12 All Pcmb Model Paper 2024-25 Final

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2025
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Date : 20-11-2024 STD 12 Science Physics Total Marks : 70
Board Model Paper
* Choose The Right Answer From The Given Options.[1 Marks Each] [12]
1. A uniform electric field pointing in positive X-direction exists in a region. Let A be

the origin, B be the point on the X-axis at x = +1 cm and C be the point on the Y-
axis at y 1 cm. Then the potential at points A, B and C satisfy
(A) V A
< VB (B) V A
> VB (C) V A
< VC (D) V A
> VC
2. A conducting wire connects two charged conducting spheres such that they
attain equilibrium with respect to each other. The distance of separation
between the two spheres is very large as compared to either of their radii.
The ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the surfaces of the two
spheres is
(A) r1
r2
(B) r2
r1 (C)
2
r
2
(D)
r
2
1
2 2
r r
1 2
3. A long straight wire of circular cross section of radius'a carries a steady current
1. The current is uniformly distributed across its cross section. The ratio of
magnitudes of the magnetic field at a point a/2 above the surface of wire to that
of a point a 2 below its surface is
(A) 4:1 (B) 1:1 (C) 4:3 (D) 3:4
4. The diffraction effect can be observed in

(A) sound waves only (B) light waves only
(C) ultrasonic waves only (D) sound waves as well as light waves
5. A capacitor consists of two parallel plates, with an area of cross-section of
0.001m
2
, separated by a distance of 0.0001 m. If the voltage across the plates
varies at the rate of 8
10 V /s , then the value of displacement current through the
capacitor is
(A) 8.85 × 10 −3
A (B) 8.85 × 10 −4
A (C) 7.85 × 10 −3
A (D) 9.85 × 10 −3
A
6. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and
inductance is 10 V each. If the capacitance is short circuited the voltage across
the inductance will be
(A) 10 V (B) 10√2V
–
(C) 10/√2V
–
(D) 20 V
7. Correct match of column I with column II is
Page 1
C-1 (waves) C-II (Production)
(1) Infra-red P. Rapid vibration of electrons in aerials
Q. Electrons in atoms emit light when they
(2) Radio
move from higher to lower energy level.
(3) Light R. Klystron valve
(4) Microwave S. Vibration of atoms and molecules
(A) 1-P, 2-R, 3-S, 4-Q (B) 1-S, 2-P, 3-O, 4-R (C) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R (D) 1-S. 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q
8. The distance of closest approach of an alpha particle is d when it moves with a

speed V towards a nucleus.
Another alpha particle is projected with higher energy such that the new
distance of the closest approach is d/2. What is the speed of projection of the
alpha particle in this case?
(A) V /2 –
(B) √2V (C) 2 V (D) 4 V
9. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and

refractive index 1.5. The distance of virtual image from the surface of the sphere
is
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 12 cm
10. Colours observed on a CD (Compact Disk) is due to
(A) Reflection (B) Diffraction (C) Dispersion (D) Absorption
11. The number of electrons made available for conduction by dopant atoms
depends strongly upon
(A) doping level (B) increase in ambient temperature
(C) energy gap (D) options (a) and (b) both
12. If copper wire is stretched to make its radius decrease by 0.1%, then the
percentage change in its resistance is approximately
(A) -0.4% (B) +0.8% (C) +0.4% (D) +0.2%
* Assertion (A) & Reason (B) MCQ [4]
13. Assertion (A): On increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by

increasing the number of turns may not necessarily increase its voltage
sensitivity.
Reason(R): The resistance of the coil of the galvanometer increases on
increasing the number of turns.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Page 2
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
14. Assertion (A): In a hydrogen atom there is only one electron but its emission
spectrum shows many lines.
Reason(R): In a given sample of hydrogen there are many atoms each
containing one electron; hence many electrons in different atoms may be in
different orbits so many transitions from higher to lower orbits are possible.
Assertion
Assertion.
15. Assertion (A): Nuclei having mass number about 60 are least stable.
Reason(R): When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus
then the binding energy per nucleon will decrease.
Assertion
Assertion.
16. Assertion (A): de Broglie's wavelength of a freely falling body keeps decreasing
with time.
Reason(R): The momentum of the freely falling body increases with time.
Assertion
Assertion.
* Given Section consists of questions of 2 marks each. [10]
17. A platinum surface having work function 5.63 eV is illuminated by a

monochromatic source of 1.6 × 10 Hz Hz. What will be the minimum wavelength
15
associated with the ejected electron.
Page 3
18. In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ,
the intensities of two sources is I. What is the intensity of light at a point where
path difference between wave front is λ/4 ?
OR
* A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 4000 Å and 6000 Å, is used to
obtain interference fringes in a Young’s double-slit experiment. What is the least
distance from the central maximum where the dark fringe is obtained?
19. P and Q are two identical charged particles each of mass 4 × 10
−26
kg and charge
4.8 × 10
−19
, each moving with the same speed of 2.4 × 10 m/s as shown in the
C
5
figure. The two particles are equidistant (0.5 m) from the vertical Y -axis. At
some instant, a magnetic field B is switched on so that the two particles
undergo head-on collision.
Find –
(I) the direction of the magnetic field and
(II) the magnitude of the magnetic field applied in the region.
20. Binding energy per nucleon vs mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the
figure. W, X, Y and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. Identify which of the
following nuclei is most likely to undergo
(i) Nuclear Fission
(ii) Nuclear Fusion.
Justify your answer.
Page 4
21. What should be the radius ‘r’ of nearest possible orbits of satellite of mass ‘m’
revolving around the planet of mass ‘M’ as per Bohr Postulates in terms of m,
M, G, h where G is Gravitational constant and h is plank’s constant.
22. (I) Identify the circuit elements X and Y as shown in the given block diagram and
draw the output waveforms of X and Y.
(II) If the centre tapping is shifted towards Diode D1 as shown in the diagram,
draw the output waveform of the given circuit.
23. Find the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor of plate area
A and plate separation d when (I) a dielectric slab of thickness t and (II) a
metallic slab of thickness t, where (t < d) are introduced one by one between the
plates of the capacitor. In which case would the capacitance be more and why?
24. (I) Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image by a Cassegrain telescope.
(II) Why these types of telescopes are preferred over refracting type telescopes.
25. (I) Draw the energy band diagram for P-type semiconductor at (i) T=0K and (ii)
room temperature.
(II) In the given diagram considering an ideal diode, in which condition will the
bulb glow
(a) when the switch is open
(b) when the switch is closed
Justify your answer.
Page 5
26. A boy is holding a smooth, hollow and non-conducting pipe vertically with
charged spherical ball of mass 10 g carrying a charge of +10 mC inside it which
is free to move along the axis of the pipe. The boy is moving the pipe from East
to West direction in the presence of magnetic field of 2T. With what minimum
velocity, should the boy move the pipe such that the ball does not move along
the axis. Also determine the direction of the magnetic field.
27. A light ray entering a right-angled prism undergoes refraction at the face AC as
shown in Figure
(I) What is the refractive index of the material of the prism in Figure?
(II) (a) If the side AC of the above prism is now surrounded by a liquid of
refractive index 2
√3
as shown in Figure, determine if the light ray continues to
graze along the interface AC or undergoes total internal reflection or undergoes
refraction into the liquid.
(b) Draw the ray diagram to represent the path followed by the incident ray with
the corresponding angle values.
√2
(Given, sin −1
(
√3
) = 54.6
∘
)
28. State Gauss᾿s theorem in electrostatics. Using this theorem, derive an

expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long straight wire of linear
charge density λ.
OR
* (II) (a) Define electric flux and write its SI unit.
(b) Use Gauss᾿s law to obtain the expression for the electric field due to a
uniformly charged infinite plane sheet of charge.
29. Motion of Charge in Magnetic Field

An electron with speed V << c moves in a circle of radius r in a uniform
0 ∘
magnetic field. This electron is able to traverse a circular path as the magnetic
force acting on the electron is perpendicular to both V and B ,as shown in the 0
figure. This force continuously deflects the particle sideways without changing
its speed and the particle will move along a circle perpendicular to the field. The
time required for one revolution of the electron is T . o
(i) If the speed of the electron is now doubled to 2vo. The radius of the circle will
change to
(A) 4r0 (B) 2r0 (C) ro (D) r0 /2
(ii) If v = 2vo, then the time required for one revolution of the electron (To ) will
change to
(A) 4T (B) 2T (C) T (D) T /2
0 O o d
(iii) A charged particles is projected in a magnetic field . The acceleration of the

particle is found to be. Find the value of x.
(A) 4ms
−2
(B) −4ms
−2
(C) −2ms
−2
(D) −2
2ms
(iv) If the given electron has a velocity not perpendicular to B, then trajectory of
the electron is
(A) straight line (B) circular (C) helical (D) zig-zag
OR
If this electron of charge (e) is moving parallel to uniform magnetic field with
constant velocity v, the force acting on the electron is
(A) Bev (B) Be/v (C) B/ev (D) Zero
30. Photoelectric effect
It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metallic surface when
light of a suitable frequency is incident on it. The emitted electrons are called
photoelectrons.
Nearly all metals exhibit this effect with ultraviolet light but alkali metals like
lithium, sodium, potassium, cesium etc. show this effect even with visible light. It
is an instantaneous process i.e. photoelectrons are emitted as soon as the light
is incident on the metal surface. The number of photoelectrons emitted per
second is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation.
The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a given metal
surface is independent of the intensity of the incident light and depends only on
the frequency of the incident light. For a given metal surface there is a certain
minimum value of the frequency of the incident light below which emission of
photoelectrons does not occur.
(I) In a photoelectric experiment plate current is plotted against anode potential.
(A) A and B will have same intensities while B and C will have different
frequencies.
(B) B and C will have different intensities while A and B will have different
frequencies.
(C) A and B will have different intensities while B and C will have equal
frequencies.
(D) B and C will have equal intensities while A and B will have same frequencies
(II) Photoelectrons are emitted when a zinc plate is

(A) Heated (B) hammered (C) Irradiated by ultraviolet light (D) subjected to a
high pressure
(III) The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodium corresponds to

a wavelength of 500 nm. Its work function is about
(A) 4 × 10
−19
J (B) 2 × 10
−19
J (D) 3 × 10
−19
J
(IV) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface

when photons of energy 6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential is
(A) 2 V (B) 4 V (C) 6 V (D) 10 V
OR
The minimum energy required to remove an electron from a substance is called

its
(A) work function (B) kinetic energy (C) stopping potential (D) potential energy
31. (I) (a) Write two limitations of ohm’s law. Plot their I-V characteristics.
(b) A heating element connected across a battery of 100 V having an internal
resistance of 1Ω draws an initial current of 10 A at room temperature 20.0 °C
which settles after a few seconds to a steady value. What is the power
consumed by battery itself after the steady temperature of 320.0 °C is attained?
Temperature coefficient of resistance averaged over the temperature range
involved is 3.70 × 10
−4 ∘
C
−1
.
OR
* (II) (a) Using Kirchhoff'᾿s laws obtain the equation of the balanced state in
Wheatstone bridge.
b) A wire of uniform cross-section and resistance of 12 ohm is bent in the shape of
circle as shown in the figure. A resistance of 10 ohms is connected to diametrically
opposite ends C and D. A battery of emf 8V is connected between A and B.
Determine the current flowing through arm AD.
32. (I) Explain briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the basic principle of the
working of an a.c. generator. In an a.c. generator, coil of N turns and area A is
rotated at an angular velocity ω in a uniform magnetic field B. Derive an
expression for the instantaneous value of the emf induced in coil. What is the
source of energy generation in this device?
OR
* (II) (a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principle of a device which
changes a low ac voltage into a high voltage . Deduce the expression for the ratio
of secondary voltage to the primary voltage in terms of the ratio of the number of
turns of primary and secondary winding. For an ideal transformer, obtain the ratio
of primary and secondary currents in terms of the ratio of the voltages in the
secondary and primary coils.
(b) Write any two sources of the energy losses which occur in actual transformers.
(c) A step-up transformer converts a low input voltage into a high output voltage.
Does it violate law of conservation of energy? Explain.
33. (I) (a) A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of
focal length 15 m. If an eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is angular
magnification of the telescope in normal adjustment?
(b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image
of the moon formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is
6
3.48 × 10 m and the radius of lunar orbit is 8
3.8 × 10 m .
OR
* (II) A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm
and an eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far
from the objective should an object be placed in order to obtain the final image at
(a) the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm) and
(b) infinity? What is the magnifying power of the microscope in each case?
----- -----
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Date JEE Date JEE
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1 Feb Shift 1 1 Feb Shift 2
31 Jan Shift 1 31 Jan Shift 2

Model Paper 1
1. The cations and anions are arranged in alternate form in

(A) ionic crystal (B) semiconductor crystal
(C) covalent crystal (D) metallic crystal
2. Current density of a conductor is

(A) Is always zero
(B) the net charge flowing through the area
(C) measure of the flow of electric charge in amperes per unit area of cross-section
(D) the net charge flowing through the area per unit time
3. The focal length of a concave mirror is f. An object is placed at a distance x from
the focus. The magnification is
(A)
f
(B)
(f +x)
(C)
f
(D) x
f
(f +x) f x
4. A magnet of magnetic moment M is suspended in a uniform magnetic field B.

The maximum value of torque acting on the magnet is
(A) zero (B) MB (C) 2MB (D) 1
2
MB
5. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A has a charge Q. The force on each plate
of the capacitor is
(A) 2q
2
(B) zero (C) q
2
(D) q
2
ϵo A ϵo A 2 ϵo A
6. An electron is travelling along the X-direction. It encounters a magnetic field in

the Y-direction. Its subsequent motion will be:
(A) a circle in the YZ-plane (B) straight line along the X-direction
(C) a circle in the XZ-plane (D) a circle in the XY-plane
7. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one
coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, change of flux linkage with the other coil is
(A) 45 Wb (B) 35 Wb (C) 30 Wb (D) 40 Wb
8. An aeroplane having a wingspan of 35m files due north with the speed of 90
m/s, given B = 4 × 10
−5
T The potential difference between the tips of the wings
will be
Page 1
(A) 0.126 V (B) 1.26 V (C) 0.013 V (D) 12.6 V
9. The shape of the wavefront of the portion of the wavefront of light from a
distant star intercepted by the earth is
(A) plane (B) spherical (C) conical (D) hyperboloid
10. If an electron is accelerated by 8.8 × 10
14
m/s
2
, then electric field required for
acceleration is (given specific charge of the electron = 1.76 × 10
11
Ckg
−1
)Z
(A) 52V cm −1
(B) 50V cm −1
(C) 54V cm −1
(D) 56V cm −1
11. In the circuit given in the figure, an a.c. source of 200 V is connected through a
diode D to a capacitor. The potential difference across the capacitor will be
(A) 283 V (B) 100 V (C) 310 V (D) 200 V

12. ∘
Green light of wavelength 5460 A is incident on an air-glass interface. If the

refractive index of glass is 1⋅ 5, the wavelength of light in glass would be (Given
that the velocity of light in air, c = 3 × 10 8
ms
−1
)
∘ ∘ ∘ ∘
(A) 6,731 A (B) 3,640 A (C) 5,446 A (D) 4,861 A
13. Assertion (A): The photoelectrons produced by a monochromatic light beam

incident on a metal surface, have a spread in their kinetic energies.
Reason (R): The work function of the metal varies as a function of depth from
the surface
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion : For a charged particle moving from point P to point Q, the net work
done by an electrostatic field on the particle is independent of the path
connecting point P to point Q.
Reason : The net work done by a conservative force on an object moving along
a closed loop is zero.
Page 2
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
15. Assertion (A) : Light added to light can produce darkness.
Reason (B) : When two coherent light waves interfere, there is darkness at
position of destructive interference.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(D) A is false but R is trueEmpty
16. Assertion (A) :A step-up transformer cannot be used as a step-down
transformer.
Reason (R): A transformer works only in one direction.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.Empty
(D) A is false but R is true
17. A light beam travelling in the x-direction is described by the electric field:
Ey = 270 sin ω (t −
x
c
) . An electron is constrained to move along the y-direction
with a speed of 2.0 × 10 ms . Find the maximum electric force and maximum
7 −1
magnetic force on the electron.

18. A uniform magnetic field gets modified as shown below, when two specimens X
and Y are placed in it.
i. Identify the two specimens X and Y.

ii. State the reason for the behaviour of the field lines in X and Y.
Page 3
19. Explain the formation of potential barrier and depletion region in a p-n junction
diode. What is effect of applying forward bias on the width of depletion region?
20. o
If the short series limit of the Balmer series for hydrogen is 3646 A calculate the
o
atomic number of the element which gives X-ray wavelengths down to 1.0 A .
Identify the element.
21. a. An electron moving horizontally with a velocity of 4
4 × 10 m/s enters a region
of uniform magnetic field of 10 T acting vertically upward as shown in the
−5
figure. Draw its trajectory and find out the time it takes to
b. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. It is

suspended in mid air by a uniform magnetic field B. What is the magnitude of
the magnetic field?
OR
* What information would you wish to know about the galvanometer before
converting it into an ammeter or voltmeter?
22. Two cells of EMFs 1V , 2V and internal resistance 2Ω and 1Ω respectively are
connected in
i. series,
ii. parallel. What should be the external resistance in the circuit so that the
current through the resistance be the same in the two cases? In which case,
more heat is generated in the cells?
23. i. Differentiate between three segments of a transistor on the basis of their size
and level of doping.
ii. When is a transistor said to be in active state?
iii. Draw a plot of transfer characteristic (V vs. V ) and show which portion of
0 i
the characteristic is used in amplification and why?

iv. Draw the circuit diagram of the base bias transistor amplifier in CE
configuration and briefly explain its working.
Page 4
24. Photoelectrons are emitted from a metal surface when illuminated with UV light
of wavelength 330 nm . The minimum amount of energy required to emit the
electrons from the surface is 3.5 × 10 J . Calculate :
−19
a. the energy of the incident radiation, and

b. the kinetic energy of the photoelectron.
25. a. Differentiate between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
b. Deuterium undergoes fusion as per the reaction:
2 2 3 1
H + H ⟶ He + n + 3.27M eV
1 1 2 0
Find the duration for which an electric bulb of 500 W can be kept glowing by the
fusion of 100 g of deuterium.
26. Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n2, where n is the
principal quantum number of the atom.
27. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, are used to
obtain interference fringes in a Young's double slit experiment.
a. Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central
maximum for wavelength 650 nm.
b. What is the least distance from the central maximum where the bright fringes
due to both the wavelengths coincide?
28. Define mutual inductance between a pair of coils. Derive an expression for the
mutual inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of the same length wound one
over the other.
OR
* The figure below shows planer loops of different shapes moving out of or into a
region of the magnetic field which is directed normal to the plane of the loops
away from the reader. Determine the direction of induced current in each loop
using Lenz's law. Check if you would obtain the same answers by considering the
magnetic force on the charge inside the moving loops.
Page 5
29. Microwave oven: The spectrum of electromagnetic radiation contains a part
known as microwaves. These waves have frequency and energy smaller than
visible light and wavelength larger than it. What is the principle of a microwave
oven and how does it work? Our objective is to cook food or warm it up. All
food items such as fruit, vegetables, meat, cereals, etc., contain water as a
constituent. Now, what does it mean when we say that a certain object has
become warmer? When the temperature of a body rises, the energy of the
random motion of atoms and molecules increases and the molecules travel or
vibrate or rotate with higher energies. The frequency of rotation of water
molecules is about 2.45 gigahertz (GHz). If water receives microwaves of this
frequency, its molecules absorb this radiation, which is equivalent to heating up
water. These molecules share this energy with neighbouring food molecules,
heating up the food. One should use porcelain vessels and non-metal containers
in a microwave oven because of the danger of getting a shock from
accumulated electric charges. Metals may also melt from heating. The porcelain
container remains unaffected and cool, because its large molecules vibrate and
rotate with much smaller frequencies, and thus cannot absorb microwaves.
Hence, they do not get eaten up. Thus, the basic principle of a microwave oven
is to generate microwave radiation of appropriate frequency in the working
space of the oven where we keep food. This way energy is not wasted in heating
up the vessel. In the conventional heating method, the vessel on the burner gets
heated first and then the food inside gets heated because of transfer of energy
from the vessel. In the microwave oven, on the other hand, energy is directly
delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food.
(i) As compared to visible light microwave has frequency and energy

(a) Frequency is less but energy is more
(b) less than visible light
(c) more than visible light
(d) equal to visible light
(ii) When the temperature of a body rises

(a) the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules decreases.
(b) the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules remains same.
(c) the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules increases
(d) the random motion of atoms and molecules becomes streamlined.
(iii) he frequency of rotation of water molecules is about

(a) 2.45 THz
(b) 2.45 kHz
(c) 2.45 MHz
(d) 2.45 GHz
OR
In the microwave oven

(a) Energy is directly delivered to the food grains.
(b) The vessel gets heated first and then the water molecules collect heat from
the body of the vessel
(c) Energy is directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire
food
(d) The vessel gets heated first, and then the food grains inside
(iv) Why should one use porcelain vessels and non-metal containers in a
microwave oven?
(a) Because it will prevent the food items to become hot
(b) Because it will get too much hot
(c) Because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges
(d) Because it may crack due to high frequency
30. The triboelectric series is a list that ranks materials according to their tendency
to gain or lose electrons. The process of electron transfer as a result of two
objects coming into contact with one another and then separating is called
triboelectric charging. During such an interaction, one of the two objects will
always gain electrons (becoming negatively charged) and the other object will
lose electrons (becoming positively charged). The relative position of the two
objects on the triboelectric series will define which object gains electrons and
which object loses electrons.
In triboelectric series, materials are ranked from high to low in terms of the
tendency for the material to lose electron. If an object high up on this list (Glass,
for example) is rubbed with an object low down on the list (Teflon, for example),
the glass will lose electrons to the teflon. The glass will, in this case, become
positively charged and the teflon will become negatively charged. Materials in
the middle of the list (steel and wood, for example) are items those do not have
a strong tendency to give up or accept electrons.
(i) Materials in the upper position have ________ tendency to become positively
charged
(a) no (b) medium (c) high (d) low
(ii) Name two materials which do not have a strong tendency to give up or
accept electrons.
(a) Steel, wood (b) Plastic wrap, Teflon (c) Ebonite, Nylon (d) Nylon, cat fur
(iii) if human hair is rubbed with amber, how those will be charged?
(a) Hair will be negatively charged, Amber will be positively charged.
(b) Both positive
(c) Hair will be positively charged, Amber will be negatively charged.
(d) Both negative
(iv) Triboelectric charging is the process of electron transfer between two
objects
(a) By contact (b) Without contact (c) By anyone of these (d) By none of these
OR
The object which loses electron becomes ________ charged and the object gains
electron becomes ________ charged.
(a) positively, positively
(b) negatively, positively
(c) negatively, negatively
(d) positively, negatively

31. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and
an eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far
from the objective should an object be placed in order to obtain the final image
at
a.the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm), and
b. at infinity?
What is the magnifying power of the microscope in each case?
OR
* When a parallel beam of a monochromatic source of light of wavelength λ is
incident on a single slit of width a, show how the di raction pattern is formed at
ff
the screen by the interference of the wavelets from the slit. Show that, besides the
central maxima θ = 0 , secondary maxima are observed at θ = (n +
1
2
)
λ
a
and the
minima at θ = nλ
a
. Why do secondary maxima get weaker in intensity with
increasing n?
32. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After some time the battery is
disconnected and a dielectric slab with its thickness equal to the plate
separation is inserted between the plates. What change, in any will take place in
i. charge on the plates
ii. electric eld intensity between the plates
fi
iii. the capacitance of the capacitor,
iv. a potential di erence between the plates and
ff
v. the energy stored in the capacitor? Justify your answer in each case. OR
OR
* Derive an expression for the electric potential at a point due to an electric
dipole. Mention the contrasting features of electric potential of a dipole at a point
as compared to that due to a single charge.
33. i. Prove that an ideal capacitor in an ac circuit does not dissipate power.
ii. An inductor of 200 mH, a capacitor of 400μf , and a resistor of 10Ω are
connected in series to ac source of 50 V of variable frequency. Calculate the
a. the angular frequency at which maximum power dissipation occurs in the
circuit and the corresponding value of the e ective current and
ff
b. value of Q-factor in the circuit.
OR
* In the following circuit, calculate:
i. the capacitance of the capacitor, if the power factor of the circuit is unity,
ii. the Q-factor of this circuit. What is the signi cance of the Q-factor in ac circuit?
fi
Given the angular frequency of the ac source to be 100 rad/s. Calculate the
average power dissipated in the circuit.
Model Paper 2
1. C and Si both have the same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in
each. However, C is an insulator whereas Si is an intrinsic semiconductor. This is
because
A. In case of C the valence band is not completely filled at absolute zero
temperature.
B. In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at absolute zero
temperature.
C. The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in
the case of Si they lie in the third.
D. The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas for
Si they lie in the fourth orbit.
(A) Option B (B) Option A (C) Option D (D) Option C
2. According to Joule's law, if potential difference across a conductor of material of
resistivity remains constant, then heat produced in the conductor is directly
proportional to
(A) ρ (B) 1
ρ
(C) ρ−1
(D) ρ
2
3. An astronomical telescope of ten fold angular magnification has a length of 44

cm. The focal length of the objective is
(A) 44cm (B) 440cm (C) 4cm (D) 40cm
4. Time period of oscillation of a magnetic needle is
−−− −−− −−− −−−
(A) T = √
I
MB
(B) T = π√
MB
I
(C) T = 2π√
MB
I
(D) T = 2π√
I
MB
5. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel capacitor
C having a charge Q and area A is:
(A) independent of the distance between the plates
(B) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates
(C) proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates
(D) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
6. A galvanometer of resistance 25Ω galvanometer is given by a 2.5Ω wire. The part
of total current I that flows through the galvanometer is given by
0
Page 1
(A) I
I0
=
2
11
(B) I0
I
=
4
11
(C) I
I0
=
1
11
(D) I
I0
=
3
11
7. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil
according to equation I = I sin Ωt , where
0
I0 = 10A and ω = 100πrads
−1
. The
maximum value of emf in the second coil is
(A) 12π (B) 2π (C) 5π (D) 6π
8. The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is χ at 27 C
∘
. At what temperature
will its susceptibility be
χ
2
?
(A) 54 ∘
C (B) 327 ∘
C (C) 237 ∘
C (D) 1600 ∘
C
9. Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 10

4
A. The image seen through the
slit shall
(A) only be a diffused slit white in colour
(B) a bright slit white at the center diffusing to regions of different colours
(C) a bright slit white at the center diffusing to zero intensities at the edges
(D) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the center
10. Point charges +4q, −q and +4q are kept on the X -axis at points x = 0, x = a and
x = 2 a respectively:
(A) all the charges are in unstable equilibrium

(B) all the charges are in stable equilibrium
(C) none of the charges is in equilibrium
(D) only - q is in stable equilibrium
11. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below.
The current flowing through the resistance R will be 1
(A) 2.5 A (B) 10.0 A (C) 1.43 A (D) 3.13 A

12. Which of the following principle is used in optical fibre?
(A) Total internal reflection (B) Scattering
(C) Interference (D) Diffraction
13. Assertion (A): If a proton and electron are moving with same velocity, then
wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with electron is longer than that
Page 2
associated with proton.
Reason (R): The wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with a moving particle
is inversely proportional to its mass.
14. Assertion: A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. A
dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The
energy which is stored becomes K times.
Reason(R): The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or
unchanged.
for assertion.
explanation for assertion
15. Assertion (A): In Young's double slit experiment the fringes become indistinct if
one of the slits is covered with cellophane paper.
Reason (R): The cellophane paper decreases the wavelength of light.
16. Assertion (A): A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to ac
source. If a soft iron core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb will glow
brighter.
Reason (R): On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance
increases.
17. Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the order of their increasing
wavelength :
a. γ-rays
b. Microwaves
c. X-rays
d. Radio waves
How are infra-red waves produced? What role does infra-red radiation play in
i. maintaining the Earth's warmth and
ii. physical therapy?
Page 3
18. The coercivity of a certain permanent magnet is 4.0 × 10 Am . This magnet is
4 −1
placed inside a solenoid 15 cm long and having 600 turns and a current is
passed in the solenoid to demangnetise it completely. Find the current.
19. Explain the formation of the barrier potential in a p-n junction.
20. Write the shortcomings of Rutherford atomic model. Explain how these were
overcome by the postulates of Bohr's atomic model.
21. A galvanometer has a resistance of 8Ω . It gives a full scale deflection for a
current of 10 mA. It is to be converted into an ammeter of range 5 A. The only
shunt resistance available is of 0.02Ω , which is not suitable for this conversion.
Find the value of resistance R that must be connected in series with the
galvanometer (Fig.) to get ammeter of desired range.
OR
* a. State Ampere's circuital law connecting the line integral of B over a closed
path to the net current crossing the area bounded by the path.
b. Use Ampere's law to derive the formula for the magnetic field due to an
infinitely long straight current carrying wire.
c. Explain carefully why the derivation as in (b) is not valid for magnetic field in a
plane normal to a currentcarrying straight wire of finite length and passing
through the midpoint of the axis.
22. In Figure, ε and ε are respectively 2.0 V and 4.0 V and the resistances r , r and
1 2 1 2
R are respectively 1.0Ω 2.0Ω and 5.0Ω . Calculate the current in the circuit. Also,
calculate:
i. potential difference between the points b and a,
ii. potential difference between a and c.
23. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, how the thickness of depletion layer
in a p-n junction diode changes when it is forward biased. In the following
circuits which one of the two diodes is forward biased and which is reverse
Page 4
biased?
24. The data given below gives the photon energy (in eV) for a number of waves
whose wavelength values (in nm) are also given.
(Without doing any calculation/taking any reading), explain how one can use this
data to draw an appropriate graph to infer)
a. photon energy corresponding to a wavelength of 100 nm.
b. the wavelength value (in nm) corresponding to a photon energy of 1 eV.
c. velocity of light, assuming that the value of Planck's constant is known.
25. Draw a graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon with mass
number of different nuclei. Write any two salient features of the curve. How
does this curve explain the release of energy both in the processes of nuclear
fission and fusion?
26. i. Using Bohr's second postulate of quantisation of orbital angular momentum
show that the circumference of the electron in the nth orbital state in hydrogen
atom is n-times the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it.
ii. The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the
maximum number of spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves
to the ground state?
27. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit, how will the angular width of central
maximum change, if
a. Orange light is used in place of green light,
b. the screen is moved closer to the slit,
c. the slit width is decreased?
Justify your answer in each case.
28. i. Define the term self-inductance and write its S.I. unit.
ii. Obtain the expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial
solenoids S and S wound one over the other, each of length L and radii r and
1 2 1
r2
and n and n number of turns per unit length, when a current I is set up in
1 2
the outer solenoid S2 .
Page 5
OR
* i. Will the earth's magnetic field induce current in an artificial satellite with a
metal surface that is in orbit around the equator? Around the poles?
ii. If so how would these currents affect the motion of the satellite?
29. LASER: Electromagnetic radiation is a natural phenomenon found in almost all

areas of daily life, from radio waves to sunlight to x-rays. Laser radiation - like all
light - is also a form of electromagnetic radiation. Electromagnetic radiation that
has a wavelength between 380 nm and 780 nm is visible to the human eye and is
commonly referred to as light. At wavelengths longer than 780 nm, optical
radiation is termed infrared (IR) and is invisible to the eye. At wavelengths
shorter than 380 nm, optical radiation is termed ultraviolet (UV) and is also
invisible to the eye. The term laser light refers to a much broader range of the
electromagnetic spectrum that just the visible spectrum, anything between 150
nm up to 11000 nm (i.e., from the UV up to the far IR). The term laser is an
acronym which stands for light amplification by stimulated emission of
radiation. Einstein explained the stimulated emission. In an atom, electron may
move to higher energy level by absorbing a photon. When the electron comes
back to the lower energy level it releases the same photon. This is called
spontaneous emission. This may also so happen that the excited electron
absorbs another photon, releases two photons and returns to the lower energy
state. This is known as stimulated emission.
Laser emission is therefore a light emission whose energy is used, in lithotripsy,
for targeting and ablating the tone inside human body organ.
Apart from medical usage, laser is used for optical disk drive, printer, barcode
reader etc.
(i) What is the full form of LASER?
(a) light amplification by simultaneous emission of radiation
(b) light amplified by synchronous emission of radiation
(c) light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation
(d) light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
(ii) The stimulated emission is the process of

(a) absorption of two photon when electron moves from lower to higher energy
level
(b) release of two photons by absorbing one photon when electron comes back
from higher to lower energy level
(c) release of a photon when electron comes back from higher to lower energy
level
(d) absorption of a photon when electron moves from lower to higher energy
level
(iii) What is the range of amplitude of LASER?

(a) 150 nm - 400 nm
(b) 700 nm - 11000 nm
(c) Both 150 nm - 400 nm and 700 nm 11000 nm
(d) 800 nm - 12000 nm
OR
LASER is used in
(a) Ionization
(b) Transmitting Satellite signal
(c) Optical disk drive
(d) Radio communication
(iv) Lithotripsy is
(a) Laboratory application
(b) An industrial application
(c) A medical application
(d) Process control application
30. In 1909, Robert Millikan was the first to find the charge of an electron in his
now-famous oil-drop experiment. In that experiment, tiny oil drops were sprayed
into a uniform electric field between a horizontal pair of oppositely charged
plates. The drops were observed with a magnifying eyepiece, and the electric
field was adjusted so that the upward force on some negatively charged oil
drops was just sufficient to balance the downward force of gravity. That is, when
suspended, upward force qE just equaled Mg. Millikan accurately measured the
charges on many oil drops and found the values to be whole number multiples
of 1.6 × 10
−19
C the charge of the electron. For this, he won the Nobel prize.
(i) If a drop of mass 1.08 × 10

−14
kg remains stationary in an electric field of
5
1.68 × 10 N C
−1
, then the charge of this drop is
(a) 6.40 × 10
−19
C
(b) 4.8 × 10
−19
C
(c) 3.2 × 10
−19
C
(d) 1.6 × 10
−19
C
(ii) Extra electrons on this particular oil drop (given the presently known charge
of the electron) are
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 8
(d) 3
(iii) A negatively charged oil drop is prevented from falling under gravity by
applying a vertical electric field −1
100V m . If the mass of the drop is 1.6 × 10
−3
g ,
the number of electrons carried by the drop is (g = 10 ms
−2
)
(a) 10
9
(b) 10
18
(c) 10
12
(d) 10
15
(iv) The important conclusion given by Millikan's experiment about the charge is
(a) charge has no definite value
(b) charge is quantized
(c) charge is never quantized
(d) charge on oil drop always increases
OR
If in Millikan's oil drop experiment, charges on drops are found to be
8μC, 12μC, 20μC , then quanta charge is
(a) 20μC
(b) 12μC
(c) 8μC
(d) 4μC
31. Determine the 'effective focal length' of the combination of the two lenses
having focal lengths 30 cm and -20cm if they are placed 8.0 cm apart with their
principal axes coincident. Does the answer depend on which side of the
combination a beam of parallel light is incident? Is the notion of effective focal
length of this system useful at all?
OR
* Give the shape of interference fringes observed
a. in a Young's double-slit experiment
b. in the air wedge experiment
c. in the Lloyd's mirror experiment
d. when a small lamp is placed before a thin mica sheet and light waves reflected
from the front and back surfaces of the sheet combine to produce interference
pattern on a screen behind the lamp. (Pohl's experiment)
e. from a thin air film formed by placing a convex lens on top of a flat glass plate
(Newton's arrangement).
32. a. Derive an expression for the energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor of
capacitance C when charged up to voltage V. How is this energy stored in the
capacitor?
b. A capacitor of capacitance 1μF is charged by connecting a battery of
negligible internal resistance and emf 10 V across it. Calculate the amount of
charge supplied by the battery in charging the capacitor fully.
OR
* Derive an expression for equivalent capacitance of three capacitors when
connected
i. in series and
ii. in parallel.
33. An emf ε = 100 sin 314t is applied across a pure capacitor of 637μF . Find
i. the instantaneous current I
ii. instantaneous power P
ii. the frequency of power and
iii. the frequency of power and
iv. the maximum energy stored in the capacitor.
OR
* A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60μF capacitor in series is
connected to a 230V , 50Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
a. Obtain the current amplitude and rms values.
b. Obtain the rms values of potential drops across each element.
c. What is the average power transferred to the inductor?
d. What is the average power transferred to the capacitor?
e. What is the total average power absorbed by the circuit? [‘Average’ implies
‘averaged over one cycle’.]
----- -----
Model Paper 3
1. When a p-n diode is reverse biased, then

(A) the height of the potential barrier is reduced
(B) the depletion region is increased
(C) no current flows
(D) the depletion region is reduced
2. How many coulombs of electricity must pass through acidulated water to
liberate 22.4 litres of hydrogen at N.T.P.?
(A) 193000 C (B) 1.6 × 10−19
C (C) 96500 C (D) 19300 C
3. Which of the following is used in optical fibers?

(A) Scattering (B) Refraction
(C) Diffraction (D) Total internal reflection
4. The arrangement fo two magnetic poles of equal and opposite strengths
separated by a finite distance is called:
(A) Magnetic dipole (B) Magnetic current
(C) Magnetic field (D) Magnetic pole
5. The dielectric constant K of an insulator will be-

(A) 0.4 (B) 4 (C) -4 (D) 0
6. The following figure shows three situations when an electron with velocity v⃗
travels through a uniform magnetic field B. In each case, what is the direction of
⃗
magnetic force on the electron?
(A) -ve z -axis, -ve x -axis and zero

(B) -ve z-axis, + ve x-axis and zero
Page 1
(C) + ve z-axis, -ve x-axis, +ve y-axis
(D) +ve z -axis, +ve y -axis and zero
7. The direction of induced current in the loop abc is:
(A) along abc if I is constan (B) along abc if I increases

(C) along abc if I decreases (D) along acb if I increases
8. The universal property among all substances is
(A) ferromagnetism (B) non-magnetism
(C) diamagnetism (D) paramagnetism
9. Phenomenon of bending of waves around corners of obstacle without a change
in medium is called _________.
(A) diffraction (B) interference (C) reflection (D) refraction
10. The magnitude of the electric field due to a point charge object at a distance of
4.0 m is 9N /C . From the same charged object the electric field of magnitude,
16
N
C
will be at a distance of
(A) 3m (B) 1m (C) 6m (D) 2m
11. The output of the given circuit in Figure.
(A) would be like a half-wave rectifier with negative cycles in output

(B) would be like a half-wave rectifier with positive cycles in output
(C) would be like that of a full-wave rectifier
(D) would be zero at all times
12. An equi-convex crown glass lens has a focal length 20 cm for violet rays. Here
μ = 1.5&μ = 1.47 . Its focal length for red rays is
v r
(A) 24.85 cm (B) 20.82 cm (C) 21.28 cm (D) 22.85 cm
13. Assertion (A): If the frequency of the incident light on a metal surface is
doubled, the kinetic energy of emitted electrons is more than doubled.
Page 2
Reason (R): The metal will provide additional energy to the emitted
photoelectron for light of higher frequency than that for lower frequency.
14. Assertion (A): Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.
Reason (R): Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.
15. Assertion (A): Colours are seen in thin layers of oil on the surface of the water.
Reason (R): White light is composed of several colours.
16. Assertion (A): An electric lamp is connected in series with a long solenoid of
copper with air core and then connected to ac source. If an iron rod is inserted
in solenoid, the lamp will become dim.
Reason (R): If an iron rod is inserted in solenoid, the inductance of solenoid
increases.
for assertion.
17. An e.m. wave is travelling in a medium with a velocity v = vî . The electric field
oscillations, of this e.m. wave, are along the y-axis.
a. Identify the direction in which the magnetic field oscillations are taking place,
of the e.m. wave.
b. How are the magnitudes of the electric field and magnetic fields in the
electromagnetic wave related to each other?
Page 3
18. Two identical bars, one of paramagnetic material and other of diamagnetic
material are kept in a uniform external magnetic field parallel to it. Draw
diagrammatically the modifications in the magnetic field pattern in each case.
19. Describe briefly, with the help of a diagram, the role of the two important
processes involved in the formation of a p-n junction.
20. An α-particle after passing through a potential difference of 2 × 10 V falls on a
6
silver foil. The atomic number of silver is 47 . Calculate (i) the kinetic energy of
the α-particle at the time of falling on the foil (ii) the kinetic energy of the α-
particle at a distance of 5 × 10 m from the nucleus and (iii) the shortest
−14
distance from the nucleus of silver to which the α-particle reaches.

21. The maximum torque acting on a coil of effective area 0.04m is 4 × 10 N m
2 −8
when the current in it is 100 pA . Find the magnetic induction in which it is kept.
OR
* A long straight wire carrying a current of 30 A is placed in an external uniform
magnetic field of 4.0 × 10 T parallel to the current. Find the magnitude of the
−4
resultant magnetic field at a point 2.0 cm away from the wire.
22. In a Wheatstone bridge, P = 1Ω, Q = 2Ω, R = 2Ω, S = 3Ω and R = 4Ω . Find the

g
current through the galvanometer in the unbalanced position of the bridge,

when a battery of 2 V and internal resistance 2Ω is used.
23. Draw the energy band diagrams (at T > 0K) for n-type and p-type
semiconductors. Using diagram, explain why in n-type semiconductor the
conduction band has most electrons from the donor impurities.
24. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 × 10 W /m .
3 2
How many photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the Earth per
second? Assume that the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of
550 nm .
25. The radionuclide C decays according to C → B + e + v : T = 20.3min . The
11 11
6
11
5
+
1/2
maximum energy of the emitted positron is 0.960 MeV . Given the mass values:
m(
11
6
and m ( B) = 11.009305u , calculate Q and compare it with
C) = 11.011434u
11
5
the maximum energy of the positron emitted.

26. The photon emitted during the de-excitation from the first excited level to the
ground state of hydrogen atom is used to irradiate a photocathode of a
photocell, in which stopping potential of 5 V is used. Calculate the work function
of the cathode used.
27. In a Young's double experiment, the slits are 1.5 mm apart. When the slits are
illuminated by a monochromatic light source and the screen is kept 1 m apart
Page 4
from the slits, width of 10 fringes is measured as 3.93 mm.
Calculate the wavelength of light used. What will be the width of 10 fringes
when the distance between the slits and the screen is increased by 0.5 m. The
source of light used remains the same.
28. State Lenz's law. Give one example to illustrate this law. "The Lenz's law is a
consequence of the principle of conservation of energy." Justify this statement.
OR
* A metallic rod of length l and resistance R is rotated with a frequency ν , with
one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular
metallic ring of radius l, about an axis passing through the centre and
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field B
parallel to the axis is present everywhere.
i. Derive the expression for the induced emf and the current in the rod.
ii. Due to the presence of the current in the rod and of the magnetic field, find the
expression for the magnitude and direction of the force acting on this rod.
iii. Hence obtain the expression for the power required to rotate the rod.
29. Maxwell showed that the speed of an electromagnetic wave depends on the
permeability and permittivity of the medium through which it travels. The speed
of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by C =
1
√μ0 ε0
The fact led
Maxwell to predict that light is an electromagnetic wave. The emergence of the
speed of light from purely electromagnetic considerations is the crowning
achievement of Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory. The The fact led Maxwell to
predict that light is an electromagnetic wave. The emergence of the speed of
light from purely electromagnetic considerations is the crowning achievement of
Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory. The speed of an electromagnetic wave in any
medium of permeability μ and permittivity ε will be where K is the dielectric c
√K μr
constant of the medium and μr is the relative permeability.
(i) The dimensions of 1
2
ε0 E
2
( ε0 : permittivity of free space; E = electric field ) is
(a) M LT
−1
(b) ML
−1
T
−2
(c) ML T
2 −2
(d) 2
ML T
−1
(ii) Let [ε ] denote the dimensional formula of the permittivity of the vacuum. If
0
M = mass, L = length, T = time and A = electric current, then
(a) [ε0 ] = M L T
2 −1
(b) [ε0 ] = M LT
−2
A
−2
(c) [ε0 ] = M
−1
L
−3
T
4
A
2
(d) [ε0 ] = M
−1
L
−3
T
2
A
Page 5
(iii) An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 MHz passes from vacuum into a
dielectric medium with permittivity ε = 4 . Then
(a) wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged.
(b) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
(c) wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
(d) wavelength is doubled and the frequency becomes half
OR
The electromagnetic waves travel with

(a) the speed of light 8
c = 3 × 10 ms
−1
in
(b) the speed of light c = 3 × 10ms
−1
in fluid medium. solid medium
(c) the speed of light c = 3 × 10 ms in
8 −1
(d) the same speed in all media free space
(iv) Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

cosmic rays, γ-rays, β-rays, X-rays
(a) β-rays (b) X-rays (c) γ-rays (d) cosmic rays
30. Electric field intensity at any point is the strength of the electric field at that
point. It is also defined as the force experienced by unit positive charge placed
at that point. Electric Field Intensity is a vector quantity. It is denoted by E. When
placed within the electric field, the test charge will experience an electric force -
either attractive or repulsive.
(i) The Electric field at a point is

(a) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point
(b) always continuous
(c) continuous if there is charge at that point
(d) continuous if there is no charge at that point
(ii) A charge is distributed uniformly over a ring of radius a. Obtain an

expression for the electric intensity E at a point on the axis of the ring. Hence
the points at large distances from the ring, it behaves like a point charge is:
q
(a) E =
1
4πε0
⋅
x
Q
(b) E =
1
2πε0
⋅
x
2
q
(c) E =
1
4πε0
⋅ 4
x
(d) E =
1
4πε0
⋅
Q
x
2
(iii) Force acting on an electron in a uniform electric field of 4

5 × 10 N /C is:
(a) 8 × 10
−15
N
(b) −7 × 10
−15
N
(c) −8 × 10
−15
N
(d) 7 × 10
−15
N
(iv) At a particular point, the electric field depends upon:

(a) source charge Q only
(b) both Q and q
(c) test charge q only 0
(d) neither Q nor q
OR
Four charges of the same magnitude and same sign are placed at the corners of
a square, of each side 0.1 m. then electric field intensity at the centre of the
square is:
(a) 0.01N /C
(b) 0.25N /C
(c) zero
(d) 0.1N /C
31. Figure shows a convex spherical surface with centre of curvature C separating
the two media of refractive indices μ and μ . Draw a ray diagram showing the
1 2
formation of the image of a point object O lying on the principal axis. Derive the
relationship between the object and image distance in terms of refractive
indices of the media and the radius of curvature R of the surface.
OR
* a. Use Huygen's geometrical construction to show how a plane wavefront at t =
0 propagates and produces a wavefront at a later time.
b. Verify, using Huygen's principle, Snell's law of refraction of a plane wave
propagating from a denser to a rarer medium.
c. Illustrate with the help of diagrams the action of
i. convex lens and
ii. concave mirror, on a plane wavefront incident on it.
32. In Fig. the energy stored in C4 is 27 J . Calculate the total energy stored in the
system.
OR
* i. A Why does the electric field inside a dielectric slab decrease when kept in an
external electric field?
B. Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor filled with a
medium of dielectric constant K.
ii. A charge q = 2μC is placed at the centre of a sphere of radius 20 cm . What is the
amount of work done in moving 4μC from one point to another point on its
surface?
→
iii. Write a relation for polarisation P of a dielectric material in the presence of an
external electric field.
33. a. Show that an ideal inductor does not dissipate power in an ac circuit.
b. The variation of inductive reactance (X ) of an inductor with the frequency (
L f
) of the ac source of 100 V and variable frequency is shown in the fig.

i. Calculate the self-inductance of the inductor.
ii. When this inductor is used in series with a capacitor of unknown value and a
resistor of 10Ω at 300s , maximum power dissipation occurs in the circuit.
−1
Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor.

OR
* i. What do you understand by the sharpness of resonance in a series L-C-R
circuit? Derive an expression for Qfactor of the circuit.
ii. Three electrical circuits having AC sources of variable frequency are shown in the
figures. Initially, the current flowing in each of these is same. If the frequency of
the applied AC source is increased, how will the current flowing in these circuits be
affected? Give the reason for your answer.
----- -----
STD 12 Science Physics Total Marks : 70
Model Paper 4
1. The electrical conductivity of semiconductor increases when electromagnetic

radiation of wavelength shorter than 2800 nm is incident on it. The band gap in
(eV) for the semiconductor is:
(A) 0.5 eV (B) 0.7 eV (C) 2.5 eV (D) 1.2 eV
2. An electric bulb marked 40 W - 200 V is used in a circuit of supply voltage 100 V.
Now its power is:
(A) 10W (B) 40W (C) 20W (D) 100W
3. A biconvex lens of focal length f is cut into two identical plano convex lenses.
The focal length of each part will be
(A) 2f (B)
f
(C) 4f (D) f
2
4. How does the magnetic susceptibility χ of a paramagnetic material change with

absolute temperature T?
(A) χ ∝ e T
(B) χ ∝ e T
(C) χ = constant (D) χ ∝ T −1
5. The dimension of 1
ε0 E
2
where ε0 is the permittivity of free space and E is the
2
electric field, is
(A) M L −1
T
−2
(B) M LT −1
(C) M L 2
T
−2
(D) M L 2
T
−1
6. An electron is revolving around a proton in a circular orbit of diameter 0.1 nm .

It produces a magnetic field of 14W b/m
2
at the proton. What is angular speed of
the electron?
(A) 4.4 × 10 16
rads
−1
(B) 8.8 × 10 16
rads
−1
(C) 6.4 × 10 16
rads
−1
(D) 1.4 × 10 16
rads
−1
7. For MRI, a patient is slowly pushed in a time of 10 s within the coils of the
magnet where magnetic field is B = 2.0 T. If the patient's trunk is 0.8 m in
circumference, the induced emf around the patient's trunk is
(A) 10.18 × 10 −3
V (B) 10.18 × 10 −2
V
(C) 1.51 × 10 −2
V (D) 9.66 × 10 2
V
8. Which of the following has its permeability less than that of free space?
Page 1
(A) Copper (B) Nickel (C) Copper chloride (D) Aluminium
9. The wavefront of a distant source of unknown shape is approximately:
(A) plane (B) elliptical (C) cylindrical (D) spherical
10. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit
of radius r . The Coulomb force F
⃗
between the two is:
(A) κ (B) −κ (C) −κ (D) κ
2 2 3 2
e e e e
3
r⃗ 3
r⃗ 3
^
r 3
^
r
r r s n
11. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current
supplied by the battery is
(A) zero (B) 0.5A (C) 0.75A (D) 0.25A

12. In the diagram, a prism of angle 30 is used. A ray PQ is incident as shown. An
∘
emergent ray RS emerges perpendicular to the second face. The angle of

deviation is:
(A) 60 ∘
(B) 0∘
(C) 30∘
(D) 45 ∘
13. Assertion (A): In process of photoelectric emission, all emitted electrons do not
have same kinetic energy.
Reason (R): If radiation falling on the photosensitive surface of metal consists of
different wavelengths then energy acquired by electrons absorbing photons of
different wavelengths shall be different.
Page 2
14. Assertion (A): If the distance between parallel plates a capacitor is halved and
dielectric constant is made three times then the capacitance becomes six times.
Reason (R) : Capacitance of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of
the material of the plates of the capacitor.
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
15. Assertion (A) : Wavefront emitted by a point source of light in an isotropic
medium is spherical.
Reason (R): Isotropic medium has same refractive index in all directions.
16. Assertion (A) : The quantity L/R possesses the dimension of time.
Reason (R): In order to reduce the rate of increase of current through a
solenoid, we should increase the time constant.
17. In which situation is there a displacement current, but no conduction current?

18. Magnetic force is always normal to the velocity of a charge and therefore does
no work. An iron nail held near a magnet, when released, increases its kinetic
energy as it moves to cling to the magnet. What agency is responsible for this
increase in kinetic energy if not the magnetic field?
19. In the following diagrams indicate which of the diodes are forward biased and
which are reverse biased.
Page 3
20. Suppose you are given a chance to repeat the alpha-particle scattering
experiment using a thin sheet of solid hydrogen in place of the gold foil.
(Hydrogen is a solid at temperatures below 14 K). What results do you expect?
21. A circular coil of 25 turns and radius 6.0 cm, carrying a current of 10 A, is
suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 1.2 T. The field
lines run horizontally in the plane of the coil. Calculate the force and the torque
on the coil due to the magnetic field. In which direction should a balancing
torque be applied to prevent the coil from turning?
OR
* Two identical circular loops, P and Q. each of radius r and carrying currents are
kept in the parallel planes having a common axis passing through O. The direction
of current in P is clockwise and in Q is anti-clockwise as seen from O which is
equidistant from the loops P and Q. Find the magnitude of the net magnetic field
at O.
Page 4
22. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable load
resistor R. Draw the plots of the terminal voltage V versus (i) resistance R and
(ii) current I.
It is found that when R = 4Ω , the current is 1 A and when R is increased to 9Ω ,
the current reduces to 0.5 A .Find the values of the emf E and internal resistance
r.
23. Explain with the help of a diagram, how a depletion layer and barrier potential
are formed in a junction diode.
24. Write Einstein's photoelectric equation in terms of the stopping potential and
the threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material. Draw a plot
showing the variation of stopping potential vs. the frequency of incident
radiation.
25. i. What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding
energy per nucleon (BE/A) in the range of mass number A lying 30 < A < 170 ?
ii. Show that the density of nucleus over a wide range of nuclei is constant and
independent of mass number A
26. a. Draw the energy level diagram for the line spectra representing Lyman series
and Balmer series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom.
b. Using the Rydberg formula for the spectrum of hydrogen atom, calculate the
largest and shortest wavelengths of the emission lines of the Balmer series in
the spectrum of hydrogen atom. (Use the value of Rydberg constant
7 −1
R = 1.1 × 10 m )
27. The absolute refractive index of air is 1.0003 and the wavelength of yellow light
∘
in a vacuum is 6000 A . Find the thickness of air column which will contain one
more wavelength of yellow light than in the same thickness of vacuum.
28. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a
speed of 5.0ms
−1
, at right angles to the horizontal component of the earth's
magnetic field, 0.30 × 10 W bm .
−4 −2
a. What is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire?
Page 5
b. What is the direction of the emf?
c. Which end of the wire is at the higher electrical potential?
OR
* Define the term self-inductance. Write its SI unit. Give two factors on which self
inductance of an air-core coil depends.
29. Electrons oscillating in a circuit give rise to radiowaves. A transmitting antenna

radiates most effectively the radiowaves of wavelength equal to the size of the
antenna. The infrared waves incident on a substance set into oscillation all its
electrons, atoms and molecules. This increases the internal energy and hence
the temperature of the substance.
(i) If v , v and v are the speeds of gamma rays,

g X m -rays and microwaves
X
respectively in vacuum, then

(a) v > v > v
g X m
(b) v < v < v

g X m
(c) v > v > v

g X m
(d) v = v = v
g X m
(ii) Which of the following will deflect in electric field?

(a) ultraviolet rays
(b) γ-rays
(c) X-rays
(d) cathode rays
(iii) γ-rays are detected by

(a) point contact diodes
(c) thermopiles
(b) ionization chamber
(d) photocells
OR
We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the
following statements is true?
i. The radiation emitted is in the infrared region
ii. The radiation is emitted only during the day.
iii. The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the
winters.
iv. The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence it is not visible
(a) Option(iv) (iii) (b) Option (ii) (c) Option (d) Option (i)
(iv) The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited to observe a

particle of radius 3 × 10
−4
cm is the order of
(a) 10
14
Hz
(b) 10
12
Hz
(c) 10
13
Hz
(d) 10
15
Hz
30. Coulomb's law states that the electrostatic force of attraction or repulsion
acting between two stationary point charges is given by
where F denotes the force between two charges q and q separated by a 1 2
distance r in free space, ε is a constant known as the permittivity of free space.

0
Free space is a vacuum and may be taken to be air practically. If free space is
replaced by a medium, then ε is replaced by 0 (ε0 k) or (ε0 εr ) where k is known as
dielectric constant or relative permittivity.
(i) In coulomb's law, , then on which of the following factors does the
q q
1 2
F = k 2
r
proportionality constant k depends?

(a) Nature of the medium between the two charges
(b) Distance between the two charges
(c) Electrostatic force acting between the two charges
(d) Magnitude of the two charges
(ii) Dimensional formula for the permittivity constant ε0 of free space is

(a) [M
−1
L T
3 2
A ]
2
(b) [M L
−3
T
4
A ]
2
(c) [M
−1
L
−3
T
4
A ]
2
(d) [M L
−3
T
4
A
−2
]
(iii) The force of repulsion between two charges of 1 C each, kept 1m apart in
vaccum is
(a) 9×10
1
9
N
(b) 9×10
1
12
N
(c) 9 × 10 N
7
(d) 9 × 10 N
9
(iv) Two identical charges repel each other with a force equal to 10 mgwt when
they are 0.6 m apart in air. ( −2
g = 10ms ). The value of each charge is
(a) 2 mC
(b) 2 × 10−7
mC
(c) 2μC
(d) 2 nC
OR
Coulomb's law for the force between electric charges most closely resembles
with
(a) law of conservation of energy
(b) Newton's 2nd law of motion
(c) law of conservation of charge .
(d) Newton's law of gravitation
31. i. Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope.
Hence obtain the expression for total magnification when the image is formed
at least distance of distinct vision.
iii. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm
and an eyepiece of focal length 6.0 cm. If they are separated by a distance of 24
cm, find the total magnification when the image is formed at infinity.
OR
* Using Huygens' principle, draw a diagram to show propagation of a wavefront
originating from a monochromatic point source. Explain briefly.
32. Two point charges -q and q are located at points (0, 0, - a) and (0, 0, a)
respectively.
i. Find the electrostatic potential at (0, 0, z) and (x, y, 0).
ii. How much work is done in moving a small test charge from the point (5, 0, 0)
to (- 7, 0, 0) along the x-axis?
iii. How would your answer change if the path of the test charge between the
same points is not along the x-axis but along any other random path?
iv. If the above point charges are now placed in the same positions in the
uniform external electric field E⃗, what would be the potential energy of the
charging system in its orientation of unstable equilibrium?
Justify your answer in each case
OR
* a. Derive an expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole in a
uniform electric field. Explain conditions for stable and unstable equilibrium.
b. Is the electrostatic potential necessarily zero at a point where the electric field is
zero? Give an example to support your answer.
33. i. Describe, with the help of a suitable diagram, the working principle of a step-
up transformer. Obtain the relation between input and output voltages in terms
of the number of turns of primary and secondary windings and the currents in
the input and output circuits.
i. Given the input current 15 A and the input voltage of 100 V for a step-up
transformer having 90% efficiency, find the output power and the voltage in the
secondary if the output current is 3 A.
OR
* A series LCR circuit is connected to an a.c. source having voltage V = V sin ωt .
m
Derive the expression for the instantaneous current I and its phase relationship to
the applied voltage. Obtain the condition for resonance to occur. Define power
factor. State the conditions under which it is
i. maximum and
ii. minimum.
----- -----
STD 12 Science Physics Total Marks : 70
Model Paper 5
1. In the circuit shown, the current through the ideal diode is:
(A) 100mA (B) 20mA (C) 25mA (D) 75mA

2. 2
m V
−1
s
−1
is the SI unit of which of the following?
(A) Potential gradient (B) Mobility
(C) Drift velocity (D) Resistivity
3. For a glass prism, the angle of minimum deviation will be smallest for the light
of
(A) blue colour (B) yellow colour (C) green colour (D) red colour.
4. A bar-magnet of the pole-strength 2Amp − m is kept in a magnetic field of
induction 4 × 10 W b/m such that the axis of the magnet makes an angle 30
−5 2 ∘
with the direction of the field. If the couple acting on the magnet is found to be
80 × 10
−7
Nm , then the distance between the poles of the magnet is:
(A) 20m (B) 4m (C) 2m (D) 8m
5. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an electron. When it is accelerated by
a potential difference of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will be:
(A) 920 keV (B) 1
1840
keV (C) 1 keV (D) 1840 keV
6. An electron with velocity v⃗ = ( vx ^

i + vy ^
j) moves through a magnetic field
→
⃗
B = ( Bx ^
i − By ^
j) . The force F on the electron is: ( e is the magnitude of its
charge)
(A) e (v x
^
By − vy Bx ) k (B) −e (v x
^
By − vy Bx ) k
(C) −e (v x By
^
+ vy Bx ) k (D) e (v
x By
^
+ vy Bx ) k
Page 1
7. There are two coils A and B as shown in the figure. A current starts flowing in B
as shown, when A is moved towards B and stops when A stops moving. The
current in A is counter clockwise. B is kept stationary when A moves. We can
infer that
(A) there is a constant current in the counterclockwise direction in A.

(B) there is a constant current in the clockwise direction in A.
(C) there is a varying current in A.
(D) there is no current in A.
8. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 4
2 × 10 J T
−1
is free to rotate in a
horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10 T exists in the space.
−4
The work done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction

(A) 0.6 J (B) 12 J (C) 2 J (D) 6 J
9. Phase difference between any two points of a wavefront is
(A) π (B) 0 (C) π
4
(D) π
10. When 10 19
electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge
on it is
(A) -1.6 C (B) 10 +19
C (C) +1.6 C (D) 10 −19
C
11. In the energy band diagram of a material as given below, the open circles and
filled circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is a/an
(A) insulator (B) metal
Page 2
(C) p-type semiconductor (D) n-type semiconductor
12. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex
lens of focal length f is:
(A) 4f (B) f (C) 2f (D) 3f
13. Assertion (A): When ultraviolet light is incident on a photocell, its stopping
potential is V and the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is K .
0 max
When the ultraviolet light is replaced by X-rays, both V and K . increase.

0 max
Reason (R): Photoelectrons are emitted with speeds ranging from zero to a
maximum value because of the range of frequencies present in the incident
light.
14. Assertion : When a capacitor is filled completely with a metallic slab its capacity
becomes very large.
Reason : Dielectric constant for metal is zero.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is also false
15. Assertion (A): According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is
possible.
Reason (R): Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ
is the angle between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of
secondary wavelet.
16. Assertion (A): Faraday’s laws are consequences of the conservation of energy.
Reason (R): In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current lags behind the emf in
phase.
Page 3
17. Compare the following:

i. Wavelengths of the incident solar radiation absorbed by the earth's surface
and the radiation re-radiated by the earth.
ii. Tanning effect produced on the skin by UV incident directly on the skin and
that coming through glass window.
18. A sample of paramagnetic salt contains 2.0 × 10
24
atomic dipoles each of dipole
moment 1.5 × 10 J T . The sample is placed under homogeneous magnetic
−23 −1
field of 0.84 T and cooled to the temperature of 4.2 K . The degree of magnetic
saturation achieved is equal to 15%. What is the total dipole moment of the
sample for a magnetic field of 0.98 T and a temperature of 2.8 K (assume Curie's
law)?
19. Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors. Although in an
extrinsic semiconductor n ≠ n , yet it is electrically neutral. Why?
e h
20. Explain why the spectrum of hydrogen atom has many lines, although a
hydrogen atom contains only one electron.
21. Answer the following:
a. Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined within the core of a toroid, but
not within a straight solenoid. Why?
b. Does a bar magnet exert a torque on itself due to its own field? Justify your
answer.
c. When an electron revolves around a nucleus, obtain the expression for the
magnetic moment associated with it.
OR
* a. It is not advisable to use a galvanometer as such to measure current directly.
Why?
b. Why should the value of resistance connected in parallel to a galvanometer be
low?
c. Is the reading shown by an ammeter in a circuit less than or more than the
actual value of current flowing in the circuit? Why?
22. a. Write the relationship between mobility and drift velocity in a current carrying
conductor.
b. Two aluminium wires have their lengths in the ratio 2 : 3 and radii in the ratio
1 : 3. These are connected in parallel across a battery of emf E and of negligible
Page 4
internal resistance. Find the ratio of drift velocities of the electrons in the two
wires.
23. The following figure shows the V-I characteristics of a semiconductor diode.
i. Identify the semiconductor diode used.
ii. Draw the circuit diagram to obtain the given characteristics of this device.
iii. Briefly explain how this diode can be used as a voltage regulator.
24. Write the basic features of the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on
which Einstein's photoelectric equation is based.
25. Calculate and compare the energy released by
a. fusion of 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within Sun and
b. the fission of 1.0 kg of 235
U in a fission reactor.
26. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes transitions from orbits of higher
energies to orbits of lower energies.
a. When will such transitions result in (a) Lyman (b) Balmer series?
b. Find the ratio of the longest wavelength in Lyman series to the shortest
wavelength in Balmer series.
27. In a single slit diffraction experiment, a slit of width d is illuminated by red light
of wavelength 650 nm. For what value of d will
i. the first minimum fall is at an angle of diffraction of 30°and
ii. the first maximum fall is at an angle of diffraction of 30°?
28. A coil of cross-sectional area A lies in a uniform magnetic field B with its plane
perpendicular to the field. In this position the normal to the coil makes an angle
of 0° with the field. The coil rotates at a uniform rate to complete one rotation
in time T. Find the average induced emf in the coil during the interval when the
coil rotates:
i. from 0 to 90 position
∘ ∘
ii. from 90 to 180 position

∘ ∘
iii. from 180

∘
to 270
∘
and
iv. from 270
∘
to 360
∘
Page 5
OR
* Figure shows a metallic rod PQ of length l, resting on the smooth horizontal
rails AB positioned between the poles of a permanent magnet. The rails, the rod,
and the magnetic field are in three mutually perpendicular directions. A
galvanometer G connects the rails through a switch K. Assume the magnetic field
to be uniform. Given the resistance of the closed-loop containing the rod is R.
i. Suppose K is open and the rod is moved with a speed v in the direction shown.
Find the polarity and magnitude of induced emf.
ii. With K open and the rod moving uniformly, there is no net force on the
electrons in the rod PQ even though they do experience a magnetic force due to
the motion of the rod. Explain.
iii. What is the induced emf in the moving rod if the magnetic field is parallel to the
rails instead of being perpendicular?
29. An electromagnetic wave transports linear momentum as it travels through

space. If an electromagnetic wave transfers a total energy U to a surface in time
t , then total linear momentum delivered to the surface is p = . When an
U
electromagnetic wave falls on a surface, it exerts pressure on the surface. In

1903, the American scientists Nichols and Hull succeeded in measuring radiation
pressures of visible light where other had failed, by making a detailed empirical
analysis of the ubiquitous gas heating and ballistic effects.
(i) The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I (W m

−2
) on a
non-reflecting surface is ( c is the velocity of light)
(a) I
c
(b) I
c
2
(c) Ic
2
(d) IC
(ii) Light with an energy flux of 18W /cm falls on a non-reflecting surface at
2
normal incidence. The pressure exerted on the surface is:

(a) 2N /m
2
(b) 6 × 10
−4
N /m
2
(c) 2 × 10
−4
N /m
2
(d) 6N /m
2
(iii) Radiation of intensity −2

0.5W m are striking a metal plate. The pressure on
the plate is
(a) 0.212 × 10
−8
Nm
−2
(b) 0.132 × 10
−8
Nm
−2
(c) 0.166 × 10
−8
Nm
−2
(d) 0.083 × 10 N m −8 −2
OR
The radiation pressure of the visible light is of the order of
(a) 10
−4
N /m
(b) 10
−6
N /m
2
(c) 10
−8
N
(d) 10
−2
Nm
2
(iv) A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an average power output of

1500 W . The maximum value of electric field at a distance of 3 m from this
source (in Vm
−1
) is
(a) 500 (b) 500
3
(c) 250
3
(d) 100
30. When electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field, its two charges
experience equal and opposite forces, which cancel each other and hence net
force on electric dipole in uniform electric field is zero. However these forces are
not collinear, so they give rise to some torque on the dipole. Since net force on
electric dipole in uniform electric field is zero. so no work is done in moving the
electric dipole in uniform electric field. However some work is done in rotating
the dipole against the torque acting on it.
(i) The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field E

⃗
is P .⃗ Then the
torque τ⃗ acting on the dipole is
(a) ⃗ ⃗
τ ⃗ = 2(P + E )
(b) ⃗
τ⃗ = P ⋅E
⃗
(c) ⃗ ⃗
τ ⃗ = (P + E )
(d) ⃗
τ⃗ = P ×E
⃗
(ii) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each of magnitude 1.0μC
separated by a distance of 2.0 cm . The dipole is placed in an external field of
5
10 N C
−1
. The maximum torque on the dipole is
(a) 4 × 10
−3
Nm
(b) 2 × 10
−3
Nm
(c) 1 × 10
−3
Nm
(d) 0.2 × 10
−3
Nm
(iii) Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is equal to

(a) 0 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) Both 0 and 180
∘ ∘ ∘ ∘ ∘
(iv) When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform electric field, the net
force F and torque on the dipole are
(a) F = 0, τ = 0
(b) F ≠ 0, τ ≠ 0
(c) F ≠ 0, τ = 0
(d) F = 0, τ ≠ 0
OR
An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The
dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with
the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be
zero when θ = 90 , the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will
∘
respectively be
(a) pE sin θ, −pE cos θ
(b) pE cos θ, −pE sin θ
(c) pE sin θ, 2pE cos θ
(d) pE sin θ, −2pE cos θ
31. i. Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope.
Obtain the expression for total magnification when the image is formed at
infinity.
ii. How does the resolving power of a compound microscope get affected, when
1. focal length of the objective is decreased.
2. the wavelength of light is increased ? Give reasons to justify your answer.
OR
* i. Using Huygens's construction of secondary wavelets explains how a
diffraction pattern is obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a
monochromatic beam of light is incident normally.
ii. Show that the angular width of first diffraction fringe is half that of the central
fringe.
iii. Explain why the maxima at θ = (n +
1
2
)
λ
a
a become weaker and weaker with
increasing n.
32. Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other
by a wire. What is the ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of the two spheres?
Use the result obtained to explain why charge density on the sharp and pointed
ends of a conductor is higher than on its flatter portions.
OR
* Two parallel metal plates P and Q are inserted at equal distances into a plane
capacitor as shown in fig. Plates A and B of the capacitor are connected to a
battery of e.m.f. V.
a. What are the potentials of the four plates?
a. What are the potentials of the four plates?

b. How will the potentials of plates P and Q and the intensities of the elds in each
fi
of the three spaces change after plates P and Q have been connected by a wire?
c..What will happen to the charges on plates A and B, when plates P and Q are
connected with a wire?
d. Will there be charges on the plates P and Q after connecting them with a wire?
33. i. An alternating voltage V = Vm sin ωt applied to a series L−C −R circuit derives

a current given by I = I sin(ωt + ϕ) . Deduce an expression for the average
m
power dissipated over a cycle.

ii. For circuit used for transporting electric power, a low power factor implies
large power loss in transmission. Explain.
OR
* a. Draw graphs showing the variations of inductive reactance and capacitive
reactance with the frequency of the applied ac source.
b. Draw the phasor diagram for a series RC circuit connected to an ac source.
c. An alternating voltage of 220 V is applied across a device X, a current of 0.25 A
ows, which lag behind the applied voltage in phase by radian. If the same
π
fl
2
voltage is applied across another device Y, the same current flows but now it is in
phase with the applied voltage.
i. Name the devices X and Y.
ii. Calculate the current flowing in the circuit when the same voltage is applied
across the series combination of X and Y.
----- -----
CLASS
12
2025
CBSE
11 SAMPLE
PAPERS
CHEMISTRY

Board Model Paper STD 12 Science Chemistry Total Marks : 70
1. Ammonolysis of ethyl chloride followed by reaction of the amine so formed with

1 mole of methyl chloride gives an amine that
(A
) reacts with Hinsberg reagent to form a product soluble in an alkali.
(B
) on reaction with Nitrous acid, produced nitrogen gas.
()C reacts with Benzenesulphonyl chloride to form a product that is insoluble in alkali.
()D does not react with Hinsberg reagent.
2. Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment?

(A
) CH3 F
(B
) CH3 Cl
()C CH3 I
()D CH3 Br
3. Match the properties given in column I with the metals in column II

Colum
Column I
n II
(1) Actinoid having configuration (RN)5f 76d17s2 (A) Ce
(2) Lanthanoid which has 4f 14 electronic

(B) Lu
configuration in +3 oxidation state.
(C)
(3) Lanthanoid which show +4 Oxidation state
Cm
(A
) (1)-(C), (2)-(B), (3)-(A)
(B
) (1)-(C), (2)-(A), (3)-(B)
()C (1)-(A), (2)-(B), (3)-(C)
()D (1)-(B), (2)-(A), (3)-(C)
4. Study the graph showing the boiling points of bromoalkanes and identify the
compounds.
Page 1
(A) 1 = Bromomethane, 2= 2-Bromobutane, 3= 1-Bromobutane, 4= 2-Bromo-2-
methylpropane
(B) 1=1-Bromobutane, 2= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane, 3= 2-Bromobutane, 4=
Bromomethane
(C) 1 = Bromomethane, 2=1-Bromobutane, 3= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane, 4= 2-
Bromobutane,
(D) 1 =Bromomethane, 2= 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane, 3-2- Bromobutane, 4= 1-
Bromobutane
5. The initial concentration of R in the reaction R→P IS 4.62 × 10-2 mol / L What is
the half life for the reaction if k = 2.31 × 10-2 molL -1S-1
(A) 30 s
(B) 3 s
(C) 1 s
(D) 10 s
6. When C6H5COOCOCH2 is treated with H₂O, the product obtained is:
(A) Benzoic acid and ethanol
(B) Benzoic acid and ethanoic acid
(C) Acetic Acid and phenol
(D) Benzoic anhydride and methanol
Page 2
7.
'X' and 'Y' in the above table are

(A) X = [Co(NH 3
) ]
6
2+
3Cl
−
,Y = 1 : 3
(B) X = [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl2 ]

+
Cl, −Y = 1 : 3
(C) X = [Co(NH 3
) Cl2 ]
4
+
Cl
−
,Y = 1 : 1
(D) X = [Co(NH 3
) Cl2 ]
4
3+
3Cl
−
,Y = 1 : 1
8. Which of the following contains only ẞ-D- glucose as its monosaccharide unit:
(A) Sucrose
(B) Cellulose
(C) Starch
(D) Maltose
9. Which one of the following sets correctly represents the increase in the
paramagnetic property of the ions?
(A) Ti3+
< Fe
2+
< Cr
3+
< Mn
2+
(B) Ti3+
< Mn
2+
< Fe
2+
< Cr
3+
(C) Mn 2+
< Fe
2+
< Cr
3+
< Ti
3+
(D) Ti 3+
< Cr
3+
< Fe
2+
< Mn
2+
10. A first-order reaction is found to have a rate constant, k = 5.5 x 10-14s-1.The time
taken for completion of the reaction is:
(A) 1.26 x 1013 s
(B) 2.52 x 1013 s
(C) 0.63 x 1013 s

(D) It never goes to completion
11. A student was preparing aniline in the lab. She took a compound "X" and
reduced it in the presence of Ni as a catalyst. What could be the compound "X"
(A) Nitrobenzene
(B) 1-Nitrohexane
(C) Benzonitrile
Page 3
(D) 1-Hexanenitrile
12. Which of the following compound gives an oxime with hydroxylamine:
(A) CH3COCH3
(B) CH3COCH
(C) (CH3CO)2O
(D) CH3COCI
* a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). [4]

Choose the correct option.
13. Assertion (A): [Mn(CN) ]³- has a magnetic moment of two unpaired electrons
6
while [MnCl6]3- has a paramagnetic moment of four unpaired electrons.
Reason (R): [Mn(CN)6]3- is inner orbital complexes involving d2sp3 hybridisation,
on the other hand, [MnCl6]3-is outer orbital complexes involving sp³d2

hybridisation.
14. Assertion (A): For strong electrolytes, there is a slow increase in molar
conductivity with dilution and can be represented by the equation
0 1/2
Λm = Λm − Ac
Reason (R): The value of the constant 'A' for NaCl, CaCl2, and MgSO 4 in a given
solvent and at a given temperature is different.
15. Assertion (A): Glucose does not form the hydrogensulphite addition product
with NaHSO 3.
Reason (R): Glucose exists in a six-membered cyclic structure called pyranose
structure
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
Page 4
16. Assertion (A): The half- life for a zero order reaction is independent of the initial
1 concentration of the reactant.
Reason (R): For a zero order reaction, Rate = k
17. a. Nitrogen gas is soluble in water. At temperature 293 K, the value of KH iS 76.48
kbar. How would the solubility of nitrogen vary (increase, decrease or remain
the same) at a temperature above 293 KH if the value of K₁ rises to 88.8 kbar.
b. Chloroform (b.p. 61.2°C) and acetone (b.p. 56°C) are mixed to form an
azeotrope. The mole fraction of acetone in this mixture is 0.339. Predict whether
the boiling point of the azeotrope formed will be (i) 60°C (ii) 64.5°C or (iii)54 °C.
Defend your answer with reason.
OR
* a. A soda bottle will go flat (loose its fizz) faster in Srinagar than in Delhi. Is this
statement correct? Why or why not?
b. How does sugar help in increasing the shelf life of the product?
18. a. Write the IUPAC name of the following complex: K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O 4)2]H2O
b. Name the metal present in the complex compound of (i) Haemoglobin (ii)
Vitamin B-12
19. Observe the following cell and answer the questions that follow:
a. Represent the cell shown in the figure.

b. Name the carriers of the current in the salt bridge
c. Write the reaction taking place at the anode.
20. Complete the following reactions by writing the major and minor product in
each
case (any 2)
a. CH3CH2Br + KCN →
Page 5
b. CH3CH2CH=CH2 + HBr →
c. (CH3)2CHCHCICH3 + alc KOH →
21. The presence of Carbonyl group in glucose is confirmed by its reaction with
hydroxylamine. Identify the type of carbonyl group present and its position. Give
a chemical reaction in support of your answer.
22. a. Write down the reaction occurring on two inert electrodes when electrolysis
of copper chloride is done. What will happen if a concentrated solution of
copper sulphate is replaced with copper chloride?
b. Write an expression for the molar conductivity of aluminium sulphate at
infinite dilution according to Kohlrausch law.
23. Account for the following:
a. The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic, and the highest is acidic.
b. Chromium is a hard metal while mercury is a liquid metal
c. The ionisation energy of elements of the 3d series does not vary much with
increasing atomic number.
24. a. Give the chemical reaction involved when p-nitrotoluene undergoes Etard
reaction.
b. Why does Benzoic acid exist as a dimer in an aprotic solvent?
c. Benzene on reaction with methylchloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3
forms toluene. What is the expected outcome if benzene is replaced by benzoic
acid? Give a reason for your answer.
OR
* An organic compound 'X', does not undergo aldol condensation. However 'X'
with compound 'Y' in the presence of a strong base react to give the compound
1,3-diphenylprop-2-en-1-one.
a. Identify 'X' and 'Y'
b. Write the chemical reaction involved.
c. Give one chemical test to distinguish between X and Y.
25. a. Give the structure of all the possible dipeptides formed when the following
two amino acids form a peptide bond.
Page 6
b. Keratin, insulin, and myosin are a few examples of proteins present in the
human body. Identify which type of protein is keratin and insulin and
differentiate between them based on their physical properties.
26. Neeta was experimenting in the lab to study the chemical reactivity of alcohols.
She carried out a dehydration reaction of propanol at 140°C to 180°C. Different
products were obtained at these two temperatures.
a. Identify the major product formed at 140°C and the substitution mechanism
followed in this case.
b. Identify the major product formed at 180°C and the substitution mechanism
followed in this case.
27. Various isomeric haloalkanes with the general formula C4H9CI undergo
hydrolysis reaction. Among them, compound "A" is the most reactive through
SN1 mechanism. Identify "A" citing the reason for your choice. Write the
mechanism for the reaction.
28. The equilibrium constant of cell reaction :
Sn4+(.aq) + Al(s) Al3+ → + Sn2+ (aq) is 4.617 x 10184, at 25 °C
a. Calculate the standard emf of the cell. (Given: log 4.617 x 10184 = 184.6644)
b. What will be the E° of the half cell Al3+/Al, if E° of half cell Sn4+/Sn2+ is 4+ 0.15
V.
* Case study based questions [8]
29. Dependence of the rate of reaction on the concentration of reactants,

temperature, and other factors is the most general method for weeding out
unsuitable reaction mechanisms. The term mechanism means all the individual
collisional or elementary processes involving molecules (atoms, radicals, and
ions included) that take place simultaneously or consecutively to produce the
observed overall reaction. For example, when hydrogen gas reacts with bromine,
the rate of the reaction was found to be proportional to the concentration of H₂
and to the square root of the concentration of Br2. Furthermore, the rate was
inhibited by increasing the concentration of HBr as the reaction proceeded.
These observations are not consistent with a mechanism involving bimolecular
collisions of a single molecule of each kind. The currently accepted mechanism is
considerably more complicated, involving the dissociation of bromine molecules
into atoms followed by reactions between atoms and molecules:
It is clear from this example that the mechanism cannot be predicted from the
overall stoichiometry.
(source: Moore, J. W., & Pearson, R. G. (1981). Kinetics and mechanism. John
Wiley & Sons.)
(a). Predict the expression for the rate of reaction and order for the following:
H2 + Br2 → 2 HBr
What are the units of rate constant for the above reaction?
(b). How will the rate of reaction be affected if the concentration of Br2 is
tripled?
OR
* What change in the concentration of H₂ will triple the rate of reaction?
(c). Suppose a reaction between A and B, was experimentally found to be first
order with respect to both A and B. So the rate equation is:
Rate = k[A][B]
Which of these two mechanisms is consistent with this experimental finding? Why?
Mechanism 1
A → C + D (slow)
B+C → E (fast)
Mechanism 2
A+B →C + D (slow)
C → E (fast)
30. Amines are basic in nature. The pKb value is a measure of the basic strength of
an amine. Lower the value of pKb more basic is the amine. The effect of
substituent on the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution was determined
using titrations. The substituent "X" replaced "-CH2" group in piperidine (
compound 1) and propylamine CH3CH2CH2NH2, (compound 2).
Compound 1: Compound 2: HXCH2CH2NH2

(source: Hall Jr, H. K. (1956). Field and inductive effects on the base strengths of
amines. Journal of the American Chemical Society, 78(11), 2570-2572.)
Study the above data and answer the following questions:
a. Plot a graph between the electronegativity of the substituent vs pKb value of
the corresponding substituted propyl amine (given that pKa + pKb =14). Is there
any relation between the electronegativity of the substituent and its basic
strength?
b. The electronegativity of the substituent "C6H5CON" is 3.7, what is the
expected pKa value of compound C6H5CONHCH2CH2NH2?
(i) 9.9 (ii) 9.5 (iii) 9.3 (iv) 9.1
c. The pKa value of the substituted piperidine formed with substituent "X" is
found to be 8.28. What is the expected electronegativity of "X"
(i)3.5 (ii)3.4 (iii)3.8(iv) 3.1
OR
* What is the most suitable pKa value of the substituted propylamine formed with
substituent "X" with electronegativity 3.0
(i)10.67 (ii)10.08 (iii) 10.15 (iv)11.10
31. (a). A purple colour compound A, which is a strong oxidising agent and used for
bleaching of wool, cotton, silk and other textile fibres was added to each of the
three test tubes along with H2SO4. It was followed by strong heating.
In which of the above test tubes; A, B or C:

(i) Violet vapours will be formed
(ii) The bubbles of gas evolved will extinguish a burning matchstick. Write an
equation for each of the above observations.
b. A metal ion M n+ of the first transition series having d5 configuration combines
with three didentate ligands. Assuming Δ < P:
0
(i) Draw the crystal field energy level diagram for the 3d orbital of this complex.
(ii) What is the hybridisation of Mnt in this complex and why?
(iii) Name the type of isomerism exhibited by this complex.
OR
* (a). Using, Valence Bond Theory identify A, B, C, D, E and F in the following table:
(b). Write the ionic equations for the reaction of acidified K2Cr2O 7 with
(i)H2S and (ii) FeSO 4
32. (a). Give reasons for the following:

(i)The reaction of ethanol with acetyl chloride is carried out in the presence of
pyridine.
(ii) Cresols are less acidic than phenol.
(b). Williamson's process is used for the preparation of ethers from alkyl halide.
Identify the alkyl bromide and sodium alkoxide used for the preparation of 2-
Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
(c). Convert:
(i) Toluene to 3-nitrobenzoic acid.
(ii) Benzene to m-nitroacetophenone.
OR
* (a). Out of formic acid and acetic acid, which one will give the HVZ reaction?
Give a suitable reason in support of your answer and write the chemical reaction
involved.
(b). Alcohols are acidic but they are weaker acids than water. Arrange various
isomers of butanol in the increasing order of their acidic nature. Give a reason for
the same.
(c). An organic compound A which is a Grignard reagent is used to obtain 2-
methylbutan-2-ol on reaction with a carbonyl compound 'B'. Identify A' and 'B'.
Write the equation for the reaction between A and B.
33. (a). An experiment was carried out in the laboratory, to study depression in
freezing point. 1M aqueous solution of Al(NO 3)3 and 1 M aqueous solution of
glucose were taken. From the given figure identify solution 1 and solution 2.
Give a plausible reason for your answer
(b). The osmotic pressure of a solution of cane sugar was found to be 2.46 atm
at 300 K. If the solution was diluted five times, calculate the osmotic pressure at
the same temperature.
How can the osmotic pressure of the given cane sugar solution be decreased
without changing its volume? Give a reason for your answer.
OR
* (a). While giving intravenous injections to the patients, the doctors take utmost
care of the concentration of the solution used. Why is it necessary to check the
concentration of the solution?
(b). A solution of phenol was obtained by dissolving 2X 10-2 kg of phenol in 1 kg of
benzene. Experimentally it was found to be 73% associated. Calculate the
depression in the freezing point recorded.
Model Paper 1 Total Marks : 70
1. Which one of the following compounds is more reactive towards SN1 reaction?
(A
) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br (B
) CH2=CHCH2Br ()C C6H5CH(CH3)Br ()D C6H5CH2Br
2. β-pleated sheet structure in proteins refers to

(A
) tertiary structure (B
) primary structure
()C quaternary structure ()D secondary structure
3. Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The
reaction is called
(A
) Fittigs reaction (B
) Wurtzs reaction
()C Williamsons reaction ()D Etards reaction
4. A compound (A) with molecular formula C5H10O, forms a phenyl hydrazone and
gives negative Tollens' and iodoform tests. The compound on reduction gives n-
pentane. The compound (A) is:
(A
) Pentan-3-one (B
) Pentan-2-one ()C Pentanal ()D Pentanol
5. The ionic reactions are generally very fast because

(A
) It does not involve bond breaking
(B
) The number of collisions between ions are very large
()C Reactions are highly exothermic
()D The energy of interaction between charged ion is greater than between neutral
molecules
6. Match the items given in column I with that in column II.

Column I Column II
(a) Molarity (1) Mass of solute
× 10
6
Mass of solution
(2) Number of gram moles of a solute per litre of

(b) Molality
solution
(c)Normality (3) Number of gram moles of a solute per kg of solvent
iv) Number of gram equivalent of a solute per litre of
(d) ppm
solution
(A
) (a) (2), (b) - (3), (c) - (4), (d) - (1)
(B
) (a) (4), (b) - (3), (c) - (2), (d) - (1)
Page 1
(C) (a)-(3), (b) - (2), (c) - (1), (d) - (4)
(D) (a)-(1), (b) - (2), (c) - (3), (d) - (4)
7. Chlorine reacts with cold and dilute NaOH to give
(A) NaCIO and NaCIO 3 (B) NaCl and NaCIO 3
(C) NaCl and NaCIO (D) NaCl and NaCIO 4
8. The incorrect statement about interstitial compounds is:

(A) They retain metallic conductivity.
(B) They are very hard.
(C) They are chemically reactive.
(D) They have high melting point.
9. The half life of a substance in a first order reaction is 15 min. The rate constant
is
(A) 4.62 x 10-2 min-1 (B) 6.74 x 10-2 min-1 (C) 2.46 x 102 min-1 (D) 7.18 x 102min-1
10. Which of the following does not give Cannizaro reaction?
(A) (CH3)3 C-CHO
(B) (CH3)2 CH - CHO

(C) HCHO
(D)
11. The conversion of an alkyl halide into alcohol by aqueous NaOH is classified as
(A) a dehydrohalogenation reaction (B) a substitution reaction
(C) an addition reaction (D) a dehydration reaction
12. Which of the following methods of preparation of amines will give same number
of carbon atoms in the chain of amines as in the reactant?
(A) Treatment of amide with bromine in an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
(B) Heating alkylhalide with potassium salt of phthalimide followed by hydrolysis
(C) Reaction of nitrite with LiAlH4
(D) Reaction of amide with LiAlH4 followed by treatment with water

13. Assertion (A): Primary structure of proteins gives an idea about the
conformation of the molecule.
Page 2
Reason (R): The differences in chemical and biological properties of various
proteins arise due to the difference in primary structure.
(C) A is true but R is false
14. Assertion (A): RCHO, RCOCH3 and cyclic ketones react with sodium bisulphite.
Reason (R): Crystalline solid derivatives are formed when aldehydes or ketones
are shaken with saturated aqueous solution of sodium bisulphite.
15. Assertion (A): Aryl halide gives a mixture of o- and p-products.
Reason (R): Aryl halides undergo electrophilic substitutions more readily than
benzene.
16. Assertion (A): Last traces of moisture in ethanol can be removed by keeping it
over sodium wire
Reason (R): Sodium reacts with water but not with ethanol to produce H2 gas.
(D) both A and R are false.
17. i. What type of isomerism is shown by the complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3?
ii. On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration for d4
ion if Δ > P.
o
iii. Write the hybridization and shape of [CoF6]3-. (Atomic number of Co = 27)
18. What is lanthanoid contraction? What is its effect on the chemistry of the
elements which follow the lanthanoids?
Page 3
(a) For a certain reaction large fraction of molecules has energy more than the
threshold energy, yet the rate of reaction is very slow. Why?
(b) State a condition under which a bimolecular reaction is kinetically first-order
reaction.
20. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 0.850 bar. A
non-volatile, non-electrolyte solid weighing 0.5 g when added to 39.0 g of
benzene (molar mass 78 g mol-1). Vapour pressure of the solution, then, is 0.845 bar. What
is the molar mass of the solid substance?
OR
* Calculate the osmotic pressure in pascals exerted by a solution prepared by
dissolving 1.0 g of polymer of molar mass 185,000 in 450 mL of water at 37°C.
21. Describe how the following conversions can be brought about (any two)?
i. Cyclohexanol to cyclohexan-1-one.
ii. Ethyl benzene to benzoic acid.
iii. Bromobenzene to benzoic acid.
22. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.

2+ 2
Zn(s) + C u (aq) ⇌ Z n (aq) + Cu(s)
0
Given: E 2+
= −0.763V
Zn /Z n
0
and E 2+ = +0.34V
cu /cu
23. Consider a certain reaction A → Products with k = 2.0 × 10-2 s-1. Calculate the
concentration of A remaining after 100 s if the initial concentration of A is 1.0
mol L-1.
24. Give the major products that are formed by heating each of the following ethers
with HI.
OR
* i. Write the mechanism of the following SN1 reaction:
Aq.NaOH
(CH3 )3 C − Br −−−−−→ (CH3 )3 C − OH + NaBr
ii. Write the equation for the preparation of 2-methyl-2-methoxypropane by

Williamson synthesis.
Page 4
25. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their property
indicated:
i. Acetaldehyde, Benzaldehyde, Acetophenone, Acetone (Reactivity towards HCN)
ii. (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH (Acidic strength)
iii. CH3CH2OH, CH3CHO, CH3COOH (Boiling point)
26. One half-cell in a voltaic cell is constructed from a silver wire dipped in silver
nitrate solution of unknown concentration. The other half-cell consists of a zinc
electrode in 1.0 M solution of Zn(NO 3)2. A voltage of 1.48 V is measured for this
cell. Use this information to calculate the concentration of silver nitrate solution.
[ Given, E∘
Zn
2+
= −0.763 V and E
/Zn
∘
Ag
+ = +0.80 V ].
/Ag
27. One of the two figures given below represents substitution and the other
represents elimination. Indicate which is substitution and which is elimination.
28. What is an electrochemical series? How does it help in calculating the e.m.f of a
standard cell?
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The transition metals when exposed to oxygen at low and intermediate
temperatures form thin, protective oxide films of up to some thousands of
Angstroms in thickness. Transition metal oxides lie between the extremes of
ionic and covalent binary compounds formed by elements from the left or right
side of the periodic table. They range from metallic to semiconducting and
deviate by both large and small degrees from stoichiometry. Since delectron
bonding levels are involved, the cations-exist in various valence states and hence
give rise to a large number of oxides. The crystal structures are often classified
by considering a cubic or hexagonal close-packed lattice of one set of ions with
the other set of ions filling the octahedral or tetrahedral interstices. The actual
oxide structures, however, generally show departures from such regular arrays
due in part to distortions caused by packing of ions of different size and to
ligand field effects. These distortions depend not only on the number of d-
electrons but also on the valence and the position of the transition metal in a
period or group.
i. Why does copper, which is in first series of transition metal exhibits +1
oxidation state most frequently? (1)
ii. The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic. Why? (1)
iii. The variability in oxidation states of d-block different from that of the p-block
elements. Explain. (2)
OR
* Crystal structure of oxides of transition metals often show defects. Given
reason. (2)
Aariv Sharma is very fond of a special drink made by his grandmother using
different fruits available in their hometown. It has an outstanding taste and also
provide great health benefits of natural fruits. He thought of utilizing his
grandmother recipe to create a new product in the beverage market that
provide health benefits and also contain fizziness of various soft drinks available
in the market.
i. How he can add fizz to the special drink made by his grandmother? (1)
ii. What is the law stated in the chapter that can help Aariv to make his drink
fizzy? (1)
iii. What precautions he should take while bottling so that his product does not
lose fizz during storage and handling across long distances? (2)
OR
* The mole fraction of helium in a saturated solution at 20°C is 1.2 g 10-6. Find the
pressure of helium above the solution. Given Henry's constant at 20°C is 144.97
kbar. (2)
31. Attempt any five of the following:

(a) What is the structural feature characterising reducing sugars?
(b) What type of linkage is present in polysaccharides?
(c) Give examples of fat soluble vitamins.
(d) The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.
(e) Write uses of B-Complex.
(f) Name the disaccharide which on hydrolysis gives two molecules of glucose.
(g) Name purines present in DNA?
32. Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds:
a. [P t(N H 3 )2 Cl (N O2 ]
b. K3 [Cr(C2 O4 )3 ]
c. [CoCl 2 (en )2 ] Cl
d. [Co(N H ) (CO
3 5 3 )] Cl
e. Hg [Co(SCN ) ] 4
OR
* Using Valence bond theory, explain the following in relation to the
paramagnetic complex [Mn(CN)6]3-
a. type of hybridisation
b. magnetic moment value
c. type of complex - inner, outer orbital complex
33. (i). Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride
(C6 H5 N
2
+ −
Cl ) reacts with the following reagents.
a. HBF 4 /Δ
b. Cu/HBr
(ii). Write the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions:
Sn/HCl N aN O2 +HCl 273K
a. C6 H5 N O2 −−−−→ A −−−−−−−−→B−−−→H
Δ
273K
K CN LiAlH4 HN O 2
b. CH 3 Cl −−−→A−−−−→B−−−−→C
273K
OR
* (i). Illustrate the following reactions giving suitable example in each case:
a. Ammonolysis
b. Coupling reaction
c. Acetylation of amines
(ii). Describe Hinsberg method for the identification of primary, secondary and
tertiary amines. Also, write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.
----- -----
1. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is ______.
(A
) (A) > (C) > (B) (B
) (C) > (B) > (A) ()C (B) > (A) > (C) ()D (A) > (B) > (C)
2. DNA fingerprinting means the

(A
) sequencing the nucleotides in DNA
(B
) sequencing the bases present in double helix
()C information regarding the unique sequence of bases on DNA for a person
()D information reagrding the unique imprints on the fingertip for a person
3. One mole of an organic compound 'A' with the formula C3H8O reacts completely
with two moles of HI to form X and Y. When 'Y' is boiled with aqueous alkali
forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The compound 'A' is ________
(A
) methoxyethane (B
) ethoxyethane ()C Propan-2-01 ()D Propan-1-01
4. The common name for pentanedioic acid is:

(A
) Succinic acid (B
) Pimelic acid ()C Oxalic acid ()D Glutaric acid
5. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 min, then 50% of the
reaction was completed in _______ .
(A
) 24 min (B
) 4 min ()C 16 min ()D 8 min
6. Match the items of column I with appropriate entries of column II.

Column I Column II
(a) P
ΔP
∘
A
(i)
ΔTb
(b) Kb (ii) mol fraction of solute

(c) i (iii)
ΔTf
Page 1
(iv) Ratio of observed molar mass to actual
(d) Kf
molar mass
(A) (a) (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

(B) (a) (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(C) (a) (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(D) (a) (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
7. Carbon tetrachloride has a dipole moment:

(A) μ = 0 (B) μ = 1 (C) μ = 2 (D) μ = 4
8. Among the following, which bivalent ion of the first transition series shows a
maximum magnetic moment?
(A) Co2+ (B) Ni2+ (C) Mn2+ (D) Fe2+
9. The slope of the line in the plot of concentration [A] Vs. time (s) indicate
(A) +k (B) −k (C) +k
(D) −k
2.303 2.303
10. How to do the following conversion:

RCOOCI + ? → RCHO
(A) Using H2-Pd, BaSO 4
(B) Using DIBAL-H

(C) Using H2 - Pd
(D) Using NaBH4
11. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is
__________ .
(A) III < I < II (B) III < II < I (C) II < III < I (D) II < I < III
Page 2
12. Give IUPAC name of the compound given below.
(A) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane (B) 5-Chlorohexan - 2 - ol

(C) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane (D) 2-Chlorohexan - 5 - ol

13. Assertion (A): Cellulose is not digested by human beings.

Reason (R): Cellulose is a polymer of β-D-glucose.
14. Assertion (A): Benzaldehyde is less reactive than ethanal towards nucleophilic
addition reactions.
Reason (R): Ethanal is more sterically hindered
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.
15. Assertion (A): Hydrolysis of (-)-2-bromooctane proceeds with inversion of
configuration.
Reason (R): This reaction proceeds through the formation of a carbocation to
give (+)-octan-2-ol as a product. In SN2 reaction of optically active halides are
accompanied by inversion of configuration.
16. Assertion (A): The oxygen of OH group in alcohols is attached to sp3 hybridised
carbon.
Reason (R): The bond angle in alcohols C-O-H is 109°28'.
Page 3
17. Using the valence bond approach, deduce the shape and magnetic behaviour of
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ion. [Atomic number of Cr = 24]
18. Why is Cr2+ reducing and Mn3+ oxidising when both have d4 configuration?

(a) For a chemical reaction, what is the effect of catalyst on the rate of the
reaction.
(b) Why is the probability of reaction with molecularity higher than three very
rare?
OR
* Why do gases always tend to be less soluble in liquids as the temperature is
raised?
20. Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 0.520 g glucose (C6H12O 6)
dissolved in 80.20 g of water. (For water Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1)

21. Draw the structures of the following compounds.
i. 4-Chloropentan-2-one
ii. 3-Bromo-4-phenylpentanoic acid
22. Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose
PH is 10.
23. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60s-1. How much time will it take
to reduce the concentration of the reactant 1
10
th its initial value?
24. Give equations of the following reactions:
i. Oxidation of propan-1-ol with alkaline KMnO 4 solution.
ii. Bromine in CS2 with phenol.
iii. Dilute HNO 3 with phenol.
iv. Treating phenol with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.
OR
* Write the structures of the major products expected from the following
reactions:
a. Mononitration of 3-methylphenol
Page 4
b. Dinitration of 3-methylphenol
c. Mononitration of phenyl methanoate
25. An aromatic compound A (Molecular formula C8H8O) gives positive 2, 4-DNP
test. It gives a yellow precipitate of compound B on treatment with iodine and
sodium hydroxide solution. Compound A does not give Tollen's or Fehling's test.
On drastic oxidation with potassium permanganate it forms a carboxylic acid C
(Molecular formula C7H6O 2), which is also formed along with the yellow
compound in the above reaction. Identify A, B and C and write all the reactions
involved.
26. When a steady current of 2A was passed through two electrolytic cells A and B
containing electrolytes ZnSO 4 and CuSO 4 connected in series, 2g of Cu were
deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current flow? What mass of
Zn was deposited at cathode of cell A?
[Atomic mass: Cu = 63.5 g mol-¹, Zn = 65 g mol-1; 1F = 96500 C mol-¹]
27. In each of the following pairs of compounds, identify the compound which will
undergo SN1 reaction faster.
28. Determine the value of equilibrium constant (Kc) and θ

ΔG for the following
+ 2+
N i(s) + 2Ag (aq) → N i (aq) + 2Ag(s)
reaction. θ −1
E = 1.05V (1F = 96500Cmol )
Transition metal oxides are generally formed by the reaction of metals with
oxygen at high temperatures. The highest oxidation number in the oxides
coincides with the group number. In vanadium, there is a gradual change from
the basic V2O 3 to less basic V2O 4 and to amphoteric V2O 5. V2O 4 dissolves in
acids to give VO 2+ salts. Potassium dichromate is a very important chemical used

in the leather industry and as an oxidant for the preparation of many azo
compounds. Dichromates are generally prepared from chromate. Sodium
dichromate is more soluble than potassium dichromate. The latter is, therefore,
prepared by treating the solution of sodium dichromate with potassium
chloride. Sodium and potassium dichromates are strong oxidising agents;
sodium salt has a greater solubility in water and is extensively used as an
oxidising agent in organic chemistry. Potassium dichromate is used as a primary
standard in volumetric analysis.
i. Which of the 3d series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of
oxidation and why?
ii. A transition metal exhibits highest oxidation state ih oxides and fluorides. Give
reason.
iii. How would you account for the increasing oxidising power in the series:
VO
+
2
2−
< C r2 O
7
−
< M nO
4
?
OR
* MnO is basic whereas Mn2O 7 is acidic in nature. Give reason.
Many chemical and biological processes depend on osmosis, the selective
passage of solvent molecules through the porous membrane from a dilute
solution to a more concentrated one. The osmotic pressure π depends on molar
concentration of the solution (π = CRT). If two solutions are of equal solute
concentration and, hence, have the same osmotic pressure, they are said to be
isotonic. If two solutions are of unequal osmotic pressures, the more
concentrated solution is said to be hypertonic and the more diluted solution is
described as hypotonic. Osmosis is the major mechanism, for transporting
water upward in the plants. Transpiration is the leaves supports the transport
mechanism of water. The osmotic pressure of seawater is about 30 atm; this is
the pressure that must be applied to the seawater (separated from pure water
using a semi-permeable membrane) to get drinking water.
i. What will happen if a plant cell kept in a hypertonic solution?
ii. Blood cells are isotonic with 0.9% sodium chloride solution. What happens if
we place blood cells in a solution containing in 1.2% sodium chloride solution?
iii. What happens when the external pressure applied becomes more than the
osmotic pressure of solution?
OR
* Which mechanisms helps in the transportation of water in a plant?

(a) What are Purines and Pyrimidines? Name the purines and Pyrimidines
present in DNA and RNA nucleic Acids.
(b) Write the full forms of DNA and RNA.
(c) Name the vitamin whose deficiency causes convulsions.
(d) Which vitamin B group can be stored in our body?
(e) (i). What is the difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide?
(ii). Write one di erence between a-helix and ẞ-pleated sheet structures of
ff
protein.
(f) What are nucleic acids? Why two strands in DNA are not identical but are
complementary?
(g) Some enzymes are named after the reaction, where they are used. What
name is given to the class of enzymes which catalyse the oxidation of one
substrate with simultaneous reduction of another substrate?
32. Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds:
i. [Co (N H 3) 6] C l3
ii. [Co(N H 3 )5 Cl] C l2
iii. K 3 [F e(CN )6 ]
iv. K 3 [F e(C2 O4 )3 ]
v. K 2
[P
4
dCl
]
vi. [P t(N H 3
) Cl (N H2 C H3 )] Cl
2
OR
* Using IUPAC norms write the formulas for the following:
a. Tetrahydroxozincate(II)
b. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)
c. Diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
d. Potassium tetracyanonickelate(II)
e. Pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III)
f. Hexaamminecobalt (III) sulphate
g. Potassium tri(oxalato) chromate(III)
h. Hexaammineplatinum(IV)
i. Tetrabromidocuprate(II)
j. Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III)
33. i. Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride
reacts with the following reagents:
a. H3PO 2 + Hp
b. CuCN/KCN
c. H₂O
ii. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic character in an
aqueous solution: C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N. Give justi cation.
fi
OR
* Write major product(s) in the following reaction .
1. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is:
(A
) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene (B
) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
()C 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene ()D 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
2. Cheilosis is caused by deficiency of
(A
) Vitamin B6 (B
) Vitamin B2 ()C Vitamin C ()D Vitamin B12
3.
The correct IUPAC name of is

(A
) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol (B
) 3-Methylbutan-3-ol
()C 2,2-Dimethylpropanol ()D tert-butyl alcohol
4.
The structure of A and type of isomerism in the above reaction are respectively.
(A
) Prop-2-en-2-ol, geometrical isomerism
(B
) Prop-1-en-2-ol, metamerism
()C Prop-1-en-2-ol, tautomerism
()D Prop-1-en-1-ol, tautomerism
5. For the reaction A + 3B → 2C + 2D, the concentration of A changes from 0.150 M

to 0.0135 M in 1 min. The rate of formation of C in mol/L/s is:
(A
) 5 x 105 (B
) 3 x 10-5 ()C 5 x 10-5 ()D 2.5 x 10-5

Column I Column II
(а) Кь (i) Elevation in boiling point
(b) Kf (ii) Van't Hoff factor
Page 1
(c) i (iii) Cryoscopic constant
(d) ΔTb (iv) Ebullioscopic constant
(A) (a) (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(B) (a) (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(C) (a) (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(D) (a) (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
7. Ethylidene chloride is a/an __________ .
(A) vic-dihalide (B) vinylic halide (C) gem-dihalide (D) allylic halide
8. Haemoglobin and chlorophyll contain:
(A) Fe and Mg (B) Fe and Mn (C) Fe and Co (D) Mg and Fe
9. For the reaction 3A → 2B, rate of reaction −
d[A]
is equal to
dt
(A) +1 d[B]
3 dt
(B) +2 d[B]
3 dt
(C) +1 d[B]
2 dt
(D) +3 d[B]
2 dt
10. Which of the following reagents would one choose to transform CH3COCI into
acetone?
(A) CH3MgBr (B) (CH3)2Cd (C) (CH3O)2Mg (D) CH3Cl
11. Lucas reagent is?

(A) anhydrous PdCl2 and conc.HCl. (B) anhydrous AlCl3 and conc.HCl.
(C) anhydrous CaC2 and conc. HCl. (D) anhydrous ZnCl2 and conc. HCl.
12. Amide which gives propanamine by Hoffmann bromamide is:

(A) Pentanamide (B) Hexanamide (C) Butanamine (D) Propanamine

13. Assertion (A): Vitamin C cannot be stored in our body.

Reason (R): Vitamin C is fat soluble and is excreted from the body in urine.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
14. Assertion (A): Oximes are less acidic than hydroxyl amine.
Reason (R): Oximes of aldehydes and ketones show geometrical isomerism.
Page 2
15. Assertion (A): Alkylbenzene is not prepared by Friedel-Crafts alkylation of
benzene.
Reason (R): Alkyl halides are less reactive than acyl halides.
16. Assertion (A): (CH3)3C-O-CH3 gives (CH3)3C-I and CH3OH on treatment with HI.
Reason (R): The reaction occurs by SN1 mechanism.
17. Write the formula of the following complexes:

i. Hexaammine platinum (IV) chloride.
ii. Dichloro tetrammine cobalt (III) ion.
18. Give reasons for the following:
a. The only oxidation state shown by Scandium is +3.
b. [Ti(H2O)6]4+ is colourless.
c. MnO is basic while Mn2O 7 is acidic.

(a) The rate of a reaction is given by rate = k [N2O 5]. In this equation what does
k stand for?
(b) Is it possible to determine or predict the rate law theoretically by merely
looking at the equation?
20. If the density of some lake water is 1.25 g mL-¹ and contains 92 g of Na+ ions
per kg of water, calculate the molarity of Na+ ions in the lake.

OR
* a. Differentiate between Ideal solution and Non-ideal solution.
b. 30 g of urea is dissolved in 846 g of water. Calculate the vapour pressure of
water for this solution if vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg.
Page 3
21. Convert Toluene to m-Nitrobenzoic acid.
22. Write the chemistry of recharging the lead storage battery, highlighting all the
materials that are involved during recharging.
23. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide by the
reaction
C2H5I(g) → C2H4(g) + HI(g)
at 600 K is 1.60 × 10-2 s-1. Its energy of activation is 209 kJ/mol. Calculate the rate
constant of the reaction at 700 Κ.
24. Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
OR
* Give the major products that are formed by heating each of the following
ethers with HI.
25. An organic compound A, which has a characteristic odour, on treatment with

con.NaOH forms two compounds B and C. Compound B has molecular formula
C7H8O which on oxidation gives back A. Compound C is the sodium salt of an
acid. C, when heated with soda lime yields an aromatic hydrocarbon D. Deduce
the structures of A, B, C and D.
26. How much copper is deposited on the cathode of an electrolytic cell if a current
of 5 ampere is passed through a solution of copper sulphate for 45 minutes?
27. How the following conversions can be carried out?
i. 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
ii. Chloroethane to butane
iii. Benzene to diphenyl
28. Silver is deposited on a metallic vessel by passing a current of 0.2 amps. for 3
hrs. Calculate the weight of silver deposited. (At mass of silver = 108 amu, 1 F =
Page 4
96500 C)?
The f-block consists of elements in which 4f and 5f orbitals are progressively
filled. They are placed in a separate panel at the bottom of the periodic table.
The names transition metals and inner transition metals are often used to refer
to the elements of d-and f-blocks respectively. The d-block occupies the large
middle section of the periodic table flanked between s and p blocks in the
periodic table. In general, the electronic configuration of the outer orbitals of
these elements is (n-1)d1-10ns1-2. The electronic configurations of outer orbitals
of Zn, Cd, Hg and Cn are represented by the general formula (n - 1)d10ns2. The
transition metals and their compounds also exhibit catalytic property and
paramagnetic behaviour. Transition metal also forms an alloy. An alloy is a blend
of metals prepared by mixing the components. Alloys may be homogeneous
solid solutions in which the atoms of one metal are distributed randomly among
the atoms of the other.
i. Transition metals form alloys. Justify?
ii. Why do transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomization?
iii. Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic
behaviour. Give reason.
OR
* Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalyst. Give reason.
The solutions which boil at a constant temperature like a pure liquid and
possess the same composition in liquid, as well as vapour state are called
azeotropes. The components of azeotropes cannot be separated by fractional
distillation. Only non-ideal solutions form azeotropes. Solutions with negative
deviation form maximum boiling azeotrope and the solutions with positive
deviation form minimum boiling azeotrope. The boiling point of azeotrope is
never equal to the boiling points of any of the components of the azeotrope.
i. The azeotropic solutions of two miscible liquids show what type of deviation
from Raoult's law?
ii. The azeotropic mixture of water & HCI boils at 108.5°C. What type of deviation
is shown by the solution?
Does this solution behave as ideal or non-ideal?
iii. Do ideal solutions form azeotropes?
OR
* Out of pure liquid and azeotrope showing positive deviation, Which one has a
higher boiling point?

(a) Aldopentoses named ribose and 2-deoxyribose are found in nucleic acids.
What is their relative configuration?
(b) What are the three components of nucleic acids?
(c) Name the sugar present in milk. How many monosaccharide units are
present in it? What are such oligosaccharides called?
(d) Is nucleotide and nucleoside the same? What are their roles?
(e) Why cannot vitamin C be stored in our body?
(f) During curdling of milk, what happens to sugar present in it?
(g) Account for the following:
a. There are 5-OH groups in glucose.
b. Glucose is a reducing sugar
32. List various types of isomerism possible for coordination compounds, giving an
example of each.
OR
* Explain with two examples each of the following: Coordination entity, ligand
coordination number, coordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heteroleptic.
33. An organic compound A with molecular formula C7H7NO reacts with Br2/aq.
KOH to give compound B, which upon reaction with NaNO 2 and HCl at 0°C gives
C. Compound C on heating with CH3CH2OH gives a hydrocarbon D. Compound B
on further reaction with Br2 water gives white precipitate of compound E.
Identify the compound A, B, C, D and E; also justify your answer by giving
relevant chemical equations.
OR
* i. Write one chemical reaction for each
a. Carbylamine reaction
b. Acetylation reaction
ii. Write structure of N,N-ethylmethylethanamide
----- -----
1. Chloromethane on treatment with excess of ammonia yields mainly

(A
) Methanamine (CH3NH2)
(B
) Mixture containing all these in equal proportion
()C N-methylmethanamine (CH3-NH-CH3)
()D N, N-Dimethylmethanamine
2. Which of the following is a disaccharide?

(A
) Glucose (B
) Cellulose ()C Lactose ()D Starch
3. In the reaction
(A
) Phenols are acidic in nature.
(B
) They can donate a proton to a stronger base
()C Cleavage of O - H bond
()D All of these
4. The fragrance of the aldehyde and ketone are used for perfume and similar
uses depend on:
(A
) on its reactivity with other functional groups.
(B
) size and solubility of the aldehyde and ketone molecule.
()C only solubility of aldehydes and ketones.
()D moisture of the air.
5. Value of Henry's constant KH:

(A
) increases with decrease in temperature.
(B
) remains constant.
()C increases with increase in temperature.
()D decreases with increase in temperature.
Page 1
6. Match the item given in Column I with expression given in Column II
Column I Column II
(a) Osmotic Pressure p = KH ⋅ χB
(b) Relative lowering of ΔP

= χB
vapour pressure
o
P
A
(c) Henry Law ΔTb = Kb ⋅ m
(d) Elevation in boiling point p = iCRT

(A) (a) (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i).
(B) (a) (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i).
(C) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv).
(D) (a) (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii).
7. Isomers of the compound C4H9Br are:
(A) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane and 2-Bromo-2- methylbutane
(B) 1- Bromobutane and 2 - Bromobutane
(C) 1 - Bromobutane, 2 - Bromobutane, 1 - bromo-2-methylpropane, and 2 - bromo-2 -
methylpropane
(D) 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane and 2 - Bromo-2-methylpropane
8. Which one among the following metals of 3d series has the lowest melting
point?
(A) Cu (B) Fe (C) Zn (D) Mn
9. The half-life of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled. The order of the reaction is:
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
10. Which of the following does not give silver mirror test?
(A) CH3CH2CHO (B) HCOOH (C) CH3CHO (D) CH3COCH3
11. When diethyl ether is heated with excess of HI, it produces :

(A) ethyl iodide (B) ethanol (C) methyl iodide (D) iodoform
12. Gabriel synthesis is used for the preparation of:
(A) Quaternary salt (B) Primary amines
(C) Tertiary amine (D) Secondary amine

13. Assertion (A): Glucose and fructose are reducing sugars.

Reason (R): Glucose and fructose contain a free aldehydic and ketonic group
adjacent to a >CHOH group respectively
Page 2
14. Assertion (A): Rate of addition of HCN on carbonyl compounds increases in
presence of NaCN.
Reason (R): Reaction involves the addition of Cn in rate determining step.
15. Assertion (A): Isopropyl chloride is less reactive than CH3Br in SN2 reactions.
Reason (R): SN2 reactions are always accompanied by inversion of configuration.

16. Assertion (A): Aqueous solution of phenol is called as carbonic acid.
Reason (R): Increasing order of acidity of phenols is m nitrophenol >o-
nitrophenol >p-nitrophenol.
(D) Both A and R are false.
17. Write the formulae for the following coordination compounds:

i. Potassium tetrahydroxo sincate (II)
ii. Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
iii. Dichloridobis cobalt III (ethane - 1, 2 diamine)
18. Why are Fe2+ compounds easily oxidises to Fe3+ as compared to Mn+2
compounds.
(a) a. Write the mathematical relation between rate constant and half-life of a
first order reaction.
b. What is collision frequency?
Page 3
(b) If the rate equation is given below:
Rate = k[A]2[B]
then what will be the unit of its rate and rate constant?
20. Calculate the temperature at which the solution containing 54 g of glucose,
C6H12O 6 in 250 g of water will freeze. (Kb for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)
OR
* Define the terms Mass percentage.
21. An organic compound 'A' (molecular formula C3H6O) is resistant to oxidation

but forms a compound 'B' (
C3H8O) on reduction. 'B' reacts with HBr to form a bromide'C' which on
treatment with alcoholic KOH forms an alkene 'D' (C3H6). Deduce the structures
of A, B, C and D.
22. What are fuel cells? Explain the electrode reactions involved in the working of H2
- O 2 fuel cell.
23. In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction was measured for
different initial concentrations of A and B as given below:
A/mol L-1 0.20 0.20 0.40
B/mol L-1 0.30 0.10 0.05
ro/mol L-1s-1 5.07 x 10-5 5.07 x 10-5 1.43 x 10-4
What is the order of the reaction with respect to A and B ?

24. Write the reactions and conditions for the following conversions:
i. 2-Propanone into 2-methyl-2-Proponal
ii. n-Propyl alcohol into hexane
OR
*
i. Write the mechanism of the following reaction:
+
H
⟶
2C H3 C H2 OH −−−→ C H3 C H2 OC H2 C H3 + H2 O
413K
ii. Write the preparation of phenol from cumene.
25. How would you bring about the following conversions?

i. Propanal to butanone
ii. Benzaldehyde to benzophenone
iii. Benzoyl chloride to benzonitrile
Page 4
26. Calculate the emf of the following cell:
2+ + −3
M g(s) ∣
∣M g (0.2M )∥Ag (1 × 10 M )∣
∣ Ag(s)
0 +
E (Ag /Ag) = 0.80V
0 2+
E (M g /M g) = −2.37V
27. Draw the structures of major monohalo products in each of the following
reactions:
(1)
(2)
(3)
28. State Kohlrausch's law of independent migration of ions. How can the degree of
dissociation of acetic acid in a solution be calculated from its molar conductivity
data?
Observe the graph of transition metal and their melting points
i. Why does W (tungsten) has highest melting point?

ii. Which element in 3d series has lowest enthalpy of atomisation and why?
iii. Why is mercury liquid?
OR
iii. Why are transition metals less electropositive than 's'-block elements?
A raw mango placed in concentrated salt solution loses water via osmosis and
shrivel into pickle. Wilted flowers revive when placed in fresh water. A carrot
that has become limp because of water loss into the atmosphere can be placed
into the water making it firm once again. Water will move into its cells through
osmosis. When placed in water containing less than 0.9% (mass/volume) salt,
blood cells swell due to flow of water in them by osmosis.
i. People taking a lot of salt or salty food suffer from puffiness or edema. What
is the reason behind this?
ii. The preservation of meat by salting and of fruits by adding sugar protects
against bacterial action. How?
iii. Why the direction of osmosis gets reversed if a pressure larger than the
osmotic pressure is applied to the solution side? Write its one application.
OR
iii.What care is generally taken during intravenous injections and why?

(a) Define native state in reference to proteins.
(b) Define the following terms:
a. Polysaccharides
b. Nucleotides
(c) Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy?
(d) What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following? Give equations
to support your answer.
a. HI
b. HNO 3
(e) Name the disaccharide which on hydrolysis gives glucose and galactose.
(f) Write the products obtained after hydrolysis of lactose.
(g) Give the reaction of glucose with hydrogen cyanide. Presence of which
group is confirmed by this reaction?
32. Draw all the isomers of: (geometrical and optical)
i. [CoCl2 (en )2 ]
+
ii. [Co (N H
2+
2
3
) Cl(en ) ]
iii. [Co(N H 3)
2
C l2 (en)]
+
OR
* Using crystal field theory, draw energy level diagram, write the electronic
configuration of the central metal atom/ion and determine the magnetic moment
value in the following:
i. [CoF 6]
3−
, [Co (H2 O) 6 ]
2+
, [Co(CN )6 ]
3−
ii. [F eF 6]
3−
, [F e(H2 O) 6 ]
2+
, [F e(CN )6 ]
4−
33. (a) Give plausible explanation for each of the following:

i. Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
ii. Why are primary amines highest boiling than tertiary amines?
iii. Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines?
(b) Complete the following reactions:
i. C H N Cl + C H OH →
6 5 2 2 5
ii. C 6 H5 N H2 + (C H3 CO) 2 O →
OR
* Write the structure of A, B, C, D and E in the following reactions:
----- -----
1. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by
treating the alcohol with:
(A
) SOCl2in presence of pyridine
(B
) PCl3
()C Dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
()D PCl5
2. Fat soluble vitamins are stored in

(A
) Eyes (B
) Stomach
()C Adipose and liver ()D Pancreas
3. Williamson synthesis is used to obtain:

(A
) Ether (B
) Primary alcohol ()C Aldehyde ()D Ketone
4. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH

solution gives:
(A
) Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
(B
) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
()C Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
()D Sodium benzoate and sodium formate
5. The rate of reaction A + B → Products, is given by the equation r = k[A] [B]. If B is

taken in large excess, the order of reaction would be:
(A
) Cannot be predicted (B
) 0
()C 2 ()D 1

Column I Column II
(a) Non ideal solution with positive
(i) H2 O(57%) + HI (43%)
deviation
(b) Maximum boiling azeotrope (ii) CHC l3 + (C H3 ) CO
2
(c) Non ideal solution with negative (iii) C2 H5 OH(95.4%)
deviation + H2 O(4.6%)
Page 1
(d) Minimum boiling azeotrope (iv) CC l4 + C6 H5 C H3
(A) (a) (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

(B) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(C) (a) (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(D) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
7. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?
(A) (CH3)3C-I (B) (CH3)3C-F (C) (CH3)3C-Br (D) (CH3)3C-Cl
8. Which property of transition metals enables them to behave as catalysts?

(A) Alloy formation (B) High melting point
(C) Variable oxidation states (D) High ionisation enthalpy
9. The unit of rate constant for a first order reaction is
(A) Mol/L (B) Mol/L/s (C) Mol²/L²/s² (D) s-1
10. Which of the following does not give aldol condensation reaction?
(A) CH3COCH3
(B)
(C) CH3 - CHO
(D)
11. An organic compound containing oxygen, upon oxidation forms a carboxylic acid
as the only organic product with its molecular mass higher by 14 units. The
organic compound is ___________ .
(A) a ketone (B) a primary alcohol
(C) an aldehyde (D) a secondary alcohol
12. Out of the following, the strongest base in aqueous solution is
(A) Trimethylamine (B) Dimethylamine (C) Methylamine (D) Aniline

13. Assertion (A): D-glucose and D-mannose form same osazone with
phenylhydrazine.
Reason (R): Osazone formation involves only the last four carbon atoms.
Page 2
14. Assertion (A): Reactivity of ketones is more than aldehydes.
Reason (R): The carbonyl carbon of ketones is less electrophilic as compared to
aldehydes.
15. Assertion (A): Vinyl halides do not give nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Reason (R): Vinyl group is electron donating in vinyl halides.
16. Assertion (A): With excess of HI, glycerol ultimately gives isopropyl iodide.
Reason (R): The reaction occurs through intermediate formation of allyl iodide
and propylene.
17. Write the IUPAC name and draw the structure of coordination entities of
[PtCl(NH3)5]Cl3.
18. Give an explanation for the catalytic properties shown by transition metals.
(a) Define rate of reaction?
(b) For a reaction the rate law expression is represented as follows:
Rate = k[A][B]
1
i. Interpret whether the reaction is elementary or complex. Give reason to

support your answer.
ii. Write the unit of rate constant for this reaction if concentration of A and B is
expressed in moles/L
20. Sodium chloride or calcium chloride is used to clear snow from the roads. Why?
Page 3
OR
* Define molal elevation constant or ebullioscopic constant.
21. What is meant by the Ketal? Give an example.
22. How much charge is required for the following reductions:

i. 1 mol of Al
3+
to Al ?
ii. 1 mol of Cu
2+
to Cu ?
iii. 1 mol of M nO
−
4
to Mn
2+
?
23. i. Determine the units of rate constant for first and zero order reaction.
ii. Show that time required for the completion of 99% of the first order reaction
is twice the 90% of completion of the reaction.
24. Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethane.
OR
* How can phenol be converted to aspirin?
25. Predict the products formed when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with

following reagents.
i. PhMgBr and then H3O +
ii. Tollens' reagent
iii. Semicarbazide and weak acid
iv. Excess ethanol and acid
v. Zinc amalgam and dilute hydrochloric acid
26. Write the Nernst equation and calculate emf of the following cell at 298 K:
3+ 2+
Cr ∣
∣C r (0 ⋅ 1M )∥F e (0 ⋅ 01M )∣
∣ Fe
⊖
Given : E 3+ = −0 ⋅ 75V
Cr /Cr
⊖
E 2+ = −0 ⋅ 45V
Fe /F e
(log 10 = 1)
27. Tert-Butylbromide reacts with aq. NaOH by SN1 mechanism while n-butylbromide
reacts by SN2 mechanism. Why?
28. Calculate the emf of the cell

+2 +2 −3
M g(s) ∣
∣M g (0.1M )∣
∣ ∣ Cu (1 × 10 M ∣ Cu(s))
Given, E ⊖
Cu
2+
/Cu
= +0.34V , E
Mg
⊖
+2
/M g
= −2.37V )
The f-block consists of the two series, lanthanoids (the fourteen elements
Page 4
following lanthanum) and actinoids (the fourteen elements following actinium).
Because lanthanum closely resembles the lanthanoids. The chemistry of the
actinoids is much more complicated. The complication arises partly owing to the
occurrence of a wide range of oxidation states in these elements and partly
because their radioactivity creates special problems in their study. The overall
decrease in atomic and ionic radii from lanthanum to lutetium (the lanthanoid
contraction) is a unique feature in the chemistry of the lanthanoids. In the
lanthanoids, La(II) and Ln(III) compounds are predominant species.
i. Which metal in the first transition series (3d series) exhibits +1 oxidation state
most frequently and why?
ii. The transition metals (with the exception of Zn, Cd and Hg) are hard and have
high melting and boiling points. Give reason.
iii. Both O 2 and F2 stabilize high oxidation states of transition metals but the
ability of oxygen to do so exceeds that of fluorine. Give reason.
OR
iii. The atomic radii of the metals of the third (5d) series of transition elements
are virtually the same as those of the corresponding members of the second
(4d) series. Give reason.
30. The colligative properties of electrolytes require a slightly different approach
than the one used for the colligative properties of non-electrolytes. The
electrolytes dissociate into ions in solution. It is the number of solute particles
that determines the colligative properties of a solution. The electron solutions,
therefore, show abnormal colligative properties. To account for this effect we
define a quantity called the van't Hoft factor, given
by
Actual number of particles in solution a fter dissociation
i =
Number of formula units initially dissolved in solution
i = 1 (for non-electrolytes);
i > 1 (for electrolytes, undergoing dissociation)
i < 1 (for solutes, undergoing association).
i. 0.1M K [F e(CN ) ] is 60% ionized. What will be its van't Hoff factor?
4 6
ii. When a solution of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene such that it undergoes
in molecular association and its molar mass approaches 244. In which form
Benzoic molecules will exist?
iii. How does van't Hoff factor i and degree of association a are related if
benzoic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene solution? (i = 1
−α
2
or
i = 1 + α) (2)
OR
iii. What do you mean by colligative properties of solutions?
31. Attempt any ve of the following:
fi
(a) Name the enzyme which convert surcrose into glucose and fructose.
(b) i. Name any two bases which are common to both DNA and RNA.
ii. Which vitamin de ciency causes:
fi
1. Bone deformities in children?
2. Pernicious anaemia?
(c) What are heterocyclic bases?
(d) Write the name of linkage joining two monosaccharides.
(e) Name the purines present in DNA.
(f) Give an example of brous protein.
fi
(g) Of the two bases named below, which one is present in RNA and which one
is present in DNA?
i. Thymine
ii. Uracil
32. Give the oxidation state, d-orbital occupation and coordination number of the
central metal ion in the following complexes:
i. K 3
[Co(C2 O4 ) ]
3
iii. (N H4 )2 [Co F4 ]
ii. cis- [Cr(en) 2 C l2 ] Cl iv. [M n(H 2 O) 6 ] S O4
OR
* Write the formulas for the following coordination compounds:
a. Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride
b. Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate(II)
c. Potassium trioxalatoaluminate(III)
d. Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III)
e. Tetracarbonylnickel(0)
33. i. Write structures of di erent isomeric amines corresponding to the molecular
ff
formula, C4H11N.
ii. Write IUPAC names of all the isomers.
iii. What type of isomerism is exhibited by di erent pairs of amines?
ff
OR
* Arrange the following compounds in a decreasing order of basic strength in
their aqueous solutions.
NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N
CLASS
12
2025
CBSE
11 SAMPLE
PAPERS
MATHEMATICS

Board Model Paper Total Marks : 80
1. 2025 0 0
⎡ ⎤
If for a square matrix A, A.(adjA) = ⎢ 0 2025 0 ⎥ then the value of

⎣ ⎦
0 0 2025
|A| + |adjA| is equal to.

(A
) 1 (B
) 2025 + 1 ()C (2025)
2
+ 45 ()D 2025 + (2025)
2
2. Assume X, Y, Z, W and P are matrices of order 2 × n, 3 × k, 2 × p, n × 3 and p × k

respectively. Then the restriction on n, k and p so that PY + WY will be defined
are:
(A
) k = 3, p = n (B
) k is arbitrary, p = 2
()C p is arbitrary, k = 3 ()D k=2p=3
3. The interval in which the function f defined by f (x) = e
x
is strictly increasing, is
(A
) [1, ∞) (B
) (−∞, 0) ()C (−∞, ∞) ()D (0, ∞)
4. If A and B are non-singular matrices of same order with det(A) = 5, then

is is equal to.
2
−1
det (B AB)
(A
) 5 (B
) 5
2
()C 5
4
()D 5
5
5. The value of 'n', such that the differential equation x

n
dy
= y(log y − log x + 1);
dx
(where x, y ∈ R
+
) is homogeneous,is
(A
) 0 (B
) 1 ()C 2 ()D 3
6. If the points (x1 , y1 ) , (x2 , y2 ) and (x1 + x2 , y1 + y2 ) are collinear, then x1 y2 is equal
to
(A
) x2 y1 (B
) x1 y1 ()C x2 y2 ()D x1 x2
7. 0 1 c
⎡ ⎤
If A = ⎢ −1 a −b ⎥ is a skew-symmetric matrix then the value of a + b + c =
⎣ ⎦
2 3 0
(A
) 1 (B
) 2 ()C 3 ()D 4
8. For any two events A and B,if ¯
P (A) =
1
, P (B̄) =
2
and P (A ∩ B) =
1
, then ¯
P (A/B̄)
2 3 4
equals:
(A
) 3
8
(B
) 8
9
()C 5
8
()D 1
Page 1
9. The value of α if the angle between 2
p ⃗ = 2α ^ı − 3α^
^
ȷ +k and q⃗ = ^
ı +^
^
ȷ + αk is
obtuse, is
(A) R - [0, 1] (B) (0, 1) (C) [0, ∞) (D) [1, ∞)
10. If ⃗
|a⃗| = 3, |b| = 4 and ⃗
|a⃗ + b| = 5 , then ⃗
|a⃗ − b| =
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 8

11. For the linear programming problem (LPP), the objective function is Z= 4x+3y
and the feasible region determined by a set of constraints is shown in the
graph:
Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Maximum value of Z is at R(40, 0)
(B) Maximum value of Z is at Q(30, 20)
(C) Value of Z at R(40, 0) is less than the value at P(0,40)
(D) The value of Z at Q(30, 20) is less than the value at R(40, 0)
12. ∫
dx
1
equals
3 4
x (1+ x ) 2
−−−−− −−−−− −−−−− −−−−−

(A) − 1
2x
2
√1 + x4 + c (B) 1
2x
√1 + x4 + c (C) − 1
4x
√1 + x4 + c (D) 1
4x
2
√1 + x4 + c
13. ∫
2π
cosec
7
xdx =
0
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2π

14. What is the general solution of the differential equation e
y
′
= x?
(A) y = x log x + c (B) y = x log x − x + c

(C) y = x log x + x + c (D) y = x + c
Page 2
15. The graph drawn below depicts
(A
) y = sin
−1
x (B
) y = cos
−1
x ()C y = cosec
−1
x ()D y = cot
−1
x
16. A linear programming problem (LPP) along eith the graph of its constraints is
shown below.The correspondig objective function is :Z = 18x + 10y which has to
be minimized. The smallest value of the objective function Z is 134 and is
obtained at the corner point (3,8).
The optimal solution of the above linear programming problem_______________.

(A
) does not exist as the feasible region is unbounded.
) does not exist as the inequality 18x + 10y < 134 does not have any point in common
(B
with the feasible region.
()C exists as the inequality 18x + 10y > 134 has infinitely many points in common with
the feasible region.
()D exists as the inequality 18x + 10y < 134 does not have any point in common with the
feasible region.
17. The function f : R → Z defined byf (x) = [x] ; where [.] denotes the greatest integer
function, is
Page 3
(A) Continuous at x = 2.5 but not differentiable at x = 2.5
(B) Not Continuous at x = 2.5 but differentiable at x = 2.5
(C) Not Continuous at x = 2.5 and not differentiable at x = 2.5
(D) Continuous as well as differentiable at x = 2.5
18. A student observes an open-air Honeybee nest on the branch of a tree, whose
plane figure is parabolic shape given by x
2
= 4y .Then the area (in sq units) of
the region bounded by parabola x
2
= 4y and the line y = 4 is
(A) 32
3
(B) 64
3
(C) 128
3
(D) 256

19. Assertion (A): Consider the function defined as f (x) = |x| + |x − 1|, x ∈ R . Then
f (x) is not differentiable at x = 0 x = 1
Reason (R): Suppose f be defined and continuous on (a, b) and c ∈ (a, b) , then
is not differentiable at if
f (c+h)−f (c) f (c+h)−f (c)
f (x) x = c lim h→0−
h
≠ lim h→0+
h
.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
20. Assertion (A): The function f : R − {(2n + 1)
π
: n ∈ Z} → (−∞, −1] ∪ [1, ∞) defined
2
by f (x) = sec x is not one - one function in its domain.
Reason (R): The line y = 2 meets the graph of the function at more than one
point.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
21. If cot
−1
(3x + 5) >
π
, then find the range of the values of x
4
22. The cost (in rupees) of producing x items in factory, each day is given by
3 2
C(x) = 0.00013x + 0.002x + 5x + 2200
Find the marginal cost when 150 items are produced.

23. Find the derivative of tan-1x with respect to log.x; (where x ∈ (1,∞)).
Page 4
OR
* Differentiate the following function with respect to x: x
x : (cos x) ; ( where
π
x ∈ (0, ))
2
24. If vectors a⃗ = 2^
^ ⃗
ȷ + 3k, b = −^
i + 2^ i + 2^
^
ȷ +k and c ⃗ = 3^
i +^
j are such that ⃗
b + λc ⃗ is
perpendicular to a,⃗ then find the value of λ.
OR
* A person standing at 0(0,0,0) is watching an aeroplane which is at the
coordinate point 4(4,0,3). At the same time he saw a bird at the coordinate point
−
−→
B(0,0,1). Find the angles which BA makes with the x,y and z axes.
25. The two co-initial adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 2^
ı − 4^
^
ȷ − 5k and
2^
ı + 2^ ^
ȷ + 3k Find its diagonals and use them to find the area of the
parallelogram.
26. A kite is flying at a height of 3 metres and 5 metres of string is out. If the kite is
moving away horizontally at the rate of 200 cm/s, find the rate at which the
string is being released.
27. According to a psychologist, the ability of a person to understand spatial
concepts is given by
A =
1
3
, where t is the age in years, t ∈ [5, 18] . Show that the rate of increase of
√t
the ability to understand spatial concepts decreases with age in between 5 and
18.
28. →
An ant is moving along the vector l1 = ^
ı − 2^ ^
ȷ + 3k Few sugar crystals are kept
→
along the vector ı − 2^
l2 = 3 ^
^
j +k which is inclined at an angle θ with the vector
→ → →
l1 . Then find the angle θ . Also find the scalar projection of l1 on l2
OR
* Find the vector and the cartesian equation of the line that passes through
through (-1, 2, 7) and is perpendicular to the lines r ⃗ = 2^
ı +^
^
ȷ − 3k + λ( ^
ı + 2^
^
ȷ + 5k)
and r ⃗ = 3^
ı + 3^
^
ȷ − 7k + μ(3 ^
ı − 2^
^
ȷ + 5k) .
29. Evaluate: ∫ {
1
−
1
} dx ; (where x > 1) .
2
log x
(log x)
OR
* Evaluate : ∫
1
x(1 − x) dx
n
; ( where n ∈ N)
0
30. Consider the following Linear Programming Problem:

Minimise Z = x + 2y
Page 5
Subject to 2x + y ≥ 3, x + 2y ≥ 6, x, y ≥ 0
Show graphically that the minimum of Z occurs at more than two points
31. The probability that it rains today is 0.4. If it rains today, the probability that it
will rain tomorrow is 0.8. If it does not rain today, the probability that it will rain
tomorrow is 0.7. If
P1: denotes the probability that it does not rain today.
P2: denotes the probability that it will not rain tomorrow, if it rains today.
P3: denotes the probability that it will rain tomorrow, if it does not rain today.
P4: denotes the probability that it will not rain tomorrow, if it does not rain
today.
(i) Find the value of P × P − P × P 1 4 2 3
(ii) Calculate the probability of raining tomorrow.

OR
* A random variable X can take all non negative integral values and the probability
that X takes the value is proportional to 5
−r
. Find P (X < 3)
32. Draw the rough sketch of the curve y = 20 cos 2x; ( where ≤ x ≤ ) Using
π π
6 3
integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curve y = 20 cos2x from
the ordinates
x = to x = and the x-axis.
π
6
π
33. The equation of the path traversed by the ball headed by the footballer is
y = ax
2
where 0 ≤ x ≤ 14 and a, b, c ∈ R and a ≠ 0) (2,15), (4,25) and
+ bx + c; (
(14,15) Determine the values of a, b and c by solving the system of linear

equations in a, b and c, using matrix method. Also find the equation of the path
traversed by the ball.
34. If f : R → R is defined by f (x) = |x|
3
, show that f
′′
(x) exists for all real x and find
it.
OR
* 2
3
dy 2
[1+ ( ) ]
If , for some , prove that is a constant

dx
2 2 2
(x − a) + (y − b) = c c > 0 2
d y
dx2
independent of a and b.
35. Find the shortest distance between the lines I1 and l2
r ⃗ = (− ^
ı −^
^
ȷ − k) + λ(7 ^
ı − 6^
^
ȷ + k) and r ⃗ = (3 ^
ı + 5^
^
ȷ + 7k) + μ( ^
ı − 2^
^
ȷ + k) where λ and
μ are parameters.
OR
* Find the image of the point (1,2,1) with respect to the line x−3
=
y+1
=
z−1
Also
1 2 3
find the equation of the line joining the given point and its image.
36. Ramesh, the owner of a sweet selling shop, purchased some rectangular card
board sheets of dimension 25 cm by 40 cm to make container packets without
top. Let x cm be the length of the side of the square to be cut out from each
corner to give that sheet the shape of the container by folding up the flaps.
Based on the above information answer the following questions.
(i) Express the volume (V) of each container as function of x only.
(ii) Find dV
dx
(iii) (a) for what value of x, the volume of each container is maximum ?
OR
(iii) (b) Check whether V has a point of inflection at x x = 65
6
or not ?
37. An organization conducted bike race under 2 different categories-boys and girls.
In all, there were 250 participants. Among all of them finally three from Category
1 and two from Category 2 were selected for the final race. Ravi forms two sets
B and G with these participants for his college project.
Let B = {b , b , b } , G = {g , g } where B represents the set of boys selected and G
1 2 3 1 2
the set of girls who were selected for the final race.
Ravi decides to explore these sets for various types of relations and functions.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Ravi wishes to form all the relations possible from B to G. How many such
relations are possible?
(ii) Among these relations, how many are functions from B to G ?
OR
(iii) (b) If the track of the final race (for the biker b1) follows the curve
where 0 ≤ x ≤ 20√2&0 ≤ y ≤ 200) ,then state whether the track
2
–
x = 4y; (
represents a one-one and onto function or not. (Justify).

38. Arka bought two cages of birds: Cage-I contains 5 parrots and 1 owl and Cage -
II contains 6 parrots. One day Arka forgot to lock both cages and two birds flew
from Cage-I to Cage-II (simultaneously). Then two birds flew back from cage-II
to cage-I(simultaneously).
Assume that all the birds have equal chances of flying.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:-
(i) When two birds flew from Cage-I to Cage-II and two birds flew back from
Cage-II to Cage-I then find the probability that the owl is still in Cage-I.
(ii) When two birds flew from Cage-I to Cage-II and two birds flew back from
Cage-II to Cage-I, the owl is still seen in Cage-I, what is the probability that one
parrot and the owl flew from Cage-I to Cage-II?
----- -----
Model Paper 1 STD 12 Mathematics Total Marks : 80
1. If A, B are square matrices of order 3, A is non-singular and AB = 0 then B is a

(A
) non-singular matrix (B
) null matrix
()C singular matrix ()D unit matrix
2. If A is a 2-rowed square matrix and IAI = 6 then A adj A = ?
1
3 0 3 0 6 0
(A
) [
6
0
]
(B
) [ ] ()C [ ] ()D [ ]
1 3 0 0 3 0 6
0
6
3. ∣1 −1 1∣
If A =
∣
∣
2 −1 0
∣
∣
then what is the value of A
−1
.
∣1 0 0∣
(A
) A
2
(B
) A
3
()C A ()D I
4. If f (x) = x sin where x ≠ 0 then the value of the function f at

2 1
x = 0 , so that the
x
function is continuous at x = 0 , is
(A
) -1 (B
) 1 ()C 0 ()D 2
5. The shortest distance between the lines x−3
=
y−8
=
z−3
and x+3
=
y+7
=
z−6
is
3 −1 1 −3 2 4
−− −− −− −−
(A
) 5√30 (B
) √30 ()C 2√30 ()D 3√30
6. −1
What is the degree of the differential equation

dy dy
y = x
dx
+(
dx
) ?
(A
) -1 (B
) 1 ()C does not exist ()D 2
7. Minimize Z = 5x + 10 y subject to x + 2y ≤ 120, x + y ≥ 60, x − 2y ≥ 0, x, y ≥ 0
(A
) Minimum Z = 310 at (60, 0)
(B
) Minimum Z = 320 at (60, 0)
()C Minimum Z = 330 at (60, 0)
()D Minimum Z = 300 at (60, 0)
8. Consider the vectors a⃗ = î − 2^j + k
^
and b = 4î − 4^j + 7k
^
.
What is the vector perpendicular to both the vectors?
(A
) −10^
i + 3^
^
j + 4k (B
) 10^
i − 3^
^
j + 4k ()C −10^
i − 3^
^
j + 4k ()D 10^
i − 3^
^
j − 4k
9. 2
∫ sec (7 − 4x)dx =?
Page 1
(A) −4 tan(7 − 4x) + C (B) −1
tan(7 − 4x) + C
4
(C) 4 tan(7 − 4x) + C (D) 1
4
tan(7 − 4x) + C
10. ∣1 1∣
Let A = ∣ ∣ , then
∣0 0∣
(A) A 2
= I (B) A 2
= 4 (C) A 2
= A (D) A 2
= 0
11. A Linear Programming Problem is as follows:

Minimize Z = 2x + y
Subject to the constraints x ≥ 3, x ≤ 9, y ≥ 0
x − y ≥ 0, x + y ≤ 14
The feasible region has

(A) 5 corner points including (0, 0) and (9, 5)
(B) 5 corner points including (7, 7) and (3, 3)
(C) 5 corner points including (3, 6) and (9, 5)
(D) 5 corner points including (14, 0) and (9, 0)
12. What is the projection of a⃗ = (2^
i −^ ^)
j +k on ⃗
b = (^
i − 2^ ^)?
j +k
(A) 3
√5
(B) 4
√5
(C) √6
5
(D) 2
√3
13. If, A is square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 3 , then | adj A| is equal
to_______________
(A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 27 (D) 10
14. You are given that A and B are two events such that P (B) =
3
, P (A ∣ B) =
1
and
5 2
P (A ∪ B) =
4
5
, then P (A) equals
(A) 1
2
(B) 1
5
(C) 3
5
(D) 3
10
15.
Which of the following is the general solution of
2
d
dx
y
2
−2
dy
dx
+y = 0 ?
(A) y = A cos x + B sin x (B) y = (Ax + B)e −x
(C) y = Ae x
+ Be
−x
(D) y = (Ax + B)e x
16. If the position vectors of P and Q are ^

i + 3^
^
j − 7k and 5^
i − 2^
^
j + 4k respectively,
−→
−
then the cosine of the angle between PQ and y-axis is
(A) √162
4
(B) √162
11
(C) √162
5
(D) − 5
√162
17. 1
,x ≠ 0
If f (x) = {
1+e
1x
then f (x) is
0 ,x = 0
(A) none of these

(B) differentiable but not continuous at x = 0
(C) continuous but not differentiable at x = 0
Page 2
(D) continuous as well as differentiable at x = 0
18. Direction cosines of a line perpendicular to both x-axis and z-axis are
(A) 0, 1, 0 (B) 0, 0, 1 (C) 1, 1, 1 (D) 1, 0, 1

19. Assertion (A):f (x) = 2x 3

− 9x
2
+ 12x − 3 is increasing outside the interval (1, 2).
Reason (R): ′
f (x) < 0 for x ∈ (1, 2)

20. Assertion (A): The function f : R → R defined by ∗ ∗
f (x) =
1
is one-one and onto,
x
where R* is the set of all non-zero real numbers.

Reason (R): The function g : N → R
∗
defined by f (x) =
1
x
is one-one and onto.
21. Write the interval for the principal value of function and draw its graph: cot
−1
x
OR
* Find the value tan
−1
(tan
2π
3
)
22. A man 1.6m tall walks at the rate of 0.3 m/s away from a street light is 4 m
above the ground. At what rate is the tip of his shadow moving? At what rate is
his shadow lengthening?
23. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f (x) = x
2
− 4x + 6 is
a. increasing
b. decreasing
OR
* Find the intervals in which f (x) =
2
4 x +1
is increasing or decreasing.
x
24. Evaluate ∫
2
(|x + 1| + |x| + |x − 1|)dx
−1
25. Show that the function f (x) = x

3
− 3x
2
+ 6x − 100 is increasing on R.
Page 3
26. Evaluate: ∫
x
dx
√x+z √x+z
27. Urn A contains 1 white, 2 black and 3 red balls; urn B contains 2 white, 1 black
and 1 red ball; and urn C contains 4 white, 5 black and 3 red balls. One urn is
chosen at random and two balls are drawn. These happen to be one white and
one red. What is the probability that they come from urn A?
28.
Evaluate ∫ e
2x
(
1−sin 2x
1−cos 2x
) dx
OR
* Evaluate: ∫ 2
x +1
2
2
dx
(x +2)(2 x +1)
29. Find the general solution of the differential equation (1 + x )

2
dy
− x = 2 tan
−1
x
dx
OR
* In the differential equation show that it is homogeneous and solve it :
dy
2 2 2
x = x + xy + y
dx
30. In Fig, the feasible region (shaded) for a LPP is shown. Determine the maximum
and minimum value of Z =x+2y
Solve the Linear Programming Problem graphically:

Maximize Z = 3x + 4y Subject to
2x + 2y ≤ 80
2x + 4y ≤ 120
OR
* Solve the Linear Programming Problem graphically: Maximize Z = 3x + 4y Subject
2x + 2y ≤ 80
to
2x + 4y ≤ 120
31.
If , then evaluate at
2
d y
x = a (cos t + log tan
t
2
) , y = a sin t
dx
2
t =
π
3
.
Page 4
32. Prove that the curves y = 4x and x = 4y divide the area of the square bounded
2 2
by sides x = 0, x = 4, y = 4 and y = 0 into three equal parts.

33. Show that the function f : R → {x ∈ R : −1 < x < 1} defined by f (x) =
x
1+|x|
,x ∈ R
is one-one and onto function.

OR
* Let A = {1, 2, 3} and R = {(a, b) : a, b ∈ A and ∣
∣a
2
−b ∣
2
∣ ≤ 5 . Write R as set of
ordered pairs. Mention whether R is
i. reflexive
ii. symmetric
iii. transitive
Give reason in each case.
34. 2 2 −4 1 −1 0
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
Given A = ⎢ −4 2 −4 ⎥ , B = ⎢ 2 3 4⎥ , find BA and use this to solve the
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
2 −1 5 0 1 2
system of equations y +2z = 7, x − y = 3, 2x + 3y + 4z = 17
35. Find the image of the point (0, 2, 3) in the line x+3
=
y−1
=
z+4
5 2 3
OR
* Show that the lines x−1
=
y+1
=
z−1
and x−2
=
y−1
=
z+1
intersect and find their
3 2 5 2 3 −2
point of intersection.
Shama is studying in class XII. She wants do graduate in chemical engineering.
Her main subjects are mathematics, physics, and chemistry. In the examination,
her probabilities of getting grade A in these subjects are 0.2, 0.3, and 0.5
respectively.
1. Find the probability that she gets grade A in all subjects. (1)
2. Find the probability that she gets grade A in no subjects. (1)
3. Find the probability that she gets grade A in two subjects. (2)
OR
Find the probability that she gets grade A in at least one subject. (2)
Team P, Q, R went for playing a tug of war game. Teams P, Q, R have attached a
rope to a metal ring and is trying to pull the ring into their own areas (team
areas when in the given figure below). Team P pulls with forceF 1 = 4^
i + 0^
jK N
Team Q pull with force F2 = −2^

i + 4^
jK N
Team R pulls with force ^ ^

F3 = −3 i − 3 j K N
i. What is the magnitude of the teams combined force? (1)

ii. Find the magnitude of Team B. (1)
iii. Which team will win the game? (2)
OR
Find the probability that she gets grade A in at least one subject. (2)
Mrs. Maya is the owner of a high-rise residential society having 50 apartments.
When he set rent at ₹ 10000/ month, all apartments are rented. If he increases
rent by ₹ 250 / month, one fewer apartment is rented.
The maintenance cost for each occupied unit is ₹ 500 / month.
i. If P is the rent price per apartment and N is the number of rented apartments,
then find the profit. (1)
ii. If x represents the number of apartments which are not rented, then express
profit as a function of x. (1)
iii. Find the number of apartments which are not rented so that profit is
maximum. (2)
OR
Verify that profit is maximum at critical value of x by second derivative test. (2)
----- -----
1.
⎧ 2i + 3j
⎪ , i < j
A matrix A = [a ij
]
3×3
is defined by aij = ⎨ 5 , i = j
⎩
⎪
3i − 2j , i > j
The number of elements in A which are more than 5 , is 4 :

(A
) 5 (B
) 6 ()C 4 ()D 3
2. 2 −1
If A = [ ] , then A
−1
= ?
1 3
3 1 3 −1 1 2 1 1
(A
) [
−1
7 7
2
] (B
) [
7
1
7
2
] ()C [
5
1
7
3
] ()D [
3
1
7
2
]
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
3. 8 0
For any 2-rowed square matrix A, if A ⋅ (adj A) = [ ] then the value of |A| is
0 8
(A
) 8 (B
) 4 ()C 0 ()D 64
4. If x = a sec θ, y = b tan θ then
dy
= ?
dx
(A
) b
a
sec θ (B
) b
a
tan θ ()C b
a
cosec θ ()D b
a
cot θ
5. The equation of a line passing through point (2, -1, 0) and parallel to the line
is:
x y−1 2−z
= =
1 2 2
(A
) (B
) ()C ()D
x+2 y−1 x+2 y−1 x−2 y+1 x−2 y−1
z z z z
= = = = = = = =
1 2 2 1 2 −2 1 2 −2 1 2 2
6. What are the order and degree respectively of the differential equation whose
solution is y = cx + c
2
− 3c
3/2
+2 where c is a parameter?
(A
) 1,3 (B
) 1,4 ()C 2, 2 ()D 1, 2
7. Which of the following is a convex set?
(A
) {(x, y) : y
2
≥ x} (B
) {(x, y) : x
2
+y
2
≥ 1}
()C {(x, y) : x ≥ 2, y ≤ 4} ()D {x, y) : 3x

2
+ 4y
2
≥ 5}
8. If the vectors 3^
i + λ^
^
j +k and 2^
i −^
^
j + 8k are perpendicular, then λ is equal to
(A
) 7 (B
) -14 ()C 1/7 ()D 14
9. ∫
π 1
dx equals
0 1+sin x
(A
) 2 (B
) 3
2
()C 1
2
()D 0
Page 1
10. If I is a unit matrix, then 3I will be
(A) A null matrix (B) A unit matrix
(C) A triangular matrix (D) A scalar matrix
11. A point out of following points lie in plane represented by
(A) (4, 3) (B) (0, 3) (C) (0,5) (D) (3, 3)
12. → → → →
If a + b = ^
i and a = 2^
i − 2^
^
j + 2k , then | b | equals:
−− −− −−
(A) √14 (B) √17 (C) √12 (D) 3
13. The area of the triangle, whose vertices are (3, 8), (-4, 2) and (5, 1), is
(A) 60 sq. units (B) 61
2
sq. units (C) 61 sq. units (D) 30 sq. units
14. If A and B are independent events, then ¯

P (A/B̄) = ?
(A) 1 − P (A/B̄) (B) 1 - P(A) (C) 1 - P(B) (D) −P (A¯/B)
15. The general solution of the DE x
2 dy 2
= x + xy + y
2
is
dx
(A) tan −1
y
x
= log x + C (B) tan −1
y
x
= log y + C
(C) tan −1 x
y
= log x + C (D) tan −1
y
x
= log x + C
16. If the angle between a⃗ and b

⃗
is π
and ⃗ –
|a⃗ × b| = 3√3 , then the value of a⃗ ⋅ b
⃗
is
3
(A) 1
3
(B) 1
9
(C) 9 (D) 3
17. Let f (x) = | sin x|; 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π then

(A) f(x) is discontinuous at 3 points
(B) f(x) is differentiable function at infinite number of points
(C) f(x) is non-differentiable at 3 points and continuous everywhere
(D) f(x) is discontinuous everywhere
18. The straight line x−2
=
y−3
=
z+1
is
3 1 0
(A) parallel to the y-axis (B) perpendicular to the z-axis

(C) parallel to the x-axis (D) parallel to the z-axis

19. Assertion (A): The absolute maximum value of the function 2x − 24x in the 3
interval [1, 3] is 89.

Reason (R): The absolute maximum value of the function can be obtained from
the value of the function at critical points and at boundary points.
Page 2
20. Assertion (A): The function f (x) = x + bx + c where b and c are real constants, 2
describes onto mapping.

Reason (R): Let A = {1, 2, 3, … , n} and B = {a, b} . Then, the number of surjections
from A into B is 2 − 2 . n

21. −1 −1
sin ( )
2
OR
* Find the domain of f (x) = sin
−1
(−x )
2
.
22. The volume of a spherical balloon is increasing at the rate of 3
25cm /sec .Find the
rate of change of its surface area at the instant when radius is 5 cm.
23. Determine whether f (x) = −
π
+ sin x is increasing or decreasing on (−
π
,
π
)
2 3 3
OR
* Find the intervals in which the function f given by f (x) = 4x
3 2
− 6x − 72x + 30 is
i. increasing
ii. decreasing.
24. Integrate the function x
e (sin x + cos x)
25. Prove that the function f given by 2

f (x) = x −x+1 is neither strictly increasing
nor strictly decreasing on (−1, 1) .
26. Evaluate: ∫
π/2 sin
2
x
dx
0 sin x+cos x
27. There are two boxes, namely box-I and box-II. Box-I contains 3 red and 6 black
balls. Box-II contains 5 red and 5 black balls. One of the two boxes, is selected at
random and a ball is drawn at random. The ball drawn is found to be red. Find
the probability that this red ball comes out from box-II.
28. Evaluate: ∫
1
dx
cos x−sin x
OR
* Evaluate: ∫
3 2
x + x +2x+1
2
dx
x −x+1
29. Solve: 2y e
x/y
dx + (y − 2xe
x/y
) dy = 0
Page 3
OR
* Solve the differential equation: (x
3
+x
2
+ x + 1)
dy
= 2x
2
+x
dx
30. Minimise Z = 3x + 5y subject to the constraints:
x + 2y ⩾ 10
x+y ⩾ 6
3x + y ⩾ 8
x, y ⩾ 0
OR
* Solve graphically the following linear programming problem:
Maximise z = 6x + 3y,
Subject to the constraints:
4x + y ≥ 80
3x + 2y ≤ 150
x + 5y ≥ 115
x > 0, y ≥ 0
31. If −−−− −−−−−

x√1 + y + y √1 + x = 0 and x ≠ y , prove that dy
= −
1
.
2
dx
(x+1)
32. Find the area enclosed by the parabola 4y = 3x

2
and the line 2y = 3x + 12 .
33. Show that the function f : R → R defined by f (x) =
x
2
x +1
, ∀x ∈ R is neither one-
one nor onto.
OR
* Let R be a relation on N ×N defined by (a, b) R(c,d) ⇔ a+d = b+c for all
(a, b), (c, d) ∈ N × N . Show tha is an equivalence relation.
34. Solve the system of the following equations: (Using matrices):
2 3 10 4 6 5 6 9 20
+ + = 4; − + = 1; + − = 2
x y z x y z x y z
35. Find the perpendicular distance of the point (1, 0, 0) from the line
. Also, find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular and
x−1 y+1 z+10
= =
2 −3 8
the equation of the perpendicular.

OR
* Find the shortest distance between the lines r ⃗ = (^
i + 2^ ^) + λ(^
j + 3k i − 3^ ^)
j + 2k and
^ ^
r ⃗ = (4^
i + 5^
j + 6k) + μ(2^
i + 3^
j + k)
There are two antiaircraft guns, named as A and B. The probabilities that the
Page 4
shell fired from them hits an airplane are 0.3 and 0.2 respectively. Both of them
fired one shell at an airplane at the same time.
i. What is the probability that the shell fired from exactly one of them hit the
plane?
ii. If it is known that the shell fired from exactly one of them hit the plane, then
what is the probability that it was fired from B?
iii. What is the probability that the shell was fired from A?
OR
How many hypotheses are possible before the trial, with the guns operating
independently? Write the conditions of these hypotheses.
A plane started from airport O with a velocity of 120 m/s towards east. Air is
blowing at a velocity of 50 m/s towards the north As shown in the figure.
The plane travelled 1 hr in OA direction with the resultant velocity. From A and B
travelled 1 hr with keeping velocity of 120 m/s and finally landed at B.
i. What is the resultant velocity from O to A?

ii. What is the direction of travel of plane O to A with east?
iii. What is the total displacement from O to A?
OR
What is the resultant velocity from A to B?
In a street two lamp posts are 600 feet apart. The light intensity at a distance d
from the first (stronger) lamp post. 1000
2
the light intensity at distance d from the
d
second (weaker) lamp post is 125

2
(in both cases the light intensity is inversely
d
proportional to the square of the distance to the light source). The combined
light intensity is the sum of the two light intensities coming from both lamp
posts.
i. If l(x) denotes the combined light intensity, then find the value of x so that I(x)
is minimum.
ii. Find the darkest spot between the two lights.
iii. If you are in between the lamp posts, at distance x feet from the stronger
light, then write the combined light intensity coming from both lamp posts as
function of x.
OR
Find the minimum combined light intensity?
----- -----
1. 3 4
If A = [ ] and 2A + B is a null matrix, then B is equal to:
5 2
−5 −8 5 8 −6 −8 6 8
(A
) [ ] (B
) [ ] ()C [ ] ()D [ ]
−10 −3 10 3 −10 −4 10 4
2. x 0 0
⎡ ⎤
If x, y, z are non-zero real numbers, then the inverse of matrix A = ⎢ 0 y 0⎥ is
⎣ ⎦
0 0 z
−1
1 0 0 x 0 0
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
(A
) xyz
1
⎢0 1 0⎥ (B
) ⎢ 0 y
−1
0 ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ −1 ⎦
0 0 1 0 0 z
x 0 0 1 0 0
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
()C xyz
1
⎢0 y 0⎥ ()D 5yz
xyz
⎢0 1 0⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
0 0 z 0 0 1
3. If A is an invertible matrix of order 3 and |A| = 5 , then find | adj A| .

(A
) 25 (B
) 5 ()C −5 ()D 0
4. sin(p+1)x+sin x
⎧
⎪ ,x < 0
⎪
⎪ x
⎪
The value of p and q for which the function f (x) = ⎨

q ,x = 0
is
⎪
⎪ √x+bx − √x
2
⎪
⎩
⎪ ,x > 0
3
x 2
continuous for all x ∈ R , are

(A
) p = −
3
2
,q =
1
2
(B
) p = −
3
2
,q = −
1
2
()C p =
5
2
,q =
7
2
()D p =
1
2
,q =
3
5. The angle between the lines 2x = 3y = - z and 6x = - y = - 4z is

(A
) 90
∘
(B
) 0
∘
()C 45
∘
()D 30
∘
6. The differential equation of the form dy

= f(
y
) is called
dx x
(A
) non-homogeneous differential equation
(B
) homogeneous differential equation
()C partial differential equation
()D linear differential equation
Page 1
7. The maximum value of Z = 4x + 3y subject to constraint x + y ≤ 10, xy ≥ 0 is
(A) 40 (B) 36 (C) 20 (D) 10
8. Range of coses
−1
X is
(A) [ −π
2
,
π
2
] (B) [ −π
2
,
π
2
] − {0} (C) [ −π
2
,
π
2
] − {1} (D) ( −π
2
,
π
2
)
9. ∫
π
sin
5
xdx =?
−π
(A) 5π
16
(B) 2π (C) 0 (D) 3π
10. Conisder the matrices

2 1 3 1 −2
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
A = ⎢ 3 −2 1⎥,B = ⎢2 1⎥,C = [1 2 6]
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
−1 0 1 4 3
Then, which of the following is not defined?

(A) BA (B) AB (C) CB (D) CA
11. The corner points of the feasible region determined by the system of linear
inequalities are (0, 0), (4, 0), (2, 4), and (0, 5). If the maximum value of z = ax + i
by, where a, b > 0 occurs at both (2, 4) and (4, 0) , then:
(A) 3a = b (B) 2a = b (C) a = 2b (D) a = b
12. The two adjacent side of a triangle are represented by the vectors a⃗ = 3^
i + 4^
j
and ⃗
b = −5^
i + 7^
j The area of the triangle is
(A) 41 sq units (B) 36 sq units (C) 37 sq units (D) 41
2
sq units
13. 3 1
If A = [ ] and A
2
+ xI = yA then the values of x and y are
7 5
(A) x = 6 y = 6 (B) x = 5 y = 8 (C) x = 8 y = 8 (D) x = 6 y = 8

14. If A and B are two events such that P (A ∪ B) =
5
, P (A ∩ B) =
1
and P (B̄) =
1
6 3 2
then the events A and B are

(A) Equally likely event (B) Independent
(C) Dependent (D) Mutually exclusive
15. The solution of the differential equation (x
2
+ 1)
dy
+ (y
2
+ 1) = 0 , is
dx
(A) y = 1−x
1+x
(B) y = 1+x
1−x
(C) y = 2 + x 2
(D) Y x(x − 1)
16. The scalar product of two nonzero vectors a⃗ and b

⃗
is defined as
(A) a⃗ ⋅ b ⃗ = |a⃗||b|⃗ cos θ (B) a⃗ ⋅ b ⃗ = 2|a⃗||b|⃗ cos θ (C) a⃗ ⋅ b ⃗ = 2|a⃗||b|⃗ sin θ (D) a⃗ ⋅ b ⃗ = |a⃗||b|⃗ sin θ
17. 2x + 3, if x ≤ 2
The point of discontinuity of the function f (x) = { is
2x − 3, if x > 2
(A) x = 2 (B) x = - 1 (C) x = 0 (D) x = 1
Page 2
18. If the points A(−1, 3, 2), B(−4, 2, −2) and C(5, 5, λ) are collinear then the value of λ
is
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 7

19. Assertion (A): A particle moving in a straight line covers a distance of x cm in t

second, where x = t 3 2
+ 3t − 6t + 18 The velocity of particle at the end of 3
seconds is 39 cm/s.
Reason (R): Velocity of the particle at the end of 3 seconds is dx
dt
at t = 3

20. Let R be any relation in the set A of human beings in a town at a particular time.
Assertion (A): If R = {(x, y) : x is wife of y} , then R is reflexive.
Reason (R): If R = {(x, y) : x is father of y} , then R is neither reflexive nor
symmetric nor transitive.
21.
Evaluate:- tan −1
(−
1
√3
) + cot
−1
(
1
√3
) + tan
−1
(sin(−
π
2
))
OR
* tan
−1
(tan
3π
4
) =?
22. Show that f (x) =

1
2
is neither increasing nor decreasing on R .
1+x
23. A ladder 13 m long is leaning against a vertical wall. The bottom of the ladder is
dragged away from the wall along the ground at the rate of 2 cm/sec. How fast
is the height on the wall decreasing when the foot of the ladder is 5 m away
from the wall?
OR
* Show that f (x) = cos
2
x is a decreasing function on (0,
π
2
) .
24. {e
sin
−1
x
2
Evaluate: ∫
√1−x2
dx
Page 3
25. Find values of k if area of triangle is 35 square units having vertices as (2, -6), (5,
4), (k, 4).
26. Evaluate: ∫
x+2
dx
2
√x +2x−1
27. A factory has two machines A and B. Past records show that the machine A
produced 60% of the items of output and machine B produced 40% of the items.
Further 2% of the items produced by machine A were defective and 1%
produced by machine B were defective. If an item is drawn at random, what is
the probability that it is defective?
−−−−
28. Evaluate the integral: ∫ √cot θ dθ
OR
* Evaluate ∫
π/2 x+sin x
dx
0 1+cos x
29. Find the general solution for the differential equation

2 2 2 2
(x y − x ) dx + (xy − y ) dy = 0
OR
* Find the particular solution of the differential equation
, given that when
2 y π
[x sin ( ) − y] dx + xdy = 0 y = x = 1
x 4
30. If with reference to the right handed system of mutually perpendicular unit
vectors ^
i,^
j and ^
k, α⃗ = 3^ ^
i − j.
⃗
β = 2^
i +^
^
j − 3k. then express β
⃗
in the form
⃗ ⃗ ⃗
β = β1 + β2 , where ⃗
β1 is ∥ to α⃗ and ⃗
β2 is perpendicular to α⃗ .
OR
* →
If a⃗ = ^
i +^
^
j + 2k and ⃗
b = 2^
i +^
^
j − 2k ,find the unit vector in the direction of 2a⃗ − b.
31. Show that the function f(x) defined by

sin x
⎧
⎪ + cos x, x > 0
x
⎪
f (x) = ⎨ 2, x = 0 is continuous at x = 0.
⎪
⎩
⎪ 4(1− √1−x)
, x < 0
x
32. Find the area bounded by the circle 2

x +y
2
= 16 and the line
–
√3y = x inthe first
quadrant, using integration
(B)
33. Let A = R − {3}, B = R − {1] . If f : A → B be defined by f (x) =
x−2
∀x ∈ A . Then,
x−3
show that f is bijective.

(B)
Page 4
OR
* Show that the relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b) : |a − b| is
even }, is an equivalence relation. Show that all the elements of {1, 3, 5} are related
to each other and all the elements of {2, 4} are related to each other. But no
element of {1, 3, 5} is related to any element of {2, 4} .
(B)
34. 2 −2 −4
⎡ ⎤
Express the matrix B = ⎢ −1 3 4 ⎥ as the sum of a symmetric and a skew-
⎣ ⎦
1 −2 −3
symmetric matrix.
(B)
35. Show that a cylinder of a given volume which is open at the top has minimum
total surface area, when its height is equal to the radius of its base
(B)
OR
* Prove that the semi-vertical angle of the right circular cone of given volume and
least curved surface area is −1
–
cot √2
(B)
To hire a marketing manager, it's important to find a way to properly assess
candidates who can bring radical
changes and has leadership experience.
Ajay, Ramesh and Ravi attend the interview for the post of a marketing
manager. Ajay, Ramesh and Ravi
chances of being selected as the manager of a firm are in the ratio 4:1:2
respectively. The respective probabilities for them to introduce a radical change
in marketing strategy are 0.3, 0.8, and 0.5. If the change does take place.
i. Find the probability that it is due to the appointment of Ajay (A). (1)
ii. Find the probability that it is due to the appointment of Ramesh (B). (1)
iii. Find the probability that it is due to the appointment of Ravi (C). (2)
OR
Find the probability that it is due to the appointment of Ramesh or Ravi. (2)
Two motorcycles A and B are running at the speed more than allowed speed on
the road along the lines
^ ^ ^
r ⃗ = λ( i + 2 j − k) and ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
r ⃗ = 3 i + 3 j + μ(2 i + j + k) , respectively.
i. Find the cartesian equation of the line along which motorcycle A is running. (1)
ii. Find the direction cosines of line along which motorcycle A is running. (1)
iii. Find the direction ratios of line along which motorcycle B is running. (2)
OR
Find the shortest distance between the given lines. (2)
Corner points of the feasible region for an LPP are (0, 3), (5, 0), (6, 8), (0, 8). Let z
= 4x - 6y be the objective function
i. At which corner point the minimum value of Z occurs? (1)

ii. At which corner point the maximum value of Z occurs? (1)
iii. What is the value of (maximum of Z - minimum of Z)? (2)
OR
The corner points of the feasible region determined by the system of linear
inequalities are (2)
1. a 0 0
⎡ ⎤
Let A = ⎢0 a 0⎥ , then A
n
is equal to
⎣ ⎦
0 0 a
n n n
a 0 0 na 0 0 a 0 0 a 0 0
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
(A
) ⎢0 a 0⎥ (B
) ⎢ 0 na 0 ⎥ ()C ⎢0 a
n
0 ⎥ ()D ⎢0 a
n
0⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ n ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
0 0 a 0 0 na 0 0 a 0 0 a
2. 3 − 2x x+1
If the matrix A = [ ] is singular then x = ?
2 4
(A
) 1 (B
) 0 ()C −1 ()D −2
3. If A and B are invertible matrices, then which of the following is not correct?
(A
) (AB)
−1
= B
−1
A
−1
(B
) (A + B)
−1
= B
−1
+A
−1
()C det(A)
−1
= [det(A)]
−1
()D adj A = |A| ⋅ A

−1
4. Let f (x) = [x] + √−

x , where [∙] and
− 2
[∙] respectively denotes the greatest integer
and fractional part functions, then
(A
) f(x) is continuous and differentiable at x = 0
(B
) f (x) is non differentiable ∀x ∈ Z
()C f (x) is discontinuous ∀x ∈ Z − {1}
()D f (x) is continuous at all integral points

5. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1, 2, 3) and is
parallel to the vector 3^
i + 2^ ^
j − 2k
(A
) r⃗ = ^
i + 2^ ^ + λ(3^
j + 3k i + 2^ ^. )λ ∈ R
j − 2k
(B
) r⃗ = ˆ
2i + 2^
^
j + 3k + λ(3^
i + 2^
^
j − 2k. )λ ∈ R
()C r ⃗ = 4^
i + 2^
^
j + 3k + λ(3^
i + 2^
^
j − 2k. )λ ∈ R
()D r ⃗ = 3^
i + 2^
^
j + 3k + λ(3^
i + 2^
^
j − 2k)λ ∈ R
6. The order of the differential equation of all circles of given radius a is:
(A
) 4 (B
) 1 ()C 2 ()D 3
Page 1
7. By graphical method solution of LLP maximize z = x + y subject to
x + y ≤ 2x; y ≥ 0 obtained at
(A) at infinite number of points (B) only two points

(C) only one point (D) at definite number of points
8. The domain of the function cos
−1
(2x − 1) is
(A) [0, π] (B) [−1, 1] (C) [0, 1] (D) (−1, 0)
9. ∫
π/2 cos x
dx equals
0 (2+sin x)(1+sin x)
(A) log( 3
4
) (B) log( 3
2
) (C) log( 4
3
) (D) log( 2
3
)
10. 1 0 2 x
⎡ ⎤⎡ ⎤
If [x −5 −1 ] ⎢ 0 2 1⎥⎢4 ⎥ = 0 , then the value of x is
⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦
2 0 3 1
– – – –
(A) ±6√5 (B) 5√5 (C) ±4√3 (D) ±3√5
11. Objective function of an LPP is
(A) a function to be optimized (B) a function between the variables
(C) a constraint (D) a relation between the variables
12. The vector in the direction of the vector ^
i − 2^
^
j + 2k that has magnitude 9 is
(A) î − 2^j + 2k
^
(B) 3(î − 2^j + 2k
^
) (C) 9(î − 2^j + 2k
^
)
(D)
^ ^ ^
i −2 j +2 k
13. ∣1 0 0∣
If A =
∣
∣
1 1 2
∣
∣
, then the value of det(Adj(Adj A)) equals
∣3 −1 9∣
(A) 14641 (B) 121 (C) 11 (D) 1331

14. If A and B are independent events such that P (A) =
1
, P (A ∪ B) =
7
, then what
5 10
is ¯
P (B) equal to?
(A) 3
8
(B) 7
9
(C) 3
7
(D) 2
15.
Degree of the differential equation sin x + cos(
dy
dx
) = y
2
is
(A) 2 (B) no defined (C) 0 (D) 1
16. If |a⃗ × b|⃗ = 4, |a⃗ ⋅ b|⃗ = 2 , then 2
|a⃗| |b|⃗
2
=
(A) 2 (B) 20 (C) 8 (D) 6

17. If y = tan
−1 cos x
then
dy
= ?
1+sin x dx
(A) 1
2
(B) 1 (C) 0 (D) −1
18. The cartesian equation of a line is given by 2x−1

=
y+2
=
z−3
The direction cosines
√3 2 3
of the line is
Page 2
(A)
√3
,
−4
,
6
(B) √55
3
,
4
√55
,
6
√55
(C)
√3
,
4
,
6
(D) −3
√55
,
4
√55
,
6
√55
√55 √55 √55 √55 √55 √55

19. Assertion (A): If manufacturer can sell x items at a price of ₹ (5 −

x
) each. The
100
cost price of x items is ₹ ( + 500) x
Then, the number of items he should sell to earn maximum profit is 240 items.
Reason (R): The profit for selling x items is given by
2
24 x
x− − 300
5 100

20. Assertion (A): Let A = {1, 5, 8, 9}, B = {4, 6} and f = {(1, 4), (5, 6), (8, 4), (9, 6)} , then f
is a bijective function.
Reason (R): Let A = {1, 5, 8, 9}, B = {4, 6} and f = {(1, 4), (5, 6), (8, 4), (9, 6)} , then f is
a surjective function.
21. For the principal value, evaluate cot[ sin

−1
{cos(tan
−1
1)}]
OR
* Which is greater, tan 1 or tan
−1
1?
22. Show that f (x) = sin x − cos x is an increasing function on (

−π
,
π
) .
4 4
23. A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles at a speed of 4
cm/s. At the instant, when the radius of the circular wave is 10 cm, how fast is
the enclosed area increasing?
OR
* Show that the function f (x) = x
100
+ sin x − 1 is increasing on the interval (
π
2
, π)
24. Evaluate: ∫ tan

3
x sec
3
xdx
25. ∣ x sin θ cos θ ∣
Prove that the determinant ∣

∣
− sin θ −x 1
∣
∣
is independent of θ .
∣ cos θ 1 x ∣
Page 3
[18]
* Given Section consists of questions of 3 marks each.
26. Evaluate the integral: ∫

0
π
2 2
x
2 2
dx
a cos x+ b sin x
27. In answering a question on a multiple choice questions test with four choices in
each question, out of which only one is correct, a student either guesses or
copies or knows the answer. The probability that he makes a guess 1
and the probability the he copies is also 1
4
The probability that the answer is
correct, given that he copied it is Find the probability that he knows the 3
answer to the question, given that he correctly answered it.

28. π
Evaluate the definite integral ∫

0
4
cos
sin x cos x
4
x+ sin
4
x
dx
OR
* Evaluate the definite integral: ∫
2
e
2x
(
1
−
1
) dx
1 x 2
2x
29. Solve the following differential equation dy

= 1+x
2
+y
2
+x y
2 2
, given that y = 1 ,
dx
when x = 0 .
OR
* Find the particular solution of the differential equation (xe
x/y
+ y) dx = xdy , given
that y(1) = 0
30. Let a⃗, b

⃗
and c⃗ be three vectors such that ⃗
|a⃗| = 3, |b| = 4, |c |⃗ = 5 and each one of
them being ⊥ to the sum of the other two, find ⃗
|a⃗ + b + c |⃗
OR
* If a⃗ = (^
i −^
⃗
j ), b = (3^
^
j − k) and c ⃗ = (7^
^
i − k) , find a vector d
⃗
which is perpendicular
to both a⃗ and b
⃗
and for which ⃗
c⃗ ⋅ d = 1
31. Find dy
of the function (cos x)
y
= (cos y )
x
.
dx
32. Find the area of the region {(x, y) : x

2
+y
2
≤ 4, x + y ≥ 2}
33. Let A = {1, 2, 3, … .9} and R be the relation in A × A defined by (a, b)R(c, d) if
a+d = b+c for (a, b), (c, d) in A × A . Prove that R is an equivalence relation and
also obtain the equivalence class [(2, 5)] .
OR
* Let A = R − {3} and B = R − {1} . Consider the function f : A ⇒ B defined by
f (x) = (
x−2
x−3
) . Is f one-one and onto? Justify your answer.
34. 3 1
If A = [ ] then show that A
2
− 5A + 7I = 0 and hence find A
−1 2
Page 4
35. Prove that the volume of the largest cone that can be inscribed in a sphere of
radius R is 8
27
of the volume of the sphere
OR
* A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semicircular opening.
The total perimeter of the window is 10 m. Find the dimensions of the window to
admit maximum light through the whole opening
A shopkeeper sells three types of flower seeds A1 A2 A3They are sold in the form
of a mixture, where the proportions of these seeds are 4 : 4 : 2 respectively. The
germination rates of the three types of seeds are 45%, 60% and 35%
respectively.
Based on the above information:

i. Calculate the probability that a randomly chosen seed will germinate. (1)
ii. Calculate the probability that the seed is of type A2, given that a randomly
chosen seed germinates. (1)
iii. A die is throw and a card is selected at random from a deck of 52 playing
cards. Then find the probability of getting an even number on the die and a
spade card. (2)
OR
If A and B are any two events such that P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B) = P(A) , then find
P( A |B). 2)
Consider the following diagram, where the forces in the cable are given.
i. What is the equation of the line along cable AD? (1)

ii. What is length of cable DC? (1)
iii. Find vector DB (2)
OR
What is sum of vectors along the cable? (2)
Linear programming is a method for finding the optimal values (maximum or
minimum) of quantities subject to the constraints when a relationship is
expressed as linear equations or inequations.
i. At which points is the optimal value of the objective function attained? (1)
ii. What does the graph of the inequality 3x + 4y < 12 look like? (1)
iii. Where does the maximum of the objective function Z = 2x + 5y occur in
relation to the feasible region shown in the figure for the given LPP? (2)
OR
What are the conditions on the positive values of p and q that ensure the
maximum of the objective function Z = px + qy occurs at both the corner points
(15, 15) and (0, 20) of the feasible region determined by the given system of
linear constraints? (2? (2)
----- -----
1. If |A| = |kA| , where A is a square matrix of order 2 , then sum of all possible
values of k is
(A
) 2 (B
) 1 ()C -1 ()D 0
2. ∣6 0 −1 ∣
The value of the determinant ∣

∣
2 1 4
∣
∣
is
∣1 1 3 ∣
(A
) 10 (B
) -7 ()C 7 ()D 8
3. Let A be a 3×3 matrix such that | adj A| = 64 . Then |A| is equal to:
(A
) -8 only (B
) 64 ()C 8 only ()D 8 or -8
4. ∣1 1 1∣
If A =
∣
∣
1 1 1
∣
∣
, then A
2
is:
∣1 1 1∣
(A
) 27A (B
) 3A ()C 2A ()D I
5. The Cartesian equations of a line are x−1
=
y+2
=
z−5
. Its vector equation is
2 3 −1
(A
) r ⃗ = (^
i − 2^ ^) + λ(2^
j + 5k i + 3^ ^)
j −k
(B
) r ⃗ = (2^
i + 3^
^
j − k) + λ(^
i − 2^
^
j + 5k)
()C r ⃗ = (^
i − 2^ ^) + λ(2^
j + 5k i + 3^ ^)
j − 4k
()D r ⃗ = (^
i − 2^
^
j + 5k) + λ(2^
i − 3^
^
j − 4k)
6. The integrating factor of the differential equation dy

+y =
1+y
is:
dx x
(A
) (B
) ()C ()D
x z
X e x
e x xe
e x
7. A Linear Programming Problem is as follows:

Maximize/Minimize objective function Z = 2x - y +5
Subject to the constraints
3x + 4y ≤ 60
x + 3y ≤ 30
x ≤ 0, y ≥ 0
In the corner points of the feasible region are A(0, 10), B(12, 6), C(20, 0) and
O(0,0), then which of the following is true?
Page 1
(A) Minimum value of Z is -5
(B) At two corner points, value of Z are equal
(C) Maximum value of Z is 40
(D) Difference of maximum and minimum values of Z is 35
8. → →
If the angle between the vectors a and b is π
4
and ⃗
|a⃗ × b| = 1 , then a⃗ ⋅ b
⃗
is equal
to
–
(A) -1 (B) 1
(C) √2 (D) 1
√2
9. ∫
1+tan x
dx is equal to:
1−tan x
(A) sec 2
(
π
4
− x) + C (B) sec 2
(
π
4
+ x) + C
(C) log∣∣sec( π
4
− x)∣
∣+C (D) log∣∣sec( π
4
+ x)∣
∣+C
10. Let A be a skew-symmetric matrix of order 3. If |A| = x , then (2023)

x
is equal to:
(A) 2023 (B) (2023) 2
(C) 2023
1
(D) 1
11. The corner points of the feasible region determined by the following system of
linear inequalities:
2x + y ≤ 10, x + 3y ≤ 15, x, y ≥ 0 are (0, 0), (5, 0), (3, 4) and (0, 5) . Let Z = px + qy ,
where p, q ≥ 0 .
Condition on p and q so that the maximum of Z occurs at both (3, 4) and (0, 5) is
(A) p = 3q (B) q = 3p (C) p = q (D) p = 2q
12. A unit vector â makes equal but acute angles on the co-ordinate axes. The
projection of the vector a on the vector ⃗
b = 5^
i + 7^
^
j −k is
(A) 3
(B) 11
15
(C) 4
5
(D) 11
5 √3 5 √3
13. x1 1 −1 2 3
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
Let X = ⎢ x2 ⎥ , A = ⎢ 2 0 1⎥ and B = ⎢1⎥ . If A = B , then X is equal to
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
x3 3 2 1 4
0 −1 −1 1
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
(A) ⎢ 2 ⎥ (B) ⎢ 2⎥ (C) ⎢ −2 ⎥ (D) ⎢ 2 ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
1 3 −3 3
14. If for two events A and B, P (A − B) =

1
and P (A) =
3
, then P (
B
) is equal to
5 5 A
(A) 1
2
(B) 2
5
(C) 2
3
(D) 3
15. Find the particular solution for 2xy + y

2
− 2x
2
dy
= 0; y = 2 when x = 1
dx
(A) y = 2x
1−log |x|
(x ≠ 0, x ≠ e)
(B) y = 3x
1−log |x|
(x ≠ 0, x ≠ e)
(C) y = 3x
1−log |x|
(x ≠ 0, x ≠ e)
Page 2
(D) y = 5x
1+log |x|
(x ≠ 0, x ≠ e)
16. If a⃗, b ⃗ and (a⃗ + b)⃗ are all unit vectors and θ is the angle between a⃗ and b,⃗ then the
value of θ is:
(A) 2π
3
(B) π
3
(C) 5π
6
(D) π
17. If y = (1 +
1
)
x
, then dy
=
x dx
(A) (1 +
x
1 1
) log(1 + )
x x
(B) (x +
x
1 1 1
) {log(1 + )+ }
x x x+1
x
(C) (1 + 1
x
) {log(1 +
1
x
)−
1
x+1
}
x
(D) (x + 1
x
) {log(x + 1) −
x
x+1
}
18. If the line x−2

=
y−3
=
z+2
and x−2
=
y−3
=
z+2
are parallel, value of k is
2k 3 −1 8 6 −2
(A) -2 (B) 2 (C) 1
2
(D) 4

19.
Assertion (A): If 3 ≤ x ≤ 10 and 5 ≤ y ≤ 15 , then minimum value of (
x
y
) is 2 .
Reason (R): If 3 ≤ x ≤ 10 and 5 ≤ y ≤ 15 , then minimum value of (

x
y
) is 1
5
.
20. If R is the relation in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {{a, b) : |a − b| is even },
Assertion (A): R is an equivalence relation.
Reason (R): All elements of {1, 3, 5} are related to all elements of {2, 4} .
21. Using the principal values, write the value of cos

−1
(
1
) + 2 sin
−1
(
1
) .
2 2
OR
* Write the interval for the principal value of function and draw its graph:
sin
−1
X …
Page 3
22. The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 7cm /sec. How fast is its 3
surface area increasing at the instant when the length of an edge of the cube is
12 cm?
23. Find the maximum and minimum values of 2x
3
− 24x + 107 on the interval [−3, 3] .
OR
* Show that f (x) = cos(2x +
π
4
) is an increasing function on (
3π
8
,
7π
8
)
24. Evaluate: ∫
(3x+5)
dx
3 2
(x − x −x+1)
25. Show that the function f (x) =

x
+
3
decreases in the intervals (−3, 0) ∪ (0, 3) .
3 x
26. Evaluate: ∫
x+2
2
√x +2x+3
27. Bag I contains 3 white and 4 black balls, while Bag II contains 5 white and 3
black balls. One ball is transferred at random from Bag I to Bag II and then a
ball is drawn at random from Bag II. The ball so drawn is found to be white. Find
the probability that the transferred ball is also white.
28.
Evaluate:
1/ √2 −1
sin x
∫ dx
0 2 3/2
(1− x )
OR
* Find ∫
√x
dx .
√a3 − x3
29. Find the particular solution of the differential equation
given that y = 0 when x =1

−1 dy
2 tan y
(1 + y ) + (x − e ) = 0
dx
OR
* Solve:
dy
+
y
= cos x +
sin x
dx x x
30. Show that the

solution set of the linear constraints is empty
x − 2y ≥ 0, 2x − y ≤ −2, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0
OR
* Solve the following LPP by graphical method:
Minimize Z = 20x + 10y
Subject to
x + 2y ≤ 40
3x + y ≥ 30
4x + 3y ≥ 60
and x, y ≥ 0
31. If x = a sin 2t(1 + cos 2t) and y = b cos 2t(1 − cos 2t) , then find dy
at t =
π
.
dx 4
Page 4
[20]
32. Using integration, find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by
the Y-axis, the line y = x and the circle x
2
+y
2
= 32
33. Show that the relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b) : |a − b| is
divisible by 2} is an equivalence relation. Write all the equivalence classes of R .
OR
* Show that the function f : R → {x ∈ R : −1 < x < 1} defined by f (x) =
x
1+|x|
,x ∈ R
is one-one and onto function.

34. Two schools P and Q want to award their selected students on the values of
Tolerance, Kindness, and Leadership. The school P wants to award Rs x each, Rs
y each and Rs z each for the three respective values to 3, 2 and 1 students
respectively with total award money of Rs2200.
School Q wants to spend Rs 3100 to award its 4, 1 and 3 students on the
respective values (by giving the sameaward money to the three values as school
P). If the total amount of award for one prize on each value is
Rs1200, using matrices, find the award money for each value
35. Find the length shortest distance between the lines x−3
=
y−8
= z−3 and
3 −1
x+3 y+7 z−6

= =
−3 2 4
OR
* Find the image of the point (0, 2, 3) in the line x+3
=
y−1
=
z+4
5 2 3
36. Recent studies suggest that roughly 12% of the world population is left handed.
Depending upon the parents, the chances of having a left handed child are as
follows:
A. When both father and mother are left handed:
Chances of left handed child is 24%.
B. When father is right handed and mother is left handed:
C. When father is left handed and mother is right handed:
D. When both father and mother are right handed:
Assuming that P (A) = P (B) = P (C) = P (D) = 1
4
and L denotes the event that
child is left handed.
i. Find P (
L
C
) . (1)
ii. Find
¯
P (
L
A
) . (1)
iii. Find P ( ) . (2)

A
OR
Find the probability that a randomly selected child is left handed given that
exactly one of the parents is left handed. (2)
Once Ramesh was going to his native place at a village near Agra. From Delhi
and Agra he went by flight, In the way, there was a river. Ramesh reached the
river by taxi. Then Ramesh used a boat for crossing the river. The boat heads
directly across the river 40 m wide at 4 m/s. The current was flowing
downstream at 3 m/s.
i. What is the resultant velocity of the boat? (1)

ii. How much time does it take the boat to cross the river? (1)
iii. How far downstream is the boat when it reaches the other side? (2)
OR
If speeds of boat and current were 1.5 m/s and 2.0 m/s then what will be
resultant velocity? (2)
Naina is creative she wants to prepare a sweet box for Diwali at home. She took
a square piece of cardboard of side 18 cm which is to be made into an open
box, by cutting a square from each corner and folding up the flaps to form the
box. She wants to cover the top of the box with some decorative paper. Naina is
interested in maximizing the volume of the box.
i. Find the volume of the open box formed by folding up the cutting each corner
with x cm. (1)
ii. Naina is interested in maximizing the volume of the box. So, what should be
the side of the square to be cut off so that the volume of the box is maximum?
(1)
iii. Verify that volume of the box is maximum at x = 3 cm by second derivative
test? (2)
OR
Find the maximum volume of the box. (2)
----- -----
Board Model Paper STD 12 Science Biology Total Marks : 70
1. Signals for parturition in human female originate from

(A
) Fully developed foetus only
(B
) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
()C Placenta only
()D Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
2. To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be

(A
) 2400 (B
) 2000 ()C 1600 ()D 1800
3. A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine content of
27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this strand?
(A
) 23% (B
) 32% ()C 36% ()D 73%
4. Observe the schematic diagram that depicts a small section of nucleic acid. The
bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds that are shown by the
dark lines. Identify the correct sequence of nucleotide in the 5’-3’ direction.
(A
) GCAT (B
) CGTA ()C TAGC ()D ATCG
5. Suresh and Rajesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. In

Suresh, the problem is qualitative as he is having incorrectly functioning globin
molecules while in Rajesh the problem is quantitative as he is having very few
globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering from.
Suresh Rajesh
Page 1
Thalassemia - Autosomal Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal
A
Dominant blood disorder linked Recessive trait
Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal Thalassemia - Autosomal
B
linked Dominant trait Recessive blood disorder
Sickle Cell Anaemia – Autosomal Thalassemia – Autosomal
C
linked Recessive trait Recessive blood disorder
Thalassemia - Autosomal Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal
D
Dominant blood disorder linkedDominant trait
6. In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is
(A) present in the medium and it binds to the repressor.
(B) not present in the medium and the repressor binds to the operator.
(C) not present in the medium and RNA polymerase binds to the operator.
(D) Active lactose present in the medium binds to RNA polymerase.
7. Which of the following features shows the mechanism of se determination in
honey-bee?
(i) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a
female.
(ii) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female.
(iii) The males are haploid having 32 chromosomes.
(iv) All workers and males are diploid having 16 chromosomes
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
8. The following diagram shows a fragment of DNA which is going to be
transcribed, the upper strand with polarity 3’ to 5’ is the template strand:
3´ ATTGCC 5´
5´ TAACGG 3´
After transcription the mRNA can be represented by:
(A) 5´ AUUGCC 3´ (B) 5´ AUUGCC 3’ (C) 5´ UAACGG 3´ (D) 5´ GGCAAU 3´
9. Idli – dosa dough rises due to production of which of the following gas?
(A) CO (B) CO 2
(C) NO (D) N O 2
10. Adaptive radiation leads to which of the following?

(A) Increased competition among species
(B) Decreased speciation rates
(C) Limited morphological diversity among species
(D) Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given geographical area.
11. Eco R1 cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence of GAATTC
is present. The number of nucleotides present in the resultant sticky ends that
Page 2
will be formed in each of the two strands of DNA after this enzyme cuts the DNA
will be:
Vector DNA Foreign DNA
A 1&5 5 &1
B 2&4 4 &2
C 2&5 5&2
D 3&4 4&3
12. During the secondary treatment of sewage, which of the following change in the
effluent occur due to flocs?
(A) Reduction in BOD
(B) Increase in BOD
(C) Decrease in DO
(D) No change in DO or BOD

13. Assertion (A): Cells of tapetum have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R): They undergo meiosis without cytokinesis.
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(D) A is False but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes.
Reason (R): They act as proof readers and provide energy.
15. Assertion (A): A floating cover placed over the slurry in a biogas plant keeps on
rising.
Reason (R): This cover keeps on rising due to the gas produced in the tank by
the microbial activity.
Page 3
16. Assertion (A): DNA fragments can be isolated by Gel electrophoresis on the
basis of their size.
Reason (R): The larger the fragment size, the faster it moves.
17. (i) A blood test reported negative for hCG. What does negative hCG imply? Name
the tissue which produces hCG?
(ii) If a blood test reported positive for hCG in a person, then which other
hormones would also be secreted by the tissue secreting hCG?
OR
* (i) The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperm during a coitus,
however the ovum is fertilized by only one sperm. How does the ovum block the
entry of additional sperms?
(ii) All copulations will not lead to fertilization. Why?
18. The schematic representation given below shows a DNA strand and two types of
mutations in the DNA strand.
(i) Identify the type of mutation exhibited in I and II.

(ii) Which of the above mutation is more harmful? Give reason.
OR
* Given below is a schematic representation of a mRNA strand
(i) In the above sequence identify the translational unit in mRNA.

(ii) Where are UTRs found and what is their significance?
19. Given below is the relationship between the HIV levels in the blood and helper T
cell count in a person detected with AIDS. Study the relationship and answer the
questions that follow.
Page 4
A. What kind of relationship is observed in the virus levels and the immune
response after some days of the initial infection?
B. Does it completely clear the virus from the body permanently? Give reason
for your answer.
20. A culture plate of Lactobacillus shows blue-coloured colonies and colourless
colonies. Explain the principle involved in the formation of such variance in the
colour of colonies.
21. (i) It was estimated that if an evergreen forest has a GPP of 400 J/m2/day and
150 J/m2/day worth of carbon dioxide flows out of that forest, what is the NPP
in that forest?
(ii) Explain why pyramids of energy must always be upright.
OR
* (i) Assume that, GPP Forest A = GPP Forest B = GPP Forest C, If Forest A has NPP
= 1254 J/m2/day; Forest B, NPP =2157 J/m2/day; and Forest C, NPP = 779 J/m2/day,
which one of these forests has maximum energy loss by respiration? Give reason.
(ii) Draw an ecological pyramid of number of the following food chains
a. Grass-Animal-Fleas on the host animal
b. Tree - Insects - Woodpecker
22. The image below shows two germinated seeds X and Y which belong to the
same species. Seed X is produced by apomixis whereas seed Y is a product of
sexual reproduction.
A. Write the number of embryo(s), embryo sac(s) and ovules in the ovary of
seed X.
B. How multiples embryos are formed in citrus fruits?
C. What advantage will plants developed from seed Y have over seed X?
23. Name the place in human ovary where the first meiotic division is completed
during oogenesis. What are the products of this division? Give the chromosome
number of each type of cells involved in the process.
24. The schematic representation given below shows the concept of Central Dogma.
A. During the process of replication and transcription the pairing of

nitrogenous bases is not similar. Explain.
B. How is the above process modified in a retrovirus? Name the process.
C. Justify why during the process of transcription only a segment of DNA is
copied into RNA.
25. Describe the steps involved in Southern blot hybridization using radiolabeled
VNTR as a probe.
26. Bio-fertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality in the soil. Explain
the role of three main sources of bio-fertilisers.
27. Explain how PCR technique can be used for amplification of a small amount of
DNA template.
28. A. Diagram given below depicts different species of Warbler birds feeding on
different regions on a Spruce tree. Explain the mechanism which helps them to
co-exist.
B. What does Gause's exclusion principle state? Does it apply in the case shown
above? Explain.
29. Assuming that within a population of beetles where Hardy Weinberg conditions
are met, the colour black (B) is dominant over the colour red (b). 40% of all
beetles are red (bb).
Given this information, answer the questions below:
A. What is the frequency of red beetles?
B. Calculate is the percentage of beetles in the population that are
heterozygous.
C. What is the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals?
OR
D. Assuming that Hardy Wienberg conditions are met in the beetle population
consisting of 1500 beetles. How many beetles would you expect to be black and
red in colour respectively?
30. Given below is the pattern of temperature in a person su ering from a non-viral
ff
disease transmitted by mosquitoes. Study the graph and answer the questions
that follow:
A. Explain the factor(s) responsible for this pattern of temperature.

B. How does this pathogen multiply in the human body?
C. How is this infection transmitted to humans?
OR
D. Which stages of the life cycle of this pathogen are completed in the
mosquito's gut?
31. A. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which the testes fail to descend into the
scrotum. It can also lead to compromised Sertoli cell function and has an impact
on Leydig cell function.
(i) Identify at least 3 parameters of male fertility which get a ected due to
ff
cryptorchidism.
(ii) Which process will be a ected if mature spermatids are not released from
ff
Sertoli cells?
(iii) Name and explain one assisted reproductive technology (ART process) in
which the sperm/semen is used to assist fertilization.
(iv) Name and explain the assisted reproductive technology that should be used
to complete the development of embryos I and II shown in the gure given
fi
below.
OR
* (i) Explain the signi cance of each of the following features present in plants
fi
given below:, (a) In rose-bay plant the stamens ripen before the stigma., (b) In
certain species of primrose, the owers have short stamen and long style., (c) The
fl
bisexual ower of mustard exhibits rejection of self-pollen grain., (ii) Explain how
fl
autogamy is prevented in castor and papaya plant respectively.
32. A. Explain how advent of biotechnology has helped in preventing infestation by
nematodes and thereby increasing crop yield.
OR
* B. In the future, genetic therapies may be used to prevent, treat, or cure certain
inherited disorders in humans. Justify the statement with a suitable example.
33. A.
(i) Why is there a need to conserve biodiversity? (Any two reasons)
(ii) Name and explain any two causes that are responsible for the loss of
biodiversity.
OR
* B.
(i) Name the two types of desirable approaches to conserve biodiversity? Explain
with examples bringing out the difference between the two types.
(ii) State the features of a stable biological community?
Model Paper 1 STD 12 Science Biology Total Marks : 70
1. The primary productivity in an ecosystem is expressed as:

(A
) gm-2yr (B
) gm-2yr-1 ()C K cal m-2yr-1 ()D K cal m-2
2. Which of the following is the component of oral pills?

(A
) Antibiotics (B
) Oxytocin ()C Progesterone ()D Relaxin
3. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the
duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other
extremely cold northern regions move to:
(A
) Keolado National Park (B
) Corbett National Park
()C Meghalaya ()D Western Ghat
4. Amniocentesis is the withdrawal of amniotic fluid in:

(A
) Menopause (B
) Parturition ()C Gestation ()D Lactation
5. Steroids are used in:

(A
) All of these (B
) Birth control
()C Treatment of hormonal imbalance. ()D Treatment of autoimmune diseases.
6. Physical removal of the large and small particle from the sewage through
filtration and sedimentation is called:
(A
) Primary treatment (B
) Secondary treatment
()C Tertiary treatment ()D Quaternary treatment
7. Genotypic and phenotypic ratio in monohybrid cross remains same in case of:
(A
) Dominant and recessive genes (B
) Pseudoallelic genes
()C Intermediate inheritance ()D Sex linked genes
8. Picture shown below is an example of:-
(A
) Convergent evolution of Australian marsupials and placental mammals
(B
) Divergent evolution of Australian marsupials and placental mammals
Page 1
(C) Homologous organs of both animals
(D) Analogous organs of both animals
9. Bacteria and fungi in a forest ecosystem are generally:
(A) Producers (B) Primary consumers
(C) Secondary consumers (D) Decomposers
10. In the pedigree analysis, the symbol shown below represent
(A) Sex unspecified (B) Affected individuals

(C) Normal individuals (D) Matting between relatives
11. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by
plants?
(A) Rhizobium (B) Glomus (C) Frankia (D) Anabaena
12. In Gel Electrophoresis, fragments are moved from:
1. Anode to Cathode
2. Cathode to Anode
3. Negative to Positive
4. Positive to Negative
(A) 1, 4 (B) 1,3 (C) 2, 4 (D) 2, 3

13. Assertion (A): Reproductive health means total well-being in all aspects of
reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural, and social.
Reason (R): A society with people having physically and functionally normal
reproductive organs might be called reproductively healthy.
Page 2
14. Assertion (A): The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is
constantly agitated mechanically and the air is pumped into it.
Reason (R): This allows vigorous growth of useful anaerobic microbes into flocs.
for assertion.
15. Assertion (A): Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels
in the ecosystem is called stratification.
Reason (R): Trees occupy top vertical strata or layer of a forest, herbs, grasses
the second and shrubs occupy the bottom layers.
16. Assertion (A): Homo sapiens have evolved from chimpanzee-like ancestors.
Reason (R): There is no difference between the two in the amino acid sequence
of the protein Cytochrome-C.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
17. When a foreign DNA is introduced into an organism, how it is maintained in the
host and how it is transferred to the progeny of the organism?
18. The flow of genetic information is shown below. Name the process of (a) and
(b).
Page 3
19. i. Given below is a TS of an apple. Identify A, B, and C.
ii. Why is an apple categorised as a false fruit?

20. In the given figure, give the name and functions of parts labelled A and B.
21. Write the various major steps of fermentation.

OR
* What is LAB? What is its role in human stomach?
22. Given below is a schematic representation of a lac operon. Answer the following
questions:
i. Identify i and p.
ii. Name the inducer for this operon.
iii. Explain the function of inducer for this operon.
23. List any four symptoms of Down's syndrome. What is the basis of this disorder?
24. Name the type of curve that characterizes most populations growing in
favourable environment. Define carrying capacity.
Page 4
25. The image below describes the process of Gene Therapy.
i. What is gene therapy?

ii. Name the first clinical case in which it was used.
26. Differentiate between in situ and ex situ approaches of conserving biodiversity.
OR
* Alien species invasion has been a threat to biodiversity. Justify with the help of a
suitable example. List any other three causes responsible for such a loss.
27. How did Louis Pasteur successfully demolish the popular theory of spontaneous
generation? What were his conclusions?
28. What are the misconceptions about the transmission or acquiring AIDS?
The reproductive cycle in female primates (e.g. monkeys, apes and human
beings) is called the menstrual cycle. In human females, menstruation is
repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days, and the cycle of events
starting from one menstruation till the next one is called the menstrual cycle
Anita has show Diagrammatic presentation of various events during a menstrual
cycle.
i. What role do pituitary gonadotropins play during the follicular and ovulatory
phases of the menstrual cycle? (1)
ii. The first half of the menstrual cycle is called the proliferative phase as well as
the follicular phase. Give reason.(2)
iii. Why does corpus luteum stay active throughout pregnancy and in the
absence of fertilization, is active only for 10-12 days?
OR
What happens to corpus luteum in human female if the ovum is (2)
a. fertilised,
b. not fertilised?
Cancer refers to any one of a large number of diseases characterized by the
development of abnormal cells that divide uncontrollably and have the ability to
infiltrate and destroy normal body tissue. Cancer often has the ability to spread
throughout your body. Cancer is the second-leading cause of death in the world.
i. How does a cancerous cell differ from a normal cell? (1)

ii. Benign tumor is less dangerous than malignant tumor. Why? (1)
iii. Describe causes of cancer. (2)
OR
Mention two methods of treatment of the disease. (2)
31. Trace the development of microspore mother cell in the anther to a mature
pollen grain.
OR
* Draw a labelled sketch of L.S. of pistil showing the progamous type of
fertilization.
32. Which property of DNA double helix led Watson and Crick to hypothesise semi-
conservative mode of DNA replication? Explain.
OR
* A single base mutation in a gene may not 'always' result in loss or gain of
function. Do you think the statement is correct? Defend your answer.
33. i. Why must a cell be made 'competent' in biotechnology experiments? How
does calcium ion help in doing so?
ii. State the role of 'biolistic gun' in biotechnology experiments.
OR
* i. Explain how to find whether an E.coli bacterium has transformed or not when
a recombinant DNA bearing ampicillin resistant gene is transferred into it.
ii. What does the ampicillin resistant gene act as in the above case?
----- -----
1. The amount of usable energy which is available for doing work, when the
temperature and pressure are uniform throughout the system, is called:
(A
) Free energy (B
) Spontaneous energy
()C Activation energy ()D Enthalphy
2. Induced abortion is also called:
(A
) STD (B
) MTP ()C IUD ()D PID
3. Dodo is
(A
) extinct (B
) critically endangered
()C endangered ()D rare
4. A vasectomy:
(A
) Prevents the production of sperms in the testes.
(B
) Prevents the movement of sperms into the urethra.
()C Prevents the production of semen.
()D Prevents from having erection.
5. The extraction of DNA from the agarose gel is called as:

(A
) Isolation (B
) Elution ()C Transformation ()D Ligation
6. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen-fixing symbiont is found in:

(A
) Cycas (B
) Pisum ()C Alnus ()D Cicer
7. Study the pedigree chart given below:
What does it show?

(A
) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
(B
) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
()C Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
()D Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
8. The diagram represents miller's experiment. Choose the correct combination of
labelling.
Page 1
(A) A-electrodes, B-NH3 + H2O, C-hot water, D-tap, E-U trap
(B) A-electrodes, B-NH4+ H2 + CO 2 +CH3, C- hot water, D-vacuum, E-U trap
(C) A-electrodes, B-NH3 + H2 + H2O +CH2, C- cold water, D-vacuum, E-U trap
(D) A-electrodes, B-NH3 + H2 + H2O +CH4, C- steam, D-vacuum, E-U trap
9. Biological equilibrium is an equilibrium among the:

(A) Producers and consumers (B) Producers and decomposers
(C) Producers (D) Producers, consumers and
decomposers
10. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of trait in
humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this
pattern?
(A) Thalassemia (B) Haemophilia

(C) Sickle Cell anemia (D) Phenyl ketonuria
11. The excreta of cattle, commonly called gobar is rich in _____________ .
(A) Bacillus species (B) Rhizobium
(C) Pseudomonas putida (D) Methanobacterium
12. DNA fragments move at different distances in Gel Electrophoresis because:
(A) The voltage is too high. (B) Molecular weights of the fragments
are different.
(C) DNA has a positive charge. (D) DNA gets denatured.
Page 2
13. Assertion (A): Determining the sex of an unborn child followed by MTP is an
illegal practice.
Reason (R): Amniocentesis is a practice to test the presence of genetic disorders
also.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. Assertion (A): Azolla is used as a biofertiliser in rice fields.
Reason (R): Azolla shows the presence of N2 - fixing bacteria in its leaf cavities.
15. Assertion (A): No energy that is trapped in an organism remains in it forever.

Reason (R): The energy trapped by a producer/consumer is either passed to a
consumer/secondary consumer or the organism dies.
16. Assertion: The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green
and presumably anaerobes.
Reason: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never
released oxygen.
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(C) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false,
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,
Page 3
17. Name the group of bacteria involved in setting milk into curd. Explain the
process they carry in doing so. Write another beneficial role of such bacteria.
18. Study the given portion of double-stranded polynucleotide chain carefully.
Identify a, b, c and the 5' end of the chain.
19. a. Draw an L.S. of pistil showing pollen tube entering into the embryo sac. Label
the following:
i. Nucellus
ii. Antipodals
iii. Synergids
iv. Micropyle
b. Write the functions of the following:
i. Synergids
ii. Micropyle
20. Identify A, B, C and D with reference to gametogenesis in humans, in the flow
chart given below.
21. State the most important contribution of the following microbes for human
welfare:
a. monascus purpureus
b. Trichoderma Polysporum
OR
* Name the effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens belonging to
group of viruses. Also write about the ways they support the environment.
Page 4
22. i. Construct a complete transcription unit with promotor and terminator on the
basis of the hypothetical template strand given below.
ii. Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along with
its polarity.
23. i. How does mutation occur?
ii. Differentiate between point mutation and frameshift mutation.
24. What is the association between the bumblebee and its favourite orchid Ophrys?
How would extinction or change of one affect the other?
25. The below image shows is the headquarter of Eli Lilly company. Eli lily is one of
the first pharmaceutical companies to produce human insulin using RDT
technology by cell-based fermentation method.
i. How did Eli Lilly synthesize human insulin?

ii. Mention one difference between this insulin and the one produce by the
human pancreas.
26. Study the graphical representation of Species richness - Area relationship given
below and answer the questions that follow:
a. What do S, C, Z and A represent in the given graph?

b. What will be the range value of Z line if we analyse the species-area
relationship among very large areas like entire continent?
OR
* Alien species are a threat to native species. Justify taking examples of an animal
and a plant alien species.
27. Classify the following as examples of homology and analogy:
Page 5
(i) Mouth parts of cockroach and butterfly
(ii) Hearts of rabbits and human beings
(iii) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(iv) Sweet potato and potato
(v) Stings of honey bee and scorpion
(vi) Tendrils of Lathyrus and tendrils of Gloriosa
28. A patient complains of suffering from constipation, stomach ache, stool with
blood clots and excess mucous.
The physician diagnosed it as amoebiasis, after stool test.
a. Write the scientific name of the microbe identified in the stool sample.
b. How do you think, the patient must have contracted it?
c. Write your suggestions to the patient to avoid infection in future.
The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events (A-I) in a
humans female.
i. Identify the figure that illustrates ovulation and mention the stage of
oogenesis it represents. (1)
ii. Name the ovarian hormone and the pituitary hormone that have caused the
above mentioned event. (1)
iii. Explain the changes that occur in the uterus simultaneously in anticipation.
(2)
OR
Write the differences between C and H. (2)
The diagram shows the replication of the retrovirus in the host.
i. Fill in the missing data in boxes labelled 1 & 2. (1)
ii. Why is it named as retrovirus? (1)
iii. While the virus is being replicated and released, does the infected cell survive
and why the virus infected cells prevent spreading of virus to healthy cells? (2)
OR
What is the effect of HIV infection on immune system? (2)
31. a. Explain the process of syngamy and triple fusion in angiosperms.

b. Trace the development of the product of syngamy upto its mature stage in a
dicot plant.
c. Draw and label three important parts of a mature dicot embryo.
OR
* a. Draw a diagram of a fully developed embryo sac of an angiosperm. Label its
chalazal end and any other five parts within the embryo sac.
b. Why does the development of an endosperm precede that of the embryo in
angiosperm?
c. Number of chromosomes in an onion plant cell is 16. Name the cells of the
embryo sac having 16 and 24 chromosomes formed after fertilisation.
32. i. Name the type of DNA that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting and mention
two features of this DNA.
ii. Write the steps carried out in the process of DNA fingerprinting technique,
and mention its application.
OR
* In 1952, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase took an effort to find the genetic
material in organisms. Their experiments led to an unequivocal proof to DNA as
genetic material.
Answer the following questions based on Hershey and Chases's experiments:

i. Name the kind of virus they worked with and why?
ii. Why did they use two types of culture media to grow viruses in? Explain.
iii. What was the need for using a blender and later a centrifuge during their
experiments? OR
iv. State the conclusion drawn by them after the experiments.
33. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a laboratory technique used to amplify DNA
sequences. The method involves using short DNA sequences called primers to
select the portion of the genome to be amplified. The temperature of the
sample is repeatedly raised and lowered to help a DNA replication enzyme copy
the target DNA sequence. The technique can produce a billion copies of the
target sequence in just a few hours.
i. List the three steps involved in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

ii. Name the source organism of Taq polymerase.
iii. Explain the specific role of this enzyme in PCR.
OR
* How and why is the bacterium Thermus aquaticus employed in recombinant
DNA technology? Explain.
----- -----
1. The phenomenon involved in the formation of female gametophyte is known as:

(A
) Hydrolysis (B
) Megasporogenesis
()C Multisporogenesis ()D Microsporogenesis
2. N2-fixing bacteria in non-legume plants are:

(A
) Frankia (B
) Aspergillus ()C Rhizobia ()D Plasmodium
3. Which one of the following plants shows very close relationships with a species
of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
(A
) Viola (B
) Yucca ()C Hydrilla ()D Banana
4. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

(A
) Eco RV (B
) Hind III ()C Xho1 ()D Sal I
5. Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum
biodiversity?
(A
) Desert (B
) Coral reefs ()C Alpine meadows ()D Mangroves
6. The natural parthenogenesis is found in:

(A
) Drosophila (B
) Sharks ()C Honey bee ()D Housefly
7. Rosie's milk is enriched nutritionally as it has:

(A
) Beta lactalbumin (B
) Human gene alpha lactalbumin
()C lactose ()D Vitamin A
8. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill
in the blanks A to C.
(A
) A - translation B - transcription C - Erevin Chargaff
(B
) A-translation B - extension C - Rosalind Franklin
()C A - transcription B - translation C - Francis Crick
()D A - transcription B - replication C - James Watson
9. Tapetum in pollen grains help in:
(A
) Provide nourishment to the young microspore mother cell
Page 1
(B) Help in pollen grain germination
(C) Provide protection to the microspore mother cell
(D) Help in the dispersal of pollen grain
10. Inthe given pedigree the shaded figures denote individuals expressing a specific
trait:
Which of the following is the most probable mode of inheritance of this trait?
(A) X-linked recessive transmission
(B) Simple Mendelian Recessive
(C) Codominant relationship of a single pair of alleles
(D) X-linked dominant transmission
11. DNA replication takes place during:
(A) S-phase (B) G1 phase (C) G2 phase (D) Prophase
12. Which of the following is true for a Plasmid -
(A) It can be replicate independently (B) It cannot replicate

(C) It lies together with chromosomes (D) It shows independent assortment

13. Assertion (A): Siblings are monoparental in origin.

Reason (R): Monoparental progenies are exact copies of the parent.
Page 2
14. Assertion (A): Appetency is the formation of new structural or habit of the
organism according to its need.
Reason (R): It is also called Lamarckian doctrine.
15. Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting is a very quick way to distinguish any two
individuals.
Reason (R): Any two individuals in the world except identical twins have not
similar VNTR.
for assertion.
16. Assertion (A): Escherichia coli, Shigella sp., and Salmonella sp. are all responsible
for diarrhoeal diseases.
Reason (R): Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and an
adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.
for assertion.
17. Antibiotics are sold in combination with Lactobacillus (reason)

18. In the pie chart (a) and (b) drawn below to show the global animal diversity,
which group of animals would you name and write on the areas shaded back in
(a) and (b). In which kind of habitat would you find these groups of animals?
Page 3
19. (A) bacterial cell is shown in the figure given below. Label the part (A) and (B).
Also mention the use of part 'A' in rDNA technology.
20. Name the labels A, B, C, D, E and F in the diagram of seminiferous tubule.
21. Why cannot a population live alone by itself in nature?

OR
* The density of a population in a habitat per unit area is measured in different
units. Write the unit of measurement against the following:
i. Bacteria
ii. Banyan
iii. Deer
iv. Fish
22. Three water samples namely river water, untreated sewage water and
secondary effluent discharged from a sewage treatment plant were subjected to
BOD test. The samples were labelled A, B and C but the laboratory attendant did
not note which was which. The BOD values of the three samples A, B and C were
recorded as 20 mg/L, 8 mg/L and 400 mg/L respectively. Which sample of the
water is most polluted? Can you assign the correct label to each assuming the
river water is relatively clean?
23. i. Read the graph given above and correlate the uterine events that take place
according to the hormonal levels on:
a. 6-15 days
b. 16-25 days
c. 26-28 days
ii. Specify the sources of the hormones mentioned in the graph.
Page 4
24. Anita was happy when she gave birth to her first child. Her in-laws were
dissatisfied at her not giving birth to a male child and blamed Anita. Anita tried
to convince her in-laws that she had no role in the child's gender. They
understood the biological reason but were yet to be satisfied. Anita's husband
took up the matter and convinced the parents.
i. What values did Anita's husband show in the above situation?
ii. What governs sex determination in humans? How is it different from birds?
iii. Why can't Anita be blamed for not giving birth to a male child?
25. The graph given below shows species-area relationship of a certain region.
a. Study the graph and explain what it represents.

b. After a while, a small area was taken for constructing a road which divided
the region into two. Write the impact this construction would have on species
richness of the region.
26. i. Why is tender coconut considered as a healthy source of nutrition?
ii. How are pea seeds different from castor seeds with respect to endosperm?
OR
* Draw the diagram of a microsporangium and label its wall layers. Write briefly
on the role of the endothecium.
27. i. Name an ideal pyramid existing in an ecosystem. Construct it up to its three
trophic levels along with their
names.
ii. The sun provides 1,000,000 J of sunlight (solar energy) to an ecosystem. Write
Page 5
the amount of energy that is available to the first and third trophic levels,
respectively.
28. Why is Saheli considered an effective contraceptive for women to space
children?
Gene regulation is the mechanism of switching off and switching on of the
genes depending upon the requirement of cells and the state of development.
Gene regulation is of two types: negative and positive. In negative gene
regulation, the genes continue expressing their effect till their activity is
suppressed. Positive gene regulation is the one in which the genes remain non-
expressed unless and until they are induced to do it. Operon model is a co-
ordinated group of genes such as structural gene, operator gene, promoter
gene, regulator gene which function together and regulate a metabolic pathway
as a unit, e.g., lac operon, trp operon, ara operon, etc.
i. Regulation of gene expression occurs at which the level? (1)

ii. What is complementary to an mRNA molecule transcribed from the lac operon
contains nucleotide sequences? (1)
iii. Describes the control of transcription of the genes involved in the breakdown
of lactose in Escherichia coli?
(2)
OR
What is the function of catabolic activator protein in lac operon? (2)
Transgenic animals can serve as factories that in some cases, may produce large
amounts of proteins more e ciently. Transgenic mice have been engineered to
ffi
express human antibodies by introducing a large segment of human DNA
encoding human immunoglobulin genes. In transgenic large animals such as
cows or sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value can be produced in large
quantities in milk which is later puri ed. Transgenes can be used to alter many
fi
phenotypic properties including growth rate, fat composition, milk production,
hair texture, etc.
i. In transgenic animals, i.e. cow and sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value are
produced in large quantities in which gland. (1)
ii. Why is mouse the most preferred animal for studies on gene transfer? (1)
iii. Why does the production of transgenic animals take place? (2)
OR
Assertion (A): Transgenic mice have been engineered to express human
antibodies. (2)
Reason (R): Large segments of human DNA encoding human immunoglobulin
have been transferred to mice.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
31. i. Describe the phenomenon of adaptive radiation as explained by Darwin.
ii. Is human evolution an example of adaptive radiation? Give reason in support
of your answer.
OR
* Describe the various evidences from palaeontology which support organic
evolution.
32. What are the various advantages of using genetically modi ed plants to increase
fi
the overall yield of the crop?
OR
* A patient is su ering from ADA de ciency. Can the patient be cured? How?
ff
fi
33. i. What is the chemical name of smack? Why is the consumption of smack
considered as an abuse?
ii. Name the source plant and one e ect of the following drugs on the human
ff
body:
1. Marijuana
2. Cocaine
3. Morphine
OR
* What is the Pulse Polio Programme of Government of India? What is OPV? Why
is it that India is yet to eradicate Polio?
1. Among the following, where do you think the process of decomposition would
be the fastest?
(A
) Alpine region (B
) Antarctic
()C Dry arid region ()D Tropical rain forest
2. Amniocentesis is a method to:
(A
) Medical termination of pregnancy (B
) Fertilize the egg
()C Sperm Count ()D Detect genetic disorder
3. The species of animals protected in Kaziranga sanctuary is:
(A
) Macaca mullata (B
) P. leo
()C Panthera tigris ()D Rhinoceros unicornis
4. Which one of the following techniques is employed in test tube baby

programme?
(A
) Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (B
) Gamete Intra-Fallopian transfer
()C Zygote Intra Fallopian transfer ()D Intra-Uterine Insemination
5. A desirable change in genotype of an organism is obtained by:

(A
) DNA technology (B
) DNA replication
()C Protein synthesis ()D mRNA formation
6. Nitrogen fixation is performed by:

(A
) Blue-green algae and bacteria (B
) Green algae and fungi
()C Legumes and cereals ()D Ferns and cycads
7. Select the option that gives the correct description of the process of Natural
Selection with respect to the length of the neck of giraffe.
(A
) Stabilising selection as giraffes with medium neck lengths are selected.
Page 1
(B) Directional selection as giraffes with longer neck lengths are selected.
(C) Stabilising selection as giraffes with longer neck lengths are selected further.
(D) Disruptive selection as giraffes with smaller and longer neck lengths are selected.
8. What was the mixture of gases used in chamber marked A?
(A) Oxygen O 2, ammonia (NH3), hydrogen H2, and water H2O
(B) Methane(CH4) v, ammonia (NH3), hydrogen H2 and water H2O
(C) Oxygen O 2, ozone O 3, hydrogen H2, and water H2O
(D) Oxygen O 2, ozone O 3, hydrogen H2
9. Sequence of species through which the organic molecules in a community

process is:
(A) Ecological pyramid (B) Population
(C) Food chain (D) Ecosystem
10. What does the chart give below represent?
(A) XX - XO type of sex determination (B) XX - XY type of sex determination

(C) XO - XX type of sex determination (D) xy - xx type of sex determination
11. Single cell protein refers to:
(A) A specific protein extracted from a single cell.
(B) Proteins extracted from a single cell.
(C) Sources of mixed proteins extracted from pure or mixed culture of cells.
(D) A specific protein extracted from pure culture of single type of cells.
Page 2
12. Which of the given statements is correct in the context of visualizing DNA
molecules separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?
(A) DNA can be seen in visible light.
(B) Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.
(C) Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen in visible light.
(D) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light.

13. Assertion (A): In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality rate and MMR.
Reason (R): In India, more and more attention is being given to RCH
programmes.
14. Assertion (A): Large holes in Swiss cheese are due to the production of a large
amount of carbon dioxide by specific microbe.
Reason (R): The specificity of characteristic texture, flavour and taste of Swiss
cheese is due to the use of bacterium Propionibacterium shermanii.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
15. Assertion (A): Decomposition process is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and
cutin.
Reason (R): Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process.
16. Assertion (A): Evolution is a continuous process that takes millions of years for
speciation.
Reason (R): During evolution, small variation accumulates guided by natural
selection that leads to speciation.
Page 3
17. Micro-organisms play an important role for the biological treatment of sewage.
Justify.
18. Study the mRNA segment given below, which is complete and to be translated
into a polypeptide chain and answer the following questions:
i. Write codons 'A' and 'B'.

ii. What do they code for?
iii. How is the peptide bond formed between two amino acids in the ribosome?
19. Draw a vertical section of maize grain and label its endosperm, plumule,
coleoptile, scutellum, radicle and coleorhiza.
20. Study the sectional view of human testis showing seminiferous tubules given
below.
i. Identify A, B and C.
ii. Write the function of A and D.
21. Name the enzyme produced by Streptococcus bacterium. Explain its importance
in medical sciences.
OR
* Effluent from the primary treatment of the sewage is passed through large
aeration tanks for biological treatment.
Explain the complete process that follows till the water is ready to be released into
the natural water bodies.
Page 4
22. Observe the diagram for genetic mapping of human DNA and answer the
following questions:
i. Explain DNA polymorphism as the basis of genetic mapping of the human

genome.
ii. State the role of VNTR in DNA fingerprinting.
23. i. Compare the mechanism of sex determination in humans with that of honey
bees, with respect to chromosome number.
ii. How is the gamete formation comparable in the above two cases?
24. a. What does the equation dN
= rN express in terms of population growth?
dt
b. Write the significance of r in a population survey.

25. The image below describes the molecular diagnostic procedures.
i. Write any two biochemical/molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection

of viral infection.
ii. Explain the principle of any one of them.
26. List six advantages of ex-situ approach to conservation of biodiversity.
OR
* What are the consequences of loss of biodiversity in a region? Explain.
27. What are the main features of mutation theory?
28. Mention the chemical nature of an antibody and name the type of cells they are
produced by. Write the difference between active and passive immune
responses on the basis of antibodies.
The image below shows the menstrual cycle of a human female. On the basis of
this cycle:
i. Explain the menstrual phase in a human female. State the level of ovarian and
pituitary hormones during this phase. (1)
ii. Why is follicular phase in the menstrual cycle also referred as proliferative
phase? Explain. (1)
iii. Explain the events that occur in a Graafian follicle at the time of ovulation and
thereafter. (2)
OR
Draw a Graafian follicle and label antrum and secondary oocyte. (2)
The pathogen of a disease depends on RBCs of human for growth and
reproduction. The person with this
pathogen suffers with chill and high fever.
i. Identify the disease. (1)

ii. Name the pathogen. (1)
iii. What is the cause of fever? (2)
OR
Represent the life cycle of the pathogen diagrammatically. (2)
[15]
31. i. Double fertilisation is an event unique to all flowering plants. Explain the
process.
ii. Give a reason for the following:
a. A seed of an orange has many embryos.
b. Cashew is a false fruit but Guava is a true fruit.
OR
* Explain the post pollination events up to double fertilisation, that occur in an
angiosperm.
32. i. How and why is charging of tRNA essential in the process of translation?
ii. State the function of ribosome as a catalyst in bacteria during the process of
translation.
iii. Explain the process of binding of ribosomal units to mRNA during protein
synthesis.
OR
* Describe the experiment carried out by Hershey and Chase. Write the
conclusion they arrived at.
33. Restriction enzymes are found in bacteria (and other prokaryotes). They
recognize and bind to specific sequences of DNA, called restriction sites. Each
restriction enzyme recognizes just one or a few restriction sites.
When it finds its target sequence, a restriction enzyme will make a double-
stranded cut in the DNA molecule.
i. Write the palindromic nucleotide sequence for the following DNA segment.
5'-GAATTC-3'
ii. Name the restriction endonuclease that recognises this sequence.
iii. How are sticky ends produced? Mention their role.
OR
* Describe the roles of heat, primers and the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in the
process of PCR.
----- -----
1. How much solar energy falling on the leaf of plant is converted into chemical
energy?
(A
) 60% (B
) 10% ()C 100% ()D 1%
2. The natural method of birth control in which the couples avoid coitus from day
10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle is called:
(A
) Periodic abstinence (B
) Lactational amenorrhea
()C Copulation abstinence ()D Withdrawal
3. The sixth extinction in progress currently is different from all previous
extinctions on earth as it is:
(A
) 10-100 times faster (B
) 100-10000 times faster
()C 100-1000 times faster ()D 1000-10000 times faster
4. Which of the following is not a category of contraceptive method?

(A
) Surgical method (B
) Artificial insemination
()C Barrier method ()D Natural method
5. Which of the following is not required in the preparation of a recombinant DNA

molecule?
(A
) DNA ligase (B
) E.coli
()C Restriction endonuclease ()D DNA fragments
6. Which one of the following can fix nitrogen?

(A
) Nostoc (B
) Streptococcus ()C Oscillatoria ()D Spirogyra
7. Select the option that gives the correct description of the process of Natural
Selection with respect to the length of the neck of giraffe.
(A
) Stabilising selection as giraffes with medium neck lengths are selected.
Page 1
(B) Directional selection as giraffes with longer neck lengths are selected.
(C) Stabilising selection as giraffes with longer neck lengths are selected further.
(D) Disruptive selection as giraffes with smaller and longer neck lengths are selected.
8. The diagram represents the Miller experiment. Choose the correct combination
of labelling.
(A) A - electrodes, B - NH3+ H2O,C - hot water, D-tap, E - U trap
(B) A - electrodes, B - NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4, C-steam, D- Vacuum, E - U trap
(C) A- electrodes, B-(NH3 + H2+ H2O + CH4), C-cold water, D - Vacuum, E - U Trap.
(D) A - electrodes,B - NH4 + H2 + CO 2 + CH3, C-hot water, D - Vacuum, E - U Trap.
9. Which of the following supports a dense population of planktons and littoral

vegetation ?
(A) Eutrophic (B) Oligotrophic (C) Agroecotrophic (D) Lithotrophic
10. On the basis of the sex chromosome shown below, the bird shown is
(A) Female (B) Cannot be decided

(C) Transgender (D) Male
11. Use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce our dependence on:
(A) Plants and insects (B) Fertilizers and manure
(C) Useful chemicals and pesticides (D) Toxic chemicals and pesticides
12. In hybridoma technology:
(A) T-cells are fused with myeloma cells.
(B) B-cells are fused with T-cells.
(C) C-cells are fused with T-cells.
Page 2
(D) B-cells are fused with myeloma cells.

13. Assertion (A): Test-tube baby has raised several legal problems.
Reason (R): It involves in vitro fertilization followed by embryo transfer.
14. Assertion (A): Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in baking
industry.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough
to rise by thermal expansion.
15. Assertion (A): Decomposition process is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and
cutin.
Reason (R): Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process.
16. Assertion (A): Fossils are remains of dead organisms.
Reason (R): Palaeontology is helpful in study of evolution.
17. Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) sets milk into curd and also plays a very beneficial role
for human health. Give any two suitable reasons.
Page 3
18.
i. Look at the above sequence and mention the event A, B and C.

ii. What does central dogma state in molecular biology? How does it differ in
some viruses?
19. a. Draw a neat diagram of a mature angiospermic embryo sac and label any
four cellular components.
b. Write the function of filiform apparatus.
20. Given below is an incomplete chart showing the influence of hormones on
gametogenesis in males. Observe the chart carefully and fill in the blanks A, B, C
and D
21. A patient who has undergone an organ transplant is put on

immunosuppressant. Name the immunosuppressant and its source organism.
OR
* Write the name of the bioactive molecules produced by the microbes listed
below, and their role in the field of medical sciences.
a. Monascus purpureus
b. Trichoderma polysporum
22. Given below is a schematic representation of a lac operon. Answer the following
questions:
i. Identify i and p.
ii. Name the inducer for this operon.
iii. Explain the function of inducer for this operon.
Page 4
23. Why is the frequency of red-green color blindness is many times higher in males
than that in females?
24. Study the table showing the population interaction between species Z and Y
respectively. Assign the appropriate +/- signs for A, B, D, E and respective
interactions for C and F.
Name of
Species 'Z' Species 'Y'
Interaction
A B Mutualism
- - C
D E Parasitism
+ O F
25. a. Given below is the stepwise schematic representation of the process of
electrophoresis. Identify the alphabets representing (i) Anode end (ii)
smallest/lightest DNA strand in the matrix (iii) Agarose gel
b. What is elution? State the importance of elution in this process.

26. Forests provide intangible benefits to us. Explain by taking three different areas,
how.
OR
* Given below is an equation describing the Species-Area relationship between
species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa as angiosperm plants, birds,
bats etc.
S = CAZ
a. Give a graphical representation of the given equation showing Species-Area
relationship.
b. What does S represent in the given equation?
c. What is the value of Z (regression coefficient) for frugivorous birds and
mammals in the tropical forests of different continents?
27. Who proposed the term evolution? What is evolution? List the different
evidences in support of evolution.
28. Do you support dope test being conducted on sports persons participating in a
prestigious athletic meet? Give three reasons in support of your answer.
After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called
chorionic villi which are surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood.
The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and
jointly form a structural and functional unit between the developing embryo
(foetus) and the maternal body.
i. Name the hormone crucial in parturition. Does the parturition signal originate
from the mother or the fetus?(1)
ii. When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? (1)
iii. Woman has conceived and implantation has occurred. Discuss the impact of
progesterone and estrogen. (2)
OR
Fetal ejection re ex leads to parturition. Justify (2)
fl
Malaria and dengue fever are major mosquito-borne public health problems in
tropical countries. The authors report a malaria and dengue co-infection in an
11-year-old boy who presented with sustained fever for 10 days. The physical
examination revealed a ushed face, injected conjunctivae and left
fl
submandibular lymphadenopathy. His peripheral blood smear showed few ring-
form trophozoites of Plasmodium falciparum. His blood tests were positive for
dengue NS-1 antigen and IgM antibody, and negative for IgG antibody. After the
initiation of antimalarial treatment with artesunate and me oquine, his clinical
fl
condition gradually improved. However, he still had low-grade fever that
persisted for 6 days. Finally, he recovered well without uid leakage, shock or
fl
severe bleeding.
i. Name the sh that help in eradication of mosquito larvae.
fi
ii. What is the reason of symptoms of malaria?
iii. Name the body parts and host in which following events takes place in life
cycle of plasmodium.
a. asexual reproduction
b. sexual reproduction.
OR
Name some vector borne diseases and their vector.
31. Vivipary automatically limits the number of o springs in a litter. How?
ff
OR
* i. Describe the arrangement of nuclei and cells in a mature embryo sac of a
typical angiosperm.
ii. Explain the devices the owering plants have developed to prevent the following
fl
types of pollination:
1. Prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy
2. Prevents autogamy, but not geitonogamy
32. a. How did Meselson and Stahl reach the conclusion that DNA replication is
semi-conservative while working with E. coli in their experiment?
b. Explain the contribution of Taylor and his colleagues in DNA replication in
owering plants.
fl
OR
* a. Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive 32P and 35S in their experiments?
Explain.
b. Following the experiments conducted by them, write what conclusion did they
arrive at and how.
33. A vector is a way to take a sequence of DNA, usually, and introduce it into
another place. So what vectors do is allow you to propagate the DNA you're
interested in, in the organism you've chosen to propagate it in. So the simplest
one is the origins of recombinant DNA technology: They made copies of RNAs,
and they were able to insert these into what is known as plasmids.
Unless the vector and source DNA are cut, fragments separated and joined, the
desired recombinant vector molecule cannot be created.
i. How are the desirable DNA sequences cut?
ii. Explain the technique used to separate the cut fragments.
iii. How are the resultant fragments joined to the vector DNA molecule?
OR
* Answer the following questions with respect to recombinant DNA technology:
i. Why is plasmid considered to be an important tool in rDNA technology? From
where can plasmids be isolated? (Any two sources)
ii. Explain the role of ori and selectable marker in a cloning vector.
iii. r-DNA technology cannot proceed without restriction endonuclease. Justify.

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1. A uniform electric field pointing in positive X-direction exists in a region. Let A be

4. The diffraction effect can be observed in

7. Correct match of column I with column II is

8. The distance of closest approach of an alpha particle is d when it moves with a

9. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and

* Assertion (A) & Reason (B) MCQ [4]

13. Assertion (A): On increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer by

* Given Section consists of questions of 2 marks each. [10]

17. A platinum surface having work function 5.63 eV is illuminated by a

associated with the ejected electron.

* Given Section consists of questions of 3 marks each. [21]

28. State Gauss᾿s theorem in electrostatics. Using this theorem, derive an

* Given Section consists of questions of 4 marks each. [8]

29. Motion of Charge in Magnetic Field

(iii) A charged particles is projected in a magnetic field . The acceleration of the

(II) Photoelectrons are emitted when a zinc plate is

(III) The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodium corresponds to

(IV) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface

The minimum energy required to remove an electron from a substance is called

* Given Section consists of questions of 5 marks each. [15]

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Date JEE Date JEE

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1. The cations and anions are arranged in alternate form in

2. Current density of a conductor is

4. A magnet of magnetic moment M is suspended in a uniform magnetic field B.

6. An electron is travelling along the X-direction. It encounters a magnetic field in

(A) 283 V (B) 100 V (C) 310 V (D) 200 V