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4th E. Bauman

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5) Nitrogen is an essential element for living things, as demonstrated by the fact that nearly all

fertilizers contain nitrogenous compounds. Discuss why nitrogen is essential.

Answer: Nitrogen is a component in the structure of two of the four types of organic
macromolecules. The amino group of an amino acid is a key reactant in the formation of peptide
bonds, or primary structure, of proteins. Nitrogen also participates in hydrogen bonding and
thereby contributes to the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure of proteins. Nitrogen is a
key structural component of the bases in nucleic acids, and its participation in hydrogen bonding
results in the formation of the base pairs and therefore the double helix of DNA.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Organic Macromolecules

Learning Outcome: 2.22, 2.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 3 Cell Structure and Function

3.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example
of

A) reproduction.

B) cellular structure.

C) metabolism.

D) growth.

E) responsiveness.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Processes of Life

Learning Outcome: 3.1

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2) Which of the following is found only in eukaryotic cells?

A) cytoplasm

B) cytoplasmic membrane

C) nuclear envelope

D) ribosomes

E) DNA

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview

Learning Outcome: 3.2

3) Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE?

A) Reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism.

B) Viruses have some, but not all, of the characteristics of living things.

C) Organisms may not exhibit all of the characteristics of life at all times.

D) Reproduction can occur asexually or sexually in living things.

E) Living things store metabolic energy in the form of chemicals such as ATP.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Processes of Life

Learning Outcome: 3.1

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4) Some bacteria have an outer layer composed of ________ that protects them from desiccation
and allows them to adhere to surfaces.

A) polysaccharides

B) waxes

C) nucleotides

D) polypeptides

E) either polypeptides or polysaccharides

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.3

5) Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of
biofilms?

A) glycocalyces

B) flagella

C) fimbriae

D) pili

E) both fimbriae and glycocalyces

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.3, 3.7

6) What anchors the bacterial flagellum to the cell wall and cytoplasmic membrane?

A) a pilus
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B) the filament

C) fimbriae

D) the hook

E) the basal body

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.5

7) A bacterial cell moving toward light would be an example of

A) tumbles.

B) positive phototaxis.

C) negative phototaxis.

D) positive chemotaxis.

E) negative chemotaxis.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.5

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8) Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic flagella is TRUE?

A) Prokaryotic flagella rotate like a drive shaft.

B) A "run" results from clockwise movement of the flagellum.

C) Prokaryotic flagella are composed of tubulin.

D) Treponema is an example of a bacterium that has a tuft of polar flagella.

E) Prokaryotic flagella are anchored in the cytoplasm.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.5

9) Which of the following statements concerning fimbriae is TRUE?

A) Fimbriae are about as long as flagella.

B) Fimbriae facilitate the transfer of DNA among bacterial cells.

C) Bacteria use fimbriae to attach to surfaces.

D) All bacteria have fimbriae.

E) A bacterial cell will usually have only one or two fimbriae.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.7

10) Which of the following may be a component of bacterial cell walls?

A) carrageenan

B) lipoteichoic acids

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C) mycolic acid

D) tubulin

E) both lipoteichoic and mycolic acids

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cell Walls

Learning Outcome: 3.11

11) Bacterial cell walls that are resistant to drying contain

A) carbohydrates.

B) amino acids.

C) lipopolysaccharide.

D) tubulin.

E) waxes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cell Walls

Learning Outcome: 3.11

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12) Lipid A is a component of

A) lipopolysaccharides.

B) plant cell walls.

C) cytoplasmic membranes.

D) mycolic acid.

E) bacterial glycocalyces.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cell Walls

Learning Outcome: 3.12

13) Bacteria of the genus Mycoplasma lack cell walls. What sort of environment do they require
for survival?

A) low temperature

B) hypotonic

C) isotonic

D) hypertonic

E) a biofilm

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Bacterial Cell Walls

Learning Outcome: 3.17

14) Lipid-soluble molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane by which of
the following processes?

A) osmosis
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B) facilitated diffusion

C) diffusion

D) active transport

E) group translocation

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

15) ATP is expended in which of the following processes?

A) facilitated diffusion

B) diffusion

C) group translocation

D) active transport

E) both active transport and group translocation

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

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16) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the fluid mosaic model?

A) Small water soluble molecules move freely across the bilayer.

B) Membrane proteins are free to move in two dimensions in the bilayer.

C) The phospholipids rotate across the bilayer from one face to the other.

D) The integrated proteins are firmly cemented in place relative to each other.

E) The phospholipids form a rigid structure.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.14

17) Endospores survive a variety of harsh conditions in part because of the presence of

A) mycolic acid.

B) lipopolysaccharide.

C) hopanoids.

D) dipicolinic acid.

E) glycoproteins.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 3.20

18) The flagella of archaea are similar to bacterial flagella but differ in that they

A) lack a basal body.

B) move like a whip.

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C) are anchored in the cytoplasm.

D) are smaller in diameter and are not hollow.

E) are driven by the flow of hydrogen ions.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structure of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 3.24

19) Which of the following is unique to archaea?

A) LPS

B) peptidoglycan

C) hami

D) fimbriae

E) pili

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: External Structures of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 3.26

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20)

The cells illustrated in Figure 3-1 are in a(n) ________ environment.

A) hypotonic

B) hypertonic

C) isotonic

D) fluid mosaic

E) passive

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.17

21) Which of the following statements concerning endocytosis and exocytosis is TRUE?
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A) These processes occur in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

B) Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which liquids are brought into the cell.

C) Endocytosis produces a structure called a food vesicle.

D) Waste products and secretions are exported from the cell during endocytosis.

E) Endocytosis is a form of passive transport, whereas exocytosis is a form of active transport.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.32

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22) The lipids that are NOT generally components of cell membranes are

A) hopanoids.

B) triglycerides.

C) phospholipids.

D) fatty acids.

E) sterols.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.31

23) Which of the following cellular components facilitate(s) the process of bacterial binary
fission?

A) centrioles

B) fimbriae

C) nucleoid

D) cytoskeleton

E) inclusions

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 3.21

24) Which of the following is classified as a nonmembranous organelle of eukaryotic cells?

A) endoplasmic reticulum
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B) Golgi body

C) mitochondrion

D) centriole

E) peroxisome

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.39

25) Which of the following processes powers the rotation of the flagella of archaea?

A) ATP

B) a hydrogen ion gradient

C) a sodium ion gradient

D) assembly and disassembly of microtubules

E) contraction of cytoskeletal proteins

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structures of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 3.24

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26) Which of the following statements about the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is CORRECT?

A) The rough ER is the site of lipid synthesis.

B) The smooth ER has ribosomes associated with it.

C) The ER is a lipid storage organelle.

D) The ER is a transport system within the cytoplasm.

E) The smooth ER is a site of ATP synthesis.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

27) Which of the following is a CORRECT pairing?

A) bacterial flagellum: ATP driven

B) eukaryotic flagellum: flagellin protein

C) eukaryotic flagellum: enclosed in cytoplasmic membrane

D) bacterial flagellum: microtubule protein

E) eukaryotic flagellum: hydrogen ion gradient driven

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.36

28) Chloroplasts differ from mitochondria in that the former have

A) DNA.

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B) two lipid bilayers.

C) 70S ribosomes.

D) thylakoids.

E) cristae.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

29) Which of the following is paired INCORRECTLY?

A) plants; cellulose cell wall

B) algae; glycocalyx present

C) bacteria; peptidoglycan cell wall

D) fungi; chitin, glucomannan and/or cellulose cell wall

E) archaea; polysaccharide cell wall

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.31

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30) Which of the following statements concerning the endosymbiotic theory is FALSE?

A) Eukaryotes were formed from the union of small anaerobic cells by larger aerobic cells.

B) Mitochondria and chloroplasts can divide independently of the cell.

C) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA and ribosomes.

D) The cristae of mitochondria evolved from the cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes.

E) The endosymbiotic theory is widely accepted.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Endosymbiotic Theory

Learning Outcome: 3.44

31) Functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton include giving shape to the cell and

A) anchoring organelles.

B) moving cellular contents.

C) separating chromosomes during mitosis.

D) anchoring organelles and moving cellular contents.

E) anchoring organelles, moving cellular contents, and separating chromosomes during mitosis.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.39

32) The accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate inside a bacterial cell via phosphorylation of
glucose is an example of

A) facilitated diffusion.
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B) group translocation.

C) osmosis.

D) plasmolysis.

E) diffusion.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

33) Which of the following molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane
rapidly and without the use of transport proteins?

A) large molecules only

B) ions only

C) small hydrophobic molecules only

D) small hydrophilic molecules only

E) both ions and hydrophilic molecules

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.15

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34) Which of the following processes requires a carrier protein?

A) diffusion only

B) facilitated diffusion only

C) active transport only

D) endocytosis only

E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

35) Which of the following chemical substances contributes to the unique characteristics of acid-
fast bacteria?

A) N-acetylglucosamine

B) peptidoglycan

C) lipoteichoic acid

D) endotoxin

E) mycolic acid

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Cell Walls

Learning Outcome: 3.11

36) The cytoplasmic membranes of ________ contain phospholipids and proteins.

A) archaeal cells
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B) bacterial cells

C) eukaryotic cells

D) both bacterial and eukaryotic cells

E) archaeal, bacterial, and eukaryotic cells

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.31

37) Membrane rafts are found in the cytoplasmic membranes of

A) archaea only.

B) bacteria only.

C) eukaryotes only.

D) both archaea and bacteria.

E) both archaea and eukaryotes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.31

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38) Endocytosis and exocytosis are means of transport used by

A) bacteria.

B) eukaryotes.

C) archaea.

D) all prokaryotes.

E) nothing; no cells use both processes.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.32

39) Some ________ use group translocation as a means of transport.

A) eukaryotes

B) bacteria

C) archaea

D) protozoa

E) eukaryotes and prokaryotes

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

40) Hopanoids are found in ________ cytoplasmic membranes.

A) eukaryotic

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B) bacterial

C) archaeal

D) prokaryotic

E) no

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.13

41) The cell walls of some ________ are composed of proteins.

A) archaea

B) bacteria

C) eukaryotes

D) prokaryotes

E) bacteria and eukaryotes

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.27

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42) Several cellular structures of eukaryotes facilitate movement: flagella, cilia, the cytoskeleton
and centrioles. Which of the following is a feature common to all of them?

A) composed of flagellar proteins

B) composed of tubulin microtubules

C) powered by a proton (hydrogen ion) gradient

D) enclosed in a lipid bilayer

E) composed of glycoproteins

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3. 41

43) Some members of ________ have hami.

A) archaea

B) bacteria

C) eukaryotes

D) archaea and bacteria

E) bacteria and eukaryotes

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: External Structures of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 3.26

44) A function of the cytoskeleton unique to bacteria is

A) providing shape to the cell.

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B) cellular motility.

C) orienting the assembly of the cell wall.

D) anchoring cytoplasmic contents.

E) both cellular motility and orienting the assembly of the cell wall.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.21

45) Cell walls composed of polysaccharide are found in

A) archaea only.

B) bacteria only.

C) eukaryotes only.

D) archaea and eukaryotes only.

E) archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.31

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46) Which of the following may have cell walls containing teichoic acids?

A) Gram-negative bacteria only

B) Gram-positive bacteria only

C) archaea

D) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria

E) all prokaryotes

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.11, 3.27

47)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "c" in Figure 3-2?

A) provide shape only

B) attach to surfaces only

C) protect from dehydration only

D) attach to surfaces and protect from dehydration

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E) provide shape, attach to surfaces, and protect from dehydration

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.3

48) Which of the following is a function of the periplasmic space?

A) create a hydrogen ion gradient to power ATP synthesis

B) external digestion of large biological molecules

C) photosynthesis

D) production of proteins for secretion

E) protection from dehydration

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cell Walls

Learning Outcome: 3.12

49) Which of the following prokaryotic cells contain an outer membrane?

A) Gram-negative bacteria only

B) Gram-positive bacteria only

C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria

D) archaea

E) all prokaryotes

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.12

50)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "n" in Figure 3-3?

A) ATP synthesis

B) protein synthesis

C) synthesis of lipids

D) packaging of materials for export

E) cell movement

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42, 3.43

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3.2 True/False Questions

1) Extensively folded lipid bilayers are sites of photosynthesis in both eukaryotes and
prokaryotes.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

2) A layer of polysaccharides external to the bacterial cell but firmly attached to it is called a
slime layer.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.4

3) Bacterial protein synthesis can begin before the reading of the gene is complete.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview

Learning Outcome: 3.2

4) All cell membranes contain phospholipids and a wide variety of proteins.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

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Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.28

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5)

The processes illustrated in Figure 3-4 do not require energy input.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

6) Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of 50S and 30S subunits.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.39

7) Lysosomes result from the endocytosis of food particles by eukaryotic cells.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

8) Formation of a biofilm may contribute to bacteria's ability to cause disease.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 3.7

9) Chromatin is composed of DNA and special packaging proteins called hopanoids.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

10)

The short structures on the surface of the cell in Figure 3-5 are cilia.

Answer: FALSE
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.7

3.3 Short Answer Questions

1) A(n) (hypertonic/isotonic/hypotonic) solution will result in crenation of animal cells.

Answer: hypertonic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.17

2) The presence of a cell (wall/membrane) enables bacterial and plant cells to resist the effects of
hypotonic solutions.

Answer: wall

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

3) Enzymes which degrade toxic materials in eukaryotic cells are stored in (endosomes/
lysosomes/peroxisomes).

Answer: peroxisomes

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

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4) A(n) (symport/antiport/uniport) is a carrier protein that transports two substances in the same
direction across a membrane.

Answer: symport

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

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5) Eukaryotic flagella are anchored by the basal body in the (cytoplasm/wall/membrane).

Answer: cytoplasm

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.36

6) The reserve deposits of starch or other compounds found in many prokaryotic cells are called
(vacuoles/inclusions/nucleoid).

Answer: inclusions

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 3.19

7) Eukaryotic cells use a process known as (endocytosis/pinocytosis/phagocytosis) to obtain

liquids from their environment.

Answer: pinocytosis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.32

8) Lipid (LPS/NAM/A/NAG) is a part of the Gram-negative cell outer membrane that can
produce fever, inflammation, and shock when it is released into the bloodstream.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cell Walls

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Learning Outcome: 3.12

9) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of (protein/lipid/carbohydrate) synthesis.

Answer: lipid

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.39

10) Fibrous structures some archaea use for attachment to surfaces are (hami/fimbriae/flagella).

Answer: hami

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: External Structures of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 3.26

11) A (capsule/slime layer/matrix) is a type of glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell.

Answer: capsule

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells

Learning Outcome: 3.4

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12) Golgi bodies are examples of a (membranous/non-membranous/cellular) organelle.

Answer: membranous

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

13) The semiliquid matrix of the nucleus is called the (cytoplasm/nucleoid/nucleoplasm).

Answer: nucleoplasm

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

14) A structural molecule found in eukaryotic cytoskeletons, flagella, cilia, and centrioles is
(flagellin/tubulin/fibrin).

Answer: tubulin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.41

15)

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The process illustrated in Figure 3-6 occurs in (eukaryotic/bacterial/archaeal) cells.

Answer: bacterial

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

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3.4 Essay Questions

1) A new bacterium is discovered that has a unique ability to metabolize a compound toxic to
most other organisms. The microbiologists researching this bacterium do not know how the
bacterium takes up the compound from the environment. Design an experiment to determine
whether uptake is passive or active.

Answer: A good experimental design first examines the relationship between concentration of
the compound (call it T) in the environment and the concentration of T in the cell. If the
concentration of T in the cell increases linearly with increasing extracellular concentration T is
entering the cell by passive diffusion. If the concentration within the cell levels off at some point
some type of carrier or transport mechanism is involved.

Further experimentation could be done to distinguish between facilitated diffusion, a passive

process, and active transport mechanisms. If T continues to enter cells when ATP synthesis is
blocked the bacterium is accumulating T by facilitated diffusion. If entry of T is halted when ATP
synthesis is blocked, an active transport mechanism is involved.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.16

2) Compare and contrast archaea and bacteria, with particular attention to the features that lead to
their placement in separate taxa.

Answer: Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, whereas archaeal cell walls are
composed of a variety of carbohydrate forms but never peptidoglycan. The flagella of the two
groups of prokaryotes have several differences, including size, manner of assembly, and
function. Although both have fimbriae, archaea have a distinctive attachment structure called a
hamus that is somewhat like a barbed grappling hook. Archaeal cytoplasmic membranes lack
phospholipid, a membrane lipid found in both bacteria and eukaryotes. The ribosomes of archaea
and bacteria are of similar size, but some ribosomal components of archaea are more like those
of eukaryotic ribosomes than those of bacteria. RNA metabolism in the two prokaryotic groups
differs, and the archaeal genetic code is more like that of eukaryotes than that of bacteria.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

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Section: Cytoplasm of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 3.24, 3.25, 3.26, 3.27, 3.28, 3.29

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3) Most antibacterial drugs disrupt or destroy bacterial cellular characteristics that are different
from those of eukaryotic cells or that may not even be present in eukaryotic cells, an idea termed
"selective toxicity." List and describe at least three cellular features of bacteria that could be
targeted to inhibit or kill a bacterial pathogen.

Answer:

1) Cell wall: The cell wall of almost all bacteria contains peptidoglycan, a molecule absent in
eukaryotic cell walls. Gram-negative cell walls contain unique molecules such as
lipopolysaccharide and structures such as porins, which are not present in eukaryotic cells.
Additionally, human cells do not have a cell wall at all.

2) Ribosomes: Bacterial ribosomes have a 70S structure, whereas eukaryotic ribosomes have an
80S structure. This difference is enough to allow some drugs to preferentially affect bacterial
ribosomes while leaving eukaryotic ribosomes unharmed.

3) Cellular appendages: Although both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells can have flagella, the
two types of cells use structurally different types of flagella. Furthermore, many bacteria have
fimbriae and pili, which are not found on eukaryotic cells.

4) Cell membrane: Most cells use a phospholipid bilayer with inserted proteins as a cell
membrane; however, bacterial cell membranes may contain hopanoids, which are absent in
eukaryotic cell membranes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.31, 3.34, 3.36, 3.40

4) Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have inner membranes with much greater surface area
than their outer membranes. Discuss the contribution of the extensive inner membranes to the
roles of these organelles.

Answer: Both organelles use metabolic processes embedded in lipid membranes to produce
cellular energy. The cristae of mitochondria produce ATP. The thylakoids of chloroplasts are the
site of light energy capture and conversion to cellular energy. The extensive surface area of the
folded inner membranes allows both organelles to produce much more energy than would
otherwise be possible.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

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Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes

Learning Outcome: 3.42

5) Describe how the structure of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane relates to its function of
selective permeability.

Answer: The structure and function of the cytoplasmic membrane are explained in the fluid
mosaic model. The cytoplasmic membranes of bacterial cells are composed of phospholipids,
which create a semipermeable barrier to the cell's outer environment. The only molecules that
can easily cross the membrane are small, lipid soluble molecules. Other types of molecules must
use the wide variety of transport proteins embedded in the phospholipid bilayer to cross the
membrane. In this way, the cell can control the concentration of both its nutrients and its waste
products. The cytoplasmic membrane can also be used for energy production and for
photosynthesis in prokaryotic cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes

Learning Outcome: 3.15

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 4 Microscopy, Staining, and Classification

4.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) A useful unit for measuring the size of most cells is

A) nanometers.

B) millimeters.

C) micrometers.

D) centimeters.

E) decimeters.

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Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Units of Measurement

Learning Outcome: 4.1

2) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?

A) magnification; refraction of radiation

B) contrast; staining techniques

C) numerical aperture; curved glass

D) dark field:high contrast

E) electron beams; shorter wavelength

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.4, 4.8

3) The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its

A) resolution.

B) numerical aperture.

C) refraction.

D) contrast.

E) magnification.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.6

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4) Which of the following are magnifying lenses?

A) objectives

B) oculars

C) condensers

D) dark-field stops

E) both objectives and the oculars

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.8

5) The light source in a ________ microscope is ultraviolet (UV) light.

A) phase-contrast

B) dark-field

C) fluorescent

D) Nomarski

E) bright-field

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.10

6) Why does immersion oil improve resolution?

A) It allows light to travel at a uniform speed on its way to the lens.

B) It decreases the working distance.

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C) It increases the numerical aperture.

D) It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed.

E) scanning electron

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.11

10) Lasers are used to generate the images produced by ________ microscopes.

A) fluorescent

B) confocal
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C) phase-contrast

D) atomic force

E) both confocal and atomic force

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.10, 4.11

11) Which of the following microscopes produces the highest resolution images?

A) dark-field

B) differential interference

C) scanning electron

D) fluorescent

E) atomic force

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.11

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12) If a microbiology lab student left the safranin out of the Gram stain procedure, what would
be the result?

A) All cells would be purple.

B) Gram-positive cells would be purple and Gram-negative cells would be colorless.

C) All cells would be pink.

D) Gram-positive cells would be pink and Gram-negative cells would be purple.

E) Gram-positive cells would be colorless and Gram-negative cells would be pink.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.15

13) All of the following are common to both the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain EXCEPT

A) primary stain.

B) counterstain.

C) a decolorizing agent.

D) a chemical mordant.

E) a decolorizing agent and a counterstain.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.15

A) electron

B) phase-contrast

C) atomic force

D) fluorescence

E) differential interference contrast

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.16

18) The kingdoms included in the Linnaeus system of classification are

A) Animalia and Prokaryotae.

B) Protista and Plantae.

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C) Fungi and Protista.

D) Animalia and Plantae.

E) Prokaryotae and Protista.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.21

19) The rules of naming organisms are called

A) taxonomy.

B) nomenclature.

C) classification.

D) binomials.

E) identification.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.20

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20) Species and strains of microbes can be distinguished from one another phenotypically using

A) G + C content.

B) electron microscopy.

C) ribosomal RNA analysis.

D) serological tests.

E) Gram-stain reactions.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.23

21) Which of the following is the correct order, from largest to smallest, of the modern
taxonomic hierarchy?

A) Class, Domain, Family, Genus, Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Species

B) Kingdom, Family, Class, Phylum, Order, Genus, Species

C) Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

D) Kingdom, Domain, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Species, Genus

E) Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Domain, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.19

22) Carl Woese proposed the concept of the domain based on differences of which of the
following cellular molecules?

A) transfer RNA
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B) membrane lipids

C) ribosomal RNA

D) DNA

E) proteins

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.22

23) Which of the following classification methods relies on the morphology of organisms?

A) phage typing

B) physical (phenotypic) characteristics

C) biochemical tests

D) analysis of nucleic acids

E) serological tests

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.23

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24) A new single-celled organism is discovered living in an ant colony. Which of the following
classification methods would be appropriate for identifying to which domain it belongs?

A) phage typing

B) biochemical tests

C) physical characteristics

D) analysis of nucleic acids

E) serological tests

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.23

25) Viruses are NOT included in the taxonomic scheme proposed by Carl Woese because they
lack

A) genetic material.

B) ribosomal RNA.

C) proteins.

D) lipid membranes.

E) cytoplasm.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.22

26) Why have some microbiologists proposed using ribosomal RNA as the basis for defining
bacterial species?

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A) Ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genetic sequences present in all prokaryotes.

B) The "interbreeding population" criterion does not apply to bacteria.

C) Ribosomal RNA is the basis for domain assignment.

D) Bacteria vary too little in their physical and biochemical traits.

E) Bacteria are not interbreeding populations, and ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genes
present in all prokaryotes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.18

27) Which of the following phenomena produces magnification?

A) the wavelength of a radiation source

B) the refraction of radiation as it passes through a lens

C) the thickness of a microscopic specimen

D) the numerical aperture of a lens

E) the length of an objective lens

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.6

28) A virologist wants to observe the surface features of virus particles she is studying. Which of
the following microscopes would NOT be useful for her observations?

A) differential interference contrast

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B) scanning tunneling

C) scanning electron

D) transmission electron

E) atomic force

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11

29) A structure that appears in a transmission electron micrograph but is NOT actually present in
the specimen is known as a(n)

A) antigen.

B) biofilm.

C) artifact.

D) refraction.

E) mordant.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.11

30) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about scanning electron microscopes?

A) Thin segments must be used.

B) Images of surface structures are produced.

C) Glass lenses are used.

D) The sample is placed in a vacuum.

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E) Stains can be applied to improve contrast.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.11

31) Acidic dyes

A) work best in low-pH environments.

B) are negatively charged.

C) are used for staining negatively charged molecular structures.

D) are lipid soluble.

E) are negatively charged and work best at low pH.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.14

32) A thin film of microbes on a slide is

A) fixation.

B) a smear.

C) a Gram reaction.

D) a biopsy.

E) agglutination.

Answer: B

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.13

33) The Gram stain works because of differences in the ________ of bacteria.

A) genetic characteristics

B) cell walls

C) cell membranes

D) antigens

E) capsules

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.15

34) Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding modern taxonomy?

A) It is a complete inventory of all living organisms.

B) There is consensus about the definition of species.

C) Modern taxonomy does not provide a basis for predicting structural relationships.

D) Modern classifications reflect evolutionary relationships of organisms.

E) The modern taxonomic organization is a finished product.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.17

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35) Why are modern light microscopes better than the ones Leeuwenhoek used?

A) Modern microscopes have a fivefold better resolution.

B) Modern microscopes are compound instead of simple.

C) Modern microscopes have lenses with smaller numerical apertures.

D) Modern lenses are made of prisms.

E) Modern microscopes are compound and have fivefold better resolution.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.6, 4.8

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36) In the Gram stain procedure, iodine serves as a

A) counterstain.

B) decolorizing agent.

C) mordant.

D) primary stain.

E) fixative.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.13

37)

The light path illustrated in the figure represents a ________ microscope.

A) bright-field

B) dark-field

C) phase contrast

D) fluorescence

E) differential interference contrast

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Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.9

38) In Gram staining, ethanol-acetone is used as a

A) decolorizing agent.

B) counterstain.

C) mordant.

D) drying agent.

E) primary stain.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.15

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39) A sample from a patient is prepared using the Gomori methenamine silver stain. What type of
microbe is suspected of being present?

A) bacteria

B) parasitic worm larva

C) fungus

D) protozoal parasite

E) virus

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: N/A

40) Tungsten is a reagent used in the

A) acid-fast stain.

B) electron microscopy stain.

C) endospore stain.

D) flagellar stain.

E) negative stain.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.16

41) The ________ stain is one in which eosin is used.

A) acid-fast

B) negative
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C) flagellar

D) endospore

E) electron microscopy

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.14

42) Tannic acid is a mordant (chemical fixative) used in the ________ stain.

A) negative

B) flagellar

C) endospore

D) electron microscopy

E) acid-fast

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.13

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43) Methylene blue can be used to stain DNA because it

A) forms ionic bonds with DNA.

B) changes the pH and therefore the structure of DNA.

C) covalently bonds with DNA.

D) makes DNA electron dense.

E) is an effective fixing agent for nucleic acids.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.14

44)

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The part(s) of the microscope indicated by the arrows is/are the

A) oculars.

B) body.

C) objectives.

D) condenser lens.

E) diaphragm.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.8

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45) The most appropriate unit of measurement for intact archaea is the

A) meter (m).

B) millimeter (mm).

C) micrometer (µm).

D) nanometer (nm).

E) centimeter (cm).

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Units of Measurement

Learning Outcome: 4.1

46) The limits of resolution of atomic force microscopes is in the range of

A) centimeters (cm).

B) millimeters (mm).

C) micrometers (µm).

D) nanometers (nm).

E) meters (m).

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Units of Measurement

Learning Outcome: 4.1, 4.16

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47)

This image was most likely produced by a ________ microscope.

A) scanning electron

B) confocal

C) bright-field

D) transmission electron

E) dark-field

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.11

48) A measurement of a microbe is reported as 1 × 10-6 m, also known as

A) centimeters (cm).

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B) millimeters (mm).

C) micrometers (µm).

D) nanometers (nm).

E) yards.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Units of Measurement

Learning Outcome: 4.1

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49) One-thousandth of a meter is a

A) yard.

B) millimeter (mm).

C) micrometer (µm).

D) nanometer (nm).

E) centimeter (cm).

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Units of Measurement

Learning Outcome: 4.1

50) Bacteria and many other microbes do NOT ________ and therefore do NOT fit Linnaeus'
definition of species.

A) reproduce sexually

B) have nuclei

C) exchange genetic material

D) have cytoplasmic membranes

E) reproduce asexually

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.18

4.2 True/False Questions

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1) A resolution of 1µm would be better than a resolution of 0.5 µm.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.9

10) Light rays that pass through the edge of a curved lens will be refracted more than those that
pass through the center.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.6

4.3 Short Answer Questions

1) A (bright-field/confocal/phase-contrast) light microscope can be used to generate three-

dimensional images.

Answer: confocal

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.9

2) A(n) (acidic/metallic/fluorescent) molecule is one that absorbs invisible radiation and emits
visible light.

Answer: fluorescent

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.10

3) The total magnification using a 10 ocular and a 100 objective would be (110/1000/10000) X.

Answer: 1000

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.8

4) Staining procedures called (background/negative/positive/contrasting) provide increased

contrast by staining the background.

Answer: negative

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.16

5) Coating a specimen with a heavy metal is a step in preparing it for (phase/fluorescent/

electron) microscopy.

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Answer: electron

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.16

6) The agglutination test uses proteins called (antibodies/antigens/chromophores) to detect

species-specific features of microbes.

Answer: antibodies

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.23

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7) The system of taxonomy used today was originated by (Linnaeus/Darwin/Woese).

Answer: Linnaeus

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.21

8) Carl Woese and his colleagues proposed the (phylum/domain/family), a taxon that contains
multiple kingdoms.

Answer: domain

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.22

Figure 4-4 represents a (dichotomous/taxonomic/question) key of the type used to identify a

microbe.

Answer: dichotomous

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

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Learning Outcome: N/A

10) Bacterial viruses, called (bacteriophages/serotypes/bacteriotypes), can be used to help

classify different groups of bacteria.

Answer: bacteriophages

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.23

11) A primary purpose for the use of stains in microscopy is the increase the (magnification/
brightness/contrast) of a specimen.

Answer: contrast

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.7

12) An integral part of serological testing is the use of a solution called (blood/plasma/antiserum)
that contains antibodies.

Answer: antiserum

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.23

13) In a compound microscope, the lens that directs light through the specimen is the (ocular/
condenser/objective) lens.

Answer: condenser
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.8

14) The process of immobilizing organisms on a glass slide through the application of either heat
or chemicals is (staining/mordant/fixation).

Answer: fixation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Staining

Learning Outcome: 4.13

15) The technique called (confocal/electron/probe) microscopy uses detection of deflection to

map surfaces of molecular structures.

Answer: probe

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.12

4.4 Essay Questions

1) Discuss the ways in which light rays can be manipulated to increase resolution and/or contrast.

Answer: Light rays can be manipulated to increase the resolution and contrast of a specimen in a
variety of ways. In bright-field microscopes, immersion oil is used to capture light rays that
would otherwise be refracted and lost; the result is an increase in the resolution of the image.
Dark-field microscopes purposely scatter light rays in such a way as to improve the contrast of
the specimen. Phase-contrast microscopes alter the wavelengths of light rays by making them in
and out of phase with each other, thereby increasing contrast. Finally, fluorescent microscopes
use UV light, which produces increased resolution because of its shorter wavelength, and the
fluorescent dyes that are used emit a variety of colors, increasing contrast.
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2) Compare and contrast the light microscope with the electron microscope.

Answer: Both the light microscope and the electron microscope depend on the wavelength of
radiation to achieve the resolution necessary to see fine details of specimens. Light microscopes
use light rays, which, because of their relatively long wavelengths, limit the magnification of
these microscopes to 2000× or less. Electron beams, by contrast, have such a short wavelength
that the resolution is greatly increased, to the point that magnification of 100,000× or more is
possible. Both microscopes are capable of modulating and focusing their radiation sources in
such a way as to increase the quality of the magnification; however, in a light microscope the
light rays are focused using glass lenses, whereas in an electron microscope the electron beam is
focused with magnetic fields. Because of their higher levels of magnification and extreme
resolving power, electron microscopes are capable of revealing the finest details of the cell's
ultrastructure, even molecules and atoms; light microscopes are capable of revealing only the
larger cellular structures, such as organelles.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Microscopy

Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11

3) You are a scientist studying the highly specific interactions of bacteriophages with their host
cells when they first encounter the cell. Discuss what microscope(s) and preparation procedures
you might use for this study.

Answer: A scanning electron microscope can produce three-dimensional images of the physical
contact between bacteriophage and host, providing information on what portions of the
bacteriophage are in contact with what structures of the cell. A mixture of bacterial cells and
bacteriophages is dried onto the surface of the sample holder and coated with metal to prepare it
for the scanning electron microscope. A transmission electron microscope may provide
information about structures and interactions obscured by the intact bacteriophage. Samples are
dried, embedded in plastic, sliced into thin (100 nm) sections, and stained with heavy metals
(osmium, tungsten, etc.) to increase contrast.

Scanning tunneling or atomic force microscopy of separate preparations of bacteriophages and

bacterial cells can provide details about the structures on each that interact when the
bacteriophage is in contact with the surface of the cell. The preparation of specimens for atomic
force microscopy is minimal, as the material does not need to be dried, sectioned, or stained.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Staining
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4) Compare and contrast the three domains identified by Woese: Eukarya, Bacteria, and Archaea.

Answer: With respect to cell type, organisms in Eukarya have eukaryotic cells and the
characteristics that go with this cell type, such as a nucleus and membranous organelles. Bacteria
and Archaea both have prokaryotic cells lacking nuclei and membranous organelles. All three
have different rRNA sequences found in the small subunit of their ribosomes that are
characteristic for the domain, which is an important tool for categorizing organisms. All three
have cell membranes; however, they differ in the lipids found in the cell membrane. Archaea
have only three kingdoms, and Bacteria have over fifty. Eukarya include more than the three
kingdoms shown in Figure 4.22.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.22

5) List and explain five types of techniques that can be used to identify unknown
microorganisms.

Answer: There are five major types of identification techniques used in the microbiology lab.
One method is simply observation and classification of the physical characteristics of an
organism, which includes both cellular morphology and colony morphology. A second method is
the use of biochemical tests, such as fermentation of carbohydrates or production of metabolic
by-products, to place microbes in different groups. A third type of identification technique is
serological testing, in which antibodies are used to detect particular antigens on the surfaces of
different microbes in an effort to distinguish closely related species or strains of microbes. Phage
typing is the fourth technique, which is the use of bacteriophages to infect bacterial cells;
because bacteriophages are highly specific in their infection of cells, the patterns of infected and
uninfected cells can be used to differentiate bacterial strains and species. A fifth method involves
analyzing the genetic material of microbes, such as the percentage of G and C bases in a cell's
DNA, to demonstrate possible relationships between species.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 4.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

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Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism

5.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following statements is MOST accurate concerning metabolism?

A) Metabolism is the digestion of nutrients to release energy.

B) Metabolism is the assembly of small molecules into macromolecules.

C) Metabolism is all the chemical reactions of an organism, both anabolic and catabolic.

D) Metabolism is the production and expenditure of chemical energy.

E) Metabolism is the assembly of macromolecules into cellular structures.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.1

2) Anabolic reactions may be characterized as

A) exergonic.

B) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules.

C) forming large molecules from smaller molecules.

D) producing ATP.

E) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules to produce ATP.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

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Learning Outcome: 5.1

3) Which of the following statements concerning reduction reactions is FALSE?

A) An electron acceptor gains an electron.

B) They are coupled with oxidation reactions.

C) They frequently involve electron carrier molecules.

D) An electron acceptor becomes more positively charged.

E) A molecule gains a hydrogen atom.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.2

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4) The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its

A) substrate.

B) coenzyme.

C) apoenzyme.

D) holoenzyme.

E) catalyst.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.6

5) Which of the following processes utilize inorganic phosphate?

A) photophosphorylation

B) oxidative phosphorylation

C) substrate-level phosphorylation

D) both photophosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation

E) both photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.3

6) Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a
particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as

A) allosteric inhibition.

B) competitive inhibition.
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C) excitatory allosteric control.

D) noncompetitive inhibition.

E) feedback inhibition.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.7

7) Which of the following produces NADPH?

A) the pentose phosphate pathway only

B) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway only

C) the Embden-Meyerhof pathway only

D) both the Embden-Meyerhof and Entner-Doudoroff pathways

E) both the pentose phosphate and Entner-Doudoroff pathways

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.13

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8) Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE?

A) Glycolysis produces ATP by oxidative phosphorylation.

B) Glycolysis occurs in the cell membranes of bacteria.

C) Glycolysis both requires the input of ATP and produces ATP.

D) Glycolysis is an alternative to fermentation.

E) Ribulose 5-phosphate is an intermediate of glycolysis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.8

9) Which of the following is required for holoenzyme function?

A) a protein cofactor

B) a coenzyme

C) an allosteric inhibitor

D) a substrate

E) an activator

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.5

10) The catalytic component of a ribozyme is

A) a cofactor.

B) an apoenzyme.

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C) a coenzyme.

D) FADH.

E) RNA.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.5

11) NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is required for many ________ reactions.

A) ribozyme

B) catabolic

C) transfer

D) oxidation-reduction

E) phosphorylation

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.2, 5.3

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12) Which of the following can be the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration in bacteria?

A) nitrate only

B) pyruvic acid only

C) sulfate only

D) both nitrate and sulfate

E) nitrate, pyruvic acid, and sulfate

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.10, 5.14

13) Heme complexed with iron is found in ________ of the electron transport chain.

A) flavoproteins

B) metal-containing proteins

C) ribozymes

D) cytochromes

E) ubiquinones

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.11

14) A catabolic process which occurs in eukaryotic mitochondria is

A) deamination.

B) beta-oxidation.

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C) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.

D) fermentation.

E) the Calvin-Benson cycle.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Catabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.17

15) Which of the following is a by-product of the catabolism of proteins?

A) lactic acid

B) acetyl-CoA

C) proteases

D) ammonia

E) carbon dioxide

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Catabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.18

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16) Changes in ________ can be useful in analyzing microbes' ability to ferment carbohydrates.

A) pH

B) oxygen use

C) osmotic pressure

D) smell

E) temperature

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.16

17) Which of the following is/are common to chemiosmosis and the light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis?

A) reduction of NADP+ only

B) electron transport only

C) a proton gradient only

D) both electron transport and a proton gradient

E) electron transport, a proton gradient, and reduction of NADP+

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.12, 5.23

18) Which of the following is a fermentation product useful in the manufacture of cheese?

A) acetic acid

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B) ammonia

C) ethanol

D) lactic acid

E) pyruvic acid

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.15

19) How many ATP molecules can theoretically be produced from the NADH generated by the
catabolism of a molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration?

A) 34

B) 30

C) 38

D) 36

E) 4

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.12

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20) The habitat of a photosynthetic organism is largely determined by the

A) amount of available oxygen.

B) products of its light-independent reactions.

C) carbohydrates it can metabolize.

D) amount of available hydrogen.

E) chlorophylls it produces.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.20

21) Photosystems are assembled in

A) thylakoids.

B) grana.

C) stroma.

D) cristae.

E) cytoplasm.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.20

22) Beta-oxidation produces a substrate of the

A) pentose phosphate pathway.

B) Entner-Doudoroff pathway.

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C) Embden-Meyerhof pathway.

D) Krebs cycle.

E) Calvin-Benson cycle.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Catabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.17

23) Oxygenic photosynthesis requires

A) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.

B) the pentose phosphate pathway.

C) photosystem II.

D) substrate-level phosphorylation.

E) glycolysis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.22

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24) What is the major product of the Calvin-Benson cycle that can then be used to form glucose?

A) carbon dioxide (CO2)

B) adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

C) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

D) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)

E) NADPH

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.24

25) Chemical reactions that are reversible, proceeding anabolically or catabolically, are called

A) glycolytic.

B) light-independent.

C) synthetic.

D) cyclic.

E) amphibolic.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.25

26) If a cell reverses the process of beta-oxidation, which of the following molecules will it
make?

A) glycerol

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B) amino acids

C) fatty acids

D) nucleotides

E) starch

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.27

27) The process of ________ produces amino acids from precursor metabolites and ammonia.

A) amination

B) transamination

C) reduction

D) polymerization

E) deamination

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.28

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28) The conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates is an example of

A) amination.

B) gluconeogenesis.

C) substrate-level phosphorylation.

D) beta-oxidation.

E) electron transport.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.26

29) All of the following are ways in which cells regulate metabolism EXCEPT

A) feedback inhibition by end products.

B) synthesis or degradation of membrane transport proteins.

C) isolation of various enzymes within membranous organelles.

D) synthesis of a catabolic enzyme only when its substrate is available.

E) use of the same coenzymes for anabolic and catabolic reactions that share substrate
molecules.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions

Learning Outcome: 5.31

30) The metabolic processes called fermentation

A) produce substrates for the Krebs cycle.

B) are alternatives for the pentose phosphate pathway.

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C) use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor.

D) occur only when oxygen is readily available.

E) produce substrates for glycolysis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.14

31) Which of the following is TRUE concerning the structure and function of enzymes?

A) All enzymes bind cofactors necessary for their function.

B) An apoenzyme is a combination of a cofactor bound to a holoenzyme.

C) Enzymes can function at a wide range of pH.

D) Competitive inhibition of an enzyme occurs when an inhibitor binds to an allosteric site on

the enzyme.

E) After an enzyme has catalyzed a reaction, it resumes its original shape and can interact with a
new substrate molecule.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.6

32) The assembly of carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates occurs in the process known as

A) fermentation.

B) oxidation.

C) photosynthesis.

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D) gluconeogenesis.

E) chemiosmosis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.19

33) In aerobic non-photosynthetic organisms, the majority of ATP is generated by

A) glycolysis reactions.

B) catabolic reactions.

C) the Calvin-Benson cycle.

D) oxidation-reduction reactions.

E) substrate-level phosphorylation.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.12

34) Many metabolites for anabolic pathways are produced by the ________ pathway.

A) pentose-phosphate

B) Entner-Doudoroff

C) beta-oxidation

D) chemiosmosis

E) glycolytic

Answer: A

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.13

35) Although glycolysis requires an input of ATP, this pathway results in a net gain of two ATP;
therefore, it is ________ pathway.

A) an exergonic

B) an endergonic

C) an oxidative

D) a reductive

E) neither an exergonic nor an endergonic

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.1

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36) Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?

A) acetic acid

B) oxygen

C) carbonate

D) nitrate

E) sulfate

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.10

37) Isomerases catalyze reactions in which

A) biomolecules are assembled from smaller molecules.

B) biomolecules are broken down into their component parts.

C) groups are transferred from one molecule to another.

D) atoms in biomolecules are rearranged.

E) biomolecules are oxidized or reduced.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.4

38) During the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid, ________ is produced.

A) ATP

B) NADH

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C) FADH2

D) H2O

E) acetic acid

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.9

39) In reactions catalyzed by oxidoreductases an electron donor is

A) oxidized.

B) reduced.

C) synthesized.

D) degraded.

E) unaltered.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.4

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40) Hydrolases are generally involved in ________ reactions.

A) anabolic

B) catabolic

C) both anabolic and catabolic

D) neither anabolic nor catabolic

E) oxidation-reduction

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.4

41) Changes in temperature or pH can cause enzymes to lose activity. What is a common feature
of these two effects?

A) Temperature and pH affect the rate of substrate binding.

B) Temperature and pH both induce an enzyme to lose its precise three-dimensional shape.

C) Temperature and pH change the activation energy of the reaction.

D) Temperature and pH change the ionization state of cofactors.

E) There is no common mechanism of temperature and pH effects on enzyme activity.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.7

42) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during the ________ stage(s) of glycolysis.

A) energy-investment

B) lysis
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C) energy-conservation

D) energy-investment and energy-conservation

E) energy-investment, lysis, and energy-conservation

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.3, 5.8

43) The production of NADH takes place during the ________ stage(s) of glycolysis.

A) energy-conservation

B) energy-investment

C) lysis

D) lysis and energy-investment

E) energy-investment and energy-conservation

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.8

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44) Glycolysis begins with a(n) ________ stage(s).

A) energy-conservation

B) lysis

C) energy-investment

D) lysis and energy-conservation

E) energy-investment and conservation

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.8

45)

Identify the processes of glucose metabolism represented in Figure 5-1.

A) A = electron transport chain, B = Krebs cycle, C = glycolysis, D = fermentation

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B) A = glycolysis, B = fermentation, C = Krebs cycle, D = electron transport chain.

C) A = fermentation, B = glycolysis, C = Krebs cycle, D = electron transport chain

D) A = glycolysis, B = Krebs cycle, C = fermentation, D = electron transport chain

E) A = glycolysis, B = Krebs cycle, C = electron transport chain, D = fermentation.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.8

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46) Which of the following products of glucose catabolism is a substrate for fatty acid synthesis?

A) acetyl-CoA

B) pyruvic acid

C) phosphoglyceric acid

D) oxaloacetate

E) succinyl-CoA

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.27

47)

The arrow indicates the only protein component of this complex. This illustration represents a(n)

A) apoenzyme.

B) coenzyme.

C) holoenzyme.

D) ribozyme.

E) ubiquinone.

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Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.5

5.2 True/False Questions

1) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation requires photosystem II.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.18

8) Synthesis of the precursors of purines and pyrimidines requires transamination of ribose-5-

phosphate.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.29

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9) Essential amino acids are amino acids that cannot be synthesized by an organism and so must
be provided as nutrients.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.28

10) The pentose phosphate pathway generates all the necessary precursors for nucleotide
biosynthesis.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.29

5.3 Short Answer Questions

1) Beta oxidation of fatty acids produces substrates for the (Calvin-Benson/Entner-Doudoroff/

Krebs) cycle.

Answer: Krebs

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Catabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.17

2) The bonds between glycerol and fatty acids are broken by (ligase/lipase/lyase) enzymes.

Answer: lipase

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.4

3) A(n) (oxidation/reduction/transport) reaction is one in which a molecule accepts an electron.

Answer: reduction

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.10

10) Laboratory fermentation tests often include a pH indicator because many bacteria produce
(hydroxyls/bases/acids) as they ferment carbohydrates.

Answer: acids

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.15

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11) The (transferases/transaminases/deaminases) generate amino acids from carbohydrate
precursors and glutamic acid.

Answer: transaminases

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Anabolic Pathways

Learning Outcome: 5.28

12) A (photosystem/thylakoid/chloroplast) is a collection of pigments such as chlorophyll that are

used to absorb light in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.

Answer: photosystem

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.21

13) Waste products such as sulfur are produced by (oxygenic/anoxygenic/aerobic) photosynthetic

bacteria as they obtain electrons for noncyclic photophosphorylation.

Answer: anoxygenic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.22

14) Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by lowering the (activation/reaction/substrate) energy.

Answer: activation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

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Learning Outcome: 5.6

15) Significant amounts of the NADPH required for the Calvin-Benson cycle are produced
during the (cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation reactions of photosynthesis.

Answer: noncyclic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.22

16) Only Photosystem I is required for (cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation to occur.

Answer: cyclic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.21, 5.22

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5.4 Essay Questions

1) Describe the mechanism of feedback inhibition and the role this process plays in controlling
enzyme activity.

Answer: Feedback inhibition is also known as negative feedback and end-product inhibition. In
this mechanism, the product of a particular metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes
a reaction earlier in the pathway. For example, the end-product might be an allosteric inhibitor of
that enzyme, binding to a location on the enzyme outside the active site. When the allosteric
inhibitor binds, it changes the shape of the enzyme and prevents the enzyme from binding to its
substrate. This "shuts off" the enzyme, and because the product of one reaction is the substrate
for another, it shuts down the pathway. The inhibition is released as the amount of the end-
product decreases. When this occurs, the pathway will be turned on again, because the cell again
needs the end-product. Therefore, feedback inhibition controls enzyme activity so that energy is
not wasted and the concentration of a metabolite is maintained.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.7

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2) The discussion of carbohydrate catabolism includes some of the many metabolic variations
microbes are capable of. Using the information in the following table, devise a set of
biochemical tests to identify the bacteria in this example Assume you can detect various organic
compounds. Prepare a dichotomous key of your identification scheme.

Bacterium Glucose fermentation? Lactose fermentation?

Yes, produces
Enterobacter 2,3-butandiol Yes
Yes, produces mixed
Escherichia coli acids Yes
Yes, produces lactic
Proteus acid No
Yes, produces 6-
Pseudomonas phosphogluconic acid Yes

Answer: The following is one possible answer, based on glucose and lactose fermentation. Test
for ability to ferment glucose and lactose. If glucose is fermented, test for the presence of 6-
phosphogluconic acid and 2,3-butandiol.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

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3) Explain why the ATP yield from processes such as cellular respiration is generally given as a
theoretical number.

Answer: The maximum yield of ATP from a single molecule of glucose is 38 ATP molecules.
However, any given glucose molecule may produce fewer than this number of ATP molecules for
a variety of reasons. A eukaryotic cell spends 2 ATP molecules in transporting NADH produced
during glycolysis into the mitochondrion; this reduces the theoretical yield to 36 ATP. The yield
might be even lower, because in chemiosmosis there is no direct relationship between the
number of electrons used to create a proton gradient and the number of ATP molecules produced
from that proton gradient. Proton gradients are used to drive other processes and activities in the
cell besides ATP production, so some of the energy that is represented by the proton gradient can
be "siphoned off" before it is used to make ATP. Some of the intermediates of glycolysis and the
Krebs cycle can be used as substrates for other metabolic processes, and when the intermediates
are diverted, the theoretical ATP yield is not realized.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism

Learning Outcome: 5.8

4) Compare and contrast cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation.

Answer: Both cyclic photophosphorylation and noncyclic photophosphorylation are aspects of

the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. They both involve the excitation of electrons by
solar energy; these excited electrons then participate in an electron transport pathway to create a
proton gradient that can be used to produce ATP through chemiosmosis. However, as its name
implies, cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when electrons return to the chlorophyll molecules
whence they came. Excited electrons in noncyclic photophosphorylation are also used in the
same way to produce ATP; however, these electrons are donated to an NADP+ molecule at the
end of their transport chain, producing NADPH as a product of the system. Because electrons are
constantly leaving the chlorophyll molecules where they are being excited, and not returning,
there must also be a steady source of electrons for the photosystem. These electrons can come
from molecules such as water or hydrogen sulfide.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Photosynthesis

Learning Outcome: 5.22

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5) Discuss the interrelationships between anabolic and catabolic pathways. Provide specific
examples in your answer.

Answer: Catabolic pathways generate the energy required for anabolic reactions. Catabolic
pathways produce intermediates for other pathways, and some intermediates and products of
anabolic pathways provide intermediates for catabolic pathways. The Krebs cycle produces
energy to drive amino acid synthesis, and several Krebs cycle intermediates are substrates for
amino acid biosynthesis. For example, oxaloacetic acid is a precursor for half a dozen amino
acids, and α-ketoglutaric acid is a precursor for about four additional amino acids. The pentose
phosphate pathway produces the five-carbon sugar required for nucleotide synthesis, and various
amino acids are metabolized to produce the nitrogenous bases in nucleotides. The Krebs cycle
produces intermediates and substrates for lipid biosynthesis. Catabolism of amino acids produces
a variety of molecules that are intermediates of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, and the same is
true of lipid catabolism.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions

Learning Outcome: 5.30

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth

6.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) A microbe recovered from an environmental sample grows on a medium composed of agar

and a mix of salts. The agar is not digested during incubation. The growth rate increases in high
CO2 conditions. The organism is likely a(n)

A) heterotroph.

B) autotroph.

C) chemotroph.

D) halophile.

E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

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Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.1

2) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a

A) photoheterotroph.

B) lithoautotroph.

C) photoautotroph.

D) chemoheterotroph.

E) chemoautotroph.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.2

3) Prokaryotes living in the ocean around volcanic vents use the volcanic gasses carbon dioxide
(CO2) and hydrogen sulfide (H2S) to fuel their metabolism. They are therefore

A) chemoheterotrophs.

B) chemoautotrophs.

C) photoautotrophs.

D) lithoautotrophs.

E) lithoheterotrophs.

Answer: D

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.2

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4) An aquatic microbe that can grow only near the surface of the water is probably which of the
following?

A) a phototroph

B) a heterotroph

C) a chemotroph

D) a lithotroph

E) an anaerobe

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.3

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8) A food product is labeled as having antioxidants. It may therefore contain

A) amino acids.

B) vitamin B2 (riboflavin).

C) vitamin C.

D) vitamin E.

E) vitamin C or E, or both.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.4

9) An organism that requires chemical nutrients which serve as final electron acceptors is a(n)

A) chemotroph.

B) phototroph.

C) lithotroph.

D) autotroph.

E) aerobe

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.1

10) At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,

A) proteins are permanently denatured.

B) membranes become too fluid for proper function.

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C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken.

D) hydrogen bonds are broken and proteins are permanently denatured.

E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.6

11) The ________ are an important source of nitrogen compounds that can be metabolized by
most other organisms.

A) higher plants

B) algae

D) obligate anaerobes.

E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.3

15) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?

A) transport media

B) reducing media

C) enriched media

D) differential media

E) selective media

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.10

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16) Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory

A) in a reducing medium.

B) in a standard incubator.

C) in standard Petri plates.

D) on blood agar plates.

E) in standard complex media.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.10

17) Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant.

Which of the following is the process she should use?

A) cell culture

B) chemostat

C) quorum sensing

D) enrichment culture

E) nitrogen fixation

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.11

18) A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium with 100 bacterial cells/ml. If the generation
time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase, how long will it be before the culture
contains more than 10,000 cells/ml?

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A) 24 hours

B) 7 hours

C) 2 hours

D) 3 hours

E) 10 hours

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.16, 6.18

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19) An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria
inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the
bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful?

A) culturing on blood agar plates

B) inoculation of EMB plates

C) incubation in an anaerobic culture system

D) inoculation of cell cultures

E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.12

20) Microbial growth rates are controlled in a chemostat by

A) maintaining a constant temperature.

B) controlling the amount of available oxygen.

C) allowing waste products to accumulate.

D) controlling the amount of a limiting nutrient.

E) promoting biofilm formation.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.19

21) MacConkey agar plates represent ________ medium.

A) a minimal
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B) a selective

C) a differential

D) both a differential and a selective

E) both a minimal and a selective

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.10

22) A Petroff-Hauser counting chamber is a(n)

A) glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope.

B) device that counts cells as they interrupt an electrical current.

C) device that measures the amount of light that passes through a culture.

D) apparatus that traps bacterial cells on a membrane filter where they can be counted.

E) device used to count numbers of bacterial colonies on a Petri plate.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

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23) The best method for preserving bacterial cells in storage for decades is

A) drying under anaerobic conditions.

B) refrigeration.

C) deep freezing.

D) lyophilization.

E) storing them in shrink-wrap.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.13

24) A device that removes wastes and adds fresh medium to bacterial cultures in order to prolong
the log phase of a culture is called a

A) Coulter counter.

B) cytometer.

C) spectrophotometer.

D) pellicle.

E) chemostat.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.19

25) Bacterial binary fission results in ________ growth.

A) binary

B) exponential
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C) linear

D) arithmetic

E) stationary

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.16

26) Which of the following is an indirect method for estimating the number of microbes in a
sample?

A) viable plate counts

B) DNA replication.
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C) doubling of cell size.

D) cytoplasmic membrane production.

E) budding.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.14

30) The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to physically dilute
specimens is called

A) the pour-plate technique.

B) serial dilution.

C) the streak-plate technique.

D) transport media.

E) enrichment culturing.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.9

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31) Which of the following is an approach to preventing the formation of biofilms?

A) digesting matrix molecules

B) stimulating quorum sensing receptors

C) triggering the production of streamers

D) increasing quorum sensing

E) blocking the activity of carbohydrate catabolism

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.7

32) The ________ method provides an estimate of the CFUs (colony-forming units) in a sample.

A) Coulter counter

B) viable plate-count

C) streak-plate

D) turbidity

E) direct microscopic-count

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

33) Students in a microbiology lab are provided plates of medium to use in their bacterial
culturing. The growth of organisms that can metabolize mannose sugar will result in the agar
turning yellow, while the agar color remains unchanged if the mannose is not metabolized. The
plates contain a ________ medium.

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A) differential

B) selective

C) reducing

D) defined

E) transport

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.10

34) Sodium thioglycol212

A) transport media

B) differential media

C) complex media

D) reducing media

E) selective media

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.10

35) Which of the following quantification techniques can distinguish living cells from dead cells
in a culture?

A) microscopic counts
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B) dry weight

C) metabolic activity

D) a Coulter counter

E) turbidity

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

36)

The correct sequence for the phases indicated by the letters A, B, C and D is

A) death phase, log phase stationary phase, lag phase.

B) log phase, stationary phase, lag phase, death phase.

C) stationary phase, lag phase, log phase, death phase.

D) lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death phase.

E) death phase, stationary phase, log phase, lag phase.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.17

37) The generation time of bacterial cells is shortest during the ________ phase.

A) death

B) lag

C) log

D) stationary

E) longitudinal

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6. 15, 6.18

38) When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the ________ phase.

A) stationary

B) log

C) lag

D) death

E) exponential

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.18

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39) Metabolic activity is at maximum level in the ________ phase of growth.

A) lag

B) log

C) death

D) stationary

E) intermediate

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.18

40) Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while
inhibiting the growth of others is called

A) complex culturing.

B) reducing conditions.

C) selective enrichment culturing.

D) transport conditions.

E) differential culturing.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.11

41) A laboratory protocol lists the following ingredients: 1 g sucrose, 16.4 g Na2HPO4,
1.5 g (NH4)3PO4, 0.02 g CaCO3, KNO3, water to 1 liter and autoclave. This recipe is
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for a ________ medium.

A) defined agar

B) defined broth

C) complex broth

D) reducing agar

E) complex enrichment broth

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.18

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6.2 True/False Questions

1) Flow cytometry is an indirect method of determining the number of cells in a sample.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.20

2) Nitrogen fixation produces ammonia from amino acids.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

6.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen (metabolism/fixation).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.13

6) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).

Answer: 11.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.6

7) Many photosynthetic organisms produce (catalase/carotenoids/dismutase) to protect

themselves from the damaging effects of singlet oxygen (1O2).

Answer: carotenoids

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.4

8) A(n) (culture/specimen/inoculum) is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth

medium.

Answer: inoculum

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: N/A

9) A pure culture is composed of cells that arise from a single (cell/inoculum/sample).

Answer: cell

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.9

10) Growing viruses in the lab requires (cell/enrichment/differential) culturing.

Answer: cell

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.12

11) A sample placed into fresh medium is initially in the (lag/log/stationary) phase of microbial
growth in most instances.

Answer: lag

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.18

12) A growth curve plots the (number/concentration) of viable organisms in a growing

population over time.

Answer: number

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.17

13) Flow (spectrophotometry/cytometry) is a method of counting cells that have been stained or
tagged with fluorescent dyes.

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Answer: cytometry

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

14) A clinical sample of (urine/sputum/tissue) is called a biopsy.

Answer: tissue

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.8

15) A (Coulter counter/cytometer/spectrophotometer) can measure changes in the turbidity of a

bacterial culture.

Answer: spectrophotometer

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

6.4 Essay Questions

1) A new prokaryote is recovered from a remote saline hot spring. Design a set of experiments to
determine whether the organism is thermophilic or thermoduric, halophilic or halotolerant.

Answer: The experimental design should include a control in which the organism is grown in
the salt conditions and at the temperature it was recovered from. One set samples should be
cultured at the same salt concentration but varying the temperatures. Another set of samples
should be cultured at the temperature of the hot spring but varying the salt concentration. One
culture should be grown at the lowest temperature and salt concentration used in the two
experimental sets. Bacterial growth is most reliably measured using the viable plate count
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method (assuming the organism can be grown on plates). Alternatively, bacterial numbers may
be determined using a cell counter. An excellent answer will describe the organism which can be
expected to grow under the various conditions (thermophilic halophile, thermophilic
halotolerant, thermoduric halophile, and so forth).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.4, 6.6

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2) Explain how temperature and pH levels can influence microbial infections in the human body.

Answer: All microbes have particular ranges of temperature and pH within which they exist.
When the temperature or pH of their environment falls outside this range, their growth is
inhibited, and they may even die as a result of the adverse conditions. Therefore, only those
microbes whose pH and temperature requirements match those conditions found in the human
body will be able to grow and reproduce there. For example, because the temperature of the
human body is 37°C, only mesophiles can reproduce there. In addition, the pH of most tissues
and fluids in the body is 6.5-7.5, which matches the pH requirements of neutrophiles. Therefore,
it is not surprising that most human pathogens are mesophiles and neutrophiles. However, this is
not always the case. Some microbes have adapted to environments that would otherwise be
extremely hostile to most microbes. A good example is the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which
is able to live in the extremely acidic conditions of the stomach by secreting substances that help
to neutralize the acid. The result is an infection that can lead to stomach ulcers.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Growth Requirements

Learning Outcome: 6.4

3) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of
isolation.

Answer: The streak-plate and the pour-plate methods of bacterial isolation are both used to
produce pure cultures of bacteria from specimens. Both techniques involve the use of agar-based
growth media contained in Petri plates. Additionally, both techniques involve the use of dilutions
as a means of isolating single cells or groups of cells that then grow into isolated colonies.
However, there are several significant differences between the two techniques. The main
difference is the way in which the specimen is diluted. In the streak-plate method, the specimen
is diluted by use of an inoculating loop that spreads organisms over the surface of the agar. Thus,
colonies appear only on the agar surface. In the pour-plate method, however, dilutions of the
specimen are made in tubes of broth and then each dilution is added to melted agar, which is then
poured into Petri dishes. Thus, microbes are mixed throughout the agar, and colonies will appear
both in and on the medium.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Culturing Microorganisms

Learning Outcome: 6.9

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4) Genetic methods of detecting microorganisms reveal that the number of bacterial species in
nature exceeds previous estimates by several orders of magnitude. In the human mouth, for
example, it is estimated that 500-700 microbial species are normally present. Explain why
previous estimates were low.

Answer: Previous estimates of microbial diversity were largely based on the ability to detect
microbes in samples handled in a typical laboratory setting. In most cases, laboratory conditions
represent a narrow range of growth parameters, including temperature range, oxygen and other
gas levels, and spectrum of nutrients. Even in cases where attempts are made to simulate the
normal conditions for microbes (e.g., providing a high-pressure environment for organisms
collected from hyperbaric environment), microorganisms must frequently tolerate fluctuations in
the growth environment or even exposure to extremely adverse conditions for short periods of
time. Organisms that are intolerant of significant fluctuation in their environmental requirements
do not survive transport to the lab to be measured or cultured. As a consequence, only the
relatively few microbes that are versatile in their nutrient requirements and can tolerate
fluctuations in their growth environment have been observed or isolated in the laboratory. This,
in turn, resulted in misleadingly low estimates of microbial diversity.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

5) Explain the similarities and differences between direct and indirect methods of measuring
microbial growth, and give examples of each.

Answer: Direct methods of measuring microbial growth involve quantifying the number of
microbes in a specimen through actual counting of cells in a microscope or cytometer, or
counting the numbers of colonies produced from the plating of a specimen. The advantage of
these techniques lies in their usefulness for counting very large and very small populations of
bacteria. Indirect methods, by contrast, seek to quantify cells by measuring some characteristic
related to the number of cells present. For example, spectrophotometry measures the amount of
light transmitted through a culture; the less light that is transmitted, the more cells are present.
The amount of light transmitted gives an approximation of the number of cells present. Indirect
methods are useful for quantifying microbes, such as filamentous microbes, that are hard to
count directly. Both direct and indirect methods seek to arrive at an approximation of the actual
number of cells present. Because that number is changing even during the measurement process,
neither technique can give an exact number of cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

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Section: Growth of Microbial Populations

Learning Outcome: 6.20

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 7 Microbial Genetics

7.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following occurs in DNA but not RNA?

A) deoxyribose

B) uracil

C) ribose

D) thymine

E) both deoxyribose and thymine

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.2

2) Which of the following is found at the 5' end of a DNA strand?

A) a phosphate group

B) a hydrogen bond

C) a hydroxyl group

D) histones

E) a methyl group

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Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.2

3) The bacterial chromosome is

A) usually circular.

B) found in a nucleoid.

C) found in a nucleus.

D) both circular and found in a nucleoid.

E) both circular and found in a nucleus.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.1

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4) Which of the following types of plasmids facilitates the transfer of genetic material among
bacteria?

A) virulence plasmids

B) fertility plasmids

C) bacteriocin plasmids

D) resistance plasmids

E) cryptic plasmids

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.3

5) Which of the following contributes to the packaging of bacterial chromosome?

A) histone proteins

B) gyrase

C) helicase

D) Okazaki fragments

E) nucleosomes

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.4

6) Which of the following statements is TRUE of bacterial plasmids?

A) They are always found in the nucleoid.

B) They can replicate autonomously.

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C) They carry genes for essential metabolic functions.

D) They are small circular DNA molecules.

E) They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.3

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7)

The process indicated by the arrow in Figure 7-1 represents

A) lagging strand synthesis.

B) leading strand synthesis.

C) transcription.

D) translation.

E) homologous recombination.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.6

8) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about bacterial transcription?

A) It occurs in the periplasm.

B) A single RNA polymerase produces all RNA transcripts.

C) Various sigma factors recognize different promoter sequences.

D) The mRNA is extensively modified before transcription.

E) Rho protein is required for termination of transcription.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

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Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.11

9) Which of the following is involved in translation?

A) rRNA only

B) tRNA only

C) mRNA only

D) both mRNA and tRNA

E) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA are all involved.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.13

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10) Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases?

A) efficiency of proofreading

B) type of nucleotides used

C) direction of polymerization

D) speed

E) dependence on helicase

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.10

11) Typical eukaryotic genomes are composed of ________ DNA molecule(s).

A) multiple linear

B) multiple circular

C) a single circular

D) a single linear

E) both linear and circular

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.4

12) A codon is a particular combination of three nucleotides. Therefore, there are ________
possible combinations of the nucleotides A, C, G, and T.

A) 16
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B) 4

C) 12

D) 64

E) 32

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.12

13) The AUG codon functions in coding for the amino acid methionine and as a

A) termination signal.

B) start signal.

C) "wobble" codon.

D) marker for introns.

E) recognition site for RNA polymerase.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.12

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14) Which of the following regulatory RNAs alter translation in response to environmental
conditions?

A) microRNAs

B) miRNA-induced silencing complexes (miRISCs)

C) riboswitches

D) small interfering RNAs

E) transfer RNAs

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.17

15) During elongation a charged tRNA first enters the ribosomal ________ site and then moves
into the ________ site.

A) A; E

B) P; A

C) P; E

D) A; P

E) E; A

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.13

16) A wild-type organism and a genetic variant both have a gene encoding a receptor producing a

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chemotactic response to metabolite A. The genetic variant has a mutation in a regulatory gene for
expression of the receptor. Which of the following statements with respect to the receptor is
CORRECT?

A) The genotypes and phenotypes of both organisms are the same.

B) The organisms have the same receptor genotype but different phenotypes.

C) The organisms have different genetic sequences for the receptor.

D) The phenotypes of both organisms are the same, but the genotypes differ.

E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.8

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17) Semiconservative DNA replication means that

A) each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand.

B) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA.

C) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time.

D) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated.

E) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.5

18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Okazaki fragments?

A) They are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerase III.

B) They make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA.

C) They begin with an RNA primer.

D) They are joined together by DNA ligase.

E) They are longer in eukaryotic cells.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.7

19) DNA replication and RNA transcription have many features in common. Which of the
following does NOT occur in both processes?

A) base-pairing of complementary nucleotides

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B) separation of the DNA strands ("unzipping")

C) directionality of synthesis

D) energy to drive the process is provided by triphosphate nucleotides

E) a requirement for a primer

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.10

20) Which of the following processes is involved in the "central dogma" of genetics?

A) translation only

B) transcription only

C) DNA replication only

D) transcription and translation

E) DNA replication and translation

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.9

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21) Inducible operons

A) are active in the presence of a repressor.

B) are generally anabolic pathways.

C) are normally active.

D) usually require an activator to be transcribed.

E) usually require a repressor to be transcribed.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.16

22) Which of the following are considered to be frameshift mutations?

A) insertions only

B) inversions only

C) deletions only

D) both inversion and insertions

E) both deletions and insertions

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.19

23) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about BOTH bacterial and eukaryotic DNA
replication?

A) Replication proceeds bidirectionally from the origin of replication.

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B) Each chromosome has multiple origins of replication.

C) A single DNA polymerase is responsible for both leading strand and lagging strand synthesis.

D) The lagging strand is synthesized in fragments of about 1000 or so bases.

E) An RNA primase is required for initiation of synthesis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.7

24) Which of the following causes mutations by creating thymine dimers?

A) nucleotide analogs

B) nitrous acid

C) ultraviolet light

D) benzopyrene

E) gamma rays

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.21

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25) DNA damage caused by ethidium bromide results in ________ mutations.

A) insertion

B) substitution

C) deletion

D) both inversion and insertion

E) both insertion and deletion

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.22

26) What repair mechanism is most likely involved in repairing DNA damage caused by ionizing
radiation?

A) DNA photolyase

B) SOS response

C) dark repair response

D) mismatch repair

E) either DNA photolyase or dark repair

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.24

27) The Ames test demonstrates that a chemical is

A) carcinogenic.
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B) carcinogenic in Salmonella.

C) mutagenic in Salmonella.

D) carcinogenic in humans.

E) mutagenic in humans.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.26

28) The horizontal transfer process known as transduction

A) involves a virus.

B) requires a pilus.

C) requires a cell to be "competent."

D) requires a plasmid.

E) involves a mutagen.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.28 7.31

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29) Bacteria acquire new DNA from the environment in the process of

A) transformation.

B) the SOS response.

C) recombination.

D) conjugation.

E) transposition.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.31

30) In conjugation, F+ cells

A) serve as recipient cells.

B) contain an F plasmid.

C) do not have conjugation pili.

D) can transfer DNA only to other F+ cells.

E) contain "jumping genes."

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.31

31) DNA sequences known as transposons contain

A) promoters.
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B) F+ plasmids.

C) origins.

D) palindromes.

E) sigma factor sequences.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.32

32) Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but NOT eukaryotic
genomes?

A) histones

B) circular chromosomes

C) linear chromosomes

D) enclosed in a nuclear membrane

E) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.1

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33) The procedure known as "replica plating" is used in

A) positive selection only.

B) negative selection only.

C) the Ames test.

D) both positive and negative selection.

E) mutagenesis.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.25

34) The DNA sequence of a portion of gene in a wild-type organism is TTACCATATTCACCC,

and the corresponding peptide sequence is Leu-Pro-Tyr-Ser-Pro. The corresponding gene
fragment in a phenotypic variant of the organism is TTACCATATTCACCC and the peptide
sequence is Leu-Pro-Cys-Ser-Pro. This is an example of a(n) ________ mutation (type) resulting
in a ________ mutation (effect).

A) insertion; nonsense

B) base substitution; missense

C) base substitution; silent

D) deletion; missense

E) base substitution; nonsense

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.19, 7.20

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35) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the lac operon?

A) an inducer

B) a repressor protein

C) an iRNA

D) glucose

E) cyclic AMP

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.16

36) Sigma factors are involved in the regulation of bacterial

A) DNA replication.

B) transcription.

C) translation.

D) mutation repair.

E) transformation.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.11

37) Codons are recognized by

A) mRNAs.

B) siRNAs.

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C) rRNAs.

D) tRNAs.

E) sigma factors.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.12

38) The events of ________ are initiated at sequences called origins.

A) DNA replication

B) translation

C) splicing

D) transcription

E) transposition

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.6

39) The process of ________ requires the activity of DNA ligase.

A) translation

B) capping

C) transcription

D) DNA replication

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E) transduction

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.6

40) Which of the following occurs in eukaryotes but NOT in prokaryotes?

A) DNA replication

B) translation

C) transcription

D) transformation

E) polyadenylation

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.11

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41) Ribozymes are required for

A) translation.

B) RNA splicing.

C) capping.

D) both translation and RNA splicing.

E) capping, RNA splicing and translation.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.13

42) The process known as ________ is initiated with the incorporation of fMet.

A) translation

B) transcription

C) capping

D) DNA replication

E) light repair

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.13

43) Cells must be naturally or artificially "competent" for which of the following events to
occur?

A) transformation
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B) generalized transduction

C) conjugation

D) transposition

E) specialized transduction

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.31

44) The process of ________ is described as semiconservative.

A) translation

B) transcription

C) mismatch repair

D) transformation

E) DNA replication

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.5

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45) During ________, a new peptide bond is formed with the amino acid located in the A site.

A) polyadenylation

B) DNA replication elongation

C) mismatch repair

D) transcription elongation

E) translation elongation

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.13

7.2 True/False Questions

1) Prokaryotic cells are diploid.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.1

2) A chemical is reported to inhibit bacterial replication. Bacterial cells are placed in medium
with all nutrients necessary for replication. The chemical is added to the culture, and after a half
hour an extract of the DNA is prepared. A significant percentage of the DNA is in pieces about
1000 to 2000 bases in length. The results are consistent with the chemical blocking the function
of DNA ligase.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

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Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.7

3) Pyrimidine dimers are severe mutations because cells have few mechanisms for repairing
them.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.21

4) Most bacteria have a natural ability to take up DNA from their environment.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.31

1) A(n) (operon/codon/gene) is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an

RNA molecule.

Answer: gene

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

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Learning Outcome: 7.1

2) Loosely packed, transcriptionally active regions of a eukaryotic chromosome are called

(euchromatin/heterochromatin/nucleosomes).

Answer: euchromatin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.4

3) Transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by viruses is called (transformation/transduction/

conjugation).

Answer: transduction

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.31

4) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes).

Answer: traits

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.8

5) The enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands during DNA replication is
(topoisomerase/gyrase/helicase).

Answer: helicase

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes

Learning Outcome: 7.6

6) The chemical 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n)
(analog/nucleotide/precursor) of thymine.

Answer: analog

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.22

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7) A protein has altered function as a result of a single amino acid substitution in the polypeptide.
This change resulted from a (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation.

Answer: missense

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.20

8) Except during initiation of translation, transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially
bind to the ribosome at the (P/A/E) site.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.10

15) While studying a bacterial strain a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted
repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell. This sequence is most
likely a (phage/transposon/transformation).

Answer: transposon

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.30

7.4 Essay Questions

1) Describe the basic similarities and differences between DNA replication and transcription.

Answer: DNA replication and transcription are similar processes in that they both involve the
production of molecules of nucleic acids using a preexisting template. Therefore, they both
involve the polymerization of nucleotides to create long chains, as well as the utilization of
complementary base-pairing rules to create the nucleotide sequence of the new molecule based
on the sequence of the template. Additionally, these chains of nucleotides are synthesized in the
same direction, 5' to 3', regardless of the type of nucleic acid being produced. However, there are
a number of differences between these two processes as well. During DNA replication both DNA
strands serve as template, while only one DNA strand is the template for transcription. The
product of DNA replication is an exact, complete DNA copy of an entire DNA molecule that will
be passed on to the offspring of the cell producing it. The product of transcription is an RNA
copy of a limited region (a gene) of a DNA molecule. Furthermore, this RNA molecule may not
be an exact copy of the gene, because transcription is more prone to errors than DNA replication.
The RNA molecules produced during transcription are used within the cell that produces them to
provide information for the synthesis of proteins during translation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.10

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2) Hepatitis C and other viruses with RNA genomes have higher mutation rates than viruses with
DNA genomes. Based on information up to this point in the text suggest some possible
explanations for the higher mutation rates. (You may also want to consider information in
chapter 2, chemistry.)

Answer: There are multiple possible answers.

One answer is that DNA polymerases, especially DNA polymerase III, have a proofreading
function that detects and removes most misincorporations into newly synthesized strands. RNA
polymerases have limited proofreading function and consequently more errors occur in newly
synthesized RNA strands.

DNA is normally double-stranded, and most of the repair functions in cells involve or require
double stranded nucleic acids to detect and direct repair of errors. RNA molecules are normally
predominantly single-stranded and thus do not provide the context for repair functions to detect
or repair mutations. In addition, the repair enzymes may not be able to bind or repair RNA
molecules in the first place.

In chapter 2, hydroxyl groups are listed as functional, occasionally reactive groups. RNA
molecules have a hydroxyl group DNA molecules lack. RNA is therefore more chemically
reactive, which may in turn produce damage that would not normally occur in DNA.

A good answer will include one of the above, a very good answer will include two, and excellent
answer will include all three, or include another valid mechanism not covered here.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.2, 7.6, 7.10, 7.24

3) Bacterial strain A contains a plasmid. Bacterial strain B does not. After the bacteria are
incubated together in a broth culture strain B cells containing the plasmid can be isolated. Devise
an experiment to determine what type of gene transfer process is involved.

Answer: A variety of answers are possible. For example, bacterial strains A & B could be placed
on either side of a filter with a pore size too small to allow bacteria to cross; if no strain B
recombinants are produced the results would be consistent with gene transfer by conjugation.
Another experiment would be to mix the bacteria in the presence of DNase; if recombinants are
not detected the results would suggest transformation of competent cells is involved. If
recombinants are detected, genetic transfer by conjugation or transduction are possible. A good
experimental design will include appropriate controls. An excellent answer may include multiple
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experimental approaches and/or discussion of alternatives to the proposed experiment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer

Learning Outcome: 7.31

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4) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.

Answer: Both the lactose and the tryptophan operons have certain features in common. They
both contain a set of genes dedicated to a common purpose (such as the catabolism of lactose by
the genes of the lactose operon) and regulatory elements such as a promoter and an operator.
Each of these operons makes use of a repressor protein, which binds to the operator region and
alters the activity of the operon. However, the lactose operon is classified as an inducible operon,
which means it requires an inducer (a lactose metabolite) in order to be activated. In the absence
of the inducer, the repressor protein shuts down the operon. In contrast, the tryptophan operon is
a repressible operon, which requires a corepressor (tryptophan itself) in order to activate the
repressor and shut down the operon. In the absence of the corepressor and repressor, the
tryptophan operon is fully functional. In both types of operons, the molecule either catabolized
(in the case of lactose or synthesized (in the case of tryptophan) is an important component of the
regulation of the operon. In this way, the cell maintains precise control over these genetic
pathways and does not spend time and energy making enzymes that are not needed. For example,
making enzymes to catabolize lactose when no lactose is present would waste energy and
metabolites.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Gene Function

Learning Outcome: 7.16

5) A point mutation can be completely harmless, or it can result in the death of a cell or
organism. Explain why these types of mutations can have such varying effects.

Answer: A point mutation is a single base change in the nucleotide sequence of a cell's genome.
The effects of a point mutation can depend on its location. Point mutations in noncoding regions
of the genome are usually harmless. Even in coding regions, point mutations can be harmless if
they result in silent mutations. Silent mutations preserve the sense of the amino acid code
because of the concept of "wobble," in which two codons can code for the same amino acid by
varying only at the third base of the codon. If the point mutation has occurred at this third base,
then the amino acid sequence of the protein will remain unchanged. Point mutations occurring at
the first or second base of the codon are almost always much more serious because they change
the codon to a completely different amino acid. This type of point mutation is known as a
missense mutation. Occasionally changes in the first or second base are still silent, in the case of
amino acids specified by several codons (e.g. CGG and AGG both code for Arginine). (Another
exception to this occurs when the new amino acid is chemically similar to the previous amino
acid, in which case the missense mutation usually causes little or no change in the overall
structure or function of the protein.) Finally, one of the most serious types of point mutations is a
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nonsense mutation in which the codon has been changed to a stop codon. These types of
mutations result in the abnormal termination of a protein sequence. In all such cases, if the
protein affected by the mutation is an enzyme or some other vital protein required for proper
cellular function, then the cell and/or organism may die as a result of these relatively simple
mutations.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Mutations of Genes

Learning Outcome: 7.18, 7.19

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 8 Recombinant DNA Technology

8.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Recombinant DNA technology can be most accurately defined as the

A) use of microorganisms to produce useful products.

B) selective breeding of organisms to create new combinations of traits.

C) study of replication and recombination in microbes.

D) study of genetic expression in microbes.

E) deliberate modification of the genome of an organism for practical purposes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology

Learning Outcome: 8.1

2) An ancient application of biotechnology is

A) selective breeding of plants.

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B) production of cheese.

C) the practice of medicine.

D) traditional agriculture.

E) both traditional agriculture and the selective breeding of plants.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology

Learning Outcome: 8.2

3) Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme?

A) the Gram reaction of the source bacterium

B) the specific epithet of the source bacterium

C) Roman numerals to indicate its order of discovery

D) the strain of the source bacterium

E) the genus of the source bacterium

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.8

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4) What are the "sticky ends" produced by some restriction enzymes?

A) Sticky ends are short single-strand ends of a DNA molecule.

B) Sticky ends are able to hydrogen bond with complementary strands.

C) Sticky ends are DNA strands with an extra hydroxyl group on the end.

D) Sticky ends are short single-strand ends of DNA able to hydrogen bond with complementary
strands.

E) Sticky ends are DNA strands able to form phosphate bonds with free DNA ends.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.9

5) A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a

A) cDNA library.

B) FISH library.

C) gene library.

D) microarray.

E) DNA fingerprint.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.11

6) Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments? (The
arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme.)

A) C↓CGG
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B) G↓GATCC

C) G↓AATTC

D) CCC↓GGG

E) A↓AGCTT

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.9

7) Which of the following is necessary to produce an "expression" library representing the active
genes of an organism?

A) synthetic nucleic acids

B) reverse transcriptase

C) a gene gun

D) mutagens

E) nucleic acid probes

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology

Learning Outcome: 8.5

8) Small circular DNA autonomously replicating molecules with several restriction sites and a
"marker" to trace their location are commonly called

A) phages.

B) clones.

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C) vectors.

D) arrays.

E) vehicles.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.10

9) Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as

A) DNA probes.

B) primers for PCR.

C) antisense RNAs.

D) DNA probes and antisense RNAs.

E) DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.7

10) Mutagens are useful in biotechnology research for

A) producing organisms with altered phenotypes.

B) producing new organisms which have beneficial traits from two or more organisms.

C) selecting genetic mutants resistant to radioactivity.

D) removing undesirable traits from microbes.

E) producing DNA fragments for cloning.

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Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.4

11) Which of the following is essential in PCR?

A) DNA polymerase

B) antisense RNAs

C) reverse transcriptase

D) DNA primers

E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.12

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12) If a researcher used Escherichia coli DNA polymerase instead of Thermus aquaticus DNA
polymerase in the PCR procedure, what would be the result?

A) DNA replication would occur more slowly than normal.

B) DNA replication would not occur at all.

C) Many mistakes would occur.

D) DNA replication would occur twice as fast as normal.

E) DNA replication would stop after one cycle.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.12

13) Which of the following would be an appropriate sequence of temperatures for PCR?

A) 94°C, 55°C, 37°C

B) 94°C, 65°C, 72°C

C) 65°C, 72°C, 94°C

D) 94°C, 37°C, 55°C

E) 72°C, 65°C, 94°C

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.12

14) If you started with a single DNA molecule, how many would you have at the end of six PCR
cycles?

A) 6
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B) 16

C) 32

D) 64

E) 100

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.12

15) In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the ________ electrode(s) because they
have an overall ________ charge.

A) negative; negative

B) positive; positive

C) negative; positive

D) positive; negative

E) negative and positive; neutral

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.14

16) Which of the following procedures might be used to detect the presence of genetic sequences
of a virus in a sample?

A) Southern blotting

B) creation of a gene library

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C) PCR

D) genome mapping

E) Southern blotting or PCR

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.12, 8.14

17) A northern blot differs from a Southern blot in the

A) type of probe used.

B) presence or absence of a nitrocellulose membrane.

C) size of the genetic sequences involved.

D) number of genetic sequences detected.

E) type of nucleic acid being isolated.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.14

18)

Which method of inserting DNA into cells is illustrated in this figure?

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A) protoplast fusion

B) injection

C) electroporation

D) a gene gun

E) transduction

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.16

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19) The DNA double helix can be separated into single strands using

A) heat.

B) NaOH.

C) reverse transcriptase.

D) either heat or NaOH.

E) heat, NaOH, and reverse transcriptase.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.12, 8.14

20) Synthetic nucleic acids are produced using

A) recombinant microbes.

B) a thermal cycler.

C) computerized assembly using replication enzymes in vitro.

D) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA.

E) a series of chemical steps carried out on the lab bench.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.6

21) Specific DNA fragments can be isolated from a mixture of fragments using

A) an electrophoresis chamber.

B) a gene gun.

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C) a DNA sequencer.

D) a thermocycler.

E) a nucleic acid synthesis machine.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.14

22) DNA fingerprinting can be used

A) to detect unculturable organisms.

B) to generate cDNA clones.

C) in forensic investigations.

D) to generate cDNA clones and libraries.

E) for forensics and detection of unculturable organisms.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.19

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23) A researcher inserted DNA fragments from an organism into plasmids and introduced the
modified plasmids into bacterial cells. Which of the following methods would be the most
efficient means of identifying which clones contain a specific gene of interest?

A) Sequence the DNA of the plasmids from each isolate.

B) Use a microarray to detect a transcript of the gene.

C) Use a labeled synthetic probe complementary to the gene sequence.

D) Assay for activity of the gene product.

E) Use electrophoresis to identify plasmids containing an insert of the expected size.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.13

24) Subunit vaccines are safer than traditional vaccines because they

A) are acellular.

B) are administered in food.

C) do not pose a risk for causing the disease.

D) are acellular and do not pose a risk for causing the disease.

E) are acellular and can be administered in food.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.18

25) Which of the following recombinant tools is NOT used in DNA fingerprinting?

A) PCR
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B) restriction enzyme digestion

C) gel electrophoresis

D) reverse transcription

E) Neither PCR nor gel electrophoresis is used.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.19

26) Modified corn strains that produce an insect toxin from a bacterial gene are an example of

A) gene therapy.

B) protoplasts.

C) vectors.

D) transgenic organisms.

E) transgender organisms.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.21

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27) Which of the following has been genetically modified to stop the spread of a human disease?

A) Pseudomonas

B) Haemophilus influenzae

C) Bacillus thuringiensis

D) Thermus aquaticus

E) Aedes aegypti

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8. 18

28) Replacing the defective gene responsible for sickle-cell anemia is an example of

A) gene therapy.

B) genetic screening.

C) DNA fingerprinting.

D) producing a transgenic organism.

E) recombinant therapy.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.18

29) If all the following DNA fragments were analyzed on an electrophoresis gel, which one
would migrate farthest from the negative electrode?

A) 5000 base pairs

B) 750 base pairs

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C) 1000 base pairs

D) 250 base pairs

E) 2500 base pairs

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.14

30) Which of the following procedures would be used to introduce DNA into a single mouse
cell?

A) Southern blotting

B) electroporation

C) gene gun

D) microinjection

E) protoplast fusion

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.16

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31) The procedure used to identify individuals by their unique genetic sequences is known as

A) DNA sequencing.

B) microarray analysis.

C) DNA fingerprinting.

D) northern analysis.

E) xenotransplantation.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.19

32) An effective tool for screening a large number of genetic sequences at once is known as

A) restriction analysis.

B) FISH.

C) cDNA synthesis.

D) microarray.

E) gel electrophoresis.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.15

33) A researcher finds a mutant mouse with a phenotype that may have applications to human
disease. What would be the most efficient means of identifying the mutated gene?

A) Sequence the entire genome of the mutant.

B) Use a microarray to identify transcribed genes.

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C) Use DNA fingerprinting to identify a DNA fragment of altered size.

D) Search a mouse gene library.

E) Use DNA fingerprinting to identify an altered DNA fragment, sequence it and search a gene
library.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8. 11, 8.17, 8.19

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34)

One of two men may be the father of a child. This figure shows the results of a DNA fingerprint
analysis to determine paternity. M is the mother, C is the child, A and B are the two men. What is
the best interpretation of these results?

A) The man identified as A is probably the father.

B) The man identified as B is probably the father.

C) Neither man is this child's father.

D) Either man could be this child's father.

E) Paternity cannot be determined from this data.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.19

35) Which of the following microbes has been genetically engineered to contain a protein that
helps protect crops from freezing?

A) Deinococcus radiodurans

B) Bacillus thuringiensis
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C) Pseudomonas

D) Salmonella

E) Escherichia coli

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.21

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36) Synthesis of cDNA requires the use of

A) DNA ligase.

B) agarose.

C) reverse transcriptase.

D) restriction enzymes.

E) fluorescent synthetic nucleotides.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.5

37) Probes used for detecting genetic sequences are frequently composed of

A) plasmids with a marker sequence.

B) synthetic nucleic acids and labeled conjugates, such as fluorescent dyes.

C) restriction enzymes.

D) silicon chips.

E) gold beads coated with DNA.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.7

38) Which of the following could be used to reduce production of harmful proteins in diseased
animals?

A) antisense RNAs
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B) modified mRNAs

C) gene mapping

D) expression vectors

E) PCR

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.7

39) A microarray is assembled using

A) reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase.

B) restriction enzymes.

C) agarose and nitrocellulose.

D) gold beads and magnets.

E) single-stranded DNA and silicon chips.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.15

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40) Examples of recent accomplishments in the use of recombinant DNA technology include

A) production of a peach-apple hybrid plant.

B) gene therapy to correct an immune system deficiency in humans.

C) production of gene modified human embryos.

D) production of new emerging disease agents.

E) a cure for HIV.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology

Learning Outcome: 8.2

41) In Southern blotting, DNA molecules are immobilized on

A) silicon chips.

B) nitrocellulose membranes.

C) agarose.

D) gold beads.

E) paper.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.14

42) The detection of DNA by FISH makes use of

A) restriction fragments.

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B) reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase.

C) synthetic DNAs and fluorescent tags.

D) compressed air and gold beads.

E) DNA polymerase and DNA ligase.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.17

43) Injecting DNA into cells can be accomplished using

A) nitrocellulose membranes.

B) silicon chips and nucleic acids.

C) compressed air and gold beads.

D) micropipettes.

E) micropipettes, or compressed air and gold beads.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.16

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44) DNA encoding a normal gene is inserted into cells from a patient with a defective form of the
gene. Recombinant cells are identified and isolated, and returned to the patient's body. This is an
example of

A) gene therapy.

B) genomics.

C) genetic fingerprinting.

D) genotyping.

E) biotechnology.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.20

45) Some of the strongest opposition to the application of recombinant DNA technology
concerns

A) DNA fingerprinting.

B) modification of food crops.

C) correcting gene defects in animals.

D) sequencing of the human genome.

E) pest control measures.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.22

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8.2 True/False Questions

1) Gene therapy for human genetic diseases has not yet been successful.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.20

2) The name of a restriction enzyme is based on the scientific name of the microbe from which it
was isolated.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.8

3) The goals of recombinant DNA technology include production of new organisms with useful
combinations of traits.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology

Learning Outcome: 8.3

4) Restriction enzymes are useful only on synthetic DNAs.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

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Learning Outcome: 8.8

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8.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The use of microbes to make practical products such as vaccines or hormones is called
(genomics/recombination/biotechnology).

Answer: biotechnology

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology

Learning Outcome: 8.1

2) A technique using fluorescent-tagged probes to detect specific DNA sequences in their natural
locations is known as (FISH/PCR/cDNA).

Answer: FISH

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.17

3) DNA (microarrays/fingerprints/libraries) produce patterns of DNA fragments that can be

compared with other DNA samples.

Answer: fingerprints

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.19

4) Restriction (enzymes/proteases/fragments), first isolated from bacterial cells, cut DNA

molecules at specific sites.

Answer: enzymes
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.9

5) Short nucleic acid molecules used to locate complementary sequences in a larger population
of molecules are called (probes/primers/vectors).

Answer: probes

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.7

6) Investigating the genes and proteins of a microbe is part of the field of (cloning/genomics/
genetics). (Select the best answer.)

Answer: genomics

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.17

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7) The northern blot is a technique used to detect specific RNA molecules in a larger population
of molecules that have been separated by gel (electroporation/electrophoresis).

Answer: electrophoresis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.14

8) Small RNAs that bind to an mRNA and alter its expression are known as (antisense/probes/
restriction) RNAs.

Answer: antisense

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.7

9) Detection of a pathogen by PCR requires the use of unique sequence (probes/primers/

fragments).

Answer: primers

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.7, 8.12

10) The insertion of foreign DNA directly into a cell's nucleus using a glass micropipet is called
(microporation/electroporation/microinjection).

Answer: microinjection

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.16

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11) Genetic (screening/sequencing/cloning) can be used to detect mutant genes associated with
genetic diseases in individuals before any clinical symptoms are noted.

Answer: screening

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.18

12) A DNA (library/microarray) may be used to study the complex, changing patterns of mRNA
production in an organism.

Answer: microarray

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.15

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13) Beta-carotene, the biochemical precursor to vitamin A, can be added to rice by using
(biotechnology/cloning/recombinant) DNA technology, thereby increasing its nutritional value.

Answer: recombinant

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.21

14) Study of the genome of Deinococcus radiodurans may provide insight into preventing or
correcting genetic damage resulting from (radiation/mutation/chemicals).

Answer: radiation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.17

15) Competent cells are used to introduce DNA into cells by means of (electroporation/pellets/
vectors).

Answer: vectors

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.10

8.4 Essay Questions

1) Discuss some of the impacts that tools and techniques of recombinant DNA technology have
had on medicine.

Answer: Human gene libraries and DNA sequencing have greatly facilitated detecting genes and
gene complexes that contribute to disease, both the genetic mutations that cause disease and

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genetic predispositions to a wide range of diseases. PCR, FISH, and microarrays are all tools that
can be used to determine whether a person carries a specific genetic variation linked to disease or
to detect the presence of a pathogen causing disease. Recombinant technology has provided tools
to prevent or cure disease. Some examples include the ability to produce therapeutic agents such
as human insulin for diabetes, clotting factors for people with blood-clotting disorders, and
vaccines to prevent infection. The use of gene therapy to correct disorders of abnormal or
nonfunctional genes is in its infancy but holds great promise.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.18

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2) Discuss one of the pros and cons regarding the application of recombinant DNA technology.

Answer: Topics can include: the improvement of crop yield versus the suspected effects of
modified foods, or the unintentional spread of resistance genes; the ability to produce livestock
with consistent high quality traits versus the hazards of monoculture; correction of genetic
defects versus "designer" children; screening for disease predisposition versus privacy; and/or
discrimination concerns. [See page 291 for additional details.]

A good answer may include additional topics. An excellent answer will reflect clear reasoning
and discuss both sides of the issue.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.22

3) What techniques covered in this chapter could a biologist use to study a biofilm community,
including what microbes may be present and what activities are taking place in the community?

Answer: Answers will vary. The more techniques included, the better the answer. An excellent
answer would include discussion of the possible drawbacks of each.

A combination of DNA fingerprint analysis, PCR and DNA sequencing may be useful in
identifying what microbes are present. Expression of genes may be analyzed by preparing
cDNAs and sequencing them. If the community is largely composed of unknown microbes these
approaches may be time-consuming and miss some important contributions.

Microarrays may be used to (1) identify the microbial species present or (2) track changes in
genetic expression using cDNAs. This approach would provide a "group portrait" of the
community. To be successful prior knowledge of the probable inhabitants and gene sequences is
needed.

FISH may be used to (1) determine the distribution of specific species in a biofilm or (2)
investigate whether genes are expressed in specific locations in the biofilm. FISH has the same
limitation as microarray analysis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.12, 8.13, 8.14, 8.15, 8.16, 8.17

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4) Outline a procedure for producing a useful new recombinant product.

Answer: Many variations are possible. The answer should include (1) what organism is used as
the source of DNA and how the desired DNA sequence is obtained (2) the insertion of the DNA
sequence into a plasmid (3) the method of introduction of the plasmid into cells and (4) how
recombinant cells are identified. Since the question states a goal of a recombinant product, an
expression vector should be specified. A variety of tools and techniques will be involved in a full
answer.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.9, 8.10, 8.13, 8.14, 8.16

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5) Explain what a transgenic organism is, and give two examples.

Answer: A transgenic organism is one that contains genes from other organisms. These genes
usually add some special ability or function to the organism. Agriculture offers many examples
of transgenic organisms. Soybeans have been engineered to contain glyphosate-resistance genes,
and other crops have been engineered to grow well in soil with high salt concentrations. Plants
have been modified to be resistant to naturally occurring microbial diseases. Still other plants
have been engineered to contain the gene for Bt toxin, a bacterial toxin that kills insect pests that
would otherwise feed on and destroy the crop. Not all transgenic organisms represent such
extreme genetic modifications, however. Some genetically modified organisms simply represent
efforts to improve nutritional content (in the case of plant crops) or to increase food yield (in the
case of bovine growth hormone, which is produced by transgenic bacteria and then given to
cattle to increase their meat and milk yield).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology

Learning Outcome: 8.21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 9 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment

9.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Physical removal of microbes without killing them is

A) degerming.

B) germistatic.

C) germicidal.

D) sanitization.

E) antisepsis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.2

2) Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants?

A) They are effective in destroying endospores.

B) They are used on living tissue.

C) They are used for sterilization.

D) They are used on inanimate surfaces.

E) They are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes).

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.1

3) A stationary broth culture contains 10 billion (1010) cells. The microbial death rate during
autoclaving of this spent culture is 1.5 minutes. How long must it be autoclaved to be considered
sterile?

A) 10 minutes

B) 9 minutes

C) 12 minutes

D) 20 minutes

E) 16.5 minutes

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

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4) Which of the following is an example of sanitization?

A) A public toilet is treated with disinfectants.

B) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery.

C) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice.

D) An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar.

E) A nurse prepares an injection site with an alcohol swab.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.2

5) An antimicrobial agent that ________ will have the most lasting germicidal effect.

A) damages cytoplasmic membranes

B) inhibits enzymatic activity

C) destroys metabolites

D) damages cell walls

E) damages DNA

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.5

6) Which of the following is bacteriostatic?

A) heating in an oven at 171°C for an hour

B) freezing below 0°C

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C) filtration

D) autoclaving

E) flash pasteurization

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.14

7) Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect

A) the cell wall.

B) the cell membrane.

C) the viral envelope.

D) endospores.

E) protein synthesis.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.5

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8) Seventy-percent alcohol is effective against

A) enveloped viruses.

B) nonenveloped viruses.

C) bacterial endospores.

D) protozoan cysts.

E) prions.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.21

9) An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected
with a(n)

A) high-level germicide.

B) low-level germicide.

C) intermediate-level germicide.

D) degerming agent only.

E) germistatic agent only.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods

Learning Outcome: 9.6

10) A germistatic agent would be effective on

A) vegetative bacterial cells.

B) fungus spores.
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C) bacterial endospores.

D) nonenveloped viruses.

E) protozoal cysts.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.3

11) Which of the following describes flash pasteurization?

A) heating at 63°C for 30 minutes

B) heating at 72°C for 15 seconds

C) heating at 72°C for 15 minutes

D) heating at 134°C for one second

E) passing liquid through steam at 140°C

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.13

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12) The individual serving of half & half used in restaurants is usually treated by

A) filtration.

B) ionizing radiation.

C) lyophilization.

D) ultra-high-temperature sterilization.

E) autoclaving.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.13

13) Boiling water for 10 minutes is effective in ridding it of

A) actively growing bacteria.

B) enveloped viruses.

C) bacterial endospores.

D) protozoan cysts.

E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.11

14) Filtration is a(n) ________ method of achieving sterilization.

A) germistatic

B) germicidal

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C) degerming

D) antiseptic

E) viricidal

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.16

15) Which of the following is a target of pasteurization?

A) Bacillus stearothermophilus

B) Clostridium botulinum

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D) Chlamydia trachomatis

E) Brucella melitensis

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.13

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16) Which of the following types of radiation causes the formation of damaging chemical bonds
in DNA?

A) ultraviolet light

B) infrared radiation

C) microwaves

D) X-rays

E) gamma rays

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.18

17) Which of the following is used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables?

A) X-rays

B) ultraviolet light

C) electron beams

D) microwaves

E) gamma rays

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.18

18) Air can be disinfected using

A) HEPA filters.

B) ethylene oxide.
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C) ultraviolet light.

D) both HEPA filters and ultraviolet light.

E) both ethylene oxide and ultraviolet light.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.16, 9.18

19) Silvadene, a topical treatment for burns, contains 1% silver. What category of chemical
control agent is in Silvadene?

A) halogens

B) heavy metals

C) oxidizing agents

D) aldehydes

E) surfactants

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.25

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20) Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level?

A) E. coli, BSL-3

B) anthrax, BSL-1

C) Ebola, BSL-2

D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2

E) tuberculosis, BSL-1

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods

Learning Outcome: 9.9

21) The use of lysozyme during the preparation of cheeses and wines is effective in reducing the
numbers of

A) fungi.

B) viruses.

C) bacteria.

D) prions.

E) all microbes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.28

22) Which statement about quaternary ammonium compounds is CORRECT?

A) They are a type of halogen.

B) They inhibit enzyme function.

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C) They are not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

D) They function by cross-linking proteins.

E) They are carcinogenic.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.24

23) Which of the following is a sterilizing agent?

A) ozone

B) hydrogen peroxide

C) peracetic acid

D) dish soap

E) ozone and hydrogen peroxide

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.23

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24) The heavy metal compound ________ is used as a preservative in some vaccines.

A) copper sulfate

B) zinc oxide

C) thimerosal

D) hexachlorophene

E) silver nitrate

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.25

25) The phenolic ________ is present in many consumer products labeled "antibacterial."

A) ethylene oxide

B) formaldehyde

C) hydrogen peroxide

D) calcium hypochlorite

E) triclosan

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.20

26) Formaldehyde must be handled with greater care than gluteraldehyde because it is

A) carcinogenic.

B) far more reactive.

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C) a gas.

D) an odorless gas.

E) a carcinogenic gas.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.26

27) Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are

A) aldehydes.

B) antimicrobials.

C) halogens.

D) quats.

E) triclosans.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.29

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28) Honey can be stored at room temperature for long periods of time because it

A) is highly acidic.

B) is hypertonic.

C) is a natural surfactant.

D) contains lysozyme.

E) contains oxidizing agents.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.17

29) What factors need to be considered when choosing a method of microbial control?

A) the site or material to be treated

B) the environment of the site or material to be treated

C) the susceptibility of the microbes which must be removed

D) the site and the environment to be treated

E) the site and environment to be treated, and the susceptibility of the microbes

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods

Learning Outcome: 9.6

30) The endospores of which of the following microbes are used to measure the effectiveness of
autoclave sterilization?

A) Clostridium botulinum

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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C) Bacillus stearothermophilus

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E) Mycobacterium bovis

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.12

31) A researcher has discovered a new metabolic product of a fungus that may have
antimicrobial properties. Which method would be best for preparing the material for tests of its
effect on bacteria?

A) autoclaving

B) filtration

C) dilution with alcohol

D) lyophilization

E) ultraviolet irradiation

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.16

32) Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for
evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants?

A) use-dilution test

B) microbial death rate

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C) in-use test

D) thermal death point

E) phenol coefficient

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.30

33) Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress?

A) autoclaving

B) formaldehyde

C) ethylene oxide

D) heavy metals

E) radiation

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.27

34) Disinfectants that damage membranes include

A) alcohols.

B) phenolics.

C) iodine.

D) hydrogen peroxide.

E) both alcohols and phenolics.

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Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.20, 9.21

35) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans?

A) 70% alcohol

B) ethylene oxide

C) quats

D) chloramines

E) iodophors

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.27

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36) Desiccation is primarily effective against

A) enveloped viruses.

B) vegetative bacteria.

C) vegetative fungi.

D) bacterial endospores.

E) nonenveloped viruses.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.15

37) Hydrogen peroxide is NOT an effective antiseptic because

A) it evaporates too quickly.

B) exposure to light rapidly degrades it.

C) it is only effective on a small number of fungi.

D) the catalase present in skin cells degrades it.

E) it is mostly water.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.23

38) The process of incineration is used for

A) sterilization.

B) degerming.

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C) disinfection.

D) sanitization.

E) disinfection.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.27

42) Glutaraldehyde acts on microbes by

A) disrupting cytoplasmic membranes.

B) denaturing proteins.

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C) cross-linking thymidines in DNA.

D) forming chemical cross links in DNA and proteins.

E) inhibiting enzyme activity.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.26

43) ________ may be achieved using chlorine dioxide.

A) Disinfection

B) Sterilization

C) Degerming

D) Antisepsis

E) Both antisepsis and degerming

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.22

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44) Gamma irradiation is a process for

A) sterilization.

B) disinfection.

C) antisepsis.

D) degerming.

E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.18

45) Why is Bacillus stearothermophilus useful as an indicator of sterility?

A) It is a very common contaminant.

B) It forms cysts which resist a wide range of disinfectant methods.

C) It has a cell wall containing a waxy compound which protects it from drying and aqueous
disinfectants.

D) Only incineration will destroy it.

E) It forms endospores, among the most hardy of microbial contaminants.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.12

9.2 True/False Questions

1) Removal of microbes from the skin is antisepsis.

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Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.1

2) Some viruses are inactivated by the same chemical or physical agents that damage
cytoplasmic membranes.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.5

3) Refrigeration is an effective germicidal method.

1) The process of freeze-drying microbes to preserve them is (lyophilization/dessication).

Answer: lyophilization

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.15

2) Natural antiseptics such as pine or clove oil are examples of antimicrobial compounds called
(alcohols/phenolics/detergents).

Answer: phenolics

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.20

3) Alcohols at 70% can effectively inactivate (all/enveloped/nonenveloped) viruses.

Answer: enveloped

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.21

4) Disinfectants known as (alcohols/oxidizers/aldehydes) have the chemical group -CHO, which

reacts with and damages both proteins and nucleic acids.

Answer: aldehydes

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.26

5) The lowest temperature that kills all cells in a broth in 10 minutes is known as the (microbial/
thermal) death point.

Answer: thermal

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.11

6) The amount of time needed to sterilize materials using moist heat is (more/less) than the time
needed to sterilize using dry heat.

Answer: less

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.11

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7) Microbial growth in jellies is inhibited by the (acidic/hypotonic/hypertonic) condition of the
food.

Answer: hypertonic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.17

8) The deadliest, most contagious microbes are studied under conditions of (BSL-4/BSL-3/
BSL-2/BSL-1) containment.

Answer: BSL-4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods

Learning Outcome: 9.9

9) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less) effectively than gamma rays.

Answer: less

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.18

10)

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The antimicrobial chemical in Figure 9-1 is a(n) (phenolic/surfactant/enzyme) compound found
in many consumer products.

Answer: phenolic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.20

11) Elements such as iodine, chlorine, and bromine are examples of (oxidizers/halogens/metals)
and are the basis for many effective antimicrobial agents.

Answer: halogens

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.22

12) Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage (proteins/DNA/membranes),

interfering with microbial metabolism.

Answer: proteins

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.25

13) The (endospores/cysts/prions) are the infectious agents most resistant to antimicrobial agents
or processes.

Answer: prions

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods

Learning Outcome: 9.7

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14) The process of heating milk or fruit juice to levels that kill any pathogenic microbes present
is known as (pasteurization/sanitization/lyophilization).

Answer: pasteurization

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.13

15) The effectiveness of sterilization procedures is evaluated using (prions/cysts/endospores)

because of their resilience.

Answer: endospores

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.12

9.4 Essay Questions

1) Some scientists are pursuing the use of bacteriophage as an alternative to chemical

disinfectants. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of such an approach.

Answer: A good answer will include some of the following, while an excellent answer may
include all considerations.

A significant advantage of the use of bacteriophage over disinfectants is that they have no toxic
effects on people (or pets). When only specific bacteria must be removed (for example in the
preparation of cheese) bacteriophage are ideal for highly selective disinfection. Another
advantage is that bacteriophage can evolve. Thus if bacteria develop resistance to phage used to
reduce their presence, the phage will almost certainly evolve to overcome the resistance.

A disadvantage of phage disinfection is that only the bacteria the phage can infect will be
destroyed. The greatest disadvantage is that phage will reduce only bacteria, not any other type of
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microbial agent.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.29

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2) Compare and contrast the nine major types of antimicrobial chemicals in terms of their
effective on microbes.

Answer: Alcohols disrupt lipid membranes and denature proteins, are effective bactericidal,
fungicidal agents, and inactivate enveloped viruses. They are effective in the range of 70 - 90%
concentration and the effect is temporary due to evaporation. Aldehydes are highly effective
germicidals that permanently damage DNA and proteins and gluteraldehyde can sterilize with
long exposure. Enzymes can be effective at destroying microbes, but tend to be limited in their
effect to specific classes of microbes. For example, lysozyme is effective against bacteria,
primarily Gram-positive bacteria. Gases like ethylene oxide are highly effective germicidals that
are also highly toxic to humans and are therefore only used under highly controlled conditions.
Halogens (iodine, chlorine, fluorine and bromine) are moderate level disinfectants that disrupt
the structure of proteins, particularly enzymes, and thereby arrest metabolic activity. Heavy
metals are low level bacteriostatic and fungistatic agents that disrupt the activity of proteins,
slowing metabolic activity. Oxidizing agents are high level antimicrobials that denature proteins
and arrest metabolic activity. Phenolics are effective antimicrobials that damage proteins and
disrupt lipid membranes, and are long lasting. Surfactants range in effectiveness from low level
microbistatic soaps to more effective synthetic detergents like the quaternary ammonium
compounds, which are microbicidal, disrupting cytoplasmic membranes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.19

3) What is the in-use test, and why is it more useful than other methods of evaluating
disinfectants?

Answer: The in-use test is a method of evaluating antimicrobial agents such as disinfectants or
antiseptics. It involves collecting specimens from objects that need to be disinfected, both before
and after the disinfecting agent is applied. Then the specimens are inoculated into growth media,
and the presence or absence of growth is an indicator of the effectiveness of the agent. The in-use
test is regarded as an informative and useful test because it makes use of microbes that are
actually found in the area of concern, and it gives a "real-life" picture of how the antimicrobial
agent will work in that situation. Conversely, other tests, such as the disk-diffusion test or the
use-dilution test, are not as useful because they rely on standardized conditions in a laboratory
environment, and using test microbes that may or may not have any relation to the actual
microbes that need to be targeted by the antimicrobial agent. Additionally, in some environments,
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many microbes form biofilms that can affect the activity of an antimicrobial agent, and these
biofilms are not normally present in standardized testing procedures. Therefore, although the in-
use test is not as convenient or quick as the other types of tests, it is regarded as more useful.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.30

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4) Design an experiment to compare the effectiveness of a physical and a chemical method of
disinfection.

Answer: Answers will vary. Appropriate controls and methods should be included. An example
is comparison of filtration and chlorine bleach.

Prepare a culture of bacteria of known cell concentration. Divide into three samples. Sample # 1
is the positive control. Sample # 2 is filtered using a specified pore size filter (0.45 micron
maximum pore size) and the filtrate collected into a sterile container. Chlorine bleach is added to
Sample #3 following manufacturer's directions for dilution. The three samples are incubate, then
the turbidity of each is measured to determine if growth is evident in the two treated samples
compared to the untreated sample.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.19

5) A student is shopping for antibacterial hand cleansers and is trying to decide which one to buy.
One is a "waterless" hand gel containing 70% isopropanol, the second is an "antibacterial" hand
soap containing triclosan (a phenolic), and the third is a wipe that lists benzethonium chloride (a
synthetic quaternary ammonium salt) as the active ingredient. Compare and contrast these
cleansers in terms of the action of the antimicrobial ingredient and the level of disinfection
(degerming, germistatic, germicidal).

Answer: All three are germicidal, although not all to the same degree. The alcohol of the
waterless hand cleaner is a germicide that disrupts cytoplasmic membranes and denatures
proteins. It is not effective against bacterial endospores or fungal spores, and it has limited effect
on nonenveloped viruses. The alcohol evaporates quickly, so the germicidal effect is short term.
The waterless hand cleaner is an intermediate-level disinfectant and is not an effective degermer.
The hand soap contains a phenolic, which also damages cytoplasmic membranes and denatures
proteins, and is effective on the same range of microbes as the alcohol. Phenolics are
intermediate-level disinfectants that persist on surfaces for long periods of time, providing
extended disinfection. If used with running water and the hands are vigorously rubbed, the hand
soap can be an effective degermer. Synthetic "quats" (quaternary ammonium compounds) disrupt
cell membranes. They are effective against fungi, enveloped viruses, and most bacteria, but not
against nonenveloped viruses, nor on endospores. Quats are low-level disinfectants that are
germicidal for some microbes. The action of using and discarding the wipe provides some

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degerming effect.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control

Learning Outcome: 9.19

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 10 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs

10.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Broad-spectrum synthetic antimicrobials were discovered by

A) Gerhard Domagk.

B) Alexander Fleming.

C) Paul Ehrlich.

D) Selman Waksman.

E) Joseph Lister.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents

Learning Outcome: 10.1

2) An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?

A) Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.

B) Cells cannot attach to their hosts.

C) Ribosomes lose their function.

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D) The sterols in the cell wall become nonfunctional.

E) The replication of cells, including cancer cells, slows down.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.4

3) Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?

A) animal cells

B) bacterial cells

C) fungal cells

D) virus-infected cells

E) both animal and fungal cells

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.5

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4) Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?

A) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects.

B) They work faster.

C) They have a broader spectrum of action.

D) They must be administered intravenously.

E) They are not readily absorbed, so they persist longer.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.2

5) A medication which specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid is

A) vancomycin.

B) penicillin.

C) methicillin.

D) isoniazid.

E) bacitracin.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.5

6) Which of the following antibiotics disrupts cytoplasmic membrane function?

A) streptomycin

B) erythromycin

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C) tetracycline

D) penicillin

E) amphotericin B

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.7

7) A new antibacterial medication prevents the assembly of ribosomes on mRNA. The new
medication would be

A) an antisense RNA.

B) a type of macrolide.

C) a type of oxazolidinone.

D) either an antisense RNA or a type of macrolide.

E) either an antisense RNA or a type of oxazolidinone.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.6

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8)

This figure represents a Petri plate. The gray area is where bacteria A is growing. The black area
is where bacteria B is growing. The white area is a zone where neither organism is growing.
What is the best interpretation of what is observed on the plate?

A) Bacteria B is producing an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of bacteria A.

B) Bacteria A produces a compound that inhibits the growth of bacteria B.

C) Bacteria A grows faster than bacteria B.

D) Bacterial colony B has depleted the nutrients in the area around the colony.

E) No conclusion can be made from this information.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents

Learning Outcome: 10.2

9) Which of the following types of antimicrobial agent has the narrowest spectrum of action?

A) antivirals

B) azoles

C) sulphonamides

D) erythromycins
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E) Both azoles and erythromycins have equally narrow spectrums of action.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.4

10) The first synthetic antimicrobial widely available for treatment of infections

A) was an antimetabolite.

B) was a nucleotide analog.

C) was an attachment antagonist.

D) disrupted cytoplasmic membranes.

E) interfered with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.4

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11) In the compound lamivudine an -SH group replaces an -OH group found in cytosine. When
used as a medication it will

A) disrupt membrane structure.

B) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.

C) interfere with protein synthesis.

D) disrupt lipid membrane structure.

E) interfere with cell wall synthesis.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.9, 10.11

12) Medications which should NOT be prescribed for a pregnant woman include

A) penicillins.

B) aminoglycosides.

C) sulfonamides.

D) tetracyclines.

E) sulfonamides and tetracyclines.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.16

13) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?

A) anaphylactic shock
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B) black hairy tongue

C) pseudomembranous colitis

D) thrush

E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.16

14) A compound is extracted from a microbial culture and is modified in the laboratory for use as
an oral medication. This product would be a(n)

A) antibiotic.

B) analog.

C) semisynthetic antimicrobial.

D) synthetic antimicrobial.

E) probiotic.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents

Learning Outcome: 10.2

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15) The CDC issued alerts about a bacterial strain known as NDM1 (New Delhi metalo-
lactamase 1). What type of antibiotic resistance is indicated by the name?

A) alteration of the target of the drug

B) inactivation of the drug

C) change in the permeability of the drug

D) overproduction of an enzyme in a key metabolic pathway

E) removal of the drug via a pump

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.20

16) Bacillus licheniformis secretes a compound that inhibits the growth of other Gram-positive
bacteria. This is an example of a(n)

A) analog.

B) antibiotic.

C) chemotherapeutic.

D) porin.

E) toxin.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents

Learning Outcome: 10.2

17) Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by

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A) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits.

B) blocking the secretion of cell wall molecules from the cytoplasm.

C) preventing the formation of alanine-alanine bridges.

D) disrupting the formation of the mycolic acid layer of the cell wall.

E) preventing the formation of β-lactamases.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.5

18) Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by

A) inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall.

B) inhibiting protein synthesis.

C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.

D) inhibiting metabolic pathways.

E) disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.6

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19) A medication that inhibits synthesis of ergosterol would be effective in treating

A) bacterial infections.

B) Mycobacterial disease.

C) protozoal infections.

D) viral disease.

E) fungal infections.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.7

20) A compound is structurally similar to PABA and inhibits folic acid synthesis. It is most likely
a(n)

A) nucleic acid analog.

B) penicillin.

C) tetracycline.

D) azole.

E) sulfonamide.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.8

21) Which of the following pathways is specifically inhibited by trimethoprim?

A) the conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to PABA

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B) the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid

C) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid

D) the conversion of PABA to tetrahydrofolic acid

E) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to PABA

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.8

22) Inhibiters of DNA synthesis specifically effective on prokaryotes are

A) quinolones.

B) actinomycin.

C) rifampin.

D) tetracycline.

E) 5-fluorocytosine.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.11

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23) The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and clavulanic acid, a β-
lactamase inhibitor, is known as

A) cross resistance.

B) antimetabolism.

C) synergism.

D) selective toxicity.

E) chemotherapy.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.23

24) Alterations in the structure of which of the following are an important aspect of Gram-
negative bacterial resistance to antimicrobial drugs?

A) plasmids

B) porins

C) mitochondria

D) cytoplasmic membrane

E) ribosomes

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.20

25) A sulfonamide and trimethoprim may be administered in combination to

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A) provide broad-spectrum action.

B) inhibit multiple metabolic pathways.

C) reduce relative toxicity.

D) reduce development of antibiotic resistance.

E) treat infections with microbes that require folic acid.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.23

26) Who discovered the first antibiotic widely available to the general public?

A) Domagk

B) Ehrlich

C) Fleming

D) Waksman

E) Ehrlich and Waksman

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents

Learning Outcome: 10.1

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27) Bacterial DNA replication requires the enzyme gyrase, but eukaryotic replication does not.
Ciprofloxacin ("Cipro") inhibits gyrase activity. This is an example of

A) antimicrobial resistance.

B) use of an analog.

C) synergism.

D) an antimetabolite.

E) selective toxicity.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.3

28) Synthetic antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are

A) aminoglycosides.

B) antisense nucleic acids.

C) macrolides.

D) beta-lactams.

E) nucleic acid analogs.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.6

29) The E-test determines which of the following?

A) susceptibility
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B) MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration)

C) MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

D) both susceptibility and MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

E) both MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration) and MIC (minimum inhibitory

concentration)

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.14

30) The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the

A) ratio of the dose a patient can tolerate to the effective dose.

B) range of microorganisms the antimicrobial effects.

C) range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic.

D) ratio of the concentration of antimicrobial in the blood to the oral dose.

E) length of time the medication persists in the body after a single dose.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.17

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31) Which of the following interferes with cell wall synthesis by blocking alanine bridge
formation?

A) beta-lactams

B) cycloserine

C) bacitracin

D) vancomycin

E) both cycloserine and vancomycin

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.5

32) Antimicrobial sugar analogs are effective for

A) preventing bacterial protein synthesis.

B) preventing cell membrane synthesis.

C) preventing virus attachment.

D) preventing nucleic acid synthesis.

E) blocking a metabolic pathway.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.12

33) Which of the following is measured in the broth dilution test?

A) the zone of inhibition

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B) lack of turbidity

C) cell lysis

D) lack of turbidity and zone of inhibition

E) presence of turbidity and cell lysis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.14

34) Infection of the ________ would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs.

A) heart

B) kidneys

C) liver

D) brain

E) colon

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.15

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35) Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the
following microbes?

A) Mycobacterium

B) Candida albicans

C) Clostridium difficile

D) both Mycobacterium and Clostridium difficile

E) Candida albicans, Mycobacterium, and Clostridium difficile

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.13

36) The β-lactams are narrow spectrum antibacterials because

A) they block a synthetic step unique to the Gram-positive bacteria.

B) they are analogs for a compound metabolized only by Gram-negative bacteria.

C) the outer membrane prevents their entry into cells.

D) they are analogs for a unique cell membrane lipid.

E) the thick peptidoglycan walls prevent their entry into cells.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.13

37) How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations?

A) Exposure to drugs causes mutations in bacterial genes.

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B) Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids.

C) The formation of biofilms protects bacteria from the effects of drugs.

D) Both horizontal gene transfer and the growth of biofilms spread drug resistance.

E) Exposure to drugs alters gene expression in bacteria.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.21

38) The mechanism of action of the antibiotic vancomycin is

A) inhibition of protein synthesis.

B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.

D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway.

E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.5

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39) Several antiviral medications used to treat HIV interfere with

A) nucleic acid synthesis.

B) protein synthesis.

C) assembly of membranes.

D) folic acid synthesis.

E) cell wall synthesis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.9

40) Pentamidine is an example of an antimicrobial that

A) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes.

B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.

C) binds to DNA.

D) inhibits metabolic pathways.

E) binds to ribosomes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.11

41) The mechanism of action of erythromycin is

A) inhibition of protein synthesis.

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B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.

D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway.

E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.6

42) Antiviral medications can best be described as

A) broad spectrum antimicrobials.

B) extremely narrow spectrum antimicrobials.

C) antibiotics produced by bacteria.

D) synthetic antimicrobials.

E) extremely narrow spectrum synthetic antimicrobials.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.13

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43) Ribavirin is an antiviral that interferes with

A) protein synthesis.

B) cell wall synthesis.

C) cell membrane component synthesis.

D) nucleic acid synthesis.

E) viral attachment.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.10

44) The antimicrobial polymyxin is primarily effective for treating superficial infections with

A) Staphylococcus bacteria.

B) fungi.

C) viruses.

D) Gram-negative bacteria.

E) any bacteria.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.7

45) Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when

A) exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells.

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B) exposure to drugs causes mutations that produce resistance.

C) resistant cells become numerous in a population due to their greater vigor.

D) the patient becomes immune to the drug.

E) synergy between medications occurs.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.20

7) The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria enables many antimicrobial drugs to enter the
cell more easily.
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Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.20

8) If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was
bactericidal.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.14

9) Medications administered intravenously can provide much higher effective concentrations

than other delivery methods.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.15

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10) A compound that slows the activity of efflux pumps, when administered with an antibiotic
which requires high concentration to be effective, the combination is highly effective for treating
bacterial infections. This is an example of synergy.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.23

10.3 Short Answer Questions

1) While not the first person to discover antibiotics (Domagk/Fleming/Waksman) discovered the
sources of many useful antibiotics.

Answer: Waksman

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents

Learning Outcome: 10.1

2) Selective (toxicity/action/treatment) means that a given antimicrobial agent is more toxic to a

pathogen than to the host being treated.

Answer: toxicity

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.3

3) Nucleotide or nucleoside (analogs/antisense/acids) are antimicrobial agents that mimic the

chemical structure of DNA building blocks.

Answer: analogs

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.9

4) The majority of broad spectrum antibacterial medications inhibit (DNA/protein/RNA)

synthesis.

Answer: protein

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.13

5) Secondary infections that result from the killing of some of the normal microbiota are called
(antagonism/superinfections/resistance).

Answer: superinfections

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.13

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6) Competition between beneficial microbes and potential pathogens is called microbial
(synergy/antagonism).

Answer: antagonism

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.13

7) A (bacteriostatic/bacteriocidal/minimum) concentration of a drug is one at which microbes

survive but are not able to grow and reproduce.

Answer: bacteriostatic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.14

8) The action of some antivirals prevent (attachment/synthesis/uncoating), an event shortly after

entry of the virus into the cell.

Answer: uncoating

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.10

9) Some bacteria develop resistance to groups of drugs because the drugs are all structurally
similar to each other; this is a phenomenon known as (cross/multiple) resistance.

Answer: cross

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.22

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10) Second-generation drugs are semisynthetic drugs developed to combat (immunity/resistance)
against an existing drug.

Answer: resistance

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.23

11) Drugs that slow bacterial growth would be (competitive/synergistic/antagonistic) to

penicillin.

Answer: antagonistic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.4, 10.23

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12) External infections can be treated by (surface/topical) administration, in which a drug is
applied directly to the site of infection.

Answer: topical

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.15

13) The abbreviation (MIC/MID/MBC) stands for the smallest amount of a drug that will inhibit
the growth and reproduction of a pathogen.

Answer: MIC

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.14

14) Antiviral medications frequently block unique (proteins/enzymes/molecules) to prevent

production of new virus.

Answer: enzymes

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.10

15) Macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by blocking (catalysis/binding/movement) of the

ribosome.

Answer: movement

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.6

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10.4 Essay Questions

1) Why can microbial resistance to antibiotics and other drugs be considered a primarily genetic
phenomenon?

Answer: Microbial resistance is considered a genetic phenomenon because there are two major
ways that bacteria acquire resistance: through mutations of chromosomal genes or through
acquisition of new genes carried on R-plasmids. In both cases, the cell gains the ability to resist
the activity of a particular drug through the modified structure or activity of proteins that are
coded for by the genes in question. For example, some of these altered proteins can be
cytoplasmic membrane proteins or porin proteins that no longer allow a drug such as penicillin to
enter the cell. Also, some of the proteins coded for by these genes may be enzymes of various
sorts that serve to inactivate a particular drug, such as the inactivation of beta-lactam antibiotics
by β-lactamases.

Furthermore, these altered genes and proteins are then heritable by the offspring of the cell that
acquired the resistance, leading quickly to entire populations of bacteria or other microbes that
are resistant to a drug. When selective pressure is then brought to bear (through the
administration of a particular drug) on a population that contains both susceptible and resistant
cells, the result is that the susceptible cells die off, leaving the resistant cells to grow and
flourish.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.19, 10.20

2) Discuss the cellular factors that might make a drug's spectrum of action narrow rather than
broad.

Answer: When a drug is labeled "narrow-spectrum," meaning that it has activity against only a
limited number of microbes, generally the reason is that many microbes possess some form of
natural resistance against the drug. For example, many drugs work better against Gram-positive
organisms than Gram-negative ones because Gram-negative cells possess an outer membrane
that does not allow these drugs to enter the cell as readily as they enter Gram-positive cells.
Other cellular factors that can have an effect on the spectrum of action of a particular drug
include the presence of R-plasmids in the cell that carries resistance genes, the presence of

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altered cytoplasmic membrane or cell wall proteins that prevent the passage of some types of
drugs, and alterations in a cell's metabolic pathways, which can make the cell more resistant to
certain types of drugs.

Other antimicrobials have a narrow spectrum of action because they target a metabolic or
structural feature unique to a single pathogen or small group of pathogens. One example of this
type of narrow-spectrum antimicrobial is antisense RNA, which complements a specific
nucleotide sequence that may be present in only one pathogen. Another example is isonizid
which blocks the synthesis of a cell wall component unique to the Mycoplasmas.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.13

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3) A recent publication from the CDC contained the following statement:

"Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) are pathogens that have emerged in the United
States as a serious public health threat. They are resistant to almost all drugs, difficult to treat,
and are associated with high death rates (up to 40% in some studies)."

The bacteria referred to as CRE are Gram-negative bacteria that are frequently part of the normal
microbiota. Discuss some of the reasons for the high level of concern about CREs.

Answer: Answers will vary; good answers will address multiple factors that contribute to the
serious threat of CREs. To begin with, Gram-negative bacteria have natural resistance to the
many antibiotics that do not cross the outer LPS membrane. Treatment of infections with Gram-
negative bacteria can result in the release of the endotoxin Lipid A, which can severely
exacerbate the infection by causing additional problems. Bacteria that can exist as part of the
microbiota may be under frequent selection for antibiotic resistance when people take antibiotics
for infections. Survival as part of the microbiota may contribute to people carrying and
spreading CREs without signs of disease for a period of time. These bacteria may spread their
multidrug resistance to other true and potential pathogens by means of conjugation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.21

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4)

Examine the diffusion susceptibility plate results shown in this figure. Propose an explanation for
the appearance of the zone around the S/10 disk, and discuss the implications for therapeutic use
of this antibiotic for the pathogen tested.

Answer: The zone of inhibition is smallest around the S/10 disk and less distinct than the other
zones. The small zone indicates the antibiotic may only be effective at very high concentrations.
Using antibiotics at high concentration is not desirable if alternatives are available. The hazy
appearance of the zone suggests the antibiotic is only slowing the growth, not inhibiting it
entirely. Both the need for high concentration and the possibility the antibiotic does not fully
inhibit the growth mean antibiotic S should not be considered for treatment of this infection.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs

Learning Outcome: 10.14

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5) A newly discovered prokaryote produces a compound with promising antimicrobial effects.
Devise a set of tests to determine whether the antimicrobial is broad or narrow spectrum and
bactericidal or bacteriostatic.

Answer: Answers will vary somewhat, but the following includes elements which should be
present. The spectrum of action can be determined by testing the antimicrobial against
representatives of the various groups of pathogenic bacteria: Gram positives such as
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus and Bacillus, members of the Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae
and other Gram-negative bacteria (Neisseria for example), mycobacteria and chlamydias. These
tests might be done on broth cultures as MIC tests, or plate cultures as Etests. One or more broad
spectrum antibiotics should be included as controls. Once susceptible microbes have been
identified, MBC tests can be conducted to determine whether the antimicrobial is bacteriostatic
or bactericidal. Appropriate controls should be included.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action

Learning Outcome: 10.13, 10.14

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes

11.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Pleomorphic bacteria

A) have a slightly curved rod shape.

B) are flexible.

C) reproduce by snapping division.

D) are roughly spherical.

E) vary in size and shape.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.1

2) Cocci which divide along alternating planes may stick together to form

A) tetrads.

B) palisades.

C) streptococci.

D) sarcinae.

E) staphylococci.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.5

The arrangement represented in the figure is typical of which of the following genera of
bacteria?

A) Bacillus

B) Corynebacterium

C) Escherichia

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D) Actinomyces

E) Streptococcus

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.5

4) What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after
replication?

A) cross wall

B) cytoplasmic membrane

C) fimbria

D) spindle

E) cytoskeleton

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.3

5) When conditions become inhospitable, members of the genus Clostridium produce an internal
durable, dormant form by the process of

A) binary fission.

B) sporulation.

C) conjugation.

D) budding.

E) vegetation.
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Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.2

6) Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology contains

A) classification schemes for prokaryotes.

B) treatments for bacterial diseases.

C) recipes for bacterial growth media.

D) genetic sequences of prokaryotes.

E) rules for naming new bacterial species.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification

Learning Outcome: 11.6

7) Which of the following characteristics distinguish(es) the archaea from the bacteria?

A) cell wall composition

B) 16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences

C) the deoxyribonucleotides in the DNA

D) cytoplasmic membrane lipids

E) cell wall composition, cytoplasmic membrane lipids, and 16S rRNA sequences

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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8) The archaea known as halophiles

A) require temperatures above 45∘C to survive.

B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive.

C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota.

D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45∘C.

E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 11.9

9) Some obligately anaerobic ________ are used in sewage treatment, and produce a fuel that
can be used to produce electricity.

A) thermophiles

B) halophiles

C) cyanobacteria

D) methanogens

E) hyperthermophiles

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 11.10

10) Which of the following types of microbes might be found in a boiling hot spring?

A) hyperthermophiles
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B) phototrophic bacteria

C) methanogens

D) actinomycetes

E) halophiles

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 11.9

11) The ________ are autotrophs which live in anaerobic environments thought to be similar to
conditions on the early Earth, and may have diverged from other bacteria far back in time.

A) deeply branching bacteria

B) cyanobacteria

C) mycoplasmas

D) thermophiles

E) proteobacteria

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.11

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12) Many cyanobacteria carry out both oxygenic photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation, but
oxygen inhibits nitrogen fixation. How do these cyanobacteria manage both processes?

A) They produce cells called akinetes for photosynthesis.

B) They trap the oxygen in special cells called heterocysts.

C) Nitrogen fixation is sequestered in special cells called heterocysts.

D) They have special membranous structures like chloroplasts to separate the processes within
the cell.

E) The processes are seasonal; photosynthesis occurs in summer and nitrogen fixation takes
place in winter.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.12

13) Phototrophic bacteria that use chlorophyll a are in the phylum

A) Chlorobi.

B) Chloroflexi.

C) Cyanobacteria.

D) Proteobacteria.

E) Actinobacteria.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.12

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14) Bacteria described as "Low G + C"

A) are Gram-negative Cyanobacteria.

B) include filamentous Actinomycetes.

C) have DNA composed of more than 50% AT pairs.

D) have unmethylated GC DNA.

E) Gram stain pink and are cocci.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.15

15) The Gram-positive obligate anaerobe ________ causes a severe diarrhea.

A) Bacillus anthracis

B) Clostridium botulinum

C) Clostridium perfringens

D) Clostridium difficile

E) Selenomonas

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.14

16) Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they

A) have no cell walls.

B) are low G + C content Gram-positive bacteria.

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C) exhibit snapping division.

D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.

E) produce endospores.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.13

17) The current taxonomy of the bacteria as described in Bergey's Manual of Systematic
Bacteriology

A) is universally agreed upon.

B) is based largely on physical and metabolic characteristics.

C) is primarily based on genetic sequences.

D) can be considered complete.

E) includes three domains.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification

Learning Outcome: 11.7

18) Low G + C bacilli in the genus ________ are beneficial to humans as probiotics.

A) Staphylococcus

B) Listeria

C) Lactobacillus

D) Mycobacterium
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E) Corynebacterium

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.14

19) The psychrophilic Gram-positive bacillus ________ can become an intracellular parasite of
white blood cells.

A) Clostridium perfringens

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Enterococcus

D) Bacillus polymyxa

E) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.14

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C Gram-positive filamentous bacteria of the genus ________ are capable of metabolizing a
diverse range of environmental contaminants.

A) Actinomyces

B) Streptomyces

C) Corynebacterium

D) Rhizobium

E) Nocardia

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.17

21) A soil sample dilution spread on a plate containing carbohydrate-based medium yields a wide
variety of colonies. One colony has no other bacterial colonies growing near it. Further
investigation reveals the bacteria in the colony are Gram-positive and filamentous. The bacteria
in the colony may be a member of the genus

A) Acetobacter.

B) Bacillus.

C) Enterococcus.

D) Pseudomonas.

E) Streptomyces.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.17

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22) What feature of mycobacteria is responsible for the unusually slow growth of these bacteria?

A) Their low tolerance for oxygen retards their growth.

B) They cannot fully metabolize carbohydrates and must rely on fermentation.

C) They have limited numbers of ribosomes so protein production is slow.

D) The mycolic acid in their cell walls requires signification metabolic investment.

E) They lack a cell wall and are extremely fragile.

D) a heterocyst

E) cyanobacterium.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Survey of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 11.10

29) Classification of bacteria into different phyla is based on comparisons involving which of the
following?
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A) DNA sequences

B) cell wall composition

C) protein sequences

D) both DNA and protein sequences

E) DNA and protein sequences, as well as cell wall composition

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification

Learning Outcome: 11.6

30) Which of the following bacteria oxidize ammonia (NH3) to produce nitrate (NO3)?

A) Nitrobacter

B) Azospirillum

C) Nocardia

D) Cyanobacter

E) Rhizobium

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.20

31) Aerobic free-living Gram-negative bacilli in the phylum Proteobacteria that are capable of
metabolizing a wide range of organic compounds are members of the genus

A) Cytophagia.

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B) Salmonella.

C) Pseudomonas.

D) Rickettsia.

E) Vibrio.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.23

32) The production of large masses of bacteria and organic materials (flocs) that settle out of
solution make ________ useful in sewage treatment.

A) Burkholderia

B) Thiobacillus

C) Neisseria

D) Zoogloea

E) Nitrosomonas

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.22

33) A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a

A) spirochete.

B) vibrio.

C) coccobacillus.

D) spirillum.
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E) sarcina.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.5

34) The "giant" bacterium Epulopiscium reproduces by means of

A) binary fission.

B) snapping division.

C) budding.

D) sexual reproduction.

E) viviparity.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.3

35) Pleomorphic Gram-negative members of the Firmicutes that colonize mammalian respiratory
mucous membranes are the

A) Actinobacteria.

B) mycoplasmas.

C) clostridia.

D) Rickettsias.

E) mycobacteria.

Answer: B
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.13

36) The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens in part because of their
capacity for

A) endospore production.

B) rapid reproduction.

C) oxygen production.

D) biofilm production.

E) high salt tolerance.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.14

37) Prokaryotes of the genus Pyrodictium are

A) Escherichia coli

B) Helicobacter pylori

C) Clostridium perfringens

D) Bacillus thuringiensis

E) Staphylococcus aureus

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.14

41) A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of

A) tuberculosis.

B) urinary tract infections.

C) contaminated milk and meat.

D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.

E) food poisoning from rice.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.14

42) The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for

A) tuberculosis.

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B) urinary tract infections.

C) food poisoning from contaminated dairy products.

D) gastric ulcers.

E) food poisoning from rice.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.17

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43) Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria found in association with plant roots are

A) alphaproteobacteria.

B) betaproteobacteria.

C) cyanobacteria.

D) gammaproteobacteria.

E) deeply branching bacteria.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.25

44) Members of the genus Chlamydia are

A) thermophiles.

B) intracellular parasites.

C) classified with the deeply branching bacteria.

D) endospore-formers.

E) Gram-positive bacteria.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.27

45) Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by Gram-negative tiny bacilli that are intracellular
parasites. They are in the genus

A) Acetobacter.

B) Coxiella.
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C) Enterococcus.

D) Bordetella.

E) Rickettsia.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.21

11.2 True/False Questions

1) The majority of archaea are extremophiles.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 11.9

5) All taxonomists are in agreement about the taxonomic scheme set forth in Bergey's Manual of
Systematic Bacteriology.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.7

6) Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.1

7) Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as
pneumonia and bacteremia.

Answer: TRUE
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.26

11.3 Short Answer Questions

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1) The process by which a bacterial cell produces an endospore is called (endosporing/
sporulation/vegetation).

Answer: sporulation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.2

2) The most common form of reproduction among prokaryotes is (snapping/budding/binary)

fission.

Answer: binary

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Archaea

Learning Outcome: 11.3

3) The rod-shaped (rickettsias/chlamydias/brucella) are intracellular parasitic members of the

alphaproteobacteria.

Answer: rickettsias

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.21

4) Some members of the alphaproteobacteria produce a structure called a (prosthecae/pilus/

filament) to produce extra surface area for nutrient absorption.

Answer: prosthecae

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

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Learning Outcome: 11.18

This bacterial shape is called (bacillus/vibrio/rod).

Answer: vibrio

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.1

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6) The G + C content is a(n) (RNA/structural/genetic) determination used in classifying the
different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria.

Answer: genetic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Answer: alphaproteobacteria

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.18

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10) The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen (fixation/cycling).

Answer: fixation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.12

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11)

The arrangement shown in the figure is characteristic of (Actinomycetes/Caulobacter/

Myxobacteria/Planctomyces) cells. (Use genus or taxon name.)

Answer: Caulobacter

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.26

12) Plant tumors caused by Agrobacterium infections are called (galls/heterocysts).

Answer: galls

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.22

11.4 Essay Questions

1) Will is a graduate student working in a microbiology lab. He is given the task of

characterizing a newly discovered nitrogen fixing bacterium. What type of tests or observations
will help him determine whether it is a member of the Cyanobacteria, alphaproteobacteria or
gammaproteobacteria?

Answer: If the bacteria are coccus or disc-shaped, and carry out photosynthesis, it is likely a
member of the cyanobacteria. Bacteria that are free-living nitrogen fixers are probably
gammaproteobacteria. If the bacteria were found on or in the roots of plants they are probably
alphaproteobacteria. Determining the sequence of the bacterium's ribosomal RNAs and
comparing them to known sequences should verify the assignment.
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.25

2) Compare and contrast methanogens and methane oxidizers, including their roles in the
environment.

Answer: Methanogens are archaea (in the phylum Euryarchaeota), and methane oxidizers are
bacteria of the phylum Proteobacteria, so they are fundamentally different in all the ways these
two domains differ. The methanogens produce methane gas from organic materials, and the
bacterial methane oxidizers metabolize methane gas to produce organic compounds and cellular
energy. Both types of prokaryotes live in anaerobic environments and often grow in proximity to
each other. Thus their metabolic activities with respect to methane are complementary and
contribute to recycling of biomolecules.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.10, 10.20

3) Nitrogen is frequently a limiting nutrient even though the atmosphere of the planet consists
mostly of nitrogen. Discuss the prokaryotes described in this chapter which have roles in the
availability and cycling of nitrogen in the biosphere.

Answer: Some members of the phylum Cyanobacteria are able to fix nitrogen, that is, convert
nitrogen gas (N2) to ammonia (NH3) in large enough quantity that other organisms benefit.
Three genera of the Alphaproteobacteria also fix nitrogen:Azospirillum, Rhizobium, and
Rhodopseudomonas. They grow in association with plant roots and share the ammonia with their
plant hosts. Members of the gammaproteobacteria, Azotobacter and Azomonas, also fix nitrogen,
but they do not associate with plant roots.

Nitrification is the process of oxidizing ammonia to nitrate. Nitrosomonas are members of the
betaproteobacteria important in the process of nitrification. These bacteria oxidize ammonia to
nitrite (NO2). Nitrobacter and other members of the Alphaproteobacteria complete the process of
nitrification by oxidizing nitrite (NO2) to nitrate (NO3). Nitrate moves through soil more easily
than ammonia and can be taken up and used by many plants.

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.19, 11.20, 11.22, 11.25

4) Describe the similarities and differences observed among phototrophic bacteria.

Answer: All major groups of bacteria contain phototrophic bacteria, which includes the
cyanobacteria and the green and purple phototrophic bacteria. All phototrophic bacteria are
structurally similar in that they use photosynthetic lamellae that contain the photosynthetic
pigments necessary for photosynthesis. However, the type of photosynthetic pigment used differs
among these groups. For example, cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a, whereas the green and
purple photosynthetic bacteria use bacteriochlorophyll. The type of photosynthesis differs as
well: cyanobacteria engage in oxygenic photosynthesis, whereas the green and purple bacteria
are anoxygenic. Finally, most phototrophic bacteria are autotrophic, although they differ in the
ways they obtain electrons for the reduction of CO2; most notably, the sulfur bacteria oxidize
hydrogen sulfide to obtain electrons for CO2 reduction.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Survey of Bacteria

Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.19

5) Explain the significance of endospores.

Answer: Because an endospore can regenerate the cell that produced it, these bacterial structures
are an important survival mechanism for some bacteria, as well as an important method of
transmitting diseases caused by these bacteria. For example, because they are hard to destroy,
endospores can be a source of diseases that are caused by anaerobic organisms, such as tetanus
and botulism, or that are transmitted over long distances and times, such as anthrax. Endospores
can also survive for indefinite periods of time; the minimum documented durability of
endospores is 34 years, but there is some evidence to suggest that endospores may be able to
survive for millions of years. Endospores are this resistant because they have a special protective
coating and go through a process called sporulation, in which a copy of the cell's genome is
prepared for long-term "storage" inside the endospore. This makes endospores a special
challenge in sterilization applications.
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 11.2

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes

12.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Eukaryotic sexual reproduction requires the process known as

A) meiosis.

B) mitosis.

C) schizogony.

D) binary fission.

E) budding.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.1

2) Replication of the DNA occurs during

A) metaphase.

B) prophase.

C) telophase.

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D) anaphase.

E) interphase.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.2

3) Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during ________ of mitosis.

A) telophase

B) anaphase

C) metaphase

D) interphase

E) prophase

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.2

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4) An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a

A) chromatid.

B) spindle.

C) tetrad.

D) coenocyte.

E) gamete.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.3

5) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED?

A) animals; usually diploid

B) fungi; usually diploid

C) protozoa; usually diploid

D) slime mold; usually haploid

E) plants; usually diploid

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.5

6) Sister chromatids separate during ________ of meiosis.

A) anaphase I

B) prophase II

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C) metaphase II

D) anaphase II

E) telophase I

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.3

7) Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is MOST accurate?

A) Crossing over occurs during metaphase I.

B) A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells.

C) Haploid cells produce diploid cells.

D) Homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase II.

E) Meiosis has the same number of stages as mitosis.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.3

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8) Recombination of genetic material between homologous chromosomes occurs during

A) prophase of mitosis.

B) early prophase I of meiosis.

C) late prophase II of meiosis.

D) metaphase of mitosis.

E) metaphase I of meiosis.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.3

9) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED?

A) Paramecium; two nuclei

B) Entamoeba; pseudopodia

C) Plasmodium; merozoites

D) Euglena; flagellum

E) Toxoplasma; cilia

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.10

10) In the taxonomic system developed by Linnaeus, ________ were classified as Animalia.

A) single-celled Alveolata

B) multicellular fungi

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C) unicellular algae

D) both unicellular algae and fungi

E) both unicellular Alveolata and fungi.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.5

11) Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are

A) protozoa.

B) fungi.

C) algae.

D) insects.

E) water molds.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.7

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12) The ________ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.

A) hyphae

B) sporangium

C) mycelium

D) pseudoplasmodium

E) conidiophore

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.16

13) A single-celled eukaryote with two nuclei and cilia are classified as

A) Alveolata.

B) Amoebazoa.

C) Apicomplexa.

D) Diplomonadida.

E) Euglenozoa.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.10

14) A single-celled eukaryote that is both photosynthetic and a chemoheterotroph is a(n)

A) apicomplexan.

B) dinoflagellate.

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C) euglenid.

D) ciliate.

E) kinetoplastid.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.9

15) Which of the following is a protozoan with two nuclei and no mitochondria?

A) Plasmodium

B) Paramecium

C) Euglena

D) Giardia

E) Trichomonas

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.13

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16) Protozoa that have a single large mitochondrion and are found living in animals are

A) ciliates.

B) amoebae.

C) dinoflagellates.

D) kinetoplastids.

E) parabasalids.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.9

17) Which of the following types of protozoa contribute to limestone formation in their fossilized
state?

A) foraminiferans

B) euglenids

C) diplomonads

D) ciliates

E) amoebae

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.11

18) The asexual spores of molds are classified according to their

A) size.

B) type of metabolism.
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C) number of chromosomes.

D) shapes.

E) mode of development.

Answer: E

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.10

23) In what way do algae differ from plants?

A) They carry out photosynthesis with pigments other than chlorophyll a.

B) All cells in their sexual reproductive structures become gametes.

C) They have cell walls composed of carbohydrate.

D) All algae are unicellular.

E) They carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Algae

Learning Outcome: 12.23

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24) Soil is produced from rock by the action of

A) algae.

B) fungi.

C) lichens.

D) mites.

E) radiolarians.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.22

25) Algae containing carotene and laminarin are classified as

A) Chrysophyta.

B) Chlorophyta.

C) Phaeophyta.

D) Rhodophyta.

E) Alveolata.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Algae

Learning Outcome: 12.25

26) Lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi and which of the following?

A) green algae

B) cyanobacteria

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C) euglenoids

D) cyanobacteria or green algae

E) euglenoids or dinoflagellates

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.21

27) A plasmodium is a coenocytic structure associated with

A) slime molds.

B) yeast.

C) water molds.

D) green algae.

E) amoebae.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.12

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28) A material useful in microbiological media is derived from

A) Chrysophyta.

B) Chlorophyta.

C) Phaeophyta.

D) Rhodophyta.

E) Stramenopila.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.26

29) Which of the following organisms are directly beneficial to vascular plants?

A) euglenids

B) kinetoplastids

C) mycorrhizae

D) lichens

E) water molds

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.15

30) Termites are dependent on protozoa of the genus

A) Trichonympha.

B) Nosema.

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C) Trichomonas.

D) Pfiesteria.

E) Naegleria.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.13

31) In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present
at the beginning of mitosis?

A) 8

B) 16

C) 32

D) 4

E) 2

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.2

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32) Which of the following is associated with meiosis but NOT with mitosis?

A) a chromatid

B) a centromere

C) a spindle

D) a tetrad

E) a zygote

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.3

33) Protozoa that move by means of lobe-like pseudopods and lack shells are classified as

A) Amoebozoa.

B) Euglenozoa.

C) Foraminifera.

D) Rhizaria.

E) Radiolarians.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.11

34) When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, which of the following is produced?

A) merozoites

B) chromatids

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C) cysts

D) macronuclei

E) coenocytes

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.4

35) The filamentous water molds are no longer classified with the true fungi because

A) their cell walls are composed of cellulose.

B) they produce motile spores with two types of flagella.

C) they are never diploid.

D) they have cell walls composed of cellulose and motile spores with two flagella.

E) they have cell walls composed of chitin and are never diploid.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Water Molds

Learning Outcome: 12.27

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36) Multiple mitoses followed by a single cytokinetic event is known as

A) meiosis.

B) schizogony.

C) coenocytic division.

D) encystment.

E) interphase.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.4

37) The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell during

A) prophase.

B) anaphase.

C) metaphase.

D) telophase.

E) prophase II.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.2

38) A unique feature of cytokinesis in algae is

A) the formation of a cleavage furrow.

B) the new cell is pinched off by a ring of cell wall.

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C) the unequal division of the cytoplasm.

D) the formation of a cell plate between daughter cells.

E) that cytokinesis is delayed until several rounds of mitosis have occurred.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.4

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39)

Which process is represented by this figure?

A) mitosis

B) meiosis

C) cytokinesis

D) schizogony

E) budding

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.3

40) Single-celled algae that are major producers of oxygen and whose silica cell walls are useful
in a variety of products for humans are the

A) diatoms.

B) ciliates.

C) conidia.

D) cysts.

E) kelps.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Algae

Learning Outcome: 12.26

41) Simple eukaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis and reproduce by means of
alternation of generations are known as

A) algae.

B) fungi.

C) slime molds.

D) euglenids.

E) arachnids.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Algae

Learning Outcome: 12.23

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42) Non-motile members of the Alveolata are

A) the Apicomplexans.

B) the Ciliates.

C) the Dinoflagellates.

D) the Euglenids.

E) both the Apicomplexans and the Ciliates.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.10

43) Fungi called Deuteromycetes are not known to reproduce sexually. Nonetheless, most of
them are considered members of the ________ on the basis of genetic sequences.

A) Zygomycota

B) Basidiomycota

C) Ascomycota

D) Sporozoa

E) Rhizaria

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.20

44) Multicellular organisms with hard exoskeletons, segmented bodies and four pairs of jointed
legs in the adult stage are

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A) algae.

B) arachnids.

C) insects.

D) helminths.

E) lice.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors

Learning Outcome: 12.30

45) Mites are responsible for the spread of

A) malaria.

B) Lyme disease.

C) diseases caused by Rickettsias.

D) diseases caused by Apicomplexans.

E) helminth diseases.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors

Learning Outcome: 12.31

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12.2 True/False Questions

1) Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.1

2) Fungi reproduce only asexually.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.19

3) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.7

4) Ciliates often have two kinds of nuclei that have different functions.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoa

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Learning Outcome: 12.10

12.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter
cells of Plasmodium called (merozoites/schizonts/coencytes).

Answer: merozoites

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.4

2) The (Diplomonadida/Parabasala/Rhizaria) are protozoa with a single nucleus and no

mitochondria.

Answer: Parabasala

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoa

Learning Outcome: 12.13

3) The (fungi/algae/lichens) are so sensitive to pollutants they are used as indicators of

environmental conditions.

Answer: lichens

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Answer: diploid

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Water Molds

Learning Outcome: 12.27

9) Modified hyphae that allow fungi to derive nutrients from other living organisms are (septate/
pseudohyphae/haustoria).

Answer: haustoria

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.16

10) The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites).

Answer: fleas

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors

Learning Outcome: 12.33

11) Lichens spread to new areas by the use of multicellular fragments called (spores/soredia/
thalli).

Answer: soredia

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.21

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12) Multicellular algae often reproduce sexually by means of haploid and diploid individuals in a
process called (separation/alternation) of generations.

Answer: alternation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Algae

Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors

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Learning Outcome: 12.29

12.4 Essay Questions

1) Compare and contrast slime molds and water molds.

Answer: Both the slime molds and the water molds are saprobes, and neither of them is fungi, as
the names would suggest. In spite of the similarity of names, however, these organisms are more
different than they are similar.

Slime molds are classified among the protozoa (Amoebozoa). They are phagocytic saprobes
without cell walls and occur in two forms: plasmodial and cellular.

The plasmodial coenocytic slime molds are diploid under normal conditions, but under adverse
conditions they produce haploid spores that can germinate to produce a unicellular form
(myxamoeba) that uses flagella or pseudopodia for motility, depending on conditions. Two
compatible myxamoebae fuse to form a new diploid, which, in turn, becomes a new coenocytic
plasmodium.

The cellular slime molds are haploid. Under ideal conditions, the cellular slime molds live as
single-celled organisms (myxamoebae). When food becomes scarce, the myxamoebae
congregate and cooperate to form a sporangium, and some individuals then become spores. No
diploidy or meiosis is involved.

The water molds are classified with the algae (Stramenophila), but they do not carry out
photosynthesis. They are diploid saprobes with cell walls of cellulose. Their spores are motile by
means of two flagella, which are structurally different. Some water molds are plant pathogens.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Water Molds

Learning Outcome: 12.12, 12.27

2) A field biologist finds an unfamiliar single-celled organism in a sample from the surface of a
marshy area. What observations or tests would make it possible to determine whether it is a
protozoan, fungus or alga? Assume the PCR machine at the field station is not working, but all
other equipment is.

Answer: The presence of a cell wall would indicate the organism is either a fungus or an alga.
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The presence of pigments is an indication it is a photosynthetic organism, and if it has a cell wall
it is an alga. The identification would be further confirmed if the organism is diploid (observed
during mitosis).

An organism with a cell wall but no pigments is probably a fungus. This identification can be
verified by observing that the organism is haploid.

If the organism is a single-celled eukaryote without a cell wall it is likely a protozoan. Motility
(with flagella, cilia or pseudopodia) would help confirm this identification, although the absence
of observable motility does not rule out protozoa.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: Algae

Learning Outcome: 12.7, 12.14, 12.23

3) Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis using words, diagrams or both.

Answer: Mitosis involves a single round of nuclear division, whereas meiosis involves two
rounds. They both include the same four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase;
meiosis involves two rounds of each phase. Both meiosis and mitosis are preceded by interphase,
during which DNA replication takes place. In meiosis, the homologous chromosomes line up to
form tetrads early in prophase I. This event, which does not occur in mitosis, allows crossing
over of homologous chromosomes to take place. Crossing over provides the genetic
recombination of meiosis. The sister chromatids separate in anaphase in mitosis. In meiosis, the
homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase I, and the sister chromatids
separate during anaphase II. The end result of mitosis is two diploid nuclei with identical
chromosomes, whereas the final result of meiosis is the production of four haploid nuclei that are
not genetically identical.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms

Learning Outcome: 12.3

4) Describe the ways in which fungi reproduce.

Answer: Fungi reproduce both sexually and asexually; the precise mechanism of reproduction
depends on the form of the fungus. Yeasts usually bud asexually in a manner similar to that of

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prokaryotic reproduction. Filamentous fungi can reproduce by the use of a variety of asexual
spores, such as sporangiospores, chlamydospores, or conidiospores, based on the type of fungus.
Filamentous fungi can also produce sexual spores that are the product of cellular fusion and
meiosis and that create genetic variation in a population. Because of the diversity observed
among fungi in this area, they are often classified according to the nature and morphology of
their reproductive structures and spores.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Fungi

Learning Outcome: 12.17, 12.18, 12.19

5) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.

Answer: Algae and fungi are useful both in the biosphere in general and to humans in particular.
Because algae are photosynthetic, they are major contributors to the Earth's oxygen supply; in
fact, one group of algae (the diatoms) is the Earth's major source of oxygen, simply because of
their vast numbers. Algae are also a foundation of the biosphere's food chain in their role as
plankton. Algae are a source of chemicals, such as agar and alginic acid, which can be used as
thickening agents and emulsifiers in industrial products.

Similarly, fungi are useful on two levels. In nature, they serve as recyclers of organic molecules
and help plants retrieve water and nutrients from the soil. For humans, fungi play an enormous
role in the food industry (in the manufacture of cheeses, bread, alcoholic beverages, and other
items) and in medicine (in the production of antibiotics and other drugs). Fungi have also been
instrumental tools in genetic research.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Algae

Learning Outcome: 12.15, 12.26

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions

13.1 Multiple Choice Questions

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1) Which of the following is an accurate description of a virion?

A) the nucleic acid of a viral pathogen

B) an infectious particle of protein and nucleic acid outside a host cell

C) a population of infectious particles

D) the protein portion of a viral particle

E) the nucleic acid of a viral pathogen inside a host cell

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.1

2) The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

A) protection

B) recognition

C) replication

D) both protection and recognition

E) both recognition and replication

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4, 13.5

3) A ________ is a virus that infects bacterial cells.

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A) virion

B) prion

C) bacteriophage

D) nucleocapsid

E) viroid

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.3

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4) Which of the following is present in cells only during virus infection?

A) dsDNA

B) ssRNA

C) ssDNA

D) DNA-RNA heteroduplex

E) triplet RNA

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.1

5) Host specificity of a virus is due to

A) particular genes that it shares with the infected cell.

B) the presence of an envelope.

C) differences in size between the virus and the host cell.

D) the presence or absence of a cell wall on the host cell.

E) interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.2

6) The shape of a virion is a function of the ________ of the virus.

A) size of the genome material

B) cell type of the host cell

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C) type of genome material

D) capsid

E) envelope

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

7) How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?

A) They have no extracellular state.

B) They have only DNA for genetic material.

C) They have no capsid.

D) They have no intracellular state.

E) They cannot pass through a filter.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.3

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8) The envelope portion of an enveloped virus is composed of

A) glycolipids of the host cell.

B) virus-encoded glycoproteins.

C) phospholipids from host cell membranes.

D) host cell membranes containing virus-encoded glycoproteins.

E) host glycolipids and virus-encoded glycoproteins.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.5

9) Which of the following may occur in a lysogenic infection, but NOT a latent one?

A) The inserted viral DNA may leave the host DNA.

B) The viral DNA integrates (inserts) into the host cell DNA.

C) The provirus/prophage directs the synthesis of viral proteins.

D) The prophage/provirus alters gene expression in the host cell.

E) The prophage/provirus is replicated with the host DNA.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.12

10) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is TRUE?

A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms.

B) Virus classes are well established.

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C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.

D) The species epithet is a Latin descriptor of the virion structure.

E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Classification of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.6

11) Classification of viruses includes

A) classes.

B) orders.

C) families.

D) orders and families.

E) classes, orders, and families.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.6

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12) What is the correct order for the stages of a lytic replication cycle, from earliest to latest
stages?

I. Synthesis

II. Assembly

III. Attachment

IV. Release

V. Entry

A) III, V, I, II, IV

B) III, II, V, I, IV

C) V, III, II, IV, I

D) I, III, V, II, IV

E) I, II, III, V, IV

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.7

13) Which of the following is involved in the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell?

A) random collisions

B) chemical attractions

C) receptor specificity

D) both chemical attractions and receptor specificity

E) random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

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Learning Outcome: 13.7

14) The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection
cycle?

A) entry

B) assembly

C) entry and release

D) synthesis

E) attachment

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.7

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15) Naked capsid animal viruses gain entry to host cells by

A) endocytosis.

B) direct penetration.

C) membrane fusion.

D) both endocytosis and direct penetration.

E) endocytosis, direct penetration, and membrane fusion.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9

16) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but
NOT in the lysogenic cycle?

A) attachment

B) entry

C) digestion of host DNA

D) viral protein synthesis

E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

17) Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

A) It speeds up the viral infection cycle.

B) The genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic
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phage.

C) It allows the bacteriophage to infect cells it would not normally infect.

D) It allows the bacteriophage to destroy the host cell's DNA.

E) It enables the bacteriophage to take over the cell.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage to the lytic
cycle?

A) UV light

B) X-rays

C) presence of +ssRNA

D) both UV light and X-rays

E) both UV light and the presence of +ssRNA

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

19) Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus infection are called plaques.
Sometimes "cloudy plaques" are seen on bacterial cultures infected with bacteriophage. What
type of viral infection might cause this appearance?

A) lytic

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B) lysogenic

C) prion

D) viroid

E) transducing

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.8, 13.17

20) Which virus is CORRECTLY matched with its method of entry?

A) adenovirus; direct penetration

B) herpesvirus; membrane fusion

C) HIV; membrane fusion

D) measles virus; direct penetration

E) poliovirus; endocytosis

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9

21) Retroviruses require the activity of ________ to complete their infection cycle.

A) lysozyme

B) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C) RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.

D) ribosome components.

E) reverse transcriptase and RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.10

25) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?

A) the nuclear membrane

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B) the cytoplasmic membrane

C) the endoplasmic reticulum

D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes

E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes, and the endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.11

26) A cell is infected with a virus carrying an oncogene sequence in its genome. What process
may occur if the oncogene is expressed in the infected cell?

A) lysis

B) neoplasia

C) lysogeny

D) latency

E) both lysis and neoplasia

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

27) How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda-phage prophage?

A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA.

B) All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus.

C) All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus.
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D) The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell.

E) Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.12

28) The process of metastasis results from

A) neoplasia.

B) benign tumors.

C) oncogene expression.

D) malignant tumors.

E) viral latency.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.13

29) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory
sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be
involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?

A) +ssRNA viruses

B) dsRNA viruses

C) -ssRNA viruses

D) retroviruses

E) both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses

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Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

30) The development of a cancerous cell is said to require "multiple hits." This means

A) the cell must be infected with several different types of viruses to be transformed.

B) several protoncogenes are activated at the same time.

C) multiple cell cycle regulators are inactivated at once.

D) a series of separate events over time lead to the loss of cell cycle regulation.

E) multiple oncogenic viruses infect the cell at the same time.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

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31) Plaque assays are used for

A) evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus.

B) determining the density of phage in a culture.

C) the study of prions.

D) cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way.

E) counting the number of latent phages in a cell.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.17

32) Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures differ in which of the following ways?

A) longevity

B) source of cells

C) convenience of use

D) both longevity and convenience of use

E) both longevity and source of cells

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.19

33) What is one of the most difficult aspects of studying animal viruses?

A) The viruses are hard to obtain.

B) The study requires expensive facilities.

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C) The use of animals to study the viruses is unethical in the eyes of many.

D) The viruses are extremely dangerous to handle.

E) The use of animals is expensive, and unethical to many people.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.18

34) How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?

A) They cannot reproduce outside a cell.

B) They act as slow viruses.

C) They cause neurological problems.

D) They can be destroyed by incineration.

E) They lack nucleic acid.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.24

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35) The viruses of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore similar to

A) bacteriophages.

B) enveloped viruses.

C) prions.

D) viroids.

E) lysogens.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.21

36) Infection with ________ is likely to result in destruction of the host cell by lysis.

A) enveloped viruses

B) naked viruses

C) oncogenic viruses

D) viroids

E) prions

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.11

37) Some human viruses are difficult to study because

A) they grow very slowly.

B) they establish latent infections and cannot be induced.

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C) the growth medium for the host cells is complex.

D) they only grow in normal human cells.

E) very few laboratories have the skills to culture the viruses.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.15

38) Why are diploid cell cultures preferred over continuous cell cultures?

A) Continuous cell cultures are expensive to maintain.

B) Diploid cells last far longer than continuous culture cells.

C) Diploid cells are more nearly like cells of whole organisms than continuous culture cells.

D) Diploid cells have undergone changes in their chromosome structure that make them more
stable.

E) Results from continuous culture cells do not apply to disease in whole organisms.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.19

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39) Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms?

A) possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication

B) presence of cytoplasm

C) metabolic capability

D) responsiveness

E) the ability to increase in size

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Are Viruses Alive?

Learning Outcome: 13.20

40) Small circular RNA molecules without capsids are characteristic of

A) plasmids.

B) viruses.

C) viroids.

D) prions.

E) viruses and prions.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.22

41) Prions cause disease in

A) mammals.

B) plants.

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C) bacteria.

D) fungi.

E) birds.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.25

42) During ________, viral synthesis is suspended.

A) budding

B) latency

C) lytic replication

D) persistent infection

E) oncogenesis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.12

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43) Virus replication results in the death of the cell in ________ infection(s).

A) a lytic

B) a latent

C) a persistent

D) a lysogenic

E) both latent and persistent

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

44) A ________ is a mass of neoplastic cells.

A) diploid culture

B) metastasis

C) tumor

D) gall

E) plaque

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.13

45) The process known as ________ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses.

A) lytic replication

B) persistent infection

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C) metastasis

D) latency

E) budding

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.11

13.2 True/False Questions

1) Viruses cause most human cancers.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

2) Virus entry requires the presence of specific cell structures.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.2

3) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.

Answer: TRUE

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.10

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10) Fertilized chicken eggs are used to culture some vaccine strains.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.18

13.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The combination of a virus's protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the (capsid/virion/
nucleocapsid).

Answer: nucleocapsid

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

2) Assembly of enveloped viruses requires (membrane/matrix/receptor) to bring together the

nucleocapsid and the envelope.

Answer: matrix

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.5

3) The first virus isolated, Tobacco mosaic virus, has a (complex/helical/polyhedral) capsid
morphology, which facilitated its isolation.

Answer: helical

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

4) Some viruses can be cultured on (continuous/diploid/animal) cells which are descended from
neoplastic cells.

Answer: continuous

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.16

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5)

The virions shown in the figure have a (polyhedral/helical/complex) capsid.

Answer: complex

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

6) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage.

Answer: temperate

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

7) The process in which viral capsids are removed within the infected cell is called (entry/
disassembly/uncoating).

Answer: uncoating

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9

8) Uncontrolled cell division in animals is known as (metastasis/neoplasia/cancer).

Answer: neoplasia

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.13

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9)

The graph in the figure shows a pattern of virion abundance consistent with a (lytic/latent/
persistent) virus infection cycle.

Answer: persistent

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.1

10) Viruses are responsible for (all/most/some) human cancers. (Use relative terms not numbers.)

Answer: some

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

11) Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer
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are called (oncogenes/protooncogenes/promoters).

Answer: protooncogenes

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

12) A (colony/plaque) is a clear zone on a bacterial lawn where cells have been killed by the
activity of a bacteriophage.

Answer: plaque

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.17

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13) Three (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in
classifying viruses.

Answer: orders

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.6

14) RNA dependent RNA polymerase is required for successful infection by (+ssRNA/-ssRNA/
dsRNA) viruses.

Answer: -ssRNA

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.10

15) An animal virus that does not have an envelope is described as a(n) (naked/unenveloped/
capsid) virion.

Answer: naked

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.5

13.4 Essay Questions

1) Compare and contrast the ways in which animal, plant, and bacterial viruses gain entry into
their host cells.

Answer: Because cells have different types of barriers against the outside world, viruses have
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evolved different ways of breaching these barriers. For example, viruses cannot easily invade
cells that have rigid, protective cell walls (such as plant and bacterial cells). Viruses that infect
these cells gain entry by direct injection (as observed in bacteriophage T4), by taking advantage
of damage to the cell wall (as with some plant viruses), or by enlisting the aid of insects that are
themselves parasites (as with some other plant viruses). In contrast, animal cells have no cell
wall; therefore, animal viruses employ three basic strategies to enter through the flexible
cytoplasmic membrane. Some animal viruses directly penetrate this membrane (either the entire
virus or just its genome), whereas other viruses take advantage of natural cellular processes such
as phagocytosis to gain entry into the cell. Enveloped animal viruses also can use the process of
membrane fusion to get inside an animal cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9, 13.22

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2) Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of
viruses achieve this goal?

Answer: One way in which a virus gains control of a cell is to direct the synthesis of new viral
proteins, which include such molecules as enzymes. To do this, however, the virus must provide
the cell with mRNA for the production of such proteins. Viruses can achieve this goal in one of
three basic ways: (1) they can import mRNA into the cell in the form of the viral genome; (2)
they can allow the cell to make viral mRNA through normal cellular genetic processes by
providing the cell with viral DNA; or (3) they can use unique mechanisms to convert their
genomes into a form suitable for protein production. An example of the first type of virus is the
+ssRNA virus; this type of genome essentially mimics the mRNA found in the cell. An example
of the second type is the DNA virus, either ds or ss, which can take advantage of normal cellular
processes to produce mRNA. An example of the third type is the -ssRNA virus, which uses a
novel enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to convert its genome into +ssRNA,
which can then be used for protein synthesis as in the first example.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.10

3) Describe the difference between lysogeny and latency.

Answer: Lysogeny is associated with certain bacteriophages such as lambda phage, and it is
characterized by the formation of a prophage, which is a viral genome that is inserted into the
genome of the host cell. At this point, the virus becomes quiescent, although it can now be
replicated along with the host cell genome and is inherited by all the daughter cells of the host
cell. As long as the prophage is contained within the cell's genome, no intact virus will be
produced, although one or more viral proteins may be produced. Latency, in contrast, is
associated with animal viruses. Some animal viruses incorporate viral genetic material into the
genome of the host cell, and others do not. (For example, during the HIV infection cycle, a
provirus version of the viral genome is inserted into the cell's genome.) However, the overall
features of latency are the same as lysogeny, in that during the period of latency the virus is quiet
inside the cell and does not actively produce copies of itself. A significant difference is that
lysogeny can terminate with the prophage excising from the host DNA and resuming a lytic
infection, whereas reactivation of latent infection does not involve excision of provirus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

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4) A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the
laboratory and begins to analyze it. What features will help her determine the virus'
classification? How does this help her understand the virus' mechanism for causing cancer?

Answer: Characterization of the nucleic acid present in the virion is a first step in determining
the classification of the virus. If it is a large DNA virus with envelope it may be one of the
Herpesviridae. DNA viruses with smaller genome sizes known to cause cancer are the
Papillomaviruses and Polyomaviruses. The Hepadnavirdae have a circular DNA molecule which
is partially double strand and partially single strand. Very small DNA viruses which occasionally
cause cancer are the Adenoviridae. The presence or absence of an envelope is also useful in
eliminating possibilities. The presence of a segmented genome comprised of + single-strand
RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase is consistent with the virus being a member of the
Retroviridae.

Establishing the classification of the virus can provide clues as to the possible mechanism of
causing cancer, as different virus families are involved in different processes. For example,
retroviruses integrate into the host DNA and may thereby disrupt the function of a tumor
repressor.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.6, 13.14

5) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious.

Answer: The clue to why PrP acts as an infectious agent was found when it was discovered that
all mammals contain the gene for PrP. However, under normal conditions, the protein produced
from this gene, cellular PrP, is not a pathogenic agent. It is when PrP folds into an abnormal form
called prion PrP that it is infectious. As prion PrP, the protein is capable of inducing copies of
cellular PrP to refold into prion PrP, thereby causing the disease form of the protein to
accumulate. Because the genetic information to create this protein is found in the host organism,
prions are the only known example of a totally protein-based infectious agent.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.23

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Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions

13.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is an accurate description of a virion?

A) the nucleic acid of a viral pathogen

B) an infectious particle of protein and nucleic acid outside a host cell

C) a population of infectious particles

D) the protein portion of a viral particle

E) the nucleic acid of a viral pathogen inside a host cell

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.1

2) The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

A) protection

B) recognition

C) replication

D) both protection and recognition

E) both recognition and replication

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4, 13.5

3) A ________ is a virus that infects bacterial cells.

A) virion

B) prion

C) bacteriophage

D) nucleocapsid

E) viroid

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.3

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4) Which of the following is present in cells only during virus infection?

A) dsDNA

B) ssRNA

C) ssDNA

D) DNA-RNA heteroduplex

E) triplet RNA

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.1

5) Host specificity of a virus is due to

A) particular genes that it shares with the infected cell.

B) the presence of an envelope.

C) differences in size between the virus and the host cell.

D) the presence or absence of a cell wall on the host cell.

E) interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.2

6) The shape of a virion is a function of the ________ of the virus.

A) size of the genome material

B) cell type of the host cell

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C) type of genome material

D) capsid

E) envelope

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

7) How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?

A) They have no extracellular state.

B) They have only DNA for genetic material.

C) They have no capsid.

D) They have no intracellular state.

E) They cannot pass through a filter.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.3

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8) The envelope portion of an enveloped virus is composed of

A) glycolipids of the host cell.

B) virus-encoded glycoproteins.

C) phospholipids from host cell membranes.

D) host cell membranes containing virus-encoded glycoproteins.

E) host glycolipids and virus-encoded glycoproteins.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.5

9) Which of the following may occur in a lysogenic infection, but NOT a latent one?

A) The inserted viral DNA may leave the host DNA.

B) The viral DNA integrates (inserts) into the host cell DNA.

C) The provirus/prophage directs the synthesis of viral proteins.

D) The prophage/provirus alters gene expression in the host cell.

E) The prophage/provirus is replicated with the host DNA.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.12

10) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is TRUE?

A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms.

B) Virus classes are well established.

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C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.

D) The species epithet is a Latin descriptor of the virion structure.

E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Classification of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.6

11) Classification of viruses includes

A) classes.

B) orders.

C) families.

D) orders and families.

E) classes, orders, and families.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.6

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12) What is the correct order for the stages of a lytic replication cycle, from earliest to latest
stages?

I. Synthesis

II. Assembly

III. Attachment

IV. Release

V. Entry

A) III, V, I, II, IV

B) III, II, V, I, IV

C) V, III, II, IV, I

D) I, III, V, II, IV

E) I, II, III, V, IV

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.7

13) Which of the following is involved in the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell?

A) random collisions

B) chemical attractions

C) receptor specificity

D) both chemical attractions and receptor specificity

E) random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

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Learning Outcome: 13.7

14) The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection
cycle?

A) entry

B) assembly

C) entry and release

D) synthesis

E) attachment

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.7

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15) Naked capsid animal viruses gain entry to host cells by

A) endocytosis.

B) direct penetration.

C) membrane fusion.

D) both endocytosis and direct penetration.

E) endocytosis, direct penetration, and membrane fusion.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9

16) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but
NOT in the lysogenic cycle?

A) attachment

B) entry

C) digestion of host DNA

D) viral protein synthesis

E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

17) Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

A) It speeds up the viral infection cycle.

B) The genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic
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phage.

C) It allows the bacteriophage to infect cells it would not normally infect.

D) It allows the bacteriophage to destroy the host cell's DNA.

E) It enables the bacteriophage to take over the cell.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage to the lytic
cycle?

A) UV light

B) X-rays

C) presence of +ssRNA

D) both UV light and X-rays

E) both UV light and the presence of +ssRNA

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

A) lytic

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B) lysogenic

C) prion

D) viroid

E) transducing

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.8, 13.17

20) Which virus is CORRECTLY matched with its method of entry?

A) adenovirus; direct penetration

B) herpesvirus; membrane fusion

C) HIV; membrane fusion

D) measles virus; direct penetration

E) poliovirus; endocytosis

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9

21) Retroviruses require the activity of ________ to complete their infection cycle.

A) lysozyme

B) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C) RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.

D) ribosome components.

E) reverse transcriptase and RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.10

25) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?

A) the nuclear membrane

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B) the cytoplasmic membrane

C) the endoplasmic reticulum

D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes

E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes, and the endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.11

26) A cell is infected with a virus carrying an oncogene sequence in its genome. What process
may occur if the oncogene is expressed in the infected cell?

A) lysis

B) neoplasia

C) lysogeny

D) latency

E) both lysis and neoplasia

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

27) How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda-phage prophage?

A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA.

B) All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus.

C) All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus.
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D) The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell.

E) Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.12

28) The process of metastasis results from

A) neoplasia.

B) benign tumors.

C) oncogene expression.

D) malignant tumors.

E) viral latency.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.13

A) +ssRNA viruses

B) dsRNA viruses

C) -ssRNA viruses

D) retroviruses

E) both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses

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Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

30) The development of a cancerous cell is said to require "multiple hits." This means

A) the cell must be infected with several different types of viruses to be transformed.

B) several protoncogenes are activated at the same time.

C) multiple cell cycle regulators are inactivated at once.

D) a series of separate events over time lead to the loss of cell cycle regulation.

E) multiple oncogenic viruses infect the cell at the same time.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

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31) Plaque assays are used for

A) evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus.

B) determining the density of phage in a culture.

C) the study of prions.

D) cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way.

E) counting the number of latent phages in a cell.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.17

32) Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures differ in which of the following ways?

A) longevity

B) source of cells

C) convenience of use

D) both longevity and convenience of use

E) both longevity and source of cells

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.19

33) What is one of the most difficult aspects of studying animal viruses?

A) The viruses are hard to obtain.

B) The study requires expensive facilities.

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C) The use of animals to study the viruses is unethical in the eyes of many.

D) The viruses are extremely dangerous to handle.

E) The use of animals is expensive, and unethical to many people.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.18

34) How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?

A) They cannot reproduce outside a cell.

B) They act as slow viruses.

C) They cause neurological problems.

D) They can be destroyed by incineration.

E) They lack nucleic acid.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.24

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35) The viruses of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore similar to

A) bacteriophages.

B) enveloped viruses.

C) prions.

D) viroids.

E) lysogens.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.21

36) Infection with ________ is likely to result in destruction of the host cell by lysis.

A) enveloped viruses

B) naked viruses

C) oncogenic viruses

D) viroids

E) prions

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.11

37) Some human viruses are difficult to study because

A) they grow very slowly.

B) they establish latent infections and cannot be induced.

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C) the growth medium for the host cells is complex.

D) they only grow in normal human cells.

E) very few laboratories have the skills to culture the viruses.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.15

38) Why are diploid cell cultures preferred over continuous cell cultures?

A) Continuous cell cultures are expensive to maintain.

B) Diploid cells last far longer than continuous culture cells.

C) Diploid cells are more nearly like cells of whole organisms than continuous culture cells.

D) Diploid cells have undergone changes in their chromosome structure that make them more
stable.

E) Results from continuous culture cells do not apply to disease in whole organisms.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.19

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39) Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms?

A) possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication

B) presence of cytoplasm

C) metabolic capability

D) responsiveness

E) the ability to increase in size

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Are Viruses Alive?

Learning Outcome: 13.20

40) Small circular RNA molecules without capsids are characteristic of

A) plasmids.

B) viruses.

C) viroids.

D) prions.

E) viruses and prions.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.22

41) Prions cause disease in

A) mammals.

B) plants.

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C) bacteria.

D) fungi.

E) birds.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.25

42) During ________, viral synthesis is suspended.

A) budding

B) latency

C) lytic replication

D) persistent infection

E) oncogenesis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.12

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43) Virus replication results in the death of the cell in ________ infection(s).

A) a lytic

B) a latent

C) a persistent

D) a lysogenic

E) both latent and persistent

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

44) A ________ is a mass of neoplastic cells.

A) diploid culture

B) metastasis

C) tumor

D) gall

E) plaque

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.13

45) The process known as ________ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses.

A) lytic replication

B) persistent infection

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C) metastasis

D) latency

E) budding

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.11

13.2 True/False Questions

1) Viruses cause most human cancers.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

2) Virus entry requires the presence of specific cell structures.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.2

3) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.

Answer: TRUE

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.10

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10) Fertilized chicken eggs are used to culture some vaccine strains.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.18

13.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The combination of a virus's protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the (capsid/virion/
nucleocapsid).

Answer: nucleocapsid

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

2) Assembly of enveloped viruses requires (membrane/matrix/receptor) to bring together the

nucleocapsid and the envelope.

Answer: matrix

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.5

3) The first virus isolated, Tobacco mosaic virus, has a (complex/helical/polyhedral) capsid
morphology, which facilitated its isolation.

Answer: helical

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

4) Some viruses can be cultured on (continuous/diploid/animal) cells which are descended from
neoplastic cells.

Answer: continuous

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.16

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5)

The virions shown in the figure have a (polyhedral/helical/complex) capsid.

Answer: complex

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.4

6) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage.

Answer: temperate

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.8

7) The process in which viral capsids are removed within the infected cell is called (entry/
disassembly/uncoating).

Answer: uncoating

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9

8) Uncontrolled cell division in animals is known as (metastasis/neoplasia/cancer).

Answer: neoplasia

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.13

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9)

The graph in the figure shows a pattern of virion abundance consistent with a (lytic/latent/
persistent) virus infection cycle.

Answer: persistent

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.1

10) Viruses are responsible for (all/most/some) human cancers. (Use relative terms not numbers.)

Answer: some

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

11) Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer
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are called (oncogenes/protooncogenes/promoters).

Answer: protooncogenes

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.14

12) A (colony/plaque) is a clear zone on a bacterial lawn where cells have been killed by the
activity of a bacteriophage.

Answer: plaque

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory

Learning Outcome: 13.17

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13) Three (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in
classifying viruses.

Answer: orders

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.6

14) RNA dependent RNA polymerase is required for successful infection by (+ssRNA/-ssRNA/
dsRNA) viruses.

Answer: -ssRNA

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.10

15) An animal virus that does not have an envelope is described as a(n) (naked/unenveloped/
capsid) virion.

Answer: naked

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Characteristics of Viruses

Learning Outcome: 13.5

13.4 Essay Questions

1) Compare and contrast the ways in which animal, plant, and bacterial viruses gain entry into
their host cells.

Answer: Because cells have different types of barriers against the outside world, viruses have
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evolved different ways of breaching these barriers. For example, viruses cannot easily invade
cells that have rigid, protective cell walls (such as plant and bacterial cells). Viruses that infect
these cells gain entry by direct injection (as observed in bacteriophage T4), by taking advantage
of damage to the cell wall (as with some plant viruses), or by enlisting the aid of insects that are
themselves parasites (as with some other plant viruses). In contrast, animal cells have no cell
wall; therefore, animal viruses employ three basic strategies to enter through the flexible
cytoplasmic membrane. Some animal viruses directly penetrate this membrane (either the entire
virus or just its genome), whereas other viruses take advantage of natural cellular processes such
as phagocytosis to gain entry into the cell. Enveloped animal viruses also can use the process of
membrane fusion to get inside an animal cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.9, 13.22

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2) Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of
viruses achieve this goal?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Replication

Learning Outcome: 13.10

3) Describe the difference between lysogeny and latency.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

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4) A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the
laboratory and begins to analyze it. What features will help her determine the virus'
classification? How does this help her understand the virus' mechanism for causing cancer?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis

Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer

Learning Outcome: 13.6, 13.14

5) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions

Learning Outcome: 13.23

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Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 14 Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology

14.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?

A) bacteria in the human colon

B) tapeworm in the human intestine

C) tuberculosis in the human lung

D) protozoa in termites

E) microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.1

2) A bacterium inhabits the human nasal cavity where it obtains nutrients from secretions. It
neither harms nor benefits the host. The relationship is therefore a(n) ________ one.

A) commensal

B) mutualisitic

C) parasitic

D) neutral

E) antagonistic

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.1

3) A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins
and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the
nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be
described as

A) commensalism.

B) mutualism.

C) parasitism.

D) both commensalism and parasitism.

E) a nonsymbiotic relationship.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.1

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4) The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in
immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus
is best described as

A) a parasite.

B) resident microbiota.

C) a mutualist symbiotic partner.

D) transient microbiota.

E) both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.2, 14.3

5) Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which
type of exposure does this represent?

A) mucous membrane portal

B) parenteral route

C) skin portal

D) contact

E) fomite

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection

Learning Outcome: 14.7

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6) Symptoms are

A) subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

B) objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured.

C) objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others.

D) characteristics of a disease, such as sweating.

E) laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.11

7) The close contact between newborns and family members allows them to become ________
with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.)

A) infected

B) parasitized

C) colonized

D) contaminated

E) infiltrated

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection

Learning Outcome: 14.6

8) A person licks a needle before injecting a drug into a vein. The person later develops a
bacterial infection of the blood. This is an example of

A) a disruption of the normal microbial population of the blood.

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B) a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body.

C) immune suppression leading to disease.

D) microbial antagonism.

E) microbial synergism.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.4

9) Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is
FALSE?

A) The suspect agent must be present in all cases of disease.

B) The suspect agent must cause the disease under investigation when introduced into a
susceptible host organism.

C) The suspect agent must be isolated and cultured in the laboratory.

D) It must be possible to reisolate the suspect agent from the infected experimental host.

E) The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.13

10) Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal
microbiota?

A) The baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal.

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B) Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after
delivery.

C) Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy.

D) Microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the baby's first breath.

E) Microbes enter the nose and mouth when the baby is in the birth canal.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.3

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11) Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic
pathogens?

A) growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin

B) growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine

C) treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

D) growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth

E) presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.4

12) Which of the following is considered part of the resident microbiota of the female
reproductive system?

A) Candida

B) Lactobacillus

C) E. coli

D) Bacteroides

E) both Candida and Lactobacillus

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.3

13) Bacterial contaminants grow in food in a closed container. The food is heated after the
container is opened, but a person develops food poisoning after eating it. The bacteria were
producing
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A) an exotoxin.

B) endotoxin.

C) an exoenzyme.

D) antiphagocytic factors.

E) capsules.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.14

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14) Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase,
hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to
invade the body?

A) coagulase

B) enterotoxin

C) hemolysin

D) hyaluronidase

E) coagulase and hemolysin

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.14

15) During which stage of disease should an infected person be considered contagious?

A) the incubation period

B) all stages

C) the illness stage

D) the decline stage

E) the convalescence period

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.15

16) Which of the following is transmitted by the parenteral route?

A) ringworm
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B) warts

C) gonorrhea

D) yellow fever

E) pertussis

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection

Learning Outcome: 14.7

17) Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

A) cockroach transmission of Shigella

B) mosquito transmission of Plasmodium

C) flea transmission of Yersinia

D) tsetse fly transmission of Trypanosoma

E) louse transmission of Rickettsia

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.18

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18) Vomiting is a common sign of food poisoning. The corresponding symptom would be

A) fever.

B) cramps.

C) nausea.

D) pain.

E) diarrhea.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.11

19) Which of the following might result in a nosocomial infection (HAI)?

A) being bitten by an infected insect

B) eating contaminated food

C) using a contaminated needle

D) a hospital aide forgetting to wash his or her hands before tending a patient

E) having unprotected sexual intercourse

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.28

20) Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as ________
infections.

A) iatrogenic

B) exogenous
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C) opportunistic

D) endogenous

E) subacute

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.26

21) The bacterium that causes tuberculosis can be expelled from the lungs by a cough and remain
viable in the air for an hour or more. If a person inhales the bacteria from the air, what type of
transmission has occurred?

A) indirect contact

B) airborne

C) waterborne

D) foodborne

E) bodily fluid

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.17

22) A person is exposed to desert air containing fungus spores and develops valley fever as a
result. Valley fever is an example of a ________ disease.

A) contagious

B) subacute

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C) chronic

D) noncommunicable

E) latent

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.21

23) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine
flu") in the United States. By the summer, the number of confirmed cases was reported as over
40,000. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) ________ disease.

A) epidemic

B) endemic

C) sporadic

D) pandemic

E) opportunistic

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.24

24) The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases.
This means

A) 12.43 in every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000.

B) 12.43 of every 100,000 people died of tuberculosis in the U.S. in the year 2000.

C) there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in
the year 2000.
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D) there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000.

E) 12.43 of every 100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the United States in the year
2000.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.23

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25) A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to
produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen
lost?

A) the ability to adhere to cells of the body

B) the ability to move from one location in the body to another

C) the ability to produce an endotoxin

D) the ability to establish a latent infection

E) the ability to prevent phagocytes killing it

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection

Learning Outcome: 14.8

26) Ten months after the 2010 earthquake in Haiti, there was a sharp increase in the number of
cases of cholera. What was the most likely source of disease?

A) direct contact with infected individuals

B) indirect contact with contaminated equipment

C) airborne

D) waterborne

E) foodborne

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.16

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27) Which of the following types of epidemiology applies Koch's postulates to study a disease?

A) experimental

B) descriptive

C) analytical

D) systemic

E) retrospective

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.25

28) What is the relationship between prevalence and incidence for an acute disease like
influenza?

A) The incidence and prevalence are essentially equal.

B) The incidence is always greater than the prevalence.

C) The prevalence is always greater than the incidence.

D) The incidence rises while prevalence declines.

E) There is no predictable relationship.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.23

29) An example of direct contact transmission is

A) the bite of a kissing bug.

B) a door knob contaminated with respiratory secretions.

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C) saliva exchanged during a kiss.

D) fecal contaminates on the hands of a restaurant worker.

E) inhalation of respiratory aerosols.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.16

30) Which of the following pairings of microbe and disease was disproven using Koch's
postulates?

A) HIV and AIDS

B) Mycobacterium leprae and leprosy

C) hepatitis B and D and liver cancer

D) varicella-zoster virus and chickenpox

E) Haemophilus influenzae and the flu

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.13

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31)

The pattern of new cases reported in North America represented in this graph is consistent with
________ transmission.

A) airborne

B) fecal-oral

C) mosquito vector

D) direct contact

E) housefly

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.16, 14.18

32) Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process?

A) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline

B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline

C) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline

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D) incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

E) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.15

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33) Two children attend the same daycare, but one child is at the facility in the morning and the
other child attends the facility in the afternoon. Both children become ill with fifth disease within
one day of each other. How might the pathogen have infected both children?

A) fomite transmission

B) droplet transmission

C) vector transmission

D) direct contact transmission

E) vertical transmission

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.16

34) Treatment with high doses of antibiotics may lead to which type of health care associated
infection?

A) iatrogenic disease

B) exogenous infection

C) latent infection

D) endogenous infection

E) zoonosis

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.28

35) Which of the following combinations of pathogen and virulence factor is CORRECT?

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A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and endotoxin

B) Streptococcus pyogenes and protein M

C) Staphylococcus aureus and neurotoxin

D) Gram-positive bacteria and lipid A

E) Escherichia coli and cytotoxin

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.14

36) A true pathogen may also be described as

A) a component of the microbiota.

B) highly virulent.

C) opportunistic.

D) very common.

E) easily transmitted.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.10

37) Microbes known as transient microbiota are

A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.

B) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances.

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C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time.

D) unsuccessful microbial invaders because of the presence of preexisting microbes.

E) sources of microbial contamination.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.3

38) The taxonomic approach to classifying disease is based on the

A) type of host for the microbe.

B) means of transmission.

C) organs or organ systems affected by the disease.

D) type of microbe that causes the disease.

E) severity and duration of the disease.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.19

39) Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as

A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.

B) any microorganisms that cause disease.

C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time.

D) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances.

E) microorganisms that never cause disease.

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Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.3

40) A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by
public health agencies to stop the spread?

A) Facilitate access to vaccines.

B) Identify and treat people who are infected.

C) Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves.

D) Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected.

E) Shut down public transportation.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.29

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41) Several days after a walk in the woods, Cheryl develops a localized rash. It is not painful and
soon fades so she thinks nothing of it. Several months later she experiences increasing fatigue,
low-grade fever, and pain in the joints. These symptoms persist for months before she seeks
medical attention. This description is most consistent with a(n) ________ infection.

A) acute

B) chronic

C) subclinical

D) asymptomatic

E) latent

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.20

42) The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n)

A) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is
unharmed.

B) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.

C) nonsymbiotic relationship.

D) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.

E) relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.2

43) An axenic environment is one

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A) in which microorganisms remain with the person throughout life.

B) that is free of microbes.

C) that is a source of contamination.

D) in which microorganisms remain present only for a short time.

E) contaminated by microbial toxins.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.3

44) The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as

A) microorganisms that remain with a person throughout life.

B) a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.

C) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits.

D) an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.

E) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.4

45)

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The dots on the map represent reported cases of a disease. This distribution is a(n) ________
pattern.

A) endemic

B) epidemic

C) pandemic

D) sporadic

E) emerging

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.24

14.2 True/False Questions

1) Both members of a symbiotic relationship benefit from each other.

1) Toxins that affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract are (endotoxins/enterotoxins/
exotoxins).

Answer: enterotoxins

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.14

2) The degree to which a microbe is able to cause disease is known as its (morbidity/virulence/
toxicity).

Answer: virulence

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.10

3) Rubella, or three-day measles, passes through the (parenteral/placenta/mucous/skin) route to

establish congenital infection of a fetus.

Answer: placenta

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection

Learning Outcome: 14.7

4) Nervous system function may be impaired by the action of (endotoxins/neurotoxins/

cytotoxins).

Answer: neurotoxins

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.14

5) The (incubation/morbidity/prodromal) period is the time between infection and the occurrence
of the first symptoms or signs of the disease.

Answer: incubation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.15

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6) Some of the bacteria in the human gut do not survive well outside of that environment, and
produce vitamin K among other nutrients. This situation is an example of (commensalism/
mutualism/parasitism).

Answer: mutualism

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.1

7) Lipid A is a(n) (cytotoxin/endotoxin/exotoxin) that stimulates the body to release chemicals

that cause fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, and blood coagulation.

Answer: endotoxin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.14

8) Persons with asymptomatic infections may be (contaminants/reservoirs/zoonoses) of disease.

Answer: reservoirs

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases of Humans

Learning Outcome: 14.5

9) Spread of pathogens from one host to another by fomites is an example of (vehicle/direct/

indirect) contact transmission.

Answer: indirect

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.16

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10) Biological (sources/vectors/carriers) not only transmit pathogens, but also serve as hosts for
the manipulation of the pathogen during some phase of the pathogen's life cycle.

Answer: vectors

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission

Learning Outcome: 14.18

11) The bacterium that causes cholera is capable of living independently in freshwater. As a
consequence, cholera epidemics primarily involve (nonliving/animal/zoonotic) reservoirs.

Answer: nonliving

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases of Humans

Learning Outcome: 14.5

12) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology).

Answer: etiology

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.12

13) The hepatitis C virus normally establishes a (latent/chronic/subclinical) infection and may be
asymptomatic for a decade.

Answer: latent

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.20

14) The study of when and where diseases occur is known as (analytical/descriptive/
experimental) epidemiology.

Answer: descriptive

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.25

15) Virions attach to target host cell by means of (capsules/receptors/ligands).

Answer: ligands

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection

Learning Outcome: 14.8

16) Lyme disease is (communicable/contagious/noncommunicable) among humans.

Answer: noncommunicable

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.21

14.4 Essay Questions

1) What are the different types of symbiosis? List and give a short definition and an example for
each.
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Answer: There are three types of symbiosis: (1) mutualism, which is the relationship between
two organisms in which both benefit; (2) commensalism, in which one organism benefits and the
other is not significantly affected; and (3) parasitism, in which one organism, the parasite,
derives benefit while harming the other, the host. An example of mutualism is the relationship
between intestinal bacteria and humans. Lichens, which are a symbiosis between fungus and a
photosynthetic microbe, also represent a mutualistic relationship. The presence of
Staphylococcus bacteria on skin and in nasal cavities is likely a commensal relationship, as well
as Malassezia fungus infection of the epidermis. Tapeworms, the fungi that cause ringworm, and
the protozoan that causes malaria are all examples of parasites.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts

Learning Outcome: 14.1

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2) Researchers have proposed that the herpesvirus responsible for the childhood illness roseola
may cause a type of T cell leukemia. Ninety percent of the population has been infected by the
virus by two years of age, but the T cell leukemia is relatively rare. The virus can be cultured in
the laboratory in tissue culture, but not in mature organisms. Discuss the obstacles to applying
Koch's postulates to the etiology of this disease.

Answer: Koch's first postulate, that the suspect agent must be present in every case of disease, is
met, but far more people have the virus than have the disease. This suggests that more than the
presence of the virus is necessary for the leukemia to develop, and the additional factors may be
difficult to identify. The third postulate states that the isolated suspect agent must cause disease
when introduced into a host. This situation presents two difficulties in satisfying the third
postulate. The first is that it is unethical to deliberately expose humans to an agent that may
produce life-threatening disease (the leukemia). Additionally, ethical concerns aside, because
such a large percentage of the population has been exposed to the virus, a large pool of potential
uninfected subjects does not exist.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.13

3) Describe three types of reservoirs of infection in humans. Give an example disease for each
type of reservoir.

Answer: For a pathogen to enter a new host, it must survive in some site from which it can
infect the new host. These sites are considered reservoirs, which include the following:

1. Animal reservoirs, such as domestic or wild animals. Examples: rabies, West Nile fever

2. Human carriers, which are individuals who are infectious and may be either asymptomatic or
symptomatic. Examples: AIDS, tuberculosis

3. Nonliving reservoirs, such as soil, water, and food. Examples: cholera, tetanus

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases of Humans

Learning Outcome: 14.5

4) In 2012 a new kind of fungal meningitis (infection of the nervous system) was discovered.
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Disease occurred among patients who had received steroid injections into spinal joints. Discuss
whether these were HA (nosocomial) infections. Defend your answer. Discuss the route of
transmission and what measures public health agencies could take to reduce disease.

Answer: The fungal meningitis of 2012 was an HAI (nosocomial infection), of the iatrogenic
type. It was introduced by the parenteral route. Public health agencies can educate health care
providers about the source of the infections and how patients should be accessed and treated.
They can stop the distribution of the suspect steroids and determine what production standards
may need to be enforced.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases

Learning Outcome: 14.7, 14.28, 14.29

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5) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins.

Answer: Both endotoxins and exotoxins are produced by Gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are
also produced by Gram-positive bacteria. Endotoxins and exotoxins differ in their mechanism of
release and composition: exotoxins are proteins or peptides that are secreted, leaving the cell
intact, whereas endotoxins are lipids released only when the cell dies because they are a part of
the outer membrane. The toxicity of exotoxins is higher than that of endotoxins, but both can be
fatal. Both are heat stable, but endotoxins can survive an hour of autoclaving at 121°C, whereas
exotoxins are not stable above 60°C. Exotoxins produce a strong immune response, and therefore
toxoid immunization is possible. Endotoxins produce fever, but only a weak immune response,
so toxoid immunization is not an option.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease

Learning Outcome: 14.14

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 15 Innate Immunity

15.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of

A) innate immunity.

B) adaptive immunity.

C) species resistance.

D) microbial antagonism.

E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses

Learning Outcome: 15.1

2) Phagocytic cells in the epidermis known as ________ contribute to its ability to prevent
microbial invasion.

A) neutrophils

B) natural killer lymphocytes

C) microglia

D) dendritic cells

E) wandering macrophages

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3

3) Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

A) the first line of defense.

B) the second line of defense.

C) the third line of defense.

D) microbial antagonism.

E) innate immunity.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.1

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4) Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection?

A) basophils

B) macrophages

C) neutrophils

D) eosinophils

E) lymphocytes

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.10

5) What do the nasal cavity, mouth, and urinary system have in common?

A) They have roles in excretion of waste products.

B) They are lined with tightly packed dead cells.

C) They are poorly vascularized.

D) The outer layers remain intact for many days.

E) They are lined with mucous membranes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.4

6) Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

A) the lack of suitable environment in the body.

B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment.

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C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues.

D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin.

E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses

Learning Outcome: 15.2

7) The surface of the skin serves as a barrier to microbial invasion in part because it is

A) moisturized by mucus secretions.

B) constantly patrolled by neutrophils.

C) acidic.

D) a high-salt environment.

E) an acidic, high-salt environment.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3

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8) Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

A) Tears contain lysozyme and salt.

B) A mucus layer traps and removes microbes.

C) Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

D) Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

E) Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.6

9) Which of the following is the BEST definition of "microbial antagonism"?

A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through
abrasions

B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a
variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body

C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions

D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens

E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the
surface

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.7

10) Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense
against microbial invaders?
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A) The mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes.

B) The mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules.

C) Both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently.

D) The mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals.

E) The mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is
shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.5

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11) Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes?

A) peptide fragments from complement

B) chemokines

C) interferons

D) interferons and chemokines

E) chemokines and peptide fragments from complement

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.12

12) What is the function of NK cells?

A) They phagocytose virus particles.

B) They release interferons in response to detecting virus particles.

C) They release toxins to damage helminth parasites.

D) They identify and poison virus-infected cells.

E) They release defensins to damage bacteria.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

13) Mucus and sweat contain ________ which damage and kill bacteria.

A) antibodies

B) antimicrobial peptides

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C) salts

D) complement fragments

E) NOD proteins

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.8

14) The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to

A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

B) triggering inflammation.

C) triggering release of interferons.

D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons.

E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.17

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15) Which of the following statements concerning the alternative complement system is TRUE?

A) It is more efficient than the classical pathway.

B) It works best on Gram-positive bacteria.

C) Its activation is independent of antibodies.

D) It is not useful in the early stages of fungal infection.

E) It plays a very significant role in the elimination of parasitic helminths.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.17

16) Which of the following is the key difference in the roles of the classical and alternative
pathways of the complement system?

A) the formation of MACs

B) the range of microbe types that can be targeted

C) triggering inflammation

D) production of chemotactic factors

E) the effectiveness in killing Gram-negative bacteria

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.17

17) Which of the following cells can use nonphagocytic means to kill bacteria?

A) eosinophils

B) macrophages
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C) neutrophils

D) natural killer cells

E) both eosinophils and neutrophils

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

18) A monocyte leaves a capillary in the lungs and enters the lung tissue. It then matures to
become a(n)

A) dendritic cell.

B) goblet cell.

C) alveolar macrophage.

D) microglial cell.

E) mast cell.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.11

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19) Receptors known as NOD proteins detect molecules associated with microbes

A) in the extracellular fluid.

B) on the surface of cells.

C) in the cytoplasmic membrane.

D) in the cytoplasm.

E) in the phagolysosome.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.15

20) Which of the following leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that stain blue with
methylene blue?

A) eosinophils

B) monocytes

C) lymphocytes

D) neutrophils

E) basophils

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.10

21)

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What type of white blood cell is shown in Figure 15-1?

A) monocyte

B) lymphocyte

C) basophil

D) eosinophil

E) neutrophil

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.10

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22) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as

A) responders to invasion.

B) passive barriers.

C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense.

D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens.

E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.9

23) Neutrophils produce ________, which can be triggered by sugar molecules on the surface of
microbes to damage the microbes.

A) antimicrobial peptides

B) TLRs

C) NOD proteins

D) C3 and C5

E) interferons

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.8

24) In addition to phagocytosis, neutrophils can kill bacteria by producing

A) histamines.

B) interferons.
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C) nitric oxide.

D) hypochlorite.

E) both hypochlorite and nitric oxide.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

25) Which of the following iron-binding proteins is NOT part of the body's iron storage and
transport system?

A) gastroferritin

B) lactoferrin

C) ferritin

D) transferrin

E) siderophores

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.8

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26) Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE?

A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes.

B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins.

C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors.

D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs.

E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.14

27) Healthy cells produce ________ in response to interferons.

A) TLRs

B) antimicrobial peptides

C) antiviral proteins

D) NOD

E) MACs

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.16

28) Which of the following substances stimulates the phagocytic activity of phagocytes?

A) gamma interferons

B) alpha interferons

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C) beta interferons

D) antiviral proteins

E) leukotrienes

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.16

29) Which complement protein is the key to activating the alternative pathway of complement
activation?

A) C1

B) C2

C) C3

D) C4

E) C5

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.17

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30) Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature

A) denatures viral proteins.

B) increases vasodilation, bringing more leukocytes to the site of infection.

C) results in virus being shed in sweat.

D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts.

E) increases the effectiveness of interferons.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.19

31) Which of the following substances is/are responsible for the edema associated with
inflammation?

A) leukotrienes

B) histamine

C) interferon

D) defensin

E) both leukotrienes and histamine

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.18

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32)

The process shown in the figure will lead to

A) formation of MACs.

B) formation of NETS.

C) capillary constriction.

D) chemotaxis and opsonization.

E) vasodilation.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

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33) What feature of the skin creates a physical barrier to microbial invasion?

A) The outer layers are dead cells, tightly linked together, and are frequently shed.

B) The oil secreted onto the surface of the skin traps microbes, preventing penetration.

C) The fine hairs move microbes to mucous membranes for phagocytosis.

D) The surface is constantly patrolled by phagocytic cells.

E) The outer layers are composed of cells full of protein which forms NETs to trap microbes
until they are shed.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3

34) Which of the following leukocyte functions do macrophages carry out?

A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris

B) release of alpha interferon

C) secretion of leukotrienes

D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs

E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.10

35) Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucous membranes?

A) They are both constantly shedding and replacing cells.

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B) They both have cilia.

C) The outer layers are composed of dead cells.

D) Sebum may be present.

E) Lysozymes are always present.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5

36) Phagocytes are brought to a site of infection by

A) fluid flow out of capillaries.

B) detection of NOD proteins.

C) detection of chemokines and complement factor gradients.

D) gradients of interferons.

E) bradykinin gradients.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.12

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37) The phenomenon of ________ facilitates the binding of phagocyte pseudopodia to
pathogens.

A) opsonization

B) chemotaxis

C) MAC formation

D) diapedesis

E) margination

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.12

38) Wandering macrophages recognize microorganisms by means of

A) lectins.

B) TLRs.

C) NOD proteins.

D) lectins and C3 protein.

E) both TLRs and NOD proteins.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.10, 15.14, 15.15

39) The ________ play a role in preventing neoplastic cells from progressing to cancer.

A) eosinophils
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B) NK cells

C) neutrophils

D) basophils

E) mast cells

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

40) Which of the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils?

A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.

B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement.

C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites.

D) They decline during allergic reaction.

E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

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41) Structures and products of pathogens that immune cells detect and respond to are called

A) TLRs.

B) NODs.

C) PAMPs.

D) leukotrienes.

E) prostaglandins.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.14

42) Phagocytes can directly detect microbial molecules like LPS and peptidoglycan by means of

A) toll-like receptors.

B) the complement cascade.

C) PAMPs.

D) bradykinin binding.

E) interferon receptors.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.14

43) The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes

A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

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B) increase in allergies and helminth infection.

C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement.

D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

E) are specialists in killing bacteria.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

44) First line of defense may be described as

A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth.

C) damage resulting in cell lysis.

D) the coating of a pathogen by complement.

E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6

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45) Lectins specific for mannose can lead to attack on fungi by

A) NK cells.

B) macrophages.

C) complement.

D) neutrophils.

E) basophils.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.19

9) Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

10) Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration
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of phagocytes to the area.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.18

15.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The third line of defense against infecting microbes is called (adaptive/innate/natural)

immunity.

Answer: adaptive

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses

Learning Outcome: 15.1

2) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion
known as (natural/innate/species) resistance.

Answer: species

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses

Learning Outcome: 15.2

3) Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermcidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by
cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits present in the wall.

Answer: lysozyme

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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3

4) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.

Answer: goblet

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.5

5) The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to
many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum).

Answer: sebum

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3

6) The normal microbiota compete with pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body,
creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance).

Answer: antagonism

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.7

7) In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the

bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood.

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Answer: hematopoiesis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: N/A

8) The process known as (complement/inflammation/phagocytosis) brings a variety of physical,

chemical, and cellular factors together to fight invading microorganisms.

Answer: inflammation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.18

9) Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR) in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria.

Answer: DNA

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

10) The proportion of (plasma/leukocytes/RBCs), as determined by a differential white blood

cell count, can serve as a sign of disease.

Answer: leukocytes

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.10

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11) The TLRs of phagocytic cells bind (MAC/NOD/PAMP) molecules. (Be sure to use capital
letters in your answer.)

Answer: PAMP

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.14

12) The redness and heat of acute inflammation are caused in part by the production of
(bradykinin/platelets/fibrinogen) during the formation of blood clots.

Answer: bradykinin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.18

13) Neutrophils primarily kill (bacterial/helminth/fungus/viral) pathogens.

Answer: bacterial

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.13

14) Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens.

Answer: first

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3

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15) Some pathogens produce toxins, which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to
cause fever.

Answer: pyrogens

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.19

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15.4 Essay Questions

1) Describe the events of the acute inflammatory response and their effect on a site of infection.
Include the cells and chemicals involved.

Answer: The events of the acute inflammatory response are vasodilation and increased
permeability of the capillaries. Vasodilation is triggered when damaged cells release histamines
and brandykin is produced during blood clot formation. The vasodilation permits increased blood
flow into the area of infection, which brings more blood components (molecular and cellular) to
the area and also causes the area to become red and warmer. The increased permeability allows
the blood components to enter the tissue more readily. Increased plasma flow results in swelling
(edema) and also increases the content of complement factors in the tissue. The increased fluid
flow into the tissue creates a pressure barrier that can slow the spread of microbes. The
complement cascade triggered by the presence of bacteria releases chemotactic factors.
Leukocytes entering the area of inflammation marginate and diapedese in response to
chemotactic factors (produced by the complement cascade and by damaged cells). These events
result in a concentration of defensive factors at a site of infection and some containment of
microbes in an effort to defeat the invading microbes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.18

2) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found in phagosome membranes and bind forms of
nucleic acids. Discuss how these TLRs and their location can play a role in the response to viral
infection. (You may have to recall information from one or more previous chapters.)

Answer: When viral particles are bound and engulfed by phagocytes the phagocytic process will
likely result in the release of viral nucleic acids from digested virions into the interior of the
phagosome. This will make them available for detection by the TLRs.

Some viruses make use of the cellular response to endocytose material attached to the
cytoplasmic membrane as a means of entry into the cell. Uncoating of the viral nucleic acid
within the endosome may provide an opportunity for detection of the viral nucleic acid by TLRs.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

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3) Describe at least three physical mechanisms that are part of the first line of defense.

Answer: Physical mechanisms include the skin, the mucous membranes, and the variety of
fluids that are produced by the body. The skin acts as a key element in the first line of defense for
several reasons. First, the skin has many layers of protection that few microbes can penetrate.
Second, these layers are shed, removing potential pathogens. Third, the epidermis has epidermal
dendritic cells that are phagocytic. The mucous membranes also play a role for a variety of
reasons. They contain tightly packed cells that are continually shed and replaced. In addition, the
production of mucus acts to trap pathogens, and the cilia, which are often present, beat
synchronously to remove microbes. Bodily fluids serve to dilute and wash away microbes. These
fluids include tears, saliva, urine, vaginal secretions, blood, and menstrual flow. Other physical
processes include defecation and vomiting.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's First Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6

Examine the WBC count and differential data in the table. What type of disease is indicated by
this set of data?

Answer: The overall elevation of WBC indicates an infection. The elevated lymphocyte
proportion along with the slightly low neutrophil count is consistent with viral infections.

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5) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?

Answer: Phagocytosis is a process by which a cell can engulf substances and internalize them
into the cytoplasm. Cells that are capable of phagocytosis are collectively known as phagocytes
and include neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Phagocytosis is part of the body's second
line of defense, and it is nonspecific. It includes the following steps:

Chemotaxis: A cell moves either toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

Adherence: The phagocyte attaches to the pathogen, through binding of complementary

chemicals on the membranes of the pathogen.

Ingestion: After the pseudopodia adhere to the pathogen, the encompassed microbe is
internalized as the pseudopodia fuse to form a sac called a phagosome.

Digestion: Lysosomes with over 30 digestive enzymes attach to the phagosome and break down
the microbe. At the end of this process, the remains of the phagosome are known as the residual
body.

Elimination: The phagocyte rids itself of undigested material by exocytosis, which is the
opposite of ingestion.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense

Learning Outcome: 15.12

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 16 Adaptive Immunity

16.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) One of the advantages of adaptive immunity over innate immunity is

A) the response is targeted against a single pathogen.

B) the response is far faster.

C) the ability to recognize antigens common to many microbes.

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D) the response targets classes of pathogen instead of specific pathogens.

E) a huge variety of cells are produced in response to an infection.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.1

2) Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following
statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic
determinant.

B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.

C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which
they are specific.

D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.

E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.1

3) Which of the following is an exogenous antigen?

A) a bacterium inside a cell

B) a virus inside a cell

C) a bacterium outside a cell

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D) a noninfected human cell

E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.8

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4) Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

A) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs.

B) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.

C) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized.

D) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for
"cluster of differentiation."

E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.2

5) Large accumulations of unactivated self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for

specific antigenic determinants are found in

A) the MALT.

B) lymph nodes.

C) the thymus.

D) the MALT and lymph nodes.

E) the MALT, lymph nodes, and thymus.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.6

6) In what way is the lymphatic system similar to the circulatory system?

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A) The lymph nodes can contract to push fluid through the system.

B) The composition of lymphatic fluid is similar to that of blood plasma.

C) The lymphatic system is also a circulatory system.

D) Fluid flows from larger vessels to capillaries.

E) The same types of cells flow through both systems.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.4

7) The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils.

B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.

C) macrophages and eosinophils.

D) macrophages and neutrophils.

E) neutrophils and dendritic cells.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.2

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8) You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely.
Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

A) appendix.

B) lymph nodes of the groin (inguinal).

C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).

D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).

E) spleen.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.4

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated here is

A) IgE.

B) IgG.

C) IgA.

D) IgM.

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E) IgD.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

10) The structural features common to all antibody classes are

A) an antigen binding site formed by a single heavy chain.

B) an antigen binding site formed by two light chains.

C) a stem formed of a light chain and a heavy chain.

D) a heavy chain paired with a light chain.

E) two pairs of a heavy chain and a light chain which form an antigen binding site.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.17

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11) The Fc portion of an antibody is formed by

A) portions of both of the heavy chains only.

B) the variable regions of the heavy chains.

C) the light chains only.

D) the variable regions of the light chains.

E) one heavy chain.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.10

12) The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of

A) monocytes.

B) T lymphocytes.

C) B lymphocytes.

D) neutrophils.

E) macrophages.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.3

13) Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells.

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B) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx).

C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes.

E) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

14) Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they

A) have unique light chains.

B) are Y-shaped molecules.

C) are present in the plasma.

D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers.

E) are present in lymph nodes.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

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15) NK cells can interact with ________ antibodies in the process of antibody-dependent cellular
cytotoxicity.

A) IgD

B) IgM

C) IgA

D) IgG

E) IgE

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

16) Which of the following function(s) in agglutination?

A) IgA antibodies

B) IgG antibodies

C) IgE antibodies

D) IgD antibodies

E) IgA and IgG antibodies

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

17) Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?

A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.

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B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may
not encounter.

C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.

D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its
BCR.

E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with
distinct BCRs.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.14

18) Which of the following pairs of lymphocyte and glycoprotein is MISMATCHED?

A) Th1: CD8

B) Th2: CD4

C) CTL: CD8

D) Tr: CD4

E) Tr: CD25

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.14

19) Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

A) growth factors

B) interferons

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C) interleukins

D) tumor necrosis factors

E) chemokines

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.17

20) Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body?

A) the bone marrow

B) the spleen

C) the liver

D) both the bone marrow and the spleen

E) the thymus

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.12, 16.16

21)

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What will be the direct result of the interaction shown in this figure? (This interaction is
occurring in a lymph node.)

A) activation of a cytotoxic T lymphocyte

B) activation of a helper T lymphocyte

C) clonal deletion of a T lymphocyte

D) activation of a B lymphocyte

E) clonal deletion of a B lymphocyte

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.28

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22) Major histocompatibility antigens are

A) antigens that provoke allergic reactions.

B) antigens that must be processed by cells called histiocytes in order to be recognized by the
immune system.

C) antigens attached to foreign invaders.

D) glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells.

E) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

23) Which of the following components of antigen processing is MISMATCHED?

A) endoplasmic reticulum: endogenous antigen

B) exogenous antigen: MHC II

C) endogenous antigen: MHC II

D) phagosome: exogenous antigen

E) endogengous antigen: MHC I

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.13

24) What types of antigens are bound to Class I MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
proteins?

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A) autoantigens

B) exogenous antigens

C) endogenous antigens

D) both autoantigens and endogenous antigens

E) autoantigens, endogenous, and exogenous antigens

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.13

25) The role of dendrites in the adaptive immune response is to

A) attack and destroy invading pathogens.

B) distinguish between endogenous and exogenous antigens.

C) detect autoreactive lymphocytes and trigger apoptosis.

D) process endogenous antigens for presentation on MHC I molecules.

E) degrade exogenous antigens for presentation on MHC II molecules.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.12

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26) Which of the following molecules would contain T-independent antigens?

A) phospholipids

B) lipoproteins

C) polysaccharides

D) glycoproteins

E) steroids

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.26

27) Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the
binding of epitopes to T cell receptors?

A) CCR3

B) MHC I

C) CD26

D) CD4

E) CCR5

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.22

28) Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is TRUE?

A) They live for many years and function as memory cells.

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B) They are descended from activated T cells.

C) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis.

D) They secrete a variety of antibody molecules specific for multiple epitopes.

E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.28

29) After an initial exposure to a pathogen, the phenomenon of ________ produces a faster, more
effective response to subsequent exposures.

A) clonal selection

B) clonal deletion

C) self-tolerance

D) immunological memory

E) immunological synapse

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.29

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30) Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE?

A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated.

B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their
target.

C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide.

E) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.23

31) The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An
adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because

A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been
infected by presenting antigen.

B) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs.

C) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this
infection prevents.

D) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs.

E) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.18

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32) The perforin-granzyme pathway involves

A) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen.

B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen.

C) the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.

D) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells.

E) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.23

33) The appendix and the Peyer's patches of the intestines are components of the

A) MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue).

B) clonal deletion process.

C) thymus-associated organs.

D) lymphatic vessel system.

E) innate immune response.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.6

34) What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

A) innate immunity

B) naturally acquired passive immunity

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C) artificially acquired active immunity

D) artificially acquired passive immunity

E) naturally acquired active immunity

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Types of Acquired Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.30

35) A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment
options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza
antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the
following is the most appropriate interpretation?

A) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.

B) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.

C) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.

D) The child has neither influenza nor RSV.

E) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.18

36) Type 1 helper T (Th1) cells produce ________ to stimulate increased phagocytosis,

A) alpha interferon (INF-α)

B) gamma interferon (INF-γ)

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C) growth factors

D) chemokines

E) tumor necrosis factors (TNFs)

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.20

37) What is the role of interleukins?

A) chemotaxis of leukocytes

B) production of virally infected cells

C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes

D) signaling between leukocytes

E) complement activation

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.17

38) Which of the following cytokines helps regulate inflammation?

A) alpha interferon

B) chemokines

C) tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

D) IL-4 (interleukin-4)

E) IL-12

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Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.20

39) What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

A) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell

B) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell

C) suppression of the immune response to the microbe

D) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins

E) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.21

40) Leukocytes migrate to a site of infection in response to

A) bradykinins.

B) interferon alpha.

C) chemokines.

D) interleukin 10 (IL-10).

E) tumor necrosis factor (TNF).

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.20

41) Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ________ immunity.

A) artificial passive

B) natural passive

C) natural active

D) artificial active

E) both active and passive

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Types of Acquired Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.30

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42) Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies?

A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.

B) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an
immune response.

C) They are the antibody class found in body secretions.

D) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells.

E) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

43) IgE antibodies are best described as

A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.

B) the antibodies found in body secretions.

C) those involved in complement activation.

D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC).

E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune
response.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

44) How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

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A) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion.

B) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated.

C) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses.

D) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell
activation.

E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell
suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.25

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45) A CD4+ T cell detects its epitope presented by an APC and receives IL-4 signals. It will
differentiate to become a(n)

A) CTL.

B) Th1 cell.

C) Th2 cell.

D) Tr lymphocyte.

E) APC.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.23

16.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The ability of the body to respond faster and more effectively to a second exposure to
pathogens is called immunologic (memory/synapse/tolerance).

Answer: memory

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.1

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2) An antigen-presenting cell (APC) processes and displays (auto-/endogenous/exogenous)
antigen.

Answer: exogenous

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.8

3) The degree to which a molecule is antigenic is largely a function of the (shape/complexity/

simplicity/repetition) of the molecule.

Answer: complexity

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.7

4) The (constant/end/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to
form antigen-binding sites.

Answer: variable

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.10

5) The process of (apoptosis/autolysis/differentiation) is a critical event in the development of

self-tolerance.

Answer: apoptosis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

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Learning Outcome: 16.15

6) The cytokine (IL-4/INF-γ/TNF) causes abnormal cells to undergo apoptosis.

Answer: TNF

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.20

7) Antibody molecules are produced by (B/plasma/T) cells.

Answer: plasma

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.28

8) TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules

ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.

Answer: MHC

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Preparation for an Adaptive Immune Response

Learning Outcome: 16.20

9) The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies
of (BCR/MHC/TCR).

Answer: BCR

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

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Learning Outcome: 16.9

10)

The antibody function known as (agglutination/neutralization/opsonization) is illustrated here.

Answer: opsonization

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.11

11) Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/
plasma/T) cells.

Answer: dendritic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Preparation for an Adaptive Immune Response

Learning Outcome: 16.20

12) An APC presents antigen to an unactivated T lymphocyte on an MHC I molecule and

secretes IL-12 at the same time. As a result the T lymphocyte differentiates into a (Th1/Th2/Tr)
lymphocyte.

Answer: Th1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

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Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.20

13) B lymphocytes can bind directly to large antigens with repeating polysaccharide subunits,
such as a bacterial capsule that has antigenic determinants known as T-independent (receptors/
antigens).

Answer: antigens

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.26

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14) The epitope specificity of a T lymphocyte is determined by its (MHC/BCR/TCR).

Answer: TCR

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.10

15) When a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell interact, a specialized contact called an
immunological (connection/bond/synapse) forms between them.

Answer: synapse

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.22

16.4 Essay Questions

1) Discuss the importance of there being two types of adaptive immune responses (antibody and
cell-mediated).

Answer: Pathogens (and other hazards to the body) vary in type and form. Many pathogens are
extracellular parasites while others are intracellular parasites. Large numbers of pathogens are
bacteria, and others are eukaryotes. The two different immune responses are effective at targeting
different types of antigens. Cell-mediated immunity is directed against endogenous antigens, and
therefore intracellular parasites. The antibody immune response primarily targets exogenous
antigens and is therefore largely effective against extracellular pathogens. Antibody functions are
particularly effective against bacteria. Antibodies can also neutralize non-living hazards like
toxins. Consequently the adaptive immune response against a specific pathogen will primarily
involve one or the other type. The immune response is unlikely to be completely one-sided in all
infections. For example, an intracellular parasite may produce a toxin, so while a cell-mediated
immune response will kill infected cells and slow the spread of the pathogen, neutralizing
antibodies directed against the toxin will limit the damage done by the toxin.

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2) A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic
determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell
receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different
interactions.

Answer: Antibody molecules produced by B lymphocytes are weapons that either directly
damage the antigen they bind or facilitate leukocyte attack on their attached antigen. An antibody
molecule epitope binding site is formed by the "variable" regions of two peptides, the heavy
chain and the light chain. Antibody molecules are secreted by the plasma cells into the fluid
compartments of the body. The sole exception is IgM, which functions as an antigen receptor on
unactivated B lymphocytes.

T cell receptors (TCRs) are produced by T lymphocytes for detecting processed antigen. The
TCR is composed of two peptides. When T lymphocytes encounter presented antigen for which
they are specific, they become activated and participate in the adaptive immune response. Helper
T lymphocytes produce the interleukins needed to regulate the immune response, and cytotoxic T
lymphocytes become killers. Thereafter, cytotoxic T lymphocytes use their TCR to identify target
cells to attack. Both MHC and TCR are embedded in the cytoplasmic membrane of the cell
expressing them.

MHC molecules bind processed antigen for presentation to lymphocytes. The MHC molecules
are also composed of two peptides, analogous to the TCR. MHC I molecules bind endogenous
antigenic determinants, that is, portions of molecules synthesized by the cell. MHC I-epitope
complexes on the surface of cells are detected by T lymphocytes, leading to the activation of Th1
lymphocytes, or cytotoxic attack on the presenting cell by cytotoxic T lymphocytes. MHC II
molecules bind antigen fragments produced by digestion of antigens in phagolysosomes
(exogenous antigens) and display them to T lymphocytes, which become activated Th2
lymphocytes. Only antigens that MHC molecules can bind will elicit a T-cell mediated immune
response.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.11, 16.13, 16.18

3) Virus infections result in activation of B cells as well as activation of Tc cells. Explain how a
B cell response to virus may be useful in fighting virus infections.

Answer: The virions (virus particles) produced during virus infection are released into the
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extracellular environment where antibodies can interact with them. Some antibodies can
"neutralize" virions by binding to their ligands and thus preventing virus attachment to target
cells. Antibodies bound to virus particles act as opsonins, allowing phagocytes to phagocytose
these pathogens which they would not otherwise be able to bind. If the virion has an envelope,
complement activation leading to MAC formation may damage the envelope sufficiently that the
envelope is stripped from the capsid, inactivating the virus particle.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

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4) Compare and contrast clonal deletion and clonal selection of B lymphocytes.

Answer: Both clonal deletion and clonal selection are screening processes in which the antigen
specificity of the B cell receptors are scanned. These screening processes have very different end
results.

Immature B lymphocytes produce their B cell receptor (BCR), which is a membrane-bound

version of IgM, while still in the bone marrow. Cells in the bone marrow present "self" antigen to
the immature B lymphocytes, and those that respond are "deleted" (undergo apoptosis). Thus,
clonal deletion prevents autoreactive B lymphocytes from completing their development.

Mature, unactivated B lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue undergo clonal selection. New antigen
appearing in the body is bound by BCR specific for it, internalized, and processed for
presentation with MHC II. If a Th2 lymphocyte specific for the same antigen detects the
presented antigen, the B lymphocyte attached to it is "selected" for activation and clonal
expansion (production of many daughter cells).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Antibody Immune Responses

Learning Outcome: 16.19, 16.28

5) Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies.

Answer: Antibodies act against foreign antigens in many ways. In agglutination, several
immunoglobulin (antibody) molecules bind two or more microbial cells together, causing them
to clump. This process hinders the activity of pathogenic organisms and increases the chances
that they will be phagocytized. Antibodies may neutralize toxins produced by pathogens by
binding to critical portions of the toxins and preventing them from functioning against the body.
Antibodies may bind to virus ligands or bacterial adhesins and prevent the pathogen from
attaching to cells of the body. Antibodies also act as opsonins, which are molecules that stimulate
phagocytosis. Binding of the antibody to foreign antigens on the surface of cells facilitates the
action of natural killer lymphocytes. IgG antibody bound to antigen can become enzymatically
active and produce hydrogen peroxide to damage and kill the microbe to which it is bound. IgG
and IgM antibodies that have bound antigen can trigger the complement cascade. IgE antibodies
trigger the release of chemicals which damage cells and inflammatory chemicals from
eosinophils and basophils.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity

Learning Outcome: 16.18

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 17 Immunization and Immune Testing

17.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Immunization has been a highly successful public health strategy but has not been applied to
all pathogens. Which of the following diseases are NOT vaccine-preventable?

A) AIDS

B) colds

C) malaria

D) colds and malaria

E) AIDS, colds, and malaria

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.1

2) When immunization levels in a population are high, ________ provides protection from
infection for at-risk persons who cannot be immunized.

A) contact immunity

B) active immunization

C) herd immunity

D) adjuvant therapy
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E) variolation

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.4

3) Variolation was first used

A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox.

B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages.

C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations.

E) serologic

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.1

7) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

B) genetic manipulation.

C) treatment with formaldehyde.

D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.

E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture
cells.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2, 17.4

8) The vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) ________
vaccine.

A) attenuated

B) whole inactivated

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C) subunit

D) toxoid

E) combination

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

9) Which of the following statements regarding inactivated vaccine is CORRECT?

A) It may cause the disease it is intended to prevent.

B) It results in effective cell-mediated immunity.

C) It usually requires only a single immunization.

D) It is safer than attenuated vaccines.

E) There is no risk of side effects.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

10) Genetic manipulation of a microbe to remove one or more virulence factors is a method for
producing a(n) ________ vaccine.

A) attenuated

B) inactivated

C) toxoid

D) combination

E) DNA
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Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.3

11) Which of the following statements regarding attenuated vaccines is FALSE?

A) They are poorly immunogenic and require multiple immunizations (boosters).

B) They can be safely administered to pregnant women.

C) They result, primarily, in antibody-mediated immunity.

D) They are produced by genetic engineering.

E) They can easily be developed for any pathogen which can be cultured.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

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12) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?

A) formaldehyde

B) aluminum

C) mineral oil

D) saponin

E) aluminum phosphate

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A) inactivated whole pathogen

B) attenuated vaccine

C) toxoid vaccine

D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus

E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.3

14) Toxoid vaccines are commonly used when

A) the microbe cannot be cultured in the laboratory.

B) immunity to the toxins produced by a pathogen is sufficient to prevent disease.

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C) life-long immunity is desirable.

D) a cell-mediated response is desirable.

E) herd immunity is not important.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

15) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease.
The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown
microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type
of vaccine is this?

A) attenuated

B) subunit

C) combination

D) toxoid

E) inactivated whole

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

16) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because
it

A) is very toxic.

B) does not provide good immunity.

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C) can revert to wild-type virulence.

D) can be spread to contacts.

E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.4

17) A person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies
immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy
represent?

A) active immunization

B) passive immunotherapy

C) viral hemagglutination inhibition

D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition

E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.6

18) Passive immunotherapy is used when

A) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce.

B) the pathogen does not produce a toxin.

C) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated.

D) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately.

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E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.6

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19) The saliva of a highly venomous reptile is found to contain multiple toxic compounds. What
is a practical approach to providing people with protection from the deadly effects of a bite from
this reptile?

A) Prepare extracts of the toxins, inactivate them, and use them one at a time in a series of
immunizations.

B) Prepare antitoxins by immunizing a large animal with the toxins, and use extracted antibodies
for treating exposed persons.

C) Use recombinant techniques to prepare modified versions of the toxins.

D) Prepare antibodies from the blood of people who survived bites to prepare antisera.

E) Prepare hybridomas specific for each toxin and use the resulting monoclonal antibodies for
passive immunotherapy.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.5

20) Monoclonal antibodies can be used for

A) passive immunization.

B) active immunization.

C) labeled antibodies in immunoassays.

D) passive immunization and labeled antibodies in immunoassays.

E) active immunization and agglutination assay reagents.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.5, 17.17

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21) Diagnostic testing to detect antigens or antibodies in the blood is known as

A) immunology.

B) hematology.

C) serology.

D) cytology.

E) histology.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.7

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22) Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody
complexes?

A) blood typing

B) immunodiffusion

C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections

D) ELISA

E) fluorescent antibody tests

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.10

23)

The diagnostic assay represented in the figure is useful when

A) an immune response may result in production of a mix of antibodies against complex

antigens.
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B) verifying the presence of a pathogen.

C) determining the concentration of antibodies in sera.

D) determining blood type.

E) an immune response is too weak to be detected by other means.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.19

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24) Which of the following tests is most effective in determining whether someone has been
infected with the H1N1 influenza virus?

A) a viral neutralization test

B) an immunodiffusion test

C) a viral hemagglutination test

D) an antibody titer test

E) an immunoblot

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.15

25) During a visit to a hospital, a child receives the oral polio vaccine. He then returns to his
distant village. Sometime later a polio outbreak occurs in the village, but the child and his
siblings, who had not had the vaccine, are spared. What is the explanation for this event?

A) contact immunity

B) herd immunity

C) passive immunity

D) active immunity

E) natural immunity

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.6

26)

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Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure?

A) an indirect ELISA

B) a direct ELISA

C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay

D) a western blot

E) an immunodiffusion assay

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.19

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27) Titration is a serological procedure that

A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease.

B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.

C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV.

D) is used for blood grouping.

E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.13

28) Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that

A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen.

B) antibodies have different molecular weights.

C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.

D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a
plasmid.

E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.14

29) Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be detected in specimens by the ________ test.

A) direct fluorescent antibody

B) indirect fluorescent antibody

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C) hemagglutination

D) complement fixation

E) ELISA

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.18

30) Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE?

A) They are not quantitative.

B) They require large amounts of serum.

C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule.

D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen.

E) They involve the use of membrane filters.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.19

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31) Which of the following assays is dependent on the ability of antibodies to bind to and
crosslink two antigens?

A) immunoblot tests

B) ELISAs

C) neutralization tests

D) direct fluorescent antibody tests

E) precipitation tests

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.10

32) Agglutination tests can be used to

A) detect a complex mix of antigens.

B) diagnose HIV.

C) estimate the amount (titer) of antibodies in a person's serum.

D) determine the effectiveness of passive immunotherapy.

E) determine the concentration of complement proteins in serum.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.13

33) In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when

A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen.

B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody.

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C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions.

D) a toxin is present.

E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.10

34) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this
is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce
two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent?

A) a direct immunofluorescence test

B) a complement fixation test

C) an immunochromatographic assay

D) an ELISA

E) a neutralization assay

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.21

35) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation.
Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and
then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement
fixation test would be

A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube.

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B) a cloudy solution in the tube.

C) loss of color in the tube.

D) a fluorescent precipitate.

E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.9

36) Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests?

A) Antibodies can bind two antigens simultaneously.

B) The Fc portion of the molecule can be modified without interfering with antigen binding.

C) Antibodies can neutralize the ability of viruses to infect cells.

D) The Fc portion of IgG becomes enzymatically active upon antigen binding.

E) The Fc portion can trigger the classical complement system upon antigen binding.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.16

37) A new virus is discovered that causes cells to clump together. Which of the following types
of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus?

A) agglutination

B) complement fixation test

C) hemagglutination

D) both agglutination and complement fixation tests

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E) viral hemagglutination

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.15

38) Serologic tests for diagnosis of disease may detect

A) microbial antigens.

B) the concentration of serum proteins.

C) the level of complement factors in the serum.

D) antibodies specific for antigens.

E) either antigens or antibodies specific for certain antigens.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.8

39) Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules
covalently attached are used for

A) direct fluorescent antibody tests.

B) indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

C) direct ELISAs.

D) indirect ELISAs.

E) both indirect ELISA and indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Answer: E
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Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.18

40) A(n) ________ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.

A) attenuated

B) subunit

C) inactivated whole

D) recombinant

E) toxoid

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

41) Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) ________ assay.

A) direct fluorescent antibody

B) immunodiffusion precipitation

C) viral neutralization

D) viral hemagglutination inhibition

E) western blot

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.19

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42) A positive result in a(n) ________ assay results in a line of immune precipitate on an agar
plate.

A) immunodiffusion

B) immunoblot

C) direct fluorescent antibody

D) viral hemagglutination inhibition

E) viral neutralization

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.11

43) Precipitation assays involve the formation of immune complexes with ________ while
agglutination tests involve agglutination of ________.

A) insoluble antigens; soluble antigens

B) soluble antibodies; insoluble complexes

C) soluble antigens; complement factors

D) soluble antigens; insoluble antigens

E) soluble antigens; large particles

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.12

44) Tissue samples can be tested for pathogen using ________ assays.
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A) viral neutralization

B) direct fluorescent antibody

C) immunodiffusion precipitation

D) viral hemagglutination inhibition

E) immunoblot

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.18

45) A(n) ________ can be used to detect cytopathic virus particles.

A) western blot

B) viral hemagglutination inhibition

C) viral neutralization

D) immunodiffusion precipitation

E) direct fluorescent antibody

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.2

5) Agglutination tests can be used with serial dilution to determine antibody titers.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.13

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6) Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.12

7) Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are
agglutination tests.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.17

8) The "sandwich" ELISA is used to quantify the amount of antibody in a serum sample.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.20

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9) The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

10) ELISAs require less reaction time than do immunofiltration assays.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.21

17.3 Short Answer Questions

1) Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children
who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).

Answer: variolation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.1

2) Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (attenuated/inactivated) form of the
virus.

Answer: attenuated

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

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Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.2

This device is used in a(n) (immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/precipitation) test.

Answer: immunochromatographic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.21

4) When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, (adjuvants/boosters/repeats) must be given

to maintain protection.

Answer: boosters

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

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Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.3

10) A(n) (ELISA/immunofiltration/western) assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a

membrane filter to detect antigens.

Answer: immunofiltration

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.20

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11) The fusion of antibody-producing plasma cells with cancerous cells produces (hybridomas/
lymphocytes/cancers) that divide continuously.

Answer: hybridomas

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.5

12) Neutralizing antibodies specific for toxic molecules are known as (antisera/antitoxins/
antivenins).

Answer: antitoxins

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.5

13) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).

Answer: antivenins

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunization

Learning Outcome: 17.5

14) Fluorescent antibody, ELISA, and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (labeled/
unlabeled) antibodies.

Answer: labeled

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

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Learning Outcome: 17.17

15) Complement fixation tests make use of antibodies' natural ability to (activate/agglutinate/
neutralize) complement factors.

Answer: activate

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.16

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17.4 Essay Questions

1) Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and

immunochromatographic assays.

Answer: Both assays rely on the diffusion of antibody molecules, and both involve the
formation of antibody-antigen complexes.

The immunodiffusion assay is a type of precipitation assay in which the presence of antigen-
antibody complexes results in the development of a visible line of precipitate where the
complexes come out of solution. It can be used to verify the presence of antibodies reactive to
specific antigens. The variation known as radial immunodiffusion can be used to measure
antibody concentrations. The procedure requires a high degree of skill and is time-consuming.

The immunochromatographic assay detects the presence of antigens rather than antigen-specific
antibodies. Antibodies labeled with colored metals form complexes with the antigen, but the
complexes do not precipitate out of solution. The soluble, diffusing complexes are trapped and
concentrated by anti-antibodies, producing a visible line of color. These antibody assays are very
rapid and can be performed by persons with basic clinical skills.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.21

2) Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.

Answer: Viral neutralization tests detect the presence of neutralizing antibodies in patient serum
specific for a suspect virus. Patient serum is mixed with a solution of test virus and the mixture is
added to a culture of susceptible cells. If the serum contains anti-viral neutralizing antibodies the
virus will infect few or none of the susceptible cells (positive result). If the serum does not
contain neutralizing antibodies, the virus will infect and kill cells, and the damage and
destruction of the cells (cytopathic effect) will be visible (negative result).

Viral hemagglutination tests can be used to detect antibodies against viruses that do not produce
cytopathic effects. Many viruses can clump red blood cells–hemagglutination–and infections
with hemagglutinating viruses can be diagnosed with this alternative test. Patient serum is mixed
with test virus then mixed with red blood cells. If the RBCs clump the serum did not contain
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antibodies against the test virus (negative result). No RBC agglutination indicates the serum
contained antibodies against the virus (positive result).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies

Learning Outcome: 17.15

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3) Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (Salk) and a live
attenuated (Sabin) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two
polio vaccines.

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 18 AIDS and Other Immune Disorders

18.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction?

A) a rash caused by poison ivy

B) immune system attack on the thyroid gland

C) itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment

D) dermatitis at the site of a metal watchband

E) breaking into hives after eating strawberries

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

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Learning Outcome: 18.1

2) Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an

allergen?

A) IgA

B) IgD

C) IgE

D) IgG

E) IgM

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.2

3) Which of the following reactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity?

A) runny nose triggered by pollen

B) dermatitis in response to latex gloves

C) sensitivity to pet dander

D) both constriction of small blood vessels and bronchial spasms

E) both bronchial spasms and increased mucus production

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.3

7) The redness, swelling and itching of urticaria is due to ________ release.

A) kinin

B) histamine

C) protease

D) kinin and protease

E) leukotriene

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.4

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8)

The events illustrated in the figure are part of a(n) ________ disorder.

A) type I hypersensitivity

B) type II hypersensitivity

C) type III hypersensitivity

D) autoimmune

E) immunodeficiency

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.2

9) The destruction of tissue cells resulting from severe allergic reaction is due to the release of

A) proteases.
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B) histamines.

C) kinins.

D) prostaglandins.

E) leukotrienes.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.3

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10) Jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and has never been pregnant.
Antibodies against what blood antigens will be present in Jess' blood?

A) O and Rh antigens

B) B antigens

C) A antigens

D) B and Rh antigens

E) O antigens

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.6

11) How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented?

A) immunizing a woman against Rh factor prior to pregnancy

B) administering anti-IgG antibodies during pregnancy

C) treating with cytokines to prevent B cell activation late in pregnancy

D) administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends

E) treating with glucocorticoids throughout pregnancy

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.7

12) The glycoprotein and glycolipid molecules on the surface of red blood cells

A) stimulate the production of antibodies that contribute to a transfusion reaction.

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B) act to transport glucose and ions across the cytoplasmic membrane.

C) cause degranulation of the cell when it is exposed to allergens.

D) function as a binding site for IgD.

E) act as receptors for foreign antigens and trigger an early immune response.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.5

13) An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have
difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the
following is the most likely interpretation of these events?

A) The blood transfusion was mismatched.

B) The blood transfusion contained pyrogens.

C) The recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens.

D) The blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens.

E) The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the
foreign blood group antigens.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.5

14) The constriction of the airways and mucus production of asthma is the result of a(n)
________ response.

A) delayed hypersensitivity

B) autoimmune
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C) type III hypersensitivity

D) type II hypersensitivity

E) type I hypersensitivity

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.4

15) Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father

B) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father

C) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father

D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father

E) either Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive
father

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.7

16) An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing, which becomes progressively worse.
Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are
in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms
consistent?

A) allergic reaction

B) type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity

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C) type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity

D) autoimmunity

E) acquired immunodeficiency

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.9

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17) If circulating immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli, the ensuing type III
hypersensitivity reaction can result in

A) allergic contact dermatitis.

B) pneumonitis.

C) kidney damage.

D) multiple sclerosis.

E) rheumatoid arthritis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.9

18) A person with no siblings or children receives a kidney transplant. The kidney is an example
of a(n)

A) xenograft.

B) allograft.

C) isograft.

D) dermograft.

E) autograft.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.14

19) A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no
apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and
swollen. This type of response is due to
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A) type I hypersensitivity.

B) type II hypersensitivity.

C) type III hypersensitivity.

D) type IV hypersensitivity.

E) immunodeficiency.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.12

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20) Which of the following blood types can be safely transfused into someone with O blood
type?

A) A

B) B

C) O

D) A and O

E) A, B, and O

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.6

21) A young woman comes into the clinic complaining of itchy, red skin and swelling on her
arms and legs. She had not been in any parks or wooded areas recently, but she had been
shopping. A blood sample reveals elevated levels of granulocytes. What treatment is the
physician likely to prescribe at this point?

A) corticosteroids

B) cyclophosphamide

C) interferon

D) methotrexate

E) antihistamines

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.3

B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction

C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction

D) allergic contact dermatitis

E) an allergy

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.16

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23) A person comes to the clinic complaining of aching joints and muscles, swelling, and a
decrease in urine output. The clinician also notes a rash on the skin of the face. A probable
diagnosis is

A) pneumonitis.

B) immunodeficiency.

C) systemic lupus erythematosus.

D) dermatitis.

E) Graves' disease.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.11

24) Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE?

A) It occurs in humans and animals.

B) The symptoms are due to damage caused by cytotoxic T cells.

C) There is no genetic influence on the likelihood of developing RA.

D) Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints.

E) The onset of disease is clearly correlated with having been infected with a specific microbe.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.10

25) Primary immunodeficiency diseases

B) are detectable close to birth.

C) may be caused by malnutrition.

D) are never associated with genetic defects.

E) are sometimes caused by severe stress.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.18

26) Which of the following would test positive for the tuberculin response?

A) someone who has previously had tuberculosis

B) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine

C) someone who has previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin

D) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or has previously had
tuberculosis

E) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or previously been injected
subcutaneously with tuberculin

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.13

27) What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies?

A) declining cell-mediated immunity

B) declining humoral immunity

D) eosinophilia

E) anemia

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.18

28) Monoclonal antibodies that bind the IL-2 receptor have been successfully used to reverse
graft rejection. Why is this approach effective?

A) B cells are suppressed by exposure to IL-2.

B) IL-2 stimulates the activity of CTL.

C) IL-2 contributes to type VI hypersensitivity responses.

D) IL-2 suppresses Th 2 cells.

E) IL-2 is an immunosuppressive cytokine.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.15

29) A child has a history of repeated severe infections and frequently has recurring infections
with the same bacterial pathogen. A blood sample shows some lymphopenia and serological tests
are negative. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this
child?

A) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia

D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

E) hemolytic disease of the newborn

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.18

A) antibody-antigen complexes accumulating in the skin.

B) the release of histamines and kinins in response to sunburn.

C) CTL attack on skin cells altered by sun damage.

D) autoantibodies causing mast cell degranulation.

E) CTL attack on connective tissue fibroblasts.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.11

31) Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include

A) molecular mimicry.

B) genetic factors.

C) hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.

D) anaphylactic shock triggered by molecular mimicry.

E) molecular mimicry, genetic factors, and hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.16

32) The production of cytotoxic T cells specific for the myelin sheath of neurons leads to the
disorder known as

C) Grave's disease.

D) type 1 diabetes mellitus.

E) autoimmune neuralgia.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.17

33) Which condition occurs when antibodies bind to and stimulate receptors that elicit
production of thyroid hormone and growth of the thyroid gland?

A) multiple sclerosis

B) Graves' disease

C) DiGeorge syndrome

D) type I diabetes

E) farmer's lung

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.17

A) memory T cells.

B) mast cells.

C) B lymphocytes.

D) plasma cells.

E) eosinophils.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.13

35) Which of the following statements concerning allografts is TRUE?

A) They are the best type of transplants because they are not associated with rejection.

B) They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with
immunosuppressive drugs.

C) They always require complete destruction of the recipient's bone marrow cells.

D) They are impossible to perform because the antigens between donor and recipient are so
different.

E) They are the rarest type of transplants.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.14

36) The disease known as ________ is a disorder in which phagocytes are inefficient at killing

A) autoimmune hemolytic anemia

B) immune thrombocytopenic purpura

C) hemolytic disease of the newborn

D) chronic granulomatous disease

E) severe combined immunodeficiency disease

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.18

37) A combination of genetic predisposition and viral infection is suspected in the development
of

A) type 1 diabetes mellitus.

B) rheumatoid arthritis.

C) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia.

D) glomerulonephritis.

E) autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.17

38) An acquired immunodeficiency may result from treatment with

A) corticosteroids.

D) antihistamine.

E) RhoGAM.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.19

39) Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast
cell degranulation are characteristic of

A) type I hypersensitivity.

B) type II hypersensitivity.

C) type III hypersensitivity.

D) autoimmunity.

E) graft rejection.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.8

40) The responses observed in type IV hypersensitivities result from the action of

A) IgE antibodies and mast cells.

B) T cells and phagocytes.

C) IgG and complement.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.12

41) Graft rejection can be reduced by

A) preventing B cell activation.

B) antiphagocytic factors.

C) antihistamines.

D) preventing T cell proliferation.

E) epinephrine.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.15

A) tuberculosis.

B) Pneumocystis pneumonia.

C) Kaposi's sarcoma.

D) tuberculosis and shingles.

E) Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.20

43) The syndrome known as AIDS is characterized by

A) the presence of HIV.

B) an opportunistic disease resulting from herpesvirus reactivation.

C) CTL attack on CD4 T cells.

D) one or more opportunistic diseases and the presence of HIV.

E) the presence of anti-HIV antibodies.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.20

44) Severe malnutrition may lead to immunodeficiency by

A) triggering an inflammatory response.

C) triggering the proliferation of T cells.

D) promoting the development of food allergies.

E) decreasing the ability of the body to produce phagocytes.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.19

The figure represents the HIV infection cycle. What virus-specified proteins are required for the
events indicated by 1 and 2? (Be sure they are in the correct sequence.)

A) gp41, protease

B) integrase, gp120

C) reverse transcriptase, protease

D) integrase, protease

E) RNA polymerase, gp120

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.21

1) Normally, complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by

phagocytosis.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.8

2) In most cases, production of antibodies against foreign ABO antigens is stimulated by

exposure to foreign blood cells.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.5

3) MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.16

4) Anaphylactic shock is a type III hypersensitivity disorder.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Learning Outcome: 18.4

5) Children with Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia are highly susceptible to recurrent bacterial

infections.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.18

6) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a disease resulting from accumulation of immune

complexes in various organs and tissues.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.11

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.7

8) Infection with certain viruses may lead to the development of type I diabetes.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.17

9) Xenografts are tissue transplants from one individual to another within the same species.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.14

10) All autoimmune diseases have a genetic cause.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.16

18.3 Short Answer Questions

Answer: IV

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.12

2) Rheumatoid arthritis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells
produce autoantibodies that damage the cartilage in the joints. (Be sure to use Roman numerals
in your answer.)

Answer: III

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.10

Answer: SLE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.17

4) Critically low levels of CD4 lymphocytes are a key diagnostic indicator of (AIDS/SCID/SLE).

Answer: AIDS

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.23

5) Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as (allergies/autoimmunities/

inflammation).

Answer: allergies

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.1

6) Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to (activation/degranulation/lysis) of the

cell, releasing many inflammatory chemicals.

Answer: degranulation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.2

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7) The (histamines/leukotrienes/prostaglandins/proteases) released in an immediate
hypersensitivity reaction leads to the destruction of nearby cells and the activation of the
complement system.

Answer: proteases

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.2

8) A positive response on a tuberculin test is an example of a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity

response. (Be sure to use Roman numerals in your answer.)

Answer: IV

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.13

Answer: corticosteroids

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.19

10) The damage caused by mismatched blood transfusions results from the activation of
(antibody/complement/histamine) proteins.

Answer: complement

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.5

11) One feature of hemolytic disease of the newborn is excessive (erythrocytes/bilirubin/

hemoglobin), which leads to jaundice in the newborn.

Answer: bilirubin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.7

12) A graft that is from one identical twin to another is an (allograft/autograft/isograft).

Answer: isograft

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.14

Answer: AB

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.6

14) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the result of CTL attack on the (kidney/pancreas/thyroid).

Answer: pancreas

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.17

15) Failure of the (spleen/thymus/thyroid) to develop results in DiGeorge syndrome.

Answer: thymus

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.18

1) Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to
reaction time, mediators, and cells involved.

Answer: Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity is very quick. The reaction time can be seconds to
minutes after exposure to the allergen. This type of hypersensitivity starts with a prior
sensitization to the allergen during which IgE specific for the allergen is produced. The IgE that
is made binds to mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils. The response can be either local or
systemic and is due to a subsequent exposure to the allergen. Upon subsequent exposure, the
allergen binds to the IgE on mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils, causing them to degranulate
and release a variety of inflammatory molecules, including histamines, kinins, proteases,
leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.

Type IV (delayed or cell-mediated) hypersensitivity has a much slower reaction time. It takes
12-24 hours to start developing. Antigen does not bind to antibody; it binds to antigen-presenting
cells and T cells. As with type I, a type IV response is due to a prior exposure, but in the case of
the type IV hypersensitivity, memory T cells are produced. In both type I and type IV
hypersensitivities, inflammation is a common result.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Autoimmune Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.17

2) Hashimoto's thyroiditis and Graves' disease are autoimmune diseases involving the thyroid,
but Hashimoto's results in hypothyroidism (low thyroid function), whereas Graves' results in
hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid). Both diseases are characterized by antithyroid antibodies.
Discuss ways in which the autoimmune responses may produce the different outcomes.

Answer: In Graves' disease, the antithyroid antibodies react with receptors on the cells and
stimulate their activity, leading to hyperthyroidism. In Hashimoto's disease, the antibodies
targeting the thyroid cells either damage the ability of the cells to function or trigger cytotoxic
attack on the cells of the thyroid, which is eventually damaged to the point of loss of function.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Hypersensitivities

Learning Outcome: 18.1

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3) A patient arrives at a hospital suffering from serious difficulty breathing and shortness of
breath. Initial tests indicate none of the standard respiratory infectious agents are present. The
physician suspects an immune disorder. What clinical indicators would distinguish between
asthma, pneumonitis and Pneumocystic pneumonia?

Answer: Asthma would produce high levels of histamines and leukotrienes, resulting in
production of excess mucus in the trachea and bronchi and constriction of the bronchi. High
antibody titers and low levels of complement proteins along with generalized inflammation of
the lung tissue would indicate pneumonitis. CD4 T cell counts of less than 200/microliter of
blood is consistent with Pneumocystic pneumonia.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.9, 18.20

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4) One of the important inherited defects in the second line of immune defense is a condition
called chronic granulomatous disease. What is this disease, and how is it caused?

Answer: Chronic granulomatous disease is a type of primary immunodeficiency. It is an

inherited condition seen in children who have recurrent infections associated with the
development of large masses of inflammatory cells in the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and skin. It
is due to the inability of neutrophils to produce reactive forms of oxygen and therefore fail to kill
ingested bacteria.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.18

5) A recent news story claimed a man was cured of AIDS by a bone marrow transplant he had
received three years previously for treatment of leukemia. The donor bone marrow cells lacked
the fusin (CCR) protein. Discuss basis for this claim and whether or not it is reasonable.

Answer: The HIV virus attaches to CD4 lymphocytes, but must interact with the fusin protein to
enter cells. The virus cannot gain entry to cells lacking the fusin protein, so all the donated bone
marrow stem cells are naturally resistant to HIV infection.

In the course of treatment for leukemia the recipient's blood cells are eliminated and replaced by
the donor blood cells. The patient's successful treatment for leukemia supplied him with blood
cells naturally resistant to HIV infection, so even if residual virus is present in latently infected
cells, the virus could not spread to his new cells.

This constitutes a reasonable definition of "cured," but is not a practical treatment for all HIV
infected persons.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases

Learning Outcome: 18.22, 18.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 19 Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

19.1 Multiple Choice Questions

A) the outer layers of cells are dead.

B) the surface is covered in salt.

C) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.

D) no microbes are able to survive on the surface.

E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Structure of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.1

2) Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because they can thrive in the presence of

A) sebum.

B) salt.

C) keratin.

D) sebum and salt.

E) sebum, salt, and keratin.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Normal Microbiota of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.2

3) An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a

B) sty.

C) furuncle.

D) carbuncle.

E) macule.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.4

A) Clostridia

B) diphtheroids

C) Staphylococci

D) Streptococci

E) Pseudomonads

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Normal Microbiota of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.2

5) Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce

A) a slime layer.

B) coagulase.

C) beta-lactamase.

D) staphylokinase.

E) lipase.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.5

6) Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin
infection?

A) a carbuncle

D) scalded skin syndrome

E) erysipelas

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.9

7) Impetigo can be caused by

A) Staphylococcus aureus.

B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.

C) Streptococcus pyogenes.

D) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

E) both Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.8

A) coagulase.

B) lipase.

C) beta-lactamase.

D) exfoliative toxins.

E) staphylokinase.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.7

9) A(n) ________ is a large mass of inflammation and accumulated pus under the surface of an
area of thick skin.

A) carbuncle

B) furuncle

C) erysipelas

D) mycetoma

E) pox

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.4

10) Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by

A) Staphylococcus aureus.

D) Rickettsia rickettsii.

E) both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.11

11) A specific wavelength of UVA can be used to treat

A) swimmer's ear.

B) RMSF.

C) acne.

D) cat scratch disease.

E) bacteremia.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.14

A) Rickettsia rickettsii.

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

C) Propionibacterium acnes.

D) Bartonella henselae.

E) Mycrosporum canis.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.15

13) Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?

A) the appearance of eschars on the skin

B) the shape of its endospores

C) the microscopic appearance of its cells

D) the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar

E) the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.22

14) The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its

A) production of exoenzymes.

D) ability to grow in almost any moist environment.

E) ability to pump drugs out of the cell.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.17

15) A petechial rash starting on the hands and feet and spreading to the torso is characteristic of

A) RMSF.

B) anthrax.

C) smallpox.

D) necrotizing fasciitis.

E) herpes gladiatorum.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.19

A) lack a cell wall.

B) lack ribosomes.

C) lack the glycolytic pathway.

D) cannot synthesize amino acids.

E) cannot metabolize lipids.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.20

17) What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A) cellular damage via potent exotoxins

B) damage to blood vessels

C) stimulation of a strong immune response

D) interference with host cell metabolism

E) formation of biofilms in host tissues

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.21

18) Infection known as ________ frequently begins as an injury that rapidly becomes red,
swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful.

A) staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

D) necrotizing fasciitis

E) gas gangrene

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.11

19) Smallpox was the first human disease to be

A) analyzed and studied on the genetic level.

B) treated with antiviral drugs.

C) globally eradicated.

D) identified as a viral disease.

E) recreated in an experimental animal.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.26

A) anthrax.

B) gas gangrene.

C) necrotizing fasciitis.

D) chromoblastomycosis.

E) Pseudomonas infection.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.23

21) A herpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a

A) fever blister.

B) pox.

C) macule.

D) whitlow.

E) furuncle.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.27

22) Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a reactivation of the virus that causes

A) smallpox.

B) German measles.

D) whitlows.

E) chickenpox.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.32

23) Common skin warts are the result of infection with

A) poxviruses.

B) herpesviruses.

C) papillomaviruses.

D) rubeola virus.

E) parvoviruses.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.30

A) lie dormant in cells for years.

B) integrate into the host cell DNA.

C) escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion.

D) produce deoxyribonucleases.

E) cause extensive damage to blood vessels.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.30

25) A reddening of the skin of the face that intensifies when exposed to the sun is characteristic
of

A) herpes.

B) chickenpox.

C) rubeola.

D) rubella.

E) erythema infectiosum.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.37

26) Which of the following can cause birth defects?

A) chickenpox

D) smallpox

E) rubella

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.34

27) A rash characterized by macules which swell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and
become crusty lesions, is characteristic of

A) human herpes virus 2 primary infection.

B) poxvirus infection.

C) chickenpox virus reactivation.

D) roseola virus.

E) papillomavirus infection.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.24

A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

B) roseola

C) warts

D) neonatal herpes

E) impetigo

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.35

29) "Ringworm" is caused by

A) dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.

B) dermatophytes that have invaded deep layers of the skin.

C) parasitic worms that infect the skin.

D) a hypersensitivity reaction caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes.

E) immunosuppression due to HIV infection.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.41

30) Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?

A) Malassezia furfur

B) Piedraia hortae

D) Sarcoptes scabiei

E) Leishmania sp.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.40

31) A series of nodular lesions on an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is
characteristic of infection with the fungus

A) Microsporum.

B) Trichophyton.

C) Epidermophyton.

D) Micrococcus.

E) Sporothrix schenckii.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.45

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32) A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he
has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from
the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is
likely suffering from

A) sporotrichosis.

B) necrotizing fasciitis.

C) chromoblasomycosis.

D) mycetoma.

E) phaeohyphomycosis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.43

33) A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small
inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of
infection with

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.

B) Sporothrix schenkii.

C) Sarcoptes scabiei.

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

E) Clostridium perfringens.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.47

A) visceral

B) mucocutaneous

C) cutaneous

D) Both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal.

E) Visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.46

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35) A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and
intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Gram-
positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

B) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Clostridium perfringens

E) Sporothrix schenckii

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.11

36) A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is

A) pyocyanin.

B) streptokinase.

C) M protein.

D) lipase.

E) hyaluronidase.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.17

37) Which of the following is/are antiphagocytic?

C) leukocidin

D) both protein A and M protein

E) protein A, M protein, and leukocidin

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.5, 19.10

38) Under some circumstances, ________ is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria
become overabundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles.

A) Propionibacterium acnes

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Streptococcus pyogenes

D) Microsporum

E) Bacillus anthracis

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.13

39) The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of

A) anthrax.

B) chickenpox.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.43

A) epidermis

B) dermis

C) hypodermis

D) fascia

E) follicles

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.1

19.2 True/False Questions

1) Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.11

2) M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.10

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.46

7) Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980s because of adverse effects of
the vaccine.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.26

8) Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.27

9) In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.37

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.40

19.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The production of (exotoxin/coagulase/hyaluronidase) enzyme breaks down connections

between cells, allowing Streptococcus pyogenes to invade tissue and cause necrotizing fasciitis.

Answer: shingles

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.31

Answer: plantar

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.29

15) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common microbe associated with infections of (burn/
immunocompromised/elderly) patients.

Answer: burn

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.16

1) Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles, paying special attention to the
pathogenic processes and transmission of each of these diseases.

Answer: Chickenpox and shingles are different manifestations of infection with varicella-zoster
virus, a type of herpesvirus. Chickenpox is most commonly a childhood disease beginning as a
respiratory infection and then spreading throughout various tissues of the body. The infection
eventually manifests in cells of the dermis, developing into a characteristic rash and "teardrops
on rose petals" lesions. After the infection subsides, the virus can become latent in nerve ganglia
and remain there for decades. Upon reactivation, which happens in about 20% of adults who had
chickenpox as children, the virus travels back down the nerves and causes the characteristic
lesions of shingles. These lesions involve a painful rash that is limited to particular bands of skin
innervated by the infected nerve. Individuals who have never had chickenpox therefore cannot
contract shingles, although they can contract chickenpox from a shingles patient. Chickenpox is
typically much more severe in adults than in children because of the more highly developed
immune response in adults.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.32

2) Describe the natural defenses of the skin that prevent many infections of this area.

Answer: In general, the skin is an inhospitable environment for the growth of most microbes. It
is salty (salt is left behind as sweat evaporates from the skin) and covered with sebum, a lipid
produced by sebaceous glands of the skin that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. The
outer layer of skin is also composed primarily of dead, dry skin cells that provide little
nourishment or protection for microbes. These skin cells are continually being sloughed off,
making it difficult for microbes to attach to invade the skin. Dendritic cells are present in the
outer layers of the skin, where these phagocytic cells can attack invaders of the epidermis.
Finally, a wide variety of normal skin microbiota have adapted to the adverse conditions of the
skin and compete with potential invaders for nutrients and space.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Structure of the Skin

Learning Outcome: 19.1

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3) Both necrotizing fasciitis and gas gangrene are diseases characterized by rapid, spreading
tissue necrosis. Compare and contrast the infectious agents, the pathology and treatment.

Answer: Both diseases are caused by bacterial pathogens that are introduced under the surface
of the epidermis by injuries. The pathogens produce a variety of toxins responsible for the
necrosis and the rapid spread of the infection. Treatment is surgical removal of the infected
necrotic tissue followed by an antibiotic cocktail delivered IV.

Necrotizing fasciitis is primarily caused by the Gram-positive cocci Streptococcus pyogenes and
Staphylococcus aureus, which are capable of infecting living subcutaneous tissue when injury
provides access. Both are aerobic bacteria commonly present in and on the surface of the body,
and both produce a variety of anti-phagocytic factors that interfere with a major line of defense.
In addition, these organisms produce several toxins and exoenzymes that damage tissue, leading
to cell death. The infection is initially difficult to detect beneath relatively intact skin. When S.
aureus is the infecting agent, treatment may be difficult due to antibiotic resistance.

Gas gangrene is the result of infection with the strictly anaerobic, endospores-forming Gram-
positive bacillus Clostridium perfringens. Disease results when endospores are introduced into a
wound, and the injury results in tissue necrosis. The endospores can germinate in the oxygen-
depleted environment of the necrotic tissue, and the vegetative cells produce a variety of toxins
which cause further cell death. The bacteria grow rapidly, and their metabolic activities result in
the production of gasses which accumulate in the necrotic tissue. The injury and necrosis are
evident early in the course of infection. Treatment includes antitoxins and pressurized oxygen
therapy in addition to the surgery and antibiotics.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.11, 19.23

4) Explain why Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a "medical puzzle."

Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a medical puzzle because it rarely causes

disease, although it has almost unlimited pathogenic potential. P. aeruginosa possesses a wide
variety of virulence factors that alone could make it an effective pathogen. These factors include
various attachment mechanisms such as fimbriae and a capsule, and a variety of toxins and
enzymes that kill host cells and defeat body defenses such as IgA and IgG antibodies. A second
aspect of P. aeruginosa's potential for pathogenesis is its ubiquity. Due to its ability to utilize a
wide variety of carbon and nitrogen sources, P. aeruginosa is found in habitats as diverse as soil,
hot tubs, and humidifiers. It has even been found growing in distilled water. A third aspect of the

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organism's virulence is its extreme resistance to all kinds of antimicrobial drugs, which makes
treatment of Pseudomonas infections especially challenging. The only reason Pseudomonas
infections are as rare as they are is due to the organism's inability to breach the skin or its natural
defenses; therefore, it is limited to a role as an opportunistic pathogen that causes only 10% of
nosocomial infections, and then only when the skin is already damaged or compromised in some
way.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.17

Answer: When smallpox was eradicated in 1980, smallpox vaccination was phased out primarily
because of adverse effects experienced by some vaccinated individuals. However, in recent years
there have been calls for the resumption of smallpox vaccination for two primary reasons. First,
stocks of smallpox virus still exist in laboratories in the United States and Russia, and may also
be held by or available to unauthorized organizations around the world. The accidental or
purposeful release of this virus would be devastating to much of the population, which is no
longer, or never was, immune to smallpox. Second, in recent years there has been an increase in
the number of monkeypox cases around the world. Due to similarities between the two viruses,
vaccination against smallpox also protects against monkeypox, and it is thought that resumption
of smallpox vaccination might be a good way to eliminate the current monkeypox epidemics.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds

Learning Outcome: 19.26

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 20 Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes

20.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Functions of the ________ include regulation of heart rate and respiration.

A) cerebellum

B) cerebrum

C) spinal cord

D) brain stem

E) meninges

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Learning Outcome: 20.1

2) Functions of the meninges include

A) support for the brain and spinal cord.

B) transmission of signals from the peripheral nervous system.

C) protection from external shock.

D) production of neurotransmitters.

E) support for the brain and spinal cord and protection from external shock.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.1

3) The optic nerves are an example of which of the following?

A) motor nerves

B) spinal nerves

C) mixed nerves

D) synaptic nerves

E) sensory nerves

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.1

A) dura mater

B) arachnoid villi

C) cranial sinuses

D) subarachnoid space

E) pia mater

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.2

5) Some microbes gain access to the normally axenic central nervous system by

A) damaging the blood-brain barrier.

B) axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons.

C) infecting macrophages which subsequently enter the CNS.

D) infecting lymph nodes in the cranium.

E) either damaging the blood-brain barrier or by axonal transport from infected peripheral
neurons.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.3

6) Encephalitis is an infection of

A) the brain.

D) the eye.

E) the cauda equina.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.4

7) The Gram-negative diplococcus ________ is resistant to phagocytosis and releases Lipid A to

cause inflammation.

A) Clostridium botulinum

B) Haemophilus influenza

C) Streptococcus agalactiae

D) Neisseria meningitidis

E) Listeria monocytogenes

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

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8) The Gram-positive diplococcus ________ is commonly found in the pharynx but may invade
the central nervous system inside cells where it survives after endocytosis.

A) Streptococcus agalactiae

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Haemophilus influenzae

D) Neisseria meningitidis

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

9) The pleomorphic bacterium ________ is an obligate parasite due to its requirement for NAD+
and heme.

A) Neisseria meningitidis

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Listeria monocytogenes

D) Haemophilus influenzae

E) Streptococcus agalactiae

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.4

10) Newborns exposed to the Gram-positive bacterium ________ during vaginal birth are at risk
of developing neonatal meningitis.

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Haemophilus influenzae

D) Neisseria meningitidis

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

11) Contaminated food is the source of ________, which causes meningitis in the elderly and
susceptible persons.

A) Neisseria meningitidis

B) Streptococcus agalactiae

C) Haemophilus influenzae

D) Listeria monocytogenes

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.4

12) Bacterial agents of meningitis which can survive phagocytosis include

A) Neisseria meningitidis.

D) both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

E) Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium leprae.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

13) The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among young adults is caused by

A) Streptococcus agalactiae.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

C) Haemophilus influenzae.

D) Neisseria meningitidis.

E) Listeria monocytogenes.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

14) Which of the following is TRUE of foodborne botulism?

A) It is an intoxication disorder.

B) It is not a life-threatening infection even when left untreated.

C) Large amounts of bacteria must be consumed to produce disease.

D) Normal food preparation methods can prevent it.

E) An effective vaccine is available.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.8

15) Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by

A) blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons.

B) causing demyelination of motor neurons.

C) blocking inhibitory signals to motor neurons.

D) killing motor neurons.

E) blocking acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.9

A) It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

B) It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.

C) It triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells.

D) It induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes.

E) It is a pyrogenic toxin.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.10

17) A baby arrives at an emergency room suffering from violent muscles spasms and difficulty
breathing. The baby's body is so rigid a proper exam is difficult, but the staff note the baby is
only a few weeks old and the umbilicus has not healed properly. The signs are consistent with
which of the following diseases?

A) infant botulism

B) acute bacterial meningitis

C) tetanus

D) rabies

E) listeriosis

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.11

18) Tetanus vaccine contains

B) inactivated Clostridium tetani endospores.

C) antibodies against Clostridium tetani endospores.

D) fragments of Clostridium tetani cell walls.

E) inactivated tetanospasmin.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.11

19) The highly destructive form of Hansen's disease is the result of

A) poor immune response to Mycobacterium leprae.

B) autoimmune disease triggered by Mycobacteriu leprae.

C) intracellular infection with Clostridium botulinum.

D) poor immune response to Streptococcus agalactiae.

E) infection with rabies virus.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.6

20) Which of the following diseases is the result of a bacterial infection of peripheral nerves?

A) botulism

B) acute bacterial meningitis

D) tetanus

E) rabies

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.6

21) Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis is directly related to its ability to

A) produce a powerful toxin.

B) form endospores.

C) produce a polysaccharide capsule.

D) live and reproduce inside its host's cells.

E) resist most antimicrobial agents.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

22) Which of the following causes of viral meningitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

A) equine encephalitis virus

B) California encephalitis virus

C) West Nile virus

D) echovirus

E) rabies

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Disease of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.12

23) Viral meningitis is also called "aseptic meningitis"

A) to indicate no bacteria are involved.

B) because it is frequently a nosocomial infection.

C) since it is treatable with antiviral medications.

D) because it is vaccine-preventable.

E) to distinguish it from encephalitis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.12

A) nonparalytic polio.

B) an asymptomatic infection.

C) minor polio.

D) paralytic polio.

E) postpolio syndrome.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.13

25) Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in

A) West Nile encephalitis.

B) postpolio syndrome.

C) African sleeping sickness.

D) minor polio.

E) leprosy.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.13

26) Poliovirus is most often transmitted via

A) contaminated water.

B) household pets.

D) droplets.

E) endospores.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.13

27) Which of the following statements concerning rabies is FALSE?

A) It is caused by an ssRNA virus.

B) Transmission is usually via a bite from a rabid animal.

C) Treatment includes vaccination.

D) Bats are the source of most cases of rabies in humans.

E) All mammals can serve as a reservoir for the disease.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.16

A) arboviral encephalitis

B) botulism

C) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy

D) rabies

E) West Nile encephalitis

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.16

29) Rodents are the natural hosts for the virus that causes

A) Eastern equine encephalitis.

B) Western equine encephalitis.

C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis.

D) St. Louis encephalitis.

E) West Nile encephalitis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.17

30) The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis

A) begins as a lung infection.

B) is caused by a Gram-negative coccus.

D) is transmitted in respiratory aerosols.

E) results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.18

31) African sleeping sickness is fatal if not treated because the parasite

A) evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens.

B) produces a toxin which binds irreversibly to neurons.

C) is an intracellular parasite in RBC's, where they are not detected by the immune system.

D) reproduces so fast there is no time for an immune response to develop.

E) produces a non-immunogenic toxin the immune system cannot neutralize.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.19

A) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy

B) trachoma

C) rabies

D) tetanus

E) cryptococcal meningitis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes

Learning Outcome: 20.23

33) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can be prevented by avoiding

A) contact with mosquitoes.

B) contaminated waterways.

C) consumption of contaminated meat.

D) contact with bird droppings.

E) consumption of undercooked meat.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Prion Disease

Learning Outcome: 20.22

34) Nasal or ocular contact with water containing ________ may result in primary amebic
meningoencephalitis.

C) Trypanosoma brucei

D) both Acanthomoeba and Naegleria

E) Acanthamoeba, Naegleria and Trypanosoma brucei

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.20

35) Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?

A) botulism

B) variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

C) Hansen's disease

D) arboviral encephalitis

E) African sleeping sickness

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Prion Disease

Learning Outcome: 20.22

A) Haemophilus influenzae

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Streptococcus agalactiae

D) coxsackie A virus

E) West Nile virus

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.12

37) The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with

A) Haemophilus influenzae.

B) Trypanosoma brucei.

C) Acanthamoeba.

D) Clostridium botulinum.

E) Chlamydia trachomatis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes

Learning Outcome: 20.24

38) A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting, and complaining of
headache. The cerebrospinal fluid collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells
which stain Gram-positive. These signs and symptoms are consistent with

A) primary amebic encephalitis caused by Naegleria.

C) bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus.

D) tetanus resulting from infection with Clostridium botulinum.

E) aseptic meningitis from infection with Neisseria meningitidis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

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39) A young man is experiencing fever and severe headaches, and is having difficulty staying
awake. He reports having spent time in Africa on a missionary trip several months ago. Recently
he spent time in a park where he went swimming in the lake and was bitten by a bat he attempted
to catch. His cerebrospinal fluid is nearly clear, and contains long, slender, mobile cells. This
description indicates infection with

A) Acanthamoeba.

B) an enterovirus.

C) rabies virus.

D) Neisseria meningitidis.

E) Trypanosoma brucei.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.19

40) One summer, bird watchers and zookeepers in a major city notice that more birds than usual
are dying. At the same time reports of human encephalitis cases increase sharply. The
cerebrospinal fluid of human patients is clear. Similar enveloped RNA virus particles are
detected in samples from both birds and humans. Which of the following might be responsible
for this outbreak?

A) an arbovirus

B) coxsackie A virus

C) Cryptococcus neoformans

D) Neisseria meningitidis

E) rabies virus

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

The illustration is of a Gram-negative bacterium frequently responsible for meningitis. What

virulence factor(s) of the bacterium is/are illustrated?

A) a capsule

B) fimbriae

C) a membrane containing LOS

D) a capsule and fimbriae

E) a capsule, fimbriae, and a membrane containing LOS

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

20.2 True/False Questions

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.18

2) Trypanosoma brucei infections are characterized by cyclic waves of parasitemia that occur
roughly every 7 to 10 days.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.19

3) Rabies is a rare zoonosis in humans but common in many other species of mammal.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.15

4) Fungi rarely infect the central nervous system.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.18

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.16

6) Horses and humans are considered "dead-end" hosts for arboviruses.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.17

7) Naturally-occurring poliomyelitis has occurred as recently as 2007 in the Americas.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.13

8) Viral meningitis is usually more serious than bacterial meningitis.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.12

9) Tetanospasmin blocks the release of stimulatory neurtransmitters.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.10

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.8

20.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The only natural hosts for infection with the microbe Mycobacterium leprae are humans and
(armadillos/birds/pigs).

Answer: armadillos

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.6

2) Infant botulism is the result of (inhalation/ingestion/inoculation) of bacterial endospores.

Answer: ingestion

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.8

3) The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (paralysis/spasms/weakness) by interfering

with acetylcholine secretion.

Answer: paralysis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Learning Outcome: 20.9

4) The form of botulism known as (foodborne/infant/wound) is an intoxication disorder.

Answer: foodborne

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.8

5) When a strong T cell immune response against Mycobacterium leprae fails to develop,
(lepromatous/tuberculoid) leprosy results.

Answer: lepromatous

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.7

6) Children in the United States are vaccinated with the (IPV/OPV) to prevent polio. (Use all
uppercase in your answer.)

Answer: IPV

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.13

7) A diagnostic indicator of bacterial meningitis is (clear/milky/dark) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

Answer: milky

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Learning Outcome: 20.4

8) The presence of (cocci/diplococci/coccobacilli/streptococci) in the CSF is consistent with

infection with Listeria monocytogenes. (Describe the appearance of the cells.)

Answer: bacilli

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.5

9) Small subcutaneous hemorrhages called (macules/petechiae) are sometimes present in cases of

meningitis.

Answer: petechiae

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.4

10) Contact lens solution, swimming pools, and dialysis units can be a source of a fatal nervous
system disease caused by (amoeba/fungi/trypanosomes).

Answer: amoeba

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.20

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.16

12) Cryptococcus appears to inhibit phagocytic killing mechanisms by the production of

(leukocidin/listeriolysin/melanin).

Answer: melanin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.18

13) The presence of the pathogen in the blood called (bacteremia/parasitemia/viremia) is a

defining feature of African sleeping sickness.

Answer: parasitemia

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.19

14) Spongiform encephalopathy diseases develop as a result of infection with (parasites/prions/

rabies).

Answer: prions

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Prion Disease

Learning Outcome: 20.22

Answer: keratitis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes

Learning Outcome: 20.24

20.4 Essay Questions

1) Compare and contrast the pathogenicity of Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani,
including mechanisms of action of their toxins and disease manifestations.

Answer: Both bacteria are anaerobic endospores-formers that produce neurotoxins. Disease
results when the endospores are introduced deep into the tissues. Both neurotoxins interfere with
motor control.

Botulism toxin, produced by C. botulinum, binds the cytoplasmic membranes of motor neurons
at the synapse and prevents the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter, and consequently
prevents signaling to muscle cells. When muscle cells do not receive signals from motor neurons,
they remain relaxed, which result in a flaccid paralysis. A long list of symptoms is produced by
the lack of motor control, the most serious of which is respiratory failure, since respiratory
muscles can be affected by botulism toxin.

Tetanus toxin, produced by C. tetani, targets inhibitory neurons, which release inhibitory
neurotransmitter that prevents muscle cells from responding to acetylcholine stimulation to
contract. Under normal circumstances, when one muscle of an antagonistic pair is stimulated to
contract, the other muscle is inhibited from contracting, allowing for normal movement by
alternate flexion and extension. When tetanus toxin blocks the release of inhibitory
neurotransmitter, both muscles of the antagonistic pair contract spasmodically, and sometimes
lock in continuous contraction, resulting in non-flaccid paralysis. Loss of control of the
respiratory muscles can lead to respiratory failure. Tetanus toxin can also interfere with
autonomic (non-voluntary) muscle control, which may result in irregular heartbeat and possibly
heart failure.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Answer: The two types of poliovirus vaccine are the inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)
developed by Jonas Salk and the oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) developed by Albert Sabin. Both
vaccines effectively stimulate immunity against poliovirus. However, there are a number of
differences between the two vaccines. In general, IPV is cheaper and easier to transport and store
than OPV, which is less stable. On the other hand, OPV is easier to administer, provides good
immunity without the need for boosters, and mimics a natural infection more closely than IPV.
Probably one of the biggest differences between the two has to do with the risk of vaccine-
related polio. Because IPV is inactivated virus, it cannot cause the disease itself; however,
because OPV is a live virus vaccine, there have been documented cases of its mutation into a
virulent form, which then can cause polio in the person supposedly immunized by the vaccine.
For this reason, IPV is now often used to vaccinate babies initially so that they will have an
opportunity to develop good immunity before being exposed to live poliovirus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.14

3) Compare and contrast African sleeping sickness and primary amebic meningoencephalopathy.

Answer: Both diseases are caused by protozoan parasites and have very high risk of fatality.

Trypanosoma brucei, which causes African sleeping sickness, is a true pathogen. It is a

kinetoplastid transmitted by an insect vector, and initially establishes an infection of the blood.
The parasite makes its way into the central nervous system and causes severe headache and
progressively declining neurologic function leading to death. The disease progresses slowly,
taking months or years to kill those infected. There is no vaccine, but there are medications
effective against the parasite while it is still in the blood.

Both Acanthamoeba and Naegleria cause primary amebic meningoencephalopathy. Both are
free-living, fresh water amoebae that can become accidental parasites when they get into the
eyes, nose, or breaks in the skin. The amoebae rapidly make their way to the brain following
cranial nerves. The disease progresses rapidly, sometimes killing only days after infection. There
is no vaccine, and there are no reliable effective treatments.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Answer: Trypanosoma brucei is a protozoan that causes African sleeping sickness. As it

replicates, it is released into the bloodstream, causing parasitemia. An effective immune response
is generated against the pathogen; however, as the pathogen continues to replicate, it changes its
surface glycoproteins and in the process presents new antigens to the immune system, which
then must make new antibodies against the trypanosome. Repeated changes in the microbe's
surface antigens result in waves of parasitemia every 7 to 10 days, and because of this ability to
change antigens frequently, the infected individual never becomes sufficiently immune to the
trypanosome to be able to clear the infection.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System

Learning Outcome: 20.19

5) A one-year-old child is brought to the hospital with high fever and limited range of motion of
the head. The child frequently rubs her head. A recent history is not immediately available due to
a language barrier on the part of the parent. The attending physician suspects meningitis and
orders a sample of CFS be collected. Describe the various diagnoses possible based on the results
with the CSF.

Answer: A cloudy or milky appearance of the CSF is consistent with bacterial meningitis. A
Gram stain of the bacteria present can facilitate identification of the causative agent.

Gram-negative diplococcus: Neisseria meningitidis

Gram-positive diplococcus: Streptococcus pneumoniae

Gram-positive streptococcus: Streptococcus agalactiae

Gram-positive coccobacilli: Listeria monocytogenes

Gram-negative pleomorphic bacteria: Haemophilus influenzae

CSF that is clear and colorless indicates the cause is not bacterial. Microscopic examination of
the fluid may reveal round encapsulated yeast cells (Cryptococcus neoformans), long motile cells
tapering at each end (Trypanosoma brucei) or motile amoeba (Acanthamoeba or Naegleria).

If no cells are evident in the clear CSF, a viral pathogen is indicated.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Learning Outcome: 20.21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 21 Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

21.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body?

A) the aorta

B) the superior vena cava

C) the inferior vena cava

D) the pulmonary arteries

E) capillaries

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Cardiovascular System

Learning Outcome: 21.2

2) The chambers and valves of the heart are lined by the

A) pericardium.

B) myocardium.

C) endocardium.

D) erythrocytes.

E) vena cava.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Cardiovascular System

Learning Outcome: 21.3

3) Blood is found in the ________ of the heart just before it is pumped into the lungs.

A) left ventricle

B) right atrium

C) right ventricle

D) superior vena cava

E) left atrium

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structure of the Cardiovascular System

Learning Outcome: 21.4

A) bacteremia.

B) lymphangitis.

C) toxemia.

D) lipidemia.

E) viremia.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.5

5) Infection of the lymphatic vessels is known as

A) disseminated intravascular coagulation.

B) bacteremia.

C) lymphangitis.

D) petechiae.

E) recurrent fever.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.6

6) Toxic shock-like syndrome is associated with

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

D) Neisseria meningitidis.

E) both Staphylococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus aureus.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.6

7) A person is brought to the emergency room with constant high fever, extensive edema, low
blood pressure, and petechiae. From which of the following may the person be suffering?

A) septicemia

B) plague

C) Lyme disease

D) brucellosis

E) infectious mononucleosis

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.6

A) release of cytotoxins.

B) triggering of the complement system.

C) attachment of bacterial cells to the endocardium.

D) release of heme from damaged RBCs.

E) release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.7

9) Vegetations are associated with which of the following disease processes?

A) septicemia

B) endocarditis

C) tularemia

D) plague

E) toxoplasmosis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.8

10) Unprotected contact with the bodily fluids of an infected animal may result in

A) African sleeping sickness.

B) brucellosis.

D) Lyme disease.

E) toxoplasmosis.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.10

11) The chief diagnostic sign of brucellosis is

A) petechiae.

B) jaundice.

C) "bull's eye" rash.

D) fever which recurs at 24 hour intervals.

E) fever which cycles every 72 hours.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.9

A) Infection occurs by inhalation only.

B) The causative agent is an intracellular bacterial parasite.

C) The disease is easily treated.

D) The disease is transmitted from person to person.

E) The signs include a distinctive pattern of mild but recurring fever.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.11

13) Fever, difficulty breathing, extreme fatigue, and elevated heart rate are characteristic of

A) Bang's disease.

B) ehrlichiosis.

C) infectious mononucleosis.

D) plague.

E) endocarditis.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.8

14) The normal habitat of ________ is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying the pathogen
have fever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, and headache. Later, areas of black, necrotic tissue
may develop.

C) Francisella tularensis

D) Borrelia burgdorferi

E) Toxoplasma gondii

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.13

15) Which of the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections?

A) petechiae

B) a "bull's-eye" rash

C) jaundice

D) arthritis

E) buboes

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.13

A) It has a polysaccharide capsule.

B) It has manganese-containing enzymes.

C) It is capable of antigenic variation.

D) It has a polysaccharide capsule and antiphagocytic proteins.

E) It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.16

17)

The appearance of this rash is characteristic of infections with which of the following?

B) dengue virus

C) Borrelia burgdorferi

D) Epstein-Barr virus

E) Yersinia pestis

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.14

A) infectious mononucleosis.

B) Burkitt's lymphoma.

C) Hodgkin's lymphoma.

D) chronic fatigue syndrome.

E) oral hairy leukoplakia.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.21

19) Epstein-Barr virus infections are typically asymptomatic in ________ because of incomplete
development of adaptive immunity.

A) the elderly

B) AIDS patients

C) adolescents

D) adults

E) young children

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.21

20) A few days of fever with vomiting followed by high fever, jaundice, and "black vomit" are
characteristic of

C) Chagas' disease.

D) yellow fever.

E) schistosomiasis.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.25

21) Cycles of fever, chills, anemia and headache along with passage of dark colored urine are the
symptoms of infection with

A) yellow fever virus.

B) P. vivax.

C) P. ovale.

D) P. falciparum.

E) dengue virus.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.29

22) Schizogony is an important aspect of which of the following pathogens?

A) Yersinia pestis

B) Plasmodium species

E) Schistosoma mansoni

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.29

23) Dengue hemorrhagic fever is the result of

A) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with dengue virus.

B) an antibody-antigen complex reaction.

C) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus.

D) an autoimmune disease.

E) the chronic carrier state associated with dengue virus infection.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.27

24) A young woman develops a fever after a recent trip to a Caribbean island. She also
experiences severe headache and pain "in the bones." After a few days, she also develops a rash.
Which of the following did she most likely contract?

A) yellow fever virus

B) dengue virus

C) malaria

D) Toxoplasma

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.26

25) Which of the following is/are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?

A) dengue fever

B) yellow fever

C) malaria

D) both dengue fever and yellow fever

E) dengue fever, yellow fever, and malaria

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.29

792
Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.
26) A large number of people experience a high fever with a rash during the summer months in a
small country. Epidemiologists suspect an emerging disease. Both Aedes and Anopheles
mosquitoes are endemic to the country. Researchers are able to detect +ssRNA in the blood of
fever victims and in some mosquitoes. What type of pathogen might be responsible for the
epidemic?

A) a herpesvirus

B) a flavivirus

C) Plasmodium

D) plague bacteria

E) a filovirus

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.29

27) Which of the following is known to be teratogenic?

A) Epstein-Barr virus

B) cytomegalovirus

C) Plasmodium

D) Borrelia

E) dengue virus

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.23

A) yellow fever virus

B) malaria

C) dengue virus

D) Ebola virus

E) Epstein-Barr virus

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.28

A) birds.

B) Aedes mosquitoes.

C) Ixodes ticks.

D) humans.

E) Anopheles mosquitoes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.29

30) Which of the following is the infective form of Trypanosoma cruzi?

A) epimastigotes

B) trypomastigotes

C) pseudocysts

D) amastigotes

E) miricidia

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.34

31) Plasmodium falciparum produces proteins that cause ________ in addition to the anemia due
to erythrocyte destruction.

A) DIC

D) capillary damage

E) damage to the heart muscle

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.31

32) Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients?

A) Chagas' disease

B) toxoplasmosis

C) hemorrhagic fevers

D) Lyme disease

E) brucellosis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.33

A) It is a rare infection.

B) It is transmitted by biting insects.

C) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat.

D) Freshwater snails are intermediate hosts.

E) In most individuals, the infection results in lasting damage to the heart.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.33

34) Lyme disease becomes chronic because

A) Borrelia changes its surface antigens frequently.

B) Borrelia can lie dormant in liver cells.

C) the bacterium resists phagocytosis.

D) Borrelia is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes.

E) the bacterium resists phagocytosis and "hides" erythrocytes.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.16

35) "Swimmer's itch" is an initial symptom of which of the following?

A) malaria

B) Lyme disease

D) tularemia

E) schistosomiasis

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.35

36) Another name for brucellosis is ________ fever.

A) blackwater

B) yellow

C) snail

D) rabbit

E) undulant

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.9

A) birds.

B) cats.

C) rodents.

D) bats.

E) humans.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.28

38) An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is

A) "swimmer's itch."

B) "bull's eye" rash.

C) a bubo.

D) high fever and sore throat.

E) an ulcerating sore.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.21

39) Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable in humans?

A) schistosomiasis

B) malaria

D) plague

E) yellow fever

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.25

40) A young man who is an avid outdoorsman goes to see his doctor complaining of fever with
chills, headache, nausea, and diarrhea. Blood tests show that he has low levels of leukocytes and
platelets. He may have contracted

A) brucellosis.

B) tularemia.

C) Lyme disease.

D) ehrlichiosis.

E) Chagas' disease.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.19

A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen,
and blood tests indicate kidney damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and
found to contain the egg shown in the figure. The indications are consistent with infection with

A) Plasmodium falciparum.

B) Anaplasma phagocytophilium.

C) Schistosoma mansoni.

D) Toxoplasma gondii.

E) Trypanosoma cruzi.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.35

21.2 True/False Questions

1) Lipid A can cause septic shock.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

2) Only adult ticks of the genus Ixodes feed on humans.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.6

6) The three developmental stages of Ehrlichia are the elementary body, the initial body, and the
morula.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.19

7) Human herpesvirus 4 is better known as cytomegalovirus.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.21

Answer: brucellosis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

5) The zoonosis known as (ehrlichiosis/plague/tularemia) is transmitted to humans by fleas.

Answer: plague

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.12

6) One of the factors leading to the initial characterization of Lyme disease in 1975 was the
greater-than-expected incidence of (arthritis/osteomyelitis/mononucleosis) among children.

Answer: arthritis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.14

7) Because of their small size, (larvae/nymphs/adults) of the tick genus Ixodes most often
transmit Lyme disease to humans.

Answer: nymphs

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.15

8) Epstein-Barr virus causes the cells it infects to become immortal because it suppresses
(apoptosis/cytolysis/oncogenesis).

Answer: apoptosis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Learning Outcome: 21.22

9) Cytomegalovirus infection of the retina is now treated with (interferon/fomivirsin/

ganciclovir), the first antisense RNA drug.

Answer: fomivirsin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.24

10) Yellow fever is named for the (anemia/jaundice/vomiting) it typically causes.

Answer: jaundice

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.25

11) The intermediate host for Schistosoma mansoni is a (mosquito/tick/snail).

Answer: snail

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.35

12) The Ebola and Marburg viruses are the sole members of the (Flaviviridae/Filoviridae/
Herpesviridae) family, named for their unusual filamentous form. (Be sure to use proper form.)

Answer: Filoviridae

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.28

13) The sporogonic cycle of (malaria/toxoplasma/schistosoma) takes place entirely within a

mosquito.

Answer: malaria

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.29

14) The final stage of Chagas' disease is typically fatal because the parasite infects cells of the
(blood/heart/liver).

Answer: heart

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.34

15) True bugs in the genus (Aedes/Ixodes/Triatoma) transmit Chagas' disease. (Be sure to use
proper nomenclature form.)

Answer: Triatoma

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.34

21.4 Essay Questions

Answer: Septicemia is a microbial infection of the blood that causes disease. Although the terms
bacteremia and septicemia are sometimes used interchangeably, bacteremia technically refers to
septicemia caused by bacteria in the bloodstream. The signs and symptoms of bacteremia and
septicemia are essentially the same, and both can lead to adverse consequences such as toxemia,
lymphangitis, or septic shock. To be able to cause these problems, the bacteria involved in
septicemia may possess capsules, have the ability to capture iron from the host's tissues, and/or
release a variety of endotoxins that ultimately damage host cells and tissues.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.5

2) Compare and contrast bubonic and pneumonic plague.

Answer: Both bubonic and pneumonic plague are caused by Yersinia pestis and are transmitted
by fleas that migrate between animal hosts and humans. However, pneumonic plague is generally
much more serious than bubonic plague, develops more rapidly, and is more often fatal than
bubonic plague. In addition, pneumonic plague can occur when Yersinia pestis is inhaled, so it
can be transmitted from person to person. Bubonic plague is transmitted only by infected fleas.
Treatment and prevention of both diseases are similar: plague is easily treated by common
antibiotics such as tetracycline, and prevention involves rodent and flea control, as well as good
personal hygiene.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.13

Answer: Two of the three stages of malaria occur in a human, and the third stage occurs in
mosquitoes. The human stages begin with the exoerythrocytic cycle, when mosquitoes inject
sporozoites into the bloodstream. These sporozoites reproduce in the liver to form merozoites,
which are released into the blood. Merozoites then penetrate red blood cells and launch the
second human stage, which is the erythrocytic cycle. The merozoites become trophozoites inside
red blood cells, and these trophozoites can, in turn, reproduce to become more merozoites, which
spontaneously lyse the erythrocytes, causing the characteristic cycles of fever and chills
associated with malaria. Other merozoites develop into gametocytes, which can be ingested by
the female Anopheles mosquito to launch the third cycle, the sporogonic cycle. These
gametocytes go through a process of sexual reproduction inside the mosquito, eventually
resulting in the formation of sporozoites once again. These sporozoites migrate to the mosquito's
salivary glands, and the malaria cycle begins all over again.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.29

4) Compare and contrast dengue hemorrhagic fever and Ebola hemorrhagic fever. Discuss both
the pathogens and the pathology.

Answer: Both diseases are caused by RNA viruses. Both start with fever, headache and muscle
pain, then a rash develops, followed by bleeding. There is no specific treatment for either disease
and no vaccines are available to prevent them.

Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by a member of the Flaviviridae, a +ssRNA virus with an
icosahedral capsid. It is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. A first infection with dengue virus
does not lead to the hemorrhagic disease, but it is subsequent infection that produces the
hemorrhagic disease. Memory T cells produced in response to the first infection are activated
upon subsequent infection and release inflammatory cytokines that trigger a hyperimmune
response that results in damage to blood vessels, internal bleeding, and may progress to shock
from excessive blood loss.

Ebola viruses are filamentous–ssRNA Filoviridae whose natural hosts are thought to be bats.
Humans become infected when handling an infected animal, after which the virus can be
transmitted from person to person by unprotected contact with blood and other bodily fluids.
810
Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.
Ebola virus infection initially triggers excessive clotting which results in depletion of clotting
factors, which in turn leads to extensive internal hemorrhaging. Death results from massive
shock and kidney failure.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.27, 21.28

Answer: The symptoms of most Epstein-Barr infections result from a "war" between the cellular
and humoral divisions of the immune system. B cells are infected by Epstein-Barr virus, and then
cytotoxic T cells try to kill the infected B cells. The younger an infected individual is, the less
mature his or her cellular immune system is, and the less effective it will be in causing symptoms
during the "war." In fact, in young children, Epstein-Barr virus infections are usually
asymptomatic. The later in life an individual is infected with Epstein-Barr virus, the more
vigorous the cellular immune system is, and the more problematic and symptomatic the infection
becomes. On the other hand, however, a vigorous cellular immune response also means that the
infected B cells may be completely eradicated from the body, resulting in no discernible disease
in many individuals.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases

Learning Outcome: 21.22

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 22 Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System

22.1 Multiple Choice Questions

A) nasal cavity

B) larynx

C) pharynx

D) sinuses

E) trachea

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structures of the Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.2

2) Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?

A) larynx

B) trachea

D) pharynx

E) alveoli

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structures of the Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.1

3) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen commonly present in the nasal cavity as a
member of the microbiota?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Bordetella pertussis

C) Legionella pneumophilia

D) Pneumocystis jiroveci

E) Veillonella species

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structures of the Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.3

4) Inflammation of the pharynx with pus-filled abscesses and swollen tonsils is known as

A) diphtheria.

B) otitis media.

C) croup.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.4

5) The designation "group A," used to help classify Streptococcus pyogenes, refers to this
bacterium's

A) Lancefield antigen.

B) hemolysis pattern.

C) M protein.

D) type of streptokinase produced.

E) disease associations.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.5

6) Which of the following allows group A streptococci to spread through tissues by breaking
down blood clots?

A) M proteins

B) a hyaluronic acid capsule

C) streptolysin

D) streptokinase

E) pyrogenic toxins

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.5

7) Which of the following Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors kills leukocytes and
erythrocytes?

A) streptolysins

B) pyrogenic toxins

C) streptokinases

D) the hyaluronic acid capsule

E) C5a peptidase

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.5

8) Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are
distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by

A) alpha hemolytic activity.

B) beta hemolytic activity.

C) no hemolytic activity.

D) the absence of a capsule.

E) the presence of a lysogenic phage.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Learning Outcome: 22.5

9) Diphtheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes?

A) complement function

B) nucleic acid synthesis

C) cytoplasmic membrane function

D) protein synthesis

E) adenylate cyclase activity

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.6

10) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria?

A) No effective vaccine is available to prevent infection.

B) A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria.

C) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin.

D) The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery.

E) A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.7

A) Only coronaviruses cause the common cold.

B) The viruses can infect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts.

C) Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37°C.

D) Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites.

E) The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.9

12) What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A) the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen

B) the production of pneumolysin

C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule

D) the ability to lyse red blood cells

E) strain-specific teichoic acids in its cell wall

E) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.12

16) Which of the following is an opportunistic infection?

A) inhalation anthrax

B) primary tuberculosis

C) whooping cough

D) legionellosis

E) SARS

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.15

17) Neutrophils are inhibited from gathering at the site of infection by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis by what virulence factor of the pathogen?

C) kinase

D) the capsule

E) hemolysin

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.16

18) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis?

A) It occurs only in the lungs.

B) Several hundred cells are required for infection.

C) It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months.

D) Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid.

E) The immune system is not affected by the infection.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.17

A) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.

B) the development of pneumonia.

C) suppressing mucus production.

D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages.

E) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.20

20) Bordetella pertussis produces

A) dermonecrotic toxin.

B) adenylate cyclase toxin.

C) pyrogenic toxin.

D) dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins.

E) dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase, and pyrogenic toxins.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.20

21) The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases?

A) pneumonia

C) anthrax

D) the common cold

E) tuberculosis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.20

22) Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because

A) Bacillus anthracis is resistant to a wide range of antibiotics.

B) it is transmitted by endospores.

C) the anthrax toxin triggers severe edema of the lungs.

D) the bacteria are enclosed within a biofilm that antibiotics cannot penetrate.

E) the dying cells release lipid A, triggering a severe inflammatory response.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.21

A) cytokines released as part of the immune response.

B) the release of viral toxins.

C) syncytium formation.

D) secondary bacterial infections.

E) the death of cells outside the lungs.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.22

24) A recently retired man appears at his doctor's office complaining of difficulty breathing, body
aches and fatigue. He is also running a high fever and has a dry cough. He reports having just
returned from a trip to the Middle East where he visited several historical sites. Test results are
negative for a rapid test for influenza A. No bacteria are visible in a microscopic exam of his
sputum. Which of the following is a likely explanation?

A) inhalation anthrax

B) pertussis

C) valley fever

D) coronavirus respiratory syndrome

E) primary atypical pneumonia

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.24

A) contain both DNA and RNA.

B) synthesize peptidoglycan.

C) divide by binary fission.

D) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission.

E) synthesize peptidoglycan and divide by snapping division.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.11

A) It is extremely difficult to treat.

B) The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract.

C) The causative agent is a fast-growing Gram-positive bacillus.

D) It causes disease which is usually severe enough to require hospitalization.

E) It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried-egg" colonies on agar.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.11

27) Croup is often a result of infection with which of the following?

A) hantavirus

B) influenzavirus

C) Bordetella pertussis

D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

E) respiratory syncytial virus

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.26

28) Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis to survive long periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?

A) production of cord factor

C) formation of tubercles

D) the presence of LPS in the outer membrane

E) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.17

29) Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of preventing

A) coccidioidomycosis.

B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.

C) histoplasmosis.

D) bronchiolitis.

E) inhalational anthrax.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.27

A) inhalation of spherules.

B) inhalation of respiratory droplets.

C) inhalation of fungal spores.

D) contact with fomites.

E) contact with infected sputum.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.31

31) Dust storms in arid regions of the Southwestern U.S. may lead to outbreaks of

A) blastomycosis.

B) histoplasmosis.

C) Pneumocystis pneumonia.

D) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.

E) valley fever.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.30

32) Exposure to large accumulations of bird dropping may result in which of the following
mycoses?

A) Pneumocystis pneumonia

D) histoplasmosis

E) valley fever

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.32

33) Which of the following diseases is almost diagnostic for AIDS?

A) blastomycosis

B) coccidioidomycosis

C) Pneumocystis pneumonia

D) histoplasmosis

E) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.33

A) Pneumocystis jiroveci is becoming a wide-spread contaminant in health care environments.

B) Pneumocystis jiroveci is commonly found in a wide variety of soils.

C) The pathogen is easily transmitted from infected persons to others.

D) Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans and

opportunistic pathogen.

E) Pneumocystis jiroveci is zoonotic in a wide range of vertebrates and exposure is unavoidable.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.33

35) A new vaccine for the upcoming flu season is developed from an influenza isolate designated
A/Shanghai/2/2013(H7N9). This nomenclature means the isolate is

A) a type A with antigens HA 7 and NA 9 isolated in Shanghai in February 2013.

B) a type A with 7 HA antigens and 9 NA antigens isolated in Shanghai in February 2013.

C) the second type A strain with HA 7 and NA 9 antigens isolated in Shanghai in 2013.

D) a type B strain with antigens HA 7 and NA 9, first isolated in February 2013.

E) a hybrid of 2 type As combining 7 HA and 9 NA antigens, created in February 2013.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.23

36) A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals
possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When
asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost
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when the family emigrated from a Southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the
test results?

A) The student has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

B) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

C) The student is not infected.

D) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG
vaccine.

E) No conclusion is possible with the information provided.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.18

A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C) Blastomyces dermatitidis

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Pneumocystis jiroveci

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.8

38) Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that

A) is part of the microbiota of the lower respiratory system.

B) is part of the microbiota of the nasal cavity which occasionally invades the lungs.

C) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan.

D) is capable of forming endospores.

E) is a disease of birds transmissible to humans.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.15

39) A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever
with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to
an urgent care clinic. A blood sample reveals a high leukocyte count and low platelets. A Gram
stain of a sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the
most likely infecting agent?
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A) Bacillus anthracis

B) Hantavirus

C) Histoplasma capsulatum

D) influenza

E) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.27

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40) A woman who breeds parrots develops a fever and cough, and begins to have difficulty
breathing. Small Gram-negative bacteria are detected inside cells of a sputum sample. Which of
the following diseases is she likely to have contracted?

A) histoplasmosis

B) influenza

C) primary atypical pneumonia

D) ornithosis

E) inhalation anthrax

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.12

22.2 True/False Questions

1) The seriousness of Coccidioides infections can be attributed to the cycle of formation and
rupture of spherules.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.30

2) Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of sinus infections.

Answer: TRUE

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.18

9) Cold viruses are prevented from infecting most areas of the body because these areas are
either too warm or too acidic.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.9

10) Otitis media is more common in adults than children because of differences in the anatomy
of the head.

Answer: FALSE

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.8

22.3 Short Answer Questions

1) A key diagnostic sign of diphtheria is the presence of the (pseudomembrane/pharyngitis/rash/

tubercle).

Answer: pseudomembrane

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.7

Answer: dermonecrotic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.20

3) The smallest free-living microbes are (mycobacteria/mycoplasmas/Chlamydophila).

Answer: mycoplasmas

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.13

4) Recent outbreaks of multidrug-resistant HAP are primarily caused by members of the genus
(Bordetella/ Klebsiella/Mycobacteria), Gram-negative opportunists.

Answer: Klebsiella

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.11

5) The presence of distinctive spiny spores is diagnostic for the causative agent of
(coccidioidomycosis/blastomycosis/histoplasmosis).

Answer: histoplasmosis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System

The structure indicated by the letter "A" is the (pharynx/larynx/epiglottis).

Answer: epiglottis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structures of the Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.1?

7) Group A Streptococcus produces a class of molecules called (hemolytic/dermonecrotic/

pyrogenic) toxins that stimulate leukocytes to release fever-inducing cytokines.

Answer: pyrogenic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.5

8) Elongation factor, a protein required for eukaryotic (transcription/translation/expression), is

Answer: translation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears

Learning Outcome: 22.6

9) The attachment protein for almost all rhinoviruses is (BCG/ICAM-1/IgA). (Be sure your
answer is in uppercase letters.)

Answer: ICAM-1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.9

Answer: empyema

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.10

11) The mycoplasmas have been successively classified as viruses, Gram-negative bacteria, and
Gram-positive bacteria largely due to the lack of cell (membranes/walls/RNA) in their structure.

Answer: walls

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.13

12) When macrophages carry Mycobacterium tuberculosis to sites such as the bone marrow and
spleen it results in (disseminated/secondary/reactivated) tuberculosis.

Answer: disseminated

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.17

13) Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis designated as (BCG/MDR/XDR) strains are resistant

in vitro to three or more antitubercular drugs in addition to isoniazid and rifampin. (Be sure to
use uppercase letters in your answer.)

Answer: XDR

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Learning Outcome: 22.19

14) A major change in the surface glycoproteins of influenza A, which occurs every 10 years on
average, is called (antigenic/genetic/protein) shift.

Answer: antigenic

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.23

15) Inflammation of the trachea and bronchi, commonly called (croup/pertussis/pneumonia), is

frequently caused by paramyxoviruses.

Answer: croup

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.26

1) Why is immunity to the common cold so difficult to develop, either naturally or through
vaccines?

Answer: The primary reason that immunity generally does not develop against the common cold
is that there is not a single cause of the disease. A variety of viruses, including rhinoviruses,
coronaviruses, and adenoviruses, can cause the symptoms of the common cold. Therefore, any
vaccine designed to protect against the common cold would have to include antigens from all the
different viruses that can cause the disease, which is simply not practical or even feasible. The
exception to this is the vaccine against adenovirus infections, although it is currently used only
for military recruits. Because of the vast number of viruses that can cause the common cold, even
natural immunity is difficult to obtain because a person may not encounter the exact same virus
serotype twice in a lifetime. In addition, the receptor for ICAM-1on the virus particle is not
accessible by antibodies, preventing antibody neutralization of the virus. However, the frequency
of colds does decrease as a person ages, so some immunity undoubtedly occurs, including some
herd immunity.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.9

2) Explain the necessity of producing a new vaccine for each year's flu season.

Answer: Because the genome of influenzavirus is capable of extraordinary reassortment and

genetic variation, new strains of the virus constantly arise. Various strains of influenzavirus pass
through a variety of animal hosts (most notably pigs, birds, and humans), resulting in the
production of new combinations of genome segments. The outcome of all the genetic
rearrangement is either antigenic drift, a phenomenon in which the HA and NA glycoproteins of
the virus undergo minor genetic changes, or antigenic shift, in which major antigenic changes
occur in the glycoproteins, resulting in virtually brand-new strains of the virus. Therefore,
because the virus is undergoing constant antigenic change, U.S. health officials monitor the
worldwide incidence of flu, making note of which strains seem likely to occur in the next flu
season, and making adjustments to the flu vaccine accordingly.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Answer: Pneumonia describes a general pathogenic process in which a bacterial or viral

infection of the lungs results in their being filled with fluid, and the subsequent complications
arising from such a process. Among bacterial pneumonias, both pneumococcal and mycoplasmal
pneumonias are common types. Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus
pneumoniae, while mycoplasmal pneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. In general,
pneumococcal pneumonia is a more serious disease than mycoplasmal pneumonia, which is
often called "walking pneumonia" because of its milder symptoms. Pneumococcal pneumonia
has a more seasonal occurrence than mycoplasmal pneumonia, which is seen throughout the
year. Furthermore, mycoplasmal pneumonia is seen most commonly in adolescents and young
adults, whereas pneumococcal pneumonia is more common in children, the elderly, and
immunocompromised patients. S. pneumoniae produce a variety of virulence factors that result in
serious damage to lung tissue, even producing blood in the sputum being coughed up. The
bacteria can further migrate into the bloodstream from the damaged lung tissue, sometimes even
causing more serious bacteremia and meningitis. On the other hand, mycoplasmas have more
limited virulence factors, and their main mode of pathogenesis is the elimination of the function
of the ciliary escalator, resulting in mucus buildup that causes a persistent, unproductive cough
as the patient tries to clear the lungs. Other bacteria may enter the lungs as a result of the failure
of this defense mechanism, but in general, mycoplasmal pneumonia is never severe enough to
require hospitalization.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.11

4) Numerous bacteria can cause pneumoniae in the elderly or immunocompromised. The most
common ones were covered in the section "Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System."
Devise a set of laboratory tests that could be used to distinguish between these bacteria in a
clinical laboratory. Have as your goal the minimum number of tests necessary. (Hints: Try to
make a dichotomous key to start. You may also need to recall material from previous chapters.)

Answer: A number of answers are possible, but all should start with a Gram stain and
microscopic examination of a sputum or lavage sample.

Gram-positive bacterial possibilities include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus species. A

catalase test can distinguish Staphylococcus (positive) from Streptococcus (negative). A

Gram-negative bacteria that may cause pneumonia include Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus
influenza, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila species and Yersinia pestis. Close
observation of the cell morphology may be sufficient. Klebsiella and Yersinia are bacilli and
rather large compared to the others. Klebsiella is a non-motile coliform and Yersinia is a motile
non-coliform, so observation of a bacterial wet mount may be used to distinguish them (or a
lactose fermentation test). Haemophilus and Mycoplasma are pleomorphic, with Haemophilus
tending to a coccobacillus shape while Mycoplasma does not. Chlamydophila are tiny
intracellular parasites and thus will be observed inside host cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.11, 22.12

5) Describe the pathogenesis of tuberculosis, paying special attention to the characteristics of

Mycobacterium tuberculosis that make it so pathogenic.

Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an extremely effective pathogen. It has a very low

infectious dose (about 10 cells). Once inside the body, it is hard to clear because of its slow
growth, high levels of waxy, protective lipids such as mycolic acid in its cell wall, and its ability
to survive inside phagocytic cells. Another cell wall component, cord factor, is toxic to the body's
cells, and inhibits the activity of neutrophils. The immune system does its best to isolate the
infection, producing tubercles, which contain M. tuberculosis cells that have been walled off
from the rest of the body by inflammatory cells and processes. At best, this process results in a
stalemate between the pathogen and the body, and no further disease may ever occur. However,
in immunocompromised individuals, the immune system is often not able to keep the pathogen
in check; M. tuberculosis therefore breaks the stalemate and begins to spread throughout the
lungs, causing secondary or reactivated tuberculosis, with its attendant symptoms of weight loss,
chest pain, and breathing difficulty with bloody sputum. From the lungs, the reactivated
mycobacterial infection may even spread to the bloodstream and all over the body in the
phenomenon of disseminated tuberculosis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

Learning Outcome: 22.17

Chapter 23 Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System

23.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) The ________ is an accessory organ of the digestive system.

A) esophagus

B) stomach

C) tongue

D) duodenum

E) anus

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.2

2) Where in the digestive tract does most of the absorption of nutrients take place?

A) the large intestine

B) the small intestine

C) the rectum

D) the stomach

E) the esophagus

Answer: B

Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.1

3) Which of the following is a fungus that commonly lives in the large intestine?

A) Bacteroides

B) Escherichia

C) Campylobacter

D) Candida

E) Lactobacillus

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Normal Microbiota of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.3

A) Streptococcus mutans

B) Streptococcus agalactiae

C) viridians streptococci

D) Porphyromonas gingivalis

E) Enterobacter

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.4

5) Porphyromonas gingivalis contributes to the development of

A) gastroenteritis.

B) typhoid fever.

C) periodontitis.

D) food poisoning.

E) hepatitis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.5

6) Most peptic ulcers are the result of colonization of the stomach by

A) Vibrio cholerae.

B) Escherichia coli O157:H7.

D) Salmonella enterica.

E) Helicobacter pylori.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.7

7) Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?

A) Porphyromonas gingivalis

B) Vibrio cholerae

C) Escherichia coli O157:H7

D) Helicobacter pylori

E) Shigella dysenteriae

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.8

A) the presence of polar flagella.

B) its ability to survive in freshwater.

C) its ability to form biofilms in saltwater.

D) its activation of certain genes within the human body.

E) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

9) The major symptoms of cholera are attributable to which of the following?

A) production of urease

B) activity of a type III secretion system

C) cessation of protein synthesis in host cells

D) death of cells lining the intestinal tract

E) activation of adenylate cyclase

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

10) Infection with some Salmonella enterica serotypes can progress to typhoid fever when the
bacteria

A) attach to cells of the small intestine.

C) reproduce within cells of the small intestine.

D) produce type III secretion system proteins.

E) enter the blood and are engulfed by phagocytes.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

11) Which of the following is zoonotic?

A) E. coli O157:H7

B) Shigella

C) Salmonella

D) both E. coli O157:H7 and Salmonella

E) E. coli O157:H7, Shigella and Salmonella

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

A) ground beef

B) dairy products

C) eggs

D) fomites

E) pork

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

13) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is

A) Salmonella enterica.

B) Giardia intestinalis.

C) Cryptosporidium parvum.

D) Escherichia coli.

E) Shigella flexneri.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

14) Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by the fact that Shigella

A) stimulates intestinal epithelial cells to phagocytize it.

B) multiplies in phagocytic vesicles.

D) multiplies in the host cell's cytosol.

E) causes severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

15) The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea that sends people to doctors in the United
States is

A) Salmonella.

B) Staphylococcus.

C) Vibrio.

D) Escherichia.

E) Campylobacter.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

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16) A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea accompanied by
intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A
colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions in the large intestine. The probable causative
agent is

A) Giardia intestinalis.

B) Clostridium difficile.

C) Campylobacter.

D) Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi.

E) Vibrio cholerae.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

17) Staphylococcal food poisoning is called an intoxication disorder because

A) toxic bacteria are ingested in the food.

B) the bacteria produce type III secretion system toxins.

C) affected people appear drunk.

D) toxins produced by the bacteria growing in the food are ingested along with the food.

E) the bacteria release toxins when they are digested.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.12

18) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes?

B) Ninety percent of all cases are caused by human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2).

C) Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes.

D) Primary infections are usually characterized by severe lesions.

E) There is an effective cure for oral herpes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.16

19) Which of the following is the major sign or symptom of mumps?

A) diarrhea

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

22) The intracellular parasite usually acquired in contaminated drinking water that causes a
persistent watery diarrhea is

A) hepatitis A virus.

B) Cryptosporidium parvum.

C) Entamoeba histolytica.

D) Vibrio cholerae.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.24

23) Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage?

A) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses

B) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses

C) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses

D) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses

E) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

A) fever reducers.

B) antiviral medications.

C) antitoxins.

D) rehydration therapy.

E) antidiarrheal medication.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.19

25) Of the following, who is most likely to develop a chronic infection with hepatitis B virus?

A) children between the ages of 2 and 12

B) newborns

C) females at puberty

D) young adults

E) the elderly

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

26) A man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in
color. He has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. The physician notes that his eyes are
yellowish and his abdomen is swollen. The man has a history of kidney transplant and recently
returned from an overseas trip. The man may be infected with

B) hepatitis E virus.

C) norovirus.

D) Shigella.

E) Entamoeba histolytica.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

27) Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection is made by the observation of which of the following in the
patient's body fluids?

A) O antigens

B) enterotoxins

C) endospores

D) oocysts

E) Dane particles

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

28) Which of the following is a notable symptom of giardiasis?

A) "rice-water" stools

B) irritability and sleep disturbance

D) foul-smelling "rotten egg" stools

E) dysentery

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.22

29) Eating sashimi (uncooked fish) is a risk factor for infection with

A) Entamoeba histolytica.

B) Taenia saginata.

C) Giardia intestinalis.

D) Enterobius vermicularis.

E) Anisakis simplex.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.33

30) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to Entamoeba histolytica?

A) It reproduces by schizogony.

B) It may invade the peritoneal cavity, causing serious disease.

C) It causes a form of hepatitis.

D) It is an intracellular parasite.

E) An effective vaccine against infection is available.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.26

31) Where in a tapeworm would you expect to find fertilized eggs?

A) the neck region of the strobila

B) at the end of the strobila

C) inside the scolex

D) outside the cuticle

E) in all proglottids

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.28

A) cysticerci.

B) gravid proglottids.

C) tapeworm eggs.

D) mature tapeworms.

E) tapeworm larvae.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.29

33) Human infestation with Taenia saginata results from ingesting ________ in undercooked
intermediate host.

A) scolex

B) cysticerci

C) proglottids

D) eggs

E) cysts

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.29

34) Which of the following is a common childhood parasite in the United States?

A) Taenia solium

D) Cryptosporidium parvum

E) Giardia intestinalis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.31

Observation of the specimens in the figure is diagnostic for

A) Anisakis simplex.

B) Cryptosporidium parvum.

C) Enterobius vermicularis.

D) Giardia intestinalis.

E) Taenia solium.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.31

36) A large number of people in a community experience diarrhea with fever. Public health
authorities investigate and find that the people are passing dark urine, and some have yellowish
skin. Furthermore, all of the affected individuals recently ate at a new restaurant in town known
for its wide variety of fresh imported vegetables. Which of the following is the most likely
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causative agent?

A) Escherichia coli O157:H7

B) Salmonella enterica

C) hepatitis A virus

D) hepatitis E virus

E) norovirus

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

A) hepatitis A virus

B) Giardia intestinalis

C) Salmonella enterica

D) Cryptosporidium parvum

E) norovirus

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.23

38) Peritonitis may develop in severe cases of

A) giardiasis.

B) hepatitis.

C) pinworm infestation.

D) typhoid.

E) peptic ulcer disease.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

39) What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening
disease?

B) Clostridium difficile

C) Salmonella enterica

D) Giardia intestinalis

E) Lactobacillus

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

40) Accessory organ infections are caused by

A) human herpesvirus 1.

B) norovirus.

C) mumps virus.

D) rotavirus.

E) enterovirus.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.17

1) Salmonella is part of the normal microbiota of virtually all vertebrates except humans.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

2) Cholera toxin is composed of five A subunits and one B subunit.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

3) All tapeworms are intestinal parasites that completely lack digestive systems.

9) Contamination of meat with tapeworm cysts can be detected by visual inspection.

Answer: TRUE

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.4

Answer: urease

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.8

5) A bacterial strain known as O1 El Tor is responsible for pandemics of (cholera/shigellosis/

typhoid) seen worldwide since 1817.

Answer: cholera

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

6) Jaundice is a frequent sign of inflammation of the (colon/liver/pancreas).

Answer: liver

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

7) Isolation of Gram-positive (bacilli/cocci/vibrios) from food suspected of being the source of

an outbreak of diarrhea indicates the disease is the result of bacterial intoxication.

Answer: cocci

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

8) The form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica that is frequently asymptomatic is known as
(extraintestinal/dysentery/luminal) amebiasis.

Answer: luminal

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.26

9) The normal intermediate host for Taenia solium is (cows/humans/pigs).

Answer: pigs

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.28

10) The causative agent of pinworm infections is an example of a long, cylindrical, unsegmented
helminth called a (cestode/nematode/trematode).

Answer: nematode

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.30

11) The accumulation of plaque can lead to the development of (abscesses/caries/ulcers) in the
mouth.

Answer: caries

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.4

12) Helicobacter pylori colonizes the (mouth/liver/stomach/intestine) and can cause severe
inflammation and tissue erosion.

Answer: stomach

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.7

13) Escherichia coli O157:H7 produces (cholera/Shiga/Staphylococcal)-like toxin, which

inhibits protein synthesis, kills cells, and can result in death of the infected individual.

Answer: Shiga

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

14) AIDS patients sometimes suffer from pain and difficulty swallowing as a result of
developing herpes (esophagitis/gingivostomatitis/pharyngitis) along with fever and chills.

Answer: esophagitis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.15

15) Infection with (hepatitis/norovirus/rotavirus) is a common cause of viral gastroenteritis in

1) There are vaccines to prevent infectious hepatitis and serum hepatitis, but none to prevent
chronic hepatitis. Discuss why this is so.

Answer: Chronic hepatitis is caused by the hepatitis C virus. Hepatitis C virus is an RNA virus,
and the RNA polymerase which replicates the RNA genome lacks proofreading ability. As a
consequence, new genetic variations with new antigenic structures are produced at high
frequency. A vaccine against a single hepatitic C antigen would not provide protection from
infection for all the variations, and a vaccine containing a large number of different antigens is
not practical. Hepatitis A virus is not as variable, and hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, DNA
polymerases have proofreading functions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.20

2) Explain how Helicobacter pylori is able to resist the unfavorable environment of the stomach
in order to cause disease.

Answer: Helicobacter pylori is able to resist the acidic environment of the stomach using a
variety of virulence factors. H. pylori produces a protein which inhibits acid production in the
stomach, and produces urease that converts urea to ammonia, which neutralizes stomach acid. H.
pylori has flagella that allow it to burrow beneath the mucous layer of the stomach lining, further
sheltering the pathogen. It also produces enzymes such as catalase that inhibit phagocytic cell
activity.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.8

3) List and describe three virulence factors associated with bacteria that cause gastroenteritis.

Answer: Bacteria capable of causing gastroenteritis have a variety of virulence factors that allow
them to cause disease: (1) Several types of exotoxins can cause many of the major symptoms of
bacterial gastroenteritis. These include cholera toxin, which produces "rice-water" stools,
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enterotoxins of Escherichia coli that act in a manner similar to cholera toxin, and the more
destructive Shiga toxin of Shigella and the Shiga-like toxin of Escherichia coli O157:H7. (2)
Both Salmonella and Shigella have the ability to grow inside host cells, thereby evading the
immune system. (3) Salmonella possesses a type III secretion system that enables it to introduce
toxins directly into host cells. (4) Many pathogens such as Campylobacter possess adhesins that
allow them to adhere to cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. (5) Most of the bacteria producing
gastroenteritis are Gram-negative; therefore, they have endotoxin molecules in their cell walls
that can serve as virulence factors.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.10

Answer: The three types of amebiasis differ in the virulence factors of the infecting strain of
Entamoeba histolytica and the state of health of the host. The least severe form of amebiasis is
luminal amebiasis in which the parasite remains in the open space of the intestine. Luminal
amebiasis is asymptomatic in healthy individuals. When the strain of E. histolytica produces
adhesion proteins, proteases, or other important virulence factors, they can invade the
bloodstream and peritoneal cavity, producing the more serious forms of amebiasis. Amebic
dysentery is characterized by severe diarrhea, bloody, mucus-containing stools, and colitis.
Invasive extraintestinal amebiasis occurs when E. histolytica spreads to other areas of the body
and forms necrotic lesions in the liver, lungs, kidneys, and other vital organs. It is the most
severe form of the disease and can even be fatal.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract

Learning Outcome: 23.26

5) Explain the role of the intestinal microbiota in the maintenance of health.

Answer: The intestinal microbiota help maintain health in a variety of ways:

(1) The billions of microbes in the gastrointestinal tract outcompete pathogens in a process called
microbial antagonism. (2) The normal microbiota can feed on the partially digested or
indigestible contents of the colon, and even though this produces some undesirable by-products
such as flatus, this is overall a beneficial process for the host. (3) Many intestinal microbes
produce important vitamins for the host, such as vitamin K, B12, folic acid, and biotin.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Normal Microbiota of the Digestive System

Learning Outcome: 23.3

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 24 Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems

24.1 Multiple Choice Questions

A) renal capsule

B) efferent arterioles

C) collecting duct

D) nephron

E) renal pyramids

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.1

2) Which of the following structures allows the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the
fetal blood and the mother's blood?

A) the uterus

B) the uterine tubes

C) the placenta

D) the cervix

E) the clitoris

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.2

3) Mature sperm cells are stored in a male's

C) prostate gland.

D) prepuce.

E) epididymis.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Structures of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.2

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4) The disorder ________ is a complication of systemic infections with Streptococcus in which
antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and get trapped in the kidneys.

A) cystitis

B) glomerulonephritis

C) pyelonephritis

D) leptospirosis

E) urethritis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.9

5) When bacteria invade the kidney, the result can be

A) cystitis.

B) ectopic.

C) prostatitis.

D) pyelonephritis.

E) bacteriosis.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.5

6) Which of the following transmits leptospirosis?

A) infected animal urine

B) infected animal bites

D) infected animal feces

E) infected human urine

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.8

7) During the spring calving season, a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and
achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a
urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The
man may have contracted

A) chancroid.

B) glomerulonephritis.

C) leptospirosis.

D) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.

E) trichomoniasis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.8

8) The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in

A) newly delivered mothers.

B) uncircumcised males.

D) nasal surgery patients.

E) menstruating women.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.10

9) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm

diagnosis?

A) an abnormal vaginal discharge

B) an acidic vaginal pH

C) fever and rash

D) the presence of buboes

E) the presence of clue cells

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.11

The presence of the specimen shown in the figure in a vaginal discharge is evidence of infection
with

A) Candida albicans.

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

C) Treponema palladium.

D) Chlamydia trachomatis.

E) Trichomonas vaginalis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.13

11) Why does taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis?

A) Antibacterials can alter metabolism, creating conditions that favor the growth of Candida
albicans.

B) Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH.

D) Bacteria killed by antibacterials provide nutrients for Candida albicans.

E) Depletion of the bacterial microbiota results in higher carbon dioxide levels, (which favor the
growth of Candida albicans).

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.14

A) gummas.

B) sterility.

C) orchitis.

D) glomerulonephritis.

E) penile cancer.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.20

13) Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reproductive tract in women

A) is usually initially asymptomatic.

B) produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix.

C) results in the formation of curd-like discharge.

D) results in the production of a yellow-greenish frothy discharge.

E) produces painful ulcerations.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.20

14) Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum?

A) hyaluronidase

C) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall

D) TSST

E) IgA protease

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.23

15) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea?

A) It is easily confused with chancroid.

B) The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body.

C) Women usually experience severe symptoms early in infection.

D) Asymptomatic infections have no long-term consequences.

E) Gonorrhea produces good long-term specific immunity.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.20

A) the uterus

B) the vagina

C) the cervix

D) the fallopian tubes

E) the ovaries

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.20

17) The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for
infection by

A) human herpesvirus 2.

B) Treponema pallidum.

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

D) Chlamydia trachomatis.

E) Mycoplasma hominis.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.20

18) The typical sign of primary syphilis is

A) a chancre at the site of infection.

C) lymphadenopathy.

D) gummas in various organs.

E) paralysis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.22

19) Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by

A) the MHA-TP test.

B) culturing specimens on laboratory media.

C) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens.

D) DNA probes.

E) a Pap smear.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.23

A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles.

B) hard, red, painless bumps.

C) rubbery, painful lesions.

D) soft, painful ulcers.

E) blister-like lesions which ulcerate.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.22

21) Syphilis can be transmitted

A) by sexual contact.

B) from mother to fetus.

C) by fomites.

D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus.

E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.23

22) The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called

A) elementary bodies.

C) pseudohyphae.

D) trachomas.

E) initial bodies.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.24

23) Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the incidence of STDs?

A) Bacterial STDs are declining worldwide as a result of the ready availability of antibiotics.

B) The incidence of STDs is known with a high degree of accuracy.

C) Viruses transmitted by sexual contact are not widespread.

D) Viral STDs in the U.S. are considered epidemic.

E) The incidence of most STDs could be reduced by vaccination.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and Diseases (STDs)

Learning Outcome: 24.15

A) lymph nodes

B) the lungs

C) the conjunctiva

D) lymph nodes and conjunctiva

E) lymph nodes, lungs, and conjunctiva

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.24

25) A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The
young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or
experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with

A) Chlamydia trachomatis.

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

C) Haemophilus ducreyi.

D) Treponema pallidum.

E) Trichomonas vaginalis.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.24

A) syphilis

29) A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the

A) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR.

B) location of herpetic lesions.

C) appearance and size of herpetic lesions.

D) appearance of stained tissue specimens.

E) binding of fluorescent antibodies.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.28

30) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?

A) Re-appearance of lesions is the result of new infections.

B) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.

C) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection.

D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.32

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34) A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during
intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort
of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped
cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing?

A) cervical cancer

B) herpes

C) chancroid

D) syphilis

E) trichomoniasis

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Protozoan STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.32

35) Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted during sexual intercourse because it

A) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina.

B) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract.

C) participates with HIV in coinfections.

D) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina.

E) cannot live long outside the body.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Protozoan STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.32

24.2 True/False Questions

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.10

2) Gonorrhea in women is not a risk factor for sterility.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.20

3) Genital herpes and genital warts are both caused by human herpesviruses.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.30

response to the destruction of infected cells.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.24

Answer: FALSE

Learning Outcome: 24.5

5) The frequent, urgent, and painful urination that often results from urinary tract infections is
called (dysuria/cystitis/glomerulonephritis).

Answer: dysuria

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.5

6) The bacterial infection (leptospirosis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) is a zoonosis.

Answer: leptospirosis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.8

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7) A patient with systemic bacterial infection develops high blood pressure, and the urine output
declines, but what urine is passed contains blood. The patient does not experience pain with
urination. These signs are consistent with (cystitis/glomerulonephritis/urethritis).

Answer: glomerulonephritis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.9

8) The presence of (bacillus/clue/streptococcal) cells is an important aspect of the diagnosis of

bacterial vaginosis.

Answer: clue

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.11

9) The yeast infection (candidiasis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) can become systemic in AIDS

patients.

Answer: candidiasis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.13

10) A small, red, hard but painless lesion is a sign of infection with (chancroid/herpes/syphilis).

Answer: syphilis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

11) Infection with virulent strains of human (herpes/HIV/papilloma) virus may result in large
painful condylomata acuminata on the genitalia.

Answer: papilloma

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Viral STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.30

12) A vaccine is available to prevent infection with (herpes/HIV/HPV).

Answer: HPV

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Viral STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.30

13) The drug of choice for treating primary and secondary syphilis is (amoxicillin/penicillin/
streptomycin) G.

Answer: penicillin

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.22

14) When chlamydias spread from the genitalia to the rectum, they can cause an inflammatory
process called (PID/proctitis/pyelonephritis).

Answer: proctitis

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Learning Outcome: 24.24

15) Buboes are a major sign that appears in half of all patients with (chancroid/chancre/
chlamydia), a disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.

Answer: chancroid

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.27

24.4 Essay Questions

1) Explain why a female who has a history of gonorrhea infections is more likely to have an
ectopic pregnancy.

Answer: Most females infected with gonorrhea are asymptomatic and do not receive treatment.
The bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, invades the cervix and the uterus, and then can hitchhike
on sperm to infect the fallopian tubes. In the uterine tubes, the bacteria trigger inflammation,
fever, and abdominal pain, a condition known as pelvic inflammatory disease. Chronic infections
lead to scarring of the fallopian tubes, resulting in an increased chance of ectopic pregnancy and
sterility.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.20

2) Some areas of the genitourinary tract are normally sterile, whereas other areas have a variety
of microbiota. Describe the defense mechanisms of the genitourinary tract that contribute to this
dichotomy.

Answer: A variety of defense mechanisms are associated with the genitourinary tract, but the
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primary one is the flow of urine through the urethra. This flow keeps many pathogens out, and
therefore, the only microbes that can colonize this area tend to colonize the end of the urethra
closest to the surface of the body. Often, pathogenic microbes can resist this flow and migrate
toward the bladder and kidneys. Overall, however, the urinary organs of both sexes and the male
reproductive tract above the prostate should be sterile under normal conditions. In females,
microbes enter the vagina and colonize the nutrient-rich mucous membrane in this area;
however, most vaginal pathogens are inhibited by the acidic pH generated by normal microbiota
such as Lactobacillus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems

Learning Outcome: 24.3

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3) A patient complains of fever, pain on one side of the body, and fatigue. The clinician notes the
patient's blood pressure is somewhat elevated. The patient reports experiencing some painful
urination for a few days during the previous week. Tests on a urine sample reveal the presence of
motile Gram-negative bacilli. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

Answer: The flank pain and the increase in blood pressure are indicative of pyelonephritis,
infection of a kidney. The Gram stain of the urine sample is consistent with that of enteric
bacteria. The patient probably contracted a urinary tract infection caused by fecal contamination
of the urethra. When left untreated, this infection then spreads to the kidneys.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System

Learning Outcome: 24.5

4) Explain why some syphilis patients may only experience the symptoms of primary syphilis,
while other patients may progress all the way to tertiary syphilis.

Answer: There are four stages of syphilis: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary syphilis. At the
end of the primary stage, or during the latent stage, the patient may cease to progress through the
later stages of the disease for reasons that are still largely unknown. During latent syphilis, the
progression of the disease may also stop due to antimicrobial drug use in developed countries.
Additionally, if the disease is detected during the primary stage and treated, then no further
progression will occur. However, many people do not know they are infected with Treponema
pallidum because they do not notice the chancre that is the major sign of the primary stage;
therefore, progression of the disease is usually assured in these cases.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Bacterial STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.23

5) Some sexually transmitted diseases mimic other STDs with regard to their symptoms. Give an
example of two of these types of diseases, describing how the symptoms of each disease
resemble those of another STD.

Answer: Chlamydial infections in men often mimic the symptoms of gonorrhea even though the
two diseases are caused by completely different pathogens with different life cycles and different
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pathogenic properties. In both cases, the male experiences urethritis, painful urination, and a pus
discharge from the urethra. By the same token, most gonorrhea and chlamydia infections in
females are asymptomatic. Occasionally, some of the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis in
men can also mimic some of the signs and symptoms of gonorrhea.

Another pair of STDs that can be confused with each other is syphilis and chancroid. These
diseases are caused by two completely unrelated bacteria; however, each of them is initially
characterized by the appearance of a sore called a chancre. In syphilis, the chancre is painless
and hard, whereas in chancroid the chancre is soft and painful (it is usually called a "soft
chancre" to help distinguish it from the primary syphilis lesion).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Bacterial STDs and Protozoan STDs

Learning Outcome: 24.32

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman)

Chapter 25 Applied and Environmental Microbiology

25.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) Control of the fermentation of foods to produce the desired product commonly involves

A) careful choice of foodstuffs.

B) pretreating the food by boiling.

C) adding required nutrients for microbial growth.

D) use of a starter culture.

E) both pretreating the food by boiling and adding required nutrients for microbial growth.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

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2) A researcher studying the impact of agricultural pesticides on native plants discovers a
bacterium capable of degrading small amounts of a specific pesticide. The researcher then
modifies the bacterial species in the lab to increase the rate of pesticide degradation. This
research represents

A) applied microbiology.

B) environmental microbiology.

C) food microbiology.

D) both food microbiology and environmental microbiology.

E) both applied microbiology and environmental microbiology.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.5

3) Which of the following food products is prepared by the fermentation of cabbage?

A) kimchi

B) tea

C) refined sugar

D) pasteurized milk

E) sorbet

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

A) The addition of vitamins or minerals makes the food more nutritious for microbes as well as
humans.

B) Vitamins are added to "fortified" foods by adding the microbes that produce the vitamins to
the food item.

C) Every step of modification or manipulation of food increases the chance for contamination.

D) The addition of nutrients creates an osmotic environment suitable for a wide range of
microbes.

E) The vitamins require a neutral pH environment, which is suitable for many microbes.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.2

5) Which of the following is a lactic acid bacterium used in the production of food?

A) Aspergillus oryzae

B) Gluconobacter

C) Leuconostoc

D) Penicillium

E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

A) a step in the production of brandy.

B) a means of food preservation.

C) a means of making plant materials more appealing to livestock.

D) a meat product.

E) made from milk.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

7) Sulfur dioxide is added to "must" in the production of wine to

A) improve the flavor.

B) allow more control over the fermentation process.

C) provide a necessary nutrient for the fermentation process.

D) prevent tannins from leaching out of wood into the fermenting wine.

E) both enhance flavor and promote fermentation.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.3

8) Why is the pasta you buy from the grocery store shelf considered a nonperishable food?

A) It has a low nutritional content.

B) It was sterilized during preparation.

D) Various preservative chemicals are added.

E) Microbes present in the pasta inhibit the growth of harmful microbes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.2

9) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED?

A) vodka; potatoes

B) white wine; hops

C) whiskey; cereal grains

D) beer; malt

E) brandy; fruit juice

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

10) Which of the following results when ethanol is allowed to oxidize to acetic acid following
the fermentation of fruit, grain, or vegetables?

A) beer

B) wine

C) champagne

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

11) Which of the following items that are commonly added during food preparation can be
considered a preservative?

A) apple juice

B) meat broth

C) garlic

D) yeast

E) whey

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.3

A) the degree of processing.

B) the amount of preservatives added.

C) the storage temperature.

D) the water content.

E) storage packaging.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.2

13) Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving

A) increasing oxygen content.

B) increasing salt concentration.

C) reducing pH.

D) reducing oxygen content.

E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.3

14) Which of the following is used in both food production and industrial fermentation?

A) Bacillus thuringiensis

C) Listeria monocytogenes

D) Pseudomonas syringae

E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.5

15) Sugar and salt act as preservatives by

A) inhibiting bacterial enzymes.

B) producing oils that inhibit bacterial growth.

C) inhibiting DNA replication.

D) drawing water out of food.

E) killing endospores.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.3

A) canning

B) pasteurization

C) drying

D) gamma radiation

E) lyophilization

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.3

17) What is the significance of the industrial practice of waiting for cultures to enter the
stationary phase of growth before harvest?

A) The cells are at peak metabolic activity.

B) Secondary metabolites are often the desired product, and are only produced in stationary
phase.

C) The desired primary metabolites are produced in stationary phase.

D) Potential toxins from log phase growth have been depleted.

E) An optimal combination of primary and secondary metabolites is being produced.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.5

18) The eukaryote ________ is a common food contaminant that can lead to foodborne illness.

B) Campylobacter jejuni

C) Listeria monocytogenes

D) Yersinia enterocolitica

E) Vibrio vulnificus

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.4

19) Food contaminated with ________ may contain a potent neurotoxin.

A) Salmonella spp.

B) Shigella spp.

C) Clostridium botulinum

D) Escherichia coli

E) Listeria monocytogenes

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.4

A) streptokinase; dissolving blood clots

B) indigo; blue jeans

C) citric acid; antioxidant in food

D) gluconic acid; release of cellulose from flax to make linen

E) phenylalanine; the sweetener aspartame

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

21) Which of these microbial products is needed to produce "gasohol"?

A) citric acid

B) methanol

C) ethanol

D) hyaluronidase

E) aspartame

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

22) What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically?

C) taxol

D) human insulin

E) interferons

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

23) Industrial fermentation and fermentation in food production

A) are both processes in which sugars are oxidized to alcohols or acids.

B) are processes in which sugar or protein is oxidized to produce alcohols or acids.

C) use entirely different microorganisms.

D) use entirely different starting material.

E) make use of the same microorganisms.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.5

A) by preliminary fermentation.

B) in the sedimentation step.

C) by treatment with biosensors.

D) by treatment with chlorine or ozone.

E) in the filtration step.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.9

25) Potable water is water that

A) is considered safe to drink because it is completely sterile.

B) contains biosensors.

C) contains a dangerous number of microorganisms.

D) is transferred from one place to another.

E) contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.9

26) Chlorinated water contains

A) no viruses.

C) no endospores.

D) no cysts.

E) a decreased microbial load.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.9

27) Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly used indicator organism for
water quality testing?

A) Escherichia coli

B) Salmonella spp.

C) Shigella spp.

D) Streptococcus thermophilus

E) Hepatitis A virus

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.9

A) It is a measure of the amount of oxygen in water.

B) It is proportional to how potable water is.

C) It is used as a bioreceptor index.

D) It is a measurement of the amount of oxygen that aerobic bacteria require to fully metabolize
organic wastes in water.

E) It is a filter system to purify drinking water.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.9

29) A specific example of bioremediation is

A) the purification of water for drinking.

B) the treatment of wastewater.

C) the treatment of sludge.

D) the degradation of crude oil spilled into the Gulf of Mexico.

E) acid mine drainage.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.12

30) Which of the following is the correct sequence of microbial associations from smallest to

A) populations, guilds, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem

B) populations, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds

C) communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds, populations

D) populations, communities, ecosystem, guilds, microhabitats

E) ecosystem, populations, communities, microhabitats, guilds

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.10

929
Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.
31) A new industrial park in your community dumps its wastewater into a large aerated pond, to
which nutrients are added. The water from this pond makes its way into a nearby marsh, which
eventually drains into a slow-moving stream. This is an example of

A) artificial bioremediation.

B) natural bioremediation.

C) bioreporter use.

D) natural fermentation.

E) a method to make potable water.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.9, 25.12

32) Which of the following statements concerning the phosphorus cycle in bacteria is TRUE?

A) The molecule cycles between different organic molecules.

B) It is the most important process for synthesizing proteins and nucleic acids.

C) The molecule alternates among several oxidative states.

D) The molecule changes from insoluble to soluble forms.

E) The molecule is converted to a gaseous state and is lost to the environment.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.14

Green and purple sulfur bacteria will carry out anaerobic photosynthesis primarily in

A) zone 1.

B) zone 2.

C) zone 3.

D) zone 4.

E) both zones 1 and 2.

D) denitrification

E) carbon fixation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.17

37) Which of the following may result from eating shellfish?

A) botulism

B) norovirus infection

C) polio

D) salmonellosis

E) paralysis

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.8

A) Aspergillus oryzae

B) Bacillus anthracis

C) Cyanobacteria

D) Lactoccocus cremoris

E) Streptomyces scabies

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.20

39) Which of the following is an application of proteases?

A) cheese

B) indigo

C) meat tenderizer

D) vodka

E) wine

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

40) Streptokinase is useful for which of the following?

C) biosensors

D) dissolving blood clots

E) insecticide

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

41) A common source of antibiotics is

A) Acetobacter.

B) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus.

C) Lactoccocus cremoris.

D) Streptococcus thermophilus.

E) Streptomyces.

Answer: E

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

A) cyanobacteria

B) anaerobic microbes

C) heterotrophic organisms

D) fungi

E) nitrogen fixers

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.15

43) Soy sauce is made using

A) Acetobacter.

B) Aspergillus oryzae and Saccharomyces.

C) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus.

D) Saccharomyces.

E) Lactoccocus cremoris.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

B) Desulfovibrio

C) purple sulfur bacteria

D) both Beggiatoa and purple sulfur bacteria

E) both Beggiatoa and Desulfovibrio

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.17

25.2 True/False Questions

1) Most microbes need an environment that has a water activity of at least 0.90.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.2

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

3) Amino acid and vitamin supplements are prepared from extracts of microbial cultures.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

4) Pasteurization is a more rigorous process than canning.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.3

5) Cold is preferred for storing food because it retards microbial growth by slowing down
metabolic processes.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.3

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.19

7) Through recombinant DNA technology, many plants now can manufacture their own Bt toxin,
which improves fermentation.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.5

8) Bioremediation is the process of using organisms to clean up toxic, hazardous compounds by

degrading them to less harmful substances.

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.12

Answer: TRUE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.15

10) Most of the nitrogen in the environment is in the form of nitrogen gas, which is the form
used by most organisms.

Answer: FALSE

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.16

25.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The definition of (fermentation/cultivation/processing) used by food microbiologists is a

desirable change in food due to microbial activity.

Answer: fermentation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.1

2) Because the same microbes are not always present on food from harvest to harvest, (fresh/
natural/starter) cultures are used in the production of alcoholic beverages.

Learning Outcome: 25.3

6) A few hours after a dinner party, most of the people who attended begin to suffer nausea,
vomiting, and diarrhea. The food at the meal is suspected as the source, although no unusual
microbes are cultured from samples of the food or from stool samples. These observations
suggest they may be suffering from food (infection/intoxication).

Answer: intoxication

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Food Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.4

7) Brandy is made by the same process as wine, but the alcohol is then concentrated by
(fermentation/distillation/filtration).

Answer: Microorganisms are associated with each other at many levels in the environment.
Individual growing and reproducing organisms that are all of one species are referred to as a
population. Populations of microorganisms performing metabolically related processes are
known as guilds. Guilds constitute communities. Guilds and populations within a community
typically reside in their own habitat. Together, the organisms, the environment, and the
relationship between the two constitute the ecosystem.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Environmental Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.10

2) Compare the use of biosensors with traditional methods of determining microbial

contamination.

Answer: Traditional methods of detecting microbial contaminants rely on collecting samples

containing living microbes and being able to culture them in the laboratory. The need to provide
the right growth conditions reduces the sensitivity of such tests. Waiting for the organisms to
grow makes traditional methods time consuming.

Biosensors use bacteria or bacterial enzymes to detect small amounts of contaminants in

samples. The results are available in minutes rather than hours or days. Detection does not rely
on properly anticipating an organism's growth requirements. Biosensors can also be designed to
distinguish between closely related organisms, for example, by detecting whether a toxin is
present in the sample. Biosensors are faster and more sensitive than traditional methods, and they
are potentially more effective in distinguishing truly harmful microbes from their harmless close
relatives.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.6

Answer: Information gained through the study of environmental microbiology has been utilized
to identify many of the fecal coliforms and their biological traits and to develop methods to
identify whether they are contaminating our water supplies. A simple method is to filter water
through a fine membrane and then place the filter on EMB agar. Growth of fecal coliforms will
produce a metallic green sheen. The colonies are counted, and the number is used to calculate the
degree of contamination. Another method is to add a water sample to small bottles containing
MUG and ONPG and look for evidence of fecal coliform growth indicated by the resulting color
changes. This latter method is more rapid; however, it indicates only that these microorganisms
are present, but does not provide information regarding the actual number of bacteria present.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Section: Industrial Microbiology

Learning Outcome: 25.9

948
Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.
4) Smallpox is considered a serious potential biological weapon, whereas anthrax has been
successfully used as one. Compare and contrast their potential with regard to the criteria for
assessing biological threats.

Answer: The smallpox virus causes serious illness with moderate to high fatality rates. The virus
is highly contagious by contact and aerosols, and it is contagious before clear signs appear. The
virus can persist on fomites and infect persons who come in contact with them. Although a
vaccine exists, the majority of the world's population is currently unvaccinated. Consequently,
once released, the virus will spread rapidly. However, there is no natural source for the virus, so a
person or persons intent on using it as a weapon would have to have special access and facilities
to be able to produce much virus. Additionally, post-exposure vaccination is effective in
producing immunity, so the resulting epidemic could be controlled once recognized.

The agent of anthrax, Bacillus anthracis, is an animal pathogen and a common soil contaminant.
The organism can be easily isolated from contaminated soil and is not difficult to culture. The
disease is not transmissible from person to person, so only the people exposed to the initial
release would be at risk. However, the bacterium produces endospores that can be stored for long
periods of time and released as a dust contaminant in airways or contact contaminant on fomites.
Public perception of anthrax is that it is a very dangerous weapon. Initial respiratory symptoms
are similar to other bacterial pneumonias, so proper diagnosis may not be made until the fatal
toxemia develops. The current vaccine is expensive and does not produce immunity until after
several boosters have been administered; therefore, it is not useful for controlling disease after a
release. Natural B. anthracis is susceptible to most antibiotics, so treatment in cases of early
detection is effective. Authorities are concerned about the potential for the development of
antibiotic-resistant strains.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis

Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism

Learning Outcome: 25.22, 25.23

5) Compare and contrast the two types of foodborne disease.

Answer: Foodborne diseases are also known as food poisoning. Food poisoning may be due to
food infections, caused by consuming living microorganisms, or to food intoxication, caused by
consuming microbial toxins in food. Many cases of foodborne diseases are common-source
epidemics, where one food source is responsible for many individual cases of the disease. Food
infections primarily result from improper food handling or storage, whereas food intoxication
may result from improper preparation, especially canning. Heating food is usually effective in
killing living microbes in food, but most toxins are not inactivated by heating.
949
Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

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