [ Z + jωL ] -------------------(ii)
IES-2019
Ans. (b) : According to question,
from eqn (i) and (ii)

IZ = 2I [ Z + jωL ]
Z = 2Z + 2 jωL
Z = −2 jωL
Here impedance, –ve so element is capacitor.
Inductive reactance of the coil-
174. In the circuit shown below, if I1 = I 2 = 10 A
X L = 2πfL = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 0.5
= 157Ω
R = 90Ω
Hence, Total impedance in RL Branch-
ZL = 157 2 + 902
= 180.96 ≃ 181Ω

(a) I1 will lag by tan–1 8/6, I2 will lead by (a) 1 A and resistor (b) 2 A and capacitor
tan–1 8/6 (c) 3A and resistor (d) 4A and capacitor
(b) I1 will lag by tan–1 6/8, I2 will lead by IES-2001
tan–1 6/8 Ans. (d) : When the switch is at position A, the current
(c) I1 will lead by tan–1 8/6, I2 will lag by flow through in resistor (R) is 1A (down ward).
–1
tan 8/6
–1 at t = 0
(d) I1 will lag by tan 6/8, I2 will lag by
–1
tan 6/8 (
i(t) = I sin(ωt + 30º ) = I sin 0 + 30º )
IES-2003
I
Ans. (a) : = I sin30º =
2
Which the switched is at position B, the power
dissipated in Resistor R remain same but current is
now-1A Upward
total current = 1 − ( −1) = 2A
So,
I
from the above circuit = 2 ⇒ I =4 Amp
Given, | I1 |=| I 2 |= 10 2
From the circuit 176. An inductor tunes at 200 kHz with 624 pF
capacitor and at 600 kHz with 60.4 pF
| I2 |= 82 + | IR |2 capacitor. The self-capacitance of the inductor
would be
10 = 64+ | I R |2
(a) 8.05 pF (b) 10.05 pF
I 2R = 100 − 64 = 36 (c) 16.10 pF (d) 20.10 pF
IR = 6A IES-2000
Now from circuit Ans. (b) : Given that
I 2 = IR + j8 = 6 + j8 f1 = 200kHz = 200 × 103 Hz, C1 = 624pF = 624 ×10−12 F
8 f 2 = 600kHz = 600 × 103 Hz, C2 = 60.4PF = 60.4 × 10−12 F
θ2 = tan −1   leading
6 as we know that
Also I1 = I2 + I L = 6 + j8 + I L 1
f= where , Cs = Self capacitance
102 = 62 + ( 8 + I L )
2
2 π L ( C + Cs )
(8 + IL )
2
= 82 so, case-I
8 + I L = ±8 1
f1 =
I L = −16,0 2π L ( C1 + Cs )
I1 = 6–j8
1
 −8  200 ×103 = --------- (i)
θ1 = tan −1   lagging
 6 
(
2π L 624 × 10−12 + Cs )
Because of inductance. case-II
175. For the circuit shown in the given figure, when 1
the switch is at position A, the current i(t) = I f 2 = 2π L C + C
sin ( ωt + 30º) A. When switch is moved to
( 2 s)
position B at time t = 0, the power dissipated at 3 1
the switching instant in the resistor R remains 600 × 10 = ----------(ii)
unchanged (
2π L 60.4 × 10−12 + Cs )
Equation (i) divided by (ii)
200 × 103 ( 60.4 ×10−12 + Cs )

=
600 ×103 ( 624 ×10−12 + Cs )
1 ( 60.4 ×10−12 + Cs )
=
The value of I and the element X would
respectively, be
3 ( 624 ×10−12 + Cs )
Squaring on both side-
1 ( 60.4 × 10 + Cs )
−12
=
9 624 × 10−12 + Cs
From the figure-
9 × 60.4 × 10−12 + 9Cs = 624 × 10−12 + Cs BD
−12 −12 tan θ 2 =
8Cs = 624 ×10 − 543.6 ×10 AD
8Cs = 80.4 × 10 −12 V
tan θ 2 = BD
VAC
80.4
Cs = × 10−12 2
8
From circuit diagram-
Cs = 10.05 pF BD = VBD
177. In the circuit shown in the figure, if Rc is AD = VAC
adjusted such that VAB = VBC , then 2
θ  2V 
= tan −1  BD 
2  VAC 
 2V 
θ = 2 tan −1  BD 
 VAC 
178. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the current
in resistance 'R' is Nil, then
 2 VBD 
(a) θ = 2 tan −1   (b) VBC = VDC
 V
 
V 
(c) VAB = VAD (d) θ = tan −1  BD 
 V 
 
IES-1999
Ans. (a) : ωL1 1
(a) =
R1 ωC4 R 4
ωL1
(b) = ωC4 R 4
R1
ωL1
(c) tan −1 + tan −1 ωC4 R 4 = 0
R1
From the circuit ωL1 1
(d) tan −1 + tan −1 =0
V = VAB + VBC R1 ωC4 R 4
= IR c + IZ∠θ IES-1999
According to the circuit we can draw phasor Ans. (a) :
In the given question the current flow through resistor R

In branch ADC consist only Resistance
is nil so, above bridge will be balance
V so, at balance condition
so VAD = VDC =
2 Z1Z 3 = Z2 Z4
From the phasor drawn above According to the circuit-
∴ VAD = VDC 1
Z1 = R + jωL1 Z3 = R 4 + o
so, D is the midpoint of AC. jωC4
Z2 = R 3 Z4 = R 2 181. In a circuit, there is series connection of an
ideal resistor and an ideal capacitor. The
 1
( R1 + jωL1 )  R 4 + jωC
 = R 2R 3 conduction current (in Amperes) through the
  4 resistor is 2sin ( t + π/2 ) . The displacement
R1 jωL1 current (in Amperes) through the capacitor is
R1R 4 + + jωL1R 4 + = R 2R 3
jωC4 jωL 4 _____.
jR1 L (a) 2sin(t) (b) 2sin(t + π)
R1R 4 − + jωL1R + 1 = R 2 R 3 (c) 2sin(t + π/2) (d) 0
ωC 4 C4
GATE-2022
 R  L
R1R 4 + j  − 1 + ωL1R 4  + 1 = R 2 R 3 Ans. (c) :
 ωC 4  C4
For resistive circuit imaginary part will be zero,
− R1
so, + ωL1R 4 = 0
ωC 4 In series connection current will be same hence Ic = Id
R ∵ conduction current Ic = 2sin (t + π/2)
ωL1R 4 = 1
ωC4 ∴ Displacement current Id = 2sin (t + π/2)
ωL1 1 182. The impedance of an inductive reactance varies
= (a) Linearly with frequency
R1 ωC4 R 4
(b) Parabolically with frequency
179. A coil has R = 10Ω and L = 15H. The voltage at (c) Exponentially with frequency
the instant when the current is 10A and (d) Linearly with frequency in an increasing
increasing at the rate of 5A/s will be manner
(a) 125 V (b) 150 V ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
(c) 175 V (d) 200 V Ans. (a) : We know that,
IES-2019
XL = jωL,
Ans. (c) : Given that, R = 10Ω , L = 15H Where XL is impedance of inductive reactance
di XL ∝ f
i (t) = 10A, = 5A / s
dt So, the impedance of an inductive reactance varies
linearly with frequency.
183. A capacitor passes a current of 12.6 mA when
supplied with 20 V ac with a frequency of 1
kHz. The capacitance of the capacitor is
(a) 0.1 µF (b) 0.1 pF
at that instant, apply KVL in loop - (c) 1 µF (d) 1F
di(t)
E = Ri(t) + L Ans. (a) : According to question:-
dt
the circuit diagram:-
= 10 ×10 + 15 ×5
E = 175V
180. The impedance of a series RLC circuit is
(a) R 2 + X L2 + X C2 (b) R 2 + X L2 − X C2
 1 
VC = IXC = I  
(c) R 2 + (X L + X C ) 2 (d) R 2 + (X L − X C ) 2  jωC 
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009  j 
Ans. (d) : The impedance of a series circuit is- VC = I  − 
 ωC 
Z = R 2 + ( XL − XC )
2
I
|VC| =
Where , R= Resistance, XL = Inductive reactance ωC
XC = Capacitive reactance
12.6 ×10−3
If [ X L > X C ] then circuit behave inductive circuit 20 =
2π×1× 103 × C
If [ X C > X L ] then circuit behave capacitive circuit C = 0.1 µF
184. When a sinusoidal voltage of maximum 1V is 188. The current i in figure shown below is :
applied to a pure capacitance, current of
maximum 1A flows through the circuit. The
average power in the circuit is
(a) 0 W (b) 0.707 W
(c) 0.5 W (d) 1.0 W
Ans. (a) : P = (Vmsinωt) (Imsin(ωt+π/2)) (a) 2 sin(t + 45º ) A (b) 2 sin(t − 45º ) A
for capacitive circuit +ve half cycle = –ve half cycle
(c) 2sin(t + 45º ) A (d) 2sin(t − 45º ) A
P = VmImsinωt.cosωt
DRDO-2009
V I
P = m m sin 2ωt Ans. (a) :
2 2 1Ω
So, average power = 0
185. The reactance of a 1 Henry inductor at 50Hz
will be
(c) ∞ ohms (d) 394 ohms Apply KCL at node A
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 V − 2sin t V V V − 2sin t
+ + + =0
Ans. (a) : Given, L = 1 H 1 1 J − J1
f = 50 Hz V − 2sin t V V − 2sin t  V
+i+ + = 0 ∵ i = 
∵ XL = 2πfL 1 J −J1  1
XL = 2×π×50×1 i – 2sin t + i – Ji + J (i – 2sin t) = 0
XL =314 Ω 2i = 2sin t – Ji + Ji + J2 sin t
2i = 2 sin t + J2 sin t
186. A diode with VF = 0.7V is connected as a half 2i = 2 sin t (1+ J )
wave rectifier. The load resistance is 500Ω and i = sin (1 + J)
the rms AC input is 22 V. Find the peak output
i = 2 sin(t + 45°)A
voltage.
(a) 32.2 V (b) 34.1 V 189. An AC source of RMS voltage 20 V with
(c) 30.4 Vs (d) 22.0 V internal impedance Zs = (1 + 2j) Ω feeds a load
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 of impedance ZL = (7 + 4j) Ω in the figure
Ans. (c) : Given, below. The reactive power consumed by the
load is
VF = 0.7V, R L = 500 Ω , Vrms = 22V
Vm = Vrms 2 = 22 × 2 = 31.108 V
Vout = Vin – VF
Vout = 31.108 − 0.70
Vout = 30.408V
(a) 8 VAR (b) 16 VAR
187. For a system having high Bandwidth (c) 28 VAR (d) 32 VAR
(a) Large time constant GATE-2009
(b) Small time constant Ans. (b) : Total current on the circuit of steady state –
(c) No relaxation V 20∠0º
(d) Not related to time constant I= =
Z 8 + j6
BEL-2015
R 20∠0º ( 8 − j6 ) 20 ( 8 − j6 )
Ans. (b) : Band width (B.W.) = ω2 – ω1 = ∆ω = = =
L ( 8 + j6 )( 8 − j6 ) 64 + 36
L = 1.6 − j1 ⋅ 2.
Time constant (τ) =
R ∴ I = 2A.
1 1 ∴ Reactive power consumed by the load is –
B.W. ↑= =
L τ↓
Q = I 2 XL
R
for a system having high Bandwidth small time = ( 2 )2 × 4
constant. Q =16 VAR.

4. For parallel RLC circuit, which one of the
(ix) Resonance following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The bandwidth of the circuit decreases if R is
1. Which of the following is true for series increased
resonant circuit? (b) The bandwidth of the circuit remains same if
ω 1 L is increased
(a) Q = r ⋅ R and ωr = (c) At resonance, input impedance is a real
L 2π LC
quantity
ωr 1
(b) Q = ⋅ L and ωr = (d) At resonance, the magnitude of input
R LC impedance attains its minimum value
ωr 2π RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021
(c) Q = ⋅ L and ωr =
R LC Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper- I
ω 1 Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. - 20.08.0217
(d) Q = r ⋅ R and ωr = NIELIT Scientists- 2017
L LC
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 GATE 2010
Ans. (b) : Series resonant circuit Ans. (d) : For parallel RLC circuit –
1 1 1
ωr = Y= + jωC +
LC R jωL
ωL at resonance I m[Y] =0
Quality factor (Q) = r So at resonance, Y is minimum and Z will be
R
maximum.
2. Find voltage V in the given circuit.
5. At series or parallel resonance, the circuit
power factor is…………
(a) 0 (b) 5
(c) 1 (d) 8
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
Ans. (c) : At resonance the circuit behaves like a
(a) 3V (b) 9V
resistive circuit. Voltage and current both are in same
(c) 5V (d) 7V phase. Hence power factor will be unity.
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
6. The current leads supply voltage if a series
Ans. (c) : Suppose total voltage across R & L is V1
resonant circuit exhibits its operation____ the
So, V1 = VR + VL
2 2 2
resonant frequency.
5 = 3 + VL
2 2 2
(a) above (b) below
VL = 4V (c) equal to (d) None of these
Now,
Ans. (b) : The current leads supply voltage if a series
V = 32 + ( 8 − 4 )
2
resonant circuit exhibits its operation below the
V = 5 Volt resonant frequency at resonance voltage and current are
in same phase.
3. What is the value of I in the given network?
7. For the given circuit, calculate the value of XC
at resonant condition.
(a) 2A (b) 8A
(c) 5A (d) 7A
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Ans. (c) : For resonance condition (a) 50 (b) 40
VL = VC = 200 V (c) 25 (d) 20
That’s why circuit behave resistive circuit LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
100 Ans. (b) : At resonance condition XL = XC
I= = 5A
20 So, X C = 40Ω
Networking Theory 357 YCT

8. In a series RLC circuit, calculate the resonant At resonance Y( jω) → is real
frequency if Img . part = 0
R = 10 ohm
−2ω
L = 10 mH ⇒ 0.1ω + =0
C = 1 µF 4 + 4ω2
104 105  0.1(4 + 4ω2 ) − 2 
(a) (b) ⇒ ω =0
2π 2π  4 + 4ω2 
103 102 ⇒ 0.4 + 0.4ω2 = 2
(c) (d)
2π 2π ω2 = 4 ⇒ ω = 2rad / sec
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021 11. A series RLC circuit has a resonance frequency
1 of 1 kHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each
Ans. (a) : f = of R, L and C is doubled from its original
2π LC value, the new Q of the circuit
1 (a) 200 (b) 100
f=
2π 10 ×10−3 × 1×10−6 (c) 25 (d) 50
TANGEDCO AE-2018
104
f= Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
2π Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper-I
9. Which of the following is FALSE for series TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
resonance circuit? BPSC Poly. Lect. - 2014
(a) At resonance power factor of the circuit is MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. – 2013
unity. GATE 2003
(b) Supply voltage and current are out of phase. Ans. (d) :Given that,
(c) The reactive component of the input ω0 = 1kHz, Q = 100
impedance is zero.
1 L 1
(d) None of these Q= → Q∝
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 R C R
Ans. (b) : In series resonance circuit After doubling R = 2R, L = 2L, C = 2C
Z =R , Because imaginary terms are zero 1 2L 1 L
QD = =
So, supply voltage and current would be in same phase. 2R 2C 2R C
10. The resonance frequency for the given circuit is Q 100
QD = =
2 2
QD = 50
12. Under the condition of resonance, RLC series
circuit behaves as a,
(a) Purely resistive circuit
(a) 1 rad/s (b) 2 rad/s (b) Purely inductive circuit
(c) 4 rad/s (d) 4.5 rad/s (c) Capacitive circuit
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 (d) Reactive circuit
Ans. (b) : KVS TGT (WE)-2017
Ans. (a) : Under condition of resonance , RLC circuit
behaves as purely resistive circuit . In purely resistive
circuit power factor is unity.
13. An LC tank circuit consists of an ideal
capacitor C connected in parallel with a coil of
inductance L having an internal resistance R.
The resonant frequency of the tank circuit is
1 1 C
1 1 (a) (b) 1− R2
Y(s) = 0.1s + + 2π 2LC 2π LC L
10 2 + 2s
1 1 L 1 L
Y( jω) = 0.1jω + 0.1 + (c) 1− 2 (d) 1− R2
2 + 2( jω) 2π LC R C 2π LC C
2 − 2ωj APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017
= ( jω + 1)0.1 + NIELIT Scientists - 2017
4 + (4ω2 ) GATE- 2015
Ans. (b) : 15. How is the damping ratio 'ξ' and quality factor
'Q' of a series RLC circuit are related to each
other-
(a) ξ ∝ Q (b) ξ ∝ 1
Q
(c) ξ ∝ Q (d) ξ ∝ 1
Q
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
1
1 ( R + sL ) 1 L
Z ( s ) = {R + sL} || = sC Ans. (b) : Q =
sC R + sL + 1 R C
sC R C
R + sL ξ=
Z (s) = 2 2 L
s LC + 1 + sRC 1
R + j ωL ∵ ξ=
Z ( jω) = 2Q
−ω LC + jωRC + 1
2
1
∴ ξ∝
( R + jωL ){(1 − ω2 LC ) − jωRC} Q
=
(1 − ω LC ) + ( ωRC )
2 2
2 16. Tuning means obtaining resonance at different
frequencies by varying either:
At resonance, (a) R or C (b) L or C
Img {Z ( jω )} = 0 (c) R or L (d) R or L or C
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
∴ − jωR 2C + jωL (1 − ω2 LC ) = 0
Ans. (b) : In an electrical circuit when inductive
At resonance, ω = ω0 reactance magnitude is equal to capacitive reactance
then resonance frequency is-
R 2C = L 1 − ω02 LC 
1 1
1 XL = XC ω= or f r = Hz
ω0 = LC 2π LC
C
LC 1 − R 2 Where, X L = 2πfL
L
1
1 C XC =
f0 = 1− R2 2πfC
2π LC L
Thus by changing any of them L or C we can find out
14. In a series RLC circuit excited by voltage resonance of different frequency.
1 17. Which one of the following statements is not
V(t) = A sin ωt where ω2 <
LC correct for the circuit shown below at resonant
(a) The current lags the excitation voltage frequency?
(b) The excitation voltage lags the current
(c) The voltage across inductor is less than the
voltage across the capacitor
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) : In series RLC circuit (a) The current is maximum
V(t) = A sinωt (b) The equivalent impedance is real
At resonance frequency (c) The inductive and capacitive reactances are
Z=R equal in magnitude
1 1 C
ω2 < (d) The quality factor equals
LC R L
1 IES-2005
f<
2π LC Ans. (d) : Quality factor in RLC Series Circuit
above resonance frequency = XL > XC Voltage across L or C
below resonance = XC > XL Quality factor =
applied voltage
If the frequency is less than resonance frequency than it
is behave like a capacitive circuit so that excitation VL Im X L
= =
voltage lags the current. V Im R

ωL 1 20. Consider the following circuit
= where ωr =
R LC
1 L
=
R LC
1 L C
Q= For parallel circuit Q = R
R C L
For the above circuit, which one of the
18. A parallel circuit has two branches. In one following statements is correct? The voltage V0
branch, R and L are in series and in the other is independent of R, if the input signal
branch, R and C are in series. The circuit will frequency ω
exhibit unity power factor when:
(a) is 1/ LC (b) is 1/  2 LC 
L
(a) R = (b) R = LC
C (c) is LC (d) has any value
C L IES-2004
(c) R = (d) R = Ans. (a) :
L C
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper- I
IES-2005
Ans. (a) :
 1 
R  jωL +
jωC 
Z= 
1
Zeq = ( R + jX L ) || ( R − jX C ) R + jωL +
jωC
Zeq =
( R + jX L ) ( R − jX C ) R  1 
jωLR + jR  ωL − 
R + R + j( X L − XC ) jωC  ωC 
= =
=
( R + jX L ) ( R − jX C ) R + jωL +
1 
R + j  ωL −
1 

2R + j( X L − X C ) jωC  ωC 
 1   1 
 R 2 + X L .X C + jR ( X L − X C )  ×  2R − j ( X L − X C ) 
  
jR  ωL −  R − j  ωL − 
Zeq = Z=  ωC  ×  ωC 
4R + ( X L − X C )
2 2
 1   1 
R + j  ωL −  R − j  ωL − 
For unity power factor imaginary part must be zero  ωC   ωC 
So, 2
 1  2  1 
R 2 ( X L − X C ) + ( X L − X C ) X L X C − 2R 2 ( X L − X C ) = 0 jR 2  ωL −  − j R  ωL − 
=  ωC   ωC 
−R 2 ( X L − XC ) + ( X L − X C ) X L XC = 0  1 
2
R 2 +  ωL − 
after solving.  ωC 
 2 L  1 
 1   1 
2
 R −   ωL – = 0 jR 2  ωL −  + R  ωL − 
 C  ωc  ωC  ωC 
=  
L 2
R2 =  1 
C R 2 +  ωL − 
 ωC 
L As we know V0 is independent of R
R= Ω So,
C
1
19. What is the locus of the tip of the voltage ωL − =0
phasor across R in a series R-L-C circuit? ω C
(a) A parabola (b) An ellipse 1
ω2 =
(c) A circle (d) A rectangular hyperbola LC
IES-2004
1
Ans. (c) : the locus of the tip of the voltage phasor ω= rad/sec
across R in a series R-L-C will be circle LC

21. Consider the following circuit: 22. A parallel circuit consists of two branches:
one with a pure capacitor and the other has
resistor of 5Ω in series with a variable
inductor. To this circuit an a.c. voltage of fixed
value and frequency is connected. The circuit
will exhibit two resonances if:
(a) The reactance of the capacitor is less than
10Ω
(b) The reactance of the capacitor is greater than
For what value of ω, the circuit shown above 10Ω
exhibits unity power factor?
(c) The reactance of the capacitor equals 10Ω
1 1 (d) The capacitor is removed by a short circuit
(a) (b)
LC  LC + R 2C 2  IES-2005
 
Ans. (b) : According the question, circuit can be draw.
1 1
(c) (d)
 LC − R C  2 2 RC
 
IES-2004
Ans. (c) : Find equivalent Admittance
1 1
Yeq = +
Ls R + 1
Cs 1 1
Y= +
1 Cs − jX C R + jX L
Yeq = +
Ls RCs + 1 Y = j ωC +
1
put s = jω R + jωL
after solving
1 ( jωC )(1 − jωCR )
Yeq = + R − jω ( −R 2 C + L − ω2 L2C )
jωL ( jωCR + 1)(1 − jωCR ) Y=
R 2 + ( ωL ) 2
2 2 2
− j j ωC − j ω C R
= + 2 at resonance, imaginary part will be zero
ωL 1 + ω2 C2 R 2 so, ω ( L − R 2 C − ω2 L2 C ) = 0
2 2
j j ωC + ω C R
Yeq = − + ωL − R 2 ( ωC ) − ( ω2 L2 ) ( ωC ) = 0
ωL 1 + ω C R 2 2 2
1 1
−j jωC ω2 C 2 R XL − R 2 × − X L2 × =0
Yeq = + + X C X C
ωL 1 + ω2 C 2 R 2 1 + ω2 C 2 R 2
X L 2 − X L X C + R 2 = 0 --------- (i)
ω2 C 2 R  ωC 1 
= + j −  Above equation (i) comparison with 2nd order equation
2 2 2
1+ ω C R 2 2 2
 1+ ω C R ωL 
s 2 + 2ξωn s + ωn2 = 0
According to the question circuit at unity power factor
so imaginary part will be zero. ωn 2 = R 2 , 2ξωn = −X C
ωC
−
1
=0
ωn = R, ( 2ξωn = – X C )
2 2 2
1+ ω C R ω L Here two resonance occurs, ξ < –1
ωC 1 XC
= So, − < –1
2 2 2
1+ ω C R ωL 2R
ω2 LC = 1 + ω2C 2 R 2 XC
>1
ω ( LC − R 2C 2 ) = 1
2 2R
X C > 2R
1
ω2 = If R = 5Ω
LC − R 2 C2
X C > 10
1
ω= rad/sec Therefore the value of capacitive reactance is greater
LC − R 2 C 2 than 10Ω .

23. In a series RLC circuit, the locus of the tip of Ans. (d) :
the admittance phasor in the complex plane as • Width of resonance curve in R-L-C network is
the frequency is varied, is: determined by Resistance (R), Capacitance (C) and
(a) A semicircle in the upper half of the G-B inductance (L).
plane having the centre at (1/R, 0) and radius
• At parallel resonance
1/R
1 L
(b) A circle in the upper half of the G-B plane Bandwidth ( B.W.) = , Zmax =
having the centre at {1/(2R), 0} and radius RC CR
1/(2R) • At series resonance
(c) A semicircle in the bottom half of the G-B R
plane having the centre at {–1/2R), 0} and Bandwidth ( B.W.) = , Z = R min
radius 1/(R) L
(d) A semicircle in the upper half of the G-B 25. For the circuit shown in the below figure, what
plane having the centre at (–1/R, 0) and radius is the natural frequency?
1/R
IES-2005
Ans. (b) : According to the question, we can draw the
circuit.
(a) 1 M rad/s (b) 2 M rad/s

(c) 3 M rad/s (d) 5 M rad/s
1 IES-2008
Z = R + jωL +
jωC Ans. (d) : Given that
taking Laplace domain L = 400 × 10−6 H
Z ( s ) = R + sL +
1 C = 100 × 10−12 F
Cs R × ( − jX C )
RCs + s 2 LC + 1 Impedance Z = + jX L
Z (s ) = R − jX C
Cs
1 Cs =
( −RjX C + jRX L − j2 X C X L ) ( R + jX C )
Y (s) = =
Z ( s ) s 2 LC + RCs + 1 ( R − jX C )( R + jX C )
put s = jω  X C X L + j ( −RX C + RX L )  [ R + jX C ]
=
jωC R 2 + X C2
Y ( jω ) =
(1 − LCω2 ) + jωRC RX C X L + j ( X L − X C ) .R 2 + jX 2C X L + j2 ( X L − X C ) RX C
when, ω = 0, Y =0 =
R 2 + X C2
1 1 For resonance circuit imaginary part equal to zero.
ω= , Y=
LC R ( X L − X C ) .R 2 = −X C2 X L
ω = ∞, Y = 0
 1  2 −1
So,  ωL −  R = 2 2 × ωL
 ωC  ωC
ω2 LC − 1 −ωL
= 2 2 2
ωC ωCR
CR 2 − L
ω2 =
LC2 R 2
1 CR 2
ω= −1
CR L
1 100 × 10−12 × 100 ×100 × 106
24. Width of resonance curve in an R-L-C network ω= −1
is determined by which one of the following? 100 × 10−12 ×100 × 103 400 × 10−6
(a) R alone (b) L alone ω = 105 2500 − 1
(c) C alone (d) All R, L and C ω = 105 × 49.98 ≃ 5 Mrad / sec
IES-2008
26. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 3 mH and 1µF (b) 10 H and 0.2µF
the properties of an R-L-C series circuit under (c) 1.99 mH and 0.2µF (d) 1.99 mH and 10µF
resonance: IES-2010
1. Current in the circuit is in phase with Ans. (c) : Given f = 8kHz, BW = 800 Hz, R = 10Ω
r
applied voltage.
quality factor of tank circuit
2. Voltage drop across capacitor C and
inductance L are equal in magnitude f 8 × 103
Q= r = = 10
3. Voltage across the capacitor is equal in BW 800
magnitude to the applied voltage. ωL
4. Current in the circuit is maximum. Q=
R
QR 10 ×10
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 L= = = 1.99 × 10−3 H
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 2 π f r 2 π× 8000
IES-2009 L = 1.99 mH
Ans. (b) : The properties of an RLC series circuit under Resonant frequency of tank circuit -
resonance condition.
• Current in the circuit is in phase with applied voltage 1 1 R2
fr = −
due to Resistive nature. 2π LC L2
• Voltage drop across capacitor and inductor are equal 2
in magnitude. 1  1   10 
8000 =  −
  
At resonance condition 2π  1.99 × 10−3 × C   1.99 × 10−3 
VL = VC C = 0.197µF ≃ 0.2µF
So, VS = VR 2 + ( VL − VC ) 29. A series resonant circuit has a resistance of
2
47ohms, inductance of 2H and capacitance of

VS = VR 2µF with a supply voltage of 10 volts. The
current through the circuit at resonance is
Z = R + ( X L − XC )
2
2 (a) 0.833 amp (b) 0.212 amp
(c) 0.196 amp (d) 0 amp
Z=R ∵ XL = XC IES-2011
Ans. (b) : Given that, R = 47Ω, L = 2Η, Χc = 2µF
V
Imax = At series resonance condition-
Zmin Z = Rmin
27. Consider the following statements: V 10
I= = = 0.212A
1. Power factor will be unity R 47
2. Current in circuit will be maximum 30. A series RLC circuit has ω0 = 105, Q = 50,
3. Current in circuit will be minimum R = 400 Ω. The value of C is
Which of these statements are correct with (a) 250 pF (b) 1000 pF
respect to resonance in R-L-C parallel circuit? (c) 500 pF (d) 1.25 pF
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only IES-2013
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Ans. (c) : Given that ,
IES-2010
ω0 = 105 rad/sec.
Ans. (d) :
Specifications Series Parallel Q = 50
resonance resonance R = 400Ω
circuit circuit As we know that,
Impedance at resonance Minimum Maximum 1
Current at resonance Maximum Minimum Quality factor ( Q ) =
ω0 RC
Effective impedance R L
1
CR 50 = 5
10 × 400 × C
Power factor Unity Unity
1
Magnifies Voltage Current 50 × 105 × 400 =
C
28. Which of the following pair of values of L and 1
C should be used in a tank circuit to obtain a 2 × 10 =
9
C
resonant frequency of 8 kHz? The bandwidth
is 800 Hz and winding resistance of the coil is C = 500 × 10−12
10 ohms. C = 500 pF
31. Consider the following statements respect to a 33. The maximum current in a series R-L-C
parallel R-L-C circuit. network with variable frequency excitation is
1. The bandwidth of the circuit decreases if R 1A, when the applied voltage is 10V. The
is increased. inductance has a value of 0.1 H. The Q-factor
2. The bandwidth of the circuit remain same at the maximum current is 10. Then the value
if L is increased. of C is
3. At resonance, input impedance is a real (a) 0.01 µF (b) 0.1 µF
quantity. (c) 1.0 µF (d) 10 µF
4. At resonance, the magnitude of the input IES-2018
impedance attains its minimum value. Ans. (d) : At resonance condition, circuit will be
Which of the above statements are correct? Purely resistive,
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 so Resistance at resonance condition
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
V 10
IES-2017 R= =
Ans. (d) : Band width of Parallel RLC circuit I 1
R = 10Ω
1
↑ BW = --------(i)
↓ RC ωL QR
Q= 0 ⇒ ω0 =
→ From the above equation (i) If Resistance is R L
increases then Bandwidth of the circuit is decreases. 10 × 10
ω0 =
→ From the equation (i) Bandwidth is not depend on 0.1
inductance so, Bandwidth of the circuit remain same if ω0 = 1000 rad/sec
inductance is increased.
1
→ At resonance input impedance is maximum as we know series resonance frequency ( ω0 ) =
1 LC
E = L.I2 1
2 1000 = ⇒ C = 10µF
32. The values of capacitance and inductance used 0.1C
in the series LCR circuit are 160 pF and 160 34. What will be the value of XC so that the circuit
µH with the inherent tolerance –10% in each. is non inductive?
Then, the resonance frequency of the circuit is
in the range of
(a) 0.8 MHz to 1.2 MHz
(b) 0.9 MHz to 1.0 MHz
(c) 0.8 MHz to 1.0 MHz
(d) 0.9 MHz to 1.2 MHz (a) 2.5 (b) 5.0
IES-2016 (c) 10.0 (d) 20.0
Ans. (b) : Given IES-1991
C = 160 × 10−12 F Ans. (a) :
L = 160 × 10−6 H
Tolerance = 10%
C = (160 ± 10% ) pF
Cmin = 160 − 16 = 144pF
Cmax = 160 + 16 = 176pF
L = (160 ± 10% ) µH
 j5 × ( − jX c ) 
L min = 160 − 16 = 144 µH Z = 2 + j5 +  
L max = 160 + 16 = 176 µH  j5 − jX c 
Resonance frequency  5X c 
Z = 2 + j5 +  
f max =
1
=
1  j ( 5 − X c ) 
2π L min Cmin 2π 144 × 10 × 144 × 10−12
−6
For Non- inductive circuit, imaginary (Z) = 0
= 1.1 MHz 5X c
∴ 5– =0
f min =
1
=
1 (5 − Xc )
2π L max Cmax 2π 176 × 10 × 176 × 10−12
−6
25 – 5Xc – 5Xc = 0
= 0.9 MHz 25 = 10Xc
For resonance frequency range = 0.9 MHz to 1.1 MHz. X c = 2.5Ω

35. The two networks given below are equivalent Ans. (c) : As we know that , at resonance,
with respect to terminals 1 and 2 at all V
frequencies. Find CA, LB, LC, CC. Q= L
V
Given quality factor (Q) = 100
So, VL = Q.V
VL =100.V Volt
37. At 3-dB frequencies, current in the series RLC
circuit equal current at resonance multiplied by
1 1
(a) 0.5F, 0.33H,6H,0.166F (a) (b)
2 2
(b) 0.5F,6H,6H,0.166H
(c) 0.5F,3H,3H,2F 1 1
(c) (d)
(d) 0.5F,3H,6H,0.166H 4 2 2
IES-1991 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
Ans. (d) : Ans. (b) : At 3-dB frequencies, current in the series
RLC circuit equal current at resonance multiplied
1
by
2
38. A series RLC circuit resonates at 1000 kHz. At
frequency of 995 kHz, the circuit impedance is
(a) Resistive (b) minimum
The Resonant frequency of fig-1 (c) Inductive (d) capacitive
KVS TGT (WE)-2014
1 1 1
f0 = = (i) ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
2π 1×1 2π Ans. (d) : Given,
So, the Resonance frequency of second fig. will be f0 = 1000 kHz
same of each and every series combination, of parallel frequency (f) = 995 kHz
circuit
1 1 1
Hence, =
2π 2π 2× C A
1
CA = = 0.5 F
2
1 1 1
⇒ =
2π 2π 1
LB ×  
3
LB = 3 H
So, from the above diagram, the circuit impedance is
1 1 1
⇒ = capacitive.
2π 2π L C × CC 39. A series RLC circuit resonates at 3MHz and
has 3-dB bandwidth of 10 kHz. The Q of the
C C .LC = 1
circuit at resonance
The value of LC and CC verify by above Equation by 300
substituting the values given in the option. (a) 30 (b) 2
So, LC = 6H
CC = 0.166F (c) 300 (d) 300 2
36. The Q of RLC tuned circuit with source voltage ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
V in the figure is 100 at resonant frequency of
100 KHz. What is the voltage VL across Ans. (c) : Quality factor(Q) = Resonant frequency
inductor at resonance? Bandwidth
Given,
Resonant frequency = 3MHz
Bandwidth = 10 kHz
(a) 50V (b) VL – VC
(c) 100 V (d) VR – VC 3 × 10 6
Q= = 300
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 104
40. When L is doubled and C is halved, the V 2 50 × 50
resonance frequency of series tuned circuit R= = = 50Ω
becomes P 50
(a) Doubled (b) Halved R
B.W =
(c) One quarter (d) Unchanged 2πL
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 R 50
L= =
Ans. (d) : In resonance, 2π × B.W 2 × 3.14 × 0.75 ×103
1 50
ω0 = rad/sec = = 10.61mH
LC 4.71×103
L is double (2L) and C is halved (C/2) 1
ωr =
C LC
C ' = , L' = 2L
2 1
2πf r =
1 1 LC
ω'0 = =
′
LC ′ C C= 2 2 =
1 1
2L × 4π Lf r 4 × 3.14 × 3.14 × 10.6 × 10−3 × (1.5 ×103 )2
2
ω'0 = ω0 rad/sec 1
C= −3
41. In a series resonant circuit, with the increase in L 418.04 ×10 ×1.5 ×1.5 × 106
(a) Resonant frequency will decrease 10−3
(b) Bandwidth will decrease = = 0.00106 × 10 −3 = 1.06 µF
(c) Q will increase 940.60
(d) All of these 43. The Quality factor of series R-L-C circuit will
increases if
(a) R decreases. (b) R increases.
Ans. (d) : (c) Voltage increases. (d) Voltage decreases.
1 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
ω0 =
LC Ans. (a) : Quality factor of series R-L-C circuit
ω0 ∝
1 ωL
Q= 0
L R
1 R 1 L
B.W.∝ (for a series RLC circuit B.W. = ) Q=
L L R C
ω0 L 1 L 1
Q= = Q∝
R R C R
42. The value of R, L and C in series RLC circuit Hence, the quality factor of series R-L-C circuit will
that resonates at 1.5 kHz and consumes 50W increases if R decreases.
from a 50V ac source operating at the resonant 44. The coupling between the two inductors is
frequency. The bandwidth is 0.75 kHz. increased form zero in the circuit shown which
(a) R = 50 ohm, L = 10.6 mH, C = 1.06µF. of the following statements is true?
(b) R = 500 ohm, L = 10.6 mH, C = 10.6µF.
(c) R = 50 ohm, L =1.06 mH, C = 10.6µF.
(d) R = 500 ohm, L = 10.6 mH, C = 1.06µF.
Ans. (a) :
(a) The resonant frequency will increase and the

Given, Q will decrease
fr = 1.5 kHz, P = 50W, V = 50V, (b) The resonant frequency and Q will both
B.W = 0.75×103Hz increase.
1 (c) The resonant frequency and Q will both
ωr =
LC decrease
(d) The resonant frequency will decrease and the
V2 Q will increase
P=
R ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
Ans. (d) : Since we know that - Z = L (inductive)
M = k L1L 2
Leq = L1 + L2 + 2M
1
Angular resonance frequency (ω0) =
Leq C
L eq ↑= ω0 ↓
ωLeq ↑
and Quality factor ( Q ) ↑=
R
45. For the circuit given, find the current I at
resonance condition
48. If the Q-factor of a coil at a resonant frequency
of 1.5 MHz is 150 for a series resonant circuit,
then the corresponding bandwidth is
(a) 225 MHz (b) 1.06 MHz
(c) 52 kHz (d) 10 kHz
(a) 120 A (b) 128 A Ans. (d) : Given that,
(c) 132 A (d) 134 A Resonant frequency (f0) = 1.5 MHz
TNPSC AE - 2018 Q-factor = 150
V 1.5 × 106
Ans. (a) : At resonance condition I = ∴ Bandwidth = Hz
R 150
24 = 10 kHz
I=
0.2 49. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit
below.
I = 120 A
46. A line is excited by a 100V, 200 Ohm source
and is terminated by 100 Ω resistance. If
voltage on line reaches steady state value in
80nsec., the natural resonant frequency is
(a) 100MHz (b) 50MHz
(c) 12.5MHz (d) 6.25MHz (a) 1 rad/s (b) 2 rad/s
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (c) 0.5 rad/s (d) 0.25 rad/s
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
Ans. (c) : frequency of Oscillation is
Ans. (c) :
1
f= = 12.5 MHz
80 × 10 –9
47. The low-frequency circuit impedance and the
high-frequency circuit impedance for a series
resonance circuit respectively are
(a) Capacitive and inductive 1 1
(b) Inductive and capacitive Υ = jωC + +
20 jωL + 4
(c) Resistive and inductive
1 1
(d) Capacitive and resistive Y = jω0.2 + +
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I 20 j4 ω +4
 1  1  1 − jω 
Ans. (a) : Z = R +  jωL + Y = j0.2ω + 0.05 + × 
 4 (1 + jω )  1 − jω 
 jωC 
at ω = 0 Y = j0.2ω + 0.05 +
1
(1 − jω)
Z = capacitive 4 (1 + ω2 )
at ω = ω r
1  ω 
Z = R (Resistive) Y = 0.05 + + j 0.2ω − 
at ω = ∞ 4 (1 + ω ) 
2
4 (1 + ω ) 
2

For resonance, put Imaginary [Y] = 0. 1 2
ω ω= −1
0.2ω – =0 2 ×10−6 1
4 (1 + ω2 ) 6
ω = 10 /2 rad/sec
1 ω = 5 × 105 rad/sec
0.2 = ωL = 2 × 10–6 × 5 × 105
4 (1+ ω2 )
= 10 × 10–1
1 ωL = 1
0.8 =
(1 + ω )
2
at Resonance
1 R
1+ ω2 = Y= 2
R + ( ωL )
2
0.8
1 + ω2 = 1.250 1 1
ω2 = 1.25– 1 Y= =
1 + 1 2
ω2 = 0.25
Z = 1/Y
ω = 0.5 rad/sec
Z = 2Ω
50. Consider the RLC circuit shown below. At a
certain frequency f0 the circuits behaves like a 51. The Q-factor of a RLC circuit is 5 at its
purely resistive circuits. The equivalent resonance frequency of 1 kHz. Find the
resistance of the parallel combination at that bandwidth of the circuit.
particular frequency f0 is (a) 100 Hz (b) 200 Hz
(c) 400 Hz (d) 50 Hz
Ans. (b) : Given, Q factor = 5
Resonance frequency f r = 1kHz
fr
We know Q =
BW
(a) 2.0 Ω (b) 1.0 Ω 1× 103 1000
(c) 0.5 Ω (d) 3.0 Ω BW = = = 200Hz
5 5
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
52. A series RLC circuit has a resistance of 1000 Ω,
Ans. (a) : When circuit behaves like purely resistive. It an inductance of 100mH and a capacitance of
behaves like resonant circuit so 10pF. The Q factor and low half power
1 frequency of the circuit will be
Total admittance (Y) = jωC +
R + j ωL (a) 50, 158.35 kHz (b) 100, 158.35 kHz
(c) 50, 159 kHz (d) 100, 159 kHz
1 R − jωL
Y = j ωC + × MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
R + jωL R − jωL
1
R − jωL Ans. (b) : ω =
Y = j ωC + LC
R 2 + ( ωL )
2
1
ω=
R jωL 100 × 10−3 × 10 × 10−12
Y = jωC + 2 −
R + ( ωL ) R 2 + ( ω L )
2 2
ω =106
For resonance, put imaginary [Y] = 0 ω = 103 k rad/sec
ωL ω = 1000 k rad/sec
ωC − 2 = 0 1000
R + ( ωL )
2
f0 =
2π
L f = 159.235kHz
C= 2 0
R + ( ωL )
2
ωL 1000 ×103 × 100 × 10−3
Q= =
L R 1000
R2 + (ωL)2 = Q = 100
C
L Half power frequency
(ωL)2 = – R2 R
C f1 = f 0 −
4πL
L
ωL = − R2 1000
C f1 = 159.235 −
4π × 10−1
1 L
ω= − R2 f1 ≃ 158.35kHz
L C
53. In a series RLC high Q circuit, the current 56. A circuit with a resistor, inductor and
peaks at a frequency capacitor in series is resonant of f0 Hz. If the all
(a) Equal to resonant frequency the component values are now doubled the new
(b) Greater than the resonant frequency resonant frequency is
(c) Less than the resonant frequency (a) 2fo (b) Still fo
(d) None of the above is true (c) fo/4 (d) fo/2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2018, Paper I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I UPPCL AE - 16.11.2013
Ans. (a) : In a series RLC high Q circuit, the current Ans. (d) : We know that resonant frequency
peaks at a frequency equal to resonant frequency. 1
f0 =
54. In the circuit shown, at resonance, the 2π L1C1
amplitude of the sinusoidal voltage (in Volts) ∵ L = 2L and C = 2C
2 1 2 1
across the capacitor is
1
f 02 =
2π L 2 C 2
1
f 02 =
2π 2C1.2L1
1
f 02 =
(a) 25 (b) 27 2 × 2π L1C1
(c) 29 (d) 31 f0
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I f 02 =
2
APGENCO AE-23.04.2017 57. The impedance of an ideal parallel resonant
Ans. (a) : circuit without resistance in either branch is
At resonance– (a) Inductive (b) Capacitive
1 (c) Zero (d) Infinite
ω= Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
LC
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2010, Paper- II
1
ω= Ans. (c) : Parallel resonance-
0.1× 10 × 1×10−6
−3
Imaginary part of input impedance = 0
ω = 105rad/sec Zin ω = ω0 = R maximum
1 Vs
XC =
ωC I ω = ω0 = minimum
R
1 hence, if ideal parallel resonance without resistance then
XC = 5
10 × 1× 10−6 the impedance is zero.
XC= 10 Ω 58. The output voltage is _____ at the resonant
At resonance current frequency in the given circuit.
10
I= = 2.5 A
4
XC = 10 Ω
Vc = 2.5×10 = 25V
Vc = 25 V
55. Which among the following condition is true at
the resonance? (a) 0 mV (b) 31.4 mV
(a) Xc > XL (b) Xc = XL (c) 66.5 mV (d) 380 mV
(c) Xc < XL (d) None of the above Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (c) :
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : For series RLC network
 1 
Z = R + j  ωL − 
 ω C
Z = R+ j(XL–XC)
At resonance Imaginary (Z) = 0 7
XL – XC = 0 XL = XC Vout = 380 × = 66.5 mV
40
59. What is the bandwidth of the circuit 63. If f1 and f2 are the lower and upper half power
frequencies of a series RLC circuit and f0 is the
frequency of resonance, then the selectivity of
RLC circuit is given by :
f −f f −f
(a) 2 0 (b) 2 1
f1 − f 0 f0
f 2 − f1 f0
(c) (d)
2f 0 f 2 − f1
(a) 31.8 Hz (b) 32.3 Hz Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
(c) 142 Hz (d) 7.2 kHz f0
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I Ans. (d) : Selectivity is equal to =
B.W.
Ans. (a) : L = 5H C = 1µF f0
Bandwidth =
f 2 − f1
R
∆ω = 64. In a series RLC circuit at resonance, with
L
Q=10, the voltage across inductor is :
R
∆f = (a) Equal to the applied voltage
2πL (b) Greater than the applied voltage
1000 (c) Less than the applied voltage
=
2π × 5 (d) May be greater than or less than the applied
∆f = 100/π = 31.8 Hz. voltage
60. The power in a series RLC circuit will be half Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
of that at resonance when the magnitude of the Ans. (b) : In a series RLC circuit at resonance, with
current is equal to Q=10, the voltage across inductor is Greater than the
(a) V/2R (b) V/√ 3R applied voltage .
(c) V/√ 2R (d) √ 2V/R 65. A parallel RLC circuit has ω0 = 108 and Q = 20.
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-I Given C = 20 pF, the value of R is
Ans. (c) : The point regarding half-power at resonance (a) 0.5 × 104 (b) 104
in a series RLC circuit. 4
(c) 2.0 × 10 (d) 25
I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
1. Current is o
2 Ans. (b) : Given, Q = 20
C = 20pF
2. impedance is 2 . R or 2 .Z0
1
3. P1 = P2 = Po/2 ∵ ω=
the circuit phase angle is θ = ±45º LC
61. In parallel resonant circuit, why does the 1 1
LC = = 8
current lag behind the source voltage at ω 10
frequencies below resonance? 1
(a) Circuit is predominantly resistive L×20×10–12 = 16
(b) Circuit is predominantly inductive 10
(c) Circuit is predominantly capacitive 1
L=
(d) None of the above 20 × 104
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II = 5µH
Ans.(b): In parallel resonant circuit at frequency below
C
resonance circuit is predominantly inductive. Now Q= R
62. In a series RLC circuit at resonance with Q0 = 10 L
and with applied voltage of 100 mV at resonance L
frequency, voltage across capacitor is R= Q
C
(a) 100 mV (b) 1 Volt
(c) 10 mV (d) 10 Volt 5 × 10−6
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 = 20
20 × 10−12
Ans. (b) : As we know that quality factor of resonance
= 104Ω
V
circuit ( Q0 ) = c where Vc is a voltage across 66. In a series RLC, if R increases then BW _____.
V
(a) increases (b) decreases
capacitor.
(c) constant (d) 1st increase then decreases
So |Vc| = Q0| V| = 1000 mV = 1 V
NPCIL-2015
Ans. (a) : Bandwidth ↑=
R↑ ( 4ω3
− ω)
=0
2πL 4ω − 12
1 L 4ω3 – ω = 0
Q= 4ω2 – 1 = 0
R C
1
↓Q=
fr ω = rad / sec
B.W. ↑ 2
ω = 0.5 rad/sec
67. In a parallel RLC circuit the dynamic
resistance Rdyn = _____ 70. Find the resonant frequency in the below
circuit
R
(a) 2R (b)
2
(c) R (d) None
NPCIL-2015
Ans. (c) : In a parallel RLC circuit the dynamic (a) 229.72Hz (b) 195.54Hz
resistance Rdyn = R . (c) 405.07Hz (d) 296.54Hz
68. Q-factor is 4 in a series resonance circuit. What BEL-2015
is the nature of the circuit ? Ans. (a) : Since we know that -
(a) Over damped (b) Under damped 1
fr =
(c) Critical damped (d) Undamped 2π LC
NPCIL-2015 Leq = L1+L2+2M
Ans. (b) : For series resonant circuit - = 4+4+2×2
1 = 12mH
ξ=
2Q 1
fr =
=
1
=
1 2π 12 × 10 3 × 40 ×10−6
−
2× 4 8 104
Which is less than 1 So it Under damped. =
2π 48
69. For the circuit shown in the figure, find the
frequency at which this circuit will be at 104
=
resonance. 8π 3
104
= = 229.88 Hz
43.50
71. Find Q-factor for the following RLC circuit
(a) 1 rad s–1 (b) 2 rad s–1

(c) 0.25 rad s–1 (d) 0.5 rad s–1
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 3
(a) (b) 3 1400
 −j  1400
Ans. (d) : Zin =  ||1 + jω
 2ω  1400 1
−j (c) (d)
Zin = + jω 3 200
2ω − j BEL-2015
−j 2ω + j Ans. (c) : Since we know that -
Zin = × + jω
2ω − j 2ω + j Q- factor for series resonance circuit we have
j4ω3 − jω + 1 1 L
Zin = Q=
4ω2 + 1 R C
Zin =
(
j 4ω3 − ω )+ 1 1 7 ×10−3
=
4ω2 + 1 4ω2 + 1 3 5 ×10−6
At resonance, circuit is pure resistive 1
= 1400
Hence, the imaginary part will be zero. 3

72. Resonance is an electrical property used to 1
describe : Ans. (b) : For resonance frequency ( f r ) =
(a) an inductor 2π LC
(b) a set of parallel inductors Hence fr and C has inverse relation,
(c) the results of tuning a varicap (varactor) As C increases, fr decreases.
(d) the frequency characteristic of a coil and 78. A Capacitor C is connected across a coil with
capacitor circuit resistance R and inductance L. The effective of
RRB SSE 03.09.2015 Shift-II the circuit at resonance is
Ans. (d) : Resonance is an electrical property used to 1 RC
(a) (b)
describe the frequency characteristic of a coil and RLC L
capacitor circuit. L L
73. The Q-factor of a coil is given by (c) (d)
RC RC
(a) Its power factor cos φ
(b) Ratio of max. energy stored & energy IES-1993
dissipated per cycle
(c) Reciprocal of its power factor Ans. (c) :
(d) Ratio R/Z
 maximum energystored 
Ans. (b) : Q = 2π  
 energy dissipated per cycle 
74. For a parallel RLC circuit, the critically
1 Z1 = R + j XL
damped condition for α = damping factor Z2 = − j XC
RC
1 1
1 Y1 = , Y2 =
and ω 0 = resonant frequency is Z1 Z2
LC
(a) α = 1/ ω0 (b) α > ω0 1 1
Y = Y1 + Y2 = +
(c) α < ω0 (d) α = ω0 R + jX L − jX C
R − jX L j
UPMRC AM - 2020 ⇒ Y= 2 +
Ans. (d) : For the critically damped condition α = ω0 R + X L XC
2
75. For a series resonant circuit, at the half power 1 R 2C

points, which of the following is true? Frequency (ω0) = 1−
LC L
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
At resonance,
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the R R
Y= =
resonance. R 2 + ω02 L2 1  R 2C  2
(d) None of the above R2 +  1 − ×L
LC  L 
BSNL (JTO)-2006
RC
Ans. (b) : For a series resonant circuit, at the half power Y= ℧
points XL–XC = R L
76. In a series RLC circuit operating below the L
Z= Ω
resonant frequency the current RC
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
79. In an RLC parallel circuit the impedance at
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these resonance is
BSNL (JTO)-2006
(a) ∞ (b) minimum
Ans. (a) : Below in series resonance circuit behaves as (c) maximum (d) zero
a capacitive circuit but above resonance frequency RLC TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
circuit behaves is a inductive circuit.
Thus current (I) Leads the voltage (Vs). Ans. (c) :
77. In a series RLC circuit, if C is increased what
happens to resonant frequency?
(a) It increases
(b) It decreases
(c) It remains same
(d) It depends upon the value of R
Y = G + j (BC− BL)
TSGENCO AE-2015
At Resonance, ( − j20X C + 6.28XC ) ×  20 − j ( 6.28 − XC )
Y = G + j (BC -BL) = G + j0 Zeq =
 20 + j ( 6.28 − X C )  ×  20 − j ( 6.28 − X C ) 
⇒Y=G
− j  400X C + 6.28X C ( 6.28 − X C )  − 20X C ( 6.28 − X C ) + 20 × 6.28X C
1 Zeq = 
∴ Z = → Maximum 400 + ( 6.28 − X C )
2
Y
− j  400X C + 6.28XC ( 6.28 − X C )   20X C ( 6.28 − X C ) + 20 × 6.28X C 
80. The half power frequencies of an RLC series Zeq =  − 
400 + ( 6.28 − X C )  400 + ( 6.28 − X C ) 
2 2
circuit consisting of R=50Ω , L= 0.16H and
C = 4 µF are If no reactive current is taken from supply the
imaginary part taken zero.
(a) fL= 200Hz and fH = 250 Hz
400XC + 6.28XC(6.28 – XC) = 0
(b) fL= 198.9 Hz and fH = 225.3 Hz
400
(c) fL= 150.1Hz and fH = 300.5 Hz − = 6.28 − X C
(d) fL= 100Hz and fH = 250 Hz 6.28
TNPSC AE- 2019 XC = 69.977Ω
1
Ans. (*) : R=50Ω , L= 0.16H and C = 4µF = 69.977
ωC
R R
f1 = f 0 − Hz , f 2 = f 0 + Hz 1
4πL 4πL = 69.977 × 2 × π× 40
C
1 1 1
f0 = = C=
2π LC 2π 0.16 × 4 ×10−6 69.977 × 2 × π× 40
1 C = 0.000056865
=
2π × 0.8 × 10−3 C = 56.86 × 10 −6
1000 C ≃ 57 µF
= = 198.9Hz
2π× 0.8 82. The value of RL and dynamic resistance for
50 resonance in the network shown in
f1=198.9 – ≃ 174 Hz
4π× 0.16
50
f 2 = 198.9 +
4π× 0.16
f2 = 223.76Hz.
(a) RL = 4.24Ω and Rdynamic = 5.76 Ω
81. A coil of inductance 25mH and resistance 20Ω (b) RL = 5.76Ω and Rdynamic = 4.24 Ω
is connected parallel to a capacitor and this (c) RL = 5.1 Ω and Rdynamic = 7.29 Ω
parallel combination is connected to a 200V,
(d) RL = 42.4Ω and Rdynamic = 57.6 Ω
40Hz supply. The value of capacitor if no
TNPSC AE- 2019
reactive current is taken from the supply is
Ans. (a) :
(a) 57 pF (b) 57 µF
(c) 57 nF (d) 57 mF
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (b) : Given,
L = 25mH, R = 20Ω, f = 40Hz At resonance, in a parallel RLC circuit, the imaginary
–3
XL = jωL = j2π×40×25×10 = j6.28Ω part of the total admittance must be zero.
.
1 R − j8
YL = = 2L mho
R L + j8 R L + 64
.
1 5 + j4
YC = . = mho
5 − j4 25 + 16
YT = YC + YL
R L − j8 5 + j4
= +
Zeq = ( 20 + j6.28 ) || − jX C R 2L + 64 41
Zeq =
( 20 + j6.28 ) × ( − jXC ) =
RL 5  4
+ + j − 2
8 

20 + j6.28 − jX C R + 64 41  41 R L + 64 
2
L

Thus imaginary part of YT is zero, so-
4 8 (b)
− 2 =0
41 R L + 64
R 2L = 82 − 64
R 2L = 18
R L = 4.24 Ω
For dynamic impedance, (c)
Zeq = ( 4.24 + j8 ) || ( 5 − j4 )
=
( 4.24 + j8 )( 5 − j4 ) × ( 9.24 − j4 ) (d)
( 9.24 + j4 ) ( 9.24 − j4 )
= 5.7579 + 0.000883824 j
Dynamic impedance = Real part of Zeq.
= 5.7579 Ω IES-1998
83. A series resonant circuit has an inductive Ans. (a) : Voltage phasor (VR) across the resistance (R)
reactance of 1000Ω, a capacitive reactance of in a series RLC resonance circuit.
1000Ω and a resistance of 0.1Ω. If the resonant
frequency is 10 MHz, then the bandwidth of
the circuit will be
(a) 1 kHz (b) 10 kHz
(c) 1 MHz (d) 0.1 kHz
IES-1999
X L = 1000Ω, X C = 1000Ω, R = 0.1Ω
f r = 10MHz = 10×106 Hz VS
VR = I.R = R.
 j 
 R + jωL − ωC 
X 1000
Quality factor ( Q ) = L =
R 0.1
ω VR
Q = 10,000
0 j0
fr
Bandwidth ( BW ) = 1
Q VS
6
LC
10 ×10 ∞ − j0
=
10,000 VS
= 1000 Hz The locus is a circle with radius and center
2
BW = 1kHz  VS 
 ,0  .
84. The locus of the tip of the voltage phasor (VR)  2 
across the resistance (R) in a series RLC Where VS → Source voltage.
resonant circuit is given by 85. The circuit shown in the Fig., is to be scaled to
an impedance level of 5 kΩ and a resonant
frequency of 5M rad/s. Which one of the
following is a correct set element values for the
scaled circuit?
(a)

(a) 2.5Ω, 0.2mH, 200pF X L = XC
(b) 5 kΩ, 0.2mH, 200pF
So, we can say this circuit will be resonance, it is a
(c) 5 kΩ, 0.2mH, 200µF
series resonant circuit and peak voltage across R is
(d) 5 kΩ, 0.1mH, 0.4µF equal to peak value of source voltage.
IES-1997
∴ VR = 1 Volt
Ans. (b) : ωr = 5 M rad/sec
according to option (b) 88. Consider the following statements regarding
L = 0.2 mH, C = 200 pF the situation at resonant frequency:
1. For a series RLC circuit, current is
1
ωr = minimum
LC 2. For a series RLC circuit, voltage across C
1 is minimum
= 3. For a series RLC circuit, current is
0.2 ×10−3 × 200 × 10−12 maximum
10 ×106 4. For a parallel RLC circuit, total impedance
= is maximum.
2
ωr = 5M rad/sec Of the statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
86. In a parallel RLC circuit, if L = 4H, C = 0.25 F (b) 2 and 3 are correct
and R = 40Ω, then the value of Q at resonance (c) 3 and 4 are correct
will be
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
(a) 1 (b) 10
IES-1994
(c) 20 (d) 40
IES-1997 Ans. (c) :
Ans. (b) : Given that Specification Series Parallel
resonance resonance
L= 4 H, C = 0.25F and R = 40Ω circuit circuit
Quality factor of Parallel RLC circuit
Impedance at Minimum Maximum
C resonance
Q=R
L
0.25 Current at Maximum Minimum
= 40 resonance
4 Effective R L
25 impedance
= 40 CR
400 Power factor Unity Unity
1 89. An electric circuit contains R, L and C in series
Q = 40 ×
4 with a voltage source. The current through the
circuit is I0. The frequencies at which the
Q = 10 current would reduce to 0.707 I0 are given by
87. A series RLC circuit is excited by an ac voltage f01 and f02 The resonant frequency of the circuit
V(t) = 1sinωt. If L = 10H and C = 0.1F, then the is
peak value of the voltage across R will be (a) geometric mean of f01 and f02
(a) 0.707 (b) arithmetic mean of f01 and f02
(b) 1 (c) difference of f01 and f02
(c) 1.414 (d) harmonic mean of f01 and f02
(d) indeterminate as the value of R is not given IES-1993
IES-1997 Ans. (a) : According to the question
Ans. (b) : given that
L = 10H, C = 0.1F
V= 1 sinωt comparison with V = Vm sin ωt
Vm = 1 ω= 1rad/sec
1
X L = ωL XC =
ωC
1
X L = 1× 10, XC = f01 f02
1× 0.1
X L = 10Ω, X C = 10Ω For f 01 ∵ X C > X L

1 L
Then − ω0 L = R ---------- (i) (a) R 12 = R 22 =
ω01C C
For f 02 X L > X C L
(b) R 12 <
1 C
then ω02 L − = R ---------- (ii)
ω02 C L L
(c) R 12 > and R 22 >
From equation (i) and (ii) C C
1 1 L L
− ω01L = ω02 L − (d) R 12 < and R 22 >
ω01C ω02C C C
2
1 − ω01 2
LC ω02 LC − 1 IES-1991
= Ans. (d) :
ω01C ω02C
2 2
ω02 ω01LC − ω01 = ω02 − ω02 ω01LC
2 2
ω02 ω01LC + ω01 ω02 LC − ω02 − ω01 = 0
ω01ω02 LC ( ω02 + ω01 ) − 1( ω02 + ω01 ) = 0
( ω01ω02 LC − 1) = 0, ω01 + ω02 = 0
ω01 ≠ ω02 Not considered From above circuit resonance frequency
ω01ω02 LC = 1 L
− R12
1 ωr = C
ω01ω02 = L
LC − R 22
as we know that C
1 ωr must be a real value
ω0 = For imaginary value of numerator and denominator
LC
must be of different sign
so, ω01ω02 = ω0 2 L L
So, > R12 and < R 2 2
ω0 = ω01ω02 C C
L L
f 0 = f01f02 or < R1 and > R 2 2
2
C C
So, we can say the resonance of the circuit is geometric 92. In a series resonance circuit consisting of R, L
mean of f01 and f02. and C if L0 is the value of L at resonance. LA is
90. The circulating current in a parallel LC circuit the value of L at the lower half frequency fA, LB
at any resonant frequency is is the value of L at the upper half frequency fB,
(a) directly proportional to frequency Q0 is the quality factor at resonance, then the
(b) inversely proportional to frequency L0
value of is
(c) independent of frequency LB - L A
(d) none of the above
IES-1991 Q
(a) 0 (b) 2Q0
Ans. (c) :at resonance condition in parallel RLC circuit 2
BL = BC 2 Q
(c) (d) 0
therefore current flow only Resistance Q0 4
V This question can be better explained in the
I= following :
R
A series consisting of fixed R, C and variable L
So, current depends on voltage and resistance but
independent of frequency. is connected to a voltage source of constant
voltage and frequency. The inductance value
91. In the following parallel circuit, resonance will required for resonance is L0. When L is varied,
never occur, if LB > L0 and LA < L0 are the values of L
required to get half the power at the same
constant frequency.
If Q0 is the value of Q at resonance the value of
LB − LA
is
L0
IES-1991
Ans. (a) : In series RLC circuit given, VS and ω are 1  C1 − C 2 
fixed and L is variable.   = 2R ----------- (iii)
ω  C1C 2 
  1  at resonance condition
VS = I  R + j  ωL − 
  ωC   ∵ given C1 − C 2 = ∆C, and C 1C 2 = C r 2
VS so,
I=
 1  ∆C
R + j  ωL −  = 2R
 ωC  ωC r 2
V
= S , ωL 0 −
1
=0 ∆C = 2ωC r 2 R ------------ (iv)
R ωC at resonance condition
1 ωL 0 1 ωL 1 1
ω= ,Q0 = ................... (i) ω= ;Q r = = ⇒ R=
L 0C R LC r R ω C r R ω C r Qr
VS 1 put the value of R in equation (iv)
I1 = , ωL A − = − R .........(ii)
2R ωC ∆C = 2 ω C r 2 ×
1
and ωC r Q r
1 VS 1 2Cr
I2 = , ωL B − = R .........(iii) ∆C =
2 R ω C Qr
From (ii) & (iii), ω ( L B − L A ) = 2R 94. In the circuit shown, the switch is opened at
LB − LA 2R t = 0. The circuit is
or = .............(iv)
L0 ωL0
LB − LA 2
From (i) & (iv), =
L0 Q0
L0 Q
or = 0
LB − LA 2
93. A series circuit consisting of a resistances, an (a) Critically damped (b) Under-damped
inductance and a variable capacitance is (c) Over-damped (d) Un-damped
connected to a voltage source of fixed voltage IES-2011
and frequency. The capacitance value required Ans. (c) : At t > 0, The circuit is become-
for resonance is Cr. The variation of the
capacitance between half-power points is ∆C.
2
 ∆C 
The value of ∆C for   <<1 is (Note. Qr is
 Cr 
Q factor at resonance).
2C r Qr This is become series R-L-C circuit-
(a) (b)
Qr 2C r
R C
2Q r 1 so, damping ratio ( ξ ) =
(c) (d) 2 L
Cr 2Cr Q r
4 1
IES-1991 ξ=
2 1
Ans. (a) : according to the question ξ = 2 (> 1) (overdamped)
Case-I
This value is more than 1
1
ωL − = R --------------------- (i) So, that circuit is over-damped
ωC1 95. The half-power bandwidth of the resonant
1 circuit of figure can be increased by:
Case-II ωL − = −R --------(ii)
ωC 2
Subtracting equation (i) and (ii)
1 1
− + = 2R
ωC1 ωC 2

(a) increasing R1 (b) decreasing R1
(c) increasing R2 (d) decreasing R2
GATE-1989
fr
Ans. (a, d) : ∵ Q =
BW
Selectivity ∝ Quality factor
1
∴ Bandwidth ∝
Selectivity
If series resistance R 1 = 0 & parallel resistance
R2 = ∞
Then elements L and C only in the circuit and
selectivity will be high
For increasing the half power bandwidth-
Resistance R1→ Increase (a) equal to the resonance frequency
Resistance R2 → Decrease (b) less than the resonance frequency
Thus option (a) and (d) both are true (c) greater than the resonance frequency
(d) not zero
96. The resonance frequency of the series circuit
shown in figure is GATE-1992
Ans. (b) : In RLC series circuit current are in phase
with the VR (resistive voltage) in given figure. The
current lead by the resultant voltage V. Hence the
behaviour of circuit is leading. RLC series circuit
behavior before resonance frequency capacitive
1 1 (leading).
(a) Hz (b) Hz After resonance frequency behaviour of circuit
4π 3 4π
inductive (lagging) .
1 1
(c) Hz (d) Hz 99. In the series circuit shown in figure, for series
4π 10 4π 2 resonance, the value of the coupling coefficient
GATE-1990 k will be
Ans. (b) : Equivalent inductance for opposite polarity-
Leq = L1 +L2 – 2M
= 2+2 – (2×1)
= 2H
1 (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
∴ Resonant frequency ( f r ) = (c) 0.999 (d) 1.0
2π Leq C
1 GATE-1993
=
2π 2 × 2 Ans. (a) : Resonance condition-
1 XL = XC
= Hz. | X C |=| X L |= j12
4π
97. In series RLC high Q circuit, the current peaks X L = X L1 + X L2 + 2k X L1 × X L2
at a frequency
(a) equal to the resonant frequency = j2 + j8 + 2k j2 × 8j
(b) greater than the resonant frequency j12 = j10 + j8k
(c) less than the resonant frequency j2 = j 8k
(d) none of the above is true k = 0.25
GATE-1991 100. The parallel RLC circuit shown in figure is in
Ans. (a) : In a series RLC high Q circuit, has higher resonance. In this circuit
selectivity i.e. It has narrow bandwidth. Hence peak
current will be obtained at resonant frequency.
98. For the series R-L-C circuit of fig 1, the partial
phasor diagram at a certain frequency is a
shown in fig. 2. The operating frequency of the
circuit is
(a) I R < 1mA (b) I R + IL > 1mA Hence statement S1 is incorrect.
For parallel resonance circuit –
(c) I R + IC < 1mA (d) I L + IC > 1mA
Y = G1 + j( BC − BL )
GATE-1998
Parallel R-L-C resonance circuit
Ans. (b) : ∵ R.M.S. source current = 1 mA.
Also source current is the phasor sum of an the three Quality factor-
currents i.e. IR+ IL +IC. C
By using vector identity. We have – Q= R
L
IR + I L ≥ 1mA G ↑, R ↓, Q ↓
103. The condition on R, L and C such that the step
V0 ( s )
101. The transfer function H(s) = of an R-L-C response y(t) in the figure has no oscillations, is
Vi ( s )
106
circuit is given by H ( s ) = . The
s 2 + 20s + 106
quality factor of circuit.
(a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 5000 1 L L
GATE-2004 (a) R ≥ (b) R ≥
2 C C
Ans. (b) : Characteristic equation for the given transfer
function – L 1
(c) R ≥ 2 (d) R =
2 6
s + 20s + 10 = 0 -------(1) C LC
∵ Characteristic equation for series R-L-C circuit–
GATE-2005
R 1
s2 + s+ = 0 -------(2) Ans. (c) : Characteristic equation of series R-L-C
L LC
R 1
Comparing equation (1) and (2) we have – circuit –is s 2 + s+ =0
L LC
R
B.W. = = 20
L The circuit has no oscillation it b 2 − 4ac ≥ 0
1
and ω = = 103 rad/sec. or b2 ≥ 4ac
LC
2
ω R 4
∴ Quality factor ( Q ) = r i.e.   ≥
B.W. L LC
103 L
= or R 2 ≥ 4
20 C
= 0.05 × 103 L
Q = 50 or R ≥ 2
C
102. Consider the following statements S1 and S2
S1: At the resonant frequency the impedance of 104. In a series RLC circuit, R = 2 kΩ, L = 1H, and
a series R-L-C circuit is zero. 1
S2: In a parallel G-L-C circuit, increasing the C= µF
400
conductance G results in increase in its Q The resonant frequency is
factor.
1
Which one of the following is correct? (a) 2 × 104 Hz (b) × 104 Hz
(a) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE π
(b) Both S1 and S2 and TRUE (c) 104 Hz (d) 2π × 104 Hz
(c) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE KVS TGT (WE) 2014
(d) Both S1 and S2 are FLASE GATE-2005
TANGEDCO AE-2018 Ans. (b) : Resonant frequency
GATE-2004
1 1 1 1 2
Ans. (d) : Impedance of series R-L-C circuit – fr = = × = × −4
2π LC 2π 1 2π 10
Z = R + j( X L − XC ) 1× × 10−6
400
At resonance X L = X C
1
fr = × 104 Hz
∴ Z =R π

105. Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils 107. For a parallel RLC Circuit the critical
have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen damping is defined as
operating frequency. Their respective (a) L= R2C (b) L= 4R2C
resistance are R1 and R2. When connected in (c) L= 2RC (d) L= 2R2C
series, their effective Q factor at the same TNPSC AE- 2019
operating frequency is
Ans. (b) : For parallel RLC circuit
(a) q1 + q2
(b) (1/q1) + (1/q2) Critical damping ξ = 1
(c) (q1R1 + q2R2)/(R1 + R2) 1 L
(d) (q1R2 + q2R1)/(R1 + R2) ξ=
2R C
GATE-2013
1 L
Ans. (c) : 1=
2R C
1 L
1=
ωL1 ωL 2 4R 2 C
Given that q1 = & q2 =
R1 R2 L = 4R 2C
Which gives – 108. Which expression represents the quality factor
ωL = q R & ωL = q R
1 1 1 2 2 2
for a series resonant circuit?
The effective quality factor at the same frequency – 1 L L
(a) (b) R
R C C
ωLT
is Q = 1 C C
RT (c) (d) R
R L L
Where R T = R1 + R 2 [ For series resistance] KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
and LT = L1 + L 2 Ans. (a) :
or ωLT = ω ( L1 + L 2 )
= q1R1 + q 2 R 2
q1R1 + q 2 R 2
∴ Q=
R1 + R 2 At series resonance condition, XL = XC
106. The damping ratio of a series RLC circuit can 1
be expressed as L 1 L
Quality factor = LC = =
R 2C 2L R R LC R C
(a) (b)
2L R 2C L
R C 2 L 109. A series resonant circuit has R = 2 Ω, L = 1 mH
(c) (d) and C = 0.1 µF, the value of quality factor Q is:
2 L R C
GATE-2015 (a) 40 (b) 50
Ans. (c) : The characteristic equation of a series R-L-C (c) 25 (d) 30
circuit is given by – KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
Ans. (b) : Given, R = 2Ω, L = 1 mH = 1 × 10–3 H
2 R 1
s +  s + =0 C = 0.1 µF = 0.1 × 10–6 F
L LC
For series R-L-C circuit–
Comparing above equation with standard second order  Maximum energystored 
2 2 Quality-Factor (Q) = 2π  
equation i.e. – s + 2ξωn s + ωn = 0  Energy dissipiated per cycle 
1 ωo L 1 1 L
we get ωn = Q= = =
LC R ωo RC R C
R
and 2ξωn = 1 L 1 1× 10−3 1 1× 10−3 × 106
L Q= = =
R R C 2 0.1× 10−6 2 0.1
or ξ = LC
2L 1 103 1 10 4 1 100
= = = × 102 = = 50
R C 2 0.1 2 1 2 2
ξ=
2 L Q = 50
110. What will be the bandwidth of a series resonant Z=R
circuit provided it has an inductive reactance
of 1000 Ohm, a capacitive reactance of 1000 at resonance condition impedance is minimum, then
Ohm and a resistance of 0.1 Ohm? It is also V
known that the resonant frequency is 100 MHz. current through circuit is maximum, ↑ I =
R↓
(a) 1 kHz (b) 10 kHz Power Factor
(c) 1 MHz (d) 0.1 kHz R
cos φ =
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 Z Z= R (at resonance)
Ans. (b) : Given, At series resonance condition VL = VC
R = 0.1Ω, X L = 1000Ω, X C = 1000Ω R
cos φ =
XL 1000 R
Q= = = 10000
R 0.1 cos φ = 1
f r 100 × 106
BW= = = 10kHz
Q 10000 (x) Filter
111. A double tuned circuit consisting of two
magnetically coupled, identical high-Q tuned 1. Which statement is not 'TRUE' with reference
circuits (at the resonance frequency of either to switched capacitive filters?
circuit) will have the amplitude response as: (a) High accuracy
(a) a peak, always (b) Excellent temperature stability
(b) a dip, always (c) Generate very less noise
(c) either a peak or a dip (d) Low external component count
(d) neither a peak nor a dip RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 Ans. (c) : In the last decade or 50 many active filters
Ans. (a) : A double tuned circuit consisting of two with resistors and capacitors have been replaced with a
magnetically coupled, identical high-Q tuned circuits (at special kind of filter called switched capacitor filter.
the resonance frequency of either circuit) will have the The switched capacitor filter allows for very
amplitude response as a peak, always. sophisticated, accurate, and tuneable analog circuit to
112. A series resonant circuit is tuned to 10 MHz be manufactured without using resistor.
and provides 3- dB bandwidth of 100 kHz. The 2. In a first-order high-pass active filter, if the
quality factor Q of the circuit is resistance and the capacitance used are 10 KΩ
(a) 30 (b) 1 and 0.01 µF, respectively, then the cut-off
(c) 100 (d) 10 frequency of the filter is .
IES-2015 (a) 1.591 kHz (b) 1559 kHz
Ans. (c) : Given fr = 10 MHz (c) 159.1 kHz (d) 15.91 Hz
Band width f 2 − f1 = 100kHz UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
B.W. = 100 kHz Ans. (a) : Given, R = 10 KΩ, C = 0.01 µF
1
f 10 × 106 Cut off frequency of HPF =
Q= r = 2πRC
B.W. 100 ×103
1
Q = 100 =
2π × 10 × 103 × 0.01×10−6
113. Consider the following statements: = 1.592 × 103 Hz
When a series R-L-C circuit is under resonance = 1.592 kHz
1. Current is maximum through R
2. Magnitude of the voltage across L is equal 3. Identify band-stop filter.
to that across C
3. The power factor of the circuit is unity
(a)
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
IES-2008
Ans. (a) : A series RLC circuit at resonance
When, XL = XC (b)
Z = R 2 + ( X L − XC )
2

According to this transfer function for higher frequency
T (s → ∞ ) = 1
(c) And for lower frequency
T (s → 0) = 0
Therefore, it shows zero magnitude for lower frequency
and maximum magnitude for high frequency.
So, system is a high pass filter.
5. If two identical first order low-pass filters are
(d) cascaded non interactively, then the unit step
response of the composite filter will be
(a) Critically damped (b) Under damped
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 (c) Over damped (d) Oscillatory
TANGEDCO AE -2018
1
Ls + Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
v0 (s) Cs
Ans. (a) : = IES-1999
vi (s) R + Ls + 1
Ans. (a) : According to the equation, two identical first
Cs
order low pass filter are cascaded non-interactively than
2
v 0 (s) LCs + 1 Characteristic equation (1+sT) (1+sT) = 0
H(s) = =
vi (s) LCs 2 + RCs + 1 (sT)2 + 2sT + 1 = 0
at s = 0 ⇒ H(0) = 1 , s = ∞ ⇒ H(∞) = 1 s2 +
2s 1
+ =0
T T2
1
ωn = and ξ = 1 critically damped.
T
6. The shunt element of a band pass filter is
(a) Inductive
(b) Capacitive
(c) Parallel combination of L and C
(d) Series combination of L and C
Ans. (c) : Shunt element of band pass filter is the
So, it is a Band stop filter parallel combination of L and C, because at frequency
0 < ω < ∞, neither L and nor C will either open
s
4. The transfer function, T(s) = is that of a circuited or short circuited.
s+a
(a) low- pass filter (b) notch filter 4(s 2 + 25)
7. The transfer function, 2
(c) high-pass filter (d) band-pass filter s + 2.5s + 100
TNPSC AE-2013 represents.
ISRO Scientist Engg.2006 (a) a low pass notch filter
IES-1998 (b) a low Q bandpass filter
Ans. (c) : High pass filter- (c) a high Q bandpass filter
(d) a high pass notch filter
IES-1994
4 ( s 2 + 25 )
Ans. (d) : Given T ( s ) = 2
s + 2.5s + 100
Put s = jω
sCR
Transfer function T(s) =
sRC + 1
T ( jω ) =
{
4 ( jω) + 25
2
}
T (s) =
s ( jω ) 2
+ 2.5jω + 100
1
s+ 100 − 4ω2
RC T ( jω) =
T (s ) =
s (100 − ω2 ) + 2.5jω
s+a at ω = 0 rad / sec

100 10. Frequency response of the function
T (0) = =1
100 (s + 1)
T(s) = exhibits a maximum phase at a
ω = ∞ rad/sec (s + 2)
 100  frequency (in radian/sec)
ω2  2 − 4 
ω  −4 1
T (∞) = = =4 (a) 0 (b)
 100 2.5  1 2
ω2  2 − 1 + j
ω ω  (c) 2 (d) ∞
From the above it is clear that non zero value for high IES-1997
and low frequencies. Ans. (c) : Given that
so, it is a high pass notch filter.
s +1
8. A low-pass filter circuit is basically T (s ) =
s+2
(a) a differentiating circuit with low time
Put s = jω
constant
jω + 1
(b) a differentiating circuit with larger time T ( jω ) =
constant jω + 2
(c) an integrating circuit with low time constant ω
(d) an integrating circuit with larger time ∠T ( jω) = tan −1 ( ω) − tan −1  
2
constant
IES-1995  ω 
 ω− 2 
Ans. (d) : ∠T ( jω) = tan  −1
2  ---------- (i)
• A low pass filter circuit basically an integrating  1+ ω 
 
circuit with larger time constant.  2 
• A low pass filter is a circuit can be designed to d∠T ( jω)
modify, reshape or reject all unwanted high For maximum =0
dω
frequencies of an electrical signal and accept or pass
So, from equation (i) differentiate with respect to ω
only low frequency signals wanted by the circuit
designer. d∠T ( jω) 1 1 1
= 2 − ×
dt ω + 1 ω2 2
+1
4
1 2
− =0
ω2 + 1 ω2 + 4
1 2
2
= 2
ω +1 ω + 4
[Low Pass Filter] ω2 + 4 = 2ω2 + 2
V0 ( s ) 1 1 1
= T.F. = = = ω2 = 2
Vi ( s ) 1 + sCR 1 + sT 1 + jωT
ω = 2 rad/sec
V( 0) ( t ) = V0 e−1/ T
11. The pole-zero pattern of a particular filter is
Less the time constant → Faster will be the discharge shown in the Fig. It is that of a/an
More the time constant → Slower will be the discharge
So, for the capacitor to act as an integrator.
9. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided
mainly because they
(a) are always associated with some resistance
(b) are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturization
(c) are nonlinear in nature
(d) saturate quickly
IES-1997 (a) low-pass filter (b) high-pass filter
Ans. (b) : In active filter circuits, inductances are (c) band-pass filter (d) all-pass filter
avoided mainly because they are bulky and unsuitable IES-1997
for miniaturization.
GATE 1991
Ans. (c) : When ω = 0
Inductor (L) behaves as a short circuit and capacitor (C)
behaves as an open circuit
So, equivalent circuit can be drawn
From the phasor
T (s ) =
( s + j2 )( s − j2 )
( s + j1)( s − j1)
s2 + 4 input reaches output
T (s ) = o When ω = ∞, then equivalent circuit can be drawn.
s2 + 1
Put s = jω
T(s) =
( jω ) + 4
2
( jω)2 + 1
−ω2 + 4 4 − ω2
= = Input do not reach at the output and output occurs at
−ω2 + 1 1 − ω2 only low frequency.
at ω = 0, T ( 0 ) = 4 So, circuit behaves as a low pass filter.
at ω = 1, T (1) = ∞ 13. The pole-zero pattern shown in the given figure
at ω = 2, T ( 2 ) = 0 is for
at ω = ∞, T ( ∞ ) = 1
that means we can draw wave form.
(a) a low-pass filter (b) a high-pass filter

(c) an all-pass filter (d) a band-pass filter
RPSC Lect. 2011
IES-2001
12. The circuit shown in the figure below is a
Ans. (c) : According to the question pole- zero plot
we can draw.
(a) Low pass filter (b) high pass filter

(c) band pass filter (d) band stop filter
IES-2000
Ans. (a) :
From the above circuit we can write transfer function.
( s − 1 − j) ( s-1+j)
T.F. =
( s + 1 − j)( s + 1 + j)
s 2 − 2s + 2
T.F. =
d s 2 + 2s + 2
Put s = jω (b) Chebyshev response has a flat response in the
pass band
j2ω2 − 2 jω + 2 −ω2 − 2 jω + 2 (c) Butterworth response has ripples in the pass
T.F. = =
j2 ω2 + 2 jω + 2 −ω2 + 2 jω + 2 band
(d) Chebyshev response has ripples in the pass
2 − 2 j ω − ω2
T ( jω) = band
2 jω + 2 − ω2 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
Put ω = 0, T ( 0 ) = 1 Ans. (d) : Butterworth filter as no ripple either in pass
ω = ∞, T ( ∞ ) = 1 band or stop band while Chebyshev filter will have
ripple either in stop band or pass band . Butterworth
It has Non zero gain for low frequency as well as high filter does not have any type where as Chebyshev filter
frequency. So given pole zero pattern shows a all pass has two type (i) Ripple in pass band (ii) Ripple in stop
filter. band.
14. If the numerator of a second-order transfer Difference between Butterworth & Chebyshev
function F(s) is a constant, then the filter is a filters:- The magnitude response of Butterworth filter
(a) band-pass filter (b) band-stop filter decreases with increases in frequency from 0→∞ while
(c) high-pass filter (d) low-pass filter the magnitude response of the Chebyshev filter
IES-2001 fluctuates shows ripples in the pass band and Stop band
Ans. (d) : If the numerator of second order transfer depending on the type of the filters.
function F(s) is a constant, then the filter is a low pass 17. The given circuit represents a
filter the transfer function F(s) of low pass filter
C
F (s ) = , C = constant
s 2 + as + b
from above relation we can say numerator part is
constant.
15. Which one of the following is the transfer
function of an electrical low-pass filter using R (a) Low pass filter (b) High pass filter
and C elements? (c) Band pass filter (d) Band stop filter
RCs 1 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
(a) (b)
[1 + RCs] [1 + RCs] Ans. (b) :
RC s
(c) (d)
[1 + RCs] [1 + RCs]
TNPSC AE-2013
IES-2004, 1993
Ans. (b) : Low pass filter is shown-
at ω → 0 ( low frequency)
capacitor acts as an open circuit and inductor acts as an
short circuit.
Apply KVL in above circuit-
 1 
Vi ( s ) = I ( s )  R +
 Cs 
 1 
V0 ( s ) = I ( s )  
 Cs  At ω → ∞ (high frequency)
1 Capacitor → Short
V0 ( s ) Inductor → Open
T.F. = = Cs
Vi ( s ) R + 1
Cs
V0 ( s ) 1
=
Vi ( s ) RCs + 1
16. For Butterworth & Chebyshev filters, the Here, the given circuit allows only signal with higher
correct statement is : frequencies.
(a) Butterworth response has a sharp cut-off Hence, it is a high pass filter.

18. Gain of an RC low pass filter having a time 21. A second-order band-pass active filter can be
constant 'τ' and frequency 'ω' is : obtained by cascading a low pass second order
section having cut-off frequency fOH with a high
1+ ( ωτ )
2
(a) 1 + (ωτ) 2 (b) 1 pass second order section having cut-off
frequency fOL provided
1 + ( ωτ ) 1 − ( ωτ )
2 2
(c) ωτ (d) ωτ (a) f OH > f OL (b) f OH < f OL
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013 1
Ans. (b) : Here, R-C low pass filter is shown (c) f OH = f OL (d) f OH ≤ f OL
2
Ans. (a) : In Band pass filter:-
fOH > fOL
V0 (s)
H(s) =
Vi (s)
1
=
RCs + 1
1 22. A low-pass filter with a cut-off frequency of 300
H(jω) =
1 + jωRC Hz is cascaded with a high-pass filter with a
Thus , τ = RC = time constant cut-off frequency of 200 Hz. The resultant
system of filters will function as
1 (a) an all-pass filter (b) a band-stop filter
H( jω) =
1 + jωτ (c) a low pass filter (d) a band-pass filter
1 GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
= Ans. (d) :
1+ ω2 τ2
19. If τ is the time constant and ω is the applied
frequency, a low pass RC filter acts a pure
integrator when:
(a) ωτ = 0 (b) ωτ >> 1 fc fc
(c) ωτ = 1 (d) ωτ << 1
Ans. (b) : The gain for low pass filter is -
V (s) 1
Gain = 0 =
Vi (s) 1 + RCs
1
Gain =
1 + jωRCs 23.
Ideal digital filter is always a/an
(a) IIR filter
(b) FIR filter
(c) Causal filter
(d) Linear phase filter
For pure integrator, Ans. (a) : An ideal digital filter will have a constant
ωτ >> 1 gain of at least unity in the pass band and a constant
1 gain of zero in the stop band. Ideal digital filter is
∴ ω >> always an IIR filter.
τ
1 24. FIR Digital filters are
ω >> (a) Always stable
RC(timeconstant )
(b) Conditionally stable
20. Which of the following filter has the fastest (c) Having nonlinear phase
roll-off? (d) Having ideal frequency response
(a) R-C (b) Bessel GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
(c) Butterworth (d) Chebyshev Ans. (a) : In digital signal processing, an FIR is a filter
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 whose impulse response is of finite period as a result of
Ans. (d) : Chebyshev filter have some pass band ripple it settles to zero in finite time. FIR digital filter are
and fastest roll-off. Always stable.
25. Differentiator circuit is also works as- (a) Low pass filter (b) High pass filter
(a) All pass filter (b) Band pass filter (c) De-emphasis circuit (d) Integrator
(c) High pass filter (d) Low pass filter TNPSC AE-2014
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 Ans. (b) : Low pass filter
Ans. (c) : A differentiator circuit is essentially a high
pass filter. It can generate square wave from triangular
wave input.
26. A linear phase filter has a phase function e–j2ω.
What is the order of the filter?
(a) 5 (b) 7 A low-pass filter is a filter that passes signals with a
(c) 3 (d) 9 frequency lower than a selected cut-off frequency and
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 attenuates signals with frequencies higher than the cut-
off frequency.
Ans. (c) : Given phase function = e–j2ω = e–jNω
31. The function of bleeder resistance in filter
order = N + 1 ∵N=2
circuits is
order = 2 + 1 1. to maintain minimum current necessary for
order = 3 optimum inductor filter operation.
27. Identify the type of filter of the network shown 2. to work as voltage divider in order to provide
in the figure below– variable output from the supply.
3. to provide discharge path to capacitors so that
output becomes zero when the circuit has
been de-energized.
(a) All the correct (b) 1 alone is correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct
TNPSC AE-2013
(a) Low pass filter Ans. (a) : In electronic, A bleeder resistor is a resistor
(b) All pass filter connected in parallel with the output of a high voltage
(c) Band elimination filter power supply circuit for the purpose of discharging the
(d) Band pass filter electric charge stored in power supply's filter capacitor
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 with equipment is turned off.
Ans. (d) : When only L and C elements are connected 32. A constant k low-pass filter has a cut-off
in parallel form. It is known as Band pass filter. frequency of 1000 Hz. At a frequency of 50 Hz,
28. An active filter uses the phase shift is
(a) Resistors and inductors (a) 0 (b) π
(b) Resistors and capacitors (c) less than π (d) more than π
(c) Inductors only TNPSC AE-2008
(d) Capacitors only
Ans. (a) : When operating frequency is less than the
UPSC JWM-2016 cutoff frequency phase shift will be zero.
Ans. (b) : An active filter is a type of analog circuit
implementing an electronic filter using resistor and 33. The poles of an RC function
capacitors, typically an amplifier. (a) are simple and lie on negative real axis
29. The ripple factor of a inductor filter is (b) are simple and lie on the jw-axis
(c) must be complex conjugate
R Lω RL
(a) (b) (d) may be anywhere on the s-plane
2 3L 2 3L TNPSC AE-2008
RL RL Ans. (a) : For RC driving point function
(c) (d)
3 2ωL 32ωL (i) Poles and zeros are simple.
TNPSC AE-2014 (ii) Poles and zeros alternate each other on the negative
Ans. (c) : Inductor filter– real axis.
RL (iii) The slope of the graph z(s) against s is always
Ripple factor (γ) = negative.
3 2ωL
34. In a series resonance type BPF, C = 1.8 pF,
30. Which statement is not correct? The given
circuit is L = 25 mH, RF = 52Ω and RL = 9 kΩ. The
resonance frequency will be
(a) 751 Hz (b) 751 kHz
(c) 751 MHz (d) 826 MHz
TNPSC AE-2008
Ans. (b) : Given, C = 1.8 pF, L = 25 mH 38. Among the filters, Bessel, Butterworth and
RF = 52 Ω, RL= 9kΩ Chebychev, the filter with maximally flat
response is
We know that,
(a) Bessel
1 1
fr = = (b) Butterworth
2π LC 2π 1.8 × 10−12 × 25 × 10−3
(c) Butterworth, Chebychev
108 (d) All of the above
fr =
2π × 5 18 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Among the above filter Bessel, Butterworth
fr ≃ 751 kHz
and Chebychev, butterworth filter has maximum flat
35. The use of notch filter in signal conditioning response.
system is to 39. In a distortion factor meter, the fitter at the
(a) filter R.F. noise front end is used to suppress
(b) filter 50 Hz noise from mains (a) Odd harmonics
(b) Even harmonics
(c) filter the signal from various noises
(c) Fundamental component
(d) attenuate the evolved response potentials
(d) DC component
TNPSC AE-2008
Ans. (b) : Notch type filter is commonly used in Ans. (c) : In order to measure the higher-order
biological recording instruments. This is a special types harmonics correctly the filter at the front end is used to
of filter designed to eliminate fundamental frequency suppress fundamental component. The distortion factor
i.e. either 50Hz or 60 Hz. meter is an electronic measuring Instrument which
36. The ideal dc output voltage of a comparator displays the amount of distortion added to original
filter is equal to signal by an electronic circuit. It can also correctly
measure the fundamental frequency component of
(a) Peak value of rectified voltage
waveform and its higher order harmonics.
(b) RMS value of rectified voltage
40. The series element of a band stop filter is
(c) Average value of rectified voltage
(a) Capacitive
(d) None of these
(b) Inductive
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 (c) Series combination of inductance and
Ans. (c) : A comparator circuit is used to mark the capacitance
instant when an arbitrary wave form attains some (d) Parallel combination of inductance and
reference level. The ideal dc output voltage of capacitance
comparator circuit is equal to average value of rectifier RRB SSE 01.09.2015 Shit-I
voltage. Ans. (d) : The series element of a band-stop filter is
37. A low-pass filter having a frequency Response parallel combination of inductance and capacitance.
H(jω) = A(ω)ejϕ(ω) does not produce any phase 41. In a series resonant band-pass filter, a lower
distortion if value of Q results in
(a) A higher resonant frequency
(a) A(ω) =Cω2, ϕ (ω) = kω3
(b) A larger bandwidth
(b) A(ω)=Cω2, ϕ (ω) =kω
(c) A higher impedance
(c) A(ω) =Cω, ϕ(ω) =kω2 (d) A smaller bandwidth
(d) A(ω) = C, ϕ(ω) =kω–1 RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I Ans. (b) : In a series resonant band-pass filter, a lower
Ans. (b) : To avoid the phase distortion of a filter the value of Q results in a larger bandwidth that is -
phase of the signal should be a linear function of ω. 1 L f
Q= = r
From the given option (b) satisfies the condition. R C B.W.

42. In active filter which element is absent? Ans. (d) : At ω→0
(a) Resister
(b) Inductor
(c) Capacitor
(d) Both inductor and capacitor
`
Ans. (b) : In active filter inductor is absent which are
By voltage division rule-
bulky and expensive at lower frequency.
RL
43. The critical value of inductance used in a V0 = VS
R L + RS
L-section filter of rectifier is given
At ω→∞
RL 2R L
(a) L c = (b) L c =
3ω w
2 ω 1 ω
(c) L c = (d) L c =
3 RL 3 RL
TNPSC AE- 2019 RL
V0 = VS
Ans. (a) : Critical value of inductance in a L-section R L + RS
R Frequency response of given circuit
filter- L c = L
3ω
44. A low-pass filter with a cut-off frequency of
30 Hz is cascaded with a high-pass filter with a
cut-off frequency of 20 Hz. The resultant
system of filters will function as:
(a) All-pass filter (b) All-stop filter
From the above explanation we can say that the circuit
(c) Band stop filter (d) Band-pass filter will be a band reject filter.
46. The RC circuit shown in the figure is
Ans. (d) : Graph can be drawn as-
(a) a low-pass filter (b) a high-pass filter

(c) a band-pass filter (d) a low-reject filter
∴ It will act as a band pass filter.
KVS TGT (WE)-2017
45. The circuit of the figure represents s
GATE-2007
Ans. (c) :
(i) At ω = 0, capacitor acts as open circuit.
(a) low pass filter (b) high pass filter

(c) band pass filter (d) band reject filter
V0
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II =0
GATE-2000 Vi

(ii) At ω = ∞, capacitor acts as short circuit 48. A RC high pass filter acts as differentiator
V0 when_______.
=0 (a) ω τ = 0 (b) ω τ = 1
Vi
(c) ω τ >> 1 (d) ω τ << 1
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (d) : A differentiation gives the derivative of input
voltage as output.
A differentiator using passive element resistors and

So, circuit shown above works as band-pass filter capacitors is a high pass filter as shown in the above
circuit diagram. It acts as a differentiator only when the
47. Two series resonant filters are as shown in the
time constant is too small (ω τ << 1).
figure. Let the 3-dB bandwidth of Filter 1 be B1
and that of Filter 2 be B2. The value of B1/B2 is 49. The filter which has ripple response in pass
band and flat response in stop band is_______.
(a) Butterworth filter
(b) Sallen key filter
(c) Chebyshev filter
(d) Cauer filter
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (c) : Chebyshev filter has a ripple response in the
baseband and flat response in the stopband. A
chebyshev filter is used where a very sharp roll-off is
required.
50. In a prototype filter the series arm and shunt
arm impedance should be
(a) Zero
(a) 4 (b) 1 (b) Resistive
1 1 (c) Reactive and same type
(c) (d)
2 4 (d) Reactive and opposite type
GATE-2007 TANGEDCO AE- 2018
Ans. (d) : As we know that, Ans. (d) : In a prototype filter the product of series and
R shunt impedance is always constant. In a prototype filter
Bandwidth of RLC series circuit is (B.W.) = the series arm and shunt arm impedance should be
L
reactive and its elements inductance and capacitance
R
Bandwidth of filter '1' , (B.W)1 = (L, C) are in opposite nature.
L1
R R 4R
Bandwidth of filter '2' , (B.W)2 = = =
L2 L1 4 L1
( BW )1 ( R / L1 )
=
( BW )2 ( 4R / L1 )
(B.W)1 1 Where Zp = shunt arm impedance
=
(B.W)2 4 Zs = series arm impedance
51. The values of L and C for a low pass filter with 0 −1 − 0
H(∞) = =1
cut off frequency of 2.5 KHz and operating 0 −1 + 0
with a terminated load resistance of 450Ω are So, it has non zero gain at both high and low
given by frequencies. Therefore it is an all pass filter.
(a) 57.3mH; 0.283 µF 53. For a first order RL low pass network, the
(b) 28.66mH; 0.14 µF following is true :
(c) 114.64mH; 0.566 µF (a) The inductor tends to act as a short as ω → ∞
(d) 50.23mH; 0.632 µF (b) At a very low frequencies, the output voltage
BSNL (JTO)-2006 lags the input by π/2
Ans. (a) : Given- (c) With its output unloaded, the circuit
R = 450 Ω consumes maximum power at ω = 0
f c = 2.5KHz (d) The inductor's impedance is 2 times the
450 resistance at the cutoff frequency
L=
π × 2.5 ×103 BSNL(JTO)-2002
450 450 Ans. (a) : For a first order RL low pass network, at
L= = = 57.3mH
3.14 × 2.5 ×10 3
7.85 × 103
ω→∞
1
C= the inductor tends to act as a short circuit.
πf c × R 0
54. In case of high pass filter, the transfer function
1
= should be with
3.14 × 450 × 2.5 × 103
1. 1 pole and 1 zero
1
= = 0.283µF 2. 2 poles and 2 zeroes
3532.5 × 103
3. 2 poles and 1 zero
s 2 – 5s + 100
52. The transfer function H(s) = 2 Which of the above are correct?
s + 5s + 100
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
represents
(a) a high - pass filter
IES-2018
(b) a band elimination filter
Ans. (d) : In case of high pass filter, all the poles and
(c) a resonator
zeroes should be on left half of s-plane and they are
(d) an all pass filter
interlaces. Poles are dominated in the case of High Pass
IES-1994
Filter (H.P.F).
Ans. (d) : Given that
55. In the passband of a symmetric lattice filter,
s 2 − 5s + 100
H (s) = the nature of XA and XB where XA and XB
s 2 + 5s + 100
represent the reactance of the series arm and
Put s = jω the diagonal arm of the lattice is of
H ( jω ) =
( jω)2 − 5 jω + 100 (a) The same sign
( jω)2 + 5jω + 100 (b) The opposite sign

(c) The same sign and equal magnitude
( 2 ) − 5 jω
= 100 − ω (d) Of arbitrary sign
(100 − ω2 ) + 5jω
IES-2003
at, ω = 0 Ans. (b) : For symmetric Lattice filter -
100
H (0) = =1 Z0 = XA XB
100
at ω = ∞ Hence they are in opposite sign.

02.
Electromagnetic Field Theory
(i) Co-ordinate System & Vector Ans. (d) : We have to find work done between (0, 0, 0)
to (2, 1, 3) by using parametric form put x = 2t, y = t
Calculus and z = 3t
If r̂ = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ the curl r̂ is 1
( )
1.
W = ∫  3 ( 2t ) ɵi + ( 2.2t.3t − t ) ɵj + 3tkɵ . 2iɵ + ɵj + 3kɵ dt
2
(a) 0 (b) 1  
0
(c) x (d) x + z 1
  (
= ∫ 12t 2 ɵi + (12t 2 − t ) ɵj + 3tkɵ  . 2iɵ + ɵj + 3kɵ dt )
Ans. (a) : Given r = xi + yj + zkˆ
ˆ ˆ 0
1
i j k = ∫ ( 24t 2 + 12t 2 − t + 9t ) dt
∂ ∂ ∂ 0
∴ curl r = 1
∂x ∂y ∂z
= ∫ ( 36t 2 + 8t ) dt
x y z 0
∂ ∂  ∂ ∂ 
1
= 12  t 3  + 4  t 2 
1
= î  ( z ) − ( y )  − ˆj  ( z ) − ( x )  + 0 0
 ∂y ∂z   ∂x ∂z 
= 12 + 4
∂ ∂ 
k̂  ( y ) − ( x )  = 16 unit
 ∂x ∂y  4. If a is a constant vector and
=0
r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zk,
ˆ then div ( a × r ) and curl
2. If S is a closed surface, n is the outward drawn
normal to S and V is the volume enclosed by S, ( a × r ) are given by
then ∫
S
r.n dS is equal to (a) ( 2a, 0 ) (b) ( a, 0 )
(a) V (b) 3V (c) ( 0, 2a ) (d) ( 0, a )
(c) nV (d) 0 BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022
Ans. (c) : Let a = a 1i + a 2 j + a 3 kˆ
ˆ ˆ
Ans. (b) : From divergence theorem
r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ
∫∫∫ ∇.AdV = ∫ A.n.ds
ˆ
s
The position vector- î ˆj kˆ

(
r = u x x + u y y + u zz ) ∴ ( a × r ) = a1 a 2 a3
x y z
 ∂ ∂ ∂
∇.A =  u x
 ∂x
+ uy
∂y ∂z
(
+ u z  .1 u x x + u y y + u z z ) = i ( a 2 z − a 3 y ) − ˆj( a1z − a 3 x ) + kˆ ( a1 y − a 2 x )
∇.A = (1 + 1 + 1) ∂ ∂ ∂
∴ div ( a × r ) = (a × r ) + (a × r ) + (a × r )
∇.A = 3 ∂x ∂y ∂z
So, ∂ ∂ ∂
= ( a 2 z − a 3 y ) + − ( a1z − a 3 x )  + ( a1y − a 2 x )
∂x ∂y ∂z
∫∫ r.nds
ˆ = ∫∫∫ 3.dv = 3V
s
∵A = r
=0
3. The work done in moving a particle in the force
field f = 3x 2 î + (2xz - y)jˆ + zkˆ along the straight î ˆj kˆ
line from (0, 0, 0) to (2, 1, 3) is ∂ ∂ ∂
Curl ( a × r ) =
(a) 10 (b) 12 ∂x ∂y ∂z
(c) 18 (d) 16 a 2 z − a 3 y a 3 x − a 1z a 1 y − a 2 x
Electromagnetic Field Theory 392 YCT

∂ ∂  8. Find, which statement is "TRUE' for A vector
= î  ( a 1 y − a 2 x ) − ( a 3 x − a 1z )  field F
 ∂y ∂ z 
I. Solenoidal and irrotational if
∂ ∂ 
− ĵ  ( a1 y − a 2 x ) − ( a 2 z − a 3 y )  ∇ ⋅ F = 0 and ∇ × F = 0
 ∂x ∂z 
II.Solenoidal but not irrotational, if
∂ ∂ 
+ k̂  ( a 3 x − a 1z ) − ( a 2 z − a 3 y )  ∇ ⋅ F ≠ 0 and ∇ × F = 0
 ∂x ∂y  III. Irrotational but not solenoidal, if
= i [ a 1 + a 1 ] − j[ − a 2 − a 2 ] + k [ a 3 + a 3 ]
ˆ ˆ ˆ
∇ × F ≠ 0 and ∇ ⋅ F ≠ 0
= 2  a1î + a 2 ˆj + a 3 kˆ  IV. Neither solenoidal nor irrotational, if
= 2a ∇ ⋅ F ≠ 0 and ∇ × F ≠ 0
(a) I only (b) II and IV
∴ div ( a × r ) = 0
(c) I and III (d) I and II
And curl ( a × r ) = 2a
5. The correct vector identify is, TANGEDCO- 2015
(a) ∇⋅ VA = A ⋅ ∇V + Α(∇ ⋅ V) Nagaland PSC-CTSE (Degree)-2015 Paper-I
(b) ∇⋅ VA = A ⋅ ∇V + V(∇ ⋅ A)
Ans. (a) : For solenoid–
(c) ∇⋅ VA = ∇ ⋅ V + ∇ ⋅ A
(d) ∇⋅ VA = (∇ ⋅ V) ( ∇ ⋅ A) ∇⋅F = 0
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 For irrotational–
Ans. (b) : ∇ ⋅ (VA) = A∇V + V(∇ ⋅ A)
∇×F = 0
from the product rule
6. For a vector field A , which one of the 9. Given field A = 3x 2 yza x + x 3 za y + ( x 3 y − 2z ) a z ,
following is False ? it can be said that A is -
(a) ∇ × A is another vector field. (a) Conservative
(b) A is solenoidal if ∇ ⋅ A = 0 (b) Divergenceless
(c) A is irrotational if ∇ 2 A = 0 (c) Solenoidal
( ) (
(d) ∇ × ∇ × A = ∇ ∇ ⋅ A – ∇ 2 A ) (d) Rotational
GATE – 2020
Ans. (a) : If ∇×A = 0 then field is a conservative
Ans. (c) :
aˆ x aˆ y aˆ z
If a field is scalar A then ∇ 2 A = 0
∂ ∂ ∂
A is irrotational if ∇ × A = 0 ∇×A =
∂x ∂y ∂z
 πx 
7. Given the vector field A = 5x 2sin   aˆ x , find
 2 
3x 2 yz x 3z ( x y − 2z )
3
div(A) at x = 1.
 ∂ 3 ∂ 3  ∂ 3
(a) π
5
(b) 20
= aˆ x 
 ∂y
(x y − 2z −
∂
)
z 
( )
x z  − aˆ y 
 ∂x
x y − 2z ( )
2
∂   ∂ 3 ∂ 
(c) π
3
2
(d) 10 −
∂z
( 
)
3x 2 yz  + aˆ z 
 ∂x
( )
x z −
∂y
3x 2 yz 

( )
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ans. (d) : Given– = aˆ x  x 3 − x 3  − aˆ y 3x 2 y − 3x 2 y  + aˆ z 3x 2 z − 3x 2 z 
 πx  =0
A = 5x 2sin   aˆ x
 2  ∴ field A is conservative.
Now divergence of A is-
10. The divergence of vector
δ  2   πx    
∆. A =  5x  sin      + 0 + 0 A = yz aˆ x + zx aˆ y + xy aˆ z is
δx    2    
(a) rotational (b) irrotational
At x = 1
(c) solenoidal (d) both b & c
∆.A = 10 TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
Ans. (d) : Given vector is - C = 3 ⋅ u x + 2 ⋅ u y + 1⋅ u z
∴ A = yz aˆ x + zx aˆ y + xy aˆ z uɵ x uɵ y uɵ z
∂ (yz) ∂ ( zx ) ∂ ( xy ) A×B = 1 2 3
∴ ∇.A = aˆ x + aˆ y + aˆ z
∂x ∂y ∂z 1 1 1
∇.A = 0
(
A × B = −uɵ x + 2uɵ y − uɵ z )
Then, ( )
∇.A = 0 → (Solenoidal)
( A × B ) .C = ( −uɵ x + 2uɵ y − uɵ z ) ( 3uɵ x + 2uɵ y +1× uɵ z )
∇ × A = 0 → (irrotational) =–3+4–1
11. For vectors, A = –4ax + 2ay + 3az and B = 3ax + (A × B). C = 0
4ay – az, The magnitude of 5A – 2B will be:
14. P = 2i - 3j,Q = −3i + 4j - 2k,and R are in
(a) 969 (b) 699
equilibrium, if R is
(c) 696 (d) 669
(a) −i − j + 2k (b) i − j + 2k
(c) i + j + 2k (d) i − j − 2k
Ans. (a) : 5A − 2B = ( −20aˆ x + 10aˆ y + 15aˆ z )
− ( 6aˆ x + 8aˆ y − 2aˆ z ) Ans. (b) : Given that,
= – 26aˆ x + 2aˆ y + 17aˆ z P = 2i − 3j
Q = −3i + 4j − 2k
( 26 ) + ( 2 ) + (17 )
2 2 2
Magnitude of 5A − 2B =
For equilibrium -
= 969
P+Q+R = 0
12. Find the work done when a force
2i − 3j − 3i + 4 j − 2k + R = 0
( )
F = i + 2j + 3k N acting on a particle takes it
R = i − j + 2k
(
from the point r1 = i + j + k m to the point )
15. A rigid body is rotating with constant angular
(
r2 = i − j + 2k m ) velocity ω about a fixed axis, if v is the velocity
(a) –3 J (b) –1 J of a point of the body, then curl v =
(c) Zero (d) 2 J (a) ω (b) ω2
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Red) (c) 2 ω (d) 2 ω2
Ans. (b) : Work done (W) = F.r ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
Ans. (c) :
= F.( r2 − r1 )
( ) ( ) (
W = î + 2jˆ + 3kˆ .  î − ˆj + 2kˆ − î + ˆj + kˆ 
  )
W = ( î + 2ˆj + 3kˆ ) .( −2ˆj + kˆ )
v = linear velocity
W = –4+3
ω = angular velocity
W = –1J
r = position vector
13. If A,B & C are vectors and A= 1.ux + 2.uy +3.uz
B= 1.ux + 1.uy + 1.uz and C= 3.ux + 2.uy + 1.uz, Hence v = ω× r
then (A × B). C is : Given r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) –1 ω = ωkɵ
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 î ˆj kˆ
Ans. (c) : Given, A = 1 ⋅ u x + 2 ⋅ u y + 3 ⋅ u z v = ω× r = 0 0 ω = −ωyiˆ + ωxjˆ
B = 1⋅ u x + 1⋅ u y + 1⋅ u z x y z

î ˆj kˆ 18. A field is solenoidal,
(a) if it obeys divergence theorem
∂ ∂ ∂
Curl v = (b) if its gradient is zero
∂x ∂y ∂z
(c) if it curl is zero
−ωy ωx 0 (d) if its divergence is zero
= 0 − ˆj ( 0 − 0 ) + kˆ ( ω + ω) = 2ωkˆ TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (d) : A vector is said to be solenoidal if its
Since ω = ωkɵ divergence is zero. Hence at every point its divergence
Curl v = 2ω should be zero.
16. The value of the determinant 19. The value of c which makes the angle 45º
cosθ 0 sin θ between a = i + cj and b = i + j is
0 1 0 is 1
(a) 1 (b)
−sinθ 0 cosθ 2
(a) 0 (b) –1 −1
(c) (d) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2 2
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008
Ans. (c) : Given, Ans. (d) : Given, that,
cosθ 0 sinθ a = i + cj
determinant = 0 1 0 b = i+j
-sinθ 0 cosθ and, θ = 45º
= cos θ ( cos θ − 0 ) − 0 + sin θ ( 0 + sin θ ) a.b = a . b cos θ
= cos 2 θ + sin 2 θ 1+c= 1 + c2 1 + 1 cos 45º

=1 (∵ cos 2
θ + sin θ = 1)
2
1
1+c= 1 + c2 × 2 ×
17. if α , β,γ are the roots of equations x + px +qx+ 3 2 2
p=0 Then the value of tan–1 α + tan–1 β + tan–1γ 1 + c = 1 + c2
is Squaring on both sides
(a) nπ/2 (b) nπ (1 + c)2 = 1 + c2
nπ 1 + 2c + c2 = 1 + c2
(c) 2nπ (d)
4 ∴ c=0
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 20. Divergence of D is a
Ans. (b) : If α, β, γ are the roots of equations (a) scalar point function
(b) vector point function
x3 + px2+ qx + p = 0
(c) phasor
then α + β + γ = –p,
(d) may be scalar or vector point function
αβ+β γ + γ α = q and αβ γ = –p Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
tan (α) + tan–1 (β) + tan–1 ( γ )
–1 Ans. (a) : Divergence is applicable on vector quantity
and it produce a scalar point function.
 α + β + γ − αβγ 
= tan–1   21. The following device is used for conversion of
 1 − ( αβ + βγ + γα )  coordinates
(a) Synchros (b) Synchro resolver
 −p − ( −p ) 
= tan −1   (c) Microsyn (d) Synchro
 1 − q  transformer
= tan–1(0) Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
∴ tan (α) + tan (β) + tan ( γ ) = nπ

–1 –1 –1 Ans. (b) : Synchro-resolver is rotary transformer used
for measuring degree of rotation and also used for the
because tanθ = 0 when θ = nπ conversion of the co-ordinates.

22. Divergence of the vector field 27. If the line integral of vector field depends only
V(x, y, z) = –(x cos xy + y)i + (y cos xy)j + upon the coordinates of the two points in the
(sin z2 + x2 +y2)k is field and independent of actual path taken
(a) 2zcosz2 (b) sin xy + 2z cos z2 between them, then the field is said to be
(c) xsin xy – cosz (d) None of these (a) Non-conservative (b) Curled
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I (c) Non-linear (d) Conservative
Ans. (a) : Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
V = − ( x.cos xy + y ) î + ( ycos xy ) ˆj + ( sin z 2 + x 2 + y2 ) kˆ Ans. (d) : A vector field is said to be conservative
∂Vx ∂Vy ∂Vz vector field if it satisfy following condition.
∇.V = + + (i) Line integral of F are path independent
∂x ∂y ∂z
(ii) Line integral of F over closed loops are always zero.
= – cos xy + x (sin xy) (y) + cos xy – y (sin xy) x
+ 2z cosz2 28. A theorem that relates surface integral with the
= 2z cosz 2 volume integral is called
23. The curl of the gradient of the scalar field (a) Stoke's theorem
2 2 2 (b) Gauss-divergence theorem
defined by V = 2x y + 3y z +4z x is
(a) 4xy ax + 6yz ay + 8zx az (c) Carnot's theorem
(b) 4ax + 6ay + 8az (d) Maximum power transfer theorem
(c) (4ax + 4z2) ax + (2x2 + 6yz)ay +(3y2+8zx)az Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
(d) 0 Ans. (b) : Gauss- divergence theorem states that the
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I surface integral of a vector field over a closed surface
Ans. (d) : Curl of any gradient is always zero. which called the flux through the surface is equal to the
∇ × ∇V = 0 volume integral of divergence over the region inside the
24. Poisson's equation for inhomogeneous medium surface.
is : ∫∫ A.ds = ∫∫∫ ∇ ⋅ AdV
(a) ∇2V = –ρ (b) ∇.(∇V) = –ρ S V
(c) ∇2(V) = –ρ (d) None of these 29. Let a = i + j − k and b = 2i + 2j + k be the two
sides of the triangle. Then the area of the
triangle is
Ans. (d) : Poisson’s equation for inhomogeneous
medium (a) 7 (b) 13
−ρv 13 13
∇2V = (c) (d)
ε 2 4
TANGEDCO- 2015
25. The operator 'del; (∇) is a
(a) Vector space function Ans. (*): Area of triangle ∆ABC
(b) Vector time function 1
= |a×b|
(c) Scalar space function 2
(d) Scalar time function
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, 2017, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : A operator ‘del’ ( ∇ ) or nabla is a vector
space function. It is used in mathematics as a vector
differential operator. 1
= i (1 + 2 ) − j (1 + 2 ) + k ( 2 − 2 ) 
26. Curl grad φ may also be written as 2
(a) ∇.∇φ (b) ∇ × ∇φ 1 ˆ ˆ
= 3i − 3j
(c) ∇ 2 φ (d) ( ∇φ) ∇ 2
1
( 3) + ( 3)
2 3
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I =
2
Ans. (b) : Curl of any gradient is equal to zero
3 2 3
( )
∇ × ∇.φ = 0 =
2
=
2
30. The vector function F(r) = –xiˆ + yjˆ is defines x = y = z = k
over a circular arc C shown in the figure. = ∫ ( k − 3k 2 + k ) dk
= ∫ ( 2k − 3k 2 )dk
1
= ( k 2 − k3 )
1
=0
32. The gradient of the function f(x,y) = x+y at the
point (0,0) is
The line integral ∫ C
F(r).dr is (a) 0 (b) i+j
(c) 1 (d) i+2j
1 1 BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
(a) (b)
4 3 Ans. (b) : F = x + y
1 1 ∂F ˆ ∂F ˆ
(c) (d) ∇F = i+ j
2 6 ∂x ∂y
GATE-2021
∂ ∂
Ans. (c) : = ( x + y)i + ( x + y) j
∂x dy
∇.F = î + j
33. The value of ∫
C
F.dr , where
F ( x, y,z ) = zi + xyj − y k 2
along the curve C
given by r ( t ) = t 2 î + tjˆ + t kˆ ( 0 ≤ t ≤ 1) is
1 17
(a) (b)
In polar form x = cosθ 6 20
y = sinθ (c) 2 (d) 3
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
dx = –sinθ dθ
dy = cosθ dθ Ans. (b) : F = ziˆ + xyjˆ − y 2 .kˆ
∫ F ( r ) dr = ∫ [-x
45
dx + y dy ] r ( t ) = t 2î + t.jˆ + tkˆ
c 0
=∫
45
 − ( cosθ )( −sinθ dθ ) + ( sinθ )( cosθ dθ )  r ( t ) = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ
0
45
x = t2 , y = t, z = t
= ∫ 2 sin θ cos θ 1 ˆ
0
dr = 2tiˆ + ˆj + k
= ∫ sin 2θ dθ
45 2 t
0
 
 − cos 2θ 
=
45 F.dr = ( )
tiˆ + t 3ˆj − t 2 kˆ  2tiˆ + ˆj +

1
2 t
kˆ 


 2 0
 1 
−1 1 F.dr =  2.t 3/ 2 + t 3 − .t 3/ 2 
= [ 0 − 1] =  2 
2 2
3
F.dr = t 3/ 2 + t 3
∫ ( x − 3y + z ) ds over the line
2
31. The value of 2
segment C joining the point (0,0,0) to the point 1  3 3/ 2 3 
(1,1,1) is ∫0 F.dr = ∫  2 t + t dt
(a) 0 (b) 1 1
(c) 2 (d) 3  
3 1 5/ 2 1 4 
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 = × t + t 
Ans. (a) : ∫ F.dr = ∫ ( x − 3y 2 + z ) ds  2 3 +1 4 
 2 0
x −0 y−0 z−0 3 1 12 + 5 17
= = =k = + = =
1− 0 1− 0 1− 0 5 4 20 20

34. _________is a vector defined for each point in a Ans. (d) :
scalar field. 1 ∂ ∂ ∂ 
(a) Divergence (b) Gradient ∇⋅ F =  ( ρ ⋅ρ ) + ( ρ sin 2 φ ) + ( ρ ( −z ) ) 
ρ  ∂ρ ∂φ ∂z 
(c) Curl (d) Laplacian
1
NLC GET -24.11.2020 = [ 2ρ + 2ρ sin φ cos φ − ρ] [∵sin 2φ = 2sin φ cos φ]
ρ
Ans. (b) : The gradient is a vector defined for each
point in a scalar field whose magnitude is the maximum 1 [ρ + ρ sin 2φ]
rate of change of the function at the point of the ρ
gradient. ∇⋅ F = 1 + sin2 φ
35. Let vector π
∇ ⋅ F π = 1 + sin 2 × =1+1=2
φ= 4
A = yz aˆ + xy aˆ + xz aˆ .Evaluate ∇ × A at
x y z
4
∇⋅F =1
point (5, 4, 5). φ= 0
(a) 0 (b) 2 ∴ ∇⋅F π = 2 ∇⋅F

φ= φ=0
4
(c) 3 (d) 5
37. Two vectors V1 and V2 are orthogonal if their
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018 dot product is
DRDO-2009 (a) 1 (b) 0
Ans. (b) : Given, A = yzaɵ x + xyaɵ y + xzaɵ z (c) infinity (d) 0.5
ESE-2021
aɵ x aɵ y aɵ z Ans. (b) : If two vectors are orthogonal it means they
∂ ∂ ∂ are perpendicular to each other i.e. the dot product of
∇×A = the two vector is zero.
∂x ∂y ∂z
V1.V2 = 0
yz xy xz
38. The component of P = 2aˆ x – aˆ z along
 ∂ ∂   ∂ ∂ 
= aɵ x  xz − xy  − aɵ y  xz − yz  Q = 2aˆ x − aˆ y + 2aˆ z is
 ∂y ∂z   ∂x ∂z 
(a) 0.745aˆ x + 0.298aˆ y − 0.596aˆ z
 ∂ ∂ 
+ aɵ z  xy − yz  (b) 4aˆ x − 2aˆ y + 4aˆ z
 ∂x ∂y 
(c) 0.2222aˆ x − 0.1111aˆ y + 0.2222aˆ z
= aɵ x ( 0 − 0 ) − aɵ y ( z − y ) + aɵ z ( y − z )
(d) 0.4444aˆ x − 0.2222aˆ y + 0.4444aˆ z
= −aɵ y ( z − y ) + aɵ z ( y − z ) ESE-2021
Ans.(d) : The vectors projection of p along is given
∇×A = −aɵ y ( 5 − 4 ) + aɵ z ( 4 − 5 )
( 5,4,5 ) P⋅Q
by = ⋅ â Q
= −aɵ y − aɵ z Q
P ⋅ Q = ( 2aˆ x − aˆ z ) ( 2a x − aˆ y + 2aˆ z )
( −1) + ( −1) = 2
2 2
∇×A =
( 5,4,5 )
=4–2
36. If F(ρ, φ, z) = ρaˆ ρ + ρsin 2 φaˆ φ – zaˆ z which one of P⋅Q = 2
the following is TRUE? P⋅Q 2 2
= =
(a) ∇.F φ= 0 < ∇.F π
|Q| 4 +1+ 4 3
φ=
2
â Q =
Q
=
(
2aɵ x − aɵ y + 2aɵ z )
(b) ∇.F π = ∇.F Q 3
φ=
( )
4 φ= 0
P⋅Q 2 2aɵ x − aɵ y + 2aɵ z

(c) ∇.F φ= 0 > ∇.F π â Q =
φ=
2 Q 3× 3
(d) ∇.F
φ=
π = 2∇.F =
2
9
( 2aˆ x − aˆ y + 2aˆ z )
4 φ= 0
= 0.444aˆ x − 0.222aˆ y + 0.444aˆ z
DRDO-2009
39. If A = ρcosφaˆ ρ + sinφaˆ φ , then the surface Ans. (c) : A Null vectors is a vectors that has magnitude
equal to zero and directionless
integration of curl of
A×B = A×C
A ( for 30º ≤ φ ≤ 60º and 2 ≤ ρ ≤ 5 )
(
A× B − C = 0 )
(a) 6.750 (b) 4.941
(c) 0.732 (d) 1.765 A is not a Null vector
ESE-2021 B=C
42. If V is a scalar, then the given equation (in
Ans.(b) : given A = ρ cos φ aɵ ρ + sin φ aɵ φ spherical coordinate system)
aɵ ρ ρaɵ φ aɵ z 1 ∂  2 ∂V  1 ∂  ∂V  1 ∂ 2V ρ
r + 2  sinθ + 2 2 =−
r ∂r  ∂r  r sinθ ∂θ 
2
∂θ  r sin θ ∂φ2 ε
1 ∂ ∂ ∂
∇×A = Is referred to as
ρ ∂ρ ∂φ ∂z (a) Laplace’s equation (b) Poisson’s equation
ρ cos φ ρ sin φ 0 (c) gradient of V (d) divergence of V
ESE-2022
1
= aɵ ρ ( 0 ) − ρaɵ φ ( 0 ) + aɵ z ( sinφ + ρsinφ )  Ans. (b) : Given equation represents poisson's equation
ρ 
in spherical coordinate system.
1 Poisson's equation –
∇ × A = sin φ (1 + ρ ) aɵ z
ρ ρ
∇2 V = −
ε
d s = ρ d φ d ρ aɵ Z
43. If a = 2i - 2j - k and b = 3i + 2j + k , then the
( ∇ × A ) ⋅ ds = ∫ ∫ (ρ ) aɵ z ⋅ρ d ρ dφ aɵ z
sin φ 1 + ρ
∫
S
ρ φ
projection of b on a is
1
= 4 ⋅ 941 (a) (b) 1
3
40. For the vectors A = xaˆ x + yaˆ y and B = zaˆ z'∇. (c)
1
(d)
11
14 3
( A × B ) is TANGEDCO- 2015
(a) 0 (b) 1 Ans. (a) : Given a = 2i − 2 j − k and b = 3i + 2 j + k
(c) xz (d) yz
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) 2015 | a |= 22 + ( −2 ) 2 + (1)2 = 3
DRDO-2008 and a.b = ( 2i − 2 j − k ) . ( 3i + 2 j + k )
Ans. (a) : Given, A = xaɵ x + yaɵ y , B = zaɵ z = (6 – 4 – 1) = 1
a.b 1
(
then, ∇. A × B = ? ) Then, projection of b on a = =
|a| 3
aˆ x aˆ y aˆ z 44. Equation of the plane passing through the
( A × B) = x y 0 point 3i − j + k and perpendicular to the vector
0 0 z 4i + 2j − k is
(a) 2x + 4y + z = 9 (b) 2x + 4y – z + 9 = 0
= aɵ x ( yz − 0 ) − aɵ y ( xz − 0 ) + aɵ z ( 0 − 0 )
(c) 4x + 2y + z = 9 (d) 4x + 2y – z = 9
= yz aˆ x − xz aˆ y TANGEDCO- 2015
Ans. (d) : Given, P(x, y, z) = (3, –1, 1)
∂ ∂
then, (
∇. A × B = ) ∂x
( yz ) − ( xz )
∂y
and vector V = 4i + 2 j − k
Then,
=0
41. If AB = A.C and A × B = A × C, where A is
( ( x − x ) i + ( y − y ) j + ( z − z ) k ) . ( 4i + 2 j − k ) = 0
1 1 1
not a null vector, then : ( ( x − 3) i + ( y + 1) j + ( z − 1) k ).( 4i + 2 j − k ) = 0

(a) B = 0 (b) A = C 4 ( x − 3) + 2 ( y + 1) − 1( z − 1) = 0
(c) B = C (d) C = 0 4x – 12 + 2y + 2 – z + 1= 0
BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001 4x + 2y – z = 9

→ → 48. Find the gradient of the curve y=3x2-7x+2 at
45. Given A = î x 2 z - ˆj2y 3 z 2 + kˆ xy 2 z.∇. A at point
the point (1, -2):
(1, –1, 1) is :
(a) – 6 (b) 2 (a) 1 (b) -2
(c) 3 (d) –3 (c) 2 (d) -1
TNTRB AE– 2017 DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
Ans. (d) : Ans. (d) : The gradient is given by the
 ∂ ˆ ∂ ˆ ∂ ˆ ˆ 2 ˆ 3 2 ˆ 2
∇⋅A =  i +
 ∂x
(
j + k  ⋅ ix z − j2y z + kxy z
∂y ∂z 
) derivative, so find
dy
dx
 ∂ ∂ ∂ 
=  ( x 2 z ) − ( 2y3 z 2 ) + ( xy 2 z ) 
dy d
∇⋅A = (3x 2 − 7x + 2)
(1, −1,1)
 ∂x ∂y ∂z  dx dx
∇⋅A = 2xz − 6y 2 z 2 + xy 2 = 6x – 7
(1, −1,1)
dy
=2–6×1×1+1×1 = 6 ×1 − 7
dx (1,− 2)
=2–6+1
=3–6 =–3 = 6 –7
46. If polarization vector is given as N and = –1
direction of propagation is given as K then
which one of the following relation is correct? 49. A vector makes angles α, β, γ with the
(a) N.K = 0 (b) N × K = 1 coordinate axis. The direction cosines of the
(c) K = N (d) N = –K vector are
DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II (a) cos α, cos β, cos γ (b) sin α, sin β, sin γ
Ans. (a) : If N = Polarization vector (c) tan α, tan β, tan γ (d) sec α, sec β, sec γ
K = Direction of propagation Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
0 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Then, N ⋅K = N K cos 90
Ans. (a) : A vector makes angles α, β, γ with the
N ⋅ K =0 direction cosines of the vector are cos α, cos β, cos γ
47. Find the distance from C to D if the 50. For the vector a with initial point P (4,0,2) and
coordinates are given as C (–3, 2, 1) and D (r = terminal point Q(6, -1, 2), the value of a will
5, θ = 20º, Φ= –70º).
(a) 6.29 unit (b) 7.90 unit be:
(c) 9.07 unit (d) 5.99 unit (a) 3 (b) 7
(c) 5 (d) 2
Ans. (a) : Given,
C(-3, 2, 1) UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
D (r = 5, θ = 20º, φ = -70º) Ans. (c) : P = 4iˆ + 2kˆ Q = 6iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ
D change in x–y–z plane-
x 2 = r sin θ cos φ a = Q−P
= 5 sin20º cos (–70º) a = 2iˆ − ˆj
= 0.585
y 2 = r sin θ sin φ a = 4 +1 = 5
= 5 sin 20º.sin(–70º) 51. Which of the following is related with Stoke's
= –1.607 Theorem?
z 2 = r cos φ (a) A line integral and a volume integral
= 5 cos20º = 4.698 (b) A surface integral and a volume integral
Distance between C and D, D is (0.585, –1.607,4.698)
(c) A line integral and a surface integral
d = ( x1 − x 2 ) + ( y1 − y2 ) + ( z1 − z 2 )
2 2 2
(d) A line integral, a surface integral and a
volume integral
d = ( −3 − 0.585 ) + ( 2 + 1.607 ) + (1 − 4.698 )
2 2 2
d = 6.29 unit Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2016,2015, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Stoke’s theorem relates a surface integral of and PQ = (2)2 + (−2) 2 + (−1)2
the curl of the vector field to a line integral of the vector
field around the boundary of the surface. = 9=3
∫ ( ∇ × f ) .ds = ∫
s L
f .dℓ ˆ = PQ
Now unit vector (PQ)
PQ
So, Stokes's theorem is related to a line integral and a
2aˆ x − 2aˆ y − aˆ z
surface integral. =
3
52. Laplace equation in cylindrical coordinates is
given by: 2aˆ x 2aˆ y
aˆ
= − − z
3 3 3
(a) 54. The vector RAB extends from A (1, 2, 3) to B. If
the length of RAB is 10 units and its direction is
∂2V ∂2V ∂2V given by:
(b) ∇2 V = + +
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2 a = 0.6ax + 0.64ay + 0.48az
ρ (a) 7ax + 4.8ay + 4.8az (b) 6ax + 6.4ay + 4.8az
(c) ∇ 2 V = − (c) 7ax + 8.4ay + 7.8az (d) 6ax + 8.4ay + 7.8az
ε
IES-2019
1 ∂  r 2 ∂V  1 ∂  ∂V 
(d) ∇ 2 V =  +  sin θ  Ans. (c) : Given -
r ∂r  ∂r  r 2 sin θ ∂θ  ∂θ 
∴ let R B = xaˆ x + yaˆ y + zaˆ z
1 ∂2V
+ =0 R AB = (x-1) â x + (y–2) â y + (z–3) â z
r 2 sin 2 θ ∂φ2
IES-2001 R AB = 10
Ans. (a) : Laplace equation in cylindrical co-ordinate R AB = a = 0.6aˆ x + 0.64aˆ y + 0.48aˆ z
( )
Unit Vector R AB =
R AB
R AB
In spherical co-ordinate system
(x −1)aɵ x + (y − 2)aɵ y + (z − 3)aɵ z
1 ∂  r 2 ∂V  1 ∂  ∂V  0.6aɵ x + 0.64aɵ y + 0.48aɵ z =
∇2V = + 10
  sin θ 
r ∂r  ∂r  r 2 sin θ ∂θ  ∂θ  ɵ ɵ ɵ
⇒ (x − 1)a x + (y − 2)a y + (z − 3)a z = 6a x + 6.4aɵ y + 4.8aɵ z
ɵ
compare both side ––
1 ∂2V
+ 2 2 =0
r sin θ ∂φ2 x − 1 = 6 y − 2 = 6.4 z − 3 = 4.8
53. The unit vector extending from origin towards x=7 y = 8.4 z = 7.8
the point G (2, – 2, – 1) is:
Hence R B = xaɵ x + yaɵ y + zaɵ z
2 2 1
(a) a x + a y + a z
3 3 3 then R B = 7aɵ x + 8.4aɵ y + 7.8aɵ z
2 2 1 55. The angle θAB between the vectors A = 3ax + 4ay
(b) − a x + a y + a z
3 3 3 + az and B = 2ay – 5az is nearly:
2 2 1 (a) 83.70° (b) 73.7°
(c) a x − a y − a z
3 3 3 (c) 63.7° (d) 53.7°
2 2 1 IES-2018
(d) − a x − a y − a z
3 3 3 Ans. (a) : A = 3a x + 4a y + a z
IES-2019
Ans. (c) : If origin and point G (2, –2, –1) be two points A = (3) 2 + (4)2 + (1)2
then PQ = (2 − 0)aˆ x + (−2 − 0)aˆ y + (−1 − 0)aˆ z = 9 + 16 + 1 = 26

= 2aˆ x − 2aˆ y − aˆ z B = 2a y − 5a z

B = (2) 2 + (5) 2 = 4 + 25 = 29 1 ∂ 1 ∂ ( φD φ ) 1 ∂ (zD z )
(b) (ρDρ ) + +
ρ ∂ρ ρ ∂φ z ∂z
∵ Dot product of (A.B) = A B cos θ
1 ∂ 1 ∂D φ ∂D z
(c) (ρDρ ) + +
A.B ρ ∂ρ ρ ∂φ ∂z
∴ cos θ =
A B ∂Dρ ∂Dφ ∂Dz
(d) + +
(3a x +4a y +a z )(2a y -5a z ) ∂ρ ∂φ ∂z
=
26 29 IES-2016
3 × 0 + 4 × 2 − 5 ×1 Ans. (c) : Divergence of a vector divD in the cylindrical
cosθ =
26 29 co-ordinate system
1 ∂ Dφ ∂D z
cosθ =
3
26 29
div D = ∇. D =
1 1
ρ ∂ρ
(
ρ.Dρ +
ρ ∂φ
) +
∂z
θ = 83.7 ⇒ Divergence in spherical coordinate system.
56. The value of ∇ .A; 1 ∂ 2 1 ∂ 1 ∂Dφ
where A = 3xyax + xa y + xyza z at a point (2, –
∇.D =
ρ ∂ρ
2 (
ρ .Aρ + )
ρ sin θ ∂θ
( sin θA θ ) +
r sin θ ∂φ
2, 2) is : ⇒ Divergence in Cartesian coordinate system
(a) – 10 (b) – 6
∂D x ∂D y ∂D z
(c) 2 (d) 4 ∇.A = + + .
∂x ∂y ∂z
IES-2018
Ans. (a) : If A = 3xy ax + x ay + xyz az 59. If V = sinhx. cosky.epz is a solution of Laplace’s
then equation, what will be the value of k?
1
 ∂ ∂ ∂  (a) (b) 1 + p 2
∇. A =  a x + a y + a z  .(3xyax+xay+xyzaz) 1+ p 2
 ∂x ∂y ∂z 
∂ ∂ ∂ 1
= (3xy) + (x) + (xyz) (c) (d) 1 − p2
∂x ∂y ∂z 1 − p2
∇. A = 3y + 0 + xy. IES-2009
at point (2,–2, 2)→ Ans. (b) : ∇ V = 0 from Laplace equation
2
 ∂2 ∂2 ∂2 
(∇. A )(2,–2,2) = 3 × –2 + 2 × –2
= –6 –4
⇒
∂x ∂ y ∂z
(
pz
 2 + 2 + 2  . sinh x.cos ky.e = 0 )
 
= –10
⇒ sinhx.cosky.e – sinhx cosky.k2 × epz + sinhx.
pz
57. Consider the following statements: cosky.p2epz = 0

Stokes’ theorem is valid irrespective of pz 2
sinhx.cosky.e (1–k + p ) = 0 2
1. shape of closed curve C

1–k2 + p2 = 0
2. type of vector curve A
2
3. type of coordinate system K = 1+ p
4. whether the surface is closed or open 60. Which one of the following statements is
Which of the above statements are correct? correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (a) Both Lapace’s and Poisson’s equation are
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 non-linear equations.
IES-2017 (b) Laplace’s equation is non-linear but
Ans. (d) : Stoke theorem is valid irrespective of shape Poissonֹ’s equation is linear
of closed curve C, type of vector A and type of co- (c) Laplace’ equation is linear but Poisson’s
ordinate system. It is not defined for closed surface. equation is non-linear
58. Divergence of a vector div D in the cylindrical (d) Both Lapace’s and Poisson’s equations are
coordinate system is: linear.
1 ∂ 1 ∂D φ ∂D z TNPSC AE-2019
(a) (Dρ ) + +
ρ ∂p ρ ∂φ ∂z IES-2006
−ρ v A×B
Ans. (c) : Poisson's equation →∇2V = n̂ =
ε0 ( A × B)
Laplace equation →∇ V = 0 2
5iˆ + 5jˆ + 5kˆ
Laplace equation is linear but Poisson's equation non- n̂ =
linear. 5 3
61. Laplacian of a scalar function V is : î + ˆj + kˆ
n̂ =
(a) Gradient of V 3
(b) Divergence of V
64. If φ = 2x2y–xz3, then the Laplacian of φ is
(c) Gradient of the gradient of V
(a) 4yz-6xz (b) 4z-6xy
(d) Divergence of the gradient of V
(c) 4y-6xz (d) 2xy-6yz
IES-2003
Ans. (d) : Lapacian of a scalar function V is divergence
Ans. (c) : Given
of the gradient of the gradient of V.
φ = 2x2y – xz3
∇2 V = ∇.(∇V)
Laplacian
62. Solutions of Laplace’s equation, which are
continuous through the second derivative, are = ∇2φ
called: ∂2φ ∂2φ ∂2φ
(a) Bessel functions = + +
∂ x 2 ∂ y2 ∂ z2
(b) Odd functions
(c) Harmonic functions ∂2 ∂2 ∂2
= (2x 2 y − xz 3 ) + 2 (2x 2 y − xz 3 ) + 2 (2x 2 y − xz 3 )
(d) Fundamental functions ∂x 2
∂y ∂z
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I = 4y − 6xz
IES-1999 65. Directional derivative of V=2x3y–3y2z at P
Ans. (c) : Solution of Laplace's equation having (1,2,–1) in a direction towards Q (3,–1,5) is
continuous second-order partial derivatives is given by (a) –90/7 (b) 30/7
∂ 2 φ ∂ 2φ ∂ 2 φ (c) 90/49 (d) None of the above
2
+ 2 + 2 = 0 and it is called a harmonic
∂x ∂y ∂z ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
function. Ans. (d) : Directional derivative is given by-
63. A unit vector perpendicular to the vectors Q
aˆ = 2i − 3j + k and b = i + j − 2k, is
( ∇.V )p . …………..(i)
|Q|
1 1 ∂V ∂V ∂V
(a) ( −i + j + k ) (b) (i + j − k ) ∇.V = aˆ x + aˆ y + aˆ z
3 3 ∂x ∂y ∂z
(c)
1
(i + j + k ) (d) (i + j + k) = ( 6x 2 y ) aˆ x + ( 2x 3 − 6yz ) aˆ y − ( 3y 2 ) aˆ z
3
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 (
∇.V P =(1,2,−1) = 6 × (1) × 2 aˆ x +
2
)
Ans. (c) : Given,
a = 2iˆ − 3jˆ + kˆ
( 2 × (1) − 6 ( 2)( −1)) aˆ − (3( 2) ) aˆ
3
y
2
z
= 12aˆ x + 14aˆ y − 12aˆ z

b = î + ˆj − 2kˆ
And Q = 3aˆ x − aˆ y + 5aˆ z
A×B
n̂ =
| Q |= 32 + ( −1) + ( 5 ) = 35
2 2
A×B
î ˆj From the equation(i)

kˆ
A × B = 2 −3 1 = 5iˆ + 5jˆ + 5kˆ = (12aˆ x + 14aˆ y − 12aˆ z ) .
(3aˆ x − aˆ y + 5aˆ z )
1 1 −2 35
36 − 14 − 60 −38
= =
2 2 2
| A×B| = 5 +5 +5 35 35

66. ∇ × ∇ × P, where P is a vector is equal to 69. The direction of vector A is radially outward
(a) P × ∇ × P – ∇ P 2 from the origin, with A = kr n where
(b) ∇2P + ∇ (∇ × P) r 2 = x 2 + y 2 + z 2 and k is constant. The value of

n for which ∇. A = 0 is
(c) ∇2P + ∇ × P
(a) –2 (b) 2
(d) ∇ (∇ ⋅ P) – ∇2P GATE – 2006 (c) 1 (d) 0
Ans. (d) : We know that, vector triple product is GATE – 2012
A × (B × C) = B (A.C) – C(A.B) Ans. (a) : A is a radial vector (radially outword from
So origin) with It's magnitude |A| = krn
∇ × ∇ × P = ∇ (∇.P) – P (∇.∇) A = kr n aˆ r
= ∇ (∇.P) – ∇ P 2
∇.A in spherical co-ordinate is
67. ∫∫ ( ∇ × P ) .dx , where P is a vector, is equal to 1 ∂
∇.A = 2 ( r2 Ar ) +
1 ∂
Aθ sin θ +
1 ∂
Aφ
r ∂r r sin θ ∂r r sin θ ∂φ
(a) ∫ P ⋅ dℓ (b) ∫ ∇×∇× P ⋅ dℓ ∂ 2 n
r ( kr ) + 0 + 0
1
=
(c) ∫ ∇× P ⋅ dℓ (d) ∫∫∫ ∇.PdV r2 ∂r
k ∂ n +2
GATE – 2006 = 2 r …(i)
r ∂r
Ans. (a) : ∫∫ ( ∇ × P ) .dx = ∫ P.dl (From stoke's theorem) ∂ n +2
So, from equation (i) ∇.A will be zero. If r will
68. Consider a closed surface S surrounding a ∂r
volume V. If r is the position vector of a point ∂ n +2
r will be zero if rn+2 will be constant
be zero, and
∧ ∂r
inside S, with n the unit normal on s, the value
& it will possible when
of the integral ∫∫ 5r.ndS
ˆ is n+2=0
S
n = –2
(a) 3V (b) 5V
70. Consider a vector field A( r ) . The closed loop
(c) 10V (d) 15V
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, 2017, Paper-I line integral ∫ A.d ℓ can be expressed as
∫∫ ( ∇ × A ) ⋅ dS
GATE – 2011
(a) over the closed surface
Ans. (d) : ∫∫ 5r.nds
S
ˆ = ∫∫∫ ∇.5rdv
v
bounded by the loop
= 5∫∫∫ ∇.rdv …(i)

(b) ∫∫∫ ( ∇ × A ) dv over the closed volume
v bounded by the top
∫∫∫ ( ∇ ⋅ A ) dv over the open volume bounded

We know that - (c)
1 ∂ 1 ∂ 1 ∂
∇.A = 2 ( r2 Ar ) + Aθ sin θ + Aφ by the loop
r ∂r r sin θ ∂r r sin θ ∂φ
1 ∂
(d) ∫∫ ( ∇ × A ) ⋅ ds over the open surface bounded
∇.r = 2 r2 .r + 0 + 0 (∵ Ar = r) by the loop
r ∂r
GATE – 2013
1 ∂ 3
=
r2 ∂r
(r ) Ans. (d) : According to Stoke's theorem.
3 2 ∫ A.dℓ = ∫∫ ( ∇ × A ).ds
= ×r = 3 …(ii) c s
r2
71. The divergence of the vector field
So from equation (i) and (ii)
A = xaˆ x + yaˆ y + zaˆ z is
∫∫ 5r.nds
S
ˆ = 5 × 3∫∫∫ dv
v
(a) 0 (b) 1/3
(c) 1 (d) 3
= 5 × 3V
GATE – 2013
= 15V TRB Poly. Lect. 2012
Ans. (d) : 2 11
(c) u = – e1 + 3e 2 + e3
 ∂ ∂ ∂  5 5
∇.A =  aˆ x + aˆ y + aˆ z  . ( xaˆ x + yaˆ y + zaˆ z )
 ∂ x ∂ y ∂z  2 11
(d) u = – e1 + 3e 2 – e3
∂ ∂ ∂ 5 5
= x+ y+ z = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 GATE – 2016
∂x ∂y ∂z
Ans. (d) : Given vectors
72. A vector P is given by e1 = 1iˆ + 2kˆ
P = x 3 ya x – x 2 y 2a y – x 2 yza z Which of the
e 2 = 1jˆ ; u = 4iˆ + 3ˆj − 3kˆ
following statements is TRUE ?
e 3 = − 2iˆ + 1kˆ
(a) P is solenoidal, but not irrotational
Thus, linear combination of (e1,e2,e3)-
(b) P is irrotational, but not solenoidal
u = ae1 + be2 + ce3
(c) P is neither solenoidal nor irrotational
(d) P is both solenoidal and irrotational ( ) ( ) (
= a 1iˆ + 2kˆ + b 1jˆ + c −2iˆ + 1kˆ )
GATE – 2015 = î ( a − 2c ) + bjˆ + kˆ ( 2a + c )
Ans. (a) : Given
4iˆ + 3jˆ − 3kˆ = î ( a − 2c ) + bjˆ + kˆ ( 2a + c )
P = x 3 ya x − x 2 y 2 a y − x 2 yza z
a – 2c = 4
For solenoidal, ∇.P = 0 b=3
 ∂ ∂ ∂  –3 = 2a + c
∇.P =  a x + a y + a z  .
 ∂x ∂y ∂z  a = –2/5
(
x 3 ya x − x 2 y 2 a y − x 2 yza z ) b=3
11
∂ 3 ∂ ∂ c=−
= x y − x 2 y 2 − x 2 yz 5
∂x ∂y ∂z 2 11
u = − e1 + 3e2 − e3
= 3x y − 2x y − x y 0
2 2 2
= 5 5
So vector P is solenoidal 74. If the vector function
for irrotational, ∇ × P = 0 F = aˆ x ( 3y – k 1 z ) + aˆ y ( k 2 x – 2z ) – aˆ z ( k 3 y + z )
ax ay az is irrotational, then the values of the constants
k1, k2 and k3, respectively, are
∂ ∂ ∂ (a) 0.3, –2.5, 0.5 (b) 0.0, 3.0, 2.0
∇×P =
∂x ∂y ∂z (c) 0.3, 0.33, 0.5 (d) 4.0, 3.0, 2.0
x3 y −x 2 y2 − x 2 yz GATE – 2017
∂ ∂  Ans. (b) : Given, Vector function
= a x  ( − x 2 yz ) − ( − x 2 y 2 )  F = aˆ x ( 3y − k1z ) + aˆ y ( k 2 x − 2z ) − aˆ z ( k 3 y + z )
 ∂y ∂z 
∂ ∂ 3  ∇ × F = 0 (irrotational)
−a y 
 ∂x
(
− x 2 yz −
∂z
) xy  ( ) aˆ x aˆ y aˆ z
∂ ∂  ∂ ∂ ∂
+a z  ( −x 2 y2 ) − x3 y ∇×F =
 ∂x ∂y  ∂x ∂y ∂z
aˆ ( ) (
− x z + aˆ y ( 2xyz ) + aˆ z −2xy 2 − x 3
2
) 3y − k1z k 2 x − 2z − ( k 3 y + z )
= x
∇×P ≠ 0  −∂ ( k 3 y + z ) ∂ ( k 2 x − 2z ) 
= â x  − −
So vector P is not irrotational.  ∂y ∂z 
73. If the vectors e1 = (1, 0, 2), e2 = (0, 1, 0) and  −∂ ( k 3 y + z ) ∂ ( 3y − k1z ) 
e3 = (–2,0,1) form and orthogonal basis of the â y  − +
three-dimensional real space R3, then the  ∂x ∂z 
vector u = (4, 3, –3) ∈ R3 can be expressed as  ∂ ( k 2 x − 2z ) ∂ ( 3y − k1z ) 
2 11 â z  − 
(a) u = – e1 – 3e 2 – e3  ∂x ∂y 
5 5
2 11 = aˆ x [ − k 3 + 2 ] − aˆ y [ k 1 ] + aˆ z [ k 2 − 3 ] = 0
(b) u = – e1 – 3e 2 + e3
5 5 k1 = 0, k2 = 3, k3 = 2

4. The divergence of the magnetic flux density B
(ii) Electrostatic and Magnetostatic is given as :
Field (a) ∇.B = 0 (b) ∇.B = D
1. Gauss law relate the electric field intensity (c) ∇.B = ρ/ε (d) ∇.B = E
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
E with the volume charge density ‘ρ’ at a point
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
as-
BSNL(JTO)-2002
ρ
(a) ∇ × E =∈0 ρ (b) ∇ × E = Ans. (a) : The divergence of the magnetic flux density
∈0 (B) of a steady magnetic field is equal to zero.
ρ ∴ ∇.B = 0
(c) ∇.E =∈0 ρ (d) ∇.E =
∈0 The unit of ∇ × H is
5.
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II (a) Ampere (b) Ampere/meter
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I (c) Ampere/meter2 (d) Ampere-meter
RPCS Lect.-2011 UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.- 22.03.2022, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : We know that- Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II
∇.D = ρv Ans. (c) : According to Maxwell's equation–
∂D
∇.(εE) = ρv ∇× H = J +
∂t
ρv J = current density so unit of ∇× H = Ampere/meter2
∇. E =
ε0 6. The displacement current density is given by :
ρ (a) J (b) D
Hence, ∇.E =
∈0 ∂D ∂D
(c) (d)
∂x ∂t
2. An electrostatic field is said to be conservative,
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
when-
(a) the divergence of the field is equal to zero. Ans. (d) : The displacement current density is given by
∂D
(b) the curl of the field is equal to zero. .
∂t
∂ E
2
(c) the curl of the field is equal to − 2 7. If the distribution is mesokurtic and if µ4 = 108,
∂t
then µ2 is :
(d) the Laplacian of the field is equal to (a) 5 (b) 6
∂2E (c) –5 (d) –6
µ∈ 2 .
∂t UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II Ans. (b) : 6
Ans. (b) : An electrostatic field is said to be 8. Two identical copper wires W1 and W2 placed
conservative, when curl of the field is equal to zero. in parallel as shown in the figure, carry
currents I and 2I, respectively, in opposite
3. The point form of the relation connecting
directions. If the two wires are separated by a
vector magnetic potential A and current
distance of 4r, then the magnitude of the
density J is:
magnetic field B between the wires at a
∂D µJ
(a) ∇ × A = J + (b) A = ∫ 0 dv distance r from W1 is
∂t 4π ∈ R
∂A 1
(c) ∇ 2 A = −µ 0 J (d) =−
∂t σ
UPPSC Poly.Tech.Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper-II
IES-2016
µ 2 I2 6µ 0 I
Ans. (c) : We know that- (a) 0 2 (b)
2πr 5πr
∇ 2 A = −µ 0 J → Poisson’s equation in magnetic field.
µI 5µ 0 I
This is also known as point form of vector potential (A) (c) 0 (d)
6πr 6πr
and current density (J). GATE-2019
Ans. (d) : ω
= q×
2π
qω
I=
2π
magnetic flux density ( B ) at a distance r of an infinite Magnetic moment ( m ) = I × A
line of carrying current I is -
µI qω
= × πr 2
B= 0 2π
2πr
1
Thus B due to W1 wire = qωr 2
2
µ 0 ( 2I ) µI
B1 = –––––– (1) Magnetic flux density ( B ) = 0
2π(3r) 2r
and µ qω
B= 0
µ 0 4I 2r 2π
B2 = . –––– (2)
4π 3r µω
= 0 × ρ2πr (∵ q = ρ2πr )
Hence resultant magnetic flux density - 4πr
B = B1 + B2 µ ρω
B= 0
2
µ0 I  2 
= 1 +  B ∝ ρω
2πr  3 
When ρ1 = ρ2 , ω1 = ω2
5µ 0 I
= B1
6πr = 1:1
B2
9. Which of the following potential does not
satisfy Laplace's Equation? 11. Two point charges -4 µC and 5µC are located
(a) V =2x + 5 (b) V = 10 xy at (2, -1, 3) and (0, 4,. -2) respectively. Find the
(c) V = ρ cosф +10 (d) V = r cosф potential at (1, 0, 1) assuming zero potential at
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 infinity.
Ans. (d) : V = r cos φ (a) -5.872 V (b) -3.50 V
(c) 2.46 V (d) 1 V
∇ 2 V = ∇ 2 ( r cos φ )
∇2 V ≠ 0
Ans. (a) : Given that, Q1 = – 4µC , Q2 = 5µC ,
10. Two concentric rings 1 and 2 carrying equal r 1 = (2,–1,3) , r 2 = (0,4,–2) , r = (1,0,1)
and uniform charge densities revolves at the
Q1 Q2
same angular speed ω about their common axis ∵ V( r ) = +
4πε0 ( r − r1 ) 4πε0 ( r − r2 )
passing through O as shown. The ratio of flux
densities due to the two rings at O will be: r − r1 = (1,0,1) − ( 2, −1,3)
( −1,1 − 2 ) = 6
r − r2 = (1,0,1) − ( 0, 4, −2 )
= (1,–4,3)
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
= 26
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1
IES-1992 V( r ) = 9 ×109 × 10−6  −4 + 5 
 
Ans. (a) :  6 26 
= 9×109×10–6[–1.63 + 0.98]
= –5.84 kV
12. Magnetic flux can be measured by:
(a) capacitive pick-up (b) inductive pick-up
(c) resistive pick-up (d) hall-effect pick-up
Current I = Charge×revolution frequency
IES-2000
Ans. (d) : Magnetic flux can be measured by half effect 15. If E is the electric field intensity, ∇.(∇ × Ε) is
pick-up. equal to
• The SI unit of magnetic flux is Weber [Wb].
(a) E (b) E
• The CGS unit of magnetic flux is Maxwell.
(c) Null vector (d) Zero
• The fundamental of magnetic flux is Volt-second.
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II
13. Two concentric square loops A and B carry TNTRB AE -2017
equal currents in the same direction, the Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
magnetic field at O due to the two loops A and BEL -2015
B will be in the ratio: Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Ans. (d) : The divergence of the curl of any vector field
is zero.
( )
∇. ∇ × E = 0
The equation ∇.J = 0 is known as:

16.
(a) Poisson’s equation
(b) Laplace equation
(c) Continuity equation
(a) 1 : 1.414 (b) 1 : 1
(d) Maxwell equation
(c) 1.414:1 (d) 2 : 1
Mizoram PSC IOLM - 2018, Paper-II
IES-1992 RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
Ans. (d) : Magnetic field due to square loop IES-2000, 2009
2 2I Ans. (c) : Continuity equation for time varying field
H =
πℓ →∇.J =0
1 ∵ Free charge region ρv = 0
∴ H∝
ℓ 17. In a telephone receiver, the size of each of the two
poles is 1.2 cm × 0.2 cm and the flux between each
H A ℓ B 2d
= = pole and the diaphragm is 3 × 10–6 Wb. The force
HB ℓ A d attracted to the poles will be nearly:
(a) 0.15N (b) 0.20N
HA
=2 (c) 0.30N (d) 0.40N
HB IES-2019
H A : H B = 2 :1 Ans. (a) : : Given-
A = 1.2cm ×0.2 cm =1.2×0.2×10–4m2
14. The line integral of the vector potential A φ = 3×10–6 Wb
around the boundary of a source S represents
φ2
which one of the following? ∴ Force attracted to the poles (F) =
2Aµ 0
(a) Flux through the surface S
−6 2
(b) Flux density in the surface S (3 ×10 )
=
(c) Magnetic field intensity 2 × 1.2 × 0.2 × 10−4 × 4π × 10−7
(d) Current density F = 0.15 N
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 18. What is the value for the total charge –9 3
enclosed
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper -II in an incremental volume of 10 m located at
the origin if:
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2018, Paper- I
D = e–x siny ax – e–x cosy ay + 2z az C/m2?
IES-2008 (a) 8 nC (b) 4 nC
Ans. (a) : We know that, ∇ × A = B (c) 2 nC (d) 1 nC
where A → vector magnetic potential Ans. (c) : Given
D = e − x sin y a x − e − x cos y a y + 2z a z C/m2
and ∫( ) ∫
φ = ∇ × A .ds = B.ds
s s V = 10–9 m3
φ = flux through the surface S. Q=?

Volume charge density (ρv) = ∇. D 3. In an anisotropic medium, D and E have
∂ ∂ ∂  the same direction
=  aˆ x + aˆ y + aˆ z  .( e− x sin ya x − e− x cos ya y + 2z a z ) 4. For certain crystalline medium, ε varies
 ∂x ∂y ∂z 
with the direction of E.
∂ −x ∂ ∂ Which of the above crystalline medium, ε
ρv = (e sin y) − × (e − x cos y) + (2z)
∂x ∂y ∂z varies with the direction of E.
= –e–x sin y + e–x sin y +2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
∵ At origin volume charge density = (ρv)(0,0,0) = 2C/m3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Q IES-2018
and volume charge density (ρv) = (V = Volume)
V Ans. (c) : • An isotropic medium ε is a scalar constant.
then Q = ρv × V • A homogeneous medium , ε, µ and σ are constant.
= 2 × 10–9 C • In isotropic medium D and E have same direction
Q = 2 nC D =∈ E ∴ ε = constant
10 • For crystalline medium , ε varies with the direction of
19. If V = 2 sinθ × cosφ the electric flux density at
r E
 π  21. A plane y = 2 carries an infinite sheet of charge
 2, , 0  is: 4 n C/m2. If the medium is free space, what is
 2 
the force on a point charge of 5 mC located at
(a) 32.1 a r pC/m2 (b) 22.1 a r pC/m2 the origin?
(c) 10.2r a r pC/m2 (d) 5.8 a r pC/m2 (a) 0.54πa y N (b) 0.18πa y N
IES-2018
(c) −0.36πa y N (d) −0.18πa y N
10
Ans. (b) : If V= 2 sin θ× cos φ
r IES-2017
then electric field (E) = –∇V Ans. (c) : Electric field due to infinite
ρ
In spherical co-ordinate, gradient
 ∂V ɵ 1 ∂V ɵ 1 ∂V ɵ 
charge E = s aɵ n
2ε 0
( )
(∇V) =  ar + aθ + aφ 
 ∂r r ∂θ r sin θ ∂φ  ∵ Force on charge F = Q E ()
 ∂  10  1 ∂  10 
∴E = –   2 sin θ cos θ  aɵ r + ρs
 ∂r  r  r ∂θ
 2 sin θ cos φ  aˆ θ
 r  ∴ Fab = 5× 10–3×
2 ∈0
( )
−aɵ y
1 ∂  10    1 
+  2 sin θ cos φ  aˆ φ  ∴  = 9 × 109 
r sin θ ∂φ  r    4π ∈0 
E= –  − 3 sin θ cos φaɵ r + 3 cos θ cos φaɵ θ + 2 ( − sin φ)aɵ φ 
20 10 10 4 × 10−9
 r r r 
Fab = 5 × 10–3 ×
 1 
( )
−aɵ y
2× 9 
π  4π × 9 × 10 
at point (2, , 0)→
2
Fab = –0.36 π aɵ y N.
(E) (2, π = 20 aɵ = 20 aɵ
, 0) r r
2 (2)3 8
Electric flux density (D) = ε 0 E
20 ɵ
= 8.85× 10–12× ar
8
pC
D = 22.1 aɵ r 2 22. Consider the following statements:
m
1. Fleming’s rule is used where induced e.m.f.
20. Consider the following statements: is due to flux cutting.
1. For an isotropic medium, ε is a scalar 2. Lenz’s law is used when the induced e.m.f.
constant. is due to change in flux linkages.
2. For a homogeneous medium, ε, µ and σ are 3. Lenz’s law is a direct consequence of the
constant throughout the region. law of conservation of energy.
Which of the above statements are correct? at ε = ε 0
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only ρ r
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 then E 0 = V
3ε 0
IES-2017
ρV r
Ans. (d): • Fleming rule is used where induced emf is for ε ≥ 1 E =
due to flux cutting . 3ε 0 ε
• Lenz's law is used when the induced emf is due to when ε ↑ thenE ↓
change in flux linkages. So, E < E 0 always.
• Lenz's law is direct consequence of the law of 25. What is the value of work required to move a +
conservation of energy. 8 nC charge from infinity to a point P which is
23. Consider the following statements regarding a at 2 m distance from a point charge Q = +
conductor and free space boundary: 5µC?
(a) No charge and no electric field can exist at (a) 180µJ (b) 180 nJ
any point within the interior of a conductor (c) 18µJ (d) 18 nJ
(b) Charge may appear on the surface of a Ans. (a) : given Q1 = 8nC Q2 = 5µC r = 2m
conductor 1 Q2
Which of the above statements are correct? ∵ potential at point P (V) = .
4π ∈0 r
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ∴ Work required to move a charge from infinity to a
point P (W) = Q1.V
IES-2016
1 Q2
Ans. (c) : Regarding a conductor and free space = Q 1. .
4π ∈0 r
boundary––––
No charge and no electric field can exist at any point 5 × 10 −6
= 8 × 10–9× 9×109×
within the interior of a conductor. 2
Charge may appear on the surface of a conductor. W = 180 µJ
Just outside a conductor the electric field lines are 26. An electrostatic force between two point
perpendicular to its surface. charges increase when they are:
24. A shape of homogeneous linear dielectric (a) More apart and dielectric constant of the
material of dielectric constant ≥ 1 is placed in a medium between them decreases
uniform electric field E0, then the electric field (b) Less apart and dielectric constant of the
E that exists inside the sphere is: medium between them decreases
(a) Uniform and E ≤ E0 (c) More apart and dielectric constant of the
medium between them increases
(b) Uniform and E ≥ E0
(d) Less apart and dielectric constant of the
(c) Varies but E < E0 always
medium between them increases
(d) Varies but E > E0 always
IES-2016
Ans. (b) : An electrostatic force between two point two
IES-2016 Q1Q 2
Ans. (c) : charges (F) =
4π ∈0∈r R 2
1 1
F∝ ∝ 2
∈r R
F↑,∈r↓, R↓
An electrostatic force between two point charge
Q enclosed = ∫ D ⋅ ds = ∫ ρ V dV increases when they are less apart and dielectric
constant of medium between them decreases.
4
D × 4πr 2 = ρV × πr 3 27. A plane Y = 2 carries infinite sheet of charge 6
3 nC/m2. If medium is free space then force on a
ρ r point charge of 10 mC located at the origin is:
D= V
3 (a) −1080πa y N (b) −1080πa y N
ρV r (c) −10.8πa y N (d) −1.08πa y N
E=
3ε
IES-2016
Ans. (d) : Electric field due to infinite sheet 29. Poisson’s equation is derived with the following
ρ ρ assumption about the medium. The medium is:
( )
E = s aɵ n = s −aɵ y
2 ∈0 2 ∈0
( ) (a) Non-homogeneous and isotropic
(b) Non-homogeneous and non-isotropic
Force at origin on 10 mC
(c) Homogeneous and non-isotropic
F= Q E (d) Homogeneous and isotropic
ρs
Fab = 10×10–3×
2 ∈0
( )
−aɵ y IES-2016
Ans. (d) : Electric field (E) = –∇V
 1  Taking divergence both side.
∴  = 9 × 109 
 4 π ∈0  ∇. E = ∇.(–∇V)
= –∇2V ––––(1)
6 ×10−9
Fab = 10×10–3×
1 ( )
−aɵ y If material is homogeneous and isotropic then ∈ does
2× not vary with space
4π× 9 × 109
From Maxwell first equation -
Fab = –1.08π aɵ y N ∇. D = ρv
∇.(∈E) = ρv
ρ
∇. E = v –––––(2)
∈
from equation (1) and equation (2)
−ρv
∇2V =
∈
28. The potential at the centroid of an equilateral The equation is poisson equation for isotropic and
triangle of side r 3 due to three equal positive homogeneous medium.
point charges each of value q and placed at the 30. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical
vertices of the triangle would be: surface of radius R. If R is doubled then the
q 3q outward flux is:
(a) (b)
2π∈0 r 8π∈0 r (a) Doubled
3q (b) Increased four times
(c) (d) Zero
4π∈0 r (c) Reduced to a quarter
IES-2016 (d) Remains unaltered
Ans. (c) : IES-2016
Ans. (d) : A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian
spherical surface of Radius R. If R is doubled then
outward flux is remains unaltered. Because according to
Gauss's law -
Q
φE = enclosed
3 ∈0
Height of equilateral triangle = × side
2 The electric flux depend only on the charge enclosed by
3 surface and electric flux not depend on radius of
∴ AP = BR = CQ = × 3r Gaussian surface.
2
3 31. Consider the following:
= r 1. Electric current flowing in a conducting wire
2
2 3 2. A moving charged belt
Hence distance (OA = OB = OC) = × ×r 3. An electron beam is a cathode ray tube
3 2
=r 4. Electron movement in a vacuum tube
q q q Which of the above are examples of convection
Then potential at point O = + + current?
4πε0 r 4πε0 r 4πε0 r
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
3q
= . (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4πε0 r
IES-2016
Ans. (a) : Example of convection current. K.q1
E1 = E eff cos θ =
A moving charge belt a2
An electron beam is a cathode ray tube 2.K × 10−6
Electron movement in a vacuum tube. = ……………(i)
Convectional current does not require conducting wire ( 2 ×10 ) −2 2
to flow of electric current.

K.q 2
32. A point charge is located at origin. At point (a, E 2 = E eff sin θ =
a) electric field is E1. At point (– a, a) the b2
electric field is E2 and at point ( –a, –a ) the K.1×10−6
= ……………(ii)
electric field is E3. (1×10 ) −2 2
(a) E1 . E2 = 0
(b) |E1 ×E2| = 0
(c) Both E1.E2 = 0 and |E1 × E3| = 0 E2
= tan θ = 2
(d) Neither E1.E2 = 0 nor |E1 × E3| = 0 E1
IES-2015 34. A charge ‘Q’ is divided between two point
Ans. (c) : charges. What should be the values of this
charge on the objects so that the force between
them is maximum?
Q Q
(a) (b)
3 2
(c) (Q – 2) (d) 2Q
IES-2015
E1.E 2 = E1 E 2 cos θ1
Ans. (b) : Charge Q divided between two charge are q
θ1 angle between E1 and E 2 is 90° and Q – q
then E1.E 2 = E1 E 2 cos90° [ θ1 = 90º ]

=0 force between AB
1 q(Q − q)
and E1 × E3 = E1 E3 sin θ2 aɵ n FAB = .
4π ∈0 r2
θ2 angle between E1 and E3 is 180° for FAB maximum,
then E1 × E3 = E1 E3 sin180°aɵ n [ θ2 = 180º ] dFAB
=0
dq
E1 × E3 = 0
1
33. Two point charges q1 = 2µC and q2 = 1µC are (Q − 2q) = 0
4π ∈0 r 2
placed at distance b = 1 cm and a = 2 cm from
the origin on the Y and X axes as shown in Q = 2q
figure. The electric field vector at point P (a, b) q= Q
that will subtend at angle θ with the X-axis is: 2
∴ Force F is maximum q = Q
2
35. What is the force developed per meter length
between two current-carrying conductors 10
cm apart and carrying 1000A and 1500 A
(a) tan θ =1 (b) tan θ =2 currents, respectively?
(c) tan θ =3 (d) tan θ =4 N
(a) 3N (b)
IES-2015 3
Ans. (b) : N
(c) 2N (d)
2
IES-2015
Ans. (a) : Given :-
I1 = 1000A
I2 = 1500A
d = 10 cm = 10×10–2m
∴Force per meter length between two conductor 39. Which of the following statements about
 F  µ0 I1I2 electric field lines associated with electric
 = charges is false?
ℓ 2πd
(a) Electric field lines can be either straight or
4π ×10−7 ×1000 × 1500 curved
=
2π × 10 × 10−2 (b) Electric field lines form closed loops
(c) Electric field lines begin on positive charges
F
= 3N / m and end on negative charges
ℓ (d) Electric field lines do not intersect.
36. The solutions to many problems involving IES-2014
electric fields are simplified by making use of Ans. (b) : Electric field lines never form closed loops
equipotential surfaces. An equipotential because electric field line starts from positive charge
surface is a surface: and terminate on negative charge.
1. On which the potential is same everywhere 40. Which of the following represents Maxwell’s
2. The movement of charge over such a surface divergence equation for static electric field?
would require no work (a) ∇.B = 0 (b) ∇× H = 0
3. The tangential electric field is zero (c) ∇.B = µ (d) ∇× H = µ
4. The normal electric field is zero IES-2014
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (b) : Maxwell's divergence equation for static
electric field
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 3 and 4 ∇×H = 0
IES-2015 41. A current of 5 A passes along the axis of a
cylinder of 5 cm radius. The flux density at the
Ans. (a) : Equipotential surface properties- surface of the cylinder is:
Surface on electric potential is same everywhere. (a) 2µT (b) 20µΤ
The movement of charge over such a surface would (c) 200µΤ (d) 2000µΤ
require no work. IES-2014
W = q0(VA–VB) = 0 Ans. (b) : Given that-
The tangential electric field is zero. I = 5A
37. A continuity equation is also called as the law r = 5cm = 5×10–2 m
of conservation of: flux density at the surface of density
(a) Mass (b) Energy µ I
(B) = 0
(c) Charge (d) Power 2πr
IES-2015 4π × 10−7 × 5
=
Ans. (c) : A continuity equation is also called as the law 2 × π × 5 ×10−2
of conservation of charge. This equation mainly B = 2×10–5 T
movement of carriers (electric and hole) with respect to B = 20µT
time and distance. 42. A voltage of 2000 V exists across 1 cm
38. Consider a long line charge of λ coulomb/metre insulating space between two parallel
conducting plates. An electron of charge 1.6 ×
perpendicular to the plane of a paper. The
10–19 coulomb is introduced into the space. The
electric field lines and equipotential surfaces force on the electron is:
are respectively. (a) 18.2 × 10–26 N (b) 3.2 × 10–14 N
(a) radial, cylindrical concentric with line charge (c) 1.6 × 10 N –19
(d) 4.5 × 1026 N
(b) cylindrical concentric with line charge, radial IES-2014
(c) radial, radial but opposite in direction Ans. (b) : Given that -
(d) concentric with line charge, parallel to line Voltage (V) = 2000V
charge distance (r) = 1cm = 1×10–2 m
IES-2014 charge (Q) = 1.6×10–19 coulomb
Ans. (a) : For any line charge of λ coulomb/meter V 2000
Electric field (E) = = = 2×105 V/m.
perpendicular to the plane of a paper then electric field r 1× 10−2
line is radial and equipotential surfaces are cylindrical force (F) = qE = 1.6×10–19×2×105
concentric with line charge. F = 3.2 ×10–14 N
43. A capacitor of 100 pF stores 10 mJ of energy. 46. Consider a uniform sphere of charge density ρ0
What is the amount of charge (in coulomb) and radius b centred at the origin. The electric
stored in it? field at a radial distance r (r < b), according to
(a) 1.414 × 10–6 (b) 1.414 × 10–3 Gauss’s law, is:
(c) 2.303 × 10–6 (d) 2.303× 10–3 rρ 0 ρ0
(a) (b)
IES-2014 3∈ 4π ∈ r 2
Ans. (a) : Given :- b3ρ0 ρ
(c) (d) 0
C = 100pF = 100×10–12 F 3∈ r2 r
E = 10mJ = 10×10–3 J IES-2013
Qenc
1 Q2 Ans. (a) : Sphere charge density ( ρ0 ) =
∴ Amount of charge stored (Q) = 2EC ∴E = 4 3
2 C πr
3
= 2 × 100 × 10−12 × 10 × 10−3 Q
= 1.414×10 –6 ∫
According to Gauss's law, E.ds = enc
∈
44. Electric displacement current density D at any 4 3
πr ρ0
point on a spherical surface of radius r centred E.4πr = 3
2
at the isolated charge q is: ∈
q 2
q ρr
(a) 2 (b) 2 E= 0
r r 3∈
q q 47. At a point (x, y, z) potential is given by A (x2 +
2 2
(c) (d) y + z ). The potential difference between points
4 πr 2 4π2 r 2 P (1, 0, 2) and Q (1, 1, 2) is:
IES-2013 (a) 8 V (b) 8 V
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 (c) 9 V (d) 9 V
Ans. (c) : Electric field on a spherical surface of radius r IES-2013
1 q Ans. (*) : Potential (V) = x2 + y2 + z2
centred at the isolated charge (E) =
4πε r 2 ∴ Potential at point P (VP) = (1)2 + (0)2 + (2)2 = 5
0
Potential at point Q (VQ) = (1) + (1) + ( 2 )
2 2 2
then electric displacement current density
D= εE VQ = 1 + 1 + 4 = 6
D= ε
1 q
. ∴ VPQ = VQ – VP
4πε r 2 =6–5=1V
q 48. If the potential difference between points A
D= (1,0, 0) and B (2, 0, 0) is 10V, determine d for
4πr 2
point C (d, 0, 0), when VBC is 6 V in a uniform
45. Two charges are placed at a small distance field.
apart. If a glass slab is placed between them, (a) 1 m (b) 2 m
the force between the charges will: (c) 6 m (d) 5 m
(a) not change (b) increase IES-2012
(c) decrease (d) reduce to zero Ans. (d) :
IES-2013
1 q1q 2
Ans. (c) : Force between two charge F1 =
4πε 0 r 2  1 1
Potential difference (VAB) = 10 = KQ  − 
(without glass slab)  2 1
1 q1q 2 1 1
Force between two charge; F2 = and potential difference (VBC) = 6 = KQ  − 
4πε 0ε r r 2 d 2
∴ F2 =
1
× F1 1 1
⇒ 6 = –20  − 
εr d 2
two charge are placed at small distance apart. If a glass −20
⇒6= + 10
slab is placed between them, the force between the d
charge will decrease. ⇒d=5

49. There are three charges, which are given by Ans. (b) : In parallel combination
Q1 = 1µC, Q2 = 2µC and Q3 = 3µC. The field Ceq = C1+ C2+ C3
due to each charge at a point P in free space is ε εA ε ε A ε ε A
= 0 1 + 0 2 + 0 3
(ax + 2ay – az), (ay + 3az) and (2ax – ay) newtons/ 3d 3d 3d
coulomb. The total field at a point P due to all ε A
three charges is given by: Ceq = 0 ( ε1 + ε 2 + ε3 )
3d
(a) 1.6ax + 2.2ay + 2.5az newtons/coulomb C
(b) 0.3ax + 0.2ay + 0.2az newtons/coulomb Ceq = ( ε1 + ε2 + ε3 ) Farad
3
(c) 3ax + 2ay + 2az newtons/coulomb
52. If the potential, V = 4x + 2 volts, the electric
(d) 0.6ax + 0.2ay + 0.5az newtons/coulomb field is:
IES-2012 (a) 6 V/m (b) 2 V/m
Ans. (c) : Given :- (c) 4 V/m (d) −4a x V / m
E1 = a x + 2a y − a z IES-2011
Ans. (d) : Given:-
E 2 = a y + 3a z V = 4x+2
E 3 = 2a x − a y ∴ E = −∇V
 ∂ ∂ ∂ 
∴ Total electric field ( E T ) = E1 + E 2 + E3 = −  a x + a y + a z  ( 4x + 2 )
 ∂x ∂y ∂z 
= ax + 2ay – az + ay + 3az + 2ax – ay. E = − 4a x V/m
= 3ax + 2ay+ 2az N/C
53. If the current element represents by 4 × 10–4 a y
50. The credit of defining the following current is
due to Maxwell: Amp-m is placed in a magnetic field of
5a
(a) Conduction current H = x A/m, the force on the current element
µ
(b) Drift current
is:
(c) Displacement current
(a) −2.0a z mN (b) 2.0a z mN
(d) Diffusion current
IES-2012 (c) −2.0a z N (d) 2.0a z N
IES-2011
Ans. (c) : The credit of defining the displacement –4
current is due to Maxwell. Ans. (a) : Given :- Id ℓ = 4×10 a y
5a
Displacement current has the units of electric current H= x
density and it has an associated magnetic field just as µ
actual currents do. ∴ B = µ H = 5ax
51. The space between the plates of a parallel-plate Hence force on current element (F) = idℓ × B
capacitor of capacitance C is filled with three = 4×10–4 ay × 5ax
dielectric slabs of identical size as shown in the = 20×10–4 ay × ax
figure. If dielectric consonants are ε1, ε2 and ε3, = 2×10–3 (–az)
the new capacitance is: F = −2.0a z mN
answer using code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. MMF 1. Conductivity
B. Magnetic flux 2. Electric current
C. Reluctance 3. EMF
D. Permeability 4. Resistance
Codes :
C ( ε1 + ε2 + ε3 ) C A B C D
(a) (b) (a) 3 4 2 1
3 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
9 ( ε1 + ε2 + ε3 )
(c) (ε1 + ε2 + ε3) C (d) (c) 3 2 4 1
ε1ε2 ε3 (d) 1 4 2 3
IES-2012 IES-2011
Ans. (c) : I I
(a) (b)
List-I List-II 2 πr 4 πr
A. MMF 1. EMF Ir Ir
(c) (d)
B. Magnetic flux 2. Electric current 2 πR 2 4 πR 2
C. Reluctance 3. Resistance RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
D. Permeability 4. Conductivity TRB Poly.Tech. -2012
55. Assuming that each loop is stationary and time IES-2012
varying magnetic field B, induces current I, Ans. (c) :
which of the configurations in the figure are
correct?
1. 2.
According to Ampere's law
∫ H.d ℓ = ∫ J.ds
H.2πr = J.πr2
3. 4.
I  I 
H.2πr = 2
πr 2 ∴  J = 
πR  πR 2 
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only Ir
H=
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only 2πR 2
IES-2011 58. What is the magnetic dipole moment in A.m2
Ans. (b) : From right hand screw rule :- Put the for a square current loop having the vertices at
thumb in the direction of field and observe the fingers the points A (10, 0, 0), B (0, 10, 0), C (– 10, 0, 0)
rotation. and D (0, – 10, 0) and with current 0.01A
For increasing field, the current direction should be flowing in the sense ABCDA?
clockwise. ∧ ∧
(a) 2 a z (b) −2a z
For decreasing field, the current direction should be
∧ ∧ ∧
anticlock wise. (c) 4 a z (d) 4(a x + a y )
56. The flux and potential functions due to a line IES-2004
charge and due to two concentric circular Ans. (a) :
conductors are of the following form:
(a) Concentric circular equipotential lines and
straight radial flux lines
(b) Concentric circular flux lines and straight
equipotential lines
(c) Equipotential due to line charge are
concentric cylinders and equipotential due to
two conductors are straight lines Magnetic dipole moment
(d) Equipoential due to line charge are straight m = I A aɵ n
flat surfaces and those due to two conductors
 1 ∧
are concentric cylinders. = 0.01×  4 × × 10 × 10 a z
 2 
IES-2010
∧
Ans. (a) : The flux and potential function due to a line m = 2a z
charge and due to concentric circular conductor
59. In the field of a charge Q at the origin, the
are concentric circular equipotential lines and straight potential at A (2, 0, 0) and B (1/2, 0, 0) are VA =
radial flux lines. 15 volt and VB = 30 volt respectively. What will
57. A solid cylindrical conductor of radius ‘R’ has be the potential at C (1, 0, 0)?
a uniform current density. The magnetic field (a) 25 volt (b) 22.5 volt
‘H’ inside the conductor at a distance ‘r’ from (c) 20 volt (d) 17.5 volt
the axis of the conductor is: IES-2009
Q Ans. (d) : Given :-
Ans. (c) : VB = + c = 30 –––––(1)
1 A = 5m2
4π ∈0  
2 dB
=2
Q dt
VC = + c ––––––(2) N=1
4π ∈0 ×1
dφ
and ∴ emf (e) = –N
dt
Q
VA = + c = 15 ––––––(3) d ( BA )
4π ∈0 .2 e = –1 ×
dt
where c is initial reference voltage from equation (1)
dB
and equation(3) = −A × = –5 × 2
dt
Q
= 10 –––––(4) e = – 10 V
4π ∈0
63. Method of images is applicable to which fields?
from equation (1) and equation (4) (a) Electro static field only
3c = 30 (b) Electro dynamic field only
c = 10 (c) Neither electrostatic fields nor electro dynamic
value c put in equation (2) fields
Vc = 10 + 10 = 20 volt (d) Both electrostatic fields and electro dynamic
60. What will be the equipotential surfaces for a fields
pair of equal and opposite line charges? IES-2009
(a) Spheres Ans. (a) : The method of images is used in
(b) Concentric cylinders electrostatics to simplify calculation or visualize the
distribution of the electric field of a charge in the
(c) Non-concentric cylinder
vicinity of a conducting surface. It is based on the fact
that the tangential component of electrical field on the
IES-2009 surface of a conductor is zero and that electric field E in
Ans. (c) : Non- concentric cylinder will be the some region is uniquely defined by its normal
equipotential surfaces for a pair of equal and opposite component over the surface that confines this region.
line charge. 64. Which one of the following is the correct
61. If the potential functions V1 and V2 satisfy expression for torque on a loop in magnetic
Laplace’s equation within a closed region and field B ? (here M is the loop moment)?
assume the same values on its surfaces, then
(a) T = ∇.B (b) T = M.B
which of the following is correct?
(a) V1 and V2 are identical (c) T = M × B (d) T = B× M
(b) V1 is inversely proportional to V2 IES-2006
(c) V1 has the same direction to V2 Ans. (c) : The torque exerted on a current-carrying coil
(d) V1 has the same magnitude as V2 but has placed in a magnetic field can be given by the vector
different direction product of the magnetic moment and magnetic field.
IES-2009 Torque equation T = M × B
Ans. (a) : If the potential function V1 and V2 satisfy 65. What is the electric flux density (in µC/m2) at a
laplace's equation within a closed region and assume the point (6, 4, – 5) caused by a uniform surface
same values on its surface then V1 and V2 are identical. charge density of 60 µC/m2 at a plane x = 8?
62. A single turn loop is situated in air, with a (a) −30a x (b) −60a x
uniform magnetic field normal to its plane. The (c) 30a x (d) 60a x
area of the loop is 5 m2 and the rate of change IES-2008
of flux density is 2 Wb/m2/s. What is the emf Ans. (a) : Electric flux intensity due to uniform surface,
appearing at the terminals of the loop? σ
(a) – 5 V (b) – 2V (E) =
2ε 0
(c) – 0.4V (d) –10 V
IES-2009 D = ε0E

60 × 10−6 1
(c) α = β = γ = cos −1
D=
2 3
D = 30 µ C/m2 1
(d) α = β = γ = cos −1
Hence, electric flux density at a plane (x = 8) = – 3
30 aɵ x µ C / m 2 . Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
66. A 5A current enters a right circular cylinder of IES-2007
5 cm radius. What is the linear surface current Ans. (c) : Electric field intensity
density at the end surface? E = 10iˆ + 10ˆj + 10kˆ
(a) (50/π) A/m (b) (100/π) A/m
∴ E = 102 + 102 + 102 = 10 3
(c) (1000/π) A/m (d) (2000/π) A/m
IES-2008 If α, β, γ are respectively the angles the E vector makes
NI with x, y and z axis
Ans. (a) : Linear surface current density (H) =
2πr E
cos α = .iˆ in x-direction
1× 5 E
=
2 × π× 5 ×10−2
10iˆ + 10jˆ + 10kˆ ˆ 1
50 A = .i =
H= . 10 3 3
π m
E
67. Of two concentric long conducting cylinders, and cos β = .jˆ
the inner one is kept at a constant positive E
potential + V0 and the outer one is grounded 10iˆ + 10jˆ + 10kˆ ˆ
what is the electric field in the space between = .j in y- direction
10 3
the cylinders?
1
(a) Uniform and directed radially outwards =
3
(b) Uniform and directed radially outwards
and
(c) Non-uniform and directed radially outwards
E ˆ
(d) Non-uniform and directed parallel to the axis cos γ = k
of the cylinders? E
IES-2008 10iˆ + 10ˆj + 10kˆ ˆ 1
Ans. (c) : = .k =
10 3 3
 1 
Hence α = β = γ = cos–1  3 
 
69. W1 is the electrostatic energy stored in a system
of three equal point charges arranged in a line
with 0.5m separation between them. If W2 is
the energy stored with 1 m separation between
them, then which one of the following is
Field lines emerge radially outwards direction from the correct?
inner of cylinder and terminate at outer cylinder. (a) W1 = 0.5 W2 (b) W1 = W2
(c) W1 = 2W2 (d) W1 = 4W2
68. The electric field intensity E at a point P is
IES-2007
given by 10iˆ + 10jˆ + 10kˆ where î, ˆj and k̂ are
Ans. (c) : There equal point charge arranged on a line
unit vectors in x, y and z directions with 0.5m separation-
respectively. If α, β, γ are respectively the Then
angles the E vector makes with x, y and z axes  1 Q Q Q 
respectively, they are given by which of the W1 = Q   0.5 + 0.5 + 1  
 4 π∈0 
following?
(a) α = β = γ = 30° 5Q 2
= ––––––(1)
(b) α = β = γ = 60° 4π ∈0
and when energy stroed with 1m separation of charge (c) Removal of a charge distribution and
1 Q Q Q introduction of an additional set of
W1 = Q
4π∈0  1 + 1 + 2  conducting surfaces.
(d) Removal of a charge distribution as well as a
5Q 2 set of conducting surfaces.
W2 = ––––––(2)
( 4π ∈0 ) 2 IES-2007
From equation (1) and equation (2) Ans. (a) : Application of the method of images to a
W1 boundary value problem in electrostatics involves
=2 introduction of an additional distribution of charges and
W2
removal of a set of conducting surface.
W1 = 2W2
72. The conducting thin coils X and Y (identical
70. The potential distribution V between two
except for a thin cut in coil Y) are placed in a
infinite the flat metal sheets meeting at an angle
uniform magnetic field which is decreasing at a
θ is to be found. The left edges of the sheets are constant rate. If the plane of the coils is
separated by an infinitesimal gap. The lower perpendicular to the field lines, which of the
sheet is at zero potential and the upper sheet is following statement is correct? As a result, emf
at potential V1. If α be an angle from V = 0 is induced in:
plate, what is the potential distribution? (a) both the coils
(b) coil Y only
(c) coil X only
(d) None of the two coils
IES-2007
Ans. (a) : Two conducting thin coils X and Y are placed
 πα  α in a uniform magnetic field which is decreasing at a
(a) V = V1 sin   (b) V = V1 sin  
 2θ   2θ  constant rate, if the plane of the coils is perpendicular to
 3πα  α the field line then e.m.f. is induced in both the coils.
(c) V = V1 sin   (d) V = V1 sin  
 2θ  θ 73. A parallel plate capacitor of 5 pF capacitance
IES-2007 has a charge of 0.1µC on its plates. What is the
energy stored in the capacitor?
Ans. (a) :
(a) 1 mJ (b) 1 µJ
(c) 1 nJ (d) 1 pJ
IES-2006
Ans. (a) : Energy stored in capacitor
1 Q2
U=
When α = 0 then V = 0 and when α = θ 2 C
then from option (a)
( )
−6 2
1 0.1× 10
 πθ  = ×
V = V1 sin   = V1 2 5 ×10−12
 2θ 
1 0.1× 0.1× 10−12
 πα  = ×
So, potential distribution ( V ) = V1 sin   2 5 ×10−12
 2θ 
U = 1 mJ
71. Application of the method of images to a
74. Equipotential surfaces about point charge are
boundary value problem in electrostatics
in which one of the following forms?
involves which one of the following?
(a) Spheres (b) Planes
(a) Introduction of an additional distribution of
charges and removal of a set of conducting (c) Cylinders (d) Cubes
surfaces. IES-2006
(b) Introduction of an additional distribution of Ans. (a) : Equipotential surfaces about point charge are
charges and an additional set of conducting in form of spheres. The work done in moving a charge
surfaces between two point in an equipotential surface is zero.
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 78. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is
answer using the code given below the lists: given by (ε0εr A/d) where A is the area of each
List-I List-II plate and d is the distance between the plates.
A. Line change 1. Maxwell Considering fringing field, under which one of
B. Magnetic flux 2. Poynting vector the following conditions is the above expression
density valid?
C. Displacement 3. Biot-Savart’s (a) A/d is tending towards zero
current law (b) A/d is tending towards infinity
D. Power flow 4. Gauss’s law (c) A/d is 1
Codes : (d) A/d is 1/ ∈r∈0
A B C D IES-2005
(a) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (b) : Considering fringing field A is tending
(b) 4 3 1 2 d
(c) 1 3 4 2 towards infinity.
(d) 4 2 1 3
IES-2006
Ans. (b) :
Line charge → Gauss law Whole field sustained by dielectric material. When d is
Magnetic flux density → Bio-savart's law very less, therefore no fringing field outside the
Displacement current → Maxwell capacitor.
Power flow → Poynting vector ∴ A d ≃ ∞ (where d is very less).
1
76. What does the expression J.A represent? 79. Current density (J), in cylindrical coordinate
2
system is given as:
(a) Electric energy density
J (r, θ, z) = 0 for 0 < r < a
(b) Magnetic energy density
(c) Power density = J0 (r/a2) I z for a < r < b
(d) Radiation resistance Where I z is the unit vector along z-coordinates
IES-2006 axis. In this region, a < r < b, what is the
1 expression for the magnitude of magnetic field
Ans. (b) : The expression J.A represents magnetic
2 intensity vector (H) ?
energy density. J0 3 3 J0 3 3
77. A charge of 1 Coulomb is placed near a (a) (r − a ) (b) (r + a )
r2 r2
grounded conducting plate at a distance of 1m.
What is the force between them? J (r 3 − a 3 ) J0 3 3
(c) 0 2 (d) (r − a )
1 1 3a r 2 πr
(a) N (b) N IES-2005
4πε0 8πε0
(c)
1
16πε0
N (d) 4πε0
Ans. (c) : Ienc =
∫∫ J.ds = ∫ H.dℓ
r 2π
J0r
∫∫ a
IES-2006
2
.rdθdr = H.2πr
Ans. (c) :
C a 0
J0 r3 − a3
. .2π = H.2πr
a2 3
H=
(
J0 r3 − a 3 )
Force between two point charge 3a r 2
1 Q1Q 2 80. The potential (scalar) distribution is given as

(F) =
4π ∈0 r 2 V= 10y4 + 20x3. If ε0 is the permittivity of free
1 1×1 space, what is the charge density ρ at the point
= (2, 0)?
4π ∈0 (2) 2
(a) – 200ε0 (b) – 200/ε0
1
(F) = N (c) 200ε0 (d) – 240ε0
16π∈0
IES-2005
ρv Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : ∇2 V = − from Poisson's equation
ε0
 ∂2 ∂2 ∂2  –ρv
⇒ 4 3
(
 2 + 2 + 2  10y + 20x =
ε0
)
 ∂x ∂y ∂z 
ρ Potential at point P
⇒ 120x + 120y2 = − v
ε0 q1 q2
VP = − = 0 [for grounding]
⇒ ( ρv ) = −ε0 (120x + 120y 2 ) 4πε ( 5 − R ) 4πε ( R − 2 )
q1 q2
⇒ ( ρ )( 2,0) = −ε0 (120 × 2 + 120 × 0 ) = ……………(i)
5−R R−2
( ρv )( 2,0) = −240 ε0 q1 q2
at point Q → VQ = − =0
81. What is the expression for capacitance of an 4π ∈ ( 5 + R ) 4π ∈0 ( R + 2 )
infinitely conducting solid sphere of radius ‘R’ q1 q
in free space? = 2 …………(ii)
5+ R R + 2
(a) 2π∈0R (b) 4π∈0R
Solve equation (i) & (ii)
(c) 8π∈0R (d) 0.5π∈0R
IES-2005 R2
b=
Ans. (b) : Capacitance of an infinitely conducting solid d
sphere of Radius R, R
And, q 2 = q1
Q 4π ∈0 d
C= =
∆V 1 − 1 Where q2 = Induced point charge
a b R = Radius of sphere
take a = R and b = ∞ d = Distance of charge from centre of sphere
4π ∈0 2
then C= q 2 = 10 × 10−6 ×
1 1 5
−
R ∞ = 4 × 10 −6
C = 4π∈0R
= 4µC
82. Which one of the following concepts is used to
find the expression of radiated E and H field 84. An infinitely long uniform charge of density 30
due to a magnetic current element? nC/m is located at y = 3, z = 5. The field
(a) Concept of vector magnetic potential intensity at (0, 6, 1) is E = 64.7 ay – 86.3az V/m.
(b) Concept of scalar electric potential What is the field intensity at (5, 6, 1)?
(c) Concept of scalar magnetic potential  62 + 12 
(a) E (b)  2 E
(d) Concept of vector electric potential  5 + 62 + 12 
IES-2005 1 1
Ans. (a) : Concept of vector magnetic potential is used  62 + 12  2  52 + 62 + 12  2
(c)  2  E (d)   E
to find the expression of radiated E and H field due to a  5 + 62 + 12   62 + 12 
magnetic current element . IES-2004
B = µH , B = ∇×A
Ans. (a) :
E = –∇V
83. A point charge of + 10µC placed at a distance
of 5 cm from the centre of a conducting
grounded sphere of radius 2 cm is shown in the
diagram given below:
What is the total induced charge on the

conducting sphere?
(a) 10µC (b) 4µC Perpendicular distance from line charge same as both
(c) 5µC (d) 12.5µC point (0,6,1) and (5,6,1). Therefore field intensity at
both point are same.
IES-2004
85. An infinitely long line charge of uniform Ans. (b) : Two thin parallel wires are carrying current
charge density ρ0C/m is situated parallel to and along the same direction. The force experienced by one
at a distance from the grounded infinite plane due to the other is perpendicular to the lines and
conductor. This field problem can be solved by attractive. If current in parallel conductor flowing in
which one of the following? opposite direction then force experienced by one due to
(a) By conformal transformation the other is perpendicular to the line and repulsive.
(b) By method of images 89. An electric potential field is produced in air by
(c) By Laplace’s equation point charges 1µC and 4µC located at (– 2, 1, 5)
(d) By Poisson’s equation and (1, 3, – 1) respectively.
IES-2004 The energy stored in the field is:
Ans. (b) : An infinitely long line charge of uniform (a) 2.57 mJ (b) 5.14 mJ
charge density ρ0 is situated parallel to and at a distance (c) 10.27 mJ (d) 12.50 mJ
from the grounded infinity plane conductor, this IES-2003
problem can be solve by method of images.
86. An electric charge Q is placed in a dielectric Ans. (b) : r = ( x1 − x 2 )2 + ( y1 − y 2 )2 + ( z1 − z 2 )2
medium. Which of the following quantities are
independent of the dielectric constant ∈ of the = ( −2 − 1)2 + (1 − 3)2 + ( 5 + 1)2
medium.
(a) Electric potential V and Electric field = 9 + 4 + 36 = 49
intensity E. r=7
(b) Displacement density D and Displacement ψ. 1
Energy stored (W) = [ Q1V1 + Q 2 V2 ]
(c) Electric field intensity E and Displacement 2
density D. 1 1× 10 × 4 ×10 6 4 ×10−6 ×1× 10−6 
−6 −
(d) Electric potential V and Displacement ψ. =  + 

2 4π∈0 ×7 4π ∈0 ×7 
IES-2003
Ans. (b) : An electric charge Q is placed in a dielectric 4 × 10−12
= 9×109×
medium; 7
1 q1q 2 1 W = 5.14mJ
Then F = ⇒ F∝
4πε r 2
ε 90. A field A = 3x2yz ax + x3z a y + (x3y – 2z) az can
q be termed as:
D = εE = → independent of ε
4πr 2 (a) Harmonic (b) Divergence less
87. Two coaxial cylindrical sheets of charge are (c) Solenoidal (d) Rotational
present in free space, ρs = 5C/m2 at r = 2m and IES-2002
ρs = – 2 C/m2 at r = 4m. The displacement flux Ans. (a) : Divergence of A
density D at r = 3m is:  ∂ ∂ ∂ 
∇.A =  aɵ x + aɵ y + aɵ z 
(a) D = 5a r C/m 2 (b) D = 2/3a r C/m 2  ∂x ∂y ∂ z 
(c) D = 10/3a r C/m 2 (d) D = 18/3a r C/m 2
IES-2003
( (
3x 2 yzaɵ x + x 3zaɵ y + x 3 y − 2z aɵ z ) )
Ans. (c) : From Gauss's law ∇.A = 6xyz + 0 + ( −2 )
Q = ∫∫ρds = ∫D. d s ∇.A = 6xyz − 2 ≠ 0
5×2π×2× ℓ = D×2π×3× ℓ
∇.A ≠ 0 not Solenoidal
ℓ = Length of coaxial cylindrical sheet
10 C 10 aɵ x aɵ y aɵ z
D= 2 = ar C / m2
3 m 3 ∂ ∂ ∂
∇×A =
88. Two thin parallel wires are carrying current ∂x ∂y ∂z
along the same direction. The force
experienced by one due to the other is :
2 3
3x yz x z x y − 2z 3
( )
(a) Parallel to the lines
(b) Perpendicular to the lines and attractive
( ) ( ) (
aɵ x x 3 − x 3 − aɵ y 3x 2 y − 3x 2 y + aɵ z 3x 2 z − 3x 2 z )
(c) Perpendicular to the lines and repulsive ⇒ ∇ × A = 0 (irrotational)
(d) Zero A field A will be harmonic because A is irrotational but
IES-2003 not solenoid and also not divergence less.
91. 94.
A positive charge of Q coulomb is located at
point A (0, 0, 3) and a negative charge of
magnitude Q coulombs is located at point B (0,
0, – 3). The electric field intensity at point C (4,
0, 0) is in the:
(a) negative x-direction (b) negative z-direction
(c) positive x-direction (d) positive z-direction
The circulation of H around the closed contour IES-2001
C, shown in the figure is: Ans. (b) :
(a) 0 (b) 2I
(c) 4I (d) 6I
IES-2002
Ans. (c) :
E = E1 + E 2
=
1 q1
4π∈0 R 3( )
R +
1 q2
4π ∈0 R 3
R ( )
According to direction of loop and current– Q  4aɵ x − 3aˆ z  Q  4aɵ x + 3aˆ z 
=  −  
4π ∈0  125  4π∈0  125 
∫ H ⋅ dℓ = 3I + 2I − I
= 5I − I Q  −6aɵ z 
E=  
= 4I 4π ∈0  125 
92. What is the value of the magnetic vector
potential due to an infinitesimally small current
element, evaluated at infinite distance from it?
E=
4 π ∈
6Q
0 × 125
( )
−aɵ z
(a) Infinity 95. The force between two point charges of 1 nC

(b) Unity each with 1 mm separation in air is:
(c) Zero (a) 9 × 10–3 N (b) 9 × 10–6 N
–9
(d) Any number between zero and infinity (c) 9 × 10 N (d) 9 × 10–12 N
depending on the strength of the current IES-2001
element. Ans. (a) : Force between two point charge
IES-2007 1 q1q 2
=
Ans. (c) : We know that- 4π∈0 r 2
µIdℓ
∫
−9 −9
Magnetic vector potential A = 9 1 × 10 × 1× 10
4πR = 9 × 10 ×
( )
2
If R→ ∞ then A = 0 10−3
93. The energy stored per unit volume in an = 9×10-9×106
electric field (with usual notations) is given by: F = 9×10–3 N
(a) 1/2εH2 (b) 1/2εE 96. A 3µF capacitor is charged by a constant
(c) 1/2εE 2
(d) εE 2 current of 2µA for 6 seconds. The voltage
IES-2001 across the capacitor to the end of charging will
be:
Ans. (c) : The energy stored per unit volume in an (a) 3 V (b) 4 V
1
electrical field is = εE 2 (c) 6 V (d) 9 V
2 IES-2001
∵D=εE Ans. (b) : Q = it
1 = 2×10–6×6
Then Energy stored per unit volume = DE = 12 ×10–6C
2
and Q = CV
1 D2 1 2 12×10–6 = 3×10–6×V
= = εE J/m3
2 ε 2 ∴ V = 4V
97. Consider the following statements: Ans. (d) : Gauss law relates the electric field intensity
A parallel plate capacitor is filled with a E with the volume charge density P at a point as
dielectric of relativity of ∈r1 , and connected to a ρ
∇. E = v
dc. Voltage of V volts. If the dielectric is ∈0
changed to another with relative permittivity and ∇.D = ρv ( D = ∈0 E )
∈r2 = 2 ∈r1 , keeping the voltage constant then: 99. Match List-I (Laws) with List-II (Applications)
and select the correct answer:
1. The electric field intensity E within the
List-I List-II
capacitor doubles.
To Find the
2. The displacement flux density D doubles
A. Ampere’s law 1. force on a charge
3. The charge Q on the plates reduced to
B. Biot’s law 2. force due to current
half.
carrying
4. The energy stored in the capacitor is
C. Coulomb’s law 3. electric flux density at a
doubled.
point
Select the correct answer using the codes given D. Gauss’s law 4. Magnetic flux density at a
below: point
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Codes :
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 A B C D
IES-2001 (a) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (c) : If ε r = 2εr (b) 4 2 1 3
2 1
(c) 4 1 2 3
and V1 = V2 =V
(d) 3 1 2 4
Then
IES-2000
1 q
1. E= . 2 Ans. (b) : Ampere's law → magnetic flux density at a
4π ∈r ∈0 r
point
1 Biot Savart's law → Force due to current carrying.
E∝
εr Coulomb's law → Force on a charge.
1 Gauss's law → electric flux density at a point.
E2 = E1
2 100. In a hundred-turn coil, if the flux through each
2. D = ε0εrE turn is (t3 – 2t) mWb, the magnitude of the
induced emf in the coil at a time of 4s is:
D ∝ εr
(a) 46 mV (b) 56 mV
D2 = 2D1 (c) 4.6 V (d) 5.6 V
3. Q = CV IES-2000
Q ∝ C ∝ εr dφ
Ans. (c) : e = N
Q2 = 2Q1 dt
4. E =
1
CV 2 e = 100 ×
d 3
dt
( )
t − 2t × 10−3
2
E ∝ C ∝ εr (
e = 100 3t 2 − 2 × 10−3)
E2 = 2E1
(
e t = 4s = 100 × 3 × 42 − 2 ×10−3 )
98. Gauss law relates the electric field intensity E
e t = 4s = 100 × ( 46 ) × 10−3
with the volume charge density ρ at a point as:
(a) ∇ × E = ε0ρ (b) ∇.E = ε0ρ e t = 4s = 4.6V
101. The dimension of flux density is:
(c) ∇ × E = ρ / ε 0 (d) ∇.E = ρ / ε0
(a) MT–1Q–1 (b) MT–2Q–2
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 (c) MT1Q1 (d) MT–1Q–2
IES-2001 IES-2000
Ans. (a) : Magnetic force (F) = qvB (c) due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at
any two points ‘r’ (= R1 and R2)
∵ q → charge
(d) in a single spherical shell of charges Q
v → velocity uniformly distributed, Q = Q1 + Q2
B→ magnetic flux density IES-1999
F Ans. (b) : Due to two concentric shells of charges Q1
magnetic flux density(B) = and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1
qv
and R2
 MLT −2  104. The region between two concentric cylinder
Dimension of B =  
[ AT ] ×  LT 
−1 with radii of 2 and 5 cm contains a volume
charge distribution of –10–8 (1+ 10r) C/m3. If Er
Dimension of B =  MT −2 A −1  =  MT –1Q –1  and V both are zero at the inner cylinder and
ε = ε0, the potential V at the outer cylinder will
102. Charge needed within a unit sphere centered at be:
the origin for producing a potential field, (a) 0.506 V (b) 5.06 V
-6r 5 (c) 50.6 V (d) 506 V
V= , for r ≤ 1 is: IES-1999
ε0
Ans. (a) : Given that–
(a) 12πC (b) 60πC
ρv = −10−8 (1 + 10r ) C m3
(c) 120πC (d) 180πC
According to poisson's equation–
IES-1999
−ρ
Ans. (c) : E = –∇V ∇2V = v
ε0
∂ɵ 1 ∂ ɵ 1 ∂ ɵ   −6r 5 
E = −  ir + iθ + iφ    −ρ
 ∂r r ∂θ r sin θ ∂φ   ε0  ∇ ⋅ ( ∇V ) = v
ε0
∂  6r 5  ˆ ∇ ( −E ) = −ρv ε0
⇒ E=−   ir
∂r  ε0 
1 d  10
−8
(1 + 10r ) ……… (i)
 ⋅ rE  =
4
30r ɵ r  dr  ε0
E=− ir ––––––(i)
ε0 dv
E= ………….. (ii)
1 q dr
E = . ––––––––(ii) In equation (i) and (ii) only â r component considered-
4π∈0 r 2
d   dV  
 = 10 ( r + 10R ) × 36π× 10
from equation (i) and (ii) - r −8 2 9
dr   dr  
1 q 30r 4 ˆ
= . = ir
4πε 0 r 2 ε0 dV  r 2 10r 3 
r = 360π  +  + C1
⇒ q = 120 π×r4 (r= 1m) dr 2 3 
q = 120 πC dV  r 10r 2  C1
= 360π ⋅  +  + …….. (iii)
103. The given figure represents the variation of dr 2 3  r
electric field ‘E’ At r = 0.02m E= 0
∴ for r = 0.024m
 0.02 10 ( 0.02 ) 2  C
0 = 360π  + + 1
 2 3 
  0.02
C1 = 0.256
Integration of equation (iii)
 r2 r3 
(a) due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2 V = 360π  + 10  + C1ℓnr + C 2 ………. (iv)
4 9
(b) due to two concentric shells of charges Q1
At r = 0.02m V=0
and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of
C 2 = −1.1246
radii R1 and R2
For r = 0.05m then potential- 108. The torque (in N – m) acting on a circular
 ( 0.05 ) 10
2
 current loop of radius 1 mm in the xy-plane,
+ ( 0.05 ) − 0.256ℓn ( 0.05 ) − 1.1246 
3
V r =0.05 = 360π  connected at the origin and with current 0.1A
 4 9 
flowing in the sense of increasing φ in a magnetic
V = 0.506V field B = 10–5
105. Two small diameter 5g dielectric balls can slide (2aˆ x − 2aˆ y + aˆ z ) Wb/m2 is:
freely on a vertical non-conducting thread.
Each ball carries a negative charge of 2µC. If (a) −2 × 10−12 (2aˆ x − 2aˆ y + aˆ z )
the lower ball is restrained from moving, then (b) 2 × 10−12 π(aˆ y + aˆ x )
the separation between the two balls will be:
(a) 8570 mm (b) 857 mm (c) 10 −12 π
(c) 85.7 mm (d) 8.57 mm (d) −10 −12 π
IES-1999
IES-1998
1 q1q 2
Ans. (b) : F = Ans. (b) : Torque = m × B
4π ∈0 r 2
= IA × B
( )
2
9 × 109 × 2 × 10−6
( ) ( )
= 0.1  π 10−3  aɵ z × 10−5 2aɵ x − 2aɵ y + aɵ z
2
−3
⇒ = 5 × 10 × 9.8
r2  
⇒ r2 =
9
9 × 10 × 4 × 10
−3
−12
( )
= π × 10−7 aɵ z × 10−5 2aɵ x − 2aɵ y + aɵ z
5 ×10 × 9.8
After solving-
⇒ r = 0.857 r = 857 mm
106. An isolated sphere in air has a radius equal to = 2π × 10 (
−12 ɵ
)
a y + aɵ x
1/4π∈0 meter, its capacitance will be:
109. The given figure shown the surface charge
(a) πF (b) 1F
distribution of q coulombs/m2. What is the
1
(c) 4πF (d) F force on a unit charge placed at the centre of
4π circle?
IES-1998, 1997
1
Ans. (b) : Given isolated sphere radius =
4πε0
Isolated sphere capacitance
C = 4π∈0R
1 q
C = 4π∈0× (a) Zero (b) N
4πε 4 π R2
0
C = 1F q2 q2
(c) N (d) N
107. The displacement flux density at a point on the 4 πR 2 4 πR
surface of a perfect conductor is IES-1998
D = 2 ( aˆ x - 3aˆ z ) 2 = and is pointing away
C Ans. (a) : Force on the charge-
m F = qE
from the surface. The surface charge density at
the point (C/m2) will be: At the centre E = 0
(a) 2 (b) –2 the F = q × 0
(c) 4 (d) – 4 F = 0N
IES-1998 110. Consider an arbitrary distribution of
Ans. (c) : If surface of a perfect conductor then conducting bodies in a charge-free space.
Et = 0 According to the uniqueness theorem, which of
Dn = ρs following are required to be specified in order
(
ρs = 2 aɵ x − 3aɵ z C / m 2 ) that the field is uniquely determined every
where?
( 2 )2 1 + ( )
2
ρs = 3  1. Total charge on each conductor.
  2. Potential at each conductor surface
= 2×2 3. Potential at some of the conductors and
ρs = 4 C/m2 total charge on the remainder.
4. Total charge as well as potential gradient 2
I2  f 2 
on each conductor surface. ⇒ = 
I1  f1 
2
I2  2 
below: f
Codes : ⇒ =
I1  f 
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4  
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 I1
⇒ I2 =
IES-1998 4
Ans. (b) : Correct statements are- 113. An infinite plane Z = 10 m carries a uniformly
Potential at each conductor surface same. distributed charge of density 2n C/m2. The
electric field intensity at the origin is:
Total charge as well as potential gradient on each
(a) 0.2aˆ z nV / m (b) 2 / aˆ z nV / m
conductor surface.
(c) −2aˆ z nV / m (d) −36πaˆ z V / m
111. Consider a conducting cylinder along the z-axis
IES-1997
in a uniform field E = xE ˆ x as shown in the
Ans. (d) : Electric field due to infinite sheet for external
given figure. The ρ-component of electric field ρs
strength in the region outside the cylinder is =
2ε 0
( )
−aɵ n
given by (a = radius of cylinder surface)
2 × 10−9
E=
1
( −aˆ z )
2×
36π ×109
E = –36π aɵ z V
m
114. An electric charge of 100 coulombs is enclosed
 a2  in a sphere of radius 100m. The electric
(a) E p =  2 + 1 E x cos φ displacement density (in coulomb/m2) D is:
ρ 
(a) 0.79 mC/m2 (b) 0.833 mC/m2
a 2
 (c) 1.666 mC/m 2
(d) 10 mC/m2
(b) E p =  2 + 1 E x sin φ
ρ  IES-1997
1 q
(c) E p = ρ2 + a 2  E x sin φ Ans. (a) : Electric field intensity (E) =
4π ∈0 r 2
 ρ2 + a 2 
(d) E p =  2 2  E x sin φ 1 (100 )
 ρa  E= .
4π ∈0 (100 )2
IES-1998
electric displacement density (D) = ε 0 E
Ans. (a) : Ep will not have any component in the Y-
direction. Ep will have only in the X-direction. 1 1
= ε0 ×
So, the applied electric field is in X-direction only for 4π ∈0 100
( φ = 0º ) . =
1
400π
112. The intensity of radiation of a dipole depends
strongly on frequency. If at a frequency f, the = 0.79 mC 2
m
intensity of radiation is ‘I’ then at a frequency
of f/2, the intensity will be: 115. Poisson’s equation for a non homogeneous
(a) I/2 (b) I/4 medium is:
(c) I/8 (d) I/16 (a) ε∇2 V = – ρ (b) ∇. (ε∇V) = – ρ
IES-1998 (c) ∇2 (εV) = – ρ (d) ∇2 (∇εV) = – ρ
Ans. (b) : Intensity of radiation ∝ Power intensity IES-1997
1 Ans. (b) : Poission's equation for non-homogeneous
∝ E H ∝ 2 ∝f2 medium is ∇.(ε∇V) = – ρ and Poission's equation for a
r
−ρ
I∝f2 homogeneous medium is ∇2V =
ε
116. A small current carrying circular loop lies on a 118. P is a point at a large distance from the centre
vertical plane. P is a point of observation on the O of a short dipole formed by two point
orthogonal vertical plane passing through the charges all lying on a horizontal plane. If θ is
centre of the loop and θ is the angle between O the angle between OP and the dipole axis, then
and OP as shown in the given figure. The θ θ , component of the E-field at P is:
component of the H-field will vary as:
(a) given by sin θ (b) given by cos θ
(c) given by tan θ (d) independent of θ
IES-1994
ρ cos θ
Ans. (a) : We know that, V =
4π ∈0 r 2
(a) cos θ (b) cot θ Electric field (E) = –∇V
(c) cos2 θ (d) sin θ
 1 ∂  ρ cos θ  ∂  ρ cos θ  
=    + 
2 
2 
IES-1997
Ans. (a) :  r ∂θ  4π ∈0 r  ∂r  4π ∈0 r  
ρ sin θ ɵ ρ sin θ ɵ
= − a −
3 θ
ar
4π ∈0 r 4π ∈0 r 3
Eθ ∝ sinθ
119. Two equal positive point charges are placed
along X-axis at + X1 and – X1 respectively. The
electric field vector at a point P on the positive
Magnetic field at high 'h' from the centre Y-axis will be directed.
Iρ2 (a) in the +X direction (b) in the – X direction
H= az
2 ρ2 + h 2 
32 (c) in the +Y direction (d) in the – Y direction
IES-1994
H = H cos θ
Ans. (c) :
therefore the field will vary as cos θ along θ varies.
117. An infinitely long straight conductor located
along z-axis carries a current I in the + ve z-
direction. The magnetic field at any point P in
the x-y plane is in which direction?
(a) In the positive z-direction
(b) In the negative z-direction
(c) In the direction perpendicular to the radial Q
line OP (in x-y plane) joining the origin O to E1 = K. E2
r2
the point P.
E1x and E2x are equal and opposite hence they cancel
(d) Along the radial line OP
each other.
IES-2008
and Ey = E1y + E2y
Ans. (c) :
so if two equal positive point charge are placed along x-
axis at + x1 and –x2 respectively. The electric field
vector at a point P on the positive y-axis will directed in
+y direction.
120. A conductor having surface density σ is
embedded in a dielectric medium of
An infinitely long straight conductor located along z- permittivity ε. The electric field in the medium
axis carries a current I in positive z-direction. The is E. If it is known that the pressure p on the
magnetic field at any point P in the direction conductor surface is equal to the electric
perpendicular to the radial line OP joining the origin O energy density in the medium, then p (in SI
to the point P. units) is given by:

σ2 σ (a) zero
(a) (b) (b) a pull in the direction of A
2 2ε
σ2 σ2 (c) a pull in the direction of B
(c) (d) (d) none of the above
4πε 2ε
IES-1994 IES-1992
Ans. (d) : Electrical energy density = Ans. (d) :
2
1D
(P) =
2 ε
According to Gauss law,
D=σ
Electric flux density = surface charge density
1 σ2
then Pressure (P) =
2 ε
121. Which of the following statements regarding
electric flux is true?
1. Electric flux begins on positive charges and Right charge reaches at origin 'O' then the force on this
terminates on negative charges charge from the charges placed at A and B are equal in
2. Flux is in the same direction as the electric amplitude but opposite in direction.
field E . When positive charge are placed at A, B and C
3. Flux density is proportional to the therefore the charge at 'C' apply force on the right
magnitude of E . charge in a direction away from the charge at 'C'
4. In the SI system of units, total flux
123. The ratio of the carriers stored by two metallic
emanating from a charge of Q(C) is Q(C):
A single line will eliminate from 1C of charge. spheres raised to the same potential is 6. The
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only ratio of the surface areas of the sphere is:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1 2, 3 and 4 1
(a) 6 (b)
IES-1992 6
Ans. (d) : Electric flux begins on positive charges and 1
(c) 36 (d)
terminates on negative charges. 6
IES-1992, 2013
Q
Ans. (c) : ⇒ V = K
R
Electric flux density in the same direction as the electric V = constant
field E . ⇒ R∝ Q
D =∈ E ( ε = ε0εr ) R1 Q1
= =6
R 2 Q2
D∝E
Electric flux density is proportional to the magnitude of ⇒ Surface area
E. 2
A1  R1 
 = (6)
2
According to Gauss's law. =
A2  R 2 
∫D.d s = Q
= 36
122. In the figure below A, B and C are equal 124. Two concentric spherical shells carry equal and
charges. When a unit charge moves from ‘C’ to opposite uniformly distributed charges over
‘O’, the force on the charge when it reaches their surface as shown in the figure. The
will be : electric field on the surface of the inner shell
will be:
Q
(a) zero (b)
4πε0 R 2
Q Q
(c) (d)
8πε0 R 2 16πε0 R 2
IES-1992
Ans. (b) : According to Gauss's law 127. The electric potential due to an electric dipole
∫D.ds = Q of length L at a point distance r away from it
will be doubled if the:
D×4πR2 = Q
(a) Length L of the dipole is doubled
ε 0 E × 4πR 2 = Q (b) r is doubled
Q (c) r is havled
electric field at inner shell E = 2 (d) L is halved
4π ∈0 R
IES-1992
125. An infinite number of concentric rings carry a Ans. (a) :
charge Q each alternately positive and
negative. Their radii are 1, 2, 4, 8….. meters in
geometric progression as shown. The potential
at the centre will be :
Q Potential at point P–
(a) zero (b)
12πε0 Q Q
V= −
Q Q 4πε 0 r1 4πε 0 r2
(c) (d)
8πε0 6πε0 Q  r2 − r1 
=  
IES-1992 4πε 0  r1r2 
Ans. (d) : Potential at the centre if r >> L
1  Q1 Q 2 Q3  r1 − r2 ≃ Lcos θ
(V) =  + + + ....... 
4πε 0  R1 R 2 R 3  r1r2 ≃ r 2
1 Q Q Q Q Q  QL cos θ
(V) =  − + − + .......  ∴V =
4πε 0  1 2 4 8 16  4πε 0 r 2
Q  1 1 1 1  When length 'L' is doubled then potential V is doubled.
=
4π ∈0 1 − 2 + 4 − 8 + 16 − ....... 128. A force with which the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor having charge Q and area of each
a plate A, attract each other is:
In G.P S∞ =
1− r 1. directly proportional to Q
  2. directly proportional to Q2
Q  1  3. inversely proportional to A
V=   Of these statements which are correct?
4π ∈0   −1  
 1−  2   (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 2 IES-1992
=  
4π ∈0  3  Ans. (b) : F = QE ∵ D = Eε
Q QD
V= ∴ F=
6π ∈0 ε
Q ρs  ρ 
126. The electric field lines and equipotential lines: = ×  D= s 
ε 2  2
(a) are parallel to each other
(b) are one and the same Q×Q  Q
= ∵ ρs = A 
(c) cut each other orthogonally 2ε A
(d) can be inclined to each other at any angle 1
∴ F ∝ Q2 ∝
IES-1992 A
Ans. (c) : The electric field lines and equipotential lines So, F is directly proportional to Q2 and inversely
cut each other orthogonally. proportional to A.

129. The value of electric field at a distance of 1 m ∂E
(c) ∇.J = 0 (d) ∇.J = −
from an infinite line charge density 1 C/m is ∂t
(a) 2πε 0 (b) 1/ 2πε 0 ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
(c) ε 0 / 2π (d) 2π / ε 0 Ans. (b) : Continuity equation -
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 ∂ρ −d
or ∫ J.dS =
dt ∫v
∇.J = − ρdv
Ans. (b) : Electric field due to Infinite line charge, dt
ρ 1 1 134. In which of the following cases the divergence
E= e = =
2πρε 2πε 0 (1) 2πε 0 of electric field is zero
130. If σ is the conductivity, what is the relationship (a) When electric field flows uniform through
between the electric field E and the current open tubes
density J in a conducting medium?
(a) σ = Ε/J (b) σ = ΕJ
(b) When electric field is released from the tube
(c) σ = 1/ΕJ (d) σ = J/E
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
Ans. (d) : We know that, J = σE (c) When electric field is within the closed tube
σ → conductivity
J
σ=
E (d) None of above
131. Gauss law for magnetic fields states that ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
(a) Div (E) = 0 (b) Div (B) = 0 Ans. (c) : When electric field is within the closed tube
(c) Div (H) = 0 (d) Div (D) = 0
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (b) : Gauss law states that flux leaving from any In the given diagram, the divergence of the electric field
closed surface is equal to the charge enclosed by that is zero when the number of electric fields emerging
surface. from the tube is equal to incoming field lines.
∇.D = ρv → for electric field Divergence of magnetic flux density is always zero.
∇.B = 0 → for magnetic field ∇B = divB = 0

132. Consider a solid sphere of radius 5 cm made of 135. A potential field is given by Φ = 2xy2 – 3y2z. If
a perfect electric conductor. If one million ˆ ˆ zˆ are the unit vectors along x, y and z
x,y,
electrons are added to this sphere, these
electrons will be distributed: directions respectively, the field intensity at (0,
(a) Uniformly over the entire volume of the 1, 0) is:
sphere (a) 0 V/m (b) 2xˆ − 3zˆ
(b) Uniformly over the outer surface of the (c) −2xˆ + 3zˆ (d) 2xˆ + 3zˆ
sphere ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
(c) Concentrated around the centre of the sphere
2 2
(d) Along a straight line passing through the Ans. (c) : φ = 2xy − 3y z
centre of the sphere ∂ ∂
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-I E = −∇φ = − 
 ∂x
( )
2xy 2 − 3y 2 z xˆ +
∂y
Ans. (b) : For a perfect electric conductor, no charge
∂
can be distributed inside the surface of conductor. If one
million electrons are added to the sphere, these
( )
2xy 2 − 3y 2 z yˆ +
∂ z
( ) 
2xy 2 − 3y 2 z zˆ 

electrons will be distributed uniformly over the outer
surface of the sphere. ( )
= −  2y 2 xˆ + ( 4xy − 6yz ) yˆ + −3y 2 zˆ 
 
133. Which of the following is the correct continuity At (0, 1, 0)
equation: ⇒ E = − [ 2xˆ − 3zˆ ]
∂ρ ∂ρ
(a) ∇.J = (b) ∇.J = − ⇒ E = 3zˆ − 2xˆ
∂t ∂t
136. A charge Q2 = 8.854 × 10–9 C is located in a H in y direction = Hyˆ
vacuum at P2 (2,3,1). The force on Q2 due to a
therefore -
charge Q1 = 4π × 10–3 C at P1 (2,2,1) is : (Note :
All the coordinates are measured in Meters. ax, P = Exˆ × Hyˆ ( ) ( )
ay and az are unit vectors in X, Y and Z
direction respectively.) P = E H ( xˆ × yˆ )
(a) ay N (b) –ay N
(c) 4ax + 5ay + 2az N (d) –4ax –5ay –2az N P = EHzˆ
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013 ∂B
139. The Maxwell's equation ∇×E = - is
Ans. (a) : F =
Q1Q 2
4πε 0 | R | 3 (
R 2 − R1 ) ∂t
obtained from :
R 2 − R 1 = ( 2 − 2 ) i + ( 3 − 2 ) j + (1 − 1) k = j
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ (a) Ampere's Law (b) Faraday's Law
(c) Lenz's Law (d) Both b and c
( )
also R 2 − R 1 =| R |= 1
Now F=
Q1Q 2
4πε 0 | R |3
(
R1 − R 2 ) Ans. (d) : Given,
∂B
∇×E = −
−3
4π ×10 × 8.85 × 10 −9
∂t
= â y
4π × 8.85 ×10−12 × (1)
3
The above equation expresses that the time variation in
magnetic field produces electric field. This is
F = aˆ y N discovered by Faraday which is called as Faraday's law
from where this Maxwell's equation obtained.
137. For an isotropic radiator, electric field intensity
at a distance R is measured as 3V/m. What will 140. Which of the following statement is correct?
be the electric field intensity at a distance 3R? (a) In semiconductors, electron and holes move
1 in an electric field and in the same direction
(a) 1 V/m (b) V/m
3 (b) Electric field density is exactly equal to the
1 sum of electric field intensity and polarization
(c) V/m (d) 3 V/m
9 (c) Ampere's circuital law states that the line
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013 integral of H about any closed path is exactly
Ans. (a) : Relation between electric field intensity and equal to the direct current enclosed by the
1 path
distance E ∝
R (d) None of the above
E1 R 2 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
=
E 2 R1 Ans.(c): Ampere's circuital law - The line integral of
3 3R the magnetic field around any closed loop is equal to the
=
E2 R algebraic sum of the currents which pass through the
E = 1V m loop.
2
∇×H = J
138. The electric field intensity E and magnetic field
intensity H are coupled and propagating in free ∫ H.dℓ = ∫∫ J.ds
space in x and y direction respectively, the
Poynting vector is given by. ∫ H.dℓ = I enclosed
(a) EHxˆ (b) EHyˆ ∇ × B = µ0 J

ˆˆ
(c) EHxy (d) None of the above
∫ B.dℓ = µ ∫∫ J.ds
0
s
Ans. (d) : We know -

Poynting vector -
∫ H.dℓ = I enclosed
Ampere’s circuital law states that the line integral of -

P = E × H Watt / m 2
H about any closed path is exactly equal to the direct
E in x direction = Exˆ current enclosed by the path.
141. The force on a point charge +q kept at a Ans. (a) : Given that - d = 1 m and q = 2C
distance d from the surface of an infinite According to image theory
grounded metal plate in a medium of d" = 2 m and q' = 2C
permittivity ∈ is
qq ' 2× 2 1
(a) 0 F= = = N
πε 4πε ( 2 ) πε
2 2
2
4 d" 4
q
(b) away from the plate
16π∈d 2 F=
1
N
2 4 πε
q
(c) towards the plate
16π∈d 2 144. A parallel plate capacitor of 100 pF having an
air dielectric is charged to 10 kV. It is then
q2 electrically isolated. The plates are pulled away
(d) towards the plate
4π∈d 2 from each other until the distance is ten times
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016 more than before. Estimate the energy needed
Ans.(c): to pull the plates.
(a) 0.05 Joules (b) 50 Joules
(c) 500 Joules (d) –50 Joules
C1 = 100 pF
V1 = 10 kV
V1 = 104 Volts
So,
1
E1 = C1V12
Force on charge- 2
1
q2 E1 = × 100 × 10−12 ×108
F= 2
4π ∈ (2d)2
1
q2 E1 = joules
= 200
16π ∈ d 2
If d becomes 10 times, C reduced 10 times and V
Direction of force towards the plate.
increases 10 times.
142. Mark the incorrect relation
C
(a) D = εE (b) B = µH C 2 = 1 = 100 ×10−13
10
(c) J = σE (d) B = µD
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-II V2 = V1 × 10 = 105 volts
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 So,
Ans. (d) : 1
E 2 = C 2 V2 2
J = σE 2
D = εE 1
E 2 = × 100 × 10−13 × 1010
B = µH 2
So, B = µD is incorrect relation. 1
= joules
143. A charge of 2C is placed near a grounded 20
conducting plate at a distance of 1m. The force Energy needed to pull the plates (DE)
acting between the charge of 2C and ground
= E2 – E1
conducting plate in Newton is
1 1
1 1 = −
(a) (b) 20 200
4πε 8πε
9
1 = = 0.045
(c) (d) 4πε 200
16πε
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 ≃ 0.05 joules

145. Ampere's law relates 149. The concept of displacement current was a
(a) Electric field and Charge major contribution attributed to
(b) Electric field and Current (a) Faraday (b) Lenz
(c) Magnetic field and current (c) Maxwell (d) Lorentz
(d) Magnetic field and charge TNPSC AE - 2018
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 Ans. (c) : The concept of displacement current was a
Ans. (c) : Ampere's law relates magnetic field and major contribution attributed to Maxwell. The
current. magnitude of displacement current in case of steady
Ampere's Law– Ampere's law states that, the line electric field in a conductive wire is zero since electric
integral of magnetic field intensity around any closed field E does not change with time.
path is equal to direct current enclosed by that path. 150. Maxwell's equations establish the relationship
∫ L H.dl = Ienc between E, D, H and B at any point in a

continuous medium. When we move from one
146. Calculate the electric field intensity at a point medium to another, then which of the following
on sphere of radius 3 m, if a positive charge of statement is correct
2 µC is placed at the origin of sphere. (a) At the boundary separating the two media, the
(a) 19.972a r KV / m (b) 1.9972a r KV / m tangential components of E and H are
(c) −19972a r KV / m (d) 1.9972a r V / m continuous
(b) At the boundary separating the two media the
tangential components of only E are
Ans. (b) : R = 3m, q = 2 µC
continuous
q 2 ×10−6 (c) If these are surface charges present on the
σ= =
4πR 2 4 × π× 3 × 3 boundary then normal component of D is
−6
2 ×10 continuous
⇒σ= = 0.0176 ×10−6 c / m2
113.04 (d) If there are no surface charges then normal
σ 0.0176 ×10 −6 component of D is discontinuous
E= = ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008
ε 0 K 8.85 ×10−12 ×1
Ans. (b) : At the boundary separating two media, the
≅ 1.9972a r KV/m
tangential component of E is continuous while H are
147. The charge density is given by 14 units in a discontinuous.
volume region of 0.6 units. What is electric field At the boundary separating the two media -
density (D)?
E t1 = E t 2
(a) 6.4 (b) 7.4
(c) 8.4 (d) 10.4 H t1 − H t 2 = k
UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II B = B
n1 n2
Ans. (c) : By Gauss law, Div(D) = ρv
D n1 = D n 2 = σs
∇ ⋅ D = 14 × 0.6 = 8.4
Hence the tangential component of only E are
148. Which one of these equation is not Maxwell's continuous.
equation for a static electromagnetic field in a
151. The line integral of vector potential A around
linear homogeneous medium state?
the boundary of a surface S represents
(a) ∇.B = 0 (b) ∇ × D = 0
(a) Flux through the surface S
(c) ∫D.ds = Q (d) ∇ 2 A = µ0 J (b) Flux density in the surface S
(c) Magnetic density
TNPSC AE - 2018
(d) Current density
Ans. (d) : Maxwell's equation are -
∫
(i) ∇.B = 0, (ii) ∇×D = 0 (iii) Dds = Q Ans. (a) : The line integral of vector potential A around
the boundary of a surface S represents flux through the
Poisson equation - ∇ 2 A = µo J
surface S.

152. Inside a hollow conducting sphere 157. The force between two charges in 120N. If the
(a) Electric field is zero distance between the charges is doubled, the
(b) Electric field is non zero constant force will be
(c) Electric field changes with the magnitude of (a) 120N (b) 60N
the charge given to the conductor (c) 30N (d) 15N
(d) Electric field changes with distance from the
center of the sphere
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 Ans. (c ) : F ∝ 1
Ans. (a) : Inside a hollow conducting sphere, Electric r2
field is zero. This can be seen using 2
F2  r1 
Gauss's law = 
F1  r2 
q
∫
E.ds =
εo
=0
1
f 2 = 120 × = 30N
153. If current through the coil of a electromagnet is 4
doubled, then the magnetic field around the 158. A field line and equipotential surface are
coil is (a) always parallel (b) always at 90°
(a) halved (b) doubled
(c) inclined at θ° (d) any of above
(c) four folded (d) same
Ans. (b) : We know that- Ans. (b) : A field line and equipotential surface are
always 90°
µ ∆ℓ sin θ
B= 0 i 159. The charge on an isolated conductor resides
4π r2
(a) at the surface of the conductor
B i
B ∝ i so 1 = 1 (b) inside the conductor
B2 i 2
(c) partly at surface and partly inside the
When current will be doubled then magnetic field also conductor
will be doubled of base value.
(d) with uniform distribution over the volume of
154. Coulomb's law is a the conductor
(a) vector equation
(b) scalar equation
(c) may be vector or scalar equation Ans. (a) : The charge on an isolate conductor resides at
(d) phasor equation the surface of the conductor.
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I 160. An axial magnetic field is applied to a
Ans. (a) : Coulomb’s law is a vector equation cylindrical rod. The Faraday rotation of a
155. The unit of electric field intensity is plane polarized beam after emergence from the
(a) NC –1
(b) Fm –1 rod is 5º. If both the field and length of rod or
(c) Nm –1
(d) FC –1 doubled, then the angle of rotations is:
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (a) 40° (b) 5°
Ans. (a) : The unit of electric field intensity is NC –1 (c) 10° (d) 20°
156. A long wire has a charge density 1*10 Cm . -9 -1 IES-2010
The electric field at a point at radial distance Ans. (d) :
2m will be
(a) 6Vm–1 (b) 60Vm–1
–1
(c) 600Vm (d) 0.6Vm–1
Ans. (*) : Electric field for a long wire charge Angle of Rotation (φ) = magnetic field (B) × length of
distribution. path (d).
ρL φ1 B1d1
E= rˆ =
2πε 0 r φ2 B 2 d 2
10−9 10−9 φ1 B1d1
= = =
2πε 0 × 2 4πε 0 φ2 2B1 × 2d1
= 9 × 109 × 10 −9 φ2 = 4φ1
⇒ 9V / m φ2 = 4×5° = 20°
161. Taking the earth’s radius as 6370Km and 165. Electric flux through a surface area is the
electrosphere height as 25Km, the capacitance integral of the
of earth electrosphere combination is about (a) Normal component of the electric field over
(a) 1 F (b) 0.2F the area
(b) Parallel component of the electric field over
(c) 0.01F (d) 1µF
the area
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (c) Normal component of the magnetic field over
Ans. (d) : Total capacitor of earth of electrosphere the area
combinations ; (d) Parallel component of the magnetic field over
4πε 0 the area
C= ; Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II
1 1
–
a b Ans. (a) : ψ = ∫ D.ds = ε 0 ∫ E.ds
s s
Where a = 25 km, b = 6370 km. therefore electric flux through a surface area is the
C = 0.889 ≈ 1µf integral of the normal component of electric field over
the area.
162. One capacitor has dielectric of εr =6 and
166. The normal components of electric flux density
electric field intensity is 50V/m. Another
across a dielectric –dielectric boundary
capacitor has ε r = 100 and E=10V/m. Then the
(a) Are discontinuous
ratio of energies stored in two capacitors is (b) Are continuous
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) Depends on the magnitude of the surface
(c) 2 (d) 2.5 charge density
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (d) Depends on the electric field intensity
Ans. (b) : The ratio of Energy store in two capacitor Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II
1 Ans. (c) : The normal components of electric flux
ε r1 E12 density across a dielectric-dielectric boundary depends
= 2 on the magnitude of the surface charge density.
1
ε r2 E 22 D n1 − D n 2 = ρs
2
2
6  50  167. Tangential component of the electric field on a
= ×   = 1.5
100  10  perfect conductor will be
(a) Infinite
163. A particle having charge e is released in an
(b) Zero
electric field E. If there are no collisions then (c) Same as the normal field component and
the velocity of the particle will be 900out of phase
(a) constant (b) increasing (d) Same as the normal field component and
(c) decreasing (d) none of these 1800out of phase
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II
Ans. (a) : A particle having charge e is released in an Ans. (b) : The component of E that is tangent to a
electric field E. If there are no collisions then the perfectly conducting surface is zero. Since the
velocity of the particle will be constant. tangential component of E on the surface of perfect
conductor is zero, the electric field at the surface must
164. The electric field around a positive charge is be oriented entirely in the direction perpendicular to the
(a) inward surface.
(b) outward 168. An electric charge of Q coulombs is located at
(c) depend upon the test charge the origin. Consider electric potential V and
(d) none of these electric field intensity E at any point (x, y, z).
Then
(a) E and V are both scalars
Ans. (b) : The electric field around positive charge is (b) E and V are both vector
outward. (c) E is scalar and V is vector
(d) E is vector and V is scalar
IES-2010
Ans. (d) : We know that 173. For a dielectric-conductor interface where
subscript 1 denotes the dielectric, the boundary
E = −∇V
condition that is NOT satisfied for static fields
so E is vector field is
v is scalar field (a) Dn2 = 0 (b) Ht1 = Ht2
169. A medium behaves likes dielectric when the (c) Bn1 = Bn2 (d) Et1 = Et2
(a) Displacement current is just equal to the UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
conduction current Ans. (b) : A conductor placed in static field with
(b) Displacement current is less then the exhibits zero charge at surface. So
conduction current
H t1 − H t 2 = J s
(c) Displacement current is much greater than the
conduction current For conductor
(d) Displacement current is almost negligible H 2t = E 2t = B2n = D 2n = 0
H1t = J s
Ans. (c) : A medium behaves like a dielectric when the
displacement current is more than the conduction So, B1n = B2n = 0
current. When conduction current is more, medium will E1t = E 2t = 0
be conductive.
D1n = ρs
170. For an electric field E= E0sin ωt, what is the
phase difference between the conduction 174. Two concentric hollow spheres of radii R1 and
current and the displacement current? R2 (with R1 > R2) have respective charges Q1
(a) 300 (b) 450 and Q2 distributed uniformly over their
0
(c) 60 (d) 900 surface. The electric flux density D at a
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II Gaussian surface of radius r (R1 > r > R2) will
Ans. (d) : The ratio of conducting current to be
displacement current Q Q − Q2
(a) 1 (b) 1
Jc σE σ 4πr 2 rˆ 4πr 2 rˆ
= = Q Q − Q1
J D ωεE ωε (c) 2 (d) 2
4πr 2 rˆ 4πr 2 rˆ
The phase difference between the conduction current UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
and the displacement current is 90°.
Ans. (c) : For
171. The diffusion current is proportional to
(a) Applied electric field R1 > r > R 2
(b) Square of the electric field
(c) Concentration gradient of charge carrier
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) : The diffusion current density is directly
proportional to the concentration gradient of charge
carrier. The concentration gradient is the difference in
concentration of electrons and holes.
When r > R2
172. Given the electric field E = 2xiˆ - 4yjˆ V/m find All charge Q2 consider at centre and than
the work done in moving a point charge of 2 C We will calculate electric field due to point charge
from (2, 0, 0)m to (0, 0, 0)m. 1 Q2
(a) 20 J (b) 8 J i.e. E = rˆ
4πε 0 r 2
(c) 2 J (d) 4 J
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018 1 Q2
ε0 E = rˆ = D
∫
Ans. (b) : V = − E.dℓ 4π r 2
2 175. A point charge Q1 = 300 µC, located at
V= − ∫ 2x.dx = −2 ( x / 2)
2
0 (1, –1, –3) m, is experiencing a force

V = – 4 Volt F = 2iˆ - 2jˆ + kˆ N due to a point charge
work done = –V×q = 4 × 2 Q2 located at (3,–3,–2)m. Assuming
W = 8J ∈0 = 10-9 /(36π) F/m value Q2 is
(a) –1 µC (b) –10 µC Ans. (b) : Ampere law was modified by Maxwell
(c) +10 µC (d) +1 µC before modification
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018 ∇×H = J
Ans. (b) : Given that ∇ × H = J + JD
Q1 = 300µC
∂D
r1 = 1iˆ − 1jˆ − 3kˆ ∇×H = J +
∂t
r2 = 3iˆ − 3jˆ − 2kˆ
∂B
179. The equation ∇ × E = is the generalization
r21 = −2iˆ + 2ˆj − kˆ ∂t
r12 = 4 + 4 + 1 = 9 = 3 of-
(a) Faradays law (b) Coulomb's law
F = 2iˆ − 2ˆj + kˆ (c) Gauss's law (d) Amperes law
Q1Q 2 RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
F= 2
ˆ
ar
4πε 0 r12 UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
300 × 10−6 × Q 2 −2iˆ + 2ˆj − kˆ −∂B

2iˆ − 2ˆj + kˆ = 9 ×109 × × Ans. (a) : ∇ × E =
9 3 ∂t
–1 −5 −6 change in magnetic field produce a voltage. Hence it is
Q2 = = –10 = –10 ×10 = –10µC
100 ×103 a generalization of faraday law.
176. "The surface integral of curl of a vector field 180. If the electric field strength of a plane wave is
over an open surface equals the line integral of 12V/m. What will be the strength of magnetic
the vector field over the closed curve bounding field in free space-
the surface area " this is the statement of – (a) 0.04 A/m (b) 0.03 A/m
(a) Gauss theorem (b) Stoke's theorem (c) 0.02 A/m (d) 0.01 A/m
(c) Helmholtz's theorem (d) Divergence theorem UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 Ans. (b) : E = C × B
Ans. (b) : According to stokes theorem, ‘The surface E
integral of the curl of a Function over a surface bounded B=
C
by the closed surface is equal to the line integral of 12
particular vector function around that surface B=
3 × 108
∫ F.dr = ∫ ( ∆ × F )ds
c s
B = 4 ×10−8 Wb / m 2
177. Poynting vector gives- B = µ0 H

(a) rate of energy flow 4 ×10−8 4 ×10−8
H= =
(b) Intensity of electric field µo 4π× 10−7
(c) Intensity of magnetic field 1
(d) Direction of polarization H= × 10−1
π
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
H = 0.318 × 10 −1
Ans. (a) : Poynting vector gives the energy flow per
H = 0.031≃ 0.03 A / m
unit area per unit time through a cross sectional area
along the direction of propagation of wave. 181. Electric field intensity due to the line charge of
178. Which one of the fundamental equation was infinite length is-
modified by Maxwell to form the basis of (a) ρL/4πεR (b) 2ρL/πεR
electromagnetic theory? (c) 2ρL/4πεR (d) ρL/2πεR
(a) Faraday Law. UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
(b) Ampere Law Ans. (d) : For infinite length of line charge
(c) Gauss law of magneto static ρL
(d) Gauss law of electrostatic E=
2πε R 0
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
182. The energy stored in an electric field is given Ans. (b) : From the gauss law for the smaller radius r1
by net enclosed of charge is zero. So, E = 0 : on exactly for
1 1 fall the maximum electric field intensity occur and from
(a) ∫ ε 0 E 2 dV (b) ∫ ε 0 EdV the away from the surface intensity will decrease as a
V
2 V
2
1
1 function of 2
(c) ∫ ε 0 EdE (d) ∫ ε 0 EdE r
E
2 E

Ans. (a) : The energy stored in an electric field is given
1
by ∫ ε 0 E 2 dV . (∵ D = Eε 0 )
V
2
183. According to divergence theorem 187. The boundary conditions at the interface
between two dielectrics in an electric field are :
∫ A.dS = ? (a) D normal=0;, E normal=0
(a) ∫ ∇.A dV (b) ∫ A dV (b) D normal=0;, E tangential=0
V V (c) D tangential=0; E tangential=0
(c) ∫ ∇ × A dV
V
(d) ∫ curl ( A ) dV
V
(d) D tangential=0; E normal=0
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, 2015, Paper-I
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 BSNL JTO-2001
Ans. (a) : Ans. (b) : The boundary condition at the interface
between two dielectrics is
According to divergence theorem ∫ A.dS = ∫ ∇.AdV
v
Dnormal = Etangential = 0
184. The magnitude of Coulomb's force of repulsion 188. In the infinite plane y=6m, there exists a
between two alpha particles (helium ions) in uniform surface charge density of
space 10 mm apart is : (1/6000π) µC/m the associated electric field
2
-25 -25 strength is

(a) 92.16×10 nt (b) 9.216×10 nt
-25
(c) 46.08×10 nt -27
(d) 10×10 nt (a) 30 ɵi V/m (b) 3 ɵj V/m
(c) 30 kɵ V/m (d) 60 ɵj V/m
Ans. (a) : The magnitude of Coulomb's force between
two alpha particle = = 2q × 2q2 = 92.16 × 10–25 N
4πε0 r
Y = 6m
185. When two sinusoidally time varying vectors
1
having different amplitude and phase are ρ = µc / m 2
summed up, the resulting vector is : 6000 π
The electric field strength due to an infinite charged
(a) Linearly Polarized
sheet is given by-
(b) Elliptically polarized
(c) Circularly polarized  ρ 
E =  s  aˆ n
(d) None of these  2ε 0 
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I  10−6 
Ans. (a) : When two sinusoidial time varying vectors E= aˆ
−12  y
 2 × 6000π × 8.85 × 10 
having different amplitude and phase are summed up
ˆ /m
= 3aˆ V / m = 3jV
the resulting vector is linearly polarized. y
186. A spherical rubber balloon with uniform 189. The time averaged Poynting vector, in W/m2,
for a wave with E = 24e j(
distribution of charge on its surface is blown ωt +β z )
a y V/m in free
up. E for a point inside, on the surface and
outside respectively is : space is :
(a) min., max., intermediate 2.4 2.4
(a) − az (b) az
(b) 0, max, 1/r 2 π π
(c) Max, 0, 0 4.8 4.8
(c) az (d) − az
2
(d) 1/r , max, 18r 2 π π
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
Ans. (a) : Given Electric field E = 24e (
j ωt +βz ) 194. Hall effect is observed in a specimen when it
xaˆ y V / m.
(metal or a semiconductor) is carrying current
the wave is propagating in free space then time average and is placed in a magnetic field. The resultant
pointing vector will be :
electric field inside the specimen will be in
E2 242 2.4
x ( −aˆ z ) = ×− â z = − × â z (a) a direction normal to both current and
2η0 2x120π π
magnetic field
190. With which of the following the impedance (b) the direction of current
inversion may be obtained? (c) a direction anti parallel to the magnetic field
(a) A half wave line (d) an arbitrary direction depending upon the
(b) A quarter wave line conductivity of the specimen
(c) A short-circuited stub Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
(d) An open-circuited stub
Ans. (a) : Hall effect:- If a specimen carrying a current
I is placed in a transverse magnetic field of flux density
Ans. (b) : A quarter wave line is used as impendence B, an electric field is developed along a direction
inversion. perpendicular to both B and I. This phenomenon is
191. Relaxation time of a capacitor is a function : known as Hall effect.
(a) The dielectric medium between the plates
195. The surface integral of the electric field
(b) The distance between the plates intensity is the
(c) The area of the plates
(a) Net flux emanating from the surface
(d) All the above factors
(b) Electric charge
(c) Charge density
Ans. (a) : Relaxation time of a capacitor in a function of
the dielectric medium between the plates. (d) Flux density
192. The magneto-motive force is
(a) The voltage across the two ends of exciting Ans. (a) : The surface integral of the electric field
coil intensity is the net flux emanating from the surface.
(b) The flow of an electric current ψ = ∫ E.ds
S
(c) The sum of all currents embraced by one line
of magnetic field 196. An infinite number of charges, each equal to
(d) The passage of magnetic field through an 'Q' are placed along the axis at x = 1, x = 3….
exciting coil and so on. The electric field at the point x = 0
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I due to these charges will be
Ans. (c) : Magnetomotive force (m.m.f) (a) Q (b) 2Q/3
M.M.F is equal to the work done in joules in carrying a (c) 4Q/3 (d) 4Q/5
unit magnetic pole once through the entire magnetic Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
circuit. It measured in ampere-turns. Ans. (*) : Electric field is given by
OR
E = E1 + E 2 + E 3 + ...........E.
The m.m.f. is the sum of all currents embraced by one
line of magnetic field. 1 Q 1 Q
E= + + .........
193. Electric field intensity at a point is numerically 4πε 0 r1 4πε 0 r22
2
equal to _______ at that point 1 1 1 1 1

(a) Potential gradient (b) Potential difference E = Q  + 2 + 2 + ....... 
4πε 0 1 2 3 ∞
(c) Dielectric constant (d) The force
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I  1 1 1 
E = QK 1 + + + + ......∞ 
Ans. (d) : Electric intensity of a point may be defined as  4 16 64 
equal to the lines of force passing normally through, a
 
unit-cross-section at that point. Suppose, there is a  1  4QK
charge of Q coulombs. The no. of lines of force E = QK  1  =
1 −  3
produced by it is Q/∈0.
 4
Q / ε0 Q
E= = 197. The region z ≤ 0 is a dielectric of relative
A ε0 A
permittivity 2 while the region z ≥ 0 is dielectric
D of relative permittivity 5. If the electric field
E=
ε0 intensity in region z ≤ 0 is E = 10aˆ z kV/m , The
potential difference between (0, 0–10–3)m will Ans. (d) : σ = 2 × 10 −9 C / m 2
be
σ
(a) Zero (b) 70 V E=
2ε 0
(c) 20 V (d) 14 V
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I 2 ×10−9
E=−
Ans. (c) : V = E × d 2 × 8.85 × 10−12
E = −36π a z V / m
V = 10aˆ z ×103 × ( 2 × 10−3 ) aˆ z
201. If E is the electric field intensity, ∇(∇ × E ) is
V = 20V
equal to
198. An electric field on a plane is described by its
(a) E (b) E
potential V = 20 (r–1 + r–2) where r is the
distance from the surface. The field is due to (c) Null vector (d) Zero
(a) A monopole Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
(b) A dipole Ans. (d) : We know that divergence of the curl of any
(c) Both monopole and a dipole vector field is zero.
(d) A quadrupole ∇(∇ × E ) = 0
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I 202. Across the surface of a charged conductor, the
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I electric
Ans. (c) : V = 20 ( r + r )
−1 −2 (a) Field is continuous
(b) Potential is discontinuous
1 1  (c) Field is discontinuous
V = 20  + 2 
r r  (d) None of the above
V = V1 + V2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Electric field inside the conductor is zero the
20 20
V1 = , V2 = 2 whole conductor is at equipotential but at the surface of
r r conductor electric field is discontinuous.
Hence field is due to both monopole and dipole.
203. Image theory is applicable to problems
199. The electric field on the surface of a perfect involving
conductor is 2 V/m. The conductor is immersed (a) Electrostatic field only
in water with ε = 80 ε0. The surface charge (b) Magneto static field only
density on the conductor is given is (c) Both electrostatic and megnetostatic field
 1  (d) Neither electrostatic nor megnatostatic field
 ε0 = ×10−9 F / m 
 36π  Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
(a) 0 C/m 2
(b) 2 C/m 2 Ans. (a) : Image theory is applicable to problems
(c) 1.8 × 10 C/m–11 2 –9
(d) 1.14 × 10 C/m2 involving Electrostatic field only. It can be used to
derived closed form solution to boundary value
problems when the geometry is simples and has a lot of
σ symmetry.
Ans. (d) : E =
ε 204. If the electric field established by three point
σ =ε|E| charges Q, 2Q and 3Q exert a force 3F on 3Q
σ = 80ε0 × E and 2F on 2Q, then what is the force exerted on
the point charge Q?
1 −9
σ = 80 × × 10 × 2 (a) F (b) –F
36π (c) 5F (d) –5F
σ = 1.41× 10−9 C / m 2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : We know that at equilibrium condition, the
200. An infinite plane Z = 10 m carries a uniformly
net force exerted on the system should be zero.
distributed charge of density 2n C/m2. The
electric field intensity at the origin is Then,
(a) 0.2 az nV/m (b) 2 aznV/m (F)Q + (F)2Q + (F)3Q = 0
(F)Q +2F + 3F = 0
(c) –2aznV/m (d) –36πaz V/m
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I (F)Q = –5F

205. Electric stress is expressed in terms of Ans. (d) : When electric field is maximum, the
(a) Ohms/cm (b) Henry/cm magnetic energy of a cavity is zero, because when
(c) Farad/cm (d) kV/cm electric field is maximum, magnetic field inside cavity
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I is zero.
Ans. (d) : Electric stress is expressed in terms of kV/cm 209. By saying that the electrostatic field is
dV conservative, we do not mean that
E=– (a) It is the gradient of a scalar potential.
dX
206. For small values of electric field, the mobility (b) The potential difference between any two
(a) remains constant points is zero.
(b) linearly decrease (c) Its circulation is identically zero.
(c) non-linearly decrease (d) Its curl is identically zero.
(d) increase Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I Ans. (b) : A electric field is conservative means there is
no change in electric field with respect to distance.
Vd
Ans. (b) : Mobility of any electron is given by µ = Hence when it conservative, potential difference
E between two point will be zero.
210. The law J = σE, where J is current density, σ is
electrical conductivity and E is electric field
strength is
(a) Ohm's law (b) Gauss's law
(c) Bio-Savart's law (d) Ampere's law
Ans. (a) : Ohm's law,
I
J = σE = A / m 2 (It is point form of Ohm’s Law)
A
J = current density A/m2
For small values of electric field, the mobility remains
σ = conductivity of material Ω–1-m–1
constant.
E = Applied electric field, V/m
207. A potential field is given by V = 3x2y – yz which
I = current, A
of the following is not true
(a) At point (1, 0, –1), V and E vanish. 211. Which of the following relations is correct?
2
(b) x y = 1 is an equipotential line on the xy- (a) ∇.B = ρ (b) ∇.D = ρ
plane. (c) ∇.D = – ρ (d) ∇.B = J
(c) The equipotential surface V = –8 passes Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-II
through point P(2, –1,4). Ans. (b) : There are four Maxwell's equation
(d) The electric field at P is 12ax – 8ay – az ρ
(1) ∇.E = = ∇ε0 .E = ρ
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I ε0
Ans. (a) : By checking options-
V = 3x2y – yz ⇒ ∇.D = ρ
∇ .V = 3×2xy aˆ x + ( 3x 2 − z ) aˆ y + ( − y ) aˆ z (2) ∇.B = 0

∂B
∇ V = E = 0+(3+1) â y + 0 (3) ∇ × E = −
∂t
at (1, 0, –1) E = 4aˆ y  ∂E 
(4) ∇ × B = µ o  J + ε0 
208. When the electric field is maximum value, the  ∂t 
magnetic energy of a cavity is
212. The mode used in the laboratory bench is
(a) At its maximum value
(a) Dominant mode
(b) At 2 of its maximum value (b) Degenerative mode
(c) At 1/2 of its maximum value (c) Regenerative mode
(d) Zero (d) None of the above
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
Ans. (a) : In the laboratory we use dominant mode for Q
= λ (where λ = charge per unit length)
measuring mode for measuring unknown impedance, L
reflection, coefficient and VSWR. λ V
and E = =
213. A coil of inductance 2H and resistance 1Ω is 2πε0 R1 R ℓn  R 2 
 R 
 1
1
connected to a 10V battery with negligible
internal resistance. The amount of energy 2300
stored in the magnetic field is: E=
0.01ℓn (100 )
(a) 8 J (b) 50 J
(c) 25 J (d) 100 J E = 5 × 104 V , E = 5 ×102 V
m cm
IES-2013
Ans. (d) : 216. The displacement current can be represented
as
dφ dφ
(a) i d = µ 0 E (b) i d =∈0 E
dt dt
dφ E dφB
Given :- (c) i d = µ 0 (d) i d =∈0
dt dt
10
current (I) = = 10A Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
1
Ans. (b) : The displacement current is a quantity
Amount of energy stored in magnetic field (E)
appearing in maxwell's equations defined in term of rate
1 of change of electric displacement field.
= LI 2
2
dφE
1 Id =∈0 .
= × 2 × (10 )
2
dt
2
= 100 joule 217. For static electric and magnetic fields in an
homogenous source-free medium, which of the
214. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on
following represents the correct form of
the surface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle,
Maxwell’s equations?
the reflected wave will be
(a) Elliptically polarized (a) ∇.E = 0, ∇×B = 0 (b) ∇.E = 0, ∇.B = 0
(b) Linearly polarized (c) ∇×E = 0, ∇×B = 0 (d) ∇×E ≈ 0, ∇.B ≈ 0
(c) Right circularly polarized RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021
(d) Left circularly polarized
NIELIT Scientists- 2017
Ans. (d) : In homogeneous medium –
Ans. (a) : The Brewster law states the relationship
and free space, ρv = 0.
between light waves and polarized light. The polarized
light vanishes at this maximum angle. For an elliptically ∇ × E = 0 and ∇ ⋅ B = 0
polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric, 218. If a capacitor is charged by a square wave
the reflected wave will be elliptically polarized. current source the voltage across the capacitor
215. A voltage of 2300 volts is applied to a is
cylindrical counter with an anode wire of (a) A square wave (b) Triangular wave
radius 0.01 cm and a cathode inner radius of (c) Step function (d) Zero
1.0 cm. The electric field at the anode surface is Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
(a) 5×104 V/cm (b) 5x103 V/cm
5 Ans. (b) : If a capacitor is charged by a square wave
(c) 5x10 V/cm (d) 5x102 V/cm
current source the voltage across the capacitor is
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I triangular wave.
Ans. (d) : Outer Radius = 1cm, Inner Radius = 0.01 cm 219. Consider the following statements for an
2πε0 L electrostatic field:
cylindrical capacitance C =
ℓn  2 
R A. Its curl is zero
 R1  B. It is negative of gradient of scalar potential ϕ
2πε0 LV C. It is conservative.
Q = CV =
ℓn  2 
R Which of the statements given above are
 R1  correct.
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only (d) Electric field changes with distance from the
(c) A and C only (d) A, B and C center of the sphere
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I Ans. (a) : Inside a hollow conducting sphere electric
Ans. (d) : For electrostatic field- field is zero. Charge enclosed within the Gaussian
(a) Its curl is zero surface is zero. So E inside Gaussian surface is also
(b) It is negative of gradient of scalar potential φ zero.
(c) It is conservative. 223. The electric field inside a perfectly conducting
220. The capacitor is made with a polymeric media is
dielectric having an εr of 2.26 and a dielectric (a) Infinite
breakdown strength of 50 KV/cm. The (b) Zero
permittivity of free space is 8.85 pF/m. If the (c) Depend upon the value of the charge
rectangular plates of the capacitor have a
width of 20 cm and a length of 40 cm, then the
maximum electric charge in the capacitor is Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
(a) 2 µC (b) 4 µC Ans. (b) : The electric field inside a perfectly
(c) 8 µC (d) 10 µC conducting medium is zero. All the charge moves to
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I surface net electric field inside will be zero.
Ans. (c) : Given that– 224. Tangential component of the electric field on
−12 perfect conductor will be
ε 0 = 8.85 ×10 Fm
(a) Infinite
ε r = 2.26 (b) Zero
ε = ε0ε r (c) Same as the normal's field component and 90º
= 2.26 × 8.85 × 10 −12 out of phase
Assume distance between capacitor 'd' (d) Same as the normal's field component and
180º out of phase
Maximum voltage Vm = 150kV / cm = 5 × 106 × d V
Q m = C Vm Ans. (b) : Tangential component of the electric field on
ε⋅A perfect conductor will be zero.
Qm = Vm
d E1t = E 2t = 0
2.26 × 8.85 ×10−12 × 800 × 10−4 × 5 ×106 × d 225. The electric potential due to an electric dipole
=
d of length L at a point distance r away from it
20.001× 10−12 × 0.08 will be doubled if the
= 5 ×106 × d = 8µC
d (a) Length L of the dipole is doubled
221. What is the value of total electric flux coming (b) r is doubled
out of a closed surface? (c) r is halved
(a) Zero (d) L is halved
(b) Equal to volume charge density Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
(c) Equal to the total charge enclosed by the Ans. (a) : The electric potential due to an electric dipole
surface of length L at a point distance r away from it will be
(d) Equal to surface charge density doubled if the length of the dipole is doubled.
226. The unit of polarization is the same as that of
Ans. (c) : The value of total electric flux coming out of
(a) Electric flux density D
a closed surface equal to the total charge enclosed by
(b) Electric intensity E
the surface.
(c) Charge
222. Inside a hollow conducting sphere
(a) Electric field is zero (d) Dielectric flux
(b) Electric field is a non-zero constant Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
(c) Electric field changes with the magnitude of Ans. (a) : The unit of polarization is the same as that of
the charge given to conductor electric flux density D. Unit of polarization is C/m2.

227. When ne, nh, µe, µh carries there respective 230. What are capacitor bank in the context of
meaning then Hall coefficient is positive when electricity supply to a city?
(a) nhµh > neµe (b) nhµh2> neµe2 (a) They add capacitance to the supply so that
(c) nhµh < neµe (d) nhµh > neµe
2 2 electricity is stored in case of breakdown
AAI-2015 (b) These banks are storage spaces so that
Ans. (b) : When hall co-efficient is positive then capacitors are available to maintenance
engineers in case of failures
n h µ 2h > n e µ 2e
(c) They balance the inductive component of
228. A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate transformer coils to smoothen the supply
area of 10–4 m2 and plate separation of 10–3 m. (d) They balance the inductive loads to improve
It is connected to a 2 V, 1.8 GHz source. The the power factor
magnitude of the displacement current is RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Green)
(ε0 = 1/36π × 10 F m ) –9 –1
Ans. (d) : Capacitor bank improve the voltage level of
(a) 200 mA (b) 20 mA
the load and it improves the power factor of the source
(c) 20 A (d) 2 mA
current.
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 231. The quantity, electromotive force (emf), is
dimensionally equivalent to
Ans. (b) : Given that-
−4 (a) coulomb/ohm (b) joule/coulomb
A = 10 m , d = 10 m. f = 1.8 GHz
2 –3
(c) joule x metre (d) joule x coulomb
1 −9
ε0 = ×10 F m RRB SSE 01.09.2015 Shit-I
36π Ans. (b) : Electromotive force- The energy per unit
V = 2V electric charge that is imported by an energy source is
V called emf or electromotive force. It is measured in unit
E=
d of volts.
Displacement current  W
dφ d ( VA d ) ε0 VωA V = q 
Id = ε0 = ε0 =  
dt dt d
232. The electric field inside a metal is
2 × 10−9 × 10−4 × 2π× 1.8 × 109 always_______
Id = = 20mA
36π× 10−3 (a) Unity (b) Zero
229. A 2µC charge kept at a distance of 5cm form (c) Negative (d) Infinity
an infinite ground plane then the magnitude of DMRC AM S&T-2020
force developed by the charge is ______ Ans. (b) : The electric field inside a metal is always
( 2µC ) ( 2µC )
2 2
zero.
(a) (b)
4π ∈ ( 5cm ) 4π ∈ (10cm ) 233. An electronic component consisting of two
2 2
conductor plates separated by empty space and

2µC 2µC capable of storing a certain amount of charge is
(c) (d)
4π ∈ ( 5cm ) 4π ∈ (10cm )
2 2
known as−
BARC Scientific Officer-2016 (a) Capacitor (b) Transistor
Ans. (b) : According to image theory– (c) Inductor (d) Resistor
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
Ans. (a) : An electronic component consisting of two
conductor plates separated by empty space and capable
of storing a certain amount of charge is known as
capacitor.
Capacitor is to store electrostatic energy in an electric
field and give this energy to the circuit. They allow the
1 Q1Q 2 AC to pass but block the flow of DC to avoid a
F= hazardous breakdown of the circuit.
4πε R 2
( 2µC )
2
1 QQ
= =
4πε (10cm ) 4πε (10cm )
2 2

234. ______ states that the total outward electrical Ans. (c) : F = ( x − y ) î + xjˆ
displacement through any closed surface
surrounding charges is equal to the total r ( t ) = cos tiˆ + sin tjˆ
charge enclosed
x = ( cos t ) y = sin t
(a) Gauss law
(b) Kirchhoff's voltage law dr ( t ) = − sin tiˆ + cos tjˆ
(c) Ampere law
F = ( cos t − sin t ) î + cos tjˆ
(d) Kirchhoff's current law
2π 2π
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM ∫ F.dr = ∫ ( cos t − sin t )( − sin t ) + cos t.cos t  dt
0 0
NLC GET -24.11.2020
2π
Ans. (a) : Gauss law states that the total outward = ∫0 (1 − cos t sin t ) dt
electrical displacement through any closed surface 2π 2π
surrounding charges is equal to the total charge = ∫0 1.dt − ∫0 cos t.sin t.dt
enclosed. = 2π − 0
Qin
∫ E.dA = ε0 [Qin = Charge enclosed by Gaussian surface] = 2π
238. Consider the electric field between two parallel
plates of a charged capacitor. The electric field
235. If a capacitor stores 0.12 C at 10 V, then its is
capacitance is− (a) strongest in magnitude near the positive plate
(a) 0.024 F (b) 0.24 F (b) strongest in magnitude near the negative plate
(c) 0.012 F (d) 0.6 F (c) strongest in magnitude midway between the
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM plates
Ans. (c) : Given that- (d) constant throughout the space between the
plates
q = 0.12C
V = 10V
Ans. (d) : The electric field between two parallel plates
∴ q = C.V of a charged capacitor is constant throughout the space
q 0.12 between the plates.
C= =
V 10 1
E= ( σ1 – σ2 ) where σ = Surface charge density
C = 0.012F 2ε 0
236. Which of the following is correct? So, electric field does not depend upon distance from
(a) Green’s theorem is a particular case of stokes the plate.
theorem 239. The electric field lines and equipotential lines
(b) Stokes theorem is a particular case of Green’s (a) are parallel to each other
theorem (b) are one and the same
(c) Both stokes’ theorem and Green’s theorem (c) cut each other orthogonally
are same (d) can be inclined to each other at any angle.
(d) None of the above TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 Ans. (c) : Equipotential lines are imaginary lines that
Ans. (a) : Green’s theorem and stokes theorem both are trace equal electric potential or voltage in a plane.
helping to calculating the surface integral but green’s Equipotential lines are always perpendicular to the
theorem is the special case of stokes theorem. Green’s electric field.
theorem is used in 2D. While stokes theorem used in 240. The value of
3D. ∫ Dℓ along a circle of radius 2
237. The circulation of the field unit is
F = ( x − y ) i + xj around the circle (a) zero (b) 2π
(c) 4π (d) 8π
r ( t ) = costi + sintj( 0 ≤ t ≤ 2π ) is
(a) 0 (b) π
(c) 2π (d) 1
Ans. (a) : The value of ∫ Dℓ along a circle of radius
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 2 unit is zero.

241. Two electric dipoles aligned parallel to each 244. Three point charges, Q1 = 30 nC, Q2 = –150 nC,
other and having the same axis exert a force F and Q3 = 70 nC, are enclosed by surface S.
on each other, when at a distance d a part. If What net flux crosses S?
the dipoles are at distance 2d apart, then the (a) 150 nC (b) –150 nC
mutual force between them would be
(c) 50 nC (d) –50 nC
(a) F/2 (b) F/4
NLC GET -24.11.2020
(c) F/8 (d) F/16
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 Ans. (d) : Net flux ( φnet ) = Q1 + Q 2 + Q3
Ans. (d) : = 30 − 150 + 70
= −50nC
245. Let q(t) be the electric charge in an element
with respect to time, what is current through
Force of interaction of two dipole that element?
3P1P2
F1 =
4πε0 d 4
.... (i) (a) ∫ q ( t ) dt (b) q(t) × t
If distance is 2d then, dq(t)

(c) (d) q(t) – t
3P1P2 dt
F2 = .... (ii)
4πε0 ( 2d )
4 NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ans. (c) : Electric current is the amount of charge
flowing through a particular area in unit time. It is the
F1 rate of flow of electric charges.
F2 =
16 dq
i=
242. The electric field due to a point charge Q is dt
completely in the radial direction (where point 246. The force between two charges Q1 and Q2 is
A is at higher potential than point B at infinity, given by:
where r is the radial distance), This is given as: (a) Newton's law (b) Coulomb's law
Q (c) Faraday's law (d) Ampere's law
(a) V = 4πQε0 r (b) V =
4πε0 r NLC GET -24.11.2020
4πε0 r Q Ans. (b) : According to coulomb's law the force of
(c) V = (d) V =
Q 4πε0 r 2 attraction or repulsion between two charged is directly
UPMRC AM - 2020 proportional to the product of their charges and
Ans. (b) : The electric potential between two points inversely proportional to the square of the distance
with one at infinity is– between them.
Q  1 q1q 2 
V= F = 
4πε0 r  4πε0 d 2 
The electrostatic potential (V) at any point in a region 247. The electric field of a linearly polarized
with an electrostatic field is the workdone in bringing a electromagnetic wave is given by
unit positive charge from infinity to that point.
Ei = aˆ x E0 ( x, y ) e − jkz is incident upon a linearly
243. If charge is distributed with uniform density
ρl (C/m) along an infinite, straight line z-axis, polarized antenna whose electric field
then the field is given as: polarization is expressed as
ρ ρl Ea = ( aˆ x + aˆ y ) E ( r,θ, φ ) . Find the polarization
(a) E = l aˆ r (b) E = aˆ r
∈0 r 2π ∈0 r loss factor.
ρl ρl (a) 1/2 (b) 3/2
(c) E = aˆ r (d) E = aˆ r
4π ∈0 r π∈0 r (c) 2/3 (d) 1/4
NLC GET -24.11.2020 ISRO Scientist December, 2017
Ans. (b) : The z-component of the field equation will Ans. (a) : Given that– E i = aˆ x E 0 ( x, y ) e − jkz
ρℓ
be- E = aˆ r E t = ( aˆ x + aˆ y ) E ( r, θ, φ )
2πε0 r
Ei ⋅ E t Ans.(b) : At higher frequencies magnetic field is
Polarisation factor = 2 2 confined to the region between the micro-strip and
Ei E t ground plane.
aˆ x ⋅ ( aˆ x + aˆ y ) 251. The time rate of change of a voltage applied
= across a 1µF capacitor is 2 V/s. This means that
( aˆ + aˆ y )
2
( aˆ x )
2
x the current flowing through the capacitor is :
1 1 (a) 2 × 10–6 A (b) 2 A
= =
1× 2 2 (c) 0.5 × 10 A
–6
(d) 0.5 A
248. Two ceramic capacitors have the following BSNL(JTO)-2002
parameters. One has capacitance C1 and Ans. (a) : Current through the capacitor–
ceramic thickness d1. The other has dV
ic = C c
capacitance C2 and ceramic thickness d2. When dt
the two are connected in parallel, the = 1 × 10 −6 × 2
combination has a capacitance of
i c = 2 × 10 −6 A
(a) C = d1 + d 2
252. Two capacitors C1 = 20 µF and C2 = 25 µF with
(b) C = d1d 2 / ( d1 + d 2 )
respective breakdown voltages of V1 = 50 V and
(c) C = C1 + C 2 V2 = 40 V are given :
(a) Both capacitors can stores the same
(d) C = C1C2 / ( C1 + C2 )
maximum energy.
BSNL (JTO)-2001 (b) When connected up in series and changed C1
Ans. (c) : For capacitor will fail first.
εA (c) Both capacitors can store the same maximum
C= 0 charge.
d
Given that, (d) When connected up in series and changed C2
will fail first.
εA
C1 = 0 ... (i) BSNL(JTO)-2002
d1
Ans. (c) : q = CV
ε0 A
C2 = ... (ii) q = C1V1 = C2 V2
d2
Both capacitor can store the same maximum charge.
When they are connected in parallel
253. A spherical hollow metallic sphere has a charge
Ceq = C1+C2
of + Q on it. What is the value of the electric
249. The relationship between electric field strength field E inside the sphere?
( )
E and the potential difference (V) at any (a) Q/ε0 (b) Q/µ0
point is given by (c) zero (d) Qε0
(a) E = Va r (b) E = −∇V BSNL(JTO)-2002
Ans. (c) : According to Gauss law–
(c) V = ∇.E (d) E = ∇ × ∇V
BSNL (JTO)-2001 ∫ E ⋅ ds = Q encl
Ans. (b) : The relationship between electric field For a spherical hollow metallic sphere has a charge of
(E)
+Q on it. Zero is the value of the electric field E inside
strength and the potential difference (v) at any
the sphere.
point is given 254. The relationship between electric field strength
E = – ∇V (E) and the potential difference (V) at any
250. At the higher frequencies, which one of the point is given by :
following becomes more confined to the region (a) E = Va r (b) E = – ∇Vr
between the micro-strip and ground plane?
(c) V = – ∇.E (d) E = ∇ × ∇V
(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field
BSNL(JTO)-2002
(c) Dispersion (d) Skin effect
ESE-2021 Ans. (b) : E = – ∇Vr

255. Two free charges q and 4 q are placed at a ρr
distance d apart. A third charge Q is placed E=
3ε0
between them at a distance X from charge q
such that the system is in equilibrium. Then ρr
then E= â r
4q d 3ε0
(a) Q = , X=
9 3 For r > a
−4q d ρa 3
(b) Q = ,X = Q = E= aˆ r
9 4 3ε0 r 2
−4q d We know that , V = – ∫
r
E.dl
(c) Q = ,X = r =∞
9 3
−4q  a ρa 3 r ρr 
(d) Q = ,X =
d V = – ∫ dr + ∫ dr 
r =∞ 3ε r 2 a 3ε
9 4  0 0 
BSNL (JTO)-2006  ρa 3  1  a ρ  r 2  r 
Ans. (a) : Given that- V=–  −  +   
 3ε0  r ∞ 3ε  2 a 
 ρa 3  1  1   ρ 2 
V=–   − −  −  + ( r − a 2 )
for equilibrium-  3ε0  a  ∞   6ε0 
1 qQ 1 Q ⋅ 4q
=  − ρa 3 ρ 2 
4πε0 X 2
4πε0 ( d − x ) 2 V=–  + ( r − a 2 )
 3ε0 a 6ε0 
(d − x )
2
= 4x 2 ρa 2 ρ 2
d − x = ±2x
V= −
3ε0 6ε0
(r − a2 )
d ρa 2 2 ρ 2
x= V= × − (r − a 2 )
3 3ε0 2 6ε0
4q
Q= ρ
9 V=  2a 2 − r 2 + a 2 
6ε0 
256. In the relation between the field and the
potential, if r < a, then the potential at a point ρ
V= 3a 2 − r 2 
r inside a uniformly charged sphere of radius a, 6ε0
is
257. Tesla is a unit of:
a 3ρ ρ
(a)
3ε0 r
(b)
6ε0
(3a 2 − r 2 ) (a) flux density
(b) magnetic flux
4πa 3 2π (c) permeability
(c)
3r
(d)
3
( 3a 2 − r 2 ) (d) magneto-motive force
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
ESE-2022
Ans. (a) : Magnetic flux density is a vector field and
Ans. (b) : From the Gauss law- has a SI units of Tesla (T).
∫ D.ds = ∫ ρdV …(i) 258. The capacitance 'C' is a measure of the
Where ρ – Volume charge density capacitor's potential to store energy in:
V– Volume of sphere (a) Magnetic field
(b) Electric field
(c) Both in magnetic and electric fields
(d) Harmonic electric field
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
for r < a Ans. (b) : The capacitance 'C' is a measure of the
4 capacitor's potential to store energy in electric field.
Eε0 .4πr 2 = ρ. πr 3
3 259. A: The conductors are always equipotential
surfaces.
ρ
Eε0 = r B: Electric field inside a conductor is always
3 zero.
A and B are ____and _____. 263. Consider the following image, it is known that
(a) False, false (b) False, True two concentric spherical shells carry equal and
(c) True, True (d) True, False opposite uniformly distributed charges over
UPRVUNL AE-2016 their surfaces.
Ans. (c) : The conductors are always equipotential What will be the electric field on the surface of
surface so the potential difference will be zero. inner shell?
Electric field inside a conductor is always zero.
260. Divergence theorem is applicable for ______ .
(a) static field only
(b) time varying fields only
(c) both static and time varying fields
(d) electric fields only
Ans. (c) : Divergence theorem is applicable for both
(a) Zero (b) Q/(4πR2)
static and time varying fields.
(c) Q/(2πR2) (d) 2Q/(πR2)
261. What is the effect on electric potential energy
of charges when the separation between two UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
charge increases? Ans. (a) : The charges reside in a perfect conductor
(a) It also increases only on the surface of the conductor not inside it. Inside
(b) It decreases the shell, it dosen't enclose any charge then electric field
(c) It remains the same inside the shell will be zero.
(d) It may increase or decrease 264. The current flowing through a wire of length
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 2.5cm is 100 A. If wire is bent into a square,
1 magnetizing force at the centre of square is
Ans. (b) : The electric potential energy (u) ∝ (a) 144 AT/m (b) 104 AT/m
r
where r is the separation between two (c) 244 AT/m (d) 72 AT/m
charge. KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
If r increases then potential energy decreases. Ans. (a) : Given, L = 2.5 m, I = 100 A
262. Two charges are spaced apart 10 cm in If wire is bent into a square then side
vacuum. It's known that the charges are 2.5
(a) = = 0.625m
4 × 10–8 and 6 × 10–5 C respectively. If the same 4
charges are separated by the same distance in a = 0.3125m
kerosene with εr = 2, find the force of Magnetizing force at the centre of square is
interaction.
(a) 2.77 N (b) 1.07 N 2I 2 × 100
H= = = 144.12
(c) 4.58 N (d) 3.25 N πa 3.14 × 0.3125
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 H ≃ 144 AT/m
Ans. (b) : We know that, Force of attraction is given 265. Two infinite parallel conductors carry currents
by- of '20 A' each. The magnitude of the force
1 Q1Q 2 between the conductor per metre length if the
F=
4πε0 ε r r 2 distance between them is '20 cm' is ______.
(a) 4 × 10–4 N (b) 2 × 10–4 N
Given, Q1 = 4×10–8c and Q2 = 6×10–5c, r = 10cm, εr = 2 –4
then (c) 3 × 10 N (d) 5 × 10–4 N
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
9 × 109 × 4 ×10−8 × 6 × 10−5
F= Ans. (a) : Given, I1 = 20A I2 = 20A
2 × (10 × 10−2 )
2
Distance between two conductor (d) = 20 cm

 1  = 20×10-2m
∵ = 9 × 109 
 4πε0  Force between the conductor per meter length-
36 × 6 × 10−4 F µI1 I2
F= ≅ 1.08N =
2 ×10−2 ℓ 2πr

4π×10−7 × 20 × 20 F ∝ B2
=
2π× 20 × 10−2 3. A static electric field is conservative (irrotational)
F
= 4 × 10–4 N ∇×E = 0
ℓ 4. If the divergence of a vector 'A' is zero then vector 'A'
266. The electric potential field is produced by point can be expressed as curl of another vector F
charge 1µC and 4µC located at (–2, 1, 5) and ∇.(∇×F) = 0 , where ∇ × F = A
(1, 3, –1), respectively. They energy stored in
268. Due to polarization.
the field is
(a) The effective area of the electrode is reduced
(a) 2.57 mJ (b) 5.14 mJ
(b) A local positive change is built up in the
(c) 10.28 mJ (d) 11 mJ
electrolyte, which repels the positive
TANGEDCO AE- 2018
TS PSC Manager (Engg.)- 2015 hydrogen ions away from the copper
electrode
Ans. (b) : Given, q1 = 1µC located at (–2, 1, 5) and
(c) A gas of hydrogen collects around the zinc
q2 = 4µC, located at (1, 3, –1).
stopping the conduction
The electrostatic potential energy stored-
(d) Both (a) and (b)
qq
U= 1 2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
4πε0 r
Ans. (d) : Polarization occurs when an electric field
then r = ( −2 − 1) + (1 − 3) + (5 − (−1)) distorts the negative cloud of electron around positive
2 2 2
atomic nuclei in a direction opposite the field. This

r = (−3) + (−2) + (6) = 7
2 2 2
slight separation of charge makes one side of atom
9 × 10 (1× 10 )( 4 ×10 )
9 −6 −6 somewhat positive and opposite side some what
then U = negative.
7
269. If a material contains 1020 molecules/m3, each
 1  molecule having a moment of 8.854×10–27 C-m
∵ = 9 × 109 
 4πε0  parallel to an electric field of 105 m, then its
U = 5.14mJ dielectric constant is
(a) 2.2 (b) 2
1. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular (c) 4 (d) 12
coil of a wire carrying current is inversely ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
proportional to the radius of the coil Ans. (b) : N = 1020 molecules/m3
2. Lifting power of a magnet is proportional to P = 8.854 × 10–27 C-m
square of magnetic flux density E = 105 m
3. A static electric field is conservative
Average dipole moment (NP) = ∈0 (∈r −1)E
(irrotational)
4. If the divergence of a vector 'A' is zero, then NP
∈r −1 =
vector 'A' can be expressed as curl of a ∈0 E
vector F.
1020 × 8.854 × 10−27
Which of the above statements are correct? ∈r −1 = 5
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only 10 × 8.854 × 10−12
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ∈r −1 = 1
IES-2016 ∈r = 1 + 1
Ans. (d) : 1. Magnetic field at the center of a circular ∈r = 2
coil of a wire carrying current I, then-
µ I 270. A parallel plate capacitor is charged so that the
B= 0 electric field in the dielectric is E. If the
2r
permittivity of dielectric is ε, the energy density
1
B∝ i.e. energy per unit volume is
r
(a) 0.5 ε E (b) 0.5 ε E2
2
BS (c) 0.5 ε2 E (d) 0.5 E2/ε
2. lifting power (F) =
2µ Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Ans. (b) : A parallel plate capacitor is charged so that Ans. (c) : The normal components of electric flux
the electric field in the dielectric is E. If the permittivity density across a dielectric-dielectric boundary depend
of dielectric is ε, the energy density i.e. energy per unit on the magnitude of the surface charge density.
volume is 0.5 ε E2. 276. Polarization of dielectric materials results in
2
271. Consider a capacitor of area 4 cm , 0.02 cm gap (a) Production of eddy current
–12
and permitivity of air is 8.854 × 10 F/m. (b) Creation of dielectric dipoles
Calculate the capacitance. (c) Release of protons
(a) 17.78 µF (b) 17.78 pf (d) Absorption of electrons
(c) 17.78 nf (d) 17.78 mf Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
TNPSC AE-2014 Ans. (b) : Polarization of dielectric materials results in
∈ A Creation of dielectric dipoles.
Ans. (c) : C = 0
d 277. The real & imaginary dielectric constants εr′
−12
8.85 × 10 × 4 × 10 −4
and εr″ of 3 insulators at 1 kHz and 50ºC are
= −2 listed below:
0.02 ×10
C = 17.78 pF Material εr′ ε r″
Polycarbonate 2.47 0.003
272. The divergence of magnetic flux density is
PET 2.58 0.003
(a) 1 (b) ρ
PEEK 2.24 0.003
(c) 0 (d) ∞
At a given voltage, the lower power
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2013, 2009
dissipation per unit capacitance at 1 KHz
Ans. (c) : The divergence of magnetic flux density is can be obtained from
zero because magnetic flux makes always a closed path. (a) Polycarbonate
∇.B = 0 , B = magnetic flux density (b) PET
273. The unit of polarization is the same as that of (c) PEEK
(d) Insufficient information to answer
(a) Electric flux density D
BSNL (JTO)-2006
(b) Electric intensity E
Ans. (b) : For lowest power dissipation, loss tangent
(c) Charge
should be the lowest.
(d) Dielectric flux
ε"
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I Loss tangent tan δ = 'r
Ans. (a) : The unit of polarization is the same as that of εr
electric flux density D. 278. The energy stored in any two charges in any
Polarization is defined mathematically as the electric electric field as a result of electrostatic force is
dipole moment per unit volume. termed as
274. The dielectric strength of gaseous dielectric (a) Capacitance (b) Electric intensity
depends on which of the following factors? (c) Potential difference (d) None of these
(a) Pressure Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
(b) Uniformity of applied electric field Ans. (c) : Electric potential energy is a potential energy
(c) Frequency of applied field that result from conservative columb force and is
(d) All of the above associated with the configuration of a particular set of
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I point charge within a defined system.
Ans. (d) : The dielectric strength of Gaseous dielectric 279. The primary reason behind identically zero
depends on pressure, uniformly of applied electric field, magnetic field outside a coaxial cable is:
polarity of electrode and frequency. (a) Maximization of Magnetic lines of force
275. The normal components of electric flux density (b) Work done along a closed path is equal to
across a dielectric-dielectric boundary total current flow
(a) Are discontinuous (c) Magnetic Polarization
(b) Are continuous (d) Force between magnetic elements
(c) Depend on the magnitude of the surface DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
charge density Ans. (d) The primary reason behind identically zero
(d) Depend on electric field intensity magnetic field outside a coaxial cable is force between
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I magnetic elements.
280. Which of the following relationship correct Ans. (b) : Gauss theorem
According to Maxwell's Equations –
Differential Integral form Remark
∇.D = ρV Gauss's law
∫ ∫
D.ds = ρV .dv
V
∫ B.ds = 0
I I ∇.B = 0 Magnetic
(a) J = (b) J = monopole
ab bc
∫ E.dℓ = 0
I I ∇×E = 0 Conservation of
(c) J = (d) J = Electrostatic field
ac abc
Ampere's law
Ans. (b) : Current density is always perpendicular to
∇×H = J
∫ H.d ℓ = ∫ J.ds
I I 283. The average value of the electrostatic field over
surface area. Therefore J = = .
A bc the volume V of a sphere due to a point charge
281 A region 1 is defined by x < 0 is free space, q somewhere within the sphere, where r0 is the
while the region 2, defined by x > 0 is a position of the charge, is
dielectric material for which εr = 3.6. Given qr qr0
E1 = 3iˆ + 5jˆ − 3kˆ V/m . Value of the angle (a) E av = − 0 (b) E av = −
3ε0 V 3πε0 V
θ2 that the electric field in dielectric makes with
qr0 qr0
x = 0 plane is (c) E av = (d) E av =
3ε0 V 3πε0 V
(a) 54.4º (b) 8.13º
(c) 27.2º (d) 16.26º ESE-2022
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018 qr0
Ans. (c) : E av =
Ans. (b) : From boundary Condition we have 3ε0 V
E1t = E2t
284. Magnetic flux density is given by :
and D1n = D2n = E1n ε1 = E2n ε2
Given that- (a) B = εH (b) B = µH
(c) B = µE (d) B = µD
E = 3iˆ + 5jˆ - 3kˆ V/m
1
BSNL(JTO)-2002
E
tan θ = 2n Ans. (b) : Magnetic flux density is related to magnetic
E 2t
field (H) by B = µH. It is measured in Weber/square
D1n = D2n meter equivalent to Tesla (T).
E1n εo = E2n εr εo
285. Two infinitely long wires carrying current are
E1n = 3iˆ and E1t = 5jˆ - 3kˆ as shown in the figure below. One wire is in the
E1n y-z plane and parallel to the y-axis. The other
tan θ =
εr ( E1t ) wire is in the x-y plane and parallel to the x-
axis. Which components of the resulting
E1n = 3 magnetic field are non-zero at the origin?
E 2t = 5jˆ − 3kˆ = 34
3
tanθ = = 0.1429
3.6 34
θ = tan–1 (0.1429) = 8.133o
282. The transformation between differential and
integral form requires
(a) Stokes theorem (b) Gauss theorem (a) x, y, z components (b) x, y components
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) y, z components (d) x, z components
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2018, Paper-II GATE-2009
Ans. (d) : Current circulation due to y-z plane The charge is at rest at t = 0, when a voltage +V
= aˆ y × aˆ z is applied to the plate at –d and voltage –V is
applied to the plate at x = + d. Assume that the
= â x quantity of the charge q is small enough that it
Similarly current circulation due to x-y plane- does not perturb the field set up by the metal
= aˆ x × aˆ y plates. The time that the charge q takes to
reach the right plate is proportional to
= â z
(a) d/V (b) d /V
Thus resulting component of current at origin will be
x,z components of plan i.e. x-z plane. (c) d / V (d) d/V
286. The force on a point charge +q kept at a GATE-2016
distance d from the surface of an infinite Ans. (c) : Force on moving charge particle in the
grounded metal plate in a medium of magnetic field
permittivity ∈ is F = Q (V × B)
(a) 0
= Q (Vx aˆ x + Vz aˆ z ) × Baˆ z
q2
(b) away from the plate = QVx (– â y )
16π∈ d 2
q2 This results in a circular path in the X-Y Plane with
(c) towards the plate Vz aˆ z component causing a linear path , therefore
16π∈ d 2
q2 resultant path is helical path along z axis

(d) towards the plate
4π∈ d 2
GATE-2014
Ans. (c) :
rate of change of doing work = K.E.

E = qV
Since the charges are in opposite polarity the force 1
between them is attractive in nature and is given by qV = mv 2
2
Coulomb's law –
Where,
QQ v = Velocity
F = 1 22
4πεR V = Voltage
(+q)(−q)
= d 2qV
4πε(2d) 2 v= =
t m
q2 d
F= Hence, t ∝
16πεd 2
V
The direction will be towards the plate.
288. The parallel-plate capacitor shown in the figure
287. A positive charge q is placed at x = 0 between
has movable plates. The capacitor is charged so
two infinite metal plates placed at x = –d and at
that the energy stored in it is E when the plate
x = +d respectively. The metal plates lie in the
separation is d. The capacitor is then isolated
yz plane.
electrically and the plates are moved such that
the plate separation becomes 2d.

At this new plate separation what is the energy Qb b
=
stored in the capacitor, neglecting fringing Qa a
effects?
Thus ratio of surface electric field ––
(a) 2 E (b) 2E E a Qa / 4πε0 a 2
(c) E (d) E/2 =
E b Q b / 4πε0 b 2
GATE-2016
Qa b2
Ans. (a) : Let E1 and C1 be the initial energy stored and = ×
Qb a 2
capacitance of capacitor respectively
Then Ea b
= >1
Eb a
Q2
E 1= = E …………….(1)
2C1 i.e. E a > E b
at d2 = 2d1 , C2 =
C1
2
290. What is the electric flux ( ∫ E.daˆ ) through a
quarter-cylinder of height H (as shown in the
if plates are electrically isolated then-
figure) due to an infinitely long line charge
Q2 =Q1 along the axis of the cylinder with a charge
Q 22 Q12 density of Q?
thus E 2 = =
2C2 C 
2 1 
 2 
 2Q 2 
=  1
 2C1 
E 2 = 2E1 = 2E
Hence energy becomes twice the previous energy.
289. Two conducting spheres S1 and S2 of radii a
and b (b > a) respectively, are placed far apart 4H Hε0
(a) (b)
and connected by a long, thin conducting wire, Qε0 4Q
as shown in the figure. HQ HQ
(c) (d)
ε0 4ε0
GATE-2019
Ans. (d) : Electric field intensity is given by-
Q
E= aˆ ρ ( radially outword)
2πε0ρ
Q
For some charge placed on this structure, the
∴ ∫ E dφ = ∫∫ 2πε ρ aˆ
0
ρ (ρdφdz)
potential and surface electric field on S1 and Va π/ 2 H
Q
and Ea, and that on S2 are Vb and Eb =
2πε0 ∫ dφ ∫ dz
z =0
respectively. Then, which of the following is 0
correct? Q π
=  H
(a) Va = Vb and Ea < Eb (b) Va > Vb and Ea > Eb 2πε0  2 
(c) Va = Vb and Ea > Eb (d) Va > Vb and Ea = Eb HQ
=
GATE-2017 4ε 0
Ans. (c) :The charge becomes in equilibrium position
291. The average drift velocity Vd of electrons in a
when both sphere are in equal potential. metal is related to electric field E and collision
i.e. Va = Vb time T as
Qa Qb Q ET
Now as Va = Vb , = (a) Vd = e (b) Vd =meQeT
4πε0 a 4πε0 b me

m e Qe T Qe ET So,
(c) Vd = (d) Vd =
1∂ 2
2E 2m e ∇.D =
r 2 ∂r
( r Dr )
1 ∂ Q 
Ans. (a) : The average drift velocity Vd of electrons in a = 2  r2 
metal is related to electric field E and collision time T r ∂r  4πr 2 
as 1 ∂ Q
= =0
Qe ET r 2 ∂r 4π
Vd =
me 294. A charge Q2 = 8.854×10–9 C is located in a
Where, Vd = drift velocity vacuum at P2 (2, 3, 1). The force on Q2 due to a
E= Field charge Q1 = 4π×10–3 C at P1 (2, 2, 1) is
me = Mass of electron ∧
(a) a y N
T = Relaxation time
∧ ∧ ∧
292. A conductor of length 1 m moves at right (b) – 5.4 a x + 6.3 a y –5.4 a z N
angles to a uniform magnetic field of flux ∧ ∧ ∧
2 (c) 5.4 a x –6.3 a y –5.4 a z N
density 2 Wb/m with a velocity of 50 m/s.
What is the value of the induced e.m.f. when (d) None
the conductor moves at an angle of 30° to the ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
direction of the field? Ans. (a) : Given,
(a) 75V (b) 50V Q1 = 4π × 10–3 C at (2, 2, 1)
(c) 25V (d) 12.5V Q2 = 8.854 × 10–9 C at (2, 3, 1)
IES-2017
R = ( 2 − 2 ) + ( 3 − 2 ) + (1 − 1) = 1aˆ y
2 2 2
Ans. (b) : Given ℓ = 1m
B = 2 wb/m2 1 Q1Q 2
F= aˆ R
V = 50 m/s 4πε0 | R |2
θ = 30° 1 4π× 10−3 × 8.854 ×10−9
= × (aˆ y )
∴ Emf induced when the conductor move at an angle 4π× 8.854 × 10 −12
(1) 2
θ to the direction of a uniform magnetic field is
= â y N
E = BℓV sin θ
295. A charge 'Q' is divided between two point
= 2× 1 × 50 × sin 30° charges. What should be the value of this
1 charge on the objects so that the force between
= 2× 1 × 50 ×
2 them is maximum?
E = 50 volt (a) Q/3 (b) Q/2
293. For a point charge having electric flux density, (c) (Q-2) (d) 2Q
Q Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II
D= ar , where ar is the unit vector in
4πr 2 Ans. (b) : Let point charge, Q A = q
radial direction; volume charge density ρv is:
∴ point charge, Q B = (Q–q)
(a) 1 (b) 0
Q ∴ Force between the two charges is given by
(c) Infinite (d)
4π Q Q
FAB = A B2 aˆ r
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 4πε0 r
Ans. (b) : Given that, q (Q − q)
= â r
Flux density ( D ) =
Q
ar 4πε0 r 2
4πr 2 The force will be maximum if
( )
∵ Volume charge density ρ V = ∇.D
dFAB
=0
â r is the unit vector in radial direction. dq

d  q (Q − q)  Ans. (c) : F = ma = QE
 =0
dq  4πε0 r 2  a=
QE 3
= (12a x + 10a y )
m 2
d
or qQ − q 2  = 0 a = 18a x + 15a y m / s 2
dq  
or Q − 2q = 0 299. The directions of E and D is same :
(a) Crystal medium
Q
q= (b) Isotropic dielectric medium
2
(c) Heterogeneous medium
296. The electric field lines and equipotential lines (d) None of these
(a) Are parallel to each other Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
(b) Are one and same Ans. (d) : In Homogeneous and isotropic medium the
(c) Cut each other orthogonally direction of electric field and electric flux density are
(d) Can be inclined to each other at any angle always same.
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II 300. Given potential V = 2x2y + z2 Then the electric
Ans. (c) : Equipotential lines are connecting point of the field at (1, 1, 0) is
same electric potential. All electric field line cross all (a) −4aˆ x − 2aˆ y (b) 4aˆ x + 2aˆ y
equipotential line perpendicularly. (c) −2aˆ x − 4aˆ y (d) 2aˆ x + 4aˆ y
297. The electric field at a point (1, 2, 3) due to a BARC Scientific Officer-2016
charge of 5 nC at (1, 0, 1) in vacuum is
Ans. (a) : Given , V = 2x y + z 2
2
(
(a) 07 1iˆ + 2ˆj + 3kˆ ) (
(b) 5 î + kˆ ) We know that, E = −∇ ⋅ V
ˆ
(c) 5.625 2 j + 2k ˆ( ) ˆ ˆ(ˆ
(d) 25 i + j + k ) E = −
 dV ɵ
ax +
dV ɵ
ay +
dV ɵ 
az 
UPSC JWM-2016  dx dy dz 
Ans. (*) : r = î − î + 2ˆj − 0ˆj + 3kˆ − kˆ (
E = − 4xyaɵ x + 2x 2 aɵ y + 2zaɵ z )
= 0 + 2ˆj + 2kˆ
(
E (1,1,0) = − 4aɵ x + 2aɵ y + 0 )
(
r = 2jˆ + 2kˆ ) E (1,1,0) = − 4aɵ x − 2aɵ y .
and | r |= 4 + 4
4r 5
| r |= 8 301. A unit sphere having potential of . Then
ε0
1 q the field developed in the sphere is given by
E= ⋅ r
4πεo r 3 4 −20 4
(a) + r 5 aˆ r (b) r aˆ r
9 × 109 × 5 × 10−9 ˆ ε0 ε0
E=
8 8
(
2 j + 2kˆ ) 20 4 +5 4
(c) r aˆ r (d) r aˆ r
ε0 ε0
(
E = 3.97 ˆj + kˆ ) BARC Scientific Officer-2016
298. A charged particle of mass 2Kg and charge 3C Ans. (b) : Given sphere potential -
starts at point (1, –2, 0) with velocity 4r 5
4a x + 3a z m/s in and electric field V =
ε0
12a x + 10a y V/m. At time t = 1 ms what will be
E = −∇ ⋅ V
the acceleration of the particle? ∂V
=− â r
(a) 18a x + 15a y m / s ∂r
(b) 18a x + 15a z m / s 2 ∂  4r 5 
=−   â r
(c) 18a x + 15a y m / s 2 ∂r  ε0 
(d) 18a x + 3a z m / s 2 −20r 4 ɵ

E= ar
ε0
302. Electric flux is a ________field, and its density 305. If the electric field intensity is given by
is a _______field. E = ( xuˆ x + yuˆ y + zuˆ z ) Volt/m the potential
(a) Vector, vector (b) Scalar, vector
difference between X (2, 0, 0) and Y(1, 2, 3) is
(c) Vector, scalar (d) Scalar, scalar
(a) +1 volt (b) –1 volt
NLC GET -24.11.2020
(c) +5 volt (d) +6 volt
Ans. (b) : Electric flux is a scalar field and it density is
a vector field. Mizoram PSC IOLM -2010, Paper-I
GATE-2003
303. The potential difference between two points
x(1, 2, 3) and y(1, 2, 4) due to a 15 nC placed at Ans. (c) : The potential difference between the points
origin is: x(2,0,0) and y(1,2,3) is given by
x
(a) –6.62V (b) 6.62V
Vxy = − ∫ E.dℓ
(c) 3.32V (d) –3.32V y
UPRVUNL AE-2016 x
Ans. (b) : Given, x(1,2,3) and y(1,2,4) and q = 15 nc = − ∫ (xuˆ x + yuˆ y + zuˆ z ).(uˆ x dx + uˆ y dy + uˆ z dz)
y
(0,0,0)
(2,0,0)
Then, potential difference -
= − ∫ (xdx + ydy + zdz)
q 1 − 1
Vxy =  
(1,2,3)
4πε0  rx ry 
  x 2  2  y 2  0  z 2  0 
= −   +   +   
rx = 12 + 22 + 32 = 14   2 1  2  2  2  3 
ry = 12 + 22 + 42 = 21 1
= –  (22 − 12 ) + (0 − 22 ) + (0 − 32 ) 
2
 1 1 
So, Vxy = 9 × 109 × 15 × 10−9  −
21 
1
 14 = − [3 − 4 − 9]
2
= 135 × 0.049 = 6.62V
1
 1 9
= − [ −10]
∵
 4πε = 9 × 10  2
 0  = 5Volt
304. Consider the following statements regarding an 306. The ratio σ/ ωε is called
electrostatic field: 1. Intrinsic ratio
1. It is irrotational 2. Loss tangent
2. It is solenoidal 3. Conduction ratio
3. It is static only from a macroscopic view 4. Dissipation factor
point.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
4. Work done in moving a charge in the field (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
from one point to another is independent of
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
the path of movement.
IES – 2015, 2014
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4  σ 
Ans. (c) : The ratio of   is called loss tangent or
(c) Only 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4  ωε 
IES-2006 dissipation factor . It may be defined as
Ans. (d) : For electrostatic field– σ JC
Loss tangent = =
(1) It is irrotational ωε JD
∇ × E = 0 where E is irrotational 307. Given that the electric flux density
(2) It is not solenoidal D = zρ(cos 2 φ)az C/m 2 . The charge density (in
∇⋅E ≠ 0
C/m3) at point (1, π/4, 3) is
(3) It is static only from a macroscopic view point.
(4) Work done in moving a charge in the field from one (a) 3 (b) 1
point to another is independent of the path of (c) 0.5 (d) 0.5a z
movement. IES - 2011
Ans. (c) : Given D = zρ (cos2φ) aɵ z Ans. (a) : As per question electric flux density (D)
can be given as
Gauss law in differential from gives
Q
Charge density ∇.D = ρ v D= ˆ
a....(i)
4πd 2
where ρv = volume charge density. the net electric flux can be given as
∴ ρv = ∇.D =
∂
 zρ cos 2 φ
φ= ∫ D.ds
∂z 
s
from (i)
= ρ cos2 φ Q
 π
2
φ= ∫ s 4πd 2
â. 4πd 2
∴ ( ρ v )1, π ,3  = 1.  cos 

 4 

 4 φ=Q
1 311. The electric field strength at distant point, P,
= due to a point charge, +q located at the origin,
2
is 100µ V/m. If the point charge is now enclosed
= 0.5 C/m3.
by a perfectly conducting metal sheet sphere
308. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field, whose center is at the origin, then the electric
the electric flux density D, electric field field strength at the point, P, outside the sphere
intensity E and polarization P are related as becomes
(a) D = ε 0 Ε × P (b) D = ε 0 E − P (a) zero (b) 100 µV/m
(c) –100 µV/m (d) 50 µV/m
(c) D = ε0 ( E × P ) (d) D = ε 0 E + P GATE-1995
IES - 1995 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : for a dielectric material we have-
D = ε0 E + P
Where, P = polarisation of E wave.
309. Which of the following is the correct
statement? The radially outward field is normal to conductor and
no induction effect so, E is same.
Equipotential lines and field lines
(a) Are parallel 312. The electric field on the surface of a perfect
conductor is 2 V/m. The conductor is immersed
(b) Are anti-parallel
in water with ∈ = 80 ∈0. The surface charge
(c) Are orthogonal
 10-9 
(d) Bear no definite relationship density on the conductor is  ∈ =  F/m
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I  36π 
(a) 0 C/m2 (b) 2 C/m2
Ans. (c) : Equipotential lines and field lines are
orthogonal. (c) 1.8 × 10–11 C/m2(d) 1.41 × 10–9 C/m2
GATE-2002
Equipotential line are the connecting point of the same
electrical potential, all electric field lines cross all Ans. (d) : Electric field strength is given by -
equipotential lines perpendicularly. ρ
E= s
310. If the flux density through a spherical surface ε
with radius 'd' enclosing a point charge Q, and ρs= E × ε
Q = E.(80ε0 )
a is the radial unit vector is aˆ then the
4πd 2
1
total flux coming out of the sphere is: = 2×80× ×10−9
36π
Q = 1.41×10–9 C/m2
(a) Q (b)
4πd 2 313. When the electric field is at its maximum value,
Q the magnetic energy of a cavity is
(c) 4πd 2 Q (d) a
4πd 2 (a) At its maximum value
UPMRC AM - 2020 (b) At 2 of its maximum value
(c) At 1/2 of its maximum value 317. The plane y = 0 carries a uniform current
(d) Zero density of –20 k̂ mA/m. The magnetic field
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 intensity at x = 1, y = 10 and z = –2 is
Ans. (d) : When electric field at it's peak, at that time
(a) –10 î mA/m (b) 10 î mA/m
zero magnetic field present in the system.
314. Which of these statements is not characteristic (c) –20 î mA/m (d) 20 î mA/m
of a static magnetic field ? ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020
(a) It is solenoidal Ans. (b) : Given, Plane y = 0 which implies that xz
(b) It is Conservative
(c) It has no sinks or sources
(
plane is normal at y axis Jˆ = aˆ N )
(d) Magnetic flux lines are always closed ∵ J = −20 kˆ mA / m
TNPSC AE- 2019
Magnetic field intensity -
AAI-2015
MPSC HOD Govt. Poly.2013 1
∵H = J aˆ N
Ans. (b) : Characteristic of static magnetic field 2
(1) It is solenoidal
(2) It has no sinks or sources
1
(
= −20kˆ × 10−3 × Jˆ
2
)
(3) Magnetic flux lines are always closed
Maxwell’s equation for static electromagnetic ( )
= −10 ×10−3 kˆ × Jˆ
fields.
Differential Integral form Remarks
= −10 ×10−3 ( −î ) A/m
= 10iˆ mA / m
∇.D =ρ v ∫ ∫
D.ds = ρ dv
s
v
v
Gauss’s law
318. The magnetic equivalent of Ohm's Law is
∇.B = 0 ∫ B.ds = 0 Non-existence
of magnetic
(a) Lenz's Law (b) Faraday's Law
(c) Rowland's Law (d) Maxwell's Law
monopole
∇×E = 0 ∫ E.dℓ = 0 Conservative of
electrostatic Ans. (c) : In electrical circuit, ohm's law
field V = IR
where, R is the electrical resistance of that material.
∇×H = J ∫ H.dℓ = ∫ s J.dsAmpere’s law
Hopkinson's law (or) Rowland's law is a counterpart to
315. What is the value of magnetic flux in Weber, if ohm's law used in magnetic circuits.
it is 2000 in Maxwell?
F = φS
(a) 2 × 10 –5 (b) 2 × 10 –3
Where, F is the magneto motive force (mmf) across
(c) 2 × 105 (d) 2 × 103 the magnetic circuit element.
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 φ is the magnetic flux through the magnetic element.
Ans.(a): 1 Maxwell = 10–8 Weber S is the reluctance of that material.
∴ 2000 Maxwell = 2 × 10–5 Weber
319. According to Biot-Savart law, the magnetic
316. Magnetic field intensity (H), within a magnetic field intensity is
material where, M = 150 A/m, (a) Proportional to the distance
µ = 1.5 ×10 –5 H/m, µ r = 30; (b) Proportional to square of the distance
(a) 14.921 A/m (b) 14.138 A/m (c) Inversely proportional to the distance
(c) 1.82 A/m (d) 13.715 A/m (d) Inversely proportional to square of the
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016 distance
Ans.(*): We know that - TNPSC AE - 2018
µ r = (1 + χ ) Ans. (d) : According to Biot-Savart law
M µ0 Idℓ sin θ
and χ =   dB =
H 4πr 2
 150 
So that 30 = 1 +  As B ∝ H (Field Intensity)
 H 
1
H = 5.17 A / m so, H ∝ 2
r
320. The inductance and energy stored in joules in (c) has no effect on current decay
the magnetic field of the solenoid having length (d) any of the above
30 cm and diameter 3 cm and wound with 1000 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
turns of wire when carrying a current of Ans. (a) : A collapsing magnetic field around a coil
10 Amp. tends to oppose the decay of current in the coil.
(a) 0.003 mH and 0.15 joules 324. A conductor 4m long lies along x-axis with a
(b) 3 mH and 0.15 joules current of 10.0 A in the î direction. The force
(c) 8 mH and 0.15 joules on this conductor due to a magnetic field
(d) 0.003 mH and 0.015 joules B = 0.05 k̂ T is
TNPSC AE - 2018 ˆ
(a) 2.0jN ˆ
(b) 0.2jN
Ans. (b) : We know – (c) −0.2ˆjN (d) −2.0ˆjN
b 3
r = = = 1.5cm UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
2 2 Ans. (d) :
A = πr 2
(
F = i ℓ×B )
= π × (1.5)2×10–4
F = 10 ( 4aˆ x × 0.05aˆ z )
µ N2A
L= 0 F = 2 ( aˆ x × aˆ z )
ℓ
4π× 10−7 × 106 × π×1.52 × 10−4 F = −2aˆ y or F = −2ˆjN
L=
30 ×10−2
325. If the electric field strength of a plane wave is
L = 0.00295 H 1 V/m, what is the strength of a
L ≃ 3 mH magnetic field ‘H’ in free space?
(a) 2.6 mA (b) 2.6 µA
1
Energy stored ( E ) = LI2 (c) 26 mA (d) 26 µA
2 TNPSC AE-2014
1
= × 2.295 × 10−3 ×102 E
2 = η0
Ans. (a) :
H
= 0.114 η0 = Intrinsic impedance of free space
E ≃ 0.15 Joule η0 = 377 Ω
321. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic H = E = 1 = 2.6mA
circuits to η0 377
(a) increase flux (b) decrease flux 326. If the critical magnetic field for aluminum is
(c) increase mmf (d) prevent saturation 7.9 × 103 amp/turn, then the current flowing
through a long thin wire of aluminum of
diameter 10–3 m will be
Ans. (d) : An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic (a) 25 amp (b) 50 amp
circuits to prevent saturation. (c) 100 amp (d) 1000 amp
322. In a stationary conductor, an emf can be Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
induced by Ans. (a) :As per question
(a) changing magnetic field critical magnetic field
(b) electrons Hc= 7.9×103A/T
(c) steady magnetic field diameter d= 10–3 m
(d) all of the above 10 –3
So radius r= m
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III 2
current Ic=?
Ans. (a) : In a stationary conductor an emf can be
we know that
induced by changing magnetic field.
Ic = 2πrH c
323. A collapsing magnetic field around a coil –3
(a) tends to oppose the decay of current in the = 2 × 3.14 × 10 × 7.9 × 103
coil 2
(b) helps decay of current in the coil = 24.806 ≃ 25Amp

327. The unit of ∇ × H is 330. A length of a wire carries a steady current. It is
bent first to form a circular plane coil of one
(a) Ampere (b) Ampere/meter
turn. The same length is now bent more
(c) Ampere/meter2 (d) Ampere-meter3
sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius.
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I The magnetic field at the centre caused by the
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I same current is :
GATE-2003 (a) One fourth of first value
Ans. (c) : from Maxwell's equation (b) Unaltered
∂D (c) Four times as before
∇×H = J +
∂t (d) Half of first value
∂D
J has unit of amp/m2 and is differential value Ans. (c) : Case I - radius R, N = 1 (turn)
∂t
which is not considered. R
Case II - R ' = , N ' = 2N = 2
( )
So, unit of ∇ × H is A/m2
Then,
2
328. Two identical coaxial coils carry the same µi 2µ 0i

B1 = 0 , B2 =
current I but in opposite directions. The 2R R
2×
magnitude of the magnetic field B at a point on 2
the axis midway between the coils is
B2 = 4B1
(a) Zero
(b) The same as that produced by one coil Short trick → B2= n2 B1
B2 = ( 2 ) B1 = 4B1
2
(c) Twice that produced by one coil
(d) Half that produced by one coil
331. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct
current. The magnetic field due to current will
Ans. (a) : According to Biot-Savert law- be :
µ0 dℓ × rˆ (a) Only inside the pipe
B= I⋅ 2
4π r (b) Only outside the pipe
when coil carry same amount of current but direction is (c) Both inside and outside the pipe
opposite then (d) Neither inside nor outside the pipe
B1 = –B2 and B = B1 + B2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
B=0
Ans. (b) : From ampere's circuital law ∫ B.dl = µ ο I
329. The magnetic field at the centre of the circular
coil of radius a is expressed as Inside loop I=0 , B = 0
Outside loop I ≠ 0 → B ≠ 0
µI
(a) B = µ 0 I / 2πa (b) B = o For a loop inside the hollow portion of the conductor,
2a
the current enclosed is zero. Hence the current will
µI
(c) B = o 2 (d) None of these flow only outside the conductor.
2πa
332. A copper rod of length L is rotated about one
end perpendicular to the uniform magnetic
Ans. (b) : Magnetic field at the centre of a circular wire
field B with constant angular velocity ω. The
is given by induced emf between the two end is
(a) 2BωL2 (b) BωL2
1 1
(c) BLω2 (d) BωL2
2 4
Ans. (c) : When rod is rotated about one end
µ0 I then,
B=
2 a dA
induced emf dE = B. = B.v.dx
I = Current, a = Radius. dt

v = ωx, dE = Bωx. dx 336. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
L L (a) Zero
E = ∫ Bωxdx = Bω∫ x.dx
0 0
(b) Uniform
1 (c) Increases with distance from axis
E = BωL2
2 (d) Decreases with distances from axis
333. Penetration depth of magnetic field inside a RRB SSE 01.09.2015 Shit-I
superconductor is Ans. (b) : The magnetic field inside the solenoid is
(a) Always zero uniform and parallel to the axis of the solenoid.
(b) London depth of penetration 337. If E =4V/m, of a wave in free space, H will be:
(c) Skin depth of penetration (a) 30π A m (b) 60π A m
(d) Inside full bulk of material
1 1
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 (c) A m (d) A m
Ans. (b) : Penetration depth of magnetic field inside a ( 60π ) ( 30π )
superconductor is known as London depth of UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
penetration. Ans. (d) : The intrinsic impedance of wave is defined
334. A ring of radius R carries a linear charge as the ratio of E and H. For free suppose η = 120π
density λ. It is rotating with angular speed ω. E
The magnetic field at its center is = η = 120π
H
3µ0λω µ λω
(a) (b) 0 E
2 2 H= ∵ ( E =4 V/m )
120π
µ λω
(c) 0 (d) µ0λω 4
π H=
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 120 π
Ans. (b) : Given, 1
H= A/m
Linear charge density = λ 30π
so total charge on ring is given as 338. Solving Poisson's equation amounts to finding
2πR × λ the electric potential for a given:
current in the ring when it rotating with angular speed (a) semiconductor type (b) charge distribution
ω is given as (c) doping level (d) conductor type
I = λ×R×ω UPMRC AM - 2020
therefore, magnetic field at center is given by Ans. (b) : Poisson's equation is one of the important
µ 0 I µ0 × λ × R × ω µ 0 λω parts of Electrostatics, where we would solve the
B= = =
2R 2R 2 equation to find electric potential from a given change
335. Match the following : distribution.
1. Magnetic a. Tesla Poisson's equation can be given as
flux density −ρ
∇2V =
2. Self b. Weber ε
inductance Where ∇ = Divergence operation
3. Magnetic c. Henry ε = Permittivity of medium
Flux
ρ = Volume charge density
(a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a (b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
(c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c (d) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b 339. What is the relationship between magnetic field
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I strength and current density?
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Green) (a) ∇.H = J (b) ∇.J = H
Ans. (d) : (c) ∇ × H = J (d) ∇ × J = H
Quantity Unit NLC GET -24.11.2020
Magnetic flux density — Tesla
Self inductance — Henry Ans. (c) : According to Maxwell's 4th Law
Magnetic Flux — Weber ∇×H = J (Ampere's Law)

340. The fundamental postulate of magnetostatic 343. If the electric field of plane wave is represented
∇B = 0 in free space is based on E = 10yɵ cos(109 t + 30z) volt/m, assuming ε is the
(a) Biot Savart Law dielectric constant, the corresponding magnetic
(b) Ampere's Law field H is
(c) Faraday's Law
(a) − yɵ ε109 / 3cos(109 t + 30z)Amp / m
(d) Law of conservation of magnetic flux
BSNL (JTO)-2001 (b) − xɵ ε109 / 3cos(109 t + 30z)Amp / m
Ans. (d) : The fundamental postulate of magnetostatic
(c) − zɵ ε109 / 3cos(109 t + 30z)Amp / m
∇B = 0 in free space is based on law of conservation of
(d) + x ε109 / 3cos (109 t + 30z ) Amp / m
∧
magnetic flux.
341. Which one of the following laws states that the
BSNL (JTO)-2006
line integral of the tangential component of H
around a closed path is the same as the net Ans. (d) : We know that,
current Ienc enclosed by the path? P = E×H
(a) Biot-Savart’s law If electric field E is +y-direction and wave is
(b) Lenz’s law
propagating in –z- direction so magnetic field H must
(c) Gauss’s law
be in + x-direction.
(d) Ampere’s circuit law
µ
ESE-2021 η=
Ans.(d) : Ampere’s circuit law states that the line ε
integral of the tangential component of H around a Given,
closed path is the same as the net current (Ienc) enclosed E = 10yˆ cos (109 t + 30z ) volt / m
by the path.
cos (109 t + 30z ) ( −aˆ z × aˆ y ) Amp / m
10
H=
∫ H ⋅ dℓ = I enc η
342. At a particular temperature and current ∴ H = 10 xˆ cos (109 t + 30z ) Amp / m

density, the critical magnetic field for a Type I η
superconductor is Bc and that for a type II β 30
η= = 9
superconductor ranges from B c1 to B c2 ωε 10 ε
keeping other parameters unloaded. Both 109
∴H = εxˆ cos (109 t + 30z ) Amp / m
superconductors are now subjected to a 3
magnetic field B that satisfies the conditions
344. The property of the material which oppose the
B>Bc and B c1 <B < B c2 Which of the following
creation of magnetic flux in it is called
statements is then true? (a) reluctance (b) conductance
(a) Both type I and Type II superconductors will (c) resistivity (d) permeance
switch to their normal conducting states KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
(b) Both Type I and Type II superconductors Ans. (a) : Reluctance is analogous to resistance.
will maintain their superconducting states Reluctance opposes the passage of magnetic flux lines.
(c) Type I superconductor will remain in
We know ,
superconducting state, while type II super
F = S.φ
conductor will maintain a vortex state
(d) Type I superconductor will switch to the S = F
[ whereS = Reluctance]
normal conducting state, while Type II φ
superconductor will maintain a vortex state F = Magnetomative force (mmf)
BSNL (JTO)-2006 φ = Magnetic flux (webers)
Ans. (d) : Type I superconductor will switch to the
ℓ ℓ
normal conducting state, while Type II superconductor S= =
µ 0µ r A µA
will maintain a vortex state

345. In free space electric field is 103 sin ( ωt – βz), 348. Gilbert is a unit of
magnetic field will be (a) electromotive force
(a) Zero (b) magneto motive force
−103 sin(ωt − β z) (c) conductance
(b)
120π (d) permittivity
(c) 120π sin ( ωt − β z ) Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Gilbert is a unit of magneto motive force.
103 sin ( ωt − βz )
(d) 10
120π 1 Gb = A-Turn
4π
TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
349. Unit of relative permeability is
|E| (a) Henry/meter (b) Henry
Ans. (b) : The ratio for the wave is equal to the
|H|
(c) Henry-meter (d) It is dimensionless
E
intrinsic impedance of the medium = 120π ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
H
Ans. (d) : Relative permeability is dimensionless.
Then, Relative permeability of a material is equal to the ratio
103 of the flux density produced in that material to the flux
H=
120π density produced in vacuum by the same magnetizing
∴ Magnetic field B ( material )
force µ r = .
−10 3 B0 ( Vacuum )
= sin (ωt – βz)
120π 350. What is the value of µ0.
∵ magnetic field along (–ax) direction.
10 –9
346. If the distance between two magnetic poles (a) 36π × 10 –9 H / m (b) H/m
36π
decreases by 2 times, the force between them
(c) 4π × 107 H / m (d) 4π × 10 –7 H / m
(a) Decreases two times
AAI-2015
(b) Increases two times
(c) Decreases four times Ans. (d) : The value of µo or the value of absolute
(d) Increases four times permeability of free space is -
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I µ o = 4π ×10 −7 H m
Ans. (d) : The force between two magnetic poles- 351. Which one of following is not a force?
mm (a) Electric Force (b) Gravity
F = 1 22 N . It is distance between two magnetic
4πµ 0 r (c) Friction (d) Electromotive force
poles decrease by 2 times, the force between them RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-III
increases four times. Ans. (d) : Electromotive force is not actually a force. It
347. Which of the following is not a unit of flux? is commonly measured in units of volts, equivalent to
(a) Maxwell one joule per coulomb of electric charge.
(b) Tesla 352. Gauss theorem is expressed mathematically as :
(c) Weber q
(a) ∫ D.dS = (b) ∫ D.dS = q
(d) All of the above ε0
m.m.f
(c) ∫ E.dS = ε q
0 (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b) : Flux = Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
reluctance
Ans. (b) : The integral form of the gauss theorem is
φ = B × A Wb
→ q
1 Maxwell = 10–8 Wb ∫ E.ds = ε 0
φ Wb
Flux density (B) = = or Tesla. →
A m2 ∫ D.ds = q

∇×E = 0
(iii) Time Varying and (c)
∇×B = 0
Electromagnetic Field
∇×E = 0
1. Which one of the following is NOT correct (d)
∇.B = 0
(symbols have their usual meaning)?
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022, Paper-1
∂B
(a) ∇ × E = − UPPCL AE 30.03.2022
∂t
∂E GATE-2008
(b) ∇ × H = J +
∂t Ans. (d) : In Maxwell's equation, electric field intensity
(c) ∇.D = ρv (E) and magnetic flux density are analogous to each
(d) ∇.B = 0 other. Similarly electric flux density (D) an magnetic
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
field intensity are analogous to each other. Thus four
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.22.03.2022, Paper-II
fundamental Maxwell's equation in differential form
can be written as
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 ∇. D = ρv
DRDO-2008 ∇× E = 0
Ans. (b) : ∇. B = 0
∂B
(i) ∇ × E = − - Faraday's Law ∇× H = J
∂t
4. In a charge –free space, the Poisson's equation
∂D
(ii) ∇ × H = J + - Ampere's Circuital Law results in which of the following?
∂t (a) Continuity equation (b) Maxwell's equation
(iii) ∇.D = ρv - Gauss's Law (c) Laplace equation (d) None of the above
(iv) ∇.B = 0 - Non isolated magnetic charge UPPSC Poly. Tech Lect. 22.03.2022, Paper-II
2. The 3rd Maxwell’s equation is given by Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
∂B ∂B TNPSC AE-2018
(a) ∇ × E = − (b) ∇ × E = Ans. (c) : In a charge –free space, the Poisson's
∂t ∂t
∂E ∂E equation results in Laplace equation. ∇ 2 V = 0 
(c) ∇ × B = − (d) ∇ × B =
∂t ∂t 5. In the table shown, List-I and List-II,
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
respectively contain terms appearing on the
DMRC AM S&T-2020
left-hand side and the right-hand side of
Ans. (a) : Maxwell’s equation- Maxwell's equations (in their standard form).
• ∇. D = ρv …(First Maxwell's equation) Match the left-hand side with the
• ∇.B = 0 …(Second Maxwell's equation) corresponding right-hand side-
−∂B List-I List-II
•∇×E= …(Third Maxwell's equation)
∂t 1. ∇. D P. 0
∂D
• ∇×H = J + …(Fourth Maxwell's equation) 2. ∇ ×E Q. ρ
∂t
∂B
3. For static electric and magnetic fields in an in 3. ∇. B R. −
∂t
homogeneous source-free medium, which of the
following represents the correct form of two of ∂D
4. ∇× H S. J+
Maxwell's equations? ∂t
∇.E = 0 (a) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P (b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
(a) (c) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S (d) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P, 4-S
∇×B = 0
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
∇.E = 0 GATE-2019
(b)
∇.B = 0 Mizoram PSC IOLM 2010, Paper-I
8. The maxwell's equation which interprets that
Ans. (d) : (i) As ∫ D ds = Q isolated magnetic poles do not exist is
∇. D = ρ P
∂B (a) ∇.E =
∈0
(ii) ∫ E dℓ = − ∫ ∂t .ds (Time varying field)
(b) ∇.B = 0
∂B
∇× E = −
∂t ∂B
(c) ∇ × E = −
∂t
(iii) ∫ B.ds = 0
∇. B = 0 ∂E
(d) ∇ × B = µ0 l + µ ∈0 −
( magnetic field does not exist monopole) ∂t
TSTRANSCO AE-2018
(iv) ∫ H.dℓ = J C + JD
∂D IES-2014
= Jc + ∫ .ds
∂t BSNL JTO-2013
∂D Ans. (b) : Maxwell's second law provide the
∇ × H = Jc + information about that the magnetic monopole does not
∂t
6. When a material is placed within a magnetic exist. Hence ∇.B = 0
field, the magnetic forces of the material’s
electrons will be affected. This effect is known 9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
as the ________of magnetic induction answer using the code given below the Lists :
(a) Stokes theorem List- I List-II
(b) Newton’s law A. ∇ × H = J 1. Continuity equation
(c) Ferro electro-magnetic theorem ∂B
(d) Faraday’s law
DMRC AM S&T-2020
B. ∫ E.dl = − ∫
C s
∂t
.ds 2. Faraday's Law
Ans. (d) : Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction ∂ρ

C. ∇.J = − 3. Ampere's Law
is the basic law of electro magnetism predicting how a ∂t
magnetic field will interact with an electric circuit to 4. Gauss's Law
produce an electromotive force (emf), a phenomenon
known as electromagnetic induction. According to 5. Biot-Savart's Law
faraday's law a current will be induced in a conductor Codes:
which is exposed to a changing magnetic field. A B C
7. Which theorem does the below formula belong (a) 3 2 1
to ∫ C
(
F.dr = ∫∫ ∇ × F .dS
s
) (b) 2
(c) 4
1
3
3
1
Where, (d) 1 2 3
C = A closed curve, BEL-2015
S = Any surface bounded by C. GATE-1994
F = A vector field whose components have
Ans. (a) : We have -
continuous derivatives in an open region of R3
containing S. ∇× H = J (Ampere's law and Lenz’s law)
(a) Greenwich theorem (b) Stoke’s theorem ∂B
(c) Green’s theorem (d) Faraday’s theorem ∫ E.d l = − ∫ ∂t .ds (Faraday's law)
DMRC AM S&T-2020
∂ρ
DRDO-2008 ∇. J = − (Continuity equation)
Ans. (b) : Stoke's theorem is relationship between line ∂t
integral and surface integral. 10. The magnetic flux φ ( in Weber) linked with a
Stoke's theorem states that the surface integral of the coil at an instant of time t (in second) is given
curl of a function over the surface bounded by a closed by φ(t) = 2t 2 − 20t + 40 The induced e.m.f. in
loop will be equal to the line integral of the particular
the coil at the instant t = 2 second is
vector function.
Stoke's theorem (a) 22 V (b) 20 V
∫ F.dr = ∫∫ (∇ × F ).ds
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V
c s BSNL (JTO)-2006

Ans. (c) : Given, 13. Consider the following equations with time
φ ( t ) = 2t 2 − 20t + 40 factor e jωt
t = 2 second 1. ∫ D ⋅ dS = ∫ ρ dv
s vs
induced e.m.f
− dφ
2. ∫ E ⋅ dℓ = –jωB
s s
E ind =
dt 3. ∫ B ⋅ ds = 0
s
−d ( 2t − 20t + 40 )
2
4. ∫ H ⋅ ds = ∫ ( J + jωD ) ⋅ dℓ
s s s
=
dt Which of the above Time-Harmonic Maxwell’s
= −4t + 20 equations are correct?
At, t = 2sec (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
E ind = −4 × 2 + 20 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
ESE-2021
= 12V
Ans.(b) : Time harmonic Maxwell's equations for time
11. In the infinite plane y = 6m, there exists a
factor ejωt can be given as -
uniform surface charge density of
(1/6000π) µC/m2. The associated electric field 1. ∫ Ds ⋅ dS = ∫ ρ vs dv
strength is
2. ∫ Bs ⋅ ds = 0
ˆ /m
(a) 30iV ˆ /m
(b) 3jV
ˆ /m 3. ∫ E s .dl = –jω∫ Bs .ds
(c) 30kV (d) 60ˆjV / m
GATE-1995 4. ∫ H s .dl = ∫ ( J s + jωDs ) .ds
Ans. (b) : For an infinite plane- 14. A metal sphere with 1 m radius and a surface
ρ charge density of 10 Coulomb/m2 is enclosed in
E = s aˆ N a cube of 10 m side. The total outward electric
2ε
displacement flux normal to the surface of the
1 cube is
ρs = ×10 −6 aˆ y C / m 2 ∵ aˆ N = aˆ y 
6000π (a) 40 π Coulombs (b) 10 π Coulombs
1×10−6 aˆ y (c) 5 π Coulombs (d) None of the above
∴ E=
6000π× 2 × 8.854 ×10−12 GATE-1996
= 2.99 â y Ans. (a) : Net outward flux is given by Gauss's Law.
= 3 ĵ V/m ∫∫ D.ds = Q enclosed
12. What is the magnitude of emf induced in a 200 Q enclosed = ρs A

turn coil with cross-sectional area of 0.16m2, if = ρs ( 4πr 2 )
the magnetic field through the coil changes
from 0.10 Wb/m2 to 0.50 Wb/m2 at a uniform = 10 ( 4π× 1 ) ( Given r = 1)
2
rate over a period of 0.02 seconds? = 40π C

(a) – 520 V (b) – 640 V
15. An electric field on a plane is described by its
(c) – 725 V (d) – 815 V
potential V = 20 (r–1 + r–2) where r is the
ESE-2021
distance from the source. The field is due to
Ans.(b) : As per question - (a) a monopole
N = 200Turns, A = 0.16m2, B1 =0.10 Wb/m2 , (b) a dipole
B2 = 0.50 Wb/m2, t = 0.02 sec. (c) both a monopole and a dipole
Then, (d) a quadrupole
∆B = B2 – B1 = 0.50 – 0.10 = 0.40Wb/m2, GATE-1999
flux φ = ∆B × A = 0.40 × 0.16 = 0.064 Wb Ans. (c) : Electric potential due to a point charge at a
dφ distance r is –
Then induced emf(e) = − N
dt 1 Q
V1 =
0.064 4 πε 0 r
= −200 ×
0.02 k
or V1 = 1 –––(1)
= –640V r
Q 19. With symbols having their usual meanings,
where k1 = which one of the following relationships is NOT
4πε0
correct?
similarly electric field strength due to dipole– → ∂ →
1 Q.d cos θ (a) ∫ E.dl = − ∫ H.ds
V2 = ∂ t
4πε0 r2 C s
→ ∂D →
k2
or V2 = ––––(2)
(b) ∫ H.dl = I + ∫ ∂t .ds
r2 C s
→
Adding equation (1) and (2)
k1 k2
(c) ∫ B.ds = 0
C
V = V1 + V2 = +
r r2 →
↓ ↓
(d) ∫ D.ds = 0
C
monopole dipole DRDO-2009

Hence given value of V represents both monopole and Ans. (a) : We know that,
dipole respectively. −∂B
∇×E =
16. If the electric field vector is ∂t
E = -2ax + 3ay + 5az and the magnetic field ∂
or ∫ ∇ × E ds = ∫ B.ds
vector is H = ax + 3ay - 4az , then E × H is equal s
∂t s
to −∂
or ∫ E.dl =
∂t ∫s
B.ds
(a) -27a x - 3a y - 9a z (b) -2a x + 9a y - 20a z c
(c) 5a x + 3a y − 10a z (d) a x + a y + a z 20. If C is a closed curve enclosing a surface S,

BSNL (JTO)-2001 then the magnetic field intensity H , the
ax ay az current density J and the electric flux density
Ans. (a) : E × H = −2 3 5 D are related by
−4  ∂D 
1 3
= a x (−12 − 15) − a y (8 − 5) + a z (−6 − 3)
(a) ∫∫ H.ds = ∫  J + ∂t .dl
S C
= −27a x − 3a y − 9a z  ∂D 
17. The relation between electric polarization and
(b)
C
∫ H.dℓ = ∫∫  J + ∂t .ds
S
susceptibility indicates that the electric  ∂D 

polarization is
(a) Independent of susceptibility.
(c)
S
∫∫
H.ds =  J +
C
∫∂t 
 .dl
(b) Inversely proportional to susceptibility.  ∂D 

(c) Proportional to square root of susceptibility. (d) ∫
H.dl =  J +
S 
∫∫ ∂t 
.ds
(d) Proportional to susceptibility. C
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I GATE-2007

Ans. (d) : The relation between electric polarization and Ans. (d) : From Maxwell equation
susceptibility indicates that the electric polarization is ∂D
∇×H = J +
Proportional to susceptibility. ∂t
18. The governing equation for steady current  ∂D 
density J in the absence of non-conservative or ∫c H.dℓ = ∫∫s  J + ∂t  ds
energy sources is
(a) ∇.J = 0 (b) ∇.J = −∂ρ / ∂t 21. The relationship between the electric field E
and the current density J in a conducting
(c) ∇ × H = J + ∂D / ∂t (d) J = 0 medium (where σ is the conductivity) is:
BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001
(a) J = σ2 E (b) J = E/σ
Ans. (a) : From the continuity equation - (c) J = σ/E (d) J = σE
−∂ρv UPMRC AM - 2020
∇. J =
∂t Ans. (d) : The relationship between the electric field E
If source is not present and the current density J in a conducting medium is
Then, ∇. J = 0 J = σE

22. If a vector field V is related to another vector 24. An infinitely long uniform solid wire of
radius a carries uniform dc current of
field A through V = ∇ × A , which of the
following is true? Note: C and SC refer to any density j .
closed contour and any surface whose The magnetic field at a distance r from the
boundary is C. center of the wire is proportional to
(a) ∫ C
V.dl = ∫∫ A.dS
S
(b) ∫ C
A.dl = ∫∫ V.dS
S
(c) ∫ ∇ × V.dl = ∫ ∫ ∇ × A.dS

C
(a) r for r < a and 1/r2 for r > a
S
(b) 0 for r < a and 1/r for r > a
(d) ∫ ∇ × A.dl = ∫∫ V.dS
C
sc
(c)
(d)
r for r < a and 1/r for r > a
0 for r < a and 1/r2 for r > a
GATE-2009 RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
Ans. (b) : As given V = ∇ × A GATE-2012
Then, Ans. (c) : Magnetic flux density at a distance r from the
µI
∫ A.dl = ∫ ∫ V.dS (Stoke's theorem)
C
SC
wire is – 0
2πr
23. A magnetic field in air is measured to be µ 0 2i
B=
 x y  4π r
B = B0  2 yˆ − 2 xˆ 
 x + y 2
x + y 2
 for I = J (πr2)
What current distribution leads to this field? µ 2J(πr 2 )
B= 0
[Hint- the algebra is trivial in cylindrical 4π r
coordinates]
µ Jr
B zˆ  1  B= 0
(a) J = − 0  2  ,r ≠ 0 2
µ0  x + y2 
Case (i) for r < a B = r
B0 zˆ  2 
(b) J = −   ,r ≠ 0
µ0  x 2 + y2  Case (ii) for r > a , I = J πr2
(c) J = 0,r ≠ 0 µ 0 Jπr 2
∴ B=
B0 zˆ  1  2πr
(d) J =  , r ≠ 0 1
µ0  x 2 + y 2  ⇒ B ∝ (r > a)
r
GATE-2009
 x  25. If E = − ( 2y3 − 3yz 2 ) xˆ − ( 6xy 2 − 3xz 2 ) yˆ + ( 6xyz ) zˆ
y
Ans. (c) : Given , B = B0  2 yˆ − 2 xˆ 
x +y x + y2
2
 is the electric field in a source free region, a
valid expression for the electrostatic potential is
aˆ x aˆ y aˆ z
(a) xy3–yz2 (b) 2xy3–xyz2
∂ ∂ ∂
Now ∇× B = 3
(c) y +xyz 2
(d) 2xy3–3xyz2
∂x ∂y ∂z
GATE-2014
y x
− 2 0 Ans. (d) : Given
x + y2 x 2 + y2
E = – (2y3–3yz2) x̂ –(6xy2 –3xz2) ŷ +(6xyz) ẑ
 y2 − x 2 + x 2 − y2 
= (0-0) â x – (0–0) â y +   â z ∂V ∂V ∂V
 (x 2 + y 2 ) 2  ∵ E = –∇V = − xˆ − yˆ − zˆ ––––(1)
∂x ∂y ∂z
=0
therefore -
Also ∇× H = J (Ampere's Law) ∂V
= 2y3 − 3yz 2 , V = 2xy3 − 3xyz 2 + c1 –––(2)
J = 0 , r ≠ 0 , where r = xaˆ x + yaˆ y + zaˆ z ∂x

∂V Ans. (*) : Net current is given by
= 6xy 2 − 3xz 2 , V = 2xy3 − 3xyz 2 + c 2 –––(3)
∂y I= ∫ Jds
∂V
= −6xyz, V = −3xyz 2 + c3 –––––(4) π / 4 2π
400sin θ 2
∂z = ∫ ∫π φ= 0 π(r + 4)
2 2
r sin θ dθ .dφ
For uniqueness solution of potential, it is clear from θ=
12
equation (2), (3) and (4) we have - 2π π/ 4
400r 2  1 − cos 2θ 
2π(r 2 + 4) φ=∫0 ∫
c1 = c2 = 0 & c3=2xy3 = dφ   dθ
Hence V = 2xy3–3xyz2 is the valid expression for θ=
π  2 
12
electrostic potential.
 π π  
26. Consider a straight, infinitely long, current   −  π
4 12   sin 2θ  
2

400r 4
−  
carrying conductor lying on the z-axis. Which =
one of the following plots (in linear scale) 2π(r + 4) 
2
2  4 π 
 12

qualitatively represents the dependence of Hφ  
on r, where Hφ is the magnitude of the   1 
1−
azimuthal component of magnetic field outside 400r 2  π  2  
the conductor and r is the radial distance from = 2  − 
r + 4 12 4 
the conductor?  
  r = 0.8
2
400(0.8)
(a) (b) = × 0.13
(0.8) 2 + 4
400 × 0.64
= × 0.13
4.64
= 7.172 Amp.
(c) (d)
Area of portion of spherical surface
2π π4
Jds = ∫ ∫ π
r 2 sin θ ⋅ dθ dφ
GATE-2015 φ= 0 θ=
12
Ans. (c): We know that-
Where r = 0.8m
∫ Hdℓ = I = ( 0.64 ) [ φ]0
2π
[ -cosθ]π 12
π4
or H(2πr) = I
= 0.64 × 2π × 0.26
I
or H = â φ ∵ aˆ z × aˆ ρ = aˆ φ  S = 1.04 m2
2πr
∴ Average current density ( J avg ) =
7.172
1
Hence H ∝ 1.04
r
27. The current density in a medium is given by = 6.89 A m 2
400sinθ 28. A uniform and constant magnetic field
J= aˆ r , Am -2
2π ( r 2 + 4 ) B = ẑB exists in the z direction in vacuum. A
particle of mass m with a small charge q is
The total current and the average current
introduced into this region with an initial
density flowing through the portion of a
ˆ x + zv
velocity v = xv ˆ Z . Given that B, m, q, vx
spherical surface
π π and vz are all non-zero. which one of the
r = 0.8m, ≤ θ ≤ ,0 ≤ φ ≤ 2π are given, following describes the eventual trajectory of
12 4
the particle?
respectively, by
(a) Helical motion in the ẑ direction
(a) 15.09 A, 12.86 Am–2
(b) Circular motion in the xy plane.
(b) 18.73 A, 13.65 Am–2
(c) Linear motion in the ẑ direction
(c) 12.86 A, 9.23 Am–2
(d) 10.28 A, 7.56 Am–2 (d) Linear motion in the xɵ direction
GATE-2016 GATE-2016
Ans. (a) : Given, B = zˆ B =Baz , v z = xv
ˆ x + zv
ˆ z= Ans. (d) : From poisson’s equation
vxax+vzaz ∂ 2 V −ρv
∇2 V = = =K
From Lorentz’s law ∂x 2 ε
F = Q ( v × b) Constant charge density
= Q ( v x a x + v z a z ) × Ba z ∂V
= − Kx + K '
∂x
Fy = Qv x .B ( −a y )
−Kx 2
This results in a circular path in the xy plane with vzaz V= + K 'x + K ''
2
component causing a linear path so, both result in a
helical motion along z axis. Due to symmetry of + and– charges K '' = 0 with V = 0
29. Consider the charge profile shown in the at centre and graph passing through origin.
figure. The resultant potential distribution is When x>a or x<b, E = 0 due to capacitive nature of +
best described by and – charges
Now V = − ∫ 0.dℓ = constant
30. The inconsistency of continuity equation for
time varying field was corrected by Maxwell
and the correction was applied to
∂D
(a) Ampere’s law by adding term
∂t
(b) Gauss’s Law by adding term J
∂B
(c) Faraday’s law by addition of term
∂t
∂P
(a) (d) Ampere’s law by adding term
∂t
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (a) : The inconsistency of continuity equation for
time varying field was corrected by Maxwell and the
correction was applied to Ampere’s law by adding term
∂D
.
∂t
(b)
∂D
Ampere’s circuit Law, ∇×H = J +
dt
 ∂D 
∫ H.d ℓ = ∫  J +
s  d s → Integral form
∂t 
31. At the interface of perfect conductor and
(c) perfect dielectric, there can exist
(a) Surface current (b) Surface charge
(c) Surface voltage (d) None of these
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : At the interface of perfect conductor and
perfect dielectric, there can exist Surface current.
32. Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(d) (a) A static charge
(b) A moving charge
(c) An accelerating charge
(d) Chargeless particle
GATE-2016 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : An accelerating charge produces a changing 36. Which of the following is not Maxwell’s
electric field which in turn produce a magnetic field. equation for static electromagnetic field in
These alternatively change to magnetic and electric isotropic and homogenous medium?
field which gives rise to electromagnetic wave.
33. An electromagnetic wave going through (a) ∇ 2 A = µJ (b) ∇B = 0
vaccum is described by E=E0 sin (Kx–ωt) and (c) ∇ × D = 0 (d) ∇ × H = J
B=B0 sin (Kx –ωt). Then UPRVUNL AE-2016
(a) E0k =B0ω (b) E0B0=ωk
(c) E0ω=B0k (d) None of these Ans. (a) : ∇ A = µJ
2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I ∇ 2 A = −µ J is vector Poisson’s equation while rest of
0
Ans. (a) : Given,
the expression are part of Maxwell’s equation.
E = E0. sin ( Kx − ωt ) and B = B0. sin (Kx – ωt).
37. Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetic are not
We know that-
applicable to
 2πC 
ω = 2πf = λ 
(a) Isotropic media
E0
=C ∵  (b) Non homogenous media
B0  K = 2π , C = ω  (c) Medium moving with respect to system of
 λ K  co-ordinates
So,
(d) Non linear media
E ω
C= 0 = , E 0 K = B0 ω TANGEDCO AE- 2018
B0 K
Ans. (c) : Maxwell’s equation is applicable to isotropic
34. The total energy stored in electromagnetic media, non-homogenous media and non-linear media.
fields is
So, it is not applicable to medium moving with respect
∈
(a) 0 ∫ E 2 dv to system of coordinates.
2
38. "Time-varying magnetic field will always
1
2µ 0 ∫
2
(b) B dv produce an electric field".
The given statement is true for:
1
(c) ∫ ∈0 E + (1/ µ 0 ) B  dv
2 2 (a) Maxwell's third equation
2 (b) Maxwell's first equation
∈0 µ 0
2 ∫
2 2
(d) E B dv (c) Maxwell's second equation
(d) Maxwell's fourth equation
Ans. (c) : The total energy stored in electromagnetic
Ans. (a) : From third equation of Maxwell a time
field is equal to the sum of energy stored in electric and
magnetic field. varying magnetic field always produces a electric field.
1 1 ∂B
Total energy E = ∫ [∈0 E 2 + .B2 ]dv ∇×E = −
2 µ0 ∂t
35. Which of the following field equation indicate The negative sign indicate that the induced emf always
that the free magnetic charge do not exist? opposes the time-varying magnetic flux.
1 39. Maxwell's third equation is derived
(a) H = ∇ × A (b) ∇ × H = 0
µ from_______.
Idl × R (a) Gauss's law of magnetostatics
(c) H = ∫ 4πR 2
(d) ∇ × H = J
(b) Gauss's law of electrostatic
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II (c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
Ans. (b) : From the Maxwell equation- (d) Ampere's circuital law
∇.B = 0 DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
∇.µ H = 0 Ans. (c) : Maxwell 3rd equation is derived from

Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. It states
µ∇.H = 0
that “whenever there are ‘n’ turns of conducting coil in
∇.H = 0 a closed path placed in a time varying magnetic field, an
So, the equation ∇ × H = 0 does not exist the free alternating electromagnetic force gets induced in each
magnetic charges. coil.

40. According to Ampere's circuital Law the line 45. The curl of magnetic field vector is given by :
integral of H about any closed path is exactly ∂p
______ to the direct current enclosed by that (a) ∇ × H = 0 (b) ∇ × H =
path. ∂t
(a) Double (b) Equal ∂D ∂H
(c) ∇ × H = j + (d) ∇ × H = j +
(c) 4 Times (d) Half ∂t ∂t
DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II Ans. (c) : From the Amperes law we know :
Ans. (b) : According to Ampere's circuital Law the line ∂D
integral of H about any closed path is exactly equal to ∇ × H = jc + ∂t , where jc = Conductions current density,
the direct current enclosed by that path.
∂D
41. Poisson's equation is given by = Displacement current density.
∂t
1 ∂ E
2
(a) ∇ 2 V = ρ v / ε (b) ∇ 2 E = 2 2 46. Static electric fields are irrotational, which can
C ∂t be expressed as
(c) ∇ 2 V = −ρv / ε (d) ∇ 2 V = 0 (a) ∇ × D = −B (b) ∇ × E = 0
(c) ∇ × D = ρ (d) E × H = 0
Ans. (c) :
The Poisson's equation is given by ∇ 2 V = −ρv / ε Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Where, ρv = volume charged density Ans. (b) : static electric field are irrotational if
∈ = permittivity of the medium ∇×E = 0
42. Electromagnetic damping is because of:
47. The equation of continuity is
1. Friction produced owing to motion of coil
in the air surrounding it (a) ∇ × J = ρɺ (b) ∇ J = −ρɺ
2. The induced effects when the coil moves in
(c) ∇ × J = −ρɺ (d) ∇ J = −ρɺ
the magnetic field and closed path is
provided for current to flow Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
3. Dissipation of energy of rotation Ans. (*) : Continuity equation
−∂ρv
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ∇⋅J =
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 ∂t
Ans. (b) : Electromagnetic damping occurs because of 48. Which is valid Maxwell equation for magnetic
the induced effects when the coil moves in the magnetic flux density.
field and closed path is provided for current to flow.
(a) ∇.B = 0 (b) ∇×B = 0
43. Which one of the following is not true?
(c) ∇.D = ρv (d) ∇×B = Js
(a) Gradient D = ρv
NPCIL-2015
(b) D = εE
(c) E = gradient (E) Ans. (a) : Maxwell equation for magnetic flux density
(d) E = – gradient (V) ∇⋅B = 0
49. The sinusoidally time varying vector field
Ans. (c) : Relation between electric field intensity and
gradient can be given as- F = 2cos(ωt + 30º ) ax + 2cos(ωt − 30º ) ay is
E = −gradient V (a) elliptically polarized
So, option (c) is incorrect. Other options (a & b) are (b) circularly polarized
also correct. (c) linearly polarized
44. Who developed the concept of time varying (d) unpolarized.
electric field producing a magnetic field? TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
(a) Gauss (b) Faraday IES - 1998
(c) Hertz (d) Maxwell
Ans. (a) :
IES-2009
Ans. (b) : Faraday developed the concept of time F = 2cos(ωt + 30º ) a x + 2cos(ωt − 30º )a y
varying electric field producing a magnetic field. at ωt = π / 2
∂B
∇× E = − F = 2 cos(120º )a x + 2 cos(60º )a y
dt
−∂ F = −a x + a y
∫
and E.dℓ =
∫∫
∂t
B.ds
So, it is elliptically polarized.

50. In a charge-free space, the Poisson’s equation 53. A varying magnetic flux linking a coil is given
result in which one of the following? 1
(a) Continuity equation (b) Maxwell’s equation by φ = λt 3 . If at time t = 3s, the emf induced
3
(c) Laplace equation (d) None of the above
is 9 V, then the value of λ is :
TNPSC AE - 2018
(a) zero (b) 1 Wb/s2
IES-2008 2
(c) – 1 Wb/s (d) 9 Wb/s2
Ans. (c) : Poisson's equation in time- varying space
IES-2011
−ρ v
∇2 V = 1
∈0 Ans. (c) : Given :- φ = λt 3
3
and Poisson's equation in a charge free space t = 3sec
∇2 V = 0 e = 9V
This is also called laplace equation. from Faraday law,
51. In an n-turn coil, the flux through each turn is −dφ
(t4–4t) mWb. The magnitude of the induced Induced e.m.f. (e) =
e.m.f. in the coil at t = 5s is 7.1V the number of dt
turns in the coil is: −d  1 3 
=  λt 
(a) 10 (b) 100 dt  3 
(c) 121 (d) 1000 1
IES-2018 = − λ × 3t 2
3
Ans. (b) : φ = ( t3 – 4t ) mWb Induced e.m.f. at (t=3s)-
e = 7.1 V 9 = λ×(3)2
t = 5s λ = –1 Wb/s2
N=?
54. Force developed by an electromagnet is given
dφ
∵ Induced emf (e) = – N as F = µaBbAc
dt
where µ = permeability of air in the gap
d 3
e=–N× (t − 4t) × 10−3 B = flux density in the air gap
dt A = cross sectional area of the gap
⇒ e = – N × (3t 2 − 4) × 10 −3 Then the values of a, b and c are respectively.
⇒ (
2
)
7.1 = – N ×  3{5} − 4 × 10−3 

(a) 1, 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and –1
(b) – 1, 1 and – 2
(d) – 1, 2 and 1
7.1 IES-2003
⇒ N=
71×10−3 Ans. (d) : Force developed by an electromagnet
N = 100 turns B2 A
52. The total flux at the end of a long bar magnet is ( F) = = µ −1B2 A1
2µ
500µWb. The end of the bar magnet is
withdrawn through a 1000-turn coil in 1/10 by comparing F = µaBbAc
second. The e.m.f. generated across the then a = –1
terminals of the coil is: b=2
(a) 5V (b) 10V c=1
(c) 25V (d) 50V 55. An electromagnetic field is radiated from
IES-2017 (a) A stationary point charge
Ans. (a) : Given : (b) A capacitor with a dc voltage
dφ = 500µ Wb = 500 × 10–6 Wb (c) A conductor carrying a dc current
N = 1000 turn (d) An oscillating dipole
1 Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
dt = sec
10 Ans. (d) : The most important source of
∴ EMF induced across the terminals of the coil electromagnetic radiation is the oscillating electric
dφ dipole.
e=N 56. The value of flux linkage is 6t3 at time t = 2
dt
seconds. What is the emf of a material?
500 × 10−6
e = 1000× (a) 70 units (b) 50 units
1/10 (c) 36 units (d) 72 units
e = 5 volt UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
dφ
Ans. (d) : EMF = Ans. (b) : ∫ B.da = 0
dt
the net magnetic flux emerging through any closed
d(6t 3 ) surface is zero.
= |t = 2
dt
∫ D.da = ∫ ρdv
= 18 ( t 2 ) | t = 2 = 72units. c v
=Q
57. Match List-I (Maxwell equation) with List-II
(Description) and select the correct answer: The total electric displacement through the surface
enclosing a volume (ρv) is equal to the point charge
List - I List - II
with in the volume.
A.
∫ B.da = 0 1 The
around
mmf
a ∫ E.dl = − ∫ B.da Faraday's law
closed path is i.e. the e.m.f around a closed path is equal to the time
equal to the
derivative of the magnetic displacement through any
conduction
surface bounded by the path.
current plus the
time derivative ∫ H.d l = ∫ ( D + J ) da Ampere's law
of the electric s
displacement M.M.F. around a closed path is equal to the conduction

current through current and displacement current through any surface
any surface bounded by the path.
bounded by the
58. Which of the following Maxwell's equations
path.
represents Ampere's law with correction made
B.
∫ D.da = V∫ ρdV 2 The
around
emf
a
by Maxwell?
ρ
closed path is (a) ∇.E =
equal to the ε0
time derivative (b) ∇.B = 0
of the magnetic
∂B
displacement (c) ∇ × E =
through any ∂t
surface ∂E
bounded by the (d) ∇ × B = µ 0 J + µ 0ε0
∂t
path. IES - 2016, 2010, 2006, 2001, 1996, 1993, 1992
C.
∫ E.ds = − ∫ Bda 3 The
electric
total
Ans. (d) : ∇.E =
ρ
(Gauss's law)
displacement ε0
through the ∇. B = 0 (monopole not exist)
surface
∂B
enclosing a ∇×E = (Faraday's law)
volume is ∂t
equal to total ∂E
∇ × B = µ0 J c + µ0ε0 (Ampere's Law)
charge within ∂t
the volume.
59. In the region Z < 0, εr1 = 2,
D.
∫ H.d ℓ = ∫ (D + J)ds 4 The
magnetic flux
net
E1 = -3ax + 4ay - 2az V/m . For region Z > 0,
emerging where εr2 = 6.5, E 2 is :
through any
6.5
closed surface (a) −3a x + 4a y + az V / m
is zero 4
4
Codes : (b) −3a x + 4a y + az V / m
A B C D 6.5
(a) 1 3 2 4 6.5
(c) −3a x + 4a y − az V / m
(b) 4 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 4
(d) −3a x + 4a y − az V / m
(d) 1 2 3 4 6.5
IES - 2001 IES - 2016
Ans. (d) : Since two region of the plane is being This will give
separated by the plane z = 0 (x-y plane) stationary charges → electrostatic field
z=0 stationary current → magneto static field.
z<0 Z>0 For time varying current there is a correction in 3rd and
ε r1 = 2 ε r = 6.5 4th law of Maxwell's equation, which give-
2
E1
→ E 2t = ?
E1n = −3a x + 4a y − 2a z E 2n = ?
ɵ ɵ ɵ
So, tangential and normal component of the electric
field to the plane z = 0 are given as ––
E = −3aɵ x + 4aɵ y
1t
Above two relation follows that –
(1) Time varying electric field will produce a space
E1n = −2aɵ z
varying orthogonal magnetic field.
From the boundary condition, the tangential component (2) Electric field varying with time in free space gives
of electric field will be uniform, i.e. rise to a current i.e. conducting current and
E2t = E1t = −3aɵ x + 4aɵ y displacement current.
and the normal component of electric field is non 61. Consider the following statements regarding
uniform and is given as – Maxwell's equation in differential form:
D n1 − D n 2 = 0 1. For free space ∇ × H = (σ + jωε) E
or D n1 = D n 2 2. For free space ∇.D = ρ
3. For steady current, ∇ × H = J
ε r1E1n = ε r 2 E 2n
4. For static electric field, ∇.D = ρ
ε r1 Which of the above statements are correct?
or E 2n = E1n
εr 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 1
=
2
6.5
( )
−2aɵ z IES - 2014
Ans. (c) : The Maxwell corrected equation for time
−4 ɵ
∴ E 2n = az varying field in differential form is given by –
6.5
∇× H = JC + JD
Thus E 2 = E 2t + E 2n
4 ɵ Where J C = σE = Conduction current density
E 2 = −3aɵ x + 4aɵ y − a z V/m ∂D
6.5 and JD = = Displacement current density
60. Maxwell's major contribution to EM theory ∂t
was to assert ∂
∴ ∇× H = σE + D
(a) that an electric field varying with time in free ∂t
space gives rise to a current ∂
(b) that a magnetic field varying with time gives = σE + ( εE )
∂t
rise to an electric field
(c) that a magnetic field varying with space gives = σE + jωεE
rise to an electric field = ( σ + jωε ) E
(d) that energy density due to an electric field is
1 2 But for free space σ = 0, then –
εΕ ∇× H = jωεE
2
IES - 2014 Hence statement (1) is incorrect
Ans. (a) : Maxwell laws for static field in closed Maxwell equation for static electric field–
surface may be defined as – ∇ × D = ρv
∫ D.ds = ∫ ρdv  
But for free space ρv = 0 ⇒ ∇× D = 0
 ∇.D = ρ Hence statement (2) is also incorrect
∫ B.ds = 0 
v

∇.B = 0  In statement (3) Applying Maxwell's static magnetic
 Integral form  differentialform
∫ E.dl = 0  ∇× E = 0 
field
 ∇× H = J 
C ∫ H.dl = I ⇒ ∇ × H = JC
∫ H.dl = ∫ J .ds
C
C L
S  Hence statement (3) is correct
Now for statement (4) applying Maxwell's equation for 64. Lorentz’s force law for a point charge q is
static electric field given by:
∫ D.ds = 0 ⇒ ∇.D = ρ v (a) F = q ( E + v.B ) (b) F = q ( E + v × B )
(c) F = q ( B + v × E ) (d) F = q ( B + v.E )
S
Hence, statement (4) is correct.

62. A long straight non-magnetic conductor of IES-1993
radius 8 mm is carrying a uniform current
density of 100 kA/m2 in the az direction. For
( )
Ans. (b) : Magnetic force Fm = q ( v × B )
this case, which one of the following is not
correct?
and electric force Fe( ) = qE
(a) ∇ × H = 105 az A/m2 for 0 < ρ < 8 mm Lorentz's force law for a point charge
(b) ∇ × B = 0 (F) = Fe + Fm
(c) The magnetic field intensity for ρ > 8mm is = q ( E + v × B)
105/2ρaφ A/m
(d) The total current carried by the conductor is 65. Which one of the following statements is
6.4 πA correct?
IES - 2010 ∂ρ
(a) ∇.J + v = 0
Ans. (c) : Given, ∂t
Jc = 100kA / m 2 ∂ 2ρ x
(b) ∇ × J + =0
= 105 kA/m2 ∂t 2
Then J = 105 aɵ z ∂ 2ρ
(c) ∇ × J + =0
∂t 2
∴ ∇× H = J = 105 aɵ z
c
∂ 2ρ
B is irrotational i.e. ∇× B = 0 also correct. (d) ∇.J + 2v = 0
∂t
(3) Since magnetic lines of non-solenoidal (due to their
dipole structure). The magnetic field intensity can be IES - 1995
only calculated for a < ρ < b and not for ρ > b Ans. (a) : From option (a)
Hence option (c) is incorrect. ∂ρ
∇. J + v = 0
(4) we have ∂t
I = J.A Which shows continuity equation and states that -
= 105 ×π(8×10–3)2 Current leaving through a material is equal to the rate of
change of charge.
= 6.4 πAmp.
∂
Hence option (4) is correct. As ∫ J.ds = − Q
∂t
63. For an electric field E = E0 sin ωt, what is the
phase difference between the conduction dQ
⇒I= −
current and the displacement current? dt
(a) 0º (b) 45º 66. The type of time variation (∂/∂t) implied with
(c) 90º (d) 180º reference to the field quantities in Maxwell's
IES - 2004 equations is
Ans. (c) : From Maxwell equation of Ampere's circuital (a) sinusoidal
equation in differential form –– (b) non-sinusoidal
(c) both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal
∂D
∇ × H = Jc + (d) exponential
∂t IES - 1993
∂D Ans. (c) : Maxwell equations are defined to time
=J+
∂t varying EM fields whereas it is sinusoidal or non-
In Phasor form, it can be written as - sinusoidal waves.
∇ × H = Jc + jωD ––––(1) 67. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction is
mathematically described by which one of the
If Jc = J c ∠0° (reference phasor)
following equations?
Then JD = J D ∠ + 90° (a) ∇.B = 0
Phase difference between Jc and JD = 90° . (b) ∇.D = 0
∂B 71. Gauss law relates the electric field intensity
(c) ∇ × E = −
∂t E with the volume charge density ρ at a point
∂D as
(d) ∇ × H = σE +
∂t (a) ∇ × E = ε0 ρ (b) ∇.E = ε0 ρ
GATE-2016 ρ ρ
(c) ∇ × E = (d) ∇.E =
Ans. (c) : Faraday's law in maxwell form can be ε0 ε0
expressed as -
∂
∫L Ed ℓ = −
∂t ∫
B.dS Ans. (d) : We know that-
∇.D = ρ
∂B
⇒ ∇×E = −
∂t ∇.ε0 E = ρ D = ε0 E ( )
68. A plane electromagnetic wave in a free space is
ρ
represented by an equation. ∇.E =
ε
∂2B
(a) ∆ 2 E − µ ∈0 =0 72. The force between two parallel current
∂t 2
carrying conductors placed at a x distance
∂2B
(b) ∆ 2 E − µ 0 ∈0 =0 apart and carrying same current I is :
∂t 2
2π×10−7 I2 N
∂ E
2 (a)
(c) ∆ 2 E − µ 0 ∈0 =0 x m
∂t 2
2 × 10−7 I2 N
∂ E
2
∂ E 2 (b)
(d) ∆ 2 E − µσ +µ∈ 2 = 0 πx m
∂t ∂t
2 × 10−7 I2 N
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I (c)
x m
Ans. (c) : A plane electromagnetic wave in free space is
represented by– 4π×10−7 I2 N
(d)
x m
∂ 2E
∇ 2 E − µ0 ∈0 . . =0 KVS TGT (WE)- 2017
∂t 2
Ans. (c) : The force between two parallel current
69. The Electrical susceptibility and relative
permittivity are related as : carrying conductors placed at a x distance apart and
carrying same current I is–
(a) χ= ε r -1 (b) χ= ε r + 1
(c) χ =εr ε0 (d) χ =1 +ε0εr
Ans. (a) : The electric susceptibility and relative
permittivity are related as χ =εr − 1
70. The relation between three vectors
E, D & P and is
F µ 0 I1I 2
(a) D =ε0 E + P =
ℓ 2πr
(b) D =ε0 ( E + P ) Given,
(c) D=ε0 P + E I1 = I2 = I
E r=x
(d) D = +P
ε0 Then
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I F 4π×10−7 × I 2
Ans. (a) : The relation between electric field intensity, =
ℓ 2πx
electric flux density and electric polarization.
2 × 10−7 × I2
D = ε0 E + P = N/m
x
3. The electric field component of a time
(iv) EM Wave & Transmission Line harmonic plane EM wave traveling in a
1. In a twin-wire transmission line in air, the nonmagnetic lossless dielectric medium has an
adjacent voltage maxima are at 12.5 cm and amplitude of 1 V/m. If the relative permittivity
27.5 cm. The operating frequency is of the medium is 4, the magnitude of the time
(a) 300 MHz (b) 1 GHz average power density vector (in W/m2) is
(c) 2 GHz (d) 6.28 GHz 1 1
(a) (b)
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 30π 60π
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I 1 1
(c) (d)
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 120π 240π
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I BPSC Asst. Prof. -12.04.2022
GATE-1999 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
IES - 2001 GATE-2010
Ans. (b) : Wavelength of the wave is 1 E 02
Ans. (c) : Pavg =
λ/2 = (λmax(1) – λmax(2)) 2 η0
= (27.5 – 12.5)cm
1 E02
λ = 0.15 m × 2 = 0.3 =
2 µr
c 3 ×108 η0 ×
∴f = = εr
λ 0.3
λ = 1 GHz 1 1
= ×
2 1
2. The characteristic impedance η0 of a free space (120π ) ×
4
is :
1
µ µ0 = W/m2
(a) 0 (b) 120π
ε0 ε0
4. The wavelength of the wave having
(c) µ 0 ε0 (d) µ 0ε 0 propagation constant (0.314 + j 0.628) per
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 metre is equal to :
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II (a) 5 metres (b) 20 metres
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (c) 30 metres (d) 10 metres
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
IES - 2016, 2008 Ans. (d) : We know that,
GATE-1995 Propagation constant ( γ ) = α + jβ
Ans. (b) : Intrinsic impedance of Electromagnetic Comparing with given γ = 0.314 + j0.628
wave
β = 0.628
jωµ
η0 = 2π
σ + jωε And β =
λ
for free space σ = 0 2π
µ = µ0µr = µ0 Then, 0.628=
λ
ε = ε0µr = ε0 2π
λ=
∴ Characteristic impedance 0.628
jωµ 0 λ = 10m
η0 =
jωε 0 5. The return loss of a device of found to be 20
dB. The voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)
µ0
= and magnitude of reflection coefficient are
ε0
respectively
(a) 1.22 and 0.1 (b) 0.81 and 0.1 7. Conditions for a transmission line to be of low
(c) -1.22 and 0.1 (d) 2.44 and 0.2 loss are
BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022 (a) R >> ωL,G >>ωC (b) R << ωL,G >> ωC
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II (c) R << ωL,G << ωC (d) R >> ωL,G << ωC
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 ESE-2022
GATE-2013 TNPSC AE - 2019
Ans. (a) : Return losses = –20log10 Γ IES - 2014, 2001
20 = –20log10 Γ
Ans. (c) : For a low loss transmission line , the real part
–1 = log10 Γ of impedance and admittance i.e. Resistance and
conductance (G) must be very small compared to the
Γ = 0.1 complex part of impedance and admittance respectively.
1 + ΓP 1 + 0.1 Hence R << ωL & G << ωC
V.S.W.R = =
1 − ΓP 1 − 0.1 R→ represent line losses.
VSWR = 1.22 G→ Losses due to leakage current

8. Impedance inversion may be obtained with-
6. The numerical value of the ratio of electric field
intensity E and magnetic field intensity H is (a) a short-circuited stub
(b) an open-circuited stub
(a) 350 Ω (b) 377 Ω
(c) a quarter-wave line
(c) 37.7 Ω (d) 35 Ω
(d) a half-wave line
ESE-2022
UPSC JWM-2016
Ans. (c) : Impedance inversion may be obtained with a
TANGEDCO- 2015
quarter wave line because it provides perfect impedance
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 matching.
IES - 2014
9. The phase shift constant for a distortion-less
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III transmission line is equal to:
G
Ans. (b) : In TEM waves, we have –– (a) ω (b) ω LC
R
E⊥H⊥p
C R
i.e. electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to (c) ω (d) ω
L G
each other and they both are perpendicular to the
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
direction of propagation. The ratio of electric field and
ω 1
magnetic field is called intrinsic impedance and may be Ans. (b) : VP = =
defined as – β LC
E jωµ β = ω LC
η= =
H σ + jωε 10 The characteristics impedance of a two-wire
For free space, σ = 0 lossy transmission line is equal to:
µ = µ0µr, where µr = 1 L R + jωC
(a) (b)
and ε = ε0εr, where εr = 1 for free space C L
µ0 R + j ωL R + jωL
∴ η = η0 = (c) (d)
ε0 G + j ωC G
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
4π × 10 −7
=
8.854 × 10 −12 R + j ωL
Ans. (c) : Z0 =
= 120 π or 377 Ω G + jωC

11. The attenuation constant and the phase shift  ZL + jZ0 tan β ℓ 
constant for a distortion-less transmission line Ans. (b) : Zin ( ℓ ) = Z0  
are equal to ______ and _______, respectively.  Z0 + jZL tan β ℓ 
2π
(a) ωL
G
, RG (b) RG , ωL
G β=
R R λ
for ℓ = λ 2
G G
(c) ωL ,0 (d) 0, ωL
R R   2π 
 ZL + jZ0 tan  λ ⋅ λ 2
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 Zin ( λ 2 ) = Z0   
Ans. (b) : Distortion less transmission line-  Z + jZ tan  2π ⋅ λ 
2
 0 
 λ  
L
R G
=
L C  Z +0
Zin ( λ 2 ) = Z0  L 
propagation constant  Z0 + 0 
γ = (R + jωL)(G + jωC) Zin ( λ 2 ) = ZL
γ = α + jβ
So,
Attenuation constant α = RG
and phase shift constant,
β = ω LC
L × LG 100 × 50 100
= ω R eq = = = 33.33 Ω
R 100 + 50 3
G Zin ( λ / 2 ) = Z0 = R eq = 33.33 Ω
= ωL.
R 14. Two coaxial cables 1 and 2 are filled with
12. The characteristics impedance of quarter wave different dielectric constants ∈r1 and ∈r2,
transformer with load and input impedances respectively. The ratio of the wavelengths in the
given by 30 and 75 respectively is-
λ 
(a) 47.43 (b) 37.34 two cables,  1  , is equal to :
(c) 73.23 (d) 67.45  λ2 
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II ε r1 εr 2
(a) (b)
Ans. (a) : Given that, εr 2 ε r1
Zin = 75Ω, ZL= 30 Ω
εr 2 ε r1
∴ Characteristic impedance (c) (d)
ε r1 εr 2
Z0 = Zin × ZL
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Z0 = 75 × 30 Ans. (c) : Ratio of the wavelength in the two cables-
Z0 = 47.43Ω λ1 V1
=
13. The input impedance (in Ω) for the λ 2 V2
transmission line cable shown in the given
circuit is equal to : λ1 1/ µ1ε1
=
λ 2 1/ µ 2 ε 2
λ1 µ 0 ε 0 ε r2
=
λ2 µ 0 ε 0 ε r1
(a) 66.66 (b) 33.33 λ1 ε r2
(c) 100 (d) 50 =
λ2 ε r1
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
15. For a two-wire transmission line, the load 2π
impedance is 100 Ohm and the characteristics Ans. (a) : Phase difference β ℓ = .path difference
λ
impedance is 50 Ohm. The reflection coefficient
π 2π
at the load is equal to :
1
=
4 λ
(1×10−3 )
(a) 3 (b)
2 λ = 8×10–3
1 f = 5GHz (given)
(c) 2 (d)
3 The phase velocity of the wave,
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 VP = fλ
Ans. (d) : Given that, = 5×109×8×10–3
ZL = 100Ω = 40 ×106 m/sec
Z0 = 50Ω 19. What is the input impedance (in Ω) for the
Reflection coefficient at the load following transmission line with parallel load ?
Z − Z0 100 − 50
ΓL = L =
ZL + Z0 100 + 50
ΓL = 1/ 3
16. S parameters of a transmission line are S11, S12,
S21 and S22. If the transmission line is
symmetrical, what is the condition ?
(a) S21 = –S12 (b) S21 = S12
(c) S11 = S12 (d) S11 = S22
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 (a) 50 (b) 200
DRDO-2009 (c) 25 (d) 100
Ans. (d) : S parameter of a transmission line are S11, UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
S12, S21, S22 Z02 (100 )
2
Symmetrical condition, Ans. (c) : Z1 = = = 200Ω

ZL1 50
S11 = S22
17. The attenuation constant and the phase shift Z = Z0 = (100 ) = 200Ω
2 2
2
constant for a lossless transmission line are Z L2 50
equal to ______ and _______, respectively.
ZL = Z1 || Z2 = 100Ω
G G
(a) RG, ω (b) 0, ω Z2 ( 50 )
2
R R Zi = 0 = = 25Ω
ZL 100
(c) 0, ω LC (d) ω LC,0
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 20. A lossy transmission line has resistance per
Ans. (c) : For a loss less line attenuation constant α = 0 unit length-R = 0.01Ω/m. The line is distortion
∵γ = α + β less and has characteristic impedance of 100 Ω.
The attenuation constant (in NP/m, correct to
γ = 0 + jβ
three decimal places) of the line is
| γ |= β (a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001
β = ω LC (c) 0.01 (d) 0.1
18. A transmission line has the characteristics BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022
impedance and the load impedance of 100 Ans. (a) : For distortion less transmission line
Ohm. The line is excited by a source of
L C L R
sinusoidal voltage of 5 GHz. The phase = ⇒ =
difference between two points spaced 1-mm R G C G
long is equal to π/4 radians. The phase velocity L R
of the wave along the line is equal to : Z0 = =
C G
(a) 40 × 106 m/sec. (b) 40 × 109 m/sec.
R
(c) 3 × 10 m/sec.
8
(d) 4 × 106 m/sec. G= 2 ....(i)
Z0
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
We known that for distortion less transmission line,
x=
( 2n + 1) π
∵ α = RG 2π
2×
Put the value from equation (i) λ
For first minima (n = 0)
R
α = R× x = λ/4
Z02
3 × 1010
R x= = 7.5cm
α= 109 × 4
Z0 23. If the maximum magnetic field strength is 8 ×
0.01 109 tesla, calculate intensity of electromagnetic
=
100 wave.
α = 0.0001 Np/m (a) 4 × 10 25 W / m 2 (b) 5 × 10 25 W / m 2
(c) 2.54 × 10 25 W / m 2 (d) 3.54 × 10 25 W / m 2
21. It is required to match a 200Ω load to a 300Ω
transmission line to reduce the SWR along the UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
line to 1. What must be the characteristic Ans. (c) : Given that,
impedance of the quarter-wave transformer B0 = 8 ×109
used for this purpose, if it is connected directly
1 B02 1 ( 8 × 10 )
9 2
to the load? I= =
(a) 225Ω (b) 300Ω 2 µ 0 2 4π × 10−7
(c) 72Ω (d) 245Ω = 2.54 × 10 25 W / m 2
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II 24. Poynting vector P = E × H has the unit
NPCIL-2015 (a) Watts/metre2 (b) Watts/meter
Ans. (d) : Given that, (c) Watts-metre (d) Watts-metre2
ZL= 200Ω, Zin = 300Ω RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021
Z0 = ZL .Zin ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
Ans. (a) : Poynting Vector P = E × H
Z0 = 200 × 300 V A Volt.Amp
Units: × =
Z0 = 60000 m m m2
Z0 = 244.94 Watt
=
Z0 ≃ 245Ω m2
22. A lossless transmission line of characteristic 25. ______of a wave is the velocity with which
impedance Z0 = 50Ω is terminated to ZL = 75Ω. variations in the shape of modulation or
If the operating frequency is 1 GHz, the envelope of the wave propagate through space.
location of the voltage minimum from the load (a) The phase velocity
is- (b) The elliptical velocity
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) The group velocity
(c) 12.5 cm (d) 15 cm (d) The circular velocity
Ans. (c) : The group velocity of a wave is the velocity
Ans. (a) : Given,
with the overall envelope shape of the wave's
Z0 = 50Ω, ZL = 75Ω amplitudes through space.
f = 109 Hz Group velocity
2β x − θv = ( 2n + 1) π dω
Vg =
∵ θ v = 0 because ZL > Z0 dβ
So, reflection constant will be 0-
x=
( 2n + 1) π
2β

26. The skin depth, δ at a frequency of 1.6 MHz in Ans. (a) : β = ω LC = 2 π × f LC
aluminium, where σ = 38.2 MS/m and µ = 1,
(a) 64.4 µm (b) 100.5 µm β = 2π× 400 ×106 0.49 ×10−6 ×100 ×10−12
1 β = 17.58 rad/m
(c) µm (d) None of these
π Phase velocity vp =
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 ω ω 2π × 106 × 400
vp = = =
1 k β 17.58
Ans. (a) : Skin depth δ =
πfµσ vp = 1.43×108m/s
1 29. Find the skin depth for attenuation constant of
δ=
−7
π × 1.6 × 10 × 38.6 × 10 × 4 π × 10
6 6 0.4 units.
(a) 2 (b) 2.5
δ = 64.4 µm
(c) 5 (d) 1.5
27. An airline has a characteristic impedance of 70 UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
Ω and a phase constant of 3 rad/m at 100 MHz.
1
What will be the inductance per meter of the Ans. (b) : Skin depth ( δ ) = ( α = 0.4, given )
line? α
(a) 252.4 nH/m (b) 314.8 nH/m 1
= = 2.5
(c) 334.2 nH/m (d) 348.6 nH/m 0.4
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 30. If a transmission line of a characteristic
Ans. (c) : An airline can be regarded as a lossless line impedance 200 Ω is terminated with a load
because σ ≃ 0 and σc → ∞ . impedance of 400 + j200 Ω, then the
Hence, normalized load impedance is:
R = 0=G and α = 0 (a) 2 + j (b) 1 + j
(c) 4 + 2j (d) –1 + j
L
Z0 = R 0 = …………….(i) UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
C
Z
β = ω LC ……………..(ii) Ans. (a) : Normalized load impedance, ZL = L
ZO
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii) yields
400 + j200
R0 1 =
= 200
β ωC
Or ZL = 2 + j
β 3
C= = = 68.2 pF / m 31. A matching stub should be
ωR 0 2π × 100 × 106 × 70
(a) Nearest to the load
From equation (i), (b) Nearest to the transmission end
L = R 20 C (c) Midway between both
L = ( 70 ) × ( 68.2 ×10−12 )
2
(d) Nearest to the sending end
L = 334.2 nH/m
Ans. (a) : Stub matches are widely used to match any
28. A lossless transmission line is 100 cm long
complex load to a transmission line they consist of short
operate at 400 MHz. The line parameters are
or open segment of line. It is always connected nearest
L = 0.49 µ H/M and C = 100 pf. find the phase
constant and phase velocity. to the load.
(a) β= 17.58 rad/m, VP = 1.43 × 108 m/sec 32. Find the SWR, if the reflection coefficient is
(b) β= 8.79 rad/m, VP = 2.85 × 108 m/sec 0.8.
(c) β= 5.56 rad/m, VP = 4.52 × 108 m/sec (a) 9 (b) 5
(d) β= 170 rad/m, VP = 1.47 × 107 m/sec (c) 4.5 (d) 18
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : Given, Ans.(c):
Reflection coefficient = 0.2
1+ | Γ | 1 + 0.8 1.8
SWR = = = =9
1− | Γ | 1 − 0.8 0.2
33. If a wave is having group velocity of 2 × 108 ,
then what is phase velocity?
(a) 5.5 m/s (b) 9 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s (d) 6 m/s
Ans. (*) : vg. vp = c2
By Snell’s law
vp =
c2
=
( 3 ×10 )
8 2
ε1 sin θi = ε 2 sin θ t
vg 2 ×108
1.sin 450 = ε r 2 sin 300
v p = 4.5 ×108 m / s 2
= εr 2
2
34. Two coaxial cables 1 and 2 are filled with
different dielectric constants εr1 and εr2 εr 2 = 2
respectively. The ratio of the wavelengths in the 36. A transmission line is distortionless if
two cables (a) RL = 1/GC (b) RL = GC
1/2 1/2 (c) LG = RC (d) RG = LC
 εr   εr 
(a)  1  (b)  2  APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
 εr   εr 
 2  1 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-I
εr εr Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade- 2015, Paper-I
(c) 1 (d) 2 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-I
ε r2 ε r1
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I GATE-2001
Ans. (b) : Ratio of their wavelength will be- Ans. (c) : A transmission line is said to be distortionless
v1 and v2 = wave velocity when attenuation constant 'α' is frequency independent
1 and the phase shift constant β is linearly dependent on
the frequency.
λ1 v1 µ1 ∈1
= = For a distortionless transmission line, the primary
λ2 v2 1
constants are related by R/L = G/C.
µ 2 ∈2
LG = RC
µ 2 ∈2 µ 0 ∈0∈r2 ∈r2 37. ZL = 200Ω and it is desired that Zi = 50Ω. The
= =
µ1 ∈1 µ 0 ∈0∈r1 ∈r1 quarter wave transformer should have a
characteristic impedance of
35. A uniform plane wave in air impinge at (a) 100Ω (b) 40Ω
45ο angle on a lossless dielectric material with (c) 10,000Ω (d) 4Ω
dielectric constant εr . The transmitted wave Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
propagates in a 30ο direction with respect to IES - 2018
the normal. The value of εr is TNPSC AE – 2018
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.5 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
(c) 2 (d) 2 IES - 2016
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-II
BPSC Polytechnic Lect.-2014
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016 Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I
GATE-2000 IES – 2003, 2002, 1997
Ans. (a) : Given that, Zi = 50Ω, ZL=200 Ω (b) Double stub
Z 20 (c) Single stub with adjustable position
Zi = (d) Quarter wave transformer
ZL
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
⇒ Z0 = Zi .Z L Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
TNPSC AE-2013
= 50 × 200
IES – 2010, 1996
= 100Ω Ans. (b) : The best system used for transmission line
38. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy load matching is double stub. Stub matching is an
dielectric increases with increasing impedance matching technique when open circuited and
(a) conductivity (b) permeability short circuited transmission line is connected to main
(c) wavelength (d) permittivity transmission line. In double stub matching two stubs are
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II shunted to main transmission line on fixed distance.
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 41. The characteristic impedance of an 80 cm long
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I lossless transmission line having L = 0.25 µH/m
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 and C = 100 pF/m will be
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I (a) 25Ω (b) 40Ω
GATE-1998 (c) 50Ω (d) 80Ω
IES - 2019
Ans. (d) : Depth of penetration or skin depth (δ) may be
defined as - Ans. (c) :Characteristics impedance of transmission line
is given by ––
1 2 ε
δ= = Z R + jωL
α σ µ Zc = =
Y G + jωC
σ µ
Where, α = = attenuation constant in a lossy for loss less and free space R= 0, G= 0
2 ε
L
dielectric. ∴Zs =
Hence, depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy C
dielectric increases with increasing permittivity. 0.25 × 10−6
=
39. The characteristic impedance of free space is: 100 × 10−12
(a) 477 Ω (b) 377 Ω = 2500
(c) 277 Ω (d) 120 Ω = 50 Ω
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 42. For a lossless line terminated in a short circuit,
Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-II the stationary voltage minima and maxima are
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-I separated by
TN PSC AE-2014 λ λ
(a) (b)
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 8 2
Ans. (b) : For free space λ λ
(c) (d)
Characteristic impedance = intrinsic impedance 3 4
= 120 π IES - 2019
ZC = 120πΩ Ans. (d) : The distance between adjacent voltage

maximum / minimum can be calculated as
ZC = 377Ω 2β ℓ = π
40. Given a range of frequencies, which of the  2π 
or 2   ℓ = π
following system is best for transmission line  λ 
load matching ? λ
⇒ ℓ=
(a) Single stub 4

43. If a 75Ω line is terminated by a load of (120 + 1.5 − 1
∴ Γ = reflected power =
j80) Ω, the maximum and minimum 1.5 + 1
impedances over the line are nearly 0.5
(a) 135Ω and 28Ω (b) 190.5Ω and 28Ω =
2.5
(c) 135Ω and 16Ω (d) 190.5Ω and 16Ω =0.2
IES - 2018
∴ Percentage of reflected power = (0.2)2×100
Ans. (b) : Maximum and minimum impedance of a
transmission line can be calculated as - =4%
Z0 45. In a basic transmission line, the voltage at the
Zmax = Z0 ×VSWR and Zmin=
VSWR receiving end without load is 660 V; and it is
Where VSWR = Voltage standing wave ratio 420V with full load. What is the percentage of
1+ Γ voltage regulation?
VSWR =
1− Γ (a) 77% (b) 67%
Also Γ = reflection coefficient (c) 57% (d) 47%
Z − Z0 IES - 2017
= L
Z L + Z0 V − Vfl
Ans. (c) : % voltage Regulation = nl
120 + j80 − 75 Vfl
=
120 + j80 + 75 660 − 420
45 + j80 = × 100
Γ= 420
195 + j80 24
= × 100
(45) + (80)
2 2
42
∴ Γ=
(195) 2 + (80) 2 = 57.14 %
= 0.43 46. A quarter wave transformer of characteristic
1 + 0.43 impedance 60Ω has been used to match a
∴ VSWR =
1 − 0.43 transmission line of characteristic impedance
1.43 Z0 with a load of 72Ω. What is the
= = 2.51
0.57 characteristic impedance of the transformer,
∴ Zmax = Z0×VSWR when the load of 72Ω is replaced by 98Ω ?
= 75×2.51 (a) 98 Ω (b) 80 Ω
= 188.15Ω ≃ 190.5 Ω
(c) 70 Ω (d) 60 Ω
Z0 75
and Zmin = = = 30Ω ≃ 28Ω IES - 2017
VSWR 2.5
Ans. (c) : We have , for quarter wave transformer
44. A measure of the mismatch between the
maximum and minimum voltage and current Z 20
Zin =
variation along the transmission line is called ZL
SWR, i.e. standing wave ratio. SWR indicates
Here Z0 = characteristic impedance = 60Ω
how much power is delivered to the load, and
how much is lost in the line. When SWR is 1, ZL = Load impedance = 72 Ω
the percent reflected power is zero. When SWR 60 × 60
∴ Zin = = 50Ω
is 1.5, the percent reflected power will be 72
(a) 4 (b) 8
If ZL = 98Ω
(c) 25 (d) 40
IES - 2018 ⇒ Z 02 = Zin×ZL = 98×50 ⇒ Z0 = 70Ω
Ans. (a) : Given, SWR = 1.5 47. What is the reflection coefficient for the line
1+ Γ Z0 = 300 ∠0ºΩ and ZL = 150 ∠0ºΩ ?
SWR =
1− Γ (a) 0.5 (b) 0.333
SWR − 1 (c) –0.333 (d) –0.5
⇒Γ=
SWR + 1 IES - 2017
Ans. (c) : We have j50 − 50
=
Reflection coefficient = (Γ) j50 + 50
ZL = Load impedance j −1
=
Zo = characteristic impedance j+1
Z L − Z0 |Γ| = 1
Γ=
Z L + Z0 ∴ standing wave ratio (SWR)
150∠0° − 300∠0° 1+ Γ 1+1
= SWR = =
150∠0° + 300∠0° 1− Γ 1 −1
150 − 300
= =∞
150 + 300
50. Consider the following for statements TEM
−150
= = –0.333 (Transverse electromagnetic) waves :
450
1. Only for TEM wave, could the conductor
48. For a lossless transmission line L = 0.35 µ H/m. separation be small compared with a
C = 90 pF/m and frequency = 500 MHz. Then wavelength
the magnitude of propagation constant is : 2. TEM mode needs to be considered at low
(a) 14.48 (b) 17.63 frequencies
(c) 19.59 (d) 21.20 3. TEM waves are usually not obeying
IES - 2016 Maxwell's equations
Ans. (b) : Propagation constant (ν) 4. TEM waves are usually treated like ordinary
γ= (R + jωL)(G + jωC) transmission line signals
Which of the above statements are correct ?
= α + Jβ
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
for Lossless transmission line R = 0, G= 0
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
∴ γ = j ω LC
IES - 2015
Hence propagation constant has only phase component. Ans. (b) : for transverse electromagnetic wave (TEM)
Which is given by - we have -
γ = ω LC E ⊥ H ⊥ P (direction of propagation)
= (2πf) LC i.e. E and H waves are perpendicular to each other and
they both are perpendicular to the direction of
=500×106×2π 0.35 ×10−6 × 90 ×10−12
−18
propagation of TEM waves. Also Transmission lines
= 3.14 ×10 31.5 ×10
9
operate at higher cut-off frequency i.e. it behaves as low
= 3.14 31.5 pass filter operated at lower frequencies. TEM waves
obeys Maxwell equations.
= 17.63
49. A transmission line having a characteristic 51. A loss-less transmission line of length ℓ is open-
impedance of 50 Ω is terminated at one end by circuited and has characteristic impedance Z0.
j50Ω. The voltage standing wave ratio The input impedance is
produced will be- (a) + j Z0 tan β ℓ (b) – j Z0 tan β ℓ
(a) ∞ (b) +2
(c) – j Z0 cot β ℓ (d) + j Z0 cot βℓ
(c) 1 (d) 0
IES – 2015, 2010 IES - 2014
Ans. (a) : Given that Ans. (c) : The input impedance of a transmission line is
Z0 = 50Ω given as -
ZL = j50Ω  Z + jZ0 tan(β ℓ) 
Zin = Z0  L 
Therefore reflection coefficient –  Z0 + jZ L tan(β ℓ) 
Z L − Z0 2π
Γ= Where β =
Z L + Z0 λ
ℓ = length of the line from load 3 ×108
=1m ∴ 12×10–3=
εr ×10 × 109
Z0 = Characteristic impedance
3 × 108 10
ZL= load impedance ⇒ εr = −3
=
= ∞ (for open circuited load ) 12 × 10 × 10 10
4
⇒ εr = 6.25
 Z0 
1 + j Z tan(βℓ)  54. A transmission line, has a characteristic
∴Zin = Z0  L
 impedance (Z0) of 600Ω. Its length is 500m. If
 Z0 + jtan(βℓ) 
 ZL  the line is cut into half what will be the Z0 for
each half?
 1  Z Z
= Z0   (a) 0 (b) 0
 jtan(βℓ)  4 2
= –jZ0 cot (β ℓ ) (c) Z0 (d) 2 Z0
52. A transmission line has characteristic Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018
IES - 2013
impedance of 500Ω. It has been terminated in a
200Ω load. If the load is dissipating a Ans. (c) : Characteristic impedance is independent of
continuous power of 100W, its reflection the length of the transmission line. Hence next
characteristic impedance is equal to previous value.
coefficient is
6 4 55. A λ/4 line, shorted at one end, presents
(a) (b) impedance at the other end equal to
7 7
3 2 (a) Z0 (b) 2Z0
(c) (d)
7 7 (c) ∞ (d) 0
IES - 2014 TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
Ans. (c) : Given that, Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
ZL = 200 Ω , Zo = 500 Ω IES - 2012, 2002
We have reflection co-efficient - Z02
Ans. (c) :We have , Zin =
Z L − Z0 ZL
Γ =
Z L + Z0 λ
At distance , If line is shorted then
200 − 500 4
= ZL = 0 Ω
200 + 500
Zin = ∞
−3 3
= = 56. A 75Ω transmission line is first short
7 7
terminated and the minima locations are noted.
53. On a micro strip line the wavelength measured When the short is replaced by a resistive load
is 12 mm for a 10 GHz signal. The dielectric RL, the minima locations are not altered and
constant of the equivalent homogenous line is the VSWR is measured to be 3. The value of RL
(a) 3.5 (b) 6.25 is
(c) 5.5 (d) 7.0 (a) 25Ω (b) 50Ω
IES - 2014 (c) 225Ω (d) 250Ω
Ans. (b) : The wavelength of the micro strip line is IES - 2012
c Ans. (a) : Ratio of maximum voltage to minimum
given as - λ=
εr f voltage is called the VSWR.
8 When,
Where c = speed of light = 3×10 m/sec
Zo > ZL
εr = relative permittivity
Z
f = frequency of operation So, VSWR = o
Given ZL
λ = 12 mm = 12×10–3m ZL =
Zo
=
75
= 25Ω
f = 10 GHz = 10×109 Hz VSWR 3

57. An ideal lossless transmission line of Z0 = 60Ω Ans. (d) : The various parameters of smith – chart are
is connected to unknown ZL. If SWR = 4, find as follows-
ZL. (i) One complete revolution (360°) around the smith
(a) 240Ω (b) 480Ω λ
chart represent a distance of
(c) 120Ω (d) 100Ω 2
IES - 2011 (ii) Clockwise movement represent towards the
Ans. (a) : We have generator or away from the load
1+Γ (iii) Anticlockwise movement represents towards the
SWR =
1− Γ load
⇒ 1+Γ = 4 (1–Γ) (v) smith chart can be used for both impedance and
5Γ = 3 admittance chart hence statement (4) is wrong.
3 60. When waves travel along a transmission line
Γ = = 0.6
5 from a generator to load, through which region
Z L − Z0 is power transmission taking place?
Now Γ =
Z L + Z0 (a) Only through the conducting region
Z L − 60 3 (b) Only through the non-conducting regions
⇒ =
Z L + 60 5 (c) Both through conducting and non-conducting
regions
⇒ 5 ( ZL − 60 ) = 3( ZL + 60 )
(d) Through the conducting regions for half a
2ZL = 480 cycle and through the non-conducting regions
∴ ZL = 240Ω for the next half cycle
58. Loading of cable is done to IES - 2010
1. Increase its inductance Ans. (c) : At low frequency when the wave travels
2. Increase its leakage resistance through conducting region then voltage current energy
3. Decrease its capacitance is strong compare to electromagnetic energy which is
4. Achieve distortionless condition present outside the conducting region i.e. in the non
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only conducting region.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only On the other hand at high frequency electromagnetic
IES - 2011 energy in the non-conducting region is stronger as
Ans. (d) : Loading of cable is done to increase its Compared to voltage current energy in conducting
inductance, actually a load coil or loading coil is fitted medium.
in the cable which removes the effect of inductance and
In transmission line , both the region are equally present
capacitance and we get flat undistorted waveform.
hence power transmission through both conducting and
59. Consider the following statements about the
non-conducting region can take place.
Smith chart:
1. A complete revolution (360º) around the 61. At UHF short-circuited lossless transmission
Smith chart represents a distance of half lines can be used to provide appropriate values
wavelength on the line. of impedance. Match List-I with List-II and
2. Clockwise movement on the chart is regarded select the correct answer using the code given
as moving toward the generator. below the lists:
3. Although three scales around the periphery of List - I List - II
Smith chart are used, but only one scale can
be sufficient. A. ℓ < λ/4 1. Capacitive
4. Smith chart cannot be used as admittance
chart. B. λ/4 < ℓ < λ/2 2. Inductive
C. ℓ = λ/4 3. 0
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only D. ℓ = λ/2 4. ∞
IES - 2011
Codes : Ans. (c) : The propagation constant of transmission line
A B C D given as
(a) 2 1 4 3 γ = α + jβ
(b) 3 1 4 2
= ( R + jωL )( G + jωC )
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2 for a lossless transmission line R = 0 & G = 0
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II ∴ γ = α+jβ = jω LC
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 ⇒ α = 0 and β= ω LC i.e.
IES - 2010
(i) Its attenuation (α) is constant and independent of
Ans. (a) : The Input impedance of a transmission line is frequency
given by - (ii) Phase shift (β) dependent on frequency and varies
 
Zin = Z0  Z L + jZ0 tan(β ℓ) 
linearly with frequency
Z
 0 + jZ L tan(β ℓ )  It is also true for distortion less line.
2π 63. The reflection coefficient on a 500 m long
Where β = transmission line has a phase angle of –150º. If
λ
the operating wavelength is 150 m, what will be
λ π
case(i) for ℓ < ⇒ βℓ< the number of voltage maxima on the line?
4 2
(a) 0 (b) 3
∴ tan(β ℓ ) will be +ve, and therefore Zin is inductive
(c) 6 (d) 7
λ λ
case (ii) for <ℓ< IES - 2009
4 2
π
< βℓ < π ℓ = 500 m
2
phase angle (θ) = –150°
Thus tan(β ℓ ) will we -ve and Zin will be capacitive in
−5π
nature = radian
6
λ
case (iii) for ℓ = ⇒β ℓ = π/2 wave length (λ) = 150 m .
4
∴ Position at which maximum voltage occurs
then Zin = ∞
2β ℓ = 2nπ + θ
λ
case (iv) for ℓ =
2  2π  5π
⇒ 2×  × 500 = 2nπ −
βℓ = π  150  6
So, Zin = 0 5
13.33=2n–
6
62. Consider the following statements regarding a
2n=14.16⇒n=7.08≈7
transmission line :
1. Its attenuation is constant and is
For a 10 m long common power line connecting
independent of frequency
a switch to a light bulb
2. Its attenuation varies linearly with
1. It is distributed circuit
frequency
2. Time delay for propagation through it is
3. Its phase shift varies linearly with
negligible
frequency
3. It is in the form of a shielded coaxial cable
4. Its phase shift is constant and is
of circular cross-section
independent of frequency
4. As the intensity of the lamp varies, input
Which of the above statements are correct for impedance of this line also changes
distortionless line? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
IES - 2010 IES - 2009
Ans. (d) : For a 10 m long common power line Ans. (a) : We have
connecting a switch to a light bulb time delay for Z02
propagation through it is negligible and as the intensity Zin =
ZL
of the lamp varies, input impedance of this line also
changes. It is given that ZL = ∞ (o.c.)
65. With regard to a transmission line, which of ∴ Zin = 0
the following statements is correct? Input impedance of the transformer is zero.
(a) Any impedance repeats itself every λ/4 on the 68. What is the minimum value of VSWR that may
Smith chart exist on a transmission line?
(b) The S.W.R. = 2 circle and the magnitude of (a) Less than zero (b) Zero
reflection coefficient = 0.5 circle coincide on (c) One (d) 10
the Smith chart UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
(c) At any point on a transmission line, the IES - 2009
current reflection coefficient is the reciprocal Ans. (c) : As value of reflection coefficient (reflected
of the voltage reflection coefficient. power line ) exists between –1 to +1 therefore
(d) Matching eliminates the reflected wave
1+ Γ
between the source and the matching device VSWR =
1− Γ
location
⇒ 1< VSWR < ∞
IES - 2009
hence minimum value of VSWR =1
Ans. (c) : With regard to a transmission line, at any
point on a transmission line, the current reflection 69. For plane wave propagating in free space or
coefficient is the reciprocal of the voltage reflection two conductor transmission line, what must be
coefficient. the relationship between the phase velocity vp,
the group velocity vg and speed of light c?
66. It is required to match a 200Ω load to a 450Ω
(a) vp > c > vg (b) vp < c < vg
transmission line. To reduce the SWR along the
line to 1, what must be the characteristic (c) vp = c = vg (d) vp < vg < c
impedance of the quarter wave transformer IES - 2009
used for this purpose, if it is connected directly Ans. (a) : Phase velocity is always greater than speed of
to the load? light in free space and group velocity.
(a) 90 kΩ (b) 300 Ω vp > c > vg
9 3 70. Consider the transmission line of length 37.5
(c) Ω (d) Ω
4 2 cm. Which is terminated into zero resistance.
IES - 2009 This line is being excited by a source of 1 GHz
Ans. (b) : Given, Zin = 450Ω, ZL = 200Ω which has an internal impedance of 50 Ω. What
is the input impedance of the line as seen by the
Z2
Zin = 0 source?
ZL
(a) 50 Ω (b) zero Ω
⇒ Z0 = Zin .Z L (c) 100 Ω (d) Infinite Ω
i.e. Z0 = 200 × 450 IES - 2009
= 300Ω Ans. (d) : We have input impedance
67. The load end of a quarter wave transformer Z2
Zin = 0
gets disconnected thereby causing an open ZL
circuited load. What will be the input
It is given that load resistance is zero i.e. ZL = 0
impedance of the transformer?
(a) Zero ∴ Zin = ∞
(b) Infinite 71. Which one of the following statements for a
(c) Finite and Positive short circuited loss free line is not correct?
(d) Finite and Negative (a) The line appears as a pure reactance when
IES - 2009 viewed from the sending end
(b) It can be either inductive or capacitive 1+ Γ
(c) There are no reflections in the line Ans. (d) : We have VSWR =
1− Γ
(d) Standing waves of voltage and current are set
up along length of the lines 1+1
=
IES - 2007 1 −1
Ans. (c) : For a short circuited line the reflection Co- = ∞
Z − Z0 74. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
efficient is Γ = L answer:
ZL + Z0
List - I List - II
Γ = –1 (∵ ZL= 0 )
(Transmission Line) (Characteristic
Hence reflection will occur in transmission line. Impedance
72. Match List-I (Load impedance) with List-II A. 1. ηb
R0 = ,a >> b
(Value of Reflection Coefficient) and select the a
correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List – I List - II Coaxial line
B. 2. η  4b 
A. Short circuit 1. 0 R0 = ln   , b >> a
π  a 
B. Open Circuit 2. –1
C. Line characteristic impedance 3. +1
D. 2× line characteristic 4. +1/3 Two wire line
impedance C. 3. η
R0 = ln ( b / a )
Codes : 2π
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
Parallel plate line
(c) 2 3 1 4
D. 4. η  2b 
(d) 4 1 3 2 R0 = ln   , b >> a
π  a 
TANGEDCO- 2015
IES - 2007
Collinear plate
Ans. (c) : As we know that-
Codes :
Z − Z0
Γ= L A B C D
Z L + Z0
(a) 3 4 1 2
(i) for short circuited line ZL = 0
(b) 2 1 4 3
∴ Γ = –1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(ii) for open circuited line ZL = ∞
(d) 2 4 1 3
∴ Γ=1
IES - 2007
(iii) for matched network ZL = Z0
Ans. (a) : Correct matching of List-I with List-II are
∴ Γ=0
given below-
(iv) when ZL = 2Z0
η
2Z0 − Z0 1 A - 3. R 0 = ln ( b / a )
⇒ Γ= = 2π
2Z0 + Z0 3
η  2b 
B - 4. R 0 = ln   , b >> a
73. When the reflection coefficient equals 1∠0º, π  a 
what is the VSWR? ηb
(a) Zero (b) 1 C - 1. R 0 = ,a >> b
a
(c) 3 (d) Infinite
η  4b 
TANGEDCO- 2015 D - 2. R 0 = ln   , b >> a
π  a 
IES - 2007
75. Why is delay distortion in coaxial cables 78. Match List-I (Quantity) with List-II (Range of
caused? Values) and select the correct answer using the
(a) The dielectric constant (εr) of the dielectric code given below the lists :
filling the coaxial cable varies with frequency List - I List - II
(b) The amplitude of the signal on the cable
A. Input Impedance 1. –1 to +1
varies with frequency
(c) The velocity of electromagnetic waves B. Reflection coefficient 2. 1 to ∞
propagating on the cable varies with C. VSWR 3. 0 to ∞
frequency Codes :
(d) Because of both the factors given at (a) and A B C
(c) above
(a) 2 3 1
IES - 2007
(b) 3 2 1
Ans. (d) : The phase velocity of electromagnetic wave
(c) 3 1 2
varies with frequency
(d) 2 1 3
c εr
∵ V p= AAI-2015
2
f  IES - 2006, 1996
1−  c 
f  GATE-2002
Hence dielectric constant and velocity of co-axial cable Ans. (c) : • Input impedance lies in the range of → 0 to
varies with frequency. ∞
76. If the reflection coefficient is 1/5, what is the • Reflection coefficient lies in the range of → –1 to +1
corresponding VSWR?
• Voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) lies in the range
(a) 3/2 (b) 2/3
of → 1 to ∞.
(c) 5/2 (d) 2/5
IES - 2007 79. Which one of the following expresses the phase
velocity in microstrip lines?
1
Ans. (a) : Given Γ = c c
5 (a) (b)
1+ Γ εe εe
∵ VSWR =
1− Γ (c) c.εe (d) ε e .c
1
1+ c = Velocity of light in free space
∴ VSWR = 5
1 εe = Effective dielectric constant
1−
5 IES - 2006
6 3 Ans. (b) : The phase velocity for any medium whose
= =
4 2 effective dielectric constant is εe is given by -
77. Which one of the following is the characteristic c
impedance of lossless transmission line? VP =
εe
(a) R /G (b) L/G
80. In general attenuation per unit length in a
(c) L/C (d) R / C coaxial cable:
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 (a) increases with frequency
IES – 2016, 2006
(b) decreases with frequency
Ans. (c) : Characteristic impedance expressed as
(c) remains constant with frequency
R + jωL (d) depends upon the type of coaxial cable. It can
Z0 =
G + jωC either increase or decrease
for lossless transmission line R =0, G = 0 IES - 2006
L Ans. (a) : In general attenuation per unit length of
∴ Z0 =
C coaxial cable increases with increase in frequency.

81. In a transmission line the reflection coefficient 84. A quarter wave transformer can be used for
at the load end is given by 0.3e–j30º. What is the matching accurately
reflection coefficient at a distance of 0.1 (a) Inductive load only
wavelength towards source? (b) Capacitive loads only
(a) 0.3e+j30º (b) 0.3e+j102º (c) Loads with any nature of reactance
(c) 0.3e+j258º (d) 0.3e+j66º (d) Purely resistive loads only
IES - 2005 IES - 2005
Ans. (c) : Given - Ans. (d) :Quarter wave transformers are used to match
+ΓL = 0.3 e+j30° pure load impedance (i.e. resistive load ) to a
At any point on the transmission line the reflection transmission line .
coefficient is defined as It can not be used to match complex load impedances to
Γ(z) = ΓLe–2γz a transmission line .
where z = distance of point from load. 85. Consider the following statements regarding
at z = 0.1 λ Smith chart :
Γ(z) = ΓLe–2γ(0.1λ) 1. A normalized Smith chart can be applied
–j30°
= (0.3e )(e –2jβ(0.1λ)
) [Assume α = 0] to a line of any characteristic resistance
–j30°
= 0.3(e )(e –j0.4π
) and serves as well for normalized
–j102° admittance.
= 0.3(e )
j258°
= 0.3(e ) 2. A polar coordinate Smith chart contains
circles of constant |Z| and circles of
82. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire, it is
constant ∠Z.
best to use a
3. In Smith chart, the distance towards the
(a) Balun
load is always measured in clockwise
(b) Slotted line
direction.
(c) Directional coupler
(d) Quarter wave transformer
correct?
IES - 2005
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
Ans. (a) : Balun are used to couple a co-axial line to a (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
two parallel wire lines.
IES - 2004
83. A uniform transmission line of characteristic
Ans. (d) : Smith chart allows easy calculation of the
impedance 100Ω and feeding a purely resistive transformation of a complex load impedance through an
load of 500Ω uses single stub matching. The arbitrary transmission line
stub is placed at a distance d from the load.
• The impedance is represented by a normalized
The VSWR on the length d and on the stub
impedance and admittance.
itself will be
(a) 0 and 0, respectively • Polar co-ordinates of smith chart contains a constant
(b) 1 and 1, respectively Z circle with constant ∠ Z .
(c) 5 and 5, respectively • Counter clock wise movement ⇒ towards the load.
(d) 5 and ∞, respectively • Clockwise movement ⇒ towards generator or away
IES - 2005 from the load.
Z L 500 86. Which one of the following statements is
Ans. (d) : VSWR = = =5
Z 0 100 correct? Short-circuited stubs are preferred to
Also VSWR at a distance d during S.C. = ∞ open-circuited stub because the latter are
(a) more difficult to make and connect
(b) made of transmission line with a different
characteristic impedance
(c) liable to radiate energy
(d) incapable of giving a full range of frequencies
IES - 2004
Ans. (c) : Stub matching is used to match the complex For Lossless shorted transmission line ZL = 0
load to the transmission line. Zin= jZ0 statement (i) is incorrect.
Generally short-circuit stubs are more preferred λ 2π λ π
(2) at ℓ = ⇒ β ℓ = . =
compared to the open-circuit stub, because open-circuit 4 λ 4 2
stubs may radiate energy as their ends are open.
 jZ 
87. In a line, if VSWR of a load is 6dB. The ∴ Zin = Z0  0 
reflection coefficient will be  jZL 
(a) 0.033 (b) 0.33 Z2
Zin = 0 ⇒ Zin = ∞ at ZL = 0 (correct statement)
(c) 0.66 (d) 3.3 ZL
IES - 2003 λ
Ans. (b) : Given, VSWR = 6 dB. (3) Given ZL = ∞ and ℓ =
2
6dB = 20 log10 VSWR 2π λ
∴ βℓ = . = π
VSWR = (10)0.3 ≃ 2 λ 2
As we know that reflection coefficient  Z cos ( π ) + jZ0 sin ( π ) 
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z 0 cos ( π ) + jZ L sin π 
1+ Γ
VSWR =
1− Γ
= ZL(Incorrect)
1+ Γ
∴ 2= (4) Matched line has the load impedance equal to its
1− Γ characteristic impedance i.e.
2(1–Γ) = 1 + Γ
Z L = Z0
2 – 2Γ = 1 + Γ
1 So, for the matched line, input impedance is
Γ=
3  Z + jZ0 tan βℓ 
Zin = Z0  L  = Z0 (correct statement)
Γ = 0.33  Z0 + jZL tan βℓ 
88. Consider the following
89. A lossless transmission line is connected to two
For a lossless transmission line, we can write :
identical voltage sources as shown in the figure.
1. Zin = –jZ0 for a shorted line with l = λ/8
2. Zin = ±j∞ for a shorted line with l = λ/4
3. Zin = –jZ0 for an open line with l = λ/2
4. Zin = Z0 for a matched line of any length
below :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 The impedance measured at the mid point AA'
IES - 2002 of the line is
λ (a) ∞ (b) 100
Ans. (d) : (1) at ℓ = (c) 50 (d) 25
8
2π λ π IES - 2002
βℓ = × =
λ 8 4 ℓ λ
Ans. (d) : ∵ = ℓ=λ
 Z cos β ℓ + jZ0 sin β ℓ  2 2
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z0 cos β ℓ + jZ L sin β ℓ 
  1   1 
 ZL   + jZ0  
∴ Zin = Z0   2  2 
  1   1 
 Z0   + jZL  
  2  2  
 
= Z0  Z L + jZ 0 
 Z0 + jZ L  ∵ Input impedance Zi1 = ZL= 50Ω
And Zi2 = ZL = 50 Ω Codes :
∴ total impedance measured at the mid point AA’. A B C
Z = Zi1 || Zi2 (a) 3 1 1
(b) 2 3 3
50 × 50
= = 25Ω (c) 2 1 2
50 + 50
(d) 1 2 2
90. In a VSWR measurement, a square law
detector is used to detect the signal level. The
IES - 2001
voltmeter reads maximum and minimum as 64
mV and 16 mV respectively. The VSWR of the Ans. (c) :
system will be Characteristics impedance (Z0) of a transmission line
is
(a) 4 (b) 2
R + jω L
(c) 8 (d) 16 Z0 =
G + j ωC
IES – 2011, 2002
For lossless transmission line.
Ans. (a) : Given- Vmax = 64 mV, Vmin = 16mV
R = 0, G = 0
Vmax
VSWR = L Z
Vmin ∴ Z0 = =
C Y
64
= Propagation constant of a transmission line is
16
γ = ( R + jωL )( G + JωC )
=4
91. If R, L, C and G are the resistance, inductance, = ZY
capacitance and conductance of a transmission The sending end input impedance ZS when the line is
line respectively, then the condition for terminated in its characteristics impedance Z0 must be
distortionless transmission line is Z
(a) R/C = G/L (b) RC = LG Y
(c) R2C = G2L (d) RC2 = GL2 93. A transmission line has primary constants R,
IES - 2001, 1993 L, G and C, and secondary constants Z0 and
Ans. (b) : Condition of distortion less transmission line γ = (α + jβ). If the line is lossless, then
is that their series parameter and shunt branch parameter (a) R = 0, G ≠ 0 and α = 0
has same time constant respectively i.e. (b) R = 0, G ≠ 0 and β = |γ|
L C (c) G = 0 and α = β
=
R G (d) R = 0, G = 0, α = 0 and β = |γ|
⇒ LG = RC IES - 2000
92. Match List-I (Parameters) with List-II (Values) Ans. (d) : We have –
for a transmission line with a series impedance Propagation constant ( γ ) = ( R + jωL )( G + jωC )
Z = R + j ωLΩ/m and a shunt admittance Y = G = α + jβ––––(1)
+ j ωC mho/m, and select the correct answer : and characteristic impedance
List - I List - II R + jω L
Z0 = ––––(2)
A. Characteristic impedance Z0 1. ZY G + jωC
B. Propagation constant γ 2. For a transmission line to be loss less

Z/ Y
R=0,G=0
C. The sending-end input 3. Y/Z Also from equation (1) –
impedance ZS when the line
is terminated in its
γ = α + jβ = ( jωL )( jωC )
characteristic impedance Z0 = jω LC
Hence α = 0 & β = ω LC Ans. (c) : The load matching on the line can be
i.e. There is no real parts of propagation constant for a accomplished by connecting a short circuit stub at the
lossless transmission line. In other words there is no specified distance.
attenuation, over all propagation constant is equal to 96. A quarter-wave transformer matching a 75 Ω
imaginary component (β) i.e. phase constant. source with a 300 Ω load should have a
Hence γ = α + jβ = 0 + jω LC characteristic impedance of
(a) 50 Ω (b) 100 Ω
or γ = β
(c) 150 Ω (d) 200 Ω
Attenuation constant for Distortion less transmission is IES - 2000
also real but not equal to zero. this is major difference Ans. (c) : For a quarter - wave transformer matching
of lossless transmission line and distortion less input impedance is given by -
transmission line respectively.
Z2
94. A transmission line having 50Ω impedance is Zin = 0
ZL
terminated in a load of (40 + j30)Ω. The VSWR
Where Z0 = characteristic impedance.
is
ZL = Load impedance
(a) j0.033 (b) 0.8 + j0.6
(c) 1 (d) 2 ∴ Z0 = Z in .Z L
IES - 2000 = 75 × 300 = 150 Ω
Ans. (d) : Given ZL = (40 + j30) Ω 97. A 50Ω characteristic impedance line is
Z0 = 50 Ω connected to load which shows a reflection
we have coefficient of 0.268. If Vin = 15 V, then the net
 Z − Z0  power delivered to the load will be
Reflection coefficient (Γ) =  L  (a) 0.139W (b) 1.39 W
 Z L + Z0 
(c) 0.278 W (d) 2.78 W
40 + j30 − 50 IES - 1999
=
40 + j30 + 50
Ans. (b) : Given - Γ = 0.268
−10 + j30 Vin = 15V, Z0 = 50Ω
=
90 + j30
ZL − Z0
∵ Γ=
1 ZL + Z0
∴ Γ=
3
 1+ Γ 
∴ voltage standing wave ratio (V.S.W.R.) ∴ ZL = Z 0  
1− Γ 
1+ Γ
=  1 + 0.268 
1− Γ = 50   = 86.61Ω
 1 − 0.268 
1
1+ Γ=
Vr
= 3 = 4 = 2
∵
Vin
1 2
1−
3 ∴ Vr = Γ × Vin
95. A(75–j40) Ω load is connected to a coaxial line = 0.268×15= 4.02V
of Z0 = 75 Ω at 6 MHz. The load matching on Hence voltage across load is VL = Vin – Vr
the line can be accomplished by connecting. = 15 – 4.02
(a) a short-circuited stub at the load = 10.98 V
(b) an inductance at the load
∴ Total power delivered to the load P =
( VL )2
(c) a short-circuited stub at a specific distance L
ZL
from the load
(d) a capacitance at a specific distance from the =
(10.98 )2
load 86.612
IES – 2004, 2000 = 1.39W
98. For a transmission line with homogeneous Ans. (b) : For distortion less transmission through a
dielectric, the capacitance per unit length is 'C', channel, the channel should be such that its attenuation
the relative permittivity of the dielectric is '∈r' response is flat and phase response is linear with
and velocity of light in free space is 'v'. The frequency.
characteristic impedance Z0 is equal to 101. When VSWR is 3, the magnitude of the
∈ ∈r reflection coefficient will be
(a) r (b)
vC vC (a) 1/4 (b) 1/3
∈r ∈r (c) 1/2 (d) 1
(c) (d) IES - 1999
vC vC
IES - 1999 Ans. (c) : The reflection coefficient (Γ) = SWR − 1
SWR + 1
v 1
Ans. (c) : As = ……………(1) 3 −1
εr LC =
3 +1
characteristic impedance –
2
=
L 4
Z0 = –––––(2)
C 1
=
from equation (1) and (2) we get – 2
vZ0 1 ε 102. A transmission line of characteristic impedance
= or Z0 = r
εr C vC Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 × 108 m/s,
and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL =
99. A quarter wave transformer is used for
(30 – j40) ohms. The input impedance of the
matching a load of 225 ohms connected to a
line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
transmission line of 256 ohms in order to
(a) (30 + j40) ohms (b) (30 – j40) ohms
reduce the SWR along the line to 1. The
(c) (50 + j40) ohms (d) (50 – j40) ohms
characteristic impedance (in ohms) of the
transformer is BARC Scientific Officer-2016
(a) 225 (b) 240 IES - 1998
(c) 256 (d) 273 Ans. (b) : Given Z0 = 50Ω
IES – 2019, 1999 v P = 2 × 108 m / sec
Ans. (b) : Given ZL = 225 Ω f = 100 MHz = 100 × 106 Hz
Zin = 256Ω ℓ = 1m
In order to reduce the SWR = 1, for quarter wave ω ω
As v p = ⇒β=
( Z0 )
2
β vp
Zin =
ZL
2πf 2π × 100 × 106
= =
Z0 = Z in × Z L vp 2 × 108
= 225 × 256 = 240 Ω. =π

∴β ℓ = π × 1
100. For distortion less transmission through a
channel, the channel should be such that =π
(a) its attenuation response is an even function Thus input impedance
and phase response is an odd function of  Z cos ( β ℓ ) + jZ 0 sin ( β ℓ ) 
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z0 cos ( β ℓ ) + jZ L sin ( β ℓ ) 
frequency
(b) its attenuation response is flat and phase
response is linear with frequency  Z cos π + jZ0 sin π 
= Z0  L 
(c) the ratio of line inductance to line capacitance  Z0 cos π + jZL sin π 
is constant = ZL
(d) its termination is by a matched impedance
i.e. Zin = ZL = ( 30 − j40 ) Ω (given)
IES - 1999
103. A line of characteristic impedance Z0 ohms, Similarly the maximum voltage occur at load ZL > Z0
phase velocity vp = 2 × 108 m/s and length l =
Z' L
2m is terminated by a load impedance ZL then VSWR = ………(2)
Z0
ohms. The reflection coefficients at the input
end and load end are respectively Γi and ΓR. {here ZL =R1 , Z'L = R 2 }
Γi/ΓR for a frequency of 50 MHz will be Where Z0 = characteristic impedance.
(a) 1 (b) –1
= 75Ω(given)
(c) −1 (d) 2 from equation (i) and (ii) we have -
IES - 1998 75 R 2
8 =
Ans. (a) : Given, vP = 2×10 m/sec, f = 50 MHz, ℓ = 2 R1 75
m R1R2 = 75×75 = 225×25
 
Zin = Z0  Z L cos(β ℓ) + jZ0 sin(β ℓ) 
R1 = 225Ω
 Z0 cos(β ℓ) + jZ L sin(β ℓ)  R2 = 25 Ω
It satisfies option (b).
Also phase velocity – 105. One end of a lossless transmission line of length
vp λ/8 and characteristic impedance R0 is short-
vP = f λ ⇒ λ =
f circuited, and the other end is terminated in R0.
2 ×108 The impedance measured at λ/8 away from the
= end terminated in R0 is :
50 ×106
= 4 meter. (a) Zero (b) R0
2π (c) R0/2 (d) Infinite
∴ βℓ = .ℓ
λ IES - 1997
2π λ
= .( 2 ) = π Ans. (b) : For ℓ =
4 8
Put the value of (β ℓ ) in equation (1) we get – 2π λ π
β.ℓ = × =
Z +0 λ 8 4
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z0 + 0  Zin1 = R 0
= ZL λ
For ℓ=
Zin Γi 4
∴ = =1
Z L ΓR 2π λ π
β.ℓ = . =
λ 4 2
104. A 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated
in two resistive loads R1 and R2 such that the Z02
Zin 2 =
standing patterns in the two cases have the ZL
, ZL = 0 for short circuit
same SWR. To obtain the desired result, the
values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) should be Zin2 = ∞
(a) 250 and 200 respectively Since Zin1 || Zin2
(b) 225 and 25 respectively
∴ R 0 || ∞
(c) 100 and 150 respectively
(d) 50 and 125 respectively ∴ Z = R0
IES - 1997 106. A loss-less line having characteristic
Ans. (b) : Voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) is the impedance Z0 is terminated in a pure reactance
ratio of maximum voltage to minimum voltage . of value –jZ0. The VSWR of the line will be
If the minimum voltage occur at load (i.e. ZL< Z0) then (a) 10 (b) 2
Z
VSWR = 0 ……………….(1) (c) 1 (d) Infinite
ZL
IES - 1997
Ans. (d) : The reflection co-efficient – Z L + Z0 Z0 Z L
(a) Γ = (b) Γ =
Z − Z0 − jZ0 − Z0 Z0 − Z L Z0 − Z L
Γ= L =
ZL + Z0 − jZ0 + Z0
Z L − Z0 Z L − Z0
(c) Γ = (d) Γ =
− (1 + j) − (1 + j) Z L + Z0
2
Z0 ZL
= =
(1 − j) 2 IES - 1995
− (1 − 1 + 2j) Ans. (c) : the magnitude of reflection coefficient of
= transmission line is given by
2
Z L − Z0
Γ=–j Γ =
Z L + Z0
∴ Γ =1
110. For a transmission line, propagation constant,
1+ Γ for a TEM wave traveling in it, is given by
∴ VSWR =
1- Γ (where the symbols have the usual meanings).
(a) [(R+ jωL) (G + jωC)]
1+1
= (b) [(R + jωL) (G + jωC)]1/2
1 −1
(c) [(R – jωL) (G + jωC)]1/2
=∞
(d) [(R – jωL) (G + jω2C)]1/3
107. For transmission line, the open circuit and IES - 1995
short-circuit impedances are 20 Ω and 5 Ω Ans. (b) : Propagation constant (γ) of a transmission
respectively. Then the characteristic impedance line is given as
of the line is
γ = α + jβ = ( R + jωL )( G + jωC )
(c) 25 ohms (d) 10 ohms Where
α = real part = Attenuation constant
IES - 1995
β = imaginary part = phase constant
Ans. (d) : Given , ZOC = 20Ω
111. A generator of 50 ohm internal impedance and
ZSC = 5Ω
operating at 1GHz feeds a 75Ω load via a
∴ characteristic impedance coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50
Z0 = Z OC .Z SC ohm. The voltage standing wave ratio on the
feed line is
= 20 × 5 (a) 0.5 (b) 1.5
= 10 Ω (c) 2.5 (d) 1.75
108. The characteristic impedance of a transmission IES - 1994
line with inductance 0.294 µH/m and Ans. (b) : Given -
capacitance 60 pF/m, is Zin = 50Ω
ZL = 75Ω
(a) 49 Ω (b) 60 Ω
Z0 = 50Ω
(c) 70 Ω (d) 140 Ω
∴Mode of Reflection coefficient
IES - 1995
Z − Z0 75 − 50
Ans. (c) : Given L = 0.294 µH/m Γ = L =
Z L + Z0 75 + 50
= 0.294×10–6 H/m
25 1
C = 60 pF/m = =
125 5
= 60×10–12 F/m
1
L 0.294 × 10 −6 1+ Γ 1+ 5
∴ Z0 = = Ω = 70 Ω ∴ VSWR = =
C 60 × 10 −12 1− Γ 1− 1
5
109. The magnitude of the reflection coefficient of a
transmission line in terms of the load and 6
= = 1.5
characteristic impedance is given by 4

112. A loss-less 50 ohm transmission line is Ans. (b) : The maximum power transfer will take at
terminated in (A) 25 ohm and (B) 100 ohm quarter waves i.e.
loads. Which one of the following statements π
would be correct, if the voltage standing wave βℓ =
4
patterns measured in the two cases are It can also be observed by the given data to put in the
compared? following reaction -
(a) The two patterns will be identical in all
 
respects and cannot be distinguished Zin = Z0  Z L + jZ0 tan β ℓ 
(b) The two patterns will have identical locations Z
 0 + jZ L tan β ℓ 
of maxima/minima but the VSWR will be 2π π  λ
Hence β ℓ = ℓ= ∵ ℓ = 
higher in case of A λ 4  8
(c) The two patterns will have identical locations c
of maxima/minima but the VSWR will be Also, c = f λ ⇒ λ =
f
higher in case of B
3 ×108
(d) The two patterns will be identical except for a =
relative spatial shift of quarter wavelength in 30 ×106
the two cases = 10 meter
IES - 1994 10
∴ ℓ= = 1.25 meter
8
Z L − Z0
Ans. (d) : (A) Reflection coefficient ( Γ ) = 114. A quarter wave transformer, made of air-filled
Z L + Z0
coaxial line, matches two transmission line of
25 − 50 characteristic impedance 50 ohms and 72 ohms
i.e. Γ =
25 + 50 respectively. If the inner conductor of the
coaxial line is made 10 mm in diameter, what
−25 −1
= = should be the diameter of the outer conductor
75 3 (approximately)?
1 (a) 16 mm (b) 20 mm
1+ Γ 1+ 3 (c) 27 mm (d) 32 mm
∴ VSWR = =
1− Γ 1− 1 IES - 1994
3 Ans. (c) : As per question considering impedance
=2 parameter of quarter wave line as source impedance and
100 − 50 receiving end impedance.
(B) Γ = So, ZS = 50 Ω
100 + 50
ZR = 72 Ω
50 1
= = Then characteristic impedance for quarter wave
150 3
 λ
1  ℓ =  is given by Z0 = ZS .ZR
1+ Γ 1+ 3  4
∴ VSWR = = = 50 × 72
1− Γ 1− 1
3 = 60 Ω
=2 ∴ Characteristic impedance of co-axial cable -
Hence , the two patterns will be identical except for a Z0 = 138Log10  D 
relative spatial shift of quarter wavelength in the two d
cases.
113. A 50 Ω loss-less transmission line is terminated
in 100 Ω load and is excited by a 30 MHz
source of internal resistance of 50 Ω. What ⇒ Log10  D  = 60 = 0.4347
  138
should be the length of the transmission line for d
maximum power transfer? D
∴ = 2.72 ⇒ D = 2.72×d
(a) 5.0 m (b) 1.25 m d
(c) 2.5 m (d) 10.0 m = 2.72×10 mm
IES - 1994 = 27.2 mm ≃ 27 mm.

115. With solid dielectrics such as those used in Ans. (c) : The voltage and current at any point on the
twisted pair and coaxial cables, the shunt line is given by
conductance will be proportional to V = be γy + ae −γy = Vi + Vr ...........(i)
(a) the frequency and dielectric constant but b γy a −γy
independent of the power factor and I = e − e = Ii + I r .........(ii)
Z0 Z0
(b) the frequency and power factor but where y is the distance measured from load end.
independent of the dielectric constant At the load end y = 0
(c) the power factor and dielectric constant but ⇒ V = b+a
independent of the frequency b a
(d) the frequency, dielectric constant and power I= −
Z0 Z0
factor
∴ Vr is in phase with Vi and I r is out of phase with
IES - 1994
Vi respectively.
Ans. (a) : Generally in coaxial cable, the shunt
conductance is very small, because dielectric of very 118. Distortion in the transmission of carrier
frequencies in an underground cable can be
good properties are used, At high frequencies, a
eliminated by using
dielectric can have significant resistive loss.
(a) Inductive loading (b) resistive loading
2πσ (c) capacitive loading (d) shielding
G=
D IES - 1993
log 10  
d Ans. (a) : In an underground transmission line, there is
116. For free space E = 50 cos (108t + β x), then the large capacitive effect and less inductive effect
respectively. Therefore distortion of underground cable
value of β ................
is eliminated by using inductive loading.
(a) 0.3333 rad/m (b) 2/3
119. For a two open-wire transmission line excited
(c) 4/3 (d) 0.316 by a harmonically oscillating source with exp (–
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 j ωt) as the time factor, the voltage on the
 1 transmission line will satisfy which one of the
Ans. (a) : β = ω µ 0 ε0 c = following relations?
 µ 0ε0
(L and C are the inductance and capacitance
108 per unit length of the line respectively)
= = 0.333 rad/m
3 ×108 dV(x)
(a) = − jωLI(x)
dx
117. If the load impedance terminating a
dV(x)
transmission line is complex, then the reflection (b) = jωLI(x)
dx
coefficient is complex. This would mean that
dV(x)
the reflected. (c) = jωCI(x)
dx
(a) Voltage and reflected current at the load are
dV(x)
out of phase with the incident voltage and (d) = − jωCI(x)
dx
incident current respectively IES - 1993
(b) Voltage and reflected current at the load are Ans. (a) : The change in voltage, keeping current
in phase with the incident voltage and constant can be given by
incident current respectively V − ( V + ∆V ) = IZ∆x
(c) Current at the load is out of phase with the dV
incident voltage and the reflected voltage at or = − IZ
dx
the load is in phase with the incident voltage = −I ( R + jωL )
(d) Voltages is out of phase with the incident
As R ≈ 0
voltage and the reflected current is in phase
dV
with the incident current ⇒ = − jωLI ( x )
dx
IES - 1993
120. Consider the following statement about a 122. For a lossless transmission line
transmission line having non-zero Parameters 1. Series resistance is zero
R, L, G and C : 2. Shunt conductance is zero
1. By proper choice of the parameters, the 3. Shunt conductance is infinite
line can be made lossless even though R 4. Series resistance is infinite
and G are non-zero (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2. The line will have both amplitude and (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
phase distortion in general IES - 1992
Of the statements Ans. (a) : For a lossless transmission line ––
(a) 1 alone is true (i) series resistance is zero i.e. R = 0 and
(b) 2 alone is true (ii) shunt conductance is zero i.e. G = 0
(c) Both 1 and 2 are true 123. A λ/4 transformer is used for
(d) Both 1 and 2 are false (a) Light loads
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM (b) High frequency load
IES - 1993 (c) Connecting high impedance loads to low
Ans. (b) : Input impedance of a transmission line in impedance loads
general can be defined as (d) Reducing distortion in transmission lines
R + jω L IES - 1992
Z0 =
G + jω C λ
Ans. (c) : A transformer is used for perfect
4
for lossless line, R = 0 , G = 0
impedance matching. In this case –
L
Z0= Z2
C Zin = 0
ZL
Hence by proper choice of the distributed parameters,
→ Reflection coefficient (Γ) = 0 i.e. when transmission
the line can be made lossless.
line is terminated by its characteristic impedance, the
(2) Generally propagation constant of the line may be
λ
defined as line will not have any reflected wave, the
4
γ = α +jβ = ( R + jωL )( G + jωC ) transformer with a suitable characteristic impedance can
act as an impedance matching device.
Hence line will have both amplitude and phase
distortion respectively. → The velocity and current at all points and the line are
exactly same.
121. For a lossy transmission line, short-circuited at
124. An electromagnetic wave is transmitted into a
the receiving end, the input impedance is given
conducting medium of conductivity σ. The
by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, γ is the
depth of penetration is
propagation constant and l is the length of the
(a) directly proportional to frequency
line).
(b) directly proportional to square root of
(a) Z0 coth γl (b) Z0 cot γl
frequency
(c) Z0 tanh γl (d) Z0 tan γl (c) inversely proportional to frequency
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I (d) inversely proportional to square root of
IES - 1993 frequency
Ans. (c) : Generally input impedance is defined as - IES - 2017
 Z + jZ0 tan h ( γl )  Ans. (d) : The depth of penetration is inversely
Zin = Z0  L  proportional to the square root of frequency
 Z0 + jZL tan h ( γl ) 
1 2 1
For short–circuit at receiving end ZL= 0 δ= = =
α ωµσ πfµσ
∴ Zin = jZ0 tan h ( γl )
1
∴ | Zin |= Z0 tan h ( γl ) Hence δ ∝
f

125. A plane wave in free space has a magnetic field π
sin  
intensity of 0.2 A/m in the Y-direction. The 4
∴ sin θr =
wave is propagating in the Z-direction with a 1.5
frequency of 3 GHz. The wavelength and
1/ 2 10
amplitude of the electric field intensity are, = =
15 /10 15 2
respectively :
(a) 0.05 m and 75 V/m 2 2
= =
(b) 0.10 m and 75 V/m 3 2 3
(c) 0.05 m and 150 V/m 127. When a plane wave travelling in free space is
(d) 0.10 m and 150 V/m incident normally on a medium having ∈r = 9.0
IES - 2016 and µr = 1.0 the fraction of power transmitted
Ans. (b) : As phase velocity into the medium is
vp = c = fλ 4 3
(a) (b)
c 3 × 10 8 3 4
⇒λ= = 1 1
f 3 × 109 (c) (d)
λ = 0.1 meter 2 3
Characteristic impedance for free space IES - 2016
Ans. (b) : As we know that –
E0
η0 = = 120π Ω 1+ Γ = τE
H0
E reflected
E0 Where Γ = = Reflection co-efficient of electric
Also η0 = E incident
H0
field.
⇒ E 0 = η 0H 0
E transmitted
= 120 π× 0.2 and τ = = Transmission co-efficient of electric
E incident
E0 = 75.36 V/m
field.
E0 ≃ 75V / m
126. A ray of light incident on a glass slab (of Also η = µ for any medium
refractive index 1.5) with an angle π/4, then the ε
value of sine of angle of refraction is: εr 1 − εr
∴ ΓE =
1 3 ε r1 + ε r
(a) (b)
2 2
Here εr1 = 1 (for air)
2
(c) (d) 2 ε r 2 = 9 (given)
3
IES - 2016 1 − 9 1 − 3 −1
∴ ΓE = = =
Ans. (c) : Applying Snell's Law– 1 + 9 1+ 3 2
∴ transmitted power
Pτ = 1 − Γ 2E
1 3
= 1– =
4 4
128. In a coaxial transmission line (εr = 1), the
n1 sinθi = n2 sinθr electric field intensity is given by :
sin θi n 2
cos (109 t − 6z ) u p V/m
= 100
E=
sin θr n1 ρ
π The displacement current density is
sin  
 4  = 1.5  n2 
 = 1.5 ( given )  (a) −
100
sin (109 t − 6z ) u p A / m 2
sin ( θr )  n1  ρ

130. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature
sin (109 t − 6z ) u p A / m 2
116
(b)
ρ due to
(a) Reflection (b) Diffraction
sin (109 t − 6z ) u p A / m 2
0.9
(c) − (c) Interference (d) Polarization
ρ
Ans. (d) : Due to the phenomenon of Polarization, EM
cos (109 t − 6z ) u p A / m 2
216
(d) − waves are transverse in nature. Only transverse waves
ρ can be polarized
IES - 2015 131. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave
Ans. (c) : The displacement current may be defined as (in vacuum) is described by
∂D E = Emax {KX – ωt} where
Jd =
∂t Emax = 100 N/C and K = 1 × 107 m–1
∂ Speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s. What is the
= ε0εr E amplitude of the corresponding magnetic
∂t
wave?
∂ 100 
= ε0  cos (109 t − 6z ) u p  (a) 4.57 × 10–7 T (b) 2.99 × 10–7 T
∂t  ρ  –7
(c) 3.33 × 10 T (d) 2.99 × 107 T
∵ εr = 1 given IES - 2014
 − sin (109 t − 6z ) u p  × 109
100 E
= 8.854 × 10−12 Ans. (c) : As 0 = c = speed of light
ρ  
H0
−0.8854
= sin (109 t − 6z ) u p ⇒
E
H0 = 0
ρ c
−0.9
sin (109 t − 6z ) u p A/m2
100
≃ =
ρ 3 × 108
129. Consider the following properties of = 3.33×10–7
electromagnetic waves: 132. Polarization is characteristic of EM wave that
1. These waves do not require any material gives the direction of
medium to propagate (a) Electrical component of a wave with respect
to ground
2. Both electric and magnetic field vectors are
(b) Magnetic component of EM wave with
parallel to each other and perpendicular to
respect to ground
the direction of propagation of waves
(c) Both electrical and magnetic components
3. The energy in electromagnetic wave is
with respect to ground
divided equally between electric and
magnetic vectors
IES - 2014
4. Both electric and magnetic field vectors
Ans.(a): Polarization is characteristic of EM wave that
attain the maxima and minima at the same
gives the direction of Electrical component of a wave
place and same time with respect to ground. These are always transverse in
Which of the above properties of nature. It may be linear Horizontal, linear vertical,
electromagnetic waves are correct? circular or elliptical polarization respectively.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 133. The ratio σ/ ωε is called
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Intrinsic ratio
IES - 2015 2. Loss tangent
Ans. (b) : As E ⊥ H ⊥ P 3. Conduction ratio
4. Dissipation factor
i.e. E and H are perpendicular to each other and they
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
both are perpendicular to direction of propagation also
E.M. wave can travel in vacuum. Hence option (1), (3)
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
& (4) are correct.
IES – 2015, 2014
 σ  jωµ
Ans. (c) : The ratio   is called loss tangent or Ans. (c) : Intrinsic impedance (η) =
 ωε  σ + jωε
dissipation factor . It may be defined as for conducting medium, we have -
σ JC σ >> 1 ⇒ σ >> jωε
Loss tangent = =
ωε JD
jωµ ωµ
∴η = = ∠450
134. Which of the following are electromagnetic in σ σ
nature? Here µ = µ0 µr = µ0
1. Alpha rays = 4π×10–7
2. X-rays
ω = 2πf = 100MHz
3. Gamma rays
σ = 58 Ms/m = 58×106 s/m
4. Cathode rays
ωµ0
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 ∴ η= ∠45°
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 σ
IES - 2013 2π × 100 × 106 × 4π × 10 −7
= ∠45°
Ans. (b) : X– rays and Gamma rays pairs of rays is 58 × 106
electromagnetic in nature.
2 × 3.14 × 4 × 3.14 × 100 × 10−7
Electromagnetic radiation is a form of energy that is all = ∠ 45°
58
around us and takes many forms, such as Radio waves,
= 3.69 × 10−3 ∠450 Ω
microwaves, X–rays and γ–rays.
Sunlight is also a form of EM energy, but visible light is 137. A uniform plane wave with an intensity of
only a small portion of EM spectrum which contains a electric field 1 V/m is travelling in free space.
broad range of electromagnetic wavelengths. The magnitude of associated magnetic field is
(a) 2.65 mA/m (b) 2.65 A/m
135. The field strength of a plane wave is 2 V/m.
(c) 2.65 µA/m (d) 26.5 A/m
The strength of the magnetic field (H) in free
space is IES - 2013
(a) 5.2 mA/m (b) 2.25 mA/m Ans. (a) : Given, E = 1 V / m
(c) 250 mA/m (d) 520 mA/m intrinsic impedance for free space = 377Ω
IES - 2013 E
as η0 =
Ans. (a) : For free space, we have – H
E E 1
η0 = ⇒H = =
H η0 377
E = 2.65×10–3 A/m
⇒ H=
η0 = 2.65 mA/m.
Where η0 = 120π or 377Ω 138. A plain wave is travelling in the positive X-
and E = 2V/m (given) direction in a lossless unbounded medium
2 having permeability same as the free space and
∴ H= = 5.30×10–3 A/m a permittivity 9 times that of the free space, the
377
phase velocity of the wave will be
≃ 5.20 mA/m
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 108 m/s
136. The intrinsic impedance η of a conducting
1
medium for which σ = 58 Ms/m, µr = 1 at a (c) × 108 m / s (d) 3 × 108 m / s
3
frequency of 100 MHz is
NPCIL-2015
(a) 2.14 × 105 ∠45ºΩ
IES – 2013, 2000
(b) 1.84 × 10–3 ∠45ºΩ
Ans. (b) : Phase velocity for the medium
(c) 3.69 × 10–3 ∠45ºΩ
c 3 × 108
(d) 3.69 × 10–3 ∠–45ºΩ vp = = = 108 m/s
εr 9
IES - 2013
139. A plane wave travelling in a medium εr = 1, µr ε2
= 1 (free space) has an electric field intensity of ∴ tan θi = ε
1
100 πV/m . Determine the total energy density
of this magnetic field. 9
=
(a) 13.9 nJ/m 3
(b) 27.8 nJ/m 3 4
(c) 139 nJ/m3 (d) 278 nJ/m3 3
=
IES - 2012 2
Ans. (c) : Given εr = 1, µr = 1 3
⇒ θi = tan −1  
1 2
∴ Total magnetic energy density = µ0 H 2
2 142. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 MHz
∵E = 100 π V / m passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium
with permittivity ε = 4.0. Then
Then intrinsic impedance is given as –
(a) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency
E0 E
η0 = ⇒H= remains unchanged
H0 η (b) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency
100 π becomes half
= (c) Wavelength is halved and the frequency
120π
⇒ H = 0.470 A/m remains unchanged
(d) Both the wavelength and frequency remain
1
∴ Energy density = µ0 H 2 unchanged
2
IES - 2011
= ( 4π× 10−7 ) × ( 0.470 )
1 2
Ans. (c) : If a wave is traveled from one medium to
2
another medium, frequency remains constant during
= 139 nJ/m3
reflection
140. For a plane wave propagating in an unbounded
1
medium (say, free space), the minimum angle Now Vmedium =
µ0µ r ε0 ε r
between electric field and magnetic field
vectors is 1
= ∵ µr = 1
(a) 0º (b) 60º µ 0 ε0 ε r
(c) 90º (d) 180º 1
IES - 2012 =
µε . ε0 0 r
Ans. (c) : Electric fields and magnetic fields
c c
propagation is always perpendicular to each other. = =
Hence angle between them is 90° 4 2
c
141. For no reflection condition a vertically λ medium Vmed 2= 1
polarized wave should be incident at the ∴ = =
λ air Vair c 2
interface between two dielectrics having ε1 = 4
∴ wave length becomes half and frequency remains
and ε2 = 9, with an incident angle of
unchanged .
9 3
(a) tan −1   (b) tan −1   143. A plane wave is generated under water (ε = 81
4 2
ε0 and µ = µ0). The wave is parallel polarized.
−1  2  −1  4  At the interface between water and air, the
(c) tan   (d) tan  
3 9 angle α for which there is no reflection is
IES - 2011
Ans. (b) : Applying boundary condition to polarized
wave. For no reflection incident wave should be
completely transmitted to another medium at Brewster's
angle
Given ε1 = 4 and ε2 = 9
(a) 83.88º (b) 83.66º ∴ P = ε0(εr–1) E
(c) 84.86º (d) 84.08º P = ε0 χe E
IES - 2011
where χe = εr–1 = susceptibility
ε2
Ans. (b) : As tanθi = Given ε = ε0εr = 3ε0 ⇒ εr = 3
ε1
∴ P = ε0 ( 3 − 1) E
ε0 1
= = = ε 0 ( 2 ) .6aɵ x
81ε 0 9
1 P = 12ε 0 aɵ x
⇒ θi = tan–1   = 6.34°
9 146. Consider the following statements :
∴ α = 90°– θi 1. (Electric or magnetic) field must have two
= 90° – 6.34 orthogonal linear components
= 83.66° 2. The two components must have the same
144. An elliptically polarized wave travelling in the magnitude
positive Z-direction in air has x and y 3. The two components must have a time-phase
components difference of odd multiples of 90º
Ex = 3sin ( ωt – βz)V/m Which of these are the necessary and sufficient
Ey = 6sin ( ωt – βz + 75º) V/m conditions for a time-harmonic wave to be
(a) 8 W/m 2
(b) 4 W/m 2 circularly polarized at a given point in space?
(c) 62.5 mW/m2 (d) 125 mW/m2 (a) 1 and 2 only
IES - 2010 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) : for free space η = 377 Ω or 120π Ω
(d) 1 and 3 only
Given Ex = 3sin (ωt – βz) aɵ x V/m IES - 2010
ɵ
Ey = 6sin (ωt – βz + 75°) a x V/m Ans. (c) : The necessary and sufficient condition for a
∴ E0 = E 2x + E 2y time-harmonic wave to be circularly polarized at a
given point in a space are-
= (3) 2 + (6) 2 (i) Electric or magnetic field must have two
orthogonal linear components.
= 45
(ii) The two components must have the same
∴ Power density = Avg. power = Pavg
magnitude.
1 E 02 (iii) The two components must have a time-phase
=
2 η difference of odd multiples of 90º.
45 147. Consider the following statements regarding
= =59.68 mw/m2 ≃ 62.5 mW/m2
2 × 377 depth of penetration or skin depth in a
145. A long 1 meter thick dielectric (ε = 3ε0) slab conductor :
occupying the region 0 < x < 5 is placed 1. It increases as frequency increases.
perpendicularly in a uniform electric field 2. It is inversely proportional to square root
E0 = 6ax . The polarization Pi inside the of µ and σ.
dielectric is 3. It is inversely proportional to square root
(a) 4ε 0 a x (b) 8ε 0 a x of f.
(c) 36ε 0 a x (d) 12ε 0 a x 4. It is directly proportional to square root of
µ and σ.
IES - 2010
Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (d) : We know that –
D = ε0 E + P
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
and D = ε 0ε r E IES - 2010
Ans. (c) : skin depth or depth of penetration is given by Ans. (c) : From boundary condition of plane wave -
δ=
1 E t1 = E t 2
πfµσ
i.e. tangential components are continuous of E field
1
Hence δ ∝ Also D n1 − D n 2 = ρ v
µσ
If ρv = 0 ⇒ D n1 = D n 2
1
δ∝ Hence normal component of D may or may not be
f
continuous depends on volume.
Hence only options (2) and (3) are correct.
151. According to Poynting theorem, the vector
148. Which of the following equations results from
product E× H is a measure of which one of the
the circuital form of Ampere's law?
following?
∂B
(a) ∇ × E = − (b) ∇.B = 0 (a) Stored energy density of the electric field
∂t
(b) Stored energy density of the magnetic field
∂D
(c) ∇.D = ρ (d) ∇ × H = J + (c) Power dissipated per unit volume
∂t
(d) Rate of energy flow per unit area
IES - 2009
IES - 2008
−∂ B
Ans. (d) : ∇ × E = ( Faraday 's law ) Ans. (d) : Poynting's theorem ( P = E × H ) state that the
∂t
rate of energy transfer per unit volume from a region of
∇ × B = 0 (mono pole does not exist)
space equals the rate of work done on the charge
∇.D = ρ v (Gauss's law) distribution in the region.
∂D 152. What is the magnetic field intensity vector
∇×H = J + (Ampere's circuital law)
∂t H between two parallel sheets with separation
149. In which direction is the plane wave 'd' along z-axis both sheets carrying surface
E = 50sin(108 t + 2z)aˆ y V/m , (where aˆ y is the current k = k y ay ?
unit vector in y-direction), travelling? (a) − k y a y (b) + k y a y
(a) along y direction (b) along –y direction
(c) − k y a x (d) Zero
(c) along z direction (d) along –z direction
IES - 2009 IES - 2007
Ans. (d) : The given wave equation 1
Ans. (d) : We have H = k × aˆ x
E = 50sin (108 t + 2z ) aˆ y V / m
2
1
comparing above equation with following general =  k y aˆ y × ( −aˆ z ) + k y aˆ y × aˆ z 
2
equation. =0
E = E 0 sin ( ωt − βz ) aˆ y 153. Magnetic current is composed of which of the
It is clear that E-wave travel in −â z direction. following?
(a) Only conduction component
150. Consider the following statements associated
with boundary conditions between two media : (b) Only displacement component
1. Normal component of E is continuous at (c) Both conduction and displacement
the surface of discontinuity components
2. Normal component of D may or may not (d) Neither conduction component nor
be continuous displacement component
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are IES - 2007
correct? Ans. (c) : Magnetic current is composed by both
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only conduction current and displacement current
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 respectively
IES - 2008 I = Ic + Iα
( )
154. If E = xˆ + ˆjy e -jβz , then the wave is said to be ∴ λ=
2π 2π
=
β k
which one of the following?
2 × 3.14
(a) Right circularly polarized =
0.0333
(b) Right elliptically polarized
= 188.5 m
(c) Left circularly polarized
(c) wave number k = 0.033 rad/m
(d) Left elliptically polarized
(d) there is no attenuation.
IES - 2007
Hence only option (b) is correct.
Ans. (c) : E0 = x + jy, then-
157. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave is
E = E0 e–jβz
normally incident upon a thick magnetic
= E0cosβz – jE0 sin βz material such that its complex permittivity is
Here E1 = E2 = E0 equal to its complex permeability i.e., µ* = ε*.
Hence the given wave is a left hand circular Which one of the following is the correct
polarization. statement?
155. In a dielectric medium of εr, (given n = ε r ) , (a) There will not be any reflection from the
material
what is the expression for the wavelength (λ) of
a microwave signal? (b) A part of the wave will be reflected such that
reflection coefficient would be close be 0.5
c nc
(a) 2 (b) (c) Reflection coefficient would be close to 1
n f f
(d) Transmission coefficient would be 0.9
c
(c) (d) None of the above IES - 2006
nf
IES - 2007 Ans. (c) : Given µ* = ε*
η − η2
Ans. (c) : For a dielectric medium we have - we have Reflection coefficient (Γ)= 1
η1 + η2
c c
vp = = ––––(1)
εr n here η1 = 120π or 377Ω (for free space) ……….(i)
Also vp = fλ –––––(2) µ*
η2 = ( µ* = ε * given )
from relation (1) and (2) ε*
c c ∴ η2 = 1 ………….(ii)
fλ = ⇒λ=
n fn From (i) & (ii)
156. The electric field component of a wave in free 377 − 1 376
Γ= = = 0.994 ≃ 1
7
space is given by E = 50 sin (10 t + kz) ĵ V/m. 377 + 1 378
Which one of the following is the correct Hence there will be reflection coefficient close to 1.
inference that can be drawn from this 158. The x-directed electric field Ex having
expression? sinusoidal time variation ejωt and space
(a) The wave propagates along y-axis variation in z-direction satisfies the equation
(b) The wavelength is 188.5m ∇2Ex + k2Ex = 0 under source free condition in
(c) The wave number k = 0.33 rad/m a lossless medium. What is the solution
(d) The wave attenuates as it travels representing propagation in positive z-
IES - 2011, 2006 direction?
(a) Ex = E0e–kz (b) Ex = E0e+jkz
Ans. (b) : (a) E wave propagate along −aɵ z direction. (c) Ex = E0e –jkz
(d) Ex = E0e+kz
ω ω ω IES - 2005
C= = ⇒k=
β k C Ans. (c) : The given differential equation is -
107 ∇2 Ex+ k2 Ex = 0
=
3 ×108 The solution of above equation can be written as -
= 0.0333 rad / m Ex = A1e–jkz + A2ejkz

It is given that wave propagate on +ve z-direction 161. Maxwell's equations are obeyed by an EM
Therefore A2 = 0 wave while it is propagating:
∴ Ex = A1e–jkz (a) Only in the free space
–jkz
or E x = E 0e (b) Only in water and free space
159. For an electromagnetic wave incident on (c) Only in ionosphere, water and free space
conducting medium, the depth of penetration (d) In all the solids, liquids, gases and all the
(a) Is directly proportional to the attenuation medium mentioned above at (a), (b) and (c)
constant
IES – 2011, 2005
(b) Is inversely proportional to the attenuation
constant Ans. (d) : Maxwell's equation for EM waves is defined
(c) Has a logarithmic relationship with the for all the solids, liquids, gases and all the medium
attenuation constant mentioned in option(a), (b) and (c)
(d) Is independent of the attenuation constant Generally it depends on material constant
IES - 2005 µ,σ & ε
Ans. (b) : As Reciprocal of attenuation constant is
called skin depth (or depth of penetration). i.e.
correct ? A right circularly polarized wave is
1 1
δ∝ = incident from air onto a polystyrene (εr = 2.7).
α attenuation constant
The reflected wave is
160. A plane wave having x-directed electric field
propagating in free space along the z-direction (a) right circularly polarized
is incident on an infinite electrically conducting (b) left circularly polarized
(perfect conductor) sheet at z = 0 plane. Which (c) right elliptically polarized
one of the following is correct ? (d) left elliptically polarized
(a) The sheet will absorb the wave
IES - 2004
(b) There will be x-directed surface electric
current on the sheet Ans. (d) : A right circularly polarized wave is incident
(c) There will be y-directed surface electric from air onto a polystyrene (εr = 2.7). The reflected
current on the sheet wave is left elliptically polarized.
(d) There will be magnetic current in the sheet 163. For sea water with σ = 5 mho/m and εr = 80,
IES - 2005 what is the distance for which radio signal can
Ans. (b) : Given E propagate in x-direction and wave be transmitted with 90% attenuation at 25
propagation direction is along Z-direction. It can be kHz?
represented as -
(a) 0.322 m (b) 3.22 m
.–––––(1) (c) 32.2 m (d) 322 m
IES - 2004
3
Ans. (b) : Given f = 25 KHz = 25×10 Hz
Therefore propagation of H wave will be σ = 5 mho/m
E×H = P εr = 80
( )
i.e. aɵ z × −aɵ y = a x Γ= 90%
= 0.9
Hence H propagate on −aɵ y direction. It's wave Equation
∴ transmitted wave (τ) = 1– Γ
can be written as -
= 1– 0.9
H = H e–αze(ωt–βz)( −aɵ y )––––(2)
0
= 0.1
∴As E⊥H⊥P
Now-
(
current density (k) = – H aɵ y × aɵ z ) Attenuation constant (α)=
ωσµ
= −H y aɵ x 2
ωσµ 0
Hence there will be X-directed surface electric current = ∵ ( µr = 1)
on the sheet. 2

2π × 25 × 103 × 5 × 4π × 10 −7 3 × 108
= =
2 81
–2
= 10.21×10 108
= m/sec
= 0.702 3
Since attenuation is 90%, transmission is 10% ω ω
−αx Also Vp = ⇒β=
So, e = 0.1 β Vp
or log (0.1) = –0.702x
6π×108 × 3
log ( 0.1) =
108
= 18π rad/m
x= = 3.22m
−0.702 166. Which one of the following gives the value of
164. Two metal rings 1 and 2 are placed in a the attenuation factor α and phase shift factor
uniform magnetic field which is decreasing β for a wave propagated in a good dielectric
with time their planes perpendicular to the having σ/( ωε) >> 1 ?
field. If the rings are identical except that ring
σ µ/ε 
2 has a thin air gap in it, which one of the (a) α =   ; β = ω µε
following statement is correct ? 2
(a) No e.m.f. is induced in ring 1 (b) α = µ/ε ; β ωµ / ε
(b) An e.m.f. is induced in both the rings σ µ/ε 
(c) Equal Joule heating occurs in both the rings (c) α =   ; β = ωµε
2
(d) Joule heating does not occur in either ring
IES - 2004 (d) α = 0,β = ω2µε
Ans. (b) : According to Faraday’s law emf is induced BARC Scientific Officer-2016
in both the metal rings but metal ring has no current IES - 2004
established as it has a thin air-gap. Ans. (a) : Attenuation constant and phase constant for
165. The electric field of a wave propagating good dielectric is given by respectively -
through a lossless medium ( µ0, 81ε0) is µε  
2
 σ 
8 α= ω  1+   − 1  ––––(1)
E = 100cos(6π×10 t - βx)ay 2   ωε 
 
What is the phase constant β of the wave?
µε  
2
(a) 2π rad/m (b) 9π rad/m  σ 
and β=ω  1+   + 1  …………(2)
(c) 18π rad/m (d) 81π rad/m 2   ωε  

IES - 2004
σ
>> 1 for (good conductor)
Ans. (c) : Comparing the given E wave with standard ωε
equation Then equation (1) and (2) can be reduced.
E = E0 cos (ωt–βx) â y ––––(1) from equation (1)
2
we get - µε 1  σ 
α= ω .   ∵(σ<<ωε) for good dielectric
E0 = 100 2 2  ωε 
ω = 6π×108
σ µ
µ=µ  =
 given 2 ε
ε = 81ε 0 
From equation (2)
1
∴ Phase velocity (Vp) = µε  1  σ 
2

µε β=ω 1 +   + 1
2  2  ωε  
1
=
µ0ε0 .ε r µε
= ω ×2 ∵ ( σ << ωε )
2
c
=
εr = ω µε

167. If the phase plane velocity of a plane wave in a 170. A plane electromagnetic wave travelling in a
perfect dielectric is 0.4 times its value in free perfect dielectric medium of characteristic
space, then what is the relative permittivity of impedance η1 is incident normally on its
the dielectric? boundary with another perfect dielectric
(a) 6.25 (b) 4.25 medium of characteristic impedance η2. The
(c) 2.5 (d) 1.25 electric and magnetic field strengths of the
IES - 2004 incident wave are denoted by E1 and H1
Ans. (a) : Let velocity in free space = Vp = c(speed of respectively whereas Er and Hr denote these
light) quantities for the reflected wave, and Et and Ht
As per question– for the transmitted wave.
Which of the following relations are correct?
Vpd = 0.4Vpa
1. Ei = η1Hi
1 1
= 0.4 2. Er = η1Hr
µ 0ε 0 ε r µ0ε0 3. Et = –η2Ht
1 Select the correct answer using the codes given
∴ εr = = 6.25
0.4 below :
168. In free space E(x,t) = 60cos(ωt - 2x)xy V/m . (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
What is the average power crossing a circular
IES - 2003
area of radius 4m in the plane x = constant?
(a) 480 W (b) 240 W Ans. (c) :
(c) 120 W (d) 60 W
IES - 2004
Ans. (b) : for free space η0 = 120π
from E wave equation E0 = 60 V/m
1 E 02
∴ Average Power = × Area Ei
2 η0 We have η1 = ––––(1)
Hi
1 60 × 60
× π ( 4)
2
= × Et
2 120π and η2 = ……..(2)
Ht
= (15×16) watt
P= 240 watt −E r
also η1 = (reflected wave in reverse direction).. (3)
169. For an electric field E = E0 sin ωt, what is the Hr
phase difference between the conduction Hence from above relations.
current and the displacement current? E i = η 1H i
(a) 0º (b) 45º E t = η 2H t
(c) 90º (d) 180º 171. A plane electromagnetic wave travelling in a
IES - 2004 perfect dielectric medium of dielectric constant
Ans. (c) : From Maxwell equation of Ampere's circuital ∈1 is incident on its boundary with another
equation in differential form –– perfect dielectric medium of dielectric constant
∂D ∈2. The incident ray makes an angle of θ1 with
∇ × H = Jc + their normal to the boundary surface. The ray
∂t
transmitted into the other medium makes an
∂D
=J+ angle of θ2 with the normal.
∂t
If ∈1 = 2∈2 and θ1 = 60º, which one of the
In Phasor form, it can be written as - following is correct?
∇ × H = Jc + jωD ––––(1) (a) θ2 = 45º
It Jc = J c ∠0° (reference phasor) (b) θ2 = sin–1 0.433
(c) θ2 = sin–1 0.612
Then JD = J D ∠ + 90°
(d) There will be no transmitted wave
Phase difference between Jc and JD = 90° . IES - 2003
Ans. (d) : If θc be the critical angle ; Then Snell's law Codes :
gives - A B C D
η1sinθc = η2 sin90° (a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
η 
∴ sinθc =  2  (c) 1 4 3 2
 η1  (d) 4 1 3 2
ε2 IES - 2003
= (∵ ε1 = 2ε2 )
ε1 Ans. (c) : Linear Horizontal/Vertical polarization →
1 when X and Y components are in same phase.
= Left circular polarization → If X Component lags
2
behind of Y by 90°
⇒ θc = 45°
Right circular polarization → X Leads Y by 90°
since incident angle θ1 = 60° is greater than their critical
Elliptical polarization → phase are same but there is a
value(θc = 45°), Hence there is no transmitted wave on different in mode of X and Y components.
medium (2) and is totally reflected.
174. Consider the following statements with
172. Which one of the following Maxwell's reference to Brewster angle :
equations gives the basic idea of radiation? 1. For oblique incidence at a boundary, there is
no reflected wave is vertically polarized.
∇ × H = ∂D / ∂t 
(a)  (b) 2. Brewster angle can occur only at the
∇ × E = −∂B / ∂t 
boundary of a perfect conductor.
∇ ⋅ D = ρ ∇⋅B = 0  3. For a horizontally polarized wave, there is no
(c)  (d) 
∇⋅B = 0 ∇ × H = (∂D / ∂t)  Brewster angle.
4. When the incident wave is not fully vertically
IES - 2003
polarized, there will be reflected component
Ans. (a) : which is horizontally polarized.
∂D −∂B
∇×H= and ∇×E = Which of these statements are correct ?
∂t ∂t (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
shows that E and H wave are dependent to each other. (c) 3, 4 and 1 (d) 4, 1 and 2
Actually E⊥H⊥P. IES - 2002
Ans. (c) : Two different medium with different
permittivities are necessary things to apply Brewster
law.
In case of perfect conductor no EM waves are
Hence E absorbs H and vice-versa and energy radiated
generated.
and propagated which is perpendicular to both E and H . Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
173. Match List-I (Nature of Polarization) with List- 175. What is the major factor for determining
II (Relationship Between X and Y components) whether a medium is free space, lossless
for a propagating waves having cross-section in dielectric, lossy dielectric, or good conductor?
the XY plane and propagating along Z- (a) Attenuation constant
direction and select the correct answer :
(b) Constitutive parameters ( σ, ε, µ )
List - I List - II
(c) Loss tangent
A. Linear 1. X and Y components are
in same phase (d) Reflection coefficient
B. Left circular 2. X and Y components have
arbi-trary phase difference. Ans. (c) :
C. Right circular 3. X component leads Y by Loss tangent tan θ = σ
90º. ωε
D. Elliptical 4. X component lags behind σ
Y by 90º. • = 0 → Lossless
ωε
σ Ans. (d) : Given -
• << 1 → Loss less dielectric
ωε Magnetic wave equation
σ
• >> 1 → Good conductor H = 0.5e−0.1x cos (106 t − 2x ) aɵ z A/m
ωε
σ ∴ ω = 106 rad/sec
• = 1 → Lossy dielectric
ωε β=2
176. A boundary separates two magnetic materials 2π
∵ λ=
of permeability µ1 and µ2. The magnetic field β
vector in µ1 is H1 with a normal component
∴ λ = π or 3.14 m
Hn1 and tangential component H t1 while that in
•Wave is travelling along + x-direction
µ2 is H2 with normal component Hn2 and a •The wave is polarized in Y direction not in Z-
tangential component H t 2 . Then the derived direction hence option (d) is incorrect. since the wave is
polarized in Z direction.
conditions would be
(a) H1 = H2 and H t1 = H t 2 179. Polystyrene has a relative permittivity of 2.7. If
the wave is incident at an angle 'θ1' of 30º from
(b) H t1 = H t 2 and µ1Hn1 = µ2 Hn2 air onto polystyrene, the angle of transmission
(c) H1 = H2 and µ1Hn1 = µ2 Hn2 will be nearly
(a) 0.2º (b) 2º
(d) H1 = H2, H t1 = H t 2 and µ1Hn1 = µ2 Hn2
(c) 18º (d) 48º
IES - 2001 IES - 2000
Ans. (b) : Applying Boundary conditions for magnetic Ans. (c) : Applying snell's Law
waves -
sin θ1 n 2 ε
We have Bn1 = Bn2 ––––(1) = = 2
sin θ2 n1 ε1
H t1 − H t2 = k ––––(2)
ε1
Where, k = current density ∴ sinθ2 = sin θ1
ε2
from relation (1) and (2) we get-
µ1Hn1 = µ2 Hn2 =
1
× sin 30°
2.7
H t1 = H t 2 for k = 0
=0.3042
177. In a uniform plane wave, the value of |E|/|H| is ∴ θ2 = sin–1 (0.3042)
(a) µ/ε (b) ε/µ = 17.71°
(c) 1 (d) µε ≃ 18°
IES - 2001 180. Consider the following statements regarding a
E µ plane wave propagating through free space :
Ans. (a) : In a uniform plane wave As η0 = =
H ε The direction of field
= intrinsic impedance. 1. 'E' is perpendicular to the direction of
178. Which one of the following statements is not propagation
correct for a plane wave with 2. 'H' is perpendicular to the direction of
H = 0.5e -0.1x 6
cos(10 t - 2x)aˆ z A/m, propagation
(a) The wave frequency is 106 r.p.s. 3. 'E' is perpendicular to the direction of field 'H'
(b) The wavelength is 3.14 m Which of these statements are correct?
(c) The wave travels along + x-direction (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) The wave is polarized in the z-direction (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
IES - 2001 IES - 2000
Ans. (d) : For an EM wave propagation E⊥H⊥P i.e. 183. If H = 0.1sin(108 πt + βy)aˆ x A/m for a plane
(i) E is perpendicular to the direction of propagation. wave propagating in free space, then the time
(ii) H is perpendicular to the direction of propagation. average Poynting vector is
(iii) E and H are also perpendicular to each other. (a) (0.6π sin 2 βy)aˆ y W / m 2
Hence all the given three statements are correct. (b) −0.6πaˆ y W / m 2
181. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
(c) 1.2πaˆ x W / m 2
answer using the codes given below : (Notations
have their usual meaning) : (d) −1.2πaˆ x W / m 2
List – I List - II IES - 2000
A. Permeability 1. QE Ans. (b) : Given
B. Force 2. 1/ µ 0 ε 0 H = 0.1sin(108 πt + β y)aɵ x
C. Velocity of EM wave 3. µ0µr comparing with-
D. Displacement density 4. µ/ε H = H 0 sin(ωt − β y)aɵ x
5. εE Direction of wave propagation (poynting vector) = −aɵ y

Codes : H0 = 0.1 A/m
A B C D 1
∴ p = η0 H 02
(a) 3 2 4 5 2
(b) 3 1 2 5 Where, η0 = 120πΩ for free space
(c) 4 1 2 3 1
× 120π× ( 0.1)
2
∴ p=
(d) 4 2 5 3 2
TSTRANSCO AE- 2018 = 0.6 π
IES - 2000 ∴ p = −0.6 πaɵ y W/m2
Ans. (b) : we have -
184. As a result of reflections from a plane
(A) Permeability (µ) = µ0µr conducting wall, electromagnetic waves acquire
F an apparent velocity greater than the velocity
(B) as E = ⇒ F = QE
Q of light in space. This is called the
(C) Velocity of EM wave in free space (a) velocity of propagation
1 (b) normal velocity
Vp =
µ0ε0 (c) group velocity
(d) phase velocity
= 3×108 m/sec.
IES - 2000
(D) Displacement density
Ans. (d) : After reflection from a plane conducting
D = εE
surface, the apparent velocity of electromagnetic wave
182. The Poynting vector P = E× H has the greater than the velocity of light is called phase
dimensions of velocity.
(a) Power/unit area (b) Volts 185. A plane electromagnetic wave is traveling in an
(c) Power (d) Volt/unit length unbounded loss-less dielectric having µr = 1
IES - 2000 and ∈r = 4. The time average Poynting vector
Ans. (a) :Dimension of poynting vector ( P ) of the wave is 5 W/m3. The phase velocity vp
(assuming velocity of light as 3 × 108 m/s) is
= E × H = dimension of ( E )×Dimension of ( H )
(a) 1.5 × 108 m/s (b) 3 × 108 m/s
volt Ampere
= × 8
(c) 2.5 × 10 m/s (d) 0.5 × 108 m/s
meter meter
TNPSC AE- 2019
watt Power
= = TANGEDCO- 2015
( meter ) Unit area
2
IES – 1999, 1996

Ans. (a) : Phase velocity for a lossless medium (vp) = 188. When the phase velocity of an electromagnetic
c wave depends on frequency in any medium, the
εr phenomenon is called
(a) scattering (b) polarization
Where, c = 3×108 m / s
(c) absorption (d) dispersion
εr = 4 (given).
IES - 1999
3 × 108
∴ vp = Ans. (d) : When the phase velocity of electromagnetic
4 wave depends on frequency in any medium, the
= 1.5×108 m/sec. phenomenon is called Dispersion.
186. When a plane wave is incident normally from ω
189. The function F = e- αz sin (x - vt) satisfies the
dielectric '1' (µ0,∈1) onto dielectric '2' (µ0,∈2), v
the electric field of the transmitted wave is –2 F
wave equation ∇ 2 F = 2 provided
times the electric field of the reflected wave. c
The ratio ∈2/∈1 is 2 2 −1/ 2
 αc 
(b) v = c (1 + ω2 α 2 c )
−1/ 2
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (a) v = c 1 + 2 
 ω 
(c) 3 (d) 4
−1/ 2
1  ω2 c 2 
IES - 1999 (c) v = cω (1 + α c )
2 2 −1/ 2
(d) v = 1 + 2 
Ans. (d) : Given c α 
Et = –2Er IES - 1999
Et ω
Then, = −2 Ans. (*) : Given F = e–αz sin ( x − vt ) –––(1)
Er v
F
Et ε and ∇2F =
Also = 2 = −2 C2
Er ε1
 ∂ 2F ∂2F ∂2F  F
ε i.e.  2 + 2 + 2  = 2 ––––(2)
Then, 2 = 4  ∂x ∂y ∂z  C
ε1
Now- from equation(1)
187. If for the transmission of a parallel polarized
∂F ω ω
wave from a dielectric medium of permittivity = e −αz cos ( x − vt ) .
∂x v v
of ∈1 into a dielectric medium of permittivity
∂ F −ω −αz
2 2
ω
∈2, there exists a value of the angle of incidence ∴ = 2 e sin ( x − vt )
θp for which the reflection coefficient is zero,
∂x 2
v v
then ∂F
2
=0
(a) tan h θ = ∈ / ∈ (b) tan θ = ∈ / ∈ ∂y 2
p 1 2 p 1 2
∂2F ω
(c) tan θp = ∈2 / ∈1 (d) tan h θ p = ∈2 / ∈1 = α 2e−αz sin ( x − vt )
∂z 2 v
IES - 1999
Hence from equation (2)
Ans. (c) : Zero reflection for parallel polarization-
ω2 ω ω F
η1 sin θi = η2 sin θt − 2 e−αz sin ( x − vt ) + α 2e−αz sin ( x − vt ) = 2
v v v C
or ε1 sin θi = ε 2 sin θ t ω  −ω 2
 F
or e −αz sin ( x − vt )  2 + α 2  = 2
or ε1 sin θp = ε 2 sin 90° − θp ( ) v  v  C
(from Brewster's law of total internal reflection) ω2 1

α2 − =
v2 c2
sin θp ε2
or = ω2 α2c2 − 1
cos θp ε1 =
v2 c2
ε2
or tan θp = v2 c2
ε1 =
ω2 α2c2 − 1
c2 Ans. (c) : for total internal reflection -
or v = ω
α 2c2 − 1 n1 sinθc = n2 sin90°
  n2 ε2
or sinθc = =
v = ωc  
1
or n1 ε1
 2 2 1 
(
 α c −1 ) 2 
 1 1
No answer match. = =
2 2
190. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on ∴ θc = 45°
the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster
193. A region shown below contains a perfect
angle, the reflected wave will be
conducting half-space and air. The surface
(a) elliptically polarized
current K s on the surface of perfect conductor
(b) linearly polarized
(c) right circularly polarized is K s = xɵ 2 amperes per meter. The tangential
(d) left circularly polarized H field in the air just above the perfect
IES - 1999 conductor is -
Ans. (a) : For an elliptically polarized wave incident on
the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle, the
reflected wave will be elliptically polarized.
ε2
Brewster angle, tan φp =
ε1
191. For electromagnetic wave propagation in free
space, the free space is defined as (a) ( xˆ + zˆ ) amperes per meter
(a) σ = 0,∈= 1, µ ≠ 1,p ≠ 0, j = 0 (b) x̂2 amperes per meter
(b) σ = 0,∈= 1, µ = 1,p = 0, j = 0 (c) – ẑ2 amperes per meter
(d) ẑ2 amperes per meter
(c) σ ≠ 0,∈> 1, µ < 1,p ≠ 0, j = 0
GATE-2014
(d) σ = 0,∈= 1, µ = 1,p ≠ 0, j ≠ 0 Ans. (d) : For tangential magnetic field
IES - 1999 H t − H t = K s × aɵ n
1 2
Ans. (b) : For free space - magnetic field inside a perfect conductor is zero
σ = 0, εr = 1, µr = 1 H t1 = 0
also J = σ E = 0
H t 2 = K s × aɵ n
Polarisation P = X m ε 0 E
ˆ × yˆ
= x2
Where, Xm = (εr–1)
H t 2 = z2
ˆ A/m
Hence P = ( ε r − 1) ε 0 E
194. A uniform plane wave is incident from free
= (1 − 1) ε0 E
space (z < 0) normally on an isotropic perfect
= 0. dielectric medium (z > 0), characterized by the
192. A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a 4 0 0
dielectric-dielectric boundary with ∈r1 = 2 and permittivity matrix [ε ] = ε0 0 9 0 and
∈r2 = 1 . The angle of incidence for total 0 0 4
reflection is : µ=µ0, The electric field of the incident wave is
(a) 30º (b) 60º E1 = E0 cos( ωt – β z) aˆ y where ω = 3 × 109 π and
(c) 45º (d) 90º β = 10π. The electric field of the transmitted
IES – 2003, 1999 wave Et is given by
2 195. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an
(a) E 0 cos ( ωt − βz ) aˆ x
3 electromagnetic field of frequency 'f ' in a
2E 0 conductor of resistivity ρ and permeability µ is
(b) cos ( ωt − 2βz ) aˆ x
3 (a) Inversely proportional to ρ and f and directly
1
(c) E 0 cos ( ωt − βz ) aˆ y proportional to µ.
2 (b) Directly proportional to ρ and inversely
1
(d) E 0 cos ( ωt − 3βz ) aˆ y proportional to f and µ.
2 (c) Directly proportional to f and inversely
IES - 1998
proportional to ρ and µ.
Ans. (*) : It is given that
(d) Inversely proportional to ρ and µ and directly
 4 0 0
proportional to f.
[ ε] = 0 9 0 ε0 and µ = µ0 IES - 1998
0 0 4
Ans. (b) : For conductor -
comparing with -
1
ε xx ε xy ε xz  skin depth (δ) =
  α
[ ε] = ε yx ε yy ε yz  ε0 2 2ρ
  δ= =
 ε zx ε zy ε zz  fµσ fµ
as the wave is travelling in Z- direction, so that Z-
Hence δ∝ ρ
component of permittivity is considered.
∴ ε 2 = ε zz = 4 1 1
δ∝ &δ ∝
f µ
196. For a transmission of wave from a dielectric
medium of permittivity ε1 into a dielectric
medium of lower permittivity ε2 and (ε1 > ε2)
2η2 2 ε1 the critical angle of incidence θc (relative to the
∴ τ= =
η1 + η2 ε1 + ε 2 interface) is given by
∴ Where, ε1 = 1 & ε2 = 4 ε2 ε2
(a) sin −1 (b) cos −1
2 1 2 ε1 ε1
∴ τ =
1+ 4 3 ε2 ε1
(c) tan −1 (d) sin −1
E ε1 ε2
also τ = t ⇒ E t = τEi
Ei IES - 1998
2 Ans. (a) : Here θi = θc (critical angle)
= Ei
3
θr = 90°
2
= E 0 cos(ωt − β 'z)aɵ y sin θc ε
3 ∴ = 2
also we have sin 90° ε1
vp = ω = 1  ε 
β µε or θc = sin −1  2 
 ε1 
1
⇒ β∝ ∝ µε ∝ ε 197. For incidence from dielectric medium 1(ε1) on
vp
to dielectric medium 2(ε2), the Brewster angle
β' ε θB and the corresponding angle of transmission
∴ = 2 =2 θt for ε1/ε2 = 3 will be respectively.
β ε1
(a) 30º and 30º (b) 30º and 60º
2
E t = E 0 cos ( ωt − 2βz ) aɵ y (c) 60º and 30º (d) 60º and 60º
3 IES - 1998
ε1 199. The sum of two oppositely rotating circularly
Ans. (b) : Given =3
ε2 polarized, waves of equal amplitude will be
(a) A circularly polarized wave
∴ Brewster's angle-
(b) A linearly polarized wave
ε2 1
tan θB = = (c) An elliptically polarized wave
ε1 3 (d) An unpolarized wave
⇒ θB = 30° IES - 1998
Hence by snell's law- Ans. (b) : Equation of two opposite circular polarized
sin θB ε wave has 90° phase difference and follows the left hand
= 2
sin θt ε1 and right hand circulation. Their wave equation can be
written as -
1
=
3 E = E0 sin ( ωt − βz ) aɵ x + E 0 cos ( ωt − βz ) aɵ y ––––(1)
∴ sinθt = 3 sin 30° and E = E0 sin ( ωt − βz ) aɵ x − E 0 cos ( ωt − βz ) aɵ y ––––(2)

3 adding equation (1) and (2) -
=
2 2E = 2E0sin( ωt – β z) aɵ x
∴ θt = 60°
⇒ E = E0 sin ( ωt – β z) aɵ x
198. In an isotropic inhomogeneous dielectric
Which is linearly horizontal polarized wave.
medium, free of charges and currents, the wave
equation for electric field having harmonic 200. Which one of the following statements does not
time dependence of exp (j ωt) is given by pertain to the equation? ∇.B = 0 ?
(k2 = ω2µε). (a) There are no sinks and sources for magnetic
∇ε fields
(a) ∇ 2 E + + k 2E = 0
ε (b) Magnetic field is perpendicular to the electric
( )
(b) ∇ 2 E + ∇ε εΕ + k 2 E = 0
field.
(c) Single magnetic pole, cannot exist
 ∇ε  (d) B is solenoidal
(c) ∇ 2 E + ∇  E + +k E = 0
2
 ε  IES - 1997
∇ε
(d) ∇ E + E ×
2
+k E=0
2
Ans. (b) : ∇.B = 0 states that divergence of magnetic
ε
flux density (B) is zero.
IES - 1998
So, ∇.B = 0 options a,c and d are correct except
Ans. (*) : At steady state in s domain
option b.
∇ × E = − jωµH ––––––(1)
201. If H = 0.2cos(ωt - βx)az A/m is the magnetic
Taking curl on both side -
field of a wave in free space, then the average
∇ × ( ∇ × E ) = − jωµ ( ∇ × H )
power passing through a circle of radius 5 cm
⇒ ∇ ( ∇.E ) − ∇ E = − jωµ ( ∇ × H )
2 in the x = 1 plane will be approximately.
(a) 30 mW (b) 60 mW
⇒ ∇ ( ∇.E ) − ∇2 E = − jωµ ( jωεE ) (c) 120 mW (d) 150 mW
∵ ∇ × H = jωεE  IES - 1997
Ans. (b) : Given H = 0.2cos( ωt–βx) aɵ z
⇒ ∇2 E − ∇ ( ∇.E ) + ω2µεE = 0
Here H0 = 0.2 A/m
⇒ ∇ 2E − ∇ ( ∇.E ) + k 2 E = 0 η0 = 120π Ω for free space
= 377 Ω
where k = ω µε 1
η0 ( H 0 ) × A
2
∴ Power density =
⇒ No option match 2

η0 ( H 0 ) × ( πr 2 )
1 2 204. From a solution of wave equation in a
=
2 conducting medium we can determine various
parameters. In the light of this, match List-I
1
( )
= × 377 ( 0.2 ) × ( 3.14 ) 5 × 10−2
2 2
2 with List-II and select the correct answer using

the codes given below the lists :
= 60 mW
List -I (Parameter)
202. The critical angle in degrees, for
(A) Propagation constant (B) Skin depth
electromagnetic wave passing from quartz
(C) Sheet resistance
(µ = µ0, ε = 4ε0) into air is
List - II (Expression)
(a) 15 (b) 30 1/ 2 1/ 2
 2   ωµ0 
(c) 45 (d) 90 1.   2.  
 ωµσ   2σ 
IES - 1996
−1/ 2
 ωµ0 σ 
3. ( jωµ0 σ )
Ans. (b) : 1/ 2
4.  
 2 
Codes :
A B C
(a) 3 2 1
(b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 4
sin θc ε0 1 (d) 2 4 3
∴ = =
sin 90° 4ε 0 2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
1 UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
∴ θc = sin–1  2  = 30° Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
IES - 1995, 1993
203. Two linearly polarized plane waves A and B Ans. (b) : For a material
travelling in free space in the +ve X direction Propagation constant (γ) = α+jβ
meet at a point. Wave A is polarized in the Y
= jωµ ( σ + jωε )
direction and the wave B is polarized in the Z
direction. If the two waves are of equal for conductor σ = ∞
amplitude and are in phase quadrature, the ∴ γ = α + jβ = jωµσ
resultant wave will be
Now, skin depth -
(a) Circularly polarized
1 2
(b) elliptically polarized δ= =
α ωµσ
(c) Linearly polarized
(d) vertically polarized Sheet resistance-
IES - 1995 jωµ
η= = R + jx (Intrinsic impedance)
σ + jωε
Ans. (a) : Here E A = Esin ( ωt − βx ) a y ɵ
For conductor - (σ = ∞)
and E B = Esin ( ωt − βx ± 90° ) aɵ z ωµ
∴ η=X=
= ± Ecos ( ωt − βx ) aɵ z 2σ
205. An electromagnetic wave is obliquely incident
Hence Resultant E wave - at the surface of a dielectric medium 2( µ2, ε2)
E = E sin ( ωt–β x) a y ± E cos ( ωt − βx ) a z
ɵ ɵ from dielectric medium 1 (µ1,ε1). The angle of
incidence is θi and θc is the critical angle. Then
Phase difference of E y and E z = 90° the phenomenon of total reflection occurs when
and E y = E z = E (a) ε1 > ε2 and θi < θc (b) ε1 < ε2 and θi > θc
(c) ε1 < ε2 and θi < θc (d) ε1 > ε2 and θi > θc
Hence It is circular polarization of E wave.
IES - 1995
Ans. (d) : 207. Consider the following statements regarding a
linearly polarized wave travelling in a dielectric
medium which is incident at the planer
interface with a rarer medium and is totally
internally reflected.
The transmitted wave in the second medium
Let v1 and v2 are the velocity in medium (1) and (2) will be
sin θi v1 1. growing 2. nonuniform
∴ =
sin θr v 2 3. linearly polarized 4. attenuated
For obtaining total internal reflection, wave must travel 5. circularly polarized 6. elliptically
from high refractive index to low refractive index. This polarized
will happen if v2 > v1
Of these statements
1 1
i.e. > (a) 2, 4 and 6 are correct
µ0ε0ε2 µ 0ε0 ε1 (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c c (c) 3, 4 and 5 are correct
or >
ε2 ε1 (d) 2, 4 and 5 are correct
⇒ ε1 > ε 2 ––––(1) IES - 1994
In this case θi = θc (i.e. critical angle). Ans. (b) : According to question the transmitted wave
and wave travel from denser to rarer medium in the second medium will be growing, non uniform and
Thus θi > θc ––––(2) attenuated.
206. Consider the following statements pertaining to 208. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave at
a uniform plane wave travelling in the X- a point in free space is in the positive Y
direction : direction and the magnetic field is in the
1. E and H both independent to Y and Z negative X direction. The direction of power
2. E and H have no X-component flow will be in the
3. It has the same phase for all points and its (a) +X direction (b) +Y direction
amplitude is constant over a plane surface (c) +Z direction (d) –Z direction
4. If both Ey and Ez are present the direction IES - 1994
of resultant vector is constant with time
Ans. (c) : As P = E × H
Of these statements :
(a) 1 and 3 are correct ∴ Direction of power flow
(b) 2 and 4 are correct = aɵ y × ( −a x )
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct ( )
= − aɵ y × aɵ x
IES - 1995
Ans. (c) : Electromagnetic wave travel in X-direction ( )
= − −aɵ z
can be shown in general -
= aɵ z
E =  E 0 e −αx e( ωt −βx )  aɵ y –––(1)
209. The electric field vector E of a wave in free
−αx ( ωt −βx ) ɵ

H =  E0e e  space (ε0, µ0) is given by
and  a z ––––(2)
From equation (1) and (2) it is clear that -   z 
E = y  Acosω  t -  
(1) E and H both independent to Y and Z.   c 
(2) E wave and H wave have no X-component. Its magnetic vector H will be given by
(3) It has the same phase for all points and it's amplitude
  z 
is constant over a plane surface. (a) H = y  A sin ω  t −  
  c 
(4) Direction of resultant wave of E y and E z depends
  z 
on time as it is the function of both space and time (b) H = z  A cos ω  t −  
respectively.   c 

 ε  z  Ans. (c) : For a linear (Horizontal /vertical) polarised
(c) H = x  − j 0 A cos ω  t −  
 µ 0  c  electric wave –
 (1) The phase difference between two E waves must be

ε  z 
(d) H = x  − j 0 A sin ω  t −   zero, i.e. they are in same phase.
 µ0  c 
(2) their amplitude may differ.
IES - 1994
(3) for circularly polarised wave phase difference = 90°
Ans. (d) : Given
(4) and for elliptically polarisation
 z π
E = A cos ω  t −  aɵ y 0<φ<
 c 2
Direction of propagation of wave = aɵ z 211. Polarization is a measure of
∴ Direction of H wave propagation. (a) dielectric constant per unit volume
(b) voltage gradient to produce electric
aɵ y × a H = aɵ z
breakdown
(Where a H is considered magnetic field direction) (c) product of charge and distance
a H = − a x direction. (d) excess charge density
for free space. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-II
E IES - 1992
η=
H Ans. (c) : Polarization ( P ) may be defined as dipole
moment per unit volume.
E ε0
H = = E P Qd
η µ0 i.e. P = =
∆V ∆V
ε0 That means polarization is a measure of product of
= A
µ0 charge and distance.
∴ Equation of H wave becomes – 212. The input impedance of a short circuited
lossless transmission line quarter wave long is
ε0  z∧
H = −j A cos ω  t −  a x (a) purely reactive
µ0  c
(b) purely resistive
 ε  z  (c) infinite
H = x  − j 0 A sin ω  t −  
 µ 0  c  (d) dependent on the characteristic impedance of
210. Two linearly polarized plane waves A and B the line
travelling in free space in the positive X RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI- 05.11.2019
direction meet at a point. The wave A is GATE-1991
polarized in the Y direction and the wave B is Ans. (c) : Given ZL = 0
polarized in the Z direction. The resulting wave for quarter wave line –
is linearly polarized. Therefore A and B.
2π λ π
(a) must have equal amplitudes and must also be βℓ = =
λ 4 2
in time phase with each other
 Z cos β ℓ + jZ0 sin β ℓ 
(b) must have equal amplitudes but need not be ∴ Zin = Z0  L 
in time phase  Z0 cos β ℓ + jZL sin β ℓ 
(c) may have different amplitudes but must be in   π 
 jZ0 sin  2  
phase with each other in time = Z0   
(d) may have different amplitudes and may also  Z cos π  

 0  
differ in time phase 2
IES - 1993 =∞

213. A transmission line whose characteristic Ans. (a) : Given –
impedance is a real Z0 = 50 Ω, Vs = 1V
(a) must be a lossless line π
βℓ =
(b) must be a distortion less line 2
(c) may not be a lossless line ZL = 0
(d) may not be a distortion less line since for quarter wave transformer, transmission line.
GATE-1992 Z 20
Zin =
Ans. (b&c) : Lossless line has:R=G=0 ZL
L ∵ ZL = 0 Ω
Z0 =
C ⇒ Zin = ∞
Distortionless line Vs 1
Hence source current (Is) = = =0
L Zin ∞
Z=
C 216. The capacitance per unit length and the
A transmission line must be distortionless and not be a characteristic impedance of a lossless
lossless line for real characteristic impedance. transmission line are C and Z0 respectively.
The velocity of a travelling wave on the
214. Consider a transmission line of characteristic transmission line is
impedance 50 ohm. Let it be terminated at one (a) Z0 C (b) 1/(Z0 C)
end by (+j50) ohm. The VSWR produced by it (c) Z0/C (d) C/Z0
in the transmission line will be GATE-1996
(a) +1 (b) 0
L
(c) ∞ (d) +j Ans. (b) : Given Z0 = ⇒ L = Z0 C
C
GATE-1993
1
Ans. (c) : Given Z0 = 50 Ω ∴ Phase velocity (Vp) =
LC
ZL = j50 Ω 1
=
Z − Z0 C.Z0 C
∴ Γ = L
Z L + Z0
= 1
Z0 C
j50 − 50
= 217. All transmission line section in Figure have a
j50 + 50
characteristic impedance R0 + j0. The input
j −1 impedance Zin equals
=
j +1
1+ Γ
∴ VSWR =
1− Γ
1+1
= =∞
1 −1
215. A lossless transmission line having 50 Ω
characteristic impedance and length λ/4 is
short circuited at one end and connected to an
ideal voltage source of 1 V at the other end. 2
(a) R0 (b) R 0
The current drawn from the voltage sources is 3
(a) 0 (b) 0.02 A 3
(c) R 0 (d) 2 R0
(c) ∞ (d) none of the these 2
GATE-1996 GATE-1998
Ans. (b) : For λ / 4 section transmission line- ∴ Electrical path = β ℓ =
2π
×ℓ
λ
Z201 R2
Zin1 = = 0 = 2R 0 2π
ZL1 R / 2 = × 50 × 10−2
λ
For λ / 2 section transmission line-
π
ZinL = 2R 0 βℓ = radian
2
For λ / 8 section transmission line- 219. The magnitudes of the open-circuit and short-
ZL = Zin1 || Zin12 circuit input impedances of a transmission line
are 100 Ω and 25 Ω respectively. The
= 2R 0 || 2R 0
characteristic impedance of the line is,
ZL = R 0 (a) 25 Ω (b) 50 Ω
For λ / 8 section transmission line- (c) 75 Ω (d) 100 Ω
 Z + jZ0  GATE-2000
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z0 + jZL  Ans. (b) : Given, ZOC= 100Ω, ΖSC = 25Ω
We have characteristic impedance
 R + jR 0 
= R0  0  Z0 = ZOC × ZSC
 R 0 + jR 0 
= 2500
Zin = R0
= 50 Ω
218. In air, a lossless transmission line of length 50
cm with L = 10 µH/m, C = 40 pF/m is operated 220. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave incident
at 25 MHz. Its electrical path length is normally on a plane surface of a dielectric
material is reflected with a VSWR of 3. What is
(a) 0.5 meters (b) λ meters
the percentage of incident power that is
(c) π/2 radians (d) 180 degree reflected?
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II (a) 10% (b) 25%
GATE-1999 (c) 50% (d) 75%
Ans. (c) : Given – ℓ = 50 cm = 50×10–2 m GATE-2001
f = 25 MHz Ans. (b) : Given, VSWR = 3
L = 10µH/m 1+ Γ
∵ VSWR =
= 10×10–6 H/m 1− Γ
C = 40 pF/m 1+ Γ
⇒ =3
= 40 ×10–12 F/m 1− Γ
1
∵ Phase velocity (Vp) = ⇒ 1+ Γ = 3(1− Γ )
LC
Vp ⇒ Γ + 3 Γ = 3 −1
Also Vp = fλ ⇒ λ =
f 2 1
⇒ Γ= =
1 4 2
λ = 2
f LC ∴ % reflected power = Γ × 100
1 2
∴ λ= 1
( 25 ×10 ) 6 −6
10 × 10 × 40 × 10 −12 =   × 100
2
1 = 25 %
=
25 × 10 6
400 × 10−18 221. In an impedance Smith chart, a clockwise
3 movement along a constant resistance circle
10
= gives rise to
25 × 20
(a) a decrease in the value of reactance
λ = 2 meter.
(b) an increase in the value of reactance
(c) no change in the reactance value = jZ0
(d) no charge in the impedance value = j 50 Ω
GATE-2002 1
∴ Yin(2) = mho.
Ans. (b) : In an impedance smith chart a clockwise j50
movement along a constant resistance circle gives
= – j 0.02 mho.
increase in the of value of reactance.
∴ Yin = Yin(1) + Yin(2)
222. A short-circuited stub is shunt connected to a
= (0.01 – j0.02) mho.
transmission line as shown in the figure. If Z0 =
50Ω, the admittance Y seen at the junction of 223. Consider a 300Ω, quarter-wave long (at 1 GHz)
the stub and the transmission line is transmission line as shown in the figure. It is
connected to a 10V, 50Ω source at one end and
is left open circuited at the other end. The
magnitude of the voltage at the open circuit end
of the line is
(a) 10 V (b) 5 V
(a) (0.01–j0.02) mho (b) (0.02–j0.01) mho (c) 60 V (d) 60/7 V
(c) (0.04–j0.02) mho (d) (0.02+j0) mho
GATE-2004
GATE-2003
Ans. (c) : Given, Z0 = 300Ω, Zin = 50Ω, Vin = 10V
λ
Ans. (a) : case (i) for ℓ = length, we have - λ
2 For ℓ = distributed transformer, we have -
4
2π λ
βℓ = . =π Z 20
λ 2 Zin =
ZL
 Z + jZ0 tan β ℓ 
∴ Zin(i) = Z0  L 
 Z0 + jZL tan β ℓ  Z 20 300 × 300
⇒ ZL = =
Zin 50
 Z + jZ0 tan ( π ) 
= Z0  L  = 1800 Ω
 Z0 + jZ L tan ( π ) 
If ZL > Z0, then -
= ZL
ZL
= 100 Ω VSWR =
Z0
1 –1
∴ Yin(i) = Ω 1800
100 =
= 0.01 mho. 300
λ 2π λ π =6
Case - (ii) for ℓ = ⇒ β ℓ = . =
8 λ 8 4 ∴ Magnitude of voltage at open circuited load line
λ = Vin×(VSWR)
at ℓ = , ZL is short circuit, i.e. ZL = 0
8 = 10×6
 Z + jZ0 tan ( βℓ )  = 60V
∴ Zin(2) = Z0  L 
 Z0 + jZL tan ( βℓ )  224. Consider an impedance Z = R +jX marked
with point P in an impedance Smith chart as
  π
 jZ0 tan  4   shown in figure. The movement from point P
= Z0   
along a constant resistance circle in the
 Z0 
  clockwise direction by an angle 450 is
equivalent to-
2 120π − η2
⇒ =
3 120π + η2
⇒ 240π + 2η2 = 360π − 3η2
⇒ 5η2 = 120π
⇒ η2 = 24π.
226. A lossless transmission line is terminated in a
(a) adding an inductance in series with Z load which reflects a part of the incident
(b) adding a capacitance in series with Z power. The measured VSWR is 2. The
(c) adding an inductance in shunt across Z percentage of the power that is reflected back is
(d) adding a capacitance in shunt across Z (a) 57.73 (b) 33.33
GATE-2004 (c) 0.11 (d) 11.11
Ans. (a) : As per given Smith chart point of intersection BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
at point P GATE-2004
Constant resistance circle r = 0.5
Ans. (d) : Given , VSWR = 2
Constant reactance circle X = –1
VSWR − 1
∴ impedance Z = 0.5 +j (1) ∴ Γ =
VSWR + 1
When reactance circle moves from point P at 45º along
2 −1 1
resistance circle, only reactance increases in positive = =
direction, resistance remains constant. 2 +1 3
2
This shows only inductance is added in series with Z. ∴ % Reflected power = Γ × 100
225. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in 2
1
free space is incident normally on large slab of =   × 100
3
loss-less, non-magnetic, dielectric material with
∈ > ∈0. Maxima and minima are observed = 11.11 %
when the electric field is measured in front of 227. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line
the slab. The maximum electric field is found to is 50Ω. Input impedance of the open-circuited
be 5 times the minimum field. The intrinsic line is ZOC = 100 + j150 Ω. When the
impedance of the medium should be transmission line is short-circuited, then value
(a) 120 πΩ (b) 60 πΩ of the input impedance will be
(c) 600 πΩ (d) 24 πΩ (a) 50Ω (b) 100 + j150Ω
GATE-2004 (c) 7.69 + j11.54Ω (d) 7.69–j11.54 Ω
Ans. (d) : We have - GATE-2005
E Ans. (d) : we have
VSWR = max = 5
E min
Z02
Zin2 =
1+ | Γ | Zoc
VSWR =
1− | Γ |
50 × 50
1+ | Γ | =
5= 100 + j150
1− | Γ |
50
5 − 5 | Γ |= 1+ | Γ | =
2 + j3
So that reflection coefficient (Γ) =
2 50 ( 2 − j3)
3 =
13
Now reflection coefficient for magnetic field 100 150
= −j
η1 − η2 13 13
Γ=
η1 + η2 = (7.69 – j11.54)Ω

228. Many circles are drawn in a Smith chart used Then ZL = Z1|| Z2
for transmission line calculations. The circles Z1Z 2 25 × 25
shown in the figure represent = =
Z1 + Z 2 75
25
= Ω
3
Z0 = 50Ω
Z02
Zs =
ZL
(a) unit circles
( 50 )
2
(b) constant resistance circles
(c) constant reactance circles Zs = = 300Ω
25/ 3
(d) constant reflection coefficient circles Zs − Z 0
GATE-2005 Γ=
Zs + Z0
Ans. (b) : The circles shown in the figure represent
300 − 50 5
constant resistance circles. = =
300 + 50 7
229. The parallel branches of a 2-wire transmission
line are terminated in 100 Ω and 200 Ω 230. One end of a loss-less transmission line having
resistors as shown in the figure. The the characteristic impedance of 75Ω and length
characteristic impedance of the line is Z0 = 50Ω of 1 cm is short-circuited. At 3 GHz, the input
and each section has a length of λ/4. The impedance at the other end of the transmission
voltage reflection coefficient Γ at the input is line is
(a) 0 (b) Resistive
(c) Capacitive (d) Inductive
GATE-2008
Ans. (d) : The input impedance of a transmission line is
 Z + jZ0 tan ( β ℓ ) 
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z0 + jZL tan ( β ℓ ) 
Given ZL = 0 & Z0 = 75Ω
⇒ Zin = jZ0tan ( βℓ )
Now wavelength of line-
c 3 × 108
λ= =
7 −5 f 3 × 109
(a) − j (b) = 0.1 m
5 7
5 5 = 10 cm
(c) j (d)
7 7 Then for ℓ = 1 cm
GATE-2007
2π
λ βℓ = .ℓ
Ans. (d) : At ℓ = length λ
4 2π
Z 201 = ×1
Z1 = 10
Z L1 ∴ for β ℓ = 0.2π
50 × 50 tan β ℓ = tan 0.2π = 0.7265
=
100
Zin = J ( 75 × 0.7265 )
= 25 Ω
Z 25 (+ve)
and Z2 = 1 = Ω Hence, Nature of load is purely inductive.
2 2
231. A transmission line terminates in two branches, L
each of length λ/4, as shown. The branches are Z0 =
C
terminated by 50 Ω loads. The lines are lossless
∵ line is distortion less also -
and have the characteristic impedances shown,
Determine the impedance Zi as seen by the L C L R
Then = ⇒ =
source. R G C G
R
∴ Z0 =
G
R
⇒ G=
Z0
substitute the value of G in equation (1)
we get -
(a) 200 Ω (b) 100 Ω
α = RG
(c) 50 Ω (d) 25 Ω
R. R
GATE-2009 =
Z0
λ
Ans. (d) : At , R 0.1
4 = =
we have - Z0 50
Z20 100 × 100 = 0.002 (Np/m)

Z1 = = = 200Ω
Z L1 50 233. In the circuit shown, all the transmission line
sections are lossless. The voltage Standing
Z02 100 × 100 Wave Ratio (VSWR) on the 60 Ω line is
Z2 = = = 200Ω
Z L2 50
ZL = Z1 | | Z2
= 100 Ω
λ
Now input impedance for transfer we have -
4
ZL = 100Ω
Z0 = 50 Ω
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.64
Z2 (c) 2.50 (d) 3.00
∴ Zin = 0
ZL GATE-2010
50 × 50 λ
= Ans. (b) : From load side at ℓ = we have -
100 4
= 25 Ω Z 20
232. A transmission line has a characteristic Zin(1) =
ZL
impedance of 50Ω and a resistance of 0.1 Ω/m.
(30 2 )
2
If the line is distortion less, the attenuation
constant (in Np/m) is = = 60 Ω
30
(a) 500 (b) 5
λ π
(c) 0.014 (d) 0.002 At ℓ= ⇒ βℓ =
8 4
GATE-2010
  π 
Ans. (d) : For a distortion less transmission line the  ZL + jZ0 tan  4  
value of attenuation constant gives real value and may Zin(2) = Z0   
be defined as -  Z + jZ tan  π  
 0 L  
 4 
α = RG –––––(1)
The characteristic impedance for a lossless line is ∵ ZL = 0

Zin = jZ0 = j30Ω (a) 10 Ω (b) 250 Ω
These two loads are series connected - (c) (19.23 + j46.15) Ω (d) (19.23 – j46.15) Ω
∴ ZL = Zin(1) + Zin(2) GATE-2011
= (60 + j 30)Ω Ans. (a) : Given,
Z − Z0 1+ Γ
Now reflection coefficient (Γ) = L VSWR = 5 =
Z L + Z0 1− Γ
60 + j30 − 60 VSWR − 1 5 − 1
= or Γ = =
60 + j30 + 60 VSWR + 1 5 + 1
j30 2
= =
120 + j30 3
j λ
= ∵ Maximum voltage at a distance of from load
4 + j1 4
1 Minimum voltage at load it self.
∴ Γ = ZL < Z0
17
−2
1+
1 Γ=
1+ Γ 3
∴ VSWR = = 17
1− Γ 1− 1 Z L − Z0 2
∴Γ= =−
17 Z L + Z0 3
17 + 1 Z L − 50 −2
= or =
17 − 1 Z L + 50 3
VSWR = 1.64 –2(ZL + 50) = 3(ZL–50)
234. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z L = 10 Ω
50Ω is terminated by a 50Ω load. When excited 236. A coaxial-cable with an inner diameter of 1 mm
by a sinusoidal voltage source at 10 GHz, the and outer diameter of 2.4 mm is filled with a
phase difference between two points spaced 2 dielectric of relative permittivity 10.89. Given
mm apart on the line is found to be π/4 radians.
10 −9
The phase velocity of the wave along the line is µ0 = 4π × 10–7 H/m, ε 0 = F / m , The
8 8 36π
(a) 0.8 × 10 m/s (b) 1.2 × 10 m/s
8
characteristic impedance of the cable is
(c) 1.6×10 m/s (d) 3 × 108 m/s
(a) 330 Ω (b) 100 Ω
GATE-2011
(c) 143.2 Ω (d) 15.91 Ω
2π π
Ans. (c) : We have given β = = GATE-2012
λ 4
Ans. (d) : Given data,
λ = 8 mm
µ 0 = 4π × 10−7 H / m
∴ Phase difference = (2×8) mm
= 16 mm 1
ε0 = × 10−9 F / m
Excitation frequency (f) = 10 GHz 36 π
= 10×109 Hz ε r = 10.89
∴ Phase velocity (Vp) = f.λ Radius → a = 0.5 mm, b = 1.2 mm
=10× 109×16× 10–3 m/s Characteristic impedance of cable is given as -
= 1.6×108 m/sec.  µ0  1 b
235. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 =  ε ε  . 2π ℓ n a
 0 r
50Ω is terminated in a load impedance ZL. The
VSWR of the line is measured as 5 and the first  
 4π× 10−7 1  1 2.4
of the voltage maxima in the line is observed at Z0 =  ×  ℓn
×10−9 10.89  2π
 1 1
a distance of λ/4 from the load. The value of ZL.
 36π 
is
120π 1 where η → impedance of free space = 377 Ω
Z0 = × ℓ n 2.4
2π 10.89 1
So Savg = × ( 0.1) × 377aˆ x
2
Z 0 = 15.91Ω 2
Total power crossing through 10 cm plate on plane
237. A transmission line with a characteristic x + 2y = 1.0
impedance of 100 Ω is used to match a 50 Ω 1 
( )
section to a 200 Ω section. If the matching is to ST =  2 × 0.01× 377aˆ x  × 10 ×10
 
−2 2
be done at 429 MHz and 1 GHz, the length of −3

the transmission line can be approximately ST = 8.42 ×10 W = 8.42 mW
(a) 82.5 cm (b) 1.05 m 239. For a parallel plate transmission line, let v be
(c) 1.58 m (d) 1.75 m the speed of propagation and Z be the
ISRO Scientist-May, 2017 characteristic impedance. Neglecting fringe
GATE-2012 effects, a reduction of the spacing between the
plates by a factor of two results in
Ans. (c) : Wave length for 429 MHz frequency
(a) halving of v and no change in Z
c 3 ×108
λ1 = = = 0.7m = 70 cm (b) no changes in v and halving of Z
f 429 × 106
(c) no change in both v and z
similarly wavelength for 1 GHz frequency
(d) halving of both v and z
c 3 × 108 GATE-2014
λ2 = = m = 0.3m = 30 cm.
f 1× 109
L
The matching of transmission line to be done between Ans. (b) : For parallel plate transmission line Z0 =
C
integral multiple of these two wavelength i.e.
LCM (70.30) µh / ω
Z0 =
λ = 210 cm. εω / h
λ µ
Thus corresponding quarter wavelength = cm Z0 =
4 ε0
210
= h
4 Z0 =
ω
= 52.5 cm
From above expression we can say that if we reduced h,
which does not match any given options in the question. z0 will also decrease.
Hence odd integral multiple of wavelength is
1 1
= 52.5 × 3 Speed of propagation is v = =
LC µε0
= 157.5 cm
From above expression we can see that voltage doesn’t
λ = 1.58 meter.
depend upon spacing between the plates. So that’s why
238. In free space, H = 0.1 cos ( ωt – β x)az A/m
v will not change.
(ax, ay, az are unit vectors along x, y and z axis
respectively) The total power passing through a 240. In the following figure, the transmitter Tx sends
square plate of side 10 cm on plane x + 2y = 1.0, a wideband modulated RF signal via a coaxial
is approximately : cable to the receiver Rx. The output impedance
(a) 42.12 mW (b) 16.85 mW ZT of Tx the characteristic impedance Z0 of the
(c) 18.84 mW (d) 8.425 mW cable and the input impedance ZR or Rx are all
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 real.
Ans. (d) : Given, H = 0.1cos ( ωt − β x ) a z A / m
Plane x + 2y = 1
Side of square plate = 10 cm.
Average power -
1
Savg = H 2 η aˆ x
2
Which one of the following statements is True
about the distortion of the received signal due
to impedance mismatch?
(d)
(a) The signal gets distorted if ZR ≠ Z0,
irrespective of the value of ZT.
(b) The signal gets distorted if ZT ≠ Z0,
irrespective of the value of ZR. GATE-2015
(c) Signal distortion implies impedance Ans. (b) : The spacing between conductors is filled with
mismatch at both ends ZT ≠ Z0 and ZR ≠ Z0 Teflon for Teflon ( εr = 2.1) , ( tan δ = 0 )
(d) Impedance mismatches don’t result in signal
For the medium (G = 0)
distortion but reduce power transfer
efficiency.
GATE-2014
Ans. (c) : The given transmission line is redrawn as
shown below if either of ZR and ZT i.e. matched with Z0
it will cause complete absorption of signal travelling on
the line, In other words for distortion less signal
242. Consider the 3 m long lossless air-filled
transmission there must be perfect impedance matching
transmission line shown in the figure. It has a
at both transmitted and receiving end.
characteristic impedance of 120πΩ, is
So for distorted signal we have both condition terminated by a short circuit, and is excited
ZT ≠ Z0 , Z R ≠ Z0 with a frequency of 37.5 MHz. What is the
241. A coaxial cable is made of two brass nature of the input impedance (Zin)?
conductors. The spacing between the
conductors is filled with Teflon (εr = 2.1, tan δ =
0). Which one of the following circuits can
represent the lumped element model of a small
piece of this cable having length ∆z?
(a) Open (b) Short

(c) Inductive (d) Capacitive
(a)
GATE-2015
Ans. (d) : we have Z0 = 120 πΩ
ZL = 0
f = 37.5 MHz
= 37.5 × 106 Hz
and ℓ = 3m
(b)
c 3 × 108
∴ λ= =
f 37.5 ×106
= 0.08×102 m
=8m
2π
∴ βℓ = ℓ
λ
(c) 2π 3π
= ×3 =
8 4
∵ For short circuited load, we get -

  3π   Again Z0 =
L
=
R
 jZ0 tan  4   C G
Zin = Z0   
 Z 0  L 100
  =
C 0.04
= j(120π)(–1) L
= 2500 –––(3)
= –j120πΩ C
Hence, input impedance is capacitive in nature. β 5
and LC = = 6
243. The propagation constant of a lossy ω 10
transmission line is (2 + j5)m–1 and its 25
⇒ LC = 12 –––––(4)
characteristic impedance is (50 + j0)Ω at 10
ω = 106 rad s–1. The value of the line constants From equation (3) and (4) we get.
L, C, R, G are respectively. 25
(2500C).C = 12
10
(a) L = 200 µH/m, C = 0.1 µF/m
25
R = 50Ω/m, G = 0.02 S/m ∴ C2 =
2500 × 1012
(b) L = 250 µH/m, C = 0.1 µF/m
C = 0.1 µF/m
R = 100Ω/m, G = 0.04 S/m and L = 250 µH/m
(c) L = 200 µH/m, C = 0.2 µF/m 244. A lossless microstrip transmission line consists
R = 100Ω/m, G = 0.02 S/m of a trace of width w. It is drawn over a
(d) L = 250 µH/m, C = 0.2 µF/m practically infinite ground plane and is
separated by a dielectric slab of thickness t and
R = 50Ω/m, G = 0.04 S/m
relative permittivity εr > 1. The inductance per
GATE-2016 unit length and the characteristic impedance of
Ans. (b) : Given characteristic impedance (Z0) this line are L and Z0, respectively.
Z0 = (50 + j0)Ω (real)
Propagation constant (ν) =α + jβ
= (2+j5) / meter
If characteristic impedance is purely real and
propagation constant is complex, the transmission line
Which one of the following inequalities is
is said to be distortionless. In this case-
always satisfied?
L C
= Lt Lt
R G (a) Z0 > (b) Z0 <
ε 0ε r w ε0ε r w
α = RG and β = ω LC ––––(1)
Lw Lw
L R (c) Z0 > (d) Z0 <
Now Z0 = = ε0ε r t ε 0ε r t
C G
GATE-2016
⇒ RG = Z0G Ans. (b) : Given,
α 2 D= t, A = w and ε = εeff
⇒ G= =
Z0 50 εeff .w
∴ C=
= 0.04 S/meter. t
from relation (1) Lt
∴ Z'0 =
RG = α = 2 wεeff
RG = α2 The capacitance C will be smaller than the actual
capacitance due to the fringing effects, since εeff < ε0 ε r
α2 ( 2)
2
R= = Lt
G 0.04 Z0 <
= 100 Ω/m ε0ε r w

245. The point P, Q and R shows on the Smith chart 247. The electric field component of a uniform plane
(normalized impedance chart) in the following electromagnetic wave propagating in the Y-
figure represent: direction in a lossless medium will satisfy the
equation
∂ 2E y ∂ 2E y ∂ 2E y ∂ 2E y
(a) = µ∈ (b) = µ∈
∂y 2 ∂t 2 ∂x 2 ∂t 2
∂ 2E x ∂ 2E x E 2x + E 2z
(c) = µε (d) = µ/∈
∂y 2 ∂t 2 H 2x + H z2
(a) P : Open Circuit, Q : Short Circuit, R :
Matched Load GATE-1991
(b) P : Open Circuit, Q : Matched Load R : Short Ans. (c & d) : In a uniform plane wave phase and
Circuit
magnitude are constant . Only change in direction of
(c) P : Short Circuit, Q : Matched Load R : Open
propagation.
Circuit
(d) P : Short Circuit, Q : Open Circuit, R : Hence required E wave equation along y- direction is
Matched Load ∂ 2E x ∂ 2E x
= µε
GATE-2018 ∂y 2 ∂t 2
Ans. (c) : (i) Point P→ short circuited (r = 0, x =0)
Ey E 2x + E z2 µ
Z − Z0 Also = = is also true.
ΓL = L Hy H 2x + H z2 ε
Z L + Z0
ΓL = –1 = 1 ∠180° 248. A material is described by the following
(ii) Point Q → matched load (r = 1, x = 0) electrical parameters at a frequency of 10 GHz
i.e. ZL = Z0 σ = 106 mho/m, µ = µ0 and ∈/∈0 = 10. The
⇒ ΓL = 1 martial at this frequency is considered to be
(iii) Point R→ open circuited (r = ∞, x = ∞)  1 
i.e. ZL = ∞  ∈0 = × 10 −9 F / m 
 36π 
ΓL = 1 = 1∠0° (a) a good conductor
Upper halt of smith chart represents inductive load and
(b) a good dielectric
lower half represent capacitive load respectively.
(c) neither a good conductor, nor a good
246. The impedances Z = jX, for all X in the range
dielectric
(−∞, ∞), map to the Smith chart as
(d) a good magnetic material
(a) a circle of radius 0.5 with centre at (0.5, 0)
(b) a point at the centre of the chart GATE-1993
(c) a line passing through the centre of the chart Ans. (a) : The material may be defined as the value of
(d) a circle of radius 1 with centre at (0, 0) loss tangent.
GATE-2020 σ JC
loss tangent = =
Ans. (d) : Given Z = jX ⇒ R = 0 ωε J D
Then for constant R –circle, we have -
σ 6
2 2 now =
 R  2  1  ωε 2π× 10 × 10 × 8.854 × 10−12 × 10
9
 ΓR −  + ΓI =  
 R +1  R +1  = 1.798×105>>1
⇒ ( Γ R )2 + ( Γ I )2 = 1 …….(1)
since
σ
>> 1 ⇒ σ >> ωε
Equation (1) represents a circle whose center is origin ωε
(0,0) and radius (r) = 1 Hence material is considered to be conductor.
249. A long solenoid of radius, R and having N turns
per unit length carries a time dependent
current I(t) = I0 cos ( ωt). The magnitude of
induced electric field at a distance R/2 radially
from the axis of the solenoid is

R R E y = −2sin ωt
(a) µ 0 N I0 ω sin ( ωt ) (b) µ0 N I0 ω cos ( ωt )
2 4
π 
R The angle between Ex and X-axis is  − ωt  , so with
(c) µ 0 N I0 ω sin ( ωt ) (d) Rµ0 N I0 ωsin ( ωt ) 2 
4
increase in time, the tip of the field intensity moves
GATE-1993
from y to x-axis and as wave is propagating
Ans. (c) : We know - in â z direction, the wave is left handed circularly
H.ℓ = nI ( t ) polarized.
n 251. A uniform plane wave in air is normally
ℓ=
N incident on an infinitely thick slab. If the
H = NI(t) refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5, then the
B = µ0 ( H ) percentage of the incident power that is
reflected from the air-glass interface is
= µ 0 NI ( t ) (a) 0% (b) 4%
B = µ0 NI0 cos ωt (c) 20% (d) 100%
By Maxwell's equation - GATE-1996
∂B Ans. (b) : Given η2 = 1.5 and η1 = 1
∫ E.dℓ = − ∫ ∂t .ds η − η2
∴ Reflection co-efficient (Γ) = 1
R ∂ πR 2 η2 + η1
E.2π. = − ( µ 0 I0 N cos ωt ) .
2 ∂t 4 1.5 − 1 1
Γ= =
πR 2 1.5 + 1 5
E.π.R = µ 0 NI0 ω sin ( ωt ) .
4 ∴ % reflected power = (Γ)2 × 100
2
R Pr  1 
E= µ 0 NI0 ω sin ( ωt ) = × 100
4 Pi  5 
250. A plane electromagnetic wave traveling along Pr = 4 % of Pi
the +z direction, has its electric field given by 252. Some unknown material has a conductivity 106
E x = 2cos ( ωt ) and Ey = 2cos ( ωt + 90 ) º the wave mho/m and a permeability of 4π × 10–7 H/m.
is The skin depth for the material at 1 GHz is
(a) linearly polarized (a) 15.9 µm (b) 20.9 µm
(b) right circularly polarized (c) 25.9 µm (d) 30.9 µm
(c) left circularly polarized GATE-1996
(d) elliptically polarized 1 1
Ans. (a) : Skin depth (δ) = =
GATE-1994 α πfµσ
Ans. (c) : Given
Given σ = 106 mho/ meter
E x = 2cos ( ωt ) …………..(1) µ = µ0 = 4π×10–7 H/m
and E y = 2cos ( ωt + 90 º ) ………….(2) f = 1GHz = 1×109 Hz
1
As E x = E y = 2 ∴ δ=
π× 10 × 4π× 10−7 ×106
9
and phase difference between E x and E y is 90°. = 15.9 µm

Hence it must be circularly polarized wave. 253. The intrinsic impedance of copper at high
from (2) frequency is
(a) purely resistive
(b) purely inductive
(c) complex with a capacitive component
(d) complex with an inductive component
GATE-1998
Ans. (d) : The intrinsic impedance defined as - 4.8 4.8
(c) az (d) − az
jωµ π π
ηi = GATE-1998
σ + jωε
Ans. (a) : Given E = E = 24e (
j ωt+Bz )
since copper has high conducting i.e. a y V/m
σ >> ωε ⇒ E0 = 24 V/m
Therefore η0 = 120πΩ (for free space)
1 E 02
jωµ
ηi =
σ
for (copper). ∴ Pavg =
2 η0
( −a )
z
1 24 × 24
Thus intrinsic impedance of copper has only +j
component i.e. complex in nature. +j component
= ×
2 120π
−a z ( )
indicates inductive in nature.
254. The wavelength of a wave with propagation
=
2.4
π
−a z ( )
constant (0.1π + j0.2π) m–1 is
2
Pavg =
2.4
π
−a z ( )
(a) m (b) 10 m
0.05 257. A loop is rotating about the y-axis in a
(c) 20 m (d) 30 m magnetic field B = B 0cos ( ωt + φ ) aˆ x T .The
GATE-1998 voltage in the loop is
Ans. (b) : Given propagation constant (a) zero
γ = α + jβ = ( 0.1π + j0.2π ) m −1 (b) due to rotation only
(c) due to transformer action only
α = 0.1π and β = 0.2 π
(d) due to both rotation and transformer
2π GATE-1998
∴ Wavelength(λ) =
β Ans. (d) : Faraday's law for time varying
2π electromagnetic field states that
=
0.2π
= 10 meter.
255. The polarization of a wave with electric field i.e.there is a voltage induced in a stationary loop due to
vector E = E0e ( ) ( a x + a y ) is time changing magnetic field.
j ωt-βz
Also time varying magnetic field produce space varying

(a) linear (b) elliptical induced e.m.f.
(c) left hand circular (d) right hand circular Hence e.m.f. is produced by both rotation and
GATE-1998 transformer action.
Ans. (a) : Given, the electric field intensity of the wave 258. Identity which one of the following will not
E ( z, t ) = E e j( ωt −βz ) ( aˆ + aˆ )
o x y
satisfy the wave equation.
j( ωt −β z ) j( ωt −β z ) (a) 50 e j( ωt −3z ) (b) sin ω(10z + 5t ) 
= Eoe aˆ x + E o e aˆ y ………. (1)
(c) cos ( y 2 + 5t ) (d) sin ( x ) cos ( t )
= E1 ( z ) aˆ x + E 2 ( z ) aˆ y ……….. (2)
GATE-1999
Comparing (1) and (2) we can see that E1 (z) and E2 (z)
are space quadrilateral but in time phase so, their sum Ans. (c) : Electromagnetic waves are frequency
dependent in both time and space variable respectively .
E = E1 ( z ) + E 2 ( z ) will be linearly polarized along a line
In option (c), frequency term is missing, So that it does
that makes an angle φ with x-axis. not satisfy the wave equation.
256. The time averaged Poynting vector, in W/m2, 259. A plane wave propagation through a medium
for a wave with E = 24e j( ωt +Bz )
ay V / m in free [∈r = 8, µr = 2 and σ = 0 ] has its electric field
given by
space
2.4 2.4 E = 0.5 sin (108 t - βz ) V/m . The wave
(a) − az (b) az
π π impedance, in ohms is
(a) 377 (b) 198.5 ∠ 180º (a) 45 MHz (b) 90 MHz
(c) 182.9 ∠ 14º (d) 188.5 (c) 450 MHz (d) 900 MHz
GATE-2001
GATE-1999
Ans. (a) : We have
Ans. (d) : Intrinsic impedance for dielectric medium i.e.
σ Jc
at (σ = 0) Loss tangent = =
ωε J d
µ µ 0µ r
ηi = = ∠0° given Jc = Jd ⇒ σ = ωε
ε ε 0ε r
σ σ
⇒ ω= ⇒ f=
4π× 10−7 × 2 ε 2πε0 ε r
∴ ηi = ∠0 °
1 −9
× 10 × 8 10−2
ω=
36π 1
2π × ×10−9 × 4
36π
= 36 π 2 × 10 2 ∠0°
18
= 60 π ∠ 0° ω= ×107
4
= 188.5 ∠ 0° Ω ω = 4.5 ×107 Hz
260. A TEM wave is incident normally upon a ω = 45 MHz
perfect conductor. The E and H fields at the 263. Distilled water at 25ºC is characterized by
boundary will be, respectively, σ = 1.7 ×10-4 mho/m and ∈ = 78∈0 at a
(a) minimum and minimum frequency 3 GHz. Its loss tangent tan δ is-
(b) maximum and maximum (a) 1.3 × 10–5 (b) 1.3 × 10–3
(c) minimum and maximum (c) 1.7 × 10–4/78 (d) 1.7 × 10–4/(78 ∈0)
(d) maximum and minimum GATE-2002
GATE-2000 Ans. (a) : We have
σ
Ans. (c) : At boundary the fields are in phase opposition loss tangent =
180° out of phase and whole energy is reflected back ωε
for perfect conductor. Hence E and H fields at the 1.7 × 10−7

=
1
boundary will be minimum and maximum respectively. 2π × 3 × 109 × 78 × ×10 −9
36π
261. Two coaxial cables 1 and 2 are filled with
1.7
different dielectric constants ∈r1 and ∈r2 = ×10−7
13
respectively. the ratio of the wavelength in the
≃ 1.3 × 10–5
two cables, (λ1/λ2) is
264. The depth of penetration of electromagnetic
(a) ∈r1 / ∈r 2 (b) ∈r 2 / ∈r 1 wave in a medium having conductivity σ at a
(c) ∈r1 / ∈r 2 (d) ∈r 2 / ∈r1 frequency of 1 MHz is 25 cm. The depth of
penetration at a frequency of 4 MHz will be
GATE-2000 (a) 6.25 cm (b) 12.50 cm
Ans. (b) : As phase velocity (VP) = fλ (c) 50.00 cm (d) 100.00 cm
1
Also (VP) = GATE-2003
µε
1 1
Ans. (b) : Skin depth δ = =
⇒ λ∝
1 α πfµσ
ε
1
We have δ ∝
λ1 ε r2 f
∴ =
λ2 ε r1
δ2 f f
∴ = 1 ⇒ δ 2 = 1 × δ1
262. A material has conductivity of 10–2 mho/m and δ1 f2 f2
a relative permittivity of 4. The frequency at
1
which the conduction current in the medium is = × 25cm = 12.50 cm.
equal to the displacement current is 4

265. A uniform plane wave travelling in air is Ans. (a) : Given
incident on the plane boundary between air A = 10–4 m2, d = 10–3 m, V = 0.5 V, f = 3.6×109 Hz
and another dielectric medium with εr = 4. The displacement current
reflection coefficient for electric field at normal Id = AJ d
incidence, is A∂D ∂E
= = Aε
(a) Zero (b) 0.5∠180º ∂t ∂t
(c) 0.333∠0º (d) 0.333∠180º V
| Id |= Aωε0 ε r
GATE-2003 d
Ans. (d) : We have 1 0.5
= 10−4 × 2π× 3.6 × 109 ×1× ×10−9 × −3
36π 10
ε − ε1
Reflection co-efficient (Γ) = − 2 Id = 10 mA
ε 2 + ε1
 k 
4− 1 268. If and H= 
= −  ωµ 
4+ 1
1
( aˆ y + jaˆ x ) e jkz-jωt , the time averaged poynting
= − vector is
3
= 0.333 ∠180°  k 
(a) null vector (b)   â z
 ωµ 
266. If the electric field intensity associated with a
uniform plane electromagnetic wave travelling  2k   k 
(c)   â z (d)   â z
in a perfect dielectric medium is given by  ωµ   2ωµ 
E(z, t) = 10 cos (2π × 107 t – 0.1 πz) volt/m, the GATE-2004
velocity of the travelling wave is Ans. (a) : Given,
(a) 3.00 × 108 m/sec (b) 2.00 × 108 m/sec ∧ ∧ 
(c) 6.28 × 106 m/sec (d) 2.00 × 107 m/sec E =  a x + ja y  e jkz− jωt
 
GATE-2003
 k 
and H =   ( aˆ y + jaˆ x ) e
jkz- jωt
Ans. (b) : Given-
 ωµ 
E(z,t) = 10 cos (2π × 107t – 0.1πz) volt/m
Here TEM propagates in Z- direction.
then - Also E0 = 1 V/m
E0 = 10V/m k
H0 = H/m
ω = 2π×107 rad/ sec. ωµ
β = 0.1 π
ω
∵ Average poynting vector = R e E × H
1
2
( )
∴ phase velocity (VP) =
β
= × R e ( aˆ x + jaˆ y ) e jkz− jωt × ( aˆ y − jaˆ x ) e jkz− jωt
1 k
2π× 107 2 ωµ
=
0.1π k
Pavg = (0)
= 20 ×107 m/sec 2µω
VP = 2 ×108 m/sec. Hence time averaged poynting vector is null vector.
267. A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate 269. The magnetic field intensity vector of a plane
area of 10–4 m2 and plate separation of 10–3. It wave is given by
∧
is connected to a 0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The H ( x,t ) = 10sin ( 50000t + 0.004x + 30 ) a y , where
magnitude of the displacement current is aˆ y denotes the unit vector in y direction. The
(ε0 = 1/36π×10–9 F/m)
wave is propagating with a phase velocity
(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA (a) 5 × 104 m/s (b) 3 × 104 m/s
(c) 10 A (d) 1.59 mA (c) 1.25 × 107 m/s (d) 3 × 106 m/s
GATE-2004 GATE-2005
ε r2
ω 272. A medium of relative permittivity = 2 form
Ans. (c) : Phase velocity (Vp) =
β an interface with free-space. A point source of
5000 electromagnetic energy is located in the
=
0.004 medium at depth of 1 meter from the interface.
= 1.25 ×107m/sec. Due to the total internal reflection, the
transmitted beam has a circular cross-section
270. Refractive index of glass is 1.5. Find the
over the interface. The area of the beam cross-
wavelength of a beam of light with frequency of
section at the interface is given by
1014 Hz is glass. Assume velocity of light is 3 ×
(a) 2π m2 (b) π2 m2
108 m/s in vacuum.
(a) 3µm (b) 3 mm (c) π/2 m2 (d) π m2
GATE-2006
(c) 2µm (d) 1mm
GATE-2005 Ans. (d) :
Ans. (c) : Given
a µ g = 1.5,f = 1014 Hz, c = 3 ×108 m / sec
velocity of light in air
∵ a µ gg == 1.5 =
Velocity of light in medium
ε r1 1
Velocity of light in glass (vg), sin θ = = = sin 45°
ε r2 2
3 ×108
= = 2 × 108 m / sec
1.5 ⇒ θ = 45°
P 'Q P 'O
Vg 2 × 108 Now tanθ = tan 450 = =
∴ λ= = PP ' PP '
f 1014
∴ Area = π (P'O)2
= 2×10–6 meter
= π m2
=2µm
273. When a plane wave traveling in free-space is
271. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave
incident normally on a medium having
propagating in the positive z-direction is given
∈r = 4.0, the fraction of power transmitted into
by
the medium is given by
E = aˆ xsin ( ωt - βz ) + aˆ z sin ( ωt - βz + π/2 ) . The
(a) 8/9 (b) 1/2
wave is (c) 1/3 (d) 5/6
(a) linearly polarized in the z-direction UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
(b) elliptically polarized GATE-2006
(c) left-hand circularly polarized Ans. (a) : Given ε2 = 4, & ε1 = 1 (for air)
(d) right-hand circularly polarized
ε1 − ε 2
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 ∴ Reflection coefficient (Γ) =
ε1 + ε 2
GATE-2006
1 − 2 −1
Ans. (c) : since E x = E z = =
1+ 2 3
and E x lead E z by 90° 2
 1
fraction of power reflected = Γ2 =  − 
Hence the wave is left handed circularly polarized.  3
1
=
9
Fraction of power transmission τ = 1 − Γ 2
1 8
= 1− =
9 9

274. The H field (in A/m) of a plane wave Ans. (d) :
propagating in free space is given by
. The time average power flow density in watts

is
η0 100
(a) (b) ∵ ∠θt = ∠P'OB', bisects the angle ∠P'OB
100 η0
50 ∴θt = 30°
(c) 50η02 (d)
η0 Now by Snell's law –
GATE-2007 sin θi ε r2
=
Ans. (d) : H field wave equation is given by- sin θ t ε r1
5 3 5  π  sin 60° 
H = Hx cos ( ωt − βz ) + H y sin  ωt − β  ε r2 =   × (1)
η0 η0  2  sin 30° 
= 3
εr2 = 3
276. A plane wave of wavelength λ is travelling in a

Mode of resultant H wave direction making an angle 30º with positive x-
2 2 axis and 90º with positive y-axis. The E field of
5 3  5 
i.e. H0 =   +  
the plane wave can be represented as (E0 is a
 η0   η0  constant)
 3π π 
10 j ωt − x − z 
= (a) E = yE
ˆ 0e  λ λ 
η0
 π 3π 
1 j ωt − x − z
η0 ( H 0 )
2 λ 
∴ Average power (Pavg) = (b) E = yE
ˆ 0e  λ
2
2  3π π 
j ωt + x + z 
1  10  (c) E = yE  λ λ 
= η0   ˆ 0e
2  η0 
 π 3π 
j ωt − x + z
λ λ 
=
50
watts. (d) E = yE
ˆ 0e 
η0
GATE-2007
275. A right circularly polarized (RCP) plane wave Ans. (a) :
is incident at an angle of 60º to the normal, on As γ = β cos30º x ± β sin 30º y
an air dielectric interface. If the reflected wave
is linearly polarized, the relative dielectric = 2π ⋅ 3 x ± 2π  1  y
 
constant ∈r2 is λ 2 λ 2
π 3 π
= x± y
λ λ
ˆ oe (
∴ E = yE
j ωt −γ )
  π 3 π  
jωt − x − y  
  λ λ  
= ŷE o e
277. A uniform plane wave in the free space is
(a) 2 (b) 3 normally incident on an infinitely thick
(c) 2 (d) 3 dielectric slab (dielectric constant εr = 9). The
GATE-2007 magnitude of the reflection coefficient is
(a) 0 (b) 0.3 η2 − η1 ε − ε2
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.8 ∵ Γr = = 1
η1 + η2 ε1 + ε 2
GATE-2008
3 −1 1
Ans. (c) : Magnitude of reflection coefficient = =
3 +1 2
ε1 − ε 2 1 1 1
Γ= ∴ Hr = × =
ε1 + ε 2 2 5π 10π
1− 9 1
= ∴ H= cos(3 × 108 − βy)aɵ x
10π
1+ 9
279. The electric and magnetic fields for a TEM
2
= wave of frequency 14 GHz in a homogeneous
4
medium of relative permittivity εr and relative
1 permeability µr = 1 are given by
= = 0.5
2
E = E p e j( ωt −280 π ) uˆ z V / m
278. A plane wave having the electric field
component Ei = 24cos ( 3×108 t - βy ) aˆ z V/m and H = 3e j( ωt − 280 πy ) uɵ x A / m
Assuming the speed of light in free space to be
traveling in free space is incident normally on a
3 × 108 m/s, intrinsic impedance of free space to
lossless medium with µ = µ0 and ∈ = 9∈0 which
be 120π, the relative permittivity εr of the
occupies the region y≥0. The reflected magnetic
medium and the electric field amplitude Ep are
field component is given by
(a) εr = 3, Ep = 120π (b) εr = 3, Ep = 360π
cos ( 3 × 108 t + βy ) aˆ x A / m
1
(a) (c) εr = 9, Ep = 360π (d) εr = 9, Ep = 120π
10π
GATE-2011
cos ( 3 ×108 t + βy ) aˆ x A / m
1
(b) Ans. (d) : Given
20π
E = E p e j( ωt − 280 πy ) uɵ z V / m ––––(1)
cos ( 3 × 108 t + βy ) aˆ x A / m
1
(c) −
20π
H = 3e j( ωt − 280 πy ) uɵ x A / m –––––(2)
cos ( 3 × 10 t + βy ) aˆ x A / m
1
(d) − 8
we have phase velocity (Vp)
10π
ω 2πf
GATE-2010 Vp = =
β β
Ans. (a) : Given
( )
E = 24cos 3 × 108 t − βy aɵ z –––(1) =
2π × 14 × 109
280π
Direction of propagation of wave = aɵ y = 108m/sec
1
Direction of E wave propagation = aɵ z Also Vp = for a medium
µε
∵ E×H = p
c
⇒ Ez × Hx = py =
εr
ɵ
Hence H wave propagation in a y direction. c c
∴ = 108 ⇒ ε r = 8
Also intrinsic impedance for free space is given by - εr 10
E0 3 × 108
η0 = = =3
H0
108
E0 24 1 ⇒ εr = 9
⇒ H0 = = =
η0 120π 5π Also Ep = H p η
Reflected magnetic field component is given by -
Hpη 3 × 120π
H L = cos ( 3 × 108 t − βy ) a x
1 ∧ = = = 120 π
5π εr 9

280. The electric field of a uniform plane 282. Which one of the following field patterns
electromagnetic wave in free space, along the represents a TEM was travelling in the positive
positive x direction, is given by x direction?
E = 10 ( aˆ y + jaˆ z ) e . The frequency and
-j25x
(a) E = +8y,H
ˆ = −4zˆ (b) E = −2y,
ˆ H = −3zˆ
polarization of the wave, respectively, are (c) E = +2z,
ˆ H = +2yˆ (d) E = −3y,
ˆ H = +4zˆ
(a) 1.2 GHz and left circular GATE-2014
(b) 4 Hz and left circular
Ans. (b) : From pointing theorem P = E×H
(c) 1.2 GHz and right circular
(d) 4 GHz and right circular From option E = −2yˆ
GATE-2012 H = −3zˆ
P = – 2yˆ × ( −3zˆ ) = 6xˆ
(
Ans. (a) : E = 10 aɵ y + jaɵ z e − j25x ) ∴
Which is positive.
283. If the electric field of a plane wave is
E ( z, t ) = x3cos
ˆ ( ωt − kz + 30º )
− ŷ4sin ( ωt − kz + 45º )( mV / m ) ,
the polarization state of the plane wave is
(a) left elliptical (b) left circular
The direction of propagation while curling fingers in
(c) right elliptical (d) right circular
direction of rotation in circle you have to use left hand
circularly polarized. GATE-2014
∵ β = 25, Ans. (a) : According to the question the plane wave is
travelling in +z direction-
c cβ 3 × 108 × 25
f= = = E ( z, t ) = 3xɵ cos ( ωt − kz + 30º ) − 4yɵ sin ( ωt − kz + 45º )
λ 2π 2π
f = 11.93 × 108 At z = 0 (tracing E locus for different time)
f ≃ 1.2 × 10 Hz or 1.2GHz
9 At t = 0
1 3
281. A plane wave propagating in air with E x = 3cos30º = 3 × = = 1.5
2 2
 ∧ ∧  ωt+3x-4y )
E =  8a x + 6a y + 5a z  e(
∧
V/m is incident on E y = −4sin 45º = −2 2 = −2.83
 
a perfectly conducting slab positioned at x≤0. T
Again, t =
the E field of the reflected waves is 6
(a) ( −8aˆ − 6aˆ − 5aˆ ) e (
x y z
j ωt+3x+4y )
V/m  2π T 
E x = 3cos  × + 30º 
 T 6 
(b) ( −8aˆ + 6aˆ − 5aˆ ) e (
x y z
j ωt+3x+4y )
V/m
π 
= 3cos  + 30º 
(c) (8aˆ − 6aˆ − 5aˆ ) e (
x y z
j ωt −3x − 4 y )
V/m  3 
=0
(d) (8aˆ + 6aˆ − 5aˆ ) e (
x y z
j ωt − 3x − 4y )
V/m
E y = −4sin ( 60º +45º ) = −4sin105º
GATE-2012
= −3.86
Ans. (c) : We have -
 ∧ ∧  ωt+3x-4y )
E =  8a x + 6a y + 5a z  e(
∧
V/m
 
Since wave is reflected along aɵ x direction with x > 0
then-
E r = ( 8aˆ x − 6aˆ y − 5aˆ z ) e (
j ωt −3x − 4 y )
V/m Hence, the plane wave is left elliptical polarized.

284. A medium is divided into regions I and II about (a) H 2 = 1.5uˆ x + 30uˆ y − 10uˆ z A / m
x = 0 plane, as shown in the figure below. An
electromagnetic wave with electric field (b) H 2 = 3uˆ x + 30uˆ y − 10uˆ z A / m
E1 = 4aˆ x + 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z is incident normally on the (c) H 2 = 1.5uˆ x + 40uˆ y A / m
interface from region-I. The electric field E 2 in (d) H 2 = 3uˆ x + 30uˆ y + 10uˆ z A / m
region-II at the interface is GATE-2011
Ans. (a) : The magnetic field boundary relations are
given as follow
(1) Bn 1 = Bn 2
(2) H t 1 − H t 2 = J n × aˆ n = – J n × aˆ n
Bn 1 = Bn 2
(a) E 2 = E1 µ1 H1 = µ2 H 2
1×3 û x = 2H 2
(b) 4aˆ x + 0.75aˆ y − 1.25aˆ z
H 2 = 1.5 û x
(c) 3aˆ x + 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z
Now from identity (2)
(d) −3aˆ x + 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z
( Ht 1
) ( ) ( )
− H t 2 = − 10uˆ Y × uˆ X
GATE-2006
= 10uˆ z
Ans. (c) : By applying boundary conditions we have-
H t 2 = H t1 − 10uˆ z = 30uˆ y − 10uˆ z
E t 1 = E t 2 = 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z
H t 2 = 30uˆ y − 10uˆ z
Also D n 1 = D n 2
H 2 = 1.5uˆ x + 30uˆ y − 10uˆ z A/m
or ε1 E n 1 = ε 2 E n 2
286. The electric field of a plane wave propagating
ε  in a lossless non-magnetic medium is given by
∴ En 2 =  1  E n1
 ε2  the following expression
3 E ( z,t ) = aˆ x 5cos ( 2π ×109 t + βz )
=   4aˆ x
4  π
+aɵ y 3cos  2π ×109 t + βz - 
= 3aˆ x  2
(a) Right Hand Circular
Thus E 2 = E t 2 + E n 2
(b) Left Hand Elliptical
= 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z + 3aˆ x (c) Right Hand Elliptical
E 2 = 3aˆ x + 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z (d) Linear
GATE-2015
285. A current sheet J = 10uˆ y A/m lies on the ISRO Scientist - May, 2017
dielectric interface x = 0 between two dielectric Ans. (b) : Given
media with εr1 =1, µr1 = 1 in Region-1 (x < 0) E(z,t)=
and εr2 = 2, µr2 = 2 in Region-2 (x > 0), If the
magnetic field in reason 1 at x = 0– is
H1 = 3uˆ x + 30uˆ y A / m the magnetic fields in Here E x = 5 & E y = 3
Region-2 at x = 0+ is Ex ≠ Ey
π
Phase difference =
2
Wave propagation in -ve z-direction. So left hand
elliptical.
287. Let the electric field vector of a plane (c) represents an elliptically polarized plane wave
electromagnetic wave propagating in a propagating along the x – y plane
homogeneous medium by expressed as (d) represents a linearly polarized plane wave
GATE-2017
ˆ -j(ωt-βz ) , where the propagation constant β
E = xe
Ans. (c) : : Given
is a function of the angular frequency ω.
∧ ∧ ∧  − j ωt − kx + ky )
Assume that β(ω) and Ex are known and real. E = E 0  x + y + j2 z  e (
From the information available, which one of  
∂ E
the following cannot be determined? Here = Ex = 1
(a) The type of polarization of the wave ∂x
∂E
(b) The group velocity of the wave = Ey = 1
(c) The phase velocity of the wave
∂ y
∂E
(d) The power flux through the z = 0 plane. = Ez = 2
GATE-2016 ∂z
keeping z = constant, wave propagate in
Ans. (d) : The E wave equation given as - − kaɵ x + kaɵ y direction
∧
E = x e− j( ωt −βz ) –––––(1)
∴ E = E 2x + E 2y = (1)2 + (1)2
Since polarization is the component of E wave during
= 2
transmission, hence polarization of E wave can be
determined by given equation.
From equation (1) group velocity
1
Vg =
 β
d
 
 dω  ∵ E1⊥P ⇒ E1P = 0 ⇒ phase difference φ =90°
ω Hence it is elliptically polarized wave.
The phase velocity from equation (1) is given by Vg =
β 290. The distance (in meters) a wave has to
propagate in a medium having a skin depth of
1 E 02 0.1 m so that the amplitude of the wave
Power density (p) =
2 η0 attenuates by 20 dB, is
where η0 = 120πΩ intrinsic impedance of free space. (a) 0.12 (b) 0.23
(c) 0.46 (d) 2.3
The power flux cannot be determined through the
GATE-2018
z = 0 plane
1
288. If a right-handed circularly polarized wave is Ans. (b) : As skin depth ( δ ) =
α
incident normally on plane perfect conductor,
1
then the reflected wave will be Attenuation constant- α = = 10 Np / m
(a) right-handed circularly polarized δ
(b) left-handed circularly polarized E 
or 20 log10  o  = 20dB
(c) elliptically polarized with a tilt angle of 45º  Ex 
(d) horizontally polarized Eo
GATE-2016 E = 10
x
Ans. (b) Since after reflection, due to direction change
E
from conductor it must be left circularly polarized E x = o
wave. 10
−αx
289. The expression for an electric field in free space ∴ E x = E o e
is E = E 0 ( xˆ + yˆ + j2zˆ ) e -j(ωt-kx+ky ) , where x, y, z E
= E o e −10x = o
represent the spatial coordinates, t represents 10
time, and ω, k are constants. This electric field e −10x =
1
(a) does not represent a plane wave 10
(b) represent a circularly polarized plane wave 1
x = log (10 ) = 0.231 m
propagating normal to the z-axis. 10
291. Medium 1 has the electrical permittivity η1 µ1ε 2
ε1 = 1.5ε0 farad/m and occupies the region to = =2
η2 µ 2ε1
the left of x = 0 plane. Medium 2 has the
electrical permittivity ε2 = 2.5 ε0 farad/m and Et 2
=
occupies the region to the right of x = 0 plane. Ei 3
If E1 in medium 1 is E1 = (2ux – 3uy + 1uz)
E i2
volt/m, then E2 in medium 2 is Pi (Incident power) =
η1
(a) (2.0ux – 7.5uy + 2.5uz) volt/m
(b) (2.0ux – 2.0uy + 0.6uz) volt/m E 2t
Pt (transmitted power) =
(c) (1.2ux – 3.0uy + 1.0uz) volt/m η2
(d) (1.2ux – 2.0uy + 0.6uz) volt/m Pt E 2t η1
= ×
GATE-2003 Pi E i2 η2
Ans. (c) : As per question
Pt 8
E1 = 2u x − 3u y + 1u z =
Pi 9
at x = 0 plane
293. A plane wave propagates in water (εr = 81). If
E 2t = E1t = −3u y + u z the peak electric field is 20π v/m, then the Peak
magnetic field intensity will be
and E1n = 2u x
(a) 1.5 A/m (b) 5.0 A/m
Also, (c) 10 π A/m (d) 20 A/m
D1n = D 2n = ε1E1n = ε 2Ε 2 n TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
∴ ε1Ε1n = ε 2Ε 2 n Ans. (a) : Given, E = 20π V/m, εr = 81
E µ 120π
given ∴ =η= =
 H εr 9
1.5ε 0 2u x = 2.5ε 0 E 2n ε1 = 1.5ε0
&ε = 2.5ε 20π 120π
 2 0 =
H 9
3
Then, E 2n = u x = 1.2u x H = 1.5A / m
2.5
E 2 = E 2t + E 2n 294. Wave propagating in +Z direction, E is given
Ex = 2cost Ey = 2 cos (t + 90º) The wave is
E 2 = ( −3u y + u z + 1.2u x ) V / m (a) Linear polarized
(b) right circular polarized
292. When a plane wave traveling in free space is
(c) left circular polarized
incident normally on a medium having εr = 4.0,
(d) elliptically polarized
the fraction of power transmitted into the
medium is given by
Ans. (c) : Ex = 2 cos t
(a) 8/9 (b) 1/2
Ey = 2 cos (t + 90º) = -2 sin t
(c) 1/3 (d) 5/6
At t =0 : At t = π/4
Ex = 2 : Ex = 2
Ans. (a) :
Ey = 0 : Ey = − 2
Et 2η2 2
= = Left circular
E i η2 + η1 1 + η1 ∴
η2 Polarized wave

295. If the velocity of EM wave in free space is 297. A coaxial RF cable has the characteristic
3×108 m/s, the velocity in a medium with impedance of 50 ohm and a nominal
ε r = 4.5, µ r = 2 Would be ............. capacitance of 40 pF/m. The inductance of the
cable is
(a) 1×108 m/s (b) 2 × 106 m/s
(a) 1 µH/m (b) 10 µH/m
(c) 2.5 × 106 m/s (d) 3 × 108 m/s.
(c) 0.1 µH/m (d) 0.01 µH/m
Ans. (a) :
Ans. (c) : We have
8  
1 1 3 × 10  1  L
v= = =  = c ZC =
µε µ0µ r ε 0 ε r µ r ε r  µ 0 ε0  C
3 × 108 L = ZC 2 C
= = 1× 108
2 × 4.5 = 50 × 50 × 40 × 10−12
296. A 50 Ω loss less transmission line is terminated = 100,000 ×10 −12 = 0.1 µ H m
in 100 Ω load and is exited by a 30 MHz source
298. The path of a light ray going from a high index
of internal resistance of 50 Ω. What should be material to a low index material is given by
the length of transmission line for maximum Snell's law as following:
power transfer .............. n1 n
(a) 5.0m (b) 1.25m (a) n1 sinα = n2 sinβ (b) = 2
sin α sin β
(c) 2.5m (d) 10.0m sin α sin β
(c) n12 sinα = n22 sinβ (d) =
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 n1 n2
Ans. (b) : For maximum power transfer, APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
Z0 = Zin Ans. (a) :
Z0 = 50
 Z + jZ0 tan βℓ  From Snell's law n1 sin α = n 2 sin β

Zin = ZL1 = Z0  L 
 Z0 + jZL tan βℓ 
299. The wave impedance of a medium is equal to:
100 + j50 tan βℓ  (a) the wave impedance of free space
50 = 50  
 50 + j100 tan βℓ  (b) the wave impedance of free-space divided by
∴ |50| = |j 50 tan β ℓ | the refractive index of the medium
(c) the refractive index of the medium divided by
∴ tan β ℓ = 1
the wave impedance of free-space
∴ β ℓ = π/4
(d) the refractive index of the medium
λ APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
∴ ℓ=
8 Ans. (b) : Refractive index (n)
c 3 ×108 Speed of light in vacuum
∴ λ= = = 10 =
f 3 × 107 Speed of light in medium
10 c
∴ ℓ= = 1.25 m n=
8 v

ηo Ans. (a) : γ = 0.1 π + j 0.4π
Wave impedance η = the wave impedance is equal
n ∵ γ = α + jβ
to the wave impedance of free space divided by the
∴β = 0.4π
refractive index of the medium.
2π
300. Two lossy lines are to be joined end to end. The Wavelength λ =
β
first line is 10 m long and has a loss rating of
0.20 dB/m. The second lines is 15 m long and 2π
λ= = 5m
has a loss rating of 0.10 dB/m. The reflection 0.4π
coefficient at the junction (line 1 to line 2) is Γ 303. A lossless transmission line is 80 cm long and
= 0.30. The input power (to line 1) is 100 mW. operates at a frequency of 600 MHz. The line
Determine the total loss of the combination in parameters are L = 0.25 µH/m and C = 100
dB to the output end of line 2. pF/m. Find the phase constant and phase
velocity of the transmission line.
(a) 3.91 dB (b) 2.91 dB
(a) 18.85 rad/m and 2.00 × 108 m/s
(c) 4.91 dB (d) 1.91 dB
(b) 15.50 rad/m and 2.43 × 108 m/s
(c) 18.85 rad/m and 2.43 × 108 m/s
Ans. (a) : Γ= 0.30 (d) 15.50 rad/m and 2.00 × 108 m/s
 1  APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
The dB loss of joint is = 10 log10  
 1− Γ 
2
Ans. (a) : ℓ = 80 cm f = 600 MHz
 
 1  L = 0.25 µH/m C = 100 pF/m
= 10 log10   = 0.41dB 1 1
 1 − 0.09  vp = = = 2×108 m/sec
−6 −12
The total loss of the link in dB
LC 0.25 × 10 × 100 × 10
LT dB = ( 0.20 ) ×10 + 0.41 + ( 0.10 )(15) β = ω LC = 2π ( 600 × 106 ) 0.25 × 10−6 (100 ×10−12 )
= 2 + 0.41 + 1.5 = 18.85 rad / m

= 3.91dB 304. The group delay function τ(ω) is related to
301. The skin depth of copper at a frequency of 3 phase function φ( ω) as
GHz is 1 micron. At 12 GHz for a non- dφ ( ω)
(a) τ ( ω) = −
magnetic conductor whose conductivity is 1/3 dω
times of copper, the skin depth in microns dφ ( ω)
(b) τ ( ω) =
would be: dω2
(a) 9*4 (b) 3/ 4 d 2φ ( ω)
(c) τ ( ω) = −
dω2
(c) 4/9 (d) 1/ 9* 4
d 2 φ ( ω)
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 (d) τ ( ω) =
dω
1 1 δ fσ APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017
Ans. (b) : Skin depth (δ) = = , 1 = 2 2
α πfµσ δ 2 f1σ1 Ans. (a) : Group delay is the time delay of the
amplitude envelopes of the various sinusoidal
δ1 3× 3 3
= = components of a signal and is a function of frequency
δ2 12 4 for each component.
302. The wavelength of a wave propagation constant Consider a phase shift , θ = –ω t0
(0.1 π + j0.4 π) m-1 is: θ ( ω)
Phase delay τp = − = t0
(a) 5 m (b) 10 m ω
(c) 20 m (d) 30 m dθ ( ω)
Group delay τg = − = t0
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 dω
305. If the maximum value of voltage is 8V and the 309. Two dielectric media with permitivities 3 and
minimum value of voltage is 2V in a standing
3 are separated by a charge-free boundary as
wave pattern, the standing wave ratio is :
(a) 1.66 (b) 0.6 shown in figure. The electric field intensity in
(c) 1.33 (d) 2.33 medium 1 at point P1 has magnitude E1 and
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 makes the angle α1 = 60º with the normal. The
Ans. (c) : Given as, direction of the electric field intensity at point
Vmax = 8V , Vmin = 2V P2, α2 is
Vmax 10
SWR = = = 1.666
Vmin 6
306. A (λ/4) line short circuited at the load end is
equivalent to
(a) A series resonant circuit
(b) A capacitive reactance
(c) An inductive reactance
 3E1 
(a) sin −1 
 2 
(d) A parallel resonant circuit (b) 45º
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II  
Ans. (a) : A (λ/4) short circuited at the load end,  3E1 

(c) cos −1 
 2 
(d) 30º
consists of maximum current and the minimum  
impedance. Hence behaves like a series resonant circuit.
IES - 2011
307. H-plane is also called
(a) Shunt series tee (b) Shunt tee Ans. (b) : Applying boundary condition to electric
(c) Series tee (d) None of the above waves -
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II we get - E = E ––––(1)
t1 t2
Ans. (b) : The H-plane is also called as shunt tee. As
the axis of the side arm is parallel to the magnetic field, and D n1 − Dn2 = 0 (∵ρv = 0 )
this junction is called H-plane tee junction.
⇒ Dn1 = Dn2 ––––(2)
308. What is the approximate skin depth in copper
at 100 MHz? from Equation D
(a) 0.1 micron (b) 10 microns
E1 sin α1 = E2 sin α2
(c) 10 mm (d) 100 mm
E1 sin (60°) = E2 sin α2
KVS TGT (WE)-2014
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 3E1
or E2 sinα2 = –––(3)
Ans. (*) : We know that - 2
1 ρ ε1E1 cos 60° = ε 2 E 2 cos α 2
Skin depth (δ)= =
πfµσ πfµ
f = 100 MHz
Conductivity (σ) of Cu = 5.8 × 107 S
equation (4) divided by equation (3)
ρ = Resistivity of material
E
µ = µrµ0 E 2 sin α 2 3 1
2
we get - =
µ = 4π × 10 −7 (when µr = 1) E 2 cos α 2 3
E1
2
1
δ= π
−7 ⇒ tan α2 = 1 = tan  
4π × 10 × 100 × 106 × 5.8 × 107 × π 4
δ = 6.60 ×10−6 ⇒ α2 = 45°

310. Which point in the Smith Chart is labeled with 313. For a line of characteristic impedance Z0
the WRONG impedance? terminated in a load ZR such that ZR>Z0, the
Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) is given
by
(a) ZR/Z0 (b) Z0
(c) ZR (d) Z0/ZR
Z R − Z0
Ans. (a) : Reflection coefficient ( Γ ) =
Z R + Z0
 Z − Z0 
1+  R 
1 +| PΓ | Z + Z0 
VSWR = =  R
(a) 10 + j10 (b) 50 + j50 1 −| PΓ |  Z − Z0 
1−  R 
(c) 200 – j200 (d) 25 – j50  ZR + Z0 
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 ZR + Z0 + ZR − Z0 2ZR
Ans. (d) : 25 − j25 in the wrong impedance labeled in = =
ZR + Z0 − ZR + Z0 2Z0
the Smith chart.
Z 
311. If a line is terminated in an open circuit, the VSWR =  R 
 Z0 
VSWR is
(a) ∞ (b) 0 314. If the maximum effective aperture of a
radiating small loop of constant current is
(c) 1 (d) –1
 3  2
UPPCL (AE) 16. 11.2013   m , the wavelength of the radiated
 32π 
electromagnetic wave is :
(a) 5000 mm (b) 100 mm
Ans. (a) : Voltage standing wave ratio (c) 1000 mm (d) 500 mm
1+ Γ ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
( VSWR ) =
1− Γ Ans. (d) : Given,
For an open circuit line, Γ = 1 Maximum effective aperture (Aemax) =
1+1  3  2
then VSWR = =∞   m and directivity of small loop antenna is 1.5
1 −1  32 π 
For open current line VSWR = ∞  4π 

D =  2  A emax
λ 
• For an impedance matched line, Γ = 0 and VSWR = 1
4π× A emax
312. Consider a transmission line of characteristic λ=
D
impedance 50 ohms and the line is terminated
at one end by +j50 ohms, the VSWR produced 3
4π×
in the transmission line will be λ= 32π
1.5
(a) +1 (b) zero
λ = 0.5m
(c) –1 (d) infinity
λ = 500mm
315. Using a quarter wave transformer of
Ans. (d) : Reflection coefficient -
characteristic impedance 1 Ω, a load impedance
ZL − Z0 j50 − 50
Γ= = of 100 Ω will be transformed to an input
ZL + Z0 j50 + 50 impedance of value :
Γ = 1 therefore (a) 1 Ω (b) 100 Ω
(c) 0.01 Ω (d) 0.1Ω
VSWR = ∞
Ans. (c) : Given, 318. The change in phase of an electromagnetic
Characteristics impedance (Z0) = 1Ω wave normally incident on a perfect conducting
Load impedance (ZL) = 100Ω wall is?
Input impedance of quarter wave transformer (a) 90º (b) 180º
(c) 0º (d) 270º
Z 20
Zin = ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
ZL
Ans. (b) : Reflection coefficient for a perfect
(1)
2
1 conducting wall = −1
= = = 0.01Ω
100 100 Er
= −1
316. VSWR of a purely resistive load of normalized Ei
value n + j0 for n < 1 is :
Er = -Ei
(a) n (b) 1/n
Er = Ei ∠180º
(c) 1 (d) Infinite
So, change of phase of electromagnetic wave is 180º
Ans. (b) : Reflection coefficient 319. If frequency is decreased 4 times, then skin
depth of an Electromagnetic wave inside a
Z −Z
(Γ) = L 0 conductor will be :
ZL + Z0
(a) halved (b) quadrupled
ZL (c) doubled (d) no change
−1
Z0
= ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
ZL
+1 Ans. (c) : Skin depth of EM wave :-
Z0
2
n −1 δ=
(Γ ) = ωµσ
n +1
For n <1, assume n = 0.5 1
δ∝
0.5 − 1 1 f
(Γ) = =
0.5 + 1 3 δ2 f
= 1
1 δ1 f2
1+
1+ | Γ | 3 = 2= 1 = 1
VSWR = = f
1− | Γ | 1 − 1 0.5 n given, f 2 = 1
4
3
δ 2 = 2δ1
1
VSWR =
n 320. A plane wave propagating in the dielectric
317. The value of axial ratio of a 45º linearly medium has an electric field given as Ex=E0 Cos
polarized EM wave in dB is (2.6×1010t–100z). The phase velocity of plane
(a) Infinite (b) 0 wave is :
(c) 1 (d) 2 (a) 106 m/sec (b) 2.6 × 108 m/sec
8
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 (c) 3.0 × 10 m/sec (d) 4.0 × 108 m/sec
Ans. (a) : Axial ratio can be expressed as ratio of ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
maximum to the minimum electric field- Ans. (b) : Given that
E max E x = E 0 cos ( 2.6 × 1010 t − 100z ) ...........(i)
Axial ratio = 20log
E min
We know E x = E 0 cos ( ωt − βz ) ..............(ii)
EM wave passes through the origin when there is linear
polarization. Compare with (i) and (ii)
So Emin = 0 ω = 2.6 × 1010 , β = 100
E max ω 2.6 × 1010
Axial ratio = 20log =∞ Phase velocity ( v p ) = = = 2.6 × 108 m / sce.
E min β 100

321. A plane wave propagating in the dielectric Ans. (d) : Plane wave E = (0.5xˆ + yˆ e jπ/2 ) ejωt–jkz
medium has an electric field given as Ex = E0
Here the wave has two orthogonal components and they
Cos (3×1010t–100z). The dielectric constant of
medium is: are not equal
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.00 E x0 ≠ E y0
(c) 1.01 (d) 2.15 Also, the time phase difference between two
components is odd multiples of π .
2
(
Ans. (b) : Given that, E x = E 0 cos 3 × 10 t − 100z10
) Hence the given wave is elliptically polarized.
We know E x = E 0 cos ( ωt − βz ) 324. If a right hand circularly polarised wave is
Compare both equation - incident on a perfect conductor. The reflected
ω = 3 × 1010 , β = 100 wave is :
ω (a) Right circularly polarised wave
Phase velocity ( VP ) = = 3 × 108 m / sec
β (b) Left circularly polarised wave
1 c (c) Linear polarised wave
also ( VP ) = =
µε ε (d) None of above
3 ×108
⇒ 3 × 108 = Ans. (b) : If a right hand circularly polarised wave is
ε
incident on a perfect conductor, then the reflected wave
ε =1
is left circularly polarised.
ε =1
325. The S matrix of a lossless line having length λ/4
322. A transmission line of 50 Ω characteristic is
impedance terminated by a load impedance of 1 0  1 −1
50-j50. The magnitude of reflection coefficient (a)   (b)  
0 1  −1 1 
at the load is :
(a) 5 /3 (b) 3 /5 0 j 
(c)   (d) None of above
 j 0
(c) 3 5 (d) None of above
Ans. (d) : For the network to be lossless, the sum of
Ans. (d) : Characteristic impedance ( Z0 ) = 50Ω
magnitude squares of elements in each column should
Load impedance ( ZL ) = 50 − j50 be one.
ZL − Z0 50 − j50 − 50 as [S] × S*  = [ I ]
Reflection coefficient | Γ |= =
ZL + Z0 50 − j50 + 50
where I is the identity matrix
− j50 −j 1
= = = 0 e − jβℓ 
50 ( 2 − j) ( 2 − j) 5 So, S =  − jβℓ 
e 0 
323. A plane wave is characterized by :
λ
E = (0.5xˆ + yˆ e jπ/2 ) ejωt–jkz at ℓ=
4
The wave is 2π λ π
(a) Linearly Polarized ⇒ βℓ = × =
λ 4 2
(b) Circularly Polarized jπ
−
(c) Unpolarized e − j βℓ = e 2
= −j
(d) Elliptically Polarized  0 − j
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 Hence, S =  − j 0 
 
GATE-2002
326. In the following Smith Chart, (a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω
(c) 25 Ω (d) 500 Ω
IES – 1997
GATE-1997
Ans. (c) : Z0 = 50Ω and ZL = 100 Ω
Since the wave is quarter wavelength long line, and Z0
is independent from length of line, so the input
impedance is
2
The movement from y along a constant VSWR Z = Z0 = 2500
in
to y1 needs addition of ZL 100
(a) Capacitance in series with y Zin = 25 Ω
(b) Capacitance in shunt with y
(c) TRL in series with y 329. A lossless matching circuit is shown in the
figure.
(d) Stub with y
Ans. (b) : The movement towards y along a constant
VSWR to y1 along clockwise movement, admittance
parameter (reactive) will increase.
Hence capacitance in shunt with y added.
327. If the RF Transmission is terminated in its
Characteristic impedance Zc, which of the The values satisfying the matching condition
following statements is wrong. are :
(a) The input impedance of transmission line (a) XS1 = –j25.1, XP = +j100, XS2 = –j50
becomes Zc. (b) XS1 = +j25.1, XP = –j100, XS2 = –j50
(b) The transmission line acts as an infinite long (c) XS1 = –j25.1, XP = –j100, XS2 = –j50
transmission line. (d) XS1 = +j25.1, XP = +j100, XS2 = +j100
(c) The VSWR becomes one ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
(d) The VSWR becomes infinite. Ans. (a) : From circuit diagram it is clear that
50Ω = x S2 +
(
( x p ) xS1 + j25.1 + 100 )
Ans. (d) : If the transmission line is terminated in its
x p + x S1 + j25.1 + 100
characteristic impedance, Z0 or Zc then
1. Input impedance of the transmission line becomes Zc. To verify above relation first take x S1 = − j25.1Ω we
2. Any transmission line of finite length will act as an get-
infinite long transmission line since for an infinite
x p ( − j25.1 + j25.1 + 100 )
line input impedance, Zin is equal to characteristic 50 = x S2 +
x p − j25.1 + j25.1 + 100
impedance Zc.
Z R − Z 0 Z0 − Z 0 x p (100 )
3. Reflection coefficient PΓ = = =0 50 = x S2 +
ZR + Z0 Z0 + Z0 x p + 100
1+ Γ Now take x p = j100, we get
hence VSWR = =1
1− Γ
j100 (100 )
50 = x S2 +
328. The loss-less, quarter wavelength long, RF 100 (1 + j)
transmission of characteristic impedance 50 Ω
is terminated in pure resistive load impedance j100  1 − j 
⇒ 50 = x S2 + × 
100 Ω, the input impedance is : 1+ j  1− j 

j100 + 100 331. An electromagnetic wave incident on a perfect
⇒ 50 = x S2 +
2 conductor is:
⇒ 50 = x S2 + j50 + 50 (a) Entirely reflected (b) Fully transmitted
(c) Partially transmitted (d) None of these
⇒ x S2 = − j50 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
Hence x S1 = − j25.1Ω, x p = j100Ω and x S2 = − j50Ω Ans. (a) : For an electromagnetic wave incident on a
perfect conductor is entirely reflected.
330. An RF signal is applied to a 50Ω lossless
E
transmission line which is terminated in a load reflection coeficient Γ = r = 1
Ei
with impedance, ZL=j50. The wavelength is 8
cm. Find the position of voltage and current 332. If the short circuit and open circuit impedance
maximum respectively nearest to the load of a line are 5 and 20Ω respectively the
measured from load end? characteristic impedance is given by
(a) 1 cm, 3 cm (b) 3 cm, 1 cm (a) 100 Ω (b) 10 Ω
(c) 3 cm, 5 cm (d) 5 cm, 3 cm (c) 15Ω (d) 10000 Ω
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 Mizoram PSCAE/SDO-2012, Paper-III
Ans.(a): Voltage for transmission line ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
V(x) = Vf e jβx + Vf Γ e
− j(βx −θ )
……….. (i) Ans. (b) : Given,
Zsc = 5Ω
For maxima both terms should be in phase.
Zoc = 20Ω
i.e. β x − ( −βx + θ ) = 2nπ, n = 0,1, 2.....
Characteristics impedance (Z0) = Zsc Zoc
Voltage maxima/current minima
= 5 × 20
2β x max = 2nπ + θ …….(ii)
= 100
Similarly for minima, both terms should be out of
= 10Ω
phase. i.e. for voltage minima/current maxima-
333. The input impedance of short circuited line of
β x − ( −βx + θ ) = ( 2n + 1) π
length ℓ where λ/4<ℓ<λ/2, is
⇒ 2β x min = ( 2n + 1) π + θ ……. (iii) (a) Capacitive (b) Inductive
Now Z0 = 50Ω, ZL = j50Ω (c) Resistive (d) None of these
ZL − Z0 j50 − 50 j − 1
Γ= = = Ans. (a) : The input impedance of short circuited line of
ZL + Z0 j50 + 50 j + 1
length ℓ where λ / 4 < ℓ < λ / 2, is capacitive.
Γ=
( j − 1)( j − 1) = j = 1 ∠90º
−2 334. The highest frequency for which a circular
coaxial transmission line having outer diameter
Hence at n = 0
= 3.1 mm and inner diameter = 1.3 mm can be
(i) For voltage maxima from equation
operated in pure TEM mode (assuming free
π
(ii) 2β x max = 2 ( 0 ) π + space medium between the two conductors)
2 should be less than:
2π π (a) 12.2 GHz (b) 18.6 GHz
⇒ 2⋅ −2
× x max =
8 ×10 2 (c) 26.5 GHz (d) 43.4 GHz
π 1 ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
x max = × 8cm × = 1cm
2 4π Ans. (d) : Given:
(ii) Current minima from equation (iii) D = 3.1 mm
2π π
2× × x min = ( 2 ( 0 ) + 1) π + d = 1.3 mm
8cm 2 µr = εr = 1
3 1 c
⇒ x min = × 8cm × = 3cm f=
2 4 λ
c Ans. (a) : VSWR = 1.5
=
D+d 1+ Γ
π  µr εr 1.5 =
 2  1− Γ
3 × 108 1.5 − 1.5Γ = 1 + Γ
=
3.1 + 1.3 0.5 = 2.5Γ
π 1
2 Γ = 0.2
3 × 108 Return loss = –20 log10 ( Γ )
=
3.14 × 4.4 × 10−3
Return loss = –20 log (0.2) = 13.97 dB
2 11
3
= 0.434 × 10 = 43.4 GHz Return loss ≃ 14 dB
0
337. A plane wave E = 100 sin (ωt – 10x) V/m in a
335. If E = Em sin ( ωt - βz ) aˆ y free space, then B is
loss less medium with µ = 4µ0, ε = ε0, strikes
given by another medium with 900 angle of incidence
− E mβ having µ = 9µ 0 , ε = ε 0 the reflection co-efficient
(a) sin(ωt − βz)aˆ z
ω
is :
− E mβ
(b) cos ( ωt − βz ) aˆ x (a) 0.5 (b) 0.25
ω
(c) 0.1 (d) 0.2
E mβ
(c) sin(ωt − βz)aˆ y ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
ω
Ans. (d) : Reflection coefficient
E β
(d) m cos(ωt − βz)aˆ y
ω ε r1 / µ r1 − ε r2 / µ r2
Γ=
IES - 2013 ε r1 / µ r1 + ε r2 / µ r2
Ans. (b) : Given
1/ 4 − 1/ 9
E = E m sin ( ωt − βz ) aˆ y =
1/ 4 + 1/ 9
Ex −E y 1 1
∵ =η= −
Hy Hx 1
= 2 3 = = 0.2
1/ 2 + 1/ 3 5
−E y
∴ Hx = sin ( ωt − βz ) 338. A lossless transmission line has the distributed
η
circuit parameters of inductance and
−µE y capacitance per meter as 625 nH/m and 64
∴ B = µH = sin ( ωt − βz ) aˆ x
µ pF/m respectively, the phase constant of the
ε line at 100 MHz is:
(a) 3.97 rad/m (b) 18.42 rad/m
H x = −E y µε sin ( ωt − β z ) aˆ x
(c) 1.56 rad/m (d) 9.21 rad/m
or H x = −E m µε sin ( ωt − β z ) aˆ x ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
Ans. (a) :
β
As β = ω µε ⇒ µε = L = 625 nH/m
ω
C = 64 F/m
− E mβ
∴ Hx = sin ( ωt − βz ) aˆ x f = 100 MHz
ω
β = ω LC = 2πf LC
336. The VSWR of a microwave unit is 1.5, the
return loss is: = 2 π × 100 × 106 625 × 10 −9 × 64 × 10 −12
(a) 14 dB (b) 16 dB
= 2π× 25 × 8 ×108 ×10−10 10−1
(c) 18 dB (d) 11 dB
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 = 3.97 rad/m

339. Magnitude of input impedance of a λ/8 lossless 341. A transmission line having characteristic
50Ω transmission line terminated with 25Ω is: impedance of 50ohms has to deliver 10KW
power at 100KHz to a load. Maximum
permissible value of rms current anywhere
along the line is 20A. What is the maximum
VSWR that can be tolerated on this line?
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 2.5
(a) 100Ω (b) 25Ω
(c) 50Ω (d) None of the above
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 Ans. (a) : Reflection coefficient Γ = ZL − Z0
( )
Ans. (c) : Zo = 50Ω Z L + Z0
λ and P = I2 ZL
ZL = 25Ω , ℓ =
8
P 10 × 103
2π λ π π ZL = = = 25 Ω
βℓ = × = ; tan βℓ = tan = 1 I 2 20 × 20
λ 8 4 4
ZL − Z0 25 − 50 1
 Z + jZo tan β ℓ 
Zin = Zo  L
∵ (Γ) = = =−
 ZL + Z0 25 + 50 3
 Zo + jZL tan β ℓ 
1
 Z + jZo  1+
= Zo  L  1+ | Γ | 3 =4=2
VSWR = =
 Zo + jZL  1− | Γ | 1 − 1 2
 25 + j50  3
= 50  
 50 + j25  VSWR = 2
1 + 2 j  342. The velocity at which a sinusoidal signal of 109
= 50  
 2+ j  rad/s travels down a loss-less transmission line
50 12 + 2 2 for which L = 0.4 µH/m and C=40 pF/m is
Zin =
2 2 + 12 (a) 2.36 × 108 m/s (b) 2.5 × 108 m/s
= 50Ω (c) 5 × 109 m/s (d) 4.5 × 109 m/s
340. Characteristic impedance of a two-wire ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
transmission line at 10 KHz is 200-j50 ohms. Ans. (b) : As β = ω LC
Line is terminated in its characteristic
impedance, and a 28.28 Vp-p signal is measured = 109 0.4 ×10−6 × 40 × 10−12
at its input. Determine the real power supplied
= 4 × 109 × 10 −9 = 4
by the signal source to the line?
(a) 0.5 W (b) 0.485 W ω
Thus phase velocity (Vp ) =
(c) 0.47 W (d) 0.25 W β
=
Ans. (b) : Given VPP = 28.28 V 4
Vℓ = 14.14 = 0.25 × 109 = 2.5 × 108 m / s
Vℓ 2 343. A lossless line having characteristic impedance
Real power =
2ZL Zo is terminated with a load impedance of jZ0.
VSWR of the line will be :
where ZL = 2002 + 502 = 206.15 Ω
(a) 1 (b) 10
(14.14 )
2
∴ Real power = = 0.485 W (c) Infinite (d) None of the above

2 × 206.15 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
Ans. (c) : Given that ZL = jZ0 In quarter wave line (ℓ = λ/4)
Characteristic impedance (ZL) = Z0
Z02 ( 50 )
2
Zin = = =0
Reflection coefficient Γ = ZL − Z0 ZL ∞
Z L + Z0
Zin = 0
jZ − Z0
= 0
jZ0 + Z0 347. VSWR of a transmission line is always
Z0 ( j − 1) (a) Less than unity (b) Greater than unity
=
Z0 ( j + 1) (c) Zero (d) Infinity
j −1
Γ= Ans. (b) : VSWR (voltage standing wave ratio)
j +1
VSWR = 1
Γ =1
It maximum reflection occurs on the line,
1+ Γ 1+1 |Γ|=1
Hence VSWR = =
1− Γ 1−1
Then VSWR = ∞
VSWR = ∞ 1≤ VSWR ≤ ∞
344. A transmission line having characteristic So, VSWR of a transmission line is always greater than
impedance 'Zt' of varying length in series with unity.
a load impedance 'ZL' appears in a Smith 348. The wave length of a 100 MHz electromagnetic
Chart on : wave propagating through a perfect non
(a) Constant Resistance Circle magnetic dielectric with relative permittivity
(b) Constant VSWR Circle εr = 9 is
(c) Constant Reactance Circle (a) 3 m (b) 3 cm
(d) All of the above (c) 100 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans. (b) : A transmission line having characteristic Ans. (c) : Given,
impedance 'Zt' of varying length in series with a load
f = 100 MHz
impedance "ZL" appears in a smith chart on constant
εr = 9
VSWR circle.
345. Impedance characteristics on a Smith Chart c 3 × 108
v= = ⇒ v = 108
repeat after a distance of : εr 9
(a) λ (b) λ/4
v 108
(c) λ/2 (d) None of the above λ= = ⇒ λ = 1m = 100cm
f 100 × 106
349. When VSWR is 3, reflection coefficient is:
Ans. (c) : Impedance characteristics on a Smith chart
1
repeat after a distance of λ/2. (a) (b) 1
2
λ
346. A very lossy, long, 50 ohm transmission line 1
4 (c) 0 (d)
4
is open circuited at the load end. The input
impedance measured at the other end of the ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
VSWR − 1
line is approximately.
(a) 0 (b) ∞
Ans. (a) : Reflection coefficient Γ = ( )
VSWR + 1
(c) 50 ohm (d) none of the above 3 −1 2 1
= = =
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 3 +1 4 2
Ans. (a) : Given that Z0 = 50 Ω 1
Γ =
For open circuit transmission line ZL = ∞ 2
350. Which transmission line is ideal for handling 0 − 50
=
high power? 0 + 50
(a) Coaxial line Γ = −1
(b) Microstrip 1+ Γ
(c) Strip line Now, VSWR =
1− Γ
(d) Rectangular waveguide
1+1
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 =
1−1
Ans. (d) : In transmission line, rectangular waveguide is
ideal for handling high power. VSWR = ∞
351. The transmission line of characteristic 352. When compared with stripline, the major
impedance 50 Ω and feeding a purely resistive disadvantage of microstrip line is
load of 200 Ω uses single quarter wavelength (a) Not amenable for printed circuit technique.
long short circuit stub which placed at a (b) More expensive and complex to manufacture.
distance d from the load. The VSWR on the (c) Bulkier and voluminous.
transmission line section of length d and (d) More likely to radiate.
VSWR on the stub respectively are
Ans. (d) : When compared with stripline, the major
disadvantage of microstrip line is more likely to radiate.
Due to low dielectric constant micro strip line is more
likely to radiate.
353. The disadvantage of single-stub matching as
compared to double-stub matching, is that
(a) 0 and 0 respectively (a) The stub position has to be adjustable
(b) 1 and 1 respectively (b) Only shunt stub can be used
(c) 4 and 1 respectively (c) Only resistive load can be matched
(d) 4 and ∞ respectively (d) Useful only in two wire transmission line
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
Ans. (d) : Zo = 50Ω Ans. (a) : The disadvantage of single-stub matching as
compared to double-stub matching, is that the stub
ZL = 200Ω
position has to be adjustable.
Z − Zo 354. A unit step voltage travels from left to right
reflection coefficient Γ = L
Z L + Zo along an infinite transmission line. It hits an
200 − 50 inductive discontinuity at t = 0. What will be
Γ= the waveform immediately to the left of the
200 + 50
150 3 discontinuity?
Γ= = (a) Positive spike on a unit step
250 5
(b) Unit step with reduced rise time
1+ Γ
Now, VSWR = (c) Attenuated unit step
1− Γ
(d) Magnified unit step
1+ 3 5 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
=
1− 3 5 Ans. (b) : A unit step voltage travelling from left to
VSWR = 4 right along an infinite transmission line and if its an
inductive discontinuity at t = 0, we will get a unit step
Now for short circuit stub Zo = 50Ω wave form with reduced rise time.
due to short circuit ZL = 0 355. A lossy open stub having a length of 1/32
wavelength, is approximately equivalent to
Z L − Zo
reflection factor Γ = (a) A small capacitor in shunt with a small
Z L + Zo
resistor
(b) A small capacitor in shunt with a large 358. What is the characteristic impedance of a
resistor coaxial transmission line having inner
(c) A small inductor in shunt with a small resistor conductor radius of 1mm, outer conductor
(d) A large inductor in shunt with a large resistor radius of 2mm and dielectric constant of 4.0?
(a) 50 ohm (b) 60 ohm
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010, 2009
(c) 20.62 ohm (d) None of these
Ans. (b) : A lossy open stub having a length of 1/32
wave length, is approximately equivalent to a small
Ans. (c) : Characteristic impedance of a coaxial
capacitor in shunt with a large resistor.
transmission line-
356. The continuity of the tangential field
138 D
component at the interface of two media for Z0 = log  
K d
normal incidence of a plane wave requires
(a) T = 1– Γ (b) T = 1+ Γ Where,
(c) T = Γ (d) T ≠ Γ K → Relative permittivity of insulation
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 D → Outer radius of a coaxial line
d → Inner radius of a coaxial line
Ans. (b) : T = 1 + Γ
Given, conductor radius (D) = 2mm
where,
Inner conductor radius (d) = 1 mm
T = Transformation coefficient.
Dielectric constant (k) = 4
Γ = reflection coefficient.
138 2
357. Estimate the magnitude and phase of the Z0 = 4 log  1  = 20.77 Ω
element S11 of the S-matrix of the circuit shown
Z0 = 20.77 Ω
below. Assume an operating frequency of 25
MHz. 359. An impedance of -10 – j2 ohms is connected to
another impedance of 45 + j5 ohms through a
transmission line having a characteristic
impedance of 50 ohms. Assess the stability of
this circuit.
(a) Highly stable
(b) Stability cannot be determined from the given
information
(a) 25 ∠ 180º (b) 25 ∠ 0º (c) Highly unstable
(c) 0.33∠ 180º (d) 0.33 ∠ 0º (d) Marginally unstable
Ans. (d) : We know that S matrix can be given as- Ans. (b) : Stability cannot be determined from the given
information because data is insufficient to find stability.
 b1  s11 s12   a1 
 b  = s s   a  360. A transmission line of characteristic impedance
 2   21 22   2 
75 ohms is terminated with an impedance of 50
from this matrix we can say that ohms. The line length is increased from zero.
V1 + Zo I1 V − Zo I 2 What will be the locus of the input impedance
a1 = , a2 = 2
2 Zo 2 Zo at the other end of the line? (N.B. : Reference
impedance of Smith Chart = 50 Ohms)
V1 − Zo I1 V + Zo I 2
b1 = ,b 2 = 2
2 Zo 2 Zo
after putting the value of variables in above equations
from the given figure
We will get the value of s11
s11 = 0.33∠0º

(a) Locus [A] (b) Locus [B] (a) 75 Ω (b) 94 Ω
(c) Locus [C] (d) Locus [D] (c) 188 Ω (d) 377 Ω
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014, 2008
Ans. (b) : Reference impedance of smith chart = 50 Ans. (c) : Intrinsic impedance of medium is-
ohm Locus [B] is the locus of the input impedance at
µ
the other end of the line. η = 377 r
∈r
361. The basic principle of impedance matching in a
transmission line is 1
(a) Maximum power transfer theorem η = 377
4
(b) Norton theorem η = 188.5
(c) Superposition Principle
η = 188
(d) Thevinin's Theorem
TNPSC AE - 2018 η ≃ 188 Ω
Ans. (a) : For maximum power transfer theorem, load 365. As a result of reflections from a plane
impedance should be equal to source impedance conducting wall, electromagnetic waves acquire
matching. Thus theorem follow the basic principle of an apparent velocity greater than the velocity
impedance matching. of light in space. This is called
362. A dielectric medium has a relative permittivity (a) velocity of propagation
εr = 6. Find the index of refraction and the (b) normal velocity
phase velocity for a wave in an unbounded (c) group velocity
medium of this dielectric (d) phase velocity
(a) 2.45, 1.22 Mm S–1 (b) 2.45, 0.122 Mm S–1 GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
(c) 2.45, 12.2 Mm S–1 (d) 2.45, 122 Mm S–1
Ans. (d) : As a result of reflections from a plane
TNPSC AE - 2018
Conducting wall, electromagnetic wave acquire an
Ans. (d) : Index of refraction = ε r apparent Velocity greater than the velocity of light in
space. This is called phase velocity.
η= 6
366. The line code that has zero :DC component for
η = 2.45 the pulse transmission of random binary data
c 3 × 10 8
is
Phase velocity (VP) = =
εr 6 (a) Non return to zero (NRZ)
(b) Return to zero (RZ)
VP = 1.22 × 108 m / s
(c) Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI)
VP = 122Mm / s (d) None of the above
363. Find the reflection co-efficient of the wave with GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
SWR of 3.5. Ans. (c) : The line code that has zero DC component for
(a) 0.55 (b) 0.23 the pulse transmission of random binary data is
(c) 0.48 (d) 0.68 Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI).
TNPSC AE - 2018 367. Which of the following constitute the objective
1+ Γ 1+ Γ of impedance matching?
Ans. (a) : SWR = ⇒ 3.5 = (a) Increase power transfer to the load
1− Γ 1− Γ
(b) Decrease power transfer to the load
3.5 – 3.5 |Γ| = 1 + |Γ| (c) Decrease losses
2.5 = (1 + 3.5) |Γ| (d) Increase efficiency
| Γ |= 0.55 GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
364. The intrinsic impedance of free space is 377 Ω. Ans. (a) : Impedance matching is designed for source
The approximate intrinsic impedance of a and load impedances to minimize signal reflection or
medium with relative permittivity and maximize power transfer. The objective of Impedance
permeability of 4 and 1 respectively will be matching increase power transfer to the load.

368. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave incident 372. The characteristic impedance of a co-axial
normally on a plane surface of a dielectric cable depends on diameter of
material is reflected with VSWR of 3. What is (a) inner conductor
the percentage of incident power that is (b) outer conductor
reflected? (c) both inner & outer conductors
(a) 10 (b) 25 (d) none of these
(c) 50 (d) 75 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 Ans. (c) : Characteristics impendence of a co-axial
Ans. (b) : Reflection coefficient - cable depends on logarithmic ratio of outer and inner
VSWR − 1 diameter.
Γ =
VSWR + 1 59.95  d 
Z0 = ln  
3 −1 1 εr a
Γ = = = 0.5
3 +1 2
138.06 d
Incident power =| Γ |2 = 0.25 Z0 = .log10  
εr a
= 25%
369. If ( ωL << R) and ( ωC << G) of a transmission Where d= outer diameter and a = inner diameter
line, the attenuation constant γ is 373. The Poynting Vector P = E × H has the
(a) proportional to frequency dimensions of
(b) inversely proportional to frequency (a) Power/unit area (b) Volts
(c) independent of frequency (c) Power (d) Volts/unit length
(d) none of these UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Poynting Vector
Ans. (c) : γ = ( R + jωL )( G + jωC )
P = E × H watt/m2
As per question when ωL << R and ωC << G Poynting vector represents
Then, γ = RG (i) Power density associated in EM wave in watt/m2.
(ii) This describes the magnitude and direction of the
Attenuation constant is independent of frequency.
flow of energy in EM waves per Unit volume.
370. For the short circuit load, the voltage minimum
374. The critical angle for electromagnetic wave
occurs at
passing glass to air (ε/ε0=9) will be nearly :
(a) source point
(a) 10.50 (b) 19.50
(b) load point 0
(c) 26.5 (d) 38.50
(c) between source and load
(d) none of these
Ans. (b) : The critical angle is given by :
ε2
Ans. (b) : For the short circuit load, the voltage will be θc = sin–1
ε1
minimum at load point. We know that the current will
θc = sin–1   = 19.47°
1
be maximum and voltage will be minimum at short
 3
circuit point.
375. The intrinsic impedance η of a conducting
371. In insulators
medium for which σ = 58 Ms/m, µr = 1 at a
(a) EM waves propagate frequency of 100 MHz is
(b) current flows (a) 2.14 × 105 ∠45ºΩ
(c) electrostatic energy is stored (b) 1.84 × 10–3 ∠45ºΩ
(d) magnetic energy is stored
(c) 3.69 × 10–3 ∠45ºΩ
(d) 3.69 × 10–3 ∠–45ºΩ
Ans. (a) : In insulators EM waves propagate. IES - 2013
jωµ (a) 0.4Ω (b) 4Ω
Ans. (c) : Intrinsic impedance (η) = (c) 40Ω (d) 400Ω
σ + jωε
for conducting medium, we have -
Ans. (c) : Characteristic impedance of co-axial line -
σ >> 1 ⇒ σ >> jωε
138.06 d
jωµ ωµ Z0 = log  
∴η = = ∠450 εr a
σ σ
Given that - d = 2a
Here µ = µ0 µr = µ0
εr = 1
= 4π×10–7
Z0 = 138.06log ( 2 )
ω = 2πf = 100MHz
σ = 58 Ms/m = 58×106 s/m Z0 = 41.58Ω
ωµ0 Z0 ≃ 40Ω
∴ η= ∠45°
σ 379. For attenuation of high frequencies we should
use
2π × 100 × 106 × 4π × 10 −7
= ∠45° (a) shunt capacitance (b) series capacitance
58 × 106
(c) shunt inductance (d) series inductance
2 × 3.14 × 4 × 3.14 × 100 × 10−7 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
= ∠45°
58 Ans. (a) : For attenuation of high frequencies we should
= 3.68 × 10−3 ∠45° Ω use shunt capacitance. It passes low frequency and
attenuates high frequency.
376. The input impedance of a short circuited line of
length less than quarter wave length is purely 380. To couple a co-axial line to a parallel line wire
it is best to use
(a) resistive (b) inductive
(a) slotted line (b) balun
(c) capacitive (d) complex
(c) directional coupler (d) λ/4 transformer
RPCS Lect.-2011
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 Ans. (b) : To couple a co-axial line to a parallel line
wire it is best to use balun (balanced to unbalanced)
Ans. (b) : Input impudence of a short circuited line of
381. Each kilometer of travel of electromagnetic
λ
length less than, If l < ; the nature of the input wave means a time delay of
4
(a) 330µsec (b) 33µsec
impedance inductive
(c) 3.3µsec (d) 0.33µsec
377. In an ideal transmission line with matched
load, the VSWR and reflection co-efficient are
Ans. (c) : Time delay in each kilometer of travelling of
respectively
distance 103 × 1
(a) 1 and 1 (b) 0 and 1 EM wave = = = 3.3µ sec.
(c) infinity (d) 1 and 0 velocity 3 ×108
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III 382. The primary constants of a transmission line
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 are
(a) R and L (b) R,L and C
Ans. (d) : For an ideal transmission line with match
(c) R and C (d) R,L,G and C
ZL – Z0
load, reflection co-efficient = =0 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
ZL + Z0
Ans. (d) : The primary constants of a transmission line
For perfectly matched line ZL = Z0 are R, L, G and C.
1+ Γ 383. If a line with Z0 = 300 ∠00 Ω is open circuited
VSWR= =1
1− Γ at far end, then VSWR is
378. An air filled co-axial line has the outer radius (a) 0 (b) 1
equal to twice the inner radius. Its (c) infinity (d) 2
characteristic impedance is about Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) : Given that–
ε r1 = 1, ε r2 = 3,
Z L − Z0
Reflection co-efficient =
Z L + Z0
Γ = –1
1+ Γ
VSWR= =∞ For boundary condition–
1− Γ
E t1 = E t 2
384. When a line short circuited at far end, the
E1 sin θ1 = E 2 sin θ2
minimum voltage occurs at
E
(a) far end E 2 sin θ2 = E sin 45º = ........... (i)
2
(b) Source end
For normal component–
(c) midway between source and load
D N1 = D N2
(d) None of these
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III ε1 E N1 = ε 2 E N2
Ans. (a) : When a line short circuited at far end, the
1.E1 cos θ1 = 3 ⋅ E 2 cos θ2
minimum voltage across at exactly far end. At short
circuit point current is maximum and voltage is E cos 45º = 3 E 2 cosθ2
minimum. E
E 2 cos θ2 = ..........(ii)
385. The manufacturing technique used to 3× 2
manufacture strip type transmission line is Solve equation (i) & (ii)
(a) photo-etching technique tan θ2 = 3
(b) oxidation technique
θ2 = 60º
(c) cladding
∴θ = θ2 − θ1
(d) epitaxial
= 60 − 45º
Ans. (a) : The manufacturing technique used to
[θ = 15º ]
manufacture strip type transmission line is photo- 387. A transmission line of 50 Ω characteristic
etching technique impedance is terminated with a 100 Ω
386. The electric field between two parallel plates resistance. The minimum impedance measured
placed in vacuum is 'E'. If a slab of dielectric on the line is equal to
(a) 0 Ω (b) 25 Ω
constant 3 is inserted in between the plate
(c) 50 Ω (d) 100 Ω
such that the normal to the boundary makes an
angle 45° with the lines of electric force in
Ans. (b) : Z0 = 50Ω ZL = 100Ω
between the plates. Find the angle (θ) between
2
the electric lines in the medium between the Here Z > Z so Z = Z 0
L 0 min
plates (vacuum) and dielectric slab. ZL
(a) 60° (b) 15° 50 × 50
Zmin =
(c) 30° (d) 25° 100
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 Zmin = 25Ω

388. For loss less transmission line L=0.35 µ H/m, Ans. (a) : Polarization is a property of transverse wave
C=90 pF/m and frequency = 500MHz. Then the that specifies the geometrical orientation of oscillation
magnitude of the propagation constant is in the transverse wave, the direction of oscillation is
(a) 14.48 (b) 17.63 perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave.
(c) 19.59 (d) 21.20 393. For a shorted lossless transmission line of
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper II length l, which one is NOT true
Ans. (b) : For distortion less transmission line– (a) VSWR = ∞
(b) Input impedance Zin = jZ0 tan βl
γ = β = ω LC
(c) Reflection coefficient Γl = –1
γ = 2π× 500 ×106 0.35 ×10−6 × 90 ×10−12 (d) Reflection coefficient Γl = 1
| γ | = 17.63 UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
389. In which of the following two ground plane are Ans. (d) : For a shorted lossless transmission line of
used? length ℓ1 we get
(a) Coaxial line (b) Strip line (i) VSWR = ∞
(c) Microstrip (d) Parallel wire line (ii) Zin = jZ0 tan βℓ
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II (iii) Reflection coefficient Γ = −1
ℓ
Ans. (b) : A microwave strip has two ground plane.
394. After the application of input, the time taken
Strip line is a transverse electromagnetic transmission
by output to show the change in state is called-
line medium invented by Robert M-Barrette.
(a) Transmission time (b) Propagation delay
390. The distortion in the transmission of carrier
(c) State changing time (d) Recovery time
frequencies in an underground cable can be
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
eliminated by using
(a) Inductive loading (b) Resistive loading Ans. (b) : After the application of input, the time taken
by output to show, the change state is called
(c) Capacitive loading (d) Shielding
propagation delay.
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
Ans. (a) : In an under ground cable the distortion in the
answer using the code given below the lists :
transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by
using the inductive loading. Inductive load is used to List - I List - II
eliminate the capacitive loading. (Medium Type) (Frequency Range)
A. Open wire 1. 100 kHz
391. Measurement of VSWR gives the degree of
mismatch between the load and the B. Twisted pair 2. 100 kHz
(a) Microwave components C. Coaxial-cable 3. 100 GHz
(b) Transmission line D. Waveguide 4. 5.0 kHz
(c) Tubes Codes :
(d) Waveguides A B C D
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III (a) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b) : The voltage standing wave ratio, VSWR is (b) 2 1 4 3
defined as the ratio of maximum to minimum voltage (c) 2 3 4 1
on the loss less line. (d) 4 1 2 3
392. In electromagnetic waves, polarisation is IES - 2008
(a) due to transverse nature of waves Ans. (d) :
(b) always vertical in isotropic medium Open wire – 5kHz
(c) due to longitudinal nature of waves Twisted pair – 100kHz
(d) caused by reflection of waves Coaxial cable – 100MHz
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III Waveguide – 100GHz
π 400. Maxwell's equation for EM waves can be
396. A loss-less line length x such that β x = is
2 applied to
connected in between a line of characteristic (i) Dielectric medium
impedance of 100 Ω and a load impedance of (ii) Conductive medium
400 Ω. The line so connected should have a (iii) Plasma
characteristic impedance of (iv) Free space
(a) 100 Ω (b) 200 Ω Select the correct choice:
(c) 300 Ω (d) 400 Ω (a) (i) only (b) (i) & (ii) only
UPSC JWM-2016 (c) (ii) & (iii) only (d) All above
Ans. (b) : Given, UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
Zin = 100, ZL= 400 Ans. (d) : Maxwell's equation for EM wave can be
applied to dielectric medium, conductive medium,
Z0 = Zin × ZL
plasma and free space.
Z0 = 100 × 400 401. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies
Z0 = 200 in the following range:
397. Which of the following statements is false? (a) HF (b) VHF
(a) Circular waveguides support TE and TM (c) UHF (d) VLF
(b) Parallel plate transmission line supports TEM UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
(c) Two wire transmission line supports TE mode Ans. (c) : Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies
(d) Coaxial transmission line supports TEM in range of ultra high frequency (UHF).
UJVNL AE-2016 402. At what condition the transmission line is
Ans. (d) : A co-axial cable is a type of transmission line called flat line?
used to carry high frequency electrical signal with low (a) Standing wave ratio is unity
losses. Hence it does not support transverse electrical (b) Standing wave ratio is zero
mode (TEM). (c) Standing wave ratio is > 1
398. The phase velocity in a transmission line is (d) Standing wave ratio is < 1
1 TNPSC AE-2014
(a) (b) LC
LC 1+ Γ
Ans. (a) : Standing wave ratio S =
(c) LC (d)
1 1− Γ
LC It is defined as the ratio of transmitted electric field to
the incident electric field. Standing wave ratio is unity
Ans. (d) : The phase velocity of transmission line, for flat transmission line.
ω
vp = 403. A matched load is a single port device having
β ideal parameters Z = Z = 50 Ω. What is load
in 0
ω 1 location in the smith chart?
vp = =
LC × ω LC (a) Center of the smith chart
399. VSWR is defined as the ratio (b) Outside the smith chart
Vmin Vmax (c) Inside the smith chart
(a) (b)
Vmax Vmin (d) None of the above
TNPSC AE-2014
Vmax + Vmin
(c) (d) Vmax ⋅ Vmin Ans. (a) : A convenient tool for finding impedances in
Vmax − Vmin
transmission lines and designing matching networks is
the smith chart.
Ans. (b) : Voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) A matched load is a single port device having ideal
Maximum voltage appear in the line parameters Zin = Z0 = 50 Ω the load location in the
=
Minimum voltage appear in the line center of the smith chart.

404. A transmission – line impairment is located 300 m Zin = ∞
from the source. For a velocity of propagation of Vs Vs
0.9c, the time elapsed from the beginning of the The current Is = =
Zin ∞
pulse to reception of the echo is
Is = 0
(a) 20.5 µs (b) 22.22 ms
(c) 22.22 µs (d) 25.75 µs 408. A transmission line whose characteristic
impedance is a pure resistance
TNPSC AE-2014
(a) must be a lossless line
2d 2d (b) must be a distortion line
Ans. (c) : t = =
v k×c (c) may not be lossless line
2d 2 × 300m (d) may not be a distortion line
= = = 22.22µs
v 0.9 ( 3 ×108 / m / s ) Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Mizoram PSC IOLM- 2018, Paper-II
405. For the symmetrical T section
GPSE Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017, Paper-I
 Z  Z1 Z2 TNPSC AE-2013
(a) Z1 Z2 1 + 1  (b)
 4Z 2  1 + Z1 / 4Z 2 Ans. (c&d) :Lossless line has R= G=0
Z0 = L / C
 Z  Z1 Z2
(c) Z1 Z2 1 − 1  (d) Distortion line
 4Z2  Z
1− 1 R
4Z2 = L/C
G
TNPSC AE-2014
∵ L = 0, C = 0
Z12 Z = R /G
Ans. (a) : Z0 = + Z1 Z2
4 So, transmission line may be lossless, distortion less
hence, for symmetrical T section or L = C = 0
Z12 409. The Poynting vector is the rate of energy flow
Z 0T = + Z1 Z2
4 having SI Unit
406. The reflection co-efficient is 1/5, the W W
(a) (b)
corresponding VSWR is given by m m2
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 W2
(c) Wm (d)
(c) 1.8 (d) 2 m2
TNPSC AE-2013 RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016
1+ Γ 1 + 1/ 5 Ans. (b) : The poynting vector is the rate of energy flow
Ans. (b) : VSWR = = W
1− Γ 1 − 1/ 5 having SI unit .
m2
VSWR = 6/4
410. A 50 Ω transmission line is terminated in an
VSWR = 1.5
impedance of 20-j50. What will be the
407. A lossless transmission line having 50 Ω reflection coefficient?
characteristic impedance and length 'λ/4' is (a) 0.69 (b) 1.69
short circuited at one end and connected to an (c) 6.9 (d) 16.9
ideal voltage source of 1V at the other end. The RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016
current drawn from the voltage source is
Ans. (a) : Given, Z0 = 50Ω, ZL = 20 − j50 Ω
(a) 0 (b) 0.02 A
reflection coefficient
(c) ∞ (d) none of these
Z − Z0 20 − j50 − 50 −30 − j50
TNPSC AE-2013 Γ= L = =
ZL + Z0 20 − j50 + 50 70 − j50
Ans. (a) : For quarter wave transformer
( 30 ) + ( 50 )
2 2
Z2 = 0.677 ≃ 0.69
Zin = 0 ZL = 0 short circuit |Γ| =
( 70 ) + ( 50 )
2 2
ZL

411. A plane wave with the following instantaneous 2 × 120π × 1.5 × 10
E2 =
4π (1000 )
2
expression for electric field is E(z, t) = axE10 sin
( ωt – kz) + ayE20 sin ( ωt – kz + ψ) :
= 9 × 10 −4
(a) Linear polarized
(b) right-hand circular polarized E = 3 × 10 −2 V m
(c) left-hand circular polarized = 30m V m
(d) elliptically polarized
415. A uniform plane wave in the free space is
BSNL(JTO)-2002 normally incident on an infinitely thick
Ans. (d) : If two plane waves of differing amplitude dielectric slab (dielectric constant ε = 9). The
aur elatived in phase by go or if the elative phase in magnitude of the reflection coefficient is
other than go then the plane is said to be elliptically (a) 0 (b) 0.3
polarized
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.8
412. The wave which 'lie down and dies' is called Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
(a) Space wave (b) Ground wave
µ0 1
(c) Sky wave (d) Spherical wave Ans. (c) : η = =
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I ε0 9
Ans. (b) : The wave which 'Lie down and dies' is called 1
η=
ground wave. 3
413. A balun is virtually 1 − η 1 − 1/ 3 2 / 3
Γ= = =
(a) Flying resistor 1 + η 1 + 1/ 3 4 / 3
(b) Frequency compensator Γ =0.5
(c) An impedance transformer 416. An electromagnetic wave having frequency f0
(d) None of the above gets attenuated by a factor of e–2 after
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I propagating a distance d in a good conductor.
Ans. (c) : A balun virtually acts as an impedance If the signal frequency is now reduced to 0.5 f0,
transformer. after travelling the same distance d in the same
414. An antenna having a gain of 10 dB radiates 1.5 conductor, the signal will get attenuated by a
W power in free space. The electric field factor of :
intensity ( E ) at a distance of 1 km from the (a) e–4 (b) e –2 2
antenna is given by (Given the intrinsic (c) e – 2

(d) e –1
impedance of free space, η0 ≅ 120 πΩ) DRDO-2009
(a) 15 2 mV/m (b) 30 mV/m Ans. (c) : Attenuation factor-

(c) 60 mV/m (d) 90 V/m α = πfµσ ... (i)
DRDO-2009
α α f
Signal gets attenuated by a factor of e −α
10log G t = 10dB
So, α = 2
G t = 10
α1 = π ( 0.5f 0 ) µσ
Transmitted power Pt = 1.5W
r = 1km = 1000m πfµσ
= ... (ii)
Power density 2
α
P=
Pt G t α1 =
4πr 2 2
1 E2 Therefore signal gets attenuated by factor of e −α1

P=
2 η e −α / 2
= e −2 / 2
= e− 2

417. A transmission line with a characteristic 419. A quarter wave impedance transformer is
impedance of 100Ω is used to match a 50Ω terminated by a short circuit. What would its
section to a 200Ω section. If matching is to be input impedance be equal to ?
done both at 429 MHz and 1 GHz, the length of (a) The line characteristic impedance
the transmission line can be approximately (b) Zero
(a) 82.5 cm (b) 1.05 m (c) Infinity
(c) 1.58 m (d) 1.75 m (d) Square root of the line characteristic
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I impedance
Ans. (c) : Z0 = Z1Z2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
IES - 2006
100 = 50 × 200
Ans. (c) : If the line is shorted then (ZL = 0)
Z20 Z02
Zin = = =∞
∵ This is quarter wave length matching. The length ZL 0
λ 420. For a reflection coefficient of 0.5, the value of
would be odd multiplies of .
4 SWR is
λ
λ = ( 2m + 1) (a) –1 (b) 1
4 (c) 2 (d) 3
∴ f1 = 429 MHz Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-II
λ1 c Ans. (d) : Γ = 0.5
ℓ1 = =
4 4f1
1 + Γ 1 + 0.5 1.5
λ1 3 ×108 VSWR = = =
= = 0.174m 1 − Γ 1 − 0.5 0.5
4 429 ×106 × 4
∴ f 2 = 1GHz VSWR = 3
λ2 c 3 × 108 421. Which of the following parameters is negligible

ℓ2 = = =
4 4f 2 1× 109 × 4 in transmission lines?
(a) R (b) L
ℓ2= 0.075 m
(c) C (d) G
Odd integral multiple of both ℓ1 and ℓ2, Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
ℓ = LCM (ℓ1, ℓ2) = 0.525 m Mizoram PSC AE/SDO -2012, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : G can be neglected in transmission lines
ℓ is not option be have take integral of ℓ. because due to the imperfection of dielectric medium
ℓ' = 3ℓ = 1.575 m = 1.58 m present inside the transmission line produce the leakage
current and which can be neglected as the magnitude
418. The capacitance per unit length and the
order is very less.
characteristic impedance of a lossless
transmission line are C and Zo respectively. 422. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
The velocity of a traveling wave on the (a) A short circuited stub
transmission line is (b) A quarter wave line
(a) Zo C (b) 1/Zo C (c) An open circuited stub
(c) Zo/C (d) C/Zo (d) A half wave line
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
MPSC HOD. Gov. Poly. 2013 Ans. (b) : Impedance inversion may be obtained with a
L L quarter wave line by travelling every λ / 4 distance in
Ans. (b) : Z0 = , Z20 =
C C transmission line Normalize value of the load
1 1 1 Z20
Velocity (V) = = = impedance will be 180º and input impedance Zin = .
LC 2
ZC C
0
Z0 C ZL

423. If a line is terminated in characteristic Ans. (b) : A transmission line is a said to be lossless if
impedance Z0; the input impedance measured the conductors of the line are perfect and the dielectric
at the input will be medium separating them is lossless.
(a) Z0 (b) Z0/2
R = G = 0, γ = jω LC
(c) Zero (d) infinite
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III α = 0, β = ω LC
Ans. (a) : If line is terminated in characteristics 428. The line impedance at voltage minimum is
impedance Z0. Then there will be no reflection occur in (a) Resistive (b) Capacitive
load side only positive travelling wave exist in the line (c) Inductive (d) Complex
which is facing Z0. Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-II
424. The characteristic impedance of a cable is Ans. (a) : A transmission line of pure resistive
about characteristic impedance is terminated with an unknown
(a) 2 (b) 5 load. The measured value of VSWR on the line is equal
(c) 50 (d) 300 to 2 and a voltage minimum point is found to be at the
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III purely resistive load.
Ans. (c) : The characteristics impedance of a cable is 429. The reflection coefficient over the normalized
about 50Ω. load ZL is
425. A matched load is one in which
(a)
( ZL − 1) (b)
( ZL + 1)
(a) reflection is zero ( L )
Z + 1 ( ZL − 1)
(b) reflection is unity
(c) partial reflection (c)
( ZS − 1) (d)
( ZS + 1)
(d) none of these ( ZS + 1) ( ZS − 1)
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : A matched load is one in which reflection is Ans. (a) : normalized load impedance :
zero. For the matched condition ZL = Z0, reflection co- ZL
Z= = rL + jX L
efficient Z0
ZL − Z0 Load reflection coefficient
= =0
Z L + Z0
V − ( 0 ) Z L − Z0 Z −1
Γ
0L = = = L
426. For distortionless transmission the amplitude V ( 0 ) Z L + Z0
+
ZL + 1
& phase response are respectively
430. The range of SWR is
(a) Zero & constant
(a) (-1) to (+1) through 0
(b) Constant & linear
(b) (+1) to infinity
(c) Infinite & zero
(c) 0 to infinity
(d) Linear & non-linear
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-I (d) (-1) to infinity
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2018, Paper I Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : For no distortion at the output of an LTI Ans. (b) : Standing wave ratio-
system, It is the ratio of maximum voltage of standing wave to
1. The amplitude at the output of an LTI system the minimum voltage of standing wave.
response is flat. Vmax 1 + Γ L
SWR = =
[H(f)] = constant Vmin 1 − Γ L
2. The phase response is a linear function of frequency. The range of values for VSWR is from 1 to ∞.
θ(f ) = ∠H(f ) = −2πfTd
431. Identify which of the following will not satisfy
427. For lossless line the wave equation
(a) α = 0, β = 0 (b) α = 0, β ≠ 0 (a) 50 exp[ j(ωt – 3z)] (b) sin[ω(10z + 5t)]
(c) α ≠ 0, β = 0 (d) α ≠ 0, β ≠ 0 (c) cos(y2 + 5t) (d) s sin(x) cos(t)
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-II Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : The wave cos (y2 + 5t) does not satisfy the  jZ 
general wave equation. Thus it is not an electromagnetic Z L = Z0  0 
 Z0 
wave.
ZL = +jZ0
432. In air the lossless transmission line of length 50
V V
cm with L=10 μH/m, C=40 pF/m is operated = +iZjZ
O 0 i.e. = 19
Z0 ∠90º
I I
at 25 MHz. Its electrical path length is
I lag V by 900 → So inductive.
(a) 0.5 meters (b) l meters
435. A generator of 50 Ω internal impedance and
(c) π/2 radians (d) 180 degrees
operating at 16 Hz feeds a 75Ω load via a
coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω.
Ans. (c) : Electrical path length in a transmission line is
The voltage standing wave ratio on the feed line
given by β, β = ω LC 1C for R << ωL,G << ωC is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.5
β = 2π × 25 ×106 × 10 × 10−6 × 40 × 10−12 × 0.5
(c) 2.5 (d) 1.75
π RPCS Lect.-2011
= radians.
2
Z L − ZO
433. The depth of penetration of electromagnetic Ans. (b) : γ =
ZL + ZO
wave in a medium having conductivity s at a
frequency of 1 MHz is 25 cm. The depth of 75 − 50
=
penetration at a frequency of 4 MHz will be 75 + 50
(a) 6.25 cm (b) 12.5 cm 25
γ = = 0.2
(c) 50.0 cm (d) 100.0 cm 125
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I 1 + γ 1 + 0.2
S= = = 1.5
Ans. (b) : Skin depth or depth of penetration 1 − γ 1 − 0.2
1 S = 1.5
(δ) =
πfµσ 436. A transmission line has primary constants R,
11 1 L, G and C and secondary constants Z0 and
δ1 = , δ2 = γ(=α+jβ). If the line is lossless, then
πff1µσσ πf1µσ
(a) R = 0, G≠0 and α = 0
δ1 ff f (b) R = 0, G = α, 0 and β = |γ|
= 22 ⇒ δ 2 = 1 × δ1
δ2 ff21 f2 (c) G = 0 and α = β
1 (d) R = 0, G = 0, α = 0 and β=|γ|
= × 25 = 12.5cm
2 RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
434. The input impedance of a λ/8 long short- Ans. (d) : If the line is lossless then
circuited section of lossless transmission line is α=0 R =0 G =0 γ = α + Jjβ
(a) Zero (b) inductive
γ = jβ
(c) capacitive (d) infinite
γ =β
RPCS Lect.-2011
IES – 2001, 1998, 1994 437. A transmission line having 50 Ω impedance is
 Z + jZ0 tan βℓ  terminated in a load of (40 + j30)Ω. The VSWR
Ans. (b) : Zin = Z0  L 
Z
 0 + jZ L tan β ℓ  is
(a) j0.033 (b) 0.8 + j0.6
λ
ℓ= (c) 1 (d) 2
8
2π λ
βℓ = × Ans. (d) : Z0 = 50 Ω ZL = 40 + j30
λ 8
π Z − Z0
βℓ = ∵ZL = 0 ( short circuit ) Γ= L
4 Z L + Z0

40 + j30 − 50 5  20 
= (a) H ( t, z ) = aˆ y cos  109 t − z  A / m
40 + 30 j + 50 2η0  3 
3j − 1 10  20 
= (b) H ( t, z ) = aˆ y cos  109 t − z  A / m
9 + 3j η0  3 
9 +1 1 10  20 
Γ= = (c) H ( t,z ) = aˆ z cos 109 t − z  A / m
81 + 9 3 2η0  3 
1+ | Γ | 10  20 
VSWR =
1− | Γ | (d) H ( t, z ) = aˆ z cos  109 t − z  A / m
η0  3 
1 DRDO-2008
1+
= 3 Ans. (b) : Given that
1
1−  20 
3 E ( t,z ) = aˆ x 5cos  109 t − z  V m
VSWR = 2  3 
ω 109 3 × 109 3 × 108
438. For a good conductor the skin depth is equal to VP = = = =
β 20 3 20 2
ωµσ
(a) (b) 2ωµσ 1
2 VP =
µε
2 1
(c) (d)
ωµσ ωµσ µ η η
η= = 0 = 0
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I ε εr 2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I P = E×H
2 H is in y-direction
Ans. (c) : Skin depth δ =
ωµσ E
η=
439. The skin depth is H
(a) Directly proportional to attenuation constant, 5  20 
H = ay cos 109 − z 
η0  3 
α
2
(b) Inversely proportional to attenuation constant,
α 10  20 
= ay cos  109 − z  A/m
η0  3 
(c) Directly proportional to phase constant, β
(d) Inversely proportional to phase constant, β 441. The depth of penetration of electromagnetic
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I waves in a medium having conductivity σ at a
Ans. (b) : From the formula of skin depth. frequency of 2MHz is 12.5 cm. The depth of
penetration at a frequency of 8MHz is equal to:
1
δ= (a) 50.00 cm (b) 100.00 cm
α
(c) 6.25 cm (d) 12.50 cm
So, skin depth is inversely proportional to attenuation
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
constant, α.
440. The electric field component of a uniform plane Ans. (c) : We know that, δ ∝ 1
wave propagating in a lossless magnetic f
dielectric medium is given by δ1 f
= 2
 20  δ f1
E ( t,z ) = aˆ x 5cos  10 t - z  V/m. If η0
9 2
 3 
12.5 8
represents the intrinsic impedance of the free =
δ2 2
space, the corresponding magnetic field
component is given by δ2 = 6.25cm

442. If the spacing between the wires of a component of electric flux density D is equal to the
transmission line is increased, its characteristic magnitude of the surface charge density ρs .
impedance will
[ Dn = εE n = ρs ]
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) Unchanged (d) None of the above 446. Input impedance of a short circuited loss-less
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I line of length λ is
(a) Infinity
Ans. (c) : Characteristic impedance of line is given by
(b) Finite capacitive reactance
Z = L/C (c) Finite inductive reactance
Hence characteristic impedance does not depend on (d) Zero
spacing. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
443. A loss less line will be distortion less if the Ans. (a) : The input impedance of a short or open
phase shift constant circuited loss less transmission line alternates between
(a) Is constant with frequency Zin →∞ and Zin → 0 condition with each λ / 4 increase
(b) Varies Directly with frequency in length. Hence at ℓ = λ
(c) Varies inversely with frequency
Zin → ∞
(d) Has nothing to do with the distortion on a
loss-less line 447. The characteristic impedance Z0 equals
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I (a) (zs)oc/(zs)sc (b) (zs)sc/(zs)oc
Ans. (b) : A distortion less line is one in which the
(c) ( zs )sc / ( zs )oc (d) ( zs )sc ⋅ ( zs )oc
attenuation constant α is frequency independent while
the phase constant β is linearly dependent on frequency Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
α = RG , β = ω LC Ans. (d) : The characteristic impedance
Z C = Z OC .ZSC
444. In a transmission line with ωL >>R and ωC
>>G, Phase Shift constant β is proportional to ZOC = open circuited impedance
(a) ω (b) ω2 ZSC = short circuited impedance
1 448. The voltage reflection coefficient at the load
(c) ω (d)
ω end of a transmission line is
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I (a) Vmax / Vmin
Ans. (a) : When ωL >>> R and ωC >>> G than the (b) lmax / lmin
line is known as distortion less.
(c) (ZR–Z0)/(ZR+Z0)
Phase constant β = ω LC (d) Z0[(ZR–Z0)/(ZR +Z0)]
Hence phase shift constant β ∝ ω Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
445. Which one of the following statements is Ans. (c) : The voltage reflection coefficient is given by
correct lines are? Z − ZC ZR − Z0
(a) always tangential Γ= L or
Z L + ZC ZR + Z0
(b) always normal
(c) neither tangential nor normal 449. A smith chart is used for solving
(d) at an angle depending on the field intensity (a) Propagation problems
IES-2007 (b) Transmission line problems
Ans. (b) : On conducting surface boundary the (c) Antenna problems
tangential component does not exit of electric field (d) Computer problems
lines. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
[ D t =∈ E t = 0] Ans. (b) : Smith chart - A convenient tool for finding
Conducting surface always supports the normal impedance in transmission lines and designing matching
component of the electric field such that the normal network.

450. A λ/4 long high frequency transmission line is E
terminated into one impedance ZR. If Z0 be the Ans. (c) : Intrinsic Impedance (η) = H
characteristic impedance of the line, then input .
Jωµ
impedance Zin is η= .
(a) Z0ZR (b) Z2R/Z0 σ + Jωε
(c) Z20/ZR (d) Infinity E µ
But for free space η = =
NIELIT Scientists- 2017 H ε
Ans. (c) : The characteristic impedance in term of Poynting vector is a vector whose direction is the
characteristic impedance is given by. direction of wave propagation poynting vector = E × H
 Z + jZ0 tan β ⋅ ℓ  453. The outer conductor diameter and the inner
Zin = Z0  i  conductor diameter dimensions of a coaxial
 Z0 + jZL tan β 
cable are made twice to its original value.
λ 2π (Coaxial line is filled with dielectric material
Put ℓ= & β=
4 λ having dielectric constant εr = 4.0). The correct
  2π λ   statement is :
 ZL + jZ0 × tan  λ ⋅ 4   (a) Impedance remain same to it's original value
Zin = Z0   
(b) Impedance reduces to half of it's original
 Z + jZ tan  2π ⋅ λ  
 0   value
 λ 4  
L
(c) Impedance increase & becomes twice of

 Z + jZ0 tan π / 2  original value
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z0 + jZL tan π / 2  (d) None of above
Z02
∵ Zin = 138  D  60 D
ZR Ans. (a) : Z0 = log10   = ℓn
εr r  εr d
451. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave is
Z0 = Character impedance
normally incident upon a thick magnetic
material such that its complex permittivity is D = Outside diameter
equal to its complex permeability i.e. µ* = ε * d = inner diameter
When outer conductor diameter and inner conductor
Which one of the following is the correct
D
statements? diameter are doubled then the ratio   remain same.
(a) There will not be any reflection from the d
material So that there is no change to the original value of
impedance.
(b) A part of the wave will be reflected such that
reflection coefficient would be 0.5. 454. A short current element has length ℓ = 0.03
(c) Reflection coefficient would be close to 1. λ, where λ is the wavelength. The radiation
(d) Transmission coefficient would be 0.9. resistance for uniform current distribution is
Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018 (a) 0.072 π2 Ω (b) 80 π2 Ω
Ans. (c) : A uniform plane electromagnetic wave is (c) 72 Ω (d) 80 Ω
normally incident upon a thick magnetic material such Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
that its complex permittivity is equal to its complex Ans. (a) : Given that,
permeability then reflection coefficient would be close Short current element length ( dℓ ) = 0.03λ
to 1.
Radiation resistance ( R red ) for uniform current
452. In a uniform plane wave ‘E’ and ‘H’ are
2
related by  dℓ 
distribution is R ( red ) = 80π2   Ω
(a) E =1 (b) E = ε/µ λ
H H 2
 0.03λ 
R ( red ) = 80π2  
(c) E = µ / ε (d) E = ∞  λ 
H H
R ( red ) = 0.072π2 Ω
TNPSC AE- 2019
455. The main difference between the operation of (c) The sky wave is stronger at night
transmission lines and waveguides is that (d) There is no fading at night
(a) The latter are not distributed like transmission Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
lines Ans. (c) : The skywave is stronger at night because the
(b) The former can use stubs and quarter wave lower-1 altitude layers (E-layers in particular) of the
transformers unlike the latter ionosphere largely disappears at night.
(c) Transmission lines use the principal mode of 459. What is the value of Standing Wave Ratio
propagation and therefore, do not suffer from (SWR) in free space for transmission
low frequency cut-off 1
coefficient Γ = - ?
(d) Terms such as impedance nothing and 3
standing wave ratio cannot be applied to (a) 2/3 (b) 0.5
waveguides (c) 4.0 (d) 2.0
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : The main difference between the operation of Ans. (b) : Given that,
transmission lines and waveguides is that transmission 1
line use the principal mode of propagation and therefore Γ =−
3
do not suffer from low-frequency cut-off.
 1
456. Slotted line with tunable probe is not used to 1+  − 
1+ Γ
= 
3
measure ∴ SWR =
1− Γ  1
(a) VSWR (b) Wavelength 1−  − 
 3
(c) Power (d) Impedance
23
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II = = 0.5
43
Ans. (c) : Slotted line with tunable probe can measure
standing waves, wavelength, electrical impedance and SWR = 0.5
with some calculation or plotting on smith charts, a
460. If the maximum and minimum voltages on a
number of other parameters including reflection
transmission line are 4V and 2V respectively,
coefficient.
for a typical load, VSWR is
It is not used to measure power. (a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
457. Consider an interface between two dielectric (c) 2.0 (d) 8.0
materials, one with εr = 2 while the other has Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
εr = 5. If the tangential component of electric Ans. (c) : Given that,
field on one side of the interface has a Vmax = 4V Vmin = 2V
magnitude of 10V. m–1 what is the magnitude
of the tangential component of electric field on ∴ VSWR = Vmax = 4 = 2
the other side? Vmin 2
(a) 10 V.m–1 (b) 2 V.m–1 VSWR = 2
(c) 20 V.m–1 (d) 5 V.m–1
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 461. Given a range of frequencies, which of the
following systems is best for transmission line
GATE-1999
load matching?
Ans. (a) : The boundary condition for electrostatic field
(a) Single stub
defined as.
(b) Double stub
E t1 = E t 2 (c) Single stub with adjustable position
Et1 = 10 V.( m − 1) (d) Quarter wave transformer
Et2 = 10 V.( m − 1)
Ans. (b) : Double stub matching system is the best for
458. Medium wave radio signals may be received at transmission line load matching. Double stub matching
far off distances at night because uses two stubs in which the location of the stub are
(a) Radio waves travel faster at night arbitrary, the two stub lengths furnishing the required
(b) Ground wave attenuation is low at night adjustments.
462. Characteristic impedance Z0 = 50Ω, τ = 0.5, (a) E1 = 4 E2 (b) E2 = 4 E1
Vin = 15V, power transmitted to load in a (c) E1 = E2 (d) E1 = 2E2
transmission line is ______. RRB SSE-03.09.2015, Shift-III
(a) 1.5 W (b) 0.5 W Ans. (d) : Electric field at axial point is
(c) 2.5 W (d) 5 W 2kp
E1 = 3 ……….(i)
NPCIL-2015 r
Ans. (b) : Z0 = 50Ω And electric field at equatorial point is
τ = 0.5 kp
E 2 = 3 ………………(i)
Vin = 15V r
2 Observe from the equation (i) and (ii)
V
Transmitted power (Pin) = in E1 = 2E 2
2Z0
465. The impedance matching network shown in the
(15)
2
= figure is to match a lossless line having

2 × 50 characteristics impedance Z0=50Ω with a load
= 2.25 Watt impedance ZL. A quarter-wave line having a
Power reflection coefficient = | τ2 | characteristic impedance Z1=75Ω is connected
=| 0.5 |
2 to ZL. Two stubs having characteristic
impedance of 75Ω each are connected to this
= 0.25
quarter-wave line. One is a short-circuited
Pout = | τ2 | Pin (S.C) stub of length 0.25λ connected across PQ
= 0.25 × 2.225 = 0.556 Watt and the other one is an open-circuited (O.C)
P = 0.5 watt stub of length 0.5 λ connected across RS.
out
463. Z0 = 50, ZL = S.C, ℓ = λ/8, the input impedance

of the transmission line is _____.
(a) j50 (b) –j50
(c) 0 (d) None
NPCIL-2015
Ans. (a) : Given,
Z0 = 50
ZL = S.C.
λ
ℓ=
8 The impedance matching is achieved when the
 Z + jZ0  real part of ZL is
Zin = Z0  L 
 Z0 + jZL  (a) 33.3Ω (b) 50.0Ω
(c) 75.0Ω (d) 112.5Ω
 jZ 
Zin = Z0  0  {∵ ZL = 0} GATE-2021
 Z0  Ans. (d) : Impedance across RS = ZL || ∞ = ZL
Zin = jZ0
Load impedance across
Zin = j50
Z 2 ( 75 ) ( 75) = ( 75 )
2 2 2
464. A and B are two points at same distance from PQ = 0 || = ∞ ||

the centre of a short electric dipole on axial line 0 ZL ZL ZL
and equatorial line respectively. E1 and E2 are for matching–
respectively the resultant electric fields due to ( 75 )
2
the dipole at these points. Identify the only 50 =

ZL
correct condition between E1 and E2 from the
following for this situation. ZL = 112.5

466. The velocity of propagation of EM wave in free E 30 × 10−6
space is: ∴ Time(t) = =
P 60 × 10−6
ε0 t = 0.5sec
(a) (b) µ 0ε 0
µ0
470. µr = 4.5 εr= 2, phase velocity of EM wave
1
(c) ( µ0ε0 ) (d) (a) 1×108m/sec (b) 3×108m/sec
( µ 0ε0 ) (c) 1.5×108m/sec (d) 9×108m/sec
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 BEL-2015
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam-2011
c 3 × 108 3 × 108 3 ×108
Ans. (d) : Electro magnetic wave always travels with Ans. (a) : v p = = = =
εrµ r 4.5 × 2 9 3
speed of light in free space.
1 = 1 × 108
V=
( µ0 ε0 ) 471. Skin depth increases for a conductor
(a) If frequency increases
467. Across which type of boundary does the
(b) If conductivity increases
electric field have a continuous tangential
(c) If wavelength increases
component?
(d) For all case
(a) Charge free boundary
BEL-2015
(b) Current free boundary
Ans. (c) : Skin depth increases for a conductor when
(c) Any boundary
wavelength increases
(d) Charged boundary
1  1
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 Skin depth δ = ∵ λ ∝ 
πfµσ  f
Ans. (c) : For all boundary electric field have a
continuous tangential component. 472. For a perfect matched load the value of
468. The frequency of a sound wave is 25Hz and its standing wave ratio and reflection coefficient
wavelength is 4m. What is the distance respectively are
travelled by the sound wave in 2 ? (a) 1, 0 (b) 0, 0
(a) 200 m (b) 400 m (c) 0, 1 (d) ∞, 1
(c) 80 m (d) 100 m BEL-2015
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM Ans. (a) : For a perfect matched load reflection co-
Ans. (a) : Given that, efficient ( Γ ) = 0
frequency n = 25 Hz wavelength, λ = 4m 1+ Γ
SWR =
d = ? Time (t) = 2s 1− Γ
V = nλ
1+ 0
= 25 × 4 = =1
1− 0
V = 100m / s 473. Assuming perfect conductors of a transmission
distance = Speed × Time line, pure TEM propagation is not possible in
Distance, d = 100 × 2 (a) a quadruple
(b) coaxial cable
d = 200m
(c) air-filled cylindrical wave guide
469. E = 30 µjoule, power (P) = 60µw, Find the time (d) both monopole and dipole
period BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
(a) 0.5msce (b) 0.5sec
Ans. (c) : A transmission line such that rectangular
(c) 2 sec (d) None waveguide and cylindrical wave guide are hollow wave
BEL-2015 guides in which centre conductor (i.e. guide axis) does
Ans. (b) : Given that, not exist. Therefore in this TEM wave can not
E = 30µ Joule P = 60µ Watt propagate.

474. Which type of ground wave travels over the ω 8
Velocity (v) = = = 1.11 m / s
earth surface by acquiring direct path through k 7
air from transmitting to receiving antennas? 4th wave
(a) Surface weave (b) Space wave y = 1.5sin ( 2.5x − 1.25t )
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Standing wave
ω = 1.25, k = 2.5
TANGEDCO AE- 2018
ω
Ans. (b) : Space wave is the ground wave travels over Velocity (V) =
k
the earth surface by acquiring direct path through air
1.25
from transmitting to receiving antennas. = = 0.5 m/s
2.5
Ground waves are those electromagnetic waves that
travel from transmitter to receiver across the earths Hence, speed of wave 2
nd
y = 4.3sin (1.5x − 3t ) is
surface. They suffer energy losses due to bending. maximum.
475. When a ray of light enters for air into glass, its: 477. The equation of a plane wave may be written as
(a) Speed decrease, frequency remains the same ∂2Ey 1 ∂ Ey
2
(a) =
and wavelength decreases ∂ t2 µ ε ∂ x2
(b) Speed decreases, frequency and wavelength ∂2Ey 1 ∂2 E
remains the same (b) =
∂x 2
µ ε ∂ t2
(c) Speed increases, frequency and wavelength
remains the same ∂2Ey µ ∂2 E
(c) =
(d) Speed increases, frequency increases and ∂ t2 ε ∂ x2
wavelength remains the same ∂2 Ey ε ∂2 E
(d) =
RRB SSE 03.09.2015 Shift-II ∂ t2 µ ∂ x2
Ans. (a) : When a ray of light enters for air into glass its TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
speed decrease, frequency remains the same and
Ans. (a) : In one dimension, the scalar equation takes
wavelength decreases. the form
476. Following equations represent four travelling ∂2Ey 1 ∂ Ey
2
waves. Which one has the maximum speed? =

∂ t2 µ ε ∂ x2
(a) y = 3.2 sin (5 x–2t)
478. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on
(b) y = 4.3 sin (1.5 x–3t)
the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster
(c) y = 2.1 sin (7 x–8t)
angle, the reflected wave will be
(d) y = 1.5 sin (2.5 x–1.25t) (a) elliptically polarized
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-I (b) linearly polarized
Ans. (b) : 1st wave (c) right circularly polarized
y = 3.2sin ( 5x − 2t ) (d) left circularly polarized.
ω = 2, k = 5
Ans. (a) : The Brewster law states that the relation
ω between high waves and polarized wave.
Velocity (v) =
k For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the
2 interface of a dielectric, the reflected wave will be
= = 0.4 m / s elliptically polarized.
5
2nd wave y = 4.3sin (1.5x − 3t ) 479. Consider a transmission line of characteristic
impedance 50 ohm. Let it be terminated at one
ω = 3, k = 1.5 end by j 50 ohm. The VSWR produced by it in
ω 3 the transmission line will be
Velocity = = 2m /s (a) + 1 (b) 0
k 1.5
(c) ∞ (d) +j
3rd wave y = 2.1sin ( 7x − 8t )
AAI-2015
ω = 8, k = 7 TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
Ans. (c) : The reflection coefficient- Ans. (c) : The smith chart is a graphical and solving
1+ Γ high frequency transmission line profile.
VSWR =
1− Γ 483. A radio wave moves from air (∈r = 1) to glass
(∈r = 7.8) . Its angle of incidence is 30º. the
ΓF == Z L − 20 = 50 j − 50
ZL + 20 50 j + 50 angle of reflection is :
(a) 30º (b) 10.3º
Γ = 1 so
(c) 22.8º (d) 28º
1+1 MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
VSWR = ⇒ VSWR = ∞
1 −1 Ans. (b) : ∈1 sin θ1 =∈2 sin θ2
480. A quarter-wave transformer matching a 75 Ω 1× sin 300 = 7.8sin θ2
source with a 300 Ω load should have a 0.5
characteristic impedance of sin θ2 =
78
(a) 50 Ω (b) 100 Ω
θ2 = 10.30
(c) 150 Ω (d) 200 Ω
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 484. An electromagnetic wave propagates through a
lossless insulator with a velocity
Ans. (c) : 10
1.5 × 10 cm/s. Calculate the electric and
Z0 2 λ magnetic properties of the insulator if its
Zin = at distance only
ZL 4 intrinsic impedance is 90π ohms.
Z2 (a) ε r = 2.66 µ r = 1.5 (b) ε r = 1.5 µ r = 2.66
Zin = 0 Zin = 75Ω
(c) ε r = 1.2 µ r = 2.0 (d) ε r = 2.0 µ r = 1.2
300
Z0 2 = 300 × 75 ISRO Scientist December, 2017
Z0 = 150Ω
v p = 1.5 × 1010 cm / s
481. A vertical wire of 1 m length carriers a current η = 90π
of 1 A at 10MHz. The total radiated power is
c
nearly ∵ vp =
µrεr
(a) 0.43 W (b) 0.88W
(c) 7.3 W (d) 73 W. c 3 ×1010
µr εr = = =2
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 v p 1.5 × 1010
Ans. (b) : 4
µr εr = 4 , εr =
 dℓ 
2 µr
R rad = 80π2   Ω
λ µr
than η = η0
c 3 × 10 8 εr
λ= = = 30m
f 107 µr
2 90π = 120π
 1  εr
R rad = 80π 2 ×   = 0.872Ω
 30 
ε r 120 4
Pr ad = I 2 × R ad = 0.872W = =
µr 90 3
Pr ad = 0.88W εr 4
=
482. The Smith Chart is a graphical and solving µr 3
(a) low frequency transmission line profile 2 4
= [ Put the value of εr ]
(b) dc line profile µr 3
(c) high frequency transmission line profile
µ r = 1.5
(d) short circuit and open circuit transmission
4
line profile εr = = 2.66
1.5
UPMRC AM - 2020
485. The current density at the surface of a thick 12
Γ=
metal plate is 100 Am–2. What is the skin depth 132
if the current density at a depth of 0.0059 cm is 12
0.272 A m–2? 1 + Γ 1 + 132 132 + 12 144
SWR = = = =
(a) 5 µm (b) 10 µm 1 − Γ 1 − 12 132 − 12 120
(c) 15 µm (d) 20 µm 132
ISRO Scientist December, 2017 SWR = 1.2
1 1 1
Ans. (b) : Given that– VP = = =
−6 −12
LC 0.5 × 10 × 96 × 10 48 ×10−18
J = 0.272 Am –2 , J S = 100Am −2 , Z = 0.0059cm
= .144 × 109 = 1.4 × 108 m / s
J = J Se −αZ
487. The velocity of EM wave in conductor, when
0.272 = 100e −αZ skin depth in a good conductor is 4 µm at a
 0.272  frequency of 200 KHz, is:
−αZ = ℓn  
 100  (a) 15 m/s (b) 10 m/s
8
−αZ = −5.90 (c) 3×10 m/s (d) 5 m/s
5.9 LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
α= −2
= 105
0.0059 × 10 Ans. (d) : As per question-
1 1 Skin depth δ = 4µm
δ = = 5 = 10µm
α 10 = 4 × 10 −6 m
486. The characteristic impedance of a certain f = 200kHz = 200 × 103 Hz
lossless transmission line is 72Ω with
= 2 × 105 Hz
inductance per unit length of 0.5 µH/m and
ω 2πf 2πf
load impedance of 60Ω. Determine the v = = = = 2πfδ
β β 1/ δ
capacitance per unit length (C), phase velocity
Then,
(Vp) and SWR.
(a) C = 96 pF/m, Vp = 1.4×108 m/s, SWR = 1.2 v = 2 × 3.14 × 2 × 105 × 4 × 10 −6
(b) C = 7.7 nF/m, Vp = 0.15×108 m/s, SWR = = 5.024 ≃ 5m / s

1.33 488. If a lossless line is terminated with a load
8
(c) C = 2.9 pF/m, Vp = 8×10 m/s, SWR = 0.84 impedance 40 + j30 Ω, then the characteristic
8
(d) C = 96 nF/m, Vp = 14×10 m/s, SWR = 1.20 impedance of the line for minimum possible
standing wave ratio (SWR) will be
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
(a) 70 Ω (b) 25 Ω
Ans. (a) : Given that–
(c) 50 Ω (d) 100 Ω
ZC = 72
BSNL (JTO)-2001
L Z
ZC = Ans. (c) : SWR = L
C Z 0
0.5 ×10 –6
72 = 1600 + 900
C =
Z0
0.5 × 10−6
C= = 9.645 × 10−6 × 10−5 2500 50
72 × 72 SWR = =
Z0 Z0
= 96 pF / m
for minimum possible SWR = 1
Z L − Z0
Γ= 50
Z L + Z0 1=
Z0
60 − 72 −12
= = Z0 = 50Ω
60 + 72 132

489. When a lossless transmission line of length λ/8 Taken by square of both side-
is short-circuited at one end the input
( NA ) = n12 − n 22
2
impedance seen at the other end is j50 Ω. If the

short-circuit is now replaced by a load ( 0.25 ) = n1 − 2.4375
2 2
resistance of 75 Ω, the magnitude of the

n12 = 0.0625 + 2.4375
reflection coefficient is :
1 2 n12 = 2.5
(a) (b)
5 5 n1 = 2.5
3 4
(c) (d) 491. A half wave (i.e. λ/2) lossless transmission line
5 5
of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated to
DRDO-2009
a load of impedance ZL as shown in the figure.
The input impedance as seen at the other end is
2π λ π
βℓ = ⋅ =
λ 8 4
Zin = j50Ω
ZL = 0
 Z + jZ0 tan βℓ 
∴ Zin = Z0  L 
 0 + jZ0 tan π 4 
= Z0  
 Z0 + 0  (a)
ZL
(b) Z L
Z0
= Z0
[ jZ0 ] = jZ0
Z0 Z 2L
(c) ZL Z 0 (d)
Z0
Then Z0 = 50Ω
BSNL(JTO)-2009
ZL = 75Ω
Magnitude of reflection coefficient
2π λ
Z − Z0 75 − 50 25 βℓ = × =π
Γ= L = = λ 2
ZL + Z0 75 + 50 125
tan β ℓ = tan π = 0
1
Γ=  Z + jZ0 tan βℓ 
5 Zin = Z0  L 
490. The cladding material of a step index fiber has
a relative permittivity of 2.4375. Assuming both Z + 0
Zin = Z0  L 
core and cladding materials to be non-  Z0 + 0 
magnetic, in order to have a numerical
Z0 ⋅ Z L
aperture of 0.25, the refractive index of the Zin =
Z0
core should be :
(a) 5 (b) 2.5 Zin = ZL
(c) 3.5 (d) 2.5
492. At a frequency of 1 GHz, the equivalent
DRDO-2009 inductance between the terminals of a λ/8 ( λ
Ans. (d) : Given that, represents wavelength) short-circuited lossless
Relative permittivity ∈r = 2.4375 = n 22 50 Ω line is
Numerical aperture ( NA ) = 0.25 (a) 5/π nH (b) 15/π nH
(c) 25/π nH (d) 50/π nH
NA = n12 − n 22
BSNL(JTO)-2009
Ans. (c) : Given that, (d) 2.4 Ω m,111H m, 333 S m, 92.59pF m
Zin = 50Ω f = 1 GHz ESE-2021
λ Ans.(a) : Given that–
ℓ= ZL = 0
8 Z0 = 60Ω, VP = 0.6 × 3 × 108
2π λ π
∴βℓ = ⋅ = α = 20 × 10 −3 Np/m
λ 8 4
f = 100 MHz
∴ Zin = Z0  L  We know that,
L 1
Z0 = , vP =
 0 + jZ0 tan π 4  C LC
50 = Z0  
 Z0 + j ( 0 ) tan π 4  for distortionless line-
Z0 ( jZ0 ) R L
50 = ∵ Z0 = =
Z0 G C
Z0 = 50Ω L 1 1
Z0 v P = × =
C LC C
L 1
Z0 = , ω= 1 1
C LC C= =
Z0 v P 60 ( 0.6 × 3 × 108 )
Z0 Z 50
L= = 0 =
ω 2πf 2π × 109 C=
1
× 10−9
10.8
25 25
= ×10−9 H L = nH C = 92.59 × 10 −12 F = 92.59pF/m
π π
Z 60
493. If the average power delivered to a load L = 0 =
v P 0.6 × 3 × 108
terminated to a lossless transmission line is
75% of that of the incident power, the VSWR L= 333 nH/m
on the line is R
For distortionless line α =
(a) 1/3 (b) 1 Z0
(c) 2 (d) 3 αZ0 = 20 × 10 −3 × 60 = 1.2Ω
BSNL(JTO)-2009
R = 1.2Ω /m
Ans. (d) : % transmitted power = 1 − Γ  × 100
2
  α
G=
Z
0.75 = 1 − Γ 2 0
Γ 2 = 0.25 20 × 10−3
G= = 333.33 µS/ m
60
Γ = 0.5
1 + Γ 1 + 0.5
VSWR = = =3 the Smith’s chart:
1 − Γ 1 − 0.5
1. Smith’s chart is a graphical indication of
494. A distortionless transmission line has the the impedance of a transmission line and
following parameters: of the corresponding reflection coefficient
Characteristic impedance = 60Ω, wave velocity as one moves along the line.
= 0.6 c, where c is the speed of light in a 2. λ distance on the line corresponds to a
vacuum, α = 20mNp/m. The values of 720º movement on the Smith’s chart.
transmission line parameters R, L, G and C at 3. The admittance chart can be obtained by
100 MHz are respectively, shifting each and every point on the
(a) 1.2 Ω m, 333 nH m, 333µS m, 92.59 pF m impedance chart by 90º.
4. Counter-clockwise movement on the chart
(b) 1.2 Ω m,111 H m, 333 µS m, 92.59 F m
corresponds to moving towards the
(c) 2.4 Ω m, 333 nH m, 333µS m, 92.59 F m generator.
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (a) : In a linear phase system the group delay (τg)
(a) 1 and 2 only and the phase delay (τp) are constant and equal to each
(b) 1 and 3 only other.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
498. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting
(d) 2,3 and 4 only
material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance
ESE-2021
which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz
Ans.(a) : In the given statements regarding smiths
travels in this material before its amplitude
chart two statements are correct.
1. Smith’s chart is a graphical indication of the reduces by a factor of e–1 is
impedance of a transmission line and of the (a) 0.0015 mm (b) 0.015 mm
corresponding reflection coefficient as one moves (c) 0.15 mm (d) 1.5 mm
along the line. DRDO-2008
2. λ distance on the line corresponds to a 720º
Ans. (b) : We know that-
movement on the Smith’s chart.
1
496. Consider the following statements regarding δ ∝
f
the load matching and impedance
measurements: Given , δ1 = 0.15mm, f1 = 100 MHz, f 2 = 10 GHz
1. A mismatched load can be properly Then,
matched to a line by inserting prior to the
δ2 f
load a transmission line λ 4 long. = 1
δ1 f2
2. For matching of 120 Ω load to a 75 Ω line,
the quarter-wave transformer must have a δ2 100 × 106
characteristic impedance of 190 Ω . =
0.15 10 × 109
3. The main disadvantage of single-stub
matching is that it is a narrow-band or δ 2 = 0.015mm
frequency-sensitive device. 499. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic
Which of the above statements are not correct? impedance of 100Ω and inductance per unit
length of 1µH/m. If the line is operated at
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1GHz, the propagation constant β is
ESE-2021
20π
Ans.(b) : According to question incorrect statement (a) 2π rad/m (b) rad / m
3
are given below-
For matching of 120 Ω load to a 75 Ω line, the (c) 20π rad/m (d) 2π × 105 rad/m
quarter-wave transformer must have a characteristic DRDO-2008
impedance of 190Ω. Ans. (c) : Given that,
Characteristic impedance- Z'0 = 75 × 120 f = 1× 109 Hz
= 94.8Ω Z0 = 100
The main disadvantage of single-stub matching is that
it is a narrow-band or frequency-sensitive device. L
∴ Z0 =
Hence statement (2) and statement (3) both are C
incorrect. L 10−6
On Squaring of both side - Z20 = = 104 =
497. In a linear phase system, the group delay (τg) C C
and the phase delay (τp) are C = 10 −10
(a) constant and equal to each other
∴β = ω LC
(b) τg is a constant and τp ∝ ω
(c) a constant and τg ∝ ω = 2π × 109 10−6 × 10−10
(d) τg ∝ ω and τp ∝ ω
β = 20π rad/m
DRDO-2008
500. When a load resistance RL is connected to a Ans. (a) : Given that,
lossless transmission line of characteristic Z = 300
0
impedance 75Ω. It results in a VSWR of 2. The
ZL = 200
load resistance is
Z 300
(a) 100Ω (b) 75 2Ω ∴ SWR = 0 = = 1.5
ZL 200
(c) 120Ω (d) 150Ω
DRDO-2008 SWR = 1.5
Ans. (d) : Given that, 504. A transmission line is terminated at its
Z0 = 75Ω , VSWR = 2 characteristic impedance The reflection
coefficient is
VSWR − 1 2 − 1 1 Z − Z0
ρ= = = and δ = L (a) 1 (b) -1
VSWR + 1 2 + 1 3 Z L + Z0
(c) 0 (d) ∞
1 Z L − Z0 BSNL (JTO)-2006
=
3 Z L + Z0 Ans. (c) : Given that,
1 ZL − 75 Z L = Z0
=
3 ZL + 75 Reflection coefficient
ZL + 75 = 3ZL − 225 Z L − Z0
Γ= =0
Z L + Z0
2ZL = 300 ZL = 150
505. A lossless transmission line with characteristic
501. A two-port characterized by the S-parameter impedance 500 Ohms is excited by a signal of
matrix. voltage 10 ∠ 0º volts an 1.2 MHz If the line is
 0.9∠90o 
( s ) = 0.3∠0
o
terminated by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input
 is impedance of the line for ZL= ∞ (infinity) and
 0.9∠90o 0.2∠0o 
ZL = 0(zero) in Ohm, respectively are
(a) both reciprocal and lossless
(b) reciprocal, but not lossless (a) + j ∞, 0 (b) − j∞, 0
(c) lossless, but not reciprocal (c) 0, − j∞ (d) 0, + j∞,
(d) neither reciprocal nor lossless BSNL (JTO)-2006
DRDO-2008 Ans. (b) : We know that,
T
Ans. (b) : For reciprocal - s = s  Z + jZ0 tan βℓ 
Zin = Z0  L 
For lossless- s s + s s = 1
*
11 11
*
12 12  Z0 + jZL tan βℓ 
( 0.3)( 0.3) + ( 0.9 )( 0.9 ) ≠ 1 For ZL = 0
So given matrix is reciprocal and not lossless. Zin = 0
For ZL = ∞
502. The concept of electromagnetic propagation
was first introduced by : Zin = – j ∞
(a) Faraday (b) Ampere 506. A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200
(c) Coulomb (d) Maxwell KHz to load of 200 Ohm, If the load power in
100 mW, the value for voltage minimum Vmin is
BSNL(JTO)-2002
Ans. (d) : The concept of electromagnetic propagation (a) ( 20) / 4 (b) ( 10) / 4
was first introduced by Maxwell. (c) ( 20) / 2 (d) ( 10) / 2
503. The lossless line of characteristics impedance BSNL (JTO)-2006
300 Ohm is terminated in a pure resistance of
200 Ohm. The value of the standing wave ratio Ans. (a) : P = ( Vmax )
2
is R
Vmax = (100 × 10 × 200 )
−3 12
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25
= 20V
BSNL (JTO)-2006
ZL 200 2η
VSWR = = =4 (b) ZZ (TE) =
Z0 50  ωC2 
1 − 2 
VSWR =
Vmax  ω 
Vmin η
(c) ZZ (TE) =
20  ωC2 
4= 1 − 2 
Vmin  ω 
20 2η
Vmin = (d) ZZ (TE) =
4  ω2C 
1 + 2 
507. Which one of the following is an angle at which  2ω 
there is no reflected wave when the incident
ESE-2022
wave is parallel (or vertically) polarized?
Ans. (c) : The characteristic wave impedance
(a) Critical angle (b) Reference angle
E β
(c) Relative angle (d) Brewster angle Z(z) (TM) = x =
H y ωε
ESE-2022
2
Ans. (d) : The direction of polarization is parallel to the µ f 
= × 1−  c 
plane of the interface. ε f 
The special angle of incidence that produces a 90 ∵ ω∝ f
degrees angle between the reflected and refracted ray is 2
ω 
called the Brewster angle. Z(z) ( TM ) = η 1 −  C 
508. Consider the following statements regarding  ω 
impedance matching: The wave impedance of TE wave in the z- direction is,
(a) When the line is terminated in an impedance η
Zz (TE) =
other than its characteristic impedance, ω2
1 − c2
reflection will occur and there will be ω
standing waves of voltage and current along 510. Wave analyzer is also known as
the line which may be very large if there is (a) selective level meter
considerable mismatch. (b) precision receiver
(b) The single-stub device has the advantage that (c) modulation analyzer
it will match any load. (d) audio analyzer
(c) The double stub has the disadvantage that ESE-2022
the line length needs to be adjustable. Ans. (a) : Wave analyzer is also known as selective
Which of the above statements are correct? level meter.
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 511. A quarter wave transformer is used for
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 matching a load of 225 Ω connected to a
ESE-2022 transmission line of 256 Ω in order to reduce
the SWR along the line to 1. The characteristic
Ans. (d) : (i) The single-stub device has the advantage
impedance of the transformer is
that it will match any load.
(a) 225 Ω (b) 256 Ω
(ii) The double stub has the disadvantage that the line (c) 240 Ω (d) 273 Ω
length needs to be adjustable. TANGEDCO- 2015
509. The wave impedance in z direction for TE Ans. (c) : Given that,
wave is Z = 225 Ω, Z = 256
in L
η Characteristic impedance,
(a) ZZ (TE) =
 ωC2  Z0 = 225 × 256
1 + 2 
 ω  = 240Ω

512. For a wave travelling in negative Z direction Ans. (a) : Poynting vector P = E × H
the value of Ey/Hx is: Total energy density
(a) η (b) –η W = µH2
(c) 1/η (d) 1/–η P E×H 1 µ
UPRVUNL AE-2016 ∴ = =
W µH 2 µ ε
Ans. (a) : Intrinsic impedance is defined as the ratio of 1
the electric field and magnetic field phasor. =
µε
E jωµ
η= = Poynting Vector
H γ ∴ Average energy density =
Average Velocity
513. What is the skin depth of a conductor with
1.5
10mho/m at a frequency of 10MHz? =
3 ×108
(a) 0.05m (b) 0.01m
= 0.5 ×10–8
(c) 0.025m (d) 0.0125m
= 5 ×10–9
UPRVUNL AE-2016
= 5nJ/m3
Ans. (a) : Given that, →
σ = 10mho/m 516. If the magnitude of H in a plane wave is 1 A/m,

→
f = 10MHz what is the magnitude of E for a plane wave in
1 free space:
∵ δ=
πfµσ (a) 376.8 v/m (b) 148π v/m
(c) 140π v/m (d) 1mv/m
1
δ= TNTRB AE– 2017
π × 10 × 10 × 4π × 10−7 × 10
6
δ = 0.05m
H = 1A / m
514. The phase constant of a good dielectric with εr
E µ
= 1.5 and µr =6 at 200MHz is: η= = = 120 π
H ε
(a) π rad/s (b) 4π rad/s
E = 120 × 3.14 × 1
(c) 2π rad/s (d) 1.5π rad/s
= 376.8V/m
UPRVUNL AE-2016
517. A loss-less transmission line having
characteristic impedance of 100 ohm is
ε r = 1.5, µ r = 6, f = 200 MHz connected to a load of 200 ohm. The voltage
∵ Phase constant of good dielectric material, reflection coefficient is:
β = ω µε (a) 1 (b) 3
1 2
µr εr (c) (d)
β = 2πf × 8
(c = 3×10 m/s) 3 3
c
TNTRB AE– 2017
1.5 × 6 Ans. (c) : Given that,
β = 2π ×200×106 ×
3 × 108 ZL = 200 ohm, Z0 = 100Ω
β = 4π ZL − Z0 200 − 100
Γ= =
515. A plane wave in free space has an average ZL + Z0 200 + 100
pointing vector of 1.5W/m2. The average 1
energy density is: =
3
(a) 5nJ/m3 (b) 2n J/m3
518. At what frequency a wave must propagate for
(c) 4.5n J/m3 (d) 1 nJ/m3 the D-region to have an index of refraction 0.5?
TNTRB AE– 2017 Given N = 400 electron/ c.c for D. region:
(a) 107.82 kHz (b) 250.82 kHz 521. What can be said about the E and H vector
(c) 207.82 kHz (d) 180 kHz fields in a travelling electromagnetic wave?
TNTRB AE– 2017 (a) Perpendicular in space
Ans. (c) : Given that, (b) Parallel in space
N = 400 electron/c.c. (c) E n the direction of wave travel
= 400 e–×106/m3 (d) H is in the direction of wave travel
= 400 ×10 e /m
6 – 3
Ans. (a) : The E and H vector fields in a travelling

µ
For D - region, = 0.5 ( µ0 = 1) electromagnetic wave is perpendicular in space.
µ0
522. What will the effect on the skin depth of a wave
81.45N which is incident normally on a good
µ = 1−
ν 2 conductor? Given that the frequency of a plane
electromagnetic wave increases four times.
81.45 × 400 × 106
0.5 = 1 − (a) It increases by a factor of 2.
ν2 (b) It decreases by a factor of 2.
81.45 × 400 × 106 (c) It remains the same.
0.25 = 1 −
ν2 (d) It increases by a facto of 4.
ν ≃ 207.82 kHz UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
Ans. (b) : The frequency of a plane electromagnetic
519. Light of frequency 2×1014 Hz is same as light of
wave increases four times
wavelength ________.
f2 = 4f1
(a) 1.5 µm (b) 150 µm
1
(c) 5×10–13m (d) 1.5×10–13m δ∝
UPRVUNL AE-2016 f
Ans. (a) : Given that, f1
δ2 = .δ1
c =3×108m/s. f = 2 ×1014Hz 4f1
c
λ= 1
f δ 2 = . δ1
2
3 × 108
= = 1.5µm 523. What is the value of tangential component of
2 ×1014
electric field in a dielectric-conductor
520. A dual directional coupler is connected in a boundary (interface)?
microwave reflectometer measurement setup. (a) Zero (b) Infinite
The reading of the power meter in the forward (c) One (d) Three
direction is 100 mw and in the reverse direction UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
4mw. The VSWR is
Ans. (a) : The value of the tangential component of the
(a) 4 (b) 0.4 electric field in a dielectric conductor boundary is zero
(c) 1.5 (d) 10
E1t = E 2t = 0
524. What is not correct about a transmission line
4 mW terminated in its characteristic impedance?
Ans. (c) : | Γ | =
100 mW (a) It is a smooth line
2 (b) The energy distribution between magnetic
| Γ |= = 0.2 and electric field is not equal
10
(c) Standing wave does not exist
1+ | Γ |
The VSWR = (d) Efficiency of transmission of power is
1− | Γ |
maximum
1.2 UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
=
0.8 Ans. (b) : The energy distribution between the
VSWR = 1.5 magnetic and electric field is equal.

525. What will be the value of characteristic 529. A 30 meter long transmission line with
impedance of lossless transmission line having characteristic impedance Z0 = (20 + j40) Ω is
R = 5 Ω, L = 40H and C = 10F having matched to the load impedance ZL as shown in
frequency of 10Hz? fig. below, then the input impedance Zin is
(a) 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω (a) [20 – j40]Ω (b) [40 + j20]Ω
(c) 4 Ω (d) 5 Ω (c) [40 – j20]Ω (d) [20 + j40]Ω
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
Ans. (b) : The value of characteristics impedance of Ans. (d) : Given,
lossless transmission line,
Z0 = ( 20 + j40 )
L
Z0 = For matched transmission line,
C
ZL = Z0 and Zin = Z0
40
Z0 = So, Zin = ( 20 + j40 ) Ω
10
Z 0 = 2Ω 530. Which of the following field quantity has its
normal component always continuous at the
526. When the incident angle of a light ray is
greater than the reflected angle, the condition interface of two media?
is called (a) Electric Displacement
(a) Total internal reflection (b) Electric Field Intensity
(b) Total internal refraction (c) Magnetic Flux Density
(c) Diffraction (d) Magnetic Field Intensity
(d) Dispersion TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 Ans. (b) : Electric field intensity field quantity has its
Ans. (a) : When the incident angle of a light ray is normal component always continuous at the interface
greater than the reflected angle, the condition is called of two media.
total internal reflection. 531. What is meant by the Polarization of
527. Which among the ……………regarded as electromagnetic waves?
Twin-lead transmission line? (a) The Polarization is the direction of the
(a) Open-wire (b) Underground cable electric current in an electromagnetic wave
(c) Co-axial cable (d) Wave guide (b) The Polarization is the direction of the
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 electric field in an electromagnetic wave
Ans. (a) : A Twin-lead transmission line is an open- (c) The Polarization is the magnitude of the
wire transmission line. voltage in an electromagnetic wave
It is also called two-wire ribbon-type lines. (d) The Polarization is the inverse of the electric
528. What would be the standing wave ratio (SWR) field in an electromagnetic wave
for a line with reflection coefficient equal to DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
0.49? Ans. (b) : Polarization is direction of electric field in an
(a) 0.01 (b) 2.12 electromagnetic wave. Polarization is due to transverse
(c) 2.921 (d) 3.545 nature of EM wave. Polarization means the orientation
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 of electric field in EM region which is always
Ans. (c) : Given that, perpendicular to direction of movement of EM wave.
Γ = 0.49 532. Consider an interface between two dielectric
Relation between VSWR and reflection coefficient, materials, one with εr = 2 while the other has
1+ | Γ | εr = 5. If the tangential component of electric
VSWR =
1− | Γ | field on one side of the interface has a
magnitude of 10V.m–1. What is the magnitude
1 + 0.49 1.49
= = = 2.921 of the tangential component of electric field on
1 − 0.49 0.51
the other side?
(a) 10 V.m-1 (b) 20 V.m-1 535. The Brewster angle is given by
(c) 2.V.m-1 (d) 5 V.m-1 (a) tan θ = ε1ε 2
(b) tan θ = ( ε1 − ε 2 )
Ans. (a) : Given,
ε r1 = 2 , ε r = 5 , E t = 10V / m 1
2 1
(c) tan θ =
ε1 − ε2
As tangential component are equal across the boundary
surface. ε2
(d) tan θ =
E t1 = E t 2 ε1
V
E t2 = 10 UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
m
Ans. (d) : The Brewster angle given by
= 10 Vm–1
ε2
533. The wave impedance of a medium is equal to: θB = tan–1 , where ε 2 & ε1 are the
ε1
(a) The refractive index of the medium
permittivity of respective medium while the wave is
(b) The refractive index of the medium divided propagating from medium 1 to medium 2.
by the wave impedance of free-space 536. A steel pipe is constructed of a material for
(c) The wave impedance of free-space divided by which µr = 200 and σ = 5 ×106 mho/m. The
the refractive index of the medium
outer and inner radii are 8 and 6 mm
(d) The wave impedance of free-space
respectively and the length is 80 m. If the total
current carried by the pipe is
Ans. (c) : The wave impedance of a medium is equal to 4
2 cos 10 πt A, Then the skin depth will be
the wave impedance of free-space divided by the
refractive index of the medium. (a) 0.225×10 –3 m (b) 0.300×10 –3 m
µ0 (c) 0.352×10 –3 m (d) 0.125×10 –3 m

E 1
Z0 = = µ 0 c 0 = = ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
H ε0 ε0 c0
Ans.(a): Given in question -
µ 0 = magnetic constant µr =200, σ = 5 × 106 mho/m
ε 0 = electric constant Skin depth is given by -
c0 = speed of light in free space 1
δ=
534. The skin depth at 1000 MHz is compared to πfµσ
that at 500 MHz is 104 × π 104
∵f = =
(a) 2 (b) 2 2π 2
(c) 0.707 (d) 0.5 µ = µ0.µr
–7
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III µ =4π × 10 × 200
= 8π × 10–5
1
Ans. (c) : Skin depth δ = Therefore -
πfµσ
1
δ=
4
1 10
δ∝ π× × 8π× 10−5 × 5 × 106
f 2
δ2 f δ = 0.225 × 10–3m
= 1
δ1 f2 537. In a medium if ε, µ, and σ are constant through
out the medium, then it is known as :
δ2 500 (a) Distributed medium
=
δ1 1000 (b) Dielectric medium
(c) Perfect vacuum
δ2 1
= = 0.707 (d) Homogeneous medium
δ1 2
Ans. (d) : In a medium if εr, µr & σ are constant 541. The impedance scaled value of components are
throughout the medium, then the medium called as C
Homogeneous medium. (a) L' =LRs and C'=
Rs
538. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy
dielectric increase with increasing L C
(b) L' = and C' =
(a) Conductivity (b) Permeability Rs Rs
(c) Wavelength (d) Permittivity
(c) L'=LRs and C' = CRs
Ans. (c) : The depth of penetration inversely
L
(d) L' = and C' = CRs
proportional Conductivity, permeability and directly Rs
proportional with the wavelength. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
539. A coaxial transmission line carrying an RF
Ans. (b) : The impedance scaled value of components
signal is perfectly matched to the load.
are
Consider the cross-section of the line, at a plane
where the instantaneous voltage is at its L C
L' = and C' =
maximum value. How will the curl of the E- Rs Rs
field vary over this cross-section? 542. For a parallel plate transmission line, let v be
(a) Increases from the center to the outer
the speed of propagation and Z be the
conductor
characteristic impedance. Neglecting fringe
(b) Decreases from the center to the outer
effects, a reduction of the spacing between the
conductor
plates by a factor of two results in
(c) Zero everywhere
(d) constant value proportional to the RF voltage (a) halving of v and no change in Z
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 (b) no change in v and halving of Z
Ans. (c) : Electric field intensity in the cross section of (c) no change in both v and Z
co-axial cable = (d) halving of both v and Z
Q RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
E= aˆ ρ
2π ∈ℓρ Ans. (b) : For a parallel plate transmission line, let v be
k the speed of propagation and Z be the characteristic
E = aˆ ρ
ρ impedance.
Q Neglecting fringe effects, a reduction of the spacing
Where K = between the plate by a factor no change in V and
2π ∈ℓ
halving of Z.
aˆ ρ ρaˆφ ˆ
az 543. A transmission line is having a reflection co-
efficient of 0.33 when terminated in a certain
1 ∂ ∂ ∂
∇×E = load, Its SWR is
ρ ∂P ∂φ ∂Z
(a) 2 (b) 3
k
0 0 (c) 1/2 (d) none of these
ρ
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
∇×E = 0
1+ | Γ |
curl of is zero everywhere in the cross section Ans. (a) : SWR =
1− | Γ |
of co-axial cable.
540. Insertion loss is defined by | Γ |= 0.33
(a) –20 Log10 (1–r 2) (b) –10 Log10 r  1 + 0.33
SWR =
(c) –10 Log10 (1–r 2) (d) –10 Log10 (1+r 2) 1 − 0.33
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II 1.33
SWR = = 1.98
Ans. (c) : Insertion Loss is defined by 0.67
–10 Log10 (1–r 2) where r is a reflection co-efficient. SWR ≃ 2

544. A system has a phase response given by φ( ω), (c) high SWR
where ω is the angular frequency. The phase (d) narrow bandwidth
delay and group delay at ω = ωo are UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
respectively given by Ans. (d) : The main disadvantage of the two-hole
φ ( ω ) dφ ( ω ) directional coupler is narrow bandwidth.
(a) − ,
φ ( ω0 ) dω ω=ω 548. Consider a rectangular coordinate system (x,y,z)
0
with unit vectors ax, ay and az. A plane wave
d φ ( ω0 )
2 travelling in the region z ≥ 0 with electric field
(b) φ ( ω0 ) , −
dω 2 vector E = 10cos(2 ×108 t + βz)a y is incident
ω=ω 0
normally on the plane at z=0, where β is the phase

ω0 dφ ( ω )
(c) − ,− constant. The region z ≥ 0 is in the free space and
φ ( ω0 ) dω ω=ω the region z<0 is filled with a lossless medium
0
ω0 (permittivity ε = ε 0 , permeability µ = 4µ 0 , where

(d) ω0 ϕ ( ω0 ) , ∫
−∞
ϕ ( λ ) aλ
ε 0 = 8.85 ×1012 F/m and µ 0 = 4π ×10 –7 H/m).
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I The value of the reflection coefficient is
Ans. (c) : Phase response = φ ( ω) 3 1
(a) (b)
5 3
−d φ ( ω )
Phase delay = 2 2
dω ω=ω0 (c) (d)
5 3
GATE-2021
Ans. (b) : At Z<0
µ
545. Impedance of the line to the right of voltage Impedance ( η2 ) = = 240π
minimum is ε
(a) Inductive Lossless medium with
(b) Capacitive ε = ε0 , µ = 4µ0
(c) High resistance At z >0
(d) Low resistance µ
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III Impedance ( η1 ) = = 120π
ε
Ans. (a) : Impedance of the line to the right of the η2 − η1 240π − 120π 1
voltage is minimum is inductive because characteristic Reflection coefficient = =
η2 + η1 240π + 120π 3
impedance is the combination of resistive and inductive
load. 549. A signal source with 100m wavelength is
546. The uniform plane wave is: connected to the input terminals of a 150m long
transmission line terminated in its
(a) vertically directed
characteristic impedance. The phase difference
(b) neither longitudinal nor transverse
between the voltages at two ends of the
(c) longitudinal in nature
transmission line in steady-state condition is :
(d) transverse in nature
(a) 2π (b) 3π
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
(c) 4π (d) π
Ans. (d) : A uniform plane wave is a wave in which the
electric field E and magnetic field H lie in a plane and Ans. (b) : Given that,
have same value every where in that plane at any fixed
λ = 100m, ℓ = 150m
instant. Hence uniform plane wave always transverse in
nature. 2π
βℓ = ×ℓ
547. The main disadvantage of the two-hole λ
directional coupler is 2π
βℓ = ×150
(a) low directional coupling 100
(b) poor directivity β ℓ = 3π

550. In an impedance Smith chart, a clockwise 553. Which of the following properties of an
movement along a constant resistance circle electromagnetic wave is classified as linear,
gives rise to circular, and elliptical?
(a) A decrease in the value of reactance (a) Reflection (b) Polarisation
(c) Propagation (d) Refraction
(b) An increase in the value of reactance
(c) No change in the reactance value
Ans. (b) : There are three main types of polarization
(d) No change in the impedance value namely, circular polarization, linear polarization and
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I elliptical polarization. The polarization of an antenna is
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper-I based on the E-plane orientation of the electromagnetic
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I energy radiated/received by the antenna.
Ans. (b) : In an impedance Smith chart, a clockwise 554. The wavelength of a wave with a propagation
constant, 0.2π + j0.4π is:
movement along a constant resistance circle gives rise
to an increase in the value of reactance. (a) 2m (b) 1m
(c) 8m (d) 5m
551. A uniform plane magnetic wave incident
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
normally on a plane surface of a dielectric
UPSC JWM-2016
material is reflected and the percentage of
Ans. (d) : γ = α + jβ = 0.2π + j0.4π
reflected power is 64%. What is VSWR?
(a) 9 (b) 6.4 2π
β=
(c) 0.8 (d) 1 λ
NIELIT Scientists- 2017 π0.4 = 2π
λ
20π
Ans. (a) : Given that, λ=
4π
Ps λ = 5m
= Γ2
Pi
555. The relationship between group velocity vg and
Γ 2 = 0.64 phase velocity vp is given by :
Γ = 0.64 = 0.8 v
(a) g = c (b) vg .v p = c 2
vp
1+ Γ
VSWR =
1− Γ vp
(c) v g .v p = c (d) =c
1 + 0.8 1.8 vg
VSWR = =
1 – 0.8 0.2 Where c is velocity of light.
VSWR = 9 MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
552. Short circuited stubs are preferred to open- Ans. (b) : Phase velocity – It is the rate at which the
circuited stubs because the latter are phase of the wave propagate in space,
(a) more difficult to make and connect c
vp = …………..(i)
2
(b) made of a transmission line with a different  ωc 
1−  
Z0 ω
(c) Liable to radiate Where, ωc = cut-off frequency
(d) Incapable of giving a full range of reactance ω = Frequency of operation.
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I Group velocity – It is the velocity at which the overall
RPCS Lect.-2011 envelop of wave travels.
Ans. (c) : Short-circuited stubs are usually used in ω 
2
preference to open-circuited stubs because an infinite vg = c 1 −  c  ………. (ii)

ω
terminating impedance is more difficult to realize than a
zero terminating impedance for reasons of radiation From equation (i) and (ii),
from an open and coupling effects with neighboring v p .v g = c 2
object. Where c = velocity of light.
556. Skin depth at 2 GHz for a gold conductor with Ans. (b): Given,
σ = 4.55 × 107 S/m is 1.5 µm. Skin depth (in f = 10GHz, σ = 4 ×107 Siemens/meter
µm) at 8 GHz & 18 GHz is :
(a) 3.00, 4.50 (b) 0.75, 0.50 2 1
δ= =
(c) 0.375, 0.055 (d) 1.50, 1.00 µ 0 σω µ 0 πσf
δ=
Ans. (b) : The skin depth is represented by δ −7
4π× 10 × π× 4 × 107 × 10 × 109
1 2.5
δ= δ= µm
πµfσ π
Where , µ = permeability 558. A steel pipe is constructed of a material for
f = frequency which µ r = 200 and σ = 5 ×106 mho/m. The
σ = conductivity outer and inner radii are 8 and 6 mm
Given that, respectively and the length is 80 m. If the total
δ = 1.5µm current carried by the pipe is
4
f1 = 2GHz 2 cos 10 πt A, Then the skin depth will be
f2= 8 GHz (a) 0.225×10 –3 m (b) 0.300×10 –3 m
f3 = 18GHz (c) 0.352×10 –3 m (d) 0.125×10 –3 m
µ is same at every frequency. ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
1 Ans.(a): Given that,
δ∝
f
104 × π 104
∴f = =
δ1 f 2π 2
= 2
δ2 f1 µ 0 = 4π × 10 −7 , σ = 5 ×106 mho / m ,
1.5 × 10 −6 8 µ r = 200 , µ = 8π × 10 −5
=
δ2 2 1
−6
δ=
1.5 × 10 πfµσ
δ2 = = 0.75µm
2 1
=
4
10
Now, π× × 8π×10−5 × 5 × 106
2
1.5 × 10 −6 18 = 0.225 × 10 −3 m
=
δ3 2 559. The normal components of electric flux density
across a dielectric-dielectric boundary
1.5 × 10−6
δ3 = = 0.50µm (a) Are discontinuous
3
(b) Are continuous
557. A Gold cavity resonator resonating at 10 GHz (c) Depend on the magnitude of the surface
is fully coated using 2 µ m YBCO (Yttrium charge density
Barium Copper Oxide) material and operating (d) Depend on electric field intensity
at boiling temperature of liquid nitrogen. What Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
is the Skin Depth of RF at this frequency?
Ans. (c) : The normal component of electric flux
Assume σ Au = 4 ×107 Siemens/meter at cavity
density across a dielectric boundary depends on the
operating temperature. magnitude of the surface charge density.
(a) 2 µ m 560. The characteristic impedance of a lossless
(b) (2.5 / π) µ m transmission line is given by
(c) 0 µm (a) Z = ZC (b) Z = C / L
(d) None of the above (c) Z = LC (d) Z = L / C
Ans. (d) : Characteristics impedance of transmission ∈r1
line is :- Sinθ =
∈r2
( R + jωL ) π
Z0 =
( G + jωC ) θ=
4
For lossless transmission line R = 0, G = 0 P′Q
tan θ = =1
0 + jωL PP′
Z0 = P'Q = PP'
0 + jωC
Area = π (P'Q)2 = πm2
L
Z0 = ∈r1  1 
C θ = sin −1 , θ = sin −1   = 45º
∈r2  2
561. A lossless line of 50 ohms is terminated in a
load of 100 ohms resistive. The VSWR is 563. When EM waves are reflected from a wall, the
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 relation between wavelength along the wall
(c) 4:1 (d) 1:4 than in actual direction of propagation
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 (a) Same (b) Less
Z − Z0 (c) Greater (d) Equal or Greater
Ans. (b) : Reflection coefficient ( Γ ) = L Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
Z +Z
L 0
Ans. (c) : When electromagnetic waves are reflected at
Given,
an angle from a wall, their wavelength along is greater
ZL = 100 Ω
than in the actual direction of propagation.
Z0 = 50 Ω 564. If over the course of a day, the maximum
100 − 50 electron density in the ionosphere varies from
Γ=
100 + 50 1011 to 1012 m–3; the critical frequency changes
50 1 approximately from:
Γ= = (a) 2.2 MHz to 7 MHz (b) 2.5 MHz to 8 MHz
150 3
(c) 2.8 MHz to 9 MHz (d) 3.2 MHz to 10 MHz
1+ | Γ | 1 + 1/ 3
VSWR = = ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
1− | Γ | 1 − 1/ 3
Ans.(c): Given,
VSWR = 2 : 1
N1 = 1011 , and N2 = 1012
562. A medium of relative permittivity εr2 =2 forms
We know that the critical frequency ( f c ) = 9 N max
an interface with free space. A point source of
electromagnetic energy is located in the When N1 = 1011
medium at a depth of 1 m from the interface. Then
Due to the total internal reflection, the f c1 = 9 1011 = 9 × 105 10 Hz
transmitted beam has a circular cross section
over the interface. The area of the beam cross = 2.8 ×106 Hz = 2.8 MHz
section at the interface is given by When N 2 = 1012
(a) 2πm2 (b) π2 m2
Then f c2 = 9 1012
(c) (π/2)m2 (d) πm2
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I = 9 × 106 Hz
Ans. (d) : = 9 MHz
So the critical frequency changes approximately from
2.8 MHz to 9 MHz.
565. The plane wave propagating through the
di-electric has the magnetic field component as
H = 20 e–ax cos(ωt – 0.25x) ay A/m (ax, ay, az are
unit vectors along x, y and z axis respectively)
Determine the Polarization of the wave
(a) â x (b) −â z (a) 3×108 m/sec (b) 2×108 m/sec
(c) 6.28×107 m/sec (d) 2×107 m/sec
(c) (ax + ay) 2 (d) â y
Ans. (b) : Given,
Ans. (b) : Given,
E ( z, t ) = 10cos ( 2π107 − 0.1πz ) Volt/m
H = 20e − ax
cos ( ωt − 0.25x ) aˆ y A / m
2π
P = E×H f = 107 Hz β = 0.1 π β=
λ
aˆ x = E × aˆ y 2π
λ= = 20
0.1π
aˆ x = ( −aˆ z ) × aˆ y
v = fλ = 20 × 107 = 2 × 108 m / sec
So, the polarization of the wave is same as electric field
570. If only the position of the port of a network is
direction that is −â z .
changed, then its scattering parameter
566. The ratio of voltage reflected from the load to undergoes a
the voltage applied to the load is called (a) Change in magnitude
(a) reflection loss (b) VSWR (b) Change in the phase
(c) return loss (d) none of these (c) Change in both magnitude and phase
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (d) No change
Ans. (b) : Voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) is Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
defined as the ratio between transmitted and reflected Ans. (b) : When the wave undergoes reflection against
voltage standing waves in a radio frequency (RF) a rigid body it result into change of phase so as to
electrical transmission system. It is a measure of how maintain the boundary condition at wall.
efficiently RF power is transmitted from the power 571. When used as a mixer, the E-plane arm of an
source, through a transmission line, and into the load. E-H plane function is terminated in
567. Propagation constant is expressed as (a) A null detector
(a) ZY (b) ZY (b) a local oscillator
1.5 (c) A matched load
(c) (ZY) (d) none of these
where Z and Y are impedance and admittance (d) An antenna
respectively. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III Ans. (c) : When used as mixer, the E-plane arm of an E-
H plane function is terminated in a matched load.
Ans. (b) : Propagation constant is expressed as ZY
572. A very reliable service has to be established
568. If a transmission line terminated with a load
between two points on earth separated by
equal to be characteristic impedance the
1000 km. The band that will be used is
reflection co-efficient is
(a) HF (b) EHF
(a) +1 (b) –1
(c) UHF (d) VLF
(c) 0 (d) infinity
TNPSC AE-2013
Ans. (c) : A very reliable service has to be established
Z L − Z0 between two points on earth separated by 1000 km. The
Ans. (c) : Reflection coefficient =
Z L + Z0 band that will be used is UHF.
When ZL = Z0 573. The magnitude of open-circuit and short-
Reflection coefficient = 0 circuit input impedances of a transmission line
569. If the electric field intensity associated with a are 100Ω and 25Ω respectively the
uniform plane electromagnetic wave travelling characteristic impedance of the line is
in a perfect dielectric medium is given by (a) 25Ω (b) 50Ω
E(z,t) =10cos(2π107 − 0.1πz) volt/m, the velocity (c) 75Ω (d) 100Ω
of the travelling wave is Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
Ans. (b) : Given, Ans. (c) : Reflection coefficient-
Z oc = 100Ω. n 2 − n1
Γ=
n 2 + n1
Zsc = 25 Ω.
While transmission coefficient -
So, characteristics impedance,
n 2 − n1 2n 2
Z0 = Z oc × Z sc = 2500 = 50Ω. τ = 1+ Γ = 1+ =
n 2 + n1 n1 + n 2
574. A plane wave propagation through the medium
577. The propagation constant of transmission line
εr = 8, µr = 2 and σ = 0 has electric field given
is
by E = 0.5e–(z/3) sin(108t–βz) V/m. The wave
(a) (R+jωL)/(G+jωL)
impedance, in ohms is
(a) 377 (b) 198.5∠180º (b) ( R + jωL )( G + jωC )
(c) 182.9∠14º (d) 188.3 (c) (R+jωL)/(G+jωe)
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I 1
(d)
jωµ Lc
Ans. (d) : as η =
σ + jωε Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
Given, σ = 0 Ans. (b) : Z = R + jωL
µ µ 0µ r γ = G + jωC
Thus, η = =
ε ε0ε r
γ = ( R + jωL )( G + jωC )
4π×10−7 × 2
= 578. Neper is a
8.854 × 10−12 × 8
(a) Unit of power (b) Unit of voltage
= 1.883 × 10 2 Ω (c) Unit of current (d) Ratio of powers
= 188.3Ω Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
575. The VSWR can have any value between Ans. (d) : The Neper is a logarithmic unit for ratios of
(a) 0 and 1 (b) –1 and +1 measurements of physical field and power quantities.
(c) 0 and ∞ (d) 1 and ∞ such as gain and loss of electronic signal.
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I 579. The attenuation constant of a medium is
Ans. (d) : Voltage standing wave ratio 400/cm. Find the skin depth in the medium.
1+ | Γ | (a) 2.00 mm (b) 1.55 mm
S=
1− | Γ | (c) 3.50 mm (d) 2.50 mm
The range of values for VSWR is from 1 to ∞. UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
A VSWR value under 2 is considered suitable for most Ans. (*) : Given,
antenna applications. α = 400 / cm
576. When a plane electromagnetic wave is incident ∵ Skin depth is inversely proportional to square root of
normally on the boundary between two lossless frequency
dielectric media, the transmission coefficient
α = πfµσ
for magnetic field intensity H is
1 1
n − n2 n − n1 δ= =
(a) 1 (b) 2 πf µσ α
n +n 1 2 n +n 1 2
2n 2 2n1 1
(c) (d) δ= = 0.0025 cm
n1 + n 2 n1 + n 2 400
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I = 0.025 mm

580. The magnitude of reflection coefficient is: 583. A lossless transmission line is terminated such
(a) ρ =
v max
(b) ρ =
( VSWR − 1) that it gives impedance of jΩ at the input end.
v min ( VSWR + 1) What is the length of line?
(a) λ/2 (b) λ/4
(c) ρ =
( VSWR + 1) (d) ρ =
vi
(c) λ/8 (d) λ
( VSWR − 1) vr
UPRVUNL AE-2016
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
Ans. (c) : We know that,
Ans. (b) : The VSWR voltage standing wave ratio is
V I Zin = Z0  L 
defined as VSWR = max = max  Z0 + jZL tan βℓ 
Vmin I min
It is also given as Given Zin = jZ0
1+ ρ ZL = 0
VSWR =
1− ρ  
∴ jZ0 = Z0  ZL + jZ0 tan βℓ 
VSWR − ρ × VSWR = 1 + ρ  Z0 + jZL tan βℓ 
VSWR − 1 = ρ (1 + VSWR )  0 + jZ0 tan βℓ 
jZ0 = Z0  
VSWR − 1  Z0 
ρ=
VSWR + 1 jZ0 = jZ0 tan β ℓ
581. If a lossless line is terminated with a load ∴tan β ℓ = 1
impedance 40 +j30 Ω, then the characteristic tan βℓ = tan π / 4
impedance of the line for minimum possible
standing wave ratio (SWR) will be : βℓ = π / 4
(a) 70 Ω (b) 25 Ω 2π
ℓ = π/ 4
(c) 50 Ω (d) 100 Ω λ
BSNL(JTO)-2002 λ
ℓ=
Ans. (c) : Given ZL = 40+j30Ω 8
| ZL |= 50Ω 584. For a perfectly matched line the reflection
1+ | Γ | coefficient has value of:
SWR = where ρ = reflection coefficient
1− | Γ | (a) 0 (b) +1
The minimum possible value of SWR is 1 when ρ = 0 (c) –1 (d) Infinity
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Z − Z0
and ρ = L when ZL = Z0, Γ =0 Ans. (a) : For perfectly matched line-
ZL + Z0
Z L = Z0
So, characteristics impedance (Z0) = 50Ω
582. The disadvantage of single stub matching is Γ = ZL − Z0
that Z L + Z0
(a) Every load needs a new stub position Z − Z0
(b) Only shunt stub should be used = 0 =0
Z0 + Z0
(c) Only resistive load can be matched
(d) Useful only in two wire transmission line 585. A quarter wavelength transformer is used as
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013 matching unit between two transmission lines
Ans. (a) : Single stub matching - Single stub matching of characteristics impedances 200Ω and 50Ω
are widely used to match any complex load to a respectively. Find the characteristic impedance
transmission line, They consists of shorted or opened of transformer.
segments of the live connected in parallel or in series (a) 150Ω (b) 50Ω
with the line at a appropriate distance from the load. (c) 200Ω (d) 100Ω
It require every load needs a new stub position. UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (d) : As per given data- σ
Ans. (c) : Loss tangent tan θ =
Characteristic impedance- ωε
Z0 = 200 × 50 For lossless dielectric tan θ ≤ 1
= 10000 For good conductor tan θ >>> 1
= 100Ω For lossy dielectric tan θ = 1
586. Impedance matching over a wide frequency 590. In loop coupling the plane of the loop is
range can be obtained by using (a) Parallel to the flux lines
(a) Double stub (b) Normal to the flux lines
(b) Single stub (c) Inverse to the flux lines
(c) Quarter wave transformer (d) Vertical to the flux lines
(d) None of the above Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I Ans. (b) : When a conductor is inserted into the
Ans. (a) : Impedance matching over a wide frequency waveguide and is bent like a loop this is known as loop
range can be obtained by using double stub. coupling.
587. If a plane electromagnetic wave satisfies the When current flows into the loop, it produces magnetic
∂ 2Ex ∂ 2Ex
equation = c2 the wave propagates in field which couples with the waveguide loop.
∂z 2
∂t 2 In loop coupling the plane of the loop is normal to the
the flux lines.
(a) x-direction
591. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire, it is
(b) z-direction
best to use a
(c) y-direction
(a) Balun
(d) xz plane at an angle of 450 between the x and
z direction (b) Slotted line
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I (c) Directional coupler
GATE-2001 (d) Quarter wave transformer
Ans. (b) : If a plane electromagnetic wave satisfies the Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
∂2Ex 2 ∂ Ex
2 Ans. (a) : Baluns are used both to sort out the flow of
equation = c the wave propagates in the z-
AC signals and make the necessary impedance
∂z 2 ∂t 2
direction. transformation between coaxial cable which has a low
588. In a medium if ε, µ, and σ are constant through impedance, and balanced loads, which have higher
out the medium, then it is known as : impedances.
(a) Distributed medium 592. A line comprised of two copper wires of
(b) Dielectric medium diameter 1.2 mm that have 3.2 mm center to
(c) Perfect vacuum center spacing. If the wires are separated by a
(d) Homogeneous medium dielectric material with εr = 3.5, the value of
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I characteristic impedance Z0
Ans. (d) : In a medium if εr, µr & σ are constant (a) 96 W (b) 150 W
throughout the medium, then the medium called as (c) 74 W (d) 105 W
homogeneous medium. Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
589. What is the major factor of determining Ans. (*) : Characteristic impedance-
whether a medium is free space, lossless
30πb ε r
dielectric, lossy dielectric, or good conductor Z0 =
(a) Attenuation constant
(1 + Wc + 0.41b )
(b) Constitutive parameters (σ, ε, µ) 30π× 3 ⋅ 5 × 1 ⋅ 2
Z0 =
(c) Loss tangent 1 + 3 ⋅ 2 + 0 ⋅ 41× 1 ⋅ 2
(d) Reflection coefficient
Z0 = 142Ω
593. In the case of dielectric subjected to an 596. With wavelength λ in increasing order, which
alternating electric field of frequency f, the one of the following combination is correct?
dielectric loss is proportional to (a) EHF, SHF, UHF, VHF
(a) f (b) f2 (b) SHF, UHF, VHF, EHF
1 1 (c) UHF, VHF, EHF, SHF
(c) (d) 2
f f (d) VHF, EHF, SHF, UHF,
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
Ans. (a) : P = 2πfCV2tanδ Ans. (a) : EHF < SHF < UHF < VHF
P = dielectric loss 597. The skip distance is
f = frequency (a) Same for each layer
C = capacitor (b) Independent of frequency
V = voltage (c) Independent of the state of ionization
δ = Loss angle (d) Independent of transmitted power
• As per the above formula we can increases in Nagaland PSC CTSE(Degree) 2018, Paper-II
frequency the loss increases.
• The increases in voltage the value of dielectric loss Nagaland PSC CTSE(Degree) 2017, Paper-II
increases. Nagaland PSC CTSE(Degree) 2015, Paper-I
• The increases in temperature the dielectric loss Ans. (d) : The skip distance is independent of
increases. transmitted power but it is dependent upon a variety of
594. A uniform sinusoidal plane wave in air has the factors frequency. The minimum distance at which the
following phasor expression for electric field: wave return back at the critical angle is called skip
E(x, z) = ay 10ei(6x+8z) V/m distance.
The frequency of operation will be : 598. For a given ionospheric layer, the highest
(a) 4.78 × 108 Hz (b) 2 × 108 Hz frequency that will be reflected back for
(c) 109 Hz (d) 3.82 × 108 Hz vertical meidence is given by
BSNL(JTO)-2002 (a) fc = 81 Nmax (b) fc = 81 N2 max
Ans. (a) : Given that- (c) fc = 81N max (d) fc = 81 N max
i ( 6x +8z )
E ( x, z ) = a y10e V/m Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
After compare the standard equation Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
UPPCL AE - 16.11.2013
( 6 ) + (8)
2 2
β=
Ans. (c) : For a given ionospheric layer, the highest
β = 10 frequency that will be reflected back for vertical
2π 2π meidence is given by-
λ= =
β 10 f c = 81 N max
c 3 × 10 ×10
8
f c = 9 N max
f= =
λ 2π
599. For a short wave radio link between two
f = 4.780 × 108 Hz stations via the ionosphere, the ratio of the
595. Frequencies in the UHF range normally maximum usable frequency to the critical
propagate by means of - frequency
(a) ground waves (b) space waves (a) Is always less than 1
(c) surface waves (d) sky waves (b) May be ≤ 1 depending on the distance
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II between the two stations
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2016, Paper-II (c) Is always greater than 1
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam-2011 (d) Does not depend on the distance between the
Ans. (b) : UHF (Ultra high frequency) cannot propagate two stations
through sky waves or ground waves. The signals having Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2018, Paper-II
UHF are propagated through line of sight Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2017, Paper-II
communication which is space wave propagation. ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008
Ans. (c) : Maximum usable frequency Ans. (c) : The RF wave can propagate long distance
fMUF = fc secθ parallel to earth surface via duct.
fc Ground- wave propagation is effective from 300 miles it
f MUF = = f c sec θ
cos θ can span the world depending on atmospheric
f MUF conditions and the frequency used.
>1
fc 604. The phase velocity of a plane wave given by Ex
The ratio of the maximum usable frequency to the = E0 cos (ωt – βz) with a frequency of 5.0 GHz
critical frequency is always greater than 1. and a wavelength in the material medium of 3.0
cm is:
600. Which one of the following is caused by
reflection from stratified atmosphere or from (a) 3.0 × 108 m/sec (b) 1.5 × 108 m/sec
the surface or land conditions along the path? (c) 5 × 108 m/sec (d) None
(a) Multipath fading (b) Selective fading ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
(c) Duo fading (d) Reflection fading Ans. (b) : Given:
IES - 1997 f = 5 GHz , λ = 3cm
Ans. (a) : The Multipath signal are received in Phase velocity (v )= λf
p
terrestrial environment where different from of
= 3×10–2×5×109 m/s
propagation are present and the signals arrive and the
receiver from transmitter via a variety of paths. = 1.5×108 m/s
therefore there would be multipath interference causing 605. Ratio of skin depths of an electromagnetic
multipath fading. wave inside the conductor for the
601. Consider the following parameters: corresponding frequencies at 4 GHz and 9
1. Loss is the media GHz, considering the same material properties
2. Permeability of the media for both the frequencies is:
3. Frequency of the wave (a) 9:4 (b) 4:9
4. Velocity of the wave (c) 3:2 (d) 2:3
Which of the these parameters are responsible ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
for the change of phase of a propagating Ans. (c) : Given:
electromagnetic wave? f1 = 4 GHz , f2 = 9 GHz
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Skin depth δ =
πfµσ
IES - 2000
1
Ans.(a): The change of phase propagation of a δ∝
f
electromagnetic wave parameters- Loss is the media,
permeability of the media and frequency of the wave. δ1 f
= 2
602. Space wave propagation takes place within a δ2 f1
frequency range of
δ1 9
(a) 0.03 GHz to 0.3 GHz (b) 3 GHz to 30 GHz =
δ2 4
(c) 0.3 GHz to 3 GHz (d) 3 GHz to 12 GHz
δ1 3
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II =
δ2 2
Ans. (a) : Space wave propagation takes place within a
frequency range of 0.03 GHz to 0.3 GHz. 606. For non dispersive medium
603. The RF wave can propagate long distance (a) Phase velocity > Group velocity
parallel to earth surface via (b) Phase velocity < Group velocity
(a) Ground wave (b) Sky wave (c) Phase velocity = Group velocity
(c) Duct (d) Surface wave (d) None of the above
TNPSC AE- 2019 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
Ans. (c) : In non-dispersive medium, the speed of wave 610. The relative permittivity of ionosphere at radio
is independent of frequency. Here the carrier wave frequencies is
propagates at the phase speed, the modulation envelope (a) = 0 (b) < 1
propagates at the group speed. (c) > 1 (d) = 1
Thus the non-dispersive has both the phase velocity and TNPSC AE-2014
group velocity are same. Ans. (b) : Ionospheric propagation, where radio waves
607. If range of a radar is to be doubled, the peak are refracted by ionized layers in the atmosphere.
transmit power of the radar has to be : The relative permittivity of ionosphere at radio
(a) Increased by a factor of 2 frequencies is < 1.
(b) Increased by a factor of 4 611. A radar pulse sent to the target returns after 20
(c) Decreased by a factor of 4 µ sec. What is the distance of the target from
(d) Increased by a factor of 16 the radar?
(a) 30 km (b) 3 km
© 300 km (d) 3000 km
Ans. (d) : We know that -
TNPSC AE-2014
Range of radar
1
Ans. (b) : Given, tr = 20 µs
 P G 2 σA  4
c0 .t r
R= t 2 e  Distance of the target from radar ( R ) =
 ( 4π ) Smin  2
G = Antenna gain 3 × 108 × 20 ×10−6
R= = 3km
σ = Radar cross section 2
Ae = Effective area of the antenna 612. High range resolution is obtained with
(a) High attenuation (b) Low attenuation
R max ∝ ( Pt ) ⇒ Pt ∝ ( R max )
1/ 4 4
(c) Short pulse (d) Large pulse

So, if range of radar double the peak transmit power TNPSC AE-2014
will be increased by a factor 16. Ans. (d) : Radar range resolution,
608. The first geostationary satellite was named c×τ
(a) Intelsat I (b) Intelsat II R res =
2
(c) Intelsat III (d) Early bird Where, c = Velocity of light
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III τ = transmitted pulse width
Ans. (*) : Syncom 3 was the first geostationary satellite R res ∝ τ
launched in 19 Aug., 1964.
Hence, high range resolution is obtained with large
Intelsat I (nicknamed Early Bird) was the first
pulse.
commercial communication satellite to be placed in
geosynchronous orbit on 6 April, 1965.
613. The definition of fluctuation loss is
609. Free space wavelength is
D (n , n ) D (n , n )
(a) Greater than guided wavelength (a) L fe = e 1 e (b) L fe = 0 1 e
D0 ( n ) De ( n )
(b) Equal to guided wavelength
(c) Lesser than guided wavelength D (n ) D (n)
(c) L fe = e e (d) L fe = 0
(d) None of the above D0 ( n ) De ( n e )
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III TNPSC AE-2014
Ans. (c) The guide wavelength is a function of Ans. (a) : Fluctuation loss is an effect seen in radar
operating wavelength or frequency and the lower cutoff systems as the target object moves or changes its
wavelength and is always greater than the wavelength orientation relative to the radar system.
would be in free-space.
D e ( n1 , n e )
Fluctuation loss, Lfe =
λ free space < λ guide D 0 (n)

614. An open circuited (λ/4) line has an input (a) V = GM / R (b) V = GM / 2R
impedance of
(c) V = R / GM (d) V = 2G / RM
(a) infinity (b) Z0
TNPSC AE-2013
(c) Zero (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : Given, G= Earth gravitational constant
TNPSC AE-2013
M= Mass of earth
Ans. (c) : Zin(l) = –jZ0 cot (βl) R = Radius
As expected Zin → ∞ for l = 0 and the same λ/2
GM
periodicity is observed l = λ/4, we see Zin = 0 Satellite orbital velocity, V =
R
615. Ground wave must be
619. East-West station keeping are obtained by
(a) linearly polarized (a) applying a thrust impulse perpendicular to be
(b) circularly polarized orbital plane
(c) vertically polarized (b) applying a thrust impulse parallel to the
(d) horizontally polarized orbital plane
TNPSC AE-2013 (c) applying a thrust in the orbital plane
Ans. (c) : Ground wave must be vertically polarized. A (d) firing appropriate thrusters
ground wave propagation is a type of propagation which TNPSC AE-2013
is also known as surface wave. These wave propagate Ans. (c) : East west station keeping are obtained by
over earth surface in low and medium frequencies. applying a thrust in the orbital plane. EWSK controls
616. The main components of atmosphere the satellite longitude drift rate and eccentricity to
responsible for absorption of electromagnetic maintain the satellite in predefined longitude box.
waves are 620. A Geostationary satellite completes one orbit in
(a) nitrogen and oxygen (a) One hour (b) 5 hours
(b) nitrogen and hydrogen (c) 24 hours (d) 28 days
(c) oxygen and water vapour TNPSC AE-2013
(d) nitrogen and water vapour Ans. (c) : A geostationary satellite complete one orbit in
IES - 1995 24 hours. A geostationary satellite is an earth-orbit
satellite, placed at an altitude of approximately
Ans. (c) : Absorption is namely caused by three
35,800 km.
different atmospheric gases are water vapours, carbon
dioxide, ozone and oxygen. 621. Distance of geostationary satellite from surface
of earth is nearly
617. Attenuator is a pure resistance
(a) 360 km (b) 3600 km
(a) network producing a constant attenuation at
high frequencies. (c) 36000 km (d) 360000 km
(b) network producing a variable attenuation at a TNPSC AE-2013
variable frequency. Ans. (c) : Distance of geostationary satellite from earth
(c) producing a constant attenuation at all surface is 36000 km.
frequencies. 622. Which of the following statement is not
(d) producing a constant attenuation at low correct?
frequencies. (a) A beam of light may be modulated to carry
TNPSC AE-2013 speech.
Ans. (c) : An attenuator is pure resistance which (b) Blinking light signals from ship to ship used
produce a constant attenuation at all frequency. Because modulated light beams.
resistance does not varies with variation in frequency. (c) Short wave radio uses short wavelength than
618. It (G) is the earth's gravitational constant and that exist in light beam.
(M) is the mass of earth, then for a circular (d) Rays of 1Aº wavelength pass through glass
orbit of radius (R), the satellite's orbital more easily than rays of 1000 Aº.
velocity (V) is given by TNPSC AE-2013
Ans. (c) : Short wave radio is radio transmission using Ans. (b) : Phase velocity is greater than the velocity of
transmission short wavelength (sw) radio frequency. light in space. The phase velocity of a wave is the rate
Short wave utilized to relay telephone and telegraph at which the phase of the wave propagates in space.
communications over great distances. This is the speed at which the phase of any one
623. The virtual height of an ionospheric layer is frequency component of the wave travels.
(a) Less than 627. The VSWR can have any value between
(b) Equal to (a) 0 and 1 (b) –1 and +1
(c) Higher than (c) 0 and ∞ (d) 1 and ∞
(d) Unrelated to true height Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II Ans. (d) : The range of values for VSWR is from 1 to
Ans. (c) : The virtual height of an ionospheric layer is ∞. A VSWR value under 2 is considered suitable for
higher than true height. most antenna applications. The antenna can be
624. Refraction of radio waves in the atmosphere described as having a good match. The minimum
results due to : VSWR is 1. In this case, no power is reflected from the
(a) Changes in dielectric constant antenna, which is ideal.
(b) Changes in density of air 628. The wave propagation in plasma is known as
(c) Changes in dielectric constant and refractive (a) Parametric dispersion
index (b) Solution dispersion
(d) None of these (c) Spherical dispersion
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II (d) Cylindrical dispersion
Ans. (c) : Refraction of radio wave in the atmosphere Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I
results due to changes in dielectric constant and Ans. (a) : The wave propagation in plasma is known as
refractive index.
parametric dispersion.
625. Indicate which one of the following apply to
629. The velocity of sound waves in air
troposcatter propagation
(a) is constant at all temperatures
(a) SID's (b) Fading
(b) varies directly as temperature
(c) Atmospheric storm (d) Faraday rotation
(c) varies inversely as absolute temperature
(d) varies directly as square root of absolute
temperature
TNPSC AE-2013
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
Ans. (b) : In troposcatter propagation signal attenuates
Ans. (d) : The velocity of sound waves in air varies
(signal strength reduction) with distance. This known as
directly as square root of absolute temperature.
fading. Troposcatter or tropospheric scatter is a form of
radio signal propagation for radio communications links v= T
up to distance up to about 1000 km using the 630. Troposphere is the portion of atmosphere
troposphere.
(a) nearest to ground
626. As a result of reflections from a plane (b) between 50 to 90 km above ground
conducting wall, the electromagnetic waves
(c) between 110 to 220 km above ground
acquire an apparent velocity greater than the
(d) between 250 to 350 km above ground
velocity of light in free space. This velocity is
called.
Ans. (a) : Troposphere is the portion of atmosphere
(a) Group velocity
(b) Phase velocity nearest to ground. The troposphere starts at the Earth's
(c) Normal velocity surface and extends 8 km to 14.5 km high. This part of
(d) Velocity of propagation the atmosphere is the most dense. Almost all weather is
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I in this region.
631. Kepler’s first law states c2
(d) vg = 2
(a) The path followed by a satellite around the vp
primary will be an ellipse
(b) The path followed by a satellite around the
Ans. (a) : Group velocity × Phase velocity = c2
primary will be a circle
vg × v p = c2
(c) The path followed by a satellite around the
primary will be a sphere Where, v p = Phase velocity
(d) None of the above c = Speed of light
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III 635. Twists are useful to change
Ans. (a) : Kepler’s first law- Each planet orbit about (a) Direction of propagation
the sun is an ellipse. Keplar's first law states the path (b) Orientation of E vector
followed by a satellite around the primary will be an (c) Splitting the propagation
a −b
2 2 (d) Blocking the propagation
ellipse of electrical orbit = , the value is
a Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
always lies between 0 to 1. Ans. (a) : The twist in the waveguide is used to term the
632. The intrinsic impedance of free space is polarization of the waveguide. Twists are made from a
section of standard waveguide which has been precisely
(a) 127 Ω (b) 177 Ω
twisted, maintaining the internal dimension of the
(c) 120 πΩ (d) 177Πω
waveguide.
636. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave incident
Ans. (c) : Intrinsic impedance of free space is given by- normally on a plane surface of a dielectric
µ0 material is reflected with a VSWR of 3. What is
η=
ε0 the percentage of incident power that is
reflected?
4π× 10−7 (a) 10% (b) 25%
=
8.85 × 10−12 (c) 50% (d) 75%
η = 376.7 ≃ 377 Ω where- µ 0 = 4π ×10 −7 H / m Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Given, VSWR = 3
= 120 π Ω ε 0 = 8.85 ×10 −12 C 2 / N
Reflected power is given by-
633. The propagation constant pure imaginary
PR = ( Γ ) Pi
2
means
(a) Wave without attenuation VSWR − 1
Γ=
(b) No wave motion VSWR + 1
(c) Wave with attenuation 3 −1 2 1
Γ= = =
(d) Wave with increasing attenuation 3 +1 4 2
2
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-II 1
PR =   Pi
Ans. (a) : The propagation constant pure imaginary 2
means wave without attenuation. So, Percentage reflected power
634. The group velocity vg is given by PR 1
× 100 = × 100 = 25%
c2 Pi 4
(a) vg =
vp 637. The ground state energy of a particle in an
infinite square-well potential of width L is E. If
2
 mλ  the width of the wall is reduced to L/2, then the
(b) vg = c 1 −  
 2a  ground state energy becomes
2
(a) 2E (b) E/2
 mλ  (c) 4E (d) E/4
(c) vg = c 1 +  
 2a  Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I
n2h2 641. When an electromagnetic wave is propagated
Ans. (c) : We know that - E a = in good dielectric the phase constant β is reduce
8m L2
to
L1
When L2 =
2 εµσ σ µ
(a) (b)
2 2 2 ε
2 L 
E a1  L  E a1  1 2 
= 2  , =  σ  1  σ2 
E a2   (c) ω µε  1 + 2 2  (d) 1 − 2 2 
 L1  E a 2  L1   8ω ε  µε  8ω ε 
 
E a 2 = 4E a1 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : When an electromagnetic wave is propagated
638. For a given guided mode, the normalized in good dielectric the phase constant β is reduced to
propagation lies between
1  σ2 
(a) − ∝ and + ∝ (b) 0 and + ∝ β= 1 − 2 2 
µε  8ω ε 
(c) 0 and 1 (d) –1 and +1
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II 642. Two spheres of radii r1 and r2 are connected by
a conducting wire. Each of the spheres has
Ans. (c) : Propagation constant depends on optical
given a charge Q. Now
frequency of the light for guided wave propagation
(a) Larger sphere will have greater potential
constant lies between 0 and 1
(b) Larger sphere will have smaller potential
639. Normally dispersive media are those in which
(c) Both of the spheres will have same potential
the change in phase velocity with wavelength is
(d) Smaller sphere will have zero potential
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Both positive and negative Ans. (c) : Two spheres of radii r1 and r2 are connected
by a conducting wire. Each of the spheres has given a
charge Q. So both of the spheres will have same
potential.
Ans. (b) : In a dispersive medium, the group velocity is
1 Q
less than phase velocity. Hence in dispersive medium Potential V1= ×
4πε0 r1
change velocity worth frequency will be negative
because 1 Q
V2 = ×
4πε0 r2
c ∇v P
vP = <0 r1 =r2
f  ∇f
1−  c  So V1=V2
f 
643. In an impedance smith chart, a clockwise
640. The depth of penetration is the depth in which
movement along a constant resistance circle
electromagnetic wave has been attenuated to
gives rise to
(a) e of the original value
(a) A decrease in the value of reactance
1 (b) An increase in the value reactance
(b) of the original value
e (c) No change in the reactance value
(c) 50% of the original value (d) No change in the impedance value
(d) 100% of the original value Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I Ans. (b) : Moving clockwise in a constant resistance
Ans. (b) : Penetration depth is a measure of how deep circle gives increase in the value of reactance.
light or any electromagnetic radiation can penetrate into 644. Blue colour of sky look due to
material. It is defined as the depth at which the intensity
(a) Reflection (b) Retraction
of radiation inside material falls to 1/e of its original
(c) Scattering (d) Diffraction
value.
AAI-2015
Ans. (c) : The sky is blue due to a phenomenon called 649. When the load impedance Z L = Z 0 , the VSWR
Raleigh scattering. The blue colour is scattered more is:
because the wavelength is more than other light. (a) 0 (b) ∞
645. Which velocity greater than velocity of light in (c) 1 (d) 10
free space ____. UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
(a) Phase velocity (b) Group velocity
1+ Γ
(c) Both (d) None Ans. (c) : VSWR =
1− Γ
NPCIL-2015
Ans. (d) : According to string theory Tachyon is the Γ = ZL − Z0
only particle faster that light as it has a strange feature Z L + Z0
that when they loose energy they gain speed and when When, Z = Z , Γ = 0
L 0
they gain energy, they loose speed.
No other particle can travel faster than light because for VSWR = 1
this the rest mass of a particle should be 0. It is quite 650. For a radar if transmitted power increases 16
difficult to find a massless particle rather than light. times then what happens to Radar range
646. What is the advantages of FWBR over center (a) Half (b) Doubles
tap transformer FWR _____. (c) 16 times (d) 4 times
(a) Efficiency (b) PIV BEL-2015
(c) Power handing (d) Ripple factor
Ans. (b) : Maximum range of radar is -
NPCIL-2015 1
Ans. (b) : PIV is advantage of FWBR over center tap R =  Pt G σA e 

2 4
transformer FWR.
max
 ( 4π ) 2 S 
 min 
647. Which one of the following is the correct

πD 2
statement for a photon of blue and red light of and A e =
4
electromagnetic spectrum?
1
(a) Blue light and red light have equal energy and  P G 2 σπD 2  4
So, R max =  t

equal momentum  4 ( 4π ) 2 S 
 min 
(b) Blue light has higher momentum than red
1
light R max ∝ ( Pt ) 4
(c) Red light has higher momentum than blue
Now, given - Pt = 16Pt
light
1
(d) Red light has higher energy than blue light then, R max = (16Pt ) 4
RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I 1
R max = 2Pt 4
Ans. (b) : Light is made of individual particles or
packets of energy called photons. Different colors of R max = 2R max
light have photons of different energies. Photons of red 651. A uniform plane wave propagating in a
light have lower energy and photons of blue light have medium has
higher energy.
E = 2e –αz sin (108 t - βz ) aˆ y V m,
648. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT for
removing particulate matter from gas streams. If the medium is characterized by
(a) Gravitational settling εr = 1, µ r = 20 and σ = 3 S m. The values of
(b) Centrifugal impaction α and β are respectively,
(c) Electrostatic precipitation (a) 30.70Np/m, 30.70 rad/m
(d) Burning the particulate (b) 61.40 Np/m, 61.40 rad/m
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Yellow) (c) 122.80 Np/m, 122.80 rad/m
Ans. (d) : Burning the particulate mechanisms is NOT (d) 15.35 Np/m, 15.35 rad/m
for removing particulate matter from gas streams. ESE-2021
Ans.(b) : Given, 81.45N
µ = 1− ……………(i)
σ = 3 S/ m f2
ε r = 1, µ r = 20 Where
Electron density (N) = 109m–3
E = 2e − az sin (108 t − βz ) aˆ y
f = frequency of sky wave
σ 3 from equation (i)
=
ωε 10−9
108 × 1× 81.45 × 109
36π µ = 1−
σ
( 50 ×10 )
6 2
= 360π× 3
ωε µ =1
Since the given medium is good conductor. In a good From Snell’s law
conductor the value of α and β sin i
µ=
sin r
ωµσ 108 × 20 × 4π× 10−7 × 3
α =β= = sin i= sin r
2 2
r = 300
= 61.4
654. Name the ionization layer that exists during
α = 61.4 Np / m and β = 61.4 rad / m
day time and usually vanishes at night due to
652. If R = Earth’s radius, h = orbit height, highest recombination rate
β = coverage angle, and θ = minimum elevation (a) Appleton region (b) D Region
angle, then which one of the following relations (c) Normal E region (d) Sporadic E region
is correct? TANGEDCO AE- 2018
R cos ( β + θ ) Ans. (b) : D- region is the ionization layer that exists
(a) =
R+h cos ( θ ) during day time and usually vanishes at night due to
highest recombination rate.
R cos ( β )
(b) = 655. The highest frequency that is returned to the
h cos ( θ )
earth at a given distance is called
h cos ( β + θ ) (a) maximum available frequency
(c) =
R cos ( β ) (b) maximum communication frequency
R+h (c) maximum bandwidth frequency
(d) = cos ( β + θ ) − cos ( θ ) (d) maximum usable frequency
h
ESE-2021 ESE-2022
Ans.(a) : Given, R = Earth's radius, h = Orbit height, Ans. (d) : The highest frequency that is returned to the
earth at a given distance is called maximum usable
β = Coverage angle, θ = Minimum elevation angle
frequency. The maximum usable frequency is the
R cos ( β + θ )
Then, = highest radio frequency that can be used to transmission
R+h cos θ between two point via reflection from the ionosphere at
653. If a sky wave with a frequency of 50 MHz is a specific time, independent of transmitter power.
incident on the D-region at an angle of 30º, then 656. The signal propagation time between two
the angle of refraction is: ground stations in a synchronous satellite link
(a) 15º (b) 60º is about
(c) 30º (d) 5.5º (a) 50ms (b) 135ms
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 (c) 270ms (d) none of these
Ans. (c) : Given that angle of incidence (i) = 300 Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
f = 50 MHz Ans. (c) : The signal propagation time between two
we know that for a D- region ground stations in a synchronous satellite link is about
refractive index (µ) 270ms.

657. VHF waves travel as 661. High frequency waves are
(a) Ground waves (b) Sky waves (a) Absorbed by F1 layer
(c) Space waves (d) none of these (b) Reflected by D layer
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II (c) Affected by solar cycle
Ans. (b) : The primary mode of propagation for VHF (d) None of the above
radio wave is through direct waves. These travels in a Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
straight line becoming weaker as distance increase. Ans. (c) : High frequency waves (3 to 30 MHz)
VHF radio travels as a sky wave. propagation is through sky wave which are reflected
658. During the daytime, the ionosphere consists of from ionosphere. The position of the reflecting layer of
ionosphere is affected by solar cycle i.e. their position
(a) D, E and F2 layers
are different in day and night times.
(b) D, E, F1 and F2 layers
662. The frequency range 30 MHz - 300 MHz is:
(c) E and F2 layers
(a) medium frequency
(d) D, E and F1 layers
(b) very high frequency
(c) super high frequency
Ans. (b) :
(d) Infrared frequency
Layers of Ionosphere Frequency band RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
D Day only Ans. (b) : The frequency range 30 MHz – 300 MHz is
E Day & Night known as very high frequency.
F1 Day time, Merge with F2 663. Long distance short wave radio broadcasting
at night uses
F2 Day & Night (a) Group wave (b) Ionospheric wave
(c) Direct wave (d) Any of the above
659. High frequency waves follow
(a) The ground wave propagation Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
(b) The line of sight direction Ans. (b) : Shortwave radio or radio waves are used for
broadcasting of voice and music to listeners over very
(c) The bend along the curvature of earth
large areas. Which uses a layer in the atmosphere called
(d) The ionosphere propagation
the ionosphere for the refraction and reflection purpose.
664. If the maximum electron density for E layer in
Ans. (d) : Low frequency signals do not reach the ionosphere is 9×106 electrons/cm3, then its
higher ionised regions within the ionosphere. Hence critical frequency is
ionospheric propagation takes places for high frequency (a) 81 MHz (b) 9 MHz
wave only. (c) 27 MHz (d) 54 MHz
660. The maximum usable frequency of an TANGEDCO AE- 2018
ionospheric layer at 60º incidence at with 8 Ans. (c) : Given that,
MHz critical frequency is
Maximum electron density/m3
16 (Nmax) =9×106electron/cm3
(a) 16 MHz (b) MHz
3 Critical frequency-
(c) 8 MHz (d) About 6.93 MHz f c = 9 N max
Ans. (a) : Given, f c = 9 × 9 ×1012
Incidence angle ( θ ) = 600 = 9 × 3 × 106 Hz
Critical frequency (fc) = 8MHz f c = 27MHz

We know that 665. The number of spectral component of a sine
Maximum usable frequency fMUF = fc secθ wave is
(a) One (b) 0
= 8sec 600 = 8 × 2
(c) 2 (d) 4
= 16 MHz
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
Ans. (*) : The number of spectral components of a sine 670. Duct propagation of microwave occurs due to
wave are 3- one lower side band, one upper side band which one of the following?
and one carrier. (a) Variation of refractive index with wavelength
666. The mutual information is (b) Variation of refractive index with length
(a) Is symmetric (c) Variation of refractive index with height
(b) Always non negative (d) None of the above
(c) Both (1) and (2) are correct IES - 2008
Ans. (c) : Duct propagation is sometimes referred as
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II super refraction phenomenon takes place which is the
Ans. (c) : In probability theorem and information increase of refractive index with height.
theory, the mutual information of two random variables
671. Which ionosphere layer is responsible for
is a measure of the mutual dependence between the two
return of a radiation at frequency 30 MHz?
variables. More specifically-it quantifies the "amount of
information" obtained about one random variable by (a) D (b) E
observing the other random variable. (c) F (d) All of the above
667. Tropospheric scatter is used with the frequency Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper- III
in the range of IES - 2006
(a) HF (b) VHF Ans. (c) : The F2 layer is the most Important reflecting
(c) UHF (d) VLF medium for high frequency radio waves. F layer being
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III the top most layer, it is the most highly Ionized and this
Ans. (c) : Tropospheric scatters occurs at a frequency layer persists at Night also which aids for better HF
above 30 MHz. It belongs to the UHF and microwave reception. 30MHz wave falls into HF range.
range. 672. What is the effect of the earth's magnetic field
668. When the target lies at such a distance from the in the reflected wave at frequencies in the
radar that the radar receives the echo while it vicinity of gyro-frequency?
is transmitting, the target is said to be (a) No attenuation in the reflected wave
(a) At an ambiguous range
(b) Decreased attenuation in the reflected wave
(b) At a blind range
(c) Increased attenuation in the reflected wave
(c) In the closed vicinity of clutter
(d) Nominal attenuation in the reflected wave
(d) None of these
IES - 2004
Ans. (b) : The blind range for a radar system is the Ans. (c) : The effect of the earth's magnetic field in the
distance occupied by the transmit pulse and the setup reflected wave at frequencies is the vicinity of gyro
time for the receiver Non-Doppler radar are blind for frequency increased attenuation in the reflected wave
the duration of transmit pulse. because gyro-frequency (1.2 MHz -1.4 MHz) in equal
669. Medium wave radio signals may be received at to the required frequency to complete the earth is
far off distance at night because revolution within its magnetic field. On other land gyro
(a) radio waves travel faster at night magnetic ratio of a nucleus plays a role in NMR
(b) ground wave attenuation is low at night (nuclear magnetic resonance and magnetic resonance
(c) the sky wave is stronger at night imaging (MRI).
(d) there is no fading at night 673. A radio communication link is to be established
TNPSC AE-2008 via the ionosphere. The virtual height at the
Ans. (c) : Medium wave radio signals may be received mid-point of the path is 300 km and the critical
at far off distance at night because the sky wave is frequency is 9 MHz. The maximum usable
stronger at night. Propagation in medium wave frequency for the link between the stations of
frequency 525 to 1625 kHz is absorbed by D layer distance 800 km assuming flat earth is
during day time. This vanishes at night and E layer (a) 11.25 MHz (b) 12 MHz
helps in reflection at night especially at the higher range (c) 15 MHz (d) 25.5 MHz
of frequency. IES - 2001
2 (c) infinite attenuation
D
Ans. (c) : f MUF = f c   + 1 (d) zero attenuation
 2h 
IES - 1993
given D = 800 km Ans. (a) : The mode for which the frequency in lowest
h = 300 km in called dominant mode. For the waveguide if the
fc = 9×106 Hz frequency is lowest so the wavelength is highest.
2
 800  677. Friis tree space equation is gives as
= 9 × 106 ×   +1
 2 × 300  Pt G t G r λ 2 Pt G t G r
(a) Pr (d) = (b) Pr (d) =
2 (4π) 2 d 2 L (4π) 2 d 2 L
8
= 9 ×106 ×   + 1 Pt G t G v λ Pt G t G v λ 2
6 (c) Pr (d) = (d) Pr (d) =
(4π) d L
2 2
(4π).d 2 .L
= 9 ×106 ×1.667 ⇒ 15 ×106Hz
TNPSC AE- 2019
⇒ 15 MHz
Ans. (a) : The friis transmission formula is used in
674. The ground wave gradually disappears as one
telecommunication engineering, equating the power at
moves away from the transmitter because of
the terminals of a receive antenna as the incident wave
(a) Loss of line of sight conditions
and the effective aperture of the receiving antenna under
(b) Interference from the sky waves idealized conditions given another antenna some
(c) Maximum single hop distance limitation distance away transmitting a known amount of power.
(d) Finite conductivity of the earth's surface
Pt G t G r λ 2
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015 Paper-I P (d) =
(4π) 2 d 2 L
r
IES - 1998
Where, Pr(d) = Power at receiving antenna
Ans. (d) : If the electromagnetic waves transmitted by
Pt = Output power of transmitting antenna
the transmitter glide over the surface of the earth to
Gt = Gain of the transmitting antenna
reach the receiver, then the propagation is called ground
Gr = Gain of the receiving antenna
wave propagation. During transmission the electrical
signals are attenuated over a distance there are same λ = Wavelength
reason for that- L = Distance between the antennas
• Increasing distance 678. Ground waves progress along the surface of the
• Absorption of energy of the earth earth and must be polarized
(a) Horizontally (b) Circularly
• Tilting of the wave.
(c) Elliptically (d) Vertically
So the ground wave gradually disappears as one waves
always from the transmitter because of finite IES - 2019
conductivity of the earth's surface. Ans. (d) : Ground wave propagation is a method of
wave propagation that uses the area between surface of
675. The MUF for an angle of incidence is 60º and a
the earth and ionosphere for transmission. the type of
critical frequency of 60 MHz will be
antenna and it's polarization has a major effect on
(a) 45.9 MHz (b) 111.7 MHz
ground wave propagation.
(c) 120 MHz (d) 150 MHz
Vertical polarization is subject to considerably less
IES - 1996
attenuation then horizontally polarized signals.
Ans. (c) : For maximum useable frequency fMUF = fc × The surface wave is also very dependent upon the
sec θ nature of ground over which the signal travels.
given θ = 60º fc = 60 MHz At lower frequency, ground penetration becomes
so from the formula greater and high frequency is not important.
fMUF = 60 × sec 60º = 60 × 2 679. Unattenuated radiation field at the surface of
= 120 MHz the earth of a quarter-wave monopole will exist
676. The dominant mode in a waveguide is if the earth surface is
characterized by (a) Lossy dielectric (b) Perfect insulator
(a) longest cutoff wavelength (c) Perfectly conducting (d) None of these
(b) shortest frequency ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
Ans. (a) : For lossy dielectric earth surface, 1+ | Γ |
The VSWR =
unattenuated radiation field at the surface of the earth of 1− | Γ |
a quarter-wave monopole will exist.
1.2
=
∂ H2
0.8
680. ∇ 2 H = µ0ε0 is a
∂t 2 VSWR = 1.5
(a) Subsidiary equation (b) Wave equation
684. A plane wave is incident normally on a perfect
(c) Poission's equation (d) Continuity equation
conductor as shown in figure. Here Eix ,Hiy and
1 ∂ 2H Pi are electric field, magnetic field and
Ans. (b) : ∇2 H = 2 × 2 if H propagating in three state Poynting vector, respectively, for the incident
C ∂t
then it should always satisfy the wave equation. Where wave. The reflected waver should have
H = magnetic field intensity.
681. Assuming perfect conductors of a transmission
line, pure TEM propagation is not possible in
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Air-filled cylindrical waveguide
(c) Parallel twin wire line in air
(d) Semi-infinite parallel plate waveguide
Ans. (d) : TEM wave is a special type of transverse
electromagnetic wave in which on electric field E along (a) E rx = −Eix (b) H ry = −H iy
the direction of propagation is also zero. The TEM (c) P r = −Pi (d) E rx = E ix
waves are waves in which both electric and magnetic
fields are transverse entirely but have no components of GATE-1993
Ez and Hz. Ans. (a&c) : For the incident wave the reflection
682. Which of the following does not exist in coefficient for electric fields-
waveguides jωµ / σ − 120π
ΓE = = −1 for conductor
(a) TE waves jωµ / σ + 120π
(b) TM waves
We have electric field ( E ix ) , magnetic field ( H iy ) and
(c) TE waves and TM waves
i
(d) TEM waves poynting vector P .
E rx = −E ix
Ans. (d) : Rectangular waveguide and circular
waveguide does not support TEM wave they will H x = H x
r i
support TE and TM waves. P r = −P

i
683. A dual directional coupler is connected in a H reflects in phase because E reflect completely out of
microwave reflectometer measurement setup. phase.
The reading of the power meter in the forward
685. For a lossy transmission line, the characteristic
direction is 100 mw and in the reverse direction
impedance does not depend on
4mw. The VSWR is
(a) The operating frequency of the line
(a) 4 (b) 0.4
(b) The length of the line
(c) 1.5 (d) 10
(c) The load terminating the line
(d) both b and c
4 mW TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
Ans. (c) : | Γ | =
100 mW
Ans. (d) : For lossy transmission line characteristic
2 impedance does not depend on length and load
| Γ | = = 0.2
10 terminating the line.

03.
Communication System
3. The diameter x of an electric cable is assumed
(i) Random Signals and Noise to be continuous variable with probability
density function f(x)= 6x(1–x), 0 < x < 1. Mean
1. If S(f) is the power spectral density of a real, and variance of the distribution are
wide-sense stationary random process, then (a) 1/2, 1/20 (b) 1/3, 1/30
which of the following is ALWAYS true? (c) 1/10, 1/20 (d) 1/20, 2/5
(a) S(0) ≥ S(f) (b) S(f) ≥ 0 BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022
∞
Ans. (a) : Given, f ( x ) = 6x (1 − x ) 0 ≤ x ≤1
(c) S(–f) = –S(f) (d) ∫ S(f )df = 0
−∞ = 6x − 6x
2
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. – 22.03.2022, Paper-II 1
GATE-2007 ∴ Mean = ∫ x ( 6x − 6x ) dx
2
0
Ans. (b) : Power spectral density is always a positive 1
quantity.  6x 3 6x 4 
= − 
S(f ) ≥ 0  3 4 0
1
 3x 4 
2. If the probability density function of a random =  2x 3 − 
1  2 0
 sin x;0 ≤ x ≤ π
variable x is f(x) =  2 3
= 2−
 0 : otherwise 2
Then mode of the distribution is : 1
=
π π 2
(a) (b)
Now variance = E ( x 2 ) −  E ( x ) 
2
4 2
π 1
E ( x 2 ) = ∫ ( 6x 3 − 6x 4 ) dx
(c) 0 (d)
6
0
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
1
Ans. (b) : Given that -  6x 4
6x 5 
= − 
1  4 5 0
 sin x;0 ≤ x ≤ π
f(x) =  2 3 6 3
 0 : otherwise = − =
2 5 10
2
Mode of the distribution 3 1
∴ Variance = −  
1 10  2 
f(x) = sin x
2 3 1
= −
1 10 4
f '(x) = cos x
2 1
=
f '(x) = 0 20
4. Mean of two batsmen A and B are
1 π
cos x = 0, x = X A = 48 and X B = 46 . Their coefficient of
2 2
variation are 0.37 and 0.26 respectively. Then
−1 which of the following is correct?
f ''(x) = sin x
2 (a) A is better scorer and more consistent than B
π −1 (b) B is better scorer and more consistent than A
at x = , f "(x) = (c) B is better scorer and less consistent than A
2 2
(d) A is better scorer and B is more consistent
π than A
Function f(x) is maximum at x = ,
2 BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022
Communication System 612 YCT
Ans. (a) : Given, σ A = 0.37, X A = 48 9. If the coefficient of variation of two
distributions are 30% and 40%, and their
σ B = 0.26, X B = 46 arithmetic means are 70 and 60, respectively,
then the difference between their standard
We have deviations is:
σ (a) 1 (b) 2
V A = A × 100
XA (c) 3 (d) 0
0.37 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
= × 100 S.D.
48 Ans. (c) : We have coefficient of variation = ×100
= 0.77 X
σ 0.26 σ
VB = B ×100 = × 100 = 0.56 = × 100
XB 46 X
∵ VA > VB (Hence A is more consistent than B) σ
∴ 30 = 1 × 100 …………..(i)
70
Also X A > X B (A is better scorer than B) σ
5. Which one of the following noises arises in And 40 = 2 × 100 …………(ii)
60
electronic devices such as diodes and From equation (i) and (ii)
transistors because of the discrete nature 30 × 70
nature of current flow? σ1 = = 21
(a) Shot noise (b) Thermal noise 100
40 × 60
(c) Gaussian noise (d) Random noise σ2 = = 24
ESE-2022 100
Ans. (a) : Shot noise - It arises in electronic devices ∴ ( σ 2 − σ1 ) = 24 − 21 = 3
(Such as diode and transistor) because of the discrete 10. The power spectral density of deterministic
nature of current flow in the devices. signal is given by [sin(f)/f]2, where ‘f’ is
6. White noise is characterized by- frequency. The auto correlation function of the
(a) Gaussian probability density function signal in the time domain is-
(a) a since pulse
η (b) a delta function
(b) Power spectral density δ (f )
2 (c) a triangular pulse
(c) Autocorrelation function depends (d) a rectangular pulse
η UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
(d) Autocorrelation δ (τ) Ans. (c) : The power spectral density of deterministic
2
2
( )
signal is given by sin f  ,The auto correlation function
Ans. (a) : White noise is characterized by Gaussian  f 
probability density function. of the signal in the time domain is a triangular pulse.
7. The noise at the input to an ideal frequency 11. An amplifier having output SNR of 16 dB and
detector is white. The power spectral density of input SNR of 21.4 dB. Its noise figure is
the noise at the output is- .
(a) Raised cosine (b) Flat (a) 5.4 dB (b) +37.4 dB
(c) Parabolic (d) Gaussian (c) 37.4 dB (d) – 5.4 dB
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (d) : The noise at the input to an ideal frequency (S / N ) Input
detector is white. The power spectral density of the Ans. (a) : Noise figure, F = S / N Ouput
noise at the output is Gaussian.
( )
S S
8. Consider a WSS random process X(t), whose Noise figure in dB, F =   .dB −   .dB
amplitudes are normally distributed with N N
E(x(t)) = 0 and Rx(τ) = e–2[τ]. F = 21.4dB – 16dB
Then P(X(t)) ≤ 2) = ? F = 5.4dB
∞
1
∫
2
(Q(α) = e –x /2dx) 12. In a communication system, the signal power is
2π α 13 dBm and noise power is –1 dBm. The SNR
(a) Q(1) (b) 1 –Q(2) will be:
(a) 14 dB (b) –13 dB
(c) 1 – Q(1) (d) Q(2)
(c) 12 dBm (d) 12 dB
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Ans. (b) : 1 –Q(2) APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
Ans. (a) : Signal power = 13 dB (d) exp (– | τ |) with usual notation
noise power = –1 dB TNPSC AE – 2018
SNR = (Signal power – Noise power) dB Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
SNR = (13 + 1) dB = 14 dB Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) – 2015, Paper-I
13. Cross correlation function provides: MPPSC HOD Govt. Poly. - 2013
(a) information about the structure of only one IES - 1995
signal Ans. (a) : The auto correlation function of white noise
(b) information about the behavior of only one is an impulse at log 0. since the power spectral density
signal in time domain is the Fourier transform of the auto correlation function,
(c) measure of dissimilarities between two the PSD of white noise is a constant. The auto
signals correlation function of white noise is a delta function.
(d) measure of similarities between two signals. 18. For an FM receiver with an input signal-to-
UPMRC AM - 2020 noise ratio for 29 dB, a noise figure of 4 dB and
Ans. (d) : Cross correlation function provides to an FM improvement factor of 16 dB, the pre-
measure of similarities between two signal. detection and post-detection signal-to-noise
Mathematically- ratios are
∞ (a) 25 dB and 41 dB (b) 30 dB and 49 dB
R xy ( τ ) = ∫ x(t)y(t − τ)dτ (c) 25 dB and 49 dB (d) 30 dB and 41 dB
−∞
IES - 2019
14. The spectral density of white noise is
(a) Exponential (b) Uniform Ans. (a) :
(c) Poisson (d) Gaussian
UPMRC AM-2020
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-II
Given that -
(SNR)input = 29dB
IES – 2012, 1995
N.F = 4dB, FM improve factor = 16dB
Ans. (b) : White noise consists of signals of all We know that-
frequency. Random signals are considered as white if
they are observed to have a flat spectrum its spectral S S
density remains constant or uniform.   =   − N.F.
 N pre  N i
15. The variance σ 2 of a random variable X is = 29dB – 4dB
given by = 25dB
(a) E[X2] (b) {E[X]}2 So pre detection SNR = 25dB
(c) E [X ] −{E[X]}
2 2
(d) E [X2]+{E[X]}2 Post detection SNR = pre detection SNR +FM improve
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II factor
GATE-2017 = 25 dB +16dB
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper I Postdetection SNR = 41dB
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) – 2015
UJVUNL AE-2016 19. A random process X(t) is defined as
2 X(t) = 2cos(2πt + Y)
Ans. (c) : The variance σ of a random variable X is
where Y is a discrete random variable with
given by E [X ] −{E[X]} .
2 2
1  π 1
16. Noise factor of a system is defined as P ( Y = 0) = and P  Y =  = . The mean
(a) Output signal to noise ratio 2  2 2
(b) Ratio of output S/N ratio to input S/N ratio µx(1) is
(c) Ratio of input S/N ratio to output S/N ratio 1 1
(a) (b)
(d) Ratio of input signal to output noise ratio 4 3
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3PM-5PM 1
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II (c) (d) 1
2
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II IES - 2019
Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) : Given that -
(S / N )input X(t) = 2cos (2πt +Y)
N.F = Where 'Y' is a discrete random variable
( S / n ) output
1  π 1
17. The autocorrelation function of white noise is P(Y = 0) = & P  Y =  =
(a) A delta function 2  2 2
(b) A constant X(t) = 2cos (2πt +Y) = 2cos 2πt. cosY –2sin2πt.sinY
(c) Gaussian µ x (t) = E[X(t)] = E[2cos2πt cosY]– E[2sin2πt.sinY]
since Y is a discrete random variable and 2cos2πt
and 2 sin 2πt will be taken as a constant i.e.
µ x (t) = 2cos 2πt. E[cos Y] − 2sin 2πt E[sin Y]
Now,
1 π 1 1
E[cos X] = cos 0 × + cos × = The inverse Fourier transform of the power spectrum of
2 2 2 2 white noise will be an impulse as shown.
1 π 1 1 N
E[sin X] = cos 0 × + sin × = R x (τ) = δ (τ)
2 2 2 2 2
µ x (t) = cos 2πt − sin 2πt
23. For a random variable x having the PDF shown
so, in the figure given below
µ x (1) = cos 2π − sin 2π
µ x (1) = 1
20. The power spectral density of the stationary
noise process N(t) having auto correlation
Ruu(τ) = Ke–3|τ| is the mean and the variance are, respectively
3K 3K (a) 0.5 and 0.66 (b) 2.0 and 1.33
(a) (b) (c) 1.0 and 0.66 (d) 1.0 and 1.33
3 + ω2 3 − ω2
6K 6K IES - 2017
(c) (d) Ans. (d) :
9+ω 2
9 − ω2
IES - 2018
Ans. (c) :
2a
e −|a|t ←→
FT
a 2 + ω2
 2×3  Let, a = –1
Ke ( ) ←→
−3 τ FT
K 2  b=3
9+ω 
From the uniform density function we know that two
6K
R uu ( ω) = limits 'a' and b
9 + ω2 mean is defined as;
21. The cumulative distribution function of a a+b
random variable x is the probability that X m=
2
takes the value −1 + 3
(a) less than or equal to x (b) equal to x =
2
(c) greater than x (d) zero =1
IES - 2017 Variance is defined as-
Ans. (a) : If probability distribution function [F(x)] and
(b − a)
2
probability density function [f(x)] then relation between =

both of them. 12
3 − ( −1) 
2
F(x) = P [ X ≤ x ] = ∫ f (x)dx = sum of all values less

x
−∞ = 
12
than or equal to x.
16
22. A random process X(t) is called 'white noise' if =
12
the power spectral density is equal to
= 1.33
N0 N0 24. The probability density function F(x) = ae–b|x|,
(a) (b)
8 2 where x is a random variable whose allowable
3N 0 value range is from x = –∞ to x = +∞. The CDF
(c) (d) N0 for this function for x ≥ 0 is
4
(b) ( 2 − e − bx )
a a
IES - 2017 (a) e bx
Ans. (b) : The power spectral density of white noise is- b b
(d) − ( 2 + e − bx )
a bx a
N (c) − e
s x (f ) = 0 for all frequency 'f' b b
2 IES - 2017
Ans. (b) : Given probability density function (PDF) is- Codes :
F (x) = a.e–b|x| A B C D
CDF is given by - (a) 2 4 3 1
∞ (b) 3 1 2 4
CDF = ∫ ae− b|x| dx (c) 2 1 3 4
−∞
For x ≥ 0 the CDF is defined as- (d) 3 4 2 1
x IES - 2008
CDF = ∫ ae − b|u|du
−∞ Ans. (b) : Shot noise – Shot noise is a form of noise
0 x
that is encountered in RF and other electronic circuits as
CDF = ∫−∞
a ebu du + ∫ d e− bu du
0 a result of the granular nature of current. Shot noise is a
0 x
a   a  −a temperature limited diode
=  e bu  +  − e − bu  = (1 − 0 ) + ( e − bx − 1
a
 b  −∞  b 0 b b Thermal noise – Noise generated in a resistor
White noise – Power spectral density is independent of
CDF =
a
b
( 2 − e− bx ) frequency
Narrow band noise– Noise at the output of a filter.
27. Which one of the following is the correct
25. If the variance σ d2 of d(n) = X(n) – X(n – 1) is statement?
one-tenth the variance σ 2x of a stationary zero- If the value of resistor creating thermal noise is
mean discrete-time signal X(n), then the doubled, the noise generated is
normalized autocorrelation function (a) halved (b) doubled
R xx (K)/σ 2x at K = 1 is (c) unchanged (d) slightly changed
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.90 IES - 2008
(c) 0.10 (d) 0.05 Ans. (c) : The noise power is given by expression
IES - 2015 Pn = 4 KTB
Where,
K = Boltzmann's constant
d(n) = X(n)–X (n–1)
T = Temperature
1
σd2 = σ 2x = 0.1σ 2x B = Bandwidth
10 it means thermal noise is independent from the resistor,
K = 1 E(X) =0 Hence noise power generated by a resistor is unchange.
σd2 = E  d 2 (n)  = E {X(n) − X(n − 1)} 
2 28. The outputs of two noise sources each
  producing uniformly distributed noise over the
So, E  X 2 [ n ] = E  X 2 ( n − 1)  = σ2x range –a to +a are added. What is the p.d.f. of
the added noise?
σd2 = E  X 2 (n)  + E  X 2 ( n − 1)  − 2E [ X(n)X(n − 1)] (a) Uniformly distributed over the range –2a to
+2a
σd2 = σ 2x + σ 2x − 2R xx (1)
(b) Triangular over the range –2a to 2a
∵ E[X(n)X(n – 1)] = R xx (1) (c) Gaussian over the range –∞ to ∞
0.1σ 2x = 2σ 2x − 2R xx (1) {∵ σ 2
d = 0.1σ 2x } (d) None of the above
IES - 2008
R xx (K = 1) 1.9
= = 0.95 Ans. (b) : Let m1 and m2 be two random variables from
σ x2 2 the individual noise source.
26. Match List-I (Type of Noise) with List-II (Its 1
property) and select the correct answer using f (m1 ) = , for − a ≤ n1 ≤ a
2a
the code given below the list : = 0, elsewhere
List-I List-II
1
A. Shot noise 1. Noise f (m 2 ) = , for − a ≤ n 2 ≤ a
generated in a 2a
resistor = 0, else where
B. Thermal noise 2. Power spectral fm = f(m1) * f(m2)
density is Then the convolution of two rectangular pulse is a
independent of triangular pulse.
Frequency 29. Match List-I (Type) with List-II (Application)
C. White noise 3. Temperature- and select the correct answer using the codes
limited diode given below the lists :
D. Narrow band 4. Noise at the List-I
noise output of a A. Speech signal
filter B. Non-stationary
C. Random signal 31. Thermal noise is passed through an ideal low-
D. Chaotic signal pass filter having cut-off at fc = ωHz. The auto
List-II correlation value of the noise at the output of
1. The received signal of a radar system the filter is given as
monitoring variation in prevalent weather (a) A delta function at t = 0
condition. (b) Gaussian over the range –∞ ≤ t ≤ ∞
2. One dimensional signal where amplitude (c) Sinc function over the range –∞ ≤ t ≤ ∞
varies with time.
(d) Triangular function over the range
3. Signals of coupled system of nonlinear
difference. –1/2ω ≤ t ≤ 1/2ω.
4. Ensemble of unpredictable waveforms. IES - 2003
Codes : Ans. (c) : The average auto correlation function is-
A B C D 1 T/2
(a) 2 1 4 3 R x (τ) = lim ∫ x(t) x(t + τ)
T →∞ T − T / 2
(b) 4 3 2 1 ω
∫ K.e
j2 πfτ
(c) 2 3 4 1 R(τ) = df
(d) 4 1 2 3 −ω
IES - 2006 ω
 e j2 πfτ 
Ans. (a) : (1) Speech signal- one dimensional signal = K 
where amplitude varies with time.  j2πτ  – ω
(2) Non-Stationary- The received signal of a radar K ω
system monitoring variation in prevalent weather condition. = e j2 π 
j2πτ –ω
(3) Random Signal- Ensemble of unpredictable waveforms
(4) Chaotic Signal- This signal of coupled system of K
= e 2 jπωτ − e −2 jπωτ 
non-linear difference. j2πτ 
30. Match List-I (Type of Random Process) with   2πωτ 
List-II (Property of the Random Process) and = K  sin  
select the correct answer using the code given   πτ 
below the list : = 2ωK sin C(2ωτ)
List-I ∴ R(τ) is a sinc function
A. Stationary process
32. A random process obeys Poisson's distribution.
B. Ergodic process
It is given that the mean of the process is 5.
C. Wide sense stationary process
Then the variance of the process is
D. Cyclostationary process
(a) 5 (b) 0.5
List-II
(c) 25 (d) 0
1. Statistical average are periodic in time
2. Statistical average are independent of time IES - 2003
3. Mean and auto correlation are independent of Ans. (a) : Given that -
time mean value = 5
4. Time average equal corresponding ensemble Variance = (mean)
average variance = 5
Codes :
A B C D 33. Consider a noisy binary channel with bit error
(a) 3 1 2 4 probability Pe = 5 × 10–5. Assume 10000 bits are
(b) 2 4 3 1 being transmitted over such a channel. The
(c) 3 4 2 1 probability that there will be 2 or less number
of bits in error is
(d) 2 1 3 4
IES - 2005 (a) 10–4 (b) ∼0.5
Ans. (b) : (c) ∼1 (d) 104
• Stationary process- Its statistical average are IES - 2003
independent of time. Ans. (c) : Given that -
• Wide sense stationary- Wide-sense stationary or Probability (Pe) = 5×10–5
weak sense stationary. its correlation function does n = 10000 bits r ≤ 2
not change by shift in time.
Pe = n cr (1 − P )
n −r
• Cyclostationary processes- Some practical random .P r
processes have a periodic structure and statistical Pe = Pe (0) + Pe (1) + Pe (2)
average are periodic in time.
=
• Ergodic process- Time average is equal to ensemble
n c0 (1 − P)n .pº + n c1 (1 − P) n −1 .P1 + n c2 (1 − P) n − 2 P 2
average.
P is very small so (1 − p ) ≃ 1 Ans. (b) : Given that -
∴ Pe = 1 + n c1 P + n c2 P 2 Req = 50Ω
Rs = 50Ω
10000 × 9999
× ( 5 × 10−5 )
2
= 1+10000 ×5×10–5+ R eq
2 Noise figure (NF) = 1 +
Rs
Pe ≃ 1
50
( S/N )WBFM = 1+
34. The ratio for 100% amplitude 50
( S/N )AM NF = 2
modulation with identical total transmitted 37. The Noise figure of an amplifier is 3dB at 17ºC
power (mf is modulation index of FM) is equivalent. It's noise temperature will be about
(a) 9 / 2mf2 (b) 3/ 2m f2 (a) 145 K (b) 290 K
(c) 3/ 2m3f (d) 9 / 2m3f (c) 580 K (d) 870 K
IES - 2001 BEL-2015
Ans. (a) : Modulation index (m) =1 IES - 1998
3 Ans. (b) : Noise Figure = 3dB
(S / N) WBFM = m f2 (NF) dB = 10log(NF)
2
m2 3 = 10 log(NF)
Signal to noise ratio of AM (S/N)AM = 2 NF = 100.3
m +2
NF ≃ 2
1 1
= = Noise temperature (T0) = Teq (F–1)
1+ 2 3 Teq = 273+17 =290 K
3 2 T0 = 290 K (2–1)
( S/ N )WBFM 2 mf T0 = 290K
=
( S/ N )AM 1/ 3
38. The noise figure of a receiver is 1.6 at 17ºC. Its
9 2 equivalent noise temperature is
= mf
2 (a) 464.00 K (b) 174.00 K
35. 13 dBm is equivalent to (c) 108.75 K (d) 181.25 K
(a) 2 mW (b) 20 W IES - 1997
(c) 20 mW (d) 2 MW
Ans. (b) : Noise figure (NF) = 1.6
IES - 1999
T = 17ºC
Ans. (c) : Let (A) dBm = 13dBm
Teq = 17+273 = 290K
P
10 log −3 = 13 equivalent noise temperature (T0) = Teq (F–1)
10 = 290 (1.6–1)
P 13 = 290 × 0.6
log −3 =
10 10 = 174.0K
P = 174K
log −3 = 1.3
10 39. The Fourier transform of a Gaussian pulse is
P (a) Uniform (b) A pair of impulses
−3
= 101.3 (c) Gaussian (d) Rayleigh
10
P = 19.95×10 –3 IES - 1995
P = 19.95mW Ans. (c) : The Fourier transform of a Gaussian pulse is
Gaussian.
P ≃ 20 mW
36. A system has a receiver noise resistance of 50Ω. answer using the code given below the lists
It is connected to an antenna with an input
List - I List - II
resistance of 50Ω. The noise figure of the
system is (A) Resistance 1. Current Noise
(a) 1 (b) 2 (B) Diode 2. Partition Noise
(c) 50 (d) 101 (C) Triode 3. Shot Noise
(D) p-n junction Noise 4. Atmospheric
UPRVUNL AE-11.06.2014
IES – 1999 5. Johnson Noise

Codes : 44. Noise voltage varies in a resistor as
A B C D (a) 4 KTRB (b) 4KTRB
(a) 1 3 4 5 (c) 2eIpβ 2eIpβR
(d)
(b) 5 3 2 1
IES - 1991
(c) 5 3 2 4
(d) 1 5 3 2 Ans. (b) : Noise Voltage Resistor R is given-
IES - 1994 Vn = 4kTBR
Ans. (b) :
List-I List-II
(i) Resistance – Johnson noise
(ii) Diode – Shot Noise
(iii) Triode – Partition Noise
(iv) PN junction – Current Noise Where,
41. An amplifier operating over the frequency K – Boltzmann constant (1.38×10–23J/k)
range of 18 to 20 MHz has a 10KΩ input T – Ambient temperature
resistance. The RMS noise voltage at the input B – Bandwidth of Interest
to the amplifier at ambient temperature of R – Resistance of Noise Resistor.
27ºC is (assume the Boltzmann constant value 45. A part of a communication system consists of
as 1.38 × 10–23 J/K) an amplifier of effective noise temperature, Te
(a) 18.2 microvolts (b) 17.2 microvolts = 21° K, and a gain of 13 dB, followed by a
(c) 16.2 microvolts (d) 14.2 microvolts cable with a loss of 3 dB. Assuming the ambient
IES - 1994 temperature to be 300° K, we have for this part
of the communication system,
Ans. (a) : Vn = 4KTBR (a) effective noise temperature = 30° K
−23
= 4 × 1.38 ×10 × 300 × 2 × 10 × 10 6 4 (b) effective noise temperature = 36° K
(c) noise figure = 0.49 dB
= ( 4 × 1.38 ×10−23 × 300 × 2 × 106 × 104 )
0.5
(d) noise figure = 1.61 dB
GATE - 1991
= Vn = 18.2 × 10−6 V Ans. (b,c) : Given that -
Vn = 18.2µV Te = 21ºK
Gain (G) = 13dB,
42. If each stage had a gain of 10 dB, and noise
13 = 10log10 (G)
figure of 10 dB, then the overall noise figure of
G = 19.95
a two-stage cascaded amplifier will be
Cable loss = 3dB
(a) 10 (b) 1.09
Ambient temperature (Ta) = 300K
(c) 1.0 (d) 10.9 Cable loss = (3)dB = 10log10(L)
IES - 1993 L = 1.995
Ans. (d) : Given that - Noise Figure = f2
Gain = 10dB Cable loss = L
Noise Figure = 10dB F2 = 1.995
Two-Stage cascade Amplifier- T
Noise Figure of Amplifier = F1 = 1 + e
F2 − 1 9 T
F = F1 + ⇒ 10 + = 10.9 a
G1 10 21
F1 = 1 + = 1.07
43. "The power spectral density of white noise 300
(a) Varies as square root of frequency Noise Figure cascaded Amplifier -
(b) Varies as increase of frequency F −1 1.995 − 1
(c) Varies as square of frequency F = F1 + 2 = 1.07 + = 1.12
G 19.95
(d) is constant with frequency
IES - 1992 F = 0.49dB
'
Ans. (d) : White Noise consists of signal of all Te of the cascaded Amplifier
frequency. Random signal one considered as white
noise if they are observed to have a flat Spectrum. It's Te' = ( F − 1) Ta
spectral density remains constant. PSD of white noise = Te' = (1.12 − 1) × 300
N
Sx (F) = 0 Te' = 36º K
2
46. Two resistors R1 and R2 (in ohm) at 1  x3 2x 2 
3
temperatures T1°K and T2°K respectively, are σ =  +x−

2
x 
connected in series. Their equivalent noise 4 3 2  −1
temperature is 1  27   −1 
(a) T1+T2 σ 2x =   + 3 − 9  −  − 1 − 1 
4  3   3 
(b) R1T1+R2T2
(c) (R1T1+R2T2)/(R1R2) 4
(d) (R1T1+R2T2)/(R1+R2) σ 2x =
3
ISRO Scientist Engg. May, 2017
GATE - 1991 48. The auto-correlation function of an energy
signal has
Ans. (d) : Thermal Noise power (N) = KTB
(a) no symmetry
K – Boltzmann constant
(b) conjugate symmetry
T –Temperature in K
(c) even symmetry
B – Bandwidth
2 (d) Both (b) and (c)
V n = Vn12 + Vn22 .....(i) GATE - 1996
2
Vn = 4KTe BR = 4KTe B(R1 + R 2 ) Ans. (d) : The Auto-correlation is the correlation of a
2 function with itself if the function is real, the Auto
V n1 = 4KT1BR1 correlation function has even symmetry.
2
V n 2 = 4KT2 BR 2 R x (τ) = R x (−τ)
Putting the value equation ...(i) The Auto correlation function has conjugate symmetry.
Vn = Vn1 + Vn 2
2 2 2 R x (τ) = R *x (τ)
4KTe B(R1 + R 2 ) = 4KT1BR1 + 4KT2 BR 2 Hence correct option (d)
4KTe B(R1 + R 2 ) = 4KB(R1T1 + R 2 T2 ) 49. The power spectral density of a deterministic
signal is given by [sin (f)/f]2, where ‘f’ is
Te (R1 + R 2 ) = R1T1 + R 2 T2 frequency. The autocorrelation function of this
R T + R 2 T2 signal in the time domain is
Te = 1 1 (a) a rectangular pulse (b) a delta function
R1 + R 2
(c) a sine pulse (d) a triangular pulse
47. For a random variable ‘X’ following the GATE - 1997
probability density function, p(x), shown in Ans. (d) : Given that -
figure, the mean and the variance are, PSD of deterministic signal = [Sin (f)/f]2
respectively
Inverse Fourier transform of Square of sinc function
always indicates a triangular signal in time domain.
R x ( τ )  
F.T.
→Gx (f )
  f 
R x ( τ ) = F−1 Sinc 2   
  π 
(a) 1/2 and 2/3 (b) 1 and 4/3 50. An Amplifier A has 6 dB gain and 50 Ω input
(c) 1 and 2/3 (d) 2 and 4/3 and output impedances. The noise figure of this
GATE - 1992 Amplifier as shown in the figure is 3 dB. A
Ans. (b) : The random variable 'X' show in figure- cascade of two such Amplifier as in the figure
∞ will have a noise figure of
Mean = µ x = E(X) = ∫ xP(x)dx
−∞
3
3 1 1  x2 
µ x = E(X) = ∫ × dx =  
−1 4 4  2  −1
1 1
µx = × (3)2 − (−1)2  (a) 6 dB (b) 8 dB
4 2
(c) 12 dB (d) none of the above
µx = 1 GATE - 1997
∞
Variance = σ 2x = E ( x − µ x )  = ∫ (x − µ x )2 Px (x)dx Ans. (d) : Given that -
2
  −∞ 10log10 (2) = 3dB
3
3 1 1 10log10 (4) = 6dB
σ 2x = ∫ (x − 1) 2 × dx = ∫ (x − 1)2 dx
−1 4 4 −1 F1 = 2 and G1= 4

For cascaded system- Ans. (c) : Since Fourier transform (Time domain to
F −1 frequency domain transform) of Gaussian signal is also
F2 = F1 + 1 a Gaussian signal, so spectrum of Amplitude will be a
G1 Gaussian also.
2 −1 1 2 2
F2 = 2 + = 2 + = 9/4 = 2.25 e – πt ←
F.T.
→ e −πf
4 4
Hence correct option (c)
10 log10 (2.25) = 3.5dB
54. The PDF of Gaussian random variable X is
−( x − 4)
2
51. The ACF of a rectangular pulse of duration T 1
is given by Px ( x ) = e 18 . The probability
(a) a rectangular pulse of duration T 3 2π
of the event {X = 4} is
(b) a rectangular pulse of duration 2T
(c) a triangular pulse of duration T 1 1
(a) (b)
(d) a triangular pulse of duration 2T 2 3 2π
GATE - 1998 1
(c) 0 (d)
Ans. (d) : The Auto-correlation function is the method 4
of correlating the various Instants of the signal with GATE - 2001
itself and that of a rectangular pulse of duration T is a Ans. (c) : The probability of the event {X = 4} is = 0.
triangular pulse of duration 2T.
Probability of a Gaussian random variable is defined
52. A probability density function is given by for an interval and not at a point.
P(x) = K exp (–x2/2), – ∞ < x < ∞ 55. The PSD and the power of a signal of a signal g
The value of K should be (t) are. respectively, Sg(ω) and Pg. The PSD and
1 2 the power of the signal ag(t) are, respectively.
(a) (b) (a) a2Sg(ω) and a2Pg (b) a2Sg(ω) and aPg
2π π 2
(c) aSg(ω) and a Pg (d) aSg(ω) and aPg
1 1
(c) π (d) GATE - 2001
2 π 2 Ans. (a) : We know that-
GATE - 1998 Sx(ω) →H(ω) → Sy(ω)
Ans. (a) : Given that - Sy (ω) =| H(ω) |2 Sx (ω)
Probability density function is-
Hence the correct option is (a)
 x2 
P(x) = K exp  −  , − ∞ < x < ∞ 56. If the variance σ 2X of d(n) = x(n) – x (n – 1) is
 2  one-tenth the variance σ 2X of a stationary zero-
The Gaussian probability density of random variable x
mean discrete-time signal x(n), then the
is given by- normalized autocorrelation function
1  −(x − µ) 2  R XX (K) /σ 2X at K = 1 is
Px (x) = exp  
2πσ  2σ
2
 (a) 0.95 (b) 0.90
When σ = 1, and µ = 0 (c) 0.10 (d) 0.05
GATE - 2002
1  −x2 
Px (x) = exp   ....(i) Ans. (a) : The variance -
2π  2  σ 2x d(n) = x(n) − x(n − 1)
 x2 
Px(x) = K.exp  −  ……………(ii) E  d 2 (n)  = E {x(n) − x(n − 1)} 
2
 2  
σd2 = E [ x(n)] + E[x(n − 1)]2 − 2E[x(n) x(n − 1)]
2
Comparing equation ....(i) and (ii)
1 σ2x
K= = σ 2x + σ 2x − 2R xx (1)
2π 10
53. The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is Auto correlation-
(a) uniform at k=1
(b) a sine function 19
(c) Gaussian 2R xx (1) = σ x2
10
(d) an impulse function
R xx (1) 19
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-I =
GATE – 1998 σ 2x 20
IES - 1995 = 0.95
57. The noise at the input to an ideal frequency 60. A 1 mW video signal having a bandwidth of
detector is white. The power spectral density of 100 MHz is transmitted to a receiver through a
the noise at the output is cable that has 40 dB loss. If the effective one-
(a) raised-cosine (b) flat sided noise spectral density at the receiver is
(c) parabolic (d) Gaussian 10–20 Watt/Hz, then the signal-to-noise ratio at
GATE - 2003 the receiver is
Ans. (c) : When the detector is operating above the (a) 50 dB (b) 30 dB
threshold then PSD of the noise at the output of ideal (c) 40 dB (d) 60 dB
frequency detector is parabolic. GATE - 2004
58. Let X and Y be two statistically independent Ans. (a) : Given that -
random variables uniformly distributed in the Ps = 1mW = 10–3W
ranges (–1, 1) and (–2, 1) respectively. Let Z = N0 = 10–20 Watt/Hz
X + Y. Then the probability that (Z ≤ –2) is Cable loss = 40 dB
1 Bandwidth (B) = 100 MHz
(a) zero (b)
6 P
1 1 SNR = s
(c) (d) N0B
3 12
GATE – 2003 10−3
=
Ans. (d) : Given Range- 10−20 × 100 × 106
(–1, 1) and (–2, 1) = 109
area under curve (SNR)dB = 90dB
fx(x) = 1 SNR at receiver = 90dB – 40dB
2×k = 1 ⇒ k = 1/2 = 50dB
2×k"= 1/3 61. A random variable X with uniform density in
k" = 1/6 the interval 0 to 1 is quantized as follows:
If 0 ≤ X ≤ 0.3, xq = 0
If 0.3 < X ≤ 1, xq = 0.7
where, xq is the quantized value of X.
The root-mean square value of the quantization
noise is
(a) 0.573 (b) 0.198
(c) 2.205 (d) 0.266
GATE - 2004
Ans. (b) : Mean square value of quantization noise-
Since lie-
= E ( x − x q ) 
2
P(Z ≤ −2) = Area of graph  
∫ ( x − x ) f (x)dx
1 =
1 2
= 1/2 ×1/6 ×1 = 0 q X
12
2
∫ ( x − x ) .1dx
1
59. The distribution function FX(x) of a random = q
variable X is shown in the figure. The 0
0.3 1
∫ ( x − 0 ) dx + ∫ ( x − 0.7 )
probability that X = 1 is =
2 2
dx
0 0.3
0.3
 x2  1
=   + ∫ ( x − 0.7 ) dx
2
 2 0 0.3
= 0.039
Root mean square value of quantization noise
0.039 = 0.198
62. Noise with uniform power spectral density of
(a) zero (b) 0.25 N0W/Hz is passed through a filter H(ω) = 2exp
(c) 0.55 (d) 0.30 (–jωtd) followed by an ideal low pass filter of
GATE - 2004 bandwidth B Hz. The output noise power in
Ans. (d) : Probability that x =1, is - watts is
(a) 2 N0B (b) 4 N0B
P ( x = 1) = Fx (x = 1 ) − Fx (x = 1 )
+ −
(c) 8 N0B (d) 16 N0B
= 0.55 – 0.25 = 0.30 GATE - 2005
Ans. (b) : Given that - (d) f Y ( y ) = 0.25δ ( y + 2.5 ) + 0.25δ ( y − 2.5 )
Uniform power spectral density = N0W|Hz 1
When passed through a filter H(ω) = 2exp (–jωtd) +
10
( u ( y + 2.5) − u ( y − 2.5) )
PSD out =| H(ω) |2 PSDin = 4 N 0 GATE-2006
PN = BW × SN out = 4 N 0 B Ans. (b) : Given function-
63. An output of a communication channel is a 1
f X (X) = ( u(x + 5) − u(x − 5) )
random variable v with the probability density 10
function as shown in the figure. The mean
square value of v is
y is discrete random variable takes the value of 0 and 1

y = 1, 2.5 ≤ x ≤ 2.5
y = 0, | x | ≥ 2.5
P(y = 0) = P(−2.5 ≤ x ≤ 2.5) = 1/ 2
(a) 4 (b) 6 P(y = 1) = P(| x | ≥ 2.5) = 1/ 2
(c) 8 (d) 9 1 1
GATE-2005 f y (y) =δ(y) + δ(y − 1) = 0.5δ(y)+0.5δ(y–1)
2 2
Ans. (c) : According to the figure- 65. If R(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a real,
4
E  X 2  = ∫ x 2 f X (x)dx wide-sense stationary random process, then
0
which of the following is NOT true?
We know that - (a) R(τ) = R(–τ)
x (b) |R(τ)| ≤ R(0)
f (x) = y = mx + c =
8 (c) R(τ) = –R(–τ)
4 (d) The mean square value of the process is R(0)
E  X 2  = ∫ x 2 ( x / 8 ) dx
0 UJVNL AE – 2016
 ( 4) 4 (0) 
4 4 DRDO - 2008
 x4 
=   = 4×8 − 4×8  GATE-2007
 8 × 4  0   Ans. (c) : Auto-correlation function is an even....
( 4) R ( τ ) = −R ( −τ ) is not true (since it has even symmetry)
4
4× 4× 4× 4
= =
4×8 4×8 66. The Probability Density Function (PDF) of a
E  X 2  = 8 random variable X is as shown below.
64. A uniformly distributed random variable X

with probability density function
1
fx ( x ) = ( u ( x + 5 ) − u ( x − 5 ) )
10
Where u(⋅) is the unit step function is passed
through a transformation given in the figure The corresponding Cumulative Distribution
below. The probability density function of the Function (CDF) has the form
transformed random variable Y would be
1
(a) f Y ( y ) =
5
( u ( y + 2.5) − u ( y − 2.5) )
(b) f Y ( y ) = 0.5δ ( y ) + 0.5δ ( y − 1)
(c) f Y ( y ) = 0.25δ ( y + 2.5 ) + 0.25δ
( y − 2.5 ) + 0.5δ ( y ) GATE-2008
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c) : Given that -
Probability density function [fX(X)] = (t+1)u(t+1) – All frequencies is passed through a RC low
2tu(t)+ (t–1)u(t–1) pass filter with 3dB cut-off frequency of fc-
x
Cumulative density function [fX(X)] = ∫
−∞ X
f (X)dx Filter transfer function is given by-
1 1
The integral of increasing ramp signal is increasing H(f ) = =
parabola and integral of decreasing ramp signal is 1 + j2πfRC 1 + j( f / f c )
decreasing parabola. output PSD = |H(f)|2
f c2
input PSD = .K
f + f c2
2
∞
output noise power = ∫ (output PSD)df
−∞
∞
f c2
=K∫ df
f2 +f2
−∞ c
= Kπf c
67. Px(x) = M exp(–2|x|) + N exp(–3|x|) is the
probability density function for the real 69. A white noise process x(t) with two-sided power
random variable X, over the entire x axis. M spectral density 1 × 10–10 W/Hz is input to a
and N are both positive real numbers. The filter whose magnitude squared response is
equation relating M and N is shown below.
2 1
(a) M + N = 1 (b) 2M + N = 1
3 3
(c) M + N = 1 (d) M + N = 3
GATE-2008
Px (x) = M exp(−2 | x |) + N exp(−3 | x |)
M and N → both positive real number the equation M The power of the output process y (t) is given
and N is- by
Px (x) = M exp (−2 | x |) + N exp(−3 | x |) (a) 5 × 10–7 W (b) 1 × 10–6 W
∞ (c) 2 × 10–6 W (d) 1 × 10–5 W
∫ P (x) dx = 1
−∞
x
GATE-2009
Ans. (b) : Given that -
∞
Two-sided power spectral density = 1×10–10W/Hz
∫ {Me + Ne −3|x| }dx = 1
−2|x|
−∞
Power output = Area under |H(f)|2
∞ y(t) = x(t)×10kHz
∫ {Me + Ne −3x }dx =
−2x 1
= 1×10–10 ×10×103
0
2
= 1× 10−6 W
M N
+ = 1/ 2 Frequency on the negative side is just a replica of
2 3
positive frequency.
2M 2N
= + =1 70. If the power spectral density of stationary
2 3 random process is a sinc-squared function of
2N frequency, the shape of its auto-correlation is
M+ =1
3
the equation relating M and N is-
2N
M+ =1
3
68. Noise with double-sided power spectral density
of K over all frequencies is passed through a
RC low pass filter with 3 dB cut-off frequency GATE-2009
of fc. The noise power at the filter output is
Ans. (b) : If the power spectral density of stationary
(a) K (b) Kfc
random process is a sinc-squared function of frequency
(c) Kπfc (d) ∞
the shape of its auto-correlation is triangular function.
GATE-2008
−3
71. A discrete random variable X takes values H(f ) = H1 (f ) H 2 (f ) = ( j2πf ) (1 + e − jπf 10 )
from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown in the
table. A student calculates the mean X as 3.5 | H(f ) |2 = 4π2 f 2  (2 + 2cos(πf ×10−3 ) 
and her teacher calculates the variance of X as
1.5 which of the following statements is true? | H(f ) |2 = 4π2 f 2 (2 + 2 cos(πf + 10−3 )
K 1 2 3 4 5 | H(f ) |2 = 8π2 f 2 (1 + cos(πf ×10 −3 )

P ( X = K ) 0.1 0.2 0.4 0.2 0.1 Sy ( f ) =| H ( f ) |2 Sx ( f )
(a) Both the student and the teacher are right Sy (f ) = Sx (f ) × 8π2f 2 (1 + cos(πf ×10−3 )
(b) Both the student and the teacher are wrong For the given fundamental frequency f0 = 1kHz
(c) The student is wrong but the teacher is right f = (2n +1) f0
(d) The student is right but the teacher is wrong odd multiple of π So, for the odd multiples the
GATE-2009 cos (πf×10–3) value will be –1 and the output spectral
Ans. (b) : density will be zero.
Mean = X = ∑ x i .P(x i ) 73. X(t) is a stationary random process with
autocorrelation function RX(τ) = exp(–πτ2).
= (1×0.1) + (2×0.2)+(3×0.4)+(4×0.2)+(5×0.1) This process is passed through the system
=3 below. The power spectral density of the output
2
X = ∑ x 2 .P(x) process Y(t) is
= (1×0.1)+(4×0.2)+(9×0.4)+(16×0.2)+(25×0.1)
= 10.2
σ 2 = x 2 − (x)2
= 1.2 (a) ( 4π 2
f 2 + 1) exp ( −π f 2 )
Hence both the student and the teacher are wrong.
72. X(t) is a stationary process with the power (b) ( 4π 2
f 2 − 1) exp ( −π f 2 )
spectral density Sx(f) > 0 for all f. The process is
passed through a system shown below.
(c) ( 4π 2
f 2 + 1) exp ( −π f )
(d) ( 4π 2
f 2 − 1) exp ( −π f )
GATE-2011
Auto correlation function-
R x (τ) = exp(−πτ2 )
Let SY(f) be the power spectral density of Y(t).
Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) SY(f) > 0 for all f
(b) SY(f) = 0 for |f| > 1 KHz d
(c) SY(f) = 0 for f = nf0, f0 = 2 kHz, n any integer y(t) = x(t) − x(t)
dt
(d) SY(f) = 0 for f = (2n + 1)f0, f0 = 1 kHz, n any FT → y(f ) = j2πfx(f ) − x(f )
integer
GATE-2010 y(f ) = [ j2πt − 1] x(f )
Ans. (d) : Simplifying the above block- Power spectral density-
Sy(f ) = [ j2πf − 1] Sx (f )
2
Sy(f ) = (4π2 f 2 + 1)Sx (f )

d
h 2 (t) = Sx(f ) = FT [ R x τ]
dt
H 2 (f ) = j2πf Sx (f ) = e −πf
2
∵ Gaussian function 
FT
→ Gaussian function
2
y(t) = x(t) + x(t − 0.5 × 10−3 ) Sy(f ) =  4π2 f 2 + 1 e −πf

−3
y1 (f ) = x(f )(1 + e − j2 πf (0.5×10 ) ) 74. Two independent random variables X and Y are
−3
uniformly distributed in the interval [–1, 1]. The
y1 (f ) = x(f )(1 + e −πf 10 ) probability that max [X, Y] is less than 1/2 is
y1 (s) −3
(a) 3/4 (b) 9/16
H1 (s) = = 1 + e − jπf 10 (c) 1/4 (d) 2/3
x(s) GATE-2012
Ans. (b) : Probability density function of uniformly Given power spectral density (PSD)
distributed variables X and Y is shown as- Sx (ω) |ω=0 = 0
Sx (ω) = | X(ω) |2 = 0
| X(ω) |ω=
2
0= 0
| X(ω) |ω= 0 = 0
76. Let U and V be two independent zero mean
P {max(x, y) < Y2 } 1
Gaussian random variables of variances and
Since x and y are independent 4
P {max (x, y) < Y2 } = P(x < Y2 )P(y < Y2 ) 1
respectively. The probability P(3 V ≥ 2U) is
9
P(X < Y) = Shaded Area = 3 / 4 (a) 4/9 (b) 1/2
Similary for y → P (Y< Y2) =Y3 (c) 2/3 (d) 5/9
P {max(x, y) < Y2 } GATE-2013
Ans. (b) : U and V are two independent zero mean and
9 9 Gaussian-
= 3/ 4×3/ 4 = =
16 16 P(3V ≥ 2V) ⇒ P(3V − 2U ≥ 0)
75. A power spectral density of a real process X(t) Let Z = 3V–2U
for positive frequencies is shown below. The U and V are Gaussian then their linear transformation Z
values of E[X2(t)] and |E[X(t)]|, respectively are is also Gaussian then
E [ Z] = E [3V − 2U ] = 3E [ V ] − 2E [ U ] = 0
P(3V − 2U > 0) → P (Z ≥ 0)
if Z is gaussian and zero mean then its probability for
greater than zero is 0.5
P(3V − 2U ≥ 0)
= 0.5 or 1/ 2
(a) 6000/π, 0 77. Consider two identically zero-mean random
(b) 6400/π, 0 variables U and V. Let the cumulative
distribution functions of U and 2 V be F(x) and
(c) 6400/π , 20/( π 2)
G (x) respectively. Then, for all values of x
(d) 6000/π , 20/(π 2) (a) F ( x ) − G ( x ) ≤ 0
GATE-2012 (b) F ( x ) − G ( x ) ≥ 0
Ans. (b) : The mean square value of a stationary
process equals the total area under the graph of power (c) (F ( x ) − G ( x )).x ≤ 0
spectral density that is- (d) (F ( x ) − G ( x )).x ≥ 0
∞
E  X 2 (t)  = ∫ Sx (f ) df GATE-2013
−∞
1 11×103 Ans. (d) : F(x) = P (X ≤ x)

2π ∫9×10
E  X 2 (t)  = 2 3
Sx (ω) dω and G (x) = P{2X ≤ x}
1 = P{X ≤ x/2}
= [Area under the triangle]+ integration of for positive values of x
π
F(x) – G(x) is always greater than zero and for negative
delta function] values of x f(x) – G(x) is always less than zero which
1  1   mean  F ( x ) − G ( x )  x ≥ 0....... for all value of x.
=  2  × 1×103 × 6  + 400 
π 2  
78. Let X be real-valued random variable with
1
= [ 6000 + 400] E[X] and E[X2] denoting the mean values of X
π and X2, respectively. The relation which always
holds
6400
E  x 2 ( t )  = (a) (E[X])2 > E[X2]
π (b) E[X2] ≥ (E[X]) 2
E[x(t)] is the absolute value of mean of signal x(t) (c) E[X2] = (E[X]) 2
which is also equal to value of- (d) E[X2] > (E[X]) 2
x(ω) at (ω = 0) GATE-2014
Ans. (b) : E(X) denotes the mean value of X- Ans. (c) : Given that ,
E (X2) denotes the mean value of X2 P(x =1) = 0.75
V(X) = E(X 2 ) − (E(X)) 2 ≥ 0 P (x = –1) = 0.25
Variance cannot be negatives- The optimum threshold value is-
E[X ] ≥ (E[X])
2 2
σ 2  P (x 2 ) x12 − x 22 
λ0 =  ℓn + 
79. Let X(t) be a wide sense stationary (WSS) x1 − x 2  P (x1 ) 2σ 2 
random with power spectral density Sx (f). If x1 = 1, x2 = –1, P(x1) = 0.75, P(x2) = 0.25
Y(t) is the process defined as Y(t) = X(2t – 1),
the power spectral density SY(f) is σ 2  0.25 
λ0 = ℓn ⇒λ 0 = –0.55σ 2
1  f  − jπf 2  0.75 
(a) SY (f ) = SX   e
2 2 So,
1 f  λ 0 → Strictly negative value.
(b) SY (f ) = SX   e − jπf / 2
2 2 81. Consider a discrete-time channel Y = X + Z,
where the additive noise Z is signal-dependent.
1 f  In particular, given the transmitted symbol X∈
(c) SY (f ) = SX  
2 2 {–a, +a} at any instant, the noise sample Z is
1 f  chosen independently from a Gaussian
(d) SY (f ) = SX   e j2 πf distribution with mean βX and unit variance.
2 2 Assume a threshold detector with zero
GATE-2014 threshold at the receiver.
Ans. (c): Given, When, β = 0, the BER was found to be
y(t) = x(2t–1) Q(a) = 1 × 10–8
∞
Shifting operation does not change the power spectral  1 
∫ e − u /2du,andfor v > 1,useQ ( v ) ≈ e − v /2 
2 2
density but scaling operation change-  Q(v) =

 2π v 
y(t) = x(2t–1)
When, β = –0.3, the BER is closest to
x ( t ) → R x (z) ← → Sx (f ) (a) 10–7 (b) 10–6
1 f  (c) 10–4 (d) 10–2
x(2t) → R x (2z) ← → Sx   GATE-2014
2 2
1 f 
X(2t − 1) → R x (2 z) ←→ Sx   Discrete-time channel y = x +z
2 2 When, β = 0
So, Q (a) = 1 ×10–8
1 f  z is Gaussian RV with mean β X
y(t) → Sy (f ) = Sx  
2 2 x∈ (– a, + a)
When- β = 0
80. Consider a communication scheme where the
binary values signal X satisfies P{X = 1} = 0.75 E(Y) = E(X) + E(Z)
and P{X = –1} = 0.25. The received signal E(Y) = E(X) = a
Y = X + Z, where Z is Gaussian random BER = Q (a) = 1× 10 −8
variable with zero mean and variance σ2. The
1 ∞ − v2 / 2
∫
2
received signal Y is fed to the threshold Q(v) = e du ≃ e − v / 2
detector. The output of the threshold detector 2π v
∧ 2
X is Q(a) = 1× 10−8 ≃ e − a / 2
∧ +1, Y > τ a=6
X=
 −1 Y ≤ τ When β = − 0.3 mean = 6 × ( – 0.3)
To achieve a minimum probability of error = – 1.8
∧ So,
P {X ≠ X} , the threshold τ should be
E(Y) = E[X] + E(Z) = 6 − 1.8
(a) strictly positive = 4.2
(b) zero – a2 / 2
(c) strictly negative BER = Q (4. 2) ≃ e
(d) strictly positive, zero, or strictly negative ≅ 0.0001
depending on the nonzero value of σ2
≅10−4
GATE-2014
{Xn }n=∞−∞ is an independent and identically Because-
n=
82.
1 1
distributed (i.i.d.) random process Xn equally [ EX(n)] = 1×
− 1× = 0
2 2
likely to be + 1 or –1. {Yn }n= −∞ is another ∴ R (0) = 1.25R (0) + 0.5R (−1) + 0.5R (1) = 1.25
n= ∞
y x x x
random process obtained as Yn = Xn + 0.5 Xn–1. Similarly-
The autocorrelation function of Ry(1) = 0.5
{Yn }n= −∞ denoted by Ry[k], is
n= ∞
Ry (–1) =0.5
Ry(K)
83. A zero mean white Gaussian noise having

N
power spectral density 0 is passed through an
2
LTI filter whose impulse response h(t) is shown
in the figure. The variance of the filtered noise
at t = 4 is
GATE-2015
Ans. (b) : 3 2 3 2
(a) A N0 (b) A N0
Ry(k) = Ry (n, n + k) 2 4
= E[Y [n] Y[n + k].] 1
Given that - (c) A 2 N 0 (d) A 2 N 0
2
1 GATE-2015
P [ x(n) = 1] =
2 Ans. (a) : Given that -
1 N0
P [ x(n) = −1] = Power spectral density
2 2
y[n] = X[n] +0.5X(n) Let h(t) be the input white noise with zero mean and
∴ R y (K) = E [ X(n) + 0.5x(n − 1)][ (x(n + K) + 0.5x[n + K − 1] N0
power spectral density.
E [ X[n].x(n + K)] + 0.5E[X(n)X(n + K − 1)] 2
= Variance of a process = Rx(0)
+ 0.5E[X[n − 1]x[n + K]] Variance (output) = Ry(0)
+ 0.25E [[X(n–1) × x[n+K–1]] ∵ It is a zero mean-
= Rx(K) +0.5Rx(K–1)+0.5Rx (K+1)+0.25Rx(K) ∴ R y ( τ ) = h ( τ ) * h ( −τ ) * R N ( τ )
= 1.25 Rx(K) + 0.5Rx(K–1)+ 0.5Rx(R+1) h(τ) → filter response
= 1.25Rx(K)+0.5Rx(K–1) +0.5Rx(K+1)
Now- RN(τ)→ input noise
if K =0 N
RN (τ) = 0 δ(τ)
1 1 2
R x (0) = E  X 2 (n)  = 1× + 1× = 1
2 2 N0
∴ RY (τ) = [h(τ)×h (–τ)] ×
K≠0 2
Rx(k) = E [X(n)X (n–K)] N0 ∞
= E[X(n)]E[X(n –K)] =0 R y ( τ) = ∫ h(τ)h(τ + z) dτ

2 −∞

N0 ∞ Ans. (b) : y(τ) = x(t) − x(τ − T0 )
∴ R y (0) =
2 ∫
−∞
h 2 (τ)dτ
The autocorrelation of output y can be given as-
N0 N R y (τ) = E[y(t)y(t + τ)]
( energy ) = 0 ( 3A 2 )
2 2 = E (X ( t + τ ) − X ( t + τ − T0 ))(X ( t ) − X ( t − T0 )) 
3
= N0 A2 E  X ( t + τ ) X ( t ) − X ( t ) X ( t + τ − T0 ) − X ( t + τ ) X ( t − T0 ) 
2
+ X ( t + τ − T0 ) X ( t − T0 )]
84. An antenna pointing in a certain direction has
a noise temperature of 50 K. The ambient Since, X(t) is a wide sense stationary process,
temperature is 290 K. The antenna is connected R y ( τ ) = R x ( τ ) − R x ( τ − T0 ) − R x ( τ + T0 ) + R x ( τ )
to a pre-amplifier that has a noise figure of 2 = 2R x ( τ ) − R x ( τ − T0 ) − R x ( τ + T0 )
dB and an available gain of 40 dB over an
effective bandwidth of 12 MHz. The effective Hence, option (b) is correct.
input noise temperature Te for the amplifier 86. Consider a white Gaussian noise process N(t)
and the noise power Pa0 at the output of the with two-sided power spectral density SN(f) =
preamplifier, respectively, are 0.5 W/Hz as input to a filter with impulse
2
(a) Te = 169.36 K and Pa0 = 3.37 × 10–10 W response 0.5e-t /2 (where t is in seconds)
resulting in output Y(t). The power in Y(t) in
(b) Te = 170.8 K and Pa0 = 4.56 × 10–10 W
watts is
(c) Te = 182.5 K and Pa0 = 3.85 × 10–10 W (a) 0.11 (b) 0.22
(d) Te = 160.62 K and Pa0 = 4.6 × 10–10 W (c) 0.33 (d) 0.44
GATE-2016 GATE-2018
Ans. (a) : Given that - Ans. (b) : Given that -
TA = 50ºK SN(f) = 0.5W/Hz
NF = 2dB N0
= 0.5W / Hz
G = 40dB 2
10 log10 NF = 2dB Impulse response-
2
log10 NF = 0.2 h(t) = 0.5e-t /2
NF = 100.2 ∞
Noise Temperature = (F–1) T0 Py = ∫ SN (t) | H(f ) |2 df
−∞
= (100.2–1) 290 ∞
= 0.50∫ | H(f ) |2 df
= 169.36K −∞
Noise Power input = KTB 1 ∞

= ∫ | h(t) |2dt
= 1.38 × 10 –23 (169.36 + 50) × (12 × 106 ) 2 −∞
1 2
Noise power at- h(t) = e − t / 2
output (N0) = (3.632×10–14) ×104 2
2
= 3.63 × 10−10 watt 1 ∞  1 − t2 / 2  1 ∞ 2
Py = ∫ 
2 −∞  2
e 

dt = ∫ e − t dt
8 −∞
85. A wide sense stationary random process X(t)
passes through the LTI system shown in the = π / 8 ≃ 0.22W
figure. If the autocorrelation function of X(t) is 87. X is a random variable with variance σ x 2 . The
Rx(τ), then the autocorrelation function RY(τ) variance of (X + a) where a is a constant is
of the output Y(t) is equal to
( σx + a )
2
(a) (b) σ x 2
(c) (σ x
2
+ a2 ) (d) (σ x
2
− a2 )
Ans. (b) : Properties of variance-
Var ( X ) = E  X 2  −  E ( X ) 
2
(a) 2RX (τ) + RX (τ – T0) + RX (τ + T0) Var ( X + b ) = Var ( X )

(b) 2RX (τ) – RX (τ – T0) – RX (τ + T0) Var ( aX ) = a 2 Var ( X )
(c) 2RX (τ) + 2RX (τ –2T0)
X is a random variable with variance σ 2x . The variance
(d) 2RX (τ) – 2RX (τ –2T0)
GATE-2016 of (X+a) is σ x .
2

88. ----------technique is used for blurring and for Ans. (d) : Noise figure - It is equal to the ratio of input
noise reduction SNR to output SNR –
(a) Smoothing filter (b) Sharpening filter S /N
(c) Mask filter (d) Linear filter Noise figure = i i
So / N o
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (a) : Smoothing filter technique is used for Si / N i
(Noise figure) dB = 10log10
blurring and for noise reduction. So / N o
89. Thermal noise power is above expression. The Noise figure depend on the
(a) Proportional to B (b) Proportional to B output and input power.
(c) Proportional to 1/B2 (d) Proportional to B2 Hence, the correct option (d).
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II 93. The noise figure of a device is 2. If input SNR is
37 dB, what would be output SNR?
Ans. (a) : Formula of thermal noise power is given by
(a) 18.5 dB (b) 34 dB
PN = K.T.B.
(c) 40 dB (d) 74 dB
PN ∝ B
90. Match the following :
Ans. (b) : Given that -
A Gaussian 1 Calls on a telephone NF = 2, (SNR)i/p = 37dB
distribution channel
(SNR)o/p dB = 10 log10 (NF)
B Rayleigh 2 Random number (SNR)o/p dB = 10 log10 (2)
distribution (SNR)o/p dB = 3dB
C Poisson 3 Thermal noise
distribution (NF)dB = (SNR)i / p  dB −  (SNR)o / p  dB
D Uniform 4 Fading channel in (SNR)o / p  = 37dB − 3dB = 34dB
distribution wireless dB
communication 94. What is the limit of Eb/N0, below which reliable
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 communication is not possible?
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (a) –10 dB (b) –1.6 dB
(c) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 (c) 0 dB (d) 1.6 dB
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 Ans. (b) : For reliable communication limit of Eb/N0 is
Ans. (d) : Gaussian distribution → Thermal Noise Eb
= ℓ n (2) = 0.693
Rayleigh distribution → Fading channel in wireless No
communication
Eb
Poisson distribution → Calls on a telephone channel (dB) = −1.6dB
Uniform distribution → Random number No
91. If each stage had gain of 10 dB and noise figure Below –1.6 dB errors are very high.
of 10dB, then the overall noise figure of two- 95. 1 mW in dBm is:
stage cascade amplifier will be (a) 0 dBm (b) –30 dBm
(a) 10 (b) 1.09 (c) 30 dBm (d) 1 dBm
(c) 1.0 (d) 10.9 ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 Ans. (a) : Given that -
Ans. (d) : Overall noise figure F of the system is Power in watt = 1 mW
F −1 P 10−3
F = F1 + 2 P (dBm) = 10 log10 = 10 log
G1 10
10−3 10−3
F1 = F2 = 10dB = 10 in absolute units P (dBm) = 0
G1 = 10 dB = 10 in absolute units
96. Noise figure is defined as
10 − 1
So, F = 10 + S / Ni S / N0
10 (a) F = i (b) F = 0
S0 / N 0 Si / N i
9
= 10 + S0 / N 0 Si / Ni
10 (c) F = (d) F =
= 10 + 0.9 Si / N i S0 / N 0
= 10.9 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
92. Noise figure of an amplifier depends on Si / N i
(a) Bandwidth (b) Output power Ans. (a) : Noise figure (F) =
(c) Power input (d) None of the above S0 / N 0
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 Reciprocal of figure of merit is known as noise figure.
97. Consider a low pass random process with a 102. Decibel is a logarithmic unit denoting
white a noise power spectral density (a) noise level (b) current
Sx(ω) = N/2 where –2πB ≤ ω ≤ 2πB (c) voltage (d) power ratio
= 0 elsewhere Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
The Auto-correlation function Rx(τ) is Ans. (a) : Decibel is a logarithmic unit denoting noise
(a) 2NBsinc(2πBτ) (b) πNBsinc(2πBτ) level .
(c) NBsinc(2πBτ) (d) None of the above 103. Let N(t) denote white Gaussian noise. Its power
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 spectral density has the form
( x −µ )2
Ans. (b) : The Auto-correlation function, 1 No
∞ (a) e 2 σ2
(b) δ ( τ)
2πσ 2
2
∫ S (ω) e
jωt
R x (τ) = x dω
−∞ sin ( πτ ) No
2 πB (c) for − ∞ < ω < ∞
(d)
N jωt πt 2
= ∫ e dω UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
−2 πB
2
Ans. (d) : White Gaussian noise occupies the complete
= 2πBN sin C(2πBτ) frequency band with power spectral density given as
98. The mean-square shot-noise current in any N0/2 as shown below
device is given by
(a) I 2n = 2q Idc B (b) I 2n = q Idc B
(c) I 2n = 2q 2 Idc B (d) I 2n = 2q Idc B2 Since it occupies the complete frequency band from –∞
TNPSC AE - 2018 to + ∞.
Ans. (a) :Shot noise current in electronic circuit consist 104. A random process is called ergodic process if-
of random fluctuation of electric current. It is given by (a) Ensemble average is half of the time average.
( Ish ) = σsh .B B = Receiver electrical bandwidth.
2 2 (b) Time average is half of the ensemble average.
(c) Time average is equal to ensemble average.
σsh2 = 2qD dc (d) Time average is more than ensemble average.
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
( Dsh2 ) = 2q Idc B Ans. (c) : A random process is said to be ergodic if the
99. Noise is a/an time average of the process tend to the appropriate
ensemble average.
(a) Deterministic signal (b) Periodic signal
(c) Random signal (d) Exponential signal 105. Which one of the following properties is
exhibited by the autocorrelation function of a
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 complex valued signal?
Ans. (c) : Noise is unwanted signal which interferes (a) Commutative property
with the original message signal and corrupts the (b) Distributive property
parameters of the message signal. Noise is a Random (c) Conjugate property
signal. (d) Associative property
100. Noise in FM receiver is reduced by UPSC JWM-2016
(a) amplifier (b) AFC Ans. (c) : Conjugate property is exhibited by the
(c) Limiter (d) detector autocorrelation function of the complex valued signal.
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 106. Receiver noise temperature is proportional to
Ans. (c) : FM receiver is an electronic device that noise power spectral density through the relation
receives radio waves and converts the information N
carried by them to a usable form. Noise in FM receiver (a) T = N.KB (b) T =
is reduced by Limiter. KB
101. Noise figure of a two stage amplifier depends NB NK
(c) T = (d) T =
on the gain of K B
(a) first stage TNPSC AE-2014
(b) second stage Ans. (b) : The noise produced from thermal agitation is
(c) both the stages directly proportional to temperature, thermal noise can
(d) none of the stages be expressed in degree as well as watts or dBm.
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I (Temperature) T = N
Ans. (c) : For two stage amplifier- KB
N = Noise power (watts)
A V = A V1 × A V 2
K = Boltzmann's constant
Hence depend on both amplifier. B = Bandwidth (Hz)
125 Ans. (c) : Shot noise current is an electron device is
107. The maximum number of channel, C = ; proportional to the square root of the bandwidth.
2t e
where te is the memory cycle time. The (In)rms = 2Idc qB
expression for C is related to _______ memory 112. Ratio between SNR and E /N of a signal is as
b o
switch
follows
(a) simple (b) linear
(a) Rb (b) 2 Rb W
(c) non linear (d) digital
(c) Rb/W (d) 2 Rb/W
TNPSC AE-2014
Ans. (a) : The maximum number of channel;
Ans. (c) : • Eb/N0 is defined as normalization signal to
125 noise ratio, or signal to noise per bit.
C= ;
2t e • Eb/N0 is equal to the SNR divided by the "gross" link
where, te is the memory cycle time. spectral efficiency in (bit/s)Hz.
C = simple memory switch S/ N R
= b
108. In any system, excessive bandwidth is avoided Eb / N0 W
because :
Where,
(a) Noise power produced in the system is
proportional to bandwidth W - Channel Bandwidth
(b) It results in lower stability Rb - Channel data rate
(c) It results in slower speed of response 113. Noise figure of a communication system (Teq is
(d) None of these equivalent noise temperature)
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II (a) Varies linearly with Teq
Ans. (a) : In any system, excessive bandwidth is (b) Varies with 1/ Teq
avoided because noise power produced in the system is (c) Varies linearly with Teq2
proportional to bandwidth. (d) does not vary with Teq
109. The auto-correlation function is Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
(a) An odd function in t0 Ans. (a) : Noise figure of a communication system
(b) An even function in t0 varies linearly with Teq.
(c) Exponential function in t0 114. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise
(d) None of these immunity by
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I (a) Boosting the base frequencies
Ans. (b) : Auto co-relation function is an even function (b) Amplifying the higher audio frequencies
in t0 Rxx (–t0) = Rxx (t0). (c) Pre-amplifying the whole audio band
110. The auto-correlation function of an ergodic (d) Converting PM to FM
random process is given by : RPCS Lect.-2011
1
T Ans. (b) : The pre-emphasis circuit only amplifies the
(a) lim t →∞ = ∫ x ( t ) x ( t − τ ) dt high-frequency component without changing the low-
2T − T
frequency amplitude and by doing this it provides an
T
2 extra noise immunity to the FM signal and the SNR of
(b) lim t →∞ = ∫ x ( t ) x ( t − τ ) dt the FM signal gets improved.
T0
T 115. A zero-mean white Gaussian noise is passed
1
x ( t ) x ( t − τ ) dt
2T ∫0
(c) lim t →∞ = through an ideal low pass filter of bandwidth
10 KHz. The output is the uniformly sampled
2
T with sampling period
(d) lim t →∞ = ∫ x ( t ) x ( t − τ ) dt ts = 0.03 m/sec
T −T
The samples so obtained would be
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I (a) Correlated
Ans. (a) : The A.C.F. of ergodic random process is (b) Statically independent
1 T
x ( t ) × x ( t − τ ) dt (c) Uncorrelated
t →∞ 2T ∫− T
given by lim
(d) Orthogonal
111. The shot noise current in an electron device is Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
proportional to Ans. (b) : White noise contains all frequency
(a) B2 (b) B components, but he phase relationship of the
(c) B (d) 1/B components is random. When white noise is sampled,
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I the samples are uncorrelated. If white noise is Gaussian,
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 the samples are statistically independent.
116. The line code that has zero dc component for 119. The auto-correlation function of the sinusoidal
pulse transmission of random binary data is signal x ( t ) = Acos ( ω 0t + φ ) is:
(a) Non- return to zero (NRZ)
(b) Return to zero (RZ) (a) R ( τ ) = A 2 × cos ( ω0 τ )
(c) Alternate mark inversion (AMI) A2
(d) None of these (b) R ( τ ) =
2 × cos ( ω0 τ )
A2
Ans. (c) : Alternate mark inversion (AMI) code has a (c) R ( τ ) =
zero dc component for pulse transmission of random 4 × cos ( 2ω0 τ )
binary data.
A2
Hence, the correct option (c). (d) R ( τ ) =
117. Two continuous random variables X and Y are 2 × cosh ( ω0 τ )
2 2
related as Y=2X+3. Let σ X and σ Y denote the UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
variances of X and Y, respectively. The Ans. (b) : The autocorrelation function of the
variances are related as sinusoidal signal.
(a) σ 2Y = 5σ 2X (b) σ 2Y = 2σ 2X A2
x(t) = A cos(ω t + φ) is R(τ) =
2 × cos ( ω0 τ )
0
(c) σ 2Y = 25σ 2X (d) σ 2Y = 4σ 2X
GATE-2021 120. If the covariance of two random variable X and
Ans. (d) : Given that - Y is µ XY, their correlation coefficient ρ XY is:
random variable is
Var[Y] = E[Y2] – E2[Y]  µ 
(a) ℓn µ XY (b) ℓn  XY 
Y = E ( 2x + 3)  – ( E [ 2x + 3] )
2 2
 σX σY 
 
σX σ Y µ XY
(c) (d)
= E  4X 2 + 12X + 9 – ( E [ 2X + 3] )
2
µ XY σX σ Y
= 4E  X 2  + 12E [ X ] + 9 – E [ 2X ] + E [3] UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
2
µ XY
= 4E  X 2  + 12E [ X ] + 9 – ( 2E [ X ] + 3) Ans. (d) :
2
σX σ Y
= 4E  x 2  + 12E [ X ] + 9 – ( 4E 2 [ X ] + 9 + 12E [ X ]) 121. If the auto-correlation function of a random
process X ( t ) is R ( τ ) its power spectral density
= 4E  X 2  + 12E [ X ] + 9 – 4E 2 [ X ] – 9 – 12E [ X ]
is:
= 4E  X 2  – 4E 2 [ X ]
(a) S ( f ) = ℓn R ( τ )
= 4  E  X 2  – E 2 [ X ] (b) S ( f ) = exp ( R ( τ ) )
= 4 [ Variance of X ] (c) S ( f ) = R ( τ ) * R ( τ )
Variance of Y = 4 times ∞
(d) S ( f ) = ∫ R ( τ ) exp {− ( j × 2π × f × τ )} dτ
σ 2y = 4σ 2x −∞
118. If the autocorrelation function of the sinusoidal UPPCL AE-05.11.2019

signal x ( t ) = Acos ( ω 0t + φ ) is R ( τ ) , then R(0) Ans (d) : The power spectral density (PSD) of a
random process is defined as the Fourier transform of
is given by (in terms of power spectral density
its auto -correlation function.
of R ( τ ) = S ( f ) . So it is given as-
∞
(a) R ( 0 ) = ∫ S ( f ) df
∞
–∞
Sx ( f ) = ∫ R x ( τ ) ⋅ e − j2 πfτ ⋅ dt
−∞
∞
(b) R ( 0 ) = ∫ exp {s ( f )} df 122. Two random variable X and Y are totally
–∞
uncorrelated if ρ XY :
(c) R ( 0 ) = S ( f ) | f = ∞
(b) ∞
(a) 1.0
∞
(d) R ( 0 ) = ∫ ℓn S ( f ) df (c) Negative
(d) 0
−∞
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
∞
Ans. (d) : Two random variable X and Y are totally
Ans. (a) : R ( 0 ) = ∫ S ( f ) df uncorrelated if ρ XY = 0 .
–∞

123. The noise figure of an antenna is expressed as: 128. Two random variables u and v are distributed
2 according to
T  T 
(a) 1 −  e  (b) 1 +  e  fu,v ( u, v ) = ( C/3 ) eu − v ( for u ≥ 0, v ≥ 0 ) ,and
 To   To  = 0 (otherwise)
T  Te  where C, a constant, is equal to
(c) e (d) 1 +  
To T
 o (a) 3 (b) 2
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 (c) 1 (d) 1/2
Ans. (d) : A noise factor (F) and noise figure (NF) is a BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001
figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal to Ans. (a) : Given that -
noise ratio deteriorates as a signal passes through a u and v are two random variable -
circuit or series of circuit. C
Noise figure is given as- fu,v(u,v) = e− u − v
3
 Te  Area under probability density function is unity-
NF = 1 +   +∞ +∞
 T0  ∫ ∫ f u,v (u, v)du dv = 1
–∞ −∞
124. The auto-correlation function of a band limited +∞ +∞ C −u−v

(B) white noise process is given by. ∫ ∫
0 0 3
e du dv = 1
(a) R ( τ ) = B × N 0 ℓn ( 2Bτ ) C +∞ − u ∞
(b) R ( τ ) = B × N 0 × τ × sin ( 2B ) 3 ∫0
e du ∫ e− v dv = 1
0
C
(c) R ( τ ) = B × N 0 log ( 2Bτ )  −1( e − u )∞0   −1( e − v )∞0  = 1
3
(d) R ( τ ) = B × N 0 sin c ( 2Bτ ) C
[ −1× −1][ −1× −1] = 1
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 3
Ans. (d) : R ( τ ) = B × N 0 sin c ( 2Bτ ) C
=1
125. Equivalent temperature is 300K, find noise 3
figure consider room temperature 290K. C=3
(a) 1.03 (b) 2.03 129. The two random variables X and Y are
(c) 3.03 (d) 0.03 uncorrelated if an only if their covariance is
BEL-2015 (a) 0 (b) 1
Ans. (b) : We know that - (c) –1 (d) infinity
To = Teq(F – 1) ESE-2021
300 = 290(F – 1) Ans. (a) : The two random variables X and Y are
290 F = 300 + 290 uncorrelated if an only if their covariance is 0.
590 130. Consider the following statements for baseband
F= transmission model:
290 1. Channel signal-to-noise ratio is defined as
F = 2.03 the ratio of the average power of the
126. The auto-correlation of signal x(t) = Vsin ωt is modulated signal to the average power of
given as : noise in the message bandwidth, both
1 measured at the receiver input.
(a) V 2 cos ωτ (b) V 2 cos ωτ 2. Channel signal-to-noise ratio is defined as
2 the ratio of the average power of the
(c) V 2 cos 2 ωτ (d) 2V 2 cos 2 ωτ modulated signal to the average power of
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-II noise in the message bandwidth, both
1 2 measured at the receiver output.
Ans. (a) : V cos ωτ ( SNR )o
2 3. Figure of merit = , where o stands
127. What do we call the relation between auto- ( SNR )c
correlation and power spectral density? for output and c stands for channel.
(a) Einstein Theorem
(b) Weiner Theorem ( SNR )c
4. Figure of merit = , where o stands
(c) Weiner - Khintchin Theorem ( SNR )o
(d) No relation exist for output and c stands for channel.
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018 Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (c) : The relation between auto-correlation and (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
power spectral density is called Weiner-Khintchin (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Theorem. ESE-2021
Ans. (a) : 134. The nth moment of a continuous random
Channel signal-to-noise ratio is defined as the ratio of variable X is defined by:
the average power of the modulated signal to
the average power of noise in the message
n ∞ n
(
(a) E X = ∫0 x (x)dx )
bandwidth, both measured at the receiver input. n 0
(
n
)
(b) E X = ∫−∞ x f x (x)dx
(SNR )o
Figure of merit =
(SNR )c
, where o stands for output n ∞
(
n
)
(c) E X = ∫−∞ x f x (x)dx
and c stands for channel.
131. If E denotes the expectation operator, then
n
(
∞ n −1
(d) E X = ∫0 x f x (x)dx)
E [X – E(X)]3 of a random variable X is TNTRB AE– 2017
(a) E  X  − E [ X ]
3 3 n ∞
( )
n
Ans. (c) : E X = ∫−∞ x f x (x)dx
(b) E  X  + 2E [ X ] − 3E [ X ] E  X 
3 3 2 135. Industrial noise exists in a frequency range of
(a) 10-700 MHz (b) 1-800 MHz
(c) 3E  X 3  − E 3 [ X ] (c) 1-600 MHz (d) 20-50 MHz
(d) 2E  X 3  + E 3 [ X ] − 3E [ X ] E  X 2 
Ans. (c) : Industrial noise exists in a frequency range of
DRDO-2008 (1-600) MHz.
Ans. (b) : E  X − E ( X ) 
3 136. Which of the following is not true?
(a) Random noise power is proportional to the
= E  X 3 − 3X 2 E ( X ) + 3E 2 ( X ) X − E3 ( X )  bandwidth, over which it is measured.
(b) Thermal agitation noise is also known as shot
= E  X 3  − 3E ( X ) E ( X 2 ) + 3E 2 ( X ) E ( X ) − E 3 ( X ) noise.
(c) Shot noise is caused by random variations of
= E  X 3  − 3E [ X ] E  X 2  + 2E 3 [ X ] electrons and holes at output electrode.
132. Consider the following statements regarding (d) Thermal noise will be present whenever
signals: molecules are heated above absolute zero
temperature.
1. Deterministic signal is a signal about which
there is no uncertainty with respect to its UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
value at any time. Ans. (b) : Shot noise or poisson noise is a type of noise
2. Each signal within the ensemble has a which can be modeled by a poisson process.
certain probability of occurrence and the 137. Only harmonics of the same frequency interact
ensemble of signals is referred to as a to produce:
random process. (a) Average power (b) Total power
3. EEG signal is an example of random (c) dc power (d) ac power
signal. UPMRC AM - 2020
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (a) : Only identical frequencies or harmonics with
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only the same frequencies interact to produce average power.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 138. In practice, power spectral density is used to:
ESE-2022 (a) quantify harmonics generated by engines
Ans. (d) : Deterministic Signal - A signal is said to be (b) quantify harmonics generated by pumps and
deterministic. If there is no uncertainty with respect to gears
its value at any instant of time. (c) quantify sinusoidal data
Each signal within the ensemble has a certain (d) quantify random vibration fatique
probability of occurrence and the ensemble of signals
is referred to as a random process. Ans. (d) : Power spectral densities (PSD) is used to
EEG Signal is an example of random signal. quantity random vibration fatique.
139. An energy signal has S(f) = 19. What will be the
133. For any discrete distribution standard
energy density spectrum?
deviation is:
(a) 361 (b) 38
(a) Equal to mean deviation from mean (c) 81 (d) 19
(b) Square of the mean deviation from mean DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
(c) Not less than mean deviation from mean 2
(d) Less than mean deviation from mean Ans. (a) : Energy density spectrum = S(f )
TNTRB AE– 2017 2
= 19
Ans. (c) : For any discrete distribution standard
deviation is not less than mean deviation from mean. = 361

140. The signal power and noise power are denoted (c) Both signal energy and signal wave shape
by S and N respectively. If the signal power (d) Independent of both signal energy and signal
increases to 3S and the noise power reduces by wave shape
half, the ratio of old SNR to the new SNR is LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
given by _____. UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
(a) 6 (b) 2/3 Ans. (a) : The probability of error depends only upon
(c) 1.5 (d) 1/6 the signal energy and not its shape or any other
parameter.
Ans. (d) : 144. For a symmetrical distribution the coefficient
Averagesignal power of skewness is
SNR =
Average noise power (a) +1 (b) –1
(SNR) = S/N (c) +3 (d) zero
3S 6S
( SNR )new = = Ans. (d) : If the distribution is symmetric, then the
N/2 N mean is equal to median and the distribution has zero
(SNR )old S / N skewness.
=
( SNR )new 6S / N 145. A binary communication system receives
equally likely symbols x1 (t) and x2 (t) plus
(SNR )old 1 Additive White Gaussian Noise at the input of
=
( SNR )new 6 matched detector. If the noise power spectral
density (N0) is 10–11 W/Hz, compute Eb/N0 (in
141. In case of which of the following, lowest noise dB). Assume system characteristics impedance
can be expected? as 1 Ω
(a) Metal film resistors
(b) Carbon composition resistors
(c) Carbon film resistors
(d) Tin oxide resistors
Ans. (a) : Lowest noise can be expected in metal film
resistors. Metal film resistors have much better
temperature stability than their carbon equivalents,
lower noise and are generally better for high frequency.
ηW
142. If the power spectral density is , and the
2 Hz
auto correlation function is defined by
η ∞
R(τ)= ∫ e jωτ df
2 −∞
The integral on the right represents the Fourier
transform of (a) 3 dB (b) 4 dB
(a) Delta function (b) Step function (c) 7 dB (d) 10 dB
(c) Ramp function (d) Sinusoidal function ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
IES-2013 Ans.(c): Given that-
ηW N0 = 10–11 W/Hz
Ans. (a) : Given power spectral density =
2 Hz x1 (t) → (for binary 1)
η
∞ x2 (t) or –x1(t) = (for binary 0)
R τ = ∫ e jωτ df It shows a BPSK system
2 −∞
So Energy per bit for x1(t) = Energy per bit for x2(t)
η +∞
R ( τ ) →
fourier transform
E b = ∫ x12 (t) dt
2 −∞
η 20
E b = ∫ x12 (t).dt
R ( τ) = δ ( τ) 0
2 10 20
E b = ∫ (1mV ) dt + ∫ ( 2mV ) .dt
2 2
( )
R τ = Delta function 0 10
E b = (10 )
−3 2
× (10µs) + 4 × (10−3 ) × 10µs
2
143. In a matched filter, probability of error
depends on:
(a) Signal energy E b = 10−6 × 10 −6 × 10 + 4 ×10 −6 × 10 ×10 −6
(b) Signal wave shape Eb = 50×10–12W
 Eb   50 × 10−12  151. The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is
  = 10 log10  −11  (a) Gaussian (b) Uniform
 N 0 dB  10  (c) Sine function (d) Impulse function
 Eb  Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper-I
  = 10log10 5 BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
 N 0 dB
Ans. (a) : The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse
 Eb  is Gaussian because when area under Gaussian pulse
  = 10 × 0.6989 and central ordinate of the pulse is unity. It is said to be
 N 0 dB normalized Gaussian pulse. Such pulse is its own
 Eb  Fourier transform.
  ≃ 7dB 152. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable,
 N 0 dB then P(X < 0) is
146. Probability density function defines (a) 0 (b) 0.25
(a) Amplitudes of random noise (c) 0.5 (d) 1
(b) Density of signal DRDO-2008
(c) Probability of error 0 1
(d) Constellation diagram Ans. (c) : P ( X ≤ 0 ) = ∫ Px ( x ) dx =
−∞ 2
Ans. (a) : Probability density function defines
amplitudes of random noise.
147. The noise which assumes great importance at
high frequencies is
(a) flicker noise (b) transit time noise
(c) Johnson noise (d) shot noise 153. S/N ratio will be least at
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (a) Input (b) Output
Ans. (b) :The noise which assume great importance at (c) Filter (d) Rejector
high frequency is known as transit time noise. UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
148. Power spectral density of white noise ..............
with frequency. Ans. (b) : S/N ratio will be least at output.
(a) is constant (b) decreases 154. Noise figure for an ideal receiver is ______ .
(c) increases (d) none of above (a) 0 (b) 0.1
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (c) 1 (d) 10
Ans. (a) : Power spectral density (PSD) of white Noise UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
is constant with frequency. Ans. (c) : Noise figure for an ideal receiver is 1.
149. In a receiver, the maximum contribution to 155. If x and y are two random signals with zero
noise is made by mean Gaussian distribution having identical
(a) power supply (b) power amplifier standard deviation, the phase angle between
(c) mixer stage (d) oscillator them is
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (a) Zero mean Gaussian distributed
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II (b) Uniform between –π and π
Ans. (b) : In a receiver maximum contribution to noise (c) Uniform between –π/2 and π/2
is made by power amplifier. (d) Non-zero mean Gaussian distributed
150. Find overall noise figure, if two blocks are ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
cascaded having Noise Figure (F) = 10 dB, Gain Ans. (b) : Two normal curve with different means µ
1
= 10dB _____.
and µ2 but the same standard deviation.
(a) 10.9 (b) 11.1
(c) 10 (d) 20
NPCIL-2015
Two blocks are cascaded having Noise Figure.
F1 = F2 = 10 dB
(G) Gain = 10 dB but for the same mean and deviation the phase angle
F2 − 1 varies uniformly between – π to π.
F = F1 +
G1
10 − 1
F = 10 +
10
F = 10 + 0.9 F = 10.9

156. A random variable X has X = 0 & σ 2X = 1 . We know that variance is
Form a new random variable Y = 2X + 1. The σ 2 = E[x 2 ] − (E[x])2 ......(i)
values of Y & σ 2y are : E[x] = ∫ x P(x) dx
(a) 0 & 1 (b) 1 & 2 ∆
1
(c) 1 & 4 (d) None of these = ∫ x×
2
dx
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 −
∆ ∆
2
Ans. (c) : Given that ∆
E[X] = X = 0 .....(i) 1  x2  2
=  
∆ 2 
−∆
σ 2x = E  X 2  −  E ( X ) 
2
2
1 ∆
1 = E  X 2  − 0 =  x 2  ∆2
2∆ −
2
E  X 2  = 1 .....(ii) 1  ∆2 ∆2 
= −  = 0 ............... (i)
Given, 2π  4 4 
Y = 2X +1 E[x 2 ] = ∫ x 2 p (x) dx
Y = E [ Y ] = E [ 2X + 1]
∆
1
E [ Y ] = 2E ( X ) + E (1) = ∫ 2
× x 2 dx
∆ ∆
Y = 2 (0) + 1
−
2
1 ∆2 2
∆ ∫− ∆ 2
Y =1 = x dx
σ 2y = E ( Y 2 ) − E ( Y )
2
∆
2 2 1  x3  2
= E [(2X+1) ] –1 =  
∆ 3 
= E  4X 2 + 1 + 4X  − 1 −∆
2
1 ∆
= 4E  X  + E (1) + E [ X ].4 − 1
2
=  x 3  ∆2
3∆ −
2
= 4 (1) + 1 + 4 ( 0 ) − 1 1  ∆3 ∆3 
+  =
σ =4 2
y 3∆  8 8 
157. Find the variance of the distribution shown in 2∆ 3
the figure. =
3∆ × 8
∆2
= ......................... (ii)
12
From equation (i) & (ii)
σ 2 = E[x 2 ] − ( E[x])
2
∆2
=−0
12
∆2
=
∆2 ∆2 12
(a) (b) 158. A PAM source generates four symbols 3V, 1V,
2 4
–1V and –3V with probability of p(3) = 0.2,
∆2 ∆ 2
p(1)=0.3, p(–1)=0.3, p(–3) =0.2 respectively.
(c) (d)
8 12 The variance for this source will be
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 (a) 4.2 V (b) 3.2 V
Ans.(d): (c) 3.6 V (d) 4.6 V
Ans.(a): Given that,
X is represent to generated symbols
X −3 −1 1 3
P(x) 0.2 0.3 0.3 0.2
We know that variance is
σ 2x = E[x 2 ] − [E(x)]2

E[x] = ∑ x i p (x) 1 1 1
my = 2  + + 
= –3 × 0.2 + (–1)×0.3 +1 × 0.3+3×0.2 3 3 3
=0 my = 2 × 1
E [x2] = ∑x 2
i p i (x) my = 2
= ( −3) × 0.2 + ( −1) × 0.3 + 12 × 0.3 + 32 × 0.2 Variance,
2 2
∞
= 4.2 σ 2y = ∫ | H(f ) |
2
Sx (f )df
Then, −∞
σ 2x = E[x 2 ] −  E ( x ) 
2 ∞
= σ 2x ∫ | H(f ) |2 df
= 4.2 – 0 −∞
= 4.2 ∞
159. The covariance function Cx (τ) of a stationary

= σ 2x ∑ | h[n] |
n =−∞
2
stochastic process x(t) is said to be positive 1 1 1

definite. This means that = 3 + + 
9 9 9
(a) C x (τ) ≥ 0 for all τ
∞ = 3× 3
9
(b) ∫C
–∞
x (τ)dτ ≥ 0
=1
∞ 161. If x and y are two independent Gaussian
(c)
–∞
∫C x (τ) exp(– jωτ)dτ ≥ 0 random variable each with average value zero
and with variance σ2, joint density function is
(d) C x (0) ≥ 0
defined as :
(a) f(x, y) = f (x)/f(y)
Ans.(a): Given that,
(b) f(x, y) = f (x) – f(y)
The covariance function Cx(τ)
(c) f (x, y) = f(x) + f(y)
So, from positive definite property of covariance
function. (d) f (x, y) = f(x) . f(y)
C x ( τ ) ≥ 0 for all τ Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
160. A uniformly distributed random signal x[n]
Ans. (d) : If x & y are independent Gaussian random
with mean mx = 2 and variance σ 2x = 3, is
variable each with average value zero & variance then
passed through a 3-point moving-average filter joint density function is defined as f(x,y) = f(x). f(y).
having an impulse response
162. The variance of a random variable X is σ 2x then
{ } { }
h [n ] = 1 , 1 , 1 . What will be the mean
3 3 3 the variance of –kX (Where k is positive
and variance of output? constant) is :
(a) my=2, σ 2y = 1 (b) my=2, σ 2y = 3 (a) σ 2x (b) –k σ 2x
(c) my=1, σ 2y = 1 (d) my=3, σ 2y = 3 (c) kσ 2x (d) k2 σ 2x
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
Ans. (a) : Given, Ans. (d) : If variance of random variable of (X) is
mean of input mx = 2 σ 2x then variance of
variance of input σ 2x = 3
− kX = V ar ( − kX ) = k 2 Var ( X )
1 1 1 
h[n] =  , ,  = k 2 σ 2x
3 3 3
Assuming system to be linear time invariant 163. Probability density function of thermal noise is-
mean at output (a) Poisson (b) Binomial
∞ (c) Gaussian (d) Bessel
my = mx ∑ h[n]
h =−∞ RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM

Ans. (c) : Probability density function of thermal noise Ans. (b) : The noise produced in a microwave tube due
is Gaussian. to random nature of emission and electron flow is called
Gaussian noise is a statistical noise which based upon shot noise. Shot noise is avoidable only if we reduce all
normal distribution. It is also called Gaussian current to zero.
distribution. Noise is produce by connecting Gaussian 167. A correlational receiver consist of
random function into image function. It is also defined (a) A multiplier and an integrator
by electronic noise because it obtained in mainly (b) An integrator only
amplifier and detector. (c) A multiplier only
(d) An adder and an integrator
164. Probability density function of random
UJVNL AE-2016
variable x is :
∞
Ans. (a) : A correlational receiver consist of a
(a) ∫ f x ( x ) dx = 1 multiplier and an integrator. It is uses a single template
−∞ and shift successive samples of the input sequence past
df x the template.
(b) ( x ) = Fx ( x )
dx 168. The ______ function gives a quantitative
measure of the closeners or similarity between
(c) 0 ≤ ∫ ( x ) ≤ 1
x
samples of a speech signal as a function of their
∞
time separation
(d) ∫ ( x ) = ∫ Fx ( x ) dx
x
−∞
(a) Probability density
(b) Power spectral density
(c) Auto correlation
Ans. (a) : Probability density function is given by
(d) All the above
∞
TNPSC AE - 2018
∫ f ( x ) dx = 1
x
−∞ Ans. (c) : The auto-correlation function gives a
–x quantitative measure of the closeness or similarly
165. Find P(x>1) if PDF f(x)=e (probability and
between samples of a speech signal as a function of
distribution function )
their time separation.
(a) 1 (b) 0
169. A 8 kHz communication channel has an SNR of
(c) 0.618 (d) 0.368
30 dB. If the channel bandwidth is doubled,
AAI-2015 keeping the signal power constant, the SNR for
Ans. (d) : Probability density function- the modified channel will be
∞
Fx(x) = P ( x > 1) = ∫ e − x .dx (a) 27 dB (b) 30 dB
1
(c) 33 dB (d) 60 dB
∞
=  −e− x  RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
1
ESE-2000
= − e −∞ − e −1  = e–1
1
Ans. (a) : SNR ∝
= 0.368 BW
166. The noise produced in a microwave tube due if BW is doubled then SNR is reduced to half
to random nature of emission and electron 1
(SNR )1 = (SNR)
flow is called 2
(a) Partition noise 1
10 log10 (SNR)1 = 10 log (SNR )
(b) Shot noise 2
(c) Johanson noise = 10log10 (SNR) –10log102
(d) Shanon noise = 30 dB – 3dB
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II = 27 dB

Increase power-
(ii) Analog Communication System Pt − Pt 0
= 1 × 100
1. In a superheterodyne receiver, the IF is 455 Pt 0
kHz, if it is tuned to 1200 kHz, the image
3 / 2PC − PC P ( 3 / 2 − 1)
frequency will be = × 100 = C × 100 = 50%
(a) 1655 kHz (b) 745 kHz PC PC
(c) 2110 kHz (d) 910 kHz The transmitted power increased by 50%
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II 3. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves
RRB JE-31.08.2019, 10:AM-12PM (a) Compression of the modulating signal
TNPSC AE-2018 (b) Expansion of the modulating signal
Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA)-04.07.2017 (c) Amplification of lower frequency
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III components of the modulating signal
ISRO Scientist Engg.2011 (d) Amplification of higher frequency
TNPSC AE-2008 components of the modulating signal
IES - 1999 UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
GATE - 1993 Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
TNPSC AE- 2014, 2013
Ans. (c) : We know that-
IES - 1996
f si = fs + 2IF Ans. (d) : Pre-emphasis-
Where, • It is the process of boosting high frequency of an
fsi – image frequency audio signal, such that the signal to noise ratio is
fs – signal frequency greater than one.
IF – Intermediate frequency • Pre-emphasis is done in the transmitter before
fsi =1200+2×455 = 1200 +910 frequency modulation.
4. A carrier wave is phase modulated with
f si = 2110 kHz frequency deviation of 20 kHz by a single tone
2. The modulation index of an AM wave is frequency of 2 kHz. If the single tone frequency
is increased to 2 kHz, assuming that phase
changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
deviation remains unchanged, bandwidth of the
(a) Unchanged (b) Halved PM signal is
(c) Increased by 50% (d) Quadrupled (a) 20 kHz (b) 32 kHz
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II (c) 22 kHz (d) 44 kHz
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III BPSC Asst. Prof. 12.04.2022
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 APPSC Poly.Lect.15.03.2020
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III IES – 2015
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 GATE- 2005
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 Ans. (d) : Given-
IES - 2003 Frequency deviation (∆f) = 20kHz
BEL-2015 single tone frequency (fm) = 2kHz
Ans. (c) : Given, Bandwidth = 2 (∆f + fm )
Modulation index of an AM wave → 0 to 1 = 2 (20+2)
= 44 KHz
 µ2 
PT = PC 1 +  5. A message signal m(t) = sin c(t) + sin C(t)
 2 
modulates the carrier c(t) = A cos 2π fct. The
at, µ=0 bandwidth of the modulated signal is-
 0 1 1
Pt 0 = PC 1 +  (a) (b) f c
 2 4 2
(c) 2fc (d) 2
Pt 0 = PC UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
at, µ=1 Ans. (c) : m(t) = sin c(t) + sin c(t)
c(t) = A cos 2πfct
 (1)2 
Pt1 = PC 1 +  m(t) = sin{A cos2π fct}+ sin c(t)
 2  2πf m t = 2πf c t
 
fm = fc
3
Pt1 = PC   Bandwidth = 2fm
2 = 2fc
6. Consider a message as m(t) = 3 cos (100πt)+ 2 Ans. (c) Given that,
cos(200πt). If this signal undergoes frequency fc = 1MHz = 1000kHz
modulation with frequency sensitivity constant fm = 3kHz
20 Hz/Volts, then the bandwidth of the
modulated signal is : Upper side band = fc + fm
(a) 300 Hz (b) 100 Hz = 1000kHz +3kHz
(c) 400 Hz (d) 200 Hz = 1003 kHz
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 10. The modulation index of AM is given by (where
Ans. (c) : m(t) = 3cos (100πt ) + 2cos ( 200πt ) 'Vc' and 'Vm' are the maximum value of
amplitudes of carrier and message signal
K f = 20Hz / Volts, f m1 = 50Hz, f m2 = 100Hz respectively)
(Bandwidth)m = ? Vc V
= 2(β+1)fm (a) (b) m
Vm Vc
∆f
β= ( Vc + Vm ) ( Vc − Vm )
fm (c) (d)
2 2
∆f = K f A m1 + K f A m2 UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
= 20 × 3 + 20 × 2 = 100 Vm
∆f 100 Ans. (b) : Modulation index of AM =
β= = =1 Vc
f m 100
11. The expression for total modulation index, in
BW = 2(β+1)fm = 2 (1 + 1) × 100 = 400Hz case of modulation by several sine waves is
7. The maximum transmission efficiency of a given by
sinusoidal AM signal is- (where µ1, µ2 and µ3 and so on are the
(a) 21.8% (b) 33.3% modulation indexes of sine waves respectively)
(c) 66.6% (d) 84.6% (a) µ = µ1 + µ 2 + µ3 + ...
UPPCL AE - 30.03.2022 (b) µ = µ12 + µ 22 + µ32 + ...
Ans. (b) : For maximum
modulating index (m) = 1 (c) µ = µ13 + µ32 + µ33 + ...
m2 1 (d) µ = µ12 + µ 22 + µ32 + ...
Power efficiency (η) = =
2+m 2
2 +1 UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
1 Ans. (b) : Total modulation index, in case of
= = 33.33%
3 modulation by several sine waves is given by
8. Select correct answer-
µ t = µ12 + µ 22 + µ32 + ...
A 400W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75
percent. Calculate the total power in the 12. A frequency modulated signal can be
modulated wave. demodulated by-
(a) 510 W (b) 512 W (a) passing through an integrator followed by
(c) 512.5 W (d) 500 W envelop detection.
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II (b) Multiplying with carrier frequency followed
Ans. (c) : Given, by low pass filtering.
PC = 400W (c) passing through a differentiator followed by
m = 75% = 0.75 envelop detection.
 m2   ( 0.75 )2  (d) passing through a voltage controller oscillator
PT = PC 1 +  = 400 1 +  (VCO).
 2   2 
  UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
( 2.5625) Ans. (c) : A frequency modulated signal can be
= 400 = 200 ×2.5625 demodulated by passing through a differentiator
2
followed by envelop detection.
PT = 512.5W
13. How much percentage power will be saved
9. If a 1 MHz carrier wave is frequency when the carrier and one of the sidebands are
modulated by 1 kHz audio signal, the third suppressed in an AM wave modulated to a
upper side band will be produced at depth of 50% ?
(a) 1001 kHz (b) 999 kHz (a) 83.3% (b) 94.4%
(c) 1003 kHz (d) 997 kHz (c) 47.2% (d) None of the above
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Modulating index (µ) = 50% = 0.5 (c) Its BW is greater than that of AM
4+µ 2
Power saving = ×100% UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
2(2 + µ 2 ) Ans. (b) : In FM, the modulation index is always
4 + (0.5) 2 greater than 1. The bandwidth of an FM signal is given
= × 100% by BW = 2 (β+1) fm.
2(2 + (0.5)2
18. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM
= 94.44%
wave is suppressed, the percentage power
14. The image channel selectivity of super saving will be-
heterodyne receiver depends upon- (a) 50 (b) 66.66
(a) IF amplifiers only (c) 100 (d) 150
(b) RF and IF amplifiers only UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
(c) Pre-selector, RF and IF amplifiers Ans. (b) : µ = 1
(d) Pre-selector and RF amplifiers only if carrier is suppressed then
2
Ans. (d) : The image channel selectivity of super saving of power = × 100 %
heterodyne receiver depends upon pro-selector and RF 2 + µ2
amplifier only. 2 2
15. Find the correct match between group 1 and = × 100 = × 100 %
2 + (1)2 3
group 2.
Group 1 = 66.66%
19. Frequency modulated signal with single tone
P. {1 + km ( t )}A sin ( ωc t )
modulation has frequency deviation of 20 kHz
Q. km(t)A sin(ωct) and bandwidth of 60 kHz. The frequency of the
R. A sin {ωc t + km ( t )} modulating signal will be-
 t
 (c) 20 kHz (d) 30 kHz
S. A sin ωc t + k ∫ m ( t ) dt  UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
 –∞  Ans. (b) : ∆f = 20kHz
Group 2
Bandwidth = 60 kHz
W. Phase modulation
X. Frequency modulation Bandwidth = 2(∆f + f m )
Y. Amplitude modulation 60 = 2 (20 +fm)
Z. DSB-SC modulation fm = 30–20
(a) P-Z, Q-Y, R-X, S-W (b) P-W, Q-X, R-Y, S-Z f m = 10kHz
(c) P-X, Q-W, R-Z, S-Y (d) P-Y, Q-Z, R-W, S-X
BPSC Asst. Prof.-12.04.2022 20. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two
sine waves with modulation indices of 0.3 and
GATE-2005
0.4. The total modulation index will be-
Ans. (d) : (a) 1
Group –1 Group – 2 (b) can’t be calculated unless the phase relations
P {1+km (t)}A sin (ωct) Y Amplitude are known are known
modulation (c) 0.5
Q km(t) A sin (ωct) Z DSB-SC (d) 0.7
Modulation UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
R A sin {ωct + km (t)} W Phase Modulation Ans. (c) : Modulation index µ1 = 0.3
S A sin X Frequency µ2 = 0.4
 t Modulation Total modulation index (µ) = µ12 + µ 22
ωc t + k ∫ m(t)dt
 −∞
= ( 0.3) + (0.4) 2
2
16. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will

µ = 0.5
therefore also have poor-
(a) blocking (b) double-spotting 21. The antenna current of an AM broadcast
transmitter, modulated to a depth of 40% by
(c) diversity reception (d) sensitivity an audio sine wave is 11A. It increases to 12A
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II as a result of simultaneous modulation by
Ans. (a) : A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will another audio sine wave. What is the
therefore also have poor blocking. modulation index due to second wave?
17. Choose the incorrect statement regarding FM- (a) 0.643 (b) 0.757
(a) It has large number of sidebands. (c) 0.413 (d) 0.826
(b) Its modulation index is always less than 1. UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : µ1 = 40% = 0.4 Ans. (b) :
It = 11A DPSK – Non coherent Detector
AM – Rectifier Detector
 µ  2
It = I c  1 +  FM – Ratio Detector
 2  DSB-SC – Coherent Detector
 ( 0.4 )2  24. Consider a message signal whose spectrum is
11 = Ic 1 +  given by
 2 
 f
11 = Ic (1+0.08) M(f) = 1 – ,for f ≤ 104 and zero elsewhere.
104
11 The message signal amplitude modulates a
Ic = = 10.18Amp
1.08 carrier fc = 1 MHz. The bandwidth of the
If It = 12A then modulation index– modulated signal is :
(a) 20 KHz (b) 1.01 MHz
 µ2 
It = I c  1 +  (c) 1.02 MHz (d) 10 KHz
 2  UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
 µ2  Ans. (a) :
12 = 10.18  1 + 
 2   |f |
1 − ;for | f |≤ 104
M(f) =  104
µ 2
12
1+ = 0; elsewhere
2 10.18
BW = 2× fm
µ2 fm = 104 = 10 kHz
= 0.1781
2 BW = 2×10kHz
µ 2 = 0.3562 BW = 20kHz
The BW of amplitude modulated signal is 20 kHz.
µ = 0.597 ≃ 0.643
25. What will be the power in the modulated signal
22. Consider a signal given by x(t) = cos(2π100t) + in case of DSB-SC, if Pm denotes power in the
message signal and Ac denotes carrier
3sin ( 2π100t ) , where carrier frequency is 100 amplitude?
Hz. The pre-envelope of the signal is : (a) Ac2/Pm (b) 2Ac2/Pm
2
π (c) Ac Pm/2 (d) Ac2Pm
(a) x pe ( t ) = 2e
–j
3
LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
 π
j 
Ans. (c) : The power in the modulated signal in case of
(b) x pe ( t ) = 2e  3  A2 P
DSB–SC is c m
 π
j 2 π100t –  2
(c) x pe ( t ) = 2e  3
26. Which of the following is NOT true for
 π
Hamming codes?
j 2 π100t + 
(d) x pe ( t ) = 2e  3 (a) The parity check matrix for these codes has
a very simple structure
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 (b) Hamming codes are a class of linear block
Ans. (c) : The pre-envelope of the signal is codes.
 π
j 2 π100t – 
(c) Hamming codes are high-rate codes with
x pe ( t ) = 2e  3 relatively small minimum distance (minimum
. distance =3)
23. Match the following List-I which List-II and (d) Hamming codes have no error-correcting
select the correct answer- capability.
List-I List-II LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
(A) DPSK (1) Ratio Detector Ans. (d) : Hamming code is a set of error correction
(B) AM (2) Non Coherent code
Detector (i) The parity check metric for these codes has very
(C) FM (3) Coherent Detector simple structure.
(D) DSB-SC (4) Rectifier Detector (ii) Hamming codes are a class of linear block codes.
Code- (iii) Hamming codes are high rate codes with relatively
A B C D small minimum distance.
(a) 1 2 3 4 27. Calculate the frequency of 7th harmonics if the
(b) 2 4 1 3 frequency of fundamental harmonics is 30 Hz.
(c) 4 3 2 1 (a) 210 Hz (b) 150 Hz
(d) 3 2 4 1 (c) 60 Hz (d) 30 Hz
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
Ans. (a) : n = 7 32. In a low-level AM system, the amplifier which
Fundamental frequency = 30Hz follow the modulated stage must be the
7th harmonics frequency = n× fundamental frequency (a) Linear device (b) Harmonic device
= 7 ×30 (c) Class-C amplifier (d) Non-linear device
= 210Hz Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
28. A PLL can be used to demodulate Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
(a) PAM signals (b) PCM signals Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III
(c) FM signals (d) DSB – SC signals IES - 1996, 2001
UPMRC AM-2020 Ans. (a) : In a low-level AM system, the amplifier
RRB JE 01.09.2019, 3PM-5PM which follow the modulated stage must be the linear
Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-II device.
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-II 33. In phase modulation, the frequency deviation is
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 (a) Independent of the modulating signal
Nagaland PSC CTSE-2015, Paper-II frequency
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 (b) Inversely proportional to the modulating
TNPSC AE-2013 signal frequency
GATE-1995 (c) Directly proportional to the modulating signal
Ans. (c) : Phase-locked loop (PLL) can be used to frequency
demodulate FM (frequency modulation) signal in Radio (d) Inversely proportional to the square root of
transmitters. the modulating frequency.
29. Cross correlation function provides: RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
(a) Information about the structure of only one Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
signal Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
(b) Measure of dissimilarities between two signals IES - 1999
(c) Measure of similarities between two signals Ans. (c) : General expression of phase modulation -
(d) Information about the behavior of only one Spm ( t ) = A c cos  2πf c t + k p A m cos 2πf m t 
signal in time domain
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 Instantaneous phase φi ( t ) = 2πf c t + k p m ( t )
Ans. (c) : In signal processing, cross-correlation is a d d
measure of similarity of two series as a function of the Instantaneous frequency φi ( t ) = 2πf c + k p m ( t )
displacement of one relative to other. dt dt
d
30. Which method from the following is used in ωi = ωc + k p m ( t )
demodulating FM wave? dt
(a) Distribution discrimination method Frequency deviation will be -
(b) Amplitude discrimination method d
(c) Delay discrimination method ωi − ωc = k p m ( t )
(d) Phase discrimination method dt
DMRC AM S&T-2020 The frequency deviation ( ωi − ωc ) is directly
Ans. (d) : FM demodulator using phase discrimination proportional to frequency of modulating signal.
method 34. An FM signal with modulation index mf is
passed through a frequency trippler. The
modulation index of the output signal will be
(a) mf (b) 3 mf
(c) 9 mf (d) 27 mf
Nagaland PSC-2018, Diploma Paper-II
NPCIL-2015
KVS TGT (WE)-2014
Phase Discrimination method Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III
31. Which of the following analog modulation IES – 1998
scheme requires the minimum transmitted Ans. (b) : In frequency modulation-
power and minimum channel band-width? ∆f
(a) VSB (b) DSB-SC Modulation index (mf) =
fm
(c) SSB (d) AM
Where-
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma 2017, Paper-II ∆f = frequency deviation
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer -2014 fm = message signal frequency
GATE-2005 When fm signal passed through frequency Tripler. New
Ans. (c) : SSB (Single Side Band) analog modulation frequency deviation will be
scheme requires the minimum transmitted power and
minimum channel band-width. ( ∆f ) ' = 3∆f
modulation index of output signal- 38. The maximum power efficiency of an AM
( ∆f ) ' modulator is
(m f ) ' = (a) 25% (b) 50%
fm
(c) 33% (d) 100%
3∆ f RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI-05.11.2019
(m f ) ' =
fm Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(m f ) ' = 3m f Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
35. Which one of the following statements is GATE-1992
correct? Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
In a ratio detector, Ans. (b) : For a sinusoidal message signal the
(a) linearity is worse than that of a phase maximum power efficiency of an AM is 33.33%.
discriminator For a non-sinusoidal message signal the maximum
(b) stabilization is provided against signal efficiency = 50%.
strength variations 39. An AM signal is detected using an envelope
(c) the output is twice of that obtainable from a detector. The carrier frequency and
similar phase discriminator
modulating signal frequency are 12 MHz and 2
(d) the circuit is same as that in a discriminator, kHz respectively. An appropriate value for the
except that the diode connections are reversed
time constant of the envelope detector is
RPSC Vice Principal ITI – 2016 (a) 500 µsec (b) 20 µsec
Nagaland PSC CTSE-2015, Paper-II (c) 0.2 µsec (d) 1 µsec
IES - 2004 GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
Ans. (a) : In a ratio detector, Linearity is worse than RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
that of a phase discriminator. BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014
36. Which one of the following is an indirect way of GATE-2004
generating FM? Ans. (a) : Given that,
(a) Reactance FET modulator
Carrier frequency (fc) = 12MHz
(b) Varactor diode modulator
Modulating signal frequency (fm) = 2kHz
(c) Armstrong modulator
(d) Reactance tube modulator 1 1
< RC ≤
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2018, Paper-III fc fm
Nagaland PSC 2018, Diploma Paper-II
1 1
Nagaland PSC CTSE-2015, Paper-II < RC ≤
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II 12MHz 2kHz
IES - 2008 1 1
Ans. (c) : Armstrong modulator is an indirect way of < RC ≤
12 × 106 2 ×103
generating FM signal.
Reactance tube/varactor diode method is direct method 0.083µs < RC ≤ 500µs
to generate FM. In this case, output frequency of VCO Thus approximate value is 500µsec.
is directly controlled by instantaneous value of
baseband. 40. The carrier of an AM signal obtained by
37. The positive peak of an AM wave is 16V and sinusoidal modulation to a depth of modulation
the minimum value is 4V. Assuming single tone equal to 1, carries.
Modulation, the modulation index is (a) 33.33% power (b) 50% power
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.25 (c) 66.66% power (d) 100% power
(c) 0.36 (d) 4 TNPSC AE- 2019
UJVNL AE-2016 KVS TGT (WE) 2018
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III TN TRB AE-2017
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012, Paper-III
Ans. (c) : In amplitude modulation the information
Vmax = 16V changes the amplitude of the carrier wave without
Vmin = 4V changing its frequency or phase.
µ =?
We know that,  2   2 
PC = PT  2 
= PT   = 0.6666 PT
Vmax − Vmin 16 − 4  2+µ   2 +1 
µ= , µ=
Vmax + Vmin 16 + 4 0.666PT
PC = × 100
12 PT
µ= µ = 0.6
20 = 66.66% Power
41. The signal cosωc t + 0.5cosωm t sin ωc t is 45. A 360 W carrier is simultaneously modulated
(a) FM only (b) AM only by two audio waves with modulation
(c) both AM and FM (d) neither AM nor FM percentage of 55 and 65 respectively. The
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II effective modulation index and the total power
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 radiated are
GATE-2008 (a) 0.85 and 490.5 W (b) 0.65 and 490.5 W
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III (c) 0.85 and 450.5 W (d) 0.65 and 450.5 W
Ans. (a) : S(t) = cos ωct + 0.5 cos ωmt sin ωct IES - 2019
cosωct & sinωct both are carrier component. Ans. (a) : Given,
both carrier component are in phase quadrature (90º)
µ1 = 0.55
so, this signal is a narrow band FM (NBFM) signal.
42. In FM signal, the power µ 2 = 0.65
(a) Increases as the modulation index increases Effective modulation index-
(b) Reduces as the modulation index increases µ emi = µ12 + µ 22
(c) Increases as the modulation index decreases
(d) Remains constant when the modulation index = (0.55) 2 + (0.65) 2
increases
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-II = 0.3025 + 0.4225
UPPCL AE - 16.11.2013 = 0.7240
Ans. (d) : In FM signal, the power remains constant µ emi = 0.85
when the modulation index increases. The total power radiated-
43. For a PM modulator with a deviation
 µ2 
sensitivity K = 2.5 rad/V and a modulating Pt = PC  1 + emi 
signal vm(t) = 2cos(2π2000t), the peak  2 
phase deviation m will be
(a) 1.25 rad (b) 2.5 rad  ( 0.85 )2 
Pt = 360 1 + 
(c) 5.0 rad (d) 7.5 rad  2 
IES - 2019  
Ans. (c) : Given, Pt = 490.5W
K = 2.5
46. An AM wave with modulation index 0.8 has
Vm(t) = 2 cos ( 2π 2000t ) V
total sideband power of 4.85 kW. The carrier
K p m(t) = KVm (t) = 2.5 × 2 cos(2π(2000t) rad power and the total power radiated will be
K p m(t) = 5 cos ( 2π × 2000t ) rad nearly.
(a) 12.2 kW and 20 kW (b) 15.2 kW and 20 kW
The phase deviation( ∆φ ) = |Max 5 cos (2π 2000t)
(c) 12.2 kW and 25 kW (d) 15.2 kW and 25 kW
|rad
IES - 2019
∆φ = 5 rad
Ans. (b) : Given,
44. An amplitude modulated amplifier has a radio PSB = 4.85 kW
frequency output of 50 W at 100% modulation.
µ = 0.8
The internal loss in the modulator is 10 W. The
unmodulated carrier power is µ2
(a) 40 W (b) 50 W P SB = PC
2
(c) 60 W (d) 80 W
( 0.8 )
2
IES – 2019, 2017 4.85 = PC
 µ2  2
Ans. (a) : PT = PC  1 +  ( 0.64 )
 2  4.85 = PC
PC = Carrier Power 2
µ = Modulation Index PC = 15.2kW
PT = 50 +10 = 60W Now-
µ = 100% = 1 Total power radiated will be-
 1 Pt = PC +PSB
60 = PC 1 + 
 2 Pt = (15.2 +4.85)kW = 20.05 kW
PC = 40W ≃ 20kW

47. The phase detector circuit in the phase locked Ans. (b) : Min signal frequency fs (min) = 550kHz
loop demodulators recognizes Max signal frequency fs (max) = 1600 kHz
(a) Voltage changes between the input and VCO IF = 455kHz
signals f osallation (min) = fs(min) + IF
(b) frequency changes between the input and = (550 +455)kHz
VCO signals
= 1005kHz
(c) impedance changes between the input and
fosallation (max) = fs (max) + IF
VCO signals
(d) resistance changes between the input and = (1600 +455) kHz
VCO signals = 2055 kHz
IES - 2018 Frequency Ratio-
Ans. (b) : The phase detector circuit in the phase locked f osallation (max) 2055
loop demodulators recognizes frequency changes = =
f osallation ( min) 1005
between the input and VCO signals.
48. A signal m(t) = 10cos 2π100t is frequency = 2.045
modulated. The resulting FM signal is 51. An FM broadcasting radio station transmits
x(t) = 20cos{2π106t + 15sin(2π100t)}. The FM signals of frequency 100 MHz with a power of
bandwidth is nearly 10 kW. The bandwidth of the modulation
(a) 3.2 kHz (b) 9.6 kHz signal is from 100 Hz to 1.5 kHz. If the
maximum deviation set by FCC, (δ), is 75 kHz,
(c) 32 kHz (d) 100 kHz
the range of the modulation index is:
IES - 2018
(a) 100 to 750 (b) 100 to 250
Ans. (a) : Given, signal– (c) 50 to 750 (d) 50 to 250
m(t) = 10 cos (2π100t) IES - 2017
fm = 100Hz
Ans. (c) : Given,
x(t) = 20 cos[2π.106 t + 15sin(2π.100t)] Transmits signal frequency = 100 MHz
β = 15 power = 10kW
According to Carson rule- Bandwidth of the modulation signal is 100Hz to 1.5kHz
(B.W)FM = (β +1). 2fm = (15+1) 2×100 deviation = 75kHz, fm = 100Hz
( BW )FM = 3.2KHz β=
∆f 75 × 103
= = 750
fm 100
49. The minimum value of modulation index β for
and FM system required to produce a for f m = 1.5kHz
noticeable improvement in SNR over a
75 × 103
comparable AM system with µ = 1 is β=
(a) 0.61 (b) 0.52 1.5 × 103
(c) 0.47 (d) 0.38 β = 50
IES - 2018
So, the range of the modulation index is 50 to 750.
Ans. (c) : Figure of merit FM = 3/2β2 52. The figure shows the block diagram of a
 µ2  frequency discriminator. What does the second
Figure of merit AM =  2 block represent?
2 + µ 
Given,
SNR ( FM ) > SNR ( AM )
(a) Envelope detector (b) Low-pass filter
3 2 1 (c) Ratio detector (d) Band-reject filter
β >
2 1+ 2 IES - 2017
2 ×1 2 Ans. (a) : Second block represent Envelope detector
β2 > , β> detect the demodulated signal and block the DC term
3× 3 3 and generate the message signal.
β > 0.47 53. In communication systems, modulation is the
process of
50. A receiver tunes signals from 550 kHz to 1600 (a) Improving frequency stability of transmitter
kHz with an IF of 455 kHz. The frequency
(b) Combining signal and radio frequency waves
tuning range ratio for the oscillator section of
the receiver is nearly. (c) Generating constant frequency radio waves
(a) 2.90 (b) 2.05 (d) Reducing distortion in RF waves
(c) 1.65 (d) 1.30 Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
IES - 2017 IES - 2016
Ans. (b) : In communication system, modulation is the Ans. (c) : Given-
process of transmitting low frequency message, signal Carrier swing (2∆f ) = 100 kHz
by combining with high frequency carrier signal.
Frequency deviation ( ∆f ) =50kHz
54. A carrier waveform 10 cos ωct and modulating
signal 3 cos ωmt have fc = 100 kHz and fm = 4 Modulating frequency (fm) = 8kHz
kHz. Given that sensitivity of FM is 4 kHz/V ∆f
and FM spectra beyond J6 is negligible, what Modulation index ( β ) =
fm
are the channel bandwidth requirements for
AM and FM, respectively? 50kHz
β=
(a) 12 kHz and 48 kHz (b) 8 kHz and 48 kHz 8 kHz
(c) 12 kHz and 24 kHz (d) 8 kHz and 24 kHz
β = 6.25
IES - 2016
Ans. (b) : Given, 57. In the process of modulation
fc = 100kHz (a) Some characteristics of a high frequency sine
fm = 4kHz wave are varied in accordance with the
instantaneous value of a low frequency signal
(b) Parameters of carrier wave are held constant
(c) For proper and efficient radiation, the
receiving antennas should have heights
comparable to half-wavelength of the signal
received
(d) This signal is converted first within the range
of 10 Hz to 20 Hz
IES - 2016
6 Side band on the positive side of frequency or 8
Ans. (a) : modulation is a process of varying one or
sidebands of a negative side of frequency.
more properties of carrier signal (High frequency
BW = (β + 1)2f m signal) with a modulating signal (Low frequency
BW = 6 × 2 × 4KHz = 48KHz signal).
the AM bandwidth is given- Some characteristics of a high frequency sine wave are
BW = 2fm varied in accordance with the instantaneous value of a
BW = 2×4KHz low frequency signal.
BW = 8KHz 58. The Vestigial Side Band (VSB) modulation is
preferred in TV systems because
55. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the (1) It reduces the bandwidth requirement to half
modulation index is halved, and the modulating (2) It avoids phase distortion at low frequencies
voltage remains constant. The modulation Which of the above statements are correct?
system is
1. Amplitude modulation
2. Phase modulation
IES - 2016
3. Frequency modulation
Ans. (a) : The vestigial side band (VSB) modulation is
Select the correct answer from the codes given
preferred in TV systems because it is reduces the
below:
bandwidth requirement to half.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 59. The selectivity of tuned radio frequency (TRF)
receiver is poor because
IES - 2016
1. Q-factor requirement of tuned circuits in
RF amplifier is not fixed
Kf Am 2. Q required for upper side of short wave is
Ans. (c) : In FM, ↓ β = , When the modulation
fm ↑ 2000
frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved 3. Q-factor is zero
and the modulating voltage remains constant the Which of the above statements are correct?
modulation system is frequency modulation. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
56. What is the modulation index of an FM signal (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
having a carrier swing of 100 kHz and IES - 2015
modulating frequency of 8 kHz? Ans. (b) : The Bandwidth of tuned circuits in the RF
(a) 4.75 (b) 5.50 amplifier is variable, therefore the Q-factor of the RF-
(c) 6.25 (d) 7.50 Amplifier is not fixed.
IES – 2016, 2014 the Q-required for upper side of short wave is 2000.
60. For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 20 kHz and 64. For an angle modulated signal,
the highest frequency component present is 800 x(t) = 6 cos [2π × 106 t + 2 sin (8000πt) + 4 cos
kHz. The carrier frequency used for this AM (8000πt)] V.
signal is The average power of x(t) is
(a) 710 kHz (b) 705 kHz (a) 10 W (b) 18 W (c) 20 W (d) 28 W
(c) 700 kHz (d) 790 kHz IES - 2015
IES - 2015 Ans. (b) : Given equation-
Ans. (d) : Bandwidth = 20kHz
x(t) = 6 cos  2π ×106 t + 2 sin (8000πt) + cos(8000πt)  V
f c + f m = 800 kHz
We known that- AC = 6
BW = 2fm =20kHz The Average power will be-
( 6 ) 36
2
f m = 10kHz Pavg = = = 18
So, 2 2
fc = 800kHz–fm Pavg = 18W
fc = (800 –10) kHz
65. A single tone 4 kHz message signal is sampled
f c = 790kHz with 10 kHz and 6 kHz. Aliasing effect will be
61. The aerial current of an AM transmitter is 18A seen in the reconstructed signal when the signal
when unmodulated, but increases to 20 A when is a sampled with
modulated. The modulation index is (a) 10 kHz
(a) 0.68 (b) 0.73 (b) 6 kHz
(c) 0.89 (d) 0.98 (c) Both 10 kHz and 6 kHz
IES - 2015 (d) Neither 10 kHz and 6 kHz
Ans. (a) : Modulation index is- IES - 2015
Ans. (b) : Given,
 µ  2
I 2t = Ic2 1 +  Single Tone (fm) = 4kHz
 2  Sampled = 10 kHz and 6 kHz
400 µ 2 f s ≥ 2f m
= 1+
324 2 fs ≥ 2 × 4
µ = 0.68 To avoid aliasing-
62. A sinusoidal audio signal is given by es = 15 sin f s ≥ 8kHz
2π (2000t). It modulates a sinusoidal carrier
Aliasing effect is seen if f s = 6kHz
wave ec = 60 sin2π (105t). The value of
amplitude modulation index must be 66. A modulated signal is given by
(a) 0.5 (b) 4 s(t) = e–at cos ( ωC + ∆ω)t u (t)
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.25 The complex envelope of s(t) is
(a) e − at e[ C
j( ω +∆ω) t ]
(b) e − at e[ ]u(t)
IES - 2015 j∆ωt
u(t)
Ans. (d) : Carrier signal ec = 60 sin 2π (105×t)
(d) e[ C
j( ω +∆ω) t ]
(c) e[ ]u(t)
j∆ωt
where AC = 60 u(t)
modulating signal es = 15 sin 2π (2000t) Where, a, ωc and ∆ω are positive constants and
where Am = 15 ωC >> ∆ω
IES - 2015
A 15
Modulation index (µ)= m = GATE - 1999
AC 60 Ans. (b) : Given,
µ = 0.25 Modulation signal-
S(t) = e − at cos ( ωC + ∆ω) t  u(t)
63. A half duty cycle rectangular clock output is
sampled at 5 times its rate. Spectrum of the Complex signal = S(t) + j Sɵ (t)
sampled clock will be having mirror image in
negative frequency domain of a e − at cos ( ωC + ∆ω) t  u(t) + je − at
(a) Sampled sinc pulse =
cos ( ωC + ∆ω) − 90º  u(t)
(b) Periodic sinc pulse
(c) Periodic sampled sinc pulse = e cos [ (ωC + ∆ω)t + jsin[(ωC + ∆ω)t ] u(t)
− at

IES - 2015 = e − at .e j∆ωt u(t)  e jωC t
Ans. (c) : The sampled clock will be having mirror The complex envelope S(t) is -
image in negative frequency domain of a periodic
S(t) = e − at .e[ ]u(t)
j∆ωt
sampled sinc pulse.
67. One of the main functions of the RF amplifiers Ans. (c) : Given,
in a superheterodyne receiver is to IF = 450kHz
(a) Provide improved tracking fs = 1000 kHz.
(b) Permit better adjacent channel rejection fLO =?
(c) Increase the tuning range of the receiver Where,
Improve the rejection of the image receiver IF → Intermediate frequency
(d) Improve the rejection of the image frequency
fS → Signal frequency
IES – 2014, 1995
fLO → Local oscillator frequency.
RPSC Lect. 2011
f LO = f s + f IF
Ans. (d) : The main function of the RF amplifiers in a
superheterodyne receiver is to improve the rejection of = 1000+ 450
the image frequency. f LO = 1450kHz
68. The signal m(t) = sinc (2 × 104 t) is frequency Image frequency-
modulated with K = 103 Hz/V. What is the
fSI = fS + 2IF
maximum instantaneous frequency of the
modulated signal when carrier frequency is 1 = 1000 +2×450 = 1000 + 900
MHz? fSI = 1900 kHz
(a) 0.999 MHz (b) 0.998 MHz
71. What will be the total modulation index if a
(c) 1.002 MHz (d) 1.001 MHz
wave a amplitude modulated by three sine
IES - 2014 waves with modulation indices of 25%, 50%
Ans. (d) : Given- and 75%?
m(t) = sinc(2 × 10 4 t) (a) Mt = 1.5 (b) Mt = 0.93
(c) Mt = 1.22 (d) Mt = 1
Frequency constant (k) = 103 Hz/V
IES - 2014
fc = 1MHz
Ans. (b) : Three sine wave with modulation Indices -
|m(t)|max = 1V
µ1 = 25% = 0.25
Maximum Instantaneous frequency-
µ 2 = 50% = 0.50
( fi )max = f c + k f | m(t) |max
µ3 = 75% = 0.75
= 1MHz+ 1KHz
The Total modulation index-
= 1MHz +10–3MHz
( µ1 ) + ( µ 2 ) + ( µ3 )
2 2 3
( fi )max = 1.001MHz µ Total =
( 0.25)
2
69. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting = + (0.50) 2 + (0.75) 2
because
= 0.0625 + 0.2500 + 0.5625
(a) It is more noise immune than other
modulation systems µ Total = 0.93
(b) Compared with other systems it requires less 72. Boosting of higher frequency at the transmitter
transmitting power is done by using
(c) Its use avoids receiver complexity (a) De-emphasis (b) AGC circuit
(d) No other modulation system can provide the (c) Pre-emphasis (d) Armstrong method
necessary BW for high fidelity IES – 2014
IES - 2014
Ans. (c) : AM is used for broadcasting because its use Ans. (c) : Boosting of higher frequency at the
avoids receiver complexity, only a diode and a capacitor transmitter is done by pre-emphasis.
are sufficient to separate the audio signal from the AM The pre-emphasis circuit only amplifies/boosts the high-
wave. frequency component without changing the low-
frequency amplitude and by doing this it provides an
70. In superheterodyne receiver, if the extra noise immunity to the FM signal and signal to
intermediate frequency is 450 kHz and the noise ratio of the FM signal gets improved.
signal frequency is 1000 kHz, then the local
73. The power contained in single sideband in
oscillator frequency and image frequency
amplitude modulation is
respectively are
(a) 1450 kHz and 100 kHz m 2 Pc
(a) (b) 2 m2 Pc
(b) 550 kHz and 1900 kHz 2
(c) 1450 kHz and 1900 kHz m 2 Pc
(d) 550 kHz and 1450 kHz (c) (d) 4 m2 Pc
4
IES - 2014 IES - 2014
Ans. (c) : Total power - Ans. (b) : Given,
Modulation index (β)
 m  2
PT = PC 1 +  β = 2.4
 2  Bandwidth (BW) = 2(β +1) fm
PC m 2 = 2(2.4+1)fm = 2 ×3.4 ×fm
PT = PC +
2 B.W = 6.8f m
Total power contained in a single side band is given by- 77.
An AM signal with a carrier of 1kW has 200W
2
Pm in each side band. The percentage of
P single sideband = C modulation is:
4 (a) 20% (b) 89.4%
74. What is the ratio of modulating power to the (c) 49.7% (d) 40%
total power at 100% AM modulation? IES - 2013
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 Ans. (b) : Power in each sideband
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 4 P µ2
UPRVUNL AE 11.06.2014 PLSB = PUSB = C
4
IES - 2013
PC = 1000 Watt, PUSB = 200Watt
Ans. (a) : Given,
P × µ2
Total modulation index (µ) = 100% PUSB = C
4
µ =1
1000 × µ 2
Ratio of modulation power (η) = ? 200 =
4
µ2
η= 200 × 4
2 + µ2 µ2 =
1000
(1)
2
(modulation index (µ) % = 89.44%
η=
2 + (1) 2 78. An audio signal, 15sin(2π × 1500t) amplitude
modulates 60sin(2 π103t). The modulation index
η = 1/ 3 will be.
= 1:3 (a) 20% (b) 50%
(c) 25% (d) 100%
75. A bandwidth of 10 kHz is required for AM
IES - 2013
system. If the lowest frequency component in
Ans. (c) : Given,
the modulated signal is 555 kHz, carrier
Audio signal-
frequency in kHz is:
(a) 525 (b) 550 = 15sin ( 2π ×1500t )
(c) 560 (d) 565 Amplitude modulates-
IES - 2013 = 60sin(2π 103 t)
Ans. (c) : Given, Modulation index (µ) = ?
Bandwidth = 10kHz A 15
Lowest frequency component = 555 kHz µ= m , µ=
Ac 60
Bandwidth = (fc + fm) – (fc–fm) Hz = 2fm
1
2f m = 10kHz µ =   ×100
4
fm = 5 kHz
(f c − f m ) = 555 ×103 Hz µ = 25%
fc = 555×103 + fm 79. The threshold effect in demodulation is

fc = 555kHz +5kHz (a) The rapid fall of output SNR when the input
SNR falls below a particular value
f c = 560kHz (b) Exhibited by all the demodulators when the
76. Determine the bandwidth occupied by a input SNR is low
(c) Exhibited by all AM suppressed carrier
sinusoidal frequency modulated carrier for
coherent
which the modulation index is 2.4. (d) Exhibited by correlation receivers
(a) 4.8 fm (b) 6.8 fm Sikkim PSC SI (mains)- 2018
(c) 2.4 fm (d) 3.8 fm TRB Poly. Lect. 2012
IES - 2013 IES – 2012, 2000
Ans. (a) : The threshold effect in demodulation is the Ans. (b) : Given,
rapid fall of output SNR when the input SNR falls Peak deviation ( ∆f ) = 3kHz
below a particular value.
Modulating frequency (fm) = 5kHz
80. An amplitude modulated signal is
A + 0.5Acos ωmt cos ωct where ωm and ωc are Bandwidth ( BW ) = 2(∆f + f m )
respectively, modulating and carrier = 2 (3+5) ×103
frequencies. The power efficiency is = 16×103
(a) 11.11% (b) 0.25% BW = 16kHz
(c) 4.32% (d) 50%
IES - 2012 83. In a PLL
(a) Capture range =Lock range ≠ Free
Ans. (a) : Given Amplitude modulated signal is - running frequency
SAM(t) = ( A + 0.5A cos ωm t ) cos ωc t (b) Capture range = Lock range = Free
SAM(t) = A (1 + 0.5cos ωm t ) cos ωc t running frequency
(c) Capture range > Lock range
Compare with standard amplitude modulated signal - (d) Capture range < Lock range
= A c (1 + µ cos ωm t ) cos ωc t Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma -2017, Paper-II
µ = 0.5 IES - 2011
Ans. (d) : In a PLL (Phase Locked Loop)-
µ2
Power efficiency (η) = Lock range is always greater than or equal to capture
2 + µ2 range.
( 0.5)
2
0.25 Lock range ≥ capture range
η= =
( 2 + (.5) ) 2.25
2
84. Consider the following statement with regard
to a PLL:
η = 11.11% 1. The 'capture range' of a PLL primarily
depends upon the slope of transition band
81. The signal x(t) = sin(200πt) + 2sin(400πt) is edge of the low-pass filter
modulated to produce a signal g(t) = x(t) sin
2. The 'lock range' is not affected by the slope of
(400πt). This is passed through a low pass filter transition band of the low-pass filter.
having cut-off frequency of 400πHz and pass- Which of the above statements is/are correct?
band gain of 2. Then the output signal after the
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 only
filter is
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 0 (b) 0.5sin (200πt)
IES - 2010
(c) sin (200πt) (d) 2sin (200πt)
Ans. (a) : The 'capture range' of a PLL primarily
IES - 2012 depends upon the slope of transition band edge of the
Ans. (*) : Signal equation- low-pass filter.
x(t) = sin(200πt) + 2sin(400πt) The 'lock range' is not affected by the slope of transition
g(t) = x(t)sin(400πt) band of the low-pass filter.
Put the value of x(t) in equation g(t)
1. The lock range of PLL is the difference
g(t) = [sin(200πt) + 2 sin(400πt) ] × sin(400πt) between the highest and lowest frequencies
g(t) that the PLL can remain in lock onto
1 2. The capture range of a PLL is the range of
= [ cos(200πt) − cos(600πt) ] + [1 − cos(800πt)] frequencies that the voltage controlled
2
oscillator of a PLL can produce
3. PLL can be used to synchronize the
horizontal and vertical oscillators of TV
receivers to incoming sync pulse
y(t) = cos(200πt)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
82. What bandwidth is needed for an FM signal IES - 2010
that has a peak deviation of ±3 kHz and Ans. (c) : The lock range of PLL is the difference
handles audio signals from 200 Hz to 5 kHz? between the highest and lowest frequencies that the PLL
(a) 6 kHz (b) 16 kHz can remain in lock onto.
(c) 10 kHz (d) 9.6 kHz PLL can be used to synchronize the horizontal and vertical
IES - 2011 oscillators of TV receivers to incoming sync pulse.
86. A balanced modulator, is used in the Codes :
generation of which of the following? A B C D
(a) DSB-SC signal (b) FM signal (a) 1 4 2 3
(c) PM signal (d) PAM signal (b) 2 3 1 4
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 (c) 1 3 2 4
IES - 2009 (d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a) : IES - 2008
Ans. (d) :
List-I List-II
(A) IF Amplifier – Narrow band tuned
Amplifier
(B) Mixer – Frequency conversion.
(C) Detector – Demodulator
The Balanced modulator are used to suppress the (D) Automatic – Variable gain Amplifier
unwanted carrier in an AM wave. gain control
The carrier and modulating signal are applied to the 90. FM broadcast standards specify a maximum
input of the balanced modulator and we get the deviation of frequency to be equal to 75 kHz
DSB-SC signal with a suppressed carrier at the output and a maximum modulating frequency of 15
of the balanced modulator. kHz. What is the modulation index for FM
87. An amplitude modulated signal occupies a wave?
frequency range from 395 kHz to 405 kHz. It (a) 1/5 (b) 5
can be demodulated by which of the following? (c) 60 (d) 1125
(a) Using an envelope detector and filter IES - 2007
(b) Multiplying with a 395 kHz local signal Ans. (b) : Given,
(c) Multiplying with a 405 kHz local signal Max. deviation frequency (∆f) = 75kHz
(d) Low pass filtering with cut off at 400 kHz Max. modulating frequency (fm) = 15 kHz
IES - 2009 Modulation index-
Ans. (a) : Amplitude modulated signal can be ∆f 75 × 103 75
(β) = = = =5
demodulated by using an envelope detector and filter. fm 15 × 103 15
88. Which one of the following statements is β=5
correct?
(a) AGC in radio receivers will keep the total 91. Why does an FM radio station perform better
signal output fairly constant but the noise than an AM station radiating the same total
component will be reduced; with the result power?
the S/N ratio will improve (a) FM is immune to noise
(b) AGC in radio receivers is a linear operation (b) AM has only two sidebands while FM has
w.r.t. both signals and noise more.
(c) Sudden changes in the output while tuning, (c) FM uses larger bandwidth for large
modulation depth
which may cause damage to the components,
is an unavoidable feature of AGC (d) Capture effect appears in FM
IES - 2007
(d) AGC operation is independent of the filter
components used in AGC circuit Ans. (a) : FM radio, always remains at constant
amplitude, so signal strength does not change. FM uses
IES - 2009 a higher frequency range and a higher bandwidth than
Ans. (c) : Sudden changes in the output while tuning AM. FM is more immune to noise compare to AM.
which may cause damage to the components, is an 92. What is the typical bandwidth of a 2-wire
unavoidable feature of automatic gain control. telephone line?
89. Match List-I (Section) with List-II and select (a) 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz (b) 20 Hz to 4 KHz
the correct answer using the code given below (c) d.c. to 4 KHz (d) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
the lists : IES - 2007
List - I List - II Ans. (a) : The typical bandwidth of a 2-wire telephone
A. IF amplifier 1. Demodulator line 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz.
B. Mixer 2. Narrow band 93. On modulating a carrier of frequency fc by an
tuned amplifier audio signal fs, the following components have
resulted :
C. Detector 3. Variable gain Fc, fc + fs and fc – fs
amplifier What is this type of modulation likely to be?
D. Automatic 4. Frequency (a) Amplitude modulation DSB
gain control conversion (b) Single sideband modulation
(c) Frequency modulation only 95. Which one of the following blocks is not
(d) Amplitude modulation or frequency modulation common in both AM and FM receivers?
IES - 2007, 2003 (a) RF amplifier (b) Mixer
Ans. (d) : Either amplitude modulated signal or narrow (c) IF amplifier (d) Slope detector
band frequency signal has carrier frequency and upper IES - 2006
and lower side band frequency component. Ans. (d) : The slope detector is not common in both
94. Match List-I (Modulation) with List-II (Power AM and FM receiver. FM receiver contain slope
Input to antenna in Watts) and select the detector but AM receivers do not contain that.
correct answer using the code given below the 96. Match List-I (Communication Service) with
lists : List-II (Bandwidth) and select the correct
List - I List - II answer using the code given below the lists :
A. 100% AM 1. 1.5 List - I List - II
B. 50% AM 2. 1.125 A. AM 1. 10 kHz
C. 10% AM 3. 1.005 Broadcast
D. FM 4. 1.00 B. Telephone 2. 4 kHz
Codes : C. Wideband 3. 200 kHz
A B C D FM
(a) 1 2 3 4 D. TV 4. 7 MHz
(b) 3 4 1 2 Codes :
(c) 1 4 3 2 A B C D
(d) 3 2 1 4 (a) 1 2 3 4
IES - 2006 (b) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (a) : We know that, (c) 1 4 3 2
 µ2  (d) 3 2 1 4
PT = PC 1 +  IES - 2006
 2 
Ans. (a) :
(1) µ = 100% List -I (communication service).... List-II (Bandwidth)
µ=1 (a) AM Broad cast → 10kHz
 12  (b) Telephone → 4 kHz
PT = PC 1 +  = PT = 1.5PC (c) Wide band FM → 200kHz
 2
(d) TV Bandwidth → 7 MHz.
(2) µ = 50%
97. A signal contains components at 400 Hz and
1 2400 Hz. This signal modulates a carrier of
µ=
2 frequency 100 MHz. However, after
 (1/ 2 ) 2  demodulation it is found that the 400 Hz signal
PT = PC 1 +  component is present. The channel BW is 15
 2  kHz. What is the reason for the highest
  frequency signal not to be detected properly?
 1 (a) Modulation used is FM and BW is insufficient
PT = PC  1 + 
 8 (b) Modulation used is AM and BW is insufficient
(c) Modulation used is FM but pre-emphasis is
PT = 1.125PC
not used
(3) µ = 10% (d) Modulation used is AM but detector is for FM
1 IES - 2006
PT = Ans. (c) : In FM broadcasting pre-emphasis
10
Improvement is the Improvement in the signal-to-noise
  1 2  ratio of the high-frequency portion of the baseband.
    Pre-emphasis increases the magnitude of the higher
PT = PC 1 +  
10 
  signal frequency there by improving the SNR.
2 In FM, the high frequency components are lost if not
 
  boosted before transmission.
 1  98. In FDM systems used for telephone, which
PT = PC 1 +  modulation scheme is adopted?
 200 
(a) AM (b) DSB-SC
PT = 1.005PC (c) SSB-SC (d) FM
For FM, PT = PC IES - 2006
(4) Pt of FM is = 1 (It is assumed that PC = 1 W) Ans. (c) : In FDM system used for telephone, SSB-SC
Hence, option (a) is correct. modulation scheme is adopted.
99. A composite signal xC(t) is expressed as: Ans. (b) : RF output is represented
xc(t) = Ac cos ωct – Am cos( ωc – ωm) t + as e(t) = 50 [1+ 0.89 cos5000t + 0.30 sin9000t]
Am cos( ωc + ωm)t cos(6×1010t)
Which of the following methods can be Let,
employed to retrieve the sinusoidal component ωm1 = 5000 = 0.005MHz
at ωm from xc(t)? ωm2 = 9000 = 0.009MHz
(a) An envelope detector, square law detector
(b) Only a discriminator ωC = 6×106
(c) Only a square law detector So, sideband of the signal at
(d) Only an envelope detector ωC ± ωm1 ωC ± ωm 2
IES - 2005
Ans. (b) : The composite signal → (6 ± 0.005)MHz, (6 ± 0.009)MHz
xc(t) = Ac cosωct – Am cos(ωc – ωm) t + Am cos(ωc + 5.99 ×10 , 6.005 × 10
6 6
6.009 ×106 , 5.991×106
ωm)t 103. Consider the following statements :
only a discriminator methods can be employed to 1. Intermediate-frequency (IF) amplifier is
retrieve the sinusoidal component at ωm from xc(t). designed for a bandwidth of a few kHz at a
100. A circuit produces an output y(t) = a + bx2(t) centre frequency of a few hundred kHz for
where x(t) is its input. This circuit can produce voice-modulated signals
which one of the following? 2. IF amplifier is designed for a frequency of 6
(a) Rectified output MHz at a centre frequency of 40 MHz for TV
(b) Pulse modulation receivers
(c) Amplitude modulation 3. Tuned amplifiers are used for IF amplifier
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(d) Frequency modulation
IES - 2005
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) : Given equation, IES - 2003
y(t) = a + bx 2 (t) Ans. (d) : • Intermediate-frequency (IF) amplifier is
This equation is square law characteristics. designed for a bandwidth of a few kHz at a centre
Hence, it will produce Amplitude signal. frequency of a few hundred kHz for voice-modulated
signals
101. Which one of the following is represented by
• IF amplifier is designed for a frequency of 6 MHz at a
v(t) = 5 cos(106πt) –sin(103πt) × sin(106πt) ? centre frequency of 40 MHz for TV receivers
(a) SSB upper sideband signal • Tuned amplifiers are used for IF amplifier
(b) DSB suppressed carrier signal Hence the correct option (d).
(c) AM signal
104. Consider the following :
(d) Narrow band FM signal 1. Filter system
Nagaland PSC CTSE -2015, Paper-II 2. Phase-shift method
IES - 2004 3. Third method
GATE - 1994 4. Balanced modulator
Ans. (d) : Given equation- Which of these can be used to remove
V(t) = 5[cos(106 πt) − sin(103 πt) × sin(106 πt)] unwanted side-bands in SSB?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
5cos (106 πt ) − cos (106 πt − 103 πt ) 
5
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
2 IES - 2003
+  cos (106 πt + 103 πt ) 
5 Ans. (b) : Filter system, phase shift method and third
2 method are used for remove unwanted sideband in SSB.
This equation shows, Narrow band FM signal. • Balanced modulator produces double side band
102. In a broadcast transmitter, the RF output is suppressed carrier (DSB-SC).
represented as e(t) = 50 [1 + 0.89cos5000t + 105. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find
0.30 sin 9000 t] cos(6 × 1010t) volt. (a) Class-C audio amplifier
What are the sidebands of the signals in (b) Tuned modulator
radians? (c) Class-B RF amplifier
(a) 5 × 103 and 9 × 103 (d) Class-AB power amplifier
(b) 5.991×106, 5.995×106, 6.005×106 and IES - 2003
6.009×106 Ans. (c) : In an SSB transmitter one is most likely to
(c) 4 × 103, 1.4 × 104 find a class-B RF Amplifier. SSB transmission is used
(d) 1 × 106, 1.1 × 107, 3 × 106 and 1.5 × 107 in the application where the power saving and low
IES - 2004 bandwidth required.
106. In the circuit shown below, the transformers Select the correct answer using the codes given
are centre tapped and the diodes are connected below:
as shown in a bridge. Between the terminals 1 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
and 2 an a.c. voltages source of frequency 400 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Hz is connected. Another a.c. voltage of 1.0 IES - 2002
MHz is connected between 3 and 4. The output
between 5 and 6 contains components at Ans. (d) : The advantages of FM over AM:-
The main advantages of FM over AM are improved
signal to Noise ratio (about 25dB)
Difference AM and FM:-
Features AM FM
(i) Noise Noise effect the Better noise
Immunity amplitude of immunity
signal most. So,
AM is less noise
(a) 400 Hz, 1.0 MHz, 1000.4 kHz, 999.6 kHz immune.
(b) 400 Hz, 1000.0 kHz, 999.6 kHz
(ii) Bandwidth AM bandwidth = FM B.W. =
(c) 1 MHz, 1000.4 kHz, 999.6 kHz
(d) 1000.4 kHz, 999.6 kHz
2fm 2 ( β + 1) f m
IES - 2003 (iii) Transmitted  m 2  FM is required
Ans. (d) : The given circuit is a balanced modulator power PT = PC 1 +  less power
Hence there will be output is DSB-SC signal. So it will  2  than AM
contain m(t) cos (nωct) 110. For an AM wave, the maximum voltage was
Where- n = 1, 2, 3 ..... found to be 10V and the minimum voltage was
Available side band are- found to be 5V. The modulation index of the
wave would be
( f c + f m ) and ( f c − f m ) (a) 0.33 (b) 0.52
( f c + f m ) = (1000 + 0.4 ) kHz = 1000.4kHz (c) 0.40 (d) 0.1
( f c − f m ) = (1000 − 0.4 ) kHz = 999.6kHz IES - 2001
107. Which of the following pulse modulation is Ans. (a) : Given,
analog? Maximum voltage (Vmax) = 10V
(a) PCM (b) Differential PCM Minimum voltage (Vmin)= 5V
(c) PWM (d) Delta Modulation index (µ) =?
IES - 2002 µ = Vmax − Vmin = 10 − 5 = 5 = 0.33
Ans. (c) : Pulse width modulation or pulse duration Vmax + Vmin 10 + 5 15
modulation or pulse time modulation is an analog µ = 0.33
modulating scheme in which the duration or width or
time of the pulse carrier varies proportional to the 111. A signal x(t) = 6cos10πt is sampled at the rate
Instantaneous amplitude of the message signal. of 14 Hz. To recover the original signal, the
108. Consider the following types of modulation cut-off frequency fc of the ideal low-pass filter
1. Amplitude modulation should be
2. Frequency modulation (a) 5Hz < fc < 9Hz (b) 9 Hz
3. Pulse modulation (c) 10 Hz (d) 14 Hz
4. Phase modulation IES - 2001
Which of the above modulation are used for Ans. (a) : Given,
telecasting TV programmes? x(t) = 6 cos 10πt
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 2πf m = 10π
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 4 fm= 5Hz
IES - 2002
Ans. (c) : Amplitude modulation and frequency
modulation are used for telecasting TV programmes.
FM is used for audio and AM is used for video
transmission.
109. Which one of the following are the advantages
of FM over AM So, low pass filter should be 5Hz < fc < 9Hz
1. Better noise immunity is provided 112. A carrier of frequency 1 MHz is amplitude
2. Lower bandwidth is required modulated by a signal of frequency 1 kHz to a
3. The transmitted power is more useful depth of 60%. This is passed through a filter of
4. Less modulating power is required characteristics shown in the given Figure-I and
Figure-II. If the filter output is fed to an 115. In a PLL, lock occurs when the
envelope detector, the detector output will be (a) input frequency and the VCO frequency are
the same
(b) phase error is 180º
(c) VCO frequency is double the input frequency
(d) phase error is 90º
APGENCO AE-23.04.2017
IES - 2001
Ans. (a) :
(a) zero (b) dc
(c) dc + 1 kHz signal (d) 1 kHz signal
IES - 2001
Ans. (b) : If the filter output is fed to an envelope
detector, the detector output will be dc.
113. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10
kW, the power in the carrier for modulation
index of 0.6 is nearly In a PLL, lock occurs when the input frequency and the
(a) 8.24 kW (b) 8.47 kW VCO frequency are the same.
(c) 9.26 kW (d) 9.6 kW
116. In an amplitude modulated system, if the total
UPSC Poly. Lect. 10.03.2019
power is 600 W and the power in carrier is 400
W, then the modulation index is
IES - 2001
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
Ans. (b) : Given,
(c) 0.9 (d) 1
Transmitter power (Pt) = 10kW
Modulation index (µ) = 0.6
Pc = ? IES - 2000
Ans. (d) : Given,
 µ2 
Pt = Pc 1 +  Total power (Pt) = 600W
 2 
Carrier power (Pc) = 400W
 ( ) 
2
0.6 Modulation Index (µ) = ?
10 × 103 = Pc 1 + 
 2    µ2 
 Pt = Pc 1 + 
Pc = 8.47kW  2 
114. An angle-modulated signal is expressed by  µ2 

600 = 400  1 + 
fa(t) = cos(2 × 10 πt + 75sin2 × 10 πt). The peak
8 3
 2 
frequency deviation of the carrier is then
(a) 1 kHz (b) 7.5 kHz µ =1
(c) 75 kHz (d) 100 MHz 117. Match List-I (Communication Service) with
TNPSC AE-2018 List-II (Bandwidth) and select the correct
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 answer using the code given below the lists :
IES - 2001 List - I
Ans. (c) : Given, A. Companding B. Squelch
f a (t) = cos(2 × 108 πt + 75sin 2 ×103 πt) C. Pre-emphasis D. Double conversion
θ = 2 × 108 πt + 75sin(2 × 103 πt) List - II
Where, 1. Improving image rejection
2. Variation of step rise in quantization
dθ
Frequency ( ∆ω) = 3. Muting the receiver
dt 4. Boosting of higher modulating frequencies at
d
=  (2 ×108 πt + 75sin (2 × 103 πt)  the transmitter
dt Codes :
= 2 × 108 π + 75 × 2 × 103 π cos (2 × 103 πt) A B C D
Frequency deviation- (a) 2 3 4 1
∆ ω 75 × 2 ×103 π (b) 2 1 4 3
∆f = = (c) 4 3 2 1
2π 2π
(d) 4 1 2 3
∆f = 75kHz
IES - 2000
Ans. (a) : 120. An arbitrary signal m(t) has zero average value
List-I List-II and it is band-limited to 3.2 kHz. It is sampled
at the rate of 8 k samples/s. The samples are
(communication service) (Bandwidth)
passed through an ideal band-pass filter with
(A) Companding – Variation of step centre frequency of 32 kHz and bandwidth of
rise in quantization. 6.4 kHz. The output of the band-pass filter is
(B) Squelch – Muting the receiver (a) AM-DSB signal with suppressed carrier
(c) Pre-emphasis – Boosting of higher (b) AM-DSB signal with carrier
modulating (c) AM-SSB signal with carrier
frequency at the (d) a sequence of exponentially decaying sine waves
transistor IES - 1999
(d) double conversion – Improving image Ans. (a) : The output of the band pass filter is AM-DSB
rejection. signal with suppressed carrier.
118. A signal m(t) = 5cos(2π100t) frequency 121. The correct sequence of subsystems in an FM
modulates a carrier. The resulting FM signal is receiver is
10 cos{(2π105t) + 15 sin(2π100t)}. The (a) Mixer, RF amplifier, limiter, IF amplifier,
approximate bandwidth of the FM signal discriminator, audio amplifier
would be (b) RF amplifier, mixer, IF a amplifier, limiter,
(a) 0.1 kHz (b) 1 kHz discriminator audio amplifier
(c) 3.2 kHz (d) 100 kHz (c) RF amplifier, mixer, limiter, discriminator, IF
IES - 2000 amplifier, audio amplifier
Ans. (c) : Given, (d) Mixer, IF amplifier, limiter, audio amplifier,
discriminator
Signal m(t) = 5 cos (2π100t) IES - 1999, 2011
f m = 100Hz Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
Resultant FM signal- Ans. (b) : Super heterodyne radio Receiver consist of R.F.
amplifier, Mixer with local oscillator, IF amplifier, limiter,
XFM(t) = 10 cos {2π105t +15 sin (2π100t)}
discriminator audio amplifier and power amplifier.
β = 15
According to Carson's rules-
B.W = 2(β + 1)f m
= 2(15 + 1) × 100
B.W = 3.2kHz
answer using the codes given below the lists : 122. A 10 kW carrier is sinusoidally modulated by
List - I List - II two carriers corresponding to a modulation
A. AM Broadcast 1. Tropospheric waves index of 30% and 40% respectively. The total
radiated power is
B. FM Broadcast 2. 535 kHz - 1600 kHz
(a) 11.25 kW (b) 12.5 kW
C. TV Broadcast 3. Repeater tower (c) 15 kW (d) 17 kW
D. Point-to-point 4. VSB modulation RPSC Lect.2011
communication Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
5. Multipath phenomenon IES - 1992, 1999
Codes : Ans. (a) : Given,
A B C D µ1 = 0.3, µ2 = 0.4
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 5 Net modulation index (µt) = (µ1 ) 2 + (µ 2 ) 2
(c) 3 4 5 1 = (0.3)2 + (0.4) 2 = 0.25
(d) 2 1 4 3
IES - 2000 µ t = 0.5
Ans. (d) :  µ2 
List-I List-II Total radiated power (PT) = PC  1 + t 
 2 
(A) AM Broadcast – 535kHz –1600kHz
(B) FM Broadcast – Tropospheric waves  ( 0.5 )2 
= 10 × 103 1 + 
(C) TV Broadcast – VSB Modulation  2 
communication 
(D) Point-to-point – Repeater tower. PT = 11.25kHz

123. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct fm → signal frequency
answer using the codes given below the lists : µ → Modulation index.
List - I the envelope detector circuit time constant (RC) is
A. Frequency modulation depends upon the highest modulation frequency (fm)
B. Double sideband suppressed signal carrier and the depth of modulation (µ).
C. PCM 126. Match List-I (Modulation) with List-II
D. Amplitude modulation (Characteristic) and select the correct answer
List - II using the code given below the lists :
1. Envelope detection List - I
2. Companding A. AM
3. Balanced modulator B. FM
4. Pre-emphasis and de-emphasis C. Noise in FM
Codes : D. Noise in AM
A B C D List - II
(a) 1 2 3 4 1. Mobile Communication
(b) 1 2 4 3 2. Constant carrier frequency
(c) 4 3 1 2 3. Triangular noise power spectrum
(d) 4 3 2 1 4. Rectangular noise-power spectrum
Codes :
IES - 1998
A B C D
Ans. (d) : (a) 2 1 4 3
• Demodulation of amplitude modulation we used (b) 1 2 3 4
envelope detection. (c) 1 2 4 3
• generation of DSB-SC signal we used balance (d) 2 1 3 4
modulator circuit. IES - 1997
• Pre-emphasis and de-emphasis are used to improve Ans. (d) : AM is defined as a process by which the peak
fidelity of FM transmission of audio signal. amplitude of carrier, is varying in according with
• In pulse code modulation used to companding. message signal i.e. carrier frequency is constant.
Companding means Compressing and expanding of AM has rectangular noise power spectrum.
signal. F.M (frequency Modulation) → frequency modulation
124. Modems are used for data transmission is widely used for FM Radio broadcasting. It also used
telephone lines to in mobile communication.
(a) Increase the transmission capacity frequency modulation has triangular noise power
(b) Improve noise performance spectrum.
(c) Incorporate error control coding 127. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(d) Eliminate dc component in the transmitted match?
signal 1. Multiplexed telegraph ………..FM.
IES - 1998 2. Medium wave radio propagation ………AM.
Ans. (a) : Modem is a hardware component which used 3. Television ……….. VSB.
in modulation as well as as demodulation and also used 4. Short-wave radio-propagation …….AM.
of modem increase the data transmission capacity. Select the correct answer using the codes given
125. The choice of the product RC in simple below
envelope detector using a diode and an RC (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
circuit is governed by (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(a) Both the lowest and the highest modulation IES - 1997
frequencies Ans. (a) :
(b) The depth of modulations and the lowest • Television is transmitted using (VSB) and audio
modulation frequency transmitted using FM.
(c) The highest modulation frequency and the • Short wave radio propagation and medium wave
depth of modulation radio propagation is possible only in AM.
(d) The carrier frequency 128. A superheterodyne receiver has an IF of 465
IES - 1996, 1998 kHz. If it is tuned to a station broadcasting at
Ans. (c) : For the envelope detector to follow the input- 500 kHz and its oscillator is operating at 965
kHz, then the 1430 kHz frequency would be the
1 1 1 − µ2 (a) Adjacent channel frequency
≤ R.C. ≤ R.C ≤
fc fm f m .µ (b) Image frequency
(c) Gyro frequency
Where-
(d) Maximum usable frequency
fc → Carrier frequency IES - 1997
Ans. (b) : Given data- 1
Tuned frequency (fs) = 500kHz f1 =
2π ( L1 + L 2 )( C + C1 )
Intermediate frequency (IF) = 465 kHz
Image frequency will be- In reactance modulator, varactor diode and FET can be
used as a voltage variable capacitor.
fsi = fs + 2IF
132. As the modulation index of an FM signal with
= (500 + 2×465)×103
sinusoidal modulation is increased from zero to
= (500 + 930)×103 three, the power in the carrier component will
f si = 1430kHz (a) Increase continuously
(b) Decrease continuously
129. In a carrier telephone system, a group occupies (c) First increase, attain a maximum and then
a frequency band of decrease
(a) 36 to 48 kHz (b) 60 to 108 kHz (d) First deceases, become zero and then increase
(c) 92 to 140 kHz (d) 140 to 172 kHz IES - 1996
TSGENCO AE-2015 Ans. (b) : The modulation index of an FM signal with
IES - 1997 sinusoidal modulation is increased from zero to three,
Ans. (b) : In a carrier telephone system, a group the power in the carrier component will decrease
occupies a frequency band of 60 to 108 kHz. continuously.
130. Two carriers 40 MHz and 80 MHz respectively The carrier power is zero at
are frequency modulated by a signal of β = 2.4, 5.5, 8.6, 11.8 ..................
frequency 4 kHz, such that the bandwidths of
the FM signal in the two cases are the same, the
frequency deviation in the two cases are in the
ratio of
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
TNPSC AE-2008 It is clear that, if β increases from 0 to 3 then, power in
ISRO Scientist Engg.2006 the carrier component will decreases first attains zero
value at β = 2.4 and then increases.
IES - 1997
Ans. (c) : Given data- 133. Double spotting in superheterodyne receivers is
caused by
f C1 = 40MHz f C2 = 80MHz (a) Poor front-end rejection
FM signal frequency (fm) = 4kHz (b) Misalignment of receiver
For the same frequency of message signals if bandwidth (c) Detuning of one or more IF stages
is same then their respective frequency deviations also (d) Non-functioning of AGC
same. Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
(BW)1 = (B.W)2 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
IES - 1996
2 ( ∆f1 + f m ) = 2 ( ∆f 2 + f m )
Ans. (a) : Double spotting means the same station gets
∆f1 = ∆f 2 picked up at two different nearby point, on the receiver
dial. It is due to poor front end selectivity i.e.
∆f1 Insufficient image frequency rejection.
= 1:1
∆f 2 134. Besides video, which of the following signals
are found in the output of a normal television
131. In the generation of modulated signal, a video detector?
varactor diode can be used for
1. Sync
(a) FM generation only
2. Sweep
(b) AM generation only
3. Sound (modulated signal)
(c) PM generation only
(d) Both AM and PM generation below :
IES - 1996 Codes :
Ans. (a) : Varactor diode is used for F.M. generation (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
only. (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
IES - 1996
Ans. (a) : The output of normal television video
detector-
(1) Audio
(2) Video
(3) Synchronization pulse
(4) Sweep signal.

135. In FM sound broadcasting system, the Ans. (b) :
maximum frequency deviation is usually
(a) 15 kHz (b) 75 kHz
(c) 200 kHz (d) 5.2 kHz
IES - 1995
Ans. (b) : The FM broadcasting range between 87.5
MHz to 108 MHz uses a typical channel spacing of Envelope detector is used to detect high level AM wave.
100kHz or 200 kHz, with the maximum frequency Envelope detector is also known as diode
deviation of ± 75kHz. detector/asynchronous detector.
136. An FM signal with a deviation δ is passed 140. Which one of the statements regarding the
through a mixer and has its frequency reduced following signal x(t) = 5 sin (2π × 103t) sin
five fold. The deviation in the output of the (2π × 106t) is incorrect?
mixer is (a) The upper sideband frequency is 1001000
(a) 5 δ (b) intermediate (b) The lower sideband frequency is 999000
δ (c) The carrier amplitude is 5
(c) (d) δ
5 (d) x(t) is a DSB –SC signal
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II IES - 1993
IES - 1994 Ans. (d) : The given signal-
Ans. (d) : Frequency deviation is independent of mixer. x(t) = 5sin(2π × 103 t)sin (2π× 106 t)
So, output mixer is δ.
∵ 2sin A sin B = cos(A − B) − cos (A + B)
on the bandwidth of the modulating signal. 2 { } 5

 2 {
1. The bandwidth of the A.M. wave depends X(t) = cos 2π (103 − 106 ) t  − cos 2π (103 + 106 ) t 
5
} 
2. The bandwidth of the A.M. wave depends 5
on the modulation index. X(t) = cos ( 2π× 999000 ) t − cos (2π× 1001000)t 
2
3. The bandwidth of the F.M. wave, for all • From above expression X(t), We can say that-
practical purposes, depends on the % of • USB → 1001000 Hz
amplitude of the carrier
Of these statements • LSB → 999000Hz
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct x(t) is DSB-SC signal.
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 141. To balance out the local oscillator noise at the
IES - 1994 input to the intermediate frequency or to IF
amplifier in superheterodyne receivers, the
Ans. (b) : The bandwidth of the AM wave depends on microwave circuit used is
the bandwidth of the modulating signal. (a) Balanced amplifier
BW = 2f m (b) Balanced isolator
(c) Balanced phase shifter
The bandwidth of the FM wave, for all practical (d) Balanced microwave mixer
purposes, depends on the % of amplitude of the carrier. IES - 1993
The bandwidth of the AM can not depends on the
modulation index. Ans. (d) :
138. The loading of telephone lines by inductances
at uniform intervals is done to
(a) Reduce attenuation
(b) Eliminate high frequencies
(c) Reduce near end cross talk
(d) Reduce far end cross talk Balanced microwave mixer is used to Input stage to the
IES - 1994 intermediate frequency (IF amplifier) and output stage
Ans. (a) : The loading inductance is device placed of local oscillator as above figure.
along a circuit in a telephone line that compensate or 142. MODEM stands for
reduced attenuation. (a) Modulator at transmitting side and detector at
139. The envelope detector is a/an the receiving side
(a) Synchronous detector (b) Which deals with analog signals and shows
(b) Asynchronous detector digital information
(c) Product demodulator (c) Analog to digital at transmitting side and
digital to analog at a receiving side
(d) Coherent detector
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam. 2011
(d) A device which deals with digital signals only
RRB JE-31.08.2019, 10AM-12PM IES - 1992
TRB Poly. Lect.2012 Ans. (a) : MODEM stands for modulator at transmitting
IES - 1993 side and detector at the receiving side.
143. The typical squelch circuit 146. Frequency hogging is used in carrier system to
(a) Cuts off an audio amplifier when the carrier is (a) Conserve frequency (b) Reduce distortion
absent (c) Reduce cross talk (d) None of the above
(b) Eliminates the RF interference when the IES - 1992
signal is weak Ans. (c) : Frequency hogging is used in carrier system
(c) Cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is to reduce cross talk.
maximum
147. A 1000 kHz carrier is simultaneously
(d) Cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is modulated with 300 Hz and 2 kHz audio sine
minimum waves. Which of the following frequencies will
IES - 1992 not be present in the output?
Ans. (a) : The typical squelch circuit cuts off an audio (a) 998 kHz (b) 999.7 kHz
amplifier when the carrier is absent. (c) 1000.3 kHz (d) 700 kHz
TNPSC AE - 2019
IES - 1992
Ans. (d) : Given data-
fC = 1000 kHz
Squelch circuit is used to switch on or off the receiver. f m1 = 0.3kHz
144. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct f m2 = 2kHz
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List - I List - II • f USB1 = f C + f m1
A. IF Noise 1. Ganged tunning = 1000 kHz + 0.3 kHz
B. Image 2. Spurious response = 1000.3 kHz
frequency • f LSB1 = f C − f m1
C. Station selector 3. Leaky filter capacitor
= 1000 kHz – 0.3 kHz
D. Excessive hum 4. Mixer stage = 999.7 kHz
Codes :
• f USB2 = fC + f m2
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 = 1000 kHz + 2kHz
(b) 1 2 3 4 = 1002 kHz
(c) 2 3 1 4 • f USB2 = f C − f m2
(d) 4 2 1 3 = 1000 kHz – 2 kHz
IES - 1992 = 998 kHz
Ans. (d) : • IF noise is generated from mixer stage. Hence option (d) is correct.
• Station selector → ganged tuning 148. The saving in power in a DSB-SC system
• Excessive hum → Leaky filter Capacitor modulated at 80% is
• Image frequency → Spurious response. (a) Nil (b) 80%
145. For signal, amplitude modulated to a depth of (c) 75.76% (d) 50%
100% by a sinusoidal signal, power is IES - 1992
(a) Same as the power of unmodulated carrier Ans. (c) : Given,
(b) Twice as the power of unmodulated carrier µ = 80% = 0.8
(c) 3/2 times the power of unmodulated carrier Saving in power in a DSB-SC system
(d) 2/3 times the power of unmodulated carrier
2 2
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 = × 100 = × 100
2+µ 2 + ( 0.8 )
2 2
IES – 1992, 1991
Ans. (c) : As we know- = 75.76%
total transmitted power- 149. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled
 µ2  at a rate less than 2 fm the constructed signal
Pt = PC 1 +  will be
 2 
(a) Distortion less
Where- (b) Small in amplitude
PC → Unmodulated carrier power (c) Having higher frequencies suppressed
µ → Modulation index (µ = 100% = 1) (d) Distorted
 12  IES - 1991
Pt = PC  1 +  Ans. (d) : To reconstruct proper signal at receiver it is
 2
sampled at a rate of almost twice of maximum
3 frequency component of band limited signal fm.
Pt = PC fS ≥ 2f m
2
Where, ∆f
fs → sampling frequency So, the % of modulation is = × 100
( ∆f )max
fm → maximum frequency
When 62.5
= × 100
fS < 2f m 75
Aliasing effect will be there and the signal will be = 83.33%
distorted so proper reconstruction of signal Not ≈ 83%
possible.
150. A 60 kHz Carrier is amplitude modulated by 153. The minimum value of mf for an FM system
the speech band of 300 to 3000 Hz. The range required to produce a noticeable improvement
of upper side bands will be in S/N ratio over a comparable AM system with
(a) 60.3 to 63 kHz (b) 60 to 59.7 kHz m = 1 is
(c) 57 to 59.7 kHz (d) 56.7 to 56.3 kHz (a) 3 (b) 2
IES - 1991
1 1
Ans. (a) : Given data- (c) 1 (d)
Carrier frequency (fc) = 60kHz 2 3
Range of Message signal frequency (fm) = 300 to 3000 IES - 1991
Hz. Ans. (d) : The minimum value of mf for an FM system
f USB1 = f c + 300 Hz required to produce a noticeable improvement in S/N
= 60 kHz + 0.3kHz 1
ratio over a comparable AM system with m = 1 is
= 60.3 kHz 3
f USB2 = f c + 3000 Hz 154. In a superheterodyne AM receiver, the image
= 60 kHz +3 kHz channel selectivity is determined by
Hence Range is f USB1 to f USB2  (a) The preselector and RF stages
(b) the preselector, RF and IF stages
(60.3 to 63) kHz
(c) The IF stages
151. An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz
(d) all the stages
broadcast station. It will receive an image
frequency of Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
(a) 110 MHz (b) 112 MHz GATE-1998, 1996, 1995
(c) 114 MHz (d) 120 MHz Ans. (a) : In a superheterodyne AM receiver, the image
IES - 1991 channel selectivity is determined by the preselector and
Ans. (b) : Image frequency is given as- RF stages.
f si = fs + 2 IF 155. Which of the following demodulator(s) can be
Where- used for demodulating the signal
fs → tuned frequency (90.6 MHz) x ( t ) = 5 (1 + 2 cos 200 πt ) cos 20000 πt
IF → Intermediate frequency for broadcast
(a) Envelope demodulator
receivers are around 455 kHz for AM receivers and 10.7
MHz for FM receivers. (b) Square-law demodulator
6
fsi = 90.6×10 + 2×10.7 ×10 6 (c) Synchronous demodulator
= (90.6+21.4) ×10 6 (d) None of the above
f si = 112 MHz GATE-1993
Ans. (c) : General equation for AM signal-
152. An FM signal is being broadcast in the
S (t) = AC (1+µ cos ωmt) cos ωct
88-108 MHz band having a carrier swing of 125 AM
kHz. The percentage of modulation is given signal-
(a) 100% (b) 83% x (t) = 5 (1+2 cos 200 πt) cos 20000πt
(c) 67% (d) 50% Compare the both equation SAM (t) & x(t)
IES - 1991 AC = 5V modulation index (µ) = 2
Ans. (b) : Given, carrier swing When,
2∆f = 125 kHz µ<1 (Under modulation)
∆f =
125
kHz = 62.5kHz µ = 1 (Critical modulation)
2 µ>1 (Over modulation)
We know that maximum frequency deviation- In case of over modulation the detection is possible only
( ∆f )max = 75 kHz with synchronous demodulator only.

156. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans. (d) : If the given baseband signal bandwidth
answer using the code given below the Lists: f m1 & f m2
List-I List-II
Totel Bandwidth of modulated signal (BW)T =
A. SSB 1. Envelope detector
B. AM 2. Integrate and dump (
= 2 f m1 , f m2 ) max
C. BPSK 3. Hilbert transform = 2×15
4. Ratio detector = 30KHz
5. PLL 160. The amplitude modulated wave form
Codes : s(t) = AC [1+Kam(t)]cos ωCt is used an ideal
A B C envelope detector. The maximum magnitude of
(a) 3 1 2 Kam(t) is greater than 1. Which of the
(b) 3 2 1 following could be the detector output?
(a) A C m ( t ) (b) A C2 1 + K a m ( t ) 
2
(c) 2 1 1
(d) 1 2 3
(c)  A C 1 + K a m ( t )  (d) A C 1 + K a m ( t )
2
GATE-1994
Ans. (a) : GATE-2000
A SSB 3 Hilbert transform Ans. (c) : Envelop detector detect the magnitude
B AM 1 Envelop detector positive peak of carrier signal.
C BPSK 2 Integrate and dump given modulated wave form-
157. An FM signal with a modulation index 9 is S(t) = Ac [1+Kam(t)] cos ωct
applied to a frequency tripler. The modulation Envelop of carrier signal = Ac|1+Kam(t)|
index in the output signal will be 161. A message m(t) band limited to the frequency
(a) 0 (b) 3 fm has a power of Pm. The power of the output
(c) 9 (d) 27 signal in the figure is
GATE-1996
Ans. (d) : Frequency multiplier are circuit that generate
an output signal with output frequency is an exact
integral of its input frequency.
In a frequency multiplier circuit the modulation index is
multiply by "K"
β'fm = K.βfm
Pm cosθ Pm
given K =3 βfm = 9 (a) (b)
2 4
β'fm = 3 × 9 Pmsin 2θ Pm cos 2θ
= 27 (c) (d)
4 4
158. A DSB-SC signal is generated using the carrier GATE-2000
cos ( ωct + θ) and modulating signals x(t). The ISRO Scientist- May, 2017
envelop of the DSB-SC signal is Ans. (d) : In the given figure-
(a) x(t)
Mutiplier output = m(t) cos ω0t cos (ω0t + θ)
(b) x ( t ) ∵ 2 cosA. cos B = cos (A+B) + cos (A– B)
(c) only positive portion of x(t) m(t) cos θ m(t) cos(2ω0 t + θ)
Multiplier output = +
(d) x(t) cos θ 2 2
GATE-1998 m(t)
Ans. (b) : Given, = [ cos θ + cos(2ω0 t + θ)]
2
DSB-SC signal = x ( t ) cos ( ωc t + θ ) After passing low pass filter with cut off frequency fc =
Envelope of DSB-SC signal = | x ( t ) | fm only.
159. A modulated signal is given by m(t)
output of LPF = cos θ
s(t) = m1 (t)cos ( 2πfc t ) + m 2 ( t ) sin ( 2πfc t ) 2
where the baseband signal m1(t) and m2(t) have given power m(t) = Pm
bandwidths of 10 kHz and 15 kHz, respectively. power of m(t) = a2. Pm
The bandwidth of the modulated signal, in 1
kHz, is here a = cos θ
2
(a) 10 (b) 15
P
(c) 25 (d) 30 Power of output signal = m cos 2 θ
GATE-1999 4
162. The Hilbert transform of cosω1t + sinω 2 t is Ans. (c) : Given-
(a) sinω1t – cosω2 t (b) sinω1t + cosω2 t symmetrical square period = 100 µ sec
(c) cosω1t – sinω2 t (d) sinω1t + sinω2 t fm = 10KHz
fc = 1 MHz
GATE-2000
= 1000 KHz
Ans. (a) : We know →
m(t) is a symmetrical square wave form So m(t) contain
cos ω1 t →
Hilbert transform
sin ω1 t only odd harmonic fm, 3fm, 5fm ………etc.
sin ω2 t →
Hilbert transform
− cos ω2 t AM signal contains
the Hilbert transform is a specific linear operator. = ( f c ± f m ) ( f c ± 3f m ) (f c ± 5f m ).......etc
cos ω1 t + sin ω2 t →
Hilbert transform
sin ω1 t − cos ω2 t Lower cut of frequency = 950 KHz, 970 KHz, 990KHz
we can therefore concluded that 1020 KHz will not
163. In a FM system, a carrier of 100 MHz is present in the AM signal.
modulated by a sinusoidal signal of 5 kHz. The
bandwidth by Carson’s approximation is 1 166. An angle-modulated signal is given by
MHz. If y(t) = (modulated waveform)3, then by
using Carson’s approximation, the bandwidth
(
s ( t ) = cos2π 2×106 t + 30sin 150t + 40cos 150t . )
of y(t) and the spacing of spectral components The maximum frequency and phase deviations
are, respectively. of s(t) are
(a) 3 MHz, 5 kHz (b) 1 MHz, 15 kHz (a) 10.5 kHz, 140π rad
(c) 3 MHz, 15 kHz (d) 1 MHz, 5 kHz (b) 6 kHz, 80π rad
GATE-2000 (c) 10.5 kHz, 100π rad
Ans. (a) : Given, (d) 7.5 kHz, 100π rad
Frequency modulated waveform GATE-2002
x ( t ) = A c cos [ ωc t + β sin ωm t ] Ans. (d) : Given,
y ( t ) = K cos [ 3ωc t + 3β sin ωm t ] Angle modulated signal
After passing from y[t] = [x(t)] 3 S ( t ) = cos 2π  2 × 106 t + 30sin150t + 40cos150t 
So, β ' = 3β
S ( t ) = cos[2π× 2 × 106 t + 2π× 30sin150t
Where β = modulation index
+2π × 40 cos150t]
∆f ' = 3 × ∆f = ∆f >> f m
dφi
∆f = frequency deviation = 2π× 2 × 106 + 2π× 4500cos150t
dt
BW = 2∆f '× 3 = 3MHz
+2π× 6000 ( − sin150t )
f m = 5kHz ( f m remains same )
∴ ∆ω = ω1 − ω2
164. A bandlimited signal is sampled at the Nyquist
rate. The signal can be recovered by passing = 2π ( 45002 + 60002 )
the samples through
(a) an RC filter = 2π× 7.5 k rad / sec
(b) an envelope detector
∆ω
(c) a PLL ∴ ∆f = = 7.5 kHz
(d) an ideal low-pass filter with the appropriate 2π
bandwidth
∆φ = 2π ( 30 ) + ( 40 )
2 2
GATE-2001
Ans. (d) : A bandlimited signal is sampled at the ∆φ = 2π 900 + 1600
Nyquist rate. The signal can be recovered by passing the
samples through an ideal low-pass filter with the ∆φ = 100π
appropriate bandwidth.
2sin2πt
165. A 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude 167. In the figure m(t) = ,s ( t ) = cos 200πt
t
modulated by a symmetrical square wave of
sin199πt
period 100 µsec. Which of the following and n ( t ) = . The output y(t) will be
frequencies will NOT be present in the t
modulated signal?
(a) 990 kHz (b) 1010 kHz
(c) 1020 kHz (d) 1030 kHz
UPSC JWM-2016
GATE-2002
sin2πt (a) 1.0 (b) 0.333
(a) (c) 0.5 (d) 3.0
2t
GATE-2003
sin2πt sinπt
(b) + cos3πt Ans. (c) : The output of the Non-linear device obtained
2t t as-
sin2πt sin0.5πt V0 = a 0 Vi + a1Vi3
(c) + cos1.5πt
2t t given Vi = A ic cos(2πf ci t) + m(t)
sin2πt sinπt 3
(d) + cos0.75πt V0= a0 Aic cos(2πfci t) + m(t) + a1 Aci cos(2πfci t) + m(t)
2t t
GATE-2002 = a 0 A ic cos 2πf ci t + a 0 m(t) + a1A 3ic cos3 2πf ci t +
Ans. (c) : From given question-
y1 ( t ) = m ( t ) s ( t ) a1m3 (t) + 3a1m 2 (t)A ic cos 2πf ci t + 3a1A ic cos 2 2πf ci t m(t).
2sin ( 2πt ) cos ( 2πt ) After passing Band pass filter, we find the DSB –SC
y1 ( t ) =
t signal as-
y 2 ( t ) = y1 ( t ) + n ( t ) A ic
x(t) = 3a1 cos(4πf ci t)m(t) ….(i)
sin 202πt − sin198πt sin198πt 2
= +
t t Given the carrier frequency fc = 1MHz
Now y ( t ) = y 2 ( t ) .s ( t ) So, we have the DSB–SC signal as-
=
[sin 202πt − sin198πt + sin199πt ] cos 200πt x(t) = C(t). M(t)
= AC cos (ωct). m(t)
t
1 = AC cos (2π×106t) m(t) ….(ii)
y ( t ) = [sin ( 402πt ) + sin ( 2πt ) − {sin ( 389πt ) Compare the equation (i) & (ii)
2t
− sin 2πt} + sin ( 399πt ) − sin ( πt )] ………. (i) 4πf ci t = 2π × 106 × t
After filtering equation (i) through LPF with cut-off 2π× 106
f ci = = 0.5 MHz
frequency 1Hz we get- 4π
sin ( 2πt ) + sin ( 2πt ) − sin ( πt ) 170. Choose the correct one from among the
y(t) =
2t alternative a, b, c, d after matching an item in
Group 1 with the most appropriate item in
sin ( 2πt ) + 2sin ( 0.5t ) cos (1.5πt )
y(t) = Group 2.
2t Group 1
sin ( 2πt ) sin 0.5t P. Ring Modulator
y(t) = + cos1.5πt Q. VCO
2t t
168. The input a coherent detector is DSB-SC signal R. Foster-Seeley discriminator
plus noise. The noise at the detector output is S. Mixer
(a) the in-phase component Group 2
(b) the quadrature-component 1. Clock recovery
(c) zero 2. Demodulation of FM
(d) the envelope 3. Frequency conversion
4. Summing the two inputs
GATE-2003
5. Generation of FM
Ans. (a) : The coherent detector rejects the quadrature 6. Generation of DSB-SC
component of noise therefore noise at the output has in
(a) P – 1; Q – 3; R – 2; S – 4
phase component only.
(b) P – 6; Q – 5; R – 2; S – 3
169. A DSB-SC signal is to be generated with a (c) P – 6; Q – 1; R – 3; S – 2
carrier frequency fc = 1 MHz using a non- (d) P – 5; Q – 6; R – 1; S – 3
linear device with the input-output
characteristic GATE-2003
3 Ans. (b) :
V 0 = a 0v i + a 1 v i
Group –1 Group – 2
where, a0 and a1 are constants. The output of
non-linear device can be filtered by an P Ring Modulator Generation of DSB -SC
appropriate band-pass filter. Q VCO Generation of FM
i
( )
Let, Vi = = A c cos 2πfc t + m ( t ) where m(t) is
i R Foster-seeley
discriminator
Demodulation of FM
message signal. Then the value of fci (in MHz) is S Mixer Frequency conversion
171. A superheterodyne receiver is to operate in the
frequency range 550 kHz – 1650 kHz, with the
intermediate frequency of 450 kHz. Let,
C
R = max denote the required capacitance
Cmin
ratio of the local oscillator and I denote the (a) constant
image frequency (in kHz) of the incoming
signal. If the receiver is tuned to 700 kHz, then
(b) 1+ sin 2π ×106 t ( )
(a) R = 4.41, I = 1600 (b) R = 2.10, I = 1150
(c) R = 3.0, I = 1600 (d) R = 9.0, I = 1150
(c) 5 / 4 – sin 2π×106 t ( )
GATE-2003 (d) 5 / 4 + cos 2π× 106 t ( )
Ans. (a) : Given,
GATE-2004
IF = 450kHz.
Frequency range (550 to 1650) kHz, where 1650 kHz is Ans. (c) :
maximum and 550 kHz minimum value. When the local
oscillator frequency is kept higher, the maximum to
minimum capacitance ratio required is-
2 2
C  f   1650 + 450 
R = max =  max  =  
C min  f min   550 + 450  Given,
 2100 
2 Output y(t)-
=   = 4.41
 1000 
1
( ) (
= cos 2π× 101×106 t + sin 2π×100 ×106 t
2
)
fsi = fs +2IF
= [cos ( 2π × 100 × 106 t ) cos 2π106 t − sin ( 2π × 100 × 106 t )
1
fsi = 700 + 2 ×450
2
f si = 1600 kHz
sin 2π × 106 t] + sin 2π ×100 ×106 t
172. An AM signal and a narrow-band FM signal
1
with identical carriers, modulating signals and =  cos ( 2π× 100 × 106 t )( cos 2π× 106 t )
modulation indices of 0.1 are added together. 2
− sin ( 2π× 100 × 106 t ) sin 2π× 106 t  + sin ( 2π × 100 × 106 t )
The resultant signal can be closely 1
approximated by 2
(a) broadband FM (b) SSB with carrier
(c) DSB-SC (d) SSB without carrier
GATE-2004 = cos ( 2π× 10 t ) cos ( 2π× 100 × 10 t )
1 6 6
2
Ans. (b) : General equation of NBFM is-
 1 
A Cβ + 1 − sin ( 2π× 106 t )  sin ( 2π× 100 × 106 t )
SNBFM(t) = Ac cos 2πfct – cos 2π(f c − f m )t +  2 
2 The signal is in form
AC β = A cos 2π × 108 t + Bsin 2π × 108 t
cos 2π(f c + f m )t
2 Envelop of the signal is
General equation of Am signal-
= A 2 + B2
SAM(t)
2 2
Aµ Aµ 1   1 
=Accos2πfct+ c cos 2π(f c + f m ) + c cos 2π(f c − f m )t =  cos 2π×106 t  +  1 − sin 2π× 106 t 
2 2 2   2 
SNBFM(t) + SAM = SSB with carrier 5
So, The resultant signal can be closely approximated by = − sin 2π×106 t
SSB with carrier. 4
174. Two sinusoidal signals of same amplitude and
173. A 100 MHz carrier of 1 V amplitude and a 1 frequencies 10 kHz and 10.1 kHz are added
MHz modulating signal of 1 V amplitude are together. The combined signal is given to an
fed to a balanced modulator. The output of the ideal frequency detector. The output of the
modulator is passed through and ideal high- detector is
pass filter with cut-off frequency of 100 MHz. (a) 0.1 kHz sinusoid
The output of the filter is added with 100 MHz (b) 20.1 kHz sinusoid
signal of 1 V amplitude and 90º phase shift as (c) a linear function of time
shown in the figure. The envelope of the (d) a constant
resultant signal is GATE-2004
Ans. (a) : The bandwidth of the output would be
S ( t ) = A cos  2π10 × 103 t  + A cos  2π10.1× 103 t  (a) 4×10 4 Hz (b) 2×106 Hz
1 (c) 2×109 Hz (d) 2×1010 Hz
Here, T1 = = 100µ sec GATE-2006
10 ×103
1 Ans. (b) : Lower sideband spectrum of SSB.
T2 = = 99 µ sec
10.1×103
Period of added signal will be LCM[T1 ,T2 ]
Thus T = LCM[100,99] = 9900 µ sec
1
So, frequency f = = 0.1kHz
9900µ
f m = 106 Hz
175. A device with input x(t) and output y(t) is
characterized by : y(t) = x 2 ( t ) . (As 10 kHz is small in comparison to 106 Hz)
BW = 2fmax
An FM signal with frequency deviation of 90 BW = 2×106 Hz
kHz and modulating signal bandwidth of 5kHz
is applied to this device. The bandwidth of the 178. In the following scheme, if the spectrum M(f) of
output signal is m(t) is as shown, then the spectrum Y(f) of y(t)
(a) 370 kHz (b) 190 kHz will be
(c) 380 kHz (d) 9 kHz
GATE-2005
Ans. (a) : Given data,
Total frequency deviation (∆f) = 90kHz
signal bandwidth (fm) = 5kHz
B.W = 2 (∆f+fm)
= 2 (180+5)
B.W = 370kHz
When FM signal is applied to doubler frequency
deviation doubles but fm remains the same.
176. The diagonal clipping in Amplitude
Demodulation (using envelope detector) can be
avoided if RC time-constant of the envelope
detector satisfies the following condition, (here
W is message bandwidth and ω is carrier
frequency both in rad/sec)
1 1
(a) RC < (b) RC >
W W
1 1
(c) RC < (d) RC >
ω ω
GATE-2006
Ans. (a) : To Avoid Negative peak clipping also said
diagonal clipping.
So time constant of detector circuit will
GATE-2007
1
RC < Ans. (a) : The spectrum y(f) of y(t) will be-
fm
Here fm is maximum modulating frequency i.e. the
bandwidth (W)
1
so RC <
W
179. Consider the amplitude modulated (AM) signal
177. A message signal with bandwidth 10 kHz is A ccosωc t + 2 cosωm t cosωc t. For demodulating
Lower Side Band SSB modulated with carrier
the signal using envelope detector, the
frequency fc1 = 106 Hz. The resulting signal is
minimum vlaue of Ac should be
then passes through a Narrow-Band Frequency (a) 2 (b) 1
Modulator with carrier frequency of (c) 0.5 (d) 0
fc2 = 109 Hz. GATE-2008
Ans. (a) : : Given AM signal- Ans. (c) : cos  2π ( f c + f m ) t  represents upper side
SAM(t) = AC cos ωct + 2cos ωmt . cos ωct
band. It represents a single side-band (SSB) signal.
 2  182. A message signal given by
XAM(t) = Ac 1 + cos ωm t  cos ωc t
 Ac  1 1
m ( t ) =   cosω1t –   sinω 2t
SAM ( t ) = A c [1 + µ cos ωm t ] cos ωc t 2 2
Compare the both signal. SAM(t) & XAM (t). is amplitude-modulated with a carrier of
2 frequency ωc to generate
µ= s(t) = [1 + m(t)] cos ωct
Ac
Condition for envelope detector of AM signal- What is the power efficiency achieved by this
µ ≤1 modulation scheme?
(a) 8.33% (b) 11.11%
2 (c) 20% (d) 25%
≤1
Ac GATE-2009
Ac ≥ 2 Ans. (c) : Given signal-
s(t) = [1 + m(t)] cosωct ….(i)
Hence, minimum value of Ac should be 2. SAM (t) = AC [1+kam (t)] cosωct ….(ii)
180. Consider the frequency modulated signal compare both equation (i) & (ii)
10cos[2π×105 t +5sin( 2π+1500t ) +7.5sin(2π×1000t)] Ac = 1 Ka = 1
with carrier frequency of 105 Hz. The modulation 1 1
index is given → m(t) = cos ω1 (t) − sin ω2 (t)
2 2
(a) 12.5 (b) 10 1 1
(c) 7.5 (d) 5 A m1 = A m2 =
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II 2 2
GATE-2008 A m1 1
µ1 = =
Ans. (b) : Given FM signal- AC 2
SFM (t) = 10 cos [2π ×105t + 5sin (2π ×1500t) A m2
+7.5 sin (2π×1000t)] µ2 = = 1/ 2
AC
∆φ = 5 sin (2π×1500t)+7.5sin (2π 1000t)
∆φ µ t = µ12 + µ 22
= 5×2π×1500 cos(2π ×1500t)+7.5×2π ×1000 cos
dt
1 1 1
(2π × 1000t) µt = + =
4 4 2
 ∆φ 
  = 2π× 7500 + 2π× 7500 1
 dt  max
µ 2t
= 2π (15000) η= × 100% = 2 × 100%
2 + µ 2t 2+
1
 ∆φ 
 = ( ∆ω)max
∵ 2
 dt max 1
η = × 100%
∆ω 2π×15000 5
∆f = =
2π 2π η = 20%
∆f = 15000Hz
183. Suppose that the modulating signal is m(t) =
∆f 15000 2cos(2πfmt) and the carrier signal is xC(t) =
Modulation index (β) = =
f m 1500 ACcos(2πfct). Which one of the following is a
conventional AM signal without over-
β = 10
modulation?
181. For a message signal m(t) = cos(2πfmt) and (a) x(t) = ACm(t)cos(2πfct)
carrier of frequency fc, which of the following
(b) x ( t ) = A C 1 + m ( t )  cos ( 2πf c t )
represents a single side-band (SSB) signal?
(a) cos(2πfmt) cos(2πfct) A
(c) x(t) = A C cos ( 2πf c t ) + C m(t)cos ( 2πf c t )
(b) cos(2πfct) 4
(c) cos  2π ( f c + f m ) t 
  (d) x(t) = A C cos ( 2πf m t ) cos ( 2πf c t )
(d) 1 + cos ( 2πf m t )  cos ( 2πf c t ) + A C sin ( 2πf m t ) sin ( 2πf c t )
GATE-2009 GATE-2010
Ans. (c) : In option (c) Ans. (b) : From envelop detector to get proper signal,
AC condition should be-
x(t) = AC cos 2πfct + m(t) cos2πfct
4 1 1
< < RC <
 1  fc fm
= A C 1 + m(t)  cos 2πf c t , (m(t) = 2cos2πfmt)
 4  given,
 1  fc = 1MHz
= A C 1 + cos 2π f m t  cos 2π f c t
 2  fm = 2000 Hz = 2KHz
Here µ = 0.5 1 1
We know- << RC <
1MHz 2 KHz
• Under modulation (µ < 1)
• Critical modulation (µ = 1) 1µsec << RC < 0.5msec
• Over modulation (µ > 1) 186. Consider an FM signal
therefore, option (c) is conventional AM signal without
over modulation. f ( t ) = cos [ 2πfc t + β1sin2πf1t + β 2sin2πf 2 t ]
184. The List-I (lists the attributes) and the list- The maximum deviation of the instantaneous
II(lists of the modulation systems). Match the frequency from the carrier frequency fc is
attribute to the modulation system that best (a) β1f1 + β2f2 (b) β1f2 + β2f1
meets it.
List – I (c) β1 + β2 (d) f1 + f2
A. Power efficient transmission of signals UPPSC ITI Principal /Asstt. Director 09.01.2022
B. Most bandwidth efficient transmission of GATE-2014
voice signals Ans. (a) : Maximum frequency deviation = rate of
C. Simplest receiver structure charge of phase
D. Bandwidth efficient transmission of signals 1 dφ
with significant dc component =
List-II 2π dt max
1. Conventions AM Where φ = phase deviation
2. FM Given FM signal-
3. VSB
4. SSB-SC f ( t ) = cos [ 2πf c t + β1 sin 2πf1t + β2 sin 2πf 2 t ]
A B C D 1
(a) 4 2 1 3 = ( β1 2πf1 cos 2πf1t + β2 2πf 2 cos 2πf 2 t )max
2π
(b) 2 4 1 3
1
(c) 3 2 1 4 = ( 2πβ1f1 + 2πβ2f 2 ) = β1f1 + β2f 2
(d) 2 4 3 1 2π
GATE-2011 187. Consider the signal
Ans. (b) : s ( t ) = m ( t ) cos ( 2πfc t ) + m
ˆ ( t ) sin ( 2πfc t )
• Convention AM is simplest receiver structure.
• FM has power efficient of transmission of signal. where, m̂ ( t ) denotes the Hilbert transform of
• VSB is bandwidth efficient transmission of signal m(t) and the bandwidth of m(t) is very small
with significant dc component. compared to fc. The signal s(t) is a
• SSB-SC is most efficient transmission of voice (a) high-pass signal
signal. (b) low-pass signal
185. A message signal (c) band-pass signal
m ( t ) = cos 2000πt + 4 cos 4000 πt (d) double sideband suppressed carrier signal
modulates the carrier c(t) = cos 2 π fct where fc GATE-2015
= 1 MHz to produce an AM signal. For Ans. (c) : Given signal
demodulating the generated AM signal using s(t) = m(t)cos ( 2πf c t ) + m
ˆ ( t ) sin ( 2πf c t ) . This is the
an envelope detector, the time constant RC of
the detector circuit should satisfy equation of SSB-SC. So, the signal s(t) is band-pass
(a) 0.5 ms < RC < 1 ms signal.
(b) 1 µs << RC < 0.5 ms 188. A message signal m(t) = Am sin(2πfmt) is used to
(c) RC << 1µs modulate the phase of carrier Ac cos(2πfct) to
(d) RC >> 0.5 ms get the modulated signal y(t) = Ac cos(2πfct +
GATE-2011 m(t)). The bandwidth of y(t)
(a) depends of Am but not on fm
(b) depends of fm but not on Am
(c) depends of Am and fm
(d) does not depends on Am or fm
GATE-2015
Ans. (c) : According to Carson rule, the practical
Bandwidth of a phase-modulated signal is-
(B.W) = 2(∆f + fm)
for single tone phase modulation
∆f = Am Kp fm
B.W. = 2(Kp Am fm + fm)
B.W = (K p A m + 1) 2f m
The corresponding frequency synthesized are :
So, Bandwidth of y(t) is depend of Am & fm. (a) 10 kHz, 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz
189. The complex envelope of the bandpass signal (b) 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz, 160 kHz
 sin ( πt/5 )   π (c) 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz, 10 kHz
x ( t ) = – 2   sin  πt –  , centered (d) 160 kHz, 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz
 πt/5   4
GATE-2016
1
about f = Hz, is Ans. (a) :
2
 sin ( πt / 5 )  j π4
(a)   e
 πt / 5 
 sin ( πt / 5 )  – j π4
(b)   e
 πt / 5 
fin Divide by N VCO output
 sin ( πt / 5 )  j π4 (Nfin)
(c) 2   e
 πt / 5  5kHz 2 10 kHz
 sin ( πt / 5)  – j π4 5 kHz 4 20 kHz
(d) 2   e 5 kHz 8 140 kHz
 πt / 5 
5 kHz 16 80 kHz
GATE-2015
191. For the modulated signal x(t) = m(t)
Ans. (c) : Given the band pass signal x(t)
cos ( 2πfc t ) , the message signal m(t) =
  πt  
 sin  5    4cos(1000πt) and the carrier frequency fc is 1
=− 2     sin πt − π 
MHz. The signal x(t) is passed through a
  t   
π 4 
demodulator, as shown in the figure below. The
  5  
output y(t) of the demodulator is
~ 
x ( t ) = R e  x ( t ) e j2 πfc t 
 
Where, x ( t ) = complex envelope

~
 sin ( πt / 5 )  j π4
= 2 e
 πt / 5  (a) cos(1000πt) (b) cos(540πt)
190. The block diagram of frequency synthesizer (c) cos(920πt) (d) cos(460πt)
consisting of a Phase Locked Loop (PLL) and GATE-2020
divide-by-N counter (comparing ÷ 2, ÷ 4, ÷ 8, ÷ Ans. (c) : : Given,
16, outputs) is sketched below. The synthesizer x(t) = m(t) cos(2πfct)
is excited with 5 kHz signal (Input 1). The free-
m(t) = 4 cos (1000πt)
running frequency of the PLL is set to 20 kHz.
Assume that the commutator switch makes (multiplier) output = x(t). cos 2π(fc+40)t
contacts repeatedly in the order 1 – 2- 3 – 4. = m(t)cos(2πfct) cos 2π(fc+40)t

(Multiplier)output 4 + (0.5)2 4.25
m(t) = × 100% = ×100%
=  cos [ 2π(f c − f c − 40)t ] + cos [ 2π(f c + f c + 40)t ] 4 + 2(0.5) 2
4.50
2 % Power saving = 94.4%
m(t)
= [ cos 2π40t + cos[2π(2fc + 40)t]] 195. A receiver connected to an antenna whose
2 resistance is 50 Ω has an equivalent noise
4 cos(1000 πt) resistance of 30 Ω. Calculate the receiver's
= [ cos 2π40t + cos[2π(2fc + 40)t]] noise figure in decibels.
2
= 2cos(1000πt).cos(80πt) + 2cos(1000πt).cos[2π(2fc + 40)t] (a) 2.67 (b) 1.6
(c) 0.4 (d) 2.04
=cos(920πt) + cos(1080πt) + cos[(1000πt) –2π(2fc+40t) RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
cos (1000π t) + 2π (2fc + 40)t ]
Fourier transform of (Multiplier)output is– Ans. (d) : We know that,
R eq
Noise figure = 1 +
Rs
30 8
= 1+ = = 1.6
50 5
Noise figure in dB = 10 log (1.6) = 2.04
196. For an angle modulated signal x(t) = 3 cos
[2π106t+2sin(2π103t)], what is the maximum
frequency deviation?
(a) 2,000 Hz (b) 1,000 Hz
the multiplier output of the low pass filter have cut of (c) 5,000 Hz (d) 10,000 Hz
frequency is 510 Hz. So Multiplier output contain RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
frequency of 460Hz only as shown above figure.
∴ y (t) = cos (920πt) Ans. (a) : x(t) = 3 cos [2π106t + 2 sin(2π103t)]
We know the standard turn for single tone FM single-
192. In Amplitude Modulation, ______ of total S (t) = A cos [2πf t+β sin 2πf t]
transmitted power is used for carrying message FM c c m
signal under best conditions. β = 2 and f m == 10 3
(a) 25% (b) 33% ∆f

(c) 50% (d) 78% β= ⇒ ∆f = β× f m
fm
TSGENCO AE-2015 3
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade 2015, Paper-II Frequency deviation (∆f) = 2× 10
Ans. (b) : In amplitude modulation 33% of total (∆f) = 2000Hz
transmitted power is used for carrying message signal 197. When β is the modulation index, then the
under best conditions. bandwidth of full AM and FM signals are
193. Which modulation scheme uses Hilbert respectively (fc = carrier frequency, fm =
transformer? baseband frequency)
(a) DSB (b) PM (a) (f c ± f m) and (fc ± 2βfm)
(c) VSB (d) SSB (b) (fc ± fm) and (fc ± βfm)
TSGENCO AE-2015 (c) (fc ± 2fm) and (fc ± 2βfm)
Ans. (d) : SSB modulation scheme uses Hilbert (d) (fc ± 2fm) and (fc ± βfm)
transformer. RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
• The Hilbert transform is a technique used to obtain the Ans. (b) : B.W of full AM = fc ± fm
minimum phase response from a spectral analysis. B.W of full FM = fc ± βfm
194. Calculate the percentage power saving when β = modulation index
the carrier and one of the sidebands are
suppressed in an AM wave modulated to a 198. A super heterodyne receiver with an IF of 450
depth of 50 percent. kHz is tuned to a signal of 1000 kHz, the image
(a) 83.3 (b) 94.4 frequency is
(c) 50 (d) 66.6 (a) 650 kHz (b) 2100 kHz
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 (c) 1900 kHz (d) 1450 kHz
Ans. (b) : Given,
µ = 50% Ans. (c) : A super heterodyne receiver
IF = 450 kHz
µ = 0.5 tuned signal = 1000 kHz
Image frequency (fsi) = (fs + 2IF)
4 + µ2
% Power saving = × 100% fsi = 1000 + 900
4 + 2µ 2 fsi = 1900 kHz
199. A signal carrier c(t) = A cos 2πfct + B sin 2π fct
is passed through an envelope detector. What is Ans. (b) : It = IC 1 + µ
2
the magnitude of the output of envelope 2

detector, at t = 5 sec ? Given A = 6, B = 10 & fc I
= 106 Hz. ∴ t = 1.15 ( Given )
(a) 12.95 (b) 100 I C
(c) 11.66 (d) 6.4 µ2

RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 ∴ 1.15 = 1 +
2
Ans. (c) : c(t) = A cos 2πfct + B sin 2π fct
∴ µ = 0.645
2
c(t) = 6 cos 2π106t + 10 sin 2π106t
magnitude of the output envelope detector ∴ µ = 0.8
(6) 2 + (10) 2 = 136 204. For a frequency-modulated signal, the
= 11.66 modulation index is doubled. The average
200. The following cannot be used to remove the power of the modulated signal is
unwanted sideband in the SSB : (a) quadrupled (b) doubled
(a) A filter system (b) Balanced modulator (c) unaltered (d) none of these
(c) Phase shift method (d) Weaver's method TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 Ans. (c) : The transmitted power is independent of the
Ans. (b) : There are three method of generating SSB modulation index in the FM.
(Single Side-band) from modulating signal : Note: If the modulation index increases, transmitted
(i) Filter method (frequency discrimination method) power increases in the AM and is unchanged for FM.
(ii) Phase-shift method 205. In an AM broadcast super heterodyne receiver,
(iii) Weaver's method (IIIrd method) the local oscillator frequency is arranged to be
Hence, balanced modulator cannot be used to remove higher than the incoming signal frequency in
sideband in the SSB. order to
201. In the filter method of generation of SSB-SC, in (a) provide better image rejection
order to make the filter specifications less (b) make tracking easier
stringent, (c) produce the correct intermediate frequency,
(a) it is ensured that the modulating signal has no since a lower frequency will not permit
high-frequency components generation of correct IF
(b) a high-frequency carrier is used initially for (d) enable us to cover the required frequency
generating the DSB-SC signal range with the practically possible ratio of
(c) only those modulating signals which have maximum to minimum values of the variable
high dc and low frequency content are used capacitors
(d) a low-frequency carrier is used initially for TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
generating the DSB-SC signal Ans. (d) : In an AM broadcast super heterodyne
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 receiver, the local oscillator frequency is arranged to be
Ans. (d) : A low frequency carrier is used initially for higher than the incoming signal frequency in order to
generating the SSB-SC signal. enable us to cover the required frequency range with the
202. The occurrence of double spotting indicates practically possible ratio of maximum to minimum
(a) that the IF is too high values of the variable capacitors.
(b) that the selectivity is poor 206. At the output of the discriminator in a FM
(c) that image rejection capability of the receiver receiver, the PSD of the noise
is inadequate (a) increases linearly with frequency
(d) that the local oscillator frequency is less than (b) decreases as the square of the frequency
of the incoming signal (c) increases as the square of the frequency
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 (d) decreases linearly with frequency
Ans. (c) : Occurrence of double spotting indicates that TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
the image rejection capability of the receiver is
inadequate. Ans. (c) : At the output of discriminator in a FM
receiver, the PSD of the noise increases as the square of
• Double spotting is a condition where the same desired
signal is detected at two nearby points on the receiver. the frequency.
203. When sinusoidally modulated, the r.m.s value 207. 'Pre-emphasis' is
of the current in the antenna of an AM (a) boosting up of the high-frequency
transmitter increases 15% over its components of the message signal after
unmodulated value. The modulation index is detection in the receiver
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.8 (b) boosting up of the high-frequency
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.707 components of the message signal at the
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 transmitter before the modulation
(c) boosting up of the low-frequency components Ans. (d) : Given, µ = 0.7 Pc = 14 W
of the message signal after detection in the
 µ2 
receiver Pt = Pc  1 + 
(d) boosting up of the low-frequency components  2 
of the message signal at the transmitter before  0.49 
the modulation Pt = 14 1 + 
 2 
Pt = 17.43 W
Ans. (b) : • Pre-emphasis is the process of boosting up
the high frequency components of the message signal at 212. The FM techniques in telemetry is usually
the transmitter before the modulation. employed at:
• Used in FM. (a) 100 MHz and above with much larger
• It Improves SNR. bandwidth than AM
208. The Foster-Seeley discriminator responds to (b) 100 MHz and above with much lesser
the input FM signal's bandwidth than AM
(a) amplitude variations only (c) Less than 100 MHz with much larger
bandwidth than AM
(b) amplitude as well as frequency variations
(d) Less than 100 MHz with much lesser
(c) frequency variations only
bandwidth than AM
(d) variations neither in amplitude nor in frequency
Ans. (a) : In FM technique in telemetry the standard
Ans. (b) : Foster-Seeley discriminator also called as
bandwidth is 100 MHz and much larger bandwidth than
phase-shift discriminator. It responds to both Amplitude
AM.
as well as frequency variations.
213. When the carrier and one of the sidebands are
209. A super heterodyne AM broadcast receiver has
suppressed in an AM wave modulated to a
an IF of 455 kHz. If it is tuned to a frequency of
depth of 100%, the power saving will be
700 kHz, the image frequency is
nearly:
(a) 1610 kHz (b) 1155 kHz
(a) 73% (b) 78%
(c) 245 kHz (d) 210 kHz
(c) 81% (d) 83%
Ans. (d) :
IF = 455 kHz
4 + µ2
Tuned frequency (fs) = 700 kHz % power saving = × 100%
We know that, 2 ( 2 + µ2 )
Image Frequency (fsi) = fs +2IF 4 +1
fsi = (700 +2×455) kHz = × 100%
6
fsi = 1610 kHz
% power saving = 83.33%
210. The maximum efficiency of AM modulation 214. Which one of the following demodulators is
(tone modulation) is: widely used in high quality FM radio
(a) 30% (b) 33% receivers?
(c) 67% (d) 70% (a) FM Feedback
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 (b) Phase-locked loop
DFCCIL Executive (S&T)-11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
(c) Foster-Seeley discriminator
µ2 (d) Extension
Ans. (b) : efficiency (η) =
2 + µ2 UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
for maximum efficiency µ = 1 Ans. (c) : For high quality FM radio receiver fidelity
should be very high So, Foster-Seeley discriminator
1 widely use for this purpose.
%η = ×100 = 33%
3 215. In an automatic frequency control of a receiver
211. The modulation index of an AM modulated the feedback for AFC is taken from:
signal is 0.7 and the carrier power is 14 W. (a) Detector stage (b) Mixer stage
Calculate total sideband power. (c) Local oscillator (d) LF IF amplifier
(a) 12.39 W (b) 23.14 W UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
(c) 18.47 W (d) 17.43 W Ans. (a) : In an automatic frequency control of a
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 receiver the feedback is taken from detector stage.
216. A 200-watt carrier is amplitude-modulated to a P = 24W
t
depth of 50 percent. What is the total power in
µ = 100%
the modulated wave?
(a) 175 W (b) 225 W µ =1
(c) 250 W (d) 200 W Now, put the value of Pt and µ in equation (i).
Ans. (b) : Given that,  (1) 2 
24 = Pc 1 + 
Pc = 200 W  2 

µ = 50%
3
µ = 0.5 24 = Pc
2
We know that, Pc = 16W
 µ2 
Total power ( Pt ) = Pc  1 +  220. An FM wave is represented by y(t) = 10 sin
 2  [2000πt + 4 sin 1250πt] . The maximum
 ( 0.5)  2 frequency deviation is :
Pt = 200  1 +  (a) 1250 Hz (b) 2000 Hz
 2  (c) 2500 Hz (d) 4000 Hz

2.25 APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
Pt = 200 × Ans. (c) : y ( t ) = 10sin [ 2000πt + 4sin1250πt ]
2
Pt = 225W Compare to general equation of FM signal.
= A c sin ( 2πf c t + β sin 2πf m t )
217. During modulation, the information signal and
the high frequency signal, respectively, are A c = 10 , f c = 1000Hz , f m = 625Hz , β = 4
called :
Frequency deviation ( ∆f ) = βf m
(a) carrier signal and modulating signal
(b) modulating signal and carrier signal ∆f = 4 × 625
(c) carrier signal and modulated signal ∆f = 2500Hz
(d) modulated signal and carrier signal
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 221. Which of the following is NOT the reason as to
Ans. (b) : Information signal → message signal (or) why TRF receiver was removed by the super
heterodyne receiver?
modulating signal
(a) Gain variation over frequency coverage range
High frequency signal → carrier signal
(b) Insufficient gain and sensitivity
218. For an AM wave represented by 10 [1 + 0.6 cos (c) Inadequate selectively at high frequencies
(2000 πt)] cos (2π * 106t), the bandwidth of (d) Instability
modulated signal is : APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
(a) 3 KHz (b) 2 KHz
(c) 5 KHz (d) 4 KHz Ans. (b) :
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 TRF receiver have best gain and sensitivity.
Most simplest type of receiver since it does not
Ans. (b) : AM wave involve mixing and IF operation.
X ( t ) = 10[1 + 0.6cos(2000πt)]cos(2π×106 t) Very much suitable to receive single frequency.
XAM(t) = A c [1 + A m cos(2πf m t)]cos(2πf c t) 222. The antenna current of an AM transmitter is
Band width of modulated signal = 2fm 8A when only carrier is sent, but it increases to
8.93 A when the carrier is modulated. Then
= 2 × 1000
what is the percentage modulation of the wave?
= 2KHz (a) 43.00% (b) 70.14%
219. An Amplitude modulated amplifier has a radio (c) 57.00% (d) 100.00%
frequency output of 18W at 100% modulation. Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
The internal loss in the modulation is 6W.
What is unmodulated carrier power? Ans. (b) : Antenna current of an AM transmitter
(a) 12w (b) 14w µ2
(c) 16w (d) 18w I t = Ic 1 +
2
 µ2  It µ 2
Ans. (c) : Pt = Pc 1 +  ........... (i) = 1+

2  Ic 2

2
The total power transmitted by the modulator is the sum  I  µ2
  = 1+
t
of radio frequency power and the internal loss.
Pt = 18 + 6  Ic  2

 8.93 
2
µ2 m’(t) = output of the filter of frequency
  = 1+ response
 8  2
HQ (f) due to m(t)
µ2 The correct match is
1.246 = 1 +
2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
µ 2 = 0.492 (a) 1 2 3 4
µ = 0.701 (b) 3 1 4 2
µ = 70.14% (c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
223. When the effect of inter symbol interference is
TNPSC AE- 2019
severe, the eye (in the eye pattern) is.
(a) wide open Ans. (b) :
(b) completely closed Types of Quadrature
(c) having a great height Modulation component
(d) having moderate height 1
TNPSC AE- 2019 (a) SSB-SC upper sideband m̂(t)
2
Ans. (b) : When the effect of inter symbol interference
is severe, the eye (in the eye pattern) is Completely −1
(b) SSB-SC lower sideband m̂ (t)
closed. 2
224. Noise performance of PAM is
(a) better than direct base band transmission 1
(c) VSB lower sideband m '(t)
(b) better than CW amplitude modulation 2
(c) poorer than direct baseband transmission 1
(d) better than that of PDM (d) VSB upper sideband − m '(t)
TNPSC AE- 2019 2
Ans. (c) : Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) is a form Where,
of signal modulation where the message information is m̂(t) = m Hilbert transform of m(t)
encoded in the amplitude of a series of signal pulses. In m'(t) = output of the filter of frequency response HQ(f)
PAM noise interference is higher. It is difficult to due to m(t).
remove noise, as this will affect amplitude part which
carries information. 227. For the faithful reproduction of the message
• So, noise performance of PAM is poorer than direct signal, envelope detector should satisfy the
baseband transmission. following condition
225. In general cross-talk decreases with increasing 1 1
(a) R s C << << R L C <<
bandwidth fc fm
(a) it reduces more rapidly in PPM than PAM
1 1
(b) it reduces more rapidly in PAM than PPM (b) R s C << << R L C <<
(c) it reduces at the same rate in PAM and PPM fm fc
(d) it reduces more rapidly in PAM compared to 1 1
PPM and PWM (c) R L C << << R S C <<
TNPSC AE- 2019 fm fc
Ans.(a) : In general cross-talk decreases with increasing 1 1
(d) R L C << << R L C <<
bandwidth it reduces more rapidly in PPM and PAM. fc fm
226. Types of Quadrature TNPSC AE- 2019
Modulation Component
Ans. (a) : For the faithful reproduction of the message
1 signal, envelope detector should satisfy the following
(A) SSB-SC upper sideband 1. − m̂(t)
2 condition
1 1 1
(B) SSB-SC lower sideband 2. − m '(t) R s C << << R L C <<
fc fm
2
1 228. A signal m(t) = 5cos2π100t frequency
(C) VSB lower sideband 3. m̂(t) modulates a carrier. The resulting FM signal is
2 10cos {(2π 105t) + 15sin (2π100t)}. The
1 approximate bandwidth of FM would be
(D) VSB upper sideband 4. m'(t) (a) 100 Hz (b) 1000 Hz
2
(c) 3200 Hz (d) 100 KHz
m̂(t) = Hilbert transform of m(t) TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (c) : SFM(t) = 10 cos {(2π105t) +15sin (2π100t)} Ans. (c) : Phase locked loop (PLL) FM detector can
S(t) = Ac cos [2πfct+β sin (2π fmt)] easily be made from the variety of phase locked loop
β = 15 fm = 100 integrated circuit. Hence in PLL FM demodulator,
B.W = (β +1) 2fm demodulated signal appear at the VCO output.
= (15 +1) ×200 233. Modulation system used for video modulation
in television broadcast is
B.W = 3200Hz
(a) DSB AM with carrier
229. Costas loop is used for carrier synchronization (b) SSB AM with carrier
if. (c) SSB with suppressed carrier
(a) SNR is not too good. (d) Vestigial sideband
(b) Carrier component is present in modulated Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
signal spectrum
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
(c) Carrier component is absent in the modulated
signal spectrum Ans. (d) : Vestigial side band modulation (VSB) is used
(d) A split-phase modulation format is used for video modulation in TV transmission.
TNPSC AE- 2019 234. The pre-emphasis circuit is used
Ans. (c) : A costas loop is a phase locked loop (PLL) (a) After demodulation
based circuit which is used for carrier frequency (b) Prior to modulation
recovery from suppressed carrier modulation signals (c) To increase or emphasis the amplitude of low
and phase modulation signals. Costas loop is used for frequency components of the signal
carrier synchronization if carrier component is absent in (d) None of these
the modulated signal spectrum. Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
230. For a slow FHSS system, the processing gain is Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017
equal to Ans. (b) : Pre - emphasis is used in frequency
(a) 2m (b) 2m+1 modulation transmitters to equalize the drive power of
m
(c) 2 +1 (d) 2m-1 transmitting signal in term of deviation ratio. Pre-
TNPSC AE- 2019 emphasis is used prior to modulation.
Ans. (a): For a slow FHSS system, the processing gain 235. Modulation index in an FM signal
is equal to 2m. (a) Varies inversely as the frequency deviation
231. The current relation in an AM wave is given by (b) Varies directly as the frequency deviation and
µ2 µ2 inversely as the modulating frequency
(a) I t = Ic 1 + (b) I t = 1 + (c) Varies directly as the modulating frequency
2 2 (d) none of these
 µ2    µ 2  Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
(c) I t = Ic 1 +  (d) I t = Ic 1 +   
 2   2   Ans. (b) : The FM modulation index is equal to the
ratio of frequency deviation to the modulating
TNPSC AE- 2019 frequency.
Ans. (a) : Total power required for transmission of AM- Frequencydeviation ∆f
β= =
 
Pt = PC  1 + µ 
2
Modulation frequency f m
 2  236. In a typical frequency multiplier application
If antenna resistance is R. using a PLL, a decade counter was inserted
Pt = I 2t R between the VCO output and the relevant
phase comparator input. If the input frequency
PC = IC2 R is 10 kHz, the VCO output frequency would be
 µ 2
 (a) 10 kHz (b) 100 kHz
I 2t R = IC2 R  1 +  (c) 1 kHz (d) 11 kHz
 2 
 µ2  Ans. (b) : fi = 10 kHz.
I t = IC 1 +  Output of PLL = 10 fi (for decade counter)
 2 
= 10 × 10 kHz
232. When a PLL is used as an FM demodulator, = 100 kHz
the demodulated signal appears at 237. In phase shift SSB modulator, the input signals
(a) The o/p of the phase comparator applied to one of the product modulators are
(b) The o/p of the low pass filter phase shifted by
(c) The VCO output (a) 90º (b) 60º
(d) None of these (c) 45º (d) 30º
Nagaland PSC 2018, Diploma Paper-II Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
Ans. (a) : The product modulator produce an output Ans. (d) : Bandwidth of modulating signal-
which is product of two input. 90º phase shifter BW = 2.fmax
produces on output.
BW = 2×15
238. A 2 kW carrier is to be modulated to a 90% BW = 30 kHz
level. The total transmitted power would be
(a) 3.81 kW (b) 2.81 kW 242. Which of the following schemes suffer (s) from
(c) 1.81 kW (d) 0.81 kW the threshold effect?
(a) AM detection using envelope detection
(b) AM detection using synchronous detection
Ans. (b) : Given, µ = 0.90 Pc = 2kW (c) FM detection using discriminator
(
Pt = Pc 1 + µ 2 / 2 ) (d) SSB detection with synchronous detection
Pt = 2 (1 + 0.81/ 2 )
Ans. (c) : FM detection using a discriminator suffers
Pt = 2 × 1.405 from the threshold effect.
Pt = 2.81kW 243. One of the following cannot be used to
demodulate SSB
239. The essential building blocks of a phase locked (a) Product detector
loop are (b) Diode balanced modulator
(a) the VCO, the phase comparator and the low (c) Bipolar transistor balanced modulator
pass filter (d) Complete phase shift generator
(b) the VCO, the low pass filter and the error Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
amplifier
Ans. (c) : Bipolar transistor balanced modulator can not
(c) the phase comparator and the VCO be used to demodulated SSB because bipolar transistor
(d) the phase comparator, the low pass filter and is a low frequency device.
the error amplifier
244. FM discriminator changes the FM signal into
(a) AM signal (b) FM signal
Ans. (a) : Block diagram of PLL :- (c) PM signal (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : FM discriminator changes the FM signal into
amplitude signal. A frequency discriminator is a device
that convert frequency variations into amplitude
variations.
240. An AM signal has a total power of 48 Watts 245. A wave is frequency modulated with an index 1
with 45% modulation. The power in the carrier and its frequency is multiplied 8 times the
and the sidebands are modulation index is
(a) 39.59 W, 4.505 W (b) 40.59 W, 4.205 W (a) Not changed
(c) 43.59 W, 2.205 W (d) 31.59 W, 8.205 W (b) Increase eight times
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II (c) decreased eight times
 µ2  (d) Increased four times
Ans. (c) : Pt = Pc 1 +  Pt = 48W Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
 2 

Frequency deviation
 ( 0.45 )2  Ans. (a) : Modulation index =
48 = Pc 1 +  Modulated frequency
 2  When frequency is applied by 8 times, frequency
 
48 = Pc (1.10125 ) deviation will also multiplied by 8. Hence modulation
index will not change.
Pc = 43.59W 246. The difference between phase and frequency
Total side band power = 48 –43.59 = 4.41W modulation
4.41 (a) Lies in the different definition of the
power of each sideband = = 2.205W modulation index
2 (b) Is to great to make the two systems compatible
241. A modulated signal is given by, s(t) = m1(t) cos (c) Is purely theoretical because they are the
(2πfct) + m2(t) sin (2πfct) where the baseband same practice
signal m1(t) and m2 (t) have band width of
10 kHz and 15 kHz, respectively. The band (d) Lies in the poorer radio response of phase
width of the modulated signal, in kHz modulation index
(a) 10 (b) 15 Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
(c) 25 (d) 30 Ans. (a) : The difference between phase and frequency
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II modulation lies in the different definition of the
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II modulation index.
247. PPM is 251. The function of de-emphasis circuit is-
(a) Digital modulation technique (a) To boost HF response of audio amplifier
(b) Analog modulation technique (b) To maintain adequate S/N ratio
(c) Linear modulation technique (c) To bring back higher frequencies to their
(d) Not a modulation technique original level
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II (d) To bring back lower frequencies to their
Ans. (b) : PPM (Pulse Position Modulation) is a analog original level
modulation technique. RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
248. A frequency multiplier circuit Ans. (c) : The function of de-emphasis circuit is to
(a) is usually pulse modulation bring back higher frequencies to their original level.
(b) Needs parasitic oscillations Pre-emphasis is done at the transmitter and the de-
(c) Operates class-A emphasis is done at the receiver.
(d) is tuned to harmonic of the input signal The purpose is to improve the signal to noise ratio for
FM reception.
252. Percentage modulation of an AM wave having
Ans. (d) : In electronics, a frequency multiplier is an
a power content of 8 kW at carrier frequency
electronic circuit that generates an output signal and that
and 2 kW in each of its side bands is
output frequency is a harmonic of its input frequency.
Frequency multiplier consists nonlinear circuit that (a) 60% (b) 70%
distorts the input signal. (c) 100% (d) 80%
249. In phase modulated signal, the frequency ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
deviation is proportional to Ans. (c) : Carrier power (Pc) = 8kW
(a) Frequency only (b) Amplitude only Each side band power = 2kW
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above total side band power (PSB) = 2×2kW
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II = 4kW
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 Pt = Pc +PSB
Ans. (c) : Carrier signal after phase modulation =8+4
= 12kW
SPM(t) = Ac  2πf c t + φ ( t ) 
 µ2   µ2 
instantaneous angle- Pt = Pc 1 +  ⇒ 12 = 8 1 + 
 2   2 
φi (t) = 2πf c t + k p m(t)
the instantaneous frequency is- µ =1
1 d φi (t) 1 d µ =1 means 100% modulation is done.
f i (t) = =  2πf c t + k p m(t) 
2π dt 2π dt  253. An audio frequency of 15 kHz is frequency
modulated with a deviation of 75 kHz. The
1 kp d resulting bandwidth is
= .2πf c + m(t)
2π 2π dt (a) 180 kHz (b) 150 kHz
frequency deviation is given by- (c) 210 kHz (d) 240 kHz
kp d MP PSC Forest Service Exam-2014
δ(f ) = m(t) ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
2π dt Ans. (a) : Audio frequency (fm) = 15kHz
∵ m(t) = Am sin ωm(t)
frequency deviation (∆f) = 75kHz
kp B.W = 2(f m + ∆f ) = 2(15+75)
δ(f ) = A m ωm cos ωm t
2π
B.W = 180kHz
δ(f ) ∝ A m f m
254. A 1kW carrier is Amplitude Modulated to a
250. A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 600 depth of 60%. The total power in the
kHz is tuned to a signal at 1500 kHz. The image modulated carrier is
frequency is : (a) 1 kW (b) 1.06 kW
(a) 300 kHz (b) 500 kHz (c) 1.6 kW (d) 1.18 kW
(c) 2700 kHz (d) 1200 kHz ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
(e) 2100 kHz Ans. (d) : Given,
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016 Carrier power (P ) = 1kW
c
Ans. (c) : Given, modulation depth (µ) = 0.6
Intermediate frequency fIF = 600 kHz
Signal frequency fS = 1500 kHz  µ2   ( 0.6 )2 
Pt = Pc 1 +  = 1 1 + 
Image frequency(f si ) = fS + 2f IF  2   2 

= 1500 + 2 × 600
= 2700 kHz Pt = 1.18kW

255. When signal frequency is 2000 kHz and IF is (a) 990 Hz (b) 100 Hz
455 kHz, the image frequency could be (c) 50 Hz (d) 200 Hz
(a) 2910 kHz (b) 1645 kHz ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
(c) 2455 kHz (d) 2090 kHz Ans. (b) : Given signal-
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 S(t) = 10sin (6×108 t +2sin 100πt) …(i)
Ans. (a) : Given, general expression of FM signal-
Signal frequency (fs) = 2000kHz SFM(t) = Ac sin (2πfct + β sin 2π fmt) ….(ii)
Intermediate frequency (fIF) = 455kHz
on comparing equation (i) & (ii)
Image frequency (fsi) = fs +2fIF
= 2000+ 2 ×455 β=2 2πf m = 100π
f i = 2910kHz f m = 50Hz
256. Eye diagram gives us an idea of - ∆f max
Modulation index =
(a) Modulation scheme (b) Clock jitter fm
(c) Signal-to-Noise Ratio(d) All of the above
∆f max
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016, 2014 2=
Ans. (d) : An eye diagram or eye pattern is simply a fm
graphical display of a serial data signal with respect to ∆f max = 2f m = 100 Hz
time that shows a pattern that resembles on eye. 260. In an amplitude modulated system if the total
The eye pattern gives an idea of the following:- power is 600W and the power in the carrier is
• Signal to noise ratio 400W, the modulation index is
• Figure of merit (a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
• Noise figure (c) 0.9 (d) 1
• Channel bandwidth ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
• Attenuation Ans. (d) :. Given-
• Clock jitters Pt = 600W, Pc = 400W
• Modulation scheme PSB = Pt –Pc = 200W
257. If two tones f1 and f2 are amplified by a non- µ2
linear amplifier, which frequency components Pc . = 200
2
would be present in output?
200
(a) f1, f2 µ2 = ×2
(b) f1, f2 , f1 + f2, f1 – f2 400
(c) f1 + f2, f1 – f2 µ =1
(d) nf1±mf2, where n and m are integers 261. In case of which of the following, an increase on
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 the modulation index leads to increase in
Ans. (d) : If two tones f1 and f2 and amplified by a non- bandwidth
linear amplifier, and pass through a non-linear filter so (a) PM (b) FM
output signal is of the form- (c) AM (d) Both (a) and (b)
V0 = (A1 cos 2πf1t + A2 cos 2πf2t) ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
So, there will be multiples harmonics of frequencies Ans. (d) : B.W of AM = 2fm
depending on value of β B.W of FM = (β+1) 2fm
∴ Output frequency = nf1± mf2 B.W of PM = (β +1) 2fm
where n and m are integers. therefore for PM and FM, the bandwidth increase when
258. When a carrier is phase modulated, with an modulation index increase.
integrated modulating signal, the resultant is 262. An FM signal at 10.7 MHz IF needs to be
(a) Phase modulated signal digitized for demodulation in a digital domain.
(b) Frequency modulated signal If the bandwidth of this signal is 200 kHz, the
(c) Amplitude modulated signal maximum usable sampling frequency is
(a) 200 kHz (b) 600 kHz
(d) QPSK modulated signal
(c) 400 kHz (d) 800 kHz
Ans. (b) : When a carrier is phase modulated, with an
Ans.(c): The maximum usable sampling frequency
integrated modulating signal, the resultant is frequency
modulated signal. fs = 2 × bandwidth
259. For a frequency modulated signal represented Given, bandwidth = 200KHz
by s(t)=10sin(6 × 108t + 2sin100πt). The sampling frequency f(s) = 2×200 KHz
maximum frequency deviation in the carrier f (s) = 400KHz
from its unmodulated frequency is :
263. Capture effect is a characteristic of Ans. (d) : In AM the carrier signal is varied with the
(a) AM system (b) FM system amplitude of modulating signal keeping frequency and
(c) PCM system (d) TDM system the phase of the carrier fixed.
VAM ( t ) = A Cµ  
Ans. (b) : Capture effect is a characteristic of FM A C .cos 2 πf c t + cos 2π(f c + f m )t + cos 2π(f c − f m )t 
2  
system. Carrier  upper side band lower side band 
• A phenomenon, associated with FM reaction, in which 268. An AM broadcast station transmits modulating
only the stronger of two signals at near the same frequencies up to 6 kHz. If the AM station is
frequency will be demodulated. transmitting on a frequency of 894 kHz, the
264. An angle modulated signal with carrier values for maximum and minimum upper and
frequency ωc = 2π × 105 is described by the lower sidebands and the total bandwidth
occupied by the AM station are:
equation s(t) = 10 cos (ωct + 5 sin (3000πt) + 10
sin (2000πt). What is the frequency deviation (a) 900 kHz, 888 kHz, 12 kHz
∆f? (b) 894 kHz, 884 kHz, 12 kHz
(a) 12387.32 Hz (b) 17500 Hz (c) 894 kHz, 888 kHz, 6 kHz
(c) 20000 Hz (d) 15000 Hz (d) 900 kHz, 888 kHz, 6 kHz
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
Ans. (b) : Given that, Ans. (a) : General expression of AM -
S(t) = 10 cos 2π105t + 5 sin (3000πt)+10sin 2000πt A C µ  
S AM (t) = A C .cos 2 πf c t + cos 2 π(f c + f m )t + cos 2 π(f c − f m )t 
β1 = 5 β2 = 10 2  
carrier  upper side band lower side band 
2πf m1 = 3000π Given,
fc = 894kHz fm = 6kHz
f m1 = 1500Hz upper side band frequency (USB) = fc + fm
= 894 + 6
2π f m 2 = 2000π = 900 kHz
f m2 = 1000Hz Lower side band frequency (LSB) = fc – fm
= 894 – 6
frequency deviation (∆f) = β1 × f m1 + β2 f m2 = 888 kHz
= 5×1500 +10×1000 Total Bandwidth = 2f m
= 2×6
∆f = 17500 Hz = 12kHz
265. Which of the following devices can be used for 269. Calculate the depth of modulation when a
generating a PWM signal? transmitter radiates a signal of 9.8kW after
(a) Comparator modulation and 8kW without modulation of
(b) 555 timer the signal.
(c) Counter and magnitude comparator (a) 80% (b) 67%
(d) All the above (c) 50% (d) 100%
Ans. (d) : The PWM signal can be generated in a Ans. (b) : Given,
number of ways. Pt = 9.8 kW
• comparator Pc = 8kW
• 555 times  µ2 
P t = Pc  1 + 
• counter and magnitude comparator 2 

266. A sine wave is applied to a balanced modulator.
The peak output envelope power is 1000 times  µ2 
9.8 = 8 1 + 
the minimum output envelope power. Estimate  2 
the carrier suppression in dBc.
(a) 24 dBc (b) 30 dBc µ = 67 %
(c) 36 dBc (d) 40 dBc 270. When AM signal is of 25kHz, calculate the
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 number of channels required in Medium
Ans. (b) : carrier suppression = 10 log10 1000 Frequency (MF) band of 300 kHz-3000kHz.
= 10 log10 103 = 30 dBc (a) 94 (b) 69
267. The AM spectrum consists of (c) 85 (d) 54
(a) Carrier frequency Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(b) Upper side band frequency Ans. (d) : Medium frequency (MF) is the band of
(c) Lower side band frequency frequency from 300 kHz to 3 MHz. The lower portion
(d) All of the above of the MF band (300 to 500 kHz) is used for ground-
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II wave transmission for reasonably long distances. The
upper and lower ends of the mf band are used for naval
purpose- µ2
Ans. (d) : I t = Ic 1 +
frequency available in MF band = 3000-300 = 2700 2
kHz. The bandwidth required by 25 kHz = 2×25 = 50
µ2
2700 10.4 = 10 × 1 +
kHz therefore the numbers of channel = = 54 2
50
271. The total power in an Amplitude Modulated µ 2
1+ = 1.04
signal if the carrier of an AM transmitter is 800 2
W and it is modulated 50 percent. µ = 40%
(a) 750 W (b) 850 W 275. Function of frequency mixer in super
(c) 900 W (d) 1000.8 KW heterodyne receiver is
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II (a) Amplification
Ans. (c) : Total power, (b) Filtering
 m2  (c) Multiplication of incoming signal and the
Pt = Pc 1 + a  locally generated carrier
 2  (d) None of the above
 ( 0.5) 2  Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
Pt = 800 1 +  Ans. (c) : The function of a frequency mixer in a super
 2 
 heterodyne receiver is that it mixes or multiplies the
 0.25  incoming modulated carrier with the locally generated
Pt = 800 1 +  carrier. It produces a number of frequencies. The
 2  produced frequencies are either the sum or the
Pt ≃ 900W differences of the frequencies of the received signals.
272. Calculate the power in one of the side band in 276. The amount of frequency deviation in FM
SSBSC modulation when the carrier power is signal depends on
124 W and there is 80% modulation depth in (a) Amplitude of the modulating signal
the amplitude modulated signal. (b) Carrier frequency
(a) 64.85 W (b) 79.36 W (c) Modulating frequency
(c) 89.33 W (d) 102 W (d) Transmitter amplifier
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
Ans. (a) : The amount of frequency deviation or
Ans. (*) : Given, m = 0.8
variation in FM signal depends on amplitude of the
The carrier power is Pc = 124W modulating signal.
We know that the power in sideband is calculated as- ∆f = K f A m
2
m Pc 277. What is band width of frequency modulated
P=
4 wave, if the frequency deviation allowed is
55 kHz and the modulating signal has
( 0.8 ) ×124
2
P= frequency of 10 kHz?
4 (a) 120 kHz (b) 75 kHz
P = 19.84W (c) 130 kHz (d) 55 kHz
273. Noise figure of merit in SSB modulated signal UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
is Ans. (c) : B.W = 2 (∆f + fm)
(a) 1 (b) Less than 1 = 2 (55+10) = 2(65) = 130 kHz
(c) Greater than 1 (d) Zero 278. The power of an angle modulated wave (PM or
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II FM) with amplitude A is
Ans. (a) : Figure of merit is the ratio of output signal to (a) A2
noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio of a receiver (b) Decided by the time varying massage signal
system. It is used to describe the performance of a (c) Depends on the value of kp and kf
system. Figure of merit for SSB modulation is always 1. (d) A2/2
274. The antenna current of the transmitter is 10 A. TNPSC AE - 2018
Find the percentage of modulation when the Ans. (d) : The power of angle modulated wave
antenna current increases to 10.4 A. A c2
(a) 32% (b) 28.5% P =
2
(c) 64% (d) 40%
Ac = amplitude of carrier signal.
279. y(t) = m(t)c(t), (where m(t) is message signal  0.36 
and c(t) is the spreading signal) represents the Pt = 200 1 + 
signal of  2 
(a) FH spread spectrum Pt = 200 ×1.18
(b) TH spread spectrum Pt = 236 W
(c) DS spread spectrum
(d) PN sequence 283. This technique is involving frequency
TNPSC AE - 2018 translation. Identify it
(a) Amplification (b) Clamping
Ans. (c) : In communication system, Discrete sequence (c) Modulation (d) Filtering
(DS) spread spectrum is a spectrum modulation
technique primarily used to reduce overall signal TNPSC AE - 2018
interference. It is write as Ans. (c) : Modulation technique is involve frequency
translation. There are two types of modulation- analog
y ( t ) = m ( t ) .c ( t ) modulation and digital modulation. In which the
information is sent with increasing its quantity with the
280. AM signal represented as help of carrier signal.
(a) SAM (t) = Ac [1 + m(t)] cos (2π fct)
284. A carrier of 10 kW is amplitude modulated to a
(b) SAM (t) = Ac [1 + m(t)] sin (2π fct) depth of 100% by a sinusoid. Then the power
(c) SAM (t) = Ac [m(t)] cos (2π fct) of the transmitted AM wave is
(d) SAM (t) = Ac [m(t)] sin (2π fct) (a) 10 kW (b) 5 kW
TNPSC AE - 2018 (c) 15 kW (d) 11 kW
Ans. (a) : SAM (t) = Ac [1 + m(t)] . cos (2πfct) TNPSC AE - 2018
Where, Ans. (c) Given that,
Ac = Amplitude of carrier signal. Pc = 10kW
m(t) = message signal µ=1
fc = carrier signal  µ2 
281. A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated to a P t = P c 1 + 
 2 
depth of 100%. How much power saving is
achieved for SSB-SC compared to AM DSB-FC  1
Pt = 10 1 + 
and AM DSB–SC respectively?  2
(a) 600 W and 100 W respectively Pt = 10×1.5
(b) 500 W and 100 W respectively
Pt = 15kW
(c) 100 W and 500 W respectively
(d) 100 W and 600 W respectively 285. An FM wave represented by the voltage
TNPSC AE - 2018 equation v = 12 sin (6 × 108 t + 6 cos 1250 t).
Ans. (b) : Given, The modulating signal frequency and
frequency deviation are
Carrier power (Pc) = 400W (a) 1250 Hz and 1194 Hz
Modulation index (µ) = 100% = 1 (b) 199 Hz and 1194 Hz
 µ2  3 (c) 95.5 Hz and 995 Hz
total power (Pt) = Pc 1 +  = 400 ×
 2  2 (d) 199 Hz and 995 Hz
TNPSC AE - 2018
= Pt = 600W Ans. (b) : V = 12 sin (6 × 108 t + 6 cos 1250 t)
Power saving in SSB-SC as compared to DSB-FC ω 1250
Saving Power = (600 –100)W modulation frequency (fm) = m =
2π 2π
= 500W
Power saving in SSB-SC as a compared to DSB-SC f m = 199 Hz
Saving power = (200–100)W frequency deviation (∆f) = β × fm
= 100W (∆f) = 6 × 199
282. A 200 W carrier is modulated to a depth of
60%. The total power in the modulated wave is ∆f = 1194 Hz
(a) 200 W (b) 236 W 286. The midband frequency of IF section and IF
(c) 36 W (d) 72 W bandwidth of AM and FM radio are _______.
TNPSC AE - 2018 (a) 10.7 MHz, 0.455 MHz, 10 kHz and 200 kHz
Ans. (b) : Given that, (b) 10.7 MHz, 0.455 MHz, 200 kHz and 10 kHz
Pc = 200W , µ = 0.6 (c) 0.455 MHz, 10.7 MHz, 10 kHz and 200 kHz
 µ  2 (d) 0.455 MHz, 10.7 MHz, 200 kHz and 10 kHz
Pt = Pc  1 +  TNPSC AE – 2018
 2 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2018, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : The midband frequency of IF section and IF Am
bandwidth of amplitude modulation and frequency µ=
modulation are 0.455 MHz, 10.7 MHz and 10 kHz and Ac
200 kHz respectively. The modulation index is independent of frequency.
287. As the modulation index of an FM signal with • In PM, the modulation index ( β ) is given by
sinusoidal modulation is increased from zero to
two, the power in the carrier component will β = k p Am
(a) Decrease continuously 291. Bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal
(b) Increase continuously depends upon
(c) First increase, becomes zero and then (a) amplitude of modulating signal
decrease (b) carrier frequency
(d) First decrease, become zero and then increase (c) modulating signal frequency
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 (d) carrier power
Ans. (a) : As the modulation index of an FM signal GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
with sinusoidal modulation is increased from zero to Ans. (c) : If message is mixed with carrier signal then
two, the power in the carrier component will decrease the combined signal is modulated signal. Band width of
continuously. an amplitude modulated signal depend upon modulating
288. A carrier voltage is simultaneously modulated signal frequency
by two sine waves causing modulation indices 292. In a FM demodulator,
of 0.4 and 0.3. The overall modulation index is (a) capacitors are charged to amplitude of FM
(a) 0.35 wave
(b) 0.7 (b) frequency deviations are converted into
(c) 0.5 voltage variations
(d) Can not be calculated unless the phase (c) simple diode is employed
relations are known (d) carrier frequency is doubled
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 Ans. (b) : In a FM demodulator it converts the
frequency variation of FM wave into the corresponding
Ans. (c) : The overall modulation index (µt) = voltage (amplitude) variations of AM wave.
µ12 + µ 22 293. An AM signal and a narrow band FM signals
with identical carriers, modulating signals and
(µt) = ( 0.4 )2 + ( 0.3)2 modulation indices of 0.1 are added together.
The resultant signal can be closely
(µt) = 0.16 + 0.09 approximated by
(a) Broadband (b) SSB with carrier
(µt) = 0.25
(c) DSB-SC (d) SSB without carrier
(µt) = 0.5 GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
289. De-emphasis circuit is used Ans. (b) : General expression of AM.
(a) To attenuate high frequencies Aµ
(b) To attenuated low frequencies S ( t ) AM = A c cos 2πf c t + c [cos 2π ( f c + f m ) t
2
(c) To attenuated midband frequencies
(d) None of the above + cos 2π ( f c − f m ) t] .....(i)
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 General expression of NBFM.
Ans. (a) : De-emphasis circuit is used to attenuate high Aβ
S ( t ) NBFM = A c cos 2πf c t + c [cos 2π ( f c + f m ) t
frequencies. 2
290. In which modulation system, when modulating − cos 2π ( f c − f m ) t] .... (ii)
frequency is doubled, the modulation index Given,
also becomes double.
(a) AM (b) FM µ = β = 0.1
(c) PM (d) None of the above Both equation (i) + (ii) -
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 S ( t ) + S ( t ) = carrier + USB
AM NBFM
Ans. (d) : In FM the modulation index (β) is defined as = SSB with carriers
the ratio of frequency deviation (∆f) to the message 294. Frequency modulated signal ideally requires
signal (fm).
(a) infinite bandwidth
∆f (b) small bandwidth
β=
fm (c) constant bandwidth
(d) constant frequency
• In AM, the modulation index (µ) is given by GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
Ans. (a) : Frequency modulated signal ideally requires Ans. (b) : Armstrong transmitter used crystal oscillator.
infinite bandwidth. In order to multiplex more number It is an indirect method to generate FM Signal.
of signals the bandwidth of the signal should be as 300. In radio receiver the output from local
minimum as possible. oscillator is fed to
In order to reduce the bandwidth in FM, the significant (a) RF amplifier (b) Mixer
spectral component should be eliminated. (c) IF amplifier (d) Detector
295. Number of sidebands of an FM signal for fixed Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
modulating voltage .............. with decrease in
Ans. (b) : In radio receiver the output from local
modulating frequency.
oscillator is fed to mixer.
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) does not change (d) none of these 301. The simplest method of suppression of
unwanted side band in AM is
(a) Filter method (b) Phase shift method
Ans. (b) : Number of side bands of an FM signal for (c) Third method (d) Both (a) or (b)
fixed modulating voltage decrease with decreasing
modulating frequency. Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Ans. (a) : The Methodes with unwanted side band can
296. The output of a transmitter is 100kW with
carrier unmodulated and 132kW when carrier be suppressed in AM is filter method.
is modulated by a sinusoidal wave. Then the 302. Modulation is primarily accomplished to
depth of modulation is (a) Produce sidebands
(a) 32% (b) 64% (b) Mix two waves of different frequencies
(c) 80% (d) 100% (c) Transmit audio-frequency signals over long
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III distances
Ans. (c) : Given that, (d) Improve transmission efficiency
Pt = 132 kW, Pc = 100kW
Ans. (c) : Modulation is primarily accomplished to
µ=? transmitted in audio frequency signal over long
 µ2  distance, there are two type of modulation–
Pt = Pc  1 +  1. Frequency modulation
 2 
2. Amplitude modulation
 µ2  303. In AM, the modulation index lies between
132kW = 100kW 1 +  (a) -1 and 1 (b) 0 and 1
 2 
(c) 1 and ∞ (d) −∞ and ∞
 2 + µ2  Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
1.32 =  
 2  Ans. (b) : The modulation index lies between 0 and 1
for amplitude modulation.
2.64 = 2+µ2
304. What is the assigned bandwidth of each of the
µ2 = 0.64 channels in the AM broadcast band?
µ = 0.8 = 80% (a) 5 kHz (b) 15 kHz
297. Information content of a message has the (c) 10 kHz (d) 200 kHz
characteristic that Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
(a) it is additive Ans. (c) : In the AM band, each AM station has a
(b) Increases linearly with time maximum bandwidth of 10 kHz, extending 5 kHz above
(c) It increases monotonically and 5 kHz below the assigned centre frequency.
(d) All of the above 305. Consider the AM signal Ac[1 + µ cos( ωm t) cos
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III ( ωct)]. The efficiency η of the AM signal for
Ans. (d) : Information content of a message has the 75% modulation approximately
characteristics that it is additive, increase, linearly with (a) 33% (b) 15%
time, and it increase monotonically. (c) 22% (d) 50%
298. Homodyne detection means UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
(a) coherent detection Ans. (c) : We know that modulation efficiency
(b) non-coherent detection
(c) asynchronous detection µ2
η=
(d) none of the above µ +2
2

0.752
Ans. (a) : Homodyne detection means coherent detection. Here η= ⇒ η = 0.2195
299. Armstrong transmitter uses 0.752 + 2
(a) LC oscillator (b) Crystal oscillator η = 21.95%
(c) RC oscillator (d) either (a) or (c) η ≃ 22%
306. In an AM system receiver, the mixer translates  0.64 
the carrier frequency fc to a fixed intermediate Pt = 800 1 + 
 2 
frequency of 450 kHz. Given a broadcast signal
of frequency 900 kHz. What is the Pt = 800 (1 + 0.32 )
corresponding image frequency when a Pt = 1056 W
superhet receiver is employed with local Pt = Pc + PSB
oscillator frequency greater than the broadcast For sideband (PSB) = 1056–800
signal frequency? PSB = 256 W
(a) 900 kHz (b) 1800 kHz PSB = PUSB + PLSB
(c) 800 kHz (d) 1350 kHz PSB = 128 +128
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018 PUSB = 128
Ans. (b) : fsi = fs + 2IF For each sideband
fsi = 900 + 2 × 450 PLSB = 128 W
fsi = 900 + 900 310. Three signal 5 kHz, 6 kHz and 8 kHz are
fsi = 1800 kHz multiplexed. The required channel bandwidth
will be-
307. Consider the FM signal xc(t) = 10 cos (2π × 108t
(a) 16 kHz (b) 10 kHz
+ 0.5 sin (104 πt)). The bandwidth of xc (t) is
(c) 19 kHz (d) 12 kHz
approximately
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
(a) 2 kHz (b) 100 MHz
(c) 15 kHz (d) 6 kHz Ans. (a) : Given signal -
UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018 f m1 = 5kHz, f m2 = 6 kHz, f m3 = 8kHz
Ans. (c) : Given signal (
Required channel B.W. = 2. f m1 ,f m2 ,f m3 )
x c ( t ) = 10cos ( 2π×108 t + 0.5sin104 πt )
max
= 2 × 8 = 16 kHz
∵ β = 0.5 311. How many A.M. broadcast stations can be
accommodated in a 50 kHz bandwidth if the
2πf m t = 10 4 πt highest frequency of a modulating carrier is 5
kHz?
f m = 5000
(a) 20 (b) 5
According to Carson rule - (c) 15 (d) 10
B.W. = ( β + 1) 2f m = ( 0.5 + 1) .2 × 5000 UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
total bandwidth
B.W. = 15kHz Ans. (d) : No. of station =
Bandwidth per station
308. Super heterodyne radio receiver suffers from- 50 kHz
(a) carrier frequency problem =
5kHz
(b) intermediate amplitude problem
(c) Gain control problem No. of station =10
(d) image frequency problem 312. Determine the bandwidth of the FM signal for
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 5kHz audio signal modulated by a carrier of 50
Ans. (d) : One major disadvantage of the super MHz causing a frequency deviation of 25 kHz?
heterodyne receiver is the problem of image frequency. (a) 60 kHz (b) 90 kHz
In Heterodyne receiver, an image frequency is an (c) 30 kHz (d) 80 kHz
undesired input frequency equal to the station frequency UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
(+ or –) twice of the intermediate frequency Ans. (a) : Given that,
309. An amplitude modulated wave has a power ∆f = 25 kHz
content of 800W at its carrier frequency. What fm = 5 kHz
will be the power content for each sidebands if ∆f
percentage modulation is 80% ? ∵ β=
fm
(a) 128 W (b) 320 W
(c) 256 W (d) 64 W 25kHz
β=
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 5kHz
Ans. (a) : Given that, β=5
We know that,
Pc = 800W, µ = 0.8
B.W = (β + 1) 2fm
 µ2 
Pt = Pc 1 +  B.W = (5 + 1)2 × 5
 2  B.W = 60 kHz
313. In a broadcast superhetrodyne receiver having 318. In an FM system the modulating frequency is 2
no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the antenna kHz and maximum frequency deviation is 10
coupling circuit is 100. If the intermediate kHz. If the number of significant pair of side
frequency is 455 kHz, the image frequency at band is 8, the theoretical bandwidth required is
25 MHz will be (a) 160 kHz (b) 32 kHz
(a) 24.45 MHz (b) 24.91 MHz (c) 320 kHz (d) 16 kHz
(c) 25.45 MHz (d) 25.91 MHz UJVNL AE-2016
UPSC JWM-2016 Ans. (b) : General formula is given by
Ans. (d) : Given that, ∞
Intermediate frequency (fi) = 455 kHz
fs = 25 MHz
Ac ∑J
n =−∞
n (β ) cos  2π ( fc + nfm ) t 
We know that Significant sideband = (fc + 8fm) – (fc - 8fm)
image frequency (fsi) = fs + 2fi = 16 fm
(fsi) = 25 MHz + 2 × 455 kHz = 16 ×2
(fsi) = 25 MHz + 0.910MHz = 32 kHz.
(fsi) = 25.910 MHz
319. The IF stage of a super-heterodyne receiver
314. One of the advantage of a base modulation over employs
collector modulation of a class C amplifier is (a) impedance coupling
(a) Lower modulating power required (b) capacitive coupling
(b) Better efficiency
(c) double tuned transformer coupling
(c) Higher power output per transistor
(d) Single tuned transformer coupling
(d) Better linearity UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
Ans. (c) : The IF stage of super heterodyne receiver
Ans. (a) : Base modulation has a advantage over employs double tuned or stagger tunes transformer
collector modulation of a class C amplifier is lower coupling.
modulating power required.
320. A 400 W carrier is VSB modulated to a depth
315. An FM wave uses a 2-5 V, 500 Hz modulating of 100%. Calculate the total power if 20% of
frequency and has a modulation index of 50. the other sideband is transmitted along with
The deviation is wanted sideband
(a) 500 Hz (b) 1,000 Hz (a) 120 × 106 W (b) 120 × 103 W
(c) 1250 Hz (d) 25,000Hz
(c) 120 W (d) 12 W
UJVNL AE-2016
TNPSC AE-2014
Ans. (d) : Given,
Ans. (c) : Given, Pc = 400 W
Modulation index (µ) = 50
µ = 100%
fm = 500Hz
3 3 × 400
Frequency deviation ( ∆f ) = µ ×fm Pt = Pc =
2 2
= 50 × 500 = 25000 Hz.
Pt = 600 W
( ∆f ) = 25 kHz. Sideband Power PSB = 33% of Pt = 33% of 600
316. Narrow band FM is considered same as Double PSB ≃ 200 W
sideband AM but differ in VSB has one sideband power and 20% of other sideband
(a) Amplitude of sidebands power
(b) Phase difference between carrier and sidebands so, PVSB = PUSB + 20% of PLSB
(c) Sideband frequency content = 100 + 20% of 100
(d) Carrier presence in modulated output
PVSB = 120 W
UJVNL AE-2016
321. Following is not the purpose of modulation
Ans. (b) : Narrow band frequency modulation is
considered same as double sideband amplitude (a) Multiplexing
modulation. But it is differ in phase difference between (b) Effective radiation
carrier and sideband. (c) Shifting the spectrum
317. The type of modulator amplifier used in AM (d) Increase in signal power
transmitter is TNPSC AE-2014
(a) Class A Ans. (d) : Modulation is a process that causes a shift in
(b) Class C with negative feedback the range of frequencies in a signal.
(c) Class B with positive feedback Message signal is modularity signal and it modulates
(d) Class AB carrier signal.
UJVNL AE-2016 In modulation frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
Ans. (b) : Modulator amplifier used in AM transmitter is possible. Increase in signal power is not the purpose
is class C with negative feedback. of modulation.

322. Envelope detector is used in the detection of (c) If IF is high, image rejection will be very
(a) AM wave (b) DSBSC wave good.
(c) SSB wave (d) FM wave (d) If IF is low, selectivity becomes poorer.
TNPSC AE-2014 TNPSC AE-2013
Ans. (a) : Envelop detector is used to detect Ans. (d) : When intermediate frequency is low, the
(demodulate) high level AM wave. This envelope selectivity become poorer. But tracking will also
detector consists of a diode and low pass filter. reduced.
323. In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver 327. The phase comparator in a PLL circuit is used
having no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the to provide
antenna coupling circuit at the input to the (a) one-half the crystal oscillator frequency
mixer is 100. If the intermediate frequency is (b) RF output with audio modulation
455 kHz, calculate the image frequency at 1000 (c) DC control voltage
kHz. (d) double crystal oscillator signal
(a) 1100 kHz (b) 1200 kHz TNPSC AE-2008
(c) 1455 kHz (d) 1910 kHz Ans. (b) : The PLL circuit is used for the demodulation
TNPSC AE-2014 of frequency modulated signals. The phase comparator
Ans. (d) : Image frequency: in a PLL circuit is used to provide RF output with audio
fsi = fs + 2fi modulation.
where, fs = carrier frequency of the tuned station 328. High value of Q factor is preferred for coil used
fsi = image frequency in radio receiver because
fi = Intermediate frequency (a) It makes the circuit more selective
Given, (b) It reduces the resistance of circuit
fi = 455 kHz (c) It improves the ratio of inductance and
fs = 1000 kHz resistance
hence, fsi = 1000 kHz + 2 × 455 kHz (d) It increases the coil inductance
fsi = 1910 kHz MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
324. Total bandwidth needed for an AM signal at Ans. (a) : For radio receiver, the signal should be more
55.25 MHz with 0.5 MHz video modulation is selective. Hence when Q factor will be high of a coil,
(a) 0.25 MHz (b) 0.5 MHz then if will prefer for radio receiver.
(c) 1 MHz (d) 10 MHz 329. Which one is an advantage of AM over FM
TNPSC AE-2013 (a) FM is more immune to noise
Ans. (c) : Given that, (b) FM has better fidelity
fv = 0.5 MHz (c) Probability of noise spike generation is less in
B.W = 2fv AM
B.W = 2 × 0.5 MHz (d) FM has wide bandwidth
B.W = 1MHz
Ans. (d) : The main advantages of AM over FM are
325. A Transmitter radiates 9 kW with carrier improved signal to noise ratio with respect to man made
unmodulated and 10.125 kW when carrier is interference and FM has wide bandwidth.
sinusoidally modulated. The modulation index
330. An FM signal can be detected by using
will be
(a) 40% (b) 44% (a) Low pass filter (b) Phase locked loop
(c) 50% (d) 66% (c) Discriminator (d) Average detector
TNPSC AE-2013 MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
Ans. (c) : An FM signal can be detected by using
 µ2  normally foster seelay FM discriminator.
Ans. (c) : Pt = Pc 1 + 
 2 331. For over modulation in AM
Given, Pt = 10.125 kW (a) Modulation Index is 0
Pc = 9 kW (b) Modulation Index is 1
 µ2  (c) Modulation Index is 0.5
10.125 = 9 1 + 
 2 (d) None of these
10.125 µ 2
= 1+ Ans. (d) : In amplitude modulation
9 2
µ = 50% A
Modulation index (µ) = m
326. Which of the following is the correct Ac
statement? (µ = 1) Critical modulation
(a) If IF is high, tracking will be improved . (µ < 1) under modulation
(b) If IF is high, the receiver will have poor
(µ > 1) Over modulation
selectivity and poor sensitivity.
332. Which of the following is angle modulation (b) Maximum single hop distance limitation
(a) Amplitude modulation (c) Interference from the sky wave
(b) Phase modulation (d) Loss of line-of-sight condition
(c) PCM Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
(d) None of these Ans. (a) : The surface wave eventually disappears as
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 one moves a way from the transmitter because of
Ans. (b) : Angle modulation is the process in which the absorption by ground.
frequency or the phase of the carrier varies according to337. Basically, PLL is used to lock______
the message signal. Phase modulation is a angle (a) Its output frequency
modulation. (b) Phase to the frequency
333. The most suitable method for detecting a (c) Phase of the input signal
modulation signal (2.5 +5 cos ωmt) cos ωct is (d) All of the above
(a) Envelop detector Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(b) Synchronous detector Ans. (d) : A phase-locked loop (PLL) is an electronic
(c) Radio detector circuit with a voltage or voltage driven oscillator that
(d) Both (Envelop detector) and (Synchronous constantly adjusts to match the frequency of an inputs
detector) signal. It is also lock the phase of inputs frequency.
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 PLL are widely used in wireless or radio frequency
Ans. (b) : Given, application. PLL are used to generate, Modulate,
demodulate, filter or recover a signal from a noisy
S ( t ) = ( 2.5 + 5cos ωm t ) cos ωc t
Communication Channel where data has been
= 2.5 (1 + 2cos ωm t ) cos ωc t interrupted.
Modulation index (µ) = 2 338. For the Amplitude Modulated wave carrier
Over modulation can't be detected by envelope detector. signal frequency is 120 kHz and modulating
signal frequency is 1 kHz. The upper sideband
So, over modulation is detected by synchronous detector. frequency is ______ and lower sideband
334. The total power of an AM transmitter having a frequency is _______.
carrier power of 50 W and the percentage of (a) 123 kHz; 117 kHz
modulation at 80% is (b) 122 kHz; 118 kHz
(a) 50 W (b) 66 W
(c) 121 kHz; 119 kHz
(c) 68 W (d) 70 W
(d) 122 kHz; 119 kHz
Ans. (b) : Given, µ = 0.80
Ans. (c) : fUSB = fc + fm fLSB = fc – fm
Pc = 50W
= 120kHz + 1kHz = 120kHz – 1kHz
 µ2 
Total power→ Pt = Pc 1 +  f USB = 121kHz f LSB = 119 kHz
 2 
339. The bandwidth required for an FM signal with
 ( 0.8) 2  a modulating frequency of 2 kHz and
Pt = 50 1 +  maximum deviation of 10 kHz as given by
 2  Carson's rule is
Pt = 66 Watt (a) 10 kHz (b) 20 kHz
335. An AM wave has Vmax = 12 V, and Vmin = 4V. (c) 12 kHz (d) 24 kHz
Calculate the modulation index assuming single TNPSC AE - 2018
tone modulation. Ans. (d) : Bandwidth = 2 (∆f + fm)
(symbols/notations carry their usual meaning) BW = 2(∆f + fm)
(a) 2 (b) 1
BW = 2 (10 + 2)
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 BW = 24 kHz
Ans. (c) : Given, 340. The bandwidth of the spectrum over which the
Vmax = 12 V hopping occurs is called
Vmin = 4 V (a) Total hopping bandwidth
Vmax − Vmin (b) Instantaneous bandwidth
∴Modulation index (µ) = (c) Both (A) and (B)
Vmax + Vmin
12 − 4 8 1
(µ) = = = TNPSC AE - 2018
12 + 4 16 2 Ans. (a) : The bandwidth of spectrum over which the
336. The surface wave eventually disappears as one hopping occurs is called total hopping bandwidth.
moves away from the transmitter because of The bandwidth of channel used in hopset is called
(a) Absorption by ground instantaneous bandwidth.
341. A 400 W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75 Ans. (b) : Narrow band FM signal can be considered to
percent. The total power in modulated wave be equal to AM signal.
will be The expression of NBFM and AM will be same except
(a) 38.5 W (b) 400 W 180º phase shift at LSB frequency component.
(c) 512.5 W (d) 615.5 W 346. An FM signal has a carrier swing of 100 kHz
UJVNL AE- 2016 and a modulating signal of 10kHz. Its
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III modulation index is
IES-2014 (a) 0.1 (b) 5
Ans. (c) : Given that, (c) 10 (d) 20
Pc = 400W Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
µ = 0.75 Ans. (b) : Carrier swing = 2∆f
 µ2  ∆f =
100
Pt = Pc  1 + 
2  2

∆f = 50 kHz
 ( 0.75 )2 
Pt = 400  1 +  ∆f
 2  Modulation index (β) =
  fm
Pt = 512.5W 50
β=
342. To separate channels in FDM receivers we 10
have to use β=5
(a) integration (b) AND gate 347. In a radio receiver AGC is used
(c) band pass filter (d) differentiation (a) To improve the noise figure of the receiver
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III (b) To maintain the carrier level at the second
Ans. (c) : To separate channel in FDM receivers we detector input constant
have to use Band pass filter to distingue the different (c) To improve selectivity of the receiver
frequency component signal present in FDM. (d) None of the above
343. A sinusoidal voltage of 2 kV peak value is Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
amplitude modulated to give 20% modulation. Ans. (b) : Automatic gain control (AGC) works in the
The peak value of each side band term is radio receiver that maintains automatic controlling of
(a) 800V (b) 400V weak and strong signals which is received by radio
(c) 200V (d) 100V receiver. It maintains a constant level of the output
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III signal based on received signal.
Ans. (c) : Carrier signal amplitude Ac = 2kV 348. In a super heterodyne receiver, which stage
produces IF signal?
Modulation index (µ) = 0.2
(a) Grand condenser (b) RF amplifier
µ × Ac (c) Mixer (d) None of these
Peak value of the each sideband term =
2 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
0.2 × 2 ×10 3
Ans. (c) : A super heterodyne receiver is a type of radio
= = 200 V. receiver that uses frequency mixer to convert a received
2
signal to a fixed intermediate frequency (IF).
344. In the FM wave described by equation v = 15
sin (4 × 108 t + 3 sin 1100 t), the maximum 349. In frequency modulation
frequency deviation is (a) the frequency of carrier varies according to
(a) 175 Hz (b) 525 Hz the amplitude of modulating signal
(c) 58.33 Hz (d) 3 Hz (b) the frequency of carrier varies according to
the frequency of modulating signal
(c) the frequency of carrier varies according to
Ans. (b) : V = 15 sin (4×108 t + 3 sin 1100 t). the phase of modulating signal
From the given expression, (d) the frequency of carrier varies according to
Modulation index (β) = 3 the amplitude and phase of modulating signal
1100 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
Maximum frequency deviation (∆f) = β×fm = 3 ×
2π Ans. (b) : In frequency modulation the frequency of the
(∆f) = 525.2 HZ carrier wave varies in accordance with the frequency of
modulating signal.
∆f ≃ 525 Hz
350. In an AM transmitter, peak antenna current is
345. Narrowband FM signal can be considered to be 13A and the minimum current is 7A. The
equal to percentage modulation is
(a) PM (b) AM (a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) SSB (d) DSB (c) 50% (d) 100%
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Imax = 13A 354. A carrier waveform 10cos( ωct) and modulating
Imin = 7A signal 3cos( ωmt) have fc = 100 kHz and
I −I f m = 4kHz Given that sensitivity of FM is 4
Percentage modulation m = max min × 100 kHz/V and FM spectra beyond J6 is negligible,
I max + I min what are the channel bandwidth requirements
13 − 7 for AM and FM respectively?
= × 100 = 30%
13 + 7 (a) 12 kHz and 48 kHz (b) 8 kHz and 48 kHz
351. De-emphasis is used to (c) 12 kHz and 24 kHz (d) 8 kHz and 24 kHz
(a) To attenuate high modulation frequency Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018
(b) To attenuate low modulation frequency Ans. (b) : c(t) = 10 cos (ωct)
(c) To attenuate mid-band modulation frequency m(t) = 3cos (ωmt)
(d) To reduce overall modulation index given,
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II fc = 100 kHz
Ans. (a) : De-emphasis is the process of attenuate the fm = 4 kHz
strength of high frequency component of message kf = 4kHz/V
signal to get back the original message signal. Am = 3
352. Heterodyne principle is used in Ac = 10
(a) Transmitter (b) Receiver A 3
(c) Oscillator (d) Power amplifier modulation Index (µ) = m = = 0.3
A c 10
Ans. (b) : Hetrodyne principle is used in receiver. So, it has sidebands up to order '6'
353. Consider the frequency modulated signal 10 BW = 6 ×2fm
cos[(2π.10 t) + 5 sin (2π . 1500t) + 7.5 sin (2π .
5 = 6 ×2×4
1000t)] with carrier frequency of 105Hz. The = 48 kHz
modulation index is Then AM Bandwidth = 2fm
(a) 12.5 (b) 10 = 2 ×4
(c) 7.5 (d) 5 = 8 kHz
NIELIT Scientists- 2017 355. The image channel rejection in a super
Ans. (b) : SFM = 10 cos [(2π × 105t) + 5sin (2π ×1500t) heterodyne receiver comes from
+ 7.5 sin (2π × 1000t)] (a) IF stages only
The instantaneous phase for the given frequency wave (b) RF stages only
is (c) Detector and RF stages only
φi (t)= 2π×105t + 5 sin (2π ×1500t) +7.5 sin (2π ×1000t) (d) Detector, RF and IF stages
The instantaneous frequency will be Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
d Ans. (b) : Image rejection should be achieved in IF
ωi = φi ( t ) amplifier. It becomes impossible to remove it from
dt
d wanted signal.
ωi =  2π× 105 t + 5sin(2π ×1500t) + 7.5sin(2π × 1000t)  So, the image channel rejection in a super heterodyne
dt receiver comes from RF stage only.
ωi = 2π×10 + 15000π cos (2π×1500t)+ 15000 π cos(2π
5
×1000t) 356. In case of double side band side AM, power

Maximum frequency deviation will be contained in upper side band is
∆ω =15000π +15000π (a) E c2 / 2R (b) m 2 E c2 / 4R
∆ω = 30000π
 m2 
2π∆f = 30000π (c) E c2 1 +  / R (d) m 2 E c2 / 8R
 2 
∆f = 15000Hz
Now, UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
Given that, the baseband message signal bandwidth Ans. (d) : double side Band AM power :-
is Pt = Pc + PSB
f m = 1500 Hz Here,
We know that, modulation index will be Pt = total power
∆f Pc - carrier power
β= PSB = side band power
fm
PSB = PUSB + PLSB
15000
β=
1500 m 2 E c2
Upper side Band (PUSB) =
β = 10 8R

357. The output waveform of phase Locked Loop (a) 8π (b) 4π
566 is (c) 2π (d) π
(a) Square and triangular ISRO Scientist- May, 2017
(b) Square and sine wave GATE-2012
(c) Triangular and sine wave Ans. (b) : General equation of FM and PM waves are
(d) None of the above given by-
RPCS Lect.-2011
φFM (t) = A C cos  2πf c t + 2πk f ∫ m(t)dt 
Ans. (a) : Features of PLL-566 :-  
• Operating frequency range- 0.001Hz to 500kHz φPM (t) = A c cos  2πf c t + k p m(t) 
• Operating voltage range- ± 6V to ± 12V
Given same maximum phase deviation and same carrier
• Input impedance- 10kΩ frequency
• Output waveform- Square and triangular
358. Frequency deviation ∆f if passed through a 5
folded mixer then new frequency deviation
(a) 5∆f (b) ∆f
(c) 3∆f (d) 2∆f
NPCIL-2015
Ans. (b) : We know
∆f
↓ (β) =
fm ↑
When the FM signal is passed through a 5 folded mixer,
the mixer changes the carrier frequency but the
deviation remain unchanged.
359. For A FM receiver, maximum frequency used
_____.
(c) 15 kHz (d) 20 kHz So,
NPCIL-2015 kp (m(t))max = 2πkf  ∫ 2 dt 
2
Ans. (c) : For a FM receiver, maximum frequency used  0 

15kHz. kp ×2 = 8πkf
360. x(t) = A cos ωt + B sin ωt, the BW of A cos ωt is kp
10 kHz, BW of B sin ωt is 15 kHz the BW of the = 4π
signal x(t) is _____. kf
(a) 5 kHz (b) 10 kHz 362. A message signal given by m(t) = (1/2) cos( ω1t)
(c) 15 kHz (d) 25 kHz – (1/2) sin ( ω2t) is amplitude modulated with a
NPCIL-2015 carrier of frequency ωc to generate s(t) =
Ans. (c) : x(t) = A cos ωt + B sin ωt 1+m(t) cos( ωct). What is the power efficiency
Given that, achieved by this modulation scheme?
(A cos ωt)BW = 10kHz, (B sin ωt)BW = 15 kHz (a) 8.33% (b) 11.11%
B.W = (10kHz, 15kHz)max (c) 20% (d) 25%
B.W = 15kHz ISRO Scientist- May, 2017
Ans. (c) : According to question-
361. The signal m(t) as shown is applied both to a
1 1
phase modulator (with kp as the phase Message signal [m(t)] = cos(ω1 t) −   sin(ω2 t)
constant) and a frequency modulator with (kf 2 2
as the frequency constant) having the same 1 1
carrier frequency. The ratio kp/kf (in rad Hz–1) ∵ A m1 = and A m2 =
for the same maximum phase deviation is 2 2
S(t) = [1+ m (t)] cos ωct ….(i)
We know that AM signal equation
SAM(t) = Ac [1+kam(t)] cos ωct …..(ii)
Comparing both equation (i) & (ii)
Ac = 1, ka = 1
A m1 1/ 2
µ1 = =
Ac 1
1
µ1 =
2
A m2 1/ 2 Ans. (b) : Given that,
µ2 = = µ = 0.2, Pt = 612W, Pc = ?
Ac 1
 µ2 
1 Pt = Pc 1 + 
µ2 =  2 
2
Now,  ( 0.2 )2 
612 = Pc  1 + 
µ = µ12 + µ 22  2 
 
2 2 612 = Pc (1+ 0.02)
1 1
µ =   +  612
2 2 Pc =
1.02
1 Pc = 600W
µ=
2
366. The fidelity of a radio receiver relates to -
Power efficiency of AM defined as
(a) Reproduction of a FM waves
µ2 (b) Detection of carrier waves
(η) = × 100%
2 + µ2 (c) Tuning of radio waves
2 (d) None of these
 1  RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Green)
 
η=  2
× 100% Ans. (a) : The fidelity of a receiver is defined as the
2
 1  ability of the receiver to accurately reproduce the sound
2+  at its output as it is appearing on its input. High fidelity
 2 means better sound reproduction capability of the
( η) = 20% receiver.
367. If a modulating signal with frequency
363. Which detector is not used to convert FM fm amplitude modulates a carrier of frequency
signals
(a) Foster seelay (b) PLL fc ( where fc >> fm ) , the frequencies present at
(c) Slope detector (d) None the output of AM is (with carrier).
BARC Scientific Officer-2016 (a) f c ,f c ± f m (b) ± f m only
Ans. (d) : FM demodulator:- (c) f c + 2f m (d) f c + f m only
1. Foster seelay method UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
2. PLL (Phase -locked loop) Ans. (a) : The general expression of an amplitude
3. Slope detector method modulated wave
4. Ratio detector SAM ( t ) = A c 1 + k a m ( t )  cos ωc t
5. Zero crossing detector.
364. Which is not true about frequency deviation in
PM
(a) ∆f decreases with fm increasing
(b) ∆f independent of fm
(c) ∆f increases with fm increasing
(d) ∆f increases with fm decreasing
BARC Scientific Officer-2016 the frequencies at the output of AM. (f , f ± f )
c c m
Ans. (c) : We know that frequency deviation in PM. 368. A signal with frequency fm modulates a carrier
(∆f)PM = (kp Am) /fm
fc ( where fc >> fm ) , then the output of the AM-
In above equation-
DSBSC signal will contain frequencies.
(a) ∆f decreases with fm increasing.
(a) 2f c ,f c ± f m (b) f c ,f c ± 2f m
(b) ∆f independent of fm.
(c) f c ± f m (d) f c ,f c ± f m
(c) ∆f increases with fm decreasing.
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
365. In amplitude modulation system given
µ = 0.2, Pt = 612W Find Pc . Ans. (c) : f m = modulated frequencies
f c = carrier frequency
(a) 50W (b) 600W
(c) 30W (d) 120W Modulate wave will contain the two frequencies
= fc ± fm
369. In an angle modulation system, if the carrier Ans. (b) : The application of AGC -
amplitude is Ac, the power in the modulated • AGC implies when only the signal strength has
signal is:
increase beyond a specified value.
(a) 0.5 × A c2 (b) 0.5 × A c4
• AGC the system by which the gain of the Radio
(c) 1.5 × A c2 (d) 2.5 × A c2 receiver is changed automatically according to the
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 strength of the received signal to keep the output
Ans. (a) : A general expression for a phase of constant.
frequency modulated signal is
φ ( t ) = A c cos ωc t + k p m ( t ) 
m ( t ) ⇒ modulated signal.
Pavg = 0.5A 2c
370. In which modulation technique does the phase 374. Find the modulation index if Pc = 100W, Pt =
of the carrier signal is changed by varying the 300W
sine and cosine inputs at a particular time (a) 0.5 (b) 2
(a) Frequency modulation (c) 1 (d) 0.707
(b) Phase shift key modulation BEL-2015
(c) Analog modulation
(d) Pulse code modulation Ans. (b) : Given that,
DMRC AM S&T-2020 Pc = 100 W, Pt = 300 W, µ = ?
Ans. (b) : Phase Shift Keying (PSK)-  µ2 
Pt = Pc 1 + 
• Phase shift keying (PSK) is the digital modulation  2 
technique in which the phase of the carrier signal is
changed by varying the sine and cosine inputs at a  µ2 
300W = 100W  1 + 
particular time.  2 
• PSK technique is widely used for wireless LANs,
bio-metric, contact less operations, along with RFID µ2
=2
and Bluetooth communications. 2
371. If the value of the modulation index is greater µ=2
than____, the wave will be an over-modulated
wave 375. In a FM super heterodyne receiver if the local
(a) 0.75 (b) 0.1 oscillator frequency is set to 21MHz, then what
(c) 0.5 (d) 1 is value of image frequency.
DMRC AM S&T-2020 (a) 41.4 MHz (b) 25 MHz
Ans. (d) : If the value of the modulation index (µ) is (c) 42.4 MHz (d) 34.5 MHz
greater than 1 (µ >1) BEL-2015
So, then the wave will be an over modulated wave. Ans. (c) : Given that,
372. The primary colour used in colour television fs = 21 MHz
is− fsi = ?
(a) Green, yellow, red
We know that,
(b) Red, yellow, blue
Image frequency (fsi) = fs + 2IF
(c) Red, green, blue
(d) Blue, yellow, green ∵ Ideally the value of intermediate frequency in FM
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM 10.7 MHz
Ans. (c) : The primary colour used in colour television fsi = 21+2×10.7
is Red, Green, Blue, Yellow, Magenta and Cyan are = 21+21.4
called secondary colours. f si = 42.4 MHz
373. The term “Delayed AGC” implies the
application of AGC 376. Which type of demodulator used in FM
(a) After switching on-off switch detection
(b) Only when signal strength has increased (a) Square law
beyond a specified value (b) Envelope detector
(c) To the last stage of receiver (c) Synchronous detector
(d) After some time lag (d) Phase discrimination method
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM SAIL- 2014
Ans. (d) : Demodulation of FM - f c + f m = 600 kHz
1. Frequency discrimination method - f c + 3 = 600
(a) Slope detector
(b) Balanced slope detector f c = 597 kHz
2. Phase discrimination method - So, carrier frequency (fc) is 597 kHz.
(a) Foster - seelay detector 380. The most common detector used in an AM
(b) Ratio detector radio broadcast receiver is:
(c) PLL detector (a) Coherent detector (b) Envelope detector
377. In phase modulation, phase deviations is (c) Ratio detector (d) Discriminator
proportional to: RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-II
(a) Carrier phase Ans. (a) :
(b) Message signal
• The most common detector used in an AM radio
(c) Carrier amplitude broadcast receiver is coherent detector.
(d) Message signal frequencies
• Synchronous detector or coherent detector is a
RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-II demodulator circuit of AM signal and we can say this
Ans. (b) : In phase modulation, phase deviations is detection process completely recover original
proportional to message signal. message signal.
378. In a 50% amplitude modulated signal,. if the 381. Which of the following requires a
total transmitted power is P, then the carrier synchronizing signal?
power will be (a) PAM (b) PDM
1 2 (c) Single channel PPM (d) All of these
(a) P (b) P
3 3 TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
2 2 Ans. (c) : In PPM, data transmitted in short pulses have
(c) P (d) P
2.25 2.5 the same width and amplitude. The PPM changes the delay
RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-III between pulses. Hence PPM needs synchronization.
Ans. (c) : Given that, 382. Which technique is used for allocating capacity
Modulation index (µ) = 50% on a satellite channel using fixed assignment
µ = 0.5 FDM?
Pt = P (a) AM (b) FDMA
Pc = ? (c) FM (d) FSK
We know that, TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
 µ2  Ans. (b) : Multiple access system in a satellite station
Pt = Pc 1 +  has FDMA, TDMA and CDMA.
 2  FDMA allots a different sub-band of frequency of each
 ( 0.5 ) 2  different user to access the network.
Pt = Pc 1 +  383. In the generation of modulated signal, a
 2 
 varactor diode can be used for
 0.25  (a) FM generation only (b) AM generation only
P = Pc  1 +  (c) PM generation only (d) both (B) and (C).
 2 
2.25
P = Pc Ans. (a) : A varactor diode is a semiconductor device
2 whose junction capacitance varies linearly with the
2 applied voltage when the diode is reverse biased.
Pc = P
2.25 In the generation of modulated signal, a varactor
diode can be used for FM generation.
379. For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 6 kHz and
the highest frequency component present is 600 384. If transmitter bandwidth is doubled in FM,
kHz. The carrier frequency used for this AM then SNR is
signal is (a) also doubled
(a) 600 kHz (b) 603 kHz (b) improved four fold
(c) 597 kHz (d) 606 kHz (c) decreased by one fourth
RRB SSE 02.09.2015, Shift-I (d) unaffected.
Ans. (c) : Given that, TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
bandwidth (BW) = 2fm = 6 kHz Ans. (c) : If transmission bandwidth is double then SNR
fm = 3kHz is decrease by one fourth, because SNR changes in ratio
Upper sideband = f c + f m = 600 kHz of square of change in bandwidth.

385. The function of an amplitude limiter in an FM 390. In frequency modulation by a single-tone
receiver is to modulating signal, the frequency deviation
(a) eliminate any change in amplitude of receiver constant and the modulating signal frequency
FM signal are both doubled. The modulation index will
(b) reduce the amplitude of the signal to suit IF be:
amplifier (a) Quadrupled
(c) amplify low frequency signals (b) Doubled
(d) none of these (c) Unchanged
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 (d) 0.25 times the previous value
Ans. (a) : Amplitude limiter is a device used to keep the
amplitude of the signal in the FM receiver at a constant ∆f
Ans. (c) : Modulation index β =
value. In FM the message signal so if the amplitude is fm
varied due to noise or interference in the channel it is
if frequency deviation (∆f)' = 2∆f
corrected using limiter circuit the signal is sent for
demodulation. and modulating frequency f 'm = 2fm
386. Which of the following statements is not true of ∆f ' 2∆f
then modulation index (β') = =
FM f 'm 2f m
(a) Carrier never becomes zero ∆f
(b) J-coefficients occasionally are negative =
(c) Total power remains constant with respect to fm
modulation index β' = β
(d) None of these. then modulation index is unchanged.
391. A superhetrodyne AM broadcast receiver has
Ans. (a) : In frequency modulation- an IF of 455 kHz. If it is tuned to a frequency of
• Total power remains constant with respect to 700 kHz, the image frequency is
modulation index (a) 1155 kHz (b) 1610 kHz
• J-coefficients occasionally are negative (c) 245 kHz (d) 210 kHz
• Carrier power does not depend on modulation MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
387. In the phase shift SSB method to get upper side Ans. (b) : Image frequency ( fsi ) = fs + 2IF
band
= 700 + 2 × 455
(a) make two LSBs 180º out of phase
= 700+910
(b) make two LSBs in phase
fsi = 1610 kHz
(c) reduce the effect of noise pulses
(d) limit the noise bandwidth. 392. Determine whether the following statements
are true or false with respect to Pulse-
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 Amplitude Modulation.
Ans. (a) : SSB modulation is a technique that allows (i) Instantaneous sampling of the message
only one sideband to pass saving bandwidth and power signal m(t) every Ts seconds, where the
both. Hence in SSB method to get upper sideband make sampling rate fs = 1/Ts is chosen in
two LSBs, 180º out of phase. accordance with the sampling theorem.
388. A DSB-SC signal can be demodulated using: (ii) Lengthening the duration of each sample
(a) a synchronous detector obtained to some constant value T
(b) a phase shift discriminator (a) (i) False, (ii) False (b) (i) True, (ii) True
(c) a low pass filter (c) (i) False, (ii) True (d) (i) True, (ii) False
(d) an envelope detector NLC GET -24.11.2020
UPMRC AM - 2020 Ans. (b) : There are two condition to generate PAM
Ans. (a) : DSB-SC signal Can be demodulated using a signal:-
synchronous detector. • According to sampling theorem, the sampling of
message signal m(t) every Ts seconds, where the
389. When the modulation index is halved, it is
1
found that the antenna current (RMS value) is sampling rate f s = is selected.
also halved. The type of modulation used is : Ts
(a) AM (carrier plus both sidebands) • Lengthening the duration of each sample so
(b) Single sideband plus carrier obtained to some constant value T.
(c) Single sideband with suppressed carrier So, both statement are true.
(d) Vestigial sideband 393. Frequency modulation as compared to
MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013 amplitude modulation:
Ans. (c) : In single sideband with suppressed carrier, (i) Can provide better noise rejection
when modulation index is halved, it is found that the (ii) Requires more bandwidth
antenna current is also halved. (iii) Requires complex detector circuits
Which of these statements are true? Ans. (a) : Given signal-
(a) (ii) and (iii) only s(t) = 10 cos (2π ×106t) + 5cos (2π ×106t) cos (2π×103)
(b) (i) and (ii) only + 2 cos (2π×106t). cos (4π ×103t)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)  1 1 
(d) (i) and (iii) only = 10 1 + cos 2π × 103 t + cos 4π ×103 t  cos 2π106 t
 2 5 
NLC GET -24.11.2020
1 1
Ans. (c) : µ1 = µ2 =
Amplitude modulation frequency modulation 2 5
It has poor sound it has better sound quality. 1 1 25 + 4 5.38
µ t = µ12 + µ 22 = + = =
quality 4 25 100 10
It requires low it requires high bandwidth µ t = 0.538
bandwidth in the range in the range of 200kHz
of 10kHz. 397. What is the output of Hilbert transform when
the modulating signal is m(t) = sin ωo t?
Easy detector circuit More complex detector
circuit. (a) –sin ωot (b) cos ωot
ωt
394. A signal having frequency component from (c) –cos ωot (d) –sin o
DC-2 kHz is to be pulse code modulated with a 2
6 bit encoder. Minimum carrier bandwidth LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
required is BSNL (JTO) -2002
(a) 4 kHz (b) 128 kHz Ans. (c) : A sin wave through a Hilbert transform will
(c) 16 kHz (d) 12 kHz come out as a negative cosine.
ISRO Scientist December, 2017 m(t) = sin ω0 t ←
H.T
→ m(t)
ˆ = − cos ω0 t
Ans. (d) : The given signal fmax = 2kHz 398. A superheterodyne receiver is tuned at
sampling frequency (fs) = 2 ×fmax frequency fs = 1000 KHz, quality factor Q =
= 2 ×2kHz 100. Calculate image frequency and rejection
= 4kHz ratio, if intermediate frequency is 455 KHz.
n = 6 (given) (a) 910 KHz, 138 (b) 1910 KHz, 138
n.fs 6× 4 (c) 90 KHz, 1.38 (d) 1910 KHz, 1.38
Minimum Bandwidth (BW)min = =
2 2 LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
Ans. (b) : Given, quality factor (Q) = 100
( BW )min = 12 kHz
Tuned frequency (fs) = 1000 KHz
395. The antenna current of an AM Transmitter is Intermediate frequency (IF) = 455 KHz
8 Ampere when only carrier is sent. When the Image frequency (fsi) = fs +2IF
carrier is modulated it increases to 8.93 = 1000 + 2×455
Ampere. What is the percentage modulation ? fsi = 1910 KHz
(a) 100% (b) 57% f f 1910 1000
(c) 43% (d) 70.14% ρ = si − s = −
f s fsi 1000 1910
= 1.910 – .523 = 1.39
 µ2 
Ans. (d) : I 2t = Ic2 1 +  Image frequency Rejection (α) = 1 + Q 2 ρ2
 2 
= 1 + (100)2 × (1.39) 2
 µ2 
(8.93) = ( 8 ) 1 + 
2 2
2  = 1 + 19321 = 19322

α ≃ 138
µ2
1.24 = 1 + 399. Which type of pre-Amplifier plays a crucial
2 role in reducing the effect of thermal noise?
µ = 0.70 (a) Low Impedance Pre-Amplifier
% µ = 70% (b) High Impedance Pre-Amplifier
396. An amplitude modulated signal is given by: (c) Trans impedance Pre-Amplifier
S(t) = 10 cos(2π×106 t) + 5 cos (2π×106 t) cos (2π (d) Trans conductance Pre-Amplifier
× 103 t) + 2 cos (2π × 106 t) cos (4π × 103 t) Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
The effective modulation index is: Ans. (b) : High impedance pre-Amplifier ⇒ The
(a) 0.538 (b) 0.5 second configuration consist of a high input impedance
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.7 amplifier together with a large detector bias resistor
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018 (Ra) in order to reduce the effect of thermal noise.
400. Hilbert transform of Acos ( 2πf0 t + θ ) is Ans. (c) : Given signal-
cm(t) = (Ac+ Am cos ωmt) cosωct.
(a) − Asin ( 2πf 0 t + θ ) (b) A cos ( 2πf 0 t + θ )
 A 
(c) − A cos ( 2πf 0 t + θ ) (d) A sin ( 2πf 0 t + θ ) A c 1 + m cos ωm t  cos ωc t
BSNL (JTO)-2001  Ac 
Compare with standard AM signal.
Ans. (d) : M(t) = A cos (2π f0t+θ) 
H.T.
→ m̂(t) = A sin
SAM(t) = Ac [1+µ cos ωmt] cosωct
(2πf0t + θ).
A
401. Carson's bandwidth for an angle modulated µ= m
carrier Ac
s ( t ) = A cos  20π ×106 t + 0.5sin (1000πt )  is given Ac = 2Am
given by 1
(a) 2 MHz (b) 500 Hz µ=
2
(c) 1000 Hz (d) 1500 Hz
BSNL (JTO)-2001 Side band power (P ) = A c .µ = 4A m
2 2 2
SB
Ans. (d) : Given signal- 4 4× 4
s(t) = Acos [20π ×106 + 0.5 sin (1000πt)] A 2
Compare with SFM(t). PSB = m

4
SFM(t) = Ac cos [2πfct +β sin 2π fmt]
β = 0.5 fm = 500 Hz A  µ2 
2
Total power (PT) = c 1 + 
According to carson's bandwidth- 2  2
(B.W) = (β +1).2fm
( 2.A m )  1  4Am 2
2
= (0.5 +1)×2×500 9
= 1 + 8  = 8
BW = 1500Hz 2   2  
402. The input to a linear delta modulator is a 9 A 2 
= 2A m 2 × = 9.  m 
sinusoidal signal having a peak amplitude of 1 8  4 
volt. The maximum input signal frequency is
4000 Hz. The input signal is sampled at 8 times PT = 9.PSB
the Nyquist rate. The step size for a 800 Hz
input, assuming no slope overload, is 404. In a super heterodyne receiver, if the
intermediate frequency is 10.7 MHz and the
(a) π/40 volts (b) π/8 volts carrier frequency is 89.6 MHz, the image
(c) π/20 volts (d) π/4 volts frequency is :
BSNL (JTO)-2001 (a) 78.9 MHz (b) 100.3 MHz
Ans. (a) : Given, (c) 111 MHz (d) 121 MHz
Peak amplitude = 1Volt DRDO-2009
fm = 4000 Hz Ans. (c) : Given,
fin = 800 Hz fs = 89.6 MHz
IF = 10.7 MHz
A max ω
step size (∆) = Image frequency (fsi) = fs +2IF
fs = 89.6 + 2×10.7 = 111 MHz
fs = n. 2fm 405. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a
= 8×2×4000 Hz (a) low pass filter (LPF) alone
1× 2πfin 2π × 800 (b) a Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
∆= =
8 × 2 × 4000 8 × 2 × 4000 (c) a differentiator followed by a LPF
π (d) a clipper circuit followed by a LPF
∆= volt IES - 1996
40
Ans. (d) : PAM Signals can be demodulated by using a
403. Consider an amplitude modulated (AM) wave clipper circuit followed by a low pass filter.
cm(t) = (Ac + Am cos ωmt) cos ωct. If Ps denotes
the power in any one of the side frequencies
and PT denotes the total power of the AM
signal, for Ac = 2Am which one of the following 406. An amplitude modulated signal s(t) = Ac [1 +
is TRUE? km(t)] cos 2πfct (message signal m(t) has power
(a) PT = 3Ps (b) PT = 6Ps P and constant k determines the modulation
(c) PT = 9Ps (d) PT = 18Ps index) is sent through an AWGN channel and
DRDO-2009 detected using an envelope detector. If the
average carrier power is large compared to the Ans. (d) : General expression of frequency modulated
noise power and any DC component present at signal-
the envelope detector output is removed, the t
figure of merit of the detector is : SFM(t) = Ac cos [2πfct + 2π ∫0
m(τ) dτ ]
k2P P t
(a)
1+ k2P
(b)
1+ k2P
= Ac cos 2π [fct + ∫
0
m(τ) dτ ]
2P P 409. A 10 MHz carrier signal is frequency-

(c) (d) 2 modulated by analog-modulating signal. The
A c2 + 2k 2 P k +P
maximum frequency deviation is 75 kHz. If the
DRDO-2009 frequency of the modulating signal is 300 kHz,
Ans. (a) : s(t) = Ac(1+kam (t)) cos2πfct then the modulation index and the approximate
signal to noise Ratio for AM transmission bandwidth of the FM signal are
A 2 (1 + m 2 p) respectively,
(SNR)AM1 = c (a) 0.25, 750 kHz (b) 0.25, 600 kHz
2WN 0
(c) 0.75, 750 kHz (d) 0.75, 450 kHz
Where m = modulation index
p = average power ESE-2021
Ac = carrier amplitude Ans. (b) : Given,
WN0 = message bandwidth Modulating signal (fm) = 300kHz
is m2p >>1 Maximum frequency deviation (∆f) = 75 kHz
m 2 PA c2 ∆f 75
Then (SNR)AM2 = Modulation index (β) = = = 0.25
2WN 0 fm 300
( SNR )AM 2 ∵ β < 1(NBFM)
Figure of merit = (BW) NBFM = 2×fm
(SNR)AM1
= 2 ×300 kHz
k2P
= = 600 kHz
1+ k2P
410. In a modulation scheme m1(t) = cos2π 100t,
407. An amplitude modulated double sideband
m2(t) = cos 4π 100t then ∆f1 and ∆f2 are the
suppressed carrier signal is given by
frequency deviation from m1(t) and m2(t) then
[1 + amcos2πfa t ] cos2πfm tcos2πfc t , where fc is the the relation follows
frequency of the carrier signal. The modulating (a) ∆f1 = ∆f2 (b) ∆f1 = 2∆f2
signal is
(c) ∆f1 > 2∆f2 (d) ∆f1 < 2∆f2
(a) a m cos 2πf a t
(b) a m cos 2πf a t cos 2πf m t Ans. (a) : We know-
(c) [1 + a m cos 2πf a t ] cos 2πf m t Frequency deviation (∆f) = β.fm
(d) 1 + a m cos 2πf a t If β is increase then fm will decrease.
BSNL(JTO)-2009 So ∆f will be constant.
Ans. (c) : In DSB – SC i.e. frequency deviation will independent of modulated
SDSB–SC(t) = Ac m(t). cos 2π fct frequency.
Modulated signal = Modulating signal × cos 2πfct When,
Given signal- m1(t) = cos 2π 100t
(1+ am cos 2π fat) cos 2πfmt. cos2πfct m2 (t) = cos 4π 100t
then, for m1(t) & m2 (t) deviation will be.
Modulating signal = (1+ am cos 2fat) cos2πfmt ∆f1 = ∆f 2
408. Which one of the following expressions
represents a frequency modulated signal ? 411. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a
modulation depth of 100% transmits a total
(a) A c cos 2π  f c t + m ( t ) 
power of 15W, the power in the carrier
 t
 component is
(b) 1 + ∫ m ( τ ) dτ  cos 2πf c t (a) 5W (b) 10W
 0  (c) 12W (d) 15W
(c) A c m ( t ) cos 2πf c t DRDO-2008
 t
 Ans. (b) : Given,
(d) A c cos 2π f c t + ∫ m ( τ ) dτ 
µ = 100% = 1
 0 
BSNL(JTO)-2009 Total power (PT) = 15W
 µ2  415. Consider an FM broadcast that employs the
PT = PC  1 +  pre-emphasis filter with frequency response
 2  jω
H pe ( ω ) = 1 +
 1 ω0
15 = PC 1 + 
 2 where ω0 = 104 rad/sec.
2 For the network shown in the figure to act as a
PC= 15 × corresponding de-emphasis filter, the
3 appropriate pair(s) of (R, C) values is/are
PC = 10W ______.
412. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the
image signal can be achieved by using a
(a) higher local oscillator frequency
(b) crystal oscillator
(c) narrow band IF filter
(d) narrow band filter at RF stage
DRDO-2008 (a) R = 1 kΩ, C = 0.1 µF
(b) R = 2 kΩ, C = 1 µF
Ans. (d) : In a super heterodyne receiver rejection of
the image signal can be achieved by using a narrow (c) R = 1 kΩ, C = 2 µF
band filter at RF stage. (d) R = 2 kΩ, C = 0.5 µF
GATE-2022
Ans. (a) : Given,
jω
Hpe(ω) = 1 +
ω0
( ω0 = 104 rad / sec )
• De- emphasis filter is know as lag compensator (low
pass filter) is given as-
413. 12 signals each band-limited to 5 kHz are to be

1
transmitted over a single channel by frequency H De (ω) =
division multiplexing. If AM-SSB modulation 1 + jωRC
guard band of 1 kHz is used, then the 1
bandwidth of the multiplexed signal will be | H De (ω) |=
(a) 51 kHz (b) 61 kHz 1 + (ωRC) 2
(c) 71 kHz (d) 81 kHz Relation between De-emphasis and pre-
IES - 1999 emphasis system is -
Ans. (c) : Given, 1
| H De (ω) | =
Bandwidth of each AM-SSB signal | H Pe (ω) |
BW = 5kHz 1 1
Bandwidth of 12 AM -SSB signals =
1 + (ωRC)2  ω
2
BW = 5×12 = 60 kHz 1+  
Guard Band frequency = 1 kHz  ω0 
Guard Band frequency for 12 Channel = 1
11kHz = RC
ω0
Hence, the Bandwidth of the multiplexed signal
= 60 + 11 = 71 kHz 1
≈ 10−4 ≈ RC
414. Which one of the following is used for the ω0
detection of AM-DSB-SC signal? According to option "A"
(a) Ratio detector
R = 1kΩ C = 0.1µF
(b) Foster-Seeley discriminator
RC = 1 ×103 ×0.1 ×10–6
(c) Product demodulator
RC = 10–4
(d) Balanced-slope detector
416. AM broadcast systems use a SW band that
DRDO-2008
extends from :
Ans. (c) : Product demodulator is used for the detection (a) 30 MHz to 300 MHz
of AM DSB - SC signal. (b) 3 MHz to 30 MHz
(c) 540 kHz to 1.6 MHz Ans. (b) : V(t) = (1+m cos ωmt) cos ωct
(d) 330 kHz to 960 kHz Envelope of V(t) = 1+ m cos ωmt
BSNL(JTO)-2002 dv(t)
= −mωm sin ωm t
Ans. (b) : AM broadcast system uses a SW band that dt
extend from 3MHz to 30MHz (100 to 10 meters).
V(t) dv(t)
417. The modulated carrier average power in an = =
RC dt
FM system is equal to the :
At t = t0
(a) modulating signal power
1 + m cos ωm t 0
(b) unmodulated carrier power ≥ | −mωm sin ωm t 0 |
(c) difference between modulating signal power RC
and unmodulated carrier power 1 + m cos ωm t 0
≥ mωm sin ωm t 0
(d) sum of the modulaated signal power and the RC
unmodulated carrier power 1 mωm sin ωm t 0
BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001 ≥
RC 1 + m cos ωm t 0
Ans. (b) : In FM system-
421. Frequency errors in capacitors
Before modulation carrier power is equal to after
(a) Have no relation with frequency
unmodulation carrier power that is also equal to total
(b) Decrease with frequency
power.
(c) Decrease with square of frequency
418. In a super heterodyne radio receiver the IF (d) Increase with frequency
amplifier : Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I
(a) contributes to the major part of the signal Ans. (d) : We know that frequency error is the measure
amplification of difference between the actual BS transmit frequency
(b) improves sensitivity of the receiver & assigned frequency. Frequency error in capacitor
(c) creates image channel interference increase with increase frequency.
(d) removes the need for the detector stages 422. Which of the following devices removes or
BSNL(JTO)-2002 recovers information from a signal?
Ans. (a) : In a superheterodyne radio receiver, the IF (a) Demultiplexer (b) Detector
amplifier contributes to the major part of the signal (c) Converter (d) Multiplexer
amplification. NLC GET -24.11.2020
419. Flat top sampling leads to Ans. (b) : The device which removes or recovers
information from a signal is known as detector. A
(a) Aperture effect (b) Aliasing detector is a device or circuit that extracts information
(c) Loss of signal (d) Gain of signal from a modulated radio frequency in the form of current
TNPSC AE-2014or voltage.
Ans. (a) : The high frequency roll-off of H(f) acts like a
423. What is the modulation index of AM wave
low-pass filter and thus attenuates the upper portion of which is given by
message signal spectrum. These high frequency of x(t) are XAM(t) = (2 + cos ωmt) cosωct? ( ωm is message
affected. This types of effect is known as aperture effect. signal frequency and ωc is carrier signal
Flat top sampling leads to aperture effect. frequency)
420. Consider the wave form (a) 0.33 (b) 1
(c) 0.5 (d) 2
V(t) = (1 + mcosωm t)cosωc t.
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Show that, it the demodulated wave is to follow
Ans. (c) : XAM (t) = [2+cosωmt] cos ωct
the envelope of V(t), it is required that at any
 1 
time t0 = 2 1 + cos ωm t  cos ωc t …(i)
ω (m sin ωm t 0 )  2 
(a) RC ≤ n X (t) = A [1+m cos ω t] (cos ωct) comparing form
(1 + m cos ωm t 0 ) AM c m
equation (i)
1 ω (msin ωm t 0 ) 1
(b) ≥ m Modulation Index (m ) = = 0.5
RC (1 + m cos ωm t 0 ) 2
1 1 424. A signal with two frequency components at
(c) ≤ 6 kHz and 12 kHz, is sampled at the rate of
RC (mωm )
16 kHz and then passed through a Low Pass
(d) RC is very large filter having a cut-off frequency of 16 kHz. The
BSNL (JTO)-2006 output signal of the filter
(a) Is an undistorted version of the original signal (c) a VSB receiver
(b) Contains the 6 kHz component and a spurious (d) an SSB receiver
component of 4 kHz ESE-2022
(c) Contains only the 6 kHz components Ans. (a, d) : For the same average transmitted or
(d) Contains both the components of the original modulated signal power and the same average noise
signal and two spurious components of 4 kHz power in the message bandwidth, a coherent SSB
and 10 kHz receiver will have exactly the same output S/N as a
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 coherent DSB-SC receiver and an SSB receiver.
Ans. (d) : Given, 428. An FM telemetry system uses a 370 Hz-430 Hz
f m1 = 6 kHz voltage-controlled oscillator to carry the fuel
f m2 = 12 kHz level of 3000 I tank, where 370 Hz represents
an empty tank and 430 Hz represents full tank.
f s = 16 kHz What level does 408 Hz represent?
So, f = nfs ± fm (a) 1650.66 I (b) 2533.33 I
at n=1 (c) 3301.32 I (d) 4504.18 I
f = 16 ± 6, 16 ± 12 ESE-2022
= 10, 22, 4, 28 kHz Ans. (*) : An AM telemetry
So, only 6, 12, 4, 10 kHz will pass through the LPF frequency change from empty tank to full tank
whose cut off frequency 16kHz. = 430Hz – 370 Hz = 60Hz
425. Which one of the following statements is not At 408Hz, frequency change,
correct? 408–370 = 38Hz
(a) The noise performance of a full AM receiver A frequency of 408 Hz represent a fuel level
I always inferior to that of a DSB-SC
3000
receiver. = 38 ×
(b) The figure of merit of a DSB-SC receiver 60
using coherent detection is always unity. = 1900L
(c) The figure of merit of an SSB receiver using 429. For a message signal m(t) = cos (2πfmt) and
coherent detection is always unity. carrier frequency fc, which one of the following
(d) The figure of merit of an AM receiver using represents a SSB signal?
envelope detection is always greater than (a) cos(2πfmt) cos2πfct)
unity. (b) cos(2πfct)
ESE-2022 (c) cos 2π(fc + fm)t
Ans. (d) : The figure of merit of a DSB-SC receiver and (d) 1 + cos(2πfmt) cos(2πfct)
SSB receiver using coherent detection is always unit.
KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
(FOM)DSB-SC = 1
The figure of merit of an AM receiver using envelope Ans. (c) : Message signal m(t) = cos (2πfmt)
detection is always less than 1. Carrier signal c(t) = Ac cos(2πfct)
1 Where fc = carrier frequency.
(FOM)AM = = 0.33 Amplitude modulated wave =
3
Am Am
426. The RF carrier range and IF bandwidth Accos2πfct+ c a cos 2π(fc − f m )t − c a cos 2π(f c + f m )t
2 2
corresponding to AM radio receiver are
respectively then SSB signal = cos 2π (f c + f m )t
(a) 0.535 MHz-1.605 MHz and 100 kHz 430. A 20 MHz carrier is modulated by a sinusoidal
(b) 53.5 MHz-160.5 MHz and 10 kHz of 1KHz to produce a peak frequency
(c) 0.535 MHz-1.605 MHz and 10 kHz deviation of 100KHz. What is the approximate
(d) 53.5 MHz-160.5 MHz and 100 kHz bandwidth? If modulating signal is changed to
ESE-2022 800KHz, what is the bandwidth?
(a) 2KHz, 1600KHz (b) 202KHz, 1600KHz
Ans. (c) : In AM radio receiver
(c) 202KHz, 1800KHz (d) 2KHz, 1800KHz
RF carrier range = 535kHz to 1605 kHz
or UPRVUNL AE-2016
0.535MHz to 1.605 MHz Ans. (b) : Carrier frequency (f c ) = 20 MHz
Signal BW = 10kHz. Modulating frequency (fm) = 1KHz
427. For the same average transmitted or ∆f = 100 KHz
modulated signal power and the same average ∆f
noise power in the message bandwidth, a Modulation Index (m) =
coherent SSB receiver will have exactly the fm
same output signal-to-noise ratio as 100
(a) a coherent DSB-SC receiver = = 100 > 1
1
(b) an AM receiver
then carson rule 434. In frequency modulation scheme, the
BW = 2 ( ∆f + f m ) maximum frequency deviation is 50 KHz. The
frequency sensitivity is 1.5 KHz/V and
= 2 (100 +1) modulating signal has an amplitude of 10V.
= 202 KHz Determine the percentage modulation.
∵ fm changes to 800 KHz (a) 30% (b) 50%
then BW = 2fm = 2 ×800 KHz (c) 60% (d) 75%
= 1600 KHz UPRVUNL AE-2016
431. A 20KHz carrier is amplitude modulated by a Ans. (a) : Given,
speech band of 300 to 3300 Hz. The range of Maximum frequency f m = 50kHz
LSB will be:
(a) 20.3 to 23.3 KHz (b) 50 to 52.25 KHz kf = 1.5kHz/V
(c) 52.25 to 55.25 KHz (d) 16.7 to 19.7 KHz Am = 10V
UPRVUNL AE-2016 Modulation Index (µ) = k f .A m
Ans. (d) : fc = 20 KHz fm
f m1 = 300Hz = 0.3KHz 1.5 ×10 15
= = × 100%
f m2 = 3300Hz =3.3 KHz 50 50
µ = 30%
LSB range = f − f( c to f − f
m2 ) ( c m1 )
= ( 20 KHz − 3.3 KHz ) to ( 20 KHz − 0.3KHz ) 435. What is the maximum frequency of modulating
signal in FM system, if it has 8 significant
= 16.7KHz to 19.7KHz sidebands, and the maximum bandwidth is 32
432. The antialiasing system has a cut-off frequency KHz?
fm (=1/Tm), its output is sampled periodically (a) 4 KHz (b) 8 KHz
every Ts seconds. For proper recovery of the (c) 16 KHz (d) 2 KHz
signal at the receiver, Ts must be: UPRVUNL AE-2016
(a) Ts ≥ (Tm/2) (b) Ts ≥ (2Tm) Ans. (d) : n = 8
(c) Ts ≤ (Tm/2) (d) (4/Ts) ≥ (1/Tm) BW = 32 KHz
UPRVUNL AE-2016 Bandwidth = nfs
Ans. (c) : Nyquist sampling theorem- 32 = 8fs
Sampling frequency fs is greater than or equal fs = 4 KHz
to the twice the highest frequency component of fs = 2fm
message signal. 4 KHz = 2fm
f s ≥ 2f m fm = 2 KHz
in term of the time period 436. A signal contains components at 400 Hz and
1 2 2400Hz This signal modulates a carrier of
≥ frequency 100MHz. However after
Ts Tm
demodulation it is found that the 400Hz signal
Tm component is present. The channel Bandwidth
Ts ≤ is 15KHz. What is the reason for the higher
2
frequency signal not to be detected properly.
433. The amplitude of a carrier changes with two (a) Modulation used in FM and BW
signals' amplitudes with modulation indices 0.5 (b) Modulation used in AM and BW is
and 0.25. If the power in unmodulated carrier insufficient
is Pc, the total sideband power is:
(c) Modulation used in FM but pre emphasis is
(a) Pc/4 (b) 5Pc/32
not used
(c) Pc (d) Pc/2
(d) Modulation used in AM but detector is for
UPRVUNL AE-2016 FM
Ans. (b) : m1 = 0.5 TNTRB AE– 2017
m2 = 0.25 Ans.(c): In the above question the reason for the higher
MT = m12 + m 22 frequency signal not to be detected properly because
modulation used In FM but pre- emphasis is not used.
( 0.5 ) + ( 0.25 ) = 0.559
2 2
= 437. The antenna current of an AM transmitter is
8A when only carrier is sent. But it increases to
P ( 0.559 )
2
PC M T2 8.93A when carrier is modulated. What is the
PSB = = C
2 2 percentage modulation of the wave?
5 × PC (a) 43.0% (b) 70.1%
PSB = (c) 57.0% (d) 100%
32
TNTRB AE– 2017
Ans. (b) : IC = 8A Ans. (c) : Amplitude modulated waveform is -
IT = 8.93A
 I  2 
Modulation Index (µ) = 2  T  − 1
I
 C  
 8.93  
2
= 2   − 1
 8  
= 2 {(1.11) 2 − 1}
= 2 {1.232 − 1}
= 2 × 0.232
= 0.464 So,
µ = 0.681 = 68.1% Upper side band =fc + fm
µ ≃ 70.1% Lower side band = fc - fm
438. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 5 KW 441. For a multiplier with one signal input having a
when the modulation percentage is 80. How peak voltage of 5 mV and a frequency 1200
much of this is carrier power? kHz and the other input having a peak voltage
(a) 4 KW (b) 3.8 KW of 10 mV and a frequency of 1655 kHz, the
(c) 3.6 KW (d) 6.25 KW output expression for this multiplier is :
TNTRB AE– 2017 (a) 15 mV cos2π (455 kHz) t + 15 mV cos2π
Ans. (b) : Transmitted power (Pt) = 5KW (2855 kHz)t
Modulation index (µ) = 80% = 0.8 (b) 25µV cos2π(455 kHz) t + 50mV cos2π (455
PC = ? kHz)t
 µ2  (c) 25µV cos2π(455 kHz) t – 25µV cos2π (2855
PT = PC 1 + 
 2  kHz)t
(d) 50mV cos2π (2855 kHz) t + 50 mV cos2π
 ( 0.8 ) 2 
5KW = PC 1 +  (455 kHz)t
 2  KVS TGT (WE)- 2017

 2.64  Ans. (a) : Given, V1 = 5 mV, V2 = 10 mV
5KW = PC   f1 = 1200kHz, f2= 1655 kHz
 2 
Total voltage (V) = V1 + V2 = (5 + 10) = 15 mV
10KW
PC = ∆f = f2 ± f1 = 1655kHz ± 1200 kHz.
2.64 Lower cut off frequency = 455 kHz
PC = 3.8 KW Upper cut off frequency = 1655 kHz + 1200 kHz
439. The distortion due to aperture effect can be = 2855 kHz
corrected by: The equation is
(a) Equalizer (b) Clipper = 15 mV cos2π (455 kHz)t + 15 mV cos2π (2855 kHz)t
(c) Low pass filter (d) Capacitor 442. The function of padders in radio receivers is to
TNTRB AE– 2017 (a) improve sensitivity
Ans. (a) : Aperture effect can be eliminated by using (b) reduce image frequency rejection
"Equalizer" in cascade with a reconstruction filter at the (c) reduce noise
receiver to cancel the effect produced by the filter (d) improve tracking
IES - 1991
Ans. (d) : Padder are used in a receiver to discard the
440. If fc is the carrier wave frequency and fm is the carrier facilitate track and improve tracking.
modulation frequency, then in the resulting 443. If G(t) is Hilbert transform of g(t), then G(t) is:
amplitude modulated waveform the upperside ∞ ∞
1 −g( τ) 1 g( τ)
band consists of : (a) − ∫ dτ (b) − ∫ dτ
π −∞ t − τ π −∞ t − τ
f
(a) fc + 2fm (b) c − 2f m ∞
1 −g( τ) 1 g( τ)
0
fm
(c) fc + fm (d) fc – fm
(c) − ∫ t − τ dτ
π −∞
(d) −
π ∫0 t − τ
dτ
KVS TGT (WE)- 2017 UPRVUNL AE-2016

Ans. (a) : A signal g(t) ←
HT
→ G(t) Ans. (c) : If the modulation index increases then
transmitted power increases in the AM
1 ∞ g(τ)
π ∫−∞ ( t − τ )
G(t) = dτ  µ2 
PT = PC 1 + 
 2 
−1 ∞ −g(τ)
G(t) =
π ∫ ( t − τ ) dτ
−∞
but the power unchanged in FM because
PT = PC
444. The narrow band FM signal is 10cos (2π1000t
+ 0.2 sin(2π100t)) what is instantaneous 448. A Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
frequency: system has its frequency synthesizers
(a) 1000+20cos(2π 100t) controlled by five stage shift-registers with
(b) 2000+10cos (2π100t) feedback connections taken from the second
(c) 1000+10 sin(2π100t) and fifth stages. The number of slots available
(d) 2cos (2π100t) for frequency hopping is
UPRVUNL AE-2016 (a) 32 (b) 31
Ans. (a) : θ = 2π1000t + 0.2sin(2π100t) (c) 24 (d) 28
TANGEDCO- 2015
dθ
= 2π.1000 + 0.2 cos(2π× 100t).2π100 Ans. (a) : The number of register stage given is 5
dt
n=5
= 2π.1000 + 20.2π cos(2π100t)
∴ The number of slots available for frequency hopping
= 2π [1000 + 20 cos(2π100 t)] will be-
The instantaneous frequency of FM. Number of slots = 2n = 25
dθ 1 = 32
fi = × 449. To produce frequency modulation using a
dt 2π
phase modulator
2π
fi = [1000 + 20.cos(2π100t)] (a) the message signal must be integrated and
2π then used for modulation
f i = 1000 + 20.cos ( 2π100t )  (b) the message signal must be differentiated and
then used for modulation
445. Reactance modulator and varactor diode are
used in ______ method. (c) the phase modulated signal must be integrated
(a) DSB-SC generation (b) DSB-SC reception (d) the phase modulated signal must be
(c) SSB generation (d) FM generation differentiated
UPRVUNL AE-2016 TANGEDCO- 2015
Ans. (d) : Reactance modulator and varactor diode are Ans. (a) : FM signal can be generated using, the
used in FM generation. These reactance modulators do message signal is integrated to generate a phase-
not have very good frequency stability. The stability of modulated signal.
the whole circuit depends on the stability of the
discriminator.
446. A superheterodyne AM broadcast, receiver has
an IF of 455 kHz. If it is tuned to a frequency of
700 kHz. The image frequency is
(a) 1610 kHz (b) 1155 kHz 450. Bandwidth requirement for Amplitude
(c) 245 kHz (d) 210 kHz modulated wave is:
TANGEDCO- 2015 (a) 2fm, where fm is the highest modulating
Ans. (a) : IF = 455kHz frequency
fs = 700kHz (b) 2fm + fc, where fc is the carrier frequency
Image frequency (fsi) = fs +2fi (c) 2nfm, where n is the number of side bands
= 700 + 2 ×455 (d) fc + fm
= 700 + 910 KVS TGT (WE)- 2018
f si = 1610 kHz Ans. (a) : It can be said that the bandwidth required for
amplitude modulated wave is twice (2fm) the frequency
447. For a frequency modulated signal, the of the modulating signal.
modulation index is doubled. The average BW = fmax – fmin
power of the modulated signal is
fmax = fc + fm, fmin = fc – fm
(a) quadrupled (b) doubled
BW = fc + fm – (fc – fm)
(c) unaltered (d) none of the above
BW = 2 fm
TANGEDCO- 2015
451. In the following figure output v(t) is (
(a) Pt = 2PC 1 + m 2 / 2 )
(
(b) Pt = PC 1 + m / 2 2
)
(a)
(b)
Phase modulated
Amplitude-modulated
(
(c) Pt = 0.5PC 1 + m / 2 2
)
(c) Frequency modulated (d) Pt = 0.3PC (1 + m / 2 )
2
(d) VSB modulated UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014

KVS TGT (WE)- 2014
 m2 
Ans. (c): Ans. (b) : Total transmitted power (Pt) = PC  1 + 
 2 
where, PC = carrier power
m = modulation index
455. A 20 kW carrier is sinusoidally modulated by
two carriers corresponding to a modulation
Message signal m(t) = A m cos ωm t index of 20% and 40% respectively. The total
output voltage radiated power is
( )
t (a) 22 kW (b) 25 kW
V(t) = A c cos ωc t + 2πK f ∫ m(t)dt (c) 15 kW (d) 17 kW
o
↓ Ans. (a) : Given,
frequency modulated signal PC = 20kW
452. An AM broadcast station operates at its µ1 = 20% = 0.2
maximum allowed total of 100 kW with 90% µ2 = 40% = 0.4
modulation. The power in the intelligence part
is µ = µ12 + µ 22
(a) 28.8 kW (b) 71.2 kW
µ = (0.2) 2 + (0.4) 2
(c) 35.6 kW (d) 36.5 kW
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014 µ = 0.2
Ans. (a) : Given, 
(
0.2  )
2
Pt = 100kW  µ2  
PT = PC  1 +  = 20 1 + 
µ = 0.9  2   2 
 
 µ  2
= 20 (1+0.1)
∵ Pt = Pc 1 + 
 2  PT = 22kW
 0.9  2
456. Decoding, storage and interpretation are the
100 = Pc  1 + 
 2  process steps of ______ .
Pc = 71.2 kW (a) Transmission (b) Reception
(c) Filtration (d) Modulation
Now Pt = Pc + side band power UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
100 = 71.2 + side band power Ans. (b) : Decoding, storage and interpretation are the
∴ side band power = 100 − 71.2 process steps of Reception.
Step are used in the reception side are-
=28.8 kW
(i) Inverse transducer
453. A FM Signal with a deviation δ is passed (ii) Demultiplexer
through a mixer and has its frequency reduced (iii) Decoder
five fold. The deviation in output of mixer is (iv) Storage device
(a) 5δ (b) Indeterminate 457. For which of the following reasons, amplitude
(c) δ/5 (d) δ modulation is used for broadcasting ?
KVS TGT (WE)- 2014 (a) It is more immune to noise
Ans. (d) : Deviation of mixer output is not depend on (b) Its use avoids receiver complexity.
frequency, so the deviation in output of mixer (c) It requires less transmitting power.
will be δ. (d) Only the positive peak of the carrier wave
Frequency deviation ∆f = kf.Am varies with the modulating signal.
454. If transmitted power = Pt, modulation index = UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
m, carrier power = PC, then the total Ans. (b) : Amplitude modulation is used for
transmitted power in a conventional A.M. broadcasting because of its use avoids receiver
system, is given as complexity.

458. If modulation index is increased to 2 times, (a) modulation (b) demodulation
what would be the effective transmitted power? (c) coding (d) superimposition
(a) Equal to carrier power KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
(b) Half of carrier power Ans. (a) : Combining the low frequency signal with
(c) 2 times of carrier power very high frequency radio wave is called modulation.
Modulation is defined as the process of superimposing a
(d) 2 times of carrier power low-frequency signal on a high frequency carrier signal.
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 462. Which of the following modulations is used in
Ans. (c) : If modulation index is increased to 2 times India for radio transmission?
then transmitted power increases 2 times of carrier (a) Frequency (b) Amplitude
power (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
 µ  2
PT = PC 1 +  Ans. (b) : Amplitude modulation is used in India for
 2  radio transmission.

( ) 2 
463. Which of the following statements is true?
2
 (a) Carrier power increases with increase in

PT = PC 1 + 
2 modulation level.
 
  (b) Carrier power decreases with increase in
2 modulation level.
PT' = PC + PC (c) Carrier power increases with decrease in
2 modulation level
PT = 2PC (d) Carrier power is independent of the
modulation level
459. An anti-aliasing filter is
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
(a) An analog filter
(b) A digital filter Ans. (d) : Carrier power is independent of the
modulation level.
(c) Can be analog or digital
(d) None of the above  µ2 
PT = PC 1 + 
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008  2 
Ans. (a) : An anti-aliasing filter is an analog filter. They Where PC = Carrier power
process the signal before it is sampled. They are low PT = Total transmitting power
pass filter. µ = Modulation Index.
460. If mt is modulation index of FM. What is the 464. Which of the following is a result of over
value of ratio (S/N)WBFM/(S/N)AM for 100% modulation?
amplitude modulation with identical total (a) Weakening of signal
transmitted power? (b) Distortion
(a) ( 9 / 2 ) m 2f (b) ( 3/ 2 ) m f2 (c) Strengthening of a signal
(c) ( 3/ 2 ) m f3
(d) ( 9 / 2 ) m f
3 (d) Excessive carrier power
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 Ans. (b) : Distortion is the result of over modulation. Over
Ans.(a): Signal to noise ratio in case of WBFM is modulation is the condition that strongs in
given by telecommunication when the level of the modulating signal
S 3 2 is exceeded to produce 100% of the carrier modulation.
  = mf
  WBFM
N 2 465. The process selecting a desired frequency out
of a complex wave is called
Signal to noise ratio in AM
(a) superposition (b) modulation
S m2 (c) tuning (d) demodulation
  = where m = 1
 AM
N 2 + m 2
KVS TGT (WE)- 2016
1 1 Ans. (c) : The process selecting a desired frequency out
= = of a complex wave is called tuning.
2 +1 3
466. For a Phase Lock Loop (PLL) with a Gilbert
S 3 2 cell mixer based phase detector, to maintain
  m
 N  WBFM 2 f 9 2 lock, the phase error between incoming
= = mf reference signal and VCO output must be
S 1/ 3 2
  maintained between
 N AM (a) 0 & π (b) 0 & π/2
461. Combining the low frequency signal with very (c) 0 & 2π (d) π & 2π
high frequency radio wave is called TANGEDCO AE- 2018
Ans. (a) : The double balanced mixer is a Gilbert cell Lower frequency fL = fc – fm = 4000 –2
mixed and it gives better accuracy during the mixing of fL = 3998 MHz
the reference signal and VCO output and it generates
2f fH
very less phase error as it is locked in between phase 0º fs = H K=
and 180º. K fH − fL
467. The transmission bandwidth of an AM signal is 2 × 4002 4002 4002
(a) Same as signal bandwidth fs = = =
1000 4002 − 3998 4
(b) Twice the carrier frequency K = 1000
(c) Half the carrier frequency
(d) Twice the signal bandwidth f s ≃ 8MHz
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 472. For an FM demodulator circuit with a transfer
Ans. (d) : The transmission bandwidth of an AM signal function 0.2V/kHz and an FM input signal with
is twice the signal bandwidth. 20kHz of peak frequency deviation, the peak
Bandwidth = 2f m output voltage is
(a) 0V (b) 0.2V
468. The advantages of DSB over SSB full carrier (c) 4V (d) 20V
AM is TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
(a) Less available channel space
Ans. (c) : Transfer function (kD) = 0.2V/kHz
(b) More stable transmitter gives
(c) More power to transmit same signal input signal frequency (f) = 20 kHz
(d) Signal is less resistant to noise Peak output voltage (v0) = kD.f
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 = 0.2 ×20
Ans. (c) : The main advantage of DSB over SSB full V0 = 4V
carrier AM is that the DSB has more power to transmit 473. The bandwidth required for the transmission of
the same signal. stereo FM signal with a peak frequency deviation
469. What polarization is employed in an AM of 50 kHz highest modulation frequency being
broadcasting? 100 kHz, as per carson’s rule is
(a) horizontal (b) parallel (a) 150 kHz (b) 200 kHz
(c) transverse (d) vertical (c) 250 kHz (d) 300 kHz
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
Ans. (d) : In AM broadcasting, vertical polarization is Ans. (d) : Frequency deviation ∆f = 50 kHz
employed because absorption of the wave of a ( )
negligible chance due to physical obstacles or Frequency modulator (f m) = 100 kHz
environmental. Bandwidth (BW) = 2(∆f + f m )
470. The image frequency of the super heterodyne = 2(50 +100)
radio receiver whose intermediate frequency is = 150 ×2 kHz
at 455kHz and is tuned to a station operating at = 300 kHz
1100kHz is
(a) 2110 kHz (b) 2010 kHz 474. Which of the following codes uses a number of
parity bits located at certain positions in the
(c) 1910 kHz (d) 2210 kHz
codeword and uses the relations between
TSTRANSCO AE- 2018 redundancy bits and the data bits?
Ans. (b) : Intermediate frequency (fi) = 455kHz (a) Unicode (b) Baudot code
Tuned frequency (fs) = 1100kHz (c) Hamming code (d) Morse code
Image frequency (fsi) = fs + 2fi DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
= 1100 + 2×455 Ans. (c) : Hamming code technique, Which is an error
f si = 2010 kHz detection and error-correction technique. Whenever a
data packet is transmitted over a network there are
471. A 4 GHz carrier is DSB-SC modulated by a low possibilities that the data bit may get lost or damaged
pass message signal with maximum frequency during transmission.
of 2 MHz. The resultant signal is to be ideally
sampled. The minimum frequency of the 475. Which of the following advantages of super
sampling impulse train should be heterodyne radio over other forms of radio is
(a) 4 MHz (b) 8 MHz INCORRECT?
(c) 8 GHz (d) 8.004 GHz (a) Ground to air communications
GATE-1990 (b) It can be used as a test receiver for EMI/EMC
Ans. (b) : Given, testing
Carrier frequency (fc) = 4 GHz (c) Its flexibility and capabilities have meant that
it was adopted for many uses from broadcast
Modulating frequency (fm) = 2MHz
reception
Higher frequency (fH) = fc + fm = 4000 + 2
(d) Reception for scientific applications
fH = 4002 MHz DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
Ans. (a) : Ans. (d) : Advantages of Amplitude modulation-
(i) AM receivers are very cheap as no specialized
components are needed.
(ii) It is simple to implement.
(iii) It can be demodulated using a circuit consisting
of very few component.
Block Diagram of SHRR Disadvantages of AM-
Super heterodyne radio can be used in test receiver for (i) More interference and noise.
EMI/EMC testing, two way radio communication, (ii) It is not efficient in terms of its power usage.
satellite signal reception for scientific applications. 479. All radios will need a sufficiently high level of
476. Which of the following is NOT the advantage of image rejection, and this is provided by:
frequency modulation? (a) Filter and IF amplifier
(a) Less interference and noise (b) Local oscillator
(b) More convenient receiver and transmitter (c) Demodulator
(c) Power consumption is less as compared to AM (d) RF tuning
(d) Adjacent FM channels are separated by guard DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
bands Ans. (d) : High level of image rejection is provided by
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM RF tuning.
Ans. (b) : 1. Advantage of frequency modulation- 480. Which of the following is NOT one of the type
(i) Less interference and noise. of amplitude modulation?
(ii) Power consumption is less as compared to AM. (a) Vestigil sideband
(iii) Adjacent FM channels are separated by guard (b) Double-sideband suppressed carrier
bands. (c) Single-sideband suppressed carrier
2. Disadvantage of FM- (d) Single-sideband with carrier
(i) Receiver and transmitter are more complex. DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
(ii) Component are costly. Ans. (d) : The type of amplitude modulation-
477. Which of the following phase modulation (i) Vestigial sideband
applications is INCORRECT? (ii) Double sideband suppressed carrier.
(a) It is also used in satellite television network (iii) Single sideband suppressed carrier
(b) This is very useful in radio waves Note- But single sideband with carrier is not type of
transmission amplitude modulation.
(c) It is an integral element of many digital 481. What should be the bandwidth figure of signal
transmission coding schemes that support an to noise ratio for SSB?
ample range of wireless technologies such as (a) 0.5 kHz (b) 3 kHz
GSM and Wi-Fi (c) 6 kHz (d) 9 kHz
(d) It is used in digital synthesizers for DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
transferring signals Ans. (b) : Bandwidth figure of signal to noise ratio for
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM SSB is 3kHz. In SSB modulation only one sideband is
Ans. (d) : Applications of phase modulation- transmitted.
(i) It is used in satellite television network. 482. In analog communication, A unit impulse
(ii) This is very useful in radio waves transmission. response of a causal system is ______ for t<0.
(iii) It is an integral element of many digital (a) 0 (b) -1
transmission coding scheme that support an ample (c) Infinite (d) 1
range of wireless technologies such as GSM and Wi-Fi DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
Note- It is not used in digital synthesizers for Ans. (a) : In analog communication, A unit impulse
transferring signals. response of a causal system is 0 for t< 0.
For a causal system the output depends on past and
478. Which of the following is NOT the advantage of
current inputs but not future inputs.
amplitude modulation?
(a) It can be demodulated using a circuit 483. In AM, "M" stands for:
consisting of very few components (a) Multiplication (b) Modulation
(b) AM receivers are very cheap as no (c) Modulate (d) Multilevel
specialized components are needed DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
(c) It is simple to implement Ans. (b) : In AM, M stands for Modulation and AM
(d) It is efficient in terms of its power usage stands for Amplitude Modulation.
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM • FM - Frequency modulation.
484. What is the total power carried by sidebands of Ans. (b) : Given,
the AM wave (DSB) for tone modulation for fc = 10kHz
µ = 0.4? Upper side band of AM = fc+fm = 11kHz
(a) 7.4 % (b) 11.11% fm = 1kHz
(c) 4.3% (d) 8.3% Bandwidth of AM = 2fm
APPSC Poly. Lect. 14.03.2020 = 2×1kHz
DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM = 2kHz
Ans. (a) : 487. The Modulation index of an AM modulated
 µ2   µ2  signal is 0.7 and the carrier power is 14W.
Pt= PC  1 +  =  PC + PC  calculate total sideband power.
 2   2 
(a) 18.47 W (b) 23.14 W
µ2 (c) 12.39 W (d) 17.43 W
Total side band power = PC
2 DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
% of sideband power is given as- Ans. (*) : The power of a transmitted AM wave is given
as –
µ 2
PC Pc = 14 W
PSB = 2
µ = 0.7
 µ2 
PC 1 +  P µ2
 2  PSB = c
2
µ2
14 × ( 0.7 )
2
% PSB = ×100%
2+µ 2
PSB =
2
( 0.4 )
2
= × 100% ∵ µ = 0.4 P SB = 3.43W

2 + ( 0.4 )
2
488. Light is good for telecommunications because it
is:
PSB = 7.4% (a) a high-frequency carrier
485. Which of the following requires least (b) not modulated
bandwidth? (c) a very low-frequency carrier
(a) DSB-SC (b) DSB (d) a low-frequency carrier
(c) VSB (d) SSB DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM Ans. (a) : The Radio Frequency communication suffer
Ans. (d) : from interference and high latency issues. Along with
this, RF communication require separate set for
Modul Total Power Bandwidth Applicati transmission and reception of RF waves. Overcoming
ation (PT) (BW) on the above limitation light communication is preferred
Techni technique because of its, high carrier, high bandwidth
que and immunity to interference from electromagnetic
AM PC+PSB 2ωm Medium source.
wave, 489. An SSB-AM signal can not be demodulated by
Short wave (a) BJT balanced modulator
DSBSC PSB 2ωm __ (b) Complete phase shift generator
VSBSC PSB ωm < BW < 2ωm Picture (c) Diode balanced modulator
< PT < PSB (d) Product detector
2 signal in
TV Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
SSBSC PSB ωm Telephony Ans. (a) : An SSB-AM signal can not be demodulated
by BJT balanced modulator.
2
490. For AM receivers the standard IF frequency is
486. An amplitude modulated signal has carrier
(a) 106KHz (b) 455KHz
frequency of 10kHz. The upper side band is
(c) 1.07KHz (d) 10.7KHz
transmitted at 11 kHz. The bandwidth
required for the AM signal to transmit is Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
______. Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
(a) 10 kHz (b) 2 kHz Ans. (b) : For AM receiver the standard IF frequency
(c) 11 kHz (d) 1 kHz is 455 KHz and for FM receiver the standard IF
DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM frequency is 10.7 MHz.
491. For satisfactory operations, in an AM system 496. In PLL, the range of input frequency for which
carrier frequency must be x times the the initially unlocked loop will lock on an input
bandwidth of message signal. The value of x signal is known as
should be greater than (a) Cut-off range (b) Lock range
(a) 5 (b) 50 (c) Capture range (d) Space range
(c) 2 (d) 10 TNPSC AE-2014
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 Ans. (c) : Capture range– The range of frequencies
Ans. (b) : fc = x fm over which the PLL can acquire the lock with an input
fc = Carrier frequency, fm = message frequency for signal is called capture range.
satisfactory operation. 497. Out of the following PLL specifications, which
fm one you would attach the highest priority to
> 50
fc when you are building an FM demodulator?
x > 50 (a) LPF band width
(b) VCO voltage to frequency conversion
492. What is the assigned bandwidth of each of the
linearity
channels in the AM broadcast band?
(c) LOCK up time
(d) Phase comparator's conversion gain
(c) 200 kHz (d) 15 kHz
Ans. (d) : Most PLL systems utilize a balance mixer
Ans. (a) : In the AM band, each AM station has
composed of well-controlled analog amplifier for phase
maximum bandwidth of 10kHz, extending 5kHz above
comparator section.
and 5 kHz below the assigned centre frequency.
498. Envelop detector is used for the demodulation
493. Out of the following which one is considered as
of
an AM signal
(a) FSK (b) BPSK
(a) Binary phase shift keying
(c) AM (d) None of these
(b) Differential phase shift keying
(c) Differential encoded phase shift keying MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
(d) QPSK Ans. (c) : An envelope detection is an electronic
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 circuit that takes a high frequency amplitude modulated
signal as input and provides an output which is the
Ans. (d) : In QPSK two information bits are
demodulated envelope of the original signal.
modulated at a time. It is used in wireless
communication. QPSK considered as on AM signal. 499. In a communication system, a process for
which statistical - averages and time-averages
494. Pre emphasis is required in
are equal, is called
(a) AM (b) FM
(a) Stationary (b) Ergodic
(c) Delta modulation (d None of these
(c) Gaussian (d) BIBO stable
UJVNL AE-2016
Ans. (b) : pre emphasis is a process of increasing the
Ans. (b) : In a communication system, a process for
amplitude of certain frequencies relative to others in a
which statistical average and time average both are
signal in order to help them override noise, it is required
equal is known as Ergodic. It is a statistical process
to FM.
which is used to detect from signal.
495. The main reason that PLL has been widely
500. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog
used as an integrated system components is
conversion?
(a) Less complex
(a) ASK (b) PSK
(b) Easy to fabricate
(c) FSK (d) QSK
(c) Feasibly of getting fabricated on a single chip
(e) AM
for all individual components
(d) Require less time for fabrication CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
TNPSC AE-2014 Ans. (e) : AM is not a digital to analog conversion.
Ans. (c) : A phase-locked loop is a control system that 501. The IF amplifier in a super heterodyne receiver
generates an output signal whose phase is related to the is:
phase of an input signal. (a) single-stage single-tuned amplifier
The main reason that PLL has been widely used as an (b) two stages of single-tuned amplifier
integrated system component is feasibly of getting (c) double-tuned amplifier
fabricated on a single chip for all individual (d) Class-C amplifier
components. IES-2001
Ans. (b) : Intermediate frequencies are used in super (c) AM-SSB signal with carrier
heterodyne radio receivers, in which an incoming signal is (d) A sequence of exponentially decaying sine
shifted to an IF for amplification before final detection is waves
done. The IF amplifier in a super heterodyne receiver is Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
two stages of single-tuned amplifier. Ans. (b) : A signal which has average value and signal
502. The essential blocks of a phase lock loop (PLL) is band limited by any frequency then the output of this
are phase detector, amplifier, type of filter will be AM – DSB signal with carrier.
(a) high-pass filter and crystal controlled oscillator
507. The main advantage of super heterodyne is
(b) low-pass filter and crystal controlled oscillator (a) Simple circuit
(c) high-pass filter and voltage controlled oscillator
(b) Better tracking
(d) low-pass filter and voltage controlled oscillator
(c) Improvement in selectivity and sensitivity
(d) Better alignment
IES - 2000
Ans. (d) : The essential blocks of a phase lock loop
(PLL) are phase detector, amplifier, low pass filter and Ans. (c) : A super heterodyne receiver offers superior
voltage controlled oscillator. sensitivity, frequency stability and selectivity. Hence,
main advantages of super heterodyne is improvement of
503. A phase lock loop works on the principle of selectivity and sensitivity.
feedback that is
(a) regenerative (b) degenerative 508. Boosting of higher frequency at the transmitter
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of these is done by using
TNPSC AE-2013 (a) De-emphasis (b) AGC circuit
(c) Pre-emphasis (d) Armstrong method
Ans. (a) : A phase lock loop works on the principle of
feedback that is regenerative because after every cycle it Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
generate energy. Ans. (c) : The artificial boosting of higher modulating
504. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequencies is called as pre-emphasis.
frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency 509. Fidelity is nothing but an ability of amplifier to
fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter reproduce
having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to (a) Input signal without any distortion
reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The minimum of fs (b) Output signal without any distortion
required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion (c) Phase shift signal
is (d) Amplitude shift signal
(a) 20 kHz (b) 40 kHz
(c) 57 kHz (d) 77 kHz
Ans. (a) : The ability of an amplifier in order to
DRDO-2008
reproduce the distortion less nature of input signal is
Ans. (c) : For the distortionless reconstruction of m(t) known as fidelity.
signal,
fs –fm ≥ 37 kHz 510. Fading in a ship to ship communication can be
reduced by using which of the following
fs ≥ 37 + fm
(a) Space diversity
fs ≥ 37 + 20
(b) Frequency diversity
f s ≥ 57kHz (c) A more directional antenna
505. A phase lock loop with a first order loop filter (d) A board band antenna
can track: Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
(a) Phase offset (b) Frequency offset Ans. (b) : Fading in a ship to ship communication can
(c) Frequency offset rate (d) Amplitude variation be reduced by using frequency diversity.
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 511. Consider signal (1 + M cos 4πt) cos (2π × 103t),
Ans. (b) : A phase lock loop with a first order loop it contains the frequency components (in Hz)
filter can track frequency offset. (a) 998, 1000 and 1002
506. An arbitrary signal m(t) has zero average value (b) 1000 and 2000
and it is bandlimited to 3.2 kHz. It is sampled (c) dc 2 and 1000
at the rate of 8K samples per second. The (d) .......... 996, 998, 1000, 1002, 1004 .....
samples are passed through an ideal bandpass UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
filter with centre frequency of 32 kHz and
bandwidth of 6.4 kHz. The output of the Ans. (a) : f(t) = (1 + M cos 4πt) cos(2π × 103t)
bandpass filter is It is a standard AM signal expression with consist the
(a) AM-DSB signal with suppressed carrier frequency component of fc, fc + fm, fc –fm = 1000, 1002,
(b) AM-DSB signal with carrier 998.
512. A communication receiver has an intermediate Ans. (c) : Given that-
frequency of 9 MHz. What is the frequency of Ri = 50Ω, N.F. = 4dB
its oscillator when it is tuned to 15 MHz? S
(a) 24 MHz (b) 12 MHz BW = 10 kHz,   = 10 dB
 N 0
(c) 9 MHz (d) 15 MHz
10log (kT0) = –174 dBm
NLC GET -24.11.2020
( SNR )i
Ans. (a) : Intermediate frequency (fi) = 9MHz Noise figure =
Desired signal frequency (fs) = 15MHz
( SNR )0
(SNR)i = 10 log10 N.F. +10log10 (SNR)0
For super heterodyne receiver
(SNR)i = 4 + 10
f i = f L − fS (SNR) = 14dB i
f L = Local oscillator frequency 10 log10S – 10 log10N = 14 dB
f i = 9MHz fS = Desired signal frequency ∵ N = KTB , where B = Bandwidth
10 log10 N = 10 log10 kT + 10 log10BW
fS = 15MHz f i = Intermediate frequency = –174 dB + 10×5
fL = ? 10 log10N = –124
10 log10S = 14 –124
f L = f i + fS = 9 + 15 = 24MHz
10 log10S = –110 (taking antilog)
513. A band-limited signal is sampled at the Nyquist S = 10–11
rate. The signal can be recovered by passing V2
the samples through. = 10−11 ⇒ V = 50 × 10−11
R in
(a) a PLL
(b) an R-C filter V = 0.245µV
(c) an ideal low-pass filter with appropriate 516. For identical total transmitted power, the ratio
bandwidth of S/N for wide band FM to S/N of DSB-AM
(d) an envelope detector (with ma = 1) is :
BPSC Polytechnic Lecturer-2014 (Given fm = 15 KHz & frequency
deviation = +/– 75 KHz)
Ans. (c) : As long as the sampling frequency ωs is (a) 112.5 (b) 300
greater than the twice the signal bandwidth 2ωm . X(t) (c) 75 (d) 450
can be recovered by passing through an ideal or ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
practical low pass filter having bandwidth between ωm Ans. (a) : Given,
fm = 15 kHz
and ( ωs − ωm ) rad/sec. ma = 1
514. If two tones f1 and f2 are amplified by a non- ∆f = ± 75kHz
linear amplifier, which frequency components ∆f 75
Modulation index of FM (β) = = =5
would be present in output? fm 15
(a) f1 , f2
3 75
(b) f1 , f2 , f1 + f2 , f1 – f2 (S/N)WBFM = β2 =
2 2
(c) f1 + f2 , f1 – f2 2
ma
(d) nf1 ± mf2, where n and m are integers (S/N) DSB-AM = {∵ ma = 1}
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 2 + m 2
a
Ans. (d) : The frequency components present in output 1

=
of non-linear amplifier are sum and difference of integer 3
multiplies of individual frequency components. S
f0 = nf1 ± mf2  
 N  WBFM 75
=
515. The minimum input signal that gives output S 2
signal to noise ratio of 10 dB in a system that  
 N  DSB − AM 1/ 3
has an input impedance equal to 50 Ω, a noise = 112.5
figure of 4 dB and bandwidth of 100 KHz is :
517. The power saving for SSB signal, if the AM
10.log(kT0) = –174 dBm wave is modulated to the depth of 50%, is
(a) 0.32 µV (b) 1.41 µV (a) 94.44% (b) 83.33%
(c) 0.245 µV (d) None of the above (c) 72.22% (d) 61.11%
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 UJVNL AE-2016
520. Let m(t) denote a message signal and
µ2
Ans. (a) : Pt = Pc(1 + µ2/2) = Pc + Pc m̂ ( t ) denote the Hilbert transform of m(t). Let
2
the carrier frequency by ωc. Then, the single
Side band power saving = Pc + Pc ⋅ µ 2 / 4 sideband (SSB) modulated signal with the
% of power saving =
( ) ×100
Pc 1 + µ 2 / 4 upper sideband (USB) transmitted is given as
(a) m ( t ) cos ( ωc t ) − m
ˆ ( t ) sin ( ωc t )
P (1 + µ / 2 )
2
(b) m̂ ( t ) sin ( ωc t )
c
2
4+µ
%Ps = ( µ = 0.5 ) (c) m(t) cos (ωct)
4 + 2µ 2 (d) m(t) cos(ωct) + m̂ (t) sin (ωct)
4.25 UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
%Ps = × 100 = 94.44% Ans. (a) : Upper side band of SSB-
4.5
518. Suppose that the modulating signal is m(t)= cos (ωc+ ωm)t = cosωct. cosωmt– sinωct sinωmt
2cos (2πfmt) and the carrier signal is Xc(t)= Ac ∵ sinωmt → Hilbert transform of the original message
cos (2πfct). Which one of the following is a signal
conventional AM signal without over- m(t) = cosωmt
modulation? = m(t). cosωct – m̂(t) sin ωc t
(a) A c m ( t ) cos ( 2πf c t ) 521. Limiter is not essential in the following detector
(a) Foster sealey (b) Balanced slope
(b) 1 + m ( t )  cos ( 2πf c t )
(c) Ratio (d) None of these
(c) A c cos ( 2πf c t ) + 0.25A c cos ( 2πf m t ) MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
cos ( 2πf c t ) Ans. (c) : Limiter is not essential in ratio detector. A
limiter are often used to remove noise present in peaks
(d) A c cos ( 2πf m t ) cos ( 2πf c t ) + of received signal and used for wave shaping.
A c sin ( 2πf m t ) sin ( 2πf c t ) 522. The bandwidth of DSB suppressed carrier
modulation system when the modulating
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III frequency varies between 500 Hz and 5 kHz is
Ans. (c) : m(t) = 2cos(2πfmt) (a) 555 kHz (b) 505 kHz
Xc(t) = Ac cos(2πfct) (c) 500 kHz (d) 9 kHz
For the given problem 0 < m < 1 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
AM wave equation Ans. (d) : Bandwidth of modulating freq = (5–0.5)KHz
cm(t) = Ac cos ωct + Amcosωmt cos ωct = 4.5 KHz
Bandwidth in DSBSC signal
 A 
cm(t) = A c 1 + m cos 2πf m t  cos 2πf c (t) = (2×message signal BW)
 Ac  = 9 KHz
cm(t) = Ac(1+m cos 2πfmt) cos 2πfc(t)] 523. The image channel selectivity of a
superheterodyne communication receiver is
m = 0.25 (undermodulation) determined by
cm(t) = Ac(1+0.25 cos 2πfmt) cos 2πfc(t)] (a) Antenna and preselector
519. The maximum transmission power efficiency of (b) The preselector and RF amplifier
DSB-SC Amplitude modulation is : (c) The preselector and IF amplifier
(a) 25% (b) 33.33% (d) The RF and IF amplifier
(c) 50% (d) 100% Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Power efficiency of DSB-SC Ans. (b) : The image channel selectivity of a super
heterodyne communication receiver is determined by
P
% η = SB × 100 the preselector and RF amplifier. The selectivity of a
pt receiver is evaluated by the relative intensity of a signal
∵ Total power Pt = PSB+ Pc received from external source.
∴ Carrier is suppressed 524. The RF amplifier A is having 3 dB NF & 5 dB
then Pc = 0 of gain, amplifier B is having 3.5 dB NF & 15
Pt = PSB dB. For overall noise figure of the cascaded
P system, the correct statement is :
η = t × 100 % = 100% (a) A as first stage & B as second stage offers
Pt
minimum over all NF
(b) B as first stage & A as second stage minimum 526. Match the following List-I (modulation
over all NF scheme) with List-II (Bandwidth)
(c) Both the combination will offer same overall List-I List-II
NF A. VSB 1. >fm
(d) Over all NF will be less than 3 dB B. FM 2. 2(β+1)fm
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 C. DSB-SC 3. 2 fm
Ans. (b) : Given, D. SSB 4. fm
For RF amplifier A –
Codes
Noise figure ( FA ) = 3dB = 100.3 = 2 A B C D
G A = 5dB = 3.162 (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
For RF amplifier B –
(c) 4 3 1 2
Noise figure (FB ) = 3.5dB = 2.2387 (d) 1 4 2 3
G B = 15dB = 31.6277 NPCIL-2015
st
When RF amplifier A considered as I stage Ans. (a) :
FB − 1 List-1 List-II (Bandwidth)
F = FA + (a) Vestigial sideband (VSB) – >fm
GA
(b) Frequency modulation – 2 (β+1)fm
2.23 − 1 (FM)
= 2+ = 2.39
3.162 (c) Double sideband- – 2 fm
st
When RF amplifier B considered as I stage suppressed carrier
F −1 (d) Single sideband (SSB) – fm
F = FB + A 527. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
GB
(a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with
2 −1 the instantaneous amplitude of the message
= 2.23 + = 2.2616
31.62 signal
If amplifier B as 1st stage and amplifier A as 2nd stage (b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with
offers minimum overall noise figure. the instantaneous frequency of the message
525. For this RF Circuit, the correct statement is : signal
(c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with
the instantaneous amplitude of the message
signal
(d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with
the instantaneous frequency of the message
signal
DRDO-2008
(a) IF Spectrum is inverted and image is at 2.780 Ans. (c) : In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
GHz frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the
(b) IF Spectrum is not inverted and image is at instantaneous amplitude of the message signal.
2.780 GHz 528. 4(1+2cos200πt) cos400πt. for demodulation we
(c) IF spectrum is inverted and image is at 2.360 are using which technique _____.
GHz (a) Envelope detector
(d) IF spectrum is not inverted and image is (b) Square law demodulator
2.220 GHz (c) Synchronous detector
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 (d) All
Ans. (b) : From the figure we know that NPCIL-2015
f LO = 2.64 GHz Ans. (c) : X(t) = 4 (1+2 cos200πt) cos 400πt …(i)
f s = 2.5GHz Standard equation of AM signal
XAM(t) = AC (1+m cos 2πfmt) cos 2πfct
We can say that f LO > f s
Here, m =2 (over modulation)
f si = fs + 2IF So, the demodulation can be achieved by synchronous
= 2.5 ×109 + 2 (140 ×106 ) = 2.78 GHz detector.
529. An FM signal with a modulation index 9 is
If spectrum is not inverted than the image will be applied to a frequency Tripler. The modulation
formed at 2.780 GHz index in the output signal will be
(a) 0 (b) 3 (b) Synchronous detector but not by envelope
(c) 9 (d) 27 detector
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II (c) Neither by Synchronous detector nor by
envelope detector
Ans. (d) : In a frequency multiplier circuit, the
(d) Any asynchronous detector
modulation index is multiplied by n.
UJVNL AE-2016
So, modulation index β 'FM = n.βFM
Ans. (b) : The DSB - SC signal can be demodulated by
= 3×9 synchronous detector but not by envelops detector. For
β 'FM = 27 DSB-SC, Coherent demodulation is done by
multiplying the DSB-SC signal with carrier signal.
530. An SSB transmitter produces a peak-to-peak 535. Which filter is commonly used in SSB
voltage of 200 V across a 100 Ω antenna load. generation?
What is the Peak Envelope Power? (a) RC filter (b) LC filter
(a) 49.98 W (b) 79.98 W (c) Mechanical filter (d) LP filter
(c) 99.96 W (d) 199.93 Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 Ans. (c) : The most commonly used filter in SSB
Ans. (a) : Given, generation are mechanical filters. The filter acts on
Peak to peak voltage = 200V mechanical vibrations which are the analogue of
electrical signal.
∴ Vm = 100
536. A 4 GHz carrier is DSB-SC modulated by a low
V 100
∴ Vrms = m = = 70.7V pass message signal with maximum frequency
2 2 of 2 MHz. The resultant signal can be ideally
Peak envelope power (PEP) sampled by sampling impulse train with
frequency of
2
Vrms 70.7 × 70.7 (a) 4 MHz (b) 8 MHz
= = = 49.98W
R 100 (c) 8 MHz (d) 8.004 MHz
531. Which waves are demodulated by Costas loop? GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
(a) VSB (b) SSB Ans. (d) : Carrier frequency (fc) = 4GHz
(c) MSK (d) DSBSC Maximum frequency (fm) = 2MHz
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 Sampled impulse train with
Ans. (d) : DSBSC waves are demodulated by Costas Frequency = 2 ( f c + f m )
loop. = 2(4+0.002)
A Costas loop is a phase - locked loop (PLL) based = 8.004 GHz
circuit which is used for carrier recovery and signal
537. The input to a coherent detector is DSB-SC
demodulation.
signal plus noise. The noise at the detector
532. A product modulator yields output is
(a) A full AM signal (b) A DSB-SC signal (a) The in-phase component
(c) A VSB signal (d) An SSB signal (b) The quadrature component
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 (c) Zero
Ans. (b) : DSBSC modulator are also called as product (d) The envelope
modulator as they produce the output, which is product GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
of two signal. Ans. (a) : The input to a coherent detector in DSB-SC
533. The pilot carrier in SSB is used for signal plus noise. The noise at the detector output is the
(a) Providing better noise immunity in-phase component.
(b) Frequency stability purpose 538. The effect of phase error of local oscillator on
(c) Lower power consumption spectral components in coherent detection of
SSB Amplitude modulated signal is :
(d) None of the above (a) The frequency of demodulated signals varies
TNPSC AE-2014 with fixed amplitude
Ans. (b) : Pilot carrier is a small carrier transmitted (b) Amplitude of demodulated signals varies with
with modulated signal from the transmitter. It is fixed frequency
separated at the receiver and used to phase lock the (c) Both amplitude & frequency vary
locally generated carrier signal generated at the (d) The recovered signal has phase offset with
receiver. fixed amplitude
The pilot carrier in SSB is used for frequency stability ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
purpose. Ans. (b) : The effect of phase error of local oscillator
534. The DSB-SC signal can be demodulated by on spectral component in coherent detection of SSB
(a) Synchronous detector as well as by envelope amplitude modulated is amplitude of demodulated
detector signals varies with fixed frequency.
Ans. (c) :
(iii) Information Theory and Coding
1. The entropy for a fair coin toss is exactly
1
(a) 2 (b)
2
1 y = − x + 1 ………………(i)
(c) (d) 1
3 5
y = ×x
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 2
Ans. (d) : Entropy for a fair coin toss is exactly x
y = ………………….(ii)
n 4
H= ∑ i =1
pi log 2 (1/ pi ) Solving (i) and (ii)
x x 5x 4
−x + 1 = ⇒ 1 = + x = ⇒x=
 1 1  4 4 4 5
=  log 2 ( 2 ) + log 2 ( 2 ) 
2 2  1
∴y=
H =1 5
2. The probabilities of the five possible outcomes So optimum ratio to achieve minimum bit rate (BER) 4
of an experiment are given as : 5
1 1 1 1 1
, , , , . If the source produces 16
2 4 8 16 16
symbols per second, then the rate of
information would be equal to
(a) 25 bits per second (b) 30 bits per second
(c) 35 bits per second (d) 40 bits per second
1 1 1
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 Bit error rate = × 1× =
2 4 8
Ans. (b) : Probability at the five possible
4. The channel capacity of an ideal AWGN
P1 = 1/2, P2 = 1/4, P3 = 1/8, P4 = 1/16, P5 = 1/16, Rate of channel with infinite bandwidth is
outcome(r) = 16 approximated as (where S is average signal
H = entropy η
n power and is the double sided power
2
∑
1
H= pi log 2 spectral density of white Gaussian noise)
i =1
pi
S S
1 1 1 1 1 (a) 1.44 b / s (b) b/s
H = ×1 + ( 2 ) + × 3 + × 4 + × 4 η 1.44η
2 4 8 16 16
η S
1 1 3 1 1 (c) 1.44 b / s (d) 2.88 b / s
= + + + + S η
2 2 8 4 4 UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
3 1 3 3 15 RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
= 1+ + = + =
8 2 2 8 8 Ans. (a) : The channel capacity of an ideal AWGN
Rate of information (R) = r × H channel with infinite band width is approximates as-
R = 16×15/8 = 30 bits per second S
1.44 b / s
3. Bits 1 and 0 are transmitted with equal η
probability. At the receiver, the pdf of the 5. The input to a channel is a band-pass signal. It
respective received signals for both bits are as is obtained by linearly modulating a sinusoidal
shown below: carrier with a single-tone signal. The output of
the channel due to this input is given by
 1  -6 6
Y(t) =   cos(100t - 10 )cos(10 t - 1.56)
 100 
The group delay (tg) and the phase delay (tp) in
seconds, of the channel are
(a) tg = 1.56, tp = 10–6
If the detection threshold is 1, the BER will be
(b) tg = 1.56 (108), tp=10–6
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) tg = 10–8, tp = 1.56(10–6)
(c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (d) tg = 10–6, tp = 1.56
BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022 BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022
Ans. (c) : Given, Ans. (d) : Average code length of a source is-
 1  L = ∑ n i pi
y(t) =   cos (100t − 10 ) cos (10 t − 1.56 )
−6 6
i
 100 
Option (b) is not uniquely decodable ‘1’ is a prefix to
Now comparing with ‘11’
y ( t ) = cos ( t − t 0 ) cos  ωc ( t − t P )  For uniquely decodable code, a code word should not be
a prefix to another code word.
t p = 1.56 × 10−6 Hz
Option (a) codes→00,01,10,11
t g = 10−8 Hz Average code length
6. An event has two possible outcomes with L = 2 × 0.5 + 2 × 0.25 + 2 × 0.125 + 2 × 0.125 = 2
1 1 Option (c) codes→ 110,111,100
probability P1 = , P2 = . The rate of L = 3 × 0.5 + 3 × 0.25 + 2 × 0.125 + 1× 0.125 = 2.625
2 64
information with 16 outcomes per second is: Option (d) codes→0,10,110,111
38 38 L = 1× 0.5 + 2 × 0.25 + 3 × 0.125 + 3 × 0.125 = 1.75
(a) bits / sec (b) bits / sec So, option (d) has the minimum average code length
4 64
and it is uniquely decodable also.
38 38
(c) bits / sec (d) bits / sec 8. Consider a binary transmission of bits 0 and 1
2 32 with equal probability. Bits are transmitted in a
noisy channel and channel noise is additive in
IES - 2013 nature. The received signal is random in nature
1 1 with conditional probability density function for
Ans. (a) : Given, Probability P1 = , P2 = each transmitted bit 0 and 1, respectively, as
2 64
m
1 fr/0 ( x ) = 1- | x || x |< 1
Entropy (H) = ∑ P log
i =1
i 2
Pi
bits / symbol
fr/0 ( x ) = 1− | x − 1 | 0 < x < 2
1 1 What is the average probability of error if
H = P1 log 2 + P2 log 2 threshold in the decision device at the receiving
P1 P2 end is 1?
1 1 1 1
H= log 2 2 + log 2 64 (a) (b)
2 64 3 2
1 6 1 1
H = log 2 2 + log 2 2 (c) (d)
2 64 8 4
1 6 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
H= + Ans. (d) 1/4
2 64
9. Consider a source with four symbols. The
1 3
H= + entropy of the source will be maximum when
2 32 probabilities of occurrence of symbols are :
19 1 1 1 1 
H= (a) {1, 0, 0, 0} (b)  , , , 
32 4 4 4 4
Information Rate (R) = rs ×H 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 
19 (c)  , , ,  (d)  , , ,0 
R = 16 ×  2 4 8 8  3 3 3 
32 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
19 Ans. (b) : A given source will have maximum entropy
R= or
2 if the message produced are equiprobable.
38 10. Which of the following statements is correct?
(R) = bits / sec S1: Channel capacity is the same for two
4
binary symmetric channels with transition
7. A source generates four messages m1, m2, m3
probabilities as 0.1 and 0.9.
and m4, with probabilities 0.5, 0.25, 0.125 and
0.125 respectively. The messages are generated S2: For a binary symmetric channel with
independently of each other. A source coder transition probability 0.5, the channel capacity
assigns binary code to each message. Which of is 1.
the following codes has minimum average S3: For AWGN channel with infinite
length and is also uniquely decodable (sequence bandwidth, channel capacity is also infinite.
as per m1, m2, m3, m4)? S4: If Y = g(X), then H(Y) > H(X).
(a) 00,01,10,11 (b) 0,1,10,11 (a) S1, S2, S3 and S4 (b) Only S1
(c) 110,111,10,0 (d) 0,10,110,111 (c) Only S2 and S3 (d) S1, S2 and S3
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Ans. (b) : Only S1 is correct- 1 1
(c) 1 bits/symbol (d) 1 bits/symbol
Channel capacity is the same for two binary symmetric 4 2
channels with transition probabilities as 0.1 and 0.9. IES - 2019
11. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur 1 1
at- Ans. (d) : Given, Probabilities P(A) = , P (B) =
(a) roots (b) leaves 2 4
(c) Left sub trees (d) right sub trees 1
P (C) =
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II 4
M
Ans. (b) : In Huffman coding, data is always stored at 1
the leaves of the tree in ordered to complete codeword
i =1
i 2
Pi
bits / symbol
efficiency.
12. What is the capacity of an additive white 1 1 1
Gaussian noise channel with bandwidth of = P(A)log 2 + P(B)log 2 + P(C)log 2
1MHz, power of 10W and noise power spectral P(A) P(B) P(C)
density of No/2 = 10(-9) W/Hz? 1 1 1 1 1 1
= log 2 + log 2 + log 2
(a) 17.4 Mbit/s (b) 13.28 Mbit/s 2 1/ 2 4 1/ 4 4 1/ 4
(c) 26.56 Mbit/s (d) 6.64 Mbit/s 1 1 1
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 = log 2 2 + log 2 4 + log 2 4
2 4 4
Ans. (b) : 13.28 Mbit/s
1 1 1
13. Consider the entropy of a random variable X is = log 2 2 + log 2 2 + log 2 2
16 bits and for each value of X, a deterministic 2 2 2
function Y(X) produces a diverse value. Then 1 1 1
the entropy of Y is _____bits.
= + + {∵ log 2 2 = 1}
2 2 2
(a) 0 1
(b) 16 = 1 bits / symbol
2
(c) 8
17. A communication channel with additive white
(d) Cannot be determined from the given data Gaussian noise, has a bandwidth of 4kHz and
BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022 an SNR of 15, its channel capacity is
Ans. (b) : The entropy of Y is H(Y) = 16. (a) 1.6 kbps (b) 16 kbps
14. The channel capacity is measured in terms of: (c) 32 kbps (d) 256 kbps
(a) bits per channel Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2018, Paper-III
(b) number of input channels connected TNPSC AE-2014, 2008
(c) calls per channel RPSC Lect.-2011
(d) number of output channels connected ISRO Scientist Engg.2006
DMRC AM S&T-2020 IES – 1998, 1993
Ans. (a) : Channel capacity is measured in terms of bit
per channel. BW = 4kHz
15. Information is SNR = 15
(a) the synonym of probability  S
Channel capacity (C) = BW log2 1 + 
(b) not related to the probability of information  N
(c) inversely proportional to the probability of (C) = 4 ×103 log2 (1+15)
information (C) = 4×103 log2(2)4
(d) directly proportional to the probability of (C) = 16 ×103 ×1
information (C) = 16 kbps
DMRC AM S&T-2020 18. A memoryless source emits n symbols each
UPSC Poly. Lect.10.03.2019 with a probability p. The entropy of the source
Ans. (c) : Information is inversely proportional to the as a function of n
probability of information. (a) increases as log n
(b) decreases as log (1/n)
 1 
I(xi) = log b   where b = base (c) increases as n
 P(xi)  (d) increases as n logn
Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-III
16. A source produces three symbols A, B and C Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
with probabilities P(A) = 1/2 P(B) = 1/4 and GATE - 2008
P(C) = 1/4. The source entropy is Ans. (a) : A memoryless source emits n symbols each
1 with a probability P. The entropy of the source as a
(a) bit/symbol (b) 1 bit/symbol
2 function n increases as log n.

19. A communication channel with AWGN 21. A communication channel disturbed by
operating at a signal to noise ratio SNR >> 1 Gaussian noise has a bandwidth of 6 kHz and
and bandwidth B has capacity C1. If the SNR is S/N ratio of 15. The maximum transmission
doubled keeping B constant, the resulting rate that such a channel can support is
capacity C2 is given by (a) 2.4 kbits/sec (b) 24 kbits/sec
(a) C2 ≈ 2C1 (b) C2 ≈ C1 + B (c) 32 kbits/sec (d) 48 kbits/sec
(c) C2 ≈ C1 + 2B (d) C2 ≈ C1 + 0.3B IES - 2015
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II Ans. (b) : Given, Bandwidth (BW) = 6 kHz
NIELIT Scientists-2017 Signal to noise ratio (SNR) = 15
GATE - 2009 Then channel capacity according to Shannon’s theorem
Ans. (b) : Given that- C = BW log 2 (1 + S / N)
SNR >> 1 = 6×103log2 (1+15)
Bandwidth = B C = 6×103 log216
Capacity = C1 = 6 ×103×4 log22
 S C = 24×103 = 24 kbits/sec
Channel capacity (C1) = B log2 1 + 
 N 22. A radio channel has a bandwidth of 10 kHz
S and S/N ratio of 15 dB. The maximum data
≃ Blog 2   rate that can be transmitted is:
N (a) 16.1 kb/sec (b) 24.2 kb/sec
When SNR is doubled- (c) 32.8 kb/sec (d) 50.3 kb/sec
C' = B log2  2S  Sikkim PSC SI(Mains)-2018
N IES – 2013
S Ans. (d) : Given BW = 10kHz = 10×103Hz
C' = B log2   + Blog 2 2 SNR = 15dB
N
(SNR )dB = 10 log10 (SNR )
C ' = C1 + B
15 = 10 log10 (SNR)
20. Consider a discrete memoryless source with SNR = 101.5
source alphabet S = {s0, s1, s2} with probabilities By Shannon's theorem-
1 1 1 Channel capacity (C) = BW log2 (1+S/N)
P(s 0 ) = ,P(s1 ) = and P(s 2 ) =
4 4 2 = 10 × 103 log 2 (1 + 101.5 )
The entropy of the source is
= 10k log2 (31.6)
1 2
(a) bit (b) bit C = 50.3kb / sec
2 3
3 1 23. Conveniently information I(x) is expressed as:
(c) bits (d) bit (a) (–) log10 p(x) Hartleys
2 3
IES - 2017 (b) log10 p(x) Hartleys
(c) log2 p(x) Hartleys
Ans. (c) : Given, Probabilities,
1
1 1 1 (d) 2 log10 Hartleys
P(s 0 ) = , P(s1 ) = ,P(s 2 ) = p(x)
4 4 2
Entropy (H) IES - 2013
Ans. (a) : Information associated with the event is
= P ( s0 ) log 2 1 + P ( s1 ) log 2 1 + inversely proportional to the probability of occurrence
P (s0 ) P ( s1 )
information constrained in a signal will be high if its
1 probability of occurrence will be less.
P ( s 2 ) log 2 + ......
P (s2 )  1 
I = log10   Hartleys
1
H = log 2
1 1
+ log 2
1 1
+ log 2
1  p(x) 
4 1/ 4 4 1/ 4 2 1/ 2 I = ( − ) log10 [ P(x)] Hartleys
1 1 1 24. A source produces 4 symbols with probabilities
H= log 2 4 + log 2 4 + log 2 2
4 4 2 1/2, 1/4, 1/8 and 1/8. For this source, a practical
1 1 1 coding scheme has an average code word
H= + + length of 2 bits/symbol. The efficiency of the
2 2 2 code is:
3 7
H = bits (a) 1 (b)
2 8
1 1 26.
Discrete source S1 has 4 equiprobable symbols
(c) (d) while discrete source S2 has 16 equiprobable
2 4
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II symbols. When the entropy of these two
IES – 2013, 1999 sources is compared, entropy of
GATE - 1989 (a) S1 is greater than S2
Ans. (b) : Given, (b) S1 is less than S2
(c) S1 is equal to S2
1 1 1 1
Probabilities P1 = , P2 = , P3 = , P4 = (d) Depends on rate of symbols/second
2 4 8 8 Sikkim PSC SI (mains)-2018
average code word length (L) = 2 bits/symbol IES - 2011
Entropy (H)-
Ans. (b) : H(x1) = log2(S1)
1 1 1 1
H = P1 log 2 + P2 log 2 + P3 log 2 + P4 log 2 H ( x1 ) = log 2 22
P1 P2 P3 P4
H H ( x1 ) = 2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 H(x 2 ) = log 2 (S2 )
= log 2 + log 2 + log 2 + log 2
2 1/ 2 4 1/ 4 8 1/ 8 8 1/ 8 = log216 = log224 = 4
1 1 3 3 H(x 2 ) > H(x1 )
H = log 2 2 + log 2 2 + log 2 2 + log 2 2
2 2 8 8 or entropy S1 is less than S2
1 1 3 3 27. The entropy of a digital source is 2.7
H = + + + {∵ log 2 2 = 1} bits/symbol. It is producing 100 different
2 2 8 8
symbols per second. The source is likely to be
6 which one of the following
H = 1+
8 (a) A binary source
7 (b) A quaternary source
( H ) = bits/symbol (c) An octal source
4
(d) A hexadecimal source
H 7/4 7
Efficiency ( η) = = = IES - 2008
L 2 8
Ans. (c) : If probability of occurrence message is p then
25. An analog signal is band limited to 4 kHz. It is its information content I will be
sampled at the Nyquist rate and samples are
quantized into 4 levels. The quantization levels 1
I = log 2   bits
have probabilities 1/8, 1/8, 3/8 and 3/8. The P
information rate of the source is: Entropy will be maximum if probability of occurrence
(a) 15400 bps (b) 4000 bps will be less.
(c) 14400 bps (d) 16000 bps
1
IES - 2013 will be equal and H = log 2  
Ans. (c) : Given, Signal frequency (fm) = 4kHz P
1 1 3 3 1
Probabilities P1 = ,P2 = ,P3 = ,P4 = for binary source P =
8 8 8 8 2
Sampling frequency (fs) = 2fm H = log22 = 1 bit/symbols
(fs) = 2×4kHz 1
(fs) = 8kHz Quaternary source P =
4
(fs) = 8000Hz
1 1
m
1 H = log 2 = log 2
Entropy(H) = ∑ P log i 2   P 1/ 4
i =1  Pi  H = log24 = 2 bits/symbol
1 1 1 1 1
= P1 log 2 + P2 log 2 + P3 log 2 + P4 log 2 for , P=
P1 P2 P3 P4 8
1 1 3 8 3 8 H = log21/P
= log 2 (8) + log 2 (8) + log 2   + log 2 H = log28
8 8 8 3 8 3
H = 3 bits/symbol
1 1 3  8  3  8 then 2.7 bits /symbol entropy likely to be octal source.
= log 2 23 + log 2 23 + log 2   + log 2  
8 8 8 3 8 3 28. In order to permit the selection of 1 out of 16
(H) = 1.8 equiprobable events, what is the number of bits
information rate = sampling frequency(fs)× Entropy(H) required?
= 8000 ×1.8 (a) 8 (b) 4
R = 14400 bps (c) log1016 (d) 2
IES - 2007
Ans. (b) : If probability of occurrence of message is p 32. A source produce 26 symbols with equal
then its information content I will be probability. What is the average information
1 produced by this source?
( I ) = log 2 (a) < 4 bits/symbol
P (b) 6 bits/symbol
1 (c) 8 bits/symbol
given P =
16 (d) Between 4 and 6 bits/symbol
1 IES – 2015, 2006
I = log 2
1/16 Ans. (d) : Given that-
I = log216 = 4 bits M(number of symbols) = 26
29. Which one of the following is correct? Average Information for equal probability-
(a) Coding reduces the noise in the signal H(x) = log2M
(b) Coding deliberately introduces redundancy H(x) = log226
into messages H(x) = 4.7 bits/symbol
(c) Coding increases the information rate 33. Match List-I (Theorem/law) with List-II
(d) Coding increases the channel bandwidth (Specified Quantity) and select the correct
IES - 2007 answer using the code given below the lists :
Ans. (a) : Coding reduces the noise in the signal. List - I
30. A communication channel has a bandwidth of A. Shannon source theorem
100 MHz. The channel is extremely noisy such B. Dimensionality theorem
that the signal power is very much below the C. Wiener-Kintchine theorem
noise power. What is the capacity of this D. Shannon-Hartley law
channel? List - II
(a) 100 Mbps (b) 50 Mbps 1. Channel capacity coding
(c) 2400 Mbps (d) Nearly 0 bps 2. Storage space of a signal
IES - 2006 3. Power spectral density of random process
Ans. (d) : Given that- 4. Optimum code length
BW = 100MHz Codes :
A B C D
C = BW log2 1 + S  ( N ≈ ∞) (a) 1 2 3 4
 N
(b) 4 3 2 1
C = 100 ×106 log2(1+0)
C = 0 bps (c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
31. A source generates four messages with
probability 1/8, 1/8, 1/4 and 1/2. What is the IES - 2005
entropy of the source (bits/message)? Ans. (d) :
(a) 1 (b) 1.75 List (I) List (II)
(c) 2 (d) 4 A. Shannon source Optimum code length
Mizoram PSC IOLM -2010, Paper-II coding theorem
IES - 2006 B. Dimensionality Storage space of a signal
Ans. (b) : Given that theorem
1 C. Wiener-Khintchine PSD of random process
P1 = theorem
8
1 D. Shannon-Hartley Channel capacity coading
P2 = law
8
P3 = 1/ 4 correct? The Shannon's Theorem, channel
P4 = 1/2 capacity formula indicates that in theory
m
1 (a) by using proper channel codes, we can get an
i 2   error free transmission on a noisy channel
i  Pi  (b) it is not possible to get an error-free
transmission on a noisy channel, since there
(H) = P1 log 2  1  + P2 log 2  1  + P3 .log 2  1  + P4 .log 2  1  will always be some error in the detected
 P1   P2   P3   P4 
signal for finite noise on any channel
1 1 1 1 (c) it is true only for some wired channels and
= log 2 (8) + .log 2 (8) + log(4) + .log 2 (2)
8 8 4 2 not wireless channels
3 3 1 1 (d) it works only for analog signals and not for
= + + + = 1.75 bits / message digital signals on any channel
8 8 2 2 IES - 2005
Ans. (a) : By Shannon's Theorem- Ans. (c) : Given that,
 S Probability of error (Pe)= 5 × 10–5
Capacity of a channel (C) = BW log2 1 +  1– Pe = 1–5×10–5
 N 
n = 10000 bits
Where BW = Bandwidth
Possibility that there will be 2 or less number of bit In
S error is-
= Signal to noise ratio
N P(X ≤ 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2).
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct P(X ≤ 2) =10000 C0 (5 ×10−5 )0 (1 − 5 ×10−5 )
10000
+
answer using the code given below the lists : 10000
C1(5×10–5)(1–5×10–5)9999+
List - I List - II 10000
C2(5×10–5)2(1–5 ×10–5)9998
A. Entropy coding 1. McMillan's Rule P(X ≤ 2) = 0.6 + 0.3 + 0.074
B. Channel capacity 2. Redundancy P(X ≤ 2) = 0.974 ≃ 1
C. Minimum length 3. Shannon Fano
code 38.
When the channel is noisy, producing a
conditional probability of error p = 0.5; the
D. Equivocation 4. Shannon law channel capacity and entropy function would
Codes : be, respectively.
A B C D (a) 1 and 1 (b) 1 and 0.5
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) 0.5 and 1 (d) zero and 1
(b) 3 4 1 2 IES - 2001
(c) 1 4 3 2 Ans. (d) : According to the question-
(d) 3 2 1 4 Probability of error (Pe) = 0.5
IES - 2005 Channel capacity (C) = BW log 1 + S 
2  
Ans. (b) :  N
List (I) List (II) S
∵ must be 0 for noisy channel
A. Entropy coding Shannon fano N
B. Channel capacity Shannon law C = BW. log21
C. Minimum Length McMillan's Rule C ≈ 0 bps
code Entropy (H) for noisy channel-
D. Equivocation Redundancy   1 
1
36. A ternary source produces alphabets A, B and H =  Pe log 2 + (1 − Pe ) log 2  
C with probabilities PA = PB = P and PC. Which  Pe  1 − Pe  
one of the following gives the correct values for 1 1 
H =  log 2 2 + log 2 2
the maximum value of the entropy of the 2 2 
source: and the corresponding value of p and
1 1
the range of p? H= + 
(a) 1.58, 0.33, (0, 0.5) (b) 1.0, 0.5, (0, 1) 2 2
(c) 3.0, 0.67, (0, 0.5) (d) 2.0, 4.2, (0, 0.3) H =1
IES - 2004 39. A 8 kHz communication channel has an SNR of
Ans. (a) : Given that, 30 dB. It the channel bandwidth is doubled,
PA = PB = PC keeping the signal power constant, the SNR for
Maximum entropy can be achieved only when the the modified channel will be
(a) 27 dB (b) 30 dB
probabilities of PA, PB & PC are equal
(c) 33 dB (d) 60 dB
H(x) max = log 2 M IES - 2000
= log2 3 Ans. (a) : Given that,
= 1.58 bits/symbol 10 log SNR = 30dB
37. Consider a noisy binary channel with bit error we know that when BW will be doubled, SNR will be
–5
probability pe = 5 × 10 . Assume 10000 bits are half
being transmitted over such a channel. The 1 
10 log SNR' = 10 log  SNR 
probability that there will be 2 or less number 2 
of bits in error is 10 log SNR' = 10 log (SNR) –10log2
(a) 10–4 (b) ∼0.5 10 log SNR' = 30–10×0.3010
(c) ∼1 (d) 104
10 log SNR ' ≃ 27dB
IES - 2003
40. A communication system is used to transmit Ans. (b) : Given that,
one of 16 possible signals. Assume that n=8
transmission is accomplished by encoding the when n is number of bits required to represent 8bit
signals into binary digits. Further assume that distinguished Intensity level.
signals are equally likely to occur. If each Entropy (H) = Average Information per picture
binary digit requires 1µ sec. For transmission, = 512×512×3
then how much information (in bits) is = 786432 bits
transmitted by the system in 8 microseconds? 43. A source generates three symbols with
(a) 8 (b) 16 probabilities 0.25, 0.25, 0.50 at a rate of 3000
(c) 4 (d) 2 symbols per second. Assuming independent
IES - 1997 generation of symbols, the most efficient source
Ans. (d) : Given that, encoder would have average bit is
Possible signals (M) = 16 (a) 6000 bits/sec (b) 4500 bits/sec
(c) 3000 bits/sec (d) 1500 bits/sec
TB = 1µ sec
1 GATE - 2006
RB =
TB Ans. (b) : Given that,
1 P1 = 0.25
RB = = 106 P2 = 0.25
1× 10−6
P3 = 0.50
Rate of information (Rb) = r × H (x) r = 3000
106 = r ×4
m  1 
r=
106
bit / sec
Entropy H(x) = ∑ P(x ).log
i 
2 
4 i =1  P(xi ) 
106  1   1   1 
Information transmitted in 1 sec = bit / sec H = 0.25.log2   + 0.25log2  0.25  + 0.50log2  0.50 
4  0.25     
106 1 1 1 3
Information transmitted in 8µ sec = × 8 ×10−6 H = + + = = 1.5
4 2 2 2 2
= 2 bits Bit rate R = r.H(x)
R = 3000×1.5
41. A discrete zero memory information source has
40 symbols and each symbol is equally likely. R = 4500 bits/sec.
The minimum number of bits required to code 44. The capacity of a band-limited additive white
the source with uniform length code and the Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel is given by
entropy of the source are respectively.  P 
C = Wlog 2  1 + 2  bits per second (bps),
(a) 5, 5.03 (b) 6 , 5.83  σ W
(c) 5, 6.64 (d) 6, 5.32 where W is the channel bandwidth, P is the
IES - 1993 average power received and σ2 is the one-sided
power spectral density of the AWGN.
Ans. (d) : 2 n > 40 > 2 n −1
P
where n - minimum number of bit required For a fixed 2 = 1000, the channel capacity (in
σ
n=6 kbps) with infinite bandwidth (W → ∞) is
when each symbol is equal- approximately
1 (a) 1.44 (b) 1.08
Entropy (H) = log 2   (c) 0.72 (d) 0.36
P GATE - 2014
 1  Ans. (a) : Given that,
∵P = 
 40  Capacity of AWGN channel (C)=W log2
(H) = log2(40)  P 
(H) = 5.32 1 + 2  bps
 σ W
42. An image uses 512 × 512 picture elements.
P
Each of the picture elements can take any of For a fixed 2 = 1000
the 8 distinguishable intensity levels. The σ
maximum entropy in the above image will be
(a) 2097152 bits (b) 786432 bits P σ2  P 
(c) 648 bits (d) 144 bits C = 2 × W log 2  1 + 2 
σ P  σ W
IES – 1992
GATE - 1990 When W → ∞
P σ2 W  P  46. Consider a binary memoryless channel
C∞ = lim log 2 1 + 2  characterized by the transition probability
σ 2 W →∞
P  σ W
diagram shown in the figure.
σW
2
W → ∞, also → ∞
P
P σ2 W  P 
C∞ = 2 2lim log 2  1 + 2 
σ σ W
→∞ P  σ W/P
P
  1 
∵ lim x log 2 1 +  = log 2 e 
 x →∞
 x   The channel is
P (a) lossless (b) noiseless
C∞ = 2 log 2 e
σ (c) useless (d) deterministic
P GATE - 2017
C ∞ = 1.44
σ2 Ans. (c) : From given figure-
45. Which one of the following graphs shows the
Shannon capacity (Channel capacity) in bits of
a memoryless binary symmetric Channel with
crossover probability p?
So, channel matrix is-

 Y  0.25 0.75
P  =  
 X  0.25 0.75
1
Assume, P [ X1 ] = P [ X 2 ] =
2
1/ 8 3 / 8
P [ X, Y ] =  
1/ 8 3 / 8
P [ Y1 ] = 1/ 4, P [ Y2 ] = 3/ 4
 X  1/ 2 1/ 2 
P  =  
 Y  1/ 2 1/ 2 
If [H(X/Y)] = 0
Then,
1 3 1 3 
H [ X / Y ] =  log 2 + log 2 + log 2 + log 2 
8 8 8 8 
=1≠ 0
So, it is not loss less
If [I(X, Y) = 0]
I ( X, Y ) = H ( X ) − H ( X / Y )
GATE - 2017 = 1 log 2 + 1 log 2 − 1 = 0
2
Ans. (c) : For memory less binary symmetric channel 2 2
Channel capacity (C) = 1 + P log 2 P + (1 − P ) log 2 (1 − P ) So, it is a useless channel.
Since the capacity varies logarithmically. 47. A linear Hamming code is used to map 4-bit
So, messages to 7-bit codewords. The encoder
P = 0, C =1, P = 0.5, C = 0, P = 1, C = 1 mapping is linear. If the message 0001 is
mapped to the codeword 0000111, and the
message 0011 is mapped to the codeword
1100110, then the message 0010 is mapped to
(a) 0010011 (b) 1100001
(c) 1111000 (d) 1111111
GATE - 2019
Ans. ( b) : 51.
Channel capacity of a noise-free channel
Message Codeword having M symbols is given by:
(A) 0001 – 0000111 (a) Log2 M (b) M
(c) 2M (d) M2
(B) 0011 – 1100110
UPMRC AM – 2020
We will get the message (0010) by EXOR operation of
message (A) and message (B).
Ans. (a) : Channel Capacity is defined as an intrinsic
So message 0010 is mapped to code word 1100001 ability of a communication channel to convey
48. A digital communication system transmits a information noise free channel = M Symbol
block of N bits. The probability of error in Channel capacity = log2 M
decoding a bit is α. The error event of each bit 52. A channel of 3000 Hz bandwidth with a signal
is independent of the error events of the other to thermal noise ratio of 30 dB. The maximum
bits. The received block is declared erroneous if number of bits per second the channel can
at least one of the its bits is decoded wrongly. transmit without error will be:
The probability that the received block is (a) 30,000 bps (b) 25,000 bps
erroneous is (c) 20,000 bps (d) 15,000 bps
(a) N(1 – α) (b) 1 – (1 – α)N UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
(c) 1 – αN
(d) αN Ans. (a) : Shannon Hartley channel capacity theorem-
GATE - 2020 Bit rate ≤ Channel Capacity
Ans. (b) : Given that- Rb ≤ Bandwidth × Log2 (1+SNR)
When error event of each bit is independent from each Rb ≤ 3000 × log2 (1+103)
other. Rb ≤ 29880 bps for error free transmission :
So, probability of error in decoding single bit = α Maximum bit rate can be chosen as 30 Kbps.
Probability of no error will be = 1– α 53. In information theory, the entropy is
(a) Average mutual information
Probability that all the bits are received correctly will be
(b) Average self information
PC = (1– α1 ) (1– α 2 ) ……N times (c) Average noise level
PC = (1– α )N (d) Average power of interference
Probability that the received block is erroneous is Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
Pe = 1 − Pc = 1–(1– α)N m  1 
Ans. (b) : H ( x ) [ Entropy ] = ∑ P ( x i ) log 2  
49. In a communication system each message (0 or i =1  P ( xi ) 
1) is transmitted three times in order to reduce
Entropy is average self information. The entropy is
the probability of error. The detection is based maximum when all the symbol in the distribution occur
on the majority rule at the receiver. If pe is the with equal probabilities.
probability of bit error, the probability of error
54. Shannon's law relates which of the following?
for this communication system is
(a) Noise power to bandwidth
(a) 3p e − 2p e
2 3
(b) 1 − p e − p e
2 3
(b) Antenna gain to frequency
(c) p 3e (d) p e2 (1 − pe ) (c) Transmission losses to noise
(d) Information-carrying capacity to S/N ratio
Ans. (a) : In a communication system each message (0 Ans. (a) : Shannon’s law relates noise power to bandwidth.
or 1) is transmitted three times in order to reduce the
55. An ideal power limited communication channel
probability of error. The probability of error for this with additive white Gaussian noise is having 4
communication system is KHz band width and Signal to Noise ratio of
3Pe2 − 2Pe3 255. The channel capacity is :
(a) 8 kilo bits/sec (b) 9.63 kilo bits/sec
50. Channel capacity is basically a measure of:
(c) 16 kilo bits/sec (d) 32 kilo bits/sec
(a) maximum rate of information ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012
(b) amount of information a channel can take
Ans. (d) : Given that-
(c) Entropy rate BW = 4KHz
(d) None of these SNR = 225
 S
Ans. (a) : The channel capacity C is defined to be the Channel capacity (C) = BW log2 1 + 
maximum rate at which information can be transmitted  N
(C) = 4×103. log2 (1+225)
through a channel.
(C) = 4 ×103. log2 (226)
 S (C) = 4 ×103×7.8201
Capacity of a channel (C) = BW log2 1 + 
 N (C) ≃ 32 kbps
56. An Ideal power limited communication channel (a) 0.75 bits/symbol (b) 0.25 bits/symbol
with additive white Gaussian noise with 1 MHz (c) 0.81 bits/symbol (d) 0.85 bits/symbol
band width and Signal to Noise ratio of 15 is ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
transmitting the information at theoretical
maximum rate. If the Signal to Noise ratio is Ans.(c): P(0) = 3
reduced to 7, how much bandwidth is required 4
to maintain same rate : 1
(a) 15/7 MHz (b) 4/3 MHz P(1) =
4
(c) 2 MHz (d) None of these
m
1
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 Entropy (H) = Pi ∑ log 2  
Ans. (b) : Given that- i =1  Pi 
BW = 1MHz
1 1
SNR = 15 (H) = P0 log 2   + P1 log 2  
 P0   P1 
Channel capacity (C) = BW log2 1 + S 
( H ) = log 2   + log 2 (4)
3 4 1
6
 N
= 10 log2 (16) 4 3 4
= 4×106 bps 3 1
When SNR reduced to 7 than new BW- ( H ) = [log 2 4 − log 2 3] + log22
4 2
C
New BW= 3 1
 S H = [ 0.415] +
log 2  1 +  4 2
 N H = 0.31 + 0.50
4 × 106 H = 0.81bits/symbol
New BW =
log 2 (8) 60. For M equally likely messages, the average
amount of information H is
4 (a) H = log10 M (b) H = log2 M
New BW = MHz
3 (c) H = log10 M2 (d) H = 2 log10 M
57. The minimum distance of a (n,k)=(7,4) linear Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
block code is upper bounded by: Ans. (b) : For M equally likely messages, the average
(a) 1 (b) 2 amount of information H is
(c) 3 (d) 4 H = log2M
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 61. The channel capacity is
Ans. (c): A hamming code (7, 4)= (n,k) can correct any (a) The maximum information transmitted by one
single bit error. symbol over the channel
4-bit data is encoded with 7 bit code-word (b) Information contained in a signal
mathematically. (c) The amplitude of the modulated signal
dmin = 2t+1 (d) Entire bandwidth available
where t= Number of error correction Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
For the given error correction (7,4), t = 1 Ans. (a) : The channel capacity, C is defined to be the
So dmin = 2(1)+1 = 3 maximum rate at which information can be transmitted
58. The channel capacity under the Gaussian noise through a channel.
environment for a discrete memory less  S
channel with a bandwidth of 4MHz and SNR of Channel capacity (C) = BW log 2 1 + N  bits / sec
31 is.
(a) 20 Mbps (b) 4 Mbps Where, S/N= signal to noise ratio.
(c) 8 kbps (d) 4 kbps 62. The capacity of a binary symmetric channel,
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 given H(P) is binary entropy function is
(a) 1 – H(P) (b) H(P) – 1
Ans. (a) : Given that-
(c) 1 – H(P)2 (d) H(P)2 – 1
BW = 4MHz, S/N = 31
 S
So, channel capacity (C) = BW log2 1 +  Ans. (a) : The binary symmetric channel has channel
 N capacity of 1-H (P), where H(P) = - P log P - (1-P) log
= 4×106log2(1+31) (1-P) is the Shannon entropy of a binary distribution
= 4×106 log225 with probabilities P and 1-P.
= 20 ×106 63. According to Shannon Hartley theorem
= 20 Mbps (a) The channel capacity becomes infinite with
59. A binary source in which 0’s occurs 3 times as infinite bandwidth
often as 1’s. Then its entropy in bits/symbol (b) The channel capacity does not become
will be infinite with infinite bandwidth
(c) Has a low Signal to noise ratio 68. Capacity of each channel in FDMA is given by
(d) Has a high Signal to noise ratio (a) C = W.log2 (1 + S/N)
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II (b) C = M.log2 (1 + S/N)
Ans. (b) : The channel capacity does not become (c) C = (W/M)log2 (1 + S/N)
infinite with Infinite bandwidth. (d) C = log2 (1 + S/N)
64. Relation between Code rate(r), information bits TNPSC AE - 2018
(k) and total bits (n) is Ans. (c) : In frequency division multiple access
(a) r = k/n (b) k = n/r (FDMA) the capacity of each channel is given by
(c) r = k * n (d) n = r * k W  S
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II C = M log 2 1 + N 
Ans. (a) : Code rate (r) is equal to the ratio of W
information bits (k) and total bits (n). = band width N = Noise power
M
Information bits (k) S = signal power C = Channel capacity
Coding rate (r) =
total bits (n) 69. Block codes are ______ codes that enable a
65. The relation between entropy and mutual limited number of errors to be detected and
information is corrected without retransmission
(a) I(X;Y) = H(X) - H(X/Y) (a) Forward error check
(b) I(X;Y) = H(X/Y) - H(Y/X) (b) Forward error correction
(c) I(X;Y) = H(X) - H(Y) (c) Forward error detection
(d) I(X;Y) = H(Y) - H(X) (d) None of the above
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (b) : Block codes are forward error correction
Ans. (a) : Symmetry I (X;Y) = I (Y ; X)
codes that enable a limited number of error to be
relationship between entropy and average mutual detected and corrected without retransmission. Block
information code refers to the technique of adding extra bit to a
I (X;Y) = H(X) - H (X|Y) digital word.
I (X;Y) = H(Y) - H(Y|X)
70. Channel capacity of Binary symmetric channel
I (X;Y) = H (X) + H (Y) - H (XY) illustrated below is
66. If the channel is band limited to 6 kHz & signal
to noise ratio is 16, what would be the capacity
of channel?
(a) 15.15 kbps (b) 24.74 kbps
(c) 30.12 kbps (d) 52.18 kbps
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II (a) 1 + plog2p + qlog2q (b) 1 + plog2q + qlog2p
Ans. (b) : The capacity of a band-limited AWGN (c) 0 (d) 0.5
channel is given by the formula- TNPSC AE - 2018
C = B log2 (1+ S/N). Ans. (a) :
Where, B = channel bandwidth
= 6 ×103Hz
S/N = 16
C = (6×103) log2 (1+16)
= 24.52 kbps
Binary channel capacity = 1 + Plog2P + q log2q
67. Shannon's channel capacity formula is
applicable to the AWGN channel and is given 71. If the minimum possible length and average
by length of a coding scheme are 2.418 and 2.45
bits respectively. Then its code efficiency and
 S  S redundancy are
(a) C = Blog 2 1 +  (b) C = Blog10  1 + 
 N  N (a) 1.01 and 0.013 (b) 0.986 and 0.024
 S  S (c) 0.976 and 0.024 (d) 0.986 and 0.014
(c) C = Blog8 1 +  (d) C = Blog16  1 +  TNPSC AE - 2018
 N  N
Ans. (d) : Efficiency
TNPSC AE - 2018
H ( x ) minimum possible length
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II = =
Ans. (a) : Shannon's channel capacity formula is given τ Average bit
2.418
 S η= ⇒ η = 0.986
by C = Blog 2 1 +  2.45
 N
Redundarey = 1 – η = 0.014
Where B = Bandwidth N = Noise power S = signal
power and C = channel capacity. R = 0.014

72. If a block code is to have a t-error correction 78. Entropy of a source with 4 symbols is
capability then the minimum distance dmin of maximum possible. What would be the average
the code should be such that Huffman code length of this source?
(a) dmin ≥ 2t (b) dmin ≥ t (a) 1.5 (b) 1.75
(c) dmin ≥ 2t + 1 (d) dmin > 2t – 1 (c) 2 (d) 2.25
TNPSC AE - 2018 UPSC JWM-2016
Ans. (c) : To guarantee correction of up to t error in an Ans. (c) : Entropy of a source with 4 symbols is
cases, the minimum hamming distance in a block code maximum possible.
must be dmin = 2t + 1
Huffman code length = (probability × code length)
for boundary condition d min ≥ 2t + 1
1
= ×4 = 2
73. The purpose of source coding is to 2
(a) increase the information transmission rate 79. Blocking probability of a 3 stage switch in term
(b) decrease the information transmission rate of inlet utilization P
(c) decrease the S/N rate K
(a) B = 1 − (1 − P / β ) 
2
(d) decrease the probability error.
 
K
(b) B = (1 − P / β ) 
2
Ans. (a) : Source coding is used to reduce the
redundancy to improve the efficiency which make  
information rate increase.
(c) B = (1 − P / β ) 
2
74. Data rate R and information rate Rt are  

different because of K
(d) B = (1 − P / β ) − 1
2
(a) channel capacity C, being high  
(b) equivocation TNPSC AE-2014
(c) entropy h(x)
(d) none of these Ans. (a) : Blocking probability of 3 stage, Switch In
term of inlet utilization P is-
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III k
B = 1 − (1 − P / β ) 
2
Ans. (a) : Data rate R and information rate Rt are
different because of channel capacity C being high.  
75. By properly coding and grouping longer Where β represents either space expansion or
sequence, it is possible to concentration.
(a) increase efficiency 80. Given a channel with an intended capacity of
(b) reduce delay in transmission 20 Mbits. The Bandwidth of this channel is 3
(c) increase delay MHz. What is S/N ratio required in order to
(d) make H = C achieve this capacity?
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (a) 200 (b) 1000
Ans. (a) : By properly coding and grouping longer (c) 10 (d) 100
sequence it is possible to increase efficiency. TNPSC AE-2014
76. Significance of channel coding theorem due to Ans. (d) : By using shannon's capacity formula-
Shannon lies in the fact that C = B log2 (1 + S/N)
(a) rs > C bpsec 20 × 106 = 3 × 106 × log2 (1 + S/N)
(b) r = C
(c) rs = C 20
log2 (1 + S/N) =
(d) exchange of code rate r and error probability Pe 3
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (1 + S/N) = 101.125
Ans. (a) :Significance of channel coding theorem due S/N ≃ 100
to Shannon lies in the fact that rs > C bps. 81. Which statement is not correct?
77. If a channel having bandwidth of 2 kHz and (a) When the probability is zero the information
signal to noise ratio is zero dB. Maximum bit conveyed is zero
rate for this channel will be- (b) When the probability is one the information
(a) 0 kbps (b) 0.5 kbps conveyed is zero
(c) 4 kbps (d) 2 kbps (c) When the probability are equal the entropy is
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 maximum
Ans. (d) : SNR = 0 dB (d) When the probability are equal the entropy is
SNR = 10(0/10) minimum
SNR = 1 TNPSC AE-2014
C = B log2 (1 + SNR) Ans. (d) : When the probability are equal, the entropy is
C = log2 (1 + 1) maximum H = log 2 M
C = 2 log22 C = 2 Kbps Entropy is inversely proportional to the probability.

82. A given source will have maximum entropy if (c) Probability of information
all the massage produced are (d) Disorder of information
(a) statistically independent Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-II
(b) equiprobable Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
(c) mutually exclusive Ans. (b) : Entropy is basically measure of average
(d) having finite power information.
TNPSC AE-2014, 2013 88. Redundancy in communication system
Ans. (b) : A given source will have maximum entropy (a) Reduces efficiency of communication
if all the message produced are equiproble. The average (b) Helps to detect error
self information is referred to as the entropy of the (c) Helps to correct error
source. (d) All of these
83. Source encoding in a data communication Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
system is done in order to Ans. (d) : Redundancy in communication system helps
(a) enhance the information transmission rate to detect and correct error and also reduces efficiency.
(b) increase the transmission errors 89. The rate at which information can be carried
(c) conserve the transmitted power through a communication channel depends on
(d) facilitate clock recovery in the receiver (a) carrier frequency (b) bandwidth
TNPSC AE-2008 (c) transmission loss (d) transmitted power
Ans. (a) : Source coder reduce the redundancy to Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
improve the efficiency of the system as well as increase Ans. (b) : The rate at which Information can be carried
the information rate. through a communication channel depends on bandwidth.
84. As per Shannon's channel capacity theorem, if 90. A zero source generates two messages with
samples are transmitted in 'T' seconds over a probability 0.8 and 0.2. These are coded as 1
noisy channel which is bandlimited to 'B' Hz. and 0.2. The code efficiency is
The number of samples 'n' is given by (a) 0.2 (b) 0.5
(Symbols/notations carry their usual meaning) (c) 0.7 (d) 1.0
(a) B/T (b) T/B Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
(c) 2BT (d) BT/2 Lin 0.2
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 Ans. (a) : Code efficiency = =
L1 + L 2 0.8 + 0.2
Ans. (c) : As per shanon's channel capacity theorem, if
samples are transmitted in 'T' seconds over a noisy Code efficiency η = 0.2
channel which is band limited to 'B' Hz. The number of
samples 'n' given by 2BT. 91. There are M equally likely and independent
message and M = 2N, the information in each
85. As per information capacity theorem, what is message is equal to
the capacity of channel of bandwidth 'B' Hz, (a) N (b) log2M
perturbed by AWGN of PSD No/2, limited in
bandwidth to 'B' and transmitted power of 'P'? 1
(c) log2N (d)
(symbols/notations carry their usual meaning) M
(a) C = log 2(2+B) UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
(b) C = B log 2 (1+P/N0B) Ans. (a) : Information in each message is
(c) C = B log 2 (P/N0B)+1 I = log 2 M = log 2 2N ∵ M = 2 N 
(d) C = 2*B
I = N log 2 2
Ans. (b) : If PSD of AWGN is N0/2 and transmitted I = N bits
power is P then, 92. The average information associated with an
 P  extremely unlikely message is zero. What is the
C = Blog 2  1 + av  bps average information associated with an
 N0B  extremely likely message?
(a) Zero
86. Channel capacity is equal to
(a) Bandwidth of demand (b) Infinity
(c) Depends on speed of transmission of the
(b) Average frequency message
(c) Noise rate (d) Depends on total number of messages
(d) Amount of information per second Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II IES-2012
Ans. (d) : Channel capacity is equal to amount of Ans. (d) : The average Information associated with an
information per second. extremely likely message depends on total number of
87. Entropy is basically a measure of : message–
(a) Rate of information H = log 2 M
(b) Average information
93. Shannon Hartley law Ans. (c) : Given that-
(a) refers to noise 1 1 1 1 1 1
(b) defines bandwidth P1 = , P2 = , P3 = , P3 = , P4 = , P5 =
(c) describes signaling rate 4 4 4 4 8 8
(d) refers to distortion m =6
1
H(x i ) = ∑ Pi .log 2  
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect-22.03.2022, Paper-II i =1  Pi 
1 1
Ans. (a) : Shannon-Hartley law tells the maximum rates H(x) = 3 × log 2 (4) + 2 × log 2 (8)
at which information can be transmitted over a 4 8
communication channel of a specified bandwidth in the 3 3
presence of noise. H(x) = +
2 4
94. The Hartley shannon theorem sets a limit on H(x) = 2.25bits / symbol
the
(a) Highest frequency that may be sent over a 1
given channel Symbol rate (r) = = 60 Symbols/sec
1/ 60
(b) Maximum capacity of a channel with a given Average Information rate = r.H(x)
noise level = 60 × 2.25
(c) Maximum number of coding levels in the = 135 bits/sec
channel with a given noise level
(d) Maximum numbers of quantizing levels in a 98. Which of the following channel coding scheme
channel of a given bandwidth helps in correcting burst errors?
(a) CRC (b) Convolution coding
(c) Viterbi (d) Reed-Solomon
Ans. (b) : The Hartley Shannon theorem sets a limit on
the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise Ans. (d) : Reed-Solomon channel coding scheme help
level. in correcting burst errors.
95. A random experiment has 64 equally likely 99. Over a certain binary communication channel,
outcomes. Find the information associated with the symbol 0 is transmitted with probability 0.4
each outcome. and 1 is transmitted with probability 0.6. It is
(a) 3 bits (b) 2 bits given that p(ε/0) = 10–6 and p(ε/1) = 10–4, where
(c) 6 bits (d) 5 bits p(ε/xi) is the probability of detecting the error
given that xi is transmitted. What is the error
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 probability of the channel?
Ans. (c) : Equally like outcomes (M)=64 (a) 0.604 × 10–3 (b) 0.604 ×10–5
Entropy (H) = log2M (c) 0.604 ×10 –6
(d) 0.604 ×10–4
(H) = log264 ESE-2022
(H) = 6 Ans. (d) : Given,
96. ________ is the average amount of information P ( 0 ) = 0.4, P (1) = 0.6
that must be delivered in order to resolve the
uncertainty about the outcome of a trial. P ( ε / 0 ) = 10−6 , P ( ε /1) = 10−4
(a) Bandwidth (b) Entropy Error probability of the channel-
(c) Quantum (d) Loss
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM P( e ) = P ( 0 ) P ( ε / 0 ) + P (1) P ( ε /1)
Ans. (b) : Entropy is the average amount of information = 0.4 × 10 −6 + 0.6 × 10 −4 = 0.604 × 10 −4
that must be delivered in order to resolve the 100. If the BW of 8 KHz white bandlimited
uncertainty about the outcome of a trial. Gaussian SNR is 25 dB the channel capacity is:
m
1 (a) 2.40 kbps (b) 53.26 kbps
Entropy ( H ) = ∑ Pi log 2   bits /symbol (c) 66.47 kbps (d) 26.84 kbps
i =1  Pi  UPRVUNL AE-2016
97. A source generates one of the five symbols
 S
1 Ans. (c) : C = Blog2 1 + 
s1, s2, s3, s4 and s5 once in every second. The  N
60
symbols are assumed to be independent and SNR = 25dB
1 1 1 1 1 10log ( SNR ) = 25
occur with probabilities , , , & . The
4 4 4 8 8 SNR = 316.22
average information rate of the source in C = 8 ×103 log (1 + 316.22 )
2
bits/second is :
(a) 100 (b) 125 C = 8 ×10 log 2 ( 317.22 )
3
(c) 135 (d) 150 C = 66.47 kbps

DRDO-2009
101. A discrete source emits four symbols with 105. If the channel is band limited to 6 kHz and
probabilities (1/3), (1/3), (1/4) and (1/12) every signal to noise ratio is 16, what would be the
100µs. The information rate is: capacity of channel?
(a) 9795.5 symbols/sec (b) 1.855 symbols/sec (a) 15.15 kbps (b) 24.74 kbps
(c) 18.55 Kbits/sec (d) 18.55 bits/sec (c) 30.12 kbps (d) 52.18 kbps
UPRVUNL AE-2016 TANGEDCO AE- 2018
Ans. (c) : Information rate (R) of the source is-  S
Ans. (b) : Channel capacity (C) = Blog2 1 + 
R = Hfs =
H  N
Ts = 6 kHz log 2 (1 + 16 )
Where fs= sampling frequency = 6 kHz log 2 (17 )
Ts= sampling interval
4 = 24.74 kbps
1
Entropy(H) = ∑ Pk log 2 106. A discrete memory less source has two symbols
k =1 Pk
x1 and x2 with probabilities p(x1) and p(x2)
1 1 1 1 respectively, then the entropy of the source
= P1 log 2 + P2 log 2 + P3 log 2 + P4 log 2 H(X) is
P1 P2 P3 P4
(a) H (X) = p(x1) log 10 p(x1) +p(x2) log10 p(x2)
1 1 1 1
log 2 3 + log 2 3 + log 2 4 + log 2 12 (b) H(X) = – p(x1) log10 p(x1) –p(x2)log10 p(x2)
3 3 4 12 (c) H(X) = –p(x1) log2 p(x1) – p(x2) log2 p (x2)
= 1.84 bits / symbol (d) H (X) = p (x1)log2 p(x1) +p(x2) log2 p(x2)
H TSTRANSCO AE- 2018
So, R = Ans. (c) : As we know,
Ts
m
1.85 H ( X ) = ∑ P ( x i ) log 2 P ( x i )
R= = 18.55 kbits / symbol i =1
100µ sec
For two probability P ( x1 ) & P ( x 2 )
102. For a system having 16 distinct symbols,
maximum entropy is obtained when H ( x ) = −P ( x1 ) log 2 P ( x1 ) − P ( x 2 ) log 2 P ( x 2 )
probabilities are: H(X) = –p(x1) log2 p(x1) – p(x2) log2 p (x2)
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4
107. The following image represents:
(c) 1/3 (d) 1/16
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (d) : For a system having 16 distinct symbols,
maximum entropy is obtained when probabilities are
1/16.
The entropy is maximum when all the symbols in the
distribution occur with equal probabilities.
103. A binary symmetric channel with p as
transition probability, uses repetition code ‘n’
times, with n =2m + 1 being an odd integer. In
a block of n bits, if the number of zeros exceed
number of ones, decoder decodes it as ‘0”
otherwise as “1”. An error occurs when m + 1 (a) Wave Shaping
or more transmission out of 3 are incorrect, (b) Shannon-Hartley Effect
what is the probability of error? (c) Gibb's Phenomena
(a) 3p2 (1– p) +p3 (d) Aliasing
(b) 5p2 (1– p) + (1/3) p3 DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM
(c) p3 (1– p) + p2 APPSC Poly. Lect. 14.03.2020
(d) p3 (1– p) + p2 Ans. (c) :
UPRVUNL AE-2016
2 3
Ans. (a) : 3p (1– p) +p
104. For a discrete memory less source containing K
symbols, the upper bound for the entropy is
(a) 1/K (b) log2K
(c) log10K (d) log2 (1/K)
TANGEDCO AE- 2018
Ans. (b) : For a discrete memory less source containing
K symbols, the upper bound for the entropy is log2K.
Gibbs phenomenon is an overshoot (or "ringing") of Ans. (a) : According shanon-hartley law at no noise the
fourier series and other eigen function series occurring channel capacity is going to be Infinite
at simple discontinuities. It can be reduced with the 113. An event has 4 possible outcomes with
lanczos sigma factor. The phenomenon is illustrated probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16. What will be the
above in the fourier series of a square wave. rate of information if there are approximately
108. In communication system a trade-off can be 24 outcomes/second possible?
made between transmission bandwidth and (a) 3 bits/sec (b) 39 bits/sec
(a) output SNR (b) input SNR (c) 78 bits/sec (d) 6 bits/sec
(c) channel capacity (d) none of these DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
TNPSC AE-2013 Ans. (b) : Given,
Ans. (a) : In communication system a trade-off can be
1 1 1 1
made between transmission bandwidth and output SNR. P1 = , P2 = , P3 = , P4 = , rate of outcomes (r) =
109. Consider a discrete memory-less source with 2 4 8 16
source alphabet, S = {S0, S1, S2, S3, S4 } with 24 outcomes/ seconds
4
respective probabilities of P = {0.4, 0.2, 0.2, 0.1,
0.1}. Find the average code word length By the formula of entropy (H) = ∑ P log1/ P
i =1
i i
(a) 2.2 (b) 2.4

(c) 2 (d) 2.1 H = P1 log1/ P1 + P2 log1/ P2 + P3 log1/ P3 + P4 log1/ P4
TNPSC AE-2013 1 1 1 1
= log 2 + log 4 + log 8 + log16
Ans. (a) : Given P = {0.4,0.2,0.2,0.1,0.1} 2 4 8 16
1 1 3 1
= + + +
2 2 8 4
13
H= bits/outcomes
8
13
Rate of information (R) = rH = 24 ×
8
R = 39 bits/sec
Note: Combine last two symbols with lowest
probabilities, and use one bit (last bit in codeword) to 114. A prefix code is _____decodable and satisfies
differentiate between them. _______inequality.
The average codeword length for this code is- (a) Always, Schwartz
L = 0.4 × 1 + 0.2 × 2 + 0.2 × 3 + 0.1× 4 + 0.1× 4 (b) Always, Kraft-McMilan
(c) Sometimes, Schwartz
L = 2.2 bits / symbol
(d) Sometimes, Kraft-McMilan
110. The information capacity (bits/sec) of a channel UPRVUNL AE-2016
with bandwidth W MHz and transmission time Ans. (b) : Prefix code are always decodable.
T is given by
Prefix codes are also known as prefix-free code,
(a) WT (b) W2T
prefix condition codes and instantaneous codes.
(c) W/T (d) T/W
Kraft inequality it characterize the set of code word
lengths that are possible in a uniquely decodable
Ans. (a) : information capacity of a channel with code.
bandwidth, WMHz and transmission time T is given by All prefix codes follow kraft’s inequality.
WT(bit/sec)
115. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and
111. The minimum transmitter power requirement bandwidth of 1200Hz. The maximum data rate
in the absence of channel coding of a that can be sent through the channel with
communication system is 2W. If a channel arbitrary low probability of error is
coding scheme of 3 dB is incorporated in the
system, the minimum required transmitter (a) 600 bps (b) 1200 bps
power is (c) 4800 bps (d) 7200 bps
(a) 2 dB (b) 3 dB DRDO-2008
(c) 1 dB (d) 6 dB Ans. (d) : Given -
TNPSC AE-2013 S
Ans. (b) : The minimum power will transmitted at cut-   = 63
 N c
of frequency. Hence at cut-off frequency minimum
Bandwidth = 1200 Hz
power will be 3dB.
112. According shanon-hartley law at no noise the  S
C = B log 2 1+ 
channel capacity is going to be  N
(a) Infinite (b) Zero = 1200 × log 2 (1 + 63)
(c) finite (d) no effect
= 7200 bps
AAI-2015
116. What is the channel capacity of a noisy channel 120. Source S1 produces 4 discrete symbols with
with conditional probability of error p= equal probability.
1/2? Source S2 produces 6 discrete symbols with
(a) 0 (b) 1 equal probability.
(c) Infinity (d) 2 If H1 and H2 are the entropies of sources S1 and
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 S2 respectively, then which one of the following
is correct?
Ans. (a) : The channel capacity of a noisy channel (a) H1 is always less than H2
1 (b) H1 is always greater than H2
with conditional probability of error P = is zero.
2 (c) H1 is always equal to H2
117. A communication channel is having a (d) H2 is 1.5 times H1 only
bandwidth of 3000 Hz. The transmitted power IES - 2008
is such that the received signal-to-noise ratio is Ans. (a) : Entropy of mutual information H(x)
1023. The maximum data rate that can be n
1
transmitted t error-free through the channel is: H(x) = ∑ P(x i ) log = log 2 m
i =1 P (x i)
(a) 3 Kbps (b) 30 Kbps
(c) 3 Mbps (d) 300 Kbps Case I,
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 For source S1
No of symbol is m = 4
Ans. (b) : Given that - H(x) = log2m
BW = 3000 Hz = log24
(S/N) = 1023 = 210 , n = 10 bits = 2 bits/symbol
Data rate = 3000 × 10 bits/s Case II- For source m = 6
= 30 kbps log26
118. For a fast communication which of the = 2.585 bits/symbol
following requirements have to be met Hence H2 > H1
(a) Large bandwidth N1 is always less than H2
(b) High S/N ratio 121. The rate at which information can be passed
(c) High channel capacity through a tele-communication channel depends
(d) None of the above on the
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 (a) carrier frequency (b) bandwidth
(c) transmission time (d) transmitter power
Ans. (c) : According channel capacity theorem -
The states that data rate transmission though a channel
should be less or equal to channel capacity for error free Ans. (b) : The rate of which information can be passed
through a tele-communication channel depends on the
transmission. R≤C band width
The channel capacity so for fast communication or high
122. A source produces 4 symbols with probabilities
speed data rate we should increases the channel 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/8. For this source, a practical
capacity. coding scheme has an average codeword length
119. For Gaussian and White channel noise, the of 2 bits/symbol. The efficiency of the code is
capacity of a low-pass channel with a usable (a) 1 (b) 7/8
bandwidth of 3000 Hz and S/N = 103 at the (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
channel output will be ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
(a) 15000 bits/s (b) 20000 bits/s Ans. (b) : Entropy is the average amount of
(c) 25000 bits/s (d) 30000 bits/s information which is given as
IES - 2019 1
Ans. (d) : The capacity of a band-limited AWGN H = ∑ Pi log 2   bits / symbol
channel is given by the formula- i  Pi 
So, 4 symbols & their probabilities are
 S
capacity (C)= B log2 1 +  1 1 1 1
 N  , , ,
where B = channel BW 2 4 8 8
S/N = signal noise power Therefore
given, BW = 3000Hz 1 2 3 3
H= + + +
S/N = 1000W 2 4 8 8
C = (3000) log2 (1+103) 4+ 4+3+3
= 3000×9.967 bits/sec =
8
C = 29900bits/sec
14 7
C ≅ 30000bit / s = =
8 4
Efficiency (a) po > p1 (b) po < p1
H (c) po = zero (d) po = p1
η= LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
L
7 Ans. (d) : Maximum value of entropy will occur at
po = p1.
= 4 ∵ L = 2bits / symbol 127. What is the entropy of a communication system
2 that consists of six messages with probabilities
7 1/8, 1/8, 1/8, 1/4 and 1/4 respectively?
=
8
123. A zero memory source emits six messages with (a) 1 bit/message (b) 2.5 bits/message
probabilities 0.3, 0.25, 0.15, 0.12, 0.1 and 0.08. (c) 3 bits/message (d) 4.5 bits/message
If binary Huffman coding is used, what will be ESE-2021
the average code length? Ans. (b) : Required probability equal to -
(a) 2.45 bits (b) 3.45 bits 1 1 1 1 1
log ( 8) + log 2 ( 8 ) + log 2 ( 8 ) + log 2 ( 4 ) + log 2 ( 4 )
(c) 2.54 bits (d) 3.54 bits 8 2 8 8 4 4
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 3 3 3 2 2
+ + + + = 2.125 ≃ 2.5 bits/message
Ans. (a) : 8 8 8 4 4
128. A telephone channel has bandwidth B of 3kHz
P ( x ) ni and SNR (S/ηB) of 30 dB. It is connected to a
0.3 2 teletype machine having 32 different symbols.
0.25 2 The symbol rate required for errorless
0.15 3 transmission is nearly
0.12 3 (a) 1800 symbols/s (b) 3000 symbols/s
0.1 3 (c) 5000 symbols/s (d) 6000 symbols/s
0.08 3 IES - 2000
The average code length is given as - Ans. (d) : Given that-
6 BW = 3 kHz
L = ∑ niP ( x ) SNR = 30 dB = 103
i =1
=0.3×2+0.25×2+0.15×3+0.12×3+0.1×3+0.08×3  S
Capacity of the channel (C) = BW log2 1 + 
= 2.45 bits  N 
3 3 3
124. Information content of a message with (C) = 3×10 log2(1+10 ) = 3×10 log2 (1001) ≃ 30 kbps
probability P is defined by the equation Teletype machine having 32 different symbols so 5 bits
(a) I =k log2(1/P) (b) I = k log2(P) are required.
(c) I = k log2(1/2P) (d) I = klog2(1/P2) 5 bits required 1 symbol that is 30 kbps
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 30 × 103
Ans. (a) : Information content of a message with 1 bit required = = 6000symbols / sec
probability p is defined by the equation 5
129. A source has two symbols x1 and x2 with
1
I = k log 2   probabilities P1 and P2 respectively. If a new
P source, with four symbols is generated from the
125. A source generates three symbol m0, m1, m2 above source, then the new symbol
with probabilities 0.5, 0.25, 0.5, then find probabilities will be (ε is a number such that 0
entropy? < ε < 1)
(a) 5/4 bits/symbol (b) 3/4 bits/symbol (a) P1, P2, P1, P2
(c) 3/2 bits/symbol (d) 9/2 bits/symbol (b) P1, P1, P2, P2
SAIL- 2014 (c) (1 – ε) P1, (1 – ε) P2, εP1, εP2
Ans. (c) : Entropy is given as - P P P P
(d) 1 , 2 , 1 , 2
1 4 4 4 4
H = ∑ Pi log 2   bits/symbol
i
P
 i IES - 1994
 1   1   1  Ans. (c) : Given that,
= 0.5log 2   + 0.25log 2  0.25  + 0.5log 2  0.5  Source symbols x1 and x2
 0.5     
probability P1 and P2
= 0.5 × 1 + 0.25 × 2 + 0.5 × 1
Let four symbol generated.
= 1.5 = 3 bits/symbol Ax1
2
126. In a binary system, the symbols 0 and 1 occur Ax2
with a probability of po and p1 respectively. A'x1
The maximum value for entropy occurs when: A'x2
Where A is ε and A' is (1– ε) (d) It is not possible to transmit data error-free
Hence, through this channel.
P(Ax1) = εP1 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
P(Ax2) = εP2 Ans. (d) : Given,
P(A'x1) = (1– ε)P1 Rb = 32 kbps
P(A'x2) =(1–ε)P2 B = 3 kHz
130. In communication system, if for a given rate of SNR = 30dB
information transmission requires channel
SNR = 1000
bandwidth B1 and signal-to-noise ratio SNR1. If
the channel bandwidth is doubled for same rate Chanel capacity (C) = B log2 (1+SNR)
of information, then the new signal-to noise = 3 ×103 log2 (1+1000)
ratio will be = 3 ×103 log2 (1001)
(a) SNR1 (b) 2SNR1 = 29.9 kbps
(c) SNR 1 (d) SNR1/2 It is not possible to transmit data error free through this
ISRO Scientist- May, 2017 channel because R ≤ C .
Ans. (c) : As we know 133. A communication channel with Additive white
Channel capacity = BW log2(1+SNR) Gaussian Noise, has a bandwidth of 4 kHz and
Now have, SNR of 31 dB. Its channel capacity is
Channel capacity = BW log2 (1+(SNR)1) (a) 1.6 kbps (b) 20 kbps
If BW is double then channel capacity will be - (c) 32 kbps (d) 256 kbps
= 2BW log2 (1+(SNR)2) ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
2BW log2(1+ (SNR)2) = BW log2(1+(SNR)1) Ans. (b) : Given,
At same rate information - B = 4 KHz
log2(1+(SNR)2)2 = log2 (1+(SNR)1)
2 SNR = 31
(1+(SNR)2) = (1+(SNR)1)
(SNR) >> 1 Channel capacity (C) = B log2 (1 + SNR)
2
{(SNR)2} = (SNR)1 = 4 × 103 log2 (1 + 31)
= 20 × 103 bps
(SNR) 2 = (SNR)1
= 20 kbps
131. A binary symmetric channel (BSC) has a 134. An 8 level encoding scheme is used in a PCM
transition probability of 1/8. If the binary system of 10 kHz channel BW. The channel
transmit symbol X is such that P(X = 0) = 9/10, capacity is
then the probability of error for an optimum (a) 80 kbps (b) 60 kbps
receiver will be
(a) 7/80 (b) 63/80 (c) 30 kbps (d) 18 kbps
(c) 9/10 (d) 1/10 NIELIT Scientists- 2017
GATE-2012 Ans. (b) : C = 2BW log2M
Ans. (d) : BSC → two symbols → 0 &1 M = 8, BW = 10kHz
9 C = 2 × 10 log 2 23
P( X = 0) =
10 C = 20 × 3
X = 1 → R X → error C = 60 kbps
9 1 135. Find the channel capacity (in MHz), if the
P(X=1)=1–P(X=0) = 1 − = channel bandwidth is 20MHz having signal to
10 10
noise ratio 1023dB?:
132. We wish to transmit a digital voice at 32 kbps
through a communication channel having (a) 200 (b) 40
bandwidth of 3000 Hz. The received signal to (c) 100 (d) 2000
noise power ratio is 30 dB. State which of the SAIL-2014
following statement is true: Ans. (a) : Given,
(a) To transmit data error-free through this Bandwidth (BW) = 20MHz
channel, channel equalizer circuit should be SNR = 1023dB
used at the receiver.
Channel capacity C = BW log2 (1+SNR)
(b) To transmit data error-free through this
channel, the voice signal should be = 20 ×106 log2 (1+1023)
compressed by 2. = 20×106 log2 (210)
(c) To transmit data error-free through this = 10 ×20×106
channel, a channel code with coding gain of 3 C = 200MHz
dB should be used.
4. A TDM link has 20 signal channels and each
(iv) Digital Communication System channel is sampled 8000 times/sec. Each sample
is represented by seven binary bits and
1. Companding is used contains an additional bit for synchronization.
(a) To protect small signals in PCM for The total bit rate for the TDM link is
quantising distortion (a) 1180 k bits/sec (b) 1280 k bits/sec
(b) to overcome quantized noise in PCM (c) 1180 M bits/sec (d) 1280 M bits/sec
(c) To overcome impulse noise UPPSC Poly.Tech.Lect.22.03.2022
(d) None of these IES - 1994
UPPSC, Poly.Tech.Lect.22.03.2022, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Given,
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI, 05.11.2019
number of signal (m) = 8000 times/sec
Nagaland PSC-2018, Diploma, Paper-II
number of bits (n) = 7
Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
number of additional bit (a) = 1bit
signal channel fs = 20
RPSC, Lect.-2011
Bit rate of TDM = mfs (a + n)
Ans. (a) : Companding is used to protect small signals = 8000×20 (1+7)
in PCM for quantizing distortion. Companding is used
= 8000×20×8
in digital telephony system.
2. The sequence of operations in which PCM is = 1280 k bits / sec
done is 5. In a PCM system, each quantization level is
(a) Sampling, quantizing, encoding encoded into 6 bits. The signal to quantization
(b) Quantizing, encoding, sampling noise ratio is-
(c) Quantizing, sampling, encoding (a) 6 dB (b) 36 dB
(d) Sampling, encoding, quantizing (c) 38 dB (d) 48 dB
UPPSC, Poly.Tech.Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper-II UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II Ans. (c) : SQNR = 1.8+6n
GPSC Asstt. Prof.-11.04.2017 n=6
Ans. (a) : The signal to noise ratio of PCM signal is So, SQNR = 1.8+ 6×6
very high. = 37.8dB
Only two level signal and therefore the noise can SQNR ≃ 38dB
always be minimise by passing the PCM signal through 6. Five channels each with 100 kHz bandwidth
a limit circuit . are to be multiplexed together. What is the
A PCM encoder has the three process- minimum bandwidth of the link, if three is a
(a) Sampling (b) Quantization (c) Encoding (or need of a guard band is a need of a guard band
digitizing). of 10 kHz between the channels to prevent
3. A continuous signal has voltage range of−4V to interference?
+2V. If this is quantized to 8 bits, then the step (a) 500 kHz (b) 540 kHz
size of the quantizer will be: (c) 460 kHz (d) 560 kHz
3 1 UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
(a) (b)
128 256 Ans. (b) : Given, Bandwidth of each channel
1 1 fm=100kHz
(c) (d)
64 128 Number of channel (N)=5
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 Guard Band frequency (fg) =10kHz
Ans. (a) : Given, for 5 channels we need at least 4 guard bands
VPP = 2–(–4) So, Total required bandwidth
= 2+4 = 6Volt ( BWT ) = N.f m + 4 × fg
n=8 = 5 ×100 + 4 ×10 = 540kHz
L = 2n = 28 = 256
7. The amplitude of a random signal is uniformly
V V distributed between-5V and 5V. If the signal to
step size ∆ = PP = PP
L 2n quantization noise ratio required in uniformly
6 6 quantizing the signal is 43.5dB, the step size of
∆= 8 = the quantization is approximately-
2 256
(a) 0.0333V (b) 0.05V
3 (c) 0.0667V (d) 0.10V
∆=
128 UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : SQNR =1.8+6n Rb
43.5=1.8×6n As we know, symbol rate =
log 2 M
6n=41.7
n=7 90 × 106 90 × 106
= =
Vp− p log 2 (8) log 2 (23 )
Step size ∆ = n 90 × 106
2 =
10 3
=
128 symbol rate = 30 ×106 Symbols per second.
∆ = 0.07812
11. Consider the two 8-point QAM signal
∆ ≃ 0.0667V constellations shown in the given figures. The
8. The number of bits per sample in a PCM is minimum distance between adjacent points is
increased from 8 to 16. The bandwidth of the 2A. Assuming that all signal points are equally
system will increase probable, the ratio of average transmitted
(a) 8 times (b) 2 times power in Constellation I to Constellation II is :
(c) Half times (d) 28 times
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper-II
Mizoram PSC IOLM 2018-, Paper-III
Ans. (b) : No. of levels for n-bits = 2n
PCM Band width = n.fs (a) 4:3 (b) 2:1
for n = 8 BW = 8 fs (c) 3:2 (d) 3:4
for n = 16 BW = 16 fs UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
so the bandwidth is increased by two times. Ans. (a) :
9. 24 voice signals are sampled uniformly at 8
kHz and then sent using TDM scheme. The
sampling process uses flat-top samples with 1µs
duration. An extra pulse of duration 1 µs is
added for the purpose of synchronization. The
spacing between two consecutive pulses is-
(a) 7.2 µs (b) 5 µs
(c) 6 µs8 (d) 4 µs
For Constellation-I-
Ans. (d) : Given, Total number of samples n=24+1=25
r1 = 2a
Pulse duration = 1µs
( 2a )
2
sampling frequency fs=8kHz r2 = + (2a) 2 = 2 2a
1 1
sampling period Ts = = 4(2a) 2 + 4(2 2a) 2
f s 8000 so, E1 = = 6a 2
8
Ts = 125µ sec
For Constellation-II-
Total unutilized time period by the samples
r1 = a, (2a)2 = r22 + a 2 = 3a
T 125
T= s =
n 25 r3 = r22 + (2a)2 = 7a
T = 5µ sec So,
The spacing between two consecutive pulses E 2 = 2(a) 2 + 2( 3a)2 + 4( 7a) 2 = 4.5a 2
5 − 1 = 4µ sec
E1 6a 2
10. Consider an 8-point QAM signal scheme. What =
E 2 4.5a 2
is the symbol rate if the desired bit rate is 90
Mbit/s? E1 4
(a) 45 × 106 Symbols per second =
E2 3
(b) 30 × 106 Symbols per second
(c) 11.25 × 106 Symbols per second 12. Consider an analog signal sampled at a rate of
6 2 KHz and quantized into 128 levels. The time
(d) 60 × 10 Symbols per second
duration for each bit of the binary encoded
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 signal is:
Ans. (b) : Given, (a) 0.01 (b) 0.035
Bit rate Rb = 90 ×106 bps (c) 0.0714 (d) 0.05
M=8 UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Ans. (c) : Given, Ans. (c) :
L = 2n = 128, Sampling rate = 2kHz • Huffman – Elimination of redundancy
n=7 • Error correcting – Channel coding
1 1 • NRZ-coding to – Adapts the transmitted
The time duration Tb = =
nfs 7 × 2 × 103 signal the line
• Delta modulation – Reduces bit rate
Tb = 0.0714ms
16. An analog voltage in the range 0 to 5V is
13. Consider a digital communication system that divided into 10 equal intervals for conversion
uses a repetition code for channel encoding. into 4 bit digital output. The minimum
Each transmission bit is repeated 5 times. The quantization error (in V) is-
decoder operates with majority rule, that is, if (a) 5 (b) 10
received bits are three or more ‘1’, then (c) 0.25 (d) 4
receiver will decide in favour of 1. An error
occurs when 3 or more received bits are
incorrect. Assume a binary symmetric channel Ans. (c) : Given, Vp− p = 5V, L = 10
with crossover probability as 0.5. Assuming
both bits are equi-probable, What is the step size ∆ = Vp− p = 5 = 0.5
average probability of errors? L 10
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.125 ∆
(c) 0.875 (d) 0.625 The Minimum quantization error-
2
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
Ans. (a) : The average probability error- 0.5
(Qe) =
Pavg = P3 + 3P2(1-P) 2
Given,
P = 0.5 Q e = 0.25
Pavg = (0.5)3 + 3(0.5)2 (1–0.5)
Pavg = 0.5 17. In a pulse width modulation inverter, the fifth
harmonic can be eliminated by making pulse
14. A sinusoidal message signal is modulated using
PCM technique with a uniform quantizer. The width equal to:
80 dB is the desirable signal to quantization (a) 80º (b) 72º
noise ratio (SQNR) at the quantizer's output. (c) 120º (d) 90º
This desirable QNR can be achieved with LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
minimum number of bits per sample Ans. (b) : nth harmonic can be eliminated by the pulse
(a) 6 (b) 14 2× π
(c) 8 (d) 7 width =
n
n=5
Ans. (b) : Given, SQNR = 80dB
SQNR = 1.8 +6n 2 × 180
Pulse width =
80 = 1.6 +6n 5
80 – 1.8 = 6n = 72º
6n = 78.2 18. In a M-ary PSK digital communication system,
n = 13.067 it is required to transmit the data with 80 Mbps
n ≃ 14 bit rate within maximum allowable channel
bandwidth of 16 MHz. The value of M is
15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 1024 (b) 256
answer using the code given below the lists- (c) 512 (d) 2048
List-I List-II
(A) Huffman (1) Elimination of
redundancy Ans. (a) : Given, Bit rate Rb = 80 Mbps
(B) Error correcting (2) Reduces bit rate Bandwidth (BW) = 16 MHz
(C) NRZ- coding (3) Adapts the As we know,
transmitted signal 2R b
to the line Bandwidth of M-ary PSK ( BW ) =
log 2 M
(D) Delta modulation (4) Channel coding
6
Code- 2 × 80 × 10
16 × 106 =
A B C D log 2 M
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2 log 2 M = 10
(c) 1 4 3 2 M = 210
(d) 3 2 1 4
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II M = 1024
19. A delta modulation system input applied 10 Ans. (b) : Frequency shift keying is a frequency
kHz, 1 Vp-p. The signal is sampled ten times modulation scheme in which digital information is
more than Nyquist rate. What is the minimum transmitted through discrete frequency changes of a
step size required to prevent slope overload? carries signal.
(a) 1.57 V (b) 15.7 V
(c) 0.157 V (d) 0.0157 V 24. In PCM system, if quantization level is
UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II increased from 2 to 4, then the relative
bandwidth required will .
Ans. (c) : Given,
fm = 10kHz (a) remain constant
fs = n.2fm = 10×2×10 = 200kHz (b) become three times more
dm(t) (c) be twice
δf s ≥ max (d) be halved
dt
δ × 200kHz ≥ 2πf m A m
AAI-2015
1 Ans. (c) : Given, L1 = 2 n1 = 2
2π × (10 × 103 ) ×
δ≥ 2
n1 = 1
200kHz
δ ≥ 0.157V L 2 = 2n2 = 4
20. Consider a noiseless channel with a bandwidth n2 = 2
of 4000 Hz transmitting a signal with two signal Bandwidth ( BW ) = nf s
levels. What can be the maximum bit rate?
(a) 2000 bps (b) 4000 bps BW1 = n1fs = f s
(c) 8000 bps (d) 1000 bps BW2 = n 2 f s = 2fs
Ans. (c) : BW = 4000Hz Hence, ( BW )2 = 2 ( BW )1
Bit rate Rb = 2×BW
25. Modulating signal in sinusoidal pulse width
= 2×4000 = 8000 bps.
modulation (SPWM) is:
21. Which of the following modulation schemes (a) triangular (b) saw-tooth
gives the maximum probability of error?
(a) ASK (b) BFSK (c) square (d) sinusoidal
(c) DBPSK (d) PSK LMRC AM- 16.07.2021
UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II Ans. (d) : Modulating signal in sinusoidal pulse width
LMRC AM S &T - 13/05/2018 modulation (SPWM) is sinusoidal.
Ans. (a) : ASK signaling has the highest probability of 26. A sine wave carrier cannot be modified by the
error and BPSK has the lowest probability of error. baseband signal in which of the following
22. A 15 kbps binary data information signal is options?
transmitted using ASK modulation. The baud (a) PM (b) Pulse modulation
rate is and bandwidth is . (c) FM (d) AM
(a) 15 symbols/sec; 15 Hz UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
(b) 15 k symbols/sec; 15 kHz Ans. (b) : AM, PM, FM affects a sine wave
(c) 15 k symbols/sec; 15 Hz But in case of pulse modulation the amplitude position
(d) 15 symbols/sec; 15 kHz & widen of a pulse is affected.
Hence, the correct option (b).
Ans. (b) : In ASK, Baud rate = bit rate = 15k symbols/
sec. 27. A ramp signal m(t) = at is applied to a delta
Minimum Bandwidth = baud rate = 15 kHz. modulator with sampling period TS and step
23. The given waveform describes operation size d. Slope overload distortion would occur if
of . (a) d < a (b) d > a
(c) d < aTS (d) d > aTS
Ans. (c) : m(t) = at
dm(t)
Rate of Rise m(t) =
(a) amplitude modulation dt
(b) frequency shift keying ∆m(t) = a
(c) phase shift keying d
(d) pulse modulation ∆ m (t) =
Ts
Ans. (d) : Quantization is the process through which a
for the slope overload distortion to occur in delta
range of continuous analog values are quantized or
modulator. rounded of to a single value. Quantization error occurs
dm(t) when an analog signal is converted into its digital form.
> d / Ts It occurs in pulse code modulation.
dt
a > d/Ts The quantization noise depends on the number of
quantization level and not on the number of samples
d < a Ts produced per second.
28. Number of bits per symbol in a 16 QAM is 33. At a given probability of error, binary coherent
_____. FSK is inferior to binary coherent PSK by
(a) 4 (b) 16 (a) 6 dB (b) 3 dB
(c) 8 (d) 32 (c) 2 dB (d) 0 dB
APPSC, Poly.Tech. 14.03.2020 Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
ISRO Scientist Engg.-May, 2017
Ans. (a) : Number of bits per symbol = log 2 M GPSC Asst.Prof.-11.04. 2017
= log216 BPSC Poly.Lect.-2016
= log2 24 GATE-2003
=4
1 Eb
29. Which of the following has the least noise Ans. (b) : Pe for FSK = erf c
immunity? 2 2N 0
(a) QAM (b) ASK 1 Eb

(c) FSK (d) PSK Pe for Psk = erf c
APPSC, Poly.Tech. 14.03.2020 2 N0
DFCCIL Executive (S&T) 11.11.2018, 4:30 to 6:30PM for a given Pe-PSK is better than FSK by a factor of 2
Ans. (b) : ASK has the least noise immunity. 10 log22 = 3dB.
30. Minimum Bandwidth required for Minimum 34. Quadrature multiplexing
Shift Keying (MSK)? Where fb is maximum (a) the same as FDM
frequency of baseband signal. (b) the same as TDM
(a) BW = fb (b) BW = 1.5 fb (c) a combination of FDM and TDM
(c) BW = 2 fb (d) BW = 2.5 fb (d) quite different from FDM and TDM
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : For maximum frequency of baseband signal Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2017, Paper-II
(fb) max; BW = 1.5 fb (for MSK) BPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.-2014
TRB Poly. Lect. - 2012
31. Frequency shift keying is used mostly in Mizoram PSC IOLM - 2010, Paper -II
(a) radio transmission (b) telegraphy IES-2000
(c) telephony (d) none of these GATE-1998
GPSC Asstt.Prof. 11.04.2017 Ans. (d) : Quadrature multiplexing is quite different
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II from FDM and TDM because it is the system where
TANGEDCO-2015 same carrier frequency is used for two different double
Nagaland PSC CTSE -2015, Paper-II sideband signals (DSB).
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III
35. The signal to quantization noise ratio in a PCM
IES - 1992
system depends upon
Ans. (b) : FSK (Frequency Shift Keying)- 1. Sampling rate
• Binary 1 is represented high frequency carrier signal 2. Number of quantization levels
and binary 0 is represent with low frequency carrier 3. Message signal bandwidth
signal. Codes :
• FSK is used in voice frequency telegraph (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
• FSK is a frequency modulation scheme in which (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
digital information is transmitted through discrete Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
frequency changes a carrier signal. GPSC Asstt.Prof.-11.04.2017
32. Quantization noise occurs in : BEL-2015
(a) Pulse width modulation Nagaland PSC, CTSE-2015, Paper-II
(b) Frequency division multiplexing UPPCL AE 16.11.2013
UKPSC Asstt. Radio Officer Screening Exam-2011
(c) Time division multiplexing
IES - 1991, 1992
(d) Pulse code modulation
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III Ans. (c) : The qualify of quantizer output depends upon
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II the number of quantization levels used.
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III The spacing between two adjacent represent level is
MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013 called a quantum or step-sizes.
• Step size dependent upon no. of quantization level. 38. In delta modulation, which of the following
Noise Power - drawbacks are existing?
∆2 1. Slope overload
PN = 2. Serration noise
12 3. Granular noise
Where, ( ∆ = Step size ) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Vp− p Vp − p (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
∆= = Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-II
L 2n SAIL - 2014
Signal power RPSC Lect.-2011
SNR =
Noise power IES - 1992
PS P Ans. (c) : Delta modulation-
SNR = = S The delta modulation has two major drawback as-
PN Vp2− p
(1) slope overload distortion
12L2 (2) Granular or idle Noise
2
12L × PS (1) Slope overload distortion- This distortion arises be
SNR =
Vp2− p cause of large dynamic range of input signal.
(2) Granular or Idle Noise- Granular Noise occurs
SNR ∝ L2 when the step size is two large compared to small signal
36. In PCM, the biggest disadvantage as compared variation.
to AM is 39. A PAM signal can be detected by using
(a) larger bandwidth (a) an ADC (b) an integrator
(b) larger noise (c) a band pass filter (d) a high pass filter
(c) inability to handle analog signals TNPSC AE-2018, 2014
(d) incompatibility with time division multiplex Nagaland PSC CTSE-2015, Paper-II
system GATE-1995
APPSC,Poly.Lect.-15.03.2020 Ans. (b) : The original message signal can be detected
TNTRB AE -2017 from PAM signal by passing PAM signal through
Nagaland PSC CTSE Diploma-2017, Paper-II integrator or low pass filter.
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II 40. The bandwidth required in DPCM is less than
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 that of PCM because
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 (a) The number of bits per code is reduced
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III resulting in a reduced bit rate
IES - 1992 (b) The difference signal is larger in amplitude
Ans. (a) : than actual signal
• Encoding is possible in PCM very high noise (c) More quantization levels are needed
immunity i.e. better performance in presence of (d) The successive samples of signal often differ
Noise. Convenient for long distance communication. in amplitude
• PCM have largest bandwidth. It is the biggest IES - 2019
disadvantage as compared to AM system. Ans. (a) : DPCM (Differential pulse code modulation)
• Good signal to Noise Ratio compare to AM. required less Bandwidth as compare to PCM because
the number of in coded bits is smaller than the PCM.
37. For a given data rate, the bandwidth β p of a
BPSK signal and the bandwidth β0 of the 41. In a PCM system, non-uniform quantization
OQPSK signal are related as leads to
(a) βp = β0/2 (b) βp = 2β0 (a) Increased quantizer noise
(c) βp = β0/4 (d) βp = β0 (b) Simplification of the quantization process
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI, 05.11.2019 (c) Higher average SNR
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 (d) Increased bandwidth
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 IES - 2019
IES - 2001 RPSC Lect.2011
GATE-1995 Ans. (c) : The quantization in which the quantization
Ans. (b): Bandwidth for binary phase shift keying (BPSK) levels are unequal and mostly the relation between them
is logarithmic, is called non-uniform quantization.
BWBPSK = βp = 2fm …(i) Non-uniform quantization is a PCM system leads to
Bandwidth for OQPSK higher average signal to noise ratio.
BWOQPSK = β0 = fm …(ii) 42. For a binary FSK signal with a mark frequency
from equation (i) and (ii) of 49 kHz, a space frequency of 51 kHz and an
βp = 2β0 input bit rate of 2 kbps, the peak frequency
deviation will be
(a) 0.5 kHz (b) 1.0 kHz 45. The outputs of 18 numbers of 20 Hz low pass
(c) 2.0 kHz (d) 4.0 kHz filters are sampled, multiplexed and A/D
IES - 2019 converted. If the sampling is at the Nyquist rate
Ans. (b) : Given, of 40 samples/s, corresponding to signal of 20
Mark frequency. fm = 49kHz Hz band-width and if we use 3 bits/sample to
Space frequency, fs = 51 kHz represent each voltage sample, the bit rate is
Bit rate, Rb = 2kbps (a) 1.9 × 103 bits/s (b) 19 × 103 bits/s
The peak frequency deviation for a binary FSK, 3
(c) 2.16 × 10 bits/s (d) 21.6 × 103 bits/s
f −f 51 − 49
∆f = s m = IES - 2018
2 2 Ans. (c) : Given, The number of outputs of Low pass
∆f = 1kHz filter.
43. A signal is band limited to 3.6 kHz and three N = 18
other signals are band limited to 1.2 kHz each. Number of bits n = 3 bits/sample
These signals are to be transmitted by means of
time division multiplexing. If each signal is Sampling frequency fs = 40Hz
sampled at its Nyquist rate, then the speed of Bit rate Rb = N.n.fs
the commutator (by assuming 6 samples per = 18 ×3×40
rotation) is
(a) 864000 rpm (b) 144000 rpm R b = 2.16 × 103 bits / sec
(c) 86400 rpm (d) 14400 rpm 46. The minimum double sided Nyquist bandwidth
IES - 2018
for a QPSK modulator with an input data rate
Ans. (b) : Given, equal to 10 Mbps and a carrier frequency of 70
f m1 = 3.6kHz MHz is
f m2 = f m3 = f m4 = 1.2 kHz (a) 72.5 MHz (b) 67.5 MHz
As we know, sampling frequency fs = 2fm (c) 25.0 MHz (d) 5.0 MHz
So, IES - 2018
f s1 = 2 × 3.6 = 7.2kHz Ans. (d) : Given, Bit rate Rb = 10 Mbps
f s2 = f s3 = f s4 = 2 ×1.2 = 2.4kHz carrier frequency fc = 70MHz
The speed of the commutator Rb Rb R
As we know QPSK of BW = m
= 4
= b
log 2 log 2 2
( )
= HCF of fs1 , f s2 , fs3 and f s4 × 60
3
= 2.4 ×10 ×60 = 144000 rpm 10 × 106
=
44. 1 Mbps BPSK receiver detects waveform S1(t) 2
= Acos ω0t or S2(t) = –Acosω0t with a matched BW = 5MHz
filter. If A = 1 mV, then the average bit error
probability assuming single sided noise power 47. What is the minimum Eb/N0 required to
expected density N0 = 10–11 W/Hz is nearly achieve a spectral efficiency of 6 bps/Hz?
(a) Q(0.63) (b) Q(0.16) (a) 5.2 (b) 5.3
(c) Q ( 0.1 ) (d) Q ( 0.3 ) (c) 10.5 (d) 15.8
IES - 2018 IES - 2017
Sikkim PSC SI (mains)-2018 R
Ans. (c) : Given, Spectral efficiency = b = 6 bps / Hz
Ans. (c) : Given, A = 1mV = 10–3V B
Rb = 1Mbps, Tb = 10–6 sec
N0 = 10–11 W/Hz Channel capacity C = Rb = B log2 1 + S 
 N
Average bit error probability of BPSK
Rb  S
 A 2T  = log 2  1 + 
Pe = Q  b
 B  N 
 N0 
   S
6 = log 2 1 + 
 −6   N

= Q
(10 )
−3 2
× 10 
= Q


10 −12 

  10−11  S
 10−11    26 = 1 +
  N
S
(
Pe = Q 0.1 ) N
= 63

As we know, signal to noise ratio Ans. (b) : Digital modulation is the process of encoding
S Eb R b a digital Information signal in to the amplitude, phase,
= or frequency of the transmitted signal. The encoding
N N0 B
process affects the bandwidth of the transmitted signal
Eb  Rb  and its robustness to channel impairments.
63 = 6 × ∵ B = 6 
N0   • The basic motivation behind the development of
Eb digital modulation techniques is to institute methods
= 10.5 for translating digital message from base band to
N0
passband.
48. What is the required bandwidth of a PCM • If we want transmit digital signal through free space
system for 256 quantization levels when 48 (Wire less) bandpass modulation technique (ASK,
telephone channels, each band limited to 4 kHz,
FSK, PSK....) are used.
are to be time-division multiplexed by this
PCM? 51. The received signal level for a particular digital
(a) 6.246 MHz (b) 3.464 MHz system is –151 dBW and the effective noise
(c) 3.072 MHz (d) 1.544 MHz temperature of the receiver system is 1500 K.
IES - 2017 The value of Eb/N0 required for a link
Ans. (d) : Given, Quantization level, transmitting 2400 bps is:
L = 2n = 256 (a) –12 dB (b) –1.2 dB
n=8 (c) +1.2 dB (d) +12 dB
Number of Telephone channel N = 48
Modulating frequency fm = 4kHz IES - 2017
So, minimum Bandwidth of PCM system, Ans. (d) : Given, effective noise temperature
N.nf s N.n(2f m ) T = 1500K
BW = =
2 2 C
= −151dBW
48 × 8 × 2 × 4 × 103 N
= Hz
2 transmitting bit rate B = 2400bps
= 1.536 MHz We know,
BW ≃ 1.544 MHz
Eb C
49. The modulation scheme used in GSM is: =
N 0 NKTB
(a) frequency shift keying
(b) phase shift keying Where, K = 1.38 ×10–23
(c) Gaussian minimum shift keying Eb C
(d) amplitude shift keying = 10 log10   − 10 log10 (K) − 10 log10 (T) − log10 (B)
IES - 2017 N0 τ
GATE-2015 = −151−10log10 (1.38×10−23 ) −10log10 (1500) −10log10 ( 2400)
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013
TRB Poly. Lect.-2012 = 151+228.6–31.76 –33.80
Ans. (c) : Gaussian minimum shift keying [GMSK]- Eb
• The technology behind the global system for mobile = 12.04 dB
communication (GSM) uses Gaussian minimum shift N0
keying (GMSK) modulation a variant of phase shift
keying (PSK) with time division multiple 52. Consider the following statements regarding
Access(TDMA) signaling over frequency division Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM):
duplex (FDD) carriers. 1. The information from different measuring
• GMSK is a form of modulation based on frequency points is transmitted serially on the same
shift keying that has no phase discontinuities and communication channel
provides efficient use of spectrum as well as enabling
2. It involves transmission of data samples
high-efficiency radio power amplifiers.
rather than continuous data transmission
50. The basic motivation behind the development
of digital modulation techniques is: 3. It is especially useful when telemetering fast
(a) to develop a digital communication field changing, high bandwidth data
(b) to institute methods for translating digital Which of the above statements are valid in
message from baseband to passband respect to TDM?
(c) to develop digitized versions of analog (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
modulation schemes
(d) to improve upon pulse modulation schemes
IES - 2017 IES - 2017
Ans. (c) : fs ≥ 2 fm
• TDM is used for multiplexing of digital signal. or
• When a large number of signal have to be 1
transmitted of signal have to be transmitted (over Ts ≤
2 fm
common channel). multiplexing is required.
• The minimum required sampled rate f s = 2f m is
1
known as Nyquist rate (NR) and is known as
2 fm
Nyquist interval.
55. A binary channel with capacity 36K bits/s is
• In TDM a single communication channel is used to available for PCM voice transmission. If signal
transmit and receive the Information from different is band limited to 3.2 kHz, then appropriate
sources serially. values of quantization level and sampling
• High data rate is achieved by TDM. frequency will be.
• TDM is used for long distance communication links (a) 64 & 7.2 kHz (b) 32 & 7.2 kHz
and bears heavy data traffic loads from end users. (c) 64 & 3.6 kHz (d) 32 & 3.6 kHz
Synchronization is used for high-speed transmission. IES - 2015
53. In a synchronous TDM, there are four inputs Ans. (b) : Given,
and data rate of each input connection is The band limited signal (message signal)
3 kbps. If 1 bit at a time a multiplexed, what is fm = 3.2 kHz
the duration of each frame? Sampling frequency must be at least
(a) 0.02 ms (b) 0.03 ms
f s ≥ 2f m
(c) 0.33 ms (d) 0.22 ms
IES - 2016 f s ≥ 6.4kHz
Ans. (c) : So,
fs = 7.2 kHz [from option (b)]
Channel capacity for PCM system = nfs
nfs = 36 kbps
n ×7.2 = 36 kbps
Given that, n=5
Frame size = 4 So,
Data rate = 3kbps Number of quantization level (L) = 2n
Frame duration = ? = 25
We know that L= 32
1 56. In a digital communication system employing
Frame duration = bit duration = Frequency Shift Keying (FSK), the 0 and 1 bit
Data rate
are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25
1 kHz respectively. These waveforms will be
Frame duration = orthogonal for a bit interval of
3 kbps
(a) 250 µ sec (b) 200 µ sec
Frame duration = 0.33ms (c) 50 µ sec (d) 45 µ sec
54. The anti-aliasing filter has a higher cut-off UPPCL AE-30.03.2022
frequency fm. Its output is sampled periodically IES - 2014
every Ts seconds. For proper recovery of the MPSC HOD Govt.Poly.-2013
signal at the receiver, Ts must be Ans. (b) : For f0
1 1 1
(a) Ts ≥ (b) Ts ≤ 0 → 10kHz → Tb0 = = 100 µs
2f m 2f m 10k
2 2 For f1
(c) Ts ≥ (d) Ts ≤ 1
fm fm 1 → 25kHz → Tb1 = = 40 µs
IES - 2015 25k
Ans. (b) : Sampling theorem- For these wave forms to be orthogonal, the bit interval
A continuous band limited signal, Its frequency is fm Hz should be multiple of LCM of Tb0 & Tb1
to reconstruct exactly at receiver, If it is sampled at a LCM of Tb0 & Tb1
rate of almost twice of maximum frequency component
of band limited signal fm. ∵ bit interval {Tb} = 200 µs

57. A carrier is modulated by a digital bit stream Here,
having one of the possible phases of 0º, 90º, 2Vmax
180º and 270º. Then the modulation is termed ∆ is the step size =
L
as
• It is a rounding error between the analog input voltage
(a) BPSK (b) QPSK
to the analog digital converter (ADC) and the output
(c) QAM (d) MSK digitized value. The noise is non-linear and signal
IES – 2014, 1994dependent.
Ans. (b) : The modulating system where different data 60. A coherent binary phase-shift keyed (BPSK)
bits are represented by differing phase is phase shift transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps.
keying. The phase shift keying (PSK) is known as For a probability of error (Pe) of 10–4 and given
Quadrature phase shift keying. (because there are four carrier-to-noise (C/N) density ratio of 8.8 dB,
symbols- like 00, 900,1800 and 2700). determine energy of bit-to-noise (Eb/N0) density
ratio for a receiver bandwidth equal to the
minimum double-sided Nyquist bandwidth.
(a) 23 dB (b) 2.3 dB
(c) 8.8 dB (d) 0.88 dB
IES - 2012
Bit rate (Rb) = 20 Mbps
58. An analog signal has a bit rate of 8000 bps and Probability error (Pe) = 10–4
a baud rate of 1000 baud. The data elements Carrier to noise ratio (C/N) = 8.8dB
carried by each signal and signal elements
needed are respectively: The carrier to noise (C/N) density ratio is defined as→
(a) 8 and 256 (b) 4 and 16 C Eb R b
= .........(i)
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 7 and 128 N N 0 BT
IES - 2013
Here,
Ans. (a) : Given that Rb → bit rate
bit rate = 8000 bps BT → Band width of channel
Baud rate = 1000 baud Now
We know that Nyquist bandwidth is-
Bit rate
Data elements (N) = R 
Baud rate BT = 2  b 
 2 
8000
N= BT = R b
1000
So,
N = 8 bits
C
Signal elements (S) is calculated as: Put the value of B and in equation ....(i)
N
S = 2N
S = 28 Eb R b
8.8 = .
S = 256 N0 R b
59. In communicating systems, noise due to Eb

= 8.8dB
quantization error is N0
(a) Linear and signal dependent
61. The main factor that determines the accuracy
(b) Nonlinear and signal dependent of a reconstructed PCM signal is the
(c) Linear and signal independent at low (a) signal bandwidth
frequencies only (b) pulse repetition rate
(d) Nonlinear and signal dependent at low (c) pulse amplitude
frequencies only (d) number of bits used for quantization
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 IES - 2011
IES - 2012
Ans. (d) : In PCM signal, quantization noise depends
Ans. (b) : only on the number of bits used for quantization.
• Quantization Noise is introduced by the quantizer. Therefore, The main factor that determines the accuracy
• In PCM the quantization noise in terms of power is of a reconstructed PCM signal is number of bits used
given by the relation. for quantization.
∆2 ∆2
Quantization noise power ( Pn ) = • Quantization noise power ( Pn ) =
12 12
Here, 64. Which one of the following scheme is a digital
∆ is the step size modulation technique?
Vp− p Vp − p (a) Pulse code modulation
∆= n = (b) On-off keying
2 L (c) Pulse width modulation
Here,
(d) Delta modulation
L → Number of quantization levels
IES - 2011
n → Number of bits
Ans. (b) : In this question
answer using the code given below the lists : Digital modulation Technique is
List - I List - II
A. Pilot carrier 1. Delta modulation
B. Tuned circuit 2. Frequency modulation
C. Slope overload 3. PCM
D. A to D 4. Single sideband AM
converter
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 Given all option are digital modulation technique
(b) 4 2 1 3 schemes but the most appropriate option amongst them
(c) 3 1 2 4 is ON - OFF keying which is also known as ASK.
(d) 4 1 2 3 Amplitude Shift keying (ASK) is a form of Amplitude
IES - 2011 modulation that represents, digital data as variations in
Ans. (b) : Pilot carrier- Pilot carrier is a small carrier the amplitude of a carrier wave.
transmitted with modulated signal from the transmitter. 65. Consider the following codes:
In communication 'Control' continuity purposes we use 1. Hamming code
in the SSB (Single side band AM) scheme. 2. Huffman code
Tuned circuit- Tuned circuit is used for demodulation 3. Shannon-Fano code
of F.M. signal and also used for frequency to voltage
converter. So we can say that frequency modulated 4. Convolutional code
signal is converted in to amplitude modulated signal. Which of these are source codes?
Slope Overload- Slope overload noise occurs when the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
slope of the input signal is greater than the delta (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
modulator is capable of reproducing. IES - 2011
A to D Converter- Pulse code modulation (PCM) is a Ans. (b) : Huffman code- Huffman coding is a
form of Analog to digital conversion in which the technique of compressing data to reduce its size without
information contained in the samples of an analog losing any of details. It was first developed by David
signal can be represented or shown in the form of digital Huffman.
words in a serial bit stream of words. Shannon- Fano code- Shannon Fano Algorithum is an
63. Figure shows a block diagram of a system to entropy encoding technique for lossless data
recover a sampled signal shown as input. compression. It is also called shannon Fano coding.
This algorithum was developed by Claude shannon and
Robert Fano. In this, a code is given to each symbol
Blocks A and B can be respectively based on the possibilities of occurrence.
(a) Zero order hold and low pass filter 66. PAM signals are constructed by using a low
(b) Multiplier and high pass filter pass filter of pass band slightly greater than
(c) Envelop detector and sampler base band to avoid aliasing. This avoids
(d) Tuned circuit and mixer distortion
IES - 2011 (a) True for flat top pulses
Ans. (a) : (b) True if low pass filter has sharp cut-off
• The zero-order hold (ZOH) is a mathematical model (c) Flat top-pulses introduce envelope delay
of the practical signal reconstruction done by a (d) Flat top pulses introduce amplitude
conventional digital-to-analog converter (DAC). distortional and delay
That is, it describes the effect of converting a discrete IES - 2011
time signal to a continuous-time signal by holding each Ans. (d) :
sample value for one sample interval.
• PAM Signal can be generated either using Natural
• sampling or using flat-top sampling.
• Initially the modulating signal m(t) is passed through
Low pass filter (LPF) to band limit the m(t).
• The band limiting is necessary to avoid aliasing 2πf1 t = 7000πt , 2πf 2 t = 3000πt
effect in the sampling process.
• Flat top pulse introduces amplitude distortion and f1 = 3500Hz f 2 = 1500Hz
delay due to aperture. fm = max (f1, f2)
fm = max (3500, 1500)
fm = 3500 Hz
Nyquist rate, fs = 2fm
fs = 2 ×3500
fs = 7000 Hz
f s = 7 kHz
69. The quantization of a PCM system depends on
(a) Number of quantization levels
(b) Step-size
(c) Both step-size and number of quantization levels
(d) Sampling rate
Nagaland PSC-2018, Diploma Paper-II
IES - 2010, 2007
67. The spectrum of a band pass signal spans from
Ans. (c) : The quantization of a PCM system depends
20 kHz to 30 kHz. The signal can be recovered
on both step-size and number of quantization levels.
ideally from the sampled values when the
sampling rate is at least : Quantization noise in PCM-
(a) 20 kHz (b) 60 kHz • In PCM the quantization noise in terms of power is
(c) 50 kHz (d) 40 kHz given by the relation.
IES - 2010 ∆2
Quantization noise power =
Ans. (a) : Given in the question 12
fH = 30kHz Here,
fL = 20kHz ∆ is the step size.
Now, V − ( −Vmax ) Vp − p
Sampling frequency of bandpass Step size (∆) = max = n
signal given by L 2
L is No. of quantization levels.
2f H
≤ fs 70. A TDM system is to be designed to multiplex
K the following two signals
Here, x1 = 5cos(2000πt)
fH 30 x2 = 2cos(2000πt)cos(3000πt)
K= =
f H − f L 30 − 20 The minimum sampling rate is
30 (a) 4 kHz (b) 5 kHz
K= (c) 10 kHz (d) 6 kHz
10
IES - 2010
K =3 Ans. (b) : Given,
2 × 30
≤ fS x1 = 5 cos ( 2000πt )
3 2πf m 1 t = 2000πt
fS ≥ 20kHz
So minimum sampling frequency is 20kHz. f m1 = 1000Hz
68. The Nyquist rate for the signal x2 = 2 cos ( 2000πt ) cos(3000πt)
x(t) = 2cos (2000πt) cos (5000πt), is
(a) 7 kHz (b) 5 kHz x2 = cos 5000πt + cos ( −1000πt )
(c) 14 kHz (d) 10 kHz x 2 = cos 5000πt + cos1000πt
IES - 2010
2πf m2 t = 5000πt
Ans. (a) :
x ( t ) = 2 cos(2000πt) cos(5000πt) f m2 = 2500Hz
x ( t ) = cos(2000πt + 5000πt) + cos(2000πt − 5000πt) Now,
The minimum sampling rate
x(t) = cos 7000πt + cos ( −3000πt )
(
= 2 × max f m1 , f m2)
∵ cos ( −θ ) = cos θ
= 2 × max (1000, 2500 )
x(t) = cos 7000πt + cos 3000πt = 2×2500 = 5000 Hz = 5kHz
71. A 13 bit PCM system performance is better Ans. (d) :
than an 8 bit PCM system because :
(a) Noise is lower and is proportional to
reciprocal of bandwidth
(b) Bandwidth is larger and detection is easier
(c) Quantization noise is lesser other things being
equal
(d) Quantization noise is nearly zero since 213
levels are available
IES - 2010
Ans. (d) : Quantization noise is introduced by the
quantizer.
The maximum quantization error is given by
∆
[ Qe ]max =
2
∆ = Step size
• Above figure when signal is sampled bandwidth
Vmax − Vmin 8kHz. The spectrum of sampled signal will be repeating
Step size ( ∆ ) =
2n at every bandwidth ( ± 8k ) kHz
Where,
Here k is integer number.
n is the number of bits per sample used by
Quantizer. 74. A signal occupies a band 5 kHz to 10 kHz. For
Quantization noise is nearly zero since 213 levels are proper error free reconstruction at what rate it
available. should be sampled?
72. Which of the following statements about the (a) 10 kHz (b) 20 kHz
matched filter in a communication receiver are (c) 5 kHz (d) (10 + 5) × 2 kHz
correct? IES - 2009
1. Its impulse response depends on the signal Ans. (a) : Given,
shape fH = 10kHz
2. It maximizes the SNR at the detection fL = 5kHz
instant
Now,
3. It produces ISI
Sampling frequency
4. It may produce phase error if
synchronization is improper 2f
fs ≥ H
Select the correct answer from the codes given K
below: Here k is
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only fH
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 K=
fH − fL
IES - 2009
10
Ans. (b) : General input/output relation- K=
10 − 5
K=2
Impulse response is a special case of these input > Now,
system > output relationship.
2 ×10 kHz
• In communication system of receiver point it fs ≥
maximizes the SNR at the detection instant. 2
73. An Audio signal is bandlimited to 4 kHz. It is f s ≥ 10 kHz
sampled to 8 kHz. What will be the spectrum of The rate it should be sampled 10 kHz.
the sampled signal? 75. The spectral range of a band pass signal
(a) –4 kHz to 4 kHz extends from 10 MHz to 10.4 MHz. What is the
(b) –8 kHz to 8 kHz minimum sampling frequency required for
(c) every 4n kHz and repeating reconstruction?
(d) every ± 8n kHz and repeating as well as at (a) 20 MHz (b) 20.8 MHz
zero (k integer) (c) 20.4 MHz (d) 0.8 MHz
IES - 2009 IES - 2009
Ans. (d) : Given, Select the correct answer using the code given
fH = 10.4 MHz below:
fL = 10 MHz (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Here, UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 22/03/2022, Paper -II
fH RRB SSE 02/09/2015, Shift -I
K= TNPSC AE-2014
fH − fL IES - 2008
10.4 Ans. (a) :
K=
10.4 − 10
10.4
K=
0.4
K = 26
Now,
2 × 10.4 MHz
fs ≥
26
20.8
fs ≥ MHz
26
f s ≥ 0.8 MHz 79. Multiplexing is possible if signals are sampled.
Two signals have bandwidths A = 0 to 4 kHz
So, the minimum sampling frequency required for and B = 0 to 8 kHz respectively. The sampling
reconstruction is 0.8 MHz. frequency chosen is 12 kHz. Which one of the
76. An audio signal is to be transmitted digitally. following is correct?
Which is the system suited for good fidelity? This choice of the sampling frequency
(a) 8 bit PCM (a) is correct since A and B have an integral
(b) 13 bit PCM relationship of 2
(c) 32 bit PCM (b) will not lead to aliasing
(d) PCM system with non-uniform quantizer (c) does not obey sampling theorem
IES - 2009 (d) can never lead to multiplexing
Ans. (d) : There are two types of quantization IES - 2008
(i) Uniform Ans. (c) : Given,
(ii) Non uniform Signal A = 0 to 4kHz
(i) Uniform quantization- A uniform quantization is B = 0 to 8 kHz
that type of quantizer in which step size (∆) is remain So, the modulating frequency fm = 8 kHz
send through out the input range. Sampling frequency fs ≤ 2fm
(ii) Non uniform quantization- It is that type of
quantizer in which the step size varies according to the f s ≤ 16 kHz
input signal value. In non uniform quantization, step But given sampling frequency is 12 kHz.
size is varied, so SNR of weak signal also improves. Hence, the choice of sampling frequency does not obey
This is best suited for good fidelity. sampling theorem.
77. For good quality signal transmission all 80. Which one of the following is correct? In a
frequency components should have the same TDM system each signal is allotted in a frame
transmission delay, td and same phase shift-ϕs. of unique and fixed
What can be said about the statement? (a) frequency slot (b) time slot
(a) Correct (c) amplitude slot (d) phase slot
(b) True for td but not for ϕs IES - 2008
(c) Not true for td but true for ϕs Ans. (b) : Time division multiplexing (TDM)- It is a
(d) Both td and ϕs are not involved in quality method of transmitting and receiving independent
IES - 2009 signals over a common signal path by means by
Ans. (a) : For good quality signal transmission all synchronized switches at each and of the transmission
frequency components should have the same line so that each signal appears on the line only a
transmission delay and same phase shift. The given fraction of time in an alternating pattern.
statement is correct. • A TDM circuit runs at a much higher signal
78. Which of the following pulse modulation are bandwidth, permitting the bandwidth to be divided
digital? into time. Frames (time slots) for each voice signal
1. PCM which is multiplexed onto the line by the transmitter.
2. Differential PCM • In TDM system each signal is assigned a fixed time
3. PWM slots in a frame.
81. As practical signals are time limited, they have 84. In a PCM system, if we increase the
infinite frequency bandwidth. Sampling of such quantization levels from 2 to 8, how do the
signals lead to aliasing. To avoid aliasing, an relative bandwidth requirements vary?
anti-aliasing filter is used (a) Get doubled (b) Get tripled
(a) before the signal is reconstructed (c) Remain same (d) Become eight times
(b) after the signal is reconstructed Nagaland PSC- 2018 Diploma Paper-II
Mizoram PSC Jr.Grade-2015, Paper-III
(c) before the signal is sampled MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
(d) after the signal is sampled IES - 2007
IES - 2008 Ans. (b) : We know that
Ans. (c) : Aliasing is generally avoided by applying Numbers of quantization level
low-pass filters or anti-aliasing filters (AAF) to the L = 2n
input signal before sampling when converting a signal 21 = 2n
from a higher to a lower sampling rate. n=1
82. The constellation diagram of modem has four Here, n is number of bits per sample
states as shown in the figure given below. What Now, L = 8
is the bit rate of this modem? 8 =23
23 = 2n
n=3
We know's
Bandwidth (B.W) is directly proportional to data rate
(n). B.W ∝ n
B.W ∝ 3
R nf
(a) Two times its baud rate B.W = b = s
(b) Four times its baud rate 2 2
(c) Same as baud rate Above the solution' we get B.W. is tripled.
(d) Sufficient information is not given to give the 85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer answer using the code given below the lists :
IES - 2007 List - I List - II
Ans. (a) : Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK)- It A. Reconstruction 1. Sampling rate is chosen
is a form of phase shift keying in which two bits are significantly greater than
modulated at once, selecting one of four possible carrier the Nyquist rate
phase shifts (0, 90, 180 or 270 degrees.) B. Over sampling 2. A mixture of continuous
QPSK allows the signal to carry twice as much and discrete time signals
information as ordinary PSK using the same bandwidth. C. Interpolation 3. To convert the discrete
time sequence back to a
The constellation digram is QPSK. continuous time signal
One baud = 2 bits and then resampled
bit rate D. Decimation 4. Assign values between
Baud rate = samples and signals.
the number of bit per baud
Codes :
bit rate A B C D
Baud rate =
2 (a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
Bit rate = 2 Baud rate (c) 3 1 4 2
83. Which one of the following is the code that is (d) 2 4 1 3
very close to 'trellis coded modulation'? IES - 2006
(a) Combines analog and digital modulations Ans. (b) :
(b) Combines modulation and encoding Reconstruction- A mixture of continuous and discrete
(c) Encodes following trellis diagram time signals.
(d) Combines amplitude and frequency modulation Over sampling- Sampling rate is chosen significantly
greater than the Nyquist rate.
IES - 2007
Interpolation- Assign values between samples and
Ans. (b) : Trellis coded modulation (TCM) system signals.
combines both modulation and encoding function. It Decimation- To convert the discrete time sequence
transmits information with high efficiency over band- back to a containous time signal and
limited channels such as telephone lines. then resampted.
86. Quantization process used in analog to digital Ans. (b) : x (t) = 35 sin 2π103t +2sin2π660t
conversion process is a 2πf m t = 2π103 t
(a) One-to-many mapping which causes loss of
fm = 1000 Hz
information
(b) Many-to-one mapping. It causes a loss of Sampling frequency f s ≥ 2f m
information at the transmitter which can be f s ≥ 2 × 1000Hz
recovered at the receiver
(c) One-to-one mapping 90. An analog signal has significant spectral
components from 1 kHz to 5 kHz. What is the
(d) Many-to-one mapping. The loss of Nyquist sampling rate of this signal?
information at the transmitter can not be (a) 5 k samples/s (b) 4 k samples/s
recovered at the receiver
(c) 8 k samples/s (d) 10 k samples/s
IES - 2006 IES - 2005
Ans. (d) : In Quantization many amplitude levels of Ans. (d) : Given,
modulating signal (or message signal) will be rounded fH = 5kHz, fL = 1kHz
off to their nearest quantization load. There is small
amount of error will produce I can not be recovered at 2f H
sampling rate f s =
the receiver. It is also called many-to-one mapping. K
87. Which is the most important subsystem for
fH
recovering and reconstructing signals in a where, K =
TDM system? fH − fL
(a) Envelope detector followed by a low pass 5 5
filter K= =
5 −1 4
(b) Synchronization circuit for proper timing
K = 1.25 (Integer value)
(c) Band pass filters to segregate channels
(d) Coherent detector to ensure frequency and 2f 2 × 5 × 103
fs = H =
phase connection K 1
IES - 2006 f s = 10kHz
Ans. (b) : The TDM, channels are shifted with equal 91. In delta modulation, when is the slope
time duration , So is most important to proper time overloading noise absent ?
synchronization between transmitter and the receiver. (h is the pulse height and sampled every TS
• it separate signal in a TDM receiver it is necessary to seconds, f(t) is the input signal, h and TS are
used AND gate. step-size of integration and sampling period,
88. A continuous signal has voltage range –2 V to respectively)
+2V. If this is quantized to 8 bits, what does the df (t)
(a) ≤ ( h / TS )
resulting signal have? dt
(a) 255 levels of step size 4/255 df (t)
(b) 25 levels of step size 4/8 (b) > ( h / TS )
dt
(c) 8 bits pulse 2 levels at –2 and +2 volts df (t)
(d) 8 bits per sample if properly sampled (c) ≤ ( h.TS )
dt
IES - 2005
df (t)
Ans. (a) : Given, Vp− p = 4V (d) > ( h.TS )
dt
Number of bits n = 8 IES - 2005
Quantization levels L = 2n = 28 Ans. (a) : Slope overload Noise in Delta Modulation-
L = 256
Full Scale Voltage Vp − p
Step size ∆ = =
Level L
4
∆=
256 • Slope overload noise occurs when slope of input
89. Signal x(t)=3sin2 π10 t + 2sin2π660t. At what
3
h d
sampling frequency should this signal be signal is large T < dt f (t)
S
sampled to avoid aliasing?
(a) 2 × 660 Hz (b) 2 × 1000 Hz h d
(c) 2[1000 + 600] Hz (d) 2[1000 – 660] Hz • To avoid slope overload noise - ≥ f (t)
TS dt
IES - 2005
92. The constellation diagram of a modem is shown Ans. (a) : In BPSK (Binary Phase Shift keying) signal
in the figure given below. What does the detector, if phase error = φ
modem use? then the factor that deteriorate the
SNR at output = cos2φ
Given φ = 20º then factor = cos 2 20º
96. Consider minimum shift keying (MSK) also
known as fast with frequency spacing 2fd
between the state frequencies. rb is the data
(a) QAM (b) PSK rate. Which one of the following correctly
(c) Both QAM and PSK (d) ASK relates rb and fd?
IES - 2005 (a) fd = rb/4 (b) fd = rb/2
Ans. (c) : Modem uses both QAM (Quadradure (c) fd = 3rb/4 (d) fd = rb
Amplitude Modulation) and PSK (Phase shift keying) RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
`because the constellation diagram refers to QAPSK IES - 2004
(Quadrature Amplitude Phase Shift Keying).
QAPSK = QAM + PSK Ans. (a) : In MSK (Minimum Shift Keying) frequency
spacing (f1-f2) = 2fd
93. Four signals g1(t), g2(t), g3(t) and g4(t) are to be k = Tb (f1-f2)
multiplexed and transmitted g1(t) and g4(t)
1
have a bandwidth of 4 kHz, and the remaining = Tb × 2f d ( for MSK k = 1/ 2 )
two signals have bandwidth of 8 kHz. Each 2
sample requires 8 bit for encoding. What is the 1
minimum transmission bit rate of the system? fd =
(a) 512 kbps (b) 16 kbps 4Tb
(c) 192 kbps (d) 384 kbps rb  1 
IES - 2005 fd = ∵ rp = 
4  Tb 
Ans. (d) : Given, Number of bits n = 8
f m1 = 4kHz, f s1 = 2 × 4 = 8kHz 97. The sum of two signals e1 = 3sin(4π × 103t) and
e2 = 5sin(2π×256t) is sampled at 1024 Hz. The
f m2 = 8kHz, fs2 = 2 × 8 = 16kHz sampled signal is passed through a low pass
Minimum sampling rate fs(min) = (2×8+2×16) filter with cut-off at 2048 Hz. The output of this
= 48k Samples/sec filter will contain components at
So, Minimum transmission bit rate Rb = n fs(min) (a) 256 Hz and 103 Hz
= 8×48 (b) 256 Hz and 1024 Hz
(c) 256 Hz only
R b = 384 kbps (d) 1024 Hz only
94. A 12 channel TDM system where each channel IES - 2004
signal is 4 kHz is sampled at 8 kHz. What is the Ans. (c) : Given, e1 = 3sin(4π × 103t), f m = 2×103Hz
1
bandwidth requirement?
(a) 12 kHz (b) 12 × 4 kHz e 2 = 5sin (4π×256t), f m 2 = 2 × 256 Hz
(c) 12 × 8 kHz (d) 12 × 8 × 4 kHz sampling frequency fs = 1024
IES - 2005 cut-off frequency of low pass filter, fc = 2048Hz
Ans. (b) : Given, Number of channels N = 12 As we know the condition for proper reconstruction of
Modulating frequency fm = 4kHz signal f s ≥ 2f m
Sampling frequency fs = 8kHz
N.nfs for f m1 , fs < 2f m1 , if will pass through the low pass
As we know, Bandwidth = ( Let n = 1)
2 filter.
12 ×1× 8 For f m2 . fs > 2f m2 .
=
2 So, The output of this filter will contain components at
BW = 12 × 4 kHz 256 Hz only.
95. In a BPSK signal detector, the local oscillator 98. The number of signaling bits per channel per
has a fixed phase error of 20º. By what factor frame in T1 multiplexer following CCITT
does this phase error deteriorate the SNR at hierarchy is
the output ? (a) 64000 (b) 128
2
(a) cos 20º (b) cos 20º (c) 4 (d) 400
(c) cos 40º (d) cos 70º IES - 2004
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 Ans. (c) : The number of signaling bits per channel per
IES - 2004 frame in T1 multiplexer following CCITT hierarchy
GATE-1990 is 4.
99. In asynchronous TDM, for n signal sources, (c) Nf Hz (d) N2f Hz
each frame contains m slots, where m is usually RPSC Vice Principle ITI-2016
(a) less than n (b) 2n ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
(c) n (d) greater than 2n Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II
IES - 2002 IES - 2000
Ans. (a) : In Asynchronous TDM, Number of source is Ans. (c) : Bandwidth of PCM
less than number of slots R N × sampling frequency
BW = b =
m<n 2 2
Where, m = Number of slots N × fs N.2.f m
BW = =
n = number of sources 2 2
100. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16 BW = N.f m Hz
equiprobable events, the number of bits
required is 104. Time division multiplexing requires
(a) 2 (b) log1016 (a) constant data transmission
(c) 8 (d) 4 (b) transmission of data samples
IES - 2001 (c) transmission of data at random
n
Ans. (d) : Given, Number of total events 2 = 16 (d) transmission of data of only one measured
n 4 IES - 2000
2 =2
Number of bits n=4 Ans. (b) : Time division multiplexing requires
transmission of data samples.
101. For 10-bit PCM system, the signal to 105. The ramp signal m(t) = at is applied to a delta
quantization noise ratio is 62dB. If the number modulator with sampling period Ts and step
of bits is increased by 2, then the signal to size δ. Slope overload distortion would occur if
quantization noise ratio will
(a) δ < a (b) δ > a
(a) increase by 6 dB
(b) increase by 12 dB (c) δ < aT s (d) δ > aTs
(c) decrease by 6 dB IES - 2000
(d) decrease by 12 dB Ans. (c) : Slope-overload distortion occurs
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 δ dm(t)
MPPSC HOD Govt.Poly.-2013 When, <
TS dt
IES - 2001
To avoid slope-overload distortion
Ans. (b) : In PCM SNR = (6n + 1.8) dB δ dm(t)
≥
n = 10 then, SNR1 = 6×10 + 1.8 TS dt max
= 61.8 dB Condition slope-overload distortion is-
if n = 12 then, SNR2 = 6×12+1.8
= 73.8 dB δ d(at)
<
SNR2 – SNR1 = 73.8 – 61.8 Ts dt
= 12 dB δ
Hence, if the number of bit is increased by 2, then the <a
TS
signal to quantization noise ratio will increase by 12 dB.
102. In a certain '12 channel TDM' system, it is δ < a.TS
found that channel No. 3 and channel No. 8 are
106. In a PCM system, each quantization level is
connected to the same input signal. The
encoded into 8 bits. The signal to quantization
technique
noise ratio is equal to
(a) wastes the channel capacity
(a) 24 dB (b) 48 dB
(b) takes care of different sampling rates
(c) 64 dB (d) 256 dB
(c) is required when different bandwidth signals
are to be transmitted RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
(d) reduces noise IES - 2000
IES - 2001 Ans. (b) : Given, n = 8 bits
SNR = (6n +1.8) dB
Ans. (b) : In TDM System if two or more channels are
connected to the same input signals then the system = 6 ×8 +1.8
takes care of different sampling rates. = 49.8 dB
103. The bandwidth of an 'N' bit binary coded PCM SNR ≃ 48dB
signal for modulating a signal having 107. A band-pass signal has significant frequency
bandwidth of 'f' Hz is components in the range of 1.5 MHz to 2 MHz.
f f If the signal is to be reconstructed from its
(a) Hz (b) Hz samples, the minimum sampling frequency will
N N2 be
(a) 1 MHz (b) 2 MHz (a) 4 sampling instants
(c) 3.5 MHz (d) 4 MHz (b) 5 sampling instants
IES - 2000 (c) 9 sampling instants
Ans. (a) : Given, fH = 2MHz, fL = 1.5MHz (d) 10 sampling instants
IES - 2000
2f H
Sampling frequency f s = Ans. (a) : Given, the number of Taps of transversal type
K equalizer (2N+1) = 5
Here, N=2
fH 2 The Total Number of points where distortion will be
K= = corrected on either side = 2N
( f H − f L ) 2 − 1.5 =2×2
2 = 4 sampling instants
K= =4
0.5 111. A 6 MHz channel is used by digital signaling
2f 2 × 2 ×106 system utilizing four-level signals. The
fs = H = maximum possible transmission rate is
K 4 (a) 6 M bauds/s (b) 18 M bauds/s
f s = 1MHz (c) 9 M bauds/s (d) 12 M bauds/s
108. In a single error correcting Hamming code, the IES - 1999
number of message bits in a block is 26. The Ans. (d) : Number of quantization levels
number of check bits in the block would be L = 2n = 4
(a) 3 (b) 4 n=2
(c) 5 (d) 7 Rb
Bandwidth =
IES - 2000 log 2 L
Ans. (c) : Given, Number of message bits (k) = 26 Rb
Number of parity bits in code (r) = (n-k) 6 × 106 =
log 2 ( 2 )
2
where,
n = Number of bits in the code Rb = 12M baud/sec
r
2 ≥ n +1 112. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal g(t) =
r 10 cos (50πt) cos2 (150πt), where 't' is in
2 ≥ r + k +1
seconds, is
2 r ≥ 26 + 1 + r (a) 150 samples per second
2 r ≥ 27 + r (b) 200 samples per second
r=5 (c) 300 samples per second
109. If binary PSK modulation is used for (d) 350 samples per second
transmission, the required minimum IES - 1998
bandwidth is 9600 Hz. To reduce the Ans. (d) : Given,
transmission bandwidth to 2400 Hz, the g(t) = 10 cos (50πt)cos2(150πt)
modulation scheme to be adopted should be
(a) quadrature phase-shift keying = 10 cos (50πt)
[1 + cos300πt ]
(b) minimum shift keying 2
(c) 16-ary quadrature amplitude modulation = 5 cos (50πt) +5cos (50πt) cos (300πt)
(d) 8-ary PSK 5
= 5 cos (50πt) + [cos (350πt)+ cos(250πt)]
IES - 2000 2
Ans. (c) : BW1 = 9600 Hz Hence, maximum modulating frequency fm(max) = 175Hz
BW2 = 2400Hz So, Nyquist sampling rate (fs ) = 2fm(max)
= 2 × 175
BW1 9600
n= = = 350 Sample per second.
BW2 2400
113. For a given data rate, the bandwidth required
n=4 with m-ary transmission is smaller than that
2n = 24 = 16 for binary transmission by
Hence, 16-ary Quadrature amplitude modulation log 2 m
scheme to be adopted. (a) log2 m (b)
m
110. Generally, a transversal type equalizer with 5 2 log 2 m
taps can take care of distorted signal due to (c) (d)
log 2 m 2
inter symbol interference in the received signal
at IES - 1998
Ans. (a) : Bandwidth for m-ary transmission 116. If, in a particular digital communication
application, the receiver designed is an optimum
2 × Bit rate (R b )
= coherent receiver, the channel noise is white and
N bits are transmitted using rectangular pulses,
Where, N = log2m then which one of the following statements would
m = Total number of symbols be INCOSISTENT?
The receiver is
N = Number of bits in each symbol
(a) a correlator
Bandwidth of binary transmission = 2 × Bit Rate (Rb) (b) matched filter receiver
So, m-ary transmission is smaller than that for binary (c) an integrate and dump receiver
transmission by log2m. (d) sample, hold and dump receiver
114. Four voice signals, each limited to 4 kHz and IES - 1997
sampled at Nyquist rate, are converted into Ans. (d) : If, in a particular digital communication
binary PCM signal using 256 quantization application, the receiver designed is an optimum
levels. The bit transmission rate for the time- coherent receiver, the channel noise is white and bits are
division multiplexed signal will be transmitted using rectangular pulses, then the receiver is
(a) 8 kbps (b) 64 kbps sample, hold and dump.
(c) 256 kbps (d) 512 kbps 117. The bit rate of a digital communication system
is 34 Mbit/s. The modulation scheme is QPSK.
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 The baud rate of the system is
IES - 1998 (a) 68 Mbit/s (b) 34 Mbit/s
Ans. (c) : Given, Modulating frequency (fm) = 4kHz (c) 17 Mbit/s (d) 8.5 Mbit/s
Number of quantization level (L) = 256 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2018, Paper-III
L = 2n = 256 UJVNL AE-2016
TRB Poly.Lect.-2012
2 n= 2 8
IES - 1997
n=8 Ans. (c) : Given, Bit rate (Rb) = 34Mbps
Number of voice channel (N) = 4
Rb (R )
Bit rate (Rb) = N. nfs The baud rate of QPSK = = b
log 2 m 2
= 4 ×8×2×4 (∵fs = 2f m )
34
R b = 256 kbps =
2
115. The anti-aliasing filter has a higher cut-off = 17Mbps
frequency fm. Its output is sampled periodically 118. The baud rate is
every TS seconds. For proper recovery of the (a) always equal to the bit transfer rate
signal at the receiver, TS must be (b) equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal
1 1 channel
(a) TS ≥ (b) TS ≤ (c) not equal to the signalling rate
( 2f m ) ( 2f m ) (d) simplification of quantization process
1 2 IES - 1997
(c) TS ≥ (d) TS ≤ Ans. (b) : Baud rate is the number of signaling
fm fm
elements transmitted per second whereas the bandwidth
IES - 2015 of a digital signal is the number of bits transmitted per
Ans. (b) : An anti-aliasing filter is a filter used before a second The Baud rate is equal to twice the bandwidth of
signal sampler to restrict the bandwidth of a signal to an ideal channel.
satisfy the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem over the 119. The amplifiers which are inserted at intervals
band of Interest. to amplify the signal and compensate for
When sampling frequency fs is greater than or equal to transmission loss on the cable are called?
the twice the highest frequency component of the (a) line amplifier
message signal- (b) equalizing amplifiers
(c) companders
f s ≥ 2f m (d) repeaters
Time period- IES - 1996
Ans. (d) : The amplifiers which are inserted at intervals
1 to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission
Ts ≤
2f m loss on the cable are called repeaters.
Where- 120. In an ADM transmission system, the output
signal amplitudes for 1's and 0's are
fm → Cut-off frequency (a) fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed
Ts → Nyquist sampling interval. (b) fixed but the repetition rate is also fixed
(c) variable and the repetition rate is also variable Ans. (b) : Regenerative Repeater-
(d) variable but the repetition rate is fixed Regenerative repeater Amplify the signal strength with
IES - 1996 transmission media.
Ans. (d) : In an Adaptive Delta Modulation (ADM) • Time information extraction unit synchronize bit rate
transmission system, the output signal amplitudes for of incoming signal.
1's and 0's are variable but the repetition rate is fixed. • Amplify signal and equalize the incoming distorted,
121. A message signal band limited to 5 kHz is low strength signals.
sampled at the minimum rate as dictated by the
sampling theorem. The number of quantization
levels is 64. If the samples are encoded in
binary form, the transmission rate is
(a) 60 kbps (b) 50 kbps
(c) 32 kbps (d) 10 kbps
IES - 1995
Ans. (a) : Given, Modulating frequency (fm) = 5kHz
Number of quantization level (L) = 2n = 64 125. In push button keypad dialing in telephony,
n=6 touching a button generates a tone which is a
Bit rate (Rb) = nfs = 6×2×5 (a) combination of two frequencies
R b = 60 kbps (b) single frequency
(c) chirp tone
122. In a DM (delta modulation) system, the (d) sequence of pulse
granular (idling) noise occurs when the IES - 1994
(a) modulation signal increases rapidly Ans. (a) : In Telephony, when a button is pressed the
(b) pulse rate decreases dial generates a combination signal of the two
(c) modulating signal remains constant frequencies for the selected row and coloum, a dual-
(d) pulse amplitude decreases tone signal.
IES - 1995 Which is transmitted over the phone line to the
Ans. (c) : In a delta modulation (DM) system, the telephone exchange.
Granular noise occurs when the modulating signal • It is generates DTFM frequency.
remains constant. • It is combination of two frequency.
123. Hamming codes are used for error detection 126. A comparison of frequency division and time
and correction. If the minimum Hamming
division multiplexing system shows that
distance is m, then the number of errors
correctable is (a) FDM requires a lower bandwidth, but TDM
has greater noise immunity
m
(a) equal to m (b) less than (b) FDM has greater noise immunity and requires
2 lower bandwidth than TDM
(c) equal to 2 m (d) greater than m (c) FDM requires channel synchronization, while
IES - 1994 TDM has greater noise immunity
Ans. (b) : Minimum Hamming distance for error (d) FDM requires more multiplexing while TDM
correctable requires band pass filter
m = 2d +1 RRB JE 01.09.2019, 3pm.-5pm
Where, d = No. of error correctable IES - 1993
m −1 Ans. (c) : FDM (Frequency Division Multiplexing)
d= requires channel synchronization, while TDM (Time
2 Division Multiplexing ) has greater noise immunity.
m 1 127. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
d= −
2 2 answer using the codes given below the lists :
List - I
m
Hence, the number of errors correctable is less than . A. Detection of a periodic signal in noise
2 B. Recovery of a Band limited Signal from its
124. PCM systems require regenerative repeaters uniformly sampled values
over long distances. The correct sequence of the C. Finer quantization of signals
operations which such a repeater performs is?
D. Delta modulation
(a) Timing equalization and decision making
List - II
(b) Equalization timing and decision making
1. Increase in bandwidth
(c) Timing, thresholding (decision) and
equalization 2. Slope overload error
(d) Thresholding, timing and equalization 3. Nyquist rate
IES - 1994 4. Cross correlation
Codes : 131. Which of the following requires a
A B C D synchronizing signal ?
(a) 4 3 1 2 (a) single channel PPM system
(b) 3 4 2 1 (b) PAM
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) PDM
(d) 4 2 1 3 (d) all of the above
IES - 1993 IES - 1991
Ans. (a) : Ans. (a) : Synchronization is necessary because in PPM
• Finer quantization of signals results increase in information is conveyed by the time slot during which a
bandwidth. pulse is detected.
• Slope overload error occurs in delta modulation. Fast acquisition of a signal depend on detection of pulse
• Nyquist rate is a recovery of a band limited signal in noise, on correct estimation of the time of detected
from its uniformly sampled values. pulse.
• Cross correlation occurs in detection of a periodic 132. Six message signals, each of bandwidth 5 KHz,
signal in noise are time-division-multiplexed and transmitted.
The signaling rate and minimum channel
128. In a PCM system, the number of quantization
bandwidth to avoid cross-talk in TDM,
levels are 16 and the maximum signal
respectively, are :
frequency is 4 kHz. The bit transmission rate is
(a) 64 k bits/sec (b) 16 k bits/sec (a) 30 kbps, 15 kHz (b) 60 kbps, 30 kHz
(c) 32 k bits/sec (d) 32 bits/sec (c) 60 kbps, 15 kHz (d) 30 kbps, 30 kHz
UJVNL AE-2016 APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
IES - 1993 Ans. (b) : Given,
Ans. (c) : Given, fm = 4kHz fm = 5kHz
Number of quantization level (L) = 16 = 2n fs = 2fm = 2×5 = 10kHz
n = 4 bits n=6
So, Bit rate or signaling rate Rb = nfs
= 6×10
R b = 2BW
Rb= 60 kbps
= 2 × 16 × 103 R
= 32 kbps Bandwidth BW = b
2
129. In PCM if the transmission path is very long
(a) repeater stations are used 60
=
(b) pulse width may be increased 2
(c) pulse amplitude is increased BW = 30kHz
(d) pulse spacing is reduced
133. Four voice channels, each having a bandwidth
IES - 1992 of 4 kHz, are to be multiplexed using FDM. A
Ans. (a) : When transmission path is long, more guard-band of 500 Hz is to be inserted between
repeater station are heeded at Intermediate point. As the adjacent channels. The minimum
repeater receives signal, remove the noise amplify it and bandwidth of FDM signal is :
retransmit it long the channel. (a) 16 kHz (b) 17.5 kHz
Advantages of pulse code modulation- (c) 18 kHz (d) 31 kHz
• It has higher noise immunity APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
• It has a higher transmitter efficiency. Ans. (b) : Four channels (n) =4, Each BW = 4kHz
130. In a PCM the amplitude levels are transmitted Guard Band (fg) = 500 Hz
in a 7 unit code. The sampling is done at the Minimum Band width (FDM)-
rate of 10 kHz. The bandwidth should be fmin = nfm + (n – 1) fg = (4 × 4k) + (3 × 500)
(a) 5 kHz (b) 35 kHz = 17.5 kHz
(c) 70 kHz (d) 5 MHz
134. The Euclidean distance for BPSK is (where Eb
Mizoram PSC IOLM, Paper-III
is the signal energy) :
IES - 1992, 2013
Ans. (b) : Given, (a) d = E b (b) d = 2E b
fs = 10kHz
n = Number bit per sample = 7 (c) d = 2 E b (d) d = 4 E b
1 APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
Bandwidth (BW) = .n × fs
2 Ans. (c) : d = 2 E b in BPSK
put value
135. The bit rate of a digital communication system
1 is 16 Mbps. The modulation scheme is QPSK.
BW = × 7 × 10kHz = 35 kHz
2 The baud rate of the system is :
(a) 16 Mbps (b) 32 Mbps 140. If the number of bits per sample in a PCM
(c) 48 Mbps (d) 64 Mbps system is increased from a n to n + 1, the
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 improvement in signal to quantization nose
ratio will be
Ans. (b) : Baud Rate = 2 × Bit Rate = 2 × 16 Mbps (a) 3 dB (b) 6 dB
= 32 Mbps (c) 2 n dB (d) n dB
136. The bit stream 01001 is differentially encoded UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director 09.01.2022
using ‘Delay and Ex OR’ scheme for DPSK IES - 2016, 2006
transmission. Assuming the reference bit as a TRB Poly. Lect. - 2012
‘1’ and assigning phases of ‘0’ and ‘π’ for 1‘s GATE-1995
and 0’s respectively, in the encoded sequence, Ans. (b) :
the transmitted phase sequence becomes Signal to quantization nose ratio = (1.8+ 6n) dB
(a) π 0 π π 0 (b) 0 π π 0 0 SQNR1 = 1.8 + 6n
(c) 0 π π π 0 (d) π π 0 π π SQNR2 = 1.8 + 6n + 6
GATE-1992 SQNR2 – SQNR1 = (1.8 + 6n+ 6) – (1.8 + 6n)
Ans. (c) : Given that - SQNR 2 − SQNR1 = 6 dB
reference bit = 1 Hence, if number of bits (n) increases by 1 bit, SNR
logic 0 = π increases by 6 dB.
logic 1 = 0º 141. A 1.0 kHz signal is flat top sampled at the rate
of 1800 samples/sec and the samples are
applied to an ideal rectangular LPF with cut-
off frequency of 1100 Hz, then the output of the
filter contains
(a) only 800 Hz component
Hence the correct option is (c). (b) 800 Hz and 900 Hz components
137. Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be (c) 800 Hz and 1000 Hz components
detected using (d) 800 Hz, 900 Hz and 100 Hz components
(a) correlation receiver GATE-1995
(b) bandpass filters and envelope detectors Ans. (c) : Given, fs = 1800 samples/ sec
(c) matched filter fc = 1000Hz
(d) discriminator detection The spectrum of sampled signal = nfs ± f c
GPSC Asstt.Prof. 11.04.2017 if n = 0 then nfs ± f c = 1000Hz
Mizoram PSC IOLM, Paper-III
GATE-1992 n = 1 then 1 ×1800 ± 1000 = 800Hz, 2800Hz
n = 2 then 2× 1800 ± 1000 = 2600Hz, 4600Hz
Ans. (a) : Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be
As given that cut-off frequency of LPF is 1100Hz.
detected using correlation receiver.
So, the output of the filter will contain 800Hz and
138. Source encoding in a data communication 1000Hz components.
system is done in order to
142. The signal to quantization noise ratio in an n-
(a) enhance the information transmission bit PCM system
(b) bandpass filters and envelope rate detectors (a) depends upon the sampling frequency
(c) conserve the transmitted power employed
(d) discriminator detection (b) is independent of the value of ‘n’
Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-II (c) increasing with increasing value of ‘n’
Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II (d) decreases with the increasing value of ‘n’
GATE-1992 Mizoram PSC IOLM, Paper-III
Ans. (a) : The source encoding in a data communication GATE-1995
system increases the information transmission rate and Ans. (c) : The signal to quantization noise ratio in an n-
decreases the probability of error. bit PCM system increasing with increasing value of n.
139. Increased pulse width in the flat top sampling SQNR = (1.8 + 6n) dB
leads to
(a) attenuation of high frequencies in Where, n = number of bits.
reproduction 143. The number of bits in a binary PCM system is
(b) attenuation of low frequencies in reproduction increased from n to n + 1. As a result, the signal
(c) greater aliasing errors in reproduction to quantization noise ratio will improve by a
factor
(d) no harmful effects in reproduction
(a) (n + 1)/n (b) 2(n + 1)/n
GATE-1994 2(n + 1)/n
(c) 2 (d) which is independent of n
Ans. (a) : Increased pulse width in the flat to sampling Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
leads to attenuation of high frequency in reproduction. GATE-1996
Ans. (d) : Given, n1 = =n Ans. (c) : Given, n1= 8, n2 = 9
n2 = n + 1 As we know, Quantization noise power
3 VP2− P 1
As we know, SQNR = .22n QNP = , QNP ∝ n
2 12 × 2 2n
2
3 2n 1 1
.2 QNP1 = 2×8 , QNP2 = 2×9
SQNR1
= 2 2 2
SQNR 2 3 .22( n +1)
QNP1 1 22×9 QNP1 218
2 = × , = = 22
QNP2 22×8 1 QNP2 216
22n
= 2n + 2 = 22n.2−2n −2
2 QNP1
=4
SQNR1 1 QNP2
=
SQNR 2 4 147. Flat top sampling of low pass signals
SQNR 2 = 4 × SQNR1 (a) gives rise to aperture effect
(b) implies oversampling
Hence, the SQNR will improve by factor 4 which is
(c) leads to aliasing
independent of n.
(d) introducing delay distortion
144. The line code that has zero dc component for GATE-1998
pulse transmission of random binary data is
(a) non-return to zero (NRZ) Ans. (a) : Flat top sampling of low pass signals gives
rise to aperture effect.
(b) return to zero (RZ)
(c) alternate mark inversion (AMI) 148. Compression in PCM refers to relative
(d) none of the above compression of
Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-II (a) higher signal amplitudes
UJVNL AE- 2016 (b) lower signal amplitudes
GATE-1997 (c) lower signal frequencies
Ans. (c) : The line code that has zero dc component for (d) higher signal frequencies
pulse transmission of random binary data is Alternate Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
Mark Inversion (AMI). Mizoram PSC IOLM, Paper-III
145. A deterministic signal has the power spectrum GATE-1998
given in figure. The minimum sampling rate Ans. (a) : Compression in PCM refers to relative
needed to completely represent signal is compression of higher signal amplitudes. The
combination of compression and Expanding is also
known as companding.
149. The Nyquist sampling frequency (in Hz) of a
signal given by 6 × 104 sinc3 (400 t)∗106 sinc3
(100 t) is
(a) 200 (b) 300
(c) 1500 (d) 1000
GATE-1999
(a) 1 kHz (b) 2 kHz Ans. (b) : Given,
(c) 3 kHz (d) none of these S(t) = 6×104 sinc3 (400t) * 106 sinc3(100t)
GATE-1997 f m1 = sinc3 (400t) = 600Hz
Ans. (d) : From the given figure maximum frequency
component fm(max) = 2kHz f m2 = sinc3(100t) = 150Hz
So, the minimum sampling frequency fs = 2fm (max) minimum sampling frequency fs(min) = 2×fm(min)
= 2×2 kHz = 2 ×150
f s = 4kHz fs = 300Hz
150. The peak-to-peak input to an 8-bit PCM coder
146. In a PCM system with uniform quantization,
increasing the number of bits from 8 to 9 will is 2 Volts. The signal power-to-quantization
reduce the quantization noise by a factor of noise power ratio (in dB) for an input of
(a) 9 (b) 8 0.5cos(ωmt) is
(c) 4 (d) 2 (a) 47.8 (b) 43.8
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect 22.03.2022, Paper-II (c) 95.6 (d) 99.6
GATE-1998 GATE-1999
Ans. (b) : Given, n = 8, Ac = 0.5V (a) 45 µsec (b) 200 µsec
(c) 50 µ sec (d) 250 µ sec
( 0.5 )
2 2
A c
Signal power (Ps) = = GATE-2000
2 2 Ans. (b) : Bit rate Rb = HCF of (f1,f0)
Ps = 0.125
= HCF of 25kHz, 10 kHz
V 2 Rb = 5kHz
Step Size ∆ = P − P = 8
L 2 1 1
1 Bit interval (Tb)= =
∆= 7 R b 5kHz
2
Tb = 200µs
∆2  1  1
Noise Power ( PN ) = = × 154. A video transmission system transmits 625
12  214  12
picture frames per second. Each frame consists
Signal Power (PS ) of a 400 × 400 pixel grid with 64 intensity levels
SQNR =
Noise Power (PN ) per pixel. The date rate of the system is
(a) 16 Mbps (b) 100 Mbps
0.125 14
= × 2 ×12 (c) 600 Mbps (d) 6.4 Gbps
1 GATE-2001
= 10 log (0.125 ×214×12) dB
Ans. (c) : Given, picture frame per second = 625
= 10 log (24576) dB
Pixels per frame = 400×400
SQNR = 43.8 dB
Intensity levels per pixel = 64
151. The input to a matched filter is given by So bits per pixel = 6
10sin(2π ×106 ) 0 < t < 10 −4 sec Data rate (DR) = 625 ×400 × 400 ×6
s(t) = 
0 Otherwise D R = 600 Mbps
The peak amplitude of the filter output is 155. The Nyquist sampling interval, for the signal
(a) 10 volts (b) 5 volts sinc(700t) + sin c(500t) is
(c) 10 millivolts (d) 5 millivolts 1 π
GATE-1999 (a) sec (b) sec
350 350
Ans. (d) : Given, 1 π
−4 (c) sec (d) sec
10sin(2π× 10 ) 0 < t < 10 sec
6
700 175
s(t) =  GATE-2001
 0 otherwise
Where, Ac = 10V Ans. (c) : Given f m1 = 350 Hz
–4
T = 10 sec f m2 = 250 Hz
As we know, the maximum amplitude of matched filter
Sampling frequency fs = 2 ×fm (max)
A c2 T = 2 ×350
output is A =
2 fs = 700 Hz
102 × 10−4 10−2 1 1
= = Sampling interval = = sec.
2 2 fs 700
= 5mV
156. During transmission over a communication
152. Four independent messages have bandwidths channel, bit errors occur independently with
of 100 Hz, 100 Hz 200 Hz, and 400 Hz, probability p. If a block of n bits is transmitted,
respectively. Each is sampled at the Nyquist the probability of at most one bit error is equal
rate, the samples are Time Division to
Multiplexed (TDM) and transmitted. The (a) 1 – (1 – p)n
transmitted sample rate (in Hz) is (b) p + (n – 1) (1 –p)
(a) 1600 (b) 800
(c) np (1 – p)n–1
(c) 400 (d) 200
(d) (1 – p)n + np(1 – p)n–1
GATE-1999 GATE-2001, 2007
Ans. (a) : The transmitted sampling rate Ans. (d) : Error probability = P
= 2×(100+100+200+400) No error probability = 1– P
= 2 ×800
At most one bit error the output of n bit probability
= 1600 Hz
= nC0 (P)0 (1-p)n + nC1(p)1 (1– p)n–1
153. In a digital communication system employing
Frequency Shift Keying (FSK), the 0 and 1 bit = (1–p)n + np (1– p)n–1
are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 157. Consider a sample signal
kHz respectively. These waveforms will be
y ( t ) = 5×10−6 x ( t ) ∑ n= −∞ δ ( t − nTs )
n= +∞
orthogonal for a bit interval of

Where x(t) = 10cos(8π × 103)t and Ts=100 µsec. 160. A sinusoidal signal with peak-to-peak
When y(t) is passed through an ideal lowpass amplitude of 1.536 V is quantized into 128
filter with a cutoff frequency of 5 kHz, the levels using a mid-rise uniform quantizer. The
output of the filter is quantization-noise power is
(a) 5 × 10–6cos(8π × 103)t (a) 0.768 V (b) 48 × 10–6 V2
(b) 5 × 10–5cos(8π × 103)t (c) 12 × 10–6 V2 (d) 3.072 V
–1 3
(c) 5 × 10 cos(8π × 10 )t Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
(d) 10cos (8π × 103)t GATE-2003
GATE-2002 Ans. (c) : Given,
n =+∞ Vp-p= 1.536V
Ans. (b) : Given, y(t) = 5×10 x(t) ∑ n =−∞ δ(t − nTs )
–6
Number of quantization levels (L) = 128
x(t) = 10 cos (8π×103)t Vp − p
Ts = 100µs Step size ∆ =
L
1
So, sampling frequency f s = 1.536
100µs =
128
fs = 10kHz ∆ = 0.012V
modulating frequency (fm) = 4kHz (given)
∆ 2 ( 0.012 )
2
cut-off frequency (fc) = 5kHz (given) Quantization noise power = =
As we know, f s > 2f m and f c > f m 12 12
= 12×10–6V2
Hence, message signal can be recovered by passing
through a low pass filter. 161. If Eb, the energy per bit of a binary digital
signal, is 10–5 watt-sec and the one-sided power
The output of (LPF) = y(t) . x(t)/Ts
spectral density of the white noise, N0 =
= 5 ×10–6×10cos (8π×103t)/100×106 10 –6
W/Hz, then the output SNR of the matched
= 5 ×10–1 cos (8π ×103t) filter is
158. For a bit-rate of 8 kbps, the best possible values (a) 26 dB (b) 10 dB
of the transmitted frequencies in a coherent (c) 20 dB (d) 13 dB
binary FSK system are ISRO Scientist-May, 2017
(a) 16 kHz and 20 kHz (b) 20 kHz and 32 kHz GATE-2003
Ans. (d) : Given,
GATE-2002
Energy per bit (fb)= 10–5W-sec
Ans. (d) : Given, bit rate Rb = 8 kbps
One-sided power spectral density of white
The possible values =Integer multiplier of Bit rate noise = 10–6 W/Hz
8 kbps = 8kHz
2f
Integer multipliers = 8k, 16k, 24k, 32k, 40k SNR = b
Hence, the best possible values = 32 kHz and 40kHz N0
159. A signal x (t) = 100 cos(24π × 103)t is ideally 2 × 10−5
=
sampled with a sampling period of 50 µsec and 10−6
then passed through an ideal lowpass filter SNR = 20
with cutoff frequency of 15 kHz. Which of the
SNR in dB = 10 log1020
following frequencies is/are present at the filter
output? = 13.01dB
(a) 12 kHz only (b) 8 kHz only SNR in dB ≃ 13dB
162. The input to a linear delta modulator having a
GATE-2002 step-size ∆ = 0.628 is a sine wave with
Ans. (d) : Given, frequency fm and peak amplitude Em. If the
sampling period (Ts) = 50µs sampling frequency fs = 40 kHz, the
cut-off frequency (fc) = 15kHz combination of the sine-ware frequency and the
1 peak amplitude, where slope overload will take
Sampling frequency (fs) = place is
50 µs
Em fm
= 20kHz (a) 0.3 V 8 kHz
(fm) = 12 kHz (b) 1.5 V 4 kHz
The frequency present at the filter output (c) 1.5 V 2 kHz
= fm, fs – fm (d) 3.0 V 1 kHz
= 12kHz, 8kHz GATE-2003
Ans. (b) : Given, step size (∆) = 0.628 Ans. (c) : Given, n1= 6, n2 = 8
Sampling frequency (fs)= 40 kHz 3 2n1
×2
Slope overload distortion in delta modulation occurs at SQNR1 2
=
∆f s < 2πf m E m SQNR 2 3 × 22n 2
2
∆fs = 0.628 ×40 × 103 = 25.12 kHz
22×6
Only option (b) will satisfy this condition = 2×8
2
Hence, fm = 4kHz and Em = 1.5V
SQNR1 1
163. If S represents the carrier synchronization at =
SQNR 2 24
the receiver and p represents the bandwidth
efficiency, then the correct statement for the SQNR 2 = 16 × SQNR1
coherent binary PSK is Hence, SQNR improves by the factor 16.
(a) p = 0.5, S is required 166. In the output of a DM speech encoder, the
(b) p = 1.0, S is required consecutive pulses are of opposite polarity
(c) p = 0.5, S is not required during time interval t1 ≤ t ≤ t2. This indicates
(d) p = 1.0, S is not required that during this interval
GATE-2003 (a) the input to the modulator is essentially
constant
Ans. (a) : For coherent Binary phase shift keying
(b) the modulator is going through slope overload
Bit rate (c) the accumulator is in saturation
(BPSK) bandwidth efficiency (p) =
Band width (d) the speech signal is being sampled at the
Rb Nyquist rate
= TANGEDCO-2015
2R b
GATE-2004
1 Ans. (a) : In Delta modulation, if the consecutive pulses
p = = 0.5
2 are opposite polarity then the input to the modulator is
Carrier synchronization S is also required. essentially constant.
164. A signal is sampled at 8 kHz and is quantized 167. A source produces binary data at the rate of 10
kbps. The binary symbols are represented as
using 8-bit uniform quantizer. Assuming SNRq
shown in the figure.
for a sinusoidal signal, the correct statement
for PCM signal with a bit rate of R is
(a) R = 32 kbps, SNRq = 25.8 dB
(b) R = 64 kbps, SNRq = 49.8 dB
(c) R = 64 kbps, SNRq = 55.8 dB
(d) R = 32 kbps, SNRq = 49.8 dB
GATE-2003 The source output is transmitted using two
modulation schemes, namely Binary PSK
Ans. (b) : Given, Sampling frequency (fs)= 8kHz (BPSK) and Quadrature PSK(QPSK). Let B1
Number of bits (n) = 8 and B2 be the bandwidth requirements of
Bit rate (R) = nfs BPSK and QPSK respectively. Assuming that
= 8 ×8 the bandwidth of the above rectangular pulses
is 10 kHz, B1 and B2 are
R = 64 kbps (a) B1 = 20 kHz, B2 = 20 kHz,
SNRq = (1.8 + 6n) dB (b) B1 = 10 kHz, B2 = 20 kHz,
= (1.8 + 6×8) dB (c) B1 = 20 kHz, B2 = 10 kHz,
(d) B1 = 10 kHz, B2 = 10 kHz,
SNR q = 49.8dB
GATE-2004
165. In a PCM system, if the code word length is Ans. (c) : Given, Bit rate (Rb )= 10 kbps
increases form 6 to 8 bits, the signal to Bandwidth of BPSK (B1)= 2 Rb
quantization noise ratio improves by the factor B1 = 2×10
(a) 8/6 (b) 12 B1 = 20kHz
(c) 16 (d) 8 Bandwidth of QPSK B2 = Rb
UPRVUNL AE - 19/07/2021, Shift - II
B2 = 10 kHz
GATE-2004
168. Consider a binary digital communication 170. Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200
system with equally likely 0’s and 1’s. When Hz, 600 Hz and 600 Hz. are sampled at their
binary 0 is transmitted the detector input can respective Nyquist rated, encoded with 12 bit
lie between the levels –0.25V and +0.25V with words, and time division multiplexed. The bit
equal probability: when binary 1 is rate for the multiplexed signal is
transmitted, the voltage at the detector can (a) 115.2 kbps (b) 28.8 kbps
have any value between 0 and 1 V with equal
(c) 57.6 kbps (d) 38.4 kbps
probability. If the detector has a threshold of
0.2 V (i.e., if the received signal is greater than GATE-2004
0.2 V, the bit is taken as 1), the average bit Ans. (c) : Given, Number of bits (n) = 12
error bit error probability is Modulating frequencies (f1)= 1200Hz, f2 = f3= 600Hz
(a) 0.15 (b) 0.2 Sampling frequency (fs)
(c) 0.05 (d) 0.5 = 2×(f1+f2 + f3) =2× (1200+600+600) = 4.8 kHz
GATE-2004 Bit rate Rb = nfs = 12 × 4.8 × 103
Ans. (a) : Probability error when binary '0' is Rb = 57.6 kbps
Error Voltage 171. Consider the signal x(t) shown in the figure.
transmitted Pe(0)=
Total Voltage Let h(t) denote the impulse response of the
0.25 − 0.2 filter matched to x (t), with h(t) being non-zero
= only in the interval 0 to 4 sec. The slope of h(t)
0.25 − (− 0.25) in the interval 3 < t < 4 sec is
0.05
=
0.50
Pe(0) = 0.1
probability error when binary '1' is transmitted
0.2 − 0
Pe (1) =
1− 0
Pe (1) = 0.2
The average bit error probability
1 −1
P (0) + Pe (1) (a) sec (b) – 1 sec–1
Pe(Avg ) = e 2
2 1
0.1 + 0.2 (c) − sec −1 (d) 1 sec–1
= 2
2 GATE-2004
Pe( Avg) = 0.15 Ans. (b) : h(t) = x(4 – t)
169. Choose the correct one from among the
alternatives a, b, c, d after matching an item
from Group 1 with the most appropriate item
in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
1. FM p. Slope overload
2. DM Q. µ-law
3. PSK E. Envelope detector
4. PCM S. Capture effect Slope in region t = 3 to 4
T. Hilbert transform t = 3 – 4 = –1 sec–1.
U. Matched filter 172. A signal as shown in the figure is applied to a
(a) 1-T, 2-P, 3-U, 4-S matched filter. Which of the following does
(b) 1-S, 2-U, 3-P, 4-T represent the output of this matched filter?
(c) 1-S, 2-P, 3-U, 4-Q
(d) 1-U, 2-R, 3-S, 4-Q
GATE-2004
Ans. (c) :
• Capture effect occurs in FM modulating system.
• Slope overload distortion occurs in delta modulation.
• Match filter is used in phase shift keying (PSK).
• Theµ-low is applied in PCM system.
173. The minimum sampling frequency (in
samples/sec) required to reconstruct the
following signal from its samples without
distortion
3 2
 sin2π1000t   sin2π1000t 
x (t) = 5  + 7 
 πt   πt 
Would be
(a) 2 × 103 (b) 4 × 103
3
(c) 6 × 10 (d) 8 × 103
GATE-2006
Ans. (c) : Given,
3 2
 sin 2π1000t   sin 2π1000t 
x(t) = 5   + 7 
 πt   πt 
fm = 1000 ×3 = 3000Hz
fm = 3kHz
Sampling frequency fs = 2fm
= 2 ×3kHz
GATE-2005 f s = 6 × 103 Hz
Ans. (c) : Let g(t) be input signal- 174. The minimum step – size required for a Delta-
Modulator operating at 32 k samples/sec to
signal (here u(t) is the unit-step function)
x( t ) =125t ( u( t ) -u( t -1) ) + ( 250-125t ) ( u( t -1) -u( t - 2) )
so that slope-overload is avoided, would be
(a) 2–10 (b) 2–8
(c) 2–6 (d) 2–4
GATE-2006
Ans. (b) : Given,
The impulse response of matched filter- Sampling frequency fs = 32k samples/ sec
h(t)= g(T-t) |x(t)|max = 125
Where, T is the pulse duration is equal to 2. condition for avoided slope-overload distortion
h(t) = g(2–t) d
∆f s ≥ m(t)
dt max
| m(t) |max
Hence, minimum step size ∆min =
fs
125 1
= =
32k 25 × 23
1
= 8
The output of matched filter- 2
y(t) = g(t)*h(t) ∆ min = 2−8

175. In the following figure the minimum value of At it is in percentage form
the constant “C”, which is to be added to y1(t)  1  cos 4πWt
sic that y1(t) and y2(t) are different, is p  = 2 2
 2  1 − 48W f
cos π sin 90º
p(t) = =
1− 3 2
p(t) = 0.5
178. In a GSM system, 8 channels can co-exist in
200 kHz bandwidth using TDMA. A GSM
(a) ∆ (b) ∆/2 based cellular operator is allocated 5 MHz
bandwidth. Assuming a frequency reuse factor
(c) ∆2/12 (d) ∆/L
of 1/5, i.e. a five-cell repeat pattern, the
GATE-2006 maximum number of simultaneous channels
Ans. (b) : that can exist in one cell is
(a) 200 (b) 40
(c) 25 (d) 5
GATE-2007
1
Ans. (b) : Given, frequency reuse factor =
5
When ∆ / 2 is added to y(t) then signal will move to Allocated Bandwidth = 5MHz
next quantization level. Otherwise if they have step size 1
So, Bandwidth allocated = 5 × = 1MHz
less ∆ / 2 then will be on the same quantization level. 5
176. In delta modulation, the slope overload Number of maximum simultaneous channels.
distortion can be reduced by 1MHz
(a) decreasing the step size = ×8
(b) decreasing the granular noise 200kHz
(c) decreasing the sampling rate 106
= ×8
(d) increasing the step size 200 × 103
Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II = 40
179. In a Direct Sequence CDMA system the chip
GATE-2007
rate is 1.2288 × 106 chips per second. If the
Ans. (d) : In delta modulation, the slope overload processing gain is desired to be AT LEAST
distortion can be reduced by increasing the step size 100, the data rate
∆ d (a) must be less than or equal to 12.288 × 103 bits
≥ m(t)
Ts dt per sec
max
(b) must be greater than 12.288 × 103 bits per sec
177. The raised cosine pulse p(t) is used for zero ISI
in digital communications. The expression for (c) must be exactly equal to 12.288 × 103 bits per
p(t) with unity roll-off factor is given by sec
sin4π Wt (d) can take any value less than 12.288 × 103 bits
p(t) = . The value of p(t) at per sec
4π Wt (1 − 16W 2t 2 ) GATE-2007
1 Ans. (a) : Given, processing gain = 100, chip Rate Rc =
t= is 1.2288×106 chips/sec
4W
(a) –0.5 (b) 0 R
As we know processing gain ≤ c
(c) 0.5 (d) ∞ Rb
GATE-2007 Rc
Ans. (c) : Given, Rb ≤
processing gain
sin 4πWt
p(t) = R
4πWt(1 − 16W 2 t 2 ) Rb ≤ c
100
1
f= 1.2288 × 106
4W Rb ≤
1 100
sin 4πW ×
So, p  1  = 4W R b ≤ 12.288 × 103 bits per sec
 
1   1  
2
 4W 
4πW × 2
 1 − 16W ×    Hence, data rate must be less than or equal to
4W   4W   12.288×103 bits per sec.
180. Consider a Binary Symmetric Channel (BBC)
with probability of error being p. To transmit a
bit, say 1, we transmit a sequence of three 1s.
The receiver will interpret the received
sequence to represent 1 if at least two bits are
1. The probability that the transmitted bit will
be received in error is
(a) p3 + 3p3(1–p) (b) p3
3
(c) (1–p) (d) p3 + p3(1–p)
GATE-2008
Ans. (a) : If all the three received bits are '0' or two of te
all three bite are '0' then there will be error in output.
So, The probability of error in output
Pe = 3C3p.p.p + 3C2 p.p. (1-p)
Pe = p3 + 3p 2 (1 − p)
181. Four messages band limited to W, W, 2 W and
3 W respectively are to be multiplexed using
Time Division Multiplexing (TDM). The
minimum bandwidth required for transmission
of this TDM signal is
(a) W (b) 3 W
(c) 6 W (d) 7 W
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper-II
GATE-2008
Ans. (d) : Given,
modulating frequency f m1 = W
f m2 = W
f m3 = 2W
f m4 = 3W
So, Sampling frequency f s1 = 2f m1 = 2W
f s2 = 2f m2 = 2W
f s3 = 2f m3 = 4W
GATE-2010
f s4 = 2f m4 = 6W Ans. (c) : Impulse response of matched filter -
Total sampling frequency fs= 2W +2W +4W + 6W
fs = 14W
numbers of bit n = 1
Bit rate Rb = nfs
= 1×14W
Rb = 14 W
R 14W
Bandwidth = b =
2 2
BW = 7W
182. Consider the pulse shape s(t) as shown. The ↔
impulse response h(t) of the filter matched to
this pulse is
183. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal

sin ( 500πt ) sin ( 700πt )
s (t ) = × is given by
πt πt
(a) 400 Hz (b) 600 Hz
(c) 1200 Hz (d) 1400 Hz
GATE-2010
Ans. (c) : Given, Ans. (b) : When there is a phase error between the local
sin(500 πt) sin(700πt) oscillator and the incoming antipodal BPSK signal is----
s(t) = ×
πt 4t 2E
S1 ( t ) = sin ωc t
1  2sin(500πt)sin(700πt)  T
=  
2 π2 t 2 2E
And S2 ( t ) = − sin ωc t
1 T
= [cos(700πt − 500πt) − cos(700πt + 500πt)]
2π 2 t 2  
E 
1 Pe = Q  ± 2  b  cos 2 θe 
= s(t) = 2 2 [ cos(200πt) − cos(1200πt)]   N0  
2π t
2πf m t = 1200πt Putting the value of θe = π / 4
fm = 600Hz  E  π  E 
The Nyquist sampling rate fs = 2fm Pe = Q  ± 2  b  cos 2  = Q  ± 
= 2×600   N0  4
  N0 
f s = 1200 Hz 186. The bit rate of digital communication system is
R kbits/s. The modulation used is 32-QAM.
184. In a baseband communications link, The minimum bandwidth required for ISI free
frequencies upto 3500 Hz used for signaling. transmission is
Using a raised cosine pulse with 75% excess (a) R/10 Hz (b) R/10 kHz
bandwidth and for no inter-symbol (c) R/5 Hz (d) R/5 kHz
interference, the maximum possible signaling GATE-2013
rate in symbols per second is
Ans. (d) : Given, Bit rate Rb = Rkbps , M = 32
(a) 1750 (b) 2625
For M-ary signaling,
(c) 4000 (d) 5250
Rb
GATE-2012 Bandwidth BW ≥
log 2 M
Ans. (c) : Given,
Transmission Bandwidth BT= 3500Hz R × 103
BW ≥
Excess Bandwidth α = 75% = 0.75 log 2 32
R R
As we know, BT = b (1 + α) BW ≥ kHz
2 5
Rb
3500 = (1 + α) 187. Coherent orthogonal binary FSK modulation is
2 used to transmit two equiprobable symbol
7000 waveforms s1(t) = αcos2πf1t & s2(t) = acos2πf2t,
Rb =
1.75 where α = 4 mV. Assume an AWGN channel
with two-sided noise power spectral density
R b = 4000 symbols per sec.
N0
= 0.5 ×10 −12 W/Hz. Using an optimal
185. A BPSK scheme operating over an AWGN 2
channel with noise power spectral density of receiver and the relation
N0/2, uses equiprobable signals 1
∞
−
u2
Q(v) = ∫ e 2 du, the bit error probability
2E 2E
s1 ( t ) = sin ( ωc t ) and s 2 ( t ) = − sin ( ωc t ) 2π v
T T for a data rate of 500 kbps is
over the symbol internal (0, T). If the local
oscillator in a coherent receiver is ahead in
(a) Q(2) ( )
(b) Q 2 2
phase by 45° with respect to the received signal,
the probability of error in the resulting system
(c) Q(4) ( )
(d) Q 4 2
is GATE-2014
 2E   E  Ans. (c) : Given that,
(a) Q   (b) Q  α = 4mV
 N   N 
 0   0  1 1
R b = 500kbps, Tb = = bps
 E   E  R b 500 ×103
(c) Q  (d) Q 
 2N   4N  N0
 0   0 
= 0.5 × 10−12 W / Hz
GATE-2012 2
For FSK 1
 −1 ≤ x ≤ 5
2
α Tb f R /1 ( r ) =  6
Bit error probability = Q
2N 0  0 otherwise
So error region will be -
1 1
=Q ( 4 ×10 )
−3 2
× ×
500 × 103 2 × N 0 PR / 0 ( r1 ) = ∫
−1 1
dx =
1
for function (i)
−3 4 2
16 × 10−6 −1 1 1
=Q PR /1 ( r1 ) = ∫ dx =
500 × 103 × 2 ×10−12 −1 4 2
= Q( 4) 51 2
188. A sinusoidal signal of 2 kHz frequency is PR /1 ( r2 ) = ∫ dx = for function (ii)
1 6 3
applied to a delta modulator are 20,000
1 1 1
samples per second and 0.1 V, respectively. To PR / 0 ( r2 ) = ∫ dx =
−1 6 3
prevent slope overload, the maximum
amplitude of the sinusoidal signal (in Volts) is So minimum decision error probability
1 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) PR /1 ( r1 ) .PR / 0 ( r2 ) = × =
2π π 2 3 6
2 190. An analog pulse s(t) is transmitted over an
(c) (d) π
π additive white Gaussian noise (AWGN)
GATE-2015 channel. The received signal is r(t) = s(t) + n(t)
Ans. (a) : In DM to prevent slope overload - where n(t) is additive white Gaussian noise
∆ ∂m ( t ) N
≥ with power spectral density 0 . The received
Ts dt max 2
∆ signal is passed through a filter with impulse
≥ A m ωm response h(t). Let Es and Eh denote the energies
Ts
of the pulse s(t) and the filter h(t), respectively.
Am × 2π × 2 × 103 = 0.1 × 20,000
When the signal to noise ratio (SNR) is
1
∴ Am = maximized at the output of the filter (SNRmax),
2π which of the following holds?
1 2E
189. A source emits bit 0 with probability and bit (a) E s = E h ; SNR max = s
3 N0
2
1 with probability . The emitted bits are Es
3 (b) E s = E h ; SNR max =
communicated to the receiver. The receiver 2N 0
decides for either 0 or 1 based on the received
value R. It is given that the conditional density 2E s
(c) E s > E h ; SNR max =
functions of R as N0
1 2E h
 , −3≤r ≤1 (d) E s < E h ; SNR max =
f R/0 (r) =  4 and N0
0, otherwise
GATE-2016
1 Ans. (a) : The impulse response of the filter is same on
 , −1 ≤ r ≤ 5
f R/1 (r) =  6 the signal so Es = Eh
0, otherwise
2E 2E
The minimum decision error probability is SNR = s = h
N0 N0
1
(a) 0 (b) 191. A binary baseband digital communication
12
1 1 system employs the signal
(c) (d)  1
9 6 ,0 ≤ t ≤ Ts

GATE-2015 p ( t ) =  Ts
Ans. (d) : The conditional density function for - 0, otherwise

1
 −3 ≤ x ≤ 1 for transmission of bits. The graphical
fR / 0 ( r ) =  4 representation of the matched filter output y(t)
 0 otherwise for this signal will be
GATE-2017
Ans. (b) : For a pulse which is free from inter symbol
interference (ISI), if P(t) is having spectrum P(f)
∞
Then, ∑ P ( f − kR ) = constant
k =−∞
s
GATE-2016 Rs = 2 k sps
Ans. (c) : So, only option (b) satisfied this condition for given Rs.
193. Which one of the following statements about
differential pulse code modulation (DPCM) is
true?
(a) The sum of message signal sample with its
prediction is quantized.
(b) The message signal sample is directly
quantized, and its prediction is not used.
(c) The difference of message signal sample and
a random signal is quantized.
• Convolution of two pulse with equal width = (d) The difference of message signal sample with
triangular. Since the convolution of two rectangle pulse its prediction is quantized.
is always triangular with width equal 2Ts equal to the GATE-2017
sum of the duration of two rectangle pulse. Ans. (d) : The difference of message signal sample with
its prediction is quantized in differential pulse code
192. In a digital communication system, the overall
modulation (DPCM) System.
pulse shape p(t) at the receiver before the
sampler has the Fourier transform P(f). If the
symbols are transmitted at the rate of 2000
symbols per second, for which of the following
cases is the inter symbol interference zero?
194. In binary frequency shift keying (FSK), the E=3
given signal waveforms are
u 0 ( t ) = 5cos ( 20000πt ) ;0 ≤ t ≤ T and
u1 ( t ) = 5cos ( 22000πt ) ;0 ≤ t ≤ T,
Where T is the bit-duration interval and t is in
seconds, Both u0(t) and u1(t) are zero outside
the interval 0 ≤ t ≤ T. With a marched filter
(correlator) based receiver, the smallest
positive value of T (in milliseconds) required to
have u0(t) and u1(t) uncorrelated is
(a) 0.25 ms (b) 0.5 ms
(c) 0.75 ms (d) 1.0 ms
GATE-2017
Ans. (b) : Given,
u0(t) = 5 cos (20000πt)
196. A PCM system uses Nyquist sampler, a
u1(t) = 5 cos (22000πt) uniform quantizer followed by a 5 bit binary
f m2 = 11000 Hz encoder. The bit rate is 50 Mbps. The
maximum message bandwidth for which the
2π f m1 = 20000 πt system operates satisfactorily is
f m1 = 10000 Hz (a) 5 kHz (b) 5 MHz
Uncorrelation condition for FSK (c) 10 kHz (d) 10 MHz
TSGENCO AE-2015
R
f m2 − f m1 = n b Ans. (b) : Given,
2 n = 5, Rb = 50 Mbps
Rb As we know Bit rate Rb = nfs
11000 – 1000 = n
2 50
f s = ×106
R b (max) = 2000 bits/sec (∵ n = 1) 5
Minimum bit duration interval fs = 10MHz
1 f
Tb(min) = Bandwidth (BW) = s
R b(max) 2
10
1 = ×106
= 2
2000
BW = 5MHz
Tb (min) = 0.5 ms
197. Which of the following has same probability of
195. A single bit, equally likely to be 0 and 1, is to be error?
sent across an additive white Gaussian noise (a) BPSK and QAM (b) BPSK and ASK
(AWGN) channel with power spectral density (c) BPSK and QPSK (d) BPSK and PAM
No/2. Binary signaling, with 0 → p(t) and 1 → Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017
q(t), is used for the transmission, along with an Ans. (d) : BPSK and PAM has same probability of
optimal receiver that minimizes the bit-error error. BPSK represent binary number while pulse
probability. modulation represent in analog form.
Let ϕ1(t), ϕ2(t), form an orthonormal signal set. 198. A speech signal occupying the bandwidth of
If we choose p(t) = ϕ1(t) and q(t) = –ϕ1(t), we 300 Hz to 3 kHz is converted into PCM format
would obtain a certain bit-error probability Pb. for use in digital communication. If the
If we keep p(t) = ϕ1(t), but take sampling frequency is 8 kHz and each sample
q(t) = E ϕ 2 (t), for what value of E would we quantized into 256 levels, then the output bit
obtain the same bit-error probability Pb? rate will be
(a) 0 (b) 3 (a) 3 kb/s (b) 8 kb/s
(c) 1 (d) 2 (c) 256 kb/s (d) 64 kb/s
GATE-2019 Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017
1 Ans. (d) : Given,
Ans. (b) : P(0) = P (1) = fs = 8 kHz, 2n = 256
2 2n = 28
for probability of error to be same
d1 = d2 n=8
Bit rate Rb = nfs= 8 × 8×103
2 = E +1
4=E+1 Rb = 64 kbps
199. An analog signal m(t) is confined to range (–mp, Ans. (b) : Given,
mp) this range is divided in L zones, on fm = 4kHz , n = 8
quantizing the analog signal, the mean square fs = 2fm = 8kHz
quantizing error is
Bit rate (Rb) = n.fs = 8×8
m 2p m 2p = 64kbps
(a) (b)
3L2 3L ∴The minimum transmission bandwidth
mp mp Rb
(c) 2
(d) BW = = 32kHz
3L 3L 2
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 204. One of the following bandpass digital
Ans. (a) : An analog signal m(t) is confined to range modulation schemes is not suitable for
(–mp, mp) this range is divided in L zone, on quantizing transmission over nonlinear bandpass
the analog signal, the mean square quantizing error is channels:
m 2p (a) FSK (b) ASK
. (c) PSK (d) QFSK
3L2
200. The Hartley – Shannon theorem sets a limit on TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
the Ans. (b) : ASK (Amplitude shift keying) is not suitable
(a) highest frequency that may be sent over a for transmission over non-linear band pass channels.
given channel 205. For M-ary PSK systems, the best trade-off
(b) maximum capacity of a channel with a given between bandwidth efficiency and transmitted
noise level power is given for a value of M equal to
(c) maximum number of coding levels in a (a) 2 (b) 4
channel with a given noise level (c) 8 (d) 16
(d) maximum number of quantizing levels in a TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
channel of a given bandwidth
Ans. (b) : For M-ary PSK systems, the best trade-off
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 between bandwidth efficiency and transmitted power is
Ans. (b) : The Hartley - shannon theorem sets a limits on given for a value of M equal to 4.
maximum capacity of channel with a given noise level.
206. In a linear DM system,
201. Which of the following is worst affected by (a) only granular noise will be present
Noise?
(b) only slope overload noise will be present
(a) PPM (b) PCM
(c) both granular noise and slope overload noise
(c) PWM (d) PAM
can be eliminated
(d) granular noise will be present but slope
Ans. (d) : Pulse amplitude modulation, is a form of overload noise can be avoided by proper
signal modulation where the message information is design.
encoded in the amplitude of a series of signal pulses.
PAM is worst affected by Noise.
Ans. (d) : In linear DM (Delta modulation) system
202. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Probability of error for M-ary FSK decreases granular noise present we cannot eliminate it proper
as M increases completely. While the slope overload noise present but
(b) Probability of error for M-ary PSK decreases it can be eliminated by proper design of the system.
as M increases 207. In PCM, the signal-to-quantisation noise ratio
(c) M-ary FSK requires considerably lesser for a sinusoidal signal quantized using 10-bit
bandwidth in comparison with M-ary PSK PCM is:
(d) Probability of error for M-ary FSK is (a) 62 dB (b) 10 dB
independent of increase in M (c) 60 dB (d) 32 dB
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
Ans. (a) : Probability of error for M-ary FSK decreases Ans. (c) : the Signal to Noise Ratio for
as M increases. PCM system
203. A speech signal band-limited to 4 kHz and peak SNR1 in dB = (1.8 + 6n) dB
voltage varying between +5V and –5V, is For n = 10
sampled at the Nyquist rate. Each sample is SNR2 in dB = 1.8+ 6 (n + 10)
quantized and represented by 8 bits. If the bits SNR2 dB – SNR1 dB = 60 dB
0 and 1 are transmitted using bipolar pulses,
the minimum bandwidth required for 208. The quantization noise power Nq (Mean
distortion free transmission is squared value) of the quantization error, with
(a) 64 kHz (b) 32 kHz usual notation will be:
(c) 8 kHz (d) 4 kHz Vp2 Vp2
(a) (b)
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 2 3M 2
3 2 δ2 Ans. (b) : CDPD technology features-
(c) M (d) It utilizes or seizes 30 kHz. Channel from existing
2 12
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 AMPS/GSM networks for transmitting data at 19.2
kbps. The net data rate is 9.2 kbps due to large amount
Ans. (d) : The quantization noise power of the of overhead.
δ2 213. Obtain the phase states of the carrier when the
quantization error (Nq) = , where δ = step size.
12 bit stream 1001101100 is applied to a QPSK
209. For a BPSK modulator with a carrier modulator
frequency of 70 MHz and an input bit rate of (a) 00, 900, 1800, 1800, 2700
10 Mbps, the minimum Nyquist bandwidth will (b) 900, 900, 1800, 00, 2700
be: (c) 2700, 900, 00, 1800, 900
(a) 05 MHz (b) 10 MHz (d) 1800, 900, 1800, 2700,00
(c) 30 MHz (d) 60 MHz TNPSC AE- 2019
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 Ans. (d) : In addition to the low probability of error,
Ans. (b) : Given fc = 70MHz, Rb = 10Mbps another important goal is the efficient utilization of the
R bandwidth of the channel. So bandwidth conserving
fLSB= fc – b modulation scheme is used called as Quadric phase shift
2
Keying(QPSK).
= 70 – 5
In particular, phase of carrier takes on one of four equally
= 65 MHz
R spaced values, such as π , 3π 5π and 7π .
4 4' 4' 4
fUSB = fc + b
2 214. Twenty four different message signals each
= 70 + 5 = 75MHz band limited to 4 kHz are to be multiplexed
Bandwidth BW = fUSB –fLSB with FDM-SSB modulation. The minimum
= 75 –65 band width required is,
BW= 10MHz (a) 48 kHz (b) 192 kHz
210. To overcome slope overload problem which (c) 96 kHz (d) 120 kHz
type of integrator is used in delta modulation? TNPSC AE- 2019
(a) Fixed slope integrator Ans. (c) : Total signal B.W. = 24 × 4 × 103 = 96 kHz
(b) Variable slope integrator FDM system is used for continuous signals such as AM
(c) Linear slope integrator and FM signals.
(d) Bipolar integrator 215. The transmission bandwidth required for a
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II PCM signal (with 4 kHz maximum) input
Ans. (b) : A solution to this slope overload issue is an signal and 8 bit encoding) is
adaptive delta modulator (ADM). In this (a) 32 kHz (b) 64 kHz
implementation of an ADM slope overload is (c) 4 kHz (d) 8 kHz
eliminated by using digital logic to adjust the step size TNPSC AE- 2019
of the integrator used to construct the reference voltage Ans. (a) : Bandwidth of PCM signal depends on the bit
signal. rate and the pulse shape.
211. MSK (Minimum Shift Keying) is an orthogonal The PCM signal is transmitted through a transmission
FSK scheme that gets its name from the fact line or co-axial cable and therefore the range
that transmission is limited .
(a) The phase shift is minimum 2nf m
BW = = nf m
(b) The error probability is minimum 2
(c) The transmission power required is minimum = 8 × 4 × 103
(d) The transmission bandwidth required is = 32 kHz
minimum 216. The PSD of the Manchester line code
(a) may or may not have zero null depending on
Nagaland PSC, CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
choice of pulse
MPPSC, Forest Service Exam. -2014
(b) has the factor P(w)
Ans. (a) : Minimum shift keying is sometimes also
(c) does not have dc null
referred as fast FSK. It is so called because frequency
spacing used only half as much as that used in (d) has a dc null
conventional non-coherent frequency shift keying. TNPSC AE- 2019
212. For cellular Digital Packet Data systems, Ans. (d): In telecommunication and data storage,
channel Data Rate is manchester code is a line code in which the encoding of
(a) 18,300 bps (b) 19,200 bps each data bit is either low then high, or high then low,
(c) 17,500 bps (d) 20,100 bps for equal time. It is a self-clocking signal with no DC
TNPSC AE- 2019 component.

217. What is the bit duration of a 2.5 G bits/signal 221. Match the following
(a) 2.5 ns (b) 1 ns  0.6E 
(c) 0.4 ns (d) 0.1 ns 1
(A) ASK system 1. Pc = er fc  
TNPSC AE- 2019 2  N 0 
1 1  E 
Ans. (c) : R b = (B) BPSK system 2 Pc = er fc 
Tb 
2  4N 0 
1
The bit duration = = 0.4n sec. 1  E 
2.5G (C) BFSK system 3. Pc = er fc  
218. The overall process of truncating, quantizing 2  N 0 
and coding the coefficients of a transformed Digital modulation system Vs probabilities of
subimage is called as systems
(a) bit allocation (b) vector allocation
Code-
(c) magnitude allocation (d) byte allocation
TNPSC AE- 2019 a b c
(a) 3 2 1
Ans. (a) : The overall process of truncation quantizing
and coding the coefficients of a transformed subimage (b) 1 2 3
is called as bit allocation. (c) 2 3 1
The first step in compressing on image is to segregate (d) 3 1 2
the image data into different classes. TNPSC AE- 2019
Depending on the importance of the data it contains DRDO-2008
each class is allocated a portion of the total bit budget,
such that the compressed image has the minimum 1  E 
possible distortion. Ans. (c) : ASK system PC = erfc  
2  4N 0 
219. The bit error probability for GMSK is given by
1  E 
1  2vE b   2vE b  BPSK system P = erfc  
(a) Pe =   (b) Pe = Q   C
2
2  N 0   N 0   N 0 
2vE b  2vE b  1  0.6E 

(c) Pe = (d) Pe = Q 2  BFSK system PC = erfc  
 2
N0  N 0   4N 0 
TNPSC AE- 2019 222. Delta modulation and pulse code modulation
Ans. (b) : The bit error probability for GMSK have a threshold Pe, (Considering the impact of
errors in various digits).
 2vE b 
Pe = Q   (a) 10-4 and 10-1 respectively
 N 0  (b) 10-4 and 10-4 respectively
Q→ Q-function (c) 10-1 and 10-1 respectively
Eb → energy per bit (d) 10-1 and 10-4 respectively
No → PSD of white noise. TNPSC AE- 2019
220. The number of samples in a vector is called the Ans. (d) : A delta modulation is an analog-to-digital and
dimension L of the vector quantizer. The rate digital–to–analog signal conversion technique used for
R of the vector quantizer is defined as transmission of voice information where quality is not
(a) R = log n2/L bits/sample of primary important.
(b) R = log n.L bits/sample Delta modulation and pulse code modulation
log n2 have a threshold Pe = 10 −1 and10 −4 respectively.
(c) R = bits/sample
L
(d) R = log n/L bits / sample 223. Polar signaling will rule out the use of
TNPSC AE- 2019 transformers, since
(a) it has zero PSD at dc
Ans. (c) : Vector quantization is a classical quantization
technique from signal processing that allows the (b) it is not bandwidth efficient
modeling of probability density functions by the (c) it is more error prone
distribution of prototype vectors. (d) it has non zero PSD at dc
The number of samples in a vector is called the TNPSC AE- 2019
dimension L of the vector quantizer. The rate R of the Ans. (d) : Polar signaling-
vector quantizer is define as There are two methods of polar signaling. They are
log n2 (1) Polar NRZ
R= bits/sample.
L (2) Polar RZ

Polar NRZ- In this type of Polar signaling, a High 229. ASK modulated signal has the bandwidth
in data is represented by a positive pulse, While low in (a) Same as bandwidth of baseband signal
data is represented by a negative pulse. (b) Half the bandwidth of baseband signal
Polar RZ – In this type of Polar signaling a High (c) Double the bandwidth of baseband signal
in data, though represented by a Mark pulse, its duration (d) None of the above
to is less than the symbol bit duration. Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
224. The probability of error for a DPSK system is, Ans. (a) : ASK signal modulation technique has the
(with referring to noise power spectral density) same bandwidth of base band signal.
 E   E  230. Pulse communication system that is inherently
(a) exp  − b  (b) exp  − b  highly immune to noise is
 η   η 
(a) PCM (b) PAM
1  E  1 E  (c) PPM (d) PWM
(c) exp  − b  (d) exp  b  Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
2  η 2 η TNPSC AE-2013
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (a) : Pulse communication system that is
TNPSC Manager (Engg.) – 2015
inherently highly immune to noise. Hence among the
RPSC Lect.2011 given option only PCM is a digital modulation system.
Ans. (c) : DPSK is called non-coherent version of PSK. 231. Equalization in digital communication
It doesn’t need any synchronous carrier at demodulator.
(a) Reduces inter symbol interference
Input sequence of binary bits is modified such that next
bit depends on previous bit. (b) Removes distortion caused due to channel
The Probability of error for a DPSK system is (c) Is done using linear filters
(d) All of the above
1  E  Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
= exp  − b 
2  η Ans. (d) : In digital communication, the equalizer’s
225. The probability of error is minimum for purpose it to reduce intersymbol interference to allow
(a) PSK (b) ASK recovery of the transmit symbols. It may be a simple
(c) FSK (d) MSK linear filter or a complex algorithm..
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II 232. Zero forced equalizers are used for
Ans. (a) : The probability of error is minimum for (a) Reducing ISI to zero
phase shift keying (PSK). (b) Sampling
(c) Quantization
226. The most useful feature of MSK is
(a) Phase continuity (d) None of the above
(b) Frequency continuity Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
(c) Amplitude continuity Ans. (a) : Zero forced equalizers are used for reducing
(d) Pulse continuity ISI to zero. Zero forcing equalizers refers to a form of
linear equalization algorithm used in communication
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II system which applies the inverse of the frequency
Ans. (a) : The most useful feature of MSK is phase response of the Channel.
continuity. Minimum Shift Keying modulation is the
most widely used digital modulation technology. 233. The advantage of π/4 QPSK compared to
conventional QPSK is ?
227. Pulse shaping is done
(a) to control inter symbol interference (a) π/4 QPSK requires less bandwidth compared
to conventional QPSK
(b) by limiting the bandwidth of transmission
(c) after line coding and modulation of signal (b) π/4 QPSK produces lower envelope variation
compared to conventional QPSK
(d) all of the above
(c) π/4 QPSK receiver design is simple compared
to conventional QPSK
Ans. (d) : Pulse shaping is done to control inter symbol (d) There is no advantage
interference and by limiting the band width of
transmission. Pulse shaping is done after line coding
and modulation of signal. Ans. (c) : π/4 QPSK receiver design is simple compared
228. The criterion used for pulse shaping to avoid to conventional QPSK. It is the advantage of π/4 QPSK
ISI is compared to conventional QPSK.
(a) Nyquist criterion (b) Quantization 234. The advantage of differential PSK (DPSK) over
(c) Sample and hold (d) PLL coherent PSK is
(a) DPSK requires less bandwidth compared
coherent PSK
Ans. (a) : The Nyquist ISI criterion is commonly used (b) DPSK receiver design is simple compared to
criterion for evalution. Because it relates the frequency coherent PSK
specturm of the transmitter signal to intersymbol (c) DPSK Bit Error rate is lower than coherent
interference. Ex-Sine shaped filter. PSK
(d) For same bandwidth, DPSK bit rate is higher 238. Which modulation scheme would you suggest
compared to coherent PSK for high speed data transmission over a fading
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009 channel?
Ans. (b) : The advantage of differential PSK (DPSK) (a) MSK (b) BPSK
over coherent PSK is DPSK receiver design is simple as (c) FSK (d) OFDM
compared to coherent PSK. ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
235. For a BER of 10-5, which modulation scheme Ans. (d) : For fading channel, OFDM (Orthogonal
will require minimal power? frequency division multiplexing) scheme is used.
(a) QPSK (b) 8-PSK Advantage of OFDM
(c) 16-PSK (d) 16-QAM
• By dividing the channel into narrow band flat fading
sub-channels, OFDM is more resistant.
Ans. (a) : BER (Bit Error Rate) = 10-5
• Makes efficient use of spectrum by allowing overlap.
Which is very less, from given option, QPSK
(Quadrature phase shift keying) modulation scheme will • Robust against ISI (inter symbol interference).
require minimal power. 239. What is the maximum data rate that can be
236. Which of the following modulation scheme is transmitted using a QPSK modulation with a
most bandwidth efficient? roll-off factor of 0.2 for a 36 MHz
(a) AM (b) FM transponder?
(c) PM (d) SSB-SC (a) 7.2 Mbps (b) 30 Mbps
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 (c) 43.2 Mbps (d) 60 Mbps
Ans. (d) : SSB-SC (Single side band-suppressed ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
carrier) modulation scheme is most bandwidth efficient. Ans. (d) : Given,
237. Identify the modulation schemes for the shown BW = 36 MHz
signal constellation diagrams roll-off factor (α) = 0.2
Rb
BW = (1 + α )
log 2 M
Rb
(1 + 0.2 ) [∵M = 4,for QPSK ]
36 ×106 =
2
(a) (a) QPSK (b) BPSK (c) QAM Rb = 60×106 bps
(b) (a) OQPSK (b) QAM (c) QPSK = 60 Mbps
(c) (a) QPSK (b) OQPSK (c) MSK 240. 500 Bytes of data needs to be transmitted from
(d) (a) OQPSK (b) QPSK (c) MSK an UART every 100ms. What should be the
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 minimum transmission baud rate of UART,
Ans. (c) : (a) QPSK (Quadrature phase shift keying)- assuming 1 start bit, 8 data bits and 2 stop bits?
(a) 50000 (b) 55000
(c) 40000 (d) 45000
Baud rate
Ans. (b) : Bit rate =
No.of bits
500 bits of data processed by UART in 100 ms.
(b) OQPSK (off-set Quadrature Phase shift keying)- Then
500
Bit rate (Rb) = = 5 kbps
100 × 10−3
Total no. of bits = Start bit + Stop bit + Data bit
= 8 + 2+1 = 11
Baud rate = No. of bits × Rb (bit rate)
= 11 × 5
= 55 kbps = 55000 bps
(c) MSK (minimum shift keying)- 241. A coherent QPSK demodulator is required on
ground for receiving data from a LEO satellite.
What should be optimum order of PLL in the
carrier phase tracking loop?
(a) 1st order (b) 2 nd order
rd
(c) 3 order (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) : A 3rd order in the carrier phases tracking loop Average energy of 4-PSK-
is required for a coherent demodulator for receiving 2+2+2+2
data from on LEO satellite. EPSK(Avg) = =2
4
242. Following constellation diagram represents : Average energy of 4 - PAM-
9 +1+ 9 +1
E PAM(Avg) = =5
4
E PAM(Avg) 5
Ratio = = = 2.5
E PSK (Avg) 2
(a) 16 PSK (b) 16 QAM 245. Identify the modulation schemes for the shown
(c) 16 APSK (d) All of above signal constellation diagram
Ans. (b) : The given constellation diagram represents
16-QAM (16-Quadrature Amplitude Modulation).
It is a combination of both AM and PM modulation
techniques. QAM is better than QPSK in data carrying
capacity. (a) ASK (b) MSK
(c) FSK (d) QAM
243. The information rate to be transmitted is 900 ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
bits /sec, FEC is 3/4, the symbol rate for QPSK
Ans. (b) : The signal constellation diagram show MSK
modulation scheme is :
modulation scheme.
(a) 225 symbols/sec (b) 450 symbols/sec
246. Which of the following modulation scheme
(c) 600 symbols/sec (d) 675 symbols/sec requires minimum power for transmission?
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 (a) QPSK (b) 8-PSK
Ans. (c) : Given, Bit rate Rb= 900 bits/sec (c) 16-QAM (d) 64-QAM
3 ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
FEC = Ans. (a) : QPSK requires minimum power for
4
The symbol rate for QPSK modulation transmission (lowest n = 4)
247. A 70 MHz carrier is QPSK modulated by a
Rb 1
RS = . 1.544 Mbps T1 data stream. The transmitter
log 2 (M) FEC employs a raised-cosine filter with α = 0.2.
900 4 What is the transmitted bandwidth of the
RS = . (M = 4 for QPSK) signal?
log 2 (4) 3 (a) 3705.6 kHz (b) 1852.8 kHz
R S = 600 Symbols / sec (c) 308.8 kHz (d) 926.4 kHz
244. Consider a 4-PSK constellation with points Ans. (d) : Given:
{ }
2,j 2, – 2, –j 2 and a 4-PAM constellation α = 0.2, fc = 70 MHz
Rb = 1.544 Mbps
{–3, –1,1,3} . Ifall the points in the R
constellation occur with equal probability, the BW = b (1 + α )
2
ratio of average energy of 4-PAM signal to that 1.544
of 4-PSK signal is: = (1 + 0.2)
(a) 1 (b) 1.25 2
BW = 0.9264 MHz = 926.41 kHz
(c) 2.5 (d) 5
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018 248. Which of the following is not true?
(a) MPEG-4 is a source coding technique
Ans.(c):
(b) Channel coding gives coding gain at the
expense of bandwidth
(c) Source coding/decoding is done to remove
errors
(d) Concatenated coding gives usually good
performance
Ans. (c) : Source coding/decoding is done for data
compression. For efficient transmission, channel coding
is done to reduce probability of error. It does not
remove errors.
249. A signal m1 (t) is band limited to 3.6 kHz and Ans.(b): Given,
the three other signals m2(t), m3(t) and m4(t) Rb = 64 kbps
are band limited to 1.2 kHz each, and these Transmission Bandwidth of QPSK
signals are transmitted by means of TDM.
2R b
Then, what will be the transmission bandwidth BT =
of the channel. log 2 M
(a) 7.2 kHz (b) 14.4 kHz 2R b
(c) 3.6 kHz (d) 2.4 kHz = (M = 4 for QPSK)
log 2 4
BT = Rb
Ans. (a) : Given,
Total Bandwidth required per channel
f m1 = 3.6kHz
R R 40
f m2 = f m3 = f m4 = 1.2kHz ( BW )T = b +  b × 
2  2 100 
Rb = nfs, n = 1 (Let) (BW)T = 0.7 Rb
Rb = 2f m1 + 2(f m2 + f m3 + f m4 ) 36 × 106
Number of channels (C) =
= 2×3.6 +2×3.6 0.7R b
Rb = 14.4kHz
36 ×106
Rb =
Bandwidth, BW = 0.7 × 64 ×103
2 = 803.57
14.4
BW = C ≃ 800
2
253. Hamming codes are used for
BW = 7.2 kHz (a) Burst error correction
250. The modulation normally used with the digital (b) Signal error correction
data is (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) FM (b) AM (d) None of the above
(c) SSB (d) QPSK ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 Ans.(b): Hamming codes are used for signal error
correction, It can defect up to two bit errors and correct
Ans. (d) : QPSK (Quadrature phase shift keying) one-bit errors.
modulation system is normally used with the digital
254.
data.
251. The function of a strobe function in digital
system is
(a) To reset memory register
(b) To check the functioning of a logic gate
(c) To avoid race problem
(d) To tri-state the output of the register
Ans. (a) : The function of a strobe function in digital
system is to reset memory register. Strobe is a signal
that is sent that validates data or other signals on Shown signal space diagram is for
adjacent parallel lines. (a) Quadrature QPSK
In memory technology, the column address strobe (b) Binary FSK
(CAS) and Row address strobe (RAS) signals are used (c) Bi-Phase PSK
to tell a dynamic RAM that an address is a column or (d) MSK
row address. ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016
252. A satellite system employs QPSK modulation Ans.(b): For binary ‘1’→S1(t) = Acos 2πf t
H
with 40% excess bandwidth per carrier
including guard band. The voice channels use For binary ‘0’→ S2(t) A cos 2πf L t
64 kbps PCM coding. The no. of channels
supported by 36 MHz bandwidth of the
transponder in bandwidth limited case will be
(a) 1000 (b) 800
(c) 900 (d) 600
Orthogonal 3-FSK signal diagram 259. What is the advantage of Offset QPSK
(OQPSK) compared to conventional QPSK?
(a) Constant envelope
(b) Bandwidth efficiency
(c) Simple demodulator
(d) all of above
Ans. (a) : Constant Envelope is the main advantage of
offset QPSK (OQPSK) compared to conventional
QPSK.
260. The minimum sampling rate for a voice
channel is
255. In a band limited channel higher bit rate can (a) 8 kHz (b) 16 kHz
be transmitted with (c) 20 kHz (d) 24 kHz
(a) BPSK (b) QPSK RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI - 05/11/2019
(c) FM (d) FSK Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 Ans. (a) : The bandwidth allocated for a single voice
Ans. (b) : In a band limited channel higher bit rates can frequency transmission channel is usually 4kHz,
be transmitted with QPSK (Quadrature phase shift including guard bands, allowing a sampling rate of 8
keying). kHz to be used as the basis of the pulse-code
modulation system used for the digital PSTN.
\• QPSK is a form of phase shift keying in which two
bits are modulated at once, selecting one of four 261. The modulation techniques used to convert
possible carrier phase shifts (0º, 90º, 180º and 270º). analog signal into digital signal are
(a) Pulse code modulation
256. The following demodulator scheme requires
(b) Delta modulation
E
least b (c) Adaptive delta modulation
N0 (d) All of the above
(a) BPSK (b) FSK DMRC AM S & T - 2020
(c) ASK (d) QAM Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 Ans. (a) : The most common technique to change on
Ans. (a) : analog signal to digital data is called pulse code
Eb modulation (PCM). A PCM encoder has the following
depends on probability of error. three process;
N0 (a) Sampling
BPSK (Binary phase shift keying) has minimum (b) Quantization
probability of error among BPSK, FSK, ASK, QAM. (c) Encoding
• BPSK system modulates at the rate of 1 bit/symbol 262. In digital transmission, the modulation
257. Which of the following digital modulations can technique that requires minimum bandwidth is
be decoded non-coherently? (a) Delta modulation (b) PCM
(a) QAM (b) APSK (c) DPCM (d) PAM
(c) BPSK (d) BFSK Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020 Ans. (a) : Delta modulation- As the bit coding
Ans. (d) : Binary frequency shift keying (BFSK) parameter increases the number of quantization level of
digital modulation can be decoded non-coherently. In the quantizer will increase. Therefore design of the
BFSK, bit rate and symbol rate are the same and the quantizer becomes more complex.
information is encoded in the variation of the frequency 263. The digital modulation scheme in which the
of the carrier. step size is not fixed is
258. The granular noise can be reduced by (a) Delta modulation
(a) Increasing the step size (b) Adaptive delta modulation
(b) Increasing input signal amplitude (c) DPCM
(c) Reducing the step size (d) PCM
(d) Reducing input signal amplitude Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
TNPSC AE-2014 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (c) : Granular or Ideal noise occurs when the step • In ADM has variable step size.
size is too large compared to small variation in the input • For small variation of signal ADM is used small step
signal. size so that granular noise reduces and large variation
The solution to this problem is to make the step size of signal ADM is used large step size so that slope
small. over load distortion reduces.
264. Eye pattern is 269. Coherent detection of binary ASK signal
(a) Is used to study ISI requires
(b) Cannot be seen on CRO (a) Timing synchronization
(c) Do not have a fixed shape (b) Amplitude synchronization
(d) Used to measure the bandwidth (c) Phase synchronization
(d) Frequency synchronization
Ans. (a) : Eye pattern is a pattern displayed on the
Ans. (a, c) : Coherent detection of binary ASK signal
screen of a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) the shape of
requires timing synchronization and phase
this pattern resembles with the shape of human eye. Eye synchronization.
pattern is a practical way to study the intersymbol
interference and its effects on a PCM or data 270. The probability of error of DPSK is______than
that of BPSK.
communication.
(a) Higher (b) Lower
265. Characteristics of Matched filter are (c) Same (d) Not predictable
(a) Matched filter is used to maximize signal to Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
noise ratio even for non Gaussian noise Ans. (a) : Differential phase-shift keying (DPSK) and
(b) They are used for signal generation differential encoded PSK (DEPSK) are modifications of
(c) It gives the output as signal energy in the BPSK. The probability of error. of DPSK is higher than
presence of noise that of BPSK.
(d) Shows ISI 271. The binary waveform used to generate BPSK
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II signal is encoded in
Ans. (a) : Characteristics of Matched the filter - (a) Manchester coding
• Matched filter is used to maximize signal to noise (b) Differential coding
ratio even for non-Gaussian noise. (c) Bipolar NRZ format
• It is used for signal detection. (d) NRZ
• It gives the output as signal energy in the absence of
noise. Ans. (c) : The binary wave from used to generate BPSK
signal is encoded in bipolar NRZ (Non-return-to-zero)
266. The optimum filter for white Gaussian noise is format.
(a) Low pass filter (b) Base band filter 272. The frequency shifts in the BFSK usually lies in
(c) Matched filter (d) Bessel filter the range
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II (a) 50 to 1000 Hz (b) 100 to 2000 Hz
Ans. (c) : The matched filter is the optimal linear filter (c) 200 to 500 Hz (d) 500 to 10 Hz
for maximizing the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) in the Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
presence of additive stochastic noise. Ans. (a) : Frequency shift in the BFSK-Range in 50 to
267. Roll - off factor is defined as 1000 Hz.
(a) The bandwidth occupied beyond the Nyquist Binary phase-shift keying is a digital modulation
Bandwidth of the filter scheme that conveys data by changing, or modulating,
two different phase of a reference signal.
(b) The performance of the filter or device
(c) Aliasing effect 273. The spectrum of BFSK may be viewed as the
sum of
(a) Two ASK spectra (b) Two PSK spectra
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II (c) Two FSK spectra (d) Two QPSK
Ans. (a) : The roll-off factor, is a measure of the excess Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
bandwidth of the filter, i.e. the bandwidth occupied Ans. (a) : The spectrum of BFSK may be viewed as the
1 sum of two ASK spectra.
beyond the Nyquist bandwidth of .
2T 274. The maximum bandwidth is occupied by
268. Advantage of Nyquist criterion is (a) ASK (b) BPSK
(a) Transmitting the signal with ISI (c) FSK (d) QPSK
(b) Reduction in transmission bandwidth Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(c) Increase in transmission bandwidth Ans. (c) : Frequency shift keying system is most
(d) Only used for sampling complex, requires large bandwidth for its transmission
but has relatively high SNR.
275. Minimum shift keying is similar to
Ans. (b) : The Nyquist rate of sampling represents the (a) Continuous phase frequency shift keying
minimum rate sampling so that the original signal can (b) Binary phase shift keying
be recovered from its sampled version. (c) Binary frequency shift keying
Advantage of Nyquist criterion is reduction in (d) QPSK
transmission bandwidth. Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
Ans. (a) : Minimum shift keying is similar to 280. In a PCM system the maximum audio input
continuous phase frequency shift keying or minimum frequency is 6 kHz. The minimum sampling
shift keying is a special type of continuous PFSK. Its rate required is
peak frequency deviation is equal to 1/4 the bit rate. (a) 6 kHz (b) 9 kHz
276. In MSK, the difference between the higher and (c) 12 kHz (d) 18 kHz
lower frequency is TNPSC AE - 2018
(a) Same as the bit rate Ans. (c) : Minimum sampling rate = 2 × input
frequency
(b) Half of the bit rate
fs = 2 fm
(c) Twice of the bit rate
fs = 2 × 6
(d) Four time the bit rate
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II f s = 12 kHz
Ans. (b) : In MSK, the difference between the higher 281. For the same energy per bit Eb, probability of
and lower frequency is identical to half the bit rate. Bit error Pe, (comparing coherent BPSK,
277. The technique that may be used to reduce the coherent BFSK, DPSK and Noncoherent
BFSK)
side band power is
(a) is least for DPSK
(a) MSK
(b) is least for coherent BFSK
(b) BPSK (c) is least for coherent BPSK
(c) Gaussian minimum shift keying (d) is least for non coherent BFSK
(d) BFSK TNPSC AE - 2018
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II Ans. (c) : For the same energy per bit Eb, coherent
Ans. (c) : The biggest advantage of using GMSK is thatBPSK error Pe, (comparing coherent BPSK coherent
it reduces the sideband power, reducing out-of-band BFSK, DPSK & Noncoherent BFSK) is least for co-
interference between signal carriers in adjacent herent BPSK.
frequency channels. 282. Amplitude shift keying is not widely used,
GMSK provides high spectral efficiency. because
(a) it is too complex
278. Adaptive transform codes is a frequency (b) is more vulnerable to noise as it does not have
domain technique that has been successfully constant envelope
used to encode speech at bit rates in the range (c) it requires higher bandwidth
(a) 9.6 kbps–20 kbps (b) 8.5 kbps–30 kbps (d) it requires more transmitted power for same
(c) 10 kbps–25 kbps (d) 40 kbps–50 kbps Pe, compared to other modulation schemes
TNPSC AE - 2018 TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (a) : Adaptive transform codes in a frequency Ans. (b) : Amplitude shifting key is not widely used
domain technique that has been successfully used to because it is more vulnerable to noise as it does not
have constant envelope. Amplitude shifting key is a
encode speech at bit rates in range 9.6 kbps to 20 kbps.
form of amplitude modulation that represent digital data
279. In QPSK the average probability of bit error in in the amplitude of carrier wave.
AWGN channel is obtained as 283. Multiplying two 16-bit fixed point number will
 2E b  produce a product with up to ________ bits of
(a) Pe QPSK = Q   precision, and the product need to be quantized
 No  back to ________ bits.
 2E b  (a) 31, 16 (b) 18, 16
(b) Pe QPSK = Q 2   (c) 31, 8 (d) 20, 16
 No  TNPSC AE - 2018
 Eb  Ans. (a) : Multiplying two 16-bit fixed point numbers
(c) Pe QPSK = Q   will produce a product with up to 31 bits of precision
 No  and the product need to be quantized back to 16 bits
 2E b  again.
(d) Pe QPSK = Q  1
2 N  284. Choose the incorrect answer connected to Delta
 o 
modulation
TNPSC AE - 2018 (a) Delta modulation is 1 bit DPCM
Ans. (a) : Quardrature phase shift keying (QPSK) is a (b) Delta modulation transmits the derivation of
form of phase shifting keying in which two bit are m (t)
modulated at once. (c) Delta modulation uses a first order predictor
which is nothing but time delay Ts
2E b (d) Delta modulation is unsuitable for television
PeQPSK = Q signals
No
TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (d) : Delta modulation process compress the 290. Time division multiplexing is used when the
present sample value to the previous sample value. data to be transmitted is
based upon the difference amplitude is going to be (a) Slow changing
increased or decreased by step signal. A delta (b) Of small bandwidth
modulation is 1 bit DPCM and suitable for television (c) Slow changing and has a small bandwidth
signal. (d) Fast changing and has a wide bandwidth
285. BPSK stands for Mizoram PSC IOLM 2018-, Paper-III
(a) binary pulse shifting key Ans. (d) : Time division multiplexing is a method of
(b) broad pulse shifting key transmitting and receiving independent signals over a
(c) binary phase shifting key common signal path by means of synchronized switch
(d) bit phase shifting key at each signal appears on the line only a friction of time
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III in an alternating pattern and it is wide bandwidth.
Ans. (c) : BPSK stands for binary phase shifting key. In 291. In high speed TDM, the channels are separated
constellation diagram of BPSK system there are two in the receiver employing
signaling point exist, four minimum distance between (a) OR gate (b) NAND gate
this two point is 2 E B (c) NOR gate (d) AND gate
286. The information to be communicated in a data Ans. (d) : In high speed time division multiplexing
communication system is also called channel are separated in the receiver using AND gate.
(a) message (b) transmission
292. One of the following communication system is
(c) medium (d) protocol analog
Mizoram PSC IOLM 2018-, Paper-III (a) PCM (b) Delta
Ans. (a) : The information to be communicated in the (c) Differential PCM (d) PAM
data communications system is the message. In data Mizoram PSC IOLM 2018-, Paper-III
communication, message is transmitted from one point UPRVUNL AE-19.07.2021, Shift-II
to another via network system. Nagaland PSC-2018, Diploma Paper-II
287. In digital communication system, the data Ans. (d) : PAM (Pulse amplitude modulation) is an
transmission rate is specified in analog pulse modulation scheme in which the amplitude
(a) MHz (b) Bits/sec of train carrier pulse are varied according to the pulse
(c) Bytes/sec (d) Bauds value of message signal.
Mizoram PSC IOLM 2018-, Paper-III 293. Modulation scheme which uses carrier phase
Ans. (b, d) : The data transmission rate is the volume of shifting and synchronous detection to permit
data transmission over a transmission channel or via a two DSB signals to occupy the same frequency
data interface within a specified unit of time. The unit band is called
used the data transmission is bauds or bits/sec. (a) NBFM (b) CDMA
288. For QPSK (c) QAM (d) FDMA
(a) Error rate is lower than 16 MPSK Mizoram PSC IOLM 2018-, Paper-III
(b) Error rate is higher than QASK Ans. (c) :
(c) Signals are in time Quadrature
(d) More-inter symbols interference compared to
MSK
Ans. (d) : QPSK system is equivalent to simulating two
BPSK system in parallel. So there is no difference in bit QAM is the mixture of ASK & PSK
rate error. 294. Consider a binary transmission system with the
For QPSK more-inter symbols interference compared to symbol waveforms s1(t) = A cos ( ωct),
MSK. s2(t) = –A cos( ωct). This modulation format is
289. Digital modulation techniques are used in termed as
satellite communication system, because (a) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
(a) They are easy to handle (b) Frequency Shift Keying
(b) Large bandwidth utilization is possible (c) Phase Shift Keying
(c) They have a spectral efficiency (d) Unipolar Baseband
(d) They are less prone to interference UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
Mizoram PSC IOLM 2018-, Paper-III DRDO-2008
IES-2004 Ans. (c) : In PSK phase shifting keying binary 1 is
Ans. (d) : Digital modulation techniques are used in the represent with carrier signal and binary 0 is represent
satellite communication system because they are less with 180º phase shift carriers.
prones to interference and provide better performances S1 = A cos 2π fc
and correction efficiency is better. S2 = –A cos 2π fc = A cos (2π fct + π)

295. A voice signal of maximum frequency 4 kHz 299. For transmission of normal speech signal, the
and amplitude 1 V is applied to a delta PCM channel needs a bandwidth of
modulator whose bit rate is 20 kbps. What will (a) 64 kHz (b) 8 kHz
be the minimum step size for the delta (c) 4 kHz (d) 2 kHz
modulator with no slop over load error?
TNPSC AE-2008
(a) 1.06 (b) 1.49
(c) 1.25 (d) 1.67 Ans. (a) : For transmission of normal speech signals the
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 PCM channel needs a bandwidth of 64 kHz.
Ans. (c) : Given, fm = 4 kHz, Amax = 1 V 300. Which of the following is not the modulation
To avoid slope overload noise technique
(a) PCM (b) AM
∆
≥ 2π A max f m (c) PSK (d) None of these
Ts
2πA max f m Ans. (a) : Pulse code modulation (PCM) is a digital
∆≥
fs scheme for transmitting analog data. It converts on
2π × 1 × 4 analog signal into digital form. It is not a modulating
∆≥ technique.
20
301. The main advantage of PCM is
8π (a) Less bandwidth
∆≥
20 (b) Less power
∆ ≥ 1.25 (c) Better performance in presence of noise
296. Differential pulse code modulation system (d) Possibility of multiplexing
contains- UPMRC AM-2020
(a) Decoder (b) Prediction filter MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
(c) Bit synchronizer (d) Multiplier Ans. (c) : Pulse - Code modulation is a method used to
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 digitally represented sampled analog signal.
Ans. (b) : In DPCM the difference in amplitude The main advantage of PCM is better performances in
between sample and previous sample. It increases signal presence of noise.
ratio and used predicator filter. 302. The standard data rate of a PCM voice channel
A differential pulse code modulation (DPCM) is a is
signal encoder that uses a base line of pulse code (a) 8 kbps (b) 8 bps
modulation. In differential pulse code modulation subs
(c) 16 bps (d) 64 kbps
tractor, quantizer, decoder, coder, integrator are used.
Ans. (d) : The standard data rate of a PCM voice
channel is 64 kbps.
303. For atmost distortionless reception of signal in
pulse modulation it is required that the speed
should be :
297. A message signal with its amplitude uniformly (a) Equal to the signal frequency
distributed between –2V and +2V is (b) Less than the signal frequency
transmitted by a 8-bit binary PCM system. The (c) Equal to twice the signal frequency
(SNR)q would be
(a) 37.8 dB (b) 49.8 dB (d) More than twice the signal frequency
(c) 43.8 dB (d) 25.8 dB Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 Ans. (c) : For almost distortionless reception of signal
Ans. (b) : SQNR = (1.8+6n) dB on pulse modulation it is required that the speed should
= 1.8 + 6×8 be equal to twice the signal frequency.
304. In time division multiplexing
SQNR = 49.8dB
(a) Time is doubled between bits of a byte
298. For a M-ary frequency shift keying, bandwidth (b) Time slicing at CPU level takes place
required will be given as ––––––if two signal (c) Total time available in the channel is divided
are 20 kHz separated apart from each other. between several users and each users is
(a) M. 40k (b) M. 10k allotted a time slice.
(c) M. 20k (d) M. 80k (d) None of the above
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007
Ans. (a) : For M - ary FSK Ans. (c) : In time division multiplexing total time
Bandwidth = M.2fm = M × 2 × 20 × 103 available in the channel is divided between several users
BW = M. 40k and each users is allotted a time slice.
305. A UART is configured to transmit 8 bit data, 1 16-ary PSK,
start bit and 1 stop bit. The serial data output 2R b
is observed on oscilloscope, which looks like a BW =
log 2 16
square wave with frequency of 9600 Hz. What
is the baud rate and transmitted data? 1
(a) Baud rate = 9600, Data = 55H BW16PSK Rb
2
(b) Baud rate = 19200, Data = 55H
310. The type of modulation used with direct
(c) Baud rate = 19200, Data = FFH sequence spread spectrum
(d) Baud rate = 9600, Data = AAH (a) PSK (b) ASK
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013 (c) FSK (d) MSK
Ans. (b) : Given, RPCS Lect.-2011
fm = 9600Hz Ans. (a) : The entire process is performed by
Baud rate = 2fm multiplying a ratio frequency carrier and a pseudo-noise
= 2×9600 = 19200 (PN) digital signal.
The PN code is modulated onto an information signal
Transmitted data = 55H using several modulation techniques such as quadrature
306. The signal to noise ratio in telemetry should be phase shift-keying (QPSK), binary phase-shift keying
(a) 5 dB (b) 10 dB (BPSK).
(c) 25 dB (d) 60 dB 311. What is the SNR improvement with FSK over
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I ASK in most types of noise environment?
Ans. (d) : Signal to noise ratio is the measurement used (a) 200 to 300 dB (b) 3 to 4 dB
to describe how much desired sound is present in an (c) 10 to 12 dB (d) 0 dB
audio recording. In telemetry SNR is 60 dB. RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
IES-2004
307. The coding system typically used in digital
Ans. (b) : The SNR improvement with FSK over ASK
telemetry is in most types of noise environment is 3 to 4 dB.
(a) PPM (Pulse Position Modulation)
312. Which of the following pulse modulation is
(b) PAM ( Pulse Amplitude Modulation) analog?
(c) PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) (a) PCM (b) Differential PCM
(d) PDM (Pulse Duration Modulation) (c) PWM (d) Delta
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2016 RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016
Ans.(c): Pulse code modulation (PCM) system is UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
typically used in digital telemetry. Ans. (c) : PWM pulse modulation is analog modulation
308. A land line tele-metering system is suitable for Technique.
distance up to about 313. In a PCM system, the signal x(t) = 3sin(100πt)
(a) 1 Km only (b) 10 Km only + 4cos(100πt)V is sampled at the Nyquist rate.
The samples are processed by a uniform
(c) 100 km only (d) any of the above
quantizer with step size 2.5V. The minimum
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO 2012-Paper-I data rate of PCM system (in bits/sec) is
Ans. (a) : A land line tele-metering system in suitable (a) 100 (b) 200
for low distance. Hence land line tele-metering system (c) 300 (d) 400
is suitable for distance 1km only. UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
309. Bandwidth (BW) of 8PSK, 16PSK modulated Ans. (b) : Given signal-
signals are x ( t ) = 3sin (100πt ) + 4cos (100πt ) V
(a) ½ Rb, 2Rb (b) 2/3Rb, Rb
Step size ( ∆ ) = 2.5V
(c) Rb, 2Rb (d) 2/3Rb, 1/2Rb
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II From x(t)-
Signal frequency (fm) = 50 Hz
Ans. (d) : For M- ary PSK – Sampling frequency (NR) = 100Hz
2R b
Bandwidth BW = Vmax = 32 + 42
log 2 M
Vmax = 5V
8-ary PSK,
Vp− p = Vmax − Vmin
2R b
BW = = 5 − ( −5 ) = 10V
log 2 8
Also we know-
2 Vp− p
BW8PSK Rb 2n =
3 ∆
10 319. The demodulation of a delta modulated signal
2n =
2.5 is achieved by :
n=2 (a) Integration
the minimum data rate = n ( N.R ) (b) Differentiation
= 2 × 100 = 200 bits / sec (c) Sampling
(d) Band pass filtering
314 . The quantization noise depends on
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lect.-22.03.2022, Paper-II
(a) Sampling rate
(b) Number of quantization levels
(c) Signal power Ans. (a) : The demodulation of a delta modulated signal
(d) None of these is achieved by integration of modulated signal.
Ans. (b) : Quantization noise results when a continuous
random variable is converted to a discrete one or when a 320. Which of the following shows relationship
discrete random variable is converted to one with fewer between bandwidth and baud rate in a QPSK
level. BW
The quantization noise depends on number of (a) Baud rate = (b) Baud rate = 2BW
2
quantization levels.
BW
315. Four signals m1(t) = cos (ω0t), m2(t) = 0.5cos (c) Baud rate = (d) Baud rate = 4 BW
( ω0t), m3(t) = 2cos (ω0t) and m4(t) = cos(4 ω0t) 4
are multiplexed by time division multiplexing BARC Scientific Officer-2016
system. The commutator speed is Bandwidth(BW)
(a) 2f0 (b) 3f0 Ans. (a) : Baud rate =
2
(c) 4f0 (d) 8f0
321. Signal to noise ratio is highest in:
NIELIT Scientists- 2017
(a) PWM (b) PPM
Ans. (d) : f1 = f0, f2 = f0, f3 = f0 & f4 = 4f0
(c) PAM (d) PPM and PWM
Commutator speed = 2⋅fmax
RRB SSE 01.09.2015 Shit-I
= 2 × 4f0
= 8 f0 Ans. (b) : Signal to noise ratio is highest in PPM.
316. Linear predictive coding is 322. In the digital T1 carrier PCM telephony, the
(a) Time domain coding data rate is:
(b) Frequency domain coding (a) 1.544 Mbps (b) 1.866 Mbps
(c) Space domain coding (c) 2.176 Mbps (d) 8.000 Mbps
(d) None of the above UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2018, 2017 Paper-II TNPSC AE-2018
Ans. (a) : Linear predictive coding is belong to the time Ans. (a):
domain coding. Line Line rate (Mbps) Channel
317. A PWM signal can be generated by T1 1.54 Mbps 24
(a) An astable multivibrator
T2 6.312 Mbps 96
(b) A monostable multivibrator
(c) Integrating a PPM signal T3 44.73 Mbps 672
(d) Differentiating a PPM signal T4 274.17 Mbps 4032
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II 323. The number of bits used in a 4096 level PCM
Ans. (b) : A PWM signal can be generated by a system is:
monostable multivibrator. (a) 12 (b) 16
318. Companding is used in PCM to (c) 20 (d) 10
(a) Reduce bandwidth UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
(b) Reduce power Ans. (a) : The number of quantization level for n-bit
(c) Increase S/N ratio PCM system L= 2n
(d) Get almost uniform S/N ratio Given, L= 4096
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II 2n = 4096
TNPSC AE-2013 2n = 212
Ans. (d) : Companding is used in PCM to get almost
uniform signal to noise ratio. n = 12

324. In FSK the carrier frequency is switched nfs
between_______ extremes. BW =
2
(a) 3 (b) 6
BW1 n1 2
(c) 2 (d) 4 = =
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 BW2 n 2 6
Ans. (c) : In FSK (Frequency shift keying] binary 1 is BW2 = 3BW1
represented with high frequency carrier signal and 329. Quantization of the coefficient –0.1743 to 8 bits
binary zero is represented with low frequency carrier. In given
FSK carrier frequency is switched between 2 extremes. (a) – 22 (b) + 22
325. If link transmits 2000 frames per second, and (c) 23 x 10–7 (d) –23
each slot has 16 bits, then the transmission rate UPMRC AM - 2020
of circuit of TDM is- Ans. (a) : Quantization of the coefficient –0.1743 to 8
(a) 16 kbps (b) 2 kbps bits given – 22.
(c) 8 kbps (d) 32 kbps 330. In _______ the position of a pulse relative to its
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM unmodulated time of occurrence is varied in
Ans. (d) : Given, accordance with the message signal.
Transmit frame rate = 2000 frames/sec (a) PWM (b) PCM
(c) PDM (d) PPM
Number of bits n = 16
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Transmission rate = frame rate × Number of bits
Ans. (d) : In pulse position modulation (PPM) system,
= 2000×16 the position of a pulse relative to its unmodulated time
= 32000 of occurrence is varied in accordance with message
Transmission rate = 32kbps signal.
331. A band-limited signal of finite energy, which
326. In DPCM, the input to the quantizer is has no frequency components higher than f Hz,
quantized by a may be completely recovered from a knowledge
(a) uniform scalar quantizer of its samples taken at the rate of ________.
(b) non-uniform scalar quantizer (a) f/2 samples per second
(c) uniform or non-uniform scalar quantizer (b) 2f samples per second
(d) none of these. (c) 2f samples per minute
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 (d) f/2 samples per minute
NLC GET -24.11.2020
Ans. (b) : The DPCM it implements one of the simplest
compression algorithm. It combine a spatial prediction Ans. (b) : A band-limited signal of finite energy, which
has no frequency components higher than f Hz, may be
loop with a non-uniform quantizer of which completely recovered from a knowledge of its samples
representation level are entropy encoded. taken at the rate of 2f samples per second. fs = 2f Hz
327. In delta modulation, the quantizer is a 332. In ______, a message signal is represented by a
(a) 2-bit quantizer sequence of coded pulses, which is
(b) 4-bit quantizer accomplished by representing the signal in
(c) 1-bit quantizer discrete form in both time and amplitude.
(d) none of these (a) PDM (b) PPM
TRB Poly. Lect. -2012 (c) PCM (d) PAM
Ans. (c) : Delta modulation is used for reduced NLC GET -24.11.2020
bandwidth. It is consider as 1 bit DPCM. Only one Ans. (c) : In pulse code modulation (PCM) system, a
sample is used in DM. message signal is represented by a sequence of coded
328. In PCM, if the number of quantisation levels is pulses, Which is accomplished by representing the
increased from 4 to 64, then the bandwidth signal in discrete form in both time and amplitude.
requirement will approximately be: 333. From the following relative amplitude vs
(a) 4 times (b) 16 times frequency plot, identify the type of noise which
the sections A, B, C and D depict.
(c) 8 times (d) 3 times
UPMRC AM - 2020
Ans. (d) : Given,
L1 = 2n1 = 4
n1 = 2
L 2 =2 n 2 = 64
n2 = 6
δ2 ( 0.005Vi )
(i) Thermal noise 2
(ii) Power line pick up Noise power (N) = = = 0.20 × 10−5 Vi2
(iii) Power supply (EPC) switching noise 12 12
(iv) 1/f noise  S
C = BW log 2  1 + 
A B C D  N
(a) i ii iii iv
 106 
(b) ii i iv iii = 5 ×106 log 2 1 + 
(c) iv ii iii i  4 
(d) iii iv ii i = 5 × 106 × 17.95
ISRO Scientist December, 2017
C ≃ 90 M bits / sec
Ans. (c) :
1 336. In a uniform quantizer, the quantization noise
Section A – Flicker noise or
noise is
f (a) independent of the number of levels of the
Section B – Power line pick up
quantizer
Section C – Power supply (EPC)
switching noise (b) proportional to square of the peak-to-peak
Section D – Thermal noise. voltage range of the quantizer
(c) independent of the peak-to-peak voltage
334. The figure of merit (F) and output of supressed
carrier receiver contains: range of the quantizer
(a) F = 1, quadrature phase component of (d) proportional to square of the number of levels
narrowband noise of the quantizer
(b) F = 0.5, quadrature phase component of BSNL(JTO)-2009
narrowband noise Ans. (b) : The quantization noise
(c) F = 0.5, in-phase component of narrowband
δ2 Vp2−p  Vp − p 
noise = = ∵ δ = n 
(d) F = 1, in-phase component of narrowband 12 12 × 2 2n  2 
noise Hence, In a uniform quantizer, the quantization noise
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
proportional to square of the peak-to-peak voltage range
Ans. (d) : The channel to noise ratio of the DSB-SC
of the quantizer and inversely proportional to number of
modulation system is- quantization levels.
C 2 A c2 P 337. A 2000 bps binary information data signal is
(SNR )C,DSB =
2WN 0 required to be transmitted in half-duplex mode
The output of signal to noise ratio for DSB-SC using BFSK digital modulation technique. If
modulation system- the separation between two carrier frequencies
2 2 is 4000 Hz, then the minimum bandwidth of the
C Ac P
(SNR )O DSB = BFSK signal is
2WN 0 (a) 4 kHz (b) 6 kHz
We obtain the figure of merit of DSB-SC (c) 8 kHz (d) 12 kHz
( SNR )0 ESE-2021
=1
( SNR )c DSB −SC
Ans. (b) : Given,
335. In a binary PCM system, the maximum ( )
Separation frequency f C1 − f C2 = 4000Hz
tolerable error in sample amplitudes is 0.25% Binary information data signal Rb = 2000
of the peak input signal amplitude. The input
Minimum bandwidth of BFSK signal
signal bandwidth is 5 MHz. The minimum rate
of transmission of the PCM coded bits is (
BWBFSK = f C1 − f C2 + R b )
(a) 70 Mbits/sec. (b) 80 Mbits/sec.
= 4000 + 2000
(c) 90 Mbits/sec. (d) 100 Mbits/sec.
BSNL (JTO)-2001 BWBFSK = 6kHz
Ans. (c) : Given that – 338. A data message of 10 ms duration having 4800
Bandwidth (BW) = 5 MHz bits crosses 9 nodes (10 hops) to reach its
δ 0.25 destination. The data rate and total delay for
= Vi
2 100 circuit switched connection (assuming node
δ = 0.005 Vi delays as 1 ms) are respectively,
(a) 240 kbps, 20 ms (b) 240 kbps, 21 ms
V2
Input signal power (s) = i (c) 120 Kbps, 21 ms (d) 480 kbps, 20 ms
2 ESE-2021
Ans.(d) : Given, data = 4800 bits, Node delay = 1ms 343. QPSK system is superior to BPSK system
Data duration = 10ms = 10 ×10–3sec because
(a) its bandwidth is higher than that of BPSK
No. of hops = 10
System
Total Data (b) interchannel interference in QPSK system is
Data rate =
Data duration less than that in BPSK system
(c) bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the
4800 bandwidth of BPSK system
= = 480kbps
10 ×10−3 (d) in QPSK system inter-symbol interference is
Total delay = Number of hops × Node delay +Data improved
duration BSNL (JTO)-2006
= 10×1+10 = 20ms Ans. (c) : QPSK system is superior to BPSK system
339. Which one of the following can be used for the because bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the
detection of the non coherent BFSK signal? bandwidth of BPSK system.
(a) Matched filter BWBPSK
BWQPSK =
(b) Phase-locked loop 2
(c) Envelope detector
344. If analog sampling frequency of a band limited
(d) Product demodulator signal is doubled, then the corresponding
DRDO-2008 digital sampling frequency will be
Ans. (b) : Phase locked loop can be used for the (a) π (b) 2π
detection for the non coherent BFSK signal. (c) π/2 (d) None of these
340. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using ISRO Scientist- May, 2017
a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Ans. (a) : The digital frequency (fd) is related to analog
fcHz. The power spectral density of the frequency (f) through the sampling frequency (fs)
transmitted signal has the first null at the 2πf
normalized frequency digital frequency (fd) =
fs
(a) f − f c Tb = 0 (b) f − f c Tb = 1 When analog sampling is doubled.
(c) f − f c Tb = 2 (d) f − f c Tb = 4 f s = 2f
DRDO-2008
2πf
Ans. (c) : Bandwidth of BPSK (BW) = 2fb digital frequency (fd) =
2f
1 digital frequency (fd) = π
f – fc= 2 ×
Tb 345. Which signaling scheme is most affected by
f − f c Tb = 2 noise?
(a) ASK (b) FSK
341. In a QPSK digital signalling scheme : (c) PSK (d) QAM
(a) 4 data bits are transmitted per channel Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
symbol. Ans. (a) : ASK signaling scheme is most affected by noise
(b) 4 different carrier frequencies are used. as minimum distance between two signaling most is r in
(c) the signals are either orthogonal or antipodal ASK with compare to other modulation technique.
(d) abrupt phase discontinuities between 346. The number of levels required to represent a 6
consecutive symbols are avoided bit quantized output is
BSNL(JTO)-2002 (a) 32 (b) 64
Ans. (d) : Abrupt phase discontinuities between (c) 18 (d) 128
consecutive symbols are avoided in a quadrature phase TANGEDCO AE- 2018
shift keying (QPSK) digital signaling system. Ans. (b) : Given,
Number of bit n = 6
342. For the modulated carrier in a quadrature
amplitude shift keying (QASK) digital system : Number of Quantization levels L = 2n
(a) The transmitted power is independent of data = 26
(b) Every signal is orthogonal to every other L = 64
signal 347. Match the following:
(c) No signal is orthogonal to any other signal Column A Column B
(d) Some signals are orthogonal to some others a. FSK modem 1.2400bps
BSNL(JTO)-2002 b. 4-DPSK modem 2. 9600bps
Ans. (c) : For the modulated carrier in a QASK digital c. 8-DPSK modem 3. 1200bps
system, no signal is orthogonal to any other signal. d. 16 QAM modem 4. 4800bps
(a) a-3; b-1, c-4, d-2 (b) a-1; b-3, c-4, d-2 Ans. (b) : Given, Step size ∆ = Z
(c) a-2; b-4, c-1, d-3 (d) a-3; b-2, c-4, d-1 ∆2
UPRVUNL AE-2016 then quantization error (Qe) =
12
Ans. (a) :
Z2
Column A Column B Qe =
a. FSK modem 1200bps 12
b. 4-DPSK modem 2400bps 352. In PCM, if number of bits are changed from n
c. 8-DPSK modem 4800bps to (n+8) then SNR changes by:
(a) 8dB (b) 48dB
d.16 QAM modem 9600bps (c) 16 dB (d) 10 dB
348. The spectral efficiency and bandwidth of BPSK UPRVUNL AE-2016
are ____ and _____ respectively. Ans. (b) : SQNR1 = (1.8 + 6n) dB
(a) 0.5 b/s/Hz, 2fb (b) 1 b/s/Hz, fb
(c) 2 b/s/Hz, fb (d) 1 b/s/Hz, 2fb SQNR2 = [1.8+6(n+8)]  n → ( n + 8 ) 
UPRVUNL AE-2016 = 1.8 + 6n +48
Ans. (a) : For BPSK (2-array PSK), SQNR2 – SQNR1 = 48dB
2f b 2f b 353. Modulation technique used in low speed
BW = = modems is _______.
log 2 M log 2 2 (a) FSK (b) DPSK
BW = 2fb (c) PWM (d) PCM
f UPRVUNL AE-2016
Spectral efficiency (S.E.) = b
BW Ans. (a) : FSK modulation technique is used in low
speed modems.
f
= b 354. Which type of encoding is used in USB?
2f b (a) NRZ
S.E. = 0.5 bit/sec-Hz (b) RZ
349. The bandwidth of BFSK is _________ BPSK. (c) Manchester Encoding
(a) Higher than (d) NRZI with bit stuffing
(b) The same as UPRVUNL AE-2016
(c) Lower than Ans. (d) : NRZI with bit stuffing in coding is used in
(d) None of the other options USB.
355. 8 Channel multiplex system has 5 KHz BW
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (a) : The bandwidth of BFSK is higher than speech channels of analog voltage range 0 to –
BPSK. 2V. For 5 mV resolution the minimum number
of bits per sample in each channel and total
350. For a coherent FSK with 32 levels, the BW of system are _______ and ________
probability of bit error is______ the probability
respectively.
of symbol error. (a) 9 and 360 KHz (b) 9 and 720 KHz
(a) 31 times (b) 1/31 time (c) 9 and 40 KHz (d) 10 and 40 KHz
(c) 2 times (d) 0.5 times UPRVUNL AE-2016
UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (b) : Given, Number of channels (N) = 8
Ans. (d) : Given Number of Levels M=32 Resolution = 5mV
As we know, Modulating frequency (fm) = 5kHz
Probability of bit error (Pbe) Range = 0 to +2V
M/2 Range
= × Probability of symbol error ( Pse ) Resolution =
M -1 2n
32 / 2 2
( Pbe ) = × Pse 5mV = n
32 − 1 2
32 / 2 1
Pbe = × Pse 2n −1 =
31 5mV
Pbe ≃ 0.5Pse 2n–1 = 200 ≃ 28
351. In a PCM system, if N is the number of levels n–1=8
and Z is the step size, then mean square n=9
quantization error is given by: Total Bandwidth (BW) = N.n.fs =N.n. 2fm
(a) NZ/12 (b) Z2/12 = 8 ×9 ×2×5
(c) Z2/12N (d) NZ2/12
BW = 720kHz
UPRVUNL AE-2016
356. OFDM technology is a combination of: 360. What is the sampling rate of a signal when it is
(a) Multicarrier, Multirate Modulation with sampled at every 0.001 sec?
Multiplexing (a) 1 samples/sec (b) 100 samples/sec
(b) Multicarrier, Multisymbol, Multirate (c) 10 samples/sec (d) 1000 samples/ sec
Modulation with Multiplexing TANGEDCO AE- 2018
(c) Multicarrier, Multisymbol Modulation with Ans. (d) : Given, sampling period (Ts) = 0.001Sec
Multiplexing
1 1
(d) Multisymbol, Multirate Modulation with So, sampling frequency ( fs ) = = Samples / sec
FDM Ts 0.001
TNTRB AE– 2017 f s = 1000 Samples / sec
Ans. (b) : OFDM technology is a combination of
Multicarrier, Multisymbol, Multirate Modulation with 361. Which one of the following represents the
Multiplexing output signal-to-noise ratio of a uniform
quantizer? (where P denotes average power of
357. In flat-top sampling, a hold circuit is sometimes the message signal m(t) and R denotes number
required. This hold circuit can be designed as a of bits per sample)
sampler followed by
(a) A shunt capacitor  3P  2R  2P  3R
(b) An envelope detector
(a)  2 2 (b)  3 2
 m max   m max 
(c) Parallel RC circuit
(d) A series resistance along with parallel RC  3P  R  3P 
circuit in shunt
(c)  2 2 (d)  2 
 m max   m max 
IES - 2014 ESE-2022
Ans. (a) : This hold circuit can be designed as a sampler
followed by a shunt capacitor. Signal Power
Ans. (a) : Signal to noise ratio =
In flat-top sampling due to the lengthening of the Noise Power
sample, amplitude distortion and delay are introduced P
this distortion is reformed to as the a farther effect and =
occurs during the reconstruction of g(t) from x(t). ( ∆ /12 )
2
A capacitor can hold the voltage once it is charged,

Hence a shunt capacitor can be used as a hold circuit in P × 12
SNR = 2
flat-top sampling.  2m max 
358. Assume that, in a stop-and-wait ARQ system,  L 
 
the bandwidth of data line is 1Mbps, and 1
bit takes 20ms to make a round trip. Find 12P × L2
=
the bandwidth-delay product and the 4m 2max
utilization percentage of the link respectively
12P
if the system data frames are 1000 bits in = × 22R
length. 4m 2max
(a) 20, 000 bits, 5% (b) 10, 000 bits, 10%
(c) 5, 000 bits, 20% (d) 40, 000 bits, 2.5%  3P 
SNR =  2  22R
TNTRB AE– 2017  m max 
Ans. (a) : Given,
Bandwidth BW = 1Mbps 362. Removing the redundant information before
Delay = 20ms encoding is the basic idea behind
(a) quantization
Systems data frame = 1000 bits
So, Bandwidth- delay product = 1×106 × 20×10–3 (b) delta modulation
(c) pulse-code modulation
= 20, 000 bits
(d) differential pulse-code modulation
System data frame
Utilization percentage = × 100 ESE-2022
Bandwidth − delay product
Ans. (d) : Removing the redundant information before
1000 encoding is the basic idea behind differential pulse code
= × 100 modulation.
20000
= 5% 363. In which one of the following techniques, RF
359. Which one of the following modulation scheme binary signals are transmitted as given?
is the most efficient for pulse telemetry? 0 : 2p'(t)cos ωC - ( ∆ ω/2 )  t
(a) PAM (b) PCM
(c) PPM (d) PWM 1 : 2p'(t)cos ωC + ( ∆ ω/2 )  t
TNTRB AE– 2017 (a) ASK (b) FSK
Ans. (b) : PCM (Pulse code modulation) scheme is the (c) PSK (d) MPSK
most efficient for pulse telemetry. ESE-2022
Ans. (b) : Given, Ans. (c) : In PCM, there is no precise clock is necessary
0: 2p '(t) cos [ ωc − (∆ω / 2)] t for precise reproduction as samples are not reliant on
time. It is the disadvantage of pulse code modulation.
1: 2p '(t) cos [ ωc + (∆ω / 2)] t 369. To reduce the distortion, which one of the
The frequency is changing from ( ωc − (∆ω / 2) ) to following can be used?
(a) Equalizer (b) Sampler
( ωc + (∆ω / 2) ) for '0' to '1' (c) Multiplexer (d) Companders
Hence, the given technique is frequency shift keying DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
(FSK) technique. Ans. (a) : Equalizer can be used to reduce the
364. In_______, a carrier is transmitted for a 1-bit, distortion. An equalizer is a device that attempt to
and nothing is transmitted for 0-bit, this is reverse the distortion introduced when a signal is
analogous to flashing light communication. transmitted through a channel. The main purpose is to
(a) Phase shift keying reduce inter symbol interference.
(b) 8-point phase shift keying 370. ASK stands for:
(c) M-ary digital modulation (a) Amplitude shift Keying
(d) On-off keying (b) Amplification Shift Keying
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM (c) Amplitude Shuffle Keying
Ans. (d) : In On-off shift keying, the amplitude of the (d) Altitude shuffle Keying
high frequency carrier varies according to (0, 1) digital DFCCIL Executive S&T-17.04.2016, Shift-II
data. For Input high (1) the amplitude level is high and
for input low (0) the amplitude level is low. Ans. (a) : ASK stands for amplitude shift keying.
365. Which of the following is NOT one of the 371. To increase the rate of communication by
sampling techniques? log2M in M-ary communication, the power
(a) Ideal sampling requirement increases by_______.
(b) Simultaneous sampling (a) 2M (b) M2
M
(c) Flat top sampling (c) M (d) 2M
(d) Natural sampling
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM Ans. (b) : The BW of the M-ary communication is
Ans. (b) : Simultaneous sampling is not a sampling 2R b
technique, whereas ideal sampling, Flat top sampling BW = log M
2
and natural sampling are sampling techniques.
Power of M-array communication-
366. ________step is NOT involved in pulse code
modulation system. E s = E b log 2 M
(a) Encoding (b) Generating To increase the rate of communication by log2M-
(c) Sampling (d) Quantising E = E ( log M )
2
s b 2
Ans. (b) : Generating step is not involved in pulse code = E b log 2 M 2
modulation system. E s = 2E b log 2 M
367. In which process is the flat-top pulse amplitude The power requirement increased by M2.
modulated signal generated?
(a) Quantisation (b) Encoding 372. The bit rate of digital communication system is
M kbps. The modulation used is 16-QAM. The
(c) Reconstruction filter (d) Sampling minimum bandwidth required for ideal
transmission is _____.
Ans. (d) : In sampling process the flat-top pulse (a) M/2 kHz (b) M/16 kHz
amplitude modulated signal is generated.
(c) M kHz (d) M/8kHz
Ans. (d) : Given –
Bit rate = M kbps
368. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Number of levels = M = 16
pulse code modulation? Rb M
(a) It is immune to channel induced noise and ∴ ( BW )min = =
distortion 2log 2 M 2log 2 16
(b) Encoders allow secured data transmission M
=
(c) No precise clock is necessary for precise 8log 2 2
reproduction as samples are not reliant on
M
time ( BW )min = kHz
(d) Repeaters can be employed along a 8
transmission channel So, the minimum bandwidth will be M/8 kHz, for ideal
DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM transmission.

373. Which modulation technique does NOT use Ans. (b) : fm = 8kHz
past information for modulation? fs = 12kHz
(a) Delta Modulation
(b) Adaptive Delta Modulation
(c) Pulse Code Modulation
(d) Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation
DFCCIL. Executive (S & T) 11.11.2018, 4:30pm to 6:30pm
Ans. (c) : Pulse code modulation (PCM) is a method Thus aliasing point occurs between 4kHz to 8kHz \
used to digitally represent sampled analog signals. In
this modulation techniques circuit not use past 378. The maximum access time that can be
permitted for the data and control memories in
information for modulation.
Time slot interchange switch with a single
374. For a narrow band noise with Gaussian input and single output trunk multiplexing
Quadrature components, the probability 2500 channels is (Assume that one speech
density function of its envelope will be sample appearing every 125 µs on the line)
(a) Uniform (b) Gaussian _______.
(c) Exponential (d) Rayleigh (a) 25 µs (b) 25 ns .
UJVNL AE-2016
Ans. (d) : For a narrow band noise with Gaussian (c) 5 ms (d) 5 sec
quadrature component, the probability density function TSGENCO AE-2015
of its envelope will be Rayleigh distributed and the 5 × one speech sample time
phase function is uniformly distributed in the range Ans. (*) : Access time =
total channel
(0,2π).
5 × 125 × 10−6
375. Which of the following use syndrome ta =
decoding? 2500
(a) Block codes (b) Line codes t a = 250ns
(c) Convolutional codes (d) Cyclic codes
379. Consider a color video transmission system
TNPSC AE-2014 that transmits 200 frames of video per second.
Ans. (a) : Syndrome decoding is on efficient way to Each video frame consists of 100 × 100 pixels in
decode linear block codes. Syndrome decoding is a a square grid, with each pixel having R, G, B
highly efficient method of decoding a linear code over a components. Each component of each pixel is
noisy channel, i.e. one on which errors are made. In quantized to one of 256 intensity levels followed
essence, syndrome decoding is minimum distance by encoding using binary pulse code
decoding using a reduced lookup table. This is allowed modulation (PCM). The data rate of the system
by the linearity of the code. is
376. The data rate of QPSK is ______ of BPSK. (a) 48 Mbps (b) 512 Mbps
(a) Thrice (b) 4 times (c) 16 Mbps (d) 1.536 Gbps
(c) Twice (d) Same UPPCL AE- 31.12.2018
Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017 Ans. (a) : Given, frame per second = 200
Ans. (c) : Data rate of BPSK- pixels per frame= 100×100
1 Number of components = 3(R,G,B)
R b( BPSK ) = = f s Number of bits n=log2(256)
Ts
n= log2(28)
Date rate of QPSK- n=8
2 The data rate of the system
R b( QPSK ) = = 2fs
Ts Rb = 200×100×100×3×8
Hence, R b( QPSK ) = 2 × R b( BPSK ) Rb= 48Mbps
380. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the
377. fm=8kHz, fs= 12kHz, the aliasing possible at baud rate is:
frequency _____. (a) 300 (b) 400
(a) Between 8 to 12 (b) Between 4 to 8 (c) 600 (d) 1200
(c) Between 12 to 16 (d) None (e) 1800
AAI-2015 CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
Ans. (d) : In FSK signal : Ans. (a) :
bit rate = 1200 bps Rb = 56 kbps
bit rate each bit frame = 1000
Baud rate = Ts = one every time = 100 sec
number of bit per boud (1)
n = 10
1200 R b = N.nfs
Baud rate = = 1200 bps
1
1
381. In 512 QAM, the number of signal vectors of 56 kbps = N (10 )1000
Ts
the signal constellation is:
(a) 820 (b) 144 56 × 1000 × 100
=N
(c) 512 (d) 128 10 (1000 )
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
N = 560
Ans. (c) : In 512 QAM, the number of signal vectors of
the signal constellation is 512. 385. Choosing a discrete value that is near but not
exactly at the analog signal levels leads to
382. Consider a set of codeword given below :
(a) PCM error (b) Quantization error
[00000, 01111, 10100, 11011]. The code rate for
(c) Sampling error (d) PAM error
this set is
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
1 1
(a) (b) Ans. (b) : Choosing a discrete value that is near but not
2 5 exactly at the analog signal levels leads to Quantization
2 2 error.
(c) (d)
5 3 386. In between NRZ and RZ which one takes more
UPSC JWM-2016 Bandwidth and better synchronization?
(a) NRZ (b) RZ
Ans. (c) : Codeword [00000, 01111, 10100, 11011]
(c) same (d) none
using Ex-OR gate
q=2 P=3
Ans. (b) : RZ takes more Bandwidth and better
q 2 synchronization as compared to NRZ (Non return to
Code rate = =
P+q 5 zero) coding.
2 387. Match List - I with List - II and select the
Code rate = correct answer as per the codes:
5
List - I List - II
383. For a sine wave of frequency fm and amplitude A. RF band is 1. TDMA
Am applied to a delta modulator having step divided into small
size of 'δ'. The slope overload distortion will frequency bands
occur if ............ Here sampling periods is 'TS'.
B. Store and forward 2. FDMA
(a) Am < δ. fm/2π TS (b) Am > δ/2π fm .TS system
(c) Am < δ/2π fm .TS (d) Am > δ TS/2π fm C. Spread spectrum 3. Navigation
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 multiple access technique
Ans. (c) : To avoid slope overload D. Dead reckoning 4. CDMA
δ A B C D
≥ 2π f m A m
Ts (a) 1 2 3 4
δ (b) 2 4 3 1
≥ Am (c) 3 2 1 4
Ts × 2πf m
(d) 2 1 4 3
δ TNPSC AE-2014
Am ≤
2πf m TS Ans. (d) :
A. RF band is divided into – FDMA
384. A group of N stations shares a 56 kbps pure small frequency bands
ALOHA channel. Each station outputs a 1000
bit frame on an average of once every 100 sec. B. Store and forward system – TDMA
What is the maximum value of N? C. Spread spectrum multiple – CDMA
(a) 560 (b) 1020 access
(c) 1030 (d) 1000 D. Dead reckoning – Navigation
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 technique

388. In________code, symbols 1 and 0 are 392. In a 16-ary PSK, the symbol rate is 10 kbps.
represented by transmitting pulses of The bit rate is
amplitudes + and-. (a) 160 kbps (b) 40 kbps
(a) Unipolar return-to-zero (c) 2.5 kbps (d) (10/16) kbps
(b) Polar nonreturn-to-zero TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
(c) Unipolar nonreturn-to-zero Ans. (b) : 16- Ary = 4 bits/symbol
(d) Bipolar return-to-zero Rb = n ×symbol rate
NLC GET -24.11.2020 Rb = 4 ×10 = 40 kbps
Ans. (b) : In Polar non return-to-zero code, symbols 1 393. Which one of the following statements is not
and 0 are represented by transmitting pulses of correct regarding the features of CDMA?
amplitudes + and-.
(a) Multipath fading may be substantially
389. In the mid-tread type of quantizer, any input increased because the signal is spread over a
value lying between −0.5 to + 0.5 is mapped large spectrum.
into an output value of (b) Channel data rates are very high in CDMA
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 systems.
(c) −0.5 (d) 0 (c) The near-far problem occurs at a CDMA
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 receiver if an undesired user has a high
Ans. (d) : In mid tread quantizer, there is always one detected power as compared to the desired
level as '0' in quantization. user.
390. How many bits are required to divide 10 V into (d) Many users of a CDMA system share the
0.001 V intervals? same frequency.
(a) 14 bits (b) 20 bits ESE-2022
(c) 1024 bits (d) 100 bits Ans. (a) : The features of CDMA-
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 • Channel data rates are very high in CDMA systems.
Ans. (a) : The number of level for an n-bit PCM
system given by
• The near-far problem occurs at a CDMA receiver if
an undesired user has a high detected power as
L = 2n
compared to the desired user.
n = log2(L)
10 is divided into interval of 0.001V So, • Many users of a CDMA system share the same
frequency.
10
Levels (L) = = 104 394. If the sampling is carried out at a rate higher
0.001 than twice the highest frequency of the original
the number of bits used will be signal (fmax), then it is possible to receive the
n = log 2 104 original signal from the sampled signal by
n = 14 passing it through
(a) A high-pass filter with the cut-off frequency
391. A message signal with its amplitude uniformly
equal to fmax
distributed between −2 V and +2V is
transmitted by a 4-bit binary PCM system. The (b) A low-pass filter with the cut-off frequency
(SNR)q is equal to equal to fmax
(a) 256 (b) 1024 (c) A high-pass filter with the cut-off frequency
(c) 512 (d) 768 greater than fmax
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 (d) A low-pass filter with the cut-off frequency
greater than fmax
Ans. (a) :
2
IES - 2016
Ans. (b) : It is possible to receive the orignal signal
∫ x .f ( x ) dx.
2
∴ Signal power , P =
−2
from the sampled signal by passing A Low-pass filter
2 with the cut-off frequency equal to fmax.
1
∫x
2
=   dx 395. The minimum bandwidth of the link needed for
−2 a a guard band of 10 kHz frequency to prevent
2 2 interference between six channels, each with
x 1 16
= ∫ dx = [8 + 8] = 100 kHz frequency, is
−2
4 12 12 (a) 425 kHz (b) 575 kHz
In PCM, (c) 650 kHz (d) 725 kHz
∴ N = noise power IES - 2016
02 ( 2Am ) ( 2 × 2 )
2
16 Ans. (c) : Given,
= = = =
12 22r × 12 28 × 12 12 × 256 Guard band (fg) = 10kHz
channel (N) = 6
S
∴   = 256 Each frequency (fm) = 100kHz
N Number of Guard band (N) = 6 – 1 =5
maximum bandwidth of the link needed for a Guard 398. As compared to A-law compander, the µ- law
band is given as- compander produces
Bandwidth = N × fm + (N–1) ×fg (a) More companding at low amplitudes
= 6 ×100 + (6–1) ×fg (b) More companding at high amplitudes
= 6 ×100 +5×10 (c) Less companding for low amplitudes
= 600 + 50 (d) Less companding for high amplitudes
B.W = 650 kHz IES - 2014
396. The different access methods which permit Ans. (a) : As compared to A-law compander, the µ-law
many satellite users to operate in parallel compander produces more companding at low
through a single transponder without amplitudes.
interfering with each other are 399. Consider the following :
1. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA) 1. Pulse-position modulation
2. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) 2. Pulse-code modulation
3. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) 3. Pulse-width modulation
Which of the above are correct? Which of the above communications are not
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only digital?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
IES - 2016
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b) : IES – 2014, 2003
Ans. (c) : PPM (Pulse position modulation):-
Pulse position modulation is an analog modulating
scheme in which the amplitude and width of the pulses
are kept constant, while the position of a reference
pulse, varies according to the Instantaneous sample
value of the message signal.
PWM (Pulse width modulation)- pulse width
modulation it is a process in which output signal of low
Frequency division multiple access (FDMA)- frequency are generated from the input pulse of high
FDMA allows multiple users to communication channel frequency, this is similar to the FM modulation
such as a co-axial cable or microwave beam by dividing technique.
the bandwidth of the channel into separate non- 400. What multiplexing method do the CODECs use
overlapping frequency sub channel to a separate user. to transmit two PCM signals in opposite
Code division multiple access (CDMA)- directions over the same transmission line?
CDMA uses a digital modulation technique called (a) TDM
direct sequence spread spectrum which spreads voice (b) FDM
data over a very wide spectrum using a user or cell-
(c) Amplitude-separation Multiplexing
specific paendo-random codes.
(d) Code Division Multiplexing
CDMA stands for code division multiple access.
Correct option (b) 1 and 3 only. IES - 2013
Ans. (a) : Time Division multiplexing (TDM):-
397. An analog signal is sampled at 36 kHz and
A process that transmits two or more message signal
quantized into 256 levels. The time duration of
over the same line by using different time interval for
a bit of the binary coded signal is each signal.
(a) 7.43 µs (b) 6.43 µs CODEC:- A device can simultaneously perform the
(c) 3.47 µs (d) 1.47 µs analog-to-digital conversion (encoding) and digital to
IES - 2015 analog conversion (decoding).
Ans. (c) : Given, Note:- TDM is used to transmit two PCM signal in
L = 256 opposite direction over the same transmission line.
2n = 28 401. Four signals each band-limited to 5 kHz are
sampled at twice the Nyquist rate. The
n =8 resulting PAM samples are transmitted over a
8-bit are required to encode a sample single channel after time division multiplexing.
Sampling frequency fs = 36kHz The theoretical minimum transmission
Bit rate Rb= nfs=8 ×36 = 288kbits bandwidth of the channel should be equal to
Duration of a bit binary coded signal- (a) 5 kHz (b) 20 kHz
(c) 40 kHz (d) 80 kHz
1 1
Tb = = = 3.47µs TNPSC AE-2018
R b 288 × 103 IES - 2000
Ans. (c) : Given, (a) 1 (b) 2
fm = 5kHz, n=4 (c) 3 (d) 4
Nyquist rate = 2×5 = 10kHz TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
Signal are sampled at twice the Nyquist rate so sampled Ans. (d) : To represent the 4-ary FSK signal is
at twice the Nyquist rate so sampling rate mathematical model we need 4 equations depending on
fs =2×10 = 20kHz value of '4' .
Bit rate Rb = n ×fs 406. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of
= 4 ×20 same data rate, each frame contains
_______slots.
= 80kHz
(a) n (b) n + 1
Rb (c) n – 1 (d) 0 to n
Bandwidth = =
2 (e) n2
1 CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
= × 80
2 Ans. (a) : In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of
same data rate.
B.W = 40kHz Each frame contains n slots.
402. What is the process of utilizing one data link 407. In a PCM system, if the code word length is
for transmission of a group of variable known increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to
as? quantization noise ratio improves by
(a) Encoding (b) Decoding (a) 6 dB (b) 12 dB
(c) Demultiplexing (d) Multiplexing (c) 16 dB (d) 8 dB
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Yellow) GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
Ans. (d) : The process of utilizing one data link for Ans. (b) : Code word length
transmission of a group of variable is known as n1 = 6 n2 = 8
multiplexing. (SNR) = (1.7+6n)
403. In a ASK system, the amplitude of the carrier (SNR)1 = (1.7+6×6) = 37.7
signal is 10V and the binary to be transmitted (SNR)2 = (1.7+6×8) = 49.7
is {1,0,1,1,1,1,0,0,....} . The amplitude of the SNR = (SNR)2–(SNR)1
= 49.7 –37.7
output will be:
SNR = 12dB
(a) {±5V,0, ±5V, ±5V, ±5V, ±5V,0,0,...}
408. Time division multiplexing (TDM) is possible
(b) {0, ±10V,0,0,0,0, ±10V, ±10V,...} with
(c) {±10V,0, ±10V, ±10V, ±10V, ±10V,0,0,...} (a) Analog signals
(b) Digital signals
(d) {±1V,0, ±1V, ±1V, ±1V, ±1V,0,0,...} (c) Both analog and digital signals
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 (d) Periodic signals
Ans. (c) : In ASK binary '1' is represented with the GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
presence of carrier and binary '0' is represented with Ans. (b) : Time division multiplexing (TDM) is method of
absence of the carrier. So for ASK. putting multiple data streams in single signal. Time division
ASK = {±10V,0, ±10V, ±10V, ±10V, ±10V,0,0,...} multiplexing (TDM) is possible with Digital signal.
409. Non uniform quantization is used for ____.
404. The standard value of sampling rate for speech (a) Improvement is SNR
transmission is (b) Reduce quantization noise
(a) 4K samples per sec. (c) Both
(b) 8K samples per sec. (d) None
(c) 16K samples per sec. NPCIL-2015
(d) 32K samples per sec. IES-1997
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 Ans. (a) : Non uniform quantization-
Ans. (b) : Speech transmission index is a measure of → The maximum Quantization error is given by
speech transmission quality. The standard value of ∆
sampling rate for speech transmission is 8K [ Qe ]max = , ∆ = Stepsize
samples/sec. 2
405. For any 4-ary FSK, the signal set is given V −V
Step size (∆) = max n min
by 2
2E  π  Here → n is the number of bits per sample.
sk ( t ) = cos  ( n +k ) t  ; 0 ≤ t ≤ T k = 1,2,3,4
T 4  • Non uniform quantization is used for improvement is
The dimension of its signal space is signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) and reduce quantization noise.

410. Six analog information signals, each band- Ans. (a) : Coherent binary phase shift keying (BPSK)
limited to 4 kHz, are required to be time- modulation schemes has the bit error rate is-
division multiplexed and transmitted by a
TDM system. The minimum transmission 1  Eb 
bandwidth and the signaling rate of the ( BER )BPSK = erfc 
 N 
2  0 
PAM/TDM channel are respectively,
(a) 24 kHz and 48 kbps (b) 24 kHz and 8 kbps 413. The signalling information in a 30-channel
(c) 48 kHz and 48 kbps (d) 48 kHz and 16 kbps PCM system has a bit rate of :
ESE-2021 (a) 2.048 Mbps (b) 64 kbps
Ans. (a) : Given, (c) 80 kbps (d) 2 kbps
Information signal (fm) = 4kHz BSNL(JTO)-2002
Number of bit in the encoder (n) = 6 Ans. (b) : Only one channel required for signaling
Maximum transmission bandwidth (BW) = n.fm information, so bit rate of signaling information is 64
= 4 ×6 kbps.
B.W = 24kHz 414. In a binary PCM system, the maximum
tolerable error is sample amplitudes is 0.5% of
from Nyquist criteria- the peak input signal amplitude. The input
fs = 2.fm signal bandwidth is 5 MHz. The minimum rate
fs = 8kHz of transmission of the PCM coded bits is :
Signaling rate (Rb) = n.fs (a) 70 Mbits/sec (b) 80 Mbits/sec
= 6×8 (c) 90 Mbits/sec (d) 100 Mbits/sec
R b = 48 Kbps BSNL(JTO)-2002
Ans. (b) : Given, Bandwidth (BW) = 5MHz
411. The temperature at a particular place varies
between 14ºC and 34ºC. For the purpose of ∆
=
transmitting the temperature record of that 2
place using PCM, the record is sampled at an Tolerable error
0.5 ∆
appropriate sampling rate and the samples are Vi =
quantized. If the error in representation of the 100 2
samples due to quantization is not to exceed ∆ = 0.01Vi
∆ 2 ( 0.01Vi )
± 1% of the dynamic range, what is the 2
minimum number of quantization levels that Noise power N = =

can be used? 12 12
(a) 100 (b) 50 V 2
(c) 30 (d) 15 Signal power S = i

2
ESE-2021 Minimum transmission rate of PCM coded bits
Ans. (b) : Given,
C = BW.log 2 (1 + SNR )
∆
≤ ±1% of dynamic range  V2 
2 12
= 5 ×106 log 2  1 + i  ×
Where-  2  0.0001Vi2
∆ → step size
C = 5 ×106 log 2 ( 60001) = 5 ×106 log 2 ( 216 )
A − ( −A m ) 2A m
∆= m = C = 80Mbps
L L
Am 415. Quantization noise is related to
≤ ±1% of 2Am
L (a) AM (b) FM
A m 2A m 1 1 (c) PM (d) PCM
≤ ⇒ ≤
L 100 L 50 MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
L ≥ 50 Ans. (d) : Quantization noise results when a
Minimum quantization level required is 50. continuous, randam variable is converted to a discrete
412. Which one of the following digital modulation one or when a discrete random variable is converted to
schemes has the bit error rate as one fewer levels. Quantization noise is related to PCM.
1  Eb  S
erfc 
 N 
? 416. The   of a delta modulation, at a bit rate of
2  0   N q
(a) Coherent binary PSK 64 kbps and (baseband signal) BW of 4 kHz
(b) Coherent binary FSK will be:
(c) DPSK (a) 26 dB (b) 22 dB
(d) Noncoherent binary FSK (c) 18 dB (d) 12 dB
ESE-2021 UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
Ans. (b) : Given, (a) 4 MHz (b) 8 MHz
Bit Rate - = 64 kbps (c) 4.004 GHz (d) 8.008 GHz
Band with = 4 kHz IES - 2015
The (S/N)q of delta modulator Ans. (b) : According Nyquist sampled theorem a band
 r 
3 limited signal should be sampled equal to greater than
3
= ×  b  the twice of the signal .
8π 2  ( SN ) 
3
× (16 )
3
= 2
8π
= 155.60 = 10 log (155.60) = 22 dB
417. For an ideal 3000Hz channel, nyquist rate is
2f H
(a) 3000bps (b) 6000bps Bandwidth ( BW ) =
(c) 9000bps (d) 12000bps K
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III fH 4.002
Where, K = = = 1000.5
Ans. (b) : For an ideal 3000 Hz channel, Nyquist rate is f H − f L 0.004
twice (i.e. 6000 bps). K ≃ 1000
418. Which one of the following statements is 2 × 4.002
Bandwidth ( BW ) = GHz
correct? 1000
(a) Sampling and quantization operate in BW = 8 MHz
amplitude domain
421. In a PCM, amplitude levels are transmitted in
(b) Sampling and quantization operate in time a 7 unit code. The sampling is done at a rate 20
domain KHz. The bandwidth should be:
(c) Sampling operates in time domain and (a) 5 MHz (b) 70 MHz
quantization operates in amplitude domain
(c) 35 KHz (d) 5 KHz
(d) Sampling operates in amplitude domain and
LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
quantization operates in time domain
Ans. (b) : PCM bandwidth is half of bit rate.
IES - 2016
Bit Rate = 20 ×7
Ans. (c) :
= 140
Bit rate
Bandwidth =
2
140
Sampling operate in time domain and quantization = = 70
2
operates in amplitude domain.
422. A PCM system uses a uniform quantizer which
It is a process where an analog signal is converted into a
has a range –V to + V and it is followed by a 7
corresponding sequence of samples that are usually
bit binary encoder. A zero mean signal applied
spaced uniformly in time.
to the quantizer extends over its entire range
419. Converting an analog signal to a digital signal and has uniform probability density. The ratio
is done by sampling and of the signal power to the quantization noise
(a) Companding (b) Mixing power at the output of the quantizer is (take
(c) Quantizing (d) Pre-emphasis log10 2 ≈ 0.3)
IES - 2016
(a) 14 dB (b) 28 dB
Ans. (c) : Analog to digital converter follow a sequence (c) 42 dB (d) 56 dB
when converting analog signal to digital they first
DRDO-2009
sample the signal then quantity it to determine the
resolution of the signal, and finally set binary values Ans. (c): Signal to quantization noise power ratio
and sends it to the system to read the digital signal. generally expressed in dB-
420. A signal of maximum frequency of 2 MHz  S 
  dB = 1.8 + 6n
modulated by 4 GHz carrier is DSB/SC. If the  Nq 
resultant signal is sampled ideally as low pass
Where,
signal, the minimum sampling frequency
should be n → Number of bit per sample.

Given, 425. In frequency shift keying :
n=7 (a) The signalling system is intipodal
 S  (b) The bandwidth requirement is independent of
  = 1.8 + 6 × 7 = 43.8 dB the number of symbols used.
 Nq dB
(c) The transmitted power is independent of the
 S  symbol transmitted
  ≈ 42dB
 Nq dB (d) The signalling is non-orthogonal.
BSNL(JTO)-2002
423. Discrete samples of an analog signal are
uniformly quantized to PCM. If the maximum Ans. (d) : Frequency-shift keying (FSK) is a frequency
value of analog sample is to be represented modulation scheme in which digital information is
within 0.1% accuracy, then the minimum transmitted through discreet frequency changes of a
number of binary digits required per sample is carrier signal.
(a) 4 (b) 8 Its signaling is non-orthogonal.
(c) 10 (d) 12 426. Comparing Delta Modulation (DM) with PCM
ESE-2021 systems, DM requires:
Ans. (c) : In a PCM technique- 1. A lower sampling rate
∆ 2. A higher sampling rate
Maximum error =
2 3. Least bandwidth
Where, 4. Simpler hardware
∆ → step size (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
given, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
∆ (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
= ± 0.1%
2 (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
∆
= ± 0.2% …(i) UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
2
Ans. (c) :
also we know-
Parameter PCM DM
V −V A − (−A ) 2A
∆ = max n min = m n m = nm …(ii) 1. Step size Step size is Step size is fixed
2 2 2
from equation (i) & (ii) fixed and cannot
varied
2A m
± 0.2% = 2. Bandwidth Highest Lowest
2n
bandwidth in Bandwidth is
2 2 ×1
= n required required
1000 2
n
2 = 1000 3. Quantization Quantization Slope over load
error error depends distortion and
n ≈ 10
on the number granual noise is
424. The number of bits per sample of a PCM of level present.
system depends upon the 427. One of the following communication system is
(a) sampler type digital.
(b) quantizer type
(a) AM (b) FM
(c) number of levels of the quantizer
(c) Delta (d) PAM
(d) sampling rate
TNPSC AE-2013
DRDO-2008
Ans. (c) : Delta communication system is a digital
Ans. (c) : The number of bit per sample of a PCM system
communication. A digital communication is the
depends upon number of levels of the quantizer.
physical transfer of data over point to point or point to
M ≤ 2n multipoint communication channel.

04.
6. The radiation resistance of a circular loop of
(i) Communication Network one turn is 0.01 ohm. For 5 turn loop the
radiation resistance is
1. Broad-band long distance communication was (a) 0.002Ω (b) 0.01Ω
originally made possible by the advent of- (c) 0.05Ω (d) 0.25Ω
(a) H.F. Radio Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
(b) Geostationary satellite Ans. (d) : Given that,
(c) Repeater amplifiers
(d) None of the above R1 = 0.01
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II R2 =?
Ans. (c) : Broad-band long distance communication R2 = Radiation resistance ×n2
was originally made possible by the advent of repeater R2= 25 ×0.01 = 0.25 Ω
amplifiers. 7. Consider the following statements:
2. Why TCP traffic is elastic traffic? Traffic load on a telephone network depends
(a) TCP sends traffic at a constant rate. on
(b) TCP adjusts traffic rate based on congestion. 1. The rate of calls initiated by each subscriber.
(c) TCP maintains end-to-end flow control. 2. The number of subscribers on the network.
(d) None of the above 3. The average duration of each call.
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II Of these statements
Ans. (b) : TCP adjusts traffic rate based on congestion. (a) 2 and 3 are correct
So, TCP traffic is elastic traffic. (b) 1 and 2 are correct
3. Light is good for telecommunications because (c) 1 and 3 are correct
it is: (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(a) a high-frequency carrier IES - 1997
(b) a low-frequency carrier
Ans. (d) : Traffic load on a telephone network mainly
(c) a very low-frequency carrier
depends on-
(d) a DC source
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 • Rate of call initiated by each subscriber of a telephone
network per unit time and of the time required for each
Ans. (a) : Light has optical properties with 3×108 m/sec call and also depends on number of subscriber on the
speed. network.
Light is good for telecommunication because it is a high
Hence all statements are correct.
frequency carrier.
4. The main objective of CELL in a cellular 8. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of
mobile system is: (a) Average waiting time (b) Peak waiting time
(a) Hand-off (c) Grade of service (d) Erlangs
(b) simple modulation technique IES - 1996
(c) frequency reuse Ans. (d) :
(d) higher bandwidth • Telephone traffic is specified in terms of Erlangs.
UPMRC AM - 2020
Ans. (c) : Frequency reuse is the main objective of 10 Erlangs = 10call hours.
CELL in a cellular mobile system and it offers the • It is used in telephony as a measure of offered load or
following benefit, allows communication within the cell traffic offered by telephone.
a given frequency.
5. All CDMA based technologies 2G and 3G 9. The optical performance monitoring involves
have. (a) transport layer monitoring, optical signal
(a) Soft handover monitoring and protocol performance
(b) Hard handover monitoring
(c) Blind handover (b) physical layer, network layer and application
(d) Soft and Hard handover layer monitoring
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 (c) data-link layer, presentation layer and session
Ans. (a) : All CDMA (Code division multiple access) layer monitoring
based technologies 2G and 3G use soft handover (d) transport layer, session layer and application
because the link is established before breaking while layer monitoring
moving from cell area to another cell area. IES - 2019
Advance Communication System 801 YCT
Ans. (a) : The optical performance monitoring involves 13. A message consisting of 2400 bits is to be
transport layer monitoring, optical signal monitoring passed over an internet. The message is passed
and protocol performance monitoring. to the transport layer which appends a 150-bit
10. Which of the following regarding cellular header, followed by the network layer which
systems with small cells are correct? uses a 120-bit header. Network layer packets
1. Higher capacity and robustness are transmitted via two networks, each of
2. Needless transmission power and have to which uses a 26-bit header. The destination
deal with local interference only network only accepts up to 900 bits long. The
3. Frequency planning and infrastructure number of bits, including headers delivered to
needed the destination network, is
4. These require both circuit switching and (a) 2706 bits (b) 2634 bits
packet switching (c) 2554 bits (d) 2476 bits
Select the correct answer using the code given IES - 2019
below: Ans. (a) : Given as-
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Message size = 2400 bits and header of
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 transport layer = 150 bits
IES - 2019 So,
Ans. (c) : If cell size will be small population density Segment size of transport layer = header + message size
will be high and radiated power will be less. Small cell = 150+2400 = 2550 bits
needs frequency planning and infrastructure needed. Hence, 2550 bits are divided into packets having a
11. Which of the following statements are correct maximum of 900–26 = 874 bits
regarding CDMA? 1st packet size = 874 bits
1. It is similar to GSM. Remaining size = 2550 – 874 = 1676 bits
2. It allows each station to transmit over the 2nd packet size = 874 bits
entire frequency spectrum all the time. Remaining size = 1676 –874 = 802 bits
3. It assumes that multiple signals add linearly. Network layer packets are transmitted via two network
Select the correct answer using the code given each uses a 26-bit header.
below: So, 1st and 2nd packet size = 874 +26 = 900
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Third packet size = 802 + 26 = 828
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Now total number of bit delivered to the destination
IES - 2019 network is:
Ans. (c) : • GSM uses both FDM and TDM technology 900 + 900 +828 +3×26 = 2706 bits
where as CDMA uses CDM technology so option 1st is
14. Which of the following are the advantages of
wrong.
packet switching?
• CDMA uses same technology spectrum all the time 1. Greater link efficiency than circuit switching
without interface.
2. Connections are not blocked when traffic
• In CDMA, multiple signals add linearly to avoid congestion occurs
intermixing during the transmission.
3. Direct channel established between
12. In a communication network, 4 T1 streams are transmitter and receiver
multiplexed to from 1 T2 stream and 7 T2
4. No time is taken to establish connecting
streams are multiplexed to from 1 T3 stream.
Further 6 T3 streams are multiplexed to from Select the correct answer using the code given
1 T4 stream. If each T1 stream is of 1.544 below:
Mbps, the data rate of 1 T4 stream should be (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) 211.8 Mbps (b) 232.6 Mbps (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
(c) 243.4 Mbps (d) 274.2 Mbps IES - 2019
IES - 2019 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : Given, • Packet switching has greater link efficiency than
T1 = 1.544 Mbps circuit switching because it refers to a set of
4T1 = 1T2 protocols that uses a connectionless network.
7T2 = 1T3 • Packet switching still accepted with increase in
6T3 = 1T4 delivery delay without blocking connection when
T3 = 7×4×T1 traffic is heavy.
T4 = 6×7×4×T1 • In packet switching network exit multiple/internet
and T4 = 6T3 = 4×7×6×1.544 Mbps channel established between transmitter and receiver
T4= 259.392Mbps • Time is taken to establish connection between sender
T4 ≃ 274 Mbps and receiver.
15. A network uses a fully interconnected mesh Ans. (c) : The internet is a packet switched type of
topology to connect 10 nodes together. The network, where small unit of data called packets are
number of links required will be routed network in random manner.
(a) 35 (b) 40 19. Which of the following statements is correct in
(c) 45 (d) 50 respect of TCP and UDP protocols?
IES - 2019 (a) TCP is connection-oriented, whereas UDP is
Ans. (c) : Given, connectionless
Number of nodes (n) = 10 (b) TCP is connectionless, whereas UDP is
n(n − 1) connection-oriented
Now, Number of link required (L) = (c) Both are connectionless
2
(d) Both are connection-oriented
10 (10 − 1) IES - 2018
L=
2 Ans. (a) : TCP (Transmission control protocol) is a
10 × 9 connection oriented reliable transport protocol whereas
L= UDP is connectionless protocol.
2
L = 45 20. An asynchronous link between two computers
16. Which one of the following is the correct uses the start-stop scheme, with one start bit
combination for a layer providing a service by and one stop bit, and a transmission rate of
means of primitives in an open system 48.8 kbits/s. What is the effective transmission
interconnection? rate as seen by the two computers?
(a) Request, Indication, Response and Confirm (a) 480 bytes/s (b) 488 bytes/s
(b) Request, Inform, Response and Service (c) 4880 bytes/s (d) 4800 bytes/s
(c) Request, Command, Response and Action IES - 2017
(d) Request, Confirm, Indication and Action Ans. (c) :
IES - 2019 Total bit = eight data bit + one start bit + stop bit
Ans. (a) : In OSI model, four type of primitives are: Total bit = 8+1+1=10 bits
(i) Request No.of data bit 8
(ii) Indication Efficiency = =
Total number of bit 10
(iii) Response
(iv) Confirm 8
Effective transmission rate = × 48.8 ×103 bits / sec
Request This primitive is transferred or sent to layer N 10
by layer (N+1) to just request for service. = 39040bits/sec
Indication:- This primitive is just advise of 39040
activation of service. 39040 bit = bytes /sec
Response:- This primitive is simply provided by layer 8
(N+1) in reply to indication primitive. = 4880bytes/sec
Confirm:- This primitive is retuned by the nth layer to 21. Consider a point-to-point communication
the requesting (N+1)st layer to simply acknowledge or network represented by a graph. In terms of
complete action that is previously invoked by request the graph parameters, the maximum delay
primitive. (quality of service) experienced by a packet
17. The technique for using one set of addresses employing Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
inside a network and remapping those is/are:
addresses to a different set of addresses that 1. diameter of the graph
are seen outside the local network on the 2. shortest path on the graph
internet is called 3. sum of the edge weight in the graph
(a) network address translation Select the correct using the code given below:
(b) address resolution (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) network address mapping (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) virtual LAN IES - 2017
IES - 2018 Ans. (a) : Point to point communication network
Ans. (a) : The technique for using one set of addresses represented by a graph. In terms of the graph parameters
inside a network and remapping those address to a different the maximum delay experienced by a packet employing
set of addresses that are seen outside the local network on Bellman-Ford routing algorithm is diameter of the
the internet is called network address translation. graph.
18. What type of network is the Internet? 22. Let RSA prime numbers be p = 3 and q = 11. If
(a) Circuit-switched network the corresponding public key e = 3, what is the
(b) Message-switched network private key?
(c) Packet-switched network (a) 4 (b) 5
(d) Cell-switched network (c) 6 (d) 7
IES - 2018 IES - 2017
Ans. (d) : Given two prime no. Ans. (a) :
p = 3, q = 11 and e = 3 • Purpose of a start bit in RS-232 serial
n = p × q = 3×11 = 33 communication protocol is to synchronize receiver
φ(n) = (p–1) (q–1) for receiving every byte.
φ(n) = (3–1) (11–1) = 20 • RS 232 is used for connecting computer and its
peripheral devices to allow serial data exchange
φ (n) = 20 between them.
e × d = 1mod φ(n) 26. A filter at the input to a processing system is
3×d = 1mod 20 shown in the diagram given below:
3d = multiple of 20 + 1
3d = 20×1+1 ⇒ d = 7
TCP.
The channel works for toll quality telephone
1. It enables two hosts to establish a connection use. If the filter Hc(S) is to be designed so that
and exchange streams of data. linear distortion is minimized, then Hc(S)
2. It guarantees delivery of data in the same should have which one of the following?
order in which they are sent. (a) Constant delay
3. TCP segmentation offload is used to reduce (b) Constant phase
the CPU overhead of TCP/IP on fast (c) Inverse relationship with H(s)
networks. (d) Inverse relationship with H(s) and constant
Which of the above statements are correct? delay
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only IES - 2004
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) : Filter Hc(s) behaves as equalizer in order to
IES - 2017 remove the distortion
Ans. (d) : TCP/IP model used for long distance 1
H c (s) =
communication. TCP provides host to host connectivity H(s)
and it enables two hosts, establish a connection and Hence equalizer is inversely proportional to H(s).
exchange streams of data.
27. In a cellular communication system, path loss
• It guarantees delivery of data and packet will be between transmitter and receiver is due to
delivered in same direction and TCP segmentation (a) scattering from buildings, trees, vehicles and
offload is used to reduce the CPU overhead of TCP/IP other structures only
on fast network. (b) reason at (a) above and due to reflections
24. Consider a packet switched network based on from ground only
a virtual circuit mode of switching. The delay (c) reasons at (a) and (b) above along with
jitter for the packets of a session from the reflectional from ionosphere only
source node to the destination node is/are (d) reasons at (a), (b) and (c) above along with
1. always zero loss due to surface wave phenomenon
2. non-zero IES - 2002
3. for some network, zero Ans. (d) : In a cellular communication system, path loss
Select the correct answer using the code given due to many effect such as free space loss, scattering,
below: reflection, diffraction, aperture medium, coupling loss
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only and absorption etc.
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 Hence, option a, b, c, d are correct.
IES - 2017 28. Four main types of telephone exchanges are in
Ans. (a) : A packet can be forwarded before the next used in India. The correct order in which they
packet arrives in virtual circuit connections, So in appeared in our country, is
between the packets the delay jitter is zero. (a) Manual, electronic, strowger, cross-bar
(b) Strowger, manual, electronic, cross-bar
25. The purpose of a start bit in RS 232 serial
communication protocol is: (c) Manual, strowger, cross-bar, electronic
(a) To synchronize receiver for receiving every (d) Manual, cross-bar, strowger, electronic
byte IES - 1996
(b) To synchronize receiver for receiving a Ans. (c) : The telephone exchange used in India by
sequence of bytes chrometic order are:
(c) As a parity bit (i) Manual exchange.
(d) To synchronize receiver for receiving the last (ii) Strowger exchange.
byte (iii) Cross-bar exchange.
IES - 2010 (iv) Electronic exchange.
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 34. In communication network security issues
answer using the codes given below the lists : 'Authentication' deals with:
List - I List - II (a) Keeping information out of hands of
unauthorized user
A. Television 1. 1 kHz
(b) Determining whom we are talking to before
B. Radio 2. 3 kHz revealing sensitive information
C. Telephony 3. 9 kHz (c) With the signatures
D. Telegraphy 4. 5 kHz (d) To ensure the message received was really
Codes : one sent and not something malicious
A B C D UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
(a) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (b) : In communication network security issue
(b) 2 1 3 4 'Authentication' deals with determining whom we are
(c) 4 3 2 1 talking to before revealing sensitive information.
(d) 1 2 3 4 35. In an Ethernet LAN of 10 Mbps for the
IES – 1992 maximum length of 2500 m and 4 repeaters,
Ans. (c) : List-I and List-II are correct matched below : the smallest frame that can guarantee to work
List-I List-II consists of:
(a) 500 bits (b) 1000 bits
Television - 5kHz
(c) 200 bits (d) 2500 bps
Radio - 9kHz
Telephony - 3kHz UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
Telegraphy - 1kHz Ans. (a) : Maximum distance of communication
= Length of one hopping × No. of repeater
30. The code division multiple access technique is
not used in satellite communication because of = 2500 × 4 = 10 km
(a) Wastage of power 3 ×108
So, frequency will be = = 30kHz
(b) Wastage of baseband spectrum 10km
(c) Increase in delay So the smallest frame that can guarantee to work
(d) Complexity and unreliability of operation = Bit rate × 1 bit duration
Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017 107
Ans. (a) : Code access method to used by various radio = = 333.33 as no. of bit in a frame can
communication technologies. CDMA is an example of 30 × 103
not be a fraction so the smallest no. of bit = 500.
multiple access. It is not used in satellite
communication because of wastage of power. 36. In a PDH system, the output of the first level
multiplexer DSI will be:
31. Identical telephone numbers in different parts
(a) 1.048 Mbps (b) 1.544 Mbps
of country are distinguished by their
(a) language digits (b) access digits (c) 2.048 Mbps (d) 2.544 Mbps
(c) area codes (d) central office codes UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
TNPSC AE-2014 Ans. (b) : In a PDH system, the output of the first level
multiplexer DSI will be 1.544 Mbps.
Ans. (c) : Identical telephone numbers in different parts
of country are distinguished by their area codes. 37. In a GSM cellular network, the 148 data frame
starts and ends with three 0 bits. The purpose
32. Which one of the following provides constant of these three bits is for:
bandwidth and proportional bandwidth (a) Adding the zero padding to make frame of
channels in a radio telemetry system? perfect size
(a) FM/FM system (b) Balancing of 1 and 0 in the data frame
(b) PCM/FM system (c) Frame delineation
(c) Spread Spectrum system (d) Guarding the frame
(d) AM/FM system UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
Ans. (c) : In a GSM cellular Network, the 148 data
Ans. (a) : In FM/FM system provides constant frame stars and ends with three 0 bits. The purpose of
bandwidth and proportional bandwidth channel in a these three bits is for frame delineation.
radio telemetry system.
38. Which of the following functional architecture
33. Which one of the following methods will be of a GSM system are correct?
used to transmit teletype on-off keying? 1. Radio Sub System (RSS)
(a) ASK (b) PSK 2. Networking and Switching Sub-system
(c) PCM (d) FSK (NSS)
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 3. Operation Sub System (OSS)
Ans. (a) : ON-OFF keying denotes the simplest form of 4. Global Network Sub System (GNSS)
amplitude shift keying (ASK) modulation that (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
represents digital data as the presence or absence of a (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
carrier wave. UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
Ans. (d) : Functional architecture of a GSM system are Ans. (a) : The number of simultaneous users that can be
Radio Sub System (RSS), Networking and switching accommodated in GSM is given as
sub-system (NSS), Operation Sub System (OSS). 25MHz
N= = 1000
39. Nonlinearity will affect very critically ( 200kHz ) / 8
(a) TDMA scheme (b) FDMA scheme Thus–GSM can accommodate 1000
(c) SDMA scheme (d) CDMA scheme simultaneous users.
TNPSC AE- 2019 44. The most common modulation system used for
Ans. (b) : FDMA (frequency division multiple access) telegraphy is
is the division of the frequency band allocated for (a) Two tone modulation
wireless cellular telephone communication into 30 (b) Pulse code modulation
channels, each of which can carry a voice conversation (c) Single tone modulation
or, with digital service, carry digital data. (d) Frequency shift keying
40. In slow frequency hopping, (When Rh is Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
frequency hopping rate, Rb is symbol rate) Ans. (d) : Frequency shift keying is a modulation
(a) Rh < Rb (b) Rh ≤ Rb system which is most commonly used for telegraphy in
(c) Rh > Rb (d) Rh ≥ Rb which digital information is transmitted through discrete
TNPSC AE- 2019 frequency changes of a carrier signal.
Ans. (b) : Slow frequency hopping is a process of 45. Telex is the abbreviated name for
changing the radio frequencies of a communications on (a) Telephone exchange (b) Telegraph
a regular basis Rh ≤ Rb exchange
The duration on transmission on a single frequency is (c) Teleprinter exchange (d) Telelink exchange
typically much longer than the amount of time it takes Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
to send several bits of digital information. Ans. (c) : The telex network is a station to station
41. The RAKE receiver is essentially a diversity switched network of teleprinter similar to a telephone
receiver designed specially for network, using telegraph-grade connecting circuits for
two way text-based message.
(a) TDMA (b) FDMA
(c) CDMA (d) OFDM 46. The troposcatter phenomenon is used with the
frequencies in the
TNPSC AE- 2019 (a) HF range (b) VHF range
Ans. (c) : The RAKE receiver is a essentially a (c) UHF range (d) none of these
diversity receiver designed specially for CDMA, where Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
the diversity is provided by the fact that the multipath
Ans. (c) : In general troposcatter is most pronounced at
components are practically uncorrelated from one UHF and microwave radio frequencies (300MHz and
another when their relative propagation delays exceed a above). Troposcatter is often used for commercial ratio
chip period. communication application normally on frequencies
42. ---------modulation methods are being explored above 500 MHz for over the horizon link. It is ideal for
for high speed data connection as part of the remote telemetry.
IEEE 802.11a standard activities to provide 54 47. In On-Off keying, the carrier signal is
Mbps WLAN transmitted with signal value 1 and 0 indicates
(a) FDMA, MFSK (b) TDMA, FDMA (a) No carrier
(c) OFDM, MFSK (d) TDMA, OFDM (b) Half the carrier amplitude
TNPSC AE- 2019 (c) Amplitude of modulating signal
Ans. (c) : OFDM, MFSK modulation methods are being (d) None of the above
explored for high speed data connections as part of the Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
IEEE 802.11a standards activities to provide 54 Mbps Ans. (a) : In on-off keying, the carrier signal is
WLAN. transmitted with signal value 1 and 0 indicate no carrier.
IEE 802.11a is part of the IEE 802 set of local area 48. The telegraph circuit in which two messages
network technical standards, and specifies the set of can be transmitted in the same direction is
media access control and physical layer protocols for called
implementing wireless local area network computer (a) Half duplex (b) Duplex
communication. (c) Diplex (d) Quadruplex
43. The number of simultaneous users that can be Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
accommodated in GSM is given as Ans. (d) : The telegraph circuit in which two messages
(a) 1000 simultaneous users can be transmitted in the same direction is called
(b) 1500 simultaneous users quadruplex.
(c) 2000 simultaneous users 49. In communication system, redundancy
(d) 850 simultaneous users (a) Helps to correct error
TNPSC AE- 2019 (b) Helps to detect error
(c) Reduce efficiency of communication (d) None of the above
(d) All of the above Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II Ans. (b) : Linear predictive coding (LPC) is a method
Ans. (d) : In communication system redundancy to help used mostly in audio signal processing and speech
to correct the error and detect the error to so it reduce processing for representing the spectral envelope of a
the efficiency of communication. digital signal of speech in compressed form, using the
50. Which of the following is the most effective information of a linear predictive model.
anti jamming technique 55. In message switching
(a) Key leverage (a) messages are split into number of packets
(b) Frequency hopping (b) the entire message is transmitted
(c) Once-only key continuously without a break from one node
(d) Spread-spectrum modulation to another
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II (c) the entire message is transmitted from one
node to another
Ans. (d) : Spread spectrum modulation is a technique to
remove jamming. Jamming in Radar is a form of (d) half the message is transmitted from one
electronic counter measure that intentionally sends out node to another
radio frequency signal. It is used in military TNPSC AE-2013
communication and non commercial it is a technique Ans. (a) : In a message switching, message are split
from one sender to multiple receiving into number of packets. In message switching, messages
51. IEEE has defined the specification of a routed in their entirety, one hop at a time.
wireless LAN, Called ________ which covers 56. Which multiplexing technique transmits
physical and data link layers? analog signals?
(a) IEEE 802.3 (b) IEEE 802.5 (a) FDM (b) TDM
(c) IEEE 802.11 (d) IEEE 801.1 (c) CDMA (d) GSM
(e) IEEE 802.2 Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016 Ans. (a) : FDM and WDM technology are used to
Ans. (c) : IEEE 802.11 covers the physical and data link transfer analog signals. WDM (Wave Division
layer protocols for implementing wireless local area Multiplexing) is partly similar to FDM (Frequency
network computer communication. Division Multiplexing). FDM is used for signal
transmission through a twisted pair cable while WDM is
52. Which of the following is not the layer of
TCP/IP protocol? used to transmit signals through optical fiber cable.
(a) Physical Layer (b) Application Layer 57. Which multiplexing technique transmits
(c) Internet Layer (d) Network Layer digital signals?
(e) Transport Layer (a) FDM (b) TDM
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016 (c) WDM (d) CDMA
Ans. (a) : Physical layer is not the layer of TCP/IP
protocol. Ans. (b) : Time division multiplexing is used to
TCP/IP model has 4 layers- transmit digital signals. FDM and WDM techniques are
used to transmit analog signal.
(i) Application layer.
(ii) Transport layer 58. Which multiplexing technique shifts each
(iii) Internet layer signal to a different carrier frequency?
(iv) Network access layer. (a) FDM (b) TDM
(c) WDM (d) GSM
53. TCP/IP is a _______ layered standard.
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 7 (d) 8 Ans. (a) : FDM is an abbreviation for frequency
division multiplexing. This technique is used when the
(e) 10 bandwidth of the channel is greater than the combined
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016 bandwidth of all the signals which are to be transmitted.
Ans. (b) : TCP/IP model is a communication protocol 59. ______can be applied when the bandwidth of a
to interconnect network devices on the internet. TCP/IP link (in hertz) is greater than the combined
model has 4 layers. bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted.
TCP/IP is a 4 layered standard. (a) FDM (b) TDM
(a) Application layer (c) WDM (d) CDMA
(b) Internet layer Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(c) Network access layer
Ans. (a) : Frequency division multiplexing used a
(d) Transport layer carrier signal at a discrete frequency for each data
54. Linear predictive coding is stream and them combines many modulated signals.
(a) Time domain coding FDM is used to multiplex multiple analog signals. FDM
(b) Frequency domain coding is applied when the bandwidth of the link is greater than
(c) Space domain coding the combined bandwidth of signals to be transmitted.
60. The FDM telephone system uses_____type Ans. (b) : GSM uses a variation of time division
modulation multiple access (TDMA) and is the most widely used of
(a) DSB (b) DSB-SC the three digital wireless telephony technologies;
(c) SSB (d) VSB TDMA, GSM and CDMA.
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II 66. Radio spectrum licenses for Personal
Ans. (c) : The FDM telephone system uses SSB type Communications Services (PCS) is ____
modulation. In FDM entire frequency band available is frequency bands.
divided into smaller frequency bands and corresponding (a) 900-1000 MHz (b) 1800-2000 MHz
to each frequency band the signals are transmitted with (c) 1500-200 MHz (d) 1200-1700 MHz
different carrier frequencies at all times. TNPSC AE - 2018
61. What should be the minimum speed of Ans. (b) : Radio spectrum licenses for personal
revolutions of commutator switches in TDM? communication services (PCS) is 1850–1990 MHz
(a) Greater than Nyquist rate frequency bands. A radio frequency signal refers to a
(b) Equal to Nyquist rate wireless electromagnetic signal used as a form of
(c) Less than Nyquist rate communication.
(d) Independent from Nyquist rate 67. Choose the incorrect answer related to CDMA
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II (a) CDMA can use microscopic spatial diversity
Ans. (b) : The minimum speed of revolutions of for soft handoff
commutator switches in TDM is equal to nyquist rate. (b) CDMA possesses frequency diversity
In TDM entire time interval into smaller time slots and (c) CDMA requires power control
corresponds to each time slot, the sample from a (d) The CDMA has very high capacity since it is
specified signal is transmitted over a common not affected by interference
communication channel. TNPSC AE - 2018
62. Which multiplexing technique suffers from the Ans. (d) : Code division multiple access is an channel
crosstalk and fading? access method used by various radio communication
(a) FDM (b) TDM technologies. CDMA can be used microscopic spatial
(c) GSM (d) CDMA diversity for soft hand off and it is affected by interference.
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II 68. The data link layer imposes a ______
Ans. (a) : FDM sufferes from the problem of cross talk mechanism to prevent overwhelming the
and fading. All the FDM channels get affected due to receiver.
wideband fading. (a) Access control (b) Flow control
FDM separate transmitter is require for the transmission (c) Error control (d) None of the above
of each signal. TNPSC AE - 2018
63. The number of voice channels that can be Ans. (b) : The data link layer impose a flow control
accommodated for transmission in T1 carrier mechanism to prevent overwhelming the receiver. In
system is data communications, flow control is the process of
(a) 24 (b) 32 managing the rate of data transmission between two
(c) 56 (d) 64 node of prevent a fast sender from overwhelming a slow
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II receiver.
Ans. (a) : T1 carrier provides 24 voice channels by time 69. As for as jamming resistance is concerned
division multiplexing and pulse code modulation (PCM). (a) both FH and DS, (spread spectrum
Each voice channel is sampled 8000 times in a second and techniques) are equally good
each sample is coded into a 7-digit binary word. (b) FH has better jamming resistance than DS
64. Timing jitter is (c) DS has better jamming resistance than FH
(a) Change in amplitude (d) Slow frequency hopping has better jamming
resistance than DS
(b) Change in frequency
TNPSC AE - 2018
(c) Deviation in location of the pulses
Ans. (c) : As for as jamming resistance is concerned DS
(d) Change in settling time
has better jamming resistance than FH. Jamming
resistance technique provide resilience to jamming attacks
Ans. (c) : In electronics and telecommunications, jitter when the attacker has limited transmission power and
is the deviation from true periodicity of a presumably therefore cannot prevent communication on all available
periodic signal, often in relation to a reference clock signal. communication frequencies simultaneously.
In clock recovery applications it is called timing jitter. 70. 100 Base T refers to
65. GSM is an example of (a) Fiber connectivity (b) BNC connectors
(a) FDMA cellular systems (c) SONET (d) Twisted pair
(b) TDMA cellular systems ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008
(c) CDMA cellular systems Ans. (d) : 100 Base T refers to the speed of Ethernet
(d) SDMA cellular systems over twisted pair cable and a network standard used for
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II fast data transfer rates up to 100 Mbps.
71. In a GSM system, 8 channels can co-exist in 75. Match List - I correctly with List - II and select
200 kHz bandwidth using TDMA. A GSM your answer using the codes given below :
based cellular operator is allocated 5 MHz List - I List - II
bandwidth. Assuming a frequency reuse factor (a) Busy hour call rate (1) analog time
1 switching
of , i.e. a 5-cell repeat pattern, the maximum
5 (b) PAM signal (2) ratio of lost calls to
number of simultaneous channels that can total number of calls
exist in one cell is made
(a) 80 (b) 40 (c) Grade of service (3) Digital time
(c) 20 (d) 10 of switch switching
exchange
UPSC JWM-2016
(d) PCM signal (4) average calls per
Ans. (b) : Given that, subscriber during
Bandwidth allocated for one channel BW = 5MHz busy hour
Average bandwidth for one channel Codes :
BW 5 (a) (b) (c) (d)
= = = 1 MHz
5 5 (a) 4 1 2 3
1MHz (b) 2 3 1 4
Total number of simultaneous channel = ×8 (c) 4 3 1 2
200 KHz (d) 4 3 2 1
106 × 8 TNPSC AE-2013
= = 40 channel
200 × 103 Ans. (a) :
72. A solution to the blind speed problem is to Busy hour call rate is the average calls per subscriber
(a) change the doppler frequency during busy hour.
PAM signal is a analog time switching.
(b) vary the PRF
Grade of service of switch exchange is the ratio of
(c) use monopulse lost calls to total number of calls made.
(d) use MTI PCM signal is a digital time switching.
76. The baud rate is
Ans. (b) : A solution to the blind speed problem is to (a) always equal to the bit transfer rate
vary the PRF.
(b) equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal
73. A message switching network is designed for channel
95% utilization of its transmission links. If λ = (c) not equal to the signalling rate
10 messages/min. Find the average waiting (d) equal to one-half the bandwidth of ideal
time: channel
(a) 1.058 min (b) 1.805 min TNPSC AE-2013
(c) 1.508 min (d) 1.068 min Ans. (b) : A baud rate is equal to twice the bandwidth
TNPSC AE-2014 of an ideal channel. A baud rate is the rate at which
Ans. (b) : Given that, information is transferred in a communication channel.
P = 95% = 0.95 77. In telegraphy relay, the polarising flux
λ = 10 message/min increases the
(a) sensitivity of the relay
P
The average waiting time = (b) speed of operation
λ (1 − P ) (c) capacity of relay
0.95 (d) all of these
= = 1.9 min TNPSC AE-2013
10 × (1 − 0.95 )
Ans. (a) : In telegraphy relay, the polarising flux
≃ 1.805min increases the sensitivity of the relay. A telegraph relay
74. Types of signalling systems in telephony amplified electrical signal in a telegraph line.
(a) Base band signalling 78. The protocol which is not a media access
(b) Spread spectrum protocol, is
(c) Station signalling and interoffice signalling (a) Command/Response (b) Token passing
(d) Interoffice signalling (c) CRC (d) QMA/CD
Ans. (c) : Types of signalling system in telephony Ans. (d) : The protocol QMA/CD is not a media access
station signalling and interoffice signalling. In protocol.
telephony signalling is the exchange of information 79. Network traffic is nothing but
between involved points in the network that sets up, (a) Packets are arranged in queue
control and terminate each telephone cells. (b) FIFO
(c) LIFO Ans. (b) : In a cellular communications system, path
(d) None of the above loss between transmitter and receiver is due to
TNPSC AE-2013 scattering from building, trees, vehicles, and other
Ans. (a) : Network traffic is nothing but packets are structures and due to reflections from ground only.
arranged in queue. Basically network traffic or data 84. The distance at which earth and sky looks like
traffic is the amount of data moving across a network at margin is called
a given point of time. (a) Zenith (b) Nadir
80. The function of a pre-emphasis circuit in a (c) Horizon (d) Slant
communication system is to boost the AAI-2015
(a) modulated wave Ans. (c) : The distance at which earth and sky looks like
(b) whole audio band margin is known as horizon.
(c) higher audio frequency
85. The computers (nodes) communicating
(d) lower audio frequency simultaneously comes under the category
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III (a) Serial (b) Full Duplex
Ans. (c) : The pre-emphasis circuit increase the energy (c) Half Duplex (d) Simplex
content of the higher frequency signal so that they will TANGEDCO- 2015
tends to become stronger than the high frequency noise
component. Ans. (b) :
81. In radio wave propagation the ionosphere • In Full duplex mode, both stations can transmit and
plays a significant role at _______ frequencies. receive at the same time.
(a) optical (b) ultra high • The channel capacity is shared by both
(c) high (d) microwave communicating devices at all times.
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III e.g.- Mobile phones, Plain old telephone service.
Ans. (c) : High frequency undergoes the skywave 86. Cellular Digital Packet data uses of what
phenomenon where the ionosphere refracts the high channel bandwidth
frequency radio wave that can be utilized for medium (a) 35 KHz (b) 40 KHz
and long range radio communication. (c) 30 KHz (d) 50 KHz
82. In free space line of sight propagation case, the TNPSC AE - 2018
transmission losses between transmitter and Ans. (c) : Cellular digital packet data (CDPD) is a
receiver increase with frequency (f) as packet radio system designed to provide reliable 19.2
(a) f (b) f2 Kbps data service. Cellular digital packet data uses 30
(c) f4 (d) f1/2 KHz bandwidth.
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 87. In a CDMA system there are 32 simultaneous
Ans. (b) : In free space line of sight propagation case users in the system. Find the number of
the transmission losses between transmitter and receiver different codes used.
increase with frequency increases with f2. (a) 48 (b) 36
Free space loss depends on the transmission frequency (c) 32 (d) 52
(f) and on the distance (d) between transmitter and UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
receiver as-follows:
2
Ans. (c) : In CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access),
 4πd  32 simultaneous users use 32 different code.
Free space loss =  
 λ  88. Identify the advantages of 2G from below
2 (a) Calling was included
 4πdf  (b) The increase of overhead in signaling paved
 c  way for capacity enhancement.
83. In a cellular communications system, path loss (c) Higher bit rate voice coding enabled more
between transmitter and receiver is due to users getting the services simultaneously.
(a) scattering from building, trees, vehicles, and (d) New services such as SMS were included
other structures only. DMRC AM S&T-2020
(b) scattering from building, trees, vehicles, and Ans. (d) : Advantage of 2G-
other structures and due to reflections from • Data speed of upto 64 kbps
ground only • Use of digital signals instead of analog
(c) scattering from building, trees, vehicles, and
other structures and due to reflections from • New services such as SMS and MMS
ground along with reflections from • Provide better quality voice calls
ionosphere only. • It used a bandwidth of 30 to 200 kHz
(d) scattering from building, trees, vehicles, and 89. A computer modem's rating of 56 K refers to
other structures and due to reflections from its−
ground along with reflections from
ionosphere along with loss due to surface (a) Transmission capacity
wave phenomenon. (b) Transmission speed
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 (c) Memory size
(d) Modem size (b) affects all the message channels of a TDM
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM system
Ans. (b) : A computer modem's rating of 56K refers to (c) affects all the message channels of an FDM
system
its transmission speed.
(d) does not have much effect on both TDM and
• Data is converted into message by the modem and FDM systems.
they are transmitted from terminal over telephone line.
90. Two or more devices share a single link in Ans. (c) : Short-term fading of the channel are affects
______ connection.
all the message channels of an FDM system.
(a) Point to point (b) Unipoint
(c) Multipoint (d) Primary 95. The solid angle subtended by the sun as viewed
from the Earth is Ω = 4 × 10–5 steradian. A
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
microwave antenna designed to be used for
Ans. (c) : In a multipoint connection more than two studying the microwave radiation from the sun
device can share a single link. has a very narrow beam whose equivalent
A multipoint connection is a communication channel solid angle is approximately equal to that
between two or more client is received by all other subtended by the sun. What is the approximate
clients. A point to point connection is a special case of a directivity, D?
multipoint connection involving only two clients. (a) 105 (b) π × 105
91. MIN related to communication engineering (c) π × 10 6
(d) 106
stands for− ISRO Scientist December, 2017
(a) Mobile identification number Ans. (b) : Given as:
(b) Mobile internet Solid angle (Ω) = 4×10–5 steradian
(c) Mobility in network
4π 4π
(d) Mobile internal network Directivity (D) = =
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM Solid angle( Ω ) Ω
Ans. (a) : MIN (Mobile identification Number) is a 10 4π
digit unique number which represents the telephone D= = π ×105
4 × 10−5
number of subscriber.
96. A communication system operates in an
MIN (mobile identification numbers) is a serial number AWGN channel and employs BPSK
that uniquely identifies a cell phone services subscriber
within a mobiles carrier network. It is used by mobile E
modulation. If b = 4 (Eb : signal energy per
phone services provider to identify subscribers with its N0
database, specification routing calls. bit, N0 : noise power spectral density) and
92. What is the full form of ISDN with respect to given that erf (2) = 0.99532, the average BER is
Communication Engineering? :
(a) Inter Subscriber Digital Network (a) 2.34 × 10–3 (b) 2.34 × 10–1
(b) Inter Services Digital Network (c) 4.68 × 10 –3
(d) 4.68 × 10–1
(c) Integrated Services Digital Network DRDO-2009
(d) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network Ans. (a) : Given as,
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM Eb
Ans. (c) : Integrated services digital network (ISDN) is = 4, erf (2) = 0.99532
N0
a set of communication standards for simultaneous
digital transmission of voice, video, data and other Now, erf c (2) = 1– erf (2)
network services over the digitalized circuits of the erf c (2) = 1–0.99523
public switched telephone network. erf c (2) = 4.68 ×10–3
93. In a spectrophotometer, the monochromator 1  Eb 
must be able to resolve two wavelength 599.9 average BER = erf 
2  N 
nm and 600.1 nm. The required resolution is :  0 
(a) 100 (b) 1000 1
(c) 5000 (d) 3000 = erf c (2)
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-II 2
Ans. (d) : λ = 599.9 nm 1
= × 4.68 × 10−3
∆λ = 600.1 − 599.9 2
∆λ = 0.2 nm = 2.34 ×10–3
λ 599.9 97. Which one of the following statement is NOT
Resolution = = ≃ 3000 true?
∆λ 0.2 (a) TDMA systems have high synchronization
94. Short-term fading of the channel : overhead.
(a) affects only a few message channels of an (b) Power control is used to combat the near-far
FDM system problem in CDMA implementations.
(c) IS-95 is a TDMA digital cellular standard. 2. A switching centre that directly supports
(d) The modulation scheme used in GSM is subscribers is known as digital PBX.
GMSK. 3. The link between the subscriber and the
DRDO-2009 network, is also referred to as the local
st loop.
Ans. (c) : IS-95 (Interim Standard-95) was the 1 even
Which of the above statements are correct?
CDMA based digital cellular technology.
98. A time division multiplex system samples 96 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
voice channels at a rate of 8 kHz and encodes ESE-2021
into 8 bits per sample. If one synchronization
Ans.(b) :
bit per frame is added, the transmitted data
• A private branch exchange is a telephone system
rate (Mpps) is
within an enterprise that switches calls between users
(a) 6.208 (b) 6.152 on local lines. Hence statement 1st is correct.
(c) 61.52 (d) 0.768 • A switching in centre that direct support subscribers
BSNL(JTO)-2009 is also know as endoffice, Hence statement 2nd is also
Ans. (b) : Given as, wrong.
samples N = 96 • In a general telephone network, the link between the
fs = 8 kHz subscriber and the network, is also referred to as the
local loop. Hence 3rd option is rights.
bit per sample (n) = 8
k=1 102. Consider the following statements regarding
the cellular system/network:
Rb= (Nn +k) fs
3 1. Cellular systems use open-loop power
Rb = (96 × 8 + 1)×8 ×10 control and closed-loop power control.
Rb = 6152 ×103 bps 2. For FDMA system, the capacity of a cell is
Rb = 6.152Mbps more as compared to the number of
99. In automatic exchange, switching is done by frequency channels allocated to it.
(a) electromechanical or electronic switch gear 3. A cell has L potential subscribers and is
with the help of operator. able to handle N simultaneous users. If L >
(b) electromechanical and electronic switch gear. N, then the system is referred to as
(c) electromechanical or electronic switch gear nonblocking.
without the help of the operator. Which of the above statements are not correct?
(d) none of the these (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
TNPSC AE-2013
ESE-2021
Ans. (a) : In automatic exchange, switching is done by
Ans.(b) :
electromechanical or electronic switch gear with the
help of the operator. In automatic telephone exchange, • Cellular system use open loop only, so statement 1 is
switch is controlled by dialed pulse. wrong.
• In FDMA system the capacity of cell is more as
100. If voice activity interference reduction factor is compared to the number of frequency, Hence
2.5, antenna sectorization gain factor is 2.5 and statement 2 is right.
interference increase factor is 1.6, then the • A cell has L potential subscribers and is able to
performance improvement factor in CDMA handle N simultaneous users. If L > N, then the
digital cellular system is system is blocking.
(a) 1.2 (b) 2.5 Hence, statement 3rd is wrong.
(c) 3.1 (d) 3.9 103. The multiple access communication scheme in
ESE-2021 which each user is allocated the full available
Ans. (d) : Given as: channel spectrum for a specified duration of
Voice interference reduction factor (Gv) = 2.5 time is known as
Antenna sectoring factor (GA) = 2.5 (a) CDMA (b) FDMA
Interference increase factor (P) = 1.6 (c) TDMA (d) MC-CDMA
Now, DRDO-2008
Ans. (c) : Each users has a specific duration of time in
G .G TDMA. In TDMA, users transmit in rapid succession
Performance improvement factor = V A
P each using their own time slot. Optical TDMA allows
2.5 × 2.5 the orthogonal multiuser access to the same frequency
= channel by allocating different time slots to each user.
1.6
104. GSM system uses TDMA with
= 3.9 (a) 32 users per channel
101. Consider the following statements for public (b) 16 users per channel
circuit-switching network: (c) 8 users per channel
1. Private branch exchange (PBX) is an (d) 4 users per channel
application of circuit switching. DRDO-2008
Ans. (c) : GSM system uses TDMA with 8 users per Ans. (a) : Neighboring base stations are assigned
channel. GSM uses a TDMA technique, where the carrier different group of channels it minimizes the interference
is 200 kHz wide and supports eight full rate channels. between base stations and the users under their control.
105. A radio receive is placed at one corner of a 110. CDMA is :
table and again placed at some other corner of (a) Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum system
the same table. Loudspeaker output is changed (b) Frequency Sharing system
because (c) Tie hopping system
(a) image interference is reduced (d) Time sharing system
(b) adjacent channel interference is increased
(c) of fading
(d) line of sight propagation is not utilized Ans. (a) : CDMA is a direct sequence spread spectrum
system.
BSNL (JTO)-2006
CDMA is a channel access method used by various
Ans. (c) : In communication, fading is the fluctuation radio communication technology CDMA is a example
in signal strength at a receiver due to interference of multiple access where several transmitters can send
between two waves. transmission simultaneously over a single
106. In time-division multiple access system, a communication channel CDMA employs spread
traffic system on the receive side must recieve spectrum technology and special coding scheme.
the traffic burst addressed to it. For this
111. ARQ stands for
(a) transmitting frame acquisition is required
(a) Accelerated redirection facility
(b) proper synchronization of the timing of
transmit frame is required (b) Amplitude radio detector quantizing noise
(c) frame efficiency should be higher (c) Automatic repeat request
(d) synchronization is necessary to overcome the (d) Aerial range quartz crystal
perturbations of the satellite TANGEDCO- 2015
BSNL (JTO)-2006 Ans. (c) : ARQ (Automatic repeat request) is an error
Ans. (b) : In time-division multiple access system, control and packet recover method for data transmission
proper synchronization of the timing required to in which the receiver sends an alert to the sender if a
transmit a frame. packet is missing, So that the sender can resend the
missing packet.
107. Which type of network is the internet?
(a) Circuit-switched network 112. Ethernet belongs to which standard?
(b) Message-switched network (a) IEEE 8022 (b) IEEE 802.3
(c) Packet-switched network (c) IEEE 802.4 (d) IEEE 802.5
(d) Cell-switched network TANGEDCO- 2015
Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018 Ans. (b) : Ethernet standard known as IEEE standard
Ans. (c) : The internet is an example of a packet 802.3 This standard defines rules for configuring an
switched network. Packet-switched described the type Ethernet network.
of network in which relatively small units of data called113. Choose the protocol (S) supporting the IP in
packets are routed through network based on the network layer of TCP/IP Protocol suite.
destination address contained within each packet. (a) ARP (b) RARP
108. With frequency reuse, several cells with no (c) IGMP (d) All the above
space in a given coverage area use the same set TNTRB AE– 2017
of frequencies. Two cells using the same set of Ans. (d) : TCP/IP Protocol suite-
frequencies are called • It is a set of protocols used on computer network.
(a) hexagonal shape cells • It provides on end to end connectivity by specifying
(b) adjacent channel cells how data should be packetized.
(c) cluster neighbor cells ARP-Address resolution protocol used to associate IP
(d) co-channel cells address with a MAC address.
ESE-2022
RARD- Reverse address resolution protocol.
Ans. (d) : Co-channel cells interference and system 114. In OSI Reference model, which layer is
capacity frequencies reuse implies that in a given responsible for the process to process delivery
coverage area there are several cells that use the same of the entire message?
set of frequencies. (a) Data Link Layer (b) Transport Layer
109. Why neighboring stations are assigned (c) Network Layer (d) Application Layer
different frequencies in cellular system? TNTRB AE– 2017
(a) To minimize interference Ans. (b) : The transport layer is responsible for the
(b) To minimize area process to process delivery of the entire message. The
(c) To maximize throughput network layer is responsible for the source to
(d) To maximize capacity destination delivery of a packet, possibly across
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II multiple networks.
115. If a LAN with star topology uses a Hub instead 120. __________ is a handoff method in which a
of a switch, its operation is exactly like a: mobile station may continue the connection
(a) Bus topology with new base station before breaking off from
(b) Ring topology the previous base station.
(c) Star topology (a) Hard handoff (b) Soft handoff
(d) Bus or ring topology depends on the address (c) Break over (d) Roaming
of the frame TNTRB AE– 2017
TNTRB AE– 2017 Ans. (b) : In the soft handoff, at least one of the links is
Ans. (a) : If a LAN with star topology uses a Hub kept when radio links are added and removed to the
instead of a switch, its operation is exactly like a Bus mobile station; This ensures that during the handoff, no
topology. breaks occurs.
116. Cloud infrastructure shared by several 121. TCP and UDP protocols are part of the
organizations and supporting a specific group following TCP/IP layers:
is called: (a) Physical and Data link layers
(a) Private cloud (b) Community cloud (b) Network layer
(c) Public cloud (d) Hybrid cloud (c) Transport layer
TNTRB AE– 2017 (d) Application layer
Ans. (b) : Cloud infrastructure shared by several TNTRB AE– 2017
organizations and supporting a specific group is called Ans. (c) : The TCP and UDP protocols is part of the
community cloud. transport TCP/IP layer.
117. In a cellular network, a cell must be designed 122. In a DTMF (Dual-tone multi-frequency)
to serve _____modules located at the _____ cell
phone, digits are represented by:
within the foot print.
(a) Weekest, edge (b) Weekest, centre (a) Orthogonal frequencies (b)Orthogonal phases
(c) Strong, edge (d) Strong, centre (c) Orthogonal codes (d) Orthogonal pulses
TNTRB AE– 2017 UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
Ans. (a) : In a cellular network, a cell must be designed Ans. (a) : In dual-tone multi frequency (DTMF) Phone,
to serve weekest modules located at the edge cell within digits are represented by orthogonal frequencies.
the foot print. 123. The type of access used in GSM technology is
118. The principle used in GPRS for the dynamic (a) FDMA (b) TDMA
allocation of channels is based on: (c) FDMA/TDMA (d) CDMA
(a) Capacity on demand TANGEDCO AE- 2018
(b) Enhanced data rates for global evolution Ans. (c) : FDMA/TDMA used in GSM technology.
(EDGE) 124. Which layer is not present in TCP/IP model?
(c) Flexible TDMA (a) Application layer
(d) Point to multipoint multicast service (PTM-M) (b) Presentation layer
TNTRB AE– 2017 (c) Internet layer
Ans. (a) : The principle used in GPRS, for the dynamic (d) Transport layer
allocation of channels is based on capacity on demand. TANGEDCO AE- 2018
119. Match the following with most appropriate Ans. (b) : The TCP/IP model is a concise version of the
data formats: OSI model. It contains four layers.
OSI Layers Data formats That s layers is
(a) Physical (i) segments
1. Network Access layer
(b) Data link (ii) packets
2. Internet layer
(c) Network (iii) frames
3. Transport layer
(d) Transport (iv) bits
4. Application layer
Codes:
According to option presentation layer is not present in
(a) (b) (c) (d)
TCP/IP model.
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 125. For a 10 Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) the packet is 32 bits, the transmission delay is
(in milliseconds)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(a) 3.2 (b) 32
TNTRB AE– 2017
(c) 0.32 (d) 320
Ans. (a) : Physical layer is information in the form of
TANGEDCO AE- 2018
bits data link layer responsible for reliable transfer of
data frame. Ans. (*) : Length of packet = 32 bits
• Network layer manages the delivery of individual Ethernet link = 10Mbps = 10 ×106bps
data packet. 32
Transmission delay = = 3.2µ second
• Transport layer data is referred to as segments. 10 × 106
126. Which is NOT a Wireless Technology? Ans. (a) : Total BW = 25 × 106 Hz
(a) Blue Tooth channel (duplex) BW = 2 × 30 × 103 Hz
(b) A conventional telephone
25 × 10 6
(c) Wi-fi Total available channels = = 416.66
(d) Wi-Max 60 × 103
RRB SSE 21.12.2014, (Yellow) For reuse factor = 7
416.66
Ans. (b) : A conventional telephone is not a wireless Total no. of channels per cell ≅ ≃ 59
technology. It is largely a means of analog 7
communication which means that the conversation your 132. For handoff in GSM systems, signal threshold
have over the phone is not recorded at any point the with respect to minimum usable signal should
sound is transferred from one point to another in an be
analog circuit. (a) 0 to 6 dB (b) 6 to 10 dB
127. The ethernet protocol uses (c) 10 to 20 dB (d) zero
(a) CSMA/CA (b) SCPC Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017
(c) CSMA/CD (d) Slotted ALOHA Ans. (a) : For handoff in GSM system, signal threshold
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 with respect to minimum usable signal should be 0 to 6
Ans. (c) : dB.
• The Ethernet protocol uses CSMA/CD. 133. A USART chip provides operation which is
• Ethernet is the traditional technology for connecting (a) Half duplex (b) Full duplex
devices in a wired local area network (LAN) or wide (c) Diplex (d) None of these
area networks (WAN).
UJVNL AE-2016
128. The grade of service is measured in
Ans. (b) : A USART chip provides operation which is
(a) Percentage full duplex in nature.
(b) Number
(c) Fractional number 134. A telegraph sounder is basically a
(d) Logarithmic number (a) Mechanical devices
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II (b) Electrostatic devices
(c) Electromagnetic devices
Ans. (c) : The grade of service is measured in fractional
number. (d) Electronic devices
129. In Telecommunication Network, the unit of
traffic intensity is Ans. (c) : A telegraph sounder is an electromechanical
(a) Baud (b) Erlang device used as a receiver on electrical telegraph lines. It
(c) Power/Hz (d) Users/Watt consist an electromagnet attached to the telegraph.
TSGENCO AE-2015
Ans. (b) : In telecommunication networks, the unit of (ii) Antenna & Microwave
traffic intensity is given by Erlang. The traffic intensity Communication
is a measure of the average of a server or resource
during a specified period of time. 1. The directivity of a λ/2 long wire antenna is
130. In cellular mobile communications, the (a) 1.5 (b) 1.66
forward channel band of AMPS system is (c) 2 (d) 2
_______. UPPSC Poly.Tech.Lect-22.03.2022, Paper-II
(a) 824-849 MHz (b) 800-900 Hz UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
(c) 1750-1925 MHz (d) 869-894 MHz BEL-2015
TSGENCO AE-2015 IES - 2012
Ans. (d) : In cellular mobile, communications, the DRDO-2008
forward channel frequency band of AMPS system is Ans. (b) : The directivity of a λ/2 long wire antenna is
869-894 MHz. Advanced mobile phone service is a 1.66.
standard system for analog signal cellular telephone
service. 2. One of the following consists of a non-resonant
antenna-
131. A cellular system with 25 MHz total
(a) the rhombic antenna
bandwidth is allocated for duplex
communication. Each simplex channel is 30 (b) the folded dipole antenna
KHz. The frequency reuse factor for the (c) the end-fire array
system is 7. What is number of channels per (d) the broadside array
cell? UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
(a) 59 (b) 49 Ans. (a) : Rombic antenna is a non-resonant antenna
(c) 39 (d) None capable of operating frequency range 3000kHz to
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 30MHz or 3MHz to 30MHz.
3. For a Hertzian dipole antenna ℓ = λ/10, 7. Which of the following is the true application
Rloss = 1.5Ω, efficiency η is ______. of wire antennas?
(a) 95% (b) 100% (a) Very high gain applications
(c) 85% (d) 75% (b) Microwave communication
NPCIL-2015 (c) Automobiles, spacecraft
Ans. (c) : Given, (d) Missiles, satellites
λ
ℓ= Ans. (c) : In automobiles, for non-directional radio
10 communication on the surface of the earth, where the
Rloss = 1.5Ω direction to the transmitter or the receiver is constantly
2 changing we use vertical whip antennas. The
ℓ
Radiation resistance (Rrad) = 80π2   application of wire antennas are buildings, ships,
λ automobiles, spacecraft etc.
2
1 8. The HPBW of an antenna in the two
= 80π2   orthogonal planes are 95 degrees and 50
 10  degrees, respectively. The directivity of the
80π2 antenna is approximately equal to .
= (a) 11 dB (b) 10 dB
100
Rrad ≅ 8 (c) 9 dB (d) 7 dB
R rad
now antenna efficiency η = Ans. (c) : Given-
R rad + R loss θ = 95, θ = 50
E H
8 Directivity will be-
η= ×100 %
8 + 1.5 40000
D=
η = 84.21% θE × θH
≃ 85%
40000
4. Indicate the antenna that is not wideband- D=
(a) Marconi (b) Folded dipole 95 × 50
(c) Helical (d) Discone (D)dB = 10 log (8.4)
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II ( D )dB ≃ 8.6 dB
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Folded dipole, discone and helical antenna ( D )dB ≃ 9dB
are wideband antennas whereas marconi is not a 9. ________is also known as Hertz antenna
wideband antenna. (a) Half-wave dipole antenna
5. The antenna or array designed to yield (b) Parabolic reflector antenna
directive greater than that obtainable from (c) Horn antenna
uniform distribution has become known as (d) Concave plane antenna
(a) superheterodyne array(b) supergain array DFCCIL Executive S&T 29.09.2021, 12:30 to 2:30PM
(c) super antenna (d) universal antenna
Ans. (a) : Half wave dipole antenna is also known as
ESE-2022 Hertz antenna. Hertz antenna is a dipole antenna of
Ans. (b) : The antenna or array designed to yield length equal to half of the wave length of transmitted
directive greater than that obtainable from uniform electromagnetic wave.
distribution has become known as supergain array.
λ
6. In antennas, if SA is the input signal ℓ=
generated by the source (by the receiving 2
antenna) at temperature TA, TE is the effective 10. An antenna in free space receives 4 µW of
noise temperature of the receiver network power when the incident electric field is
(referred to the input terminal), B is 10 mV/m rms. The effective aperture of the
bandwidth and K is Boltzmann’s constant, antenna is:
then the output signal-to-noise ratio is (a) 1.507 m2 (b) 150.7 m2
2
S SA S SA TA (c) 1507 m (d) 15.07 m2
(a) = (b) =
N ( TA + TE ) kB N kBTE UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (d) : Given,
S SA (1 + TA ) S SA TA
(c) = (d) = Erms = 10 mV/m
N kB (1 + TE ) N kB (1 + TE ) = 10×10–3 V/m
ESE-2022 Pr = 4×10–6 W
2
S SA E rms
Ans. (a) : =
N ( TA + TE ) kB
Pr = Ae (∵ η0 = 120π )
η0

(10 × 10 −3 ) 2 Ans. (c) : The right answer will be 90º
4×10–6 = × Ae 90º half power beam width (HPBW) in E- plane.
120π
4 × 10 −6 × 120 × 3.14 E-plane mean θ-plane or vertical plane
Ae = E 2 sin θ (Hertz an dipole)
100 × 10−6
When-
A e = 15.07 m 2 θ = 90º
11. A magnetic field strength of 5µA m is = Emax
required at a point on θ = π 2, which is 2 km When-
θ=0
from a half-wave dipole antenna in air. If the
radiation resistance of the half-wave dipole = Emin
antenna is 73Ω, then the power radiated by E-has Half power of maximum-
this antenna (neglecting the ohmic loss) is When-
(a) 72 mW (b) 144 mW θ = 45º and 135º
(c) 158 mW (d) 316 mW Half power beam width (HPBW) = 135 –45
ESE-2021 = 90º
Ans.(b) : Given- 14. The directivity gain is the ratio of the actual
H = 5 × 10–6 A/m power density along the ________axis of
r = 2 km radiation of the antenna to that would be
θ = π/2, Rrad = 37Ω produced by an isotropic antenna at the same
distance fed with the ________input power.
for a half-wave dipole
(a) Opposite, Same (b) Opposite, Different
( 2πr sin θ ) ( 5 ×10−6 )( 2π× 2 × 103 sin 90º )
I0 = H = (c) Main, Same (d) Main, Different
π π
cos  cos θ  cos  cos90º 
DMRC AM S&T-2020
2  2  Ans. (c) : The directivity gain is defined as the ratio of
= 20π × 10–3 A the power density of an antenna along the main beam of
Then power radiated by radiated by Antenna the radiation to that of an isotropic antenna at the same
distance fed with the same input power.
I2
Prad = I 2rms Rrad = 0 × R rad 15. ________ is the circuits that decrease signal
2 levels.
1 (a) Attenuators (b) Clippers
Prad = × 400π ×10−6 × 73
2
(c) Adders (d) Amplifiers
2
=14409 ×10–6 watt NLC GET -24.11.2020
= 144.09 mW Ans. (a) : Attenuators is the circuits that decrease signal
level.
≃ 144 mW Attenuators are passive devices that are used to weaken
12. An antenna, when radiating, has highly or attenuate the high-level output of a signal generator.
directional radiation pattern. When antenna is In attenuator circuits, attenuator pads or adapters are
receiving, its radiation pattern: the used to lower the amplitude of the signal to a known
(a) is more directive amount to enable measurement or to protect the
(b) is less directive measuring device that might damage it.
(c) is the same 16. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic
(d) exhibits no directivity at all reflector to -
APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020 (a) Increase the bandwidth
GPSC Asstt. Prof.11.04.2017 (b) Increase the gain
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper-I (c) Allow the feed to be placed at a convenient
GATE-1995 point
Ans. (c) : An antenna is a reciprocal device, Whose (d) Reduce the size of the main reflector
characteristics are same when it is transmitting or Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
receiving. Thus, an antenna when radiating has a highly Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
directive radiation pattern, the receiving antenna will Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2013, Paper-II
also have the same pattern. IES-1998, 2013
13. For a Hertz dipole antenna, the Half Power ISRO Scientist Engg.-2009
Beam Width (HPBW) in the E-plane is Ans. (c) : Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic
(a) 360º (b) 180º reflector to allow the feed to be placed at a convenient
(c) 90º (d) 45º point. In telecommunication and radar, A cassegrain
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI-05.11.2019 antenna is a parabolic antenna in which the feed antenna
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper-I is mounted at or behind the surface of the concave main
GATE-2008 parabolic reflector dish
17. Which of the following antennas exhibit Ans. (c) : λ/2 dipole is a resonant narrow band antenna.
circular polarization? The gain of the antenna is directly proportional to
(a) Small circular loop efficiency.
(b) Folded dipole R rad
η=
(c) Helical R rad + R Loss
(d) Parabolic dish As the diameter of the dipole antenna increases, (from
RRB JE-01.09.2019 3pm-5pm. λ/100 to λ/50), area of wire increases the loss
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II resistance. Loss resistance is inversely proportional to
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 area.
TANGEDCO-2015 ρℓ
R=
RPSC Lect.-2011 A
IES – 2014, 2011, 2009, 2008, 2005, 2002, 2001, 1997 Thus efficiency increases, So the gain increases.
Ans. (c) : Helical Antenna- It is a combination of an 21. For a system with a wavelength of 23.5 cm and
array of horizontal used vertical wires giving a a depression angle of sin–1 0.94, the surface
polarization in both direction resulting in the circularly relief below which the surface will appear
polarized wave. smooth is determined as limited nearly to
18. The radiation field of an antenna at a distance (a) 2.8 cm (b) 3.1 cm
r varies as (c) 3.5 cm (d) 4.0 cm
IES - 2018
1 1
(a) (b) 2 Ans. (b) : According to the Rayleigh criterion for
r r surface Roughness, a surface is considered smooth at or
1 1 below a height (h) if-
(c) 3 (d) 4
r r λ
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-II h≤ cm
8sin γ
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2017, Paper II Given,
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I λ = 23.5cm
IES – 2001 γ = sin–1 (0.94)
GATE-1998 ∴ sin ( γ ) = 0.94
Ans. (a) : Radiation field of an Antenna is given-as-
λ
60πIdℓ ∴h ≤
E= sin θ 8sin γ
λr
23.5
1 h≤
E∝ 8 × 0.94
r
h = 3.1cm
19. The radiation resistance of a thin line centre
22. In a microwave magic T, E plane and H plane
fed λ/2 antenna with sinusoid current are
distribution is : (a) In phase (b) Out of phase
(a) 73 Ω (b) 73 + j42.5 Ω (c) Isolated (d) 90º out of phase
(c) 50 Ω (d) 75 Ω UJVNL AE-2016
TSTRANSCO AC-2018 Ans. (c) : In microwave magic T, E plane and H plane
GPSC Asstt.Prof.11.04.2017 both are isolated from each other. Microwave is the
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2012 portion of 'band' found at higher frequency end of the
radio spectrum.
λ
Ans. (a) : dipole or half-wave dipole impedance is 23. Consider the following statements:
2
If the maximum range of radar has to be
free space is 73Ω.
doubled
20. If the diameter of a λ / 2 dipole antenna is 1. the peak transmitted power may be increased
increased from λ/100 to λ/50 then its 16 folds
(a) Bandwidth increases 2. the antenna diameter may be doubled
(b) Bandwidth decreases 3. the sensitivity of receiver may be doubled
(c) Gain increases 4. the transmitted pulse width may be doubled
(d) Gain decreases Which of the above statements are correct?
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2015, Paper-I (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
IES - 2015, 2014 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
GATE-2000 IES - 2017
Ans. (a) : The range of the radar is given as- (c) Amplitude modulated IF signal
1/ 4 (d) Frequency modulated IF signal
 Pt D 4S  Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018
rmax = 48  
 δf λ (F − 1) 
2
IES - 2014
Where, Ans. (b) : In microwave relay communication repeaters
Pt → Peak pulse power (W) are used to extend the transmission signal and used for
D → Antenna diameter (m) the amplifying the baseband signal.
S → Effective cross-section area target (m2) 27. The frequency range of very high frequency
δf → receiver bandwidth (Hz) (VHF) is :
(a) 300 MHz - 3000 MHz
λ → wavelength (m)
(b) 30 MHz - 300 MHz
F → Noise figure (c) 3 MHz - 30 MHz
rmax → maximum radar range. (d) 30 THz - 3000 Hz
rmax ∝ [ Pt ]
1/ 4 1/ 4
, rmax ∝  D 4  IES - 2014
Ans. (b) : Very High frequency Range-
rmax ∝ D 30 MHz – 300 MHz.
24. A microwave communication link employs two Radio frequency range from 30MHz to 300MHz. Very
antennas for transmission and reception high-frequency radio wave are widely used for ship and
elevated at 200 m and 80 m, respectively. aircraft communication, administration radio, Police
Considering obliqueness of the Earth, the and fire radio.
maximum possible link distance is : 28. Microwave link repeaters are typically 50 km
(a) 46 km (b) 64 km apart in TV transmission, because :
(c) 96 km (d) 102 km (a) of atmospheric attenuation
IES - 2017 (b) of output power tube limitation
Ans. (c) : The maximum distance between transmitting (c) microwave transmission is through surface
and receiving antenna is- wave which attenuates faster
(d) of Earth's curvature
dmax= 4.12  h t + h r  km
IES - 2014
Given, Ans. (d) : Microwave have to used in linked sight
ht = 200m communication, But because of earth curvature it is not
hr = 80m possible to cover larger area. To increase the area
repeaters are to be used 50km apart in TV transmission.
dmax = 4.12  200 + 80  km
29. A radio cab company with its antenna at a
= 95.12 km height of 15m communicates with a cab having
its antenna 1.5m. The maximum
d max ≃ 96 km communication distance without obstacles is
25. Maximum frequency reflected from roughly:
ionosphere is 9 MHz on a particular day. The (a) 10 km (b) 20 km
maximum ion density/metre3 is (c) 28 km (d) 36 km
(a) 108 (b) 106 IES - 2013
12
(c) 10 (d) 109 Ans. (b) : ht = 15m.
IES - 2015 hr = 1.5m.
Ans. (c) : Given, dmax = 4.12  h t + h r 
Maximum reflected frequency fc = 9MHz
f2 = 4.12  15 + 1.5 
N max = C
81 = 20 × 5.09
d max = 20.97km
=
( 9 ×10 ) 6 2
=
9 ×106 × 9 × 106
30. Microwave links are used for TV transmission
81 81
because :
81× 1012 (a) they have small S/N ratio
= = 1012
81 (b) they produce less phase distortion
(c) they are relatively cheaper
N max = 1012 (d) they are free from impulse noise
26. In microwave relay communication, the IES - 2013
repeater is usually an amplifier for the Ans. (b) : microwave links used for TV transmission
amplification of because links produce less phase distortion during
(a) Carrier signal transmission. Microwave links used point–to–point
(b) Baseband signal communication.
31. Usually, microwave signals are not used for Ans. (c) : In ship to ship communication problem of
ionospheric propagation. The reason is : fading can be overcome by using frequency diversity.
(a) Ionospheric layers absorb microwaves Frequency diversity- It is a phenomenon when we
tremendously transmit same message signal at different carrier
(b) Drastic dispersion takes place for microwave frequency.
signals in ionosphere
(c) Scattering prevents propagation of 36.
microwaves through ionosphere
(d) Microwaves penetrate through ionosphere
layers
IES - 2011
Ans. (d) : Microwave signals are not used for
ionospheric propagation because microwaves penetrate
through ionosphere layers. The microwave frequency
lies between 1GHz to 300 GHz. What must be the angle θ of a corner reflector,
32. Microwave frequencies are used for such that an incident wave is reflected in the
communication with deep space probes same direction?
primarily because they do not suffer : (a) 30º (b) 45º
(a) Refraction by ionosphere (c) 60º (d) 90º
(b) Attenuation in space IES - 2007
(c) Velocity distortion and phase distortion Ans. (d) : The angle θ of a corner reflector must be 90º,
(d) Fading such that an incident wave is reflected in the same
IES - 2011 direction.
Ans. (a) : Microwave frequencies are used for
communication with deep space probes primarily
because they do not suffer refraction by ionosphere.
33. In microwave communication systems,
sometimes, the same frequency is used by
separation of signals through vertical and
horizontal polarizations. This technique is 37. Two microwave signals, travelling in the free
generally called space have a path length difference of 3 cm
(a) Steady frequency multiplexing when operating 10 GHz. What is the relative
(b) Variable frequency modulation technique phase difference of the signals?
(c) Frequency reconditioning technique (a) 2π (b) π
(d) Frequency re-uses technique (c) 3π (d) 4π
IES - 2011 IES - 2007
Ans. (d) : In microwave communication system, Ans. (a) : Given,
sometimes, the source frequency is used by the Length difference ∆ = 3cm = 0.03 m
separation of signals through vertical and horizontal
Operating frequency f = 10GHz
polarization this technique is generally called frequency
re-uses technique. 2π
Relative phase difference θ = .∆
34. The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable λ
for microwave signals is its: Where,
(a) Low selectivity (b) Low distrotion
c 3 × 108
(c) High attenuation (d) High sensitivity λ= =
IES - 2010 f 10 × 109
Ans. (c) : The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable λ = 0.03 m
for microwave signal is High attenuation. 2π
At High Frequency (Microwave frequency) Losses θ= × 0.03
0.03
(attenuation) will be high. So, coaxial cable is not
suitable for high frequency. θ = 2π
35. A ship to ship communication system is 38. In a dielectric medium of ε1, (given n = ε )
r
affected by fading. A useful solution which can
what is the expression for the wavelength (λ) of
be used is: a microwave signal ?
(a) A more directional antenna
c nc
(b) A brodband antenna (a) 2 (b)
(c) Use of frequency diversity n f f
(d) Use of space diversity c
(c) (d) None of the above
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II nf
IES - 2010, 2011 IES - 2007
Ans. (c) : Given- Ans. (b) :
Dielectric medium - ε1 List-I List-II
n = ε1 (A) Surface waves – Vertical polarization.
(B) Duct formation – Super refraction.
c (C) Ionospheric – Reflection.
V=
n Propagation
c (D) VLF Propagation – Waveguide mode.
V=
ε1 42. Consider the following statements:
For space communications, the carrier
n frequencies are generally greater than 108
V= = λf
T MHz, because it is desirable
c 1. to avoid interference due to FM band
= λf 2. to penetrate the ionosphere without any
n reflection
c 3. to increase the coverage area
λ=
nf 4. to have less skip distance
39. In the terrestrial paths of a microwave Which of the above statements are correct?
communication system, which technique is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
usually adopted to overcome signal loss due to (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
earth's curvature? IES - 2002
(a) Link repeaters are arranged with 50 km apart Ans. (a) : The space communications, carrier frequency
(b) Link repeaters are arranged with 500 km are generally greater than 108 MHz.
apart Because-
(c) Signal amplifiers are arranged in every 5 km • To avoid Interference due to FM band
apart • To Penetrate the Ionosphere without any reflection.
(d) Phase correctors are located in every 2 km • To Increase the coverage Area.
apart
IES - 2007 43. A radio station works at 800 kHz and uses
AM. If this is a public broadcast system, it
Ans. (a) : The link repeaters are arranged with 50km should transmit using
apart this technique is usually adopted to overcome
(a) Parabolic reflector to transmit all round
signal loss due to earth curvature.
(b) Turnstile antenna for the required band
40. A duplexer is used for which one of the (c) Half-wave long horizontal wire
following?
(d) A vertical antenna less than quarter for
(a) To couple two antenna in a transmitter with
practical reasons
interference
(b) To isolate the antenna from local oscillator IES - 2001
(c) To prevent interference between two Ans. (a) : Radio station should transmit using parabolic
antennas connected to a receiver reflector to transmit in all around.
(d) To use same antenna for reception or Radio station broadcast with several different types of
transmission interference modulation-
IES - 2007 AM radio station transmit in AM (Amplitude
Ans. (d) : A duplexer is used to allow the same antenna modulation) FM radio station transmit in FM
to be used for reception or transmission without mutual (Frequency Modulation)
interference. 44. Consider the following features:
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 1. Wider bandwidth due to higher frequencies
answer : 2. Smaller component size leading to smaller
List - I List - II systems
3. Existence of low signal losses
A. Surface waves 1. Super refraction 4. Lower interference due to lower signal
B. Duct formation 2. Waveguide mode crowding
C. Ionospheric 3. Vertical Use of RF/microwaves in system application
propagation polarization results in which of these advantages?
D. VLF 4. Reflection (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
propagation (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Codes : IES - 2000
A B C D Ans. (a) : The advantages of RF/microwaves is system
(a) 3 1 2 4 application-
(b) 3 1 4 2 • Smaller component size leading to smaller system.
(c) 1 3 4 2 • Wider bandwidth due to higher frequencies.
(d) 1 3 2 4
IES – 2002, 1997 • Lower Interference due to lower signal crowding.
45. In microwave communication links, the rain- Ans. (d) : A duplexer is used in a radar system to be
drop attenuation experience is mainly due to enable the use of a common antenna for transmission
(a) absorption of microwave energy by water and reception.
vapour
(b) resonance absorption of atomic vibration in
water molecules
(c) Scattering of microwaves by collection of
waterdrops
(d) refraction of microwaves through liquid- It is also used to avoid noise interference in the radar
system.
drops lenses formed by rain
49. Which of the following antenna is independent
IES - 1999
of frequency
Ans. (a) : Microwave communication the rain-drop (a) Folded dipole (b) Log periodic
attenuation is caused by absorption of microwave (c) Either of the above (d) All of the above
energy by water vapour. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
46. In an LOS communication system, the ground Ans.(b):Log periodic Antenna is a frequency independent.
below the direct path is the first Fresnel zone 50. For reliable "beyond-the-horizon" microwave
and is smooth reflecting. The phase difference communication, without using repeaters, the
between the direct and receiving waves at the frequency of choice would be:
receiving antenna will be: (a) 1 MHz (b) 30 MHz
(a) 180º (b) 360º (c) 2000 MHz (d) 30,000 MHz
(c) 270º (d) 450º IES - 1997
IES - 1999 Ans. (b) : For reliable "beyond-the-horizon" microwave
communication, without using repeaters, the frequency
Ans. (a) : Phase difference between direct and reflected of choice would be 30 MHz.
wave 180º if direct wave has strength = E and then
51. Transmission of signals in a terrestrial
reflected wave has strength = –E
microwave system is achieved through:
−E = E(180º ) (a) Reflection from the ionosphere
(b) line-of-sight mode
47. In microwave communication, sometimes, (c) Reflection from the ground
microwave signals reach large distance by (d) Diffraction from the stratosphere
following the Earth's curvature. This IES - 1996
phenomenon is called
Ans. (b) : Terrestrial microwave transmission uses
(a) Troposphere scatter highly directional antenna for line-of-sight propagation
(b) Faraday effect paths using frequency in the 4 to 12 GHz range.
(c) Lonosphere reflection 52. Diversity reception is used to :
(d) Ducting (a) Increase receiver sensitivity
Mizoram PSC AE/ SDO-2012, Paper-III (b) Improve receiver selectivity
IES - 1998 (c) Overcome degrading effect of fading
Ans. (d) : In microwave communication, sometimes, (d) Overcome degrading effect of receiver deturning
microwave signals reach large distance by following the IES - 1996
Earth's curvature. This phenomenon is called ducting. Ans. (a) : Diversity reception is used to increase
48. Consider the following statements : receiver sensitivity.
A wireless microphone or sound system using diversity
A duplexer is used in a radar system to reception will switch to the other antenna within
1. Protect the receiver when high power signal microsecond if one antenna experiences noise,
is transmitted providing an improved quality signal with fewer
2. Enable the use of a common antenna for dropouts and noise.
transmission and reception 53. Which one of the following is referred to as
3. Allow the antenna to only receive when the 'night-effect' in radio direction finding.
signals is arriving (a) Error due to additional propagation paths
4. Avoid noise interference in the radar system (b) Site errors due to reflection of energy from
Of these statements nearly objects
(a) 1 and 3 are correct (c) Errors due to bats flying
(b) 3 and 4 are correct (d) Errors due to fog
(c) 1 and 4 are correct IES - 1996
(d) 2 and 4 are correct Ans. (b) : Night-effect in radio direction finding to side
IES - 1998 errors due to reflection of energy from nearly objects.
54. In a homogeneous non-magnetic dielectric 56. A communication link operating at 3 GHz has
medium of dielectric constant 9.0, the a 22.5 W transmitter connected to an antenna
propagation delay per unit length is: of 2.5 m2 effective aperture. The receiving
(a) 5 ps/mm (b) 10 ps/mm antenna has effective aperture of 0.5 m2 and is
(c) 1 ns/mm (d) 5 ns/mm located at 15 km line-of-sight distance from the
IES - 1996 transmitting antenna (assume lossless,
matched antennas). The power delivered to the
Ans. (b) : Given,
receiver is
Dielectric constant εr = 9.0 (a) 12.5 µW (b) 125 µW
c = 3×108m/s (c) 12.5 mW (d) 125 mW
c 3 ×108 3 × 108 IES - 2018
V= = = = 108 m / s
εr 9 3 Ans. (a) : Given, f = 3GHz, Pt = 22.5W
Propagation delay per unit- Aet = 2.5m2, Aer = 0.5m2, d = 15km
1 1 PG
= = 8 Power density at receiver = t dt2
V 10 mm / s 4πd
= 10–11s/mm= 10ps/mm 4π
where, Gdt = 2 × A et
55. Consider the following statements with λ
reference to dipole arrays: c 3 × 108
1. In broadside array, all the dipoles are fed in λ= = = 0.1m
the same phase from the same source f 3 × 109
2. In end-fire array, the magnitude of the 4π
current in each element is same and there is Gdt = × 2.5 = 1000π
( )
2
no phase difference between these currents 0.1
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 22.5 × 1000π
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Power density =
4π (15 ×103 )2
IES - 2019 = 2.5 ×10–5
Ans. (a) : The power delivered to the receiver = Power density
×effective area (Aer).
mψ = 2.5 ×10–5×0.5
sin
Array factor (AF) = 2 = 12.5×10–6W
ψ = 12.5µW
sin
2 57. For a 4-element broadside antenna array, ψ
for 2 element array- equals
ψ (a) sinϕ (b) πcosϕ
AF = 2 cos  
2 cot φ
(c) (d) πsinϕ
Maximum radiation - ψ = 0 2π
IES - 2018
δ + β cos φmax = 0 Ans. (b) : Given,
If δ = 0 4-element broadside antenna array-
Maximum radiation Achieved-
Phase different between two antenna is zero,
When -
cosφmax = 0
α=0
φmax = ± π / 2 Array phase function
Hence maximum radiation is normal to the array axis, ψ = βd cos φ
so the array is called as brand side array .
δ = ± βd 2π λ
ψ= × cos φ
± βd + βd cos φ = 0 λ 2
max
cosφmax = ± 1 ψ = π cos φ
φmax = 0, π 58. In a certain material medium, a propagating
Maximum radiation is tangential to the array axis so the electromagnetic wave attains 60% of the
array is called end fire array. velocity of light. The distance at which the
Therefore- electromagnetic wave (f = 10 MHz) will have
the same magnitude for the induction as well
for the broad side array all the dipoles are fed
as the radiation fields is nearly
in the same phase (δ = 0) for end line array the phase
(a) 57.4 m (b) 29.0 m
different the dipoles.
(c) 5.8 m (d) 2.9 m
δ = ± βd
IES - 2018
Ans. (d) : Given- Ans. (c) : Given,
Electromagnetic wave = 60% Antenna distance (d) = 28km.
f = 10MHz Transmitter radiation power Prad = 0.1kW
electric field at radial distance is function- full wave dipole. Rrad = 73Ω
I0 dlsin θe jωt  Jβ2 β 1  P 0.1×103
Eθ =  + 2 − 3 I 2rms = r ad = = 1.369
4πE  ωr ωr ωr  R rad 73
Radiation field has- I 2rms = 1.369
1 Irms = 1.170A
Eθ ∝
r Imax = 2 × I rms
Induction field-
1 = 2 × 1.170
Eθ ∝ 2 = 1.414 ×1.170
r
= 1.655A
Electrostatics field-
The electric field strength-
1
Eθ ∝ 3 60 × Imax 60 × 1.655
r E max = =
Magnitude of induction as well as radiation d 28
E = 3.54mV / m
jωt − jβ r jωt −jωr
I0 dℓ sin θ e e jβ
2
I dℓ sin θ e e β 61. If an antenna has a main beam with both half
× = 0 × power beam widths equal to 20º, its directivity
4πε ωr 4πε ωr 2
(D) is nearly :
β2 β (a) 90.6 (b) 102.5
×
ωr ωr 2 (c) 205 (d) 226
1 IES - 2016
r= Ans. (b) : Given,
β
Both half power beam width-
λ
r= θE = 20
2π
θH = 20
v
λ= Since half power beam width small
f Directivity-
0.6 × 3 ×108 41257 41257
λ= D= =
10 × 106 θE × θH 20 × 20
λ = 18m
D = 103.14
18
r= 62. For the microwave antenna
2π
(a) Shape only depends on the frequency range
r ≃ 2.9 m used
59. The maximum radiation for an endfire array (b) Size only depends on the frequency range
occurs at used
(c) Neither shape nor size depend on the
π
(a) ϕ0 = 0 (b) φ0 = frequency range used
2 (d) Both shape and size depend on the frequency
π 3π range used
(c) φ0 = − (d) φ0 =
2 2 IES - 2015
IES - 2017 Ans. (d) : A microwave antenna is designed to receive
Ans. (a) : In an end-fire array the maximum radiation and transmit electromagnetic radiation with
occurs at 0º or 180º (along the axis of the array). wavelengths between Infrared (IR) radiation and radio
In broad side array the maximum radiation is waves. A microwave antenna both size are shape
perpendicular to the axis of array ( or 90º). depend on the frequency range used.
60. The field strength at the receiving antenna 63. The antenna efficiency of a λ / 8 long dipole
location at a distance of 28 km from a half antenna is 89.159%. The equivalent loss
wave dipole transmitter radiating 0.1 kW is: resistance of the antenna is
(a) 1.5 mV/m (b) 2.5 mV/m (a) 1.5 Ω (b) 15 Ω
(c) 3.5 mV/m (d) 4.5 mV/m (c) 12.33 Ω (d) 125 Ω
IES - 2017 IES - 2015, 1999
Ans. (a) : Given, Distance(R) = 1km.= 103m
λ c 3 × 108
Antenna dipole length ( dℓ ) = λ= = = 1m
8 f 300 ×106
2
Antenna efficiency (η) = 89.159%  λ 
2 Pr = G t G r   × Pt
 dℓ   4πR 
Radiation resistance (Rrad) = 80π  
λ  1 
2
2 = 1 × 1 3 
× 2000
 λ   4π× 10 
= 80π  
 8× λ  Pr = 12.7µW
5
Rrad = π2 66. The ideal gain of a parabolic antenna of
4 diameter 10 m for a wavelength of 316 cm is
Rrad = 12.33Ω (a) 20 dB (b) 30 dB
R rad (c) 40 dB (d) 60 dB
Antenna efficiency (η) = × 100 IES - 2015
R rad + R Loss
Ans. (a) : Given,
89.159 12.33 Diameter (d) = 10 m
=
100 12.33 + R Loss wavelength (λ) = 316 cm.
RLoss = 13.83 –12.33 r = 5m
R Loss = 1.5Ω η4πA e
G=
λ2
64. A small elemental wire antenna is excited with
η = 1(ideal)
a sinusoidal current of frequency 1 MHz. The
induction field and radiation field are at equal
distance d from the antenna. The value of d 4π× π(5)2 9.86 × 100
will be nearly G = = ≃ 100
(3.16)2 9.98
(a) 300 m (b) 50 m
G(dB) = 10 log10 100
(c) 150 m (d) 20 m
IES - 2015 G = 20 dB
Ans. (b) : Given, 67. Current required to radiate 100W of power at
f = 1MHz = 1×106Hz 100 MHz from 0.01 m dipole will be
c (a) 131 A (b) 141 A
λ= (c) 151 A (d) 161 A
f
IES - 2015
3 × 108 BEL - 2015
λ=
1×106 Ans. (c) : Given,
λ = 300m P = 100W, I = 0.01m, f = 100MHz
λ c 3 ×10 8
d= λ= =
2π f 100 × 106
300 λ = 3m
=
2 × 3.14 Prad  I 
I 2rms = ∵ Irms = 0 
80π ( I / λ )
2
= 47.74  2
d ≃ 50m 100
I 2rms =
65. A transmitting antenna with a 300 MHz  0.01 
2
carrier frequency produces 2 kW of power. If 8π 2  

both transmitting and receiving antennas have  3 
2
unity power gain, the power received by the  I0  100
receiving antenna at a distance of 1 km is   = 2
 2  0.01 
(a) 11.8 mW (b) 18.4 mW 80π2  
(c) 18.4 µW (d) 12.7 µW  3 
IES - 2015 2 × 100
I0 =
Ans. (d) : Given, 2  0.01   0.01 
Frequency (f) = 300MHz 80 × ( 3.14 )  × 
3  3   3 
Pt = 2kW = 2×10 W
I0 = 151A
Gt = Gr = 1(Unity Power gain)
68. The length of half wave dipole at 30 MHz will 72. If a dipole antenna has a radiation resistance
be of 73Ω, the loss resistance of 7Ω and the power
(a) 5 m (b) 10 m gain is 16, then the directivity is
(c) 15 m (d) 5.5 m (a) 17.53 dB (b) 24.7 dB
IES - 2015 (c) 40 dB (d) 14.6 dB
Ans. (a) : Given, IES - 2014
f = 30MHz Ans. (a) : Given,
the half wave dipole length- Rrad = 73 Ohm
ℓ = λ/2 RLoss = 7 Ohm
GP = 16
c 3 × 108
λ= = R rad 73 73
f 30 × 106 η= = =
R rad + R Loss 73 + 7 80
λ = 10m
10 G
ℓ = λ/2 = η= P
2 Gd
ℓ = 5m 73 G P
=
69. The effective length of an antenna is a measure 80 Gd
of 16
(a) length of the antenna neglecting fringe Gd =
73
effects
(b) effectiveness of the antenna as a 80
radiator/collector of electromagnetic energy 16 × 80
Gd =
(c) power consumed by the antenna 73
(d) range of the antenna G d = 17.53dB
IES - 2014
Ans. (b) : Effective length of an antenna is measured in 73. If the receiving antenna is polarized at 90º with
terms of ability of radiator/collector of electromagnetic respect to transmitting antenna, it will receive
energy. (a) No signal (b) Minimum signal
(c) Maximum signal (d) Same signal
70. For a dipole antenna
IES - 2014
(a) the radiation intensity is maximum along the
normal to the dipole axis Ans. (a) : There are three main types of polarization
(b) the current distribution along its length is Namely, Linear polarization, circular polarization and
uniform irrespective of the length elliptical polarization.
(c) the effective length equals its physical length The Polarization between the receiving and transmitting
antenna is generally, linear polarization (condition →φ
(d) the input impedance is independent of the
= 0 or 180º)
location of the feed-point
So, if the receiving antenna is polarized at 90º with
IES - 2014 respect to transmitting antenna it will receive no signal.
Ans. (a) : 74. The efficiency of an antenna having a
resistance of 30Ω and radiation resistance of
60Ω is
(a) 33.3% (b) 50%
(c) 66.6% (d) 75%
IES - 2014
Ans. (c) : Given-
For a dipole antenna, the radiation intensity is
Rrad = 60Ω
maximum along normal to the dipole axis.
Rloss = 30Ω
71. An isotropic radiator is one which radiates
energy 60 60
η= =
(a) in a well-defined direction 60 + 30 90
(b) uniformly in all directions 60
(c) inside a hollow space η = × 100
90
(d) uniformly in horizontal plane
IES - 2014 η = 66.66%
Ans. (b) : An Isotropic radiator is a theoretical point 75. The discone antenna is
source of electromagnetic or sound waves which (a) A useful direction finding antenna
radiates the same Intensity of radiation in all direction. (b) Used as a radar receiving antenna
(c) Circularly polarized like other circular antennas λ = 3m
(d) Useful as VHF receiving antenna Transmitted power PT = 1kW
IES - 2014 Directivity DT = DR = 1.64
Ans. (d) : Discone antenna is used for frequencies  λ 
2
above 30MHz (VHF rang). A discone antenna consists Maximum received power PR = PT × DT ×DR  
of three main part-  4πR 
2
the disc, the cone and the insulator.  3 
= 1×103 × 1.64 × 1.64  3 
 4π ×100 ×10 
PR = 1.53 ×10–8W
80. An antenna located on the surface of a flat
earth transmits an average power of 200 kW.
Assuming that all the power is radiated
A discone is a wide band antenna because it is a uniformly over the surface of a hemisphere
constant angle antenna. with the antenna at the center, the time
A discone is a omni-directional antenna but has a low average Poynting vector at 50 km is
gain it is used mostly as a VHF and UHF receiving and 2
transmitting antenna at airport. (a) zero (b) ar , W / m2
π
76. For an antenna, Radiation Intensity is defined 40 40
as (c) µW / m 2 (d) a r , µW / m 2
(a) the time-averaged power per unit solid angle π π
(b) the peak radiated power per unit solid angle IES - 2011
(c) the peak radiated power per unit area Ans. (d) : Given,
(d) the time-averaged radiated power per unit area Transmit power (Pt) = 200 kW
IES - 2013 Poynting vector at = 50km
Ans. (a) : Radiation intensity is defined as the time- Pt
Pavg =
averaged power per unit solid angle. Area
77. The waveguide modes are usually excited from Pt 200 × 103 2 × 105
a signal source through: = = =
(a) an antenna (b) an aperture 2πr 2
2π(50 ×10 )
3 2
2π × 25 ×108
(c) a coaxial cable (d) free space coupling 40
IES - 2013 Pavg = a r µW / m 2
π
Ans. (c) : The waveguide modes are usually excited
from a signal source through a coaxial cable. Poynting vector will be directed .
78. An elliptically (arbitrarily) polarized wave can 81. The characteristic impedance of a TV
be broken up into receiving antenna cable is 300Ω. If the
(a) Two circularly polarized components conductors are made of copper separated by
rotating in same direction air and are 1 mm thick, what is the phase
(b) Two circularly polarized components velocity and phase constant when receiving
rotating in opposite directions VHF channel 3(63 MHz) and VHF 69(803
MHz)
(c) Two stationary circularly polarized components
(a) 1.32 rad/m and 17.82 rad/m
(d) None of these
(b) 1.52 rad/m and 16.82 rad/m
IES - 2012 (c) 1.52 rad/m and 17.82 rad/m
Ans. (b) : The elliptically (arbitrarily) polarized Wave (d) 1.32 rad/m and 16.82 rad/m
can be broken up into two circularly polarized
IES - 2011
components rotating in opposite directions.
Ans. (d) : Given,
79. A communication link is to be set up between
two stations 100km as part using λ/2 antenna Impedance of TV receiving Antenna cable = 300Ω
to transmit 1 kW power. The operating f1 = 63 MHz
frequency is 100 MHz and the directivity of the f2 = 803MHz
two antenna is 1.64. The maximum received 3 × 10 8
power would be λ1 = = 4.76m

63 × 106
(a) 3.06 × 10–8 W (b) 1.53 × 10–8 W
2π
(c) 6.12 × 10–9 W (d) 1 × 0–9 W β1 = = 1.32rad / m
IES - 2012 4.76
Ans. (b) :Given, Distance between station (R)=100km. c 3 × 108
λ2 = = = 0.373m
operating frequency f = 100 MHz. f 803 ×106
2
c 3 × 108 2π
λ= = β2 = = 16.82rad / m.
f 100 ×106 0.376
82. Consider the following statements : Codes :
1. The antennas radiate energy A B C
2. An antenna is a transition device, or (a) 1 3 2
transducer between a guided wave and a (b) 2 3 1
free space wave or vice versa (c) 1 2 3
3. The resonators and transmission lines (d) 2 1 3
store energy IES - 2011
4. An antenna converts electromagnetic Ans. (b) :
signal to currents or vice versa (A)- Two-Isotropes half wavelength apart fed in phase-
Which of these statements are correct? d = λ/2, α = 0º
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only ψ = βd cos θ + α
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ψ = π cos θ
IES - 2011
|AF| = cos (ψ/2)
Ans. (d) : The antennas radiate energy it acts as
transition device or transducer between a guided wave = cos ( π / 2 cos θ )
and a from space wave or vice-versa the resonators and
transmission lines store energy and antenna converts
electromagnetic signal to currents or vice-versa.
83. An antenna can be modeled as an electric
dipole of length 5 m at 3 MHz. Find the (B) Two Isotropes quarter wavelength apart fed with
radiation resistance of the antenna assuming 90º phase shift-
uniform current over the length. d = λ/4 , α = π/2
(a) 2Ω (b) 1Ω ψ = βd cos θ +α
(c) 4Ω (d) 0.5Ω ψ = π/2 cosθ + π/2
IES - 2011 = π/2 (1+ cosθ)
|AF| = cos [π/2 (1+ cos θ)]
Ans. (a) : Given,
Electric dipole length ( ℓ )= 5m
f = 3MHz
c
λ=
f (C) Two Isotropes quarter wavelength apart fed in
3 × 108 phase-
= = 100m
3 ×106 d = λ / 4, α = 0º
ℓ < < Hertzian dipole ψ = βd cos θ + α
ψ = π/2 cosθ
Rrad = 80π2 ( ℓ / λ )
2
|AF| = cos (π/4 cos θ)
2
 5 
= 80π2  
 100 
R rad ≃ 2Ω
85. In a communication system both transmitting
84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct and receiving antennas are vertically
answer using the code given below the lists : polarized. On a clear sunny day the power
List-I List-II received at the receiver is 1mW. On a rainy
day due to rain induced depolarization the
A. Two-isotropes half 1. plane of polarization of the received wave gets
wavelength apart rotated by 60º when it reaches to the receiving
fed in phase antenna. The received power at the receiver
shall be:
B. Two isotropes 2. (a) 0.5 mW (b) 0.866 mW
quarter (c) 1 mW (d) 0.25 mW
wavelength apart IES - 2011
fed with 90º phase Ans. (d) : After polarization-
shift
Pr = P cos2 θ
C. Two isotropes 3. Where,
quarter Pr → received power
wavelength apart
θ → Angle of rotation
fed in phase
Pr = P cos2θ
= 1 cos2 60º (Given P = 1mW, θ = 60º) Ans. (b) : Given,
1
2
ℓ1 = 1.5m
= 1×  
2 f1 = 100MHz = 100×106 Hz
ℓ 2 = 15 m
1× 1
= = 0.25 mW f2 = 10MHz = 10 ×106 Hz
4
Prad1 ℓ12 f12
Pr = 0.25mW =
Prad 2 ℓ 22 f 22
86. Which of the following antenna is used as a 2
standard reference for calculating directive 1.5 × 100 × 106 
=  6 
gain?  15 × 10 ×10 
(a) Half wave dipole (b) Infinitesimal dipole
Prad1  1  2
(c) Elementary doublet (d) Isotropic antenna = 
IES - 2011 Prad 2  1 
Ans. (d) : Isotropic antenna is used as a standard Prad1 = Prad 2
reference for calculating directive gain, because
isotropic antenna is a hypothetical loss-less radiator Both Antennas radiate same power.
which radiats equal power in all directions. 89. Consider the following statements :
87. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct The inter element spacing of
answer using the code given below the lists 1. More than λ in array antenna will produce
grating lobes in unscanned condition.
List - I List – II
2. More than λ/2 but less than λ in array
A. Helical 1. Fan shaped beams antenna will produce grating lobes in
antenna unscanned condition.
B. Sectoral horn 2. Shaped beams 3. Less than λ/2 in array antenna will not
C. Phase arrays 3. Circular polarization produce any grating lobes.
D. Parabolic 4. Pencil beams 4. More than 1.5λ in array antenna will not
reflector produce any grating lobe.
Codes :
A B C D (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 3 1 2 4 IES - 2010
(b) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (a) : The inter element spacing of more than λ in
(c) 3 2 1 4 array antenna will produce grating lobes in unscanned
(d) 4 2 1 3 condition and more than λ/2 but less than λ is array
IES - 2011 antenna will produce grating lobes in unscanned
Ans. (a) : condition.
List-I List-Ii 90. A short current element has length l = 0.03λ
(A) Helical Antenna – Circular polarization where λ is the wavelength. The radiation
(B) Sectoral horn – Fan shaped beam resistance for uniform current distribution is
(C) Phase Arrays – Shaped beam (a) 0.072π2Ω (b) 80π2Ω
(D) Parabolic Reflector – Pencil beam (c) 72Ω (d) 80Ω
IES - 2010
88. A dipole with a length of 1.5 m operates at 100
MHz while the other has a length of 15 m and Ans. (a) : Given-
operates at 10 MHz. The dipoles are fed with ℓ = 0.03λ
same current. The power radiated by the two Where,
antennas will be λ → wavelength.
(a) The longer antenna will radiate 10 times Radiation Resistance of Antenna-
2
more power than the shorter one ℓ
(b) Both antennas radiate same power R rad = 80π2  
λ 
(c) Shorter antenna will radiate 10 times more 2
power than the longer antenna 2  0.03λ 
= 80π  
(d) Longer antenna will radiate 10 times more  λ 
power than the shorter antenna R rad = 0.072π2 Ω
IES - 2011
91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (D) Given-
answer using the codes given below the lists : d/λ = 1.0, α = 180º
List-I List-II ψ = βd cos θ + α ⇒ ψ = 2π cos θ + π
A. d 1. |AF| = cos (π/2 +π cos θ) = – sin (π cos θ)
= 0.25, α = 90º
λ
B. d 2.
= 0.5, α = 0º
λ 92. In a three elements Yagi antenna.
(a) All the three elements are of equal length
C. d 3. (b) The driven element and the director are of
= 0.5, α = 180º equal length but the reflector is longer than
λ both of them
(c) The reflector is longer than the driven
D. d 4. element which in turn is longer than the
= 1.0, α = 180º director
λ (d) The reflector is longer than the driven
element which in turn is longer than the
Codes : reflector
A B C D IES - 2010
(a) 4 3 1 2 Ans. (c) : In the Yagi-Uda antenna, there are mainly
(b) 2 1 3 4 three element reflector, directors, Drive element.
(c) 4 1 3 2 Length of different element is -
(d) 2 3 1 4 Reflector >driven element > director
IES - 2010 It is the most popular and easy to use type of antenna
Ans. (d) : Given, with better performance which is famous for it high
gain and directivity.
d
(A) = 0.25 93. A half-wave dipole working at 100 MHz in free
λ space radiates a power of 1000 Watts. The
α = 90º field strength at a distance of 10 km in the
ψ = βd cos θ + α direction of maximum radiation is
Put the value- (a) 1.73 mV/m (b) 2.12 mV/m
ψ = 2π×0.25cosθ +π/2 (c) 2.22 mV/m (d) 22.2 mV/m
ψ = (cos θ +1)π/2 IES - 2010
Array factor |AF| = cos [π/4 cos θ+1] Ans. (d) : Given-
Radiated power Prad = 1000W
Distance R = 10 km = 104m
Directive gain for dipole antenna GD = 1.64
η = 377 Ω = 120π
(B) Given- Average Power Density of dipole antenna
d 2
= 0.5 , α = 0º 1 E0 Prad × G D
λ = 2
2 η 4 πR
ψ = βd cos θ + α
ψ = π/2 cos + 0º 2 2 × η × Prad × G D
E0 = 2
|AF| = cos [π/4 cosθ]
4 πR
2 × 120π × 1000 × 1.64
=
4π 10 ( )
4 2
2 −4
E 0 = 9.84 × 10
(C) Given-
d/λ = 0.5, α = 180º E = 0.0313V / m
ψ = βd cos + α = α/2 cosθ + π 0
|AF| = cos [π/2+π/4 cosθ] = – sin(α/2cosθ) E0 0.0313

Erms= =
2 2
Erms = 0.2213V/m
E rms ≃ 22.2 mV / m

94. Multiple members of antenna are arranged in List – I List - II
arrays in order to enhance what property?
(a) Both directivity and bandwidth A. Power gain 1. W
r
(b) Only directivity
(c) Only bandwidth W t
(d) Neither directivity nor bandwidth B. Directive gain 2. Wr

IES - 2009 4π
Ans. (b) : Antenna Array is used to increase overall C. Average power 3. φ
gain, provide directivity reception. radiated 4π
Wt
95. Consider the following statements regarding D. Efficiency of the 4. φ
an antenna : antenna 4π
1. It is transducer Wr
2. Its performance is essentially frequency Codes :
sensitive A B C D
3. It is a reciprocal device (a) 3 4 2 1
4. With increase in its effective aperture (b) 4 3 2 1
area, width of the radiated beam increases (c) 3 4 1 2
Which of the above statements are correct? (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 IES - 2008
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only Ans. (a) :
IES - 2009 List-I List-II
Ans. (a) : The antenna is a transducer and its φ
performance is essentially frequency sensitive, and it is (A) Power gain – 4π
Wt
a reciprocal device.
φ
96. Which of the following does not apply to Yagi- (B) Directive gain – 4π
Uda antenna Wr
(a) High gain Wr
(b) Reasonably good bandwidth (C) Average power radiated –
4π
(c) Folded dipole
(d) Parasitic elements
Wr
IES - 2009 (D) Efficiency of the antenna –
Ans. (a) : High gain does not apply to Yagi-Uda Wt
antenna. 100. Where does the maximum radiation for an end
97. Which of the following antenna is obtained by fire array occur?
modifying a waveguide? (a) Perpendicular to the line of the array only
(a) Micro-strip Antenna (b) Helical Antenna (b) Along the line of the array
(c) Horn Antenna (d) Dipole Antenna (c) At 45º to the line of the array
(d) Both perpendicular to and along the line of
IES - 2009 the array
Ans. (c) : Horn Antenna- Horn Antenna operates in IES - 2008
microwave frequency if flaring is done along both
Ans. (b) : In an end-fire array the maximum radiation is
walls. Pyramidal Horn Antenna is obtained. Horn along the line of the array. So it is at either 0º or 180º.
Antenna is obtained by modifying a waveguide.
101. As the aperture area of an antenna increases,
98. Which of the following antenna uses a number its gain
a varying length parallel elements? (a) increases
(a) Helical antenna (b) decreases
(b) Pyramidal Horn (c) remains steady
(c) Corner reflection antenna (d) behaves unpredictably
(d) Yagi-Uda antenna IES - 2008
IES - 2009 Ans. (a) : As the aperture area of an antenna increases,
Ans. (d) : The Yagi-Uda Antenna typically consists of a its directive gain increases.
number of parallel thin rod elements each
approximately a half wave in length. λ2
A eff = G d
99. If the total input power to an antenna is Wt' 4π
the radiated power is Wr, and the radiation Where,
intensity is ϕ, then match List-I with List-II
Aeff → Effective aperture
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists: Gd → directive gain.
102. A broadside array of four isotropic point α
sources of same amplitude and phase, placed and (iii) electrostatic field – R 3
along x axis with a spacing of λ/2 between For, for field region, the distance between the
adjacent elements has a polar pattern transmitting and Receiving Antenna must be greater
consisting of which of the following?
2D 2
(a) One major lobe in the +ve y direction and than .
one major lobe in the negative y direction λ
and no side lobes. 2D 2
(b) One major lobe in the +ve y direction, one Hence the distance R >
major lobe in the negative y direction, one λ
minor lobe in the +ve x direction and one 105. A transmitting antenna has gain of 10. It is fed
minor lobe in the –ve x direction. with a signal power of 1 W. Assuming free
(c) One major lobe in the +ve y direction, one space propagation, what power would be
major lobe in the negative y direction, one captured by a receiving antenna of effective
minor lobe in each of the four quadrants. area 1 m2 in the bore sight direction at a
(d) Four major lobes one each in +y; –y; +x and distance of 1 m?
–x directions and no other side lobes. (a) 10 W (b) 1 W
IES - 2007 (c) 2 W (d) 0.8 W
IES - 2007
Ans. (c) : A polar pattern consisting of one major lobe
in the positive y-direction, one major lobe in the Ans. (d) : Given,
Negative y-direction, one minor lobe in each of the four Transmitted power (Pt) → 1W
quadrants. Gain of transmitter (Gt) → 10
103. Which one of the following is correct? Normal Effective area (Ae) → 1 m
2
mode helical antenna has Distance (R) = 1 m

(a) low radiation efficiency and high directive PG
gain Power at receiving Antenna, Pr = t t2 .A e
4πR
(b) high radiation efficiency and low directive 1× 10 ×1
gain = = 0.8W
(c) low radiation efficiency and low directive 4 × 3.14 × 12
gain = Pr = 0.8W
(d) high radiation efficiency and high directive
gain 106. The Fraunhofer region where the pattern
IES - 2007 measurement of transmitting antenna has to
be taken is from a distance of 2D2/λ, where D is
Ans. (a) : The normal mode helical antenna has low
the maximum aperture dimension and λ is the
radiation efficiency and high directive gain. In normal free-space wavelength. What is this region
mode of radiation, the radiation field is normal to the generally known as?
helix-axis. (a) The near field (b) The far field
104. For taking antenna for field pattern, what (c) Quiet zone (d) Induction field
must be the distance R, between transmitting IES - 2007
and receiving antennas?
Ans. (b) : For, the far field region, the distance between
2D 2 4D 2 λ 2 the transmitting and Receiving Antenna must be greater
(a) R > (b) R >
λ 3 than-2D2/λ
2D 2 2D 2 2D 2
(c) R > (d) R > 2 R>
2λ 2
λ λ
IES – 2007, 1999
Where-
Ans. (a) : Three components in the field pattern-
λ = free space wavelength
α
(i) Radiating field – D = Maximum aperture dimensions.
R
107. Match List-I (Type of Antenna) with List-II
α (Example) and select the correct answer using
(ii) Inducting field – 2
R the codes given below the lists :
List - I List – II
A. Aperture antenna 1. Helical antenna
B. Circularly polarized 2. Point source antenna
C. Frequency 3. Log periodic antenna
independent
D. Isotropic antenna 4. Micro-strip antenna
Codes : 111. An uniformly spaced linear array of identical
A B C D radiators having uniform amplitude of
(a) 3 2 4 1 excitation and linear phase variation with non
(b) 4 1 3 2 zero gradient will produce
(a) Pencil beam at broadside
(c) 3 1 4 2
(b) Fan beam
(d) 4 2 3 1
(c) Scanned cosecant beam
IES - 2006
(d) Scanned pencil beam
Ans. (b) : IES - 2005
(Type of Antenna) – (Example) Ans. (d) : An uniformly spaced linear array of identical
(A) Aperture Antenna – Micro-strip Antenna radiators having uniform amplitude of excitation and
(B) Circularly polarized – Helical Antenna linear phase variation with non zero gradient will
(C) Frequency Independent – Log periodic Antenna produce scanned pencil beam.
(D) Isotropic Antenna – Point source Antenna. 112. For electronic scanning, the beam width with
108. What is the value of directivity of an isotropic scan angle θº away from broadside is
antenna? proportional to
(a) 1dB (b) 0 (a) secθº (b) cosθº
π (c) tanθº (d) cosecθº
(c) 4πdB (d) IES - 2005
2dΒ
IES - 2006 Ans. (d) : Given,
Ans. (b) : Isotropic Antenna is hypothetical loss less Scan Angle = θº
radiator which radiates equal power in all direction- N 
sin  ψ 
Directivity (D) = 1 2 
A.F. =
D(dB) = 10 log (D) = 10log10 (100 ) ψ
sin  
D(dB) = 0 2
ψ = βd cos θ + φ
109. A paraboloid of revolution is to have a power 0 = βd cos θ0 + φ
gain of 1000 at λ = 10cm. What is the diameter Where,
of the antenna? ψ = 0 (for maximum scanned angle θ) Scanned
(a) 129.1 m (b) 12.91 m angle is proportional to cosec θº.
(c) 1.291 m (d) 0.291 m 113. Match List-I (Antenna) with List-II (Property)
IES - 2006 and select the correct answer using the codes
Ans. (c) : Given- given below the lists :
G = 1000 List - I List - II
λ = 10 cm = 0.1m A. Log periodic 1. Circular polarization
η=6 antenna
2 B. Helical antenna 2. Wide bandwidth
d
G = η  C. Microstrip antenna 3. Omni directional pattern
λ D. Dipole antenna 4. Compact and light
2
 d  weight
1000 = 6 ×   Codes :
 0.1 
A B C D
d = 1.29 m (a) 3 1 4 2
110. To avoid grating lobe at any arbitrary angle of (b) 2 4 1 3
scan using a uniformly spaced array to (c) 3 4 1 2
identical radiators with inter-element spacing (d) 2 1 4 3
'd' and operating wavelength 'λ', which one of IES - 2005
the following condition should be satisfied? Ans. (d) :
(a) d < 0.5λ (b) d < λ List-I (Antenna) List-II (Property)
(c) 0.7λ ≤ d < 2λ (d) 0.5λ ≤ d < 2λ (A) Log periodic Wide Bandwidth
IES - 2005 Antenna
Ans. (d) : To avoid grating Lobes, the largest spacing (B) Helical Antenna Circular Polarization
between the elements should be less than one (C) Microstrip Compact and light
wavelength. Antenna weight.
0.5λ ≤ d < 2λ (D) Dipole Antenna Omni directional Pattern
114. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) only in x-direction
answer using the codes given below the lists : (b) only in y-direction
List - I List - II (c) both x-and y-direction
A. Helical antenna 1. Fan-shaped beam, (d) in the direction making an angle of 45º with
high power x-axis
handling IES - 2004
B. Pyramidal horn antenna 2. Low bandwidth, Ans. (d) : The directivity pattern will have a maximum
low power handling in the direction making an angle of 45º with x-axis.
C. Micro-strip path antenna 3. Narrow beam, high 117. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
power handling answer using the codes given below :
D. Selectoral horn antenna 4. Circularly polarized List - I List - I
beam, moderate A. Helical 1. Isotropic radiator
power handling
antenna
Codes :
A B C D B. Dipoles 2. Circularly polarized radiation
(a) 4 3 2 1 C. Parabolic dish 3. Shaped beams
(b) 2 1 4 3 D. Array antenna 4. Satellite communication
(c) 4 1 2 3 systems
(d) 2 3 4 1 Codes :
IES - 2005 A B C D
Ans. (c) : List-I List-II (a) 1 2 4 3
(A) Helical Antenna – Circularly polarized (b) 1 2 3 4
beam moderate power (c) 2 1 4 3
handling. (d) 2 1 3 4
(B) Pyramidal horn – Fan-shaped beam, high IES - 2004
Antenna power handling Ans. (c) : List-I List-II
(C) Microstrip Path – Low Bandwidth, Low (A) Helical Antenna – In this antenna the radiation
Antenna power handling. is circularly polarized.
(D) Selectoral Horn – Narrow beam, high (B) Dipoles – It is a Isotropic radiator
Antenna. power handling. (C) Parabolic dish – this antenna is used for
115. For a parabolic reflector of 5 metre diameter, satellite communication
the far field pattern measurement at 6 GHz system
should be carried out a distance of at least: (D) Array Antenna – It has a shaped beam.
(a) 0.5 km (b) 1.0 km 118. In a four element Yagi-Uda antenna
(c) 1.5 km (d) 2.0 km (a) There is one driven element, one director and
IES - 2005 two reflectors
(b) There is one driven element, two directors
Ans. (b) : Given- and one reflector
D = 5 meter (c) There are two driven elements, one director
f = 6 GHz = 6×109 and two reflectors
c 3 × 108 1 (d) All the four elements are driven elements
λ= = = m IES - 2003
f 6 × 109 20
Ans. (b) : Yagi-Uda antenna is an antenna that is well
2D 2 known for its high-gain and directivity. A Yagi-Uda
R=
λ antenna is formed by a combination of 3-major
elements one driven element, one reflector and two
2 × (5) 2 2 × 25 × 20
= = = 1000 m directors. The Yagi-Uda antenna is widely use as a T.V
1 1 antenna.
20
R = 1km
correct?
An antenna array consists of
5 omni directional elements carrying equal in- 119. Typical f/D ratio in practice for a paraboloid
phase currents. The elements are equally reflector (where f is the focal length and D is
spaced along x-axis with the spacing between the aperture diameter) is in the range of
adjacent elements being equal to one (a) 0.2 to 0.3 (b) 2 to 3
wavelength. The directivity pattern will have a (c) 0.02 to 0.03 (d) 0.5 to 1
maximum IES - 2003
Ans. (a) : Typical f/D ratio in practice for a paraboloid 123. For frequencies up to 1650 kHz, the
reflector (where f is the focal length and D is the transmitting antenna used is a
aperture diameter) is in the range of 0.2 to 0.3 (a) parabolic dish (b) vertical antenna
120. A parabolic dish antenna has a diameter of 1 (c) Yagi antenna (d) Turnstile antenna
m. The maximum possible (ideal) gain of the IES - 2001
antenna at a wavelength of 3.14 cm is Ans. (b) : The low frequencies upto 1650kHz are used
(a) 20 dB (b) 30 dB for AM broadcasting and vertical Antenna are used for
it.
(c) 40 dB (d) 50 dB
124. Match List-I (Antennas) with List-II
IES - 2003
(Radiation patterns) and select the correct
Ans. (c) : Given, answer :
D = 1m List - I List - II
λ = 3.14 cm = 3.14 × 10–2 m
2
 πD 
G= η  A. Simple dipole 1.
 λ 
2
 π ×1 
= 1×   ( η = 1 for maximum gain ) B. Omni-directional 2.
 3.14 
2 antenna
 3.14 × 1 
=  −2  C. Loop antenna 3.
 3.14 × 10 
2 2
= (10 ) Codes :
A B C
G = 104
(a) 1 2 3
G(dB) = 10 log104 (b) 2 1 1
G(dB) = 40 (c) 3 2 1
(d) 1 1 2
121. The current distribution along a travelling IES – 2001, 2000
wave antenna can be written in the form
Ans. (b) :
(a) I(z) = I0e–jβz (b) I(z) = I0sinβz
List-I List-II
(c) I(z) = I0 (d) I(z) = I0 cos(ωt – βz) (Antenna) (Radiation pattern)
IES - 2002 (A) Simple dipole
Ans. (c) : The current distribution along a travelling
wave mean matched condition at load. Therefore no
maximas or minimas and uniform current
(B) Omni-directional
I(z) = I0 Antenna
122. A dipole produces an electric field intensity of
1 mV/m at a distance of 2 km. The field
(C) Loop Antenna
intensity at distance of 4 km will be
(a) 1 mV/m (b) 0.75 mV/m
(c) 0.50 mV/m (d) 0.25 mV/m
125. For a parabolic reflector antenna with
IES - 2002 diameter of 3m, the far field pattern
Ans. (c) : Given, measurement at 10 GHz should be carried out
r1 = 2 km at a distance of at least
r2 = 4 km (a) 30 m (b) 200 m
E1 = 1mV/m (c) 400 m (d) 600 m
Formula- IES - 2001
r1 E 2 Ans. (d) : Given,
= D = 3m
r2 E1
f = 10 GHz = 10×109
2 E2 c = 3×108
= −3
4 1× 10 c 3 × 108
2 × 10−3 1 λ= =
E2 = = × 10−3 f 10 × 109
4 2 3
E 2 = 0.5mV / m λ=
100
2D 2 Ans. (d) : A Yagi antenna is a directional antenna
rmin = consisting of a driven element such as dipole or folded
λ dipole and additional parasitic elements typically a
2 × 9 × 100 reflector and one or more directors. It radiates in only
rmin= one direction and is most commonly used in point-to-
3
rmin=2×3×100 point communications.
rmin = 600 m 129. An antenna has 40Ω antenna resistance and
0 60Ω radiation resistance. The efficiency of the
126. Given figure shows a 90 sector of spherical antenna is
reflector with vertex V, centre of curvature 'C' (a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%
and equal distances VD, DF, FE and EC.
When a beam of electromagnetic wave is IES - 2000
incident parallel to the axis, all the energy will Ans. (d) : Given,
pass through the region. Radiation Resistance (Rrad) = 60Ω
Antenna Resistance (Rant) = 40Ω
R rad
η= × 100
R rad + R ant
60 60
η= = × 100%
60 + 40 100
(a) VD (b) DF
(c) FE (d) EC η = 60%
IES - 2001 130. The ratio of the directivity of an end-fire
Ans. (d) : When a beam of electromagnetic wave is antenna to that of a broadside antenna is
incident parallel to the axis, it is passes through the (a) 2 (b) 3
focus point of spherical reflector. (c) 4 (d) 5
IES - 1999
Ans. (a) : Directivity of n-element end fire antenna -
D1= 4n(d/λ)
Directivity of n-element broad side antenna-
D2 = 2n (d/λ)
D 4n(d / λ)
So, the focus point between E-C. ratio = 1 = =2
D 2 2n(d / λ)
127. A vertical wire of 1 m length carries a current
of 1A at 10 MHz. The total radiated power is ratio = 2
nearly 131. A dipole antenna was radiating with some
(a) 0.13W (b) 0.88W excitation in free space radiating a certain
(c) 7.3W (d) 73W amount of the power. If this antenna is
IES - 2000 immersed in a lake where water is non-
Ans. (b) : Given- magnetic and non-dissipative but has a
ℓ = 1m dielectric constant of 81, the radiated power
with the same excitation will
I=1
(a) decrease to finite non-zero value
f = 10MHz
(b) remain the same
c 3 × 108 (c) increase
λ= =
f 10 × 106 (d) decrease to zero
λ = 30m IES - 1999
Ans. (c) : Given,
Rrad = 80π2 ( ℓ / λ )
2
ε r2 = 81
2
2 1  ε r1 = 1
= 80 × (3.14)   ≃ 0.877
 30 
P1 ε r1
Rrad ≈ 0.88Ω =
P2 ε r2
Radiated Power (Pr) = I2 × Rrad= 1 × 0.88
Pr = 0.88W P1 1
=
128. A Yagi antenna has a driven antenna P2 81
(a) only
(b) with a reflector P2 = (81)P1
(c) with one or more directors The radiation power is increased 81 times therefore the
(d) with a reflector and one or more directors power will increase with the dielectric constant with the
IES - 2000 same excitation.
132. For identifying a radar target in a non-lossy d
medium, if the range of the target is to be DBroad side = 2 (1 + L / d )  
doubled; the RF power radiated must be λ
increased by = 2(L/d).d/λ ∵ (L >>d)
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times = 2(L/λ)
(c) 8 times (d) 16 times gain (G) = 6 (D/λ)2
IES - 1999 G/6 = D/λ
Ans. (d) : A radar target in a non-Lossy medium-
R ∝ (Prad)1/4 25.119 × 103
D/λ = = 64.703
R2 = 2R1 6
1/ 4 Bandwidth = 140×λ/D
R 1  Prad1 
=  = 140 ×
1
R 2  Prad2  64.703
4 Bandwidth = 2.163
 R1  Prad1
  = 135. A system has receiver noise resistance of 50Ω.
 R2  Prad2 It is connected to an antenna with an input
 R1 
4
Prad1 resistance of 50Ω. The noise figure of the
  = system is
 2R1  Prad2 (a) 1 (b) 2
4
Prad1 (c) 20 (d) 101
1
  = IES - 1999
2 Prad 2 Ans. (b) : Given-
Prad2 = 16 Prad 1 Ri = 50Ω
R0 = 50Ω
133. A broadside array operating at 100 cm
( SNR )i R
wavelength consists of 4 half-wave dipoles F= = 1+ i
spaced 50 cm apart. Each element carries (SNR) 0 R 0
radio frequency current in the same phase and
50 100
of magnitude 0.5A. The radiated power will be F = 1+ =
(a) 146 W (b) 73 W 50 50
(c) 36.5 W (d) 18.25 W F=2
IES - 1999
136. Two LOS antennas having power gains of G1
Ans. (c) : Given, and G2 are separated by a distance 'L' λ is the
d = 50 cm, λ = 100 cm, I = 0.5A operating wavelength if Pt is the transmitted
Radiation resistance (Rrad) = 73Ω (for half wave dipole) power and Pr is the power received, then the
Prad = 4I 2rms R rad ratio Pt/Pr will be proportional to
2 2
 I 
2 L G1  L 
(a) G1G 2   (b)  
= 4×  × R rad λ G2  λ 
 2
2 2
.25 G2  L  λ
= 4× × 73 (c)   (d) G1G 2  
2 G1  λ  L
Prad = 2×0.25×73 IES - 1998
Prad = 36.5W Ans. (d) :
134. An antenna has a gain of 44 dB. Assuming that
the main beam of the antenna is circular in
cross-section, the beam width will be
(a) 0.4456º (b) 1.4456º
Given- GT = G1 , GR= G2
(c) 2.4456º (d) 3.4456º
Receiving power-
IES - 1999
PG G
Ans. (c) : Given- PR = T T 2 R .A e
gain (G)dB = 44dB. = 25.119×103 4πL
d λ2
Dbroad side = 2N   Ae =
λ 4λ
When - PT G T G R λ 2
N = (1 + L / d ) PR =
(4πL)2

Put value- A er
PR G1G 2 λ 2 =
=  λ2 
PT ( 4πL ) 2  
 4π 
PR/PT will be proportional-
=
( 0.9 ) × 4π
2
PR λ λ2
∝ G1 G 2   Put the value GT and Gr-
PT L
2
 λ 
137. If a current element of a very small length and Pr = Pt G t G r  
carrying a current I0ejωt radiates a total  4πR 
average power Pr into free space then Pr will 4π 4π λ2
be proportional to = 100 × × 0.9 × 2 ×
π 2
λ ( 4π ) × (100 ) 2
2
(a) I0 (b) I 20
9 × 10−3
(c) I30 (d) I1/0 2 =
λ2
IES - 1997 9 × 10−3
Ans. (b) : Given- =
Carrying current- I0ejωt ( 3 ×10 )−2 2
Total aveg. Power – Pr Pt = 10W

Pr = I 2rms R rad 139. In order to radiate 100 W of power from a
I0 circular loop of circumference equal to 0.1 λ,
Irms = the current required will be
2 (a) 10 A (b) 100 A
Put the value- (c) 200 A (d) 400 A
2
 I  IES - 1997
Pr =  0  R rad Ans. (a) : Given-
 2
Pr = 100W
I02 lPhy = 0.1λ
Pr = R rad
2 Pr = I2Rrad
IPhy = λ/10
Pr ∝ I02 Leff = lPhy/2
2
138. The effective area of transmitting antenna is L 
one square meter, the effective area of the Rrad = 80π2  eff 
 π 
receiving antenna is 0.9 square meter and the 2
wavelength is 0.03 m. If the distance between 80π2  lPhy 
=  
the transmitter and receiver is 100 m and the 4  λ 
power transmitted is 100 W, then the power 2
received will be  lPhy 
= 20π  2

(a) 1 W (b) 10 W  λ 
(c) 30 W (d) 40 W 2
 0.1λ 
IES - 1997 = 20π2  
 λ 
Ans. (b) : Given-
Rrad = 0.2π2
Wavelength ( λ ) = 0.03m Pr = I 2rms + 0.2π2
Transmitter effective area (Aet) = 1m2 Pr = 100
Receiving antenna effective area (Aer) = 0.9 m2 I02
transmitter and receiving distance (R) = 100m × 0.2π2 = 100
2
Receiving Power-
2
I02 × 0.1π2 = 100
 λ 
Pr = Pt G t G r   100
 4πR  I02 =
0.1π2
A er 4π I0 = 101.32
2
Gt = = 2
λ  π
2
  I0 = 10.0.6A
 4π 
Gr = η D r (η =1) I0 ≃ 10A

140. A transmitter in free space radiates a mean 142. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
power of 'P' Watts uniformly in all directions. answer using the codes given below the lists :
At a distance 'd' sufficiently far from the List - I List - II
source, in order that the radiated field is
considered as plane, the electric field is A. End-fire array 1. Inefficient
considered as plane, the electric field 'E' radiation
should be related to 'P' and 'd' as B. Half-wave 2. In phase
dipole excitation
C. Broadside 3. Quadrature
array excitation
D. Hertzian 4. Broadcast
P antenna
(a) E ∝ Pd (b) E ∝
d Codes :
P A B C D
(c) E ∝ Pd (d) E ∝ (a) 3 2 4 1
d
(b) 3 4 2 1
IES - 1997
(c) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (d) :
(d) 1 2 4 3
IES - 1996
Ans. (b) :
List-I List-II
The electric field E should be related- (A) End-fire array – quadrature excitation
(B) Half-wave dipole– Broadcast antenna.
P
Power density (Pd) = (C) Broadside Array – In Phase excitation.
4πd 2 (D) Hertzian – Inefficient radiation
E2 143. If a vertical dipole antenna is used in
Pd =
2η conjunction with a loop antenna for direction
finding, the field pattern obtained will be
E2 P
=
2η 4πd 2
(a) (b)
2ηP
E=
4πd 2
(c) (d)
P
E ∝
d
IES - 1996
141. Consider the following statements about log-
period antennas : Ans. (a) : When the vertical dipole antenna is used in
1. They operate over a wide frequency range conjunction with a loop antenna then its radiation
pattern will be the same as of isotropic antenna
2. Input impedance varies periodically with
the logarithm of frequency radiation pattern.
3. Logarithm of input impedance varies An isotropic antenna is an ideal antenna that radiates its
periodically with frequency power uniformly in all direction.
4. For single frequency operation only a 144. Which of the following antennas are frequency
portion of the antenna radiates independent ?
Of these statements 1. Folded dipole
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct 2. Half-wave dipole
(b) 3 and 4 are correct 3. Parabolic reflector
(c) 1 and 4 are correct 4. Helical antenna
(d) 1 alone is correct Select the correct answer using the codes given
IES - 1996 below:
Ans. (a) : Log Period Antenna (a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
Log Period antenna is operated over a wide (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
frequency range. IES - 1996
Input impedance varies periodically with the log of Ans. (c) : Folded dipole, parabolic reflector and Helical
frequency. antenna are broadband antenna and thus are considering
For single frequency operation only a portion of the as frequency Independent antennas and A half wave
antenna radiates. dipole antenna is resonant antenna.
145. In a broadside array, maximum radiation Ans. (d) : Given-
occurs Half-wave dipole operate = 30MHz
(a) at 90º to the line of the array Directive gain (D) = 1.5
(b) at 45º to the line of the array Efficiency = 100%
(c) along the line of the array Pd = π watt/m
(d) at 60º to line of the array
3 ×108
IES - 1995 λ= = 10m
30 × 106
Ans. (a) : In a broad side array the maximum radiation
occurs towards at 900 to the line of the array. Gr = ηD
Broadside array is a bidirectional antenna and when axis Gr = 1×1.5
coincides with 0 then maximum radiation is at 90º. Gr = 1.5
146. Two isotropic radiators A and B are placed P G λ2
Pr = d r
along the X-axis at the positions (–λ/8, 0) and 4π
(+λ/8, 0) respectively. The elements are fed by π × 1.5 × 100
currents of equal amplitude with the phase of Pr =
B leading that of A by 90º. The array pattern 4π
will have maxima. Pr = 37.5 watt
(a) in the direction of the +X axis
149. A short dipole and a half-wave dipole have
(b) at an angle of +45º with respect to the Y axis
radiation resistance of 0.4Ω and 72Ω
(c) in the direction of +Y axis respectively. If the former requires 10A rms
(d) in the direction of –X axis current for certain total output power
IES - 1994 radiated, what would be the current required
Ans. (d) : Given- (approximately) by the latter for the same
Two isotropic radiators- along the x-axis (-λ/8, 0) and output?
(λ/8, 0) (a) 0.25 A (b) 0.50 A
The array pattern will have maxima. path difference (ψ) (c) 0.75 A (d) 1.0 A
angle (φ) should be zero. IES - 1994
ψ = βd cos φ + α Ans. (c) : Given-
d = ( λ / 8 ) − ( −λ / 8) Radiation resistance-
Rrad1 = 0.4Ω
λ Rrad2 = 72Ω
d = + λ /8
8 I1 = 10A
d = λ/4 I12 R rad = I 22 R rad 2
α = 90º = π/2 radian. (10)2×(0.4) = I 22 × (72)
ψ = 0 = βd cos φ + α
10 × 10 × 0.4
2π I 22 =
⇒ × λ / 4 cos φ + π / 2 = 0 72
λ
40
cosφ = –1 ⇒ φ = 180º I2 =
in the direction of –x–axis. 72
147. The antenna most commonly used for TV I2 = .555
broadcasting in the UHF band is I2 = 0.75A
(a) Turnstile antenna (b) dipole antenna
(c) yagi antenna (d) rhombic antenna 150. Match List-I with the List-II and select the
IES – 2002, 1994 correct answer using the codes given below the
Ans. (c) : The antenna most commonly used for TV lists :
broadcasting in the UHF band is Yagi antenna. List – I List - II
148. A half-wave dipole operates at 30 MHz and A. Evanescent 1. Pattern multiplication
has a maximum directive gain of 1.5. A plane wave
wave carrying π watts of power per square B. Skip distance 2. Mismatched transmission
meter is incident on the antenna. Assuming line
that the antenna is 100% efficient, the power
C. Return loss 3. Propagation in lossy
received will be
medium
(a) π W
2
(b) 25 W
(c) 32.5 W (d) 37.5 W D. Antenna array 4. Short-wave propagation
IES - 1994 5. Propagation below cut-off
Codes : Ans. (d) : Given-
A B C D f1 = f
(a) 5 2 4 3 f2 = 2f1
(b) 2 4 1 5 dℓ 1 = L
(c) 5 4 2 1
dℓ 2 = L
(d) 1 3 4 5
2
IES - 1994  dℓ 
R ∝ 
Ans. (c) : λ 
List-I List-II 2 2
(A) Evanescent wave – Propagation below cut-off R 1  dℓ 1   λ 2 
=  × 
(B) Skip distance – Short-wave propagation R 2  dℓ 2   λ1 
(C) Return loss – Mismatched transmission line Put the value-
(D) Antenna array – Pattern multiplication. 2 2
 L   f1 
151. Two identical one-directional radiating     ×
elements are spaced 'd' apart excited by equal  L   f2 
current strength having a phase difference of 2
ϕ, if this array is to be used for unambiguous R 1  f1 
= 
direction finding, what should be the values of R 2  2f1 
d and ϕ?
R1 1
λ =
(a) d = , φ = 0º (b) d = λ, ϕ = 0º R2 4
2
λ λ R 2 = 4R 1
(c) d = , φ = 180º (d) d = , φ = 90º
2 2 153. The mount diameter of two parabolic
IES - 1994 reflectors are in the ratio of 2:1. Their power
Ans. (d) : According option- gains with respect to a resonant half-wave
(i) When- dipole will be in the ratio of
d= λ/2 , φ = 00 (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
Maximum occur Normal to the line of array (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1:2
(ii) When- IES - 1993
d=λ , φ=0 0 Ans. (c) : Given-
Maximum occurs along and normal to the line D1 : D2 = 2:1
of the array. Parabolic Reflector power gain (G)-
2
(iii) When-  πD 
d= λ/2, φ = 180º G = η×  
 λ 
Maximum occur along the line of array.
G∝D 2
(iv) When- 2
d = λ/2 , φ = 90º G1  D1 
= 
Array factor = cos (π/2 cosθ +π/4) G 2  D2 
Where- 2
G1  2 
θ – Array with reference to line array = 
φ – Phase difference between the successive G2  1 
current excitation G1 4
When- =
G2 1
π / 2 cos θ + π / 4 = 0
π/2 cos θ = –π/4 G1 : G 2 = 4 :1
−1 154. The beam width between nulls of 140 cm
cos θ = parabolic reflector used at 6 GHz is
2
(a) 2.5 degrees (b) 5 degrees
θ = cos ( −1/ 2 )
(c) 10 degrees (d) 7.5 degrees
152. A short grounded vertical antenna has a length IES - 1993
L which is 0.05 λ at frequency f if its radiation Ans. (b) : Given-
resistance at f is R ohms, then its radiation f = 6GHz
resistance at a frequency 2f will be D = 140 cm = 1.4m
(a) R/2 ohms (b) R ohms
c 3 × 108 1
(c) 2R ohms (d) 4R ohms λ= = = m
IES - 1993 f 6 × 10 9
20
Parabolic antenna beam width between Null-  2π 
1 1 ψ = 4π cos θ ∴ β = 
= 140(λ/D) = 140 × ×  λ 
20 1.4 ψ
140 | E T |= 2E 0 cos
Beamwidth first Null = = 5 degree 2
2 × 14 If E 0 = 1
155. Five isotropic elements placed along the
X-axis are fed by in phase currents of equal 2 cos ψ = 2 cos  4π cos θ  = 2cos ( 2π cos θ )
amplitude. The spacing between successive 2  2 
elements is λ/4. Consider the following If the range of θ = 0 to 2π
statements about the directivity patterns of the
array : The | E T | is maximum at-
1. The array will have a maximum in the π π 2π 4π 3π 5π
direction of Y-axis. θ = 0, , , , π, , ,
3 2 3 3 2 3
2. The field strength in the +X-axis direction So, the total number of lobes = 8
will be zero. 157. In a broad side array of 20 isotropic radiators,
3. The directivity pattern will have minor equally spaced at distance of λ/2, the beam
lobes. width between first nulls is
Of these statements (a) 51.3 degrees (b) 11.46 degrees
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 22.9 degrees (d) 102.6 degrees
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct GATE-1991
IES - 1993
Ans. (b) : Given-
Ans. (d) : Given-
η = 20, d = λ/2
λ 2λ
N = 5, d = , φ = 0º Beamwidth of first Null (BWFN) = radian
4 ηd
λ
ψ = β × × cos φ + 0º 2λ 1
4 = = radian
20 × λ / 2 5
2π λ
= × cos φ 1 180
λ 4 = × degrees
5 π
ψ = π/ 2
36
φ = 0º (For X-axis) =
π
 Nψ   π BWFN = 11.46 degrees
sin   sin  5 × 
Array factor ( A.F.) =  2  =  2 158. Two dissimilar antennas having their
ψ π maximum directivities equal, which of the
sin   sin   following statements are right?
2 2 (a) must have their beam widths also equal
A.F. = 1 (b) cannot have their beam widths equal because
Hence option (d) is correct. they are dissimilar antenna
156. Two isotropic antennas are separated by a (c) may not necessarily have their maximum
distance of two wavelengths. If both the power gains equal
antennas are fed with currents of equal phase (d) must have their effective aperture areas
and magnitude, the number of lobes in the (capture areas) also equal
radiation pattern in the horizontal plane are GATE-1992
(a) 2 (b) 4 Ans. (a,c) : If two dissimilar antennas having their
(c) 6 (d) 8 maximum directivities equal. It must have their
GATE-1990 beamwidth also equal and the power gain may not be
Ans. (d) : equal for two different antennas.
159. The beam width between first nulls of a
uniform linear array of N equal spaced
(element spacing = d), equally excited
antennas, is determined by
(a) N alone and not by d
Antennas are in same phase so, α = 00 (b) d along and not by N
Distance (d) = 2λ (c) the ratio, (N/d)
(d) the product, (Nd)
ψ = α + βd cos θ
APPSC Poly. Lect.14.03.2020
2π TNPSC AE-2008
= 0+ × 2λ cos θ
λ GATE-1992
Ans. (d) : As we know 163. A parabolic dish antenna has conical beam 2º
wide. The directivity of the antenna is
4 2λ approximately
The beamwidth for end fire array=
3 Nd (a) 20 dB (b) 30 dB (c) 40 dB (d) 50 dB
2π GATE-1997
The beamwidth for broadside array =
Nd Ans. (c) : Conical beam (Q3dB) = 2º
Hence, to determine the beamwidth between first nulls 41253
of a uniform linear array (end fire array, broadside array Directivity =
etc), we need the product of N and d. BW(θ).BW(φ)
160. For a half-wave dipole antenna, which of the 41253
BW(θ) = BW (φ) = 2 = ≃ 10, 000
following statements are right? 2× 2
(a) the radiation intensity is maximum along the D = 40dB
normal to the dipole axis
(b) the current distribution along its length is 164. The vector H in the far field of an antenna
uniform irrespective of the length satisfied
(c) the effective length equals its physical length (a) ∇.H = 0and ∇ × H = 0
(d) the input impedance is independent of the
location of the feed-point (b) ∇.H ≠ 0and ∇ × H ≠ 0
GATE-1994 (c) ∇.H = 0and ∇ × H ≠ 0
Ans. (a) : A half-wave dipole antenna, the radiation
Intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole axis. (d) ∇.H ≠ 0and ∇ × H = 0
161. A transverse electromagnetic wave with UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.22.03.2022, Paper-II
circular polarization is received by a dipole GATE-1998
antenna. Due to polarization mismatch, the Ans. (c) : As we know,
power transfer efficiency from the wave to the
antenna is reduced to about ∇ × H = JC + JD
(a) 50% (b) 35.3% (c) 25% (d) 0% Where, JC = Conventional current density
GATE-1996 JD = Displacement current density
Ans. (d) : If both antenna have the same polarization So, ∇ × H ≠ 0
the angle between their radiation E-field is zero and ∇ × B = 0
there is no power loss due to polarization mismatch.
A dipole antenna is usually linearly polarized and the So, ∇.H = 0
given wave is circularly polarized resulting is zero (0%) 165. The radiation resistance of a circular loop of
power transfer efficiency. one turn is 0.01 Ω. The radiation resistance of
162. A 1 km long microwave link uses two antennas five turns of such a loop will be
each having 30 dB gain. If the power (a) 0.002Ω (b) 0.01Ω
transmitted by one antenna is 1 W at 3 GHz, (c) 0.05Ω (d) 0.25Ω
the power received by the other antenna is GATE-1998
approximately
Ans. (d) : Given- Radiation resistance Rrad1 = 0.01Ω
(a) 98.6 µW (b) 76.8 µW
Number of turns N 2 = 5 , N1 =1
(c) 63.4 µW (d) 55.2 µW
GATE-1996 As we known that,
2
Ans. (c) : Given-  Ndℓ 
R rad = 80π  
Gt = Gr = 30dB = 1000  λ 
f = 3GHz
R rad ∝ N 2
R = 1000m
Pt = 1W R rad1 N12
So, =
c 3 × 108 R rad 2 N 22
λ= = = 0.1m
f 3 ×109 0.01 1
=
Pt G t 1× 1000 1 R rad 2 ( 5 )2
Pd = = =
4πR 2 4π (103 ) 4000 π
2
R rad 2 = 0.25Ω
Grλ2 166. An antenna in free space receives 2 µW of
Pr = .Pd power when the incident electric field is 20
4π mV/m rms. The effective aperture of the
( 0.1) 1
2
1000(0.1)2 1 antenna is
= × = × (a) 0.005 m2 (b) 0.05 m2
4π 4000π 4π 4π 2
(c) 1.885 m (d) 3.77 m2
Pr = 63.3 µW
GATE-1998
Ans. (c) : Given- Ans. (b) : Given-
Antenna radiated power at receiver (Pr) = 2µW λ= 492m
Electric field (E) = 20mV/m rms λ 492
Power density- L= , L≃ = 123m
4 4
E 2 ( 20 × 10 )
−3 2
So, given antenna is quarter wave monopole antenna
Pd = = whose-
η 120π
R a = 36.5Ω
= 1.061×10–6W/m2
Pr 2 × 10−6 170. In a uniform linear array, four isotropic
Ae = = = 1.885m 2
radiating elements are spaced λ/4 apart. The
Pd 1.06 × 10−6 progressive phase shift between the elements
167. A transmitting antenna radiates 251 W required for forming the main beam at 60º off
isotropically. A receiving antenna, located 100 the end-fire is:
m away from the transmitting antenna, has an (a) –π radians (b) –π/2 radians
effective aperture of 500 cm2. The total power (c) –π/4 radians (d) –π/8 radians
received by the antenna is ISRO Scientist Engg. 2012
(a) 10µW (b) 1µW Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I
(c) 20µW (d) 100 µW GATE-2001
GATE-1999 Ans. (c) : Given-
Ans. (d) : Given- d = λ/4
Pt= 251W, Ae= 500cm2 = 0.05m φ = 60
Pt A e G t 2π
R = 100m, Pr = β=
4π × R 2 λ
Where-
ψ = α + βd cos φ = 0
Gt = 1 (Isotropic Antenna)
2π λ
PA α+ × cos 60 = 0
Pr = t e2 λ 4
4πR
π 1
251× 0.05 α=− ×
Pr = 2 2
4π × (100) 2
α = −π / 4
Pr ≃ 100µW
171. The line-of-sight communication requires the
168. For an 8 feet (2.4 m) parabolic dish antenna transmit and receive antennas to face each
operating at 4 GHz, the minimum distance other. If the transmit antenna is vertically
required for far field measurement is closest to polarized, for best reception the receiver
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 15 cm antenna should be
(c) 15 m (d) 150 m (a) horizontally polarized
GATE-2000 (b) vertically polarized
Ans. (d) : Given- (c) at 45º with respect to horizontal polarization
D = 2.4m (d) at 45º with respect to vertical polarization
f = 4GHz = 4×109Hz GATE-2002
c 3 × 10 8 Ans. (b) : In line-of-sight (LOS) communication
λ= = = 7.5 × 10−2 m transmit and receive antennas face each other and
f 4 × 109 should have same polarization when transmitting
Frannhofer region- antenna is vertically polarized then receiving antenna
2D 2 should also be vertically polarized.
R> 172. A person with a receiver is 5 km away from
λ
the transmitter. What is the distance that this
2D 2 2 × ( 2.4 )
2
person must move further to detect a 3-dB
R= =
λ 7.5 ×10−2 decrease in signal strength?
= 153.6m (a) 942 m (b) 2070 m
(c) 4978 m (d) 5320 m
≃ 150m
GATE-2002
169. A medium wave radio transmitter operating at
a wavelength of 492m has a tower antenna of Ans. (b) : Signal Strength-
height 124m.What is the radiation resistance P
=
of the antenna? 4πr 2
(a) 25Ω (b) 36.5Ω P P
(c) 50Ω (d) 73Ω P1 = , P2 =
4π(5000) 2
4π(y) 2
GATE-2001
Now-  2π 180 
= 2 cos  . 2 s cos 45º + (∵ θ = 45º)
P / 4π(y) 2 
2
P2
=  λ.2
P1 P
 πs   πs 
4π(5000) 2 = 2 cos  + 90  = 2sin  
λ  λ
Given-
174. Consider a lossless antenna with a directive
P2 gain of +6 dB. If 1 mW of power is fed to it the
= 1/ 2 (3dB decrease)
P1 total power radiated by the antenna will be
2
(a) 4 mW (b) 1 mW
1  5000  (c) 7 mW (d) 1/4 mW
= 
2  y  GATE-2004
Ans. (b) : Antenna radiates a total power of 1mW at
y = 5000 2 most in lossless case, there is no source of power in the
Required distance- antenna by itself. It is just a transducer with power input
= 5000×1.414 –5000 coming from the feed.
≃ 2070m 175. Two identical and parallel dipole antennas are
173. Two identical antennas are placed in the θ = kept apart by a distance of λ/4 in the H-plane.
They are fed with equal currents but the right
π/2 plane as shown in the figure. The elements
most antenna has a phase shift of +90º. The
have equal amplitude excitation with 180º
radiation pattern is given as
polarity difference, operating at wavelength λ.
The correct value of the magnitude of the far- (a) (b)
zone resultant electric field strength
normalized with that of a single element, both
computed for φ = 0, is
(c) (d)
GATE-2005
Ans. (c) : Given-
A distance of λ/4 in the H-plane-
Both dipoles are horizontally Isotropic in the H-plane
 2πs   2πs  ψ = βd cos θ + α
(a) 2cos   (b) 2sin  
 λ   λ  2π λ π
= . cos θ +
 πs   πs  λ 4 2
(c) 2 cos   (d) 2sin   π π
λ  λ ψ = cos θ +
GATE-2003 2 2
Put-
Ans. (d) : Given-
ψ=0
π
θ= between x & y plane- cosθ = –1 , θmax = 180º
2 ψ =π
α = 180º
cosθ = 1 , θNP = 0
d = 2s ψ = π/ 2
ψ = β d cos θ + 2 cosθ = 0 , θNP = 90º/270º
176. A mast antenna consisting of a 50 meter long

vertical conductor operates over a perfectly
conducting ground plane. It is base-fed at a
frequency of 600 kHz. The radiation resistance
Normalized array factor- of the antenna in Ohms is
ψ 2π 2 π2
= 2 cos (a) (b)
2 5 5
Where,
4π 2
ψ  βd cos θ + α  (c) (d) 20π2
= 2 cos = 2 cos   5
2  2  GATE-2006
Ans. (a) : Given-
λ = 600 kHz , ℓ = 50m
(a) Re ( P ) remains constant at any radial
distance from the source
Radiation resistance of the antenna
2 (b) Re ( P ) increase with increasing radial
( R r ) = 20π2 
dℓ 
 ×2 distance from the source
λ 
= 20π2 
 50 × 600 × 103 
2
×
(c) ∫∫ ( )
Re P .ndS ˆ remains constant at any radial
 2 S
 3 × 108  distance from the source
= 20π2 ×
1
100
×2 (d)
S
∫∫ ( )
Re P .ndS ˆ decreases with increasing
2π 2 radial distance from the source

= GATE-2011
5
Ans. (c) : The power density of any point source
177. In parametric amplifiers used in microwave decreases with distance. The density decreases and Area
communication system, 'pump energy' is the of cross-over increases with the product being constant.
deciding factor for which one of the following?
(a) Frequency stability (b) Maximum output
(c) Amplification factor (d) Thermal noise S
∫∫ ( )ˆ
Re P .ndS = Constant
level 180. The radiation pattern of an antenna in

Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II spherical co-ordinates is given by
Ans. (c) : In parametric amplifiers used in microwave F ( θ ) = cos 4θ,0 ≤ θ ≤ π/2
communication system, pump energy is the deciding
factor for the amplification factor level. The directivity of the antenna is
(a) 10 dB (b) 12.6 dB
178. At 20 GHz, the gain of a parabolic dish
antenna of 1 meter diameter and 70% (c) 11.5 dB (d) 18 DB
efficiency is Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
(a) 15 dB (b) 25 dB GATE-2012
(c) 35 dB (d) 45 dB Ans. (a) : Given-
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II F(θ) = cos4θ, 0 ≤ θ ≤ π/ 2
IES-2015 Radiation pattern-
GATE 2008 2π π / 2
Prad = ∫ ∫ cos 4 θ sin θd θ d φ
Ans. (d) : Given- 0 0
η = 70% π/ 2
Prad = ∫ cos 4 θ sin θd θ
9 0
f = 20GHz = 20 ×10 Hz π/ 2
C = 3 ×10 m/s8
Prad = 2π∫ cos 4 θ sin θ dθ
0
D = 1m π/ 2
 cos 5 θ 
3 × 108 Prad = −2π  
λ= = 1.5 cm  5 0
20 ×109
2 Prad = 2π/5
D Formula-
G = ηπ2  
λ 4πVmax
D=
9 2
1× 20 × 10  Prad
G = 0.7π2  
 3 × 10  4πVmax
8
=
G = 30674.31  2π 
 
G(dB) = 10log10 (30705.43)  5 
= 45dB = 10Vmax = 10
179. Consider the following statements regarding In dB directivity = 10 log1010
the complex Pointing vector P for the power = 10 dB
radiated by a point source in an infinite
181. Match Column A with Column B.
homogenous and lossless medium. Re P ( ) Column-A Column-B
denotes the real part of P , S denotes a 1. Point P. Highly
spherical surface whose centre is at the point electromagnetic directional
source, and n̂ denotes the unit surface normal source
on S. Which of the following statements is 2. Dish antenna Q. End fire
TRUE? 3. Yagi-Uda antenna R. Isotropic
P Q R 184. The far-zone power density radiated by a
(a) 1 2 3 helical antenna is approximated as :
(b) 2 3 1 1
(c) 2 1 3 Wrad = Waverage = aˆ r C0 2 cos 4 θ
(d) 3 2 1 r
Ans. (b) : The radiated power density is symmetrical
Point electromagnetic source – Isotropic with respect to φ and exists only in the upper
Dish Antenna – Highly directional π
hemisphere 0 ≤ θ ≤ ;0 ≤ φ ≤ 2π; C0 is a
Yagi-Uda Antenna – End fire. 2
182. The directivity of an antenna array can be constant. The power radiated by the antenna
increased by adding more antenna elements, as (in watts) and the maximum directivity of
a larger number of elements
antenna respectively are
(a) improves the radiation efficiency
(b) increases the effective area of the antenna (a) 1.5 C0, 10 dB (b) 1.256 C0, 10 dB
(c) results in a better impedance matching (c) 1.256 C 0 , 12 dB (d) 1.5 C0, 12 dB
(d) allows more power to be transmitted by the GATE-2016
antenna Ans. (b) : Given,
GATE-2015
1
Ans. (b) : As a larger number of elements increases the Wrad= Waverage = â r C0 2 cos 4 θ
effective area of the antenna, the directivity of an antenna r
array increases by adding more antenna elements. Power radiated= ∫ Wrad .dS
λ2
Effective area (Ae) = D dS = r 2 sin θdθdφ.aˆ r
4π
Where D = Directivity π / 2 2π 1
Power radiated = ∫ ∫ cos 4 θ.C 0 .r 2 sin θdθdφ
D ↑ then A e ↑ θ= 0 φ= 0 r 2
183. The electric field of a uniform plane wave π

travelling along the negative z direction is Where, 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2 and 0 ≤ φ ≤ 2π
given by the following equation:
π / 2 2π
Eiw = ( aˆ x + jaˆ y ) E0 e jkz ∫θ=0 ∫φ=0 cos θ.C0 sin θdθd φ
4
Power radiated Prad =
This wave is incident upon a receiving antenna  π
placed at the origin and whose radiated = C0 ( 2π ) ∫ cos θ.sin θ.dθ  Where, 0 ≤ θ ≤ 
4
electric field towards the incident wave is given  2

by the following equation : 3 ×1× 1
1 -jkr = C0 ( 2π ) ×
Ea = ( aˆ x + 2aˆ y ) EI e
i 5 × 3 ×1
r Prad = 1.256C0
The polarization of the incident wave, the
polarization of the antenna and losses due to Radiation intensity ( U ) = r Wrad = cos θ.C0
2 4
the polarization mismatch are, respectively,

U C0
(a) Linear, Circular (clockwise) , –5dB Directivity D 0 = 4π× max = 4π×
(b) Circular, (clockwise), Linear, –5dB Pr ad 1.256C0
(c) Circular, (clockwise), Linear, –3dB D 0 = 10.005
(d) Circular, (anticlockwise), Linear, –3dB
GATE-2016 Directivity in dB = 10log10(10.005)=10dB
Ans. (c, d) : Given- 185. Consider a wireless communication link
1 between a transmitter and a receiver located in
E = (a n + 2a y ) E I e − jk r free space, with finite and strictly positive
r
Polarization loss factor- capacity. If the effective areas of the
2 transmitter and the receiver antennas, and the
PLF =  E r − E R  distance between them are all doubted and
a x + ja y a x + 2a y everything else remains unchanged, the
Er = , ER = maximum capacity of the wireless link
2 5
2
(a) increases by a factor of 2
1 + j2 5 1 (b) decreases by a factor of 2
PLF = = =
10 10 2 (c) remains unchanged
1 (d) decreases by a factor of 2
PLF (dB) = 10 log = −3dB
2 GATE-2017
Ans. (c) : Free space propagation equation-
WA A
Wr = t er 2 et
( λd )
When Aer and Aet are doubled and d also doubled, Wr is
same. Hence the maximum capacity of the wireless link
remain unchanged.
186. A half wavelength dipole is kept in the x-y
plane and oriented along 45º from the x-axis.
Determine the direction of null in the radiation For 2-element array (N = 2)
pattern for 0 ≤ φ ≤ π. Here the angle θ(0≤θ≤π) Array factor-
is measured from the z-axis, and the angle Nψ
φ(0≤φ≤2π) is measured from the x-axis in the sin
A.F = 2
x-y plane. ψ
(a) θ = 900 , φ = 450 (b) θ = 450 , φ = 900 sin  
2
(c) θ = 900 , φ = 1350 (d) θ = 450 , φ = 1350 ψ ψ
GATE-2017 2sin   cos  
A.F=  
2 2
Ans. (a) : For λ/2 dipole antenna the field radiated is sin ( ψ / 2 )
zero along its axis-
ψ
A.F. = cos  
2
| AF |max = 2
|A.F |N = |A.F| / |A.F|max
ψ
| A.F |N = cos  
2
equation-
The direction of Null ψ = βd cos θ + α
occurs at φ = 45º Where-
Axis of dipole is in xy-plane α = 0, β = 2π/λ
Maximum field is radiated perpendicular to axis of 2π
dipole θ = 90º. ψ= .2h cos 60º
λ
187. For an infinitesimally small dipole in free
2π
space, the electric field Eθ in the far field is ψ= .h
proportional to (e–jkr/r)sinθ, where k = 2π/λ. A λ
vertical infinitesimally small electric Put value in equation …(i)
dipole ( δℓ << λ ) is placed at a distance  2 π 
| A.F |N = cos  .h 
h ( h > 0 ) above an infinite ideal conducting  2λ 
plane, as shown in the figure. The minimum π 
value of h, for which one of the maxima in the | A.F |N = cos  .h 
λ 
far field radiation pattern occurs at θ = 60º. is
|AF|N →Will be maximum-
π
.h = nπ , h = nλ
λ
Where- n = 0, 1, 2, 3 …….
For n =1
h=λ
Infinite conduction plane 188. A Yagi antenna in a horizontal plane produces
(a) 0.75λ (b) λ (a) A broadside pattern
(c) 0.25λ (d) 0.5λ (b) An endfire pattern
GATE-2020 (c) A figure of eight pattern
Ans. (b) : Current phase shift between Iδℓ and its (d) None of the above
image is α = 0, When ever we placed a dipole at height Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017
'h' above the conducting plane, therefore its image Ans. (c) : Yagi- Uda antenna produces omni-directional
placed in depth 'h' below the conducting plane and thus pattern (non-directional pattern). In horizontal plane (H-
it forms a two-element array. plane). It produces a figure-of- eight pattern.
189. A microwave antenna is used in radar for 194. In end fire array the principle direction of
_______. radiation
(a) Data finding (b) Radiation finding (a) Is perpendicular to the array axis
(c) Direction finding (d) Both (a) and (c) (b) Is perpendicular to the array axis and also to
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III the plane containing the array elements
Ans. (d) : A microwave antenna is used in radar for (c) Coincides with the direction of the array axis
data and direction finding. Microwave antennas are know (d) Is at 45 degrees to the direction of array axis
for broadcasting transmission between two or more TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
locations. In addition of broadcasting antenna are also Ans. (c) :
used in Radar, radio astronomy and electronic warfare.
190. The effective height of a linear antenna of
length 'L' is say 'X' when the current
distribution along its length is uniform and,
say, it is 'Y' when current distribution is
sinusoidal. Then X/Y is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 1 • In end fire array the principle direction of radiation
coincides with the direction of the array axis.
(c) 4/π (d) π/4
Punjab PSC Poly. Lect. 20.08.2017 195. A medium wave radio transmitter operating at
IES-1996 a wavelength of 496 meters has a tower
antenna height of 124 meters. What is the
Ans. (d) : Effective height of a linear antenna of length radiation resistance of the antenna?
L is X when the current distribution along its length is
uniform.
(a) 25 Ω (b) 36.5 Ω
Iavg L
So, X = L= (c) 73 Ω (d) 50 Ω
Im 2 APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
Effective height of a linear antenna of length L is Y Ans. (d) : Given,
when the current distribution is sinusoidal. λ = 496 meters
Iavg 2 ℓ = 124 meter
So, Y = L= L
Im π 2
2  dℓ 
L/2 π Radiation resistance (R rad ) = 80 π  
Now, X / Y = = λ
2
L 4 2 2
π  124  21
= 80π2   = 80 π   = 49.34Ω
191. The radiation pattern of loop antenna is  496  4
(a) cardiod (b) semi-circle
R rad ≃ 50Ω
(c) circle (d) none of these
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 196. A receiver connected to an antenna whose
Ans. (a) : Radiation pattern of loop antenna is cardiod. resistance is 50 Ω has equivalent noise
192. A Half wave dipole at a frequency of 100 MHz resistance of 30 Ω. The receiver's noise figure
has a length of in decibels will be:
(a) 100 m (b) 3 m (a) 1.6 (b) 2.6
(c) 1.5 m (d) 0.75 (c) 3.2 (d) 4.2
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
Ans. (c) : Given, Ans. (a) : Given,
f = 100 MHz Noise resistance (R0) = 30Ω
c 3 × 108 Input resistance (Ri) = 50Ω
λ= = = 3m  R  30 8
f 100 × 10 6
Noise figure =  1 + eq  dB = 1 + =
λ 3  R s  50 5
ℓ = = = 1.5m
2 2 Noise figure = 1.6 dB
193. Multiple number of antennas are arranged in 197. The resolving power of a spectrometer
arrays in order to enhance consisting of collimator, a grating and a
telescope can be increased by
(a) Both directivity and bandwidth
(a) Increasing the angular magnification of the
(b) Only directivity
telescope
(c) Only bandwidth
(b) increasing the period of the grating
(d) Neither directivity nor bandwidth
(c) decreasing the period of the grating
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 (d) decreasing the slit-width of the collimator
Ans. (b) : Antenna arrays increase only directivity. APGENCO AE- 23.04.2017
Ans. (c) : The resolving power of a spectrometer 203. Assuming an aperture efficiency of 70 percent,
consisting of collimator, a grating and a telescope can what is the directivity of a parabolic dish
be increased by decreasing the period of the grating. antenna as a function of its radius?
2 2
198. If the height of transmitting and receiving r r
antennas in a LOS system are 49m and 9m (a) D = 28   (b) D = 8.8  
respectively then the distance up to which λ λ
2 2
communication may be possible is about r r
(a) 40 km (b) 110 km (c) D = 0.7   (d) D = 2.8  
λ λ
(c) 400 km (d) 1100 km
TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (a) Given,
ESE-2000
Ans. (a) : Maximum line of site distance Aperture efficiency ( A e ) = 70% = 0.7
Directivity of a parabolic dish antenna
D = 4.12  h r + h t  = 4.12 [ 3 + 7] = 41.2 km 2
 πd 
D ≃ 40 km D =   .A e
 λ 
199. In parametric amplifiers used in microwave 2
communication system, pump energy is the  π× 2r 
D=  × 0.7
deciding factor for which one of the following?  λ 
(a) Frequency stability (b) Maximum output 2
(c) Amplification factor (d) Thermal noise level r
D = 27.63  
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II λ
Ans. (c) : In parametric amplifiers used in microwave r
2
communication systems, the amplification factor is D ≃ 28  

limited by pump energy. λ
Parametric amplification factor is a phenomenon where 204. Ordering in liquid crystal where the directors
a signal can be amplified using a parametric are aligned parallel to each other is called?
nonlinearity and a pump wave. (a) Smectic (b) Cholesteric
200. Find the far-field distance for an antenna with (c) Homogenous (d) Heterogeneous
maximum dimension of 1m and operating (e) Nematic
frequency of 900 MHz. CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
(a) 6 m (b) 5 m Ans. (e) : Nematic liquid crystal is a transparent or
(c) 9 m (d) 10m translucent liquid that caused the parallel polarization.
TNPSC AE- 2019 Ordering in liquid crystal where the directors are
aligned parallel to each other is called Nematic.
Ans. (a) : Largest dimension of antenna (D) = 1m
205. The beamwidth of a reflector antenna of
Operating frequency (f) = 900MHz diameter = 70 cm at 30 GHz is
c 3 ×108 (a) 3.7 degree (b) 0.5 degree
λ= = = 0.33m
f 900 × 10 6 (c) 1.1 degree (d) 1 degree
2D 2
2 ×1
Far- field distance ( d f ) = = = 6m Ans. (d) : Given,
λ 0.33
d = 70cm= 0.70 m
201. Antenna radiation efficiency can be increased
f = 30 ×109Hz
by
(a) Reducing radiation resistance of the system c = 3 ×108 ms–1
c 3 ×108
(b) Increasing radiation resistance of the system λ= =
(c) Providing effective earthing f 30 × 109
(d) All of the above 1
TNPSC AE- 2019 λ= 2
10
Ans. (b) : Antenna radiation efficiency can be increased
by increasing radiation resistance of the system. 70 × λ 70
Beam width = =
202. The maximum effective aperture of half-wave, d 0.7 × 102
dipole antenna is Beam width = 1 degree
(a) 1.3λ 2
(b) 0.13λ 2 206. In the near field, the radiated waves take the
form of :
(c) 0.013λ 2 (d) 13λ 2 (a) Spherical Wave (b) Plane Wave
TNPSC AE- 2019 (c) Cylindrical Wave (d) Conical Wave
Ans. (b) : A e ≃ 0.131λ 2 (half-wave dipole). Again this ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014
is the effective aperture for a wave incident from Ans. (a) : In the near field, the radiated waves take the
broadside to the dipole. form of spherical wave.
207. In an axial mode operation of a helical 210. To increase gain of a parabolic reflector
antenna, maximum field radiated by the antenna by 6dBi, the correct statement is :
antenna is : (Assuming efficiency 70%)
(a) along the axis of the helical antenna (a) Diameter is to be increased to 6 folds
(b) in a plane normal to the helix axis (b) Diameter is to be increased to 4 folds
(c) in both axial and normal planes (c) Diameter is to be increased to 2 folds
(d) None of the above (d) None of above
Ans. (a) : In an axial mode operation of a helical Ans. (c) : Given,
antenna, maximum field radiated by the antenna is Gain - 6dBi
along the axis of the helical antenna. G α D2
208. Determine polarization loss factor for a 2
circularly polarized signal upon reception by G1  D1 
= 
linearly polarized antenna G 2  D2 
1 1 The diameter is to be increased by 2 folds,
(a) (b)
2 2 Then,
(c) 1 (d) 0 2
G1  D1 
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 = 
Ans. (b) : When a circularly polarized signal passes G 2  2D1 
through linearly polarized antenna, the component of G2 = 4G1
wave which is parallel to antenna will be passed and the G (dB) = 10log104 +10log G1
component perpendicular to antenna will be blocked. G (dB) = 6 + 10 log G1
output power = 0.5 × Input power The diameter should be Increased by 2 fold.
Output 211. Two communication antennas A and B, one
= 0.5
Input operating at 300 MHz and other at 3 GHz
respectively and having same gain, are
We known that-
illuminated with identical flux density of –
loss factor- 100dBW/m2. What is the relation between the
Power Loss received powers (PA:PB)?
=
Power Input (a) 1:10 (b) 10:1
Input − Output (c) 1:100 (d) 100:1
= ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
Input
Ans.(d): Given-
Output f1 = 300 MHz, f2 = 3GHz,
= 1− = 1– 0.5
Input Density = 100 dBW/m2
1 1
= Pr α 2
2 f
209. The gain of a parabolic dish antenna of 1 m 2 2
Pr1  f 2   3 × 109 
diameter and 80% efficiency at 9.5 GHz is : =  = 
(a) 39 dB (b) 78 dB Pr2  f1   3 ×108 
(c) 40 dB (d) 45 dB = (10)2
 Pr  100
Ans. (a) : Given- Received Power  1  =
8
D = 1m, c = 3×10 , f = 9.5 ×10 Hz 9  Pr  1
 2
3 × 10 8
3 Hence the correct option (d)
λ= = = 0.0315m
9.5 × 109 95 212. A cell phone transmits at a power level of 800
4π× A e πD 2 mW with an antenna gain of 3.0 dB. The cell
Gain= η (Where- A e = = π/ 4) tower has an antenna gain of 10.0 dB and is at
λ 2
4 a distance of 5 km away. Transmission
0.80 × 4π× π / 4 frequency is 600 MHz. Noise level at Receiver
=
(0.0315)2 Input is –95 dBm and required Signal to Noise
ratio to close the link is 5 dB. Find the link
0.80 × π 2
= margin in dB. (assume π 2 = 10)
(0.0315) 2 (a) 150 dB (b) 60 dB
= 7917.6 (c) 30 dB (d) 35 dB
(Gain)dB = 10log10 (7917.6) ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
= 39 dB Ans.(c): Given-
Pt = 800mW, f = 600MHz, π2 = 10, R = 5km 215. A Cassegrain reflector antenna has a sub-
Gr = 10dB = 10 log Gr reflector whose geometrical shape is:
Gr = 10 (a) Paraboloid (b) Hyperboloid
Gt = 3dB = 10log Gt (c) Ellipsoid (d) Spherical
Gt = 2 ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
PG A Ans. (b) : A Cassegrain reflector antenna has a sub-
Received power (Pr) = t t 2 e reflector whose geometrical shape is hyperboloid.
4πR
216. Two microwave sub-systems having respective
c 3 ×108 1 return loss of 10 dB and 20 dB are cascaded
λ= = =
f 6 × 108 2 together, the return loss at the input of the
Where- integrated system is:
λ2 10 (a) 9.63 dB (b) 15.36 dB
Ae = Gr = (c) 21.12 dB (d) 25.23 dB
4π 50.24
2
1 Ans. (a) : 10 log10 n = 10
800 × 10−3 × 2 ×  
Pt × G t × λ
2
2 n=1
Pr = × Gr =
(4π) 2 × R 2 4π× 4π(5 ×103 )2 10 log10 y = 20
y = 100
1
Pr = = 10−9 W = 10−6 mW ny 100
100 × 107 =
10 log N = –95 dBm n + y 101
P 
SNR in dB =  r  = 10 log Pr − 10 log N 10 log10 ny = 10log10  100 
N n+y  101 
SNR in dB = 10 log 10–6 – (–95) = 35dB = 0.4 dB
Line Margin = ∴ Return loss at input in dB = 10–0.4
= 9.6 dB
35dB − 5dB = 30 dB
217. A parabolic reflector antenna used for
213. The rectangular window has relative side-lobe reception of data is 1 meter in diameter and
level: operates at 30 GHz. The far field distance of
(a) –13 dB (b) –27 dB this antenna for a quadratic phase error of
(c) –32 dB (d) –43 dB 22.5 degree is:
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 (a) 200 meter (b) 50 meter
Ans. (a) : The rectangular window has relative side- (c) 100 meter (d) 150 meter
lobe level = –13 dB. ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
Its main-lobe width is 2 Ωm and its first side-lobe is 13 Ans. (a) : Parabolic reflector antenna d = 1m, f = 30
dB down from the main-lobe peak. GHz , phase error = 22.5°
214. In a communication system at 300 MHz, the 2D 2
receiving antenna gain is 8 dBi, the far field =
transmitting antenna gain is 10 dBi and the λ
transmitting power level is 25 watts, the D = geometric dimension
distance between the transmitter and the λ = wavelength
receiver is 1 km, the power received at the 2 × 12
receiving antenna port (assuming the =
propagation medium is loss-less): 3 × 108
(a) 1 mW (b) 9.97 µW 30 × 109
(c) 99.7 nW (d) 0.0997 nW 9
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 far field = 2 × 30 × 10 = 200m
Ans. (b) : Given: 3 ×108
f = 300 MHz, Gr = 8 dBi , Gt = 10 dBi Pt = 25W 218. For broadside antenna array, the largest
2 possible spacing between the antenna elements
 λ  without any grating lobes is
P r = P t Gt Gr  
 4πr  (a) λ/2 (b) λ
25 ×10 × 10 0.8
250 × 6.3 −6 (c) 2 λ (d) None of the above
= 2
= = 9.97 × 10 W ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
 1000  160 ×106
4π× 4π×   Ans. (b) : For broadside antenna array is greater than
 1  or equal to the wavelength that is λ the largest possible
Pr = 9.97 µW spacing between the antenna elements without any
grating lobe.
219. The electric field measured in the far field of 222. The array factor of an array antenna depends
an antenna at a distance of 50m is 1V/m. The on
average power densities at a distance of 500m (a) Number of radiating elements
from the antenna is (b) Spacing between the elements
(a) 26.6µW/m2 (b) 0.1µW/m2 (c) Phase of the applied signal
(c) 10µW/m2 (d) 13.3µW/m2 (d) All of the above
TSPSC Manager Engg.2015 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013, 2010 Ans. (d) : The array factor depends on the number of
Ans. (d) : Given- radiating element, the elements spacing, amplitude and
E1 = 1vm–1, r1 = 50m, r2 = 500 m phase of the applied signal to each other.
E1 r2 Hence the correct option (d).
= 223. A lossless antenna has directional gain G(θ,ϕ),
E 2 r1
ϕ =π/2 θ=π/2
then ∫
=-π/2 ∫θ=-π/2
E1r1 1× 50 1 G(θ, ϕ)dθdϕ is :
E2 = = = = 0.1V / m ϕ
r2 500 10
Average power density-
1 E2 1 0.1× 0.1× 7
P= × 2 = ×
2 120π 2 120 × 22
1 1 × 1× 7
= × = 13.25µW / m 2
2 120 × 100 × 22 (a) 4π (b) 2π
Where -free space (z0) = 120π (c) ≤ 4π (d) ≤ 2π
220. In a monostatic radar, if the antenna aperture ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013
is doubled, then the radar range will Ans. (c) : Given-
(a) Reduce by a factor of 2 φ=π / 2 θ=π / 2
(b) Increase by a factor of 2 ∫ ∫
φ=−π / 2 θ=−π / 2
G(θ, φ)dφ dθ
(c) Reduce by a factor of 2 Lossless antenna directional gain-
φ=π / 2 θ=π / 2
(d) Increase by a factor of 2 2∫ 2∫ G(θ, φ) dφ dθ.
φ= 0 θ= 0
1/ 4
We know-
 P G σA  φ=π / 2 θ=π / 2
Ans. (d) : R max  t t2 e  = ∫ φ= 0 ∫ θ= 0
G(θ, φ) dφ dθ ≤ π
 ( 4π ) Smin 
The value-
R max1 αA1/e 2 φ=π / 2 θ=π / 2
1/ 2
∫ ∫
φ=−π / 2 θ= −π / 2
G(θ, φ) dφ dθ ≤ 4π
R max1  Ae  Hence the correct option (c)
= 1 
R max 2  Ae  224. A broadside array operating at 100 cm
 2  wavelength consist of 4 half wave dipoles
1/ 2 spaced 50 cm apart. Each element carries
R max1  A 
= e  radio frequency current in the same phase and
R max 2  2A e  of magnitude 0.5A. The radiated power will be
_______ if the radiation resistance is 146 ohm
R max 2 = 2R max1 (a) 146 W (b) 73 W
(c) 36.5 W (d) 18.25 W
221. A certain antenna with an efficiency of 95% ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
has maximum radiation intensity of 0.5 W/sr.
Ans. (b) : Given-
The directivity of the antenna fed by input
power of 0.4 W Radiation resistance (Rrad) = 146Ω
(a) 16.53 (b) 12.2 0.5
I rms =
(c) 10.36 (d) 11.31 2
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013 Prad = 4I 2rms R rad
Ans. (a) : Given- 2
η = 95%, Pin = 0.4W, Umax = 0.5 W/sr  0.5 
= 4  × 146
4πU max 4π× 0.5  2
Gain = = = 5π
Pin 0.4 4 × 0.25 × 146
=
gain 5π 2
Directive antenna (D) = = = 16.53
η 0.95 Prad = 73W

225. In a radar system, if the peak transmitted Ans. (d) :
power is increased by a factor of 16 and the
antenna diameter is increased by a factor of 2, λ2
Ae = G
then the maximum range will increase by a 4π
factor of
(a) 16 (b) 8  D2 
 π 
(c) 4 (d) √8  4  = G1
π
( 2D )2 G 2
Ans. (c) : PT1 = PT , D1 = D , R max1 = R max
4
PT2 = 16 PT , D 2 = 2D, R max 2 = ? 1 G
= 1
R max1  PT1 
1/ 4 4 G2
D
=  × 1 G2 = 4G1
R max 2  PT2  D2
G2 in dB = 10 log4 + 10 log G1
 PT 
1/ 4 G2 in dB = 6dB + 10 log G1
D 1
=   × = Hence, when the antenna diameter is doubled, the gain
 16PT  2D 4 of the antenna increased by 6 dB.
R max 2 = 4R max1 229. Consider the rectangular cavity as shown
below:
226. For a satellite transponder with a receiver If a = c> b, the dominant mode of resonance
antenna gain of 12dB, an LNA gain of 10 dB, corresponding to the above rectangular cavity
and equivalent noise temperature of 26 dBK-1, is
the G/Te is
(a) 4 dBK-1 (b) -4 dBK-1
-1
(c) 26 dBK (d) -26 dBK-1
Ans. (b) : Given-
Receiver antenna gain (GR) = 12 dB.
G(LNA) = 10dB (a) TE011 (b) TE101
Te = 26 dB K–1. (c) TM110 (d) TM011
G in dB = GR + GLNA ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020
= 12 + 10 Ans. (b) : Given-
G in dB = 22 dB. a=c>b
Now- a(m) = c(p) > b (n)
G for dominant mode, b should be small-
in dB = ( 22 − 26 ) dBK −1
Te Let b (m) = 0
and a(m) > b(n) and
G let a (m) = c(p) = 1
in dB = −4dBK −1
Te therefore, dominant mode is-
= TE101
227. The signal received from a circularly polarized
signal by an antenna with linear polarization 230. The output of a three element co-linear
compared to the signal received by same antenna array operating in a free space
circularly polarized antenna will be environment is combined (after appropriate
(a) Maximum (b) Zero phase shifting) to maximize the signal received
(c) 3 dB less (d) dB more from a particular direction as shown in figure,
Ans. (c) : The signal received from a circularly
polarized signal by an antenna with linear polarization
compared to the signal received by same circularly
polarized antenna will be 3 dB less.
If antenna is also circularly polarize complete reception
is there.
228. When the antenna diameter is doubled, the
gain of the antenna
(a) Reduces by half (b) Increases by 3 dB If the inter-element spacing is half of the signal
(c) Reduces by 3dB (d) Increases by 6 dB wavelength and direction of maximum
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 response is 30° from line perpendicular to the
array, what are the phases to be applied to (a) 90° , 2P (b) 90°, 2 P 
each element? Consider the first element as the
reference. (c) 45° , 2P (d)  45°, 2 P 
 π π  π π
(a)  − 0  (b)  − 0  ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020
 3 3  4 4 Ans. (a) : The signal component at port 2 is
 π   π π a2 = s21a1+s24 a4
(c) 0 π (d) 0 
 2   4 2 Let a1 = |ap|ejα and a4 = |ap|ej0
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2020  j   1 
a 2 =| a p | e jα   + | ap |  − 
Ans. (c) : We known that-
th st
 2  2
Phase different between n and 1 element is
 j jα  1  
2π = | ap |  e +− 
= d in cos(900 − φ)  2  2 
λ
Where- To get maximum power at port 2, we have-
din → distance between first element and nth element. j j α −1
e =
φ → angle between array axis and maximum electric 2 2
field response. jα jπ / 2
e = j=e
Given-
π
λ α = = 90º
φ = 300 d12 = d13 = λ 2
2
st nd  j  −1  
Distance phase difference between 1 & 2 element is Now, with α = 90º , a 2 = | a p |  j+  
2π  λ   2  2 
  cos ( 90 − 30 )
0 0
=
λ 2  −2 
= | ap |   = − | ap | 2
2π λ 1 π  2
= × × = When signal is |ap| then average power is P Watt
λ 2 2 2
Distance phase difference between 1 and 3 element When signal − 2 | a p | then the average power is 2P watt.
st rd
is- 232. A microwave receiving antenna on a satellite is

2π pointing towards the earth. The antenna beam
× λ cos (90 − 30 )
0 0
width is 50 degrees. The earth subtends 5
λ
degrees at the satellite. What will be the noise
2π 1 temperature of the antenna?
= ×λ× = π
λ 2 (a) 30 degrees Kelvin (b) 5 degree Kelvin
Hence, to get maximum output, we have take (c) 300 degrees Kelvin (d) 1000 degrees Kelvin
 π  ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010
0 π  phase respectively. Ans. (*) : Given-
 2 
TS = 508.15k
231. Two coherent microwave power sources of TB = 287.15k
same frequency f, each generating P watts of
average power, are combined using a four port QSA = 5º
network in the following manner: QBW = 50
The noise temperature of antenna–
T = QSA Ts + (QBW – QSA)TB
= 5 ×508.15 + (50–5)×287.15
= 5×508.15 + 45 ×287.15 = 15463 degree Kelvin
233. Antenna directive gain and aperture area are
If the S-parameter of the 4-port network related as _____.
 j -1  λ λ2
 0 0 
2 2 (a) A e = Dg (b) A e = Dg
  4π 4π
are  j
0 0
-1 
, what should be the 4π 4π
2 2
  (c) A e = Dg (d) A e = 2 Dg
 -1
0 0
j  λ λ
 2

2
 NPCIL-2015
 0
-1 j
0  Ans. (b) : The effective area of antenna -
 2 2 
λ2
phase difference between the inputs to Ae = Dg
maximize the output at port 2 and what is the 4π
maximum power? Where D → Directivity of Antenna.
234. A quarter wave monopole antenna is situated 237. The minimum antenna height required for
above a perfectly conducting ground plane. It transmission in reference to wavelength λ is
is driven by a 50V source at 500 MHz through (a) λ (b) λ/4
an internal impedance of 63.5Ω. The average (c) λ/2 (d) 4λ
power radiated by the antenna is Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(a) 39.37W/m2 (b) 4.56 W/m2 Ans. (b) : Height of transmitting and receiving antennas
(c) 68.49 W/m2 (d) 45.6 W/m2 should be comparable to a quater wavelength of the
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 frequency used.
1 ∵ The minimum length of antenna
Ans. (b) : Prad = I02 R rad = λ/4
2
238. Radio waves travel through
50
I0 = (a) Electromagnetic waves
63.5 + 36.5 (b) Water
50 1 (c) Wires
= = (d) Fiber optic cable
100 2
1 1
Prad = × × 36.5 Ans. (a) : Radio communication or wireless
2 4 communication takes place through electromagnetic
= 4.56W/m2 waves. The message is transmitted through open space
235. The electric field intensity at a distance of via electromagnetic waves or radio waves. The waves
10km from an antenna having a directive gain are transmitted in the open space through antenna after
of 10dB and radiating a total power of 60kW is processing of signal.
(a) 0.6 V/m (b) 1.2 V/m 239. In a broad side array of 15 isotropic radiators,
(c) 0.36 V/m (d) 13.3µW/m2 equally spaced at a distance of λ/4, what is
BWFN?
(a) 30.30° (b) 15.55°
Ans. (a) : We known that- (c) 25.55° (d) 30.55°
Gd UPRVUNL AE -19.07.2021, Shift-II
Pavg = .Prad ……(i)
4πr 2 Ans. (d) : The array is broad side with n = isotropic
E 2 radiators
Pavg = ……(ii) Beam width between first nulls (BWFN)
240π
2λ
Divided both equation (i) & (ii) = Radians
nd
G d 240π
1= × 2 × Prad 2λ 180
4πr 2 E = ⋅ Degree
G d × 60 (15)( λ / 4 ) π
E =
2
× Prad 2 × 4 ×180
r2 = Degree
Where- 15 × π
Gd = 10dB r = 10 km = 104m 1440
= Degree
10 × 60 47.1
E =
2
× 60 × 10 3
=30.55°
(104 )
2
240. The radiation resistance at the terminals of a

E = 0.6V / m antenna is given by
120π 120π
∫ ∫
2 2
236. Synchronous detection means (a) R r = 2 H dS (b) R r = 2 E dS
(a) Extracting noise from signal Io S Io S
(b) Need a reference signal with predetermined 120 120
∫ ∫
2 2
frequency and phase (c) R r = 2 Zo dS (d) R r = 2 H dS

Io S Io
(c) Need a reference signal with predetermined
frequency TNPSC AE - 2018
(d) Need a reference signal with predetermined Ans. (a) : Radiation resistance is equal in ohm to
phase radiated power in watts divided by the square of the
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II effective current in ampere at the point of power supply
120 π 2
Ans. (b) : Synchronous detection means demodulation R r = 2
of received signal a reference signal at the receivers I0 S ∫
H dS .
with predetermined frequency and phase which is 241. Directive gain of an antenna is
generated using extra circuitry. Synchronous detection (a) Inversely proportional to the beam width
helps in extracting weak signals from noise. (b) Directly proportional to the beam width
(c) independent of the beamwidth Ans. (c) : Beam width of parabolic antenna-
(d) always constant 2 ( 70λ )  c
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 = ∵ λ = 
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2015 d  f 
Ans. (a) : Directivity is the measure of the 2 × 70 × 3 × 108
=
concentration of an antenna radiation pattern in a 1×109
particular direction. = 42º
Directive gain of an antenna is Inversely proportional to 50º is the nearest value in option.
the beam width. 249. Which of the following is not used as a
242. Impedance of a half wave folded dipole microwave mixer or detector?
antenna is (a) PIN diode (b) crystal diode
(a) 75 ohms (b) 150ohms (c) Schottky diode (d) backward diode
(c) 300ohms (d) none of these Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III Ans. (a) : PIN diode is used in handling microwave
Ans. (c) : The dipole has approximately 73Ω power as a duplexer in designing of transmit receive
impedance where as the folded dipole consists of switch.
4 times that impedance or approximately 300Ω. 250. If antenna diameter is increased four times,
243. The length of the directors of a Yagi antenna the maximum range is increased by a factor of
should be .............. that of the driven element . (a) 2 (b) 2
(a) greater than (b) less then (c) 4 (d) 8
(c) equal to (d) independent to Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III Ans. (c) : R ∝ D
Ans. (b) : The length of the directors of a Yagi antenna If Diameter is increase 4 times then maximum range of
should be less then that of the driven element radar increase by factor of 4 times.
244. Which of the following antennas are not 251. Microwave resonators are used in
frequency independent? (a) microwave oscillators
(a) folded dipole (b) half wave dipole (b) microwave narrow band amplifiers
(c) parabolic reflector (d) helical antenna (c) microwave frequency meters
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (d) All of the above
Ans. (a) : Folded dipole antennas are not frequency Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
independent Ans. (d) : microwave resonant are used in microwave
245. The main advantage of using microwaves for oscillator, microwave narrow band width amplifiers and
communication is microwave frequency meters.
(a) Large bandwidth (b) Small bandwidth 252. Most commonly used antenna with television
(c) Low power (d) High power receivers
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (a) Loop antenna (b) Rhombic antenna
(c) V-antenna (d) Yagi-antenna
Ans. (a) : The main advantage of using microwave for
communication is large bandwidth. Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
246. Microwave are used for Ans. (d) : The antenna widely used with receivers for
locations within 40 km to 60 km from the transmitter is
(a) Telephony (b) Radio broadcast the folded dipole with one reflector and one director,
(c) TV systems (d) All of the above this is commonly known as Yagi-Uda antenna.
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III 253. The effective length of an antenna is measure of
Ans. (d) : Microwave are used for telephony, Ratio (a) Length of antenna neglecting fringing effect
broadcast and TV system. (b) Effectiveness of the antenna as a radiator/
247. As wavelength decreases, the size of the high collector of electromagnetic energy
directivity antenna (c) Power consumed by the antenna
(a) decreases (b) increases (d) Range of the antenna
(c) not affected (d) either (b) or (c) Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III Ans. (b) : The effective length of an antenna is measure
Ans. (b) : Beam area of an antenna and the directivity of Effectiveness of the antenna as a radiator/ collector
of the antenna are inversely proportional, As the beam of electromagnetic energy.
of area is reduced the directivity increase. Current distribution Effective length
248. The width of a radio beam from a 1m diameter Sinusoidal 2lphy
parabolic antenna at 1GHz is about leff =
(a) 100° (b) 50° π
(c) 10° (d) 2° Triangular leff = lphy/2
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III Hertzian dipole leff = lphy
254. For a dipole antenna Ans. (c) : With VOC = Open circuit voltage at the
(a) The radiation intensity is maximum along the terminals of an antenna produced by a uniform exciting
normal to the dipole axis
 V 
(b) The current distribution along its length is field (E) the relation  - OC  corresponds to effective
uniform irrespective of the length  E 
(c) The effective length is equal to its physical length of antenna.
length 259. The 20 m antenna gives a certain uplink gain
(d) The input impedance is independent of the at frequency of 4/6 GHz band for getting same
location of the feed point gain in the 20/30 GHz band, the required size
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III of antenna is
Ans. (a) : A dipole antenna is a linear antenna usually (a) 8 m (b) 4 m
fed in the centre and producing maximum of radiation (c) 2 m (d) 1 m
in the plane normal to the axis. Radiation intensity is UPSC JWM-2016
maximum along to the normal to the dipole axis.
Ans. (b) : Given as- d= 20m
255. Microwave antenna is of ______.
Uplink frequency (fu) = 4GHz
(a) Pattern type (b) Aperture type
Downlink frequency (fd) = 6GHz
(c) Metallic type (d) None of these
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III ∵ Antenna diameter (d) inversely proportional to
operating frequency
Ans. (b) : Microwave antenna is used for radiating
microwave signal into space and receiving microwave ∴ d = K. 1 ( K = constant )
antenna is a aperture type antenna. f
256. The maximum effective aperture of an antenna d = K × , d = K × 11
which has directivity of 800- 4 6
(a) 36.36 λ2 (b) 63.6 λ2 ∵ Frequency exceeded by 5 times, so diameter divided
(c) 66.33 λ2 (d) 36.63 λ2 by 5
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 d 1 K
= K× = …………..(i)
EA × 4A 5 4 × 5 20
Ans. (b) : Directivity A =
λ2 d 1 K
And = K × = ……….. (ii)
EA =
800 2
λ 5 6 × 5 30
4π From equation (i) & (ii)
EA = 63.6λ 2
Size of antenna = =
d 20
= 4m
257. Radiation resistance of a 1/8 wire dipole in free 5 5
space is- 260. In a microwave communication system, if the
(a) 100 Ω (b) 31.84 Ω minimum carrier to noise (C/N) requirements
(c) 17.3252 Ω (d) 12.32 Ω for a receiver with a 10 MHz bandwidth is 22
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 dB, the minimum receiver carrier power is
2 (a) – 64 dBm (b) – 70 dBm
 dℓ  (c) – 76 dBm (d) – 82 dBm
Ans. (d) : Rrad = 789.5  
λ UPSC JWM-2016
2
 λ  Ans. (d) : Carrier to noise (C/N) = 22 dB
Rrad = 789.5   f = 10 MHz, (f ) = 60dB
 8λ  m m dB
Received power = 22 dB + 60 dB
789.5
Rrad = = 82 dBm
64
261. The directivity of an isotropic antenna is
R rad = 12.33Ω (a) 1 dB (b) 0 dB
258. With VOC = open circuit voltage at the (c) 4π dB (d) π/2 dB
terminals of an antenna produced by a UJVNL AE-2016
uniform exciting field (E), what does the Ans. (b) : The directivity of an isotropic antenna is 0 dB
 V  262. Which antenna is used in mobile handsets?
relation  - OC  correspond to?
 E  (a) Dish (b) Microstrip
(a) Physical length of antenna (c) Yagi (d) None of above
(b) Radiation range of antenna UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
(c) Effective length of antenna Ans. (b) : Microstrip antenna with used in mobile
(d) Distance at which first null occurs handset. In microstrip antenna standard characteristic
UPSC JWM-2016 impedance is around 50 ohm.
263. In parametric amplifier used in microwave Ans. (b) : P = I2R watt
communication systems, the gain is mainly
P 5 × 103
restricted by R= 2Ω = = 50 Ω
(a) Ambient temperature (b) Pump frequency I 100
(c) Pump bandwidth (d) Pump energy 267. What is the directivity of the isotropic
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011 antenna?
Ans. (d) : In parametric amplifier used in microwave (a) 1 (b) 2
communication system, the gain is mainly restricted by (c) 3 (d) 4
Pump energy. TNPSC AE-2014
264. A parabolic antenna having a circular mouth Ans. (a) : The directivity of an antenna is defined as the
is to have a power gain of 600 at λ = 10 cm. power density of the antenna in its direction of
What is its half power beam width? maximum radiation in three-dimensional space divided
by its average power density. The directivity of the
(a) 60 (b) 70 hypothetical isotropic radiator is 1 or 0 dB.
(c) 10 (d) 6
268. An isotropic antenna radiating 100 W of
TNPSC AE-2014 power, the power density at 2000 m from the
Ans. (d) : Parabolic Disk Antenna: source is
D
2 (a) 7.96 µW/m2 (b) 1.99 mW/m2
Gain = 6   (c) 2.99 µW/m 2
(d) 1.99 µW/m2
λ
2
TNPSC AE-2014
D Ans. (d) : An isotropic radiator is an hypothetical
600 = 6  
 
10 antenna that generates a uniform field, i.e. energy flows
with equal strength in all directions.
D = 100
The power density on a sphere of radius r is
λ
Half Power Beam width = 60   Pt
D Sr = , W / m2
4πr 2
 10  100
hence, beam width = 60   =6
 100  = = 1.99 µW / m 2
4π× 4 ×106
265. A high frequency radio link has to be 269. The impedance of 3– element Yagi receiving
established between two points on the earth antenna is around
200 Km away. The reflection region of the (a) 75 ohms (b) 300 ohms
ionosphere is at height of 200 Km and has a (c) 50 ohms (d) 750 ohms
critical frequency of 6 MHz. What is the MUF TNPSC AE-2014
for the given path?
Ans. (b) : Yagi-Uda antenna is the most commonly
(a) 1.25 MHz (b) 6.7 MHz used type of antenna for TV reception.
(c) 2 MHz (d) 13.4 MHz In a three element Yagi antenna the reflector is longer
TNPSC AE-2014 than the driven element which in turn is longer than the
Ans. (b) : The maximum frequency returned at a 0 take director. The impedance of 3-element Yagi receiving
off angle is called the maximum usable frequency antenna is around 300 ohms.
(MUF). The critical frequency and the MUF are related 270. The maximum usable frequency is _______ for
by the angle of incidence of θ
fe (a) Critical frequency × sin θ
MUF = (b) Critical frequency × tan θ
2
 R  (c) Critical frequency × cos θ
1−  
R+h (d) Critical frequency × sec θ
Where, R = earth's radius TNPSC AE-2014
h = height of the ionosphere Critical frequency
Ans. (d) : MUF =
6 cos θ
MUF = = 6.92MHz
2 MUF = Critical frequency × secθ
 200 
1−   where, MUF = Maximum Usable Frequency
 200 + 200  θ = Angle of Incidence
266. What is the radiation resistance of an antenna 271. Frequency range of microwave is given by
which is drawing 10 amps current and (a) 30 cm - 1 mm
radiating 5 KW? (b) 0.1 GHZ - 30 GHZ
(a) 75 Ω (b) 50 Ω (c) 1 GHZ - 300 GHZ
(c) 377 Ω (d) 60 Ω (d) More than 300 GHZ
Ans. (c) : Frequencies range for microwaves is given by 278. In microwave frequencies, a cavity may be
1 GHz to 300 GHz and wave length of about 30 cm to considered as a
1 mm. (a) Low-pass filter (b) High-pass filter
272. An antenna is synonymous to a (c) Band-pass filter (d) Band-stop filter
(a) generator (b) reflector Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
(c) transducer (d) regulator Ans. (b) : A microwave cavity is known as radio wave
TNPSC AE-2013 frequency. Hence it is a high pass filter. It consist of a
Ans. (c) : An antennas convert electrical parameters closed metal structure that confines electromagnetic
into electromagnetic parameters and vice versa. Hence fields in microwave region of the spectrum.
an antenna can be regarded as transducer or sensors. 279. Troposcatters antenna generally used is
273. The rectangular metal box can be used as (a) Horn antenna (b) Parabolic antenna
resonator at (c) Yagi antenna (d) Hellical antenna
(a) Radio frequency Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
(b) Microwave frequency Ans. (b) : Troposcatters antenna generally used is
(c) Power frequency parabolic Antenna.
(d) Low frequency 280. For which of the following reasons top-loading
TNPSC AE-2013 is sometimes used with an antenna
Ans. (b) : A rectangular metal box can be used as (a) To increase its effective height
resonator at microwave frequency. A cavity resonator is (b) To increase its bandwidth
a useful microwave device. (c) to decrease it s radiation resistance
274. In an end fire array with antenna spacing of (d) To decrease its input impedance
λ/4, the elements are fed Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
(a) in phase (b) 90º out of phase Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012, Paper-III
(c) 180º out of phase (d) at random Ans. (a) : Top loading is sometime used with an
TNPSC AE-2013 antenna to increase its effective height.
Ans. (b) : In the end fire array with antenna spacing of 281. A loop antenna is commonly used for which of
λ/4, the element are fed 90º out of phase. For end fire the following
array phase excitation difference (β = ± kd) (a) Satellite communication
275. A typical radar antenna has beam width of (b) Radar
about (c) Direction finding
(a) 1º (b) 2º (c) 3º (d) 5º (d) None of the above
TNPSC AE-2013 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
Ans. (b) : A typical radar antenna has beam width is Ans. (c) : A loop Antenna is commonly used for
about to 2º. Beam width of a radar is the area where direction finding.
most of power is radiated, which is weak power. 282. An antenna above critical frequency is
276. The nominal uplink and downlink frequency (a) Resistive (b) Capacitive
of earth station's antenna in the C band are (c) Inductive (d) Any of the above
(a) 6 GHz, 4 GHz (b) 4 GHz, 6 GHz Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
(c) 14 GHz, 12 GHz (d) 12 GHz, 14 GHz Ans. (c) : An Antenna above critical frequency is act as
TNPSC AE-2013 a inductive.
Ans. (a) : The nominal uplink and downlink 283. Which of the following is not a reason for the
frequencies of earth stations antenna in the C band are 6 use of antenna coupler
GHz and 4 GHz. (a) To discriminate against harmonics
• Uplink frequency = transmission of signal from (b) To make the antenna link resistive
station to satellite. (c) To prevent reradiation of the local oscillator
• Downlink frequency = transmission of signal from (d) To provide the output amplifier with the
satellite to station. current load impedances
277. A microphone which has extremely high Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
impedance, low distortion and excellent Ans. (d) : To provide the output amplifier with the
frequency and dynamic response is current load impedance is not a reason for the us of
(a) Moving coil microphone antenna coupler.
(b) Capacitor microphone 284. Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna for
(c) Ribbon microphone which of the following purpose?
(d) Crystal microphone (a) To increase the bandwidth of the lens
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 (b) To permit pin-point focusing
Ans. (b) : The condenser microphones is favoured for (c) To correct the curvature of the wave front
vehicle noise investigation because of its frequency from a horn that is to short
response. A capacitor microphones has high impedance low (d) To reduce the bulk of the lens
distortion and excellent frequency and dynamic response. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
Ans. (b) : Zoning is used with a dielectric Antenna to Ans. (b) : Magnetrons are capable of generating
permit pin-point focusing. extremely high frequencies they are an important source
285. A duplexer is used to of power in radar system and in microwave ovens.
(a) Couple two antennas to a transmitter 291. A parabolic dish antenna has a conial beam 2º,
(b) Isolate the antenna from the local oscillator wide, the directivity of the antenna is
(c) Prevent interference between two antennas approximately
connected to receiver (a) 20 dB (b) 30 dB (c) 40 dB (d) 50 dB
(d) Use an antenna for reception or transmission Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
without interference 41253
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III Ans. (c) : Directivity =
Bandwidth(θ) × Bandwidth(φ)
Ans. (d) : A duplexer is used to use an antenna for
reception or transmission without interference. Where-
286. Which of the following is taken as reference BW (θ) = BW (φ) = 2º
antenna for directive gain? 41253
D= = 10,313 ≃ 10000
( 2)
2
(a) ½ wave dipole (b) elementary doublet
(c) isotropic antenna (d) infinitesimal dipole
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III D(dB) = 10 log(10) 4
Ans. (c) : Isotopic antenna is taken as reference antenna D = 40 dB
for directive gain directivity of isotopic antenna is
always 1. 292. The approximate dimensions for a square path
287. Microwave device used as an oscillator within antenna, for a frequency of 2 GHz on a
the frequency range 10–1000 GHz is substrate with a relative permittivity of 2 are :
(a) Step recovery diode (b) Gunn diode (a) 50 mm × 50 mm (b) 100 mm × 100 mm
(c) Schottky diode (d) IMPATT diode (c) 75 mm × 75 mm (d) 25 mm × 25 mm
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)- 2016, Paper-I MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
Ans. (b) : Gunn diode are used to built oscillator in the C
10GHz to 1000 GHz frequency range. Ans. (c) : f =
λε
288. For an earth station, transmitter with an 3 × 108 3
antenna output power of 40 dBW (10,000W), a λ = , λ = × 10−1
back-off loss 3 dB, a total branching and 2 × 10 × 2
9
4
feeder loss of 3 dB and transmit antenna gain λ = 0.75 × 10−1 m
of 4 dB, the effective isotropic radiated power λ = 75mm
(EIRP) will be
(a) 38 dBW (b) 40 dBW λ ×λ = 75mm × 75mm
(c) 36 dBW (d) 47 dBW 293. In a telecommunication trans-receive system,
Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018 the transmitting antenna with antenna
aperture of 1 m is fed with 1 W of power at 10
Ans. (a) : Given- GHz. The receive antenna with antenna
Pt = 40 dBW back off loss = 3dB aperture 0.5 m located at 1 km away receives x
Feeder loss = 3dB Gt = 4dB mW of power. If the transmitting frequency
ERIP = Pt + Gt – Cable loss changes to 20 GHz, what will happen to
= 40 + 4 – (3+3) receive power ?
= 38dBW (a) Increase by 3 dB (b) Increase by 6 dB
289. A transverse electromagnetic wave with (c) Decrease by 3 dB (d) Decrease by 6 dB
circular polarization is received by a dipole ISRO Scientist December, 2017
antenna. Due to polarization mismatch, the Ans. (b) : Given,
power transfer efficiency from the wave to the f1 = 10GHz, f2 = 20GHz, dt = 1M, Dr = 0.5m, Dt = 1W
antenna is reduced to about
PG
(a) 50% (b) 35.3% PRe = t 2t × A e
(c) 25% (d) 0% 4πd
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II Received power is
Ans. (d) : Polarization mismatch means that if the P1 f12
wave is left circular polarized & the antenna is right = 2
circular polarized resulting in zero power transfer P 2 f2
efficiency. P1  10 
2
290. Which of the following are microwave =  

P2  20 
sources?
(a) Klystron (b) Magnetron P 2 = 4P1
Hence, P2 increase by the factor 4 therefore, Increase -
(c) IMPATT (d) TWTA
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II 10log10(4) = 6dB
294. Find the maximum directivity of an antenna Ans. (c) : Given-
whose power density is given by f = 3GHz
A sinθ Aperture dimension (D1) = 20 feet
Wrad = aˆ r 0 2 W m −2 where A0 is peak value
r D2 = 18 inch.
of power density. θ is the usual spherical Where-
coordinate and aˆ r is the radial unit vector D ∝λ
(a) 4/π (b) 2/π  D1   D 2 
(c) 3/π (d) 5/π  = 
ISRO Scientist December, 2017  λ1   λ 2 
Ans. (a) : Given Dλ
λ2 = 2 1
A sinθ D1
Wrad = aˆ r 0 2 W m -2
r 18 × λ1  c
As we know λ2 = ∵ λ = 
20 × 12  f
U ( θ, φ ) = r 2 Wrad = aˆ r A 0 sin θ
C 18 C
U ( θ, φ ) U ( θ, φ ) = ×
And G d ( θ, φ ) = = 4π f 2 240 f1
U avg ∫∫ U ( θ, φ) dΩ 240
Therefore, f2 = × f1
18
A 0 sin θ 4πA 0 sin θ
G d ( θ, φ ) = 4π = π 2π f2 =
240 × 3
∫∫ 0 sin θdθdφ
A
∫
0
sin 2 θdθ∫ dφ
0
18
2sin θ 240
G d ( θ, φ ) = f2 =
π/ 2 6
4 f 2 = 40 GHz
d d ( θ, φ )max =
π
295. A gain-standard born is known to have a gain 297. An antenna has a radiation resistance of 72 Ω,
G = 10. It is being used to measure the gain of a loss resistance of 8 Ω and power gain of 16.
a large directional antenna by the comparison Calculate its directivity.
method. When the antenna being measured is (a) 15.8 (b) 16.8
connected to the receiver it is found to be (c) 17.8 (d) 18.7
necessary to insert an attenuator adjusted to ISRO Scientist December, 2017
attenuate by 23 dB in order to have the same
Ans. (c) : Given-
receiver output that was observed with the
born connected. What is the gain of the large Rrad = 72, RLoss = 8Ω, GP = 16
antenna? R rad 72 72 9
(a) 13 dB (b) 23 dB η= = = =
R rad + R Loss 72 + 8 80 10
(c) 33 dB (d) 230 dB
ISRO Scientist December, 2017 Where-
Ans. (c) : Given- GP = η × Gd
Gain (G) = 10 G
Gd = P
ALoss = –23 η
G = G1 +ALoss 16 16 × 10
Where- Gd = = = 17.77
G1 = Gain Large Antenna– losses 9 /10 9
G1 = G –ALoss = 10–(–23) 298. The directivity of hertzian dipole is:
G1 = 33dB (a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
296. A paraboloidal-reflector antenna is designed LMRC AM (S&T)-13.05.2018
for operation at 3 GHz. Its largest aperture
dimension is 20 feet. It is desired to build a Ans. (c) : The directivity of hertzian dipole is 1.5.
scale model of this antenna with the largest 299. If the amplitude of the time harmonic current
aperture dimension scaled to 18 inches. At distribution on a thin centre-fed short z-
what frequency must this model be operated in directed dipole antenna of length l(l << λ) is
order to have the same pattern as the full-size  2z 
antenna? given by I (z) = I 0  1 –  . Which one of the
(a) 10 GHz (b) 20 GHz  l 
(c) 40 GHz (d) 4 GHz following represents radiations resistance of
ISRO Scientist December, 2017 the antenna?
l
2 302. Which of the following antennas are used
l
(a) 320π2   (b) 80π2   directly as radiators abroad satellites to
λ λ illuminate comparatively large areas of the
2 2
l l Earth and they are widely used as primary
(c) 40π2   (d) 20π2   feeds for reflector-type antennas both in
λ λ transmitting and receiving modes?
DRDO-2009 (a) Dipole antennas
Ans. (b) : Field strengths at every point are reduce to (b) End fire-array antennas
1 (c) Microstrip antennas
one half  
2 (d) Horn antennas
1 ESE-2021
Power radiated = (power radiated from Hertzian Ans.(d) : The horn antenna is best excited from a
4
dipole) waveguide the horn antenna provides a useful amount
of directivity to prevent other reflections from
1 
2
2 ℓ  Interfering with the required response.
Power radiated = 80 π   f
4   λ   Horn antenna converts the electric power into radio
2
waves and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio
ℓ transmitter or radio receiver.
Prad = 20π2  
λ 303. If a cellular system has p number of co-
300. An antenna having a directivity of 2 at a channel interfering cells, S is the desired signal
frequency of 300 MHz will have a maximum power from serving base station and Ip is
effective aperture of interference power from pth interfering co-
1 2 1 2 channel cell base station, then what is the
(a) m (b) m signal to interference ratio for a mobile
8π 4π receiver in the functioning cell?
1 2 1 2 S 2×S
(c) m (d) m (a) (b)
2π π
∑ i=1 IP ∑ i=1 IP
P P
BSNL(JTO)-2009
∑
P
Ans. (c) : Given, I S
i =1 P
C = 3×108 (c) (d)
D=2 S IP
f = 300 MHz = 300×106Hz ESE-2021
f = 3 ×108 Ans.(a) : The signal to Interference radio for a mobile
c 3 ×108 receiver in the functioning cell is given by-
λ= = =1
f 3 ×108 S
∑ i =1 IP
P
(1)
2
λ2 1 2
Ae = .D = ×2 Ae = m
4π 4π 2π Where-
301. The antenna current of an AM transmitter is S – Desired signal power from the desired base
8A when only the carrier signal is transmitted. station.
What is the antenna current when the carrier 304. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the
signal is modulated by sinusoidal signal origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented
V ( t ) = 1.4sin ( 2π × 500t ) with modulation along z-axis. in which one of the following
index 0.8? planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has
(a) 3.2 A (b) 7.2 A a circular shape?
(c) 9.2 A (d) 11.2 A (a) x=0 (b) y = 0
ESE-2021 (c) z = 0 (d) φ = 45o
Ans. (c) : Given- DRDO-2008
Ic = 8A Ans. (c) : A Hertzian dipole antenna that can be made
Modulation Index = 0.8 by a simple wire, with a center-fed driven element for
transmitting or receiving radio frequency energy these
µ2 antenna are the simplest practical antenna from a
I t = Ic 1 +
2 theoretical point of view the current amplitude on such
an antenna decreases uniformly from maximum at the
( 0.8)
2
It = 8 1 + center to zero at the ends.

2 305. Which of the following statements is NOT
It = 8 1.32 true?
(a) Antenna losses are taken into account in
I t = 9.2A calculating its power gain
(b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any 2
power, the directive gain and the power gain  
 D 
(10 )
43.82 /10
are equal = 6 
 3 × 10 
8
(c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum
 
value of its directive gain  10 × 109 
(d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is D ≈ 2m
same in all directions
DRDO-2008 308. An antenna has maximum radiation intensity
U max = 10 Watt/Sr. and average radiation
Ans. (d) : The directive gain of a hertzian dipole is
same in all direction this statement is not correct. Hence intensity U avg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency
the correct option (d). of the antenna is given as ηr = 95% the input
306. An antenna at the earth station of a satellite power of the antenna is
communication link having a gain of 55 dB at (a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
14 GHz aimed at a geostationary satellite (c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt
36,500 km away. The receiving antenna on the TNTRB AE-2017
satellite has a gain of 35 dB. The earth station BSNL (JTO)-2006
transmitted power, for receiving a signal Ans. (d) : Given-
power of 2.1877 × 10–9 W at the output of the Uavg = 4.5watt, Umax = 10 watt, ηr = 95%
receiving antenna, is :
P
(a) 0.1 kW (b) 0.5 kW Pi = r
(c) 1 kW (d) 10 kW η
BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001 Where-
Ans. (c) : Given- Pr = 4π Uavg
8 9 Put value-
c = 3×10 m/s, f = 14 ×10 Hz
Pt = 2.1877×10–9W, Gt = 55dB, Gr =35dB 4πU avg
Pi =
3 × 10 8 η
λ=
14 × 10 9 4 π× 4.5
Pi =
Received Power- 0.95
 λ 
2
Pi = 59.53watt
Pr = Pt G t G r  
 4 π d  309. In an airport, a receiving antenna has a
2 maximum dimension of 3 meters and operates
  at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the
−9
 3 × 108  airport is 1/2Km away from the antenna The
Pr = 2.1877 ×10 × 55 × 35  
 14 × 10  aircraft is in the _______ region of the
9
  antenna.
 4π× 36500  (a) far-field (b) near-field
2
 3  (c) close-field (d) Out of reach
Pr = 2.1877 ×10−9 × 55 × 35  
 140 × 4π× 36500  BSNL (JTO)-2006
Pr = 1×103W Ans. (a) : Given-
D = 3m
Pr = 1kW
c = 3×108
307. A parabolic dish antenna with an efficiency of c 3 × 108
55% and an operating frequency of 10 GHz λ= = ⇒λ=3
f 100 × 106
has a gain of 43.82 dB. Its diameter is :
Put value-
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m
2D2 2 × ( 3)
3
(c) 4 m (d) 8 m
= = 6m
BSNL(JTO)-2002, 2001 λ 3
Ans. (b) : Given- d = 1/2 km = 500m
η = 55% , f = 10GHz The aircraft is in the far-field region.
gain (10log G) = 43.82dB ⇒G=(10) 43.82/10 310. For an antenna to be frequency-independent,
it should expand or contract in proportion to
3 ×108 3 the
λ= =
10 ×109 100 (a) gain (b) directivity
Gain parabolic dish antenna (c) wavelength (d) impedance
2 BSNL (JTO)-2006
D
G = 6  Ans. (d) : For an antenna to be frequency- Independent, it
λ should expand or contract in proportion the impedance.
311. A 1 km long microwave link uses two 315. An antenna is fed with 200 π W power. The
antennas, each having 30 dB of gain. If the efficiency of the antenna is 75%. If the
power transmitted by one antenna is 1 W at radiation pattern of the antenna is
3GHz, the power received by the other
antenna is approximately equal to: sin 2θ × sin 2 φ for 0 ≤ θ ≤ π ( azimuth angle )

(a) 15.85 µW (b) 63.4 µW P ( θ, φ ) =  and 0 ≤ φ ≤ π ( elevation angle )
(c) 0.5 µW (d) 31.7 µW 0 elsewhere
UPPCL AE-30.03.2022 
TNTRB (EC) 2012 Find the radiation intensity in the direction of
Ans. (b) : Given- maximum radiation.
d = 1km = 1000m PT = 1 watt (a) 225 W/steradian (b) 150 π W/steradian
GT = 30dB = 1000 (c) 200 π W/steradian (d) 250 π W/steradian
c 3 × 10 8 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
λ= = = 0.1 Ans.(a): Given as,
f 3 × 109
We know- Pin = 200πω
2 2
 λ   0.1  P
P R = P T GT GR   = 1 ×1000×1000   η = rad
 4πd   4π× 1000  Pin
= 6.34 ×10–5 watt, Prad = 0.75 ( 200π )
PR = 63.4 µ watt
312. Which one of the following statements is not Prad = 150πW
correct regarding SONET networks? Pr ad P
Radiation intensity U ( θ, φ ) = = r ad
(a) A point-to-point network is normally made solid angle Ω A
of an STS multiplexer. π π
(b) A linear synchronous optical network can be Ω A = ∫ ∫ P ( θ, φ ) sin θdθdφ
θ= 0 φ= 0
point-to-point or multipoint.
π π
(c) The signal flow can be unidirectional or =
∫ ∫0 sin sin φ sin θdθdφ
2
bidirectional. 0
(d) A multipoint network uses STS multiplexers Ω = π sin 3 θdθ π sin φdφ
to allow the communications between several A ∫0 ∫0
terminals. 2π
ESE-2022 Ω A = 3 Strd.
Ans. (d) : A multipont network uses Add and Drop
P 150π
multipliers to allow the communications between Now, U ( θ, φ ) = r ad =
several terminals. Ω A 2 / 3π
313. Load factor is defined as the ratio of_______ U ( θ, φ ) = 225 W / Steradian
(a) Average Load/Max. Demand
(b) Max. Demand/ Average Demand 316. Regarding end-fire array which of the
(c) Average Demand/ Connected load following statements is incorrect?
(d) Connected load/Max. Demand (a) It is called a linear resonant dipole array
RRB SSE 01.09.2015, Shift-II (b) It has narrow bandwidth
Ans. (a) : Load factor define at the ratio of average load (c) There is no radiation at right angles to the
to the maximum demand- plane of the array
average load (d) It has a dipole spacing of λ/2
Load factor =
max. demand Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) -2015, Paper I
Ans. (b) : The end fire array has sufficient high band
314. A dipole carries RMS current of about 300 A
across the radiation resistance 2Ω. What width & there is no radiation at right angle to the plane
would be the power radiated by an antenna? of the array.
(a) 135 kW (b) 200 kW 317. In a microwave test bench, why is the microwave
(c) 90 kWs (d) 180 kW signal amplitude modulated at 1 kHz?
RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM (a) To increases the sensitivity of measurement
Ans. (d) : Given , (b) To transmit the signal to a far-off place
Irms = 300 A (c) To study amplitude modulation
Radiated resistance (Rr) = 2Ω (d) Because crystal detector fails at microwave
Rediated power (Prad) = ? frequency
Prad = I2rms × Rr Ans. (d) : Because crystal detector fails at microwave
= (300)2 × 2 = 90000 × 2 frequency, microwave signal amplitude is modulated at
Prad = 180 kW 1kHz.
318. The gain G of an antenna of effective area A is 322. A Yagi antenna is a directional antenna
given by consisting of parasitic elements−
4πλ 4πA (a) Only director
(a) G = 2 (b) G = (b) With one or more directors
A λ
(c) With a reflector and one or more directors
4πA
(c) G = 2 (d) None (d) With a reflector
λ RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 Ans. (c) : A Yagi antenna is a directional antenna
Ans. (c) : The gain G of an antenna of effective area A consisting of a driven element such as dipole or folded
is given by:- dipole and additional parasitic elements, typically a
4πA e reflector and one or more directors. It radiates in only
G= one direction and is most commonly used in point to
λ 2
point communication.
319. The Marconi antenna has a physical length of: 323. Which of the following antennas is the
λ λ standard reference antenna for the directive
(a) (b) gain is the?
2 4
(a) Half wave dipole (b) Isotropic antenna
λ
(c) λ (d) (c) Rhombic antenna (d) Elementary doublet
8 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
Ans. (b) : Isotropic source- It radiates equally in all
Ans. (b) : A Marconi antenna is also known as quarter direction.
wave antenna or the grounded antenna. A Marconi
antenna operates as a Hertz Antenna, but physically it is
only a quarter wave length ( λ 4 ) long.
320. The percent bandwidth of an antenna with an
optimum frequency of operation of 500MHz Gain G = ηe D
and –3dB frequencies of 475MHz and 525MHz
is: Where ηe = Antennas efficiency
(a) 25% (b) 50% D = directivity of the antenna
(c) 20% (d) 10% The gain of an antenna is the ratio of the radiation
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 intensity in a given direction to the radiation intensity
Ans. (d) : Given, that would be obtained if the power. Here radiated
f0 = 500 MHz, f1 = 475 MHz, isotropically.
f2 = 525 MHz 324. For a dipole antenna
Percentage bandwidth of antenna is given by- (a) Effective length equals its physical length
(b) Radiation intensity is maximum along the
f
%BW = o × 100 normal to the dipole axis
f 2 − f1 (c) Current distribution along its length is uniform
500 (d) Input impedance is independent of the
%BW = ×100 location of feed point
525 − 475
BEL-2015
%B.W = 10%
Ans. (b) : For a dipole antenna radiation intensity is
321. Find the effective area of a half-wave dipole at maximum along the normal to the dipole axis.
1GHz. 325. Radiation resistance of a Hertzian dipole of
(a) 0.0118m 2 (b) 0.0414m 2 length dl is
2
(c) 0.0318m 2 (d) 0.0218m 2  dl   dl 
(a) 80π2   ohms (b) 80π   ohms
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 λ λ
Ans. (a) : Given, f = 1GHz 2
 dl   π dl 
(c) 80   ohms (d) 80π   ohms
c 3 × 10 8
λ  λ 
λ= = = 0.3m
f 109 TRB Poly. Lect. -2012
λ2 Ans. (a) : Radiation resistance of a Hertzian dipole of
Effective area ( A e ) = ×D length dl is -
4π
For half wave dipole ( D ) = 1.64
2
 dl 
Rrad = 80π2   Ω
λ
( 0.3)
2
Ae = × 1.64 326. In the x-band, for the best low-level noise

4π performance, an amplifier should use
A e ≃ 0.0118m 2 (a) A BJT (b) A Gunn diode

(c) Step recovery diode (d) An IMPATT diode T = 30K, Te = 270K
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II B = 1.5 MHz
Ans. (c) : In the X-band for the best low-level noise Output noise power (P) = GKB(T+Te)
perform an amplifier should be a recovery diode.
P = 1010 × 1.38 × 10−23 × 1.5 × 106 ( 30 + 270 )
327. The front end of an amplifier chain in a
manufacture communication system is kept P = 1.38 ×1.5 × 10 ( 300 )
−7
immersed in liquid nitrogen to P = 62 µw

(a) Dissipate heat generated by amplifier
331. Increasing the height of the radiating antenna
(b) Expand its frequency response the coverage area of TV station would
(c) Improve its noise figure (a) increase (b) decrease
(d) Reduce the distortion by the amplifier (c) not change (d) none
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
Ans. (c) : The front end of an amplifier chain in Ans. (a) : Coverage (d) of transmitting antenna is given
manufacture of a communication system is kept immersed by
in liquid nitrogen to improve noise figure. Travelling wave
tube can be used for amplification of microwave energy. d = 2hR
TWT provide more bandwidth than Klystron. h = height of transmitting antenna
328. Of the following antenna types, determine the R = radius of earth
antenna which does not have Omni-directional d∝ h
radiation pattern
If the height h of transmitting antenna is increased
(a) Log periodic antenna coverage (d) is also increases.
(b) Half wave dipole antenna
332. For efficient radiation and reception, the
(c) Marconi antenna
transmitting and receiving antennas would
(d) Diacone Antenna have to have lengths comparable to _____ .
TANGEDCO- 2015 (a) equal wavelength (b) half wavelength
Ans. (a) : The Log periodic antenna radiation pattern (c) quarter wavelength (d) 3/4th wavelength
may be uni-direction or bi-direction so Log periodic UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
antenna not have omni- directions radiation pattern.
Ans. (c) : For efficient radiation and reception, the
329. An antenna of input resistance 73 Ω is transmitting and receiving antennas would have to have
connected to a 50 Ω line. If lessen are ignored, lengths comparable to quarter wavelength frequency
then its efficiency is nearly used.
(a) 0.19 (b) 0.61 333. What would be the antenna efficiency for a
(c) 0.97 (d) 1.19 transmit antenna with a radiation resistance
TANGEDCO- 2015 Rr = 25 Ohm and an effective antenna
Ans. (c) : Given, ZL = 50Ω and Z0 = 73Ω resistance Re = 15 Ohm ?
(a) 70.2% (b) 25.6%
The reflection coefficient Γ =
( Z L − Z0 ) (c) 62.5% (d) 50.26%
ZL + Z0 UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014
50 − 73 −23 Ans. (c) : Given,
= = Antenna resistance (Ra) = 15 ohm
50 + 73 123 Radiation reactance (Rr) = 25 ohm
Γ = 0.186 We know the antenna efficiency
So, efficiency ( η) = 1 − ( 0.186 )
2
Rr
η=
η = 1 − 0.034596 = 0.965 Rr + Ra
η ≃ 0.97 Where R a = effective antenna resistance
330. An antenna having a noise temperature of 30K Rr = Radiation resistance
is connected to an amplifier having gain of 100 25
dB an an equivalent noise bandwidth of 1.5 %η = 15 + 25 × 100%
MHz. The equivalent noise temperature of the
%η = 62.5 %
amplifier is 270K. What is the available output
noise power? 334. Antenna gain is:
(a) 58 µw (b) 62 µw (a) Product of directivity gain and antenna efficiency
(c) 30 µw (d) 47 µw (b) Directive gain/Antenna efficiency
TNTRB AE– 2017 (c) Antenna efficiency/Directive gain
Ans. (b) : Gain (dB) = 100dB (d) Equal to directive gain
100dB = 10log10 ( Gain )
Ans. (a) : Antenna gain is the product of directivity
Gain (G) = 1010 gain and antenna efficiency.

335. Which of the following statements is not true P ×104 × 104 × 0.075 × 0.075
about the directive gain? 10−6 = t
( 4 × 3.14 × 48000 )
2
(a) It is the ratio of the radiation intensity in that
direction to the average radiated power. Pt = 0.64 W
(b) It is the function of angles.
(c) It is the directivity of an antenna when 339. The skip distance is
directive gain is maximum. (a) Same for each layer
(b) Independent of frequency
(d) It is independent of angles.
(c) Independent of the state of ionization
UPRVUNL AE– 11.06.2014 (d) Independent of transmitted power
Ans. (d) : Directive gain- The directive gain is defined IES - 2001
as the ratio of radiation intensity due to the test antenna Ans. (d) : Skip distance in defined an the distance
to isotropic antenna. It is independent of angles is not between transmitting antenna and a point where first
true about the directive gain. wave is received after the reflection from ionosphere.
336. If an antenna drawas 12 A current and Which is from different layer of air.
radiates 4 kW, then what will be its radiation
D2
resistance? f muf = f C 1 + 2
(a) 22.22 ohm (b) 27.77 ohm 4h
(c) 33.33 ohm (d) 39.77 ohm f muf D2
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 = 1 +
fC 4h 2
Ans. (b) : Given I = 12A and P = 4kW Spare both side
We know that, 2
P  f muf  D2
P=I R,
2
R= 2   = 1+ 2 By solving this
I  fC  4h
4kW 4000
R = = = 27.78Ω
2
 f muf 
(12 ) (12 ) =  −1
2 2
D skip 2h 
 fC 
337. The standard reference antenna for the So from the formula skip distance depends an ionization
directive gain is the and frequency independent of transmitted power.
(a) Infinitesimal dipole (b) Isotropic antenna 340. When an antenna is placed in a vertical plane
(c) Elementary doublet (d) Half-wave dipole it will produce?
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 (a) Circularly polarised waves
Ans. (b) : The standard reference antenna for the (b) Elliptically polarised waves
directive gain is the isotropic antenna. (c) Horizontally polarised waves
338. The available power required at a receiving (d) Vertically polarised waves
antenna is 10 –6
Watts. Transmitting and Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017
receiving antennas have gain of 40dB each. Ans. (d) : When an antenna is placed in vertical plane
The carrier frequency is 4GHz and the then it will produce a vertical polarized wave. Vertical
distance between them is 30 miles. The polarization refers to the oscillation of an antenna's
required transmitter power is electrical field on the vertical plane.
(a) 0.64 W (b) 0.74 W 341. An antenna with radiation resistance 330 Ω
(c) 0.78 W (d) 0.32 W operates at 1 GHz and with a current of 4 A.
Find the radiated power.
(a) 4800 W (b) 5280 W
Ans.(a): Given, (c) 6100 W (d) 6200 W
–6
Receiving power (Pr) = 10 watts UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
(GT) dB = 40 dB
Ans. (b) : Prad = I2 ⋅ R rad
10 log GT = 40dB
GT = 104 Prad = 4 2 × 330 = 16 × 330
9
Carrier frequency fc = 4 GHz = 4 × 10 Hz Prad = 5280W
Distance (r) = 30 miles
∵ 1 mile = 1.6 km = 1600 m 342. In broadside array, the maximum radiation
can be achieved, when all the elements in the
30 miles = 1600 × 30 = 48000 m
4 array should have similar
GT = Gr = 10 (a) Wavelength (b) Amplitude
c 3 × 108 (c) Phase (d) (b) and (c)
λ= = = 0.075 m
f 4 × 109 TNPSC AE - 2018
2 Ans. (d) : In broad side array, the maximum radiation
Radiated power (Pr) = PtGtGr  λ  can be achieved, when all the elements in array should
 4πr  have similar amplitude and phase.
6. The height of Geostationary satellite (above
(iii) Radar & Satellite earth) used for satellite communication is nearly
Communication (a) 300 km (b) 3500 km
(c) 10,000 km (d) 36,000 km
1. A satellite link has same carrier to noise ratio UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
in uplink as well as in downlink. Overall ISRO Scientist - 2011
carrier to noise ratio will be- RPSC Lect. -2011
(a) always greater than that of individual Ans. (d) : The height of Geostationary satellite used for
(b) equal to the individual one Satellite communication is nearly 36000 km .
(c) always less than that of individual 7. For satellite communication, the frequency
(d) unpredictable should be-
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II (a) Less than the critical frequency of ionosphere
Ans. (c) : The overall carrier to noise ratio of a satellite (b) equal to the critical frequency of ionosphere
link can be calculated as (c) more than the critical frequency of ionosphere
1 1 1
= + UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
( C / N )overall ( C / N )downlink ( C / N )uplink Ans. (c) : For satellite communication, the frequency
So for equal C/N in uplink as well as in downlinks, the should be more than the critical frequency of ionosphere.
overall C/N will be half of the individual one. 8. The orbital satellites are
2. An artificial satellite can be tracked very (a) symmetrical (b) asymmetrical
precisely from the earth by using- (c) synchronous (d) non synchronous
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Raman effect ESE-2022
(c) Doppler effect (d) Gaussian effect Ans. (d) : Non-synchronous satellites work like the
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II space station, they have fixed altitudes for their mission.
Ans. (c) : According to the Doppler effect- The orbital satellites are non synchronous.
The charges in the frequency of any kind of sound or 9. If the minimum range of a radar is to be
light wave produced by a moving source with respect to doubled, the peak power has to be increased by
an observer. a factor of
An artificial satellite can be tracked very precisely from (a) 2 (b) 4
the earth by using Doppler effect. (c) 8 (d) 16
3. The point at which satellite intersects the Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018
equatorial plane while going from north to NIELIT Scientists- 2017
south is known as- Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
(a) Apogee point (b) Perigee point Ans. (d) : The range of the radar is given -
(c) Descending node (d) Ascending node 1/ 4
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II  P G 2 σA 
R= t e

 ( 4π ) Pr 
2
Ans. (c) : Descending node- The point at which
satellite intersects the equatorial plane going from north
to south. G = Antenna gain
Ascending node- The point at which satellite intersects σ = Radar x-section
the equatorial plane going from south to north. Pr = Reflected power
4. In a typical mobile satellite array antenna, if Ae = Effective area of the Antenna
three elements are activated, how many R ∝ ( Pt )
1/ 4
elements are deactivated? Now to double the range R, Pt has to be increased by a

(a) 11 (b) 13 factor of 16.
(c) 15 (d) 17
10. Random satellite moves in
(a) random paths (b) polar orbits
Ans. (a) : In a typical mobile satellite array antenna, if (c) geostationary orbits (d) equatorial plane
three elements are activated then 11 elements are
deactivated. Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II
5. Which of the following frequencies cannot be
used for reliable beyond the horizon terrestrial Ans. (b) : Random satellite moves in polar orbits.
communications without repeaters? 11. An earth station at sea level communicates at
(a) 12 GHz (b) 18 GHz an elevation angle of 35º with GEO satellite.
(c) 120 GHz (d) 180 GHz The vertical height of the stratiform rain is 3
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II km. The physical path length L through the
rain will be nearly
Ans. (d) : 12 GHz frequency can not be use for reliable (a) 6.3 km (b) 5.2 km
beyond the horizon terrestrial communication without (c) 4.1 km (d) 3.0 km
repeaters. IES - 2019
Advance Communication 869 YCT
Ans. (b) : Given that- Where,
Elevation angle = 35º Gt = Radar Antenna gain
Pt = Power Transmitted by Radar Transmitter detect the
object
σ = Radar Cross-section of target object
Pdmin = Minimum detectable power at Radar
Put the value,
1
105 × 39.8 × 200  4
h R max = 
∵ sin θ = F  ( 4π ) ×1× 10 
2 −9
L
= ( 5.0458 ×1015 )
2
3
sin 35º =
L R max = 8428.17m
3
L= ≅ 8.42 km
sin 35º
L = 5.23km 14. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB looks
at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The
12. A satellite is orbiting in the equatorial plane loss between the antenna and LNA input due to
with a period from perigee to perigee of 12h. If the feed horn is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a
the eccentricity = 0.002, i = 0º, K1 = 66063.17 noise temperature of 40 K. The G/T value is
km2, µ = 3.99×1014 m3/s2 and the earth's (a) 11.2 dB/K (b) 13.4 dB/K
equatorial radius = 6378.14 km, the semi-major
(c) 20.6 dB/K (d) 39.0 dB/K
axis will be
(a) 34232 km (b) 30424 km IES - 2018
(c) 26612 km (d) 22804 km Ans. (c) : Given that-
IES - 2019 LNA noise temperature = 40K
Ans. (c) : Given that- Antenna noise temperature = 15K
Time (T) = 12h = 12×60×60 = 43200 sec. Loss between antenna and LNA input = 0.4 dB
Eccentricity (E) = 0.002 Receiving antenna gain = 40 dB
I = 0º T = T ant +TLNA
k1 = 66063.17km2 = 15K + 40K

T = 55K
µ(M) = 3.99 ×10 m / s
14 3 2
Total receiver gain in system (G) = 40 – 0.4
Put all the value in kepler's 3rd law- = 39.6 dB
4π 2 a 3 G
T2 = = 10 log10 G − 10 log10 T
µ (M) T
= 39.6 – 10log10 (55)
4 × 3.14 × 3.14 × a 3 = 39.6 – 17.4 = 22.2 dB/K
43200 ×43200 =
3.99 × 1014
a = 2.66×107 G
≃ 20.6 dB / K
a = 26618km T
13. A fixed radar station transmits 100 kW at 15. A company operating taxicabs communicates
3 GHz. The smallest ocean-going ship has a from its central office with the help of an
radar cross-section of 200 m2. The radar antenna at the top of a 16 m tower. The
antenna gain is 16 dB. If detection requires a antenna on the taxicabs is 1.44 m above the
minimum of 1 nW/m2 at the radar antenna, the ground. The communication distance between
effective range of the radar is nearly the central office and a taxicab cannot exceed
(a) 7.1 km (b) 8.4 km (a) 18.6 km (b) 24.0 km
(c) 70.7 km (d) 84.0 km (c) 50.0 km (d) 62.3 km
IES - 2018 IES - 2018
Ans. (b) : Given, f = 3GHz, Ans. (a) : The maximum distance between the two
Pt = 100 kwatt = 105 watt antenna, if the optical horizon is considered is given as
σ = 200 m 2 ht = 16m.
Gt =16dB hf = 1.44
–9 2
Pmin = 1 × 10 w/m Dmax = 3.57  h t + h f  km
Radar Range Equation is given by,
1 Dmax = 3.57  16 + 1.44  km
 PG σ  4
R max =  t t
 Dmax = [3.57 ×5.2] km
 ( 4π ) Pd min 
2
Dmax = 18.56 km
16. A component used to connect a balanced line to (a) 140 ms (b) 220 ms
an unbalanced line is known as a (c) 280 ms (d) 560 ms
(a) Quarter wave transform IES - 2017
(b) half wave transform Ans. (c) : In Geosynchronous satellite.
(c) Balun The maximum propagation time during one complete
(d) Wave guide transmission
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II 2L
Ans. (c) : A balun circuit device to connect a balanced = second
C
line to an unbalanced line. Balun are used to connected
co - axial cable to twin load. Balun are present in Radar.
Transmitter, satellite in telephone network.
17. The orbital period of a satellite in a circular
orbit of 500 km above the Earth's surface,
taking mean radius of the Earth as 6400 km
and Kepler's constant µ as 4 × 105 km3/s2
nearly R 64
cos θ = = = 0.15
(a) 1.6 hours (b) 2.4 hours X 424
(c) 3.2 hours (d) 6.4 hours θ = cos −1 (.15 ) = 81.31
IES - 2018
L L
Ans. (a) : Given that- sin θ = =
X 424
µ = 4 ×105 km3 / s 2 L = 41913.25 km
a = (6400 + 500) = 6900km Maximum propagation time during on complete
According to Kepler 3rd equation- transmission.
4π 2 a 3 2L 2 × 41913.25
T2 = t= = = 279.42 = 280 ms
µ C 3 × 108
20. The frequency range for satellite
4π2 (6900 ×103 )3 4π2 × (6900)3
T2 = = communication is
4 × 105 × (10 )
3 3 4 × 105 (a) 1 kHz – 100 kHz (b) 100 kHz – 1 MHz
(c) 10 MHz – 30 MHz (d) 1 GHz – 30 GHz
π × (6900)
2 3
T2 = APPSC POLY. LECT. 14.03.2020
105 IES - 2015
T 2 = ( 5694 )
2
Ans. (d) : Frequency range for satellite communication
is between 1GHz -30GHz .
T = 5694 sec
Different type of frequency band in satellite
T = 1.58 hour ≃ 1.6hour communication.
18. The transmission path loss for a geostationary Example–
satellite signal for uplink frequency of 6 GHz is Band Frequency Range
(a) 60 dB (b) 92 dB L 1–2 GHz
(c) 184 dB (d) 200 dB S 2–4 GHz
IES - 2017 C 4–8 GHz
Ans. (d) : Given that- X 8–12.5 GHz
Uplink frequency (f) = 6 GHz Ku 12.5–18 GHz
d = 36000 km = 36×106 m K 18–26.5 GHz
 4πdf  Ka 26.5– 40 GHz
Free space path loss = 20 log10  
 c  21. In a geostationary satellite communication
system, a message signal is transmitted from an
= 20log10(d)+20log10(f)+20log10  4π  earth station via an uplink to a satellite,
 c  amplified in a transponder on board the
= 20log10(36×106) +20log10(6×109) –147.55 satellite and then transmitted via a downlink to
= 20log10(36)+20log10(10)6+20log10(6)+20log10109– another earth station. The most popular
frequency band for satellite communication is
147.55
(a) 16 MHz for the uplink and 14 MHz for the
= 31.12 + 120 + 15.56+180–147.55 downlink
= 151.12+195.56–147.55 (b) 4 GHz for the uplink and 6 GHz the downlink
Free space loss = 199.13dB (c) 6 GHz for the uplink and 4 GHz for the
Free space loss ≃ 200dB downlink
19. What is the maximum signal propagation time (d) 10 GHz for the downlink and 8 GHz for the
for a geosynchronous satellite transmission uplink
system? IES – 2014, 2010
Ans. (c) : In satellite telecommunication, the EIRP [Effective Isotropic Radiated Power] = PT× GT
communication between earth station transmitter (EIRP)dB = (PT)dB+ (GT)dB
towards satellite is known as uplink frequency and its PT = 40–3–3
frequency is 6 GHz. PT = 34 dB
The communication between satellite towards earth
station receiver is known as down link frequency and its EIRP = 34dB + 4dB
frequency is 4 GHz. EIRP = 38 dB
22. As per WARC-1979 allocation, commercial 26. For communication from satellite to the earth
communication satellites use bandwidth of station, microwave frequencies are used because:
(a) 4 MHz (b) 40 MHz (a) Loss is minimum
(c) 200 MHz (d) 500 MHz (b) Noise added to signal is low in this window
IES - 2014 (c) These do not get reflected back by ionosphere
Ans. (d) : WARC–1979– The World Administrative (d) Many channels can be used
Radio Conference (WARC) was a Technical conference IES - 2011
of the international Telecommunication union.
Ans. (d) : In satellite communication, the microwave
• The WARC-1979 Allocation, commercial frequency are used due to high bandwidth and high
communication satellites use bandwidth of 500 MHz .
gain. When bandwidth is many channels can be used.
23. In satellite communication, Faraday rotation is
caused by 27. A geostationary orbit is chosen for
(a) Plasma frequency communication satellite because :
(b) Earth's magnetic field (a) It is stationary at one point in space
(c) Non-Gaussian nature of uplink noise when (b) With respect to a spot on earth it looks
received in the downlink channel stationary
(d) Ionospheric reflections that occur multiple (c) This orbit provides earth's coverage of more
times than 50% using a single satellite
IES - 2014 (d) The length of 4700 km is convenient for
Ans. (b) : Faraday effect or faraday rotation is a launching
magnato-optical phenomenon that is an interaction IES - 2011
between the light and magnetic field in a medium. Ans.(b): The geostationary orbit is choose for
Thus, earth magnetic field caused faraday rotation. communication satellite because the satellite remains in
24. In a satellite communication, the uplink power the same position through the day and antenna can be
level is generally high and power level of the directed towards the satellite and remain on track.
received down link signal is low because: Geostationary orbit is a circular orbit approx 36000 km
1. High signal attenuation due to free-space loss above the earth equator. According to above discussion
2. Limited available down link power geostationary orbit spot on the earth it looks stationary.
3. Finite satellite down link antenna gain, which
is dictated by the required coverage area 28. If 'r' is the radius of circular orbit then the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only orbital period of a satellite is directly
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 proportional to :
IES - 2015 (a) r3/2 (b) r1/3
1/2
Ans. (d) : In a satellite communication, the uplink (c) r (d) r2/3
power level is generally high and power level of the IES - 2011
received down link signal is low because limited Ans. (a) : According to Kepler's law-
available down link power and finite satellite down The square of the period revolution (T) of any planet
link antenna gain, which is dictated by the required around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of
coverage area. the semi major axis of the orbit radius (r).
25. For an earth station transmitter with an T 2 ∝ r3
antenna output power of 40 dBW (10,000W), a
back-off loss of 3 dB, a total branching and T = r3/2
feeder loss of 3 dB and transmit antenna gain 29. An advantage of passive satellites is that they
of 4 dB, the effective isotropic radiated power do not require sophisticated electronic
(EIRP) will be equipment on board, although they are not
(a) 38 dBW (b) 40 dBW necessary void of power. Some passive satellites
(c) 36 dBW (d) 47 dBW require which one of the following for tracking
IES - 2012 and ranging purposes?
Ans. (a) : Given that- (a) Radio beacon transmitter
Antenna output power = 40 dBW (b) Defense launched courier
Back-off loss = 3 dB (c) Radio beacon receiver
Total branching and feeder loss = 3 dB (d) Satellite beacon launcher
Transmit antenna gain = 4 dB ESE-2022
Ans. (a) : Satellites are two types. Ans. (c) : UHF (Ultra High Frequency) is used for
(i) Active satellite Tropospheirc scatter communication. Ultra High
(ii) Passive satellite Frequency (UHF) range is between 300 MHz –3 GHz .
Passive satellite does not require any one board device. It is used in television broadcasting, cell phones,
But satellite uses radio become transmitter for tracking satellite communication.
and ranging purpose. 35. What is the reason for using frequencies of the
30. The output stage of a transponder on board a order of a few GHz in satellite communication?
satellite has a maximum power output of 10 (a) Antenna sizes are small and ionosphere does
watts. However, it is not operated at the not reflect frequencies
maximum power output in order to (b) Helical antenna can be used at these
(a) Conserve the available limited battery power frequencies
(b) Reduce noise due to device (c) Frequencies can pass through ionosphere
(c) Avoid intermodulation distortion without attenuation
(d) Avoid heating gap of the satellite beyond a (d) Easy availability of components at these
per set value frequencies
IES - 2010 IES - 2006
Ans. (a) : The output stage of a transponder on board of Ans. (a) : The reason for using frequencies of the order
a satellite is manufactured to use minimum power. It is of a few GHz in satellite communication, the diameter
not operated at the maximum power output in order to of antenna is inversely proportional to frequency. as
conserve the available limited battery power frequency increases size of antenna reduces.
31. What was the first commercial geostationary 36. If a satellite is launched at an orbital radius of
communication satellite? twice that of geostationary satellite, how much
(a) INTELSAT 1 (b) ECHO time will the launched satellite take to travel
(c) INSAT-TA (d) SPUTNIK around the earth?
IES - 2009 (a) 48 hrs (b) 12 hrs
Ans. (a) : The first commercial geostationary (c) 96 hrs (d) 6 hrs
communication satellite is INTELSAT-1. IES - 2005
32. What does a link budget for satellite Ans. (*) : Given that-
communication include? r = 2R
(a) Total cost of satellite According to Kepler's equation-
(b) Cost of satellite plus launch vehicle T 2∝ r 3
(c) Signal and noise levels in dB T12 = r13 ......(i)
(d) Margins of error permitted
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-II T22 = r23 ....(ii)
IES - 2009 Equation (i) - (ii)
Ans. (c) : A link budget is an accounting for all the
(R )
3
T12
power gain and losses that a communication signal =
experiences in a Telecommunication system. T2 ( 2R )3
2
In link budget power level, power gain and losses are

expressed in dB. T12 R3
=
33. Which one of the following is correct? In T22 8R 3
satellite communication links, generally 1/ 2
T1  1 
(a) the uplink carrier frequencies are greater than = 
downlink carrier frequencies T2  8 
(b) the uplink carrier frequencies are lesser than T2 = 2 2 × T1
downlink carrier frequencies
(c) both uplink and downlink carrier frequencies T2 = 2 2 × 24
are same
T2 = 48 2 hrs = 67.85 hrs
(d) it is not necessary to use carrier at all
IES - 2008 37. A geostationary satellite located at about 35000
Ans. (a) : In satellite communication links, the uplink km from earth can cover
carrier frequencies are greater than downlink carrier (a) Complete surface of the earth
frequencies. (b) One hemisphere in one pass
Uplink frequency > Downlink frequency (c) One side of the earth
(6GHz) (4GHz) (d) An area depending on antenna used
34. Tropospheric scatter communication is use for IES - 2005
which frequency band? Ans. (c) : A Geostationary satellite located at about
(a) HF (b) VHF 35000 km from earth so that it can cover one side of the
(c) UHF (d) VLF earth because 3 satellite cover whole earth and 360º of
IES - 2008 the earth.
38. Which one of the following techniques is not 42. Consider the following:
suitable for automatic satellite tracking? 1. Synch 2. Video
(a) Monopulse (b) Step-track 3. Sweep 4. Sound
(c) Conical scanning (d) Lobe switching Which of the voltages are found in the output
IES - 2004 of a normal monochrome receiver video
Ans. (b) : Step track technique is not suitable for detector?
automatic satellite tracking. (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Automatic satellite uses monopulse, conical scanning (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
and Lobe switching. IES - 2003
39. Which one of the following statements is not Ans. (a) : Synch, sweep and sound voltages are found
correct? in the output of a normal monochrome receiver video
(a) A geosynchronous satellite remains practically detector.
stationary relative to earth antennas 43. A television composite video signal is found to
(b) A geosynchronous satellite means the same contain a large number of pulses. These pulses
thing as geostationary satellite are provided so that
(c) There is a trade-off between the cost of (a) News can be transmitted to be displayed at
communication satellite and cost of its earth the bottom
stations (b) Audio information like speech, music, etc.,
(d) Three geosynchronous satellites cannot give can be transmitted in PCM form
100% global coverage (c) Receiver can achieve synchronism in sweep
IES - 2004 (d) Correction can be made in contrast
Ans. (d) : Option (d) is not correct because three IES - 2003
geosynchronous satellite gives 100% global coverage. 3 Ans. (c) : A composite video signal contains video
satellite over 360º of the earth. picture information for color, brightness and
40. Which one of the following statements is synchronization (horizontal and vertical). A television
correct? composite video signal is Contains large number of
Digital modulation techniques are used in pulses these pulses are provide so that receiver can
satellite communication systems since achieve synchronism in sweep.
(a) They are easier to handle 44. Which of the following statements on
(b) Large bandwidth utilization is possible communication by geosynchronous satellites
(c) They have a spectral efficiency are correct?
1. The propagation loss over each direction
(d) They are less prone to interference
(uplink are downlink) is about 200 dB at 5
IES - 2004 GHz.
Ans. (d) : Digital modulation techniques are used in 2. Radius of the geosynchronous orbit is 42250
satellite communication system since to less prone to km.
interference. The advantages of digital modulation 3. An arc of about 17º must be covered by the
technique In satellite communication. satellite antenna in the equatorial plane.
(i) Better performance, (ii) Better error detection. 4. The polar regions are well covered by the
41. In a satellite ground station, the received signal satellite antenna.
is directly amplified in a low noise parametric Select the correct answer using the codes given
amplifier followed by a FET amplifier. The below:
gains and effective noise temperatures of the (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
amplifiers are 20 dB, 9.0 K and 10 dB, 200 K (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
respectively. The effective noise temperature of IES - 2001
the combination is
(a) 11.0 K (b) 20 K Ans. (d) : For geosynchronous satellite -
2
(c) 29.0 K (d) 39 K  4πd 
Free space loss L =  
IES - 2003  λ 
Ans. (a) : Given that- Radius of geosynchronous orbit = 42200 km
Te1 = 9K , Te2 = 200K geosynchronous satellite covers an arc of 17.3 degree in
G1 = 20dB = 102 = 100 the equatorial plane.
G2 = 10dB = 101= 10 45. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station
The effective noise temperature of the combination- for satellite communication is always kept
above 5º to
Te (a) minimize the sky noise temperature
Te = Te1 + 2
G1 (b) reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapour
absorption on the antenna noise temperature
200
Te = 9 + (c) minimize the slant range
100 (d) increase the visibility of the satellite
Te = 11K IES - 2000
Ans. (d) : Antenna elevation angle at the ground station (c) RF amplifier of an am receiver
for satellite communication is always kept above 5º to (d) Input section of a communication receiver
increase the visibility of the satellite. IES - 1998
46. Random satellite moves in Ans. (d) : Wide-banding technique is employed in the
(a) random paths (b) polar orbits input section of a communication receiver. It is a
(c) geostationary orbits (d) equatorial plane demodulation process.
IES - 2000 50. In satellite communication, highly directional
Ans. (b) : Random satellite moves in polar orbits. antennas are used to
47. Match List-I (Microwave band) with List-II (a) Direct the spot beam to a particular region of
(Frequency used in satellite communication) space on Earth
and select the correct answer : (b) Strengthen the beam to a overcome the
List - I List – II cosmic noise
A. C-band 1. 12 GHz to 14 GHz (c) Make corrections in change of polarization of
B. Ku-band 2. 24 GHz to 26 GHz the beam
C. Ka-band 3. 20 GHz to 30 GHz (d) Select a particular channel in transmission
and reception
4. 4 GHz to 6 GHz
IES - 1997
Codes :
A B C Ans. (a) : In satellite communication highly directional
(a) 4 2 1 antenna are used to very highly directivity and direct
spot beam to a particular region of space on Earth.
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 51. Ionosphere propagation is not possible for
(d) 3 4 2 microwaves because
IES – 2000, 1999 (a) Microwaves will be fully absorbed by the
ionosphere layers
Ans. (c) :
(b) There will be an abrupt scattering in all
Microwave band Range Application direction
C– Band 4 GHz to 6 Fixed satellite (c) Microwaves will penetrate through the
GHz service (FSS) ionosphere layers
Ku – band 12 GHz to BSS. FSS (d) There will be dispersion of microwave energy
14 GHz IES - 1997
Ka – band 20GHz to FSS
Ans. (c) : Range of microwave frequency lies between
30 GHz
300MHz-300GHz, It has very high frequency, It
48. Consider the following statements regarding penetrate through the ionosphere layer.
communication by geostationary satellites:
1. A back and forth telephone transmission 52. Consider the following statements relating to
involves nearly half a second. communication satellite systems:
2. Since the ground station antenna points 1. The geosynchronous orbits of the satellites
towards a fixed direction, large corrections are in the earth's meridional plane
are necessary to compensate for orbital 2. It is not necessary to incorporate a very low
variation and atmospheric diffraction. noise amplifier in the satellite as the noise
3. Since the satellite antenna is limited in size, temperature of the satellite antenna will be
the earth are illuminated by the beam is high
also small. 3. The total delay on one round trip is about one
4. As there is no Doppler shift, no correction quarter of a second which is near the limit of
for frequency is necessary. satisfactory two - way telephone
Select the correct answer out of these communication
statements. Select correct answer out of these statements
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
IES - 1998 IES - 1994
Ans. (d ) : (1) A back and forth telephone transmission Ans. (b) : A geosynchronous orbit is an Earth-centered
involve nearly half a second. orbit with an orbital period that matches Earth's rotation
(4) As there is no Doppler shift, no correction for on its axis.
frequency is necessary. Total round trip delay is around 1/2 second. Noise
49. Wide-banding technique is employed in the temperature of satellite antenna is very high hence it is
(a) Video amplifier of a TV receiver non-necessary to incorporate low noise amplifier in
(b) IF amplifier of an FM receivers satellite.
53. The most probable band width of a (a) 125 msec (b) 150 msec
transponder in a satellite communication (c) 300 msec (d) 25 msec
system is: RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
(a) 100 kHz (b) 1 MHz Ans. (c) : The Propagation time from earth station to
(c) 36 MHz (d) 10 GHz another earth station via Geo-stationary satellite is
AAI-2015 approximately 300 msec.
IES - 1994 59. The component in the satellite that takes an
Ans. (d) : The most probable bandwidth of a uplink signal and converts into a downlink
transponder in a satellite communication system is signal is called
10GHz . (a) uplink device (b) transponder
Uplink frequency for satellite communication= 6GHz (c) downlink device (d) transmitter
Downlink frequency for satellite communication = ESE-2022
4GHz Ans. (b) :
54. The code division multiple access technique is
not used in satellite communication because of
(a) wastage of base band spectrum
(b) wastage in power
(c) increase in delay
(d) complexity and unreliability of operation
IES - 1993 So, the compound in the satellite that takes an uplink
Ans. (a) : CDMA is an example of multiple access. signal and convert into a downlink signal is called
where several transmitters can send information transponder.
simultaneously over a single communication channel. It 60. In ship to ship communication, the problem of
requires more bandwidth so it is not used in satellite fading can be overcome by using
communication. (a) Frequency diversity
55. Basic transmission loss in decibels for a (b) Space diversity
synchronous satellite signal for uplink (c) More directional antenna
frequency of 6 GHz would be (d) A broad band antenna
(a) 184 (b) 200 Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
(c) 92 (d) 60 Ans. (a) : Fading– In wireless system, fading is due to
IES - 1993 multipath propagation. It is about the phenomenon of
Ans. (b) : Basic transmission loss in decibels for a loss of signal in telecommunications.
synchronous satellite signal for uplink frequency of 6 Frequency diversity–It is phenomenon when we
GHz would be 200. received the same massage signal at different
56. Satellite used for international communication frequencies.
are known as 61. A planet nine times far away from Sun as
(a) Costas (b) Domsat compared to earth, has an orbital period of
(c) Marisat (d) Intelsat (a) 9 Earth years (b) 27 Earth years
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (c) 729 Earth years (d) 81 Earth years
IES - 1992 TNPSC AE- 2019
Ans. (d) : Intelsat satellite used for international Ans. (b) :Given that-
communication. R1
=9
• Intel sat = international satellite. R2
• Intelsat was founded as a public-private consortium According to the Kepler’s law-
in 1964 by the telecommunication agencies of 18 T 2 ∝ r3
nations. 3
57. In a satellite system, circular polarization is to T s2 R 
2
= 1
be obtained. The antenna used is TE  R2 
(a) parabolic antenna (b) horn-antenna
Ts = TE 2 × (9)3
2
(c) log-periodic antenna (d) helical antenna
IES - 1992 Ts = TE 2 × (9)3
Ans. (d) : In a satellite system, circular polarization is
to be obtained by the Helical antenna. Helical antenna = 93 / 2 × 1year
or Helix antenna is the antenna in which the conducting Ts = 27 Earth years
wire is wound in helical shape and connected to the 62. A geostationary satellite
ground plate with a feeder line. (a) is motionless in space (except for its spin)
58. The propagation time from one earth station to (b) Orbits the earth with 24 hour period
another earth station via Geo-stationary (c) Is located at such a height as to provide
satellite is approximately: intercontinental coverage
(d) Appears to be stationary over earth's magnetic Ans. (c) : Tropospheric scatter occurs at a frequency
poles above 30 MHz. It belongs to the UHF and microwave
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II range.
Ans. (a) : A geostationary satellite is an earth-orbiting MF – 300 kHz to 2MHz
satellite, placed at an altitude of approximately HF – 3 to 30 MHz
35800km directly over the equator. At this, one orbit UHF – 30 to 300 MHz
takes 24 hours. A geo-satellite is motionless in space. 68. The quality of the space link is measured in
63. A highly inclined and highly eccentric orbit terms of the
used by majority of communication satellites (a) G/T (b) S/N
launched by Russia is also known as (c) C/N (d) EIRP
(a) Geosynchronous orbit Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
(b) Polar orbit Ans. (c) : The quality of the space link is measured in
(c) Sun synchronous orbit terms of the carrier to noise.
(d) Molniya orbit 69. A passive satellite
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II (a) Only generates signals
Ans. (d) : A highly inclined and highly eccentric orbit (b) Only reflects back signals
used by majority of communication satellite lunched (c) Only absorbs signals
Russia is also known as Molniya orbits. (d) Receives, modulates and then reflects
64. One of the following is found on board a Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
weather satellite Ans. (b) : A passive satellite reflects the signal from
(a) VHRR (Very high resolution radiometer) one earth station to other earth station without any
(b) Transponder amplification.
(c) Telescope 70. There is (are) _______ orbit(s) for a GEO
(d) High resolution camera satellite.
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II (a) 3 (b) 5
Ans. (d) : A weather satellite provides the information (c) 7 (d) 2
about the weather forecasting by taking the high quality (e) 0
images. Hence there is a high resolution camera occurs CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
in weather satellite.
Ans. (d) : There are 2 orbits for a GEO satellites.
65. In satellite links the uplink and downlink (a) High earth orbit
frequencies are made different for which of the (b) Low earth orbit
following purpose?
(a) To reduce antenna size 71. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between
(in km)
(b) To reduce transmitter power
(a) 3000 and 5000 (b) 5000 and 10,000
(c) To increase modulation between the satellite
transmitter and receiver (c) 5000 and 15,000 (d) 1000 and 6000
(e) 10,000 and 30,000
(d) Any of the above
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
Nagaland PSC CTSE - 2015, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Uplink frequency is kept higher than
downlink frequency because at higher frequency Ans. (c) : MEO satellites are located at altitudes
attenuation is more, hence more power will required for between 5000 km and 15000 km. MEO satellites can
signal transmission. transmit data at up to 1.6 Gbps.
66. Due to which of the following reasons the low 72. A method of communication in which
orbit satellite are not used for communication communication takes place in both the
directions, but only in one direction at a time?
(a) They heat up and melt
(a) Half duplex (b) Full duplex
(b) They do not provide 24 hours per day contact
to the user on the earth (c) Simplex (d) Half Simplex
(e) Full Simplex
(c) They travel round the earth the earth too
quickly CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
(d) None of the these Ans. (a) : In half duplex is communicate source to
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II destination both the directions but only is one direction
at a time.
Ans. (b) : Low orbit satellite are not used for
communication because they do not provide 24 hour per 73. In _______ switching a dedicated link/path is
day contact to the user on the earth. established across the sender and the receiver
which is maintained for the entire duration of
67. Tropospheirc scatter communication is used conversation?
for which frequency band? (a) Line (b) Packet
(a) HF (b) VHF (c) Frequency (d) Circuit
(c) UHF (d) VLF (e) Message
Mizoram PSC IOLM-, Paper-III CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
Ans. (d) : In circuit switching a dedicated link/path is 78. A signal transmitted from an Earth station
established across the sender and the receiver which is bounces back from a geostationary satellite,
maintained for the entire duration of conversation. with an altitude of 35864 km from the Earth
74. In satellite communication, scrambling is surface. The range from the Earth station is
mainly used for - 38200 km. The round trip time is about:
(a) clock recovery (excluding processing delays and assuming
(b) encryption c = 3 × 108 m/s)
(c) limiting power spectral density (a) 255 ms (b) 127 ms
(d) bandwidth efficiency (c) 239 ms (d) 120 ms
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
Ans. (c) : In satellite communication, scrambling is Ans. (a) : Given that-
mainly used for limiting power spectral density. Range from the earth station (d) = 38200km
75. The orbital period of a satellite in circular orbit Speed of light (v) = 3×108 m/s
of radius R from the centre of the earth, is 2d 2 × 38200 ×103
proportional to: Round trip time = =
1 3 v 3 ×108
2
(a) R 2 (b) R 2 (c) R (d) R Round trip time ≃ 255ms
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 79. In satellite communication, frequency
2πR modulation is used because satellite channel
Ans. (b) : Torbital= has
v (a) High modulation index
2πR GM (b) Small bandwidth and negligible noise
Torbital = (Where, v = ) (c) Large bandwidth and severe noise
GM R
(d) Maximum bandwidth and minimum noise
R Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
Torbital ∝ R 3 / 2 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
76. A satellite orbiting in 600 km orbit transmits 5 Ans. (c) : In satellite communication frequency
GHz frequency. The Doppler shift observed at modulation is used because satellite channel has large
the ground station, when the satellite is over bandwidth and severe noise.
head of the station is
BW of FM = 2(1+β) fm
(a) Zero (b) Maximum
where β = modulation index.
(c) Infinity (d) None of the above
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006 80. The uplink and downlink frequencies are made
different in satellite links in order to
Ans. (b) : A satellite orbiting in 600 km orbit transmit 5
GHz frequency. The Doppler shift observed at the (a) reduce transmitter power
ground station, when the satellite is over head of the (b) increase the isolation between transmitter and
operation is maximum. receiver
77. A satellite communication link has uplink C/N0 (c) reduce antenna size
of 50 dB-Hz and downlink C/N0 of 47 dB-Hz. (d) increase bandwidth
What would be overall link C/N0? IES - 2014
(a) 44 dB-Hz (b) 45 dB-Hz Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
(c) 48.5 dB-Hz (d) 53 dB-Hz RPCS Lect.-2011
ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015 Ans. (b) : The uplink and downlink frequencies are
1 1 1 made different in satellite links in order to increase the
Ans. (b) : = + isolation between transmitter and reciever.
( C / N0 )overall ( C / N 0 )uplink ( C / N 0 )downlink
81. Normal practice in satellite communications is
  to have transponders to narrow bandwidth
CN  = 50 dB Hz = 105
 0  uplink because
(a) Customers demand only service
 
CN  = 47 dB = 104.7 (b) Customers in large number want to share a
 0 down link satellite's bandwidth
1 1 1 104.7 + 105 (c) Excessive intermodulation problems can be
= + 4.7 = 5 avoided
C  5
10 10 10 × 104.7
 N  (d) EIRP will be improved
 0  overall
TNPSC AE - 2018
C  = 33386.05 Ans. (c) : Normal practice in satellite communications
 N 
 0 overall is to have transponders to narrow bandwidth because
excessive intermodulation problems can be avoided.
C  = 45.2 dB
 N  Intermodulation is caused by non-linear behaviour of
 0  overall the signal processing being used.
82. A biostatic radar system shown in figure has (b) 4 GHz is the downlink frequency and 6 GHz
following parameters; f = 5 GHz, Gdt = 34 dB, is the uplink frequency
Gdr = 22 dB. To obtain a return power of 8pW (c) The system operates at a mean frequency of 5
the minimum necessary radiated power should GHz
be (d) 4 GHz frequency is used as backup for 6 GHz
frequency
UPSC JWM-2016
Ans. (b) : 4GHz denotes downlink frequency and 6GHz
denotes uplink frequency. Uplink and downlink
frequency are made different to provide isolation
between transmitter and receiver.
85. A television (TV) transmission using satellite is
(a) 1.394 kW (b) 2.046 kW an example of which type of transmission?
(c) 1.038 kW (d) 3.46 kW 1. Half duplex 2. Full duplex 3. Simplex
IES - 2015 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
Ans. (c) : Given- (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
UPSC JWM-2016
Ans. (d) : Simplex communication is a communication
channel that sends information in one direction only.
Only one of the two devices on a link can transmit, the
other can only receiver. A television (TV) transmission
using satellite is an example of simplex type of
transmission.
δ = 5GHz 86. The lowest frequency used in satellite
C 3 × 108 communication is
λ= = = 0.06m (a) 0.8 GHz (b) 3 GHz
f 5 ×109
G = 34dB → G = 10 = 2511.86
3.4 (c) 18 GHz (d) 30 GHz
dt dt
Gdr = 22dB → Gdr = 102.2 = 158.5
Ans. (b) : The lowest frequency used in satellite
RTx → 4km
communication is 3 GHz.
RTr → 5km
87. For global communication, minimum number
σ = 2.4m2.
of satellite used is
For-Bistatic Radar-
(a) 5 (b) 3
G dt G dr λ 2 σ ( Prad ) (c) 1 (d) 10
Pr =
( 4π ) ( R Tx ) ( R Tx )
3 2 2 UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
Where, Ans. (b) : For global communication minimum number.
Pr = 8×10–12 of satellite used is 3. Each satellite provides around 120º
coverage area.
Pt = 1848 watt
88. Match List - I with List - II and select the
2511.86 × 158.5 × ( 0.06 ) × 2.4 × ( Prad )
2
8 × 10 −12
= correct answer as per the codes:
( 4 × 3.14 ) × ( 4 ) × ( 5 )
3 2 2
× 106 × 106 List - I List – II
Prad = 1.038kW A. The point farthest 1. Retrograde orbit
from earth
83. The type of radar that is used to eliminate B. Direct orbit 2. Mean anomaly
clutter in navigational applications is C. The inclination of 3. Apogee
(a) Pulse radar (b) Tracking radar this orbit always lies
(c) MTI radar (d) Monopulse radar between 90º and 180º
IES - 1998 D. Average value of the 4. Prograde orbit
Ans. (c) : In navigation application clutter mainly arries angular position of
from stationary object to remove the clutter moving the satellite with
target indication (MTI). Radar is used. MTI radar reference to the
employs Doppler Effect in its operation to deduct perigee
moving targets while leaving out stationary target. A B C D
4 (a) 2 3 4 1
84. A satellite link frequency is expressed as (b) 3 4 1 2
6
GHz. It means that (c) 3 2 1 4
(a) 4 GHz is the downlink frequency and 6 GHz (d) 1 2 3 4
is the uplink frequency TNPSC AE-2014
Ans. (b) : 91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
A. The point farthest from earth – Apogee answer as per the codes:
B. Direct orbit – Prograde orbit List - I List - II
C. The inclination of this orbit – Retrograde orbit A. To ensure all 1. Loop back
always lies between 90º and 180º bursts arrive the
D. Average value of the angular – Mean anomaly satellite in their
position of the satellite with correct time slots
reference to the perigee B. Initial portion of 2. Network
a traffic burst synchronization
89. Perigee means that carries
(a) Smallest radius of the elliptical orbit information
(b) Largest radius of the elliptical orbit similar to that
(c) Line of sight distance from a particular point carried in the
on earth to satellite reference burst
(d) The distance of the satellite from the sub- C. In refers to the 3. Burst code word
satellite point fact that an earth
station receives
TNPSC AE-2014 its own
Ans. (a) : Perigee means smallest radius of the elliptical transmission,
orbit. Apogee means largest radius of the elliptical from which it
orbit. can determine
90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct range
answer as per the codes: D. It is used to 4. Preamble
List - I List - II establish burst
A. The path followed by 1. True Anomaly timing in TDMA
a satellite around the A B C D
primary will be an (a) 3 2 4 1
ellipse (b) 2 3 4 1
B. The angle from the 2. Keplerian element (c) 2 4 1 3
perigee to the set (d) 1 2 3 4
satellite position, TNPSC AE-2014
measured at the Ans. (c) :
earth’s centre
C. Earth–Orbiting 3. Perigee A. To ensure all bursts – Network
artificial satellites are arrive the satellite in synchronization
defined by six orbital their correct time
elements slots
D. The point of closest 4. Kepler's first law B. Initial portion of a – Preamble
traffic burst that
approach to earth
carries information in
A B C D the reference burst
(a) 4 2 3 1 C. In refers to the fact – Loop back
(b) 3 2 4 1 that an earth station
(c) 2 3 1 4 receives its own
(d) 4 1 2 3 transmission, from
TNPSC AE-2014 which it can
Ans. (d) : determine range
A. The path followed by – Kepler's first law D. It is used to establish – Burst code word
a satellite around the burst timing in
primary will be an TDMA
ellipse 92. Long distance communication system via
B. The angle from the – True Anomaly satellite uses frequency range.
perigee to the (a) 10 to 100 GHz (b) 1 to 2.5 MHz
satellite position, (c) 50 to 100 GHz (d) 3 to 6 GHz
measured at the Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
earth's centre TNPSC AE-2013
C. Earth–Orbiting – Keplerian element Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
artificial satellites are set Ans. (d) : Long distance communication system via
defined by six orbital satellite uses frequency range of 3 GHz to 6 GHz . In
elements this communication satellite locate at certain height
D. The point of closest – Perigee above earth, the communication takes place between
approach to earth any two earth station easily via satellite.
93. In Satellite antennas, the available noise from a (b) many transmitting stations and one receiving
thermal noise is given by station
(a) Pn = KTpBn2 (b) Pn = KTp2Bn (c) one transmitting station and many receiving
(c) Pn = KTpBn (d) Nothing station
TNPSC AE-2013 (d) one transmitting station and one receiving
station
Ans. (c) : Pn = KTp Bn TNPSC AE-2013
K = Boltzmann's constant Ans. (a) : In satellite communication, a repeater is
Tp = Temperature placed between many transmitting station and many
receiving station. In communication satellite Multiple
Bn = Bandwidth
repeaters are known as transponders.
94. Energy required for satellite is generally
99. A satellite earth station antenna having a
derived from maximum gain of 60 dB at the operational
(a) Solar cells and Nickel-cadmium cells frequency is fed from a power amplifier
(b) Solar cells generating 10 kW. If the feed system has a loss
(c) Nickel-Cadmium cells of 2 dB earth station EIRP is
(d) Nuclear generators (a) 98 dBW (b) 72 dBW
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM (c) 102 dBW (d) 68 dBW
Ans. (b) : Energy required for satellite is generally Ans. (a) : Given that-
derived from solar cells. There is some solar pannel Gt = 60 dB
placed at the upper surface of satellite. Pt = 10kW = 40 dB
95. Geostationary satellites are generally placed in Feed system loss (Lt) = 2 dB
EIRP = Pt. Gt
(a) equatorial orbit (b) polar orbit
(EIRP)dB = 10 log10 Pt +10log10Gt – 10log10 Lt
(c) inclined orbit (d) circular orbit
= 60 + 40 –2
TNPSC AE-2013 (EIRP)dB = 100 –2 = 98 dBW
Ans. (a) : A geostationary satellite is an earth orbiting 100. The signal is sent back to earth by satellite by
satellite, placed at an altitude of approximately means of
36000km directly over the equator, that revolves in the (a) Chicken mesh Antenna
same direction the earth rotates. (b) Horn Antenna
96. One of the following satellite system being used (c) Yagi Antenna
for weather forecast application : (d) Duplexer
(a) TIROS - N (b) COMSAT TNPSC AE-2013
(c) GORIZONT (d) SPOT Ans. (b) : A signal is sent back to earth by satellite
TNPSC AE-2013 means of horn antenna. A horn antenna is a type of
Ans. (a) : TIROS - N is a satellite which provide the aperture antenna which is specially designed for
weather forecasting. TIROS-N was lunched on 13 oct microwave frequencies.
1978. TIROS-N stands for Television Infrared 101. If it takes a transmitted signal 1m sec to go up
Observation Satellite-N. to the target and come back after reflection,
how far is the transmitter from the target?
97. The spread spectrum communication
techniques are used in one of the following (a) 150 Km (b) 150 m
multiple access methods in satellite (c) 15 Km (d) 1500 m
communication : RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016
(a) Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) Ans. (a) : Given that-
(b) Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA) T = 1 m sec (to go up to the target and comeback after
(c) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) reflection)
(d) Random Access 1
TNPSC AE-2013 Go up time = m sec
2
Ans. (c) : The spread spectrum communication Distance
technique are used in code division multiple access Speed =
(CDMA) method in satellite communication. Spread Time
spectrum is a technique by which a signal is generated Distance
3 × 108 =
with particular bandwidth. 1
× 10−3
98. In Satellite communication, a repeater is placed 2
between Distance = 15 ×104
(a) many transmitting stations and many
Distance = 150 Km
receiving station
102. Linear velocity of a satellite equals 107. A low earth orbit satellite can provide large
signal strength at an earth station because
GM GM (a) Path loss is low
(a) m/s (b) m/s
r r (b) These orbits are immune to noise
(c) Large solar power can be generated at these
G GM orbits
(c) m/s (d) s/m (d) Lower microwave frequencies in S-band can
Mr r be used
Where G(Gravity constant)
= 6.67×10–11m3/kg-sec, M=mass of earth,
Ans. (a) : A low earth orbit satellite can provide large
r = radius of circular orbit signal strength at an earth station because path loss is
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II 2
Ans. (b) : Gravitational force = Centripetal force  4πR 
low free space path loss =  
GMm mv 2  λ 
⇒ = 108. The usable bandwidth of a microwave because
r2 r transponder for 6/4 satellite communication is
GM generally
Linear velocity of satellite ( v ) = m/s (a) 360 MHz (b) 40 MHz
r
(c) 36 MHz (d) 1 MHz
103. INTELSAT stands for
(a) International Telecommunications Satellite
IES - 1997
(b) India Telecommunications Satellite
Ans. (c) : The usable bandwidth of a microwave
(c) Inter Telecommunications Satellite
because transponder for 6/4 satellite communication is
(d) None of these generally 36MHz.
109. Tropospheric microwave communication is
Ans. (a) : INTELSAT Stands for International called what propagation
Telecommunication Satellite. (a) LOS propagation (b) Troposcatter
104. The INSAT operates in (c) Duct propagation (d) Spacewave
(a) Q band (b) S band AAI-2015
(c) C band (d) Ku band Ans. (b) : Tropospheric propagation is also known as
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III troposcatter propagation, occur at a frequency above 30
Ans. (c) : The Indian National Satellite System MHz.
(INSAT) is a multipurpose geostationary satellite 110. Which technique is not preferable to track
launched by ISRO. INSAT operates in C band. automatic geostationary satellite?
105. Linear velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit (a) Mono pulse (b) Conical scanning
is (c) Lobe Switching (d) Step tracking
(a) Independent of its mass AAI-2015
(b) Directly proportional to its mass Ans. (d) : Step tracking technique is not preferable to
(c) Directly proportional to square of its mass track automatic geostationary satellite.
(d) Directly proportional to square root of its 111. Same Amplitude, 90° phase difference indicate
mass which polarization?
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III (a) Linear (b) Circular
Nagaland PSC CTSC - 2015, Paper-II (c) Elliptical (d) All
IES - 2018 NPCIL-2015
Ans. (a) : we know that - Ans. (b) : Circular polarization indicates same
amplitudes with 90º phase shift and Elliptical
GMm mv2 polarization indicates different amplitude with 90º
=
R2 R phase shift.
GM 112. Identify the disadvantage of satellite
v= communication from the following.
R (a) No tracking is required in geostationary
Hence linear velocity is independent of its mass (m). satellite
106. The angle of inclination of a satellite whose (b) Multiple access points are available in the
orbit is over the equator is satellite communciaion
(a) 0º (b) 90º (c) Due to ageing effect the efficiency of the
(c) 100º (d) 135º satellite component decreases
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III (d) Low transmitting power and low receiving
sensitivity are required by the satellite in
Ans. (a) : The angle of inclination of a satellite whose close elliptical orbits.
orbit is over the equator is 0º.
DMRC AM S&T-2020
Ans. (c) : Disadvantage of satellite communication is (c) 20log ( λ ) − 173.07
due to ageing effect the efficiency of the satellite
component decreases. (d) −20log ( λ ) + 21.98
Other disadvantages of satellite communication- ESE-2021
(a) Time delay. Ans.(b) :
(b) Cost is high of satellite communication. 2
(c) Satellite communication requires high power.  4πd 
113. For an orbiting satellite, in magnitude  λ 
2
(a) The kinetic energy is equal to the potential  4πd 
energy Free space loss (In dB) = 10log10  
(b) the kinetic energy is twice the potential  λ 
energy Where d = 36000 km
(c) the kinetic energy is half the potential energy Put value
2
(d) The kinetic energy is one- fourth the potential  4 × 3.14 × 36000 ×103 
energy = 10log10  
 λ 
Ans. (c) : For an orbiting satellite, in magnitude the = −20log10 λ + 20 log10  452.389 ×106 

kinetic energy is half the potential energy. = −20log10 λ + (173.07 )
114. Relationship between Doppler frequency shifts
of two radars A and B having 0.1 foot and 0.05 116. The mean sun does at a uniform speed but
foot wave-lengths, approaching the target at otherwise requires the same time as the real
1000 feet per second and 2000 feet per second sun to complete one orbit of the earth, this time
rate, respectively, will be being
(a) Doppler frequency shift of radar A will be (a) the tropical year
one-fourth of Doppler frequency shift of radar (b) the leap year
B (c) the Julian calendar year
(b) Doppler frequency shift of radar A will be (d) the Grgorian calendar year
one-half of Doppler frequency shift of radar B ESE-2022
(c) Doppler frequency shift of radar A will be Ans. (a) : The mean sun does at a uniform speed but
double of Doppler frequency shift of radar B
otherwise requires the same time as the real sun to
(d) Doppler frequency shifts of radar A and radar
complete one orbit of the earth, this time being the
B will be same. tropical year.
ISRO Scientist December, 2017 117. The maximum range of pulsed radar depends
Ans. (a) : Given that, on
∆λ A = 0.1λfoot, ∆λ B = 0.05λfoot (a) Pulse peak power (b) Pulse duration
(c) Pulse energy (d) Pulse repetition rate
VA = 1000FS−1 and VB = 2000FS−1
TNPSC AE-2014
Frequency are -
Ans. (c) : Radar systems radiate each pulse at the
2VA 2 × 1000 2 × 104 carrier frequency during transmit time, wait for
∆f A = = = returning echoes during listening or rest time, and then
λA 0.1λ λ
radiate a second pulse.
2VB 2 × 2000 8 × 10 4
The number of pulses radiated in one second is called
∆f B = = =
λA 0.05λ λ the pulse repetition frequency.
Therefore, The maximum range of pulsed radar depends on pulse
peak power.
 2 ×104  118. Transponders are:
 
∆f A  λ  1 (a) Only the transmitter in a satellite
= = (b) Only the receiver in a satellite
∆f B  8 × 10  4
4
  (c) Transmitter and receiver combination in a

 λ  satellite
1 (d) None of the above
∆f A = f B TNTRB AE– 2017
4
Ans. (c) : Transponder performs function of both
115. For a GEO satellite, what is the free space loss transmitter and receiver in a satellite. It is one of the
( Ldb ) at the equator in terms of carrier most important subsystems of space segment
subsystems.
wavelength ( λ ) ?
119. Expensive tracking equipment is not requires
(a) 20log ( λ ) + 21.98 for:
(a) Low earth orbit satellite LEO
(b) −20log ( λ ) + 173.07 (b) Medium earth orbit satellite MEO
(c) Geosynchronous earth orbit GEO satellite Ans. (c) : For a world wide communication between
(d) All the above three types any two location of the earth, minimum 3 satellites must
TNTRB AE– 2017 be placed such that pair of satellites subtend angle of
Ans. (c) : Expensive tracking equipment is not requires 120º at the centre of earth.
for geosynchronous earth orbit (GEO) satellite. 125. Diplexer is made of
Orbit – Attitude (a) Only receive filter
GEO – 36000 km (b) Only transmit filter
MEO – 5000 to 20, 000 km (c) Only circulator
LEO – 500 to 1200 km (d) Both receive filter and transmit filter
120. Line-off-sight propagation is done by ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
(a) MEO Satellites Ans. (d) : Diplexer is made of both receive filter and
(b) GEO Satellites transmit filter.
(c) LEO Satellites A diplexer is a 3-port passive device that allows two
(d) GEO stationary satellites different devices to share a common communication
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 channel. It consists of two filter (Low pass, High pass or
Band pass) at different frequencies connected to a single
Ans. (d) : Line of-sight propagation is done by antenna.
GEO stationary satellites.
• LEO satellite is used in internet, Voice navigation
• MEO Satellite is used in GPS.
• GEO satellites are used for a range of services
including telecommunication, TV signals, surveillance
and weather monitoring.
121. The number of Active transponders are carried
by a high capacity satellite are 126. A satellite transmits signals at a frequency of 6
(a) 10 - 12 transponders GHz to a user 40000 km away. The free space
(b) 12 - 44 transponders path loss incurred by the signal is nearly:
(c) 12 - 18 transponders (a) 100 dB (b) 150 dB
(d) 16 - 44 transponders (c) 200 dB (d) 300 dB
TNPSC AE-2013 ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
Ans. (b) : 12-44 transponders are the active Ans. (c): Given that-
transponder which carried by a high capacity. Frequency (f ) = 6×109Hz
122. A passive satellite R = 4×107m
(a) Only reflects back signals
c 3 × 108 1
(b) Only generates signals λ= = =
(c) Only absorbs signals f 6 × 109 20
2
(d) Receive, modulates and then reflects back  4πR 
signals Free space path loss ( PL ) dB = 10log  
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II  λ 
Mizoram PSC Jr. (Grade) - 2018, Paper-III = 20log (4π × 4×107×20)
Ans. (a) : A passive satellite is the one that just reflects = 20log (32π) + 20log (108)
the signal from one earth station to other earth station or Free space path loss (PL) ≃ 200 dB
stations with any amplification or retransmission. 127. The satellite communication link between two
123. One of the following is found on board a point is established with uplink carrier-to-noise
weather satellite ratio of 20 dB and downlink carrier to noise
(a) VHRR (Very high resolution radiometer) ratio of 14 dB. The overall C/N is close to:
(b) Transponder (a) 34 dB (b) 6 dB
(c) Telescope (c) 13 dB (d) 13.5 dB
(d) High resolution camera ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II Ans. (c): Given that-
Ans. (d) : A weather satellite provide imagery and (C/N) uplink = 20dB
atmospheric sounding of temperature and moisture data (C/N) downlink = 14dB
over the entire Earth. Hence it contain high resolution Overall C/N is -
camera for good images.
1 1 1
124. For global communication the minimum = +
number of satellites needed is ( C / N )overall ( C / N )downlink ( C / N )uplink
(a) 1 (b) 2 1 1 1
(c) 3 (d) 6 = +
( C / N )overall 14 dB 20 dB
1 1 1 (b) Bistatic radar
= + ∵ 14dB = 25 (c) Monopulse radar
(C / N)overall 25 100
(d) Secondary surveillance radar
∵ 20 dB = 100 Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
(C/N)overall = 20
Ans. (b) : A bistatic radar is tracking radar. A tracking
(C/N)overall|dB= 10log1020 radar is a radar which is used to track the path of one or
(C/N)overall|dB = 10log10(10×2) more target. Tracking radar tracks the target by tracking
(C/N)overall|dB = 10[log1010 + log102] range, angle and Doppler frequency shift.
(C/N)overall|dB = 10 +3.010 133. In the radar guidance of missiles where the
( C / N )overall |dB ≃ 13dB missile has its own radar and its extracts the
tracking data from the target reflected energy,
128. Helical antenna is used for satellite tracking the technique is known as
because of its (a) Command guidance
(a) circular polarisation (b) Beam rider guidance
(b) good front to back ratio (c) Homing guidance
(c) broad bandwidth (d) none of these
(d) high gain Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
TNPSC AE-2013 Ans. (c) : In the radar guidance of missile where the
Ans. (a) : Helical antenna is used for satellite tracking missile has its own radar and its extracts the tracking
of its circular polarisation. Helical antenna is an antenna data from target reflected energy. This technique is
consisting of one or more conducting wire wound in the known as homing guidance.
form of helix. 134. A chip radar is another name for a
129. In the radar guidance of missiles, the technique (a) Pulse Doppler radar
makes use of two separate tracking beams, one (b) Pulse compression radar
tracking the missile and the other tracking the (c) Secondary surveillance radar
target. The missile is commanded to follow a (d) Tracking radar
trajectory based on the data from the two
tracking radar beams. It is Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
(a) Command guidance Ans. (d) : A chip radar is another name for a tracking
(b) Active homing guidance radar. Tracking radar attempts to position the antenna
with zero angular errors tracking radar are classified by
(c) Beam rider guidance
how the tracking error are developed.
(d) Passive homing guidance
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II 135. In a pulsed radar, the peak radar transmitter
power is increased by a factor of 81 keeping all
Ans. (a) : In the radar guidance of missiles, the other radar parameters unchanged. The
technique makes use of two separate tracking beam, one maximum range capability of the radar
tracking of the missile and the other tracking the target. increases by a factor of
The missile is commanded through a trajectory based on (a) 81 (b) 9
data from the two tracking radar beams. It is a
(c) 27 (d) 3
command guidance.
130. The maximum unambiguous range of pulsed
R max ∝ ( Pt )
1/ 4
radar depends upon Ans. (d) : Range
(a) Peak power of the transmitted pulses
(b) Transmitted pulse widths Where Pt is peak transmitter power.
(c) Signal to noise ratio of the radar receiver Now, given in the question the peak radar transmitter
power is increased by a factor of 81.
(d) Pulse repetition rate of the transmitted signal
Then,
Rmax ∝ (81Pt)1/4
Ans. (b) : The unambiguous range of a radar is the
maximum range at which a target can be located so as R max ∝ 3 4 Pt
to guarantee that the reflected signal/pulse from that
target corresponds to the most recent transmitted pulse. 136. A radar transmitter has a PRF of 1500 PPS
131. A radar system that can determine both target and a pulse width of 1 micro second. Its duty
range as well as target velocity is cycle is
(a) Pulsed radar (b) Doppler radar (a) 0.0075 (b) 0.015
(c) CW radar (d) MTI (c) 0.0015 (d) 0.00075
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II ISRO Scientist Engg. 2009
Ans. (a) : The working principle of pulse radar is that Ans. (c) : Duty cycle = Pulse width × PRF
continuous pulses are transmitted and the, time recorded
Given that - Pulse width = 1 µs
until the pulse is received back by the radar.
PRF = 1500 PPS
132. One of the following is tracking radar
(a) Monostatic radar Duty cycle = 10 −6 × 1500 = 0.0015

137. A radar system uses magnetron as high power required to detect a target having radar cross
RF source. Its transmitter emits 300 kW RF section of 10sq.m (consider log10 4π = 1.1).
power at 10% duty factor. If the efficiency of Assume EM wave propagate under ideal
radar transmitter during pulse is 60% and the conditions.
power required during pulse off period is (a) 10 km (b) 21.5 km
1kW. The average power dissipation in radar
(c) 56 km (d) 100 km
is -
(a) 50.9 kW (b) 301 kW ISRO Scientist Engg.-2018
(c) 20.9 kW (d) 150.5 kW Ans.(a): Given,
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2014 f = 30 GHz, Pt = 2 KW, Gd = 30dB
Ans. (c) : Given, Smin = −100dBm , σ = 10m 2
Duty factor = 10% c 3 × 108
Transmitter power emits = 300 kW RF ∵λ = = = 10−2 m
f 30 ×109
During Toff time power lost is and 10log G d = 30
1× 0.9 = 0.9 kW
G d = 103
And during Ton transmitted power is 300 × 0.1kW 100
−
If 30 kJ is the output of transmitter with efficiency 0.6, 10 10
so power lost Smin ( in watts ) =
1000
30 Smin = 10−13 W
= × 0.4 = 20kW
0.6 Maximum range of radar
Now, total power dissipation in radar is- 1
= 20kW + 0.9kW  P σλ 2 G 2  4
= 20.9 kW in one second. ( R max ) =  t 3 d 


 ( 4π ) Smin 
138. Which of the following statements is NOT true: 1
(a) A high PRF pulse Doppler radar has no  2 × 103 ×10 × 10−4 × 106  4
ambiguities in Doppler frequency. = −13 

(b) A high PRF pulse Doppler radar has no range  64 × 31.0062 ×10 
1
ambiguities.  2 ×106 ×1013  4
(c) A high PRF pulse Doppler radar provides an = 
accurate measurement of target’s radial  1984.401 
velocity.
= ( 0.0010078608 × 1019 )
1
4
(d) An MTI radar has many Doppler ambiguities.
= (1×1016 )
1
4
Ans. (b) : A good choice of PRF to achieve a large
unambiguous range will be a poor choice to achieve a
large unambiguous velocity and vice versa, this is = 10 4 m
known as the concept of the Doppler dilemma. = 10 km
So, in the case of high PRF pulse radar has no 141. Which of the following statement is not true
ambiguity in Doppler frequency but ambiguities in about delay line cancellers?
range. (a) It eliminates DC components of fixed targets
139. Range resolution of a Linear Frequency and passes AC components of moving targets
Modulated pulse compression radar depends (b) It is used in moving target indicator radar
on which of the following factors: (c) Time delay in one channel of the delay line
canceller is one half of the pulse repetition
(a) Radiated power period
(b) Antenna size (d) It rejects any moving target whose Doppler
(c) Center frequency of the radar frequency happens to be the same as the PRF
(d) Bandwidth of the transmitted pulse or a multiple thereof
Ans. (d) : Range resolution of a linear frequency Ans.(c): • Delay line canceller in order to introduce a
modulated pulse compression radar depends on delay of pulse repetition time.
bandwidth of the transmitted pulse. • Delay line canceller is a filter, which eliminates the
1 PC components of echo signals received from stationary
Range resolution =
Pulse B.W targets.
• It allow the AC components of echo signals received
140. A monostatic pulsed radar operating at 30GHz from non-stationary targets, i.e. moving targets.
has a transmitter with 2KW O/P power and an
antenna with 30dB gain. Minimum detectable • It is used in moving target indicator radar.
signal in the receiver is –100dBm. Determine • It rejects any moving target whose doper frequency
the maximum range of the radar, if it is happens to be the same as the PRF or a multiple thereof.

142. Satellite channel can be attributed Ans. (b) : Geostationary orbit is a circular propagate
(a) Only bandwidth limited orbit in the equatorial plane with an orbital period equal
(b) Only power limited to 24hr. A geostationary satellite appears to be
(c) Both bandwidth & power limited stationary with respect to the earth.
(d) None of the above 147. Doubling the aperture area of a radar's
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2007 antenna increases the radar range by
Ans. (c) : Satellite channel can be attributed both (a) 2 (b) 2
bandwidth & power limited. (c) 4 (d) 16
143. What is the greatest allowable PRF for UJVNL AE-2016
unambiguous reception in a radar having a
Ans. (a) : An antenna takes the radar pulse from the
maximum range of 120 km?
transmitter and puts it into the air. Further more the
(a) 1250 pps (b) 2500 pps antenna must focus the energy into a well defined beam
(c) 1200 pps (d) 5000 pps which increases the power. Doubling the aperture area
of radar's antenna increases the radar range by 2 .
c
Ans. (a) : Maximum range (R) = 148. If the peak transmitted power in a radar
2PRF system is increased by a factor of 81 then the
c maximum range will be increased by factor of
PRF =
2R (a) 3 (b) 9
3 ×108 (c) 27 (d) 81
= UJVNL AE-2016
2 × 120 × 103
Ans. (a) : Maximum range of radar is given by
PRF = 1250 pps
1
144. The maximum range of a monostatic Radar is  p ⋅ G 2 σA  4
R. If a target having a Radar cross-section of Rmax =  t 2 e

10m2 exists at R/2, what should be the target  ( 4π ) ⋅ Smin 
cross-section at 3R/2 to result in an equal signal
strength at the Radar? Pt 2 = 81Pt1
(a) 90m2 (b) 270W/m2 1/ 4
(c) 810m 2
(d) 30W/m2 R max1  Pt 
= 2 
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2010 R max 2  81Pt 
 1 
Ans. (c) : Given,
R max 2 = 3 ⋅ R max1
σ1 = 10m 2 and R 2 = 3R1
The maximum range of a monostatic radar is 149. In radar propagation, above 100 MHz, the
R ∝ (σ)
1/ 4 ionospheric attenuation seldom exceeds
(a) 1 dB (b) 2 dB
Where σ = Cross-section of radar (c) 5 dB (d) 7 dB
And R = Range of radar TNPSC AE-2014
Therefore,
Ans. (a) : When using high frequency propagation via
1/ 4
R/2  10  the ionosphere, the radio signals leave the transmitting
= 
3 ( R / 2 )  σ new  radio antenna on earth's surface and travel towards the
4
ionosphere where some of these are returned to earth.
1 10 In radar propagation, above 100 MHz, the ionospheric
  = attenuation seldom exceeds 1 dB.
3 σ new
1 10 150. In radar propagation, attenuation in the clear
= atmosphere is seldom a serious problem at
81 σ new
frequencies below
σ new = 810m 2 (a) 30 GHz (b) 16 GHz
(c) 16 MHz (d) 30 MHz
145. The basic rate of SONET is
TNPSC AE-2014
(a) 2.048 Mbps (b) 51.84 Mbps
(c) 1.544 Mbps (d) 155 Mbps Ans. (b) : Attenuation is a reduction of signal strength
TNPSC AE - 2018 during transmission, such as when sending data
Ans. (b) : SONET uses a basic transmission rate of collected through automated monitoring. Attenuation is
STS-1 that is equivalent to 51.84 Mbps. SONET is a represented in decibels (dB), which is ten times the
communication protocol developed by Bellcore. logarithm of the signal power at a particular input
146. The orbital period of a geostationary satellite is divided by the signal power at an output of a specified
(a) 12hrs (b) 24hrs medium.
(c) 36hrs (d) 48hrs In radar propagation, in the clear atmosphere is seldom
RRB SSE - 02/09/2015, Shift - I a serious problem at frequencies below 16 GHz.

151. Tracking radar determines (c) target range but not the position
(a) Range (d) target position but not the range
(b) Azimuth angle TNPSC AE-2013
(c) Elevation angle Ans. (c) : A-scope of a radar display shows only the
(d) Range, azimuth, elevation and doppler shift range not the direction to targets. These are sometimes
TNPSC AE-2014 referred to as R-scopes for range scope.
Ans. (d) : Tracking radar systems are used to measure • The A-scope of a radar displays target range but not
the target's relative position in range, azimuth angle, the position.
elevation angle and velocity. Then by using and keeping 157. An automotive radar operates at a frequency of
track of these measured parameters the radar can predict 8 GHz. The Doppler shift due to an automobile
their future values. directly approaching the radar at a speed of
152. If the peak transmitted power in a radar 160 km per hour is
system is increased by a factor of 16, the (a) 2.37 kHz (b) 23.7 kHz
maximum range will be increased by a factor of (c) 8 kHz (d) 8 GHz
(a) 2 (b) 4 TNPSC AE-2013
(c) 8 (d) 16 Ans. (a) : Given, ft = 8 GHz, v = 160 km/hr
TNPSC AE-2014 f
Ans. (a) : The maximum range of a radar system is Doppler shift, fd = 2v t
given as c
5 8 ×109
f d = 2 ×160 × ×
1
 P G 2 σA  4
18 3 ×108
Rmax =  t 2 e 
 ( 4π ) Smin 
fd = 237.03 × 10
fd = 2.37 kHz
we observe that Rmax ∝ D × Pt1/ 4
158. The sensitivity of a radar receiver is ultimately
Where, Pt = Peak transmitted power set by
D = Antenna diameter (a) high SNR
Rmax ∝ D × (16Pt)1/4 (b) lower limit of useful signal out
Rmax ∝ 2D(Pt)1/4 (c) overall noise temperature
153. In CW radar, which tracking technique is used (d) pulse energy
as primary means of resolving targets? TNPSC AE-2013
(a) Doppler tracking (b) Range tracking Ans. (c) : The sensitivity of radar receiver is ultimately
(c) Angle tracking (d) Line tracking set by overall noise temperature. Radar sensitivity is
TNPSC AE-2014 defined as the signal optical power required at the
Ans. (a) : In CW radar, Doppler tracking technique is receiver to achieve the targeted bit error rate.
used as primary means of resolving targets. 159. A satellite earth station has
154. A scan type radar display can (a) only receiving equipments
(a) indicate only the target range (b) only transmitting equipments
(b) indicate only the target bearing (c) (a) and (b) both
(c) indicate both range as well as direction of (d) none of these
target TNPSC AE-2013
(d) none of these Ans. (c) : A satellite earth station has receiving and
TNPSC AE-2013 transmitting equipment. A satellite earth station is a
Ans. (a) : A scan type radar display can indicate only type of radio equipment used to communicate with
the target range. The radar scan is a process or action of space station from earth's surface.
directing a radar beam through a space search pattern 160. A satellite that simply reflects back the signals
for the purpose of locating a largest. from one region of the earth to the other region
155. PPI scan type radar display can is known as
(a) indicate only the target bearing (a) Orbiting satellite
(b) indicate only the target range (b) Geostationary satellite
(c) indicate both the target range as well as (c) Active satellite
direction (d) Passive satellite
(d) be used to produce target image TNPSC AE-2013
TNPSC AE-2013 Ans. (d) : A satellite that simply reflects back the
Ans. (c) : PPI scan radar display can indicate both the signals from one region of the earth to the other region
target range and directions. Plan position indicator is known as passive satellite there is no amplification
display a dark spot on the target. occurs in signal after reflection.
156. The A-scope of a radar displays 161. A radar system uses a rotating antenna
(a) no "grass" (a) determine the target range
(b) target position and range (b) determine the target bearing
(c) identify the target 166. What are the celestial bodies revolving around
(d) determine target velocity the planets called as?
TNPSC AE-2013 (a) Satellites (b) Star
Ans. (b) : A radar system uses a rotating antenna to (c) Comets (d) Meteors
determine the target bearing. A rotating antenna can RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
cover wide area during surveillance. Ans. (a) : Any celestial body revolving around other
162. RADAR is an acronym for: celestial body is known as satellites. For example, moon
(a) Radio Detection and Repulsion revolves around earth in definite orbit, so moon is a
(b) Radio Device and Ranging satellite of earth, generally the celestial body if and only
(c) Radio Detection and Ranging if the other celestial body is a planet like moon revolves
(d) Ranging Detection and Retrieve around the earth and earth is a planet therefore, moon is
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 a satellite of earth.
Ans. (c) : Radar is an acronym for radio detection and 167. A radar system uses TWTA as high power RF
ranging. It is a device capable of detecting objects at for source for transmitting 300 W peak power. The
off distances, measuring the distance or range of the efficiency of transmitter during pulse is 75%
object by using electromagnetic waves. and the transmit duty is 25%. If the DC power
163. A pulse radar has a pulse repetition frequency required during pulse off period is 20 W. The
(PRF) of 3 KHz. If the radar is emitting at average power dissipation in TWTA is
10 GHz, what is the maximum unambiguous (a) 81.25 W (b) 125 W
range for this radar? (c) 50 W (d) 40 W
(a) 5 Km (b) 5m ISRO Scientist December, 2017
(c) 50 Km (d) 15 m Ans. (d) : Total power input -
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 P
Ans. (c) : Pin = peak
η
C
R max = 0 300
2f p Pin = × 100 = 400 watt
75
3 × 108 Then, the dissipated power
R max =
2 × 3 ×103 PD = 400 − 300
3 ×108 PD = 100 watt
Rmax = = 0.5 ×105 m Average power dissipation is -
6 ×103
Rmax = 50 km PD average = PD ( D ) + PDC × η
164. An FM-CW (Frequency Modulated - 1 3
Continuous Wave) Radar is essentially = 100 × + 20 ×
4 4
(a) Bistatic = 25 + 15
(b) Monostatic
= 40
(c) Can operate either as monostatic or as bistatic
(d) None of the above 168. Which factor determines the range resolution
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2013 of a radar ?
(a) Size of the antenna
Ans. (c) : FM-CW (Frequency Modulated - Continuous
Wave) radar can operate either as mono-static or as (b) Bandwidth of the transmitted pulse
bistatic because can measure both the range and (c) Power radiated from the antenna
Doppler frequency of the target. (d) Centre frequency of the radar
165. The received power of a RADAR receiving ISRO Scientist December, 2017
antenna whose effective area is 0.2m2 for an Ans. (b) : Range resolution depends on -
available power density of 200µW/m 2 is: • The bandwidth of the transmitted pulse.
(a) 400 µW (b) 40 µW • The type and size of the target.
(c) 500 µW (d) 50 µW • The efficiency of the receiver and indicator.
• Pulse width is the primary factor in range resolution.
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019
169. The beam of a radar should be
Ans. (b) : Given, Ae = 0.2 m , Pd = 200 µW/m2
2
(a) Very narrow
Power
Pdensity = (b) Very wide
Area (c) Neither too narrow nor too wide
µW (d) Either (b) or (c)
Power = 200 2 × 0.2m 2
m Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
Power = 40µW Ans. (a) : The beam of a radar should be very narrow.
because the directivity of the radar should be very high.
170. The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar 174. Which of the following can be used to improve
is that range resolution in a Radar?
(a) It does not give the target position (a) Short duration pulse
(b) It does not give target velocity (b) Long duration pulse
(c) It does not give target range (c) High frequency of operating signal
(d) A transponder is required at the target (d) Increasing pulse width
IES - 2002
Ans. (c) : The maximum range of CW Doppler radar is
limited by the power that radar can radiate. A CW radar Ans. (a) : Range resolution is the ability of a radar to
can measure the instantaneous rate of change in the distinguish between two or more targets which are very
target's range. close to each other.
171. A vertical wire of 1 m length carries a current If short duration pulse is used then pulse repetition
of 1A at 10 MHz. The total radiating power is frequency increases causing Improvement in range
nearly resolution.
(a) 0.13W (b) 0.88W 175. In radar systems, the term 'rat-race' is used in
(c) 7.3W (d) 73W connection with
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-I (a) Modulator (b) Pulse characteristics
Ans. (b) : dl = 1m, f = 10 MHz (c) Receiver bandwidth (d) Duplexer
c 3 × 108 IES - 1998
λ= = = 30m
f 107 Ans. (d) : A duplexer is an electronics device that
2 allows bi-direction (duplex) communication over the
 1 
R rad = 80π2   = 0.872Ω single path.
 30  • In radar systems, the term 'rat-race' is used in
I = 1 Amp. connection with Duplexer.
Radiated Power (Prad) = I2 × Rrad
= 12 × 0.872 = 0.872 Watt (iv) Optical Fiber Communication
Prad ≃ 0.88W
172. If the PRF is 1200 and the pulse width is 1.5 µs, 1. Numerical aperture is describing the ability of
the duty cycle will be (a) Light Collection (b) Light Scattering
(a) 12.5 percent (b) 8 percent (c) Light Dispersion (d) Light Polarization
(c) 0.18 percent (d) 0.12 percent UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper I
Ans. (a) : Numerical aperture is a measure of light
collecting ability of fiber. It establishes the relationship
between acceptance angle and refractive indices of
different medium involved.
( n1 ) − ( n 2 )
2 2
PRF (pulse repetitions frequency) fP =
1 NA =
tp
2. In the design of a single-mode step index
t on optical fiber close to upper cutoff, the single-
Duty cycle % = × 100 mode operation is not preserved if
t on + t off
(a) radius as well as operating wavelength are
t on 1.5 × 10−6 halved
= × 100 = ×100
1/ f P 1/1200 (b) radius as well as operating wavelength are
= 0.18% doubled
173. Blind speed problem can be overcome by (c) radius is halved and operation wavelength is
(a) Changing Doppler frequency doubled
(b) MTI (d) radius is doubled and operating wavelength is
(c) Monopoles halved
(d) Varying PRF BPSC Asst. Prof. - 12.04.2022
UJVNL AE-2016 Ans. (d) : The cut off frequency is given by-
Ans. (d) : Since the frequency response of an FIR high 2πa
pass filter is periodic, some energy at high Doppler f= , where a is the radius of core.
Wavelength
frequencies is also removed. Targets at those high
Doppler frequencies thus will not be detectable by the For a single mode step index fiber, f must be lie
radar. This issue is called the blind speed problem and it between 0 and 2.405. Thus to get f below 2.405, the
is overcome by varying PRF. radius must be doubled and wavelength must be halved.

3. In increasing order of spectral width of three Ans. (b) : PMD in graded as well as in step index but is
optical sources are dominant in single mode step index fiber because in
(a) Gas laser, semiconductor laser, LED single mode step index fiber diameter of fiber is very
(b) Semiconductor laser, gas laser, LED less.
(c) LED, gas laser, semiconductor laser When two waves travel with different speed inside the
(d) LED, semiconductor laser, gas laser optical fiber then they will arrive at a different time at
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 the receiver, this cause dispersion of signal known as
polarization mode dispersion.
Ans. (b) : Increasing order of spectral width of three
optical source are 8. What is the numerical aperture of an optical
fiber when its critical angle is 30º
Semiconductor laser, Gas laser, LED.
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.704
4. The multimode graded index fiber exhibits (c) 0.866 (d) 0.2
total pulse broadening of 0.1 µ sec over a Mizoram PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017,Paper-I
distance of 15 Km. The length - Bandwidth Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
product of the fiber is
(a) 37.5 MHz km (b) 75 MHz km
IES - 1992
(c) 150 MHz km (d) 300 MHz km
Ans. (a) : Given -
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022
Critical angle (θc) = 30º
Ans. (b) : Given –
Numerical aperture (NA) = sinθc
Pulse broadening (τ) = 0.1µsec = 0.1 × 10 sec
–6
= sin 30º
Distance (L) = 15km
The maximum possible optical bandwidth is equivalent 1
= = 0.5
is maximum possible bit rate. 2
1 1 9. Which one of the following statements is NOT
BW = R b = = −6
= 5MHz true for a step index optical fibre?
2τ 2 × 0.1×10
(a) It can support multiple modes
Length Bandwidth product = L × BW (b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
= 15×5 (c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher
= 75 MHz km that of the core
5. Approximately what is the frequency limit of (d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation
an optical fiber? is possible by proper choice of core diameter,
(a) 20 kHz (b) 1 MHz core and cladding refractive indices
(c) 100 MHz (d) 40 GHz DRDO-2008
UPPSC Poly.Tech. Lecturer-22.03.2022, Paper-II Ans. (c) : For an optical fibre a step Index profile is a
Ans. (d) : The frequency limit of an optical fiber is refractive index profile characterized by a uniform
approximately 40 GHz. refractive index within the core and a sharp decrease in
refractive index at the core-clading interface so that the
6. Losses in optical fibers can be caused by cladding is of a lower refractive index.
(a) impurities (b) microbending
10. Which one of the following instruction is useful
(c) attenuation in the glass (d) all of these while measuring the optical power as a
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III function of wavelength?
UPRVUNL AE-11.06.2014 (a) Optical power attenuator
TNPSC AE-2013 (b) Optical power analyzer
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III (c) Optical spectrum analyzer
IES-2009, 2008, 2001,1997 (d) Optical return loss tester
Ans. (d) : Losses in optical fibers can be caused by IES - 2019
impurities, micro bending, attenuating in the glass, Ans. (c) : The optical spectrum analyzer displays the
splicing light absorption and scattering. Different types optical power as a function of wavelength. These are
of losses in optical fiber- precision instruments which are used to measure the
Absorption loss Scattering loss Welding loss or special characteristic of light.
radiation loss Coupling loss. 11. A single-mode optical fiber has a beat length of
7. Polarization mode dispersion (PMD) is mainly 8 cm at 1300 nm. The value of birefringence Bf
observed in will be nearly
(a) Multiple step-index fiber (a) 1.6 × 10–5 (b) 2.7 × 10–5
–5
(b) Single mode fiber (c) 3.2 × 10 (d) 4.9 × 10–5
(c) Multimode graded-index fiber IES - 2019
(d) Plastic-fiber Ans. (a) : Given,
Sikkim PSC SI (Main)-2018 Beat length (LB) = 8 cm
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II = 8 ×10–2m
IES - 2011 λ = 1300 × 10–9m
λ 15. The cut-off wavelength for an optical fibre with
Birefringence (Bf) = 5 µm core diameter and core cladding indices
LB
of refraction 1.84 and 1.402 is nearly
1300 ×10−9 (a) 0.5 µm (b) 1 µm
=
8 × 10 −2 (c) 3 µm (d) 6 µm
= 162.5 ×10–7 IES - 2018
Ans. (c) : Given,
Bf = 1.625 ×10−5
Refractive index of core (n1) = 1.484
12. In optical communication, the maximum angle Refractive index of cladding (n2) = 1.402
in which external light rays may strike the Diameter = 5µm
air/glass interface and still propagate down the Core radius = 2.5µm
fiber is called as
(a) critical angle (b) numerical aperture NA = n12 − n 22
(c) angle of refraction (d) acceptance angle
= (1.484 ) − (1.402 )
2 2
IES - 2019
Ans. (d) : The maximum angle in which external light NA = 0.486
rays may strike the air/glass interface and still propagate 2π × core radius
λC = × NA
down the fiber it is the figure of merit used measure the 2.4
magnitude of the acceptance angle. 2π × 2.5 ×10−6 × 0.486
=
2.4
λC = 3.18µm
λC ≃ 3µm
16. The noise factor of an attenuator pad that has
an insertion loss of 6 dB is
Where, α = Acceptance angle.
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
Numerical Apperture = NA = sinα = n12 − n 22 (c) 2 (d) 4
IES - 2017
13. Which one of the following specifications does
not fit for a single-mode fiber? Ans. (d) : Given data -
(a) The bandwidth is 1 GHz/km Insertion loss = 6dB
(b) The digital communication rate is excess of P 
2000 Mbytes/s 6 = 10log  T 
 PR 
(c) More than 100000 voice channels are
available Where PT = Transmitted power
PR = Received power
(d) The mode field diameter (MFD; spot size) is
larger than the core diameter  PT 
IES - 2019   = Noise factor
 PR 
Ans. (a) : Single-mode fiber, the BW ranges from 50 to
100GHz/km P  6
log  T  =
Therefore statement, does not fit for a single fiber.  PR  10
14. What is/are the advantage(s) of step-index P 
monomode fibre optical cable? log10  T  = 0.6
1. Manufacturing process is simple  PR 
2. Bandwidth of several GHz-km is possible PT
3. Splicing is easier = 100.6
PR
below: Where -
PT
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only =4 100.6 = 22 = 4
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 PR
100.9 = 23 = 8
IES - 2018 17. In graded index multimode optical fiber the
Ans. (b) : Advantage of step-index mono-mode refractive index of the core is
optical fiber- (a) uniform across its radial distance except for
Higher transmission bandwidth (up to GHz-km) is the cladding
possible. (b) maximum at the fiber axis and decreased
Used for long-distance communication purpose. stepwise towards the cladding
Loss is very low i.e. 0.1 dB/km (c) maximum at the fiber axis and decreases
Splicing is relatively less easier. gradually towards the cladding
(d) maximum at the fiber axis and increases n2
stepwise towards the cladding (a) tan −1 (b) sin −1 n 22 − n12
UPPSC Poly. Tech. Lect.22.03.2022, Paper-II
n1
Sikkim PSC SI (Mains)-2018 n
IES - 2017 (c) sin −1 n12 − n 22 (d) tan −1 1
n2
Ans. (c) : Fibers that carry more than one mode are
IES - 2015
called multimode fibers. There are two type of
multimode fibers Ans. (c) : Maximum acceptance angle
(i) Step index ( θ ) = sin n1 − n 2
− 1 2 2
(ii) Graded index

In a graded multimode optical fiber the refractive index where, n1 = refractive index of core
of the core is maximum at the fiber axis and decreases n2= refractive index of cladding.
gradually towards the cladding. Numerical aperture = n12 − n 22
18. In an optical fiber, the pulse dispersion effect is
minimized by 22. A fibre-optic cable has the indices of refraction
1. Using a high frequency light source of core of 1.6 and of cladding of 1.4, For an
2. Using plastic cladding angle of incidence 70º, the angle of return light
ray will be
3. Minimizing the core diameter
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 35º (b) 61º
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 70º (d) 90º
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
IES - 2016 IES - 2015
Ans. (c) : In an optical fiber the pulse dispersion effect Ans. (c) : Given -
is minimized by minimizing the core diameter. Pulse n1 = 1.6
dispersion effect in optical fiber when a light signal is a n2 = 1.4
travel along the fiber axis the width of pulse gets Angle of incidence ( θ ) = 70º
i
stretched and overlap with neighboring pulse due to
variation of refractive Index. This leads to pulse n 
dispersion in fiber and effect is called pulse dispersion. Critical angle sinθc =  2 
• In an optical fiber the pulse desperation effect are  n1 
minimized.  1.6 
θc = sin −1  
• Using low refractive index material for cladding.  1.4 
• Using monochromatic light source such as LASER.
• Reducing the diameter of the core fibre. 8
= sin −1  
19. Velocity of light travelling in an optical fibre is 7
(a) Equal to c θc = 61.05º θc = θi = 70
(b) Greater than c by a few per cent θi > θr
(c) Less than c by a few per cent
(d) Much greater than c, approaching the
magnitude of C2
IES - 2016
Ans. (c) : Velocity of light travelling in an optical fiber
is less than c by a few percent. Light travels about 31%
slower through fiber optical cables than it does through
a vacuum. Total internal reflection takes place
20. In an opto-electronic communication system, reflection angle = incidence angle
the system component in which free electrons θr = θi = 70º
are involved in its operation is 23. In an optical communication system, having an
(a) Laser operating wavelength λ in meters, only X% of
(b) Optical fibre its source frequency can be used as its channel
(c) Photo detector bandwidth. The systems is to be used for
(d) Coupling device employed with the optical transmitting TV signal requiring a bandwidth
fibre of f Hz. The number of channels transmitted by
IES - 2016 this system simultaneously is (c = speed of
Ans. (c) : An optical detector is a device that convert light)
lights signal into electrical signal. Photo detector also 100Xc 100λf
called photo sensors. In detector dark current flows (a) (b)
λf Xc
through a photo detector even in the absence of light.
Xc Xc
21. If n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of the (c) (d)
core and cladding respectively, the maximum λf 100λf
acceptance angle at the air-core interface SIKKIM PSC SI (mains) 2018
should be IES - 2015
c Ans. (c) : Single-mode optical fibers are preferred as
Ans. (d) : Optical source frequency (f) = Hz communication links for lasers because they prevent
λ
atmospheric interference in transmission by lasers.
c Single mode mean the fibers enables one type of light
Bandwidth of channel = X% of
λ mode to be propagated at a time. single-mode fiber core
X c diameter is much smaller than multimode fiber.
= × Advantage of single mode fiber-
100 λ
High Data rate
Xc Can be used higher bandwidth Applications
=
100λ Long distance Applications
Total bandwidth of channels 27. Assuming that packet transmission and
Number of channels =
Bandwidth needed per channel retransmission can both be described as a
Poisson process, calculate the probability that a
cX /100λ data packet transmission in an S-ALOHA
=
f system will experience a collision with another
 cX  user. Assume the total traffic rate λt = 10
=   packet/sec and the packet duration τ = 10 msec.
100λf  (a) 0.9 (b) 0.09
24. An optical fiber communication system works (c) 0.009 (d) 9.0
on a wavelength of 1.3 µm. The number of IES - 2013
subscribers it can feed, if a channel requires 20 Ans. (b) : Given,
kHz, is λt = 10 packet/sec
(a) 2.3 × 10–10 (b) 1 × 105 τ = 10 m sec = 10×10–3sec
–10 10
(c) 1.15 × 10 (d) 10 Where,
IES - 2015 λt×τ = total traffic rate during packet transmission
Ans. (c) : Given - = 10×10×10–3 = 0.1
λ = 1.3µm = 1.3×10 m –6 probability of single collision
P(x = 0) = e −λ t ×τ = e–0.1
8
c = 3×10 m/sec
Channel required 20 kHz Probability = [1–e–0.1] e–0.1
c 3 × 108 = (1– 0.9) (0.9)
Optical source frequency (f) = = −6 = 0.09
λ 1.3 ×10
14
f = 2.3 ×10 Hz 28. Consider the following advantages of optical
fiber-cables:
Number of channels or subscribers
1. Small diameter
2.3 × 1014 2. Immunity to cross talk and electromagnetic
= = 1.15 × 10 10
20 × 103 interference
3. Laser and LED modulation methods lend
25. The cladding which surrounds the fibre core themselves ideally to digital operation.
(a) is used to protect the fibre Which of these advantages are correct?
(b) is used to reduce optical interference (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) helps to guide the light in the core (c) 3 and 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) ensures that refractive index remains IES - 2011
unaltered Ans. (d) : The most important advantage of fiber
IES - 2014 optics communication-
Ans. (c) : The cladding increases the critical angle Faster speed
within the core fibre and also prevents adjacent fibers Smaller diameter
from touching each other. Less signal attenuation.
Cladding is made of less dense material than core with Laser and LED modulation methods themselves
such a combination that helps the light to reflect back to ideally to digital operation.
the inner surface of core. Increased capacity and bandwidth.
Immunity to cross talk and electromagnetic
26. Optical fibers are preferred as communication
interference.
links for Lasers because they:
29. A single mode fiber does not suffer from which
(a) prevent interference by other Lasers
type of dispersion?
(b) ensure that the beam does not spread (a) Waveguide dispersion
(c) prevent atmospheric interference (b) Material dispersion
(d) ensure amplification of the signal (c) Intermodal dispersion
Nagaland PSC CTSE-2015, Paper-II (d) Polarization mode dispersion
IES - 2013 IES - 2009
Ans. (c) : Single mode fiber doesn't have inter model 34. Which one of the following is the correct
dispersion since there is only one mode propagation in statement?
the fiber. Single mode fiber's bandwidth is mainly The graded index optical fiber cables can be
limited by material dispersion, waveguide dispersion considered to have
and polarization mode dispersion. (a) smaller numerical aperture than step index
30. Which of the following introduces mode cable
partition noise? (b) several layers of clad and each layer having a
(a) Coaxial line smaller index number relative to its distance
(b) Wave guide from the core
(c) Fibre transmission line (c) several layers of clad and each layer having a
(d) Both coaxial line and wave guide higher index number relative to its distance
IES - 2009 from the core
Ans. (c) : Mode partition noise occurs due to present of (d) large beam spread
fiber transmission in the multimode fiber. IES - 2007
31. On which bands, do the optical fibers operate? Ans. (b) : The graded index optical fiber cables can be
1. Ultra violet band considered to have several layers of clad and each layer
having a smaller index number relative to its distance
2. Ultra high frequency band
from the core.
3. Visible light band
4. Infrared band 35. Match List-I (Different Fibre Generation) with
List-II (Optical Components Used) and select
Select the correct answer from the codes given the correct answer the correct answer using the
below: code given below the lists :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
List - I List - II
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
IES - 2009 A. First 1. Graded index multimode fibre
and 1310 nm LD
Ans. (d) : Ultra violet band, visible light band and
infrared band are used in optical fibers operation. B. Second 2. Graded index multimode fibre
and 850 nm LD
32. In an optical fiber, the light beam propagates
due to which one of the following? C.Third 3. Step index monomode fibre and
(a) Simple reflection of light at a boundary 1550 nm LD
between two media D. Fourth 4. Step index monomode fibre and
(b) Refraction of light in the medium 1310 nm LD
(c) Total internal reflection at the boundary of the Codes :
fiber A B C D
(d) Scattering of light in the medium (a) 1 2 3 4
RRB SSC-03.09.2015, Shift-III (b) 2 1 3 4
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2014 (c) 1 2 4 3
IES – 2008, 2006 (d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (c) : In an optical fiber, the light beam propagates IES - 2005
on the principle of total internal reflection. It is a Ans. (d) :
phenomena that happens when a propagation wave List-I List-II
strikes a medium boundary at an angle larger than a (Different fiber (Optical component used)
particular critical angle with respect to the normal to the generation)
surface.
First Graded index multimode
33. In optical communication, wavelength 1550 nm fibre and 850 nm LD
is used now a days. What is/are the possible
Second Graded index multimode
reason(s)?
fibre and 1310nm LD
1. Dispersion is very low
2. Loss is very low Third Step index monomode fibre
and 1310 nm LD
3. WDM and optical amplification are
feasible Fourth Step index monomode fibre
Select the correct answer from the codes given and 1550 nm LD
below: 36. Which one of the following statement is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only correct?
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only The model noise in multimode fibers cannot be
IES - 2008 reduced by
(a) Use of a broad spectrum source
Ans. (a) : Advantage of using 1550 nm wavelength.
(b) using fibers having large numerical apertures
Dispersion is very low
(c) phase correlation between the modes
Loss is very low (d) use of a single mode fiber
WDM and optical amplification are feasible. IES - 2004
Ans. (c) : The model noise in multimode fibers cannot 40. Match List-I wish List-II and select the correct
be reduced by phase correlation between the modes. answer the correct answer using the code given
Model noise is a non-Gaussian noise source associates below the lists :
with the interference of fiber modes as a detector. List - I List - II
37. A certain optical fiber has refractive index of (System) (Order of
wavelength)
clad (n1) = 1.40 and that of core (n2) = 1.05. Its
numerical aperture will be A. Optical fiber 1. 104 m
(a) 0.8575 (b) 0.9260 communication
(c) 0.3500 (d) 0.1585 B. Local television system 2. 102 m
IES - 2002 C. FM broadcosting 3. 10º m
Ans. (b) : Refractive index of clad (n1) = 1.40
D. Satellite 4. 10–2 m
Refractive index of core (n2) = 1.05
5. 10–6 m
Numerical aperture (NA) = n12 − n 22
Codes :
(1.4 )
2
= − (1.05) 2 A B C D
(a) 5 3 3 4
= 0.8575 (b) 1 3 4 5
= 0.9260 (c) 2 2 3 5
(d) 1 2 5 4
38. A glass fiber has refractive indices n1 of 1.5 and
IES - 1996
n2 of 1. Assuming c = 3 × 108 m/s, the multipath
Ans. (a) :
time dispersion will be
System Order of wavelength
(a) 2.5 ns/m (b) 2.5 µs/m (a) optical fiber – 10–6m
(c) 5 ns/m (d) 5 µs/m communication
IES - 1999(b) Local Television – 10ºm
Ans. (a) : Given - n1 = 1.5 , n2 = 1 system
(c) FM broadcasting – 10ºm
c = 3 × 108 m/s
(d) Satellite – 10–2m
In an optical fiber with core and cladding refractive
41. The configuration used by a line
indices n1 and n2 the time dispersion ∆t is given by. communication system capable of transmitting
Ln a data at the rate of 1000 Mbps is
∆t = 1 (n1 − n 2 ) (a) open line system (b) optical fiber system
cn 2
(c) coaxial cable system (d) twisted wire system
L = length of optical fiber hence multipath time IES - 1994
dispersion per unit length of fiber is Ans. (b) : Fiber optics: up to 1000 Mbps (a data transfer
∆t 1.5 rate up to 10 billion per second), cable connection 25-
= [1.5 − 1] 300Mbps (a data transfer rate up to 300 million bits per
L 1× 3 × 108
second.
= 2.5ns/m
42. In a optical fiber, the refractive index of the
39. Which one of the following is capable of giving cladding material should be
the highest data speed? (a) nearly unity
(a) coaxial cable link (b) very low
(b) Microwave LOS link (c) less than that of the core
(c) Microwave satellite system (d) more than that of the core
(d) Optical Fiber System ISRO scientist Engg-2016
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper -III
IES - 1998 IES - 1992
Ans. (d) : Advantage of Fiber optic cables- Ans. (c) : In optical fiber the refractive index of the
Higher data speed cladding material should be less than that of core. The
Longer distances refractive index of the core (n1) is always greater than
Better Reliability the index of the cladding (n2). The refractive index of
the core and cladding of an optical fiber are 1.5 and
Thinner and sturdier 1.48 respectively.
More Flexibility
Demerit of optical fiber communication-
(1) High manufacturing cost
(2) Extra care needed during installation
43. Fibers have numerical aperture (NA) in the (b) It does not require Interference fringe pattern
region of 0.15 to 0.4. Fibers with higher N.A. to measure refractive index.
values generally exhibit (c) It is used for surface topography
(a) reduced losses measurement.
(b) high bandwidth (d) Instruments do not physically contact the
(c) reduced losses and low bandwidth surface under test.
(d) greater losses and low bandwidth APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020
Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper -III Ans. (b) : Interferomatric has involved from simple
IES - 1992 instruments that produced static images of fringe
Ans. (c) : Given - patterns for manual interpretation to computerize
n1 = 0.4 refractive index profile of optical fiber it is used for
n2 = 0.15 surface topography measurement.
48. Optical carrier frequency is in the range of.
Numerical aperture (NA) = n12 − n 22 (a) 109 to 1011Hz (b) 1010 to 1012Hz
13 16
(c) 10 to 10 Hz (d) 109 to 1012Hz
( 0.4 )
2
= − (0.15) 2 TNPSC AE- 2019
= 0.16 − 0.0225 Ans. (c) : The optical carrier frequency is in the range
1013 to 1016 Hz. While the radio wave frequency is
= 0.370
about 106 Hz and the microwave frequency is about
Numerical aperture related to light gathering ability of 1010 Hz.
fiber. Then fiber with higher N.A. values generally
exhibit to reduced losses and low bandwidth. Service Frequency bands
44. The distortion in the transmission of carrier FM broadcast (88-108) MHz
frequencies in an underground cable can be Cellular Mobile Radio (896-901) MHz
eliminated by using (840-935) MHz
(a) Inductive loading (b) Resistive loading Standard AM broadcast (540-1600) kHz
(c) Capacitive loading (d) Shielding Satellite Communication (5.925-6.425) GHz
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II 49. Coherent radiation in LASER is caused by
Ans. (a) : In an underground cable, the distortion in the (a) Stimulated emission
transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated (b) Spontaneous emission
using inductive loading. This distortion causes delay (c) Temperature increase
which will results into a variance of frequencies.
(d) Applying large force
45. In a step index fibre the refractive index of core TNPSC AE- 2019
n1 = 1.48 and that of cladding n2 = 1.45. The
numerical aperture of the fiber will be nearly: Ans. (a) : LASER diodes are typical PN Junction
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.5 devices used under a forward bias. Coherent radiation
in it is caused by stimulated emission. The word
(c) 0.7 (d) 0.9 LASER means light amplification by stimulated
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 emission of radiation.
Ans. (a) : Given - Advantage of LASER diode –
n1 = 1.48, (1) Simple economic design.
n2 = 1.45 (2) It has low power as compared to other type of
LASER diodes.
Numerical aperture = n12 − n 22 (3) It can be used for high temperature.
(4) Better modulation capability.
(1.48 ) − (1.45 )
2 2
= = 0.3 (5) It give high optical power.
46. The cladding that surrounds the fibre core: 50. The concept used in the scheme of WDM is
(a) is used to protect the fibre similar to
(b) is used to reduce optical interference (a) FDM for of transmission (b) SDM
(c) helps to guide the light in the core (c) TDM (d) OTOM
(d) ensures that refractive index remains TNPSC AE- 2019
unaltered Ans. (a) : Wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) is
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 a multiplexing technique to combine optical signal.
Ans. (c) : The cladding will helps to guide the light in WDM allows communication in both the direction in
the core. The cladding increases the critical angle within the fiber cable. WDM is conceptually quite similar to
the core fibre and also prevent adjacent fibres from FDM.
touching each other. 51. Optical storage devices employ
47. Identify the false statement for interferomatric (a) Ultraviolet light (b) Optical couplers
method : (c) Electromagnetic field (d) Lasers
(a) It is used to determine the refractive index TNPSC AE- 2019
profile of optical fiber. UPRVUNL AE-2016
Ans. (d) : This technology is used in the compact disc. Numerical aperture (NA) = n12 − n 22
Optical storage is an electronic storage medium that
uses low-power laser beams to record and retrieve (1.545 ) − (1.510 )
2 2
=
digital data in binary form.
52. A change in the refractive index of a material = 0.326
in response to an applied electric field is called For single mode step index fiber normalized frequency
________ effect. number (V) range
(a) Pockets (b) Faraday 0 < V ≤ 2.405
(c) Kerr (d) Raman 2πa(N.A)
(e) Voigt Cut off wavelength (λc) =
Vmax
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016
Ans. (c) : The kerr effect, is also called quadratic eletro 2 × 3.14 × 1.5 × 0.326
=
optic (QEO) effect. It is a change in the refractive index 2.405
of a material in response to an applied electric field. λ c ≃ 1.29µm
It can be described as a change in retroactive index
caused by electric field. 56. The critical angle θc in an optical fiber is given
53. In Kerr effect, induced index change is directly by _____. Where n1 is refractive index of
proportional to the _________. medium 1 and n2 is the refractive index of
(a) cube root of the electric field medium 2.
(b) cube of the electric field (a) Sin-1 (n2/n1) (b) Sin-1 (n1/n2)
(c) on fourth power of the electric field (c) Sin (n2∗n1)
-1
(d) Sin-1 n2
(d) square of the electric field ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
(e) square root of the electric field Ans. (a) : Snell's law-
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016 n1sinθ1 = n2 sinθ2
Ans. (d) : In Kerr effect, induced index change is Where n1 is the refractive index of material 1 and n2 is
directly proportional to the square of the electric field the refractive index of medium 2, θ1 is the angle of
strength. incidence and θ2 is the angle of refraction.
∆n = λKE 2 θ1 = θc
θ2 = 90º we know that refraction angle at the
Where, ∆n = Difference in induced index
critical angle is 90º
λ = Wavelength of the light
n1 sinθc = n2sin90º
K = Kerr constant
n1 sinθc = n2
E = Electric field strength
n
54. The Bragg's Law of X-ray diffraction is : sin θc = 2
(a) d singθ = nλ (b) 2n sinθ = λ n1
(c) 2d sinθ = nλ (d) 2dn sinθ = λ n 
(e) 2du sinθ = 1/λ θc = sin −1  2 
CGPSC SO 14.02.2016  n1 
Ans. (c) : The Bragg's Law of Xray diffraction is 57. For a single mode optical cable with 0.25
2d sin θ = nλ dB/km loss, the optical power 100 km from a
0.1mW source will be _________.
 nλ  (a) -30dBm (b) -35dBm
sin θ = 2d 
  (c) -40dBm (d) -45dBm
λ = Wavelength ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
θ = angle of incidence Ans. (b) : Given-
55. For a 3-µm-diameter optical fiber with core α = 0.25 dB/km
and cladding indexes of refraction of 1.545 and L = 100km
1.510, respectively. The cut off wavelength is. P0 = 0.1mW
(a) 2.3 µm (b) 1.29 µm For attenuation loss of optical fiber-
(c) 1.5 µm (d) 3.24 µm 10 P 
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 α = log  0 
L  PL 
Ans. (b) : Given -
n1 = 1.545 10  0.1 
0.25 = log  
n2 = 1.510 100  PL 
core diameter (d) = 3µm
 0.1 
3
core radius (a) = = 1.5µm log   = 2.5
2  PL 
0.1 IP
= (10) 2.5 Rλ = A/W
PL P
0.1 I P = R λ × P = 0.5 × 12 ×10 −6
PL = = 6µA
102.5
 0.1  62. Which is the transmission medium for VLF
PL (dBm) = 10 log  2.5  electromagnetic waves especially applicable for
 10  aeronautical and submarine cables?
PL = −35dBm (a) Paired wires (b) Coaxial cable
58. _______ is used to describe the light gathering (c) Waveguide (d) Wireless
or light collecting ability of an optical fiber Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(a) Critical angle Ans. (a) : Copper, which is used in two main types of
(b) Cut-off wavelength cable paired cable, coaxial cable. Paired wires are the
(c) Numerical Aperture transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves
(d) Acceptance angle especially applicable for aeronautical and submarine
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 cables.
63. If a fiber operates at 1400 nm with the
Ans. (c) : Numerical aperture (N.A) = n12 − n 22 diameter of about 10 µm, n1 = 1.30, ∆ = 0.80%,
Numerical aperture is used to describe the light V=3.5, then how many modes will it have?
gathering ability of an optical fiber. Numerical aperture (a) 6.125 (b) 9.655
is a measure of acceptance angle of a fiber. It also gives (c) 12.95 (d) 16.55
the light gathering capacity of the fiber. Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
59. Which among the following is provided by an Ans. (a) : Given -
optical receiver for the regeneration of data n1 = 1.30
signal with minimum error?
(a) Photo-diode ∆ = 0.80%
(b) Signal Processing Circuits V = 3.5
(c) Linear Circuitry D = 10 µm
(d) Generation circuits V2
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II No. of mode ( M N ) =
2
Ans. (c) : Linear circuitry is provided by an optical
( 3.5)
2
receiver for the regeneration of data signal with = = 6.125
minimum error. 2
The role of an optical receiver is to convert the optical 64. Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible
signal back into electrical signal and recover the data bandwidth of a multimode graded index fiber
transmitted through the light wave system. with 5 MHz, shows the total pulse broadening
60. In single - mode fibers, how does the fraction of of 0.1s for the distance of about 12 km. What
energy travelling through bound mode appears would be the value of bandwidth length
in the cladding? product?
(a) As a crescent wave (a) 40 MHz (b) 60 MHz
(b) As a gibbous wave (c) 90 MHz (d) 120 MHz
(c) As an evanescent wave Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II
(d) As a electromagnetic wave Ans. (b) : Given, L = 12km, B = 5MHz
Bandwidth length product = BT × L
Ans. (c) : In electromagnetic, an evanescent field or
evanescent wave is an oscillating electric or magnetic = 5×12
field that does not propagate as an electromagnetic = 60 MHz.
wave but whose energy is spatially concentrated in the 65. At critical radius of curvature, in multimode
vicinity of the source. fibers
61. For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 (a) large deformation will happen to the fiber
A/W & optical power of about 12 µW, what jacket
would be the value of generated photocurrent? (b) no deformation happens to fiber jacket
(a) 3µΑ (b) 6µΑ (c) large bending losses occur
(c) 9µΑ (d) 12µΑ (d) no loss occurs
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (b) : Given - Ans. (c) : At critical radius of curvature, in multimode
Photo diode responsivity fibers large bending losses occurs. A basic specification
R λ = 0.50A / W of a multimode fibers contains the core diameter and
P = 12µW outer diameter of a multimode fiber.
66. Modern day optical fibers have losses of the Ans. (b) : The fiber splice is a permanent joint between
order of 2 fibers. There are two type of fiber splicing -
(a) 10 dB/km (b) 1 dB/km (i) Mechanical Splicing
(c) 20 dB/km (d) 100 dB/km (ii) Fusion Splicing
73. When the mean optical power launched into an
Ans. (b) : An optical fiber is a flexible transparent fiber 8 km length of fiber is 120 µW. The mean
made by drawing glass or plastic to diameter slightly
optical power at the fiber output is 3 µW. Find
thicker that of human hair. Modern day optical fiber
the signal attenuation
have losses of order of 1dB/km.
(a) 10 log10 25 (b) 10 log10 40
67. Sensitivity of optical receivers is measured in
(c) 20 log10 40 (d) 20 log10 25
(a) W/A (watt per ampere)
(b) A/W (ampere/watt) TNPSC AE-2014
(c) WA (watt ampere) Ans. (b) : Given-
(d) W (watt) input power = 120 µW, output power = 3µW,
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 length of an optical fiber = 8 km
Ans. (b) : Sensitivity of optical receivers is measured in The overall signal attenuation in decibel through the
A/W (ampere/Watt). P 120 µW
68. Copper-network can be converted to fibre fiber is (dB) = 10 log10 in = 10 log10
Pout 3 µW
optics by using
(a) fibre hubs (b) media converters = 10 log10 40
(c) patch panel (d) rewiring 74. What type of wiring does ISDN use?
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011 (a) Coaxial cable (b) Twisted pair
Ans. (b) : Copper-network can be converted to fibre (c) Solenoid (d) Thin wire
optics by using media converters. As premises networks TNPSC AE-2014
are primarily copper based media converters can extend Ans. (b) : ISDN use twisted pair wiring. This wiring is
the reach of the LAN over single mode fiber up to 160 called unshielded twisted pair or UTP.
km with 1550 nm optics. ISDN is now available to homes and small businesses in
69. Dispersion in an optical fibre used in a many areas because, unlike some other new services
communication link is of which type? that require installation of expensive fiber optic lines.
(a) Angular Dispersion
(b) Modal Dispersion 75. The local loop is
(c) Chromatic Dispersion (a) An antenna used for telephone
(d) Dispersion arising due to structural communications
irregularities in the fibre (b) The connection between telephone subscriber
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011 and central office
Ans. (b) : In a communication link, dispersion in (c) A cell site
optical fiber includes model dispersion, material (d) A ring network used to connect users to the
dispersion and waveguide dispersion. telephone office
70. Insertion of a record in a linked list involves TNPSC AE-2014
the modification of Ans. (b) : A local loop is wired connection from a
(a) 4 pointer (b) 3 pointer telephone company's central office. The system was
(c) 2 pointer (d) 1 pointer originally designed for voice transmission only using
UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011 analog transmission technology on a single voice channel.
Ans. (c) : For insertion /deletion of a record in 76. The least attenuation of standard single mode
circularly linked list involves 2 pointer but for reverse optical fibers are at
the linked list, it involves 3 pointer. (a) 1310 nm (b) 810 nm
71. Generally, the SM fiber will have a core (c) 1500 and 1300 nm (d) 1550 nm
diameter of TNPSC AE-2014
(a) 10 µm (b) 30 µm
Ans. (d) : At 1550 nm the attenuation of any standard
(c) 50–100 µm (d) 50-200 µm single mode optical fiber is minimum (0.2 dB/km).
TNPSC AE-2014 Least attenuation means the distance between repeater
Ans. (a) : The TTU-TG 652 fiber, also known as and optical amplifier is large.
standard single mode fiber, is the most commonly
77. The typical core dimensions of single mode
deployed fiber in optical communication systems. This
step-index fiber is
fiber has a simplex step-index structure with a 10-µm
(a) 125-140 µm (b) 8-50 µm
core diameter and a 125 µm cladding diameter.
(c) 8-12 µm (d) 50-200 µm
72. The fiber splice is a ___________ joint between
2 fibers. TNPSC AE-2014
(a) Temporary (b) Permanent Ans. (c) : A typical single-mode optical fiber has a core
(c) Demountable (d) Alignment diameter between 8 and 10.5 µm and a cladding
TNPSC AE-2014 diameter of 125 µm.
78. For a silica fiber the refractive index of core 83. Multimode graded index fibers are
layer is 1.56 and that of cladding is 1.35. manufactured from materials with
Calculate numerical aperture (a) Lower purity
(a) 0.78 (b) 7.8 (b) Higher purity than multimode step index
(c) 0.078 (d) 78 fibers
TNPSC AE-2014 (c) No impurity
Ans. (a) : Given - (d) Impurity as same as multimode step index
n1 = 1.56 fibers
n2 = 1.35 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Multimode grade index fibers are
Numerical aperture ( N.A.) = ( n1 ) – ( n 2 )
2 2
manufactured from material with higher purity than
multimode step index fibers. The diameter of core in
(
= (1.56 ) − (1.35 )
2
)2
multimode graded index fiber is (50 to 100)
micrometer.
= 0.61 84. Multimode graded index fibers have overall
= 0.78 buffer jackets same as multimode step index
79. The sources for fibre optical communication is fibers but have core diameters
(a) LED (b) Laser (a) Larger than multimode step index fibers
(c) Photo diode (d) Both (a) and (b) (b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers
TNPSC AE-2013 (c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers
(d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers
Ans. (d) : LED and lasers are the source of optical fiber
communication but laser produce a single wave length
while LED emits a gaussian like distribution of wave Ans. (b) : Multimode graded index fibers have smaller
length. core diameter than multimode step index fibers. A small
core diameter helps the fiber gain greater rigidity to
80. Splice is resist bending.
(a) a non-permanent connection of two fibers
85. In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index
(b) a non-separable junction of two fibers profile is
(c) a process of cutting a fibre at the ends (a) Step index (b) Graded index
(d) none of these (c) Step and graded index (d) Coaxial cable
TNPSC AE-2013 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Splice is a non-separable junction of two Ans. (b) : In single mode fibers, graded index profile is
fibers. In telecommunications, a line splice is a method more beneficial as compared to step index. This is
of connecting electrical cables or optical fibers. because graded index profile provides dispersion
81. Not an example for actuator modified single mode fibers.
(a) Optical fiber 86. Single mode fibers allow single mode
(b) Shape memory alloys propagation; the cladding diameter must be at
(c) Magneto-strictive materials least
(d) Electro-/Magneto-rheological fluids (a) Twice the core diameter
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I (b) Thrice the core diameter
Ans. (a) : An actuator is a part of a device or machine (c) Five times the core diameter
that the helps it to achieve physical movements by (d) Ten times the core diameter
converting energy, often electrical, air or hydraulic, Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
into mechanical force. Ans. (d) : The cladding diameter in single mode fiber
82. Multimode step index fiber has must be ten times the core diameter. Large ratio
(a) Large core diameter & large numerical contribute to accurate propagation of light.
aperture 87. In an optical fiber communication system,
(b) Large core diameter and small numerical which among the following is not a typical
aperture transmitter function?
(c) Small core diameter and large numerical (a) Coding for error protection
aperture (b) Decoding of input data
(d) Small core diameter & small numerical (c) Electrical to optical conversion
aperture (d) Recoding to match output standard
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2017, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Multimode step-index fiber has large core Ans. (d) : The working principle of optical fibers is
diameter and large numerical aperture. These total internal reflection. Each fiber consists of a core
parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light and cladding. The refractive index of the material of the
sources such as LED's. core (µ1) is higher than that of the cladding (µ2).
88. Light may be propagated along a fiber-optic Ans. (d) : Given,
cable in which of the following modes? 0.35
(a) multimode step index Bandwidth =
(b) single-mode step index t rise
(c) multimode graded index 0.35
t rise =
(d) all of these B⋅ W
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III 0.35
Ans. (d) : Light may be propagates along a fiber-optic t rise =
500MHz
cable in multimode step index, single - mode step index trise = 700 pico-sec
and multimode grade index.
92. Total internal reflection at the fibre wall can
89. An optical link uses a fiber having a power loss occur only if two conditions are met. One of the
of 1 dB/km. A typical photo detector has condition is the glass inside the fibre core must
responsivity 0.5 A/W. If the link is 3 km long have a/an_____ index of refraction than/as the
and the detector is required to produce a index of refraction of the material surrounding
current of 25 µA, the required transmitted the fibre core.
power is (a) equal (b) slightly higher
(a) 0 dBm (b) –10 dBm (c) slightly smaller (d) slightly sharper
(c) –30 dBm (d) –50 dBm DMRC AM S&T-2020
BSNL(JTO)-2009 Ans. (b) : The refractive index of the core material
Ans. (b) : Given as: (1.50) is slightly greater than the cladding material
Power loss = 1 dB/km (1.48). The angle of incidence is always larger than the
Responsivity (R) = 0.5A/W critical angle of the core material with respect to its
L = 3 km cladding.
So, loss for L = 3 93. What is the device used for measuring the
Power loss = 1 ×3 = 3dB power in an optical signal?
(a) Optical multi-analyte meter
I = 25µA
(b) Optical spectrometer
I 25 ×10−6 (c) Optical power meter
∴P = =
R 0.5 (d) Optical fiber length meter
P = 50 ×10–6 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
So, PT = 2×50×10–6 Ans. (c) : An optical power meter (OPM) is a device
PT = 10–4 used to measure the power in an optical signal. The
PT = –10 dBm typical optical power meter consist of a calibrated
90. The normalized frequency of a step index fiber sensor measuring amplifier and display.
is 28 at 1300 nm wavelength. What is the total 94. Maximum data rate of a channel for a noiseless
number (approx) of guided modes that can be 2-kHz binary channel is-
supported by the fiber (a) 2000 bps (b) 1000 bps
(a) 50 (b) 200 (c) 4000 bps (d) 3000 bps
(c) 400 (d) 800 RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
Sikkim PSC SI (Main)-2018 Ans. (c) : Given- Bandwidth B = 2kHz
RPSC Vice Principal ITI-2016 Number of levels (L) = 2 (as it is binary)
Ans. (c) : Given - Maximum data rate = 2Blog2(L)
Normalized frequency V = 28 = 2×2×103log2(2)
= 4000bps
λ = 1300 nm
95. In an optical fiber, dispersion :
No. of modes for step index fiber- (a) Decreases with the bandwidth of light source.
V2 V2 (b) Increases with the bandwidth of light source.
= ( for graded index fiber)
2 4 (c) is independent of light source.
(d) Proportional to intensity of light source.
( 28 )
2
784
= = = 392 MPSC HOD Govt. Poly. -2013
2 2 Ans. (a) : Dispersion is the spreading out of a light
≃ 400 pulse. It decreases the bandwidth so the information
91. The bandwidth of the optical signal having a carrying capacity also decreases.
rise time (response time) tr is 500MHz. Find the 96. A multimode step index fiber with a core
value of rise time. diameter of 80 µm and a relative index
(a) 750pico-sec (b) 900pico-sec difference of 1.5% is operating at a wavelength
(c) 800pico-sec (d) 700pico-sec of 0.85 µm . If the core refractive index is 1.48,
UPPCL AE-05.11.2019 then the normalized frequency for the fiber is
(a) 37.9 (b) 75.8 Ans. (a) : Light is diffracted because of impurity in all
(c) 151.6 (d) 303.2 direction. So here loss present is called Rayleigh
ESE-2021 scattering loss.
Ans. (b) : Given - 100. Numerical aperture is closely related to
Step index fiber (2a) = 80µm acceptance angle and is the figure of merit
Core radius (a) = 40µm commonly used to measure
Relative index difference (∆) = 1.5% (a) the sine of the maximum angle
(b) the magnitude of the acceptance angle
∆ = 0.015
(c) the maximum angle of light ray
Wavelength = 0.85µm
(d) the intensity of light ray entering the cable
Core refractive index n1 = 1.48
ESE-2022
n − n2
∆= 1 Ans. (b) : Numerical aperture is closely related to
n1 acceptance angle and is the figure of merit commonly
1.48 − n 2 used to measure, the magnitude of acceptance angle.
0.015 = 101. A digital optical fiber communication system
1.48
operating at a wavelength of 1µm requires a
1.48 –n2 = 0.0222 maximum bit error rate of 10–9. What is the
n2 = 1.48 – 0.0222 theoretical quantum limit at the receiver in
n2 = 1.4578 terms of the quantum efficiency of the detector
Numerical aperture (NA) = n12 − n 22 and the energy of an incident photon?
20.7hf 10.7hf
(a) (b)
(1.48 ) − (1.45 )
2 2
= = 0.255 η η
2π × a 2 × 3.14 × 40 ×10−6 20.7η 10.7η
V= × NA = × 0.255 (c) (d)
λ 0.85 × 10−6 hf hf
ESE-2022
75.36 ≃ 75.8
Ans. (a) : Given -
97. Which one of the following fibers has the
distinct advantage of low intermodal λ = 1 µm
dispersion? Error Rate = 10–9
(a) Multimode step-index fiber P (e) P (ePe× P (Zm))= 10–9
(b) Single-mode step-index fiber ηp τ
(c) Graded-index multimode fiber Zm = 0
h×f
(d) Spatially incoherent multimode fiber Zm = 20.7
ESE-2022
Z ×h×f
Ans. (b) : Low intermodal dispersion is the advantage Emin = P 0τ = m
of single mode step index fiber. η
98. Which one of the following is the ratio of power 20.7 × hf
Emin =
lost per unit length to the twice of power η
transmitted? 102. Fibers have numerical aperture (N.A.) in the
(a) Attenuation factor region of 0.15 to 0.4, Fibers with higher N.A.,
(b) Power efficiency values generally exhibit
(c) Quality factor (a) Reduced losses
(d) Transmission efficiency (b) High bandwidth
ESE-2022 (c) Reduced losses and low bandwidth
Ans. (a) : The formula of attenuation factor is given by (d) Greater losses and low bandwidth
P TANGEDCO- 2015
αg = L
2Ptr Ans. (c) :
Where PL = Power lost per unit length
Ptr = Power Transmitted.
99. Some of the diffracted light continues down the
fiber and some of it escapes through the
cladding. The light rays that escape represent a
loss in light power which is called
(a) Rayleigh scattering loss Fibers having numerical aperture (N.A.) in the region of
(b) chromic distortion loss 0.15 to 0.4, Fibers with higher N.A. values generally
(c) chromatic distortion loss exhibit reduced losses and low bandwidth.
(d) predominant fiber loss NA = ( n1 ) − ( n 2 )
2 2
ESE-2022
103. The modal dispersion in a fiber is 20ns/km.
What will be the overall pulse spread in 10 km
long fiber? Assume material dispersion to be
zero Where,
(a) 50 ns (b) 100 ns µ1 = Refractive index of core
(c) 200 ns (d) 300 ns µ2 = Refractive index of cladding.
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 for total internal reflection to occur
Ans. (c) : Given -
µ1 > µ 2
Fiber distance = 10 km
Model dispersion distance = 20 ns/km 107. Refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the
Material distance = zero (0) wavelength of a beam of light with a frequency
∴ The overall pulse spread in 10 km long fiber will be - of 1014 Hz in glass? Assume velocity of light in
= ( 20 ns / km ) × (10 km ) = 200 ns vacuum to be 3x 108 m/sec.
(a) 3 µm (b) 3 mm
104. Which optical detector is used when high (c) 2 µm (d) 1 µm
sensitivity and bandwidth are required? GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
(a) PMT (b) APD
Ans. (c) : Given-
(c) PIN (d) Phototransistor
14 8
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 µ = 1.5 f = 10 Hz V = 3 × 10 m / sec
Ans. (a) : Photomultiplier tube (PMT) is an optical c c
detector light-sensitive device that convert light energy µ = o ⇒ cµ = o
cµ µ
in to electrical energy.
Ability of PMT is measure relatively small amounts of 3 ×108
electromagnetic radiation. cµ = = 2 ×108
1.5
105. A step index fibre has core diameter 40 µm cµ 2 × 108
with core refractive indix of 1.3 and numerical λ= = = 2µm
aperture 0.5, then the refractive index of f 1014
cladding is 108. If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.1 reflected off an optically denser medium with
(c) 0.9 (d) 0.8 high refractive index, then it is regarded
TSTRANSCO AE- 2018 as_____
(a) External Reflection (b) Internal Reflection
Ans. (a) : Given-
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
NA = 6.5
n1 = 1.3
Ans. (a) : If a light travels in a certain medium and it
NA = n12 − n 22 gets reflected off an optically denser medium with high
refractive index, then it is regarded as external
0.5 = (1.3) 2 − n 22 reflection.
0.25 = 1.69 – n 22 109. The working of an optical fiber is bases on
(a) Dispersion of light
n 22 = 1.44 (b) Total internal reflection
n 2 = 1.2 (c) Polarisation of light
(d) Diffraction of light
106. An optical fibre has refractive index core
RRB SSE-03.09.2015, Shift-III
(a) high and low refractive index cladding
Ans. (b) : The working of an optical fiber is bases on
(b) low and high refractive index cladding
total internal reflection. Use of optical fiber light signals
(c) uniform surrounded by variable index can be transmitted from one place to another place
cladding without loss of energy.
(d) variable with refractive index increases from
low at the centre to high at the junction with 110. An optical fiber cable laid underground has
cladding developed a discontinuity at a distance d from
the source end. The fault can be located using
TANGEDCO AE-2015
the instrument
IES-2013, 1994 (a) Optical spectrum Analyzer (OSA)
Ans. (a) : (b) Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
• The core is the light-carrying portion of the fiber. (c) Optical Power Meter (OPM)
• The cladding surrounds the core optical fiber based (d) Laser Diffractometer (LD)
on principle of total Internal reflection. BSNL (JTO)-2006
Ans. (b) : An optical fiber cable laid underground has 115. The Dispersion Shifted fiber is normally
developed a discontinuity at a distance 'd' from the designed to have zero chromatic dispersion at
source end. The fault can be located using the (a) 850 nm (b) 1300 nm
instrument optical time domain reflectometer. (c) 1480 nm (d) 1550 nm
111. Non-linear Cross Phase Modulation (XPM) TANGEDCO- 2015
occurs due to Ans. (d) : The dispersion shifted fiber is normally designed
(a) Difference in transmission phase of peak to have zero chromatic dispersion at 1550 nm. The
pulse & leading or trailing edges of pulse
wavelength at which the chromatic dispersion becomes zero
(b) Third-order optical non-linearity is known as zero chromatic dispersion wavelength.
(c) Intensity dependence of refractive index
(d) Change in wavelength 116. In an optical fibre, if the total internal
reflection takes place, which of the following
conditions have to be satisfied?
Ans. (c) : Cross-Phase modulation (XPM) is another
effect originated from the non-linear refractive index. n 
(a) n2 > n1 and φ1 > cos−1  2 
The process of XPM-An intensity modulated strong
 n1 
optical carrier propagation along an optical fiber
modulates the refractive index of the fiber. n 
(b) n 2 < n1 and φ1 > cos −1  2 
112. The response time of photodiode depends on
 n1 
(a) Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the
depletion region n 
(b) Diffusion time of photo carriers within the (c) n1 < n 2 and φ1 < cos−1  2 
depletion region  n1 
(c) RC time constant n 
(d) All of the above (d) n1 > n 2 and φ1 > cos −1  2 
 n1 
OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : The response time of a photo detector with its
output circuit depends mainly on the three factor- Ans. (b) : For total internal reflection -
The transit time n 
n 2 < n1 and cosφ >  2  and
W  n1 
td =
Vd
n 
depends on the carrier drift velocity and the depletion φ > cos−1  2 
layer width W,  n1 
Diffusion time of photo carriers outside depletion
region. 117. An optical fibre has a reflective index of 1.641
RC time constant of the circuit for the core and 1.422 for the cladding. The
critical angle above which the ray will be
1
B= totally internally reflected is :
2πR T CT (a) 37º (b) 41º
113. Which band specifies the operation range of (c) 45º (d) 60º
Erbium doped fiber amplifier (EDFA)? OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-II
(a) by O band (b) By C band
n 
(c) By S band (d) By Ku band Ans. (d) : φ = sin −1  1 
Nagaland PSC (CTSE) Diploma-2017, Paper II  n2 
Ans. (b) : EDFA is an optical amplifier used in the C-band  1.422 
and L-band, where loss of telecom optical fibers becomes φ = sin −1  
lowest in the entire optical telecommunication bands.  1.641 
114. In the SONET, form the Synchronous Transport φ = 60º
Signal (STS), Optional Carrier (OC) is obtained 118. Attenuation of a narrow monochromatic X -
(a) after scrambling and optical electrical ray beam in a metal plate of thickness d is
conversion given by :
(b) after electrical to optical conversion
(a) I = I0 e −µd
2
(c) after optical to electrical conversion (b) I = I0 e −µd
(d) after scrambling and electrical to optical µ µ2
conversion − −
(c) I = i0 e d (d) I = i0 e d2
TNPSC AE - 2018
Ans. (d) : In the SONET, from the synchronous transport OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-II
signal (STS), optical carier (OC) is obtained after Ans. (a) : I = I0 ⋅ e −µd
scrambling and electrical to optical conversion. A SONET
is a communication protocol developed by Belleore. I0 = Initial intensity
(v) TV, Audio and Video 5. Luminance signal is expressed by
(a) Y = R + G + B
1. In commercial TV transmission in India, video (b) R = 0.33R + 0.33G + 0.33B
and voice signals are modulated respectively as, (c) Y = 0.3 R + 0.59 G + 0.11 B
(a) VSB and VSB (b) VSB and SSB (d) Y = 0.59 R + 0.11 G + 0.3 B
(c) VSB and FM (d) FM and VSB Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 TNPSC AE-2014
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III Ans. (c) : The luminance signal can be obtained by
Nagaland PSC (Degree), 2018, Paper- II adding together the signal representing the three
TANGEDCO AE- 2018 primaries colour R, G and B.
AAI-2015 Y = 0.30R + 0.59G + 0.11B
TNPSC AE-2013 Red = 30%, Green = 59%, Blue = 11%
Ans. (c) : Vestigial side band modulation is used for 6. The sound signal, in a T.V. broadcast, is
video modulation in TV transmission, and frequency modulated in
modulation is used for audio transmission. (a) AM (b) VSB
• Spectrum of a vestigial sideband is as shown. (c) FM (d) SSB
IES-1995
Ans. (c) : For TV Broadcasting we use frequency
modulation (FM) for Audio signal and Amplitude
modulation (AM) for video transmission.
7. The actual frequency response of human ear is
represented on
(a) Logarithmeic paper
2. The aperture effect in the flat top pulses are (b) Semilogrithmic paper
reduced by using : (c) Linear graph paper
(a) Predictor (b) Integrator (d) Decibel chart
(c) Equalizer (d) Compander Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
APPSC Poly. Lect. 15.03.2020 Ans. (d) : The actual frequency response of human ear
Ans. (c) : By using equalizer, the aperture effect in flat is represented on decibel chart.
top pulses is reduced. The human ear as a dynamic range from 0dB
3. Horizontal blanking period in 625 B TV system (threshold) to 120 - 130 dB.
is 8. 10 Watts RF power is transmitted with a
(a) 12 µS (b) 64 µS circular polarized antenna having gain of
(c) 4.7 µS (d) 1280 µS 10dB. A receiving antenna has vertical
UPPSC ITI Principal/Asstt. Director-09.01.2022 polarization. The path loss is 100 dB. The
Ans. (b) : Horizontal blanking period in 625 B TV receiving signal is
system is 64 µ sec. (a) -83 dBW (b) -80 dBW
(c) -86 dBW (d) + 80 dBW
4. The horizontal output stage of a certain TV
receiver supplies 1 A peak to peak scanning ISRO Scientist Engg.-2006
signal. As summing a flyback time of 5 µsec, Ans. (b) : The receiving signal:-
the inductance required to generate 3 kV is Pr = Pt Gt – Lpath
(a) 15 µH (b) 10 mH Pr (dB) = 10 log (pt) +10 log (Gt) – 10 log Lpath
(c) 15 mH (d) 10 H = 10 dB + 10dB – 100 dB
Nagaland PSC- 2018, Diploma Paper-II Pr (dB) = –80 dBW
di 9. A 1 mW video signal having a bandwidth of
Ans. (c) : e = L ⋅ 100 MHz is transmitted to a receiver through a
dt
cable that has 40 dB loss. If the effective one-
dt
L=e sided noise spectral density at the receiver is
di 10–20 Watt/Hz, then the signal-to-noise ratio at
5 × 10−6 the receiver is
L = 3 ×103 × (a) 50dB (b) 30dB
1
−3 (c) 40dB (d) 60dB
L = 15 × 10 ⇒ L = 15mH
Ans.(a) : Given, 12. FM radio broadcasting takes place in the
Bandwidth (BW) = 100 MHz = 100×106 Hz frequency band of
Pt = 1mWatt = 1×10–3 Watt (a) 88-108 MHz (b) 95-97 MHz
N0 = 10–20 W/Hz (c) 10-20 MHz (d) 100-200 MHz
Pt
SNR (tr ) = Ans. (a) : A frequency band is an interval in the
N0 × B frequency domain delimited by a lower frequency and
10−3 an upper frequency. FM radio broadcasting takes place
= −2 in the frequency band of 88-108 MHz.
10 × 100 × 106
= 10–9 13. The audio frequency range is
SNR(tr) (In dB) = –10 log1010–9 (a) 5Hz–1KHz (b) 50Hz–20KHz
= 90 dB (c) 16Hz–20KHz (d) 0Hz–020KHz
If loss is 40 dB, So the (S/N) at receiver is Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
= 90dB–40dB Ans. (c) : The audio frequency range is 20Hz to 20kHz.
= 50 dB 14. UHF range is
10. A video camera generates data at a rate of 5 (a) 30MHz–300MHz
Mbps. The data is channel coded at rate 1/3 (b) 50MHz–20MHz
and 8 PSK modulated. Which of the following (c) 3000MHz–30,000MHz
statements is correct? (d) above 30,000MHz
(a) Information rate: 15 Mbps; Symbol rate: 5 Msps Mizoram PSC AE/SDO-2012 Paper-III
(b) Information rate: 5 Mbps; Symbol rate: 15 Msps Ans. (*) : UHF range is 300 MHz - 3 GHz
(c) Information rate: 15 Mbps; Symbol rate: 15 Designation Abbreviation Frequencies
Msps
Very low VLF 3 kHz-30 kHz
(d) Information rate: 5 Mbps; Symbol rate: 5 Msps
frequency
Low frequency LF 30 kHz-300
Data rate kHz
Ans. (a) : • Information Rate (R) =
Code rate Medium MF 300 kHz-
Inforamation rate frequency 3MHz
Symbol rate =
log 2 m High frequency HF 3MHz-30 MHz
where m = Number of level. Very high VHF 30 MHz-
Given, frequency 300MHz
Data rate = 5 Mbps Ultra high UHF 300MHz-
Code rate = 1/3, frequency 3GHz
Number of level (m) = 8 Super high SHF 3GHz-30GHz
Data rate frequency
• Information Rate (R) = Extremely High EHF 30 GHz-
Code rate
frequency 300GHz
5Mbps
= = 15 Mbps 15. Interlacing is used in television to
1/ 3 (a) produce the illusion of motion
15Mbps (b) ensure that all the lines on the screen are
• Symbol rate =
log 2 8 scanned, not merely the alternate ones
15Mbps 15 15 (c) simplify vertical pulse train
= = = = 5 Mbps (d) avoid flicker
log 2 23 3log 2 2 3
11. The image (second) channel selectivity of a Ans. (d) : Interlacing is used for doubling the perceived
superheterodyne communication receiver is from rate of a video display without consuming the
determined by extra bandwidth.
(a) Antenna and pre-selector It is mostly used in television to avoid flicker.
(b) The pre-selector and RF amplifier 16. The standard voice frequency band is
(c) The pre-selector and IF amplifier (a) 300 Hz- 3400 Hz (b) 3 KHz-30 KHz
(d) The RF and IF amplifier (c) 20Hz-20 KHz (d) 30 Hz-3000Hz
GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017 Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III
Ans. (b) : The image (second) channel selectivity of a CGPSC SO 14.03.2016
super-heterodyne Communication receiver is Ans. (a) : In telephone, the usable frequency range from
determined by the pre-selector and RF amplifier. 300 Hz to 3400 Hz.
17. Microwave links are generally preferred over 22. Video Bandwidth is
coaxial cable for TV transmissions because: (a) Rh/2t (b) Rh × 2t
1. of low overall phase distortion (c) 2t/Rh (d) 2Rh/t
2. of less number of repeater stations for a given TNPSC AE-2014
distance Ans. (a) : Video bandwidth–
3. it is unattended When used in the context of video streaming,
4. of relative immunity to impulse noise bandwidth defines the volume information per unit of
Which of the above reasons are correct? time that a transmission medium, like an internet
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only connection, can handle.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only R
UPSC JWM-2016 Video Bandwidth = h
2t
Ans. (b) : Microwave link are generally preferred over
23. Telephone traffic is measured
coaxial cable for TV transmission because of low
overall phase distortion, of less number of repeater (a) with echo cancellers
stations for a given distance and it is unattended. (b) by relative congestion
(c) in terms of the grade of service
18. In TV 4 : 3 represents the
(d) in erlangs
(a) interlace ratio
TNPSC AE-2014
(b) maximum horizontal deflection
(c) aspect ratio Ans. (d) : The erlang (E) is a dimensionless unit that is
(d) ratio of the two diagonals used in telephony as a measure of offered load or
carried load on service-providing elements such as
telephone circuits or telephone switching equipments. A
Ans. (c) : In TV 4 : 3 represent the aspect ratio. The single cord circuit has the capacity to be used for 60
aspect ratio is the ratio between the width and the height minutes in one hour.
of display, it defines it's overall shape.
24. An audio signal ranging from dc to 20 kHz
19. The function of chroma section in the TV could be reconstructed by taking uniformly
receiver tube is to spaced samples at a rate of
(a) Combine electron beam (a) 40,000 samples/second
(b) Separate electron beam (b) 20,000 samples/second
(c) Combine colours (c) 10,000 samples/second
(d) Separate colours (d) 4,000 samples/second
Ans. (d) : Chrominance (chroma or c for short) is the Ans. (a) : The Nyquist rate of sampling represents the
signal used in video system to convey the colour minimum rate sampling so that the original signal can
information of the picture, separately from the be recovered from its sampled version.
accompanying luma signal.
fs(min) = fs(Nyquist) = 2fm sample/sec.
20. In television pictures an effective rate of ______ = 2 × 20,000
vertical scans per second is utilized to reduce = 40,000 samples/second
flicker.
(a) 500 (b) 5 25. After the mixer stage in a transmitters the beat
frequency of video signal and audio signal
(c) 50 (d) 5000
respectively is
TNPSC AE-2014 (a) 38.9 MHz, 33.4 MHz
Ans. (c) : In Television pictures an effective rate of 50 (b) 33.4 MHz, 38.9 MHz
vertical scans per second is utilized to reduced flicker. (c) 38.9 MHz for both
This is accomplished by increasing the downward rate
(d) 33.4 MHz for both
of travel of the scanning electron beam, so that every
alternate line gate scanned instead of every successive TNPSC AE-2014
line. Ans. (a) : After the mixer stage in a transmitters the
21. In TV, if the picture is very slow to appear and beat frequency of video signal and audio signal
the picture tube may be gassy (its cathode respectively is 38.9 MHz, 33.4 MHz.
emission very low) 26. The bandwidth of a channel in a TV system is
(a) No brightness (b) Low brightness (a) 5 MHz (b) 6 MHz
(c) Excessive brightness (d) Average brightness (c) 7 MHz (d) 8 MHz
Ans. (b) : Low brightness–If the picture is very slow to Ans. (c) : A typical TV signal requires 4MHz of
appear after the set is turned on and it is weak with a bandwidth. With adding sound, something called a
very poor contrast then the picture tube must be gassy vestigial sideband and a little buffer space, a TV signal
or its cathode emission may be too low. requires 7 MHz of bandwidth for transmission.
27. Which one of the following photosensitive (c) Deflection tube
device is used in the motion picture industry as (d) tuners
sound-on-film sensors? TNPSC AE-2013
(a) gas-type photo tube Ans. (a) : In TV, the colour image are converted into
(b) multiplier photo tube video signals by picture tube. The TV signal is carried
(c) photo conductive cell by wire to an antenna which is high mounting.
(d) photo voltaic cell 31. How the colour picture tubes are classified?
TNPSC AE-2013 (a) According to gun configuration and phosphor
Ans. (a) : Gas type photo tube is a photo sensitive arrangement
device that is used in the motion picture industry as (b) According to phosphor arrangement
sound on film sensors. A photo tube or photo electric
(c) According to gun configuration
cell is a type of gas filled or vacuum tube that is
sensitive to light. (d) According to deflection coils
TNPSC AE-2013
28. According to CCIR standards, the television
screen is blanked out Ans. (a) : The colour picture tube are classified
(a) 25 times in one second according to gun configuration and phosphor
(b) 50 times in one second arrangement. A colour picture tube has three electron
guns in one picture tube.
(c) 15,625 times in one second
(d) 60 times in one second 32. Fine tuning control in television receiver is
TNPSC AE-2013 (a) a preset inductance
Ans. (b) : According to CCIR standard, the TV screen (b) a potentiometer
is blanked out 50 times in one second. CCIR (c) a variable condenser
(consultative committee for international radio) is a (d) none of these
standard body responsible for many audio and video TNPSC AE-2013
standards. Ans. (c) : Fine tuning control in television receiver is a
29. Match List - I correctly with List - II and select variable condenser. A variable condenser provide a
your answer using the codes given below : variable frequency for broadcasting.
List - I List - II 33. The phosphor type number used in tricolour
(a) Delta gun colour (1) avoids flicker picture tube is
picture tube (a) P1 (b) P4
(b) Interlacing (2) three colour dots (c) P22 (d) P31
arranged in groups TNPSC AE-2013
(c) Precision in line (3) reduces bandwidth Ans. (c) : The phosphor type number used in tricolour
picture tube picture tube is P22. There are three colour of beam for
(d) Vestigial side band (4) three colour dots Red, Green & Blue.
arranged in vertical 34. Which type of speaker is used in telephone
strip receivers ?
Codes : (a) Tweeter type (b) Moving coil type
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Coaxial type (d) Fixed coil type
(a) 3 1 4 2 TNPSC AE-2013
(b) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (d) : Fixed coil type speaker is used in telephone
(c) 2 3 4 1 receiver. In modern mobile phone have two speaker,
(d) 4 3 2 1 one skill called a receiver and second called
TNPSC AE-2013 reinforcement.
Ans. (b) : 35. The ratio of the width to the height of the
1- Delta gun colour picture tube has three colour dots picture frame is called as
arranged in groups. (a) Rastar (b) Aspect Ratio
2- Interlacing is mostly used in Television to avoids (c) Length Ratio (d) Efficiency
flicker. RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016
3- Precision in line picture tube has three colour dots
Ans. (b) : Aspect Ratio can be defined as the ratio of
arranged in vertical strip.
width to height of the picture frame. For television, it is
4- Vestigial side band reduces the bandwidth.
standard as 4:3.
30. How the signals are generated in TV ?
36. The ratio of the tangential component of the
(a) Colour images are converted into video electric field at the surface of conductor and
signals by picture tube the linear current density which flows as a
(b) Camera tube result of this electric field, is known as
(a) Surface impedance 42. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(b) Trans-conductance answer using the codes given below the list :
(c) Reflection coefficient List I List II
(d) Refraction coefficient A. Television 1. Either AM or FM
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Diploma)-2018, Paper-I used
Ans. (a) : The ratio of tangential component of the B. Radio 2. Both AM and FM
electric field at the surface of conductor and the linear
are used
current density which flows as a result of this electric
field is known as surface impedance. C. Radar 3. PCM is used
37. A television (TV) transmission is an example of D. Data communication 4. Digital system
which type of transmission? A B C D
(a) Simplex (b) Half duplex (a) 4 3 1 2
(c) Full duplex (d) None of these (b) 2 1 3 4
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III (c) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (a) : A TV transmission is an example of simplex (d) 2 3 1 4
(Broadcasting) mode of transmission.
Simplex – Simplex is communication mode in which
only one signal is transmitted and it always goes in the Ans. (b) :
same direction. List I List II
38. A telephone channel has bandwidth B of 3 kHz A. Television – Both AM and FM used
and SNR of 30 dB. It is connected to a teletype B. Radio – Either AM or FM
machine having 32 different symbols. The
C. Radar – PCM is used
symbol rate required for errorless transmission
is nearly D. Data communication – Digital system
(a) 1800 symbols/sec (b) 3000 symbols/sec 43. Neutralizing capacitors are normally used in
(c) 5000 symbols/sec (d) 6000 symbols/sec (a) Audio amplifiers
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2010, Paper-II (b) Video amplifiers
Ans. (d) : fm = 3KHz = 3000 Hz (c) RF and IF amplifiers
fs = 2fm (d) Operational amplifiers
fs = 2 × 3000
f s = 6000symbols / sec
Ans. (c) : Neutralizing capacitors are normally used in
39. Picture information in TV signals is RF and IF amplifiers.
transmitted by 44. In Indian TV, video signal colour standard
(a) AM (b) FM used is :
(c) PAM (d) PCM
(a) VHS (b) SECAM
RPCS Lect.-2011
(c) PAL (d) NTSC
Ans. (a) : In Television transmitters–
Picture and transmission uses amplitude modulation. BSNL(JTO)-2002
The distortion which axis due to interference between Ans. (c) : The television transmission standard in India
multiple signals is more in FM than AM because the PAL - B.
frequency of the FM signal continuously changes.
Also the circuit complexity and bandwidth
requirement are much less in AM than in FM.
40. The colour TV system to be adopted in India is
(a) NTSC (b) SECAM
(c) PAL-B (d) CCIR
RPCS Lect.-2011
Ans. (c) : Phase alternating line is a encoding system
for analog television used in broadcast television system
has been most widely adopted in India.
41. The number of frames per seconds in our TV 45. The speed of an audio cassette tape in a
system is cassette player is 5cm/sec. If the maximum
(a) 50 (b) 24 frequency that needs to be recorded is 20 kHz,
(c) 25 (d) 30 the minimum spatial wavelength on the tape is
RPCS Lect.-2011 (a) 40 µm (b) 25 µm
Ans. (c) : The Number of frames per second in TV (c) 4 µm (d) 2.5 µm
system in India is 25. BSNL (JTO)-2006
Ans. (d) : 50. A display screen consists of 2 × 106 picture
Given, elements and 16 brightness levels. The frames
speed = 5 cm/sec = 5×10–2 m/sec are repeated at the rate of 32 per second. All
picture elements are assumed to be
frequency = 20×103 Hz independent and all levels have equal likelihood
Minimum spatial wavelength of occurrence. The average rate of information
speed conveyed by this display screen source is
λ=
maximum frequency (a) 256 Mb/s (b) 128 Mb/s
(c) 64 Mb/s (d) 32 Mb/s
5 ×10 –2
= = 2.5×10–6 m RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
20 × 103 16
1 1
= 2.5 µm Ans. (a) : H ( x ) = −∑ log 2
i =1 16 16
46. How many 6 MHz wide TV channels can be
multiplexed on 800 MHz coaxial cable? = 4b/element
(a) 96 (b) 266 r = 2 (106 ) ( 32 )
(c) 133 (d) 48
ESE-2022 r = 64 × 106 elements / s
Hence, we have
Bandwidth
Ans. (c) : Total channel = R = rH(x)
channel width
R = 64 × 106 × 4
800MHz R = 256 Mb/s
= ≈ 133 channel
6MHz 51. The resolution of a TV picture is determined by
47. A TV system has BW of 240 MHz, how many (a) Video amplification factor
TV signals could be transmitted using FDM of (b) Video bandwidth
4 MHz wide? (c) The number of frames scanned
(a) 20 (b) 30 (d) The output of the video detector
(c) 150 (d) 60 IES - 1993
UPRVUNL AE-2016 Ans. (c) : T.V. Resolution is defined by the amount of
Ans. (d) : Total number of signal transmitted in FDM Horizontal and vertical pixels.
system is - If Resolution is high, the quality of picture will be high.
f It is depends on the number of frames scanned per second.
N=
fx 52. In broadcast television, the number of scanning
per frame is chosen to be an odd number to
Given,
(a) Reduce the required bandwidth
Total bandwidth (f) = 240 MHz
(b) Improve the picture resolution
Signal bandwidth (fx) = 4 MHz
(c) Reduce peak power requirement
240
N= = 60 (d) Make interlacing easier
4 IES - 1992
48. On a voltage scale, zero dBm in a 600-ohm Ans. (d) : In broadcast television, the number of
system would refer to : scanning per frame is chosen to be an odd number to
(a) 1.732 V (b) 1.0 V make interlacing easier.
(c) 0.7746V (d) 0.5V 53. Bandwidth of colour television transmission is
IES-1998 of the order of
Ans. (c) : In audio, zero dBm often corresponds to (a) 100 kHz (b) 1 MHz
approximately 0.775 volt, since 0.775V dissipates (c) 6 MHz (d) 10 MHz
1 mW in a 600Ω load the corresponding voltage level is IES - 1994
0 dBm, without the 600Ω restriction. Ans. (c) : PAL has serval variation, depending on the
49. The field frequency of HDTV is video bandwidth and placement of the audio subcarrier.
(a) 15 (b) 60 The composite video signal bas a bandwidth of 4.2, 5.0,
(c) 30 (d) 120 5.5 or 6.0MHz, depending on the specific PAL standard.
Kerala PSC Lecturer (NCA) 04.07.2017 54. In Indian TV, video signal bandwidth is
Ans. (b) : High definition television (HDTV) describe a (a) 15 kHz (b) 5 MHz
television system providing an image resolution of (c) 5.5 MHz (d) 7 MHz
substantially higher resolution than the previous BSNL (JTO)-2001
generation of technologies. The field frequency of Ans. (d) : A TV signal is usually allocated 7MHz of
HDTV is 60 Hz. bandwidth for transmission.
05.
Microprocessor and
Microcontroller
Ans. (c) :
(i) Basics of 8085 Microprocessor It is a 16-bit registers.
The PC hold the address of next instruction to be
1. An 8085 microprocessor based system drives a executed.
multiplexed 5-digit, 7 segment display. The PC locate the memory address of the instruction that
digits are refreshed at a rate of 500Hz. The on is to be executed next.
time for each digit is 4. What is the size(in bits) of the stack pointer in
(a) 10–2 second (b) 0.4 × 10–3 second 8085?
(c) 4 × 10 second
–3
(d) 2.5 × 10–2 second (a) 8 (b) 24
RPSC ACF & FRO 23.02.2021 (c) 32 (d) 16
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III
Ans. (b) : Given, f = 500 Hz. RPSC Lect. -10.01.2016
Then, UPRVUNL AE - 2016
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade - 2015, Paper-II
1
T= Sail - 2014
500 TNPSC AE - 2008
T = 2 mili sec Ans. (d) : Stack pointer is a 16-bit register which
2mili sec contains the address of data present at the top of the
On time for each digit = = 0.4 mili sec stack or it points to top of the stack memory.
5
–3
= 0.4×10 sec 5. An instruction used to set the carry flag in a
computer can be classified as
2. The number of address bits that are present in
Microprocessor 8085 are . (a) Data transfer (b) arithmetic
(a) 64 (b) 32 (c) logical (d) program control
GATE 1998
(c) 16 (d) 8
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade - 2015, Paper-II
RPCS Lecturer - 2011 TNPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015
BPSC Poly. Lect. - 2014
Ans. (c) : 8085 microprocessor has 16 bit address
ranging from A15 – A8 and AD7 – AD0. Address bus is Ans. (c) : A logical operation can be used to set the
unidirectional. carry flag in a computer which perform basic logical
3. A register of microprocessor which keeps track operations such as AND, OR, XOR etc and works on a
of the execution of a program and which bitwise level.
contains the memory address of the next 6. In a microprocessor, WAIT states are used to
instruction to be executed is called (a) Make the processor wait during a DMA
(a) Index address register operation
(b) Memory address register (b) make the processor wait during an interrupt
(c) Program counter processing
(d) Instruction register (c) make the processor wait during a power
RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM shutdown
UPSC Poly. Lect. - 10.03.2019 (d) interface slow peripherals to the processor
Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018- Paper-II Nagaland PSC (Degree)-2018, Paper-II
GPSC Asstt. Prof. - 11.04.2017 GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
UPRVUNL AE- 2016 UPRVUNL AE- 2016
UJVNL AE-2016 IES-2015, 2007
RRB SSE -02.09.2015, Shift-III Nagaland PSC CTSE-2015, Paper-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015- Paper-II GATE 1993
IES – 2015, 2014, 2013, 1996, 1995
Ans. (d) : WAIT states are used to interface slow
BSNL(JTO)-2009
ISRO Scientist Engg. 2007, 2006
peripheral to the processor. WAIT affects no flags and it
GATE - 1993 enables the test input pin to go low.
Microprocessor and Microcontroller 912 YCT
7. An ‘Assembler’ for a microprocessor is used Ans. (d) : EX-OR operation is used because it can be
for used both as buffer and inverter by setting the inputs to
(a) assembly of processors in a production line 0 and 1 respectively.
(b) creation of new programmes using different 12. Microprocessor 8085 is the enhanced version of
modules the following with essentially the same
(c) translation of a program from assembly construction set
language to machine language (a) 6800 (b) 68000
(d) translation of a higher level language into (c) 8080 (d) 8000
English text
Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2017, Paper-II
GATE 1995 Ans. (c) : Intel 8080 was the first microprocessor. 8080
TNPSC AE-2008 require multiple voltages and 8085 worked on single
voltage. 8080 has 74 instruction set while 8085 has 72
Nagaland PSC CTSE-2015, Paper-II
instruction set.
Ans. (c) : An assembler is a program that converts
assembly language into machine language. 13. In 8085 microprocessor, address bus and data
bus are :
Assembly code → Assembler → Machine code (a) Non-multiplexed
Assembly language is machine dependent. (b) Multiplexed
8. What is the Power supply specification for 8085 (c) Duplicated
microprocessor? (d) Same as CONTROL bus
(a) Single +5V supply with 10% voltage margins OPSC Poly. Lect. (Instrumentation)-2018, Paper-II
(b) Dual +5V supply with 10% voltage margins Ans. (b) : In 8085, the lower 8-bit address bus (A0-A7)
(c) Single +10V supply with 5% voltage margins and data bus (D0-D7) are multiplex to reduced number
(d) Dual +5V supply with 5% voltage margins of external pin.
RPSC LECTURER-10.01.2016 14. Program Counter (PC) register is an integral
MPPSC Forest Service Exam. - 2014 part of:
SAIL - 2014 (a) Hard Disk (b) RAM
Ans. (a) : Power supply specification of 8085 (c) Cache memory (d) CPU
microprocessor is single + 5V supply with 10% voltage RRB SSE 03.09.2015 Shift-II
margins. Ans. (d) : Program Counter (PC) register is an integral
9. 8085 is a- part of CPU (Central Processing Unit).
(a) 8-bit Microprocessor 15. In memory mapped I/O 8085 µp can access
(b) 4-bit Computer processor memory space
(c) 8-bit Mini processor (a) 64 KB
(d) 4-bit Mega processor (b) 32 KB
OPSC Poly. Lect. - (Instrumentation) - 2018 (c) 256 B
UPPCL AE-16.11.2013 (d) depends on ALU capacity
RPSC Lect. - 10.01.2016
Ans. (a) : The Intel 8085 is an 8-bit microprocessor Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2016, Paper-II
produced by intel. In this microprocessor NMOS
technology is used and it has parallel CPU. SAIL- 2014
10. A microprocessor is called an n-bit Ans. (a) : In memory mapped input/output 8085
microprocessor depending upon microprocessor can access memory space is 64 KB.
(a) Registers’ length 16. First In First Out (FIFO) is used in-
(b) Size of internal data bus (a) Stack (b) Linked list
(c) Size of external data bus (c) Queue (d) Tree
(d) None of these RRB JE- 31.08.2019, 10 AM-12 PM
Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade -2018, Paper-III Ans. (c) : First in First Out (FIFO) is used in Queue. It
Ans. (b) : A microprocessor is called n-bit mirco- is a method for handling data structures where the first
processor depending on the size of internal data bus. In element is processed first and the newest element is
other words it is the number of data lines which are fed processed last. It is used in data structures, Disk
to CPU. scheduling and communication and networking.
11. Which logical operation is performed by ALU 17. In a stack, we can access the element−
of 8085 to complement a number (a) Which is entered at beginning
(a) AND (b) NOT (b) All of the options
(c) OR (d) Exclusive OR (c) Which is entered at last
UJVNL AE-2016 (d) From any position
MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014 RRB JE-01.09.2019, 3:00 PM – 5:00 PM
Ans. (c) : Stack is the part of memory where temporary 23. A run-time stack cannot be used in a round-
data are stored. The data in the stack is stored on the robin scheduling system because of the _____
principle of LIFO (Last in first out). In this, the data nature of scheduling.
which is stored in the last, is used first and which is (a) LIFO (Last in First out)
stored first, is used in last. (b) FIFO (Fist in First out)
18. Logic programming language is also known as (c) FILO (First in Last out)
(a) Procedural language (d) None of the above
(b) Low-level language ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
(c) Imperative language Ans. (b) :
(d) Non-procedural language Round-robin is variant of first come, first served
RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I scheduling (FIFO)
Ans. (b) : Logic programming language is also known No priority, special importance is given to any
as low-level language. process or task.
Round-robin Scheduling is also known as time
19. Which of the following flag conditions are not slicing scheduling.
available in 8085 processor?
(a) Zero flag (b) Parity flag 24. For accurate clock period in 8085 it is
preferable to use
(c) Overflow flag (d) Auxiliary carry flag (a) Crystal
TNPSC AE-2013 (b) Crystal of LC resonant circuit
UJBNL AE-2016 (c) Crystal of RC circuit
Ans. (c) : In 8085 microprocessor overflow flags are (d) LC or RC circuit
not available. There are five flags in 8085 Mizoram PSC Jr. Grade-2015, Paper-III
microprocessor (i) Carry flag (ii) Auxiliary carry flag
(iii) Sign flag (iv) Parity flag (v) Zero flag. Ans. (a) : For accurate clock period in 8085 it is
preferable to use crystal.
20. An array processor is a .......... machine
25. The program counter in an 8085
(a) SIMD (b) MIMD microprocessor is a 16-bit register because:
(c) SISD (d) MISD (a) It counts 16 bits at a time.
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2008 (b) There are 16 address lines.
Ans. (a) : An array processor is also called vector (c) It facilitates the user storing.
processor which is a single instruction and multiple data (d) It has to fetch two 8-bit data at a time.
machine. Any array processor is a SIMD (Single RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019
Instruction multiple data) machine.
Ans. (b) : The program counter in an 8085
21. _____ Flag is used only internally for BCD microprocessor is a 16-bit register because there are 16
operation and is not available for the address lines.
programmer to change the sequence of the 26. Which one of the following flags is not used for
program. branching in a microprocessor?
(a) Zero flag (b) Parity flag (a) Carry flag (b) Auxiliary carry flag
(c) Carry flag (d) Auxiliary flag (c) Overflow flag (d) Parity flag
TNPSC AE - 2018 GPSC Asstt. Pro. - 11.04.2017
Ans. (d) : IES - 2001
• The auxillary carry is used only internally for BCD Ans. (b) : Auxiliary carry flag is not used for branching
operation and not available for programmer. in a microprocessor.
• The auxillary flag is used by only microprocessor. 27. In 8085 microprocessor the value of the most
22. In what order the elements of a pushdown signification bit of the result following the
stack are accessed? execution of any arithmetic or Boolean
(a) First in First Out (FIFO) instruction is stored in
(b) Last in Last Out (LILO) (a) The carry status flag
(c) Last in First Out (LIFO) (b) The auxiliary carry status flag
(d) None of the above (c) The sign status flag
UPRVUNL AE-2016 (d) The zero status flag
ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011 GPSC Asstt. Pro. - 11.04.2017
Ans. (c) : In computer science, a stack is an abstract IES - 2003, 1998
data type that serves as a collection of elements, with Ans. (c) : The most significant bit (MSB) represents the
two main principal operations. sign of the number.
Push which adds an element to the collection • If MSB = 1 ⇒ Indicates the number is negative and
Pop, which removes the most recently added sign flag becomes set.
element that was not yet removed. • If MSB = 0 ⇒ Indicates the number is positive and
The order in which elements come off, a stack gives rise sign flag becomes reset.
to its alternative name LIFO (Last in first out). So, it is stored in the sign status flag.

28. Consider the following: 31. Which of the following is/are NOT the
1. Sign Flag 2. Zero Flag functions of assembly-language directions?
3. Carry Flag 4. Parity Flag 1. Define system parameters
Which of the above flags of 8085 get affected by 2. Assign specific symbolic memory location
the instruction SUB B? 3. Control the output of the assembly process
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Which of these statements are correct?
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
IES - 2003 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) : All the above flags given are affected by IES - 2011
SUB B instruction.
Ans. (a) : Define system parameters and assign specific
SUB B A ← A – B.
memory location are not the function of assembly
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct language direction. Only statement (3) is assembly
answer using the code given below the lists : language directions.
List - I (Program Required in System
Software) 32. A microprocessor perform
A. Linker (a) Low pass filtering (b) Logic operation
B. Loader (c) Amplification (d) None of these
C. Interpreter MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
D. Compiler Ans. (b) : Microprocessor is a semiconductor
List - II (Definition) component design by using VLSI technology and it
1. It is a program which combines smaller contains ALU, control unit, register of a CPU in single
programs to form a single program; and also package and it performs arithmetic and logic operations.
links subroutines with the main program. 33. BIOS which is a part of operating systems of
2. It is a program which loads machine codes of PCs, is stored in
a program into the system memory. (a) RAM (b) Hard Disk
3. It is a program which translates a high level (c) Cache memory (d) ROM
program into machine code, executes it and
reads one statement at a time, executes and RRB SSE 03.09.2015, Shift-I
then goes to the next statements of the Ans. (d) : BIOS which is a part of operating systems of
program. PCs, is stored in ROM.
4. It is a program which translates a high level 34. In a microprocessor system, the stack is used
program into a machine language, reads the for–
entire program and then execute it. (a) Storing the program return address whenever
Codes : a sub-routine jump instruction is executed
A B C D (b) Transmitting and receiving input-output data
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) Storing all important CPU register contents
(b) 3 4 1 2 whenever an interrupt is to be serviced
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) Storing program instruction for interrupt
(d) 3 2 1 4 service routine
IES - 2008 Nagaland PSC (Degree) 2018, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Linker : Linker takes one or more program Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
generated by an assembler and combine them into a
single executable. Ans. (a) : Stack is a temporary set of memory locations
Loader : Loader is used to load the program into the used to store binary information (byte) temporarily
memory. during execution of a program, whenever a sub-routine
Interpreter : Interpreter converts high level program to jump instruction is executed.
machine level program line by line. 35. The address bus of Intel 8085 is 16 bits and
Compiler : Compiler converts high level program to hence the memory which can be accessed by
machine level program where entire program is this address bus is
converted at a time. (a) 1 K Byte (b) 16 K Bits
30. Which of the following counters can be used to (c) 32 K Bits (d) 64 K Bytes
divide the clock frequency of a microprocessor IES - 1992
by 5? Ans. (d) : Memory accessed by Address bus
(a) 3 bit counter (b) 5 bit counter
Or
(c) mod 3 counter (d) mod 5 counter
Maximum address loacation = 2n
IES - 2009
Where, n = Address line = 16 bit
Ans. (d) : MOD is the number of states the counter
= 216
counts and is the dividing number of the counter MOD
5 counters can be used to divide the clock frequency of = 26 × 210
a microprocessor by 5. = 64 K bytes

36. Consider the following registers: 41. Which of the following is/are correct
1. Accumulator and B register statements?
2. B and C registers 1. Bus is a group of wires carrying information
3. D and E registers 2. Bus is needed to achieve reasonable speed of
4. H and L registers operation.
Which of these 8-bit registers of 8085 µP can be 3. Bus can carry data or address.
paired together to make a 16-bit register? 4. A bus can be shared by more than one device.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer from the codes given
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 below:
IES - 2012, 2002 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b) : The 8085 has six general purpose registers (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
to store 8-bit data, these are identified as - B, C, D, E, H IES - 2009
and L. These can be combined as register pairs - BC, Ans. (d) :
DE and HL, to perform 16-bit operation. (1) Bus is group of conducting wire which carries
General purpose register can be used by programmer information.
or user. (2) All the peripherals are connected to microprocessor
37. The following register holds the instruction through the bus.
before it goes to the decoder: (3) These are three type of buses.
(a) Control register (b) Accumulator (i) Address bus (ii) Data bus (iii) Control bus.
(c) Address register (d) Data register
IES - 2012
Ans. (d) : Data register acts like a buffer and holds
anything that is copied from the memory ready for the
processor to use it. Data register hold the information
before it goes to the decoder.
38. The 8085 has two registers known as primary
data pointers. These are registers
(a) B and C (b) D and E
(c) H and L (d) C and D
IES - 2010
Ans. (c) : The valid register pairs in the 8085 are DE,
BC and HL. The HL pair is used to act as a primary data
pointers and it holds 16-bit address of memory location. 42. Which one of the following is correct?
39. A microprocessor based system can perform A micro program
many different functions, because: (a) is usually written in high level language
(a) Its operation is controlled by software (b) is a program for micro computers
(b) It is digital system (c) is a program written in assembly language
(c) It uses a RAM (d) is a sequencing program for the control unit
(d) It can be controlled by input and output devices of any processor
IES - 2010 Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree) - 2016, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : A microprocessor can perform different IES - 2008
function because it's operation is based on instructions Ans. (d) : Micro program computing a sequence of
and controlled by software. A microprocessor accept microinstructions that controls the operation of an
binary data as input process and then provide output arithmetic and logic so that machine code instructions
based on the instruction stored in the memory. are executed.
40. Which of the following are included in the 43. An I/O processor controls the flow of
architecture of a computer?
information between
1. Addressing modes, CPU
(a) cache memory and I/O devices
2. Instruction modes, data formats
(b) main memory and I/O devices
3. Secondary memory, operating system
(c) two I/O devices
Select the correct answer from the code given
below: (d) cache and main memories
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 GATE 1998
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only ISRO Scientist Engg.-2011
IES – 2009, 2003 Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Addressing modes, CPU and instruction Ans. (b) : The input/output processor is a specialized
modes, data formats are included in the architecture of a processor which loads and stores data. It controls the
computer. Addressing mode specify the location of an flow of information between main memory and I/O
operand. devices.
44. In a 8085 microprocessor, the shift registers 49. The advance microprocessor architecture's
which store the result of an addition and the term 'Superscalar Architecture' means:
overflow bit are, respectively (a) Scaling of application can be done with
(a) B and F (b) A and F software
(c) H and F (d) A and C (b) The processor design enables the user to
Mizoram PSC IOLM - 2018, Paper-III monitor the scaling performance of processor
GATE 2015 (c) It includes more than one execution unit
Ans. (b) : In an 8085 microprocessor, after performing (d) More peripherals can be added to the
the addition, result is stored in accumulator and if any architecture
carry (overflow bit) is generated gets updated in the UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019
flags. Ans. (c) : The advance microprocessor architecture's
45. ALU (Arithmetic and Logic unit) of 8085 term 'Superscalar Architecture' means it includes more
microprocessor consists of than one execution unit.
(a) Accumulator, temporary register, arithmetic 50. 8085 can operate with a -------single phase clock
& logic circuits only (a) 2 MHz (b) 3 MHz
(b) Accumulator, arithmetic & logic circuits and (c) 10 MHz (d) 7 MHz
five flags only TNPSC AE- 2019
(c) Accumulator, arithmetic & logic circuits only Ans. (b) : Key features of 8085 microprocessor-
(d) Accumulator, temporary register, arithmetic • It is a 8-bit processor.
& logic circuits and five flags only • It has 8 data bus lines, 16 address lines with
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 maximum memory handling capacity of 64 KB.
Mizoram PSC IOLM- 2018, Paper-III • Clock frequency is 3.125 MHz
Ans. (d) : ALU (Arithmetic logic unit) of 8085 51. What is the length of Data Buffer Register of
microprocessor consists of Accumulator, temporary 8085 µP
register, arithmetic & logic circuits and five flag only. (a) 6 bits (b) 8 bits
The arithmetic operation perform in 8085 are addition, (c) 12 bits (d) 16 bits
subtraction etc. Nagaland PSC (Degree) - 2018, Paper-II
The logical operation perform in 8085 are AND Nagaland PSC CTSE- 2015, Paper-II
operation, OR operation, X-OR operation etc. Ans. (b) : In 8085 microprocessor the length of Data
46. Output of the assembler in machine code is Buffer Register is 8 bits.
referred to as: Note – A Data Buffer is a region of a physical memory
(a) Object code storage used to store temporarily data while it is being
(b) Source code moved from one place to another.
(c) Macroinstruction 52. Pipelining technique is used in microprocessor
(d) Symbolic addressing to improve which of the following parameter?
RPSC VP/Suptd. ITI 05.11.2019 (a) Power dissipation
Ans. (a) : Output of the assembler in machine code is (b) Interrupt latency
referred to as object code. Object code is produced (c) Die size
when an interpreter or a compiler translates source code (d) Maximum clock frequency
into recognizable and executable machine code. ISRO Scientist Engg. -2015
47. The word size of 8085 microprocessor is Ans. (d) : Pipelining technique is used to improve
(a) 4 bit (b) 16-bit maximum clock frequency. It helps to increase the
(c) 20-bit (d) 8-bit speed.
TSPSC Manager (Engg.) - 2015 53. The frequency of the driving network
Ans. (d) : In 8085 microprocessor - connected between pin 1 and 2 of a 8085 must
The word size is 8 bit - A7 A6 A5 A4 A3 A2 A1 A0 be
16 bit address bus (a) Equal to the desired clock frequency
8 bit data bus (b) Twice the desired clock frequency
f clock frequency range 3.125 MHz (c) Four times the desired clock frequency
48. An 8-bit microprocessor has the typical two (d) Eight times the desired clock frequency
way connected buffered lines which are called: GPSC Asstt. Prof. 11.04.2017
(a) Address bus (b) Data bus Ans. (b) : The frequency of the driving network
(c) Control bus (d) Power lines connected between pin 1 and 2 of a 8085 must be twice
UPSC Poly.Lect.10.03. 2019 the desired clock frequency.
Ans. (b) : Data bus is bidirectional because the 54. 8085 has five flags they are designated as
microprocessor can read from memory or write data to (a) Z, CY, S, P and AC
memory. (b) CY, D, Y, S and P
(c) CY, AC, D, E, and P 60. Which of the following is not a basic element
(d) S, P, D, E and Y within the microprocessor?
Mizoram PSC IOLM- 2018, Paper-III (a) Microcontroller
APPSC Poly. Lect. - 14.03.2017 (b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
Ans. (a) : • There are five flag in 8085 microprocessor, (c) Temporary register
which indicate the status after an arithmetical and (d) Accumulator
logical operation. UKPSC Assistant Radio Officer Screening Exam.-2011
Carry Flag (CY) Ans. (a) : Microcontroller is not a basic element within
Auxiliary flag (AC) the microprocessor.
Sign flag (S) 61. Which signal in 8085 is used to demultiplex
Parity flag (P) address and data bus?
Zero flag (Z) (a) READY (b) ALE
55. Which of the following is not a kind of register? (c) HOLD (d) HLDA
(a) Math processor (b) Flag TNPSC AE-2014
(c) Accumulator (d) Segment Ans. (b) : To de-multiplexer address from data, ALE
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III (Address latch enable) signal is used.
Ans. (a) : Accumulator, segment, flag are used as 62. In a 8085 microprocessor, the number of pins
resister while math processor is not used as resister. are
56. In a computer, set of electrical paths which is (a) 21 (b) 19
used to transfer data is called (c) 27 (d) 40
(a) Ports (b) Monitors MPPSC Forest Service Exam.-2014
(c) Bus (d) Computer clock Ans. (d) : 8085 microprocessor has following Key
Mizoram PSC IOLM- 2018, Paper-III features -
40 pin dual-in-line-package (DIP)
Ans. (c) : • Bus is group of conductor or wire which are
use for transfer address, data, control signal between Word size = 8 bit
microprocessor, memory, I/O device. Requirement of supply = 5 V dc
• Bus is three types- Clock frequency = 3.125 MHz
1. Address bus 63. Which of the following is not 8-bit
2. Data bus microprocessor?
3. Control bus (a) Intel 8085 (b) Motorola 6800
57. Computer address bus is (c) TI TMS 9900 (d) Zilog Z80
(a) Bidirectional (b) Unidirectional TNPSC AE-2014
(c) Multidirectional (d) Circular Ans. (c) : Intel 8085, MOTOROLA6800, Zilog Z80 are
Mizoram PSC IOLM- 2018, Paper-III 8-bit microprocessor while TI TMS 9900 is a 16-bit
microprocessor.
Ans. (b) : • Address bus consist of group of sixty wire
defined as A0 - A15. Microprocessor Word length Memory
• For a computer the address bus is unidirectional and capacity
data bus bidirectional. Intel 8008 8-bit 16 KB
58. A microprocessor operates in binary digits, 0 Intel 8085 8-bit 64 KB
and 1, also known as ______. Z-80 8-bit 64 KB
(a) Bytes (b) Decimal number Z-800 8-bit 500 KB
(c) Octal number (d) Bits 64. Calculate the size of memory address space for
Mizoram PSC IOLM-2018, Paper-III a 16 bit data and 20 bit address bus.
Ans. (d) : Computers use binary digits 0 and 1 to store (a) 1 MB (b) 2 MB
data. A binary digit, or bit is the smallest unit of da

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ALL INDIA ENGINEERING SERVICES AND

S.L. Exam NAME EXAM DATE/TIME No. of Questions

(a) 6.4Ω (b) 8.4Ω Apply KCL at loop (2)

(a) 24V (b) 34V

Network Theory 13 YCT

(a) (a) 1.2 A (b) 12 A

Network Theory 14 YCT

Apply KVL in the circuit -

Current through 3Ω resistor -

In the divider circuit, if RL is attached in

R1 Apply KVL in loop ABCDA

Apply Nodal analysis at node V

Apply Nodal analysis at point V.

(a) 3.5 Ω (b) 2.5 Ω

equivalent circuit can be drawn as:-

The bridge is balanced and the current through middle

at least 3 resistor required to from a series-parallel

The value of voltage V1 in volts is

By applying Nodal analysis at node, we gets-

Apply nodal analysis at point VA:-

Ans. (d) : R = 12Ω ± 20%

find current I in the above circuit.

Network Theory 34 YCT

(a) 10 amperes (b) 0 amperes

Having converting delta to star-

The value of each side of the Y-network is C.

Ans. (b) : Precision resistor is NOT a non -linear RR1

magnetic circuit - R 12 – RR1 = R2

Nagaland PSC CTSE (Degree)-2017, Paper-I

Network Theory 41 YCT

(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA R T = 250Ω

Network Theory 43 YCT

Network Theory 46 YCT

Network Theory 47 YCT

Network Theory 49 YCT

Network Theory 52 YCT

Network Theory 53 YCT

Network Theory 56 YCT

(a) 4mA, 6mA (b) 6mA, 4mA

Apply current division rule

The value of capacitance vary between 10 to 500µF.

Network Theory 58 YCT

Apply KCL at node A

By KVL (for first loop)

279. Using the method of mesh currents, any

Network Theory 61 YCT

Network Theory 64 YCT

Network Theory 65 YCT

Now 2Ω & 2Ω are in parallel then-

(a) 0.32Ω (b) 0.56Ω

Apply Nodal at point 'V'

(a) 50W (b) –50W

Apply Nodal at point 'V' we have-

(a) 0.5Ω (b) 2Ω

Since resistance R is a linear device

Apply nodal, analysis at point V-

(a) 1/9s (b) 1/4s

Network Theory 70 YCT

Apply nodal at point VA-