JEE Main 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2) Previous Year Paper With Answer Keys - MathonGo

JEE Main 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
Question Paper MathonGo
→ →
Q1. If two vectors 𝐴 and 𝐵 having equal magnitude 𝑅 are inclined at an angle 𝜃, then
→ → → →
(1) 𝐴 − 𝐵 = √2 𝑅sin 𝜃 (2) 𝐴 + 𝐵 = 2𝑅sin 𝜃
2 2
→ → → →
(3) 𝐴 + 𝐵 = 2𝑅cos 𝜃 (4) 𝐴 − 𝐵 = 2𝑅cos 𝜃
2 2
Q2. Consider two physical quantities 𝐴 and 𝐵 related to each other as 𝐸 = 𝐵 − 𝑥2

where 𝐸, 𝑥 and 𝑡 have dimensions
𝐴𝑡
of energy, length and time respectively. The dimension of 𝐴𝐵 is
(1) 𝐿−2 𝑀1 𝑇0 (2) 𝐿2 𝑀-1 𝑇1
(3) 𝐿−2 𝑀-1 𝑇1 (4) 𝐿0 𝑀-1 𝑇1
Q3. A light string passing over a smooth light fixed pulley connects two blocks of masses 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 . If the
𝑔
acceleration of the system is 8 , then the ratio of masses is
9 8
(1) (2)
7 1
4 5
(3) 3
(4) 3
→
Q4. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined surface as shown in the figure. If 𝐹1 is the force required to
→
just move the block up the inclined plane and 𝐹2 is the force required to just prevent the block from sliding
→ →
down, then the value of 𝐹1 − 𝐹2 is: [Use 𝑔 = 10 m s-2 ]
(1) 25√3 N (2) 5√3 N

5√3
(3) N (4) 10 N
2
Q5. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force given by
→ ^ ^
𝐹 = 6𝑡 i + 6𝑡2 j N. The power developed by the force at the time 𝑡 is given by:
(1) 6𝑡4 + 9𝑡5 W (2) 3𝑡3 + 6𝑡5 W
(3) 9𝑡5 + 6𝑡3 W (4) 9𝑡3 + 6𝑡5 W
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1 1
Q6. The mass of the moon is 144
times the mass of a planet and its diameter 16
times the diameter of a planet. If the
escape velocity on the planet is v, the escape velocity on the moon will be:
𝑣 𝑣
(1) (2)
3 4
𝑣 𝑣
(3) 12
(4) 6
Q7. A small spherical ball of radius 𝑟, falling through a viscous medium of negligible density has terminal velocity
𝑣. Another ball of the same mass but of radius 2𝑟, falling through the same viscous medium will have terminal
velocity:
𝑣 𝑣
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 4𝑣 (4) 2𝑣
Q8. A gas mixture consists of 8 moles of argon and 6 moles of oxygen at temperature 𝑇. Neglecting all vibrational
modes, the total internal energy of the system is
(1) 29 𝑅𝑇 (2) 20 𝑅𝑇
(3) 27 𝑅𝑇 (4) 21 𝑅𝑇
Q9. The speed of sound in oxygen at S.T.P. will be approximately:

(Given, 𝑅 = 8 . 3 J K-1 , 𝛾 = 1 . 4 )
(1) 310 m s-1 (2) 333 m s-1
(3) 341 m s-1 (4) 325 m s-1
Q10. Force between two point charges 𝑞1 and 𝑞2 placed in vacuum at 𝑟 cm apart is 𝐹. Force between them when
𝑟
placed in a medium having dielectric 𝐾 = 5 at cm apart will be:
5
𝐹
(1) 25
(2) 5𝐹
𝐹
(3) (4) 25𝐹
5
Q11. By what percentage will the illumination of the lamp decrease if the current drops by 20%?
(1) 46% (2) 26%
(3) 36% (4) 56%
Q12. The resistance per centimeter of a meter bridge wire is 𝑟, with 𝑋 𝛺 resistance in left gap. Balancing length
from left end is at 40 cm with 25 𝛺 resistance in right gap. Now the wire is replaced by another wire of 2𝑟
resistance per centimeter. The new balancing length for same settings will be at
(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 80 cm (4) 40 cm
Q13. A uniform magnetic field of 2 × 10-3 T acts along positive Y-direction. A rectangular loop of sides 20 cm
and 10 cm with current of 5 A is in Y-Z plane. The current is in anticlockwise sense with reference to
negative X axis. Magnitude and direction of the torque is :
(1) 2 × 10-4 N m along positive Z –direction (2) 2 × 10-4 N m along negative Z-direction
(3) 2 × 10-4 N m along positive X-direction (4) 2 × 10-4 N m along positive Y-direction
π
Q14. An AC voltage 𝑉 = 20sin200𝜋𝑡 is applied to a series LCR circuit which drives a current 𝐼 = 10sin200π𝑡 + 3
. The average power dissipated is:
(1) 21 . 6 W (2) 200 W

(3) 173 . 2 W (4) 50 W
Q15. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Electromagnetic waves carry energy as they travel through space and this energy is equally shared
by the electric and magnetic fields.
Statement II: When electromagnetic waves strike a surface, a pressure is exerted on the surface.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
Q16. When unpolarized light is incident at an angle of 60° on a transparent medium from air. The reflected ray is
completely polarized. The angle of refraction in the medium is
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 90° (4) 45°
Q17. In a photoelectric effect experiment a light of frequency 1 . 5 times the threshold frequency is made to fall on
the surface of photosensitive material. Now if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the number of
photo electrons emitted will be:
(1) Doubled (2) Quadrupled
(3) Zero (4) Halved
Q18. The mass number of nucleus having radius equal to half of the radius of nucleus with mass number 192 is:
(1) 24 (2) 32
(3) 40 (4) 20
Q19. The output of the given circuit diagram is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q20. The measured value of the length of a simple pendulum is 20 cm with 2 mm accuracy. The time for 50
oscillations was measured to be 40 seconds with 1 second resolution. From these measurements, the accuracy
in the measurement of acceleration due to gravity is 𝑁%. The value of 𝑁 is:
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 6 (4) 5
Q21. Two identical spheres each of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod so that the
separation between the centers is 150 cm. Then, moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular
𝑥
to the rod and passing through its middle point is 20
kg m2 , where the value of 𝑥 is
Q22. A body of mass 𝑚 is projected with a speed 𝑢 making an angle of 45o with the ground. The angular
3
√2 𝑚𝑢
momentum of the body about the point of projection, at the highest point is expressed as 𝑋𝑔
. The value of 𝑋
is_______.
Q23. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 4 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as shown in
figure. The radius of wire is 4 . 0 × 10-5 m and Young's modulus of the metal is 2 . 0 × 1011 N m-2 . The
1
longitudinal strain developed in the wire is . The value of 𝛼 is _____. [Use 𝑔 = 10 m s-2 )
𝛼𝜋
Q24. The time period of simple harmonic motion of mass 𝑀 in the given figure is 𝜋√ 𝛼𝑀 , where the value of 𝛼 is
5𝐾
_______.
Q25. The distance between charges +𝑞 and -𝑞 is 2𝑙 and between +2𝑞 and -2𝑞 is 4𝑙. The electrostatic potential at
𝑞𝑙
point 𝑃 at a distance 𝑟 from centre 𝑂 is -𝛼 × 109 V, where the value of 𝛼 is ______. (Use
𝑟2
1
4𝜋𝜀0
= 9 × 109 N m2 C-2 )
2
Q26. In the following circuit, the battery has an emf of 2 V and an internal resistance of 3
𝛺. The power
consumption in the entire circuit is ______ W.
Q27. Two circular coils 𝑃 and 𝑄 of 100 turns each have same radius of 𝜋 cm. The currents in 𝑃 and 𝑅 are 1 A and
2 A respectively. 𝑃 and 𝑄 are placed with their planes mutually perpendicular with their centers coincide. The
resultant magnetic field induction at the center of the coils is √𝑥 mT, where 𝑥 = ______. [Use
𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 T m A−1 ]
Q28. The magnetic flux 𝜙 (in weber) linked with a closed circuit of resistance 8 𝛺 varies with time (in seconds) as
𝜙 = 5𝑡2 − 36𝑡 + 1. The induced current in the circuit at 𝑡 = 2 s is _______ A.
Q29. Light from a point source in air falls on a convex curved surface of radius 20 cm and refractive index 1 . 5. If
the source is located at 100 cm from the convex surface, the image will be formed at ______ cm from the
object.
Q30. A nucleus has mass number 𝐴1 and volume 𝑉1 . Another nucleus has mass number 𝐴2 and volume 𝑉2 . If
𝑉2
relation between mass number is 𝐴2 = 4𝐴1 , then 𝑉1
= _______.
Q31. A sample of CaCO3 and MgCO3 weighed 2 .21 g is ignited to constant weight of 1 .152 g. The composition of
the mixture is:
(Given molar mass in g mol−1 , CaCO3 : 100, MgCO3 : 84)
(1) 1 .187 𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 1 .023 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3 (2) 1 .023 𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 1 .023 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3
(3) 1 .187 𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 1 .187 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3 (4) 1 .023 𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 1 .187 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3
Q32. The four quantum numbers for the electron in the outer most orbital of potassium (atomic no. 19) are
1 1
(1) n = 4, l = 2, m = − 1, s = + (2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2 2
1 1
(3) n = 3, l = 0, m = − 1, s = + 2
(4) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 2
Q33. Consider the following elements.
Which of the following is/are true about A' , B' , C' and D' ?
A. Order of atomic radii: B' < A' < D' < C'
B. Order of metallic character : B' < A' < D' < C'
C. Size of the element : D' < C' < B' < A'
+ + + +
D. Order of ionic radii : B' < A' < D' < C'
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only (2) A, B and D only
(3) A and B only (4) B, C and D only
Q34. Which of the following is least ionic?

(1) BaCl2 (2) AgCl
(3) KCl (4) CoCl2
𝐶
Q35. 𝐴𝑔 ⇌ 𝐵𝑔 + 2𝑔 . The correct relationship between 𝐾𝑃 , 𝛼 and equilibrium pressure 𝑃 is
1 1 3 1
(1) K = α P2
2 (2) K = α2 P2
P 1 P 1
2+ α2
1 3
2+ α2 1 − α
1 1
(3) α2 P2 (4) α2 P2
KP = 3 KP = 3
2 + α2 2 + α2
Q36. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: S8 solid undergoes disproportionation reaction under alkaline conditions to form S2 − and S2 O23 −
Statement II: ClO−
4 can undergo disproportionation reaction under acidic condition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

Statement I: Group 13 trivalent halides get easily hydrolysed by water due to their covalent nature.
Statement II: AlCl3 upon hydrolysis in acidified aqueous solution forms octahedral AlH2 O6 3 + ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false (4) Both statement I and statement II are true
Q38. Identify structure of 2, 3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q39. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds called essential oils.
These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with water vapour in the vapour
phase. A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is:
(1) crystallisation (2) distillation under reduced pressure
(3) distillation (4) steam distillation
Q40. Major product of the following reaction is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q41. Identify 𝐴 and 𝐵 in the following reaction sequence.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q42. Choose the correct statements from the following

A. All group 16 elements form oxides of general formula 𝐸𝑂2 and 𝐸𝑂3 where 𝐸 = 𝑆, 𝑆𝑒, 𝑇𝑒 and 𝑃𝑜. Both
the types of oxides are acidic in nature.
B. 𝑇𝑒𝑂2 is an oxidising agent while 𝑆𝑂2 is reducing in nature.
C. The reducing property decreases from 𝐻2 𝑆 to 𝐻2 𝑇𝑒 down the group.
D. The ozone molecule contains five lone pairs of electrons.
(1) A and D only (2) B and C only
(3) C and D only (4) A and B only
Q43. Choose the correct statements from the following

A. Mn2 O7 is an oil at room temperature B. V2 O4 reacts with acid to give VO22 +
C. CrO is a basic oxide D. V2 O5 does not react with acid
(1) A, B and D only (2) A and C only
(3) A, B and C only (4) B and C only
Q44. Select the option with correct property:

(1) 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑂4 and 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 2 − both diamagnetic (2) 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑂4 and 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 2 − both paramagnetic
(3) 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 2 − diamagnetic, 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑂4 paramagnetic (4) 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑂4 diamagnetic, 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 2 − paramagnetic
Q45. Match List I with List II

LIST – II
LIST – I
(Electronic
(Complex ion)
Configuration
3+
A. 𝐶𝑟𝐻2 𝑂6 I. 𝑡22𝑔 𝑒0𝑔
B. 𝐹𝑒𝐻2 𝑂6 3 + II. 𝑡32𝑔 𝑒0𝑔
C. 𝑁𝑖𝐻2 𝑂6 2 + III. 𝑡32𝑔 𝑒2𝑔
D. 𝑉𝐻2 𝑂6 3 + IV. 𝑡62𝑔 𝑒2𝑔
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Q46. The correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reaction of the following compounds is:
(1) B > C > A > D (2) D > C > B > A

(3) A > B > C > D (4) B > A > C > D
Q47. Identify the name reaction.
(1) Stephen reaction (2) Etard reaction

(3) Gatterman-koch reaction (4) Rosenmund reduction
Q48. Identify major product ‘𝑃’ formed in the following reaction.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q49. The azo-dye 𝑌 formed in the following reactions is Sulphanilic acid + NaNO2 + CH3 COOH → X
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

Statement I: Aniline reacts with con. H2 SO4 followed by heating at 453 - 473 K gives p-aminobenzene
sulphonic acid, which gives blood red colour in the 'Lassaigne's test'.
Statement II: In Friedel - Craft's alkylation and acylation reactions, aniline forms salt with the AlCl3 catalyst.
Due to this, nitrogen of aniline acquires a positive charge and acts as deactivating group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false (4) Both statement I and statement II are true
Q51. The molarity of 1L orthophosphoric acid H3 PO4 having 70% purity by weight (specific gravity 1 .54 g cm−3
) is ______ M. (Molar mass of H3 PO4 = 98 g mol-1 )
o
Q52. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1 .2 D. If the bond distance is 1A, then fractional charge on each
atom is _____ × 10−1 esu. (Given 1D = 10−18 esu cm)
Q53. If 5 moles of an ideal gas expands from 10L to a volume of 100L at 300K under isothermal and reversible
condition then work, w, is −x J. The value of x is - _______.
(Given R = 8 .314 J K-1 mol-1 )
Q54. Number of isomeric products formed by monochlorination of 2-methylbutane in presence of sunlight is

_______.
Q55. The values of conductivity of some materials at 298 .15 K in Sm−1 are
2 .1 × 103 , 1 .0 × 10−16 , 1 .2 × 10, 3 .91 , 1 .5 × 10−2 , 1 × 10−7 , 1 .0 × 103 . The number of
conductors among the materials is _____.
Q56. r = kA for a reaction, 50% of A is decomposed in 120 minutes. The time taken for 90% decomposition of A is
______ minutes.
Q57. Number of moles of H+ ions required by 1 mole of MnO−

4 to oxidise oxalate ion to CO2 is ______.
Q58. In the reaction of potassium dichromate, potassium chloride and sulfuric acid (conc.), the oxidation state of the
chromium in the product is + _______.
Q59. A compound 𝑥 with molar mass 108𝑔 mol−1 undergoes acetylation to give product with molar mass
192𝑔 mol−1 . The number of amino groups in the compound 𝑥 is ________.
Q60. From the vitamins 𝐴, 𝐵1 , 𝐵6 , 𝐵12 , 𝐶, 𝐷, 𝐸 and 𝐾, the number vitamins that can be stored in our body is ______.
Q61. The number of solutions, of the equation 𝑒sin𝑥 − 2𝑒−sin𝑥 = 2 is

(1) 2 (2) more than 2
(3) 1 (4) 0
Q62. Let 𝑧1 and 𝑧2 be two complex number such that 𝑧1 + 𝑧2 = 5 and 𝑧31 + 𝑧32 = 20 + 15𝑖. Then 𝑧41 + 𝑧42 equals-
(1) 30√3 (2) 75
(3) 15√15 (4) 25√3
Q63. The number of ways in which 21 identical apples can be distributed among three children such that each child
gets at least 2 apples, is
(1) 406 (2) 130
(3) 142 (4) 136
Q64. Let 2nd , 8th and 44th , terms of a non-constant 𝐴 . 𝑃 . be respectively the 1st , 2nd and 3rd terms of 𝐺 . 𝑃 . If
the first term of A.P. is 1 then the sum of first 20 terms is equal to-
(1) 980 (2) 960
(3) 990 (4) 970
Q65. If for some 𝑚, 𝑛; 6 𝐶𝑚 + 26 𝐶𝑚 + 1 +6 𝐶𝑚 + 2 >8 𝐶3 and 𝑛 − 1 𝑃3 :𝑛 𝑃4 = 1: 8, then 𝑛 𝑃𝑚 + 1 +𝑛 + 1 𝐶𝑚 is equal to

(1) 380 (2) 376
(3) 384 (4) 372
Q66. Let 𝐴𝑎, 𝑏, 𝐵3, 4 and −6, − 8 respectively denote the centroid, circumcentre and orthocentre of a
triangle. Then, the distance of the point 𝑃2𝑎 + 3, 7𝑏 + 5 from the line 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 4 = 0 measured parallel to
the line 𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 1 = 0 is
15√5 17√5
(1) (2)
7 6
17√5 √5
(3) (4)
7 17
Q67. Let a variable line passing through the centre of the circle 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 − 16𝑥 − 4𝑦 = 0, meet the positive co-
ordinate axes at the point 𝐴 and 𝐵. Then the minimum value of 𝑂𝐴 + 𝑂𝐵, where 𝑂 is the origin, is equal to
(1) 12 (2) 18
(3) 20 (4) 24
2 2
Q68. Let 𝑃 be a parabola with vertex 2, 3 and directrix 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 6. Let an ellipse 𝐸: 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 1, 𝑎 > 𝑏
𝑎2 2
𝑏
1
of eccentricity pass through the focus of the parabola 𝑃. Then the square of the length of the latus rectum
√2
of 𝐸, is
385 347
(1) (2)
8 8
512 656
(3) 25
(4) 25
𝑓7𝑥 𝑓5𝑥
Q69. Let 𝑓: → 𝑅 → 0, ∞ be strictly increasing function such that lim = 1. Then, the value of lim − 1 is
𝑥 → ∞ 𝑓𝑥 𝑥 → ∞ 𝑓𝑥
equal to
(1) 4 (2) 0
7
(3) (4) 1
5
Q70. Let the mean and the variance of 6 observation 𝑎, 𝑏, 68, 44, 48, 60 be 55 and 194, respectively if
𝑎 > 𝑏, then 𝑎 + 3𝑏 is
(1) 200 (2) 190
(3) 180 (4) 210
Q71. 1 1 −1 −1 0 0
Let A be a 3 × 3 real matrix such that 𝐴 0 = 2 0 , 𝐴 0 = 4 0 , 𝐴 1 = 2 1 . Then, the system
1 1 1 1 0 0
𝑥 1
𝐴 − 3𝐼 𝑦 = 2 has
𝑧 3
(1) unique solution (2) exactly two solutions
(3) no solution (4) infinitely many solutions
Q72. If 𝑎 = sin−1 sin5 and 𝑏 = cos−1 cos5, then 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 is equal to

(1) 4𝜋2 + 25 (2) 8𝜋2 − 40𝜋 + 50
(3) 4𝜋2 − 20𝜋 + 50 (4) 25
3
Q73. If the function 𝑓: −∞, − 1 → 𝑎, 𝑏 defined by 𝑓𝑥 = 𝑒𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 1
is one-one and onto, then the distance of the
−3
point 𝑃2𝑏 + 4, 𝑎 + 2 from the line 𝑥 + 𝑒 𝑦 = 4 is:
(1) 2√1 + 𝑒6 (2) 4√1 + 𝑒6
(3) 3√1 + 𝑒6 (4) √1 + 𝑒6
Q74. Consider the function 𝑓: 0, ∞ → 𝑅 defined by 𝑓𝑥 = 𝑒−log𝑒 𝑥 . If 𝑚 and 𝑛 be respectively the number of points at
which 𝑓 is not continuous and 𝑓 is not differentiable, then 𝑚 + 𝑛 is
(1) 0 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 2
2 1
Q75. Let 𝑓, 𝑔: 0, ∞ → 𝑅 be two functions defined by 𝑓𝑥 = ∫𝑥 𝑡 − 𝑡2 𝑒−𝑡2 𝑑𝑡 and 𝑔𝑥 = ∫𝑥 𝑡 2 𝑒−𝑡2 𝑑𝑡. Then the
−𝑥 0
value of 9𝑓√log𝑒 9 + 𝑔√log𝑒 9 is equal to
(1) 6 (2) 9
(3) 8 (4) 10
Q76. The area of the region enclosed by the parabola 𝑦 = 4𝑥 − 𝑥2 and 3𝑦 = 𝑥 − 42 is equal to
32
(1) 9
(2) 4
14
(3) 6 (4) 3
Q77. The temperature 𝑇𝑡 of a body at time 𝑡 = 0 is 160° 𝐹 and it decreases continuously as per the differential
𝑑𝑇
equation 𝑑𝑡
= − 𝐾𝑇 − 80, where 𝐾 is positive constant. If 𝑇15 = 120° 𝐹, then 𝑇45 is equal to
(1) 85° 𝐹 (2) 95° 𝐹
(3) 90° 𝐹 (4) 80° 𝐹
𝑥−1 𝑦−2 𝑧−3
Q78. Let 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾 be mirror image of the point 2, 3, 5 in the line = = . Then 2𝛼 + 3𝛽 + 4𝛾 is equal to
2 3 4
(1) 32 (2) 33
(3) 31 (4) 34
𝑥−1 𝑦+1 𝑧+4
Q79. The shortest distance between lines 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 , where 𝐿1 : 2
= −3
= 2 and 𝐿2 is the line passing through
𝑥−3 𝑦 𝑧−1
the points 𝐴−4, 4, 3, 𝐵−1, 6, 3 and perpendicular to the line −2
= 3 = 1 , is
121 24
(1) (2)
√221 √117
141 42
(3) (4)
√221 √117
Q80. A coin is biased so that a head is twice as likely to occur as a tail. If the coin is tossed 3 times, then the
probability of getting two tails and one head is-
2 1
(1) 9
(2) 9
2 1
(3) (4)
27 27
Q81. Let 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 be the length of three sides of a triangle satisfying the condition 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 𝑥2 − 2𝑏𝑎 + 𝑐
𝑥 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐2 = 0. If the set of all possible values of 𝑥 is in the interval 𝛼, 𝛽, then 12𝛼2 + 𝛽2 is equal to
_______.
Q82. Let the coefficient of 𝑥𝑟 in the expansion of

𝑛−1 𝑛−2 𝑛−3 2 𝑛−1
𝑥+3 +𝑥+3 𝑥+2+𝑥+3 𝑥 + 2 + . ... + 𝑥 + 2 be 𝛼𝑟 . If ∑𝑟𝑛 = 0 𝛼𝑟 𝑛 𝑛
= 𝛽 − 𝛾 , 𝛽, 𝛾 ∈ 𝑁,
2 2
then the value of 𝛽 + 𝛾 equals _______.
Q83. Let 𝐴−2, − 1, 𝐵1, 0, 𝐶𝛼, 𝛽 and 𝐷𝛾, 𝛿 be the vertices of a parallelogram 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. If the point 𝐶 lies on
2𝑥 − 𝑦 = 5 and the point 𝐷 lies on 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 6, then the value of 𝛼 + 𝛽 + 𝛾 + 𝛿 is equal to ______.
2 𝑒𝑥 − 𝑏log𝑒 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑥𝑒−𝑥
Q84. If lim 𝑎𝑥 = 1, then 16𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐2 is equal to ______.
𝑥→0 𝑥2 sin𝑥
Q85. Let 𝐴 = 1, 2, 3, . ...100 . Let 𝑅 be a relation on 𝐴 defined by 𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ 𝑅 if and only if 2𝑥 = 3𝑦. Let 𝑅1 be a
symmetric relation on 𝐴 such that 𝑅 ⊂ 𝑅1 and the number of elements in 𝑅1 is 𝑛. Then the minimum value of
𝑛 is _______.
Q86. Let 𝐴 be a 3 × 3 matrix and det𝐴 = 2. If 𝑛 = det𝑎𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑑𝑗

⏟ . ... 𝑎𝑑𝑗𝐴, then the remainder when 𝑛 is divided by 9
2024 − times
is equal to __________.
𝜋
Q87. 120 ∫ 𝑥2 sin𝑥cos𝑥
𝑑𝑥 is equal to ______.
𝜋3 4 4
0 sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥
𝜋 𝜋
Q88. Let 𝑦 = 𝑦𝑥 be the solution of the differential equation sec2 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑒2𝑦 tan2 𝑥 + tan𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0, 0 < 𝑥 < , 𝑦 = 0.
2 4
𝜋
If 𝑦 6 = 𝛼, then 𝑒8𝛼 is equal to ______.
^ ^ ^ ^ → ^ ^ → ^ ^ →
Q89. Let → → → → →
𝑎 = 3 𝑖 + 2𝑗 + 𝑘, 𝑏 = 2 𝑖 − 𝑗 + 3𝑘 and 𝑐 be a vector such that 𝑎 + 𝑏 × 𝑐 = 2𝑎 × 𝑏 + 24𝑗 − 6𝑘 and
→ → ^ → →2
𝑎 − 𝑏 + 𝑖 . 𝑐 = − 3. Then 𝑐 is equal to _______.
Q90. A line passes through 𝐴4, − 6, − 2 and 𝐵16, − 2, 4. The point 𝑃𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 where 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 are non-negative integers,
on the line 𝐴𝐵 lies at a distance of 21 units, from the point 𝐴. The distance between the points 𝑃𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 and
𝑄4, − 12, 3 is equal to ______.
ANSWER KEYS
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (53) 7. (8) 8. (1)
9. (12) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (12) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (27) 16. (3)
17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (20) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (200)
25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (11)
33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (0) 37. (-28721) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (4)
41. (3) 42. (4) 43. (6) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (399) 48. (4)
49. (8) 50. (6) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (5) 61. (36) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (4)
65. (4) 66. (4) 67. (25) 68. (3) 69. (32) 70. (2) 71. (4) 72. (2)
73. (81) 74. (3) 75. (66) 76. (7) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (1) 80. (3)
81. (3) 82. (15) 83. (3) 84. (9) 85. (3) 86. (38) 87. (2) 88. (3)
89. (22) 90. (1)

JEE Main 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2) Previous Year Paper With Answer Keys - MathonGo

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Question Paper MathonGo

Q2. Consider two physical quantities 𝐴 and 𝐵 related to each other as 𝐸 = 𝐵 − 𝑥2

(1) 25√3 N (2) 5√3 N

Q9. The speed of sound in oxygen at S.T.P. will be approximately:

(1) 21 . 6 W (2) 200 W

Q15. Given below are two statements:

Q19. The output of the given circuit diagram is

Q33. Consider the following elements.

Q34. Which of the following is least ionic?

Q36. Given below are two statements :

Q37. Given below are two statements :

Q38. Identify structure of 2, 3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.

Q40. Major product of the following reaction is:

Q41. Identify 𝐴 and 𝐵 in the following reaction sequence.

Q42. Choose the correct statements from the following

Q43. Choose the correct statements from the following

Q44. Select the option with correct property:

Q45. Match List I with List II

(1) B > C > A > D (2) D > C > B > A

Q47. Identify the name reaction.

(1) Stephen reaction (2) Etard reaction

Q48. Identify major product ‘𝑃’ formed in the following reaction.

Q50. Given below are two statements :

Q54. Number of isomeric products formed by monochlorination of 2-methylbutane in presence of sunlight is

Q57. Number of moles of H+ ions required by 1 mole of MnO−

Q61. The number of solutions, of the equation 𝑒sin𝑥 − 2𝑒−sin𝑥 = 2 is

Q65. If for some 𝑚, 𝑛; 6 𝐶𝑚 + 26 𝐶𝑚 + 1 +6 𝐶𝑚 + 2 >8 𝐶3 and 𝑛 − 1 𝑃3 :𝑛 𝑃4 = 1: 8, then 𝑛 𝑃𝑚 + 1 +𝑛 + 1 𝐶𝑚 is equal to

Q72. If 𝑎 = sin−1 sin5 and 𝑏 = cos−1 cos5, then 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 is equal to

Q82. Let the coefficient of 𝑥𝑟 in the expansion of

Q86. Let 𝐴 be a 3 × 3 matrix and det𝐴 = 2. If 𝑛 = det𝑎𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑑𝑗

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