Air Regulations

1. No person shall fly acrobatically in the vicinity of an aerodrome at a distance of less than 2nm from the nearest point of the perimeter of the aerodrome unless at a height (a) greater than 2000 metres. (b) greater than 1800 metres. (c) greater than 1500 metres. (d) greater than 3000 metres. b A/c operating through controlled airspace shall obtain ATC clearance from the appropriate ATS unit at least ________ before a/c is estimating to enter into controlled air space if a/c is in direct contact with the ATS unit concerned. (a) 20 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 30 minutes b In the classification of airspaces it has been specified that one class shall not be used for Control Zones. That class of airspace is : (a) Class A (b) Class C (c) Class E (d) Class G c

2.

3.

4.

The QNH of place A is 968 and that of place B is 976. An aircraft was at an altitude of 7000 ft at place A. If the altimeter is not reset then the aircraft is actually at (a) 7240 ft above MSL (b) 6760 ft above MSL (c) 7000 ft above MSL a

5.

If a pilot in an aircraft sets 000 in the height in the altimeter of the aircraft then the aircraft altimeter will actually show the _____ of that place. (a) QNH (b) QFE (c) QFF (d) QNE b

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6.

Special VFR flight may be authorized to operate within aerodrome traffic circuit when the Ground Visibility is not less than _____ kms provided that a/c is equipped with a functioning Radio Receiver and pilot has agreed to guard the appropriate common frequency or if a/c is not equipped with a functioning Radio Receiver, adequate arrangements have been made for termination of flight. (a) 5 (b) 2.7 (c) 3.7 (d) 1.5 d No person other than the staff of the operator, fuelling company and officials of the Civil Aviation Department, customs and Police shall be permitted within (a) 6 metres of the aircraft (b) 15 metres of the aircraft (c) 30 metres of the aircraft (d) 3 metres of the aircraft b The area formed by joining the various points 3metres away from the wings and the fuelling vehicle is known as the (a) Refueling zone (b) Polygon zone (c) Danger zone (d) Restricted Zone c EAT is the time that an ATC expects an aircraft (a) To arrive over an aerodrome. (b) to leave the holding pattern and commence its approach for a landing. (c) To land. (d) to arrive over the designated navigational aid serving the aerodrome.

7.

8.

9.

10. Runway Visual Range is one of the limiting factors in the use of (a) VOR (b) NDB (c) ILS (d) GPS 11. The term Procedure Turn is always used with regard to a particular a. Instrument Approach Procedure b. Standard Instrument Departure procedure c. Standard Arrival route procedure d. Procedure on ground

12. Notification of any aircraft accident shall be done by the PIC/Owner of the a/c by the quickest possible means available to the
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(a) (b) (c) (d)

CM DG P&T DM & Offr in charge nearest Police Stn Investigating Officer

13. On routes not defined by designated significant points position report shall be done (a) As and when necessary. (b) As soon as possible after the first half hour of flight and at hourly intervals thereafter. (c) Every 30 minutes interval. (d) At hourly intervals on ATS routes b 14. Unless certain conditions are fulfilled, In IMC or at night an IFR flight shall not descend below (a) Transition altitude (b) Transition level (c) Initial Approach Altitude (d) Level given in flight plan c

15. The Minimum Sector Altitude is established within a radius of _____ from the Nav aid. (a) 10 nm (b) 15 nm (c) 25nm (d) 50nm c

16. The Letters H,J, V,W in ATS route designator indicates (a) (b) (c) (d) Domestic network of non RNAV routes International network of non RNAV routes Regional network of RNAV routes None of the above

17. Of the various documents to be carried on board an aircraft, the Instrument Let down procedure for alternate aerodromes shall be contained in (a) Operational manual

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(b) (c) (d)

Aerodrome manual Route guide Flight Manual

18. Certificate of Airworthiness is to given by the (a) DGCA (b) Manufacturer (c) Operator (d) Aerodrome Officer 19. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in (a) Aeradio (b) AIP (c) Notams (d) AIRACs

20. A pilot shall not fly more than ______ days during any period of 30 consecutive days. (a) 150 hrs (b) 75 hrs (c) 100 hrs (d) 125 hrs d 21. For a CPL licence the medical fitness validity is (below 40 years) (a) 24 months (b) 12 months (c) 6 months

22. Cabotage of traffic refers to a) the right of a company from one country to trade in another country. b) the right of a company to trade. Operation of a commercial A/c of a contracting state to carry passengers/ cargo between two points outside the territory of another contracting state. c) operation of a commercial A/c of a contracting state to carry passengers/ cargo to the territory of another contracting state. d) operation of a commercial A/c of a contracting state to carry passengers/ cargo out from the territory of another contracting state. a 23. A displaced threshold is always indicated by a) Transverse stripes. b) Threshold markings. c) Arrows leading to a transverse line. d) Yellow lines with broken stripes For the purpose of renewal of a CPL, the applicant must have
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24.

(a) (b) (c) (d) 25.

Satisfactorily completed not less than 10 hours of flight time as PIC Satisfactorily completed not less than 20 hours of flight time as PIC Satisfactorily completed not less than 50 hours of flight time as PIC Satisfactorily completed not less than 60 hours of flight time as PIC

For the purpose of renewal of CPL a) 50% of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC b) 50% of instrument flying is counted as PIC c) 80% of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC d) should have completed at least 20 hours of flight time as co-pilot.

26.

Anti-collision light is (a) Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower. (b) A red flight on the port wing of the aircraft. (c) A red light visible 30deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all directions. (d) The navigation lights of any aircraft are also known as anti-collision lights. c Aerodrome operating minima is given by (a) DGCA (b) Operator (c) Operator & is approved by DGCA (d) India Met Department

27.

28.

Wake turbulence separation minima for take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a medium aircraft is; (a) 2 minutes (b) 3 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) None of the above b

29.

If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through (a) AIP (b) AIC (c) NOTAM (d) AIRAC c During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference. On SSR you should to set (a) Mode A code 7500 (b) Mode A code 7600 (c) Mode A code 7700 (d) Mode C code 7500 a

30.

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31.

ADC is not required (a) Local flying area upto 2000 (b) Within 5 nm of an aerodrome upto 1000 (c) Aerodrome traffic zone upto 1000 (d) Below 5000 AMSL anywhere What information is included the third section of an air report? (a) Flight level , Heading, Time (b) Endurance, Total Estimated Elapsed time. (c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence (d) ETA Destination, Next Significant point A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than (a) One hour (b) 30 minutes (c) 2 hours (d) 3 hours

32.

33.

34.

The minimum wake turbulence time separation for heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy aircraft is (a) 2 minutes (b) 3 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) Not required d AIP consists of (a) 3 part (GEN, ENR & AD) (b) 4 parts (GEN, ENR. AD MET) (c) 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, COMM, ATC) (d) 2 parts (GEN, AD)

35.

36.

An aircraft operating an international flight, over flying Indian Territory is subjected to (a) Current Indian Regulation to civil aviation (b) Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the states of its registry (c) Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the nation of the commander of the flight (d) ICAO regulations a Stop Bars are (a) Lights in the form of Bars. (b) Lights on a taxyway. (c) Lights having red and green lights. (d) Red and green lights meant for vehicular traffic.
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37.

38.

Decision Altitude is applicable for (a) Non precision Approaches (b) PAPI Approaches (c) Precision Approaches (d) All of the above

39.

An aircraft is on a track of 030 (M) and reports crossing point A at 0412 Hrs at FL370. Other aircraft at F370 on a track of 100(M) can cross the same point A not earlier than (a) 0422 hrs (b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster (c) 0427 hrs (d) 0432 hrs c

Explanation: 030 + 45 is same track. The second ac is heading 100 which is crossing track. Reporting should be at least 15 mins later. So 0412 + 15 = 0427 40. Aircraft A at FL390 is estimating to cross a point at 0210 hrs and requests descent to FL110. There is reciprocal traffic aircraft B, estimating to cross same point at 0230 hrs maintaining FL320. By what time should the descending aircraft reach FL310 or below if both aircraft maintain same speed and proper separation is to be provided? (a) 0215 hrs (b) 0220 hrs (c) 0225 hrs (d) 0250 hrs Explanation: The rule position is clarified vide Doc 4444 wherein the clause states, that the time when vertical separation is not provided between reciprocal ac they should be at least 10 mins before to 10 mins after the time it is estimated that the two ac were to have crossed each other. Since the first ac (aircraft A) is to cross the Point at 0210 hrs and the second (aircraft )at 0230 hrs the 10 min separation is to be effected and the first ac shall reach F310 at or before 0220 hrs. OCA is usually taken into account for determination of; (a) MDA (b) DA (c) Both MDA and DA (d) None of the above

41.

42.

An airports rotating beacon if operated during daylight hours would indicate (a) There are obstruction on the airport (b) That weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below VMC (c) The Air traffic control is not in operation (d) Runway is blocked

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43.

Primary Extinguishing agent is (a) Water (b) Foam (c) Dry Powder (d) CO2

44.

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a two flashing red lights above and below the a/c, ahead and at the same level. What should be your actions? (a) The other aircraft is crossing your ac flight path from right to left and there was a risk of collision. So an Air Proximity report should be filed and ATS unit providing service at that point should be so informed of the risk. The other aircraft is on the right and possibly overtaking. So there is no risk of collision. The other aircraft is to your left and flying on an almost reciprocal heading. Avoid aircraft and inform ATS unit. The other aircraft is reciprocal and slightly to the right. No risk of collision. a

(b) (c) (d) 45.

The lateral (time)separation required between an enroute a/c and one that is in hold shall not be less than (a) 15 min (b) 10 min (c) 5 min (d) 20 min c

46.

Threshold lights are (a) mark the beginning of runway and are coloured Red (b) mark the beginning of the usable part of runway for landing and are coloured Green (c) mark the beginning of runway and are coloured White (d) mark the beginning of runway and are coloured Green b What is the purpose of the aerodrome reference code referred to in Annex 14 and other ICAO documents? (a) To describe the rescue and firefighting facilities at the aerodrome (b) To describe the required level of navigational aids at the aerodrome

47.

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(c) (d) 48.

To describe the type of aircraft the aerodrome is intended to serve. To describe the length of the primary runway at the aerodrome

The Aiming point on the runway is meant to indicate to a pilot? (a) where to land and it coincides with PAPI touchdown point. (b) where to land and it coincides with VASI Upwind bar. (c) where to land and it coincides with VASI Downwind bar. (d) where to land and it does not coincide with anything else. On a normal aerodrome what colour should apron safety line be painted? (a) White (b) Yellow (c) Any colour which contrasts with surface (d) Any colour which contrasts with the aircraft stand markings

49.

50.

What lights will a pilot see from the PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument approach glide slope? ABCD from left to right on the left of the runway. (a) ABC white and D red. (b) ABC red and D white. (c) A white and BCD red. (d) A red and BCD white. C How can a pilot determine from a distance that an aerodrome sign contains mandatory instructions? (a) The writing will be red on a white background (b) The writing will be white on a red background (c) The sign will be outlined in yellow and black stripes (d) The sign will be yellow on a black background, or vice versa b

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52.

A part of the runway that is unfit for the surface movement of aircraft shall be marked (a) With yellow and black marker boards (b) With red and white marker boards (c) With a white cross on the surface (d) With a red square and yellow diagonals. c

53. An Incerfa situation exists wherein an uncertainty exist as to safety of the aircraft and its
occupants when: (a) No communication have been received from an aircraft within a period of 30 minutes after the time a communication should have been received.

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(b) Aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of its ETA (c) The evaluation of other circumstances and knowledge that the a/c is experiencing
difficulties which render it advisable to declare the uncertainty phase (d) All the above d The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase. Three distinct phases categorize emergency situations. The first is the "Uncertainty Phase" which is commonly declared when radio contact has been lost with an aircraft and cannot be re-established or when an aircraft fails to arrive at its destination. During this phase the Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC) concerned may be activated. The RCC collects and evaluates reports and data pertaining to the subject aircraft.

54.An Alerfa (Alert) phase exists when:

Following uncertainty phase subsequent attempts to establish communications with all have failed (b) a/c has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes and communications have not been re-established with a/c (c) a/c is known or believed to be subject to unlawful interference (d) All the above d ALERFA. The code word used to designate an alert phase. (a)

55.Ind Air 841 reports on course from Delhi to Hyderabad via Bhopal reports over Bhopal at
time 07 at FL 310 and Jet Air 9W 614 also on course from Delhi to Hyderabad is due to report over Bhopal at 12 at FL 270. Jet Air 9w 614 wishes to climb to FL 330 immediately after Bhopal. By what last time if possible should Jet Air 9W 614 cross level of Ind Air 841 if proper separation is to be maintained? (a) By 22 (b) By 17 (c) By 27 (d) Jet Air 9W 614 must hold over Bhopal for at least 10 mins. a

56.The lateral separation between aircraft using NDB is

a) b) c) d) 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less

57.The lateral separation between aircraft using DR Navigation

(a) (b) (c) 45 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less 45 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more

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(d)

30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less

58.In the case of an intercepted aircraft, it is expected that the intercepted aircraft shall, if
equipped with SSR transponder select (a) Mode A code 7500 (b) Mode A code 7600 (c) Mode A code 7700 (d) Mode A code 2000

59.Entry into a holding pattern from sector 1 shall be

(a) (b) (c) (d) Direct Offset Parallel Reciprocal

60.The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the DGCA
for an airport for Non-Precision approach is: (a) 1500 (b) 1500 Meters. (c) 5 km (d) 3.7 Km.

61. A check list of valid AIP supplements shall be issued at intervals of

(a) (b) (c) (d) not more than one month not more than one quarter not more than once in six months not more than once a year

62.Notice period for operating a non-scheduled flight(s) is required to be submitted in

advance with a minimum notice period (a) 7 working days for flights for traffic purposes (b) 3 working days for flights for traffic purposes (c) 12 hours for night operations (d) 03 hours for a relief flight

63.Runway centre line lights shall show white from the threshold to the point
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600 mtrs from the runway end, from where it shall be alternating red and white. 900 mtrs from the runway end, from where it shall be alternating red and white. 800 mtrs from the runway end, from where it shall be alternating red and white. 1200 mtrs from the runway end, from where it shall be alternating red and white. b rd 64.A section of lights _______ mts or 1/3 of the runway length whichever is less at the remote end of the runway from the end at which the take-off run is started may show Yellow (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 900 c

(a) (b) (c) (d)

65.PCN 50/F/A/Y/U means

(a) Proper Concrete Number 50, with pavement having a Force value of 50 based on A quality material and of uniform layout. (b) Pavement Classification Number 50, with composite pavement behaving like flexible pavement, and resting on a high strength subgrade, has been assessed using aircraft experience to be PCN 50 and the maximum tire pressure allowable is 1.00 MPa. (c) Plastic Concrete Number 50, with composite pavement having A subgrade, has uniform texture allowing maximum friction at lower tire pressure values. (d) Pavement Classification Number 50, with concrete mix behaving like a flexible pavement, and good quality subgrade, that allows maximum tire pressure. b 66.If an aerodrome has no stopway then (a) LDA & TODA will be the same (b) TORA & TODA will be the same (c) ASDA & TORA will be the same (d) LDA & TORA will be the same c

67.RPLs shall be used only for IFR flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive
weeks and on at least __________ . (a) 30 occasions (b) 10 occasions (c) 20 occasions (d) 15 occasions

68.Mode S Transponder shall give the following information

(a) Flight Level and aircraft identification and D ADS capability. (b) Altitude and aircraft identification

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(c) Pressure Altitude and aircraft identification and D ADS capability. (d) Height and D ADS capability.

69. When separation is done based on distance then

(a) (b) (c) (d) GPS stations are used for distance information. On track DME stations are used for distance information. Inertial Nav may be used for distance information. Omega may be used for distance information.

70. An aircraft A is flying at FL 250 is cruising at 550 kmph on a track of 1070 and another
aircraft B on a track of 050 is at level 80 and wishes to climb to FL 370 to cruise at 780 kmph. The aircraft A reports 50nm from DME Station Y, where can aircraft B cross aircraft As level? (both a/c use the same DME station for simultaneous readings) (a) At the time the level is crossed aircraft B should be at least 19 km behind aircraft A (b) At the time the level is crossed aircraft B should be at least 15 km behind aircraft A (c) At the time the level is crossed aircraft B should be at least 20 km behind aircraft A (d) At the time the level is crossed aircraft B should be at least 37 km behind aircraft A a 71. An aircraft that is subjected to unlawful interference shall proceed at a level that differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flights by (a) 150m (500 ft) in an area where a vertical separation minimum of 300 m (1000ft) is applied (b) 500m (1500 ft) in an area where a vertical separation minimum of 300 m (1000ft) is applied (c) Adhere to one level only, irrespective of direction of flight. a

72. The vertical separation minima between reciprocal tracks above FL 410 shall be whether
RVSM or not (a) 4000 ft (b) 1000 ft (c) 2000 ft (d) 1500 ft

73. The light signal to indicate to an aircraft in flight to return for landing is
(a) A steady green light (b) Series of green flashes

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(c) Series of white flashes (d) Green Pyrotechnic

74. During hours of daylight an aircraft shall acknowledge a light signal by(on ground) (a) Saying light seen and coming in for landing. (b) Rocking the aircrafts wings (c) Moving the aircrafts ailerons or rudder (d) Flashing navigational lights twice. c 75. Repeated switching on and off an aircrafts landing light means
(a) (b) (c) (d) That the aircraft is being compelled to land in distress. That the aircraft wishes to cross the aerodrome area but possibly does not have R/T. That the aircraft is being compelled to land without requiring immediate assistance. That the aircraft is being compelled to land requires immediate assistance. c

76. Rescue aircraft belonging to permanent search and rescue units use the call sign
(a) (b) (c) (d) ZIGZAG ENDURANCE SEARCHER ISLANDER

77. Time check in ATS procedures shall be correct to

(a) (b) (c) (d) 01 second + or 15 second Nearest half minute Correct to within whole minute

78. The decrease of oxygen molecules at sufficient pressure can lead to deficiency, sufficient
to impair functions of the brain and other organs (a) Hypoxia (b) Hypoxic hypoxia (c) Histotoxic Hypoxia (d) Stagnant Hypoxia

79. Hypoxia caused by carbon Monoxide poisoning is known as

(a) (b) Hypoxic hypoxia Histotoxic Hypoxia

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(c) (d)

Stagnant Hypoxia Hypemic Hypoxia

80.Degradation of attention and concentration, impaired coordination, and decreased ability

to communicate may be caused by (a) The effects of fatigue. (b) Stress (c) Epilepsy (d) Migraine

81. Scuba diving tends to

(a) (b) (c) (d) Decrease the amount of Nitrogen in the body Increase the amount of Nitrogen in the body Increases the amount of oxygen in the body Increase the mount of carbon dioxide in the body

82. A pilot is staring at a single point of light against a dark background for more than a few
seconds. After a few moments, the light appears to move on its own. This is known as (a) Autokinesis (b) Visual Illusion (c) Spatial disorientation (d) Auto visualisation a

83.Bright lights, steep surrounding terrain, and a wide runway can produce the illusion of
(a) (b) (c) (d) being too high, with a tendency to fly a lower-than-normal approach. being low, with a tendency to fly a slightly lower-than-normal approach. being too low, with a tendency to fly a higher-than-normal approach. being high, with a tendency to fly a slightly higher-than-normal approach. C

84. Ear block phenomenon during aircraft climb and descent is as a result of
(a) Mucous membrane of the ear getting blocked (b) Sinus air passage being blocked (c) Blockage of air passage through the eustachian tube (d) Rupture of ear drum c 85. To overcome Hyperventilation, the easiest way is to (a) Breathe plenty of pure oxygen (b) Do Fast breathing (c) Do controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth. (d) Take oral decongestant. c

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86.Night flying corresponds to flying between

(a) (b) (c) (d) Half hr. before sunset to half hr. after sunrise Half hr. after sunset to half hr. after sunrise Half hr. after sunset to half hr. before sunrise Half hr. before sunset to half hr. after sunrise

87. If an IFR flight has communication failure in an area of proven radar coverage, and the
Weather is below VMC, the pilot shall then (a) maintain the last assigned heading for a period of 7 minutes and then follow other procedures (b) maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 20 minutes and then follow other laid down procedures (c) maintain the last assigned heading and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes and then proceed as per current flight plan. (d) maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes and then proceed as per filed flight plan. d 88.If an arriving aircraft is making a complete instrument approach, a departing aircraft may (a) take off In a direction that is at least 45 degrees different from the arrival track until the arriving aircraft has started its procedure or base turn leading to the final approach track. (b) In any direction. (c) In a direction that is at least 45 degrees different from the arrival track until 02 mins. (d) take off In any direction including reciprocal provided the arriving aircraft has not commenced its procedure / base turn. d 89. Elevation of an airfield is 840 ft, QFE given is 984. What should be the QNH? (a) 956 hPa (b) 1012 hPa (c) 868 hPa (d) 1272 hPa b 90. A flight plan the term S in the Equipment column should mean (a) Scheduled Flight with mode S equipment on board (b) Special Flight with mode S equipment on board (c) Standard equipment for route to be flown is carried on board (d) Scheduled flight with standard equipment.

91. A ________ km RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on same tracks in lieu of a 10 minute longitudinal separation minimum. (a) 80 km (b) 50 km (c) 37 km

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(d) 150 km

92. The FDTL for international flights in terms of flying hours & number of landing is (a) 9/3 (b) 8/4 (c) 6/3 (d) 9/4 a 93. Rain on the windshield can create (a) No illusion since the breeze blows it away so fast.. (b) The illusion of lower height. (c) The illusion of the being displaced from the intended flight path (d) the illusion of greater height

94. Due to weather an aircraft had to fly well below the stipulated Minimum Flight Altitude and in the process flew low over the populated areas of the town. He is (a) Liable for punishment as the law states that an aircraft cannot fly low without permission from DGCA. (b) Liable for punishment since low flying is dangerous. (c) If the pilot has an instrument rating then he shall not be blamed. (d) The pilot shall not be blameworthy as he has by reason of weather been forced to do so and all circumstances of the case being reasonable, no suit shall be brought against him in any civil court.

95. An A320 aircraft has a bird hit on the take off run and the pilot decides to abort take-off. The aircraft subsequently skids off the runway and some passengers are hurt in the process. Some of them are angry and threaten to file a suit against the pilot. (a) The aircraft could have taken off. So the suit will be admitted. (b) No suit can be filed against the pilot as his actions were taken in the best interests of all and therefore his actions were done in good faith. (c) The actions of a pilot are unquestionable. (d) The entire episode was beyond the pilots control. So no suit. b 96. An aircraft used to transport goods for Reliance Industries from Mumbai to Jaipur and returns with some passengers from whom they collect some fare shall be known as (a) A Cargo carrier (b) An estate aircraft (c) An aerial Aircraft (d) A public Transport aircraft

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97. During a border skirmish needing rapid deployment / movement of troops an Indian aircraft is taken over by the Indian Air Force. The aircraft for the time being shall be known as (a) Public Transport (b) State Aircraft (c) Military Aircraft (d) Aerial Aircraft 98. Under some conditions it is possible to carry arms and ammunition on board an aircraft (a) When it is carried by a policeman on special duty and that is authorised by the District Magistrate. (b) When it belongs to the captain of the aircraft and he has been permitted in writing by the company. (c) when the aircraft is flying over insurgent territory and permission from State Govt is there. (d) Special written permission of the Central Government and subject to the terms and conditions of such permission. 99. Mails can be carried on board any aircraft with the permission of (a) DGCA (b) DGP&T (c) DM (d) Dy Commissioner 100. (a) (b) (c) (d) The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by 5 mins 3 mins 10 mins 2 mins

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