PAPER CODE

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Time : 2 Hrs.

FORM NUMBER

TEX

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

CLASS - X

Maximun Marks : 400

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator.

2.

Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.

3.

Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets are
NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

4.

The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

5.

On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 26 pages and all the 130 questions.

6.

In Part-II, Section A and Section B are compulsory to attempt. You need to attempt any one of the Section C/D
(Biology/Mathematics) & fill your response corresponding to Q. No. in ORS Sheet

7.

A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Black
ball point pen as the correct answer of the question attempted.

8.

Question Paper Format :

The question paper consists of 2 parts.
Part-I : IQ (Mental Ability) & Part-II : Physics, Chemistry, Biology & Mathematics.

9.

Marking Scheme :
Part-I : For each question in Part-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this part.
Part-II : For each question of Part-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (1) mark will be awarded.

Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad | Jaipur

TEX

Class - X

PART - I
I Q (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.
Complete the series given below.
57, 79, 911,1113, 1315 ?
(1) 1419
(2) 1503
(3) 1517
(4) 1719
2.
Which pair of letters replace the question mark in the given series?
BM, EK, HI, KG, ?
(1) MD
(2) ND
(3) ME
(4) NE
3.
In the following question, there is a specific relation between the first and the second term. The same
relationship exists between the third and the fourth term which will replace the question mark. Select
the correct figure from the alternatives given.
3789 : 8379 : : 8932 : ?
(1) 3892
(2) 3982
(3) 3298
(4) 9832
4.
If CRICKETER is coded as DQJBLDUDS, then PLAYER will be coded as
(1) QMBZFS
(2) OMZZDS
(3) QKBXFQ
(4) QKBZDS
5.
Which number will replace the question mark in the following figure?

6.

7.

8.

16

14

64

10

12

44

(1) 18
(2) 22
(3) 28
(4) 30
Find at what time between 9 and 10 Oclock will the hands of a clock be together?
(1) 45 minute past 9
(2) 50 minute past 9
1
1
(3) 49
minute past 9
(4) 49
minute past 8
11
11
Choose odd pairs of words ?
(1) Volume : Litre
(2) Pressure : Barometer
(3) Length : Meter
(4) Resistance : Ohm
If ACNE is coded as 3, 7, 29, 11, then BOIL will be coded as
(1) 5, 31, 21, 25
(2) 5, 31, 19, 25
(3) 5, 29, 19, 25
(4) 5, 29, 19, 27
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Class - X
9.

10.

11.

TEX

Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said. His only brother is the father of my daughters father. How
is that gentleman related to Deepak?
(1) Father
(2) Grandfather
(3) Brother-in-low
(4) Uncle
In the series given below, count the number of 9s, each of which is not immediately preceded by 5 but is
immediately followed by either 2 or 3. How many such 9s are there?
19265938393259293482698
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Six
Choose the water-image of the Figure (X) from amongst the given alternatives

Fig. (X)
(1)
12.

(2)

(3)

From the following figures of dice, find which number will come in place of '?'.
4

(i)

(1) 4
13.

is to

(2) 5
as

5
3

1
2

(ii)

(2)

(iii)

(3) 2

(4) 3

(3)

(4)

The given questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Figures followed
by four other figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst
the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
PROBLEM FIGURE

A
B
C
D
ANSWER FIGURES

1
(1) 2

4
(2) 1

(3) 3
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is to :-

(1)
14.

(4)

(4) 4

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15.

16.

TEX

Class - X

Out of the four figures (1), (2), (3) and (4), three are similar in a certain way. However, one figure
is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Find the figure which contains the Fig. (X) as its embedded part

Fig. (X)

(1)
17.

(3)

(4)

How many triangles are contained in the given figure ?

(1) 18
18.

(2)

(2) 12

(3) 16

(4) None of these

Choose the best option to complete the given matrix

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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Class - X
19.

TEX

Choose from the given options, the box that will be formed when figure X is folded

Fig. (X)

(1)
20.

(2)

(3)

(4)

The given questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Figures followed
by four other figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst
the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
PROBLEM FIGURES

=
A

ANSWER FIGURES

0
(1)

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 2

Direction(Q.21 & Q.22): Read all the statements carefully and choose the correct diagram given below.
21.

Which of the following diagrams shows the correct relationship amongst Men, Father, Brother?

(1)

(2)

(3)
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(4)

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22.

TEX

Class - X

Which of the folowing diagrams shows the correct relationship amongst City, Country and State ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Directions (Q.23 & Q.24) : In each of the following questions, different alphabets stand for various symbols
as indicated below :
Addition : O
Subtracton : M
Multiplication : A

Division : Q

Equal to : X
Greater than : Y
Less than : Z
Out of the four alternatives given in these questions, only one is correct according to the above letter
symbols. Identify the correct answer.
23.

24.

(1) 2 Z 2 A 4 O 1 A 4 M 8

(2) 8 Y 2 A 3 A 4 Q 2 A 4

(3) 10 X 2 O 2 A 4 O 1 M 2

(4) 12 X 4 O 2 Q 1 A 4 A 2

(1) 1 O 1 Q 1 M 1 Y 3 Q 1

(2) 2 Q 1 O 10 A 1 Z 6 A 4

(3) 3 O 2 O 10 Q 2 X 10 A 2

(4) 5 Q 5 A 5 O 5 Y 5 A 2

Directions(Q.25 to Q.28): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
I.

Eight rooms P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are located adjacent to one another in two different rows with
four in each row.

II.

Doors of the rooms of one row open into the doors of the rooms of another row.

III.

No room of consecutive letter is either adjacent or opposite to each other.

IV.

P and Q are the rooms located at the end of two different rows.

V.

R is just left of T and is located in the same row in which P is located.

VI.

U is just left of Q.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X
25.

26.

27.

28.

TEX

Which room is opposite to P ?

(1) S

(2) U

(3) W

(4) Cannot be determined

Which room is diagonally opposite to S?

(1) Q

(2) W

(3) V

(4) Cannot be determined

Which room is opposite to R ?

(1) U

(2) W

(3) Q

(4) Cannot be determined

Which room are adjacent to W?

(1) R

(2) U and S

(3) Q and U

(4) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q.29 & Q.30) : In column I, some words are given. In column II, their codes are given but
they are not arranged in same order in which they are in column I. Study the letters in both the columns
and find out the code to the letter given in each of the following questions.
Column I
(1) SOUND

Column II
(A) abi

(2) ADDRESS (B) cjmv

29.

(C) ikmop

(4) NET

(D) ijktv

(5) CRONY

(E) jkgotv

(6) CROWDY

(F) blooppv

What is the code for the letter A ?

(1) b

30.

(3) CRUX

(2) l

(3) v

(4) g

(3) m

(4) o

What is the code for the letter D ?

(1) k

(2) i

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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TEX

Class - X

PART - II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31.

In the situation shown in fig., the direction of induced current in the rod PQ is ..........................
: Magnetic field into the page
P

32.

(1) Downward
(2) Upward
(3) Inward
The slope of current (I) versus voltage (V) is called
Y

(4) Outward

I
X

V
33.

(1) Resistance
(2) Resistivity
(3) Conductivity
(4) Conductance
For ensuring dissipation of same energy in all three resistors (R1, R2, R3) connected as shown in figure,
their values must be related as
R1

2
VIn
(1) R1 = R2 = R3

R2

R3

(2) R2 = R3 & R1 = 4R2

1
R
(4) R1 = R2 + R3
4 2
a light ray is refracted into a medium from vacuum, then
wavelength and frequency both increase
wavelength increases but frequency remains constant
wavelength decreases but frequency remains constant
wavelength and frequency both decrease

(3) R2 = R3 & R1 =
34.

When
(1) Its
(2) Its
(3) Its
(4) Its

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X
35.

36.

TEX

A charged particle enters a magnetic field at right angle to it. The path of charged particle inside
magnetic field is
(1) Straight line
(2) Parabola
(3) Circular
(4) Rectangle
Aaditya kept the same shirt under different coloured light bulbs and observed the following. Which of
the following could be the actual colour of the shirt when viewed under sunlight ?

Red light
bulb

Blue light
bulb

Green light
bulb

looks blue looks green

(1) white
(2) black
(3) either white or black
(4) any of these - red, blue or green
In the arrangement shown in figure, there are two coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod.
Initially the key is not inserted. Then the key is inserted and later removed. Then
looks red

37.

38.

( )

(1) the deflection in the galvanometer remains zero throughout

(2) there is a momentary deflection in the galvanometer but it dies out shortly and there is no effect
when the key is removed
(3) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are in the same
direction
(4) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are in opposite directions
The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that
(1) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet
(2) DC generator will generate a higher voltage
(3) AC generator will generate a higher voltage
(4) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator
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39.

40.

TEX

Class - X

Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not
ultimately derived from the sun's energy ?
(1) Ocean thermal energy
(2) Wind energy
(3) Nuclear energy
(4) Biomass
In the circuit shown below, the 5 resistor develops 10.24 cal/s due to the current flowing through it.
The heat developed per second in the 2 resistance is

B
A

41.

42.

(1) 9.216 cal

(2) 5.321 cal
(3) 6.421 cal
(4) 8.416 cal
One drawback of wind technology is that
(1) it produces toxic hydrocarbons.
(2) it harms local aquatic life.
(3) wind speeds are not constant, and fluctuate over time.
(4) wind power has not been perfected, and some generators have been known to explode suddenly.
A uniform conductor of resistance R is cut into 20 equal pieces. Half of them are joined in series and
the remaining half of them are joined in parallel. If the two combinatons are joined in series, the
effective resistance of all the pieces is
(1)

43.

R
2

(2)

101R
200

(3)

R
202

(4)

R
200

A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in figure. The work done by the force in
moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is

F (N)
3
2
1
O
(1) 18 J

(2) 13.5 J

(3) 9.0 J

x (m)
(4) 4.5 J

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X
44.

45.

46.

47.

TEX

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The distance between two consecutive compressions is called frequency of sound wave.
(ii) Sound propagates as pressure variations.
(iii) Compressions are narrower in a high pitched sound.
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (iii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii)
If the image of a short linear object lying at a distance d1 from the focus of a concave mirror is formed
at distance d2 from the focus, then focal length of the mirror will be
(1) d1/d2
(2) d2/d1
(3) d1 d2
(4) d1d 2
A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/s2, what is the
net displacement and the total distance covered by the stone when it returns to earth ?
(1) 0 m ; 150 m
(2) 0 m ; 160 m
(3) 75 m ; 150 m
(3) 80 m ; 160 m
The vessels shown below all contain water to the same height. Rank them according to the pressure
exerted by the water on the vessel bottoms, least to greatest.

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1
(2) 4, 3, 2, 1
(3) 2, 3, 4, 1
(4) All pressures are the same
Answer the following questions (Q.48 - Q.50) based on the given circuit.
3
4
A

3V

48.
49.
50.

The potential drop across the 3

resistor is
(1) 1 V
(2) 1.5 V
(3) 2 V
The equivalent resistance between points A and B is
(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 13
The current flowing through in the given circuit is
(1) 0.5 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 6 A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(4) 3 V
(4) 5
(4) 3 A

TEX

Class - X

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
51.

In both evaporation and transpiration water is lost in the form of vapour yet they differ because
(1) transpiration is physical process and evaporation is a physiological process
(2) transpiration is physiological process and evaporation is a physical process
(3) rate of water loss differs
(4) frequency of water loss is different in both of them

52.

Which of the following metal reacts with water/steam to produce oxide instead of hydroxide
(1) Sodium

53.

(2) Potassium

The reaction of an element X

(3) Calcium

(4) Magnesium

with element Y (O) is represented in the following diagram. Which of

the following equation best describes this reaction ?

(1) 3X + 8Y
(3) X + 2Y
54.

X3Y8
XY2

X3Y6

(4) 3X + 8Y

3XY2 + 2Y

The pH of an aqueous solution of Sodium acetate is

(1) more than seven

55.

(2) 3X + 6Y

(2) less than seven

(3) equal to seven

(4) more than ten

Two compounds X and Y have the same molecular formula (C 3H6O). Identify the functional group
and structural formulae of X and Y.
(1) CHO and CO, X = CH3CH2CHO, Y = CH3COCH3
(2) CHO and CO, X = CH3CHOCH2, Y = CH3COCH3
(3) CO and COOH, X = CH3COCH3, Y = CH3COOH
(4) CHO and COOH, X = CH2CHOCH2, Y = CH3CH2COOH

56.

A chemical compound having a strong smell of chlorine is used to disinfect water it is.
(1) NaCl

(2) MgCl2

(3) CaOCl2

(4) HgCl2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X
57.

58.

TEX

Which of the following represents the correct increasing order of unsaturation?

(1) Alkanes, alkenes, alkynes

(2) Alkanes, alkynes, alkenes

(3) Alkenes, alkynes, alkanes

(4) Alkynes, alkanes, alkenes

The following graph was made of two liquid being distilled.

TC

A
Heat Added

What observation can be made regarding point C ?

(1) The second component has already boiled
(2) The temperature of first component starts increasing
(3) The temperature of second component starts increasing
(4) None of the above
59.

60.

Which of the following metal reacts with water causing fire?

(1) Aluminium

(2) Calcium

(3) Sodium

(4) Zinc

Atomic number of N is 7, atomic number of the third element of the nitrogen family is
(1) 23

61.

(2) 15

(3) 33

Conversion of milk into curd is...

(1) a physical change
(2) a chemical change
(3) not a chemical change
(4) neither physical nor chemical change

62.

The fizzy drinks you drink contain

(1) hydrochloric acid

(2) nitric acid

(3) sulphuric acid

(4) carbonic acid

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(4) 43

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63.

65.

Class - X

Sulphur molecule exists as S8. How many moles of sulphur are present in 25.6 grams of sulphur?
(1) 0.01

64.

TEX

(2) 0.1

(3) 0.02

(4) 0.2

Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12 . It has

(1) 5 covalent bonds

(2) 12 covalent bonds

(3) 16 covalent bonds

(4) 17 covalent bonds

The following ionic equation represents the metal displacement reaction that takes place when a piece
of copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate
Cu + 2Ag+

Cu2+ + 2Ag

The symbol of the oxidizing agent in this reaction is

(1) Cu
66.

67.

(3) Cu 2+

(4) Ag

Preparation of vegetable ghee from vegetable oil is______ reaction.

(1) chlorination

(2) sulphonation

(3) hydrogenation

(4) hydrolysis

A species 'X' contains 9 protons, 10 electrons and 10 neutrons. It is

(1) a neutral atom

68.

(2) Ag+

(2) an isotope

(3) a cation

(4) an anion

The boiling point of a liquid.

(1) Increases with pressure
(2) Decreases with pressure
(3) Is not affected by pressure.
(4) Is dependent on the mass of the liquid.

69.

In one molecule of ammonium sulphide there are ___________.

(1) 2 atoms of N, 8 atoms of H, and 1 atom of S
(2) 1 atom of N, 4 atoms of H, and 1 atom of S
(3) 1 atom of N, 4 atoms of H, and 2 atoms of S
(4) 2 atoms of N, 8 atoms of H, and 2 atoms of S

70.

Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its nature is

(1) basic

(2) acidic

(3) neutral

(4) amphoteric

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X

TEX

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
71.

If a solution outside a cell is made more concentrated so that the cell loses water to its environment
and shrinks, the external solution is said to be______to the cell contents.
(1) Hypotonic

72.

73.

74.

75.

(2) Isotonic

(3) Hypertonic

(4) Sugar Solution

The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates is called

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) Nitrogenation

(3) Nitrification

(4) Denitrification

Proteins synthesized by the rough ER are

(1) Exported from the cell

(2) For internal regulation

(3) For internal storage

(4) To digest food in lysosomes

Intercalated discs are found in

(1) Striped muscle fibres

(2) Cardiac muscle fibres

(3) Nerve cells

(4) Ligaments

The diagram below represents a cross between two pea plants.

Rr Rr
R
r
R
r
In pea plants, the allele for round seeds (R) is dominant to the allele for oval seeds (r). In a cross
between the two plants above, what percentage of the offspring will have round seeds?
(1) 100%

76.

(2) 75%

(3) 50%

(4) 25%

How is natural selection in the evolution of long necks in giraffes best explained ?
(1) Shorter-necked giraffes were killed by long-necked giraffes.
(2) Giraffe necks grew longer because of the bone structure of the animals.
(3) Giraffes with longer necks survived because they were better suited to the environment.
(4) Long-necked giraffes mated only with other long-necked giraffes.
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77.

78.

79.

80.

TEX

Class - X

How do nutrients, absorbed by the small intestine, travel to the individual cells of the human body?
(1) The nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine into the blood and move through the circulatory
system to the body cells.
(2) The nutrients move from the small intestine directly to the liver and then move through the lymphatic
system to the body cells.
(3) The small intestine forces the nutrients into the kidneys, where the nutrients are then dissolved in
fluids used by the body cells.
(4) The body cells send nerve impulses indicating a lack of nutrients to the small intestine, and the
small intestine sends the nutrients back to the cells.
Given below are the characteristics of different types of vegetative reproduction in higher plants.
State which among them is/are false.
(i) Scion is a term related to grafting.
(ii) Stem cuttings are commonly used for propagation in rose.
(iii) Micropropagation is not a method of vegetative propagation.
(iv) Vegetative reproduction can also be called parthenogenesis.
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Breathing occurs involuntarily but its rate is controlled by which of the following respiratory centre(s)
of brain ?
(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Cerebrum
(3) Pons varolii
(4) Both (1) and (3)
The heart is a hollow, muscular, cone-shaped organ, lying between the lungs in the thoracic cavity. In
the given diagram of heart, certain parts have been labelled as a, b, c, d and e. Select the correct
option.

(1) The part labelled c closes shortly after the start of ventricular systole while the d closes shortly
after the diastole starts
(2) The parts labelled c and d have three and two flaps respectively
(3) The part labelled b carries impure blood
(4) The part labelled a carries pure blood while e carries impure blood
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X
81.

In a grassland ecosystem which of the following groups of animals are likely to occupy the same
trophic level ?

(a)

(1) a, b, c
82.

83.

TEX

(b)

(2) b, c, e

(c)

(d)

(e)

(3) c, d, e

The given figure shows an excretory unit. In which part of this unit can you first use the term urine for the
fluid it contains and which part is responsible for reabsorption of glucose ?

(1) Distal tubule and glomerulus

(2) Distal tubule and loop of Henle

(3) Collecting duct and proximal tubule

(4) Collecting tubule and distal tubule

Refer the given figure and select the correct option.

(1) The parts labelleda and b give rise to seed and fruit respectively
(2) The parts labelled c and b give rise to seed and fruit respectively
(3) The part labelled d results in endosperm
(4) Both (1) and (3)
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(4) b, d, e

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84.

85.

86.

87.

TEX

Class - X

Speciation is the formation of one or more new species from an existing species. A new species of
organism is formed when_______.
(1) A series of mutation occur so that an organism becomes different from the others in population,
but it still shows successful interbreeding
(2) Climate changes drastically leading to structural changes in the given population
(3) A group of organisms isolated from the rest of the species by geographical barrier
(4) None of these
Which of the following explains why natural selection acts on the phenotype of an organism instead
of its genotype ?
(1) Phenotypes directly influence the interaction of an organism with its environment.
(2) Genotypes do not change except by the process of transcription.
(3) Genotypes change in direct response to habitat changes.
(4) Phenotypes can be inherited by offspring.
The figure shows the arrangement of blood vessels in the uterus wall and placenta of a pregnant
woman. Which of the following will increase in concentration in the blood as it flows from 1 to 2 ?

(1) Amino acids

(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Glucose
(4) Oxygen
The diagram shows cross-sections of three types of blood vessel (not drawn to the same scale).

What is the identity of the three vessels?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

artery
X
Y
X
Y

capillary
Y
X
Z
Z

vein
Z
Z
Y
X
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Class - X
88.

89.

90.

TEX

Heart of frog is 3-chambered (2 auricles and 1 ventricle) and mixed type of blood flows in the body,
whereas in case of fish the heart is 2-chambered with 1 auricle and 1 ventricle. The type of blood
that flows through the heart of fish is :
(1) mixed blood
(2) auricle has venous blood and ventricle has arterial blood
(3) venous blood
(4) arterial blood
Transpiration in plants requires all of the following EXCEPT :
(1) cohesion of water molecules
(2) active transport of water molecules in the xylem
(3) capillary action of water in the xylem
(4) root pressure
The given figure show different types of structures in an animal tissue. Identify them and select the
correct option.
(i)
(ii)

(iii)
(iv)
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) Cilia

Mucus
cells

Basement
membrane

Connective
tissue

(2) Flagella

Globular
cells

Smooth
muscles

Squamous
cells

(3) Microvilli

Basal cells

Basement
membrane

Squamous
cells

(4) Cilia

Globular
cells

Smooth
muscles

Connective
tissue

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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T
91.

92.

93.

TEX

Class - X

Which of the following statements regarding the given figure of human brain are correct ?

(i) Labelled part a is involved in control of blood pressure, salivation and vomiting
(ii) Labelled part b is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and
balance of the body
(iii) The part labelled c is responsible for change in size of the pupil and activity like walking in a
straight line
(iv) The secretions of part labelled d are responsible for functioning of hypothalamus
(v) The part labelled e receives and integrates signals from spinal cord.
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Water harvesting is an age old concept in India. Given below are few water harvesting and water
conveyance structures (Column I) used in different states (Column II). Match column I with column II
and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column-I
(a) Khadins, nadis
(b) Bandharas, tals
(c ) Bundis

Column-II
(i) Bihar
(ii) Kerala
(iii) U.P.

(d) Ahars, pynes

(iv) Rajasthan

(e) Surangams

(v) Maharashtra

a
b
c
d
e
(1)
(i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)
(v)
(2)
(iv)
(v)
(iii)
(i)
(ii)
(3)
(iv)
(v)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(4)
(v)
(iv)
(iii)
(ii)
(i)
If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron. Which of the following is to be expected
(1) The urine will be more in volume
(2) There will be no urine formation
(3) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(4) The urine will be more concentrated
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X
94.

TEX

Four students observed some plants and recorded their observations and conclusions in the table below:

Name of the
Observation
student
Suman
Body thallus-like and prostrate or erect
Rohan
Main plant body is a sporophyte
Mohit
Male and female gametophyte do not
have an independent free living
existence bearing simple thalloid
Meera
Chlorophyll

Conclusion
Algae
Bryophytes
Gymnosperms
Algae

and autotrophic organisms which are

attached to the substratum by rhizoids.

95.

96.

97.

Which student(s) made the correct conclusion ?

(1) Suman, Mohit & Meera
(2) Mohit only
(3) Suman, Mohit & Rohan
(4) Suman & Mohit
Sort out acute and chronic diseases given in the box and select the correct option.
(i) Elephantiasis
(ii) Asthma
(iii) Measles
(iv) Dysentery
(v) Cholera
(vi) Cancer
(vii) Diabetes
(viii) Diarrhoea
Acute diseases
Chronic diseases
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
(iv), (vi), (vii), (viii)
(2) (ii), (iv), (vii), (viii)
(i), (iii), (v), (vi)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v), (viii)
(i), (ii), (vi), (vii)
(4) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(i), (ii), (vii), (viii)
What minerals are found in the run-off from agricultural land and untreated sewage effluents that
are responsible for eutrophication of water bodies?
(1) Phosphorous and carbon
(2) Nitrogen and phosphorus
(3) Potassium and arsenic
(4) Iron and manganese
Complete the given statements by selecting the correct words from the options given below,
(1) __(i)__ is a traditional method of irrigation.
(2) __(ii)__ is a common weedicide.
(3) In __(iii)__ water escapes from revolving nozzle and falls like rain on the crops.
(4) __(iv)__ is a technique for developing new varieties of crops by cross-breeding two different
varieties.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1) Dhekli
Agent orange
Drip irrigation
Broadcasting
(2) Dhekli
DDT
Chain pump
Crop rotation
(3) Rahat
Siniazine
Moat
Mixed cropping
(4) Rahat
Metachlor
Sprinkler system
Hybridization
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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T
98.

TEX

Class - X

Read the given statements.

(i) Bee wax obtained from beehive is deposition of excretory products of honeybee.
(ii) Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water
accumulated in the paddy field.
(iii) Fish feed in different zones of pond to make most efficient use of available food.
(iv) Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming.
(v) Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern.
Which of the given statements are incorrect?

99.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i) and (iv)

(4) (i), (iv) and (v)

Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column 1
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinins
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Abscisic acid
(e) Ethylene

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)

Column II
Fruit ripening
Phototropism
Stimulation of cell division
Suppression of cell division
Stomatal opening and closing
Growth of lateral buds
Stem elongation in "rosette" plants

(1) a-(iii),(vi), b-(vii), c-(ii), d-(i),(iv), e-(v)

(2) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(iii),(vi), d-(vii), e-(i),(iv)
(3) a-(ii),(vi), b-(ii), c-(vii), d-(v), e-(i),(iv)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(vii), d-(v), e-(i),(iv)
100. Mother is homozygous B, and father is A. What will be the possible blood groups in their progeny
?
(1) AB & B

(2) AB & A

(3) A and B

(4) O
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X

TEX

SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
101. If

10

14

15

(1) k = /2

21

(2)

102. If the roots of the equation

(1)

(2)

103. If x 3

10

14

15

k
= k/2

x2

21

bx

ax c

(3)
m 1
m 1

b a

= 2/k

(4) None

are equal and of opposite sign, then the value of m will be:

(3)

a b

, then:

a b
ab

(4)

b a
ba

0 then

(1) x3 + y3 + z3 = 0
(2) x + y + z = 27 xyz (3) (x + y + z)3 = 27 xyz (4) x3 + y3 + z3 = 27 xyz
104. The points (k 1, k + 2), (k, k + 1), (k + 1, k) are collinear for
(1) any value of k
(2) k = 1/2 only
(3) no value of k
(4) integral values of k only
105. The ratio of the measure of an angle of a regular octagon to the measure of its exterior angle is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 4
106. If

sin A
sin B

p and

p q2 1
(1)
q 1 p2

cos A
cos B

q , then tan A is equal to

(2)

q2 1
1 p2

p p2 1
(3)
q 1 q2

(4) None of these

2
2
107. If (5 2 6)x 3 (5 2 6)x 3 10 , then x = .........

2
(1) 2, 2
(2) 2 ,
(3) 2,
(4) 2, 2, 2 ,
2
2
108. What is the least possible number which when divided by 18, 35 or 42 leaves 2, 19, 26 as the remainders
respectively?
(1) 514
(2) 614
(3) 314
(4) None
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

22/26

TEX

109. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. Then

AC2

is equal to:

L B

A M

2AB. CD

(2) AD2 + BC2 + 2AB. CD

(3) AD2 BC2 + 2AB. CD

(4) AD2 BC2 2AB. CD

110. If

BC2

Class - X

(1) AD2

BD2

6+2 3

33 - 19 3

= a b 3 , then a + b = .........

(1) 6

(2) 8

(3) 10

(4) 12

111. Axioms are assumed

(1) definitions
(2) theorems
(3) universal truths in all branches of mathematics
(4) universal truths specific to geometry
112. From a group of 3 men and 2 women, two persons are selected at random. Find the probability that
atleast one woman is selected.
(1)

1
5

(2)

7
10

(3)

2
5

(4)

5
6

113. If a mode exceeds a mean by 12 then the mode exceeds the median by ______.
(1) 4

(2) 8

(3) 6

(4) 10

114. Alfred started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Peter joined him with a capital of Rs.
60,000. After another 6 months, Ronald joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the
year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. Find the share of each.
(1) 6600, 6600, 3300

(2) Rs. 3300, 6600, 6000

(3) Rs. 6000, 3300, 6600

(4) None of these

115. A clerk walks from his house at 4 km/hr and reaches his office 5 minutes late. If his speed is 5 km/hr,
he will reach his office 10 minutes early. How far is he from home?
(1) 5 km.

(2)

5
km.
12

(3)

5
km
2

(4) 15 km

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Class - X

TEX
4
y
3

116. The length of the sides of a triangle are 3x + 2y, 4x +

and 3(x + 1) +

3
2

(y 1). If the triangle

is equilateral, then its side is

(1) 8

(2) 10

(4) 16

are the zeros of the polynomial x2 px + q, then

117. If

(1)

(3) 12

p4
q2

4p2
q

(2)

p4
2
q2

4p2
q

p4
q2

(3)

2q 2

4p2
q

is equal to

(4) None of these

118. In a group of 50 people, 35 speak Hindi, 25 speak both English and Hindi and all the people speak
at least one of the two languages. How many people speak only English and not Hindi?
(1) 15

(2) 14

(3) 25

(4) None of these

119. ABCD is a trapezium and P, Q are the mid-points of the diagonals AC and BD. Then PQ is equal
to:
D

P
1

(1)

1
(AB)
2

(2)

1
(CD)
2

1
(AB CD)
2

(3)

120. In the figure below (not to scale), AC and DE are bisectors of

AC

DE , then find the measuree

BAD +

BAD and

1
(AB + CD)
2

ADF respectively. If

ADF..

(4)

A
(30

x)

20)
(x +

D
F

(1) 100

(2) 80

(3) 50
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(4) None of the above

TEX

Class - X

121. Three horses are grazing within a semi-circular field. In the diagram given below, AB is the diameter
of the semi-circular field with center at O. Horses are tied up at P, R and S such that PO and RO are the
radii of semi-circles with centres at P and R respectively, and S is the center of the circle touching the
two semi-circles with diameters AO and OB. The horses tied at P and R can graze within the respective
semi-circle and the horse tied at S can graze within the circle centred at S. The percentage of the area
of the semi-circles with diameter AB that cannot be grazed by the horses is nearest to:
S

(1) 20
(2) 28
(3) 36
(4) 40
122. A balloon of radius r subtends an angle at the eye of an observer and the elevation of the centre of the
balloon from the eye is , the height h of the centre of the balloon is given by
r sin
r sin
r sin
(1)
(4)
(2) r sin sin
(3)
sin( / 2)
sin( / 2)
sin
123. In the figure, when the outer circles all have radii 'r', then the radius of the inner circle will be

2
1
(4)
( 2 1)r
2r
124. The number of terms common to the two A.P's 2 + 5 + 8 + 11 + ...+ 98 and 3 + 8 + 13 + 18 +...+198
(1) 33
(2) 40
(3) 7
(4) None of these
125. In the given figure, CD is a direct common tangent to two circles intersecting each other at A and B,
then CAD + CBD =
(1)

2r

(2) ( 2 1)r

(3)

B
C

(1) 120

(2) 90

(3) 360

(4) 180

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Class - X

TEX

126. Given that n A.M.'s are inserted between two sets of numbers a, 2b and 2a, b, where a, b
means in the two cases are same then ratio a : b is equal to
(1) n : (n m + 1)

(2) (n m + 1) : m

(3) (n m + 1) : n

(4) m : (n m + 1)

R. If the mth

127. If the right circular cone is separated into three solids of volumes V1, V2 and V3 by two planes which
are parallel to the base and trisects the altitude, then V1 : V2 : V3 is :
(1) 1 : 2 : 3

(2) 1: 4 : 6

(3) 1: 6 : 9

(4) 1 : 7 : 19

128. If the median of the data, x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6, x7, x8 is a, then find the median of the data
x3, x4, x5, x6. (where x1 < x2 < x3 < x4 < x5 < x6 < x7 < x8)
(1) a

(3)

(2)

a
4

a
2

(4) Cant say

129. In the adjoining diagram ABCD is a square with side 'a' cm. In the diagram the area of the larger circle
with centre 'O' is equal to the sum of the areas of all the rest four circles with equal radii, whose centres
are P, Q, R and S. What is the ratio between the side of square and radius of a smaller circle?
(1) (2 2 3)

R
O

(2) (2 3 2)
(3) (4 3 2)

(4) Can't be determined

130. The remainder when x100 is divided by x2 3x + 2 is
(1) (2100 1) x + (2100 + 2)
(2) (2100 + 1) x + (2100 2)
(3) (2100 1) x + (2100 2)
(4) None
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