Homework #6.EE135: Problem 5.28

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Homework#6.

EE135

Problem 5.28 A uniform current density given by


J = zJ0

(A/m2 )

gives rise to a vector magnetic potential


A = z

0 J0 2
(x + y2 ) (Wb/m)
4

(a) Apply the vector Poissons equation to confirm the above statement.
(b) Use the expression for A to find H.
(c) Use the expression for J in conjunction with Amperes law to find H. Compare
your result with that obtained in part (b).
Solution:
(a)
$
"#
"2
"2
"2
J0 2
2

+
+
+
y
)

(x
0
" x2 " y2 " z2
4
J0
= z 0 (2 + 2) = z 0 J0 .
4

!2 A = x !2 Ax + y !2 Ay + z !2 Az = z

Hence, !2 A = 0 J is verified.
(b)
# !
"
!
"
!
"$
" Ay " Ax
1
" Az " Ay
" Ax " Az
1
A =
H=

!
x
+ y
+ z
0
0
"y
"z
"z
"x
"x
"y
!
"
" Az
" Az
1
x
y
=
0
"y
"x
"
"$
#
!
!
"
J0
"
J0
1
x
0 (x2 + y2 ) y
0 (x2 + y2 )
=
0
"y
4
"x
4
J0 x
J0 y
+ y
(A/m).
= x
2
2
(c)
%

H dl = I =

J ds,

## H# ##2$ r = J0 $ r2 ,
r
H = ## H# = ## J0 .
2

Homework#6.EE135

Homework#6.EE135

Problem 5.32
The xy plane separates two magnetic media with magnetic
permeabilities 1 and 2 (Fig. P5.32). If there is no surface current at the interface
and the magnetic field in medium 1 is
H1 = xH1x + yH1y + zH1z
find:
(a) H2
(b) !1 and !2
(c) Evaluate H2 , !1 , and !2 for H1x = 2 (A/m), H1y = 0, H1z = 4 (A/m), 1 = 0 ,
and 2 = 40
z

H1

1
x-y plane

2
Figure P5.32: Adjacent magnetic media
(Problem 5.32).

Solution:
(a) From (5.80),

1 H1n = 2 H2n ,
and in the absence of surface currents at the interface, (5.85) states
H1t = H2t .
In this case, H1z = H1n , and H1x and H1y are tangential fields. Hence,

1 H1z = 2 H2z ,
H1x = H2x ,
H1y = H2y ,
and
H2 = xH1x + yH1y + z

1
H1z .
2

Homework#6.EE135

Homework#6.EE135

Problem 5.40 The rectangular loop shown in Fig. P5.40 is coplanar with the long,
straight wire carrying the current I = 20 A. Determine the magnetic flux through the
loop.
z

20 A

30 cm

5 cm
20 cm
y
x
Figure P5.40: Loop and wire arrangement for
Problem 5.40.

Solution: The field due to the long wire is, from Eq. (5.30),
B = !

0 I
0 I
0 I
= x
= x
,
2" r
2" r
2" y

where in the plane of the loop, ! becomes x and r becomes y.


The flux through the loop is along x, and the magnitude of the flux is
#=

0 I 20 cm x
x (30 cm dy)
2" 5 cm
y
! 0.2
0 I
dy
0.3
=
2"
0.05 y
"
#
0.2
0.3 0
20 ln
=
= 1.66 106
2"
0.05

B ds =

(Wb).

Homework#6.EE135

Problem 6.2 The loop in Fig. P6.2 is in the xy plane and B = zB0 sin ! t with B0
positive. What is the direction of I (" or " ) at:
(a) t = 0

(b) ! t = # /4
(c) ! t = # /2
z

Vemf
I
x
Figure P6.2: Loop of Problem 6.2.

Solution: I = Vemf /R. Since the single-turn loop is not moving or changing shape
m = 0 V and V
tr
with time, Vemf
emf = Vemf . Therefore, from Eq. (6.8),
tr
/R =
I = Vemf

1
R

$B
ds.
$t

If we take the surface normal to be +z, then the right hand rule gives positive
flowing current to be in the +" direction.
I=

AB0 !
A $
B0 sin ! t =
cos ! t
R $t
R

(A),

where A is the area of the loop.


(a) A, ! and R are positive quantities. At t = 0, cos ! t = 1 so I < 0 and the
current is flowing in the " direction (so as to produce an induced magnetic field
that opposes B).

(b) At ! t = # /4, cos ! t = 2/2 so I < 0 and the current is still flowing in the "
direction.
(c) At ! t = # /2, cos ! t = 0 so I = 0. There is no current flowing in either direction.

Homework#6.EE135

Problem 6.6 The square loop shown in Fig. P6.6 is coplanar with a long, straight
wire carrying a current
I(t) = 5 cos(2! 104t) (A).
(a) Determine the emf induced across a small gap created in the loop.
(b) Determine the direction and magnitude of the current that would flow through
a 4-" resistor connected across the gap. The loop has an internal resistance of
1 ".
z

10 cm
I(t)
10 cm
5 cm

x
Figure P6.6: Loop coplanar with long wire (Problem 6.6).

Solution:
(a) The magnetic field due to the wire is
B = ##

0 I
0 I
= x
,
2! r
2! y

where in the plane of the loop, ## = x and r = y. The flux passing through the loop
is
#
!
! 15 cm "
0 I
$ = B ds =
[x 10 (cm)] dy
x
2! y
S
5 cm
1
15
0 I 10
ln
=
2!
5
4! 107 5 cos(2! 104t) 101
1.1
=
2!
4
7
= 1.1 10 cos(2! 10 t) (Wb).

Homework#6.EE135

Homework#6.EE135

Problem 6.9 A rectangular conducting loop 5 cm 10 cm with a small air gap in


one of its sides is spinning at 7200 revolutions per minute. If the field B is normal to
the loop axis and its magnitude is 6 106 T, what is the peak voltage induced across
the air gap?
Solution:
2" rad/cycle 7200 cycles/min
= 240" rad/s,
60 s/min
2
A = 5 cm 10 cm/(100 cm/m) = 5.0 103 m2 .

!=

From Eqs. (6.36) or (6.38), Vemf = A! B0 sin ! t; it can be seen that the peak voltage
is
peak
Vemf = A! B0 = 5.0 103 240" 6 106 = 22.62 ( V).

Homework#6.EE135

Problem 6.18 An electromagnetic wave propagating in seawater has an electric


field with a time variation given by E = zE0 cos ! t. If the permittivity of water is
81"0 and its conductivity is 4 (S/m), find the ratio of the magnitudes of the conduction
current density to displacement current density at each of the following frequencies:
(a) 1 kHz
(b) 1 MHz
(c) 1 GHz
(d) 100 GHz
Solution: From Eq. (6.44), the displacement current density is given by

#
#
D=" E
#t
#t
and, from Eq. (4.67), the conduction current is J = $ E. Converting to phasors and
taking the ratio of the magnitudes,
!
! ! !
! !
!"
" !!
$
! J ! ! $E
.
!=
! !=!
" ! !"r "0
!"
Jd ! ! j!"r "0 E
Jd =

(a) At f = 1 kHz, ! = 2% 103 rad/s, and


! !
!"
!
4
!J!
= 888 103 .
! !=
!"
Jd ! 2% 103 81 8.854 1012

The displacement current is negligible.


(b) At f = 1 MHz, ! = 2% 106 rad/s, and
! !
!"
!
4
!J!
= 888.
! !=
!"
Jd ! 2% 106 81 8.854 1012

The displacement current is practically negligible.


(c) At f = 1 GHz, ! = 2% 109 rad/s, and
! !
!"
!
4
!J!
= 0.888.
! !=
!"
Jd ! 2% 109 81 8.854 1012

Neither the displacement current nor the conduction current are negligible.
(d) At f = 100 GHz, ! = 2% 1011 rad/s, and
! !
!"
!
4
!J!
= 8.88 103 .
! !=
!"
Jd ! 2% 1011 81 8.854 1012

The conduction current is practically negligible.

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