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204

Question
Papers
For
Practice
205

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN


PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - 1
CLASS- X
SUBJECT – SCIENCE (086)
Max. Marks: 80 Time
Allowed: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided
in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these
questions.
3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark
each.
4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each.
Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03
marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 50
to 80 words.
6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05
marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to
120 words.
7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of
04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section-A Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given
for each of the questions 1 - 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.
Q. Questions Marks
Nos.
1 Pb + CuCl2→ PbCl2 + Cu 1
The above reaction is an example of:
a) Combination (c ) double displacement
b) Decomposition (d) displacement
2 The image shows the pH values of four solutions on a pH scale. 1

Identify the solutions that are alkaline in nature?


(a) A and B (b) B and C
(c) C and D (d) A and D
3 Identify the non-metal which is lustrous. 1
206

(a) Sulphur
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Iodine
4 The complete oxidation of ethanol gives 1
(a) Acetic acid/ethanoic acid
(b) CO2 and water
(c) Ethanal
(d) Acetone/Ethanone
5 The image shows the bread moulds on a bread 1
How do these fungi obtain nutrition?

(a) by eating the bread on which it is growing


(b) by using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food
(c) by breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing
them
(d) by allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then
consuming them
6 The brain is responsible for: 1
(a) thinking (b) regulating the heart beat
(c) balancing the body (d) all of the above
7 In the below figure the parts A, B and C are sequentially 1

(a) Cotyledon, plumule and radicle


(b) Plumule, radicle and cotyledon
(c) Plumule, cotyledon and radicle
(d) Radicle, cotyledon and plumule
8 Identify the totally impossible outcome of Mendel’s Experiment 1
(cross breeding pure bred tall and short pea plants)
(a) 3 tall 1 short plant
(b) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(c) 8 tall and 0 short plants
(d) 4 tall plants and 1 medium-height plant
9 Who have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes? 1
(a) Girls only
(b) Boys only
(c) Both girls and boys
(d) It depends on many other factors
10 A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and 1
emerges out of the holes on the other side B as shown in the figure
207

below:

Which of the following could be inside the box?


a) Concave lens
b) Rectangular glass slab
c) Prism
d) Convex lens
11 The refractive index of flint glass is 1.65 and that for alcohol is 1
1.36 with respect to air. What is the refractive index of the flint
glass with respect to alcohol?
a) 0.82 b) 1.21
c) 1.11 d) 1.01
12 The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal 1
vision is about
(a) 25m
(b) 2.5cm
(c) 25cm
(d) 2.5m
13 The slope of voltage (V) versus current (I) is called 1

(a) Resistance
(b) Conductance
(c) Resistivity
(d) Conductivity
14 Inside the magnet, the field lines move— 1
a) from north to south b) from south to
north
c) away from south pole d) away from
north pole
15 Every food chain in the ecosystem begins with………. which is 1
the original source of food.
(a) Saprophytes
(b) Parasites
(c) Producers
208

(d) Herbivores
16 Sulphur dioxide affects 1
(a) haemoglobin of blood (b) Arteries (c) Alveoli of lungs (d)
Nerves
Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate
option given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of
A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
17 Assertion (A): Impurities of electrolytic refining of copper is also 1
known as anode mud.
Reason (R): The electrolyte is a solution of acidify copper
sulphate. The anode is impure copper. On passing electric current,
pure copper is deposited on the cathode and impurities is deposited
on the anode side bottom of the the electrolytic container.
18 Assertion (A): The purpose of making urine is to filter out 1
undigested food from intestine
Reason (R): Kidneys filter the waste and produce urine
19 Assertion (A): When pea plants (pureline) having round yellow 1
seeds are crossed with pureline plants having wrinkled green
seeds, then all pea plants obtained in F, generation bear wrinkled
green seeds.
Reason (R): Round and yellow seeds are dominant to wrinkled
and green seeds.
20 Assertion (A): Accumulation of harmful chemicals is higher in 1
case of organisms at higher trophic level.
Reason (B): Food chain normally can’t reduce beyond 3 or 4
trophic level.
Section-B Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions
21 Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction: 2
3MnO2 + 4Al ———— > 3Mn + 2Al2O3
22 Write two differences between real and virtual image. 2
23 Why red colour is selected for danger signal lights? 2
Or
Give reason-The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut.
24 Identify the poles of a magnet in the figure. 2

A B
b

25 Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest: 2


Grass → Deer → Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available to the grass, how much
energy would be available to the deer to transfer it to the lion?
209

Or

Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides


may result in the degradation of the environment.
26 A bulb is rated at 5.0 V, 100 mA. Calculate its resistance. 2
Section-C Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions
27 Take 3 g of barium hydroxide in a test tube, now add about 2 g of 1+1+1
ammonium chloride and mix the contents with the help of a glass
rod. Now touch the test tube from outside.
(i) What do you feel on touching the test tube?
(ii) State the inference about the type of reaction occurred.
(iii) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved.
28 (i) A milk man adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh 3
milk. Why?
(ii) Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris
and water.
Or
When electricity is passed through a common salt solution, sodium
hydroxide is produced along with the liberation of two gases ‘X’
and T. The gas ‘X’ burns with a pop sound whereas T is used for
disinfecting drinking water.
a. Identify X and Y.
b. Give the chemical equation for the reaction stated above.
c. State the reaction of Y with dry slaked lime.
29 Suggest a method of reduction for the following metals during 1+1+1
their metallurgical processes:
(i) Metal ‘A’ which is one of the last, second or third position in
the reactivity.
(ii) Metal ‘B’ which gives vigorous reaction even with water and
air.
(iii) Metal ‘C’ which is kept in the middle of activity series.
30 Rohan joined the gym and after the first day exercise he felt pain 3
and cramps in muscles. Explain the cause of cramps after
excessive physical exercise.
31 The figure given below represents certain phenomenon pertaining 1+1+1
to the nervous system.

(i) What does the figure represent?


(ii) Name the parts labeled a, b, c, d and e.
(iii) Give the function of parts labeled a, b, d.
32 In a monohybrid cross of tall Pea plants denoted by TT and short 3
pea plants denoted by tt, Rahul obtained only tall plants (denoted
210

by Tt) in F1 generation. However, in F2 generation she obtained


both tall and short plants. Using the above information, explain the
law of dominance.
33 What is overloading? State the causes of overloading. 3
Section-D Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.
34 (i) What is a homologous series? Explain with an example. 2+3
(ii) What will be the formula and electron dot structure for
cyclopentane?

Or

(i) Compound x is reacting with y and give compound z which is


sweet in smell. Identify the x, y and z and name the reaction.

(ii) Identify the mechanism showing in the following diagram and


explain the steps.

35 Give a reason to explain why 1+2+2


a. Adrenaline helps in dealing emergency situations?
b. A man becomes unconscious due to head injury. A pin is
pricked on his foot, he withdraws his foot. Why? Draw diagram.
Or

36 AB and CD, two spherical mirrors, from parts of a hollow 2+1+2


spherical ball with its centre at O as shown in the diagram. If arc
AB = 12 arc CD, find out the ratio of their focal lengths? State
which of the two mirrors will always form virtual image of an
object placed in front of it and why?

Or
Draw ray diagrams for the following cases when a ray of light:
(i) passing through center of curvature of a concave mirror is
incident on it.
(ii) Parallel to principal axis is incident on convex mirror.
211

(iii) is passing through focus of a concave mirror incident on it.


SECTION - E Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 2 to 3
short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 ❖ Silver articles become black after some time when exposed 2+1+1
to air. This is because it reacts with sulphur in the air to
form a coating of silver sulphide.
❖ Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and
slowly loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat.
This green substance is copper carbonate.
❖ Iron when exposed to moist air for a long time acquires a
coating of a brown flaky substance called rust. Let us find
out the conditions under which iron rusts.
1. Select the correct balanced chemical reaction occurs during the
rusting of iron.
(a). 2Fe(s) + 2O2(g) + 2H2O(l) Fe2O3. X 3H2O
(b). 2Fe(s) + 2O2(g) + 2H2O(l) 2Fe2O3. X 2H2O
(c). Fe(s) + 3O2(g) + 2H2O(l) Fe2O3. X 3H2O
(d). 2Fe(s) + 2O2(g) + 3H2O(l) 2Fe2O3. X 2H2O

2. Select the method which is not useful to prevent the corrosion of


metals.
(i) Galvanization
(ii) Painting & oiling
(iii) Anodizing or making alloys

(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) i and iii both
(d) i, ii, and iii all

3. Amalgam is belongs to metal-


(a) Gold
(b) Platinum
(c) Mercury
(d) Zinc

Or

Galvanization belongs to metal


(a) Gold
(b) Platinum
(c) Mercury
(d) Zinc
38 The following diagram explains the CO2 gas required for 1+1+2
photosynthesis in plant. Answer the following questions
212

B
A

1. Which leaf will show black purple colour when reacting with
iodine solution.
(a) Leaf A
(b) Leaf B
(c) Leaf A and B both
(d) None of Leaf A and B

2. Presence of KOH results into the absence of which gas


(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) NO2
(d) SO2

3. Leaf B turned pale yellow soon after the experiment start, Give
the reason.
Or
Only flask A shows small water droplets inside. Give the reason.
39 Observe the given line diagram of electric circuit and answer the 1+1+2
following questions.

1. What is the total resistance of R1 and R2 only.


(a) 10/3Ω
(b) 3/10Ω
(a) 15Ω
(b) 2Ω
213

2. What will be total resistance if all the resistance readjust to joint


in a series form.
(a) 15Ω
(b) 12Ω
(a) 17Ω
(b) 25Ω

3. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit if resistance R1 and


R3 exchanged to each other.
Or
Calculate the total resistance of the circuit if resistance R2 and R3
exchanged to each other.

***************
214

MARKING SCHEME OF
PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - 1
CLASS- X
SUBJECT – SCIENCE (086)
Max. Marks: 80 Time
Allowed: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
8. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
9. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided
in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these
questions.
10. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark
each.
11. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each.
Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
12. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03
marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 50
to 80 words.
13. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05
marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to
120 words.
14. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of
04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section-A Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given
for each of the questions 1 - 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.
Q. Questions Mark
Nos s
.
1 (d) Displacement 1
2 (c) C and D 1
3 (d) Iodine 1
4 (b) CO2 and water 1
5 (c) by breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them 1
6 (d) all of the above 1
7 (a) Cotyledon, plumule and radicle 1
8 (d) 4 tall plants and 1 medium-height plant 1
9 (a) Girls only 1
10 (d) Convex lens 1
11 (b) 1.21 1
12 (a) 25m 1
13 (a) Resistance 1
14 b) from south to north 1
15 (c) Producers 1
16 (c) Alveoli of lungs 1
215

Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and


Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option
given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
17 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 1
18 d) A is false but R is true. 1
19 d) A is false but R is true. 1
20 b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A. 1
Section-B Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions
21 Al is reducing agent. 2
22 2

23 Wavelength of red colour is more and so, it is least scattered. It can be 2


easily seen through a large distance.
Or
The sky appears dark to the astronaut as scattering does not take place
at very high altitude due to the absence of atmosphere.
24 A=North Pole and B=South Pole 2
25 According to ten percent law, 10% of the energy of producer will be 2
available to primary consumer, and 10% of this energy will be
available to secondary consumer and so on.

Hence, 100 J of energy will be available to the secondary consumer to


transfer it to tertiary consumer.

Or
Pesticides are the chemicals used to kill plant and animal pests. They
are non-biodegradable and toxicants. For example, excessive use of
DDT resulted in reduced population of fish-eating birds. DDT
accumulated in such birds through the food chain. It interfered with
the egg shell formation. The shell being thin broke due to weight of
the bird during incubation. Hence, their population declined.
26 Rating of bulb, 2
V = 5 0. Volt.
I = 100 mA
I 100x10-3
I = 0.1 A
V = IR,
216

R=V/I
5.0/0.1= 50Ω
Section-C Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions
27 (i) When barium hydroxide is added into ammonium chloride, the 1+1+
bottom of test tube is found to be cooler. 1
(ii) It is an endothermic reaction.
(iii) Ba(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → BaCl2 + 2NH4OH
28 (i) It is done to prevent the formation of lactic acid which spoils the 3
milk.
(ii) CaSO4. ½H2O +1½ H2O → CaSO4.2H2O
(Plaster of Paris: CaSO4. ½H2O and Gypsum: CaSO4.2H2O)
Or

29 (i) ‘A’ can be obtained by chemical reduction using carbon or carbon 1+1+
monoxide as reducing agent. 1
(ii) ‘B’ can be obtained by electrolytic reduction.
(iii) ‘C’ can be reduced by reducing agent like ‘Al’.
30 During excessive physical exercise, aerobic respiration produces 3
energy in our muscles. Anaerobic respiration provides muscles with
some extra energy required under excessive physical activity. Glucose
is broken down into lactic acid due to anaerobic respiration. The
accumulation of lactic acid causes muscle cramps.
31 (i) The figure represents reflex arc. 1+1+
(ii) a – Receptor, 1
b – Sensory neuron,
c – Spinal cord,
d – Motor neuron and
e – Effector.
(iii) Receptor is a group of cells or organ that receives the stimuli and
converts it to an impulse. Sensory neuron carries the impulses from
receptors to the central nervous system i.e., brain or spinal cord.
Motor neuron carries impulses from central nervous system to the
effector organs.
32 Appearance of trait of shortness in F2 generation shows that the trait 3
was present in F1 generation but was not expressed while the trait of
tallness expressed itself. The trait which expresses itself in the
presence of its contrasting form is called dominant. The other trait
which is unable to express its effect in the presence of its contrasting
trait is known as recessive.
33 If more electrical appliances of high-power rating like electric iron 3
box, electric cooker, electric heater, air conditioner etc., are switched
on at the same time, they draw an extremely large current from the
circuit is called overloading.
Section-D Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.
34 (i) A sequence of compounds with the same functional group 2+3
substitutes for hydrogen in a carbon chain is called homologous
series. The difference between the formulae of any two successive
members is −CH2 and the difference between the molecular formula
is14 u.
(ii) Formula of cyclopentane is C5H10.
217

The electron dot structure cyclopentane is:

Or
(i) x= Alcohol, y=Ethanoic acid, z=Ester and Reaction= Esterification
(ii) The reaction is soapification. Soaps are sodium or potassium salt
of fatty acids. Soap molecules have two ends. One end is hydrophilic
and another end is hydrophobic. Two molecular ends behave
differently. This ionic end is hydrophilic and is oriented towards the
water. The other hydrocarbon end is hydrophobic and is oriented
towards dirt which is oily in nature. A micelle formation around the
oily dirt takes place. The cleaning of clothes etc takes place when
flushed with excess water; the micelle containing the dirt is removed.
35 or 5
36 Focal length of a mirror is given by 2+1+
Focal length = radius of curvature/2 2
Since both the mirrors have same radius of curvature, therefore focal
length of the two mirrors will be same, i.e. F1/F2=1
Since virtual image is always formed by convex mirror. The mirror
AB will always form virtual image.
Or
(i) Ray of light passing through center of curvature of concave mirror,
after reflection

(ii) Ray of light parallel to the principal axis is incident on a convex


mirror after reflection appear to diverge from the principal focus of a
convex mirror.

SECTION - E Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 2 to 3


218

short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.


37 1. (a). 2Fe(s) + 2O2(g) + 2H2O(l) Fe2O3. X 3H2O 2+1+
2. (d) i, ii, and iii all 1
3. (c) Mercury
38 1. (a) Leaf A 1+1+
2. (a) CO2 2
3. In absence of Co2 the leaf cannot perform photosynthesis and the
chlorophyll start to decay and the leaf turned into pale yellow.
Or
The flask A shows small water drops is actual result of transpiration
from the stomata.
39 1. (a) 10/3Ω 1+1+
2. (b) 25Ω 2
3.
Calculate the resistance after put the value R1=10Ω and R3=5Ω
The calculated answer is 10Ω

Or

Calculate the resistance after put the value R2=10Ω and R3=10Ω
The calculated answer is 25/3Ω

***************
219

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN


PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - 2
CLASS- X
SUBJECT – SCIENCE (086)
Max. Marks: 80 Time
Allowed: 3hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided
in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these
questions.
3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark
each.
4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each.
Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03
marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 50
to 80 words.
6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05
marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to
120 words.
7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of
04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section-A Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options
given for each of the questions 1 - 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect
response.
Q. Questions Marks
No
.
1 Which of the following is not a chemical reaction? 1
(a) Souring of milk (c) Rusting of iron
(b) Dissolution of sugar in water (d) Digestion of food
2 In terms of acidic strength, which one of the following is in the 1
correct increasing order?
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
3 Which property of metals is used for making bells and strings of 1
musical instruments like Sitar and Violin?
(a) Sonorousness
(b) Malleability
(c) Ductility
(d) Conductivity
4 The number of isomers of pentane is 1
220

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
5 Name the substances whose build up in the muscles during vigorous 1
physical exercise may cause cramps?
(a) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
(b) Lactic acid + Energy
(c) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
(d) Pyruvate
6 The longest fiber on the cell body of a neuron is called 1
(a) sheath
(b) cytoplasm
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
7 Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from 1
(a) stem, flowers and fruits
(b) stem, leaves and flowers
(c) stem, roots and flowers
(d) stem, roots and leaves
8 A section of DNA providing information for one protein is called— 1
(a) Nucleus
(b) Chromosomes
(c) Trait
(d) Gene
9 The nature of image formed by a convex mirror when the object 1
distance from the mirror is less than the distance between pole and
focal point (F) of the mirror would be
(a) real, inverted and diminished in size
(b) real, inverted and enlarged in size
(c) virtual, upright and diminished in size
(d) virtual, upright and enlarged in size
10 If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror 1
producing erect image 1.5 times the size of face, focal length of the
mirror would be
(a) 75 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 60 cm
11 A couple has two son and three daughters. What is the possibility of 1
their having a girl as sixth child?
(a) 10 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 90 %
(d) 100 %
12 What is the order of the waste management hierarchy, from most to 1
least favored?
a) Prevention-Recycle-Reuse-Disposal
b) Prevention-Reuse-Disposal-Recycle
c) Prevention-Disposal-Reuse-Recycle
221

d) Prevention-Reuse-Recycle-Disposal
13 A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. 1
A narrow beam of white light is incident on the prism as shown in
figure. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third
colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky?

14 Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and 1
then in parallel with a battery. The ratio of heat produced in the two
cases is:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
15 An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as 1
shown in the

The direction of force acting on the electron beam will be:


(a) to the left
(b) to the right
(c) into the page
(d) out of the page
16 What amount of energy will be received by omnivorous if 1
herbivorous is receiving 200KJ from the producer.
(a) 2KJ
(b) 20KJ
(c) 50KJ
(d) 100KJ
Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option
given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
17 Assertion (A): Zinc carbonate is heated strongly in presence of air 1
to form zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.
Reason (R): Calcination is the process in which a carbonate ore is
heated strongly in the absence of air to convert into metal oxide.
18 Assertion (A): Pyruvate is a six-carbon molecule 1
222

Reason (R): It is prepared in the cytoplasm as the first step to


cellular respiration.
19 Assertion: Accumulation of variation in a species increases the 1
chances of its survival in changing environment.
Reason: Accumulation of heat resistance in some bacteria ensure
their survival even when temperature in
environment rises too much.
20 Assertion: The crown fires are most destructive as they burn the 1
tree top.
Reason: Due to crown fire the temperature of that area may rise up
to 700 degree Celsius.
Section-B Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions
21 Identify the substance oxidized and reduced in the reaction. 2
CuO(s)+Zn(s)→ZnO(s)+Cu(s)

22 A spherical mirror’s radius of curvature is 20 cm. Calculate the 2


focal length.
23 For dispersion of light through a prism which colour has a 2
maximum deviation?
Or
What is the least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye?
24 A charge of 6 C is moved between two points P and Q 2
having, potential 10 V and 5 V respectively. Find the amount of
work done.
25 Rahul has only one fuse of 5A and he used it in wire carrying 15 A 2
current, is it as right decision, give reason?
Or
If the frequency of A.C. is 50 Hz. Then how many times it is
changing its direction in 1 second
26 Using Kulhads as disposable cups to serve tea in trains, proved to be 2
a bad idea. Why?
Section-C Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions
27 A class 10 student took a pale green substance A in a test tube. And 3
heated it over the flame of a burner. A brown coloured residue B
was formed along with evolution of two gases with burning smell of
sulphur. Identify A & B. Write the chemical reaction involved.
28 Dry ammonia has no action on litmus paper but a solution of 3
ammonia in water turns red litmus paper blue. Why is it so?
Or
Bleaching powder forms a milky solution in water. Explain.
29 What are amphoteric oxides? Give examples? 3
223

30 Complete the following flow chart as per the given instructions: 3

31 Name the parts labelled A, B and C in the diagram given below. 1+1+1
Write one function of each part.

32 A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing 2+1


violet flowers with pea plants bearing white flowers. What will be
the result of the F1 progeny?
33 (i) Two circular coils P and Q are kept close to each other, of which 2+1
coil P carries a current. If coil P is moved towards Q, will some
current be induced in coil Q? Give reason for your answer and name
the phenomenon involved.
(ii) What happens if coil P is moved away from Q?
(iii) State any two methods of inducing current in a coil.
Section-D Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.
34 An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same 2+3=5
molecular formula, say C3H6O.
(i) Write their name and draw the structures.
(ii) State the relation between the two in the language of science.

Or

What is meant by isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of 1+2+2=


butane (C4H10). Name three alkanes with molecular formula which 5
cannot shows isomers.
35 (i) Mention the names of flower parts which serve the same function 3+1+1=
as the following do in the animals. 5
(a) Testis (b) Sperm (c) Ovary
(ii) State the importance of Sepal/Calyx in the flower.
(iii) Which function is not interrupted if we cut the stigma of a
flower?
224

Or

(i) Write any three functions of testes in the human male 3+2=5
reproductive system?
(ii) Why are these located outside the abdominal cavity? Who is
responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at
the time of puberty?
36 (i) An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave 2+1+2
mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what distance from the mirror
should a screen be placed, so that a sharp focused image can be
obtained? Find the size and the nature of the image?
(ii) Radha needs a erect image from concave mirror, Where do she
needs to place the objects, Draw the Ray diagram of possible
situation?

Or
A convex lens has a focal length of 10cm. At what distance from the
lens should the object be placed so that it forms a real and inverted
image 20cm away from the lens?
What would be the size of the image formed if the object is 2cm
high? With the help of a ray, the diagram shows the formation of the
image by the lens in this case?
SECTION - E Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 2
to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 Electrolytic refining is a technique that is used for extraction and 1+1+1+
purification of metals that are obtained by refining methods. The 1
impure metal is used as an anode and the pure metal is used as a
cathode. Soluble salt from the same metal is used as an electrolyte.
When electric current is passed, pure metal is obtained at cathode
and impure under anode as anode mud.

1.Which one of the following figures describes electrolytic refining:

2.In electrolytic refining, the cathode is made up of


a) Pure metal
b) Impure metal
c) Alloy
d) Metallic salt

3. Which of the following represent the correct order of decreasing


reactivity? a) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
b) Mg > Zn > Al > Fe
c) Al > Zn > Fe > Mg
225

d) Mg > Fe > Zn > Al

4. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the


following metals are refined by electrolytic refining?
(a) Au (b) Cu (c) Na (d) K
A. (A) & (B)
B. (A) & (C)
C. (B) & (C)
D. (C) & (D)
38 The food that we eat gets broken down into simpler compounds for 1+1+1+
absorption. There are various enzymes and hormones secreted by 1
various glands and cells of the digestive system, which facilitate the
digestion of food. The undigested food is expelled out of the body
through the anus. The main organs of the digestive system include
the mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestine,
rectum and anus. There are various types of digestive glands
present, e.g. salivary glands, pancreas, liver, etc.

1. The enzymes present in pancreatic juice are


(a) Amylase, Trypsinogen, Peptidase, Rennin
(b) Trypsinogen, Lipase, Amylase, Pro-carboxypeptidase
(c) Peptidase, Pepsin, Amylase, Rennin
(d) Maltase, Amylase, Trypsinogen, Pepsin

2. Which gland produces bicarbonate ions and Trypsin:


(a) Stomach and liver
(b) Liver and Pancreas
(c) Intestine and Liver
(d) Salivary gland and Intestine

3. Infants’ gastric juice contains


(a) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
(b) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
(c) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
(d) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin

4. The absorption of fructose by intestinal mucosa is


(a) co-transport mechanism
(b) simple diffusion
(c) facilitated transport
(d) active transport
39 The electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance is given 1+1+1+
by the product of its power rating and the time for which it is used. 1
The given figure is showing joule.
226

Actually, Joule represents a very small quantity of energy and


therefore it is inconvenient to use where a large quantity of energy is
involved.

1. The SI unit of electric energy per unit time is


(a) joule
(b) joule-second
(c) watt
(d) watt-second

2. Kilowatt-hour is equal to
(a) 3.6 ×104 J
(b) 3.6 ×106 J
(c) 36 ×106 J
(d) 36 ×104 J

3. The energy dissipated by the heater is E. When the time of


operating the heater is doubled, the energy dissipated is
(a) doubled
(b) half
(c) remains same
(d) four times

4. The power of a lamp is 60 W. The energy consumed in 1 minute


is
(a) 360 J
(b) 36 J
(c) 3600 J
(d) 3.6 J

***************
227

MARKING SCHEME OF
PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - 2
CLASS- X
SUBJECT – SCIENCE (086)
Max. Marks: 80 Time
Allowed: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided
in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these
questions.
3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark
each.
4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each.
Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03
marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 50
to 80 words.
6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05
marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to
120 words.
7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of
04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section-A Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given
for each of the questions 1 - 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.
Q. Questions Marks
Nos.
1 (b) Dissolution of sugar in water 1
2 (a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid 1
3 (a) Sonorousness 1
4 (b) 3 1
5 (b) Lactic acid + Energy 1
6 (c) axon 1
7 (d) stem, roots and leaves 1
8 (d) Gene 1
9 (c) virtual, upright and diminished in size 1
10 (a) 75 cm 1
11 (b) 50 % 1
12 d) Prevention-Reuse-Recycle-Disposal 1
13 (b) 1

14 (d) 1 : 4 1
15 (d) out of the page 1
228

16 (a) 2KJ 1
Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion
(A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of
A.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation
of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
17 d) A is false but R is true. 1
18 d) A is false but R is true. 1
19 b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation 1
of A.
20 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of 1
A.
Section-B Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions
21 The substance oxidized is Zinc and the substance reduced is 2
copper oxide.
22 Curvature Center is C 2
f = C/2 = 20/2 = 10 cm.
23 Violet has the maximum deviation for dispersion of light 2
through a prism.

Or

The least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye is


25 cm.
24 The amount of work done, 2
W=q(V2−V1)
= 6(10−5)
= 30 joules
25 Yes, because fuse always should be equal or low than the 2
flowing current as they'd both be useless at managing the
quantity of current flowing.

Or

100 Times will be changing its direction in a second.


26 Yes, it is a bad idea because making Kulhads on large scales 2
leads to the loss of top soil.
Section-C Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions
27 In the given situation, A=FeSO4, B=Fe2O3. 3
The chemical reaction involved is:
2FeSO4(s)→Fe2O3(s)+SO2(g)+SO3(g)
28 Dry ammonia has no action on the litmus paper because it 3
contains no hydroxyl ions in the absence of water. On
dissolving in water, it forms ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH),
which is basic in nature because it dissociates to give NH4+
229

and OH- ions. Thus, red litmus paper turns blue.

NH3(g)+H2O→NH4OH (aq)
NH4OH (aq)→NH4+(aq)+OH-(aq)

Or

Bleaching powder reacts with water to form Ca(OH)2, which


has a milky appearance.
The reaction is given by, CaOCl2 +H2O→Ca(OH)2+2HCl
29 Amphoteric oxides are oxides that behave as both acidic and 3
basic oxides. They can neutralize both acids and bases. They
undergo neutralization reaction to form water and salt when
reacting with acid and form complex salts and water when
reacting with base.
Examples – Aluminium oxide (Al2O3) and Zinc Oxide (ZnO)
30 a) cardiac gastric glands 3
b) tree gastric gland
c) pyloric gland
d) secrete mucus
e) secrete the digestive substance
f) secrete mucus
31 A-Pons Function: Relay centre, pneumotaxic area of 1+1+1
respiratory centre.
B-Medulla Function: Reflex centre, cardiac centre,
respiratory centre.
C-Cerebellum Function: Maintains equilibrium and
coordinates muscular activities
32 The Mendelian experiment indicates that white colour (ww) is 2+1
a recessive trait and violet colour (VV) is a dominant trait.
Consequently, the F1 progeny’s blossom will be violet in
colour (Vw).
33 (i) When coil P is moved towards Q, current will be induced 2+1
in coil Question This is because on moving P the magnetic
field associated with Q increases and so a current is induced.
The phenoemenon is electromagnetic induction.
(ii) If P is moved away from Q, the field associated with Q
will decrease and a current will be induced but in the opposite
direction.
(iii) Current can be induced in a coil by (a) moving a magnet
towards or away from the coil, (b) moving a coil towards or
away from a magnet (c) rotating a coil witin a magnetic field.
Section-D Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.
34 (i) The aldehyde and ketone represented by the 2+3=5
Molecular formula, C3H6O.
230

(ii) In the language of science, they are called as isomers


because both have same molecular formula but different 1+2+2=5
structural formulae (having different functional groups.)

Or
Isomers are those molecules which have the same molecular
formula but different structural formula i.e., shows different
properties.

The structures of possible isomers of butane (C4H10) are:

The first three members of alkane series are :


(i) CH4 (methane)
(ii) C2H6 (ethane)
(iii) C3H8 (propane)
35 (i) (a) Testis – anther, (b) Sperms – pollen grains, (c) Ovary – 3+1+1=5
Ovary, (elaborate the function of mentioned part in the
flower.)
(ii) Sepal/Calyx protects the flower in bud stage.
(iii) Pollination and Pollen germination cannot occur if we cut
the stigma of flower.

Or
(i) Functions of testes are: 3+2=5
1. To make male sex cells (or male gametes) called sperms.
2. To make the male sex hormone called testosterone.
3. The testes of a man lie in a small muscular pouch called
scrotum outside the abdominal cavity of the body. This is
because the sperm formation requires a lower temperature
than the normal body temperature.

(ii) Being outside the abdominal cavity, the temperature of


scrotum is about 3°C lower than the temperature inside the
body and thus the testes are provided an optimal temperature
for the formation of sperms. The male sex hormone
testosterone is responsible for bringing about changes in
231

appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.


36 (i) 3+2=5
u = – 27 cm, f = – 18 cm. ho= 7.0 cm
1/v = 1/f- 1/u
1/v = -1/18 + 1/27 = -1/54
V = – 54 cm.
Screen must be placed at a distance of 54 cm from the mirror
in front of it.
hi/h0= v/u
hi/h0= v/u
hi/7 = +54/-27
hi = -2 x 7 = -14 cm.
Thus, the image is of 14 cm length and is inverted image.
(ii) Radha needs to place object between F (focus) and O
(Center of curvature).

Or

Given, the focal length of the convex lens,


f=+10cm
Also, given the image formed is real and inverted with the
image distance as 20cm.
v=+20cm

From the lens formula, we have:


1f=1/v−1/u
1/10=1/20−1/u
1/u=1/20−1/10
1/u= −1/20
u=−20cm

∴The object is placed at a distance of 20cm. Magnification is


given as,
m= −v/u
m= −20/(−20)
m= +1
Also, magnification is given by, m=Height of the image
Height of the object.
∴m=Height of the image/2
1=Height of the image/2
Height of the image=2cm
232

Thus, the image is of the same size as that of the object and it
is real and inverted.
The ray diagram representing the formation of the image by
the lens in this case is:

It is observed that the image is formed at 2F2 with the object


placed at 2F1.

SECTION - E Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 2 to 3


short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 1. (c) 1+1+1+1

2. a) Pure metal
3. a) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
4. D. (C) & (D)

38 1. (b) Trypsinogen, Lipase, Amylase, Pro-carboxypeptidase 1+1+1+1


2. (b) Liver and Pancreas
3. (d) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
4. (c) facilitated transport
39 1. (a) joule 1+1+1+1
2. (b) 3.6 ×106 J
3. (a) doubled
4. (c) 3600 J
Total power, P=60W
Total Time=1min=60s
As, Power=Energy / Time

Energy=Power×Time=60×60=3600Ws=3600 J

***************

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