SAMPLE PAPER FOR PRACTICE

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam

For Class 8 going to 9
Paper 1
I.Q, Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics & Biology
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

Important Instruction
Question Paper Code (Q.P Code as Mentioned on Top) MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Mentioning wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
1. This Question Paper contains 5 Sections. All questions will be Multiple Choice questions out of four choices
with marking scheme in table below:
Marking Scheme for each questions
Section Subject Question Nos.
Correct Answer Wrong Answer
Section - I I.Q Q. No. 1 to 24 +3 -1
Physics Q. No. 25 to 36 +3 -1
Section - II Chemistry Q. No. 37 to 48 +3 -1
Mathematics Q. No. 49 to 60 +3 -1
Biology Q. No. 61 to 66 +3 -1

2. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices,
in any form, are not allowed.
4. Write your Name, Registration No. and Test Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
5. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ______________________________________________________________

Exam Centre : _________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

Registration Number : ______________________________________________________________

Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I –VIII (IQ, PCBM) Page - 2

SECTION – I IQ_
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 24 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 24. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Directions (Questions 1 – 4): In each of the following questions, a series is given with one of the term missing.
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark (?) in the
given series.

1. 7, 13, 25, 49, 97, ?

(A) 193 (B) 177 (C) 203 (D) 187

2. 9, 91, 341, 855, ?

(A) 2331 (B) 2060 (C) 1729 (D) 1983

3. DHL, PTX, BFJ, NRV, ?

(A) RVZ (B) ZDH (C) CGK (D) KOS

4. 24, 30, 33, 39, 51, 57, ?

(A) 69 (B) 63 (C) 71 (D) 73

5. ‘Flower’ is related to ‘Petal’ in the same way as ‘Book’ is related to _____

(A) Pages (B) Content (C) Author (D) Library

6. Which letter will come on opposite face of ‘M’ K Y

according to the following positions of a dice?
L M
(A) L (B) M X
Y
(C) X (D) W

7. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to

make the given figure.
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 11 (D) 15

8. In the following questions you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (A), (B), (C),
and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which
contains figure (X).

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(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

9. If in a certain code, ‘DICE’ becomes ‘BGAC’ then what will ‘HAREESH’ be in that code?
(A) JCTGGUJ (B) FYPCCQF (C) JCTGGJU (D) FPYCCQF

10. In a coding system, ‘JUNE’ is written as ‘KQMO’ and ‘AUGUST’ is written as ‘WQFQYZ’. How can
‘GUEST’ be written in this same coding language?
(A) FQTMN (B) FPSMN (C) FQOYZ (D) FQSNM

11. If ‘ZEBRA’ is written as ‘2652181’, then how can ‘COBRA’ be written?

(A) 302181 (B) 3152181 (C) 31822151 (D) 1182153

12. Avanish and Naresh are ranked eighth and fifteenth respectively from the top in a class of 45 students.
What will be the ranks of Naresh and Avanish from the bottom in the class?
(A) 38th and 37th (B) 38th and 31st (C) 31st and 38th (D) 31st and 37th

Directions (Questions 13 – 17): Study the following seating arrangement carefully and answer the given
questions.

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at
four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four
corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. P who faces the centre sits
third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits
between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

13. Who sits second to the left of Q?

(A) V (B) P (C) T (D) Y
14. What is the position of T with respect to V?
(A) Fourth to the left (B) Second to the left (C) Third to the left (D) Third to the right
15. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) R (B) W (C) V (D) P
16. Which of the following will come in place of the questions mark (?) based upon the given seating
arrangement?
WP TR QW RS ?
(A) YT (B) VY (C) VQ (D) PY

17. Which of the following statement is true regarding R?

(A) R is an immediate neighbour of V (B) R faces the centre
(C) R sits exactly between T and S (D) Q sits third to left of R

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Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I –VIII (IQ, PCBM) Page - 4

Directions (Questions 18 – 22) :Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow:

A team of five is to be selected from amongst five boys A, B, C, D and E and four girls P, Q, R and S.
Some criteria for selection are :
A and S have to be together.
P cannot be put with R.
D and Q cannot go together.
C and E have to be together.
R cannot be put with B.
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are applicable to all the questions below:

18. If two of the members have to be boys, the team will consist of:
(A) A B S P Q (B) A D S Q R (C) B D S R Q (D) C E S P Q

19. If R be one of the members, the other members of the team are:
(A) P S A D (B) Q S A D (C) Q S C E (D) S A C E

20. If two of the members are girls and D is one of the members, the members of the team other than D
are:
(A) P Q B C (B) P Q C E (C) P S A B (D) P S C E

21. If A and C are members, the other members of the team cannot be:
(A) B E S (B) D E S (C) E S P (D) P Q E

22. If including P at least three members are girls, the members of the team other than P are:
(A) Q S A B (B) Q S B D (C) Q S C E (D) R S A D

Directions (Questions 23 – 24): These questions are based on the following information.
P, Q, R, S and T are five friends. P is taller than Q, and has less money than S. R is taller than Q and also
has more money than Q. T is the shortest of all but has more money than R.

23. If S is the tallest of all then which of the following can be the order of the five friends in the descending
order of their heights?
(A) S, R, P, Q, T (B) S, P, Q, R, T (C) S, R, Q, P, T (D) S, Q, P, R, T

24. If S is taller than exactly two friends who among the following is the 2 nd shortest?
(A) P (B) Q (C) T (D) S

Section – II Science and Mathematics__________________________

Physics
Straight Objective Type
Physics contains 12 multiple choice questions numbered 25 to 36. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

o
25. A bulb is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 60 . The number of images formed is

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Page - 5 Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I –VII (IQ, PCBM)

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 3

26. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly.
(B) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly.
(C) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly.
(D) A person with hypermetropia can’t see distant objects clearly.

27. A girl is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of
her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. Which of the following is order of combinations for
the magic mirror from top.
(A) Plane, convex, concave (B) Convex, concave, plane
(C) Concave, plane, convex (D) Convex, plane, concave

28. By applying a force of 1N, one can hold a body whose mass is approximately equal to
(A) 100 mg (B) 100 g (C) 1 kg (D) 10 kg

29. A nail is placed near a magnet and gets stuck to the magnet. If the force applied by magnet on the nail is
‘F’, then what is the force applied by nail on magnet?
(A) > F (B) < F (C) = F (D) – F

30. A body of mass 5 kg undergoes a change in speed from 20 to 0.20 m/s. The momentum of body would
(A) Increase by 99 kg m/s (B) Decrease by 99 kg m/s
(C) Increase by 101 kg m/s (D) Decrease by 101 kg m/s

31. Which of the circuit components in the following circuit

+
diagram are connected in parallel? R2 V
(A) R1 & R 2 only 
(B) R1 , R2 and V R1

(C) R 2 and V only
A
(D) R1 and V only +

+ 

32. If distance between successive compressions and rarefactions is 1m and velocity of sound is 360 m/s
then the frequency is
(A) 180 Hz (B) 45 Hz (C) 120 Hz (D) 90 Hz

33. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Sound travels in straight line
(B) Sound travels as wave
(C) Sound is a form of energy
(D) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air

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Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I –VIII (IQ, PCBM) Page - 6

34. Indicate the interval which represents one full B F

wavelength.
(A) A to C (B) B to D C E

(C) A to G (D) C to G A G

35. The atmospheric pressure at a given place is dependent on

(A) The height of the air column (B) The temperature
(C) Humidity (D) All the above

36. A block A of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough table.

F = 10 N
The coefficient of static & kinetic friction between 5 kg
surfaces of block and table be 0.4 & 0.3
respectively. If the force F exerted on the block is
10 N (g = 10 m / s2 ) the force of friction between
block and table is
(A) 10 N (B) 20 N (C) 15 N (D) 50 N

Chemistry
Straight Objective Type
Chemistry contains 12 multiple choice questions numbered 37 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B)
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

37. We use sweaters, shawls and blankets during the winter season. These are prepared from
(A) Polypropylene (B) Acrylic (C) Bakelite (D) Rayon

38. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Surface mining of coal completely eliminates existing regelation & destroys the genetic soil profile.
(B) ‘Judicious use of energy’ means that we do not waste energy and that we use energy efficient
methods.
(C) Petroleum is a mixture of various constituents like biogas, coal, minerals etc.
(D) Paraffin wax is used in ointments, candles & Vaseline

39. One of the following statement about gold is wrong, identify it

(A) Gold is a noble metal (B) Gold occurs in native state
(C) Gold is found in liquid state (D) Gold dissolves in aqua regia

40. Identify the odd group.

(A) Zinc, lead, nickel (B) Oxygen, sulphur, phosphorus
(C) Silver, gold, platinum (D) Iron, Uranium, Neon

41. Polymer of tetrafluoroethylene is used for making

(A) Film for packing (B) Transparent container
(C) Pipe and tubing (D) Non-stick pan coating

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STATEMENT 1: Carbon burns to produce a mixture of carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in limited
42.
supply of oxygen.
STATEMENT 2: Complete combustion of carbon leads to formation of carbon dioxide.
(A) Only statement – 1 is correct (B) Only statement – 2 is correct
(C) Statement 1 & 2 both are correct (D) Statement 1 & 2 both are incorrect

43. 2NaHCO3 + H2SO4   Na2SO4 + 2H2O + 2CO2

Above equation is representation of reaction taking place in
(A) Soda acid fire extinguisher (B) Oil acid fire extinguisher
(C) Foam fire extinguisher (D) Sand fire extinguisher

44. Metal M occurs in earth’s crust as its oxide, M2O3. An alloy of this metal is used for making aircrafts.
Which of the following is the metal M?
(A) Aluminium (B) Boron (C) Titanium (D) Tungsten

45. 18 card gold contains

(A) 50% gold (B) 18% gold (C) 75% gold (D) 60% gold

46. Elements which can be obtained from air are generally

(A) Metals (B) Non-metals (C) Radioactive (D) Metalloids

47. Bakelite is a polymer of

(A) Benzaldehyde and phenol (B) Formaldehyde and phenol
(C) Formaldehyde and benzyl alcohol (D) Acetaldehyde and phenol

48. Ethane, Methane, Butane, Pentane are hydrocarbon having carbon atoms in order
(A) 2,1,4,5 (B) 4,1,2,5 (C) 5,2,1,4 (D) 1,2,4,5

Mathematics
Straight Objective Type
Mathematics contains 12 multiple choice questions numbered 49 to 60. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

49. The factors of (x4 + x2 + 25) are:


(A) x  3x  5
2
  x  2 
(B) x  5  3x
2
 x  5  3x 
2

(C)  x  x  5  x  x  5  (D)  x  2x  3   x  2 
2 2 2

50. Assuming that x is a positive real number and a, b, c are rational numbers, then
1 1 1
 x a  ab  xb  bc  x c  ac
 b  c  a ?
x  x  x 
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 4

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51. A General arranges his soldiers in rows to form a perfect square. He finds that in doing so, 60 soldiers
are left out. If the total number of soldiers be 8160. Then the number of soldiers in each row is:
(A) 90 (B) 91 (C) 92 (D) 80

Direction (Question No. 52): Study the following graph and answer the given question:

Amount (Rs. In lakhs) invested in raw

52. In which year, there has been a maximum
materials
percentage increase in the amount invested
in raw materials as compared to the previous Value (Rs. In lakhs) of sales of finished goods
year?

600
(A) 1996 600

500
(B) 1997 500

460
525
(C) 1998 400

420
(Rs. In Lakhs)

400
375
(D) 1999 300

330
300
200
225
200

120
100

1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

53. If a2  b2  4c2  2(a  b  2c)  3 and a, b, c are real, then the value of a  b  c is :
2 2 2
 
1 1
(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 2
4 4

54. Sara buys a certain number of oranges at 20 for Rs. 60 and an equal number at 30 for Rs. 60. She mixes
them and sells them at 25 for Rs. 60. What is gain or loss percent?
(A) Gain of 4% (B) Loss of 4% (C) Neither gain or loss (D) Loss of 5%

1 1
55. If x   2, then the value of x 2n 1  2n 1 where n is a positive integer, is:
x x
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) -2 (D) -5

56. Simplify :  3  3  8 7  4 3

(A) 2 (B) 2 + 2 (C) 3 (D) – 3

D
C
57. In the adjoining figure ABCD is a parallelogram and E,

F are the centroids of ABD and BCD F
O
respectively, then EF equals :

(A) AE (B) BE
A B
(C) CE (D) DE
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58. What number when increased by 20% becomes 300?

(A) 250 (B) 200 (C) 180 (D) 280

59. In the expression xy2, the values of both variables x and y are decreased by 20%. By this, the value of
the expression is decreased by
(A) 40% (B) 80% (C) 48.8% (D) 51.2%

60. An amount of money appreciates to Rs. 7,000 after 4 years and to Rs. 10,000 after 8 years at a certain
compound interest compounded annually. The initial amount of money was
(A) Rs. 4,700 (B) Rs. 4,900 (C) Rs. 4,100 (D) Rs. 4,300

Biology
Straight Objective Type
Biology contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 66. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Maintenance of soil fertility without addition of Nutrients is due to

(A) Floods (B) Crop residue (C) Favorable temperature (D) Microbial activity

62. Rise in atmospheric temperature because of high concentration of carbon dioxide is known as
(A) Green house effect (B) Biomagnification (C) Pollution (D) Ecotone

63. Super ovulation and embryo transplantation are meant for improving
(A) Human Race (B) Livestock (C) Poultry (D) Plants

64. Pesticides comprise of

(A) Herbicides and insecticides
(B) Insecticides
(C) Insecticides, Nematicides and rodenticides
(D) Fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, nematicides, rodenticides

65. Which one of the following is correctly matched pair of a product and the microorganism responsible for
it
(A) Ethyl alcohol – yeast (B) Acetic acid – Lactobacillus
(C) Cheese – Nitrobacter (D) Curd – Azatobacter

66. Three of the following statements regarding cell organelle are correct while one is wrong. Which one is
wrong?
(A) Lysosomes are double membrane bound vesicles budded off from golgi bodies and contain
hydrolytic enzymes.
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport,
synthesis and secretion.
(C) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes, lack pigments but contain their own DNA and protein
synthesizing machinery.
(D) Spharosomes are single membrane bound and are associated with synthesis and storage of lipids.

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