FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING

1. When making an occupied bed, which of the following is most important for the nurse to do
A. B.

Keep the bed in the low position

Use a bath blanket or top sheet for warmth and privacy Constantly keep the side rails raised on both sides Move back and forth from one side to the other when adjusting the linens

C.

D.

2. The nurse connects a patients singlelumen nasogastric tube to intermittent suction for which purpose?
A. Drain the stomach more effectively

B. Prevent electrolyte losses

C.

Help prevent dumping syndrome suctioning the mucosa

D. Help to prevent the tube from

3. Saline solution is used to irrigate a

nasogastric tube used for decompression based on which rationale?

A.

Irrigating with water is a contaminated procedure

Saline solution is a hypertonic solution Saline solution replaces electrolyte loss through nasogastric suction Saline solution is less irritating to the gastric mucosa

B. C.

D.

4. When teaching a client a client to irrigate a colostomy, the nurse indicates that the distance of the container above the stoma should not be more than
A. 15 cm (6 inches)
B. 25 cm (10 inches)

C.

30 cm (12 inches)

D. 45 cm (18 inches)

5. When performing a colostomy irrigation, the nurse inserts the catheter into the stoma:
A. 5 cm (2 inches)

B. 10 cm (4 inches)
C. 15 cm (6 inches) D. 20 cm (18 inches)

6. A client is to have an enema to reduce flatus. The rectal catheter should be inserted:
A. 2 inches

B. 4 inches
C. 6 inches D. 8 inches

7. When suctioning a client with a tracheostomy the nurse must remember to:
A. B.

Use a sterile catheter with each insertion Initiate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter

C.

D.

8. During the administration of

enema, the client complains of intestinal cramps. The nurse should

A. Give it at a slower rate B. Discontinue the procedure C. Stop until the cramps are gone

D. Lower the heights of the container

9. A nurse is changing the central line dressing of a client receiving total parenteral nutrition. The nurse notes that the catheter insertion site appears reddened. The nurse next assess which of the following
A.
B. C. D.

Tightness of the tubing connection

Clients temperature Expiration date of the bag Time of last dressing change

10. A nurse is preparing to suction a client through a tracheostomy tube. Which of the following protective items would the nurse wear to perform this procedure?
A.
B.

Gown, mask, and sterile gloves

Goggles, mask, and sterile gloves

C.

Mask, gown, and a cap

D. Mask, sterile gloves, and a cap

11. A nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter into a male client. As the catheter is inserted into the urethra, urine begins to flow into the tubing. At this point, the nurse:
A. B.

Immediately inflates the balloon Withdraws the catheter approximately 1 inch and inflates the balloon Insert the catheter until resistance is met and inflates the balloon Inserts the catheter 2.5 cm to 5 cm and inflates the balloon

C.

D.

12. Which action is essential when the nurse provides a continuous enteral feeding?
a. b. c. d.

Elevate the head of the bed Position the client on the left side Warm the formula before administering it Hang a full days worth of formula at one time

13. Mr. Dantes has a fecal impaction. The nurse correctly administers an oil-retention enema by doing which of the following?
A.

Administering a large volume of solution (500 to 1,000 ml)

Mixing milk and molasses in equal part for an enema Instructing the patient to retain the enema for at least 30 minutes Following the return-flow or Harris flush procedure

B.

C.

D.

14. A barium enema should be done before an UGIS because which of the following?
A. B.

Retained barium may cloud the colon Barium can cause lower gastrointestinal bleeding

C.

The physicians sequence

order

are

in

that

D.

Barium absorbed readily in the lower intestine

15. A patient had CVA and has difficulty of swallowing. What equipment should be at the bedside?
a. b. c. d.

suction machine oxygen cannula padded tongue blade tracheostomy tray

16. Upon returning from the recovery room, the nurse notices the fluctuation in the chest tube bottle suddenly stopped. It indicates:
A.

all the fluid and air has been removed

B.
C.

the tubing may be kinked

the lungs has been re-expanded

D. the suction is set too low

17. To obtain optimal oxygenation following immediate right pneumonectomy, the patient should be positioned:
a. b. c. d.

Left side lying semi-fowler Supine with pillow on the head

Right side lying semi-fowler

Orthopneic position

18. Which action would be the priority when administering using an oral care to a dependent patient?
A.

Assisting the patient to the dorsal recumbent position Wearing disposable gloves Using a firm toothbrush to cleanse the teeth and gums

B. C.

D.

Irrigating forcefully with hydrogen peroxide

19. While doing range-of-motion exercise with a patient who is bedridden, the nurse is aware that:
A.

Neck hyperextension should be encouraged, particularly in older patient

Exercise should be continued until the patient is fatigued Exercises should be done frequently to lessen pain for the patient Each joints is exercised to the point of resistance but no pain

B.

C.

D.

20. When using a cane for maximal support, the nurse is aware that the patient should:
A.
B. C.

Hold the cane on the weaker side

Distribute weight evenly between the feet and the cane Keep the elbow that is holding the cane straight and stiff

D.

Advance the weaker foot ahead of the cane

21. The physician has ordered an indwelling catheter inserted in a hospitalized male patient. The nurse is aware that: A. the male urethra is more vulnerable to injury during insertion B. normally a clean technique is required for catheter insertion C. the catheter is inserted 2 to 3 inches into the meatus D. smaller catheters are usually necessary because of the size of the urethra

22. Nursing care for a patient with an indwelling catheter includes which of the following?
A.

Irrigation of the catheter with 30 ml of normal saline solution every 4 hours Disconnecting and connecting the drainage system quickly to obtain urine specimen Encouraging a generous fluid intake if permitted

B.

C.

D.

Informing the patient that burning and irrigation at the meatus are normal, subsiding within a few days

23. Which of the following is the primary nursing intervention necessary for all patients with a Foley catheter in place?
A.

Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with the patients bladder Irrigate the patient with 1% Neosporin solution three times daily Clamp the catheter for 1 hour to maintain the bladder elasticity Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level to facilitate drainage by gravity.

B.

C.

D.

24. A hemovac is use to do all of the following except?

A. Promote wound healing B. Remove the drainage from the

surgical wound
C. Lessen postoperative discomfort D. Prevent wound infection

25. The nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in cloth restraints. To ensure the clients safety, the nurse should:
A.

Wrap each wrist with gauze dressing beneath the restraints Remove the restraints every two hours and inspect the wrists Keep the head of the bed flat at all times

B.

C.

D.

tie the restraints using a square knot

26. Mr. Castro has an eye infection with a moderate amount of discharge. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to use when cleansing his eyes?
A. B.

Using hydrogen peroxide Wiping from the outer canthus to the inner canthus Positioning him on the same side as the eyes to be cleansed Using only one cotton ball per eye

C.

D.

27. Proving perineal care to a patient requires which of the following?

A.

Using clean portion of washcloth for each stroke Moving from most contaminated to least contaminated Using sterile gloves

B.

C.

D.

Leaving the foreskin undisturbed in uncircumcised male

28. During morning care, Mr. Leonardo asks the nurse to shave him with his disposable razor. Before shaving him, the nurse should?
A. B.

Have him sign a permission form Check to see if the patient is taking anticoagulant Tell him that family members may shave a patient Position him flat in bed

C.

D.

29. The nurse is caring for the client who has just

returned to the nursing unit following a leftabove-the-knee amputation. How should the client be positioned?
A.

Place the stump flat on bed to prevent contractures

B.
C.

Place the stump on a pillow to prevent edema

Place the client on prone position to prevent contractures Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position to promote arterial flow

D.

30. When suctioning a client with a tracheostomy, which of the following is inappropriate action by the nurse?
A.

The nurse initiates suction as the catheter is withdrawn.

The nurse inserts 3-5 inches of the catheter into the tracheostomy. The nurse applies suction for 5-10 seconds

B.

C.

D.

The nurse uses a new sterile catheter with each insertion

31. On the first postoperative day after the left modified radical mastectomy, the NCP for this client should include which of the following?
A.

Encouraging the client to wear a breast prosthesis Keeping the left arm and shoulder immobilize Placing the client in semi-Fowlers position with left arm and head elevated

B. C.

D.

Changing the pressure dressing as necessary

32. After a client has an enteral feeding tube inserted, the most accurate method for verification of placement is
A. Abdominal x-ray B. Auscultation C.

Flushing tube with saline

D. Aspiration for gastric contents

33. To obtain accurate measurements of central venous pressure (CVP), which of the following should the nurse do?
A.

wait until the fluid in the column stops fluctuating have the zero level of the manometer at h level of the right atrium tell the patient to hold the breath
flash the line with heparinized solution

B.

C. D.

34. The nurses goal in positioning a client for a vaginal examination is to

A. B.

provide for a clients comfort provide a position that promotes access for the examination of the physician

C.

provide a position of comfort for the physician provide the correct position while ensuring the clients comfort and privacy

D.

35. An ambulatory client is being readied for bed. The action that promotes safety for the client is which of the following?
A.

Turning off the light to help promote sleep and rest Instructing the client in the use of call bell putting the side rails up
placing the bed in the high position

B.

C. D.

36. While preparing o give a client a bed bath, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. B.

place the bed in the lowest position expose the top side of the body, washing and drying quickly, then doing the same on the posterior side gather all the article necessary for the bath and placing them within the easy reach of the nurse during the bath use firm, scrubbing strokes to remove the dirt and bacteria

C.

D.

37. One of the most important nursing interventions in the care of the elderly:
A.

avoid drying agent when providing skin care encourage the client to perform as many activities of daily living gently apply moisturizing lotion to pressure area as possible apply powder to moist folds of the skin

B.

C.

D.

38. Carl is a male patient admitted for burns several days ago. He has been having intermittent NGT feeding which is to be discontinued. What is the most important criterion for the removal of the NGT?
A.

Presence of abdominal distention

B.
C.

Absence of bowel sounds

Passage of flatus

D.

Presence of gurgling sound upon introduction of air in the NGT tube

39. A fireman is confined in the hospital for extensive burns. Which of these findings demonstrate effective replacement therapy?
A. CVP reading of 3 cm H2O B. Urine output of 35 ml/hr C.

Absence of bradycardia

D. Normal RR

40. A CHF patients CVP reading is 16 cm H2O. Analyzing this result, the nurse should
A. increase the fluid intake of the patient
B. decrease the fluid intake of the

patient
C.

turn the patient to the right side

D. turn the patient to the left side

41. Nursing responsibilities in peritoneal dialysis includes all of the following except
A.

moving the patient from side to side during the procedure heating the dialysate in a microwave
monitoring the amount of inflow and outflow observing the patient for headache

B.
C.

D.

42. A patient is rushed to the hospital for a penetrating object on one eye after an accident. What is the best first aid treatment?
A. B. C. D.

Administer an antibiotic to the affected eye. Irrigate the eye with sterile NSS. Apply gauze to both eyes. Attempt to loosen the penetrating object.

43. A patient with chest injury comes into the ER. The nurse on duty, after seeing the patients condition, immediately places sterile gauze on the patients opened chest wall. What is the best explanation for this action?
A. B.

To prevent air from getting out of the lungs

To prevent the collapse of the lungs

C.
D.

To prevent secondary infection

To prevent further bleeding

44.Laminectomy is done for a patient with herniated intervertebral disc. After the operation, the nurse should instruct the patient that
A.

ambulation is encouraged as soon as possible pain should be reported immediately

B. C.

the head and the trunk should be in alignment when turning to sides
regular diet is resumed immediately

D.

45. A patient who has a fractured leg is brought to the recovery unit after cast application. What is the rationale why the affected leg must be elevated?
A. To prevent pulmonary embolism B. To prevent accumulation of fluid C.

To promote venous return

D. To prevent shock

46. An oxygen delivery system is prescribed

for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease o deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which of the following types of oxygen delivery system would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?
A.
B.

Venturi mask
Aerosol mask

C.
D.

Face tent
Tacheostomy collar

47.The nurse is preparing to complete a physical exam on a patients pelvis and vagina. The position of the client is placed in for this exam is:
A. Sims B. Dorsal recumbent C.

Knee-chest

D. Lithotomy

48. The nurse is assessing the patients abdomen to detect the area of tenderness and/or muscle guarding. The correct technique to use is:
A. Light palpation B. Deep palpation C.

Percussion

D. Palpation above the pubis symphysis

49. A client complains of painful cracks in the soles of his feet. Upon assessment the nurse notes a linear crack that extends into the dermis. The nurse documents the finding as:
A. B. C. D.

A fissure An erosion

An excoriation
An ulcer

50. The nurse assessing the clients mouth and oropharynx notes inflammation of the oral mucosa. The nurse documents this finding as:
A. Gingivitis B. Glossitis C.

Stomatitis

D. Tonsilitis

51. An exposure to an organism that causes infection during hospitalization is called:

A. Significant exposure

B. Nosocomial infection
C. Negligent occurrence D. Negligent exposure

52. The single most important means of preventing the spread of infection is:
A. Wearing disposable gloves B. Handwashing C. Avoiding persons with known

infections
D. Wearing a face mask

53.The nurse instructs the patient to use tissues when coughing or sneezing and to dispose of tissue properly after use. These instructions will prevent the spread of infection by:
A. B. C. D.

Airborne route Droplet transmission

Vehicle route
Direct contact

54. The nurse is preparing to do a bladder catheterization prepares the patient for the procedure and sets up the sterile field. As the nurse begins to approach the patient to insert the catheter, the tip of the catheter touches the sterile drape. The nurse should:
A. B.

Start the procedure from the beginning Wipe the tip of the catheter with sterile water and continue

C. D.

Continue with the procedure

Change the sterile drape and continue with the procedure

55. A patient has returned from surgery with a single lumen nasogastric tube in place for decompression. Physician orders are for low continuous suction. The nurse should:
A.

Attach the tube to the connecting tubing, then to the suction source Check the tube for placement

B. C. D.

Assess the patients bowel sound

Verify the patients bowel sound

56. The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with impaired skin integrity is which of the following:
A.

Risk for infection: Inadequate primary defenses Impaired physical mobility

Anxiety

B.
C.

D.

Risk for infection: inadequate secondary defenses

57. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a procedure. The nurse is adding sterile supplies to the sterile field. Which area around the edge of the field is considered contaminated?
A. B. C. D.

0.5 inch 1 inch

1.5 inches
2 inches

58. When transporting a client with an infection from one department to another, which of the following would not be considered an appropriate action? The nurse:
A. B.

Securely covers a draining wound Places a surgical mask on a client with airborne infection Notifies personnel at the receiving area of any infection risk Requests delay in transporting client until infection is treated

C.

D.

59. During discharge planning, the nurse teaching a patient how to prevent pruritus. Which of the following statements is true?
A. B.

Using alkaline soap is one way to prevent pruritus The patient should take a Sitz bath at least once a day

C.

The patient should be sure to change his laundry detergent when he gets home The patient should decrease the frequency of bathing or should avoid all soap except on the face, axilla, and perineal area

D.

60. A nurse is shaving a male client with a razor. Which of the following action is incorrect?
A.

The nurse applies a moist, warm washcloth to the face and the neck for several times before shaving The nurse dons gloves prior to shaving the patient The nurse shaves against the direction of the hair growth The nurse holds the razor at a 45-degree angle

B.

C.

D.

61. When providing a bed bath for a client, the nurse correctly adjusts the temperature of the water to which of the following?
A. 40C - 42C B. 37C - 40C C.

43C - 46C

D. 46C - 49C

62. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?
a.
b.

Breath sounds can be heard bilaterally

Mist is visible in the T-Piece

c.
d.

Pulse oximetery of 88
Client is unable to speak

63. When an intestinal obstruction is suspected, a client has a nasogastric tube inserted and attached to suction. Critical assessment of this client includes observation for:
A. B. C. D.

Edema Belching

Dehydration
Excessive salivation

64. When preparing for piggyback medication for a client, the nurse is aware that it is essential to:
A.
B. C.

Use strict sterile technique

Rotate the bag after adding the medication Use exactly 100 ml of fluid to mix the medication

D.

Change the needle just before adding the medication

65. The client is receiving 5% dextrose in water t a slower rate. The nurse should be aware that the longest period of time that one bottle can be infused without producing untoward effects is:
A. B. C. D.

6 hours 12 hours

18 hours
24 hours

66. The nurse is aware that infiltration of a clients IV is most likely caused by:
A. Excessive height of the IV solution B. Failure to adequately secure the

catheter
C.

Lack of sepsis during catheter insertion medication

D. Infusion of chemically irritating

67. When catheterizing the client, the nurse does not remove more than 1000 cc of urine at a time. What is the primary reason for that?
a. rapid change in capillary pressure may cause the development of shock b. rapid removal of urine may cause the kidney to stop producing urine

c. rapid emptying of the bladder causes vigorous spasm and obstructing of the urethra
d. over distention of the bladder causes pain which aggravated by rapid emptying

68. A client with esophageal cancer is to receive total parenteral nutrition. A right subclavian catheter is inserted by the physician. The nurse knows that the primary reason for using a central line is that
A. B. C.

It prevents the development of phlebitis There is less chance of this infusion to infiltrate The large amount of blood helps to dilute the concentrated solution It is more convenient so clients use their hands

D.

69. To facilitate maximum air exchange, a client should be placed in the:

A. Supine position

B. Orthopneic position
C. High-Fowlerss position D. Semi-Fowlers position

70. The client is shot in the chest during a holdup and is transported to the hospital. In the emergency department chest tubes are inserted, one in the second intercostals space and one in the base of the lung. The nurse understands that the tube in the second intercostals space will:
A. B.

Remove the air that is present in the intraplueral space

Drain serosnguineous fluid from the intraplueral compartment

Provide access for the instillation of medication into the pleural space Permit the development of positive pressure between the layers of the pleura

C.

D.

71. During the first 36 hours after the insertion of chest tubes, when assessing the function of the three-chamber, closed-chest drainage system, The nurse notes that the water in the underwater seal tube is not fluctuating. The initial nursing intervention should be to:
A. B. C. D.

Inform the physician Take the clients vital signs Check whether the tube is kinked Turn the client to unaffected side

72. An independent nursing measure that would be helpful in preventing the accumulation of secretion in a client who has a general anesthesia for surgery is:
A. B.

Postural drainage
Cupping the chest

C.
D.

Nasotracheal suctioning
Frequent change in position

73. To help a client obtain maximum benefit after postural drainage, the nurse should:
A. Administer

the PRN oxygen

B. Place the client in a sitting position C.

Encourage the client to cough deeply minutes

D. Encourage the client to rest for 30

74. A client has chest tube attached to a chest tube drainage system. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
A. B.

Clamp the chest tube when suctioning

Palpate the surrounding are for crepitus

C.

Change the dressing daily using aseptic technique Empty the drainage chamber t the end of the shift

D.

75. The nurse should position a client recovering from general anesthesia in a:
A. Supine position

B. Side-lying position
C. High-Fowlers position D. Trendelenburg position

76. During the immediate postoperative period, the nurse should give the highest priority to:
A. Observing for hemorrhage B. Maintaining a patent airway C.

Recording the intake and output minutes

D. Checking the vital signs every 15

77. A client has undergone bronchoscopy in an ambulatory surgery unit. To prevent laryngeal edema, the nurse should:
A. B. C.

Place ice chips in the clients mouth

Offer the client liberal amount of fluid

Keep the client in the semi-Fowlers position

D. Tell the client to suck on medicated

lozenges

78. The physician performs a colostomy. During the immediate postoperative period, nursing care should include: a. Withholding all fluid for 72 hours
b. Limiting fluid intake for several days c. Having the client change the stoma bag d. Keeping the skin around the stoma clean and dry

79. A client with allergic rhinitis is instructed on the correct technique for using an intranasal inhaler. Which of the following statements would demonstrate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions? a. I should limit the use of the inhaler to early morning and bedtime use. b. It is important to not shake the canister because that can damage the spray device. c. I should hold one nostril closed while I insert the spray into the other nostril. d. The inhaler tip is inserted into the nostril and pointed toward the inside nostril

80. When caring for an intubated client receiving mechanical ventilation, the nurse hers the high-pressure alarm. Which action is most appropriate?
A.

Obtain arterial blood gas

B.
C. D.

Lower the tidal volume setting

Remove secretions by suctioning Check that tubing connections are secure

81. A client is to have a gastric gavage. When the gavage tube is being inserted, the nurse should place the client in the:
A. Supine position B. Mid- Fowlers position C.

High-Fowlers position

D. Trendelenburgs position

82. Barium salts in GI series and barium enemas serves to:

A.

Fluoresce and thus illuminate the alimentary tract Give off visible light and illuminates the alimentary tract Dye the alimentary tract and thus provide for color contrast

B.

C.

D.

Absorb x-ray and thus give contrast to the soft tissues of the alimentary tract

83.When instituting oxygen therapy, the nurse recognizes that the method of oxygen administration least likely to increase apprehension in the client is: a. Tent

b. Mask
c. Cannula d. Catheter

84. During a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube feeding, the observation that indicates that the client is unable to tolerate a continuation of the feeding would be:
A. B. C. D.

A passage of flatus Epigastric tenderness

A rise of formula in the tube

The rapid flow of feeding

85. Client receiving hypertonic tube feedings most commonly develop diarrhea because of:
A. Increased fiber intake

B. Bacterial contamination
C. Inappropriate positioning D. High osmolarity of feeding

86. The nurse should administer a nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of:
A. Distention

B. Flatulence
C. Indigestion D. Regurgitation

87. When caring with a client with NGT attached to suction, the nurse should:
A. B.

Irrigate the tube with normal saline Use sterile technique in irrigating the tube

C.

Withdraw the tube quickly decompression is terminated

when

D.

Allow the client to have small chips of ice or sip of water unless nauseated

88. After partial gastrectomy is performed, a client is returned to the unit with an IV solution infusing and an NGT in place. The nurse notes the there has been no nasogastric drainage for 30 minutes. There is an order to irrigate the NGT PRN. The nurse should insert:
A. B. C. D.

30 ml of normal saline and withdraw slowly 20 ml of air and clamp off suction for 1 hour 50 ml of saline and increase pressure of suction 15 ml of distilled water and disconnect the suction for 30 minutes

89. A serious danger to which a client with intestinal obstruction is exposed because of intestinal suction is excessive loss of:
A. Protein enzymes B. Energy carbohydrates C.

Vitamins and minerals

D. Water and electrolytes

90. The nurse in the post anesthesia care unit notices that after an abdominal cholecystectomy, a client has serosanguinous fluid on the abdominal dressing, the nurse should:
A. B. C. D.

Change the dressing Reinforce the dressing Apply an abdominal binder Remove the tape and apply Montgomery straps

91. If intubation is indicated for a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the type of tube most likely to be used would be:
A. Levin tube B. Salem-sump C.

Miller-Abbott tube tube

D. Blakemore-Sengstaken

92. When caring for a client with an ileostomy the nurse should:
A.

Encourage the client to eat food high in residue Expect the stoma to start draining on the third postoperative day Explain that drainage can be controlled with daily irrigation Anticipate that emotional stress can increase intestinal peristalsis

B.

C.

D.

93. When receiving an enema, the client should be placed in:

A. Sims position
B. Back-lying position C. Knee-chest position

D. Mid-Fowlers position

94. A client is receiving total parenteral solution (TPN) after extensive colon surgery. The purpose of TPN is to:
A. B.

Provide short-term nutrition after surgery

Assist in providing supplemental nutrition for the client Provide total nutrition when gastrointestinal function is questionable

C.

D.

Assist people who are unable to eat but have active gastrointestinal function

95. When teaching a client to care for a new colostomy, the nurse should recommend that the irrigation be done at the same time every day. The time selected should:
A.
B.

Be approximately 1 hour before breakfast

Provide ample uninterrupted bathroom use at home Approximate the clients usual daily time for elimination

C.

D.

Be about halfway between the two largest meals of the day

96. When teaching a client with permanent colostomy what might be expected on discharge, the nurse should discuss:
A.

Need for special clothing

B.
C.

Importance of limiting activities

Periodic dilation of the stoma

D. Bland, low-residue diet regimen

97. A client with colostomy should follow diet that is:

A. Rich in protein B. Low in fiber content

C. High in carbohydrate
D. As close to normal as possible

98. The solution of choice used to maintain patency of a nasointestinal tube is:
A. Sterile water

B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypotonic saline D. Hypertonic glucose

99. A client has a transverse loop colostomy. When inserting the catheter for irrigation, the nurse should:
A. use an oil-based lubricant

B. instruct the client to bear down

C.

apply gentle but continuous force

D. direct it towards the clients right side

100. If, during colostomy irrigation, a client complains of abdominal cramps, the nurse should:
A. discontinue the irrigation B. lower the container of fluid C.

clamp the catheter for few minutes inch)

D. advance the catheter about 2.5 cm (1

A client practices Islam and his diet must consider his religious practices and beliefs. You are aware that this client would avoid which of the following food? 1.Shrimps and crabs 4. Pork products like bacon

2.Wine and alcoholic drinks 5. Caffeinated products like cola drinks

3.Fish with scales

A.2, 4, and 5 D. 1, 2, and 4 B. 1, 4, and 5 C. 3, 4, and 5