PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

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ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND KINESIOLOGY
1.

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7.

8.

9.
10.

11.

12.

13.

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The following procedures describe the Apleys scratch test which facilities range of motion evaluation, EXCEPT:
a. To test Abduction and external rotation, the patient reaches behind his head and touches the superior medial angle of the opposite
scapula
b. To test abduction and external rotation, place both hands behind the back as high as possible.
c. To test internal rotation and adduction, the patient reaches behind his back to touch the inferior angle of the opposite scapula.
d. To determine range of internal rotation and adduction, the patient reaches in front of his head and touch the opposite acromion.
e. To demonstrate full bilateral abduction, abduct the arms to 90 degrees, keeping elbows straight, and turn palms up in supination
and continue abduction until his hands touch over his head.
This type of traction immobilizes a body part intermittently over an extended period, through direct application of pulling force using
adhesive or no adhesive traction tape on other skin traction devices on the patients skin.
a. Skin Traction
d. Limb Traction
b. Extremity Traction
e. Manual Traction
c. Skeletal Traction
Common origin of gracilis, adductor brevis and adductor magnus:
a. Inferior ramus of pubis
c. Ischial tuberosity
b. Ramus of Ischium
d. Body of pubis
Motor neuron disease is a rather broad term applied to disorders characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Fasciculation are common and are often found generally before diffuse atrophy is evident.
b. These are painless disorders except for muscle cramping, and there are no sensory deficits.
c. Onset is often symmetric, with wasting of a hand, arm of shoulder girdle.
d. Bulbar involvement may occur early or later and leads to fatal respiratory complications.
e. Signs of progressive motor neuron loss with or without the paresis and spasticity of corticospinal tract degeneration.
The following statements are true of the collateral ligaments, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral collateral ligament connects the femur and the fibula
b. These ligaments may be easily injured when force is applied to the knee while a person leg is extended with his foot firmly planted
on the ground.
c. Medial collateral ligament corrects the femur to the tibia.
d. Prevent side-to-side movement by tightening during leg extension
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia
The aponeurotic insertion of the large extensor muscle of the knee largely provides the fibrous capsule for the front and sides of the
joint. In the tendon of this powerful muscle a sesamoid bone developed and became articular. Name this bone:
a. Tibia
c. Patella
b. Femoral condyle
d. Lateral condyle
The vasomotor center is most likely to be found in the:
a. Cerebral cortex
d. Spinal cord
b. Carotid sinus
e. pons and medulla
c. Internal capsule
The following are true of the Rectus Femoris, EXCEPT:
a. The head/s are not distinctly palpable since the muscle disappears proximally in the depression between the sartorius and the
tensor fascia latae.
b. The head that take origin from the posterior inferior iliac spine is the more commonly avulsed, usually from injuries.
c. The only two-joint muscle in the quadriceps group
d. It has a dual origin, a direct and an indirect head
e. Crosses the hip and the knee joints, acting as a flexor of the hip and an extensor for the knee.
A solution in water crystalloids and colloids:
a. Plasma
c. Blood platelets
b. Phagocytes
d. Macrophages
The In hydrocephalus, the following condition/s is/are true:
a. Blockers of the circulation of the fluid in the Subarachnoid space increases the pressure on the outer surface of the brain or spinal
cord
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. The cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles are blocked, leading to the enlargement of the ventricular cavities at the expenses of the
brain tissue
Nonunion may occur with internal fixation. When this happens, the bone fragments may be stimulated with electrical current. Which of
the following statements does not apply?
a. The electrodes may be implanted either by open incision or percutaneously, using a hand drill
b. The electricity applied either through magnetic coils placed on the skin at the fracture site, or through implanted electrodes
c. Electrical bone stimulation substitutes for normal piezoelectric effect, in which mechanical stress on a solid object induces
electrical activity
d. A weak current of 20 microamperes is transmitted, because higher level would cause, tissue necrosis and a lower level could fail to
stimulate osteogenesis
e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic simulating effect
The following statements are true of the quadriceps, EXCEPT:
a. Small amount of quadriceps activity if the center of gravity line passes behind the knees axis
b. There is no quadriceps activity in bilateral standing in most cases
c. Standing erect is still possible even with bilateral quadriceps paralysis even without braces
d. Keeping the knees slightly flexed minimizes knee collapse during postural sway
In this foot deformity, the front part of the foot does not touch the ground:
a. Pes Calcaneus
c. Pes Equinus
b. Pes Cavus
d. Pes Varus

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14. Muscles of the digits that have their proximal attachments in the forearm or humerus is classified as:
a. Intrinsic Muscles
c. Extrinsic Muscles
b. None of these
d. Thenar Muscles
15. The following statements are true of arthrography, EXCEPT:
a. The visual examination of the joint anteriorly
b. The X-ray examination of a joint following injection of radiopaque dye
c. Most useful in diagnosing conditions of the posterior and middle third of the medial meniscus
d. A strictly diagnostic procedure
e. The only contraindication for this procedure is allergy to an iodine-based dye
16. To distinguish between intrinsic muscle tightness and joint capsule contractures, the involved finger is flexed a few degrees at the
metacarpophalangeal joint into flexion. If the joint is now capable of full flexion:
a. There is probably proximal joint capsule contracture
b. The intrinsic are probably tight
c. There is no contracture at the proximal joint capsule
d. None of these applies
e. The intrinsic are probably loose
17. If a 15 kilogram force is applied over an area of three square centimeters, the pressure (in kilograms per square centimeter) is equal to:
a. None of these
c. 3
b. 5
d. 7
18. The cell powerhouse enables the cell to extract significant amounts of energy from the nutrients and oxygen for cellular functions:
a. Golgi apparatus
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Mitochondria
d. Lysosomes
19. The following statements apply to crutch-walking down the stairs, non-weightbearing, right lower extremity, EXCEPT:
a. The patient first lowers his crutches to the next step down
b. Instruct the patient to grasp the banister and shift his left crutch to his right hand, the PT stands one step below
c. If using the three-point-and-one gait, hell simultaneously lower his right leg and both crutches
d. After lowering his crutches, if using the three-point-and-one gait, lowers his left foot onto the next step, and his other leg follows
e. After lowering his crutches, he lowers his left foot onto the next step, and his other leg follows
20. This lobe of the lateral surface of the hemisphere (approximately the anterior 1/3 is rostral to the central sulcus and above the lateral
fissure:
a. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
b. Parietal lobe
d. Insular lobe
21. Subjects treated in PT for knee problems can benefit from a supportive knee appliance. The purposes of knee appliances are as follows,
EXCEPT:
a. To change the biomechanics of the knee
b. To pursue a conscientious strength/power maintenance program
c. To protect the surgical procedure during healing of tissues
d. To compensate for decreased internal stabilization with an increased external stabilization system
e. As an adjunct to a thorough rehabilitation program
22. Area of skin supplied by one dorsal root:
a. Myotome
c. Dermatome
b. Both of these
d. None of these
23. The Tinel sign is a test designed to:
a. Reproduce the pain of tennis elbow
b. Assess the stability of the medial and lateral collateral ligaments of the elbow
c. Elicit tenderness over a neuroma within a nerve
d. Test the reflex action that is a function of C5
e. Test the deep tendon reflex, a lower motor neuron reflex
24. All of the following statements characterize saltatory conduction of nerve impulse, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
c. Conduction is continuous
b. It is a slow process
d. Conduction takes place at the Nodes of Ranvier
25. This test flexes the knee into full extension and passively allows it to extend completely with a sharp and point. It is designed to evaluate
a lack of full knee extension, most often secondary to a torn meniscus, or an intracapsular joint welling.
a. Distraction Test
d. McMurray Test
b. Apprehension test
e. Bounce Home Test
c. Patella Femoral Grinding Test
26. Venous return to the heart may be aided by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Tight elastic stockings
c. A sedentary job
b. Massage
d. Venous valves
27. This very strong ligament unites the sustentaculum to the lower edge of the back of the navicular. On its strength and integrity depends
on the security of the whole foot. When stretched, the foot may become flat. What is this ligament?
a. Interosseous talocalcaneal ligament
c. Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
b. Short plantar ligament
d. Deltoid ligament of the ankle
28. The following structures pass between the malleoli, EXCEPT:
a. Extensor digitorum longus tendon
d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
b. Extensor hallucis longus tendon
e. Dorsal pedal artery
c. Tibialis anterior tendon
29. This test is designed to determine the quality of the articulating surfaced of the patella and the trochlear prove of the femur. The subject
usually complains of pain of discomfort is the test is positive.
a. Apprehension test
d. Patella femoral grinding test

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b. None of these
e. Distraction test
c. Knee joint effusion test
30. The rapid exchange of positive and negative ions due to cells increase in permeability is termed:
a. Action Potential
c. Depolarization
b. Membrane Potential
d. Repolarization
31. Action of the External Abdominal Oblique:
a. Unilateral contraction causes side bending and trunk rotation with the opposite shoulder
b. Both of these
c. Unilateral contraction causes trunk rotation to the opposite side and side bending to the same side
d. None of these
32. In polyneuropathy, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Weakened musculature is often painful when squeezed
b. Diminution or loss of tendon stretch reflexes is an early finding
c. Clumsiness of the hands and astereognosis appear as sensory deficits increase
d. Symptoms are experienced in the feet and legs before the hands and arms
e. In most cases, the lower motor neuron lesion is not evident in weakness and atrophy distally
33. The following statements apply to the posterior tibial nerve lesions, EXCEPT:
a. Sensory loss involves much of the sole and dorsum of the foot
b. If high, may result in paralysis of the hamstrings
c. Tropic changes may be prominent
d. May result in paralysis of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, the long flexor of the toes and the intrinsic foot muscles
e. Causalgia may appear
34. The major cation in the intracellular fluid compartment is:
a. Cl
d. Ca++
b. Na+
e. Mg++
c. K+
35. Administration of any of the following may be expected to result in elevation of mean blood pressure, EXCEPT:
a. Bradykinin
d. Angiotensin
b. All of these
e. Vasopressin (ADH)
c. Norepinephrine
36. An Ortolani Click is produced when:
a. Both legs are abducted while exerting resisting pressure on the medial aspects of both knees
b. You apply traction to the femur and return it to its previous position upon the release of traction
c. The femoral head enters and leaves the acetabular
d. You release the abducted leg while the knee is flexed to 90 degrees and keeping the hip joint in neutral
e. You gradually distract the head to remove its weight from the neck
37. This type of contractions are quick, jerky reactions responding to a single stimulus, and usually lasts less than a tenth of a second:
a. Fibrillation
d. Fasciculation
b. Tetanic
e. Twitch
c. Convulsion
38. With a proximal or distal extensor reconstruction or a plica excision, postoperative treatment regimen includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. Quadriceps femoris setting (5-10 repetitions per hour) is begun along with ankle-circumduction program the day after surgery
b. To adhere to the rehabilitation program, a delay of another day may not be allowed even if he feels uncomfortable after surgery
c. Walking and weight bearing to tolerance with crutches may be started the day after surgery
d. Rehabilitation program begins the day of surgery
e. To promote circulatory benefits in the lower extremity and to prevent phlebitis, ankle circumduction is encouraged
39. This subjective test increases intrathecal pressure and requires accurate response from the patient:
a. Swallowing Test
d. Adson test
b. Compression Test
e. Valsalva Test
c. Distraction Test
40. Triceps brachii may be paralyzed in injury to the:
a. Radial nerve
c. None of these
b. Sixth cervical segment of the spinal cord
d. Both of these
41. The following statements may apply to the rotator cuff, EXCEPT:
a. Degeneration and tearing of its tendon of insertion results in restriction especially of abduction
b. Three of the muscles are palpable at their insertions into the greater tuberosity of the humerus
c. The shoulder must be actively extended to rotate it into a palpable position
d. The subscapularis is not palpable
42. Arthrokinematically, these types of motions can occur between two surfaces on joint movement:
a. All of these
c. Spinning
b. Sliding or Gliding
d. Rolling or Rocking
43. To test this structure, the patients foot is turned into plantar flexion and inversion. The structure is possibly sprained or torn if inversion
stares increases pain. What is this structure?
a. Anterior talofibular ligament
d. Calcaneofibular ligament
b. Posterior talofibular ligament
e. Tibialis posterior tendon
c. Tibialis anterior tendon
44. When the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced, it is said to be in a state of:
a. Terminal velocity
c. Equilibrium
b. Inertia
d. Forced Vector
45. This neurologic level outlines a strip down the midline of the posterior thigh and the popliteal fossa, and it is supplied by the posterior
femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh:

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a. L3
d. L2
b. L4
e. S2
c. S1
46. This procedure tests the integrity of the segmental innervations of the rectus abdominis and the corresponding paraspinal muscles. The
patient does a quarter sit-up with arms crossed over the chest. If the umbilicus is drawn up, down or to one side, there may be
asymmetrical involvement of the anterior abdominal and paraspinal muscles.
a. Patrick test
d. Valsalva Maneuver
b. Fabere's Test
e. Gaeslans Sign
c. Beevors Sign
47. Which of the following ligaments comprise the lateral collateral ligaments of the ankle joint?
a. Anterior talofibular
d. Posterior talofibular
b. Calcaneofibular
e. all of these
c. None of these
48. The following are true of the femoral artery, EXCEPT:
a. If the common iliac or external iliac artery is partially occluded, the femoral artery pulse may be diminished
b. The femoral nerve lies lateral to the femoral artery
c. The femoral vein lies medial to the femoral artery and is a clinical site for venous puncture
d. Palpable just superior to the inguinal ligament, at a point halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
e. Passes under the inguinal ligament at about its midpoint
49. The following are true of the femoral triangle, EXCEPT:
a. Defined inferior by the linear increase
b. Defined posteriorly by the Sartorius muscle ridge
c. Defined medially by adductor longus muscle
d. With the subject in supine, the soft tissues of the triangle is best examined with the heel of the leg being examined resting upon the
opposite knee.
e. The floor is formed by portions of the adductor longus, the pectineus and the iliopsoas muscles
50. C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the:
a. Lower trunk
d. Upper trunk
b. Middle trunk
e. Medial cord
c. Anterior cord
51. Hemiplegia or hemiparesis is perhaps the most common physical manifestation of the disease of the brain. The following conditions
describe hemiplegia, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects may suffer severe hemisensory losses and hemianopsia
b. Bilateral mild hemiparesis may pass unnoticed unless Babinski sign is present on both side
c. Due in largest part to the vulnerability of the cortex and its radiations the lesions of vascular disease, either
d. Ipsilateral weakness can result even when there is no immediate impingement of the motor cortex and its descending radiations
e. Babinski sign is commonly present but the tendon reflexes may be absent, equal to those of the other side or exaggerated
52. Due to their connection with postganglionic neurons, they constrict the pupil and is involved in light and accommodation reflexes:
a. Optic nerve
c. Oculomotor nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve
53. Apleys Compression Test is a procedure designed to aid in the diagnosis of a torn meniscus wherein:
a. Pain on the medial side indicates a damaged anterior cruciate; pain on the lateral side suggests a lateral meniscal tear
b. Pain on the medial aside indicates a damaged medial meniscus; pain on the lateral side suggests a tear of the lateral collateral
ligament
c. Pain on the medial side indicates a damaged medial meniscus; pain on the lateral side suggests a posterior cruciate tear
d. Pain on the medial side indicates a damaged medial lateral meniscal tear
e. Pain on the medial side indicates a damaged medial meniscus; pain on the lateral side suggests a lateral meniscus tear
54. The following statements apply to osteomyelitis, EXCEPT:
a. This infection may occur when phylogenic bacteria invade the patients injured bone or soft tissue surroundings the bone
b. The intramedullary abscess generally forms at the tip of a long bone where it exerts pressure inside the bone
c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative organism in wound or
blood culture
d. Occasionally, the new bone will surround the sequestrum in an attempt to heal the area, detaching the sequestrum completely and
requires surgical removal
55. The following statements describe the metatarsal heads, EXCEPT:
a. The transverse arch of the forefoot is located immediately behind the metatarsal heads
b. An antalgic gait may be created secondary to aseptic neurosis of the second, third, or fourth metatarsal heads
c. The second metatarsals head is the most common site of disproportionate prominence
d. The lateral aspect of the first metatarsal head is also a common site for gout
e. The head of the first metatarsal bone and the first metatarsophalangeal joint is the site of hallux valgus.
56. The following statements apply in combined anterolateral and anteromedial rotator instability, EXCEPT:
a. Result of anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia in the neutral position
b. Result of the abduction and abduction and adduction stress tests are positive with the knee in 30 degrees of flexion
c. Result of anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia internally rotated
d. Posterior cruciate ligament remains intact
e. Occurs with tears of the middle third of the medial and lateral capsular ligaments
57. The following statements describe Romberg test, EXCEPT:
a. The subject stands erect, with feet approximated, looking straight ahead
b. Vision, if defective, substitutes substantially for deficits in posterior column and peripheral nerve function
c. Assesses the ability to maintain upright posture while standing on only one leg

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d.

58.
59.
60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

When inability to balance well is based on cerebellar disease, vision is less able to correct for the difficulty in maintaining posture
and the subject will sway with eyes opened or closed
e. Deviation or loss of balance is toward the side of a unilateral lesion of the cerebellum
Carries impulses to the CNS:
a. Efferent fibers
c. None of these
b. Both of these
d. Afferent fibers
This muscle can plantarflex the foot regardless of ankle position:
a. Semimembranosus and gracilis
c. Tibialis anterior and flexor digitorum
b. Tibialis posterior and peroneus tertius
d. Gastrocnemius and soleus
The following statements describe the lateral compartment of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Although the anterior cruciate ligament is an important stabilizer of the knee, whether to repair it after injury is controversial
b. Muscular support is provided by the ilio-tibial band and iliotibial tract
c. The tension on the bundles of the anterior cruciate ligament is altered at the knee moves from extension to flexion
d. The anterior third of the lateral capsule provides little static support
e. The insertion of the popliteus muscle reinforces the posterior third of the lateral capsular ligament
Which of the following examples therapeutically decreases the pressure on a given area?
a. Use of orthotics to increase the force arm length
b. All of these
c. Prescribing a wearing schedule for a prosthesis
d. Use of closed-cell foam shoe inserts for walking
The following statements are true of the liver, EXCEPT:
a. It is in contact with the under surface of the dome of the diaphragm, thus enjoying the protection of the lower ribs
b. It is a solid, reddish brown, pliant organ situated mainly on the left side of the body
c. It maintains the amount of glucose present in the body at a constant level
d. It is the largest organ in the body weighing about one-fiftieth of the total body weight
Postoperative care of acute knee instability repair after hospital discharge include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Immobilization is continued for six weeks, during which time the subject is nonweight- bearing
b. Muscle strength is gained through such techniques as leg raising, terminal knee extension with leg raises or progressive resistance
exercises
c. When using free weight in progressive resistance exercises, it is extremely important that his foot and weight rest on a surface and
not allowed to dangle free with muscles relaxed when the subjects returns to the 90 degrees flexed position.
d. ROM should be regained passively because passive techniques tend to stretch excessively the healing ligaments and allow residual
laxity
e. It is important that the subject not externally rotate the involved leg during early weight bearing in order not to pull apart the
repaired ligaments
Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Kernig sign is elicited when stretching of the lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg on the thigh produces painful
limitation of this movement
b. The best sign is a demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion, usually accompanied by fever
c. In severe meningitis, there may even be a rigid hyper-extension of the neck and back, but generally, it does not limit lateral rotation
of the neck
d. Probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck
These tendons work only in unison. By limiting the three, the fourth is also limited. This is demonstrated by flexing the finger at any
given distal IP joint the subject is then unable to accomplish such individual flexion.
a. None of these
d. Interossei
b. Flexor digitorum superficialis
e. Lumbricals
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
If the central slip of the extensor digitorum communis tendon is avulsed from its insertion into the base of the middle phalanx, the
proximal interphalangeal joint becomes markedly flexed and the distal interphalangeal joint extended. This deformity is called:
a. Heberdens
d. Swan-neck
b. Mallet finger
e. Trigger finger
c. Boutonniere
In-hospital postoperative care in acute knee instability repair include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Cast change usually on the 5th postoperative day
b. Cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion
c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated
d. Non-weight bearing crutch walking
e. Ankle ROM, quadriceps, femoris muscle setting exercises progressing to straight-leg raising exercises
The axilla is a quadrilateral pyramidal structure through which vessels and nerves pass to the upper extremity. The following statements
apply to the axilla, EXCEPT:
a. The apex permit the entry of the brachial plexus and axillary artery
b. The medial wall is bound by ribs two to six and the overlaying serratus anterior
c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended
d. The anterior wall is formed by the pectoralis major and the posterior by the latissimus dorsi
e. The lateral wall is defined by the bicipital groove of the humerus
The following statements are true of the knee joint, EXCEPT:
a. Limitation by the two-joint rectus femoris muscle decreases knee flexion ROM when the hip is in flexion
b. End-feel for extension or hyperextension is firm
c. End-feel for passive knee flexion is soft.
d. It possesses two degrees of freedom and range of flexion is from 120 to 150 degrees

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70. These muscles extend the arm and are the chief lateral rotators:
a. Subscapularis and Pectoralis Major
c. Supraspinatus and Subscapularis
b. Infraspinatus and Teres Minor
d. Teres Major and Latissimus Dorsi
71. In the knee, excessive normal forces resulting in overuse syndrome can be caused by the following, EXCEPT:
a. High repetition, high load
b. Low repetition, high load
c. Activity level is greater than the possible physiological repair
d. Poor conditioning
e. Small biomechanical dysfunction that become magnified with high-performance activities
72. Common manifestations of Myasthenia Gravis include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Weakness of extraocular muscles
b. Weakness of bulbar musculature
c. Weakness of neck extension and of shoulder flexion
d. None of these
e. Ptosis
73. Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with leg muscle weakness or spasticity, poor muscular could
coordination of balance, degenerative leg joint disease, or bilateral prosthesis?
a. Swing-through three-point gait
d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
b. Four-point gait
e. Two-point gait
c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
74. Main venous drainage of the neck:
a. Maxillary vein
c. Internal jugular vein
b. Anterior jugular vein
d. Retromandibular vein
75. Generalities in knee instability are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
b. With an isolated tear of the medial compartment ligaments, the result of the abduction stress test is positive at 30 degrees of knee
flexion and negative with the knee in full extension
c. All of these
d. With an intact posterior cruciate ligament, rotator instability both single and combined may occur
e. With the posterior cruciate ligament ruptured, straight instability may be found

76. The following are true of anterolateral rotator instability of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Refers to posterior subluxation of the medial tibial plate in an internal rotation direction
b. Commonly results from a chronic anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency associated with a lax lateral capsule
c. The compressive forces on the lateral compartment during weight bearing may cause a severely painful sensation of the knees
slipping out of place
d. Less commonly, it can be a result of an acute tear of the lateral capsule
e. Described to be a reduction of the tibia upon the femur after subluxation which usually occurs when there is knee flexed from 10-20
degrees and when the iliotibial band lies anterior to the axis of knee rotation.
77. The spinous process of the following vertebrae lie above and below the interspace and since they do not overlap each other and mark
the actual levels of the vertebral bodies, they make they excellent reference points from which to identify other vertebrae:
a. L4 and S1
c. L3 and L4
b. L4 and L5
d. S1 and S2
78. The following statements characterize Moro reflex, EXCEPT:
a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease
b. It is normally present from birth until age 3-4 months
c. Loss of the reflex previously present is one of the early signs Kernicterus
d. Is indicative of a significant cerebral disorder if present beyond six months
79. Facilitated diffusion may be described by the following statements, EXCEPT:
a. Carrier proteins are involved in the transport of the substance
b. The rate of diffusion is faster than simple diffusion
c. The direction of diffusion is driven by electrical or concentration gradients
d. ATP cleavage is required
e. None of these
80. Depending on patient size and transfer method, condition and mobility potential, the following are preferred features in wheelchair
selection for arthritis patients, EXCEPT:
a. Foot-and-legrests are swing-detachable with heel loops
b. Standard type and standard handrims
c. Toggle brakes and fixed back
d. Special type with lever brakes
e. Fixed or removable armrests
81. Characteristics of myotonic dystrophy are as follows: EXCEPT:
a. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may be evident
b. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds
c. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades
d. No sensory or specific reflex changes are seen
e. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand
82. Injury to the tibial collateral, middle one-third medial capsular, and posterior oblique ligaments may be determined by the following test:
a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign

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83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.
90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

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b. Abduction stress test at 15 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
d. Abduction rotation test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation anterior drawer sign
e. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
The following apply to posterolateral rotator instability of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Caused by a momentary anterior subluxation of the lateral tibial plateau on the lateral femoral condyle
b. External rotational recurvatum test is positive because there is excessive hyperextension of the tibia on the femur, with excessive
external rotation
c. The mechanism of injury is usually a direct blow to the knee from an anteromedial direction
d. Resultant injury is characterized by a posterolateral drawer sign
e. Injury results in a lesion to the arcuate ligament complex, the popliteal tendon, the fibular collateral ligament, and the lateral head of
the gastrocnemius
Knee appliance selection is based on the following, EXCEPT:
a. There must be a definite need
b. The particular device chosen must meet the established need
c. The appliance must look reasonably attractive even if not comfortable
d. The cost must be affordable
e. The appliance must be used in a way that might not injure the subject
In the venous system:
a. Blood vessels have smaller diameters than their corresponding arteries
b. Mean pressures are higher than in the arterial system
c. Blood vessels have greater compliance
d. All of these are true
e. None of these are true
The patellar tendon of the quadriceps femoris attaches distally on this large roughened area which is anterior on the tibia and below the
tibial condyles. This palpable structure is:
a. None of these
c. Tuberosity of the tibia
b. Crest of the tibia
d. TIbiofemoral joint line
Following statements are true of upper neurons, EXCEPT:
a. Synapse directly on alpha, beta and gamma motorneurons in the spinal cord and cranial nerve nuclei
b. Completely contained within the central nervous system
c. Provide final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions
d. Synonymous to corticospinal tract
In the cranial cavity, this structures act as the outermost covering for the brain, but also as the lining membrane on the inner surfaces of
the bones. It also gives valuable support to the brain, the partitions preventing shifting thereby safeguarding the brain against injury.
a. Pia Mater
c. None of these
b. Arachnoid Mater
d. Dura Mater
The following are muscles of mastication, EXCEPT:
a. Medial and lateral pterygoid
c. Temporalis
b. Masseter
d. Orbicularis oris
Characteristics of Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy of Landouzy and Dejerine are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Lordosis is exaggerated
b. It progress quickly, resulting in disability years after onset
c. Atrophy of the face become severe
d. Atrophy and weakness of the shoulder-girdle muscles are prominent
e. Usually appears in the second decade of life and in either sex
The hip-repair surgical procedure involves removal of a bone wedge to shift weight-bearing stresses away from degenerated cartilage
onto healthy cartilage. A blade plate may be inserted for secure fixation and early ambulation.
a. Arthrodesis
d. Femoral Prosthesis
b. Muscle Release
e. Double-cup arthroplasty
c. Displacement Osteotomy
The following statements are true of the Levator Scapulae, EXCEPT:
a. It raises the medial border of the scapula.
b. It is supplied by the axillary nerve (C5 and C6)
c. It inserts into the medial border of the scapula opposite the supraspinous fossa.
d. It is supplied by the third and fourth cervical nerves from the dorsal scapular nerve (C5)
To distinguish between intrinsic muscle tightness and joint capsule contractures, the involved finger is flexed a few degrees at the
metacarpophalangeal joint and moving the proximal interphalangeal joint into flexion. If the joint still does not flex completely:
a. The intrinsics are probably loose
b. There is no contracture at the proximal joint capsule
c. There is probably proximal joint capsule contracture
d. The intrinsic are probably tight
e. None of these applies
The following are true of the sciatic nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Tenderness of the nerve may be due to a herniated disc in lumbar spine, a piriformis muscle spasm or direct trauma to the nerve
itself.
b. Located midway between the greater trochanter and the ischial tuberosity
c. Tenderness elicited during palpation of the tuberosity may possibly result from ischial bursitis
d. It is covered by the gluteus maximus when the hip is flexed
The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is formed by the roots of:
a. C6, C7 and T1
c. C5 and C6
b. C6 and C7
d. C5, C6 and C7

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96. The following statements allow soft tissue palpation of certain structures, EXCEPT:
a. The pulse of the brachial artery can be felt directly medial to the biceps tendon
b. Have the subject make a fist as resistance is offered to the dorsum of his hand to accentuate the extensor carpi radialis longus and
brevis
c. If the subject places his closed fist (in supination) under the edge of a table and tries to lift the table, the Brachioradialis tendon and
its muscle belly becomes accessible for palpation
d. To make the brachioradialis more prominent for palpation, have the subject close his fist, place in neutral position under the edge of
a table then lift up against the weight of the table.
97. This instability occurs with a tear of the posterior cruciate ligament and both the medial and lateral capsular ligaments. The results of the
anterior test, in which both condyles are subluxed anteriorly an equal amount with no rotation is positive.
a. Anterior instability
d. Lateral Instability
b. None of these
e. Medial Instability
c. Posterior Instability
98. Pronation and supination occurs mainly at this joint:
a. Humero-ulnar joint
c. Radio-carpal joint
b. Humero-radial joint
d. Radio-ulnar joint
99. Fat embolism is a common complication of long-bone fractures or surgery, or multiple fractures. The following statements apply to fat
embolism, EXCEPT:
a. Does not affect the central nervous system
b. If signs and symptoms worsen, the patient may require endotrachial intubation and mechanical ventilation
c. Severe cases may lead to coma and death, however, signs and symptoms may remain subtle and undetected
d. Signs and symptoms usually occur within 24 to 72 hours following fracture or surgery, but may appear to 7 to 10 days after it.
e. An accumulation of fat particles (emboli) which obstruct blood blow and cause inflammatory reactions around affected blood
vessels.
100. The act of inspiration increases the capacity of the thoracic case in which principal direction:
a. Increase in the transverse diameter due to the ribs swinging outwards
b. Increase in the anteroposterior diameter by the sterna body which is hinged at the sterna angle, swinging forwards
c. Increase in vertical diameter due to the descent and flattening of the dome of the diaphragm
d. All of these movements
101. This artery enters the upper arm on the medial side of the humerus and is accompanied throughout its course by the median nerve:
a. Ulnar Artery
c. Radial Artery
b. Vertebral Artery
d. Brachial Artery
102. In apparent leg length discrepancy, the following are true, EXCEPT:
a. Poliomyelitis may result in apparent leg length discrepancy
b. Apparent shortening may stem from pelvic obliquity or from adduction or flexion deformity in the hip joint
c. Measurement is taken from the umbilicus to the medial malleoli of the ankle
d. Pelvic obliquity manifests itself as uneven anterior or posterior iliac spines while the patient is standing
103. The shoe is a showcase for certain disorders of the foot. The following are examples, EXCEPT:
a. Creases of the forepart of the shoe that are markedly transverse, indicate possible hallux rigidus
b. Absence of creases on the forepart of the shoe indicate no toe off
c. Shoes of an individual with a drop foot display scuffed toes from scrapping the floor in swing phase
d. Shoes of subjects of who toe-in show excessive wear on the lateral border of the sole
e. Shoes of individuals with flat feet usually have broken medial counters due to the prominence of the talar head.

104. The following statements are true of the anatomic snuffbox, EXCEPT:
a. The radial border is composed of the abductor pollicis longus and the extensor pollicis brevis tendons
b. Any tenderness elicited on the floor of the snuffbox suggest a fracture
c. It lies just dorsal and distal to the radial styloid process
d. The ulnar border is the extensor pollicis brevis tendon and the floor of the navicular bone
e. The terminal branches of the superficial radial nerve are also palpable where they cross the extensor pollicis longus tendon
105. This connective tissue filament passes through the subarachnoid space to the end of the dura and continues its attachment to the
coccyx. It is a caudal continuation of the pia meter.
a. Coccyx
c. Filum terminale
b. Cauda equina
d. Conus medullaris
106. Which statement does not apply to the posterolateral drawer sign?
a. When the tibia is in external rotation, the sign is positive
b. The test is performed in the usual drawer fashion with the knee in 70 to 80 degrees of flexion
c. The tibia is internally or externally rotated as well as being positive in neutral position
d. Confirms a posterolateral rotator instability of the knee
e. The sign is negative if the tibia is in internal rotation because of the intact posterior cruciate ligament
107. Abduction and adduction occurs in this plane, and divided the body into front and back.
a. Sagittal Plane
c. None of these
b. Horizontal plane
d. Frontal plane
108. Ingestion of extremely small vesicles containing extracellular fluids:
a. None of these
c. Pinocytosis
b. Mitosis
d. Phagocytosis
109. If patient develops gas gangrene, or persistent osteomyelitis, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be ordered. The following statements
apply to hyperbaric oxygen therapy, EXCEPT:
a. Administering 100% oxygen at pressures higher then three times of sea level can cause central nervous system toxicity

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b.

110.

111.

112.
113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.
119.

Repeated treatment in a multiplace chamber may result in complications, i. e, pneumothorax, air embolism, CNS and pulmonary in
toxicity
c. Provides an oxygen-rich environment to help destroy the anaerobic organisms that cause gas gangrene
d. Increasing the barometric pressure inside the chamber result in or 1/3 the concentration
e. The patient receives 100% oxygen concentration in a specially designed chamber at greater than normal atmospheric pressure
Electrical stimulation of the primary somasthetic area will give rise to:
a. Olfactory sensation
d. Auditory sensation
b. Cutaneous sensation
e. Muscle twitch
c. Visual sensation
Central nervous system toxicities usually precede pulmonary toxicities, and are indicated by apprehension, visual changes, muscular
twitches and convulsions.
a. Both statements are true
c. First statement is false, second statement is true
b. Both statements are false
d. First statement is true, second statement is false
Dysphagia, dysphonia and regurgitation of food into the nose on swallowing is a result of bilateral lesion to this nerve:
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Accessory nerve
b. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Vagus nerve
Which of the following compounds when dissolved in solution produces the greatest osmotic pressure?
a. 100 mM CaCl2
d. 100 mM NaCl
b. None of these
e. 100 nM glucose
c. They will all generate the same osmotic pressure
Ligament and capsular structures work as a system, independent and related to one another. Functional stability is provided by the
following factors, EXCEPT:
a. Joint geometry
b. Active restraints generated by the muscles
c. Passive restraints of the ligaments
d. Passive restraints by muscles
e. Joint compressive forces that occur with activity and force the joint together
The various physiologic mechanisms of the body strive to achieve constancy of the following characteristic/s of the internal
environment.
a. All of these
d. Pressure
b. Temperature and pH
e. Temperature
c. Osmolality
The following statements depict the distribution of some spinal segment and roots, EXCEPT:
a. The twelfth thoracic segment is at the groin level
b. The third thoracic segment is at nipple level
c. The sacral dermatomes innervate the saddle area
d. The tenth thoracic segment is at the umbilicus level
e. The anterior neck and upper shoulder are innervated by the cervical plexus, largely C4
The following may be observed upon examination of the patients lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Soft, doughy lipomata appearing as lumps in the area of the low back may be a sign of spina bifida
b. Any reddened dislocation may indicate infection, and skin markings may denote underlying neurologic
c. Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by caf-u-lait spots which may
impinge upon the spinal cord and nerve roots
d. An unusual patch of hair on the back may be evidence of some body defect in the spine such as a congenital bony bar
e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated
Which of the following is true of the Hamstring?
a. All of these
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee
b. None of these
d. Rotates the knee joint when the joint is fully extended
This method of bandaging is used to accommodate either increasing or decreasing body part circumstances:
a. Spiral turn
d. Spiral-reverse turn
b. Figure-eight turn
e. Recurrent turn
c. Circular turn

120. The following statements describe the foots medial aspect, EXCEPT:
a. The sustentaculum tali supports the calcaneus and serves as an within this anatomic alignment may lead to pes planus
b. The first cuneiform bone projects distally nearly half an inch further than the other cuneiform bones and articulates laterally with the
cuboid bone
c. The medial tubercle of the talus is the point of insertion for the ankles medial collateral ligament
d. The first metatarsal flares slightly at its base to meet the first cuneiform, articulating in a simple plane joint, providing gliding
movement
e. The navicular articulates proximally with the talar head and distally with the three cuneiforms
121. The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:
a. Second Class Lever
c. First Class Lever
b. Fourth Class Lever
d. Third Class Lever
122. This muscle attaches to the medial border of the scapula and passes under the scapula to attach on the anterolateral border of the first
nine ribs:
a. Teres Major
b. Subscapularis
c. Teres Minor
d. Serratus Anterior
123. Immediately below the sacro-iliac joint, the greater sciatic notch allows which nerve to pass:

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a. Sciatic nerve
c. Gluteal nerve
b. Common Peroneal nerve
d. Femoral nerve
124. Complete denervation of the abducens nerve result in the following, EXCEPT:
a. The subject cannot turn the eyes outward beyond the midline
b. Horizontal diplopia
c. Internal strabismus
d. Loss of downward movement ocular movement when the eye is turned toward the nose
125. The cortex is not smooth but is thrown into folds and furrows that markedly increase the total surface area without demanding greater
brain volume. Each fold or grounded elevation is known as:
a. Sulcus
c. Gyrus
b. Hemisphere
d. Lobe
126. The following statements describe the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Originally only a sesamoid bone in the quadriceps tendon
b. The depth of the patella femoral groove and height of the lateral femoral condyle buttress the patella against lateral dislocation
c. The medial patellofemoral ligaments helps prevent its medial displacement
d. The chief active stabilizer is the vastus medialis oblique (VMO) muscle
e. Passive stabilization is provided by the bony contours of the femoral sulcus and the configuration of the patella as well as by
thickenings of the capsule
127. A severed peripheral nerve has some capacity to repair itself, and axis cylinders sprout from nerve endings at a rate of 1 to 2 mm per
day, some going astray. Chance determines whether connections can be reestablished and function restored:
a. Both sentences are false
b. Both sentences are true
c. The first sentence is false, the second sentence is true
d. The first sentence is true, the second sentence is false
128. The following statements apply to micro trauma, EXCEPT:
a. May be caused by abnormal forces that occur about the knee, i.e., unaccustomed walking on particularly uneven terrain.
b. May be caused by abnormal biomechanics of the lower extremity kinetic chain, i.e., when excessive compensatory pronation causes
excessive medial transverse plane rotations at the knee
c. A series of inflammatory reactions to submaximal loading that eventually produces clinical signs and symptoms
d. May be caused by excessive normal forces (overuse syndrome) about the knee, i.e., the different biomechanical forces that occur
during walking, jogging, and running
129. Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT:
a. Abduction at the glenohumeral joint from the deltoid and supraspinatus contracting together
b. None of these
c. Abduction and upward rotation of the scapula from the combined forces of the trapezius, serratus anterior
d. All of these
130. Following denervation atrophy, how long before loss of functional return becomes no longer possible:
a. None of these
c. Up to three months
b. 1-2 years
d. 2-3 years
131. In this maneuver, with the patient in supine, the legs are raised straight two inches from the table and held as long as he can; if he can
hold the position for 30 seconds within pain, intrathecal pathology may be ruled out.
a. Gaenslens Sign
d. Patrick Test
b. Milgram Test
e. Naffziger Test
c. Hoovers Test
132. The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Usually, there is anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well
as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscle
b. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture line may be vertical and in the sagittal
plane or it may be vertical and in the coronal plane
c. Prolonged, rigid immobilization is usually unnecessary, but full weight bearing is usually restricted during the three months
following the injury
d. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon the lower extremity
e. Femoral condyles are rarely injured, and fractures of the femur may be of the Y or T type and usually include soft tissue damage
133. Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with spina bifida, paraplegia or myelomeningocele?
a. Two-point gait
d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
b. Four-point gait
e. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
c. Swing-through three-point gait

134. The hip-repair surgical procedures replaces the degenerated femoral head with an intramedullary prosthesis:
a. Muscle Release
d. Displacement Osteotomy
b. Arthrodesis
e. Double-up arthroplasty
c. Femoral Prosthesis
135. Projection neurons of the cerebellar cortex whose long axons synapse either on deep nuclei or vestibular nuclei:
a. None of these
c. Purkinje cells
b. Stellate cells
d. Glomeruli
136. The following signs and symptoms generally accompany a fracture, EXCEPT:
a. Deformity but no shortening in the injured area
b. Decreases of complete loss of muscle power in the injured area
c. Localized discoloration and edema

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d. Presence of grafting sound when testing for ROM during assessment

e. Presence of crepitation during skin palpation
137. This crease lies at the base of the fingers and marks the location of the proximal pulley.
a. Distal palmar crease
d. Thenar crease
b. Hypothenar crease
e. Proximal palmar crease
c. Proximal interphalangeal crease
138. This instability occurs with a disruption of all of the lateral compartment capsular ligaments. The iliotibial band may be torn. The
posterior cruciate ligament remains intact. The result of the adduction test is positive with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion.
a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability
b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability
c. None of these
d. Combines anterolateral and anteromedial rotatory instability
e. Anterior instability
139. The ability to repeatedly execute the same movement over a period of time:
a. Endurance
c. Motor Control
b. Muscle Tone
d. Strength
140. Which of the following statements is true when testing for rigid or supple flat feet?
a. While standing on feet and seated, if medial longitudinal arch absent in some positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent
only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
b. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is absent and
present only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
c. While standing on toes, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he
stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and
absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
e. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is present and
absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
141. The upper extremity is attached to the trunk only at this joint:
a. Glenohumeral
c. Acromio clavicular
b. Sternoclavicular
d. Scapulothoracic
142. During the Stance Phase of Gait, subject may exhibit the following, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects with weakness of L5 distribution may have an abductor lurch
b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch
c. Subject with muscle weakness of S1 and S2 distribution may have a flat foot with no forceful toe-off
d. Subject with a L2-L4 distribution weakness may walk with a back knee gait to lock their knees in extension
143. The deltoid is innervated by:
a. Suprascapular nerve (C5, C6)
c. Axillary nerve (C5, C6)
b. Dorsal Scapular nerve (C3, C5)
d. Subscapular nerve (C5, C6)
144. This piece of equipment is commonly added to the traction equipment overhead framework and when indicated provides the patient with
a grasping device that promotes mobility and some independence, expediting daily care:
a. Plain Bar
d. Trapeze
b. Pulley
e. Spreader Bar
c. Bumper Ball
145. Supplied by the femoral nerve, this neurologic level spans the anterior thigh immediately at and above the knee joint:
a. L4
d. L3
b. S1
e. S2
c. L2
146. A patient has been admitted to your hospital with severe lower back pain. The patient will be placed in a pelvic belt for intermittent
traction. The following applies to proper pelvic belt application, EXCEPT:
a. Although pelvic traction may be applied directly on the skin, it may also be applied over clothing made of cotton (for better traction)
and wrinkle-free (to avoid excessive pressure on the skin)
b. The patient may be placed in Williams position with hips flexed 300 and knees flexed 300 as part of daily care
c. The straps must be parallel to each other and to the patients thighs when attached to the traction cords
d. The free ends of the belt are wrapped around the hip bone so the iliac crests are covered
147. In polyradiculoneuropathy, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. In acute post infection polyradiculoneuropathies the early weakness may be more evident in the girdle musculature
b. Hands and feet may become quite sensitive and painful to squeezing, slapping and temperature changes
c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete
d. Signs may be somewhat asymmetric
148. The following are characteristics of the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle joint, EXCEPT:
a. The anterior talofibular ligament has a high incidence of sprain because it is the first to undergo stress when the ankle is inverted
and plantar flexed
b. The posterior talofibular ligament is the strongest of the lateral collateral ligaments, and its primary function is prevent forward
slippage of the fibula onto the talus
c. The calcaneofibular ligament stretches plantarward to its insertion into the lateral wall of the calcaneus
d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion
e. In severe ankle sprain, the calcaneofibular ligament may be torn, but only after the anterior talofibular ligament has also been torn
149. The axillary nerve and radial nerve are second branches of:
a. Anterior cord
d. None of these
b. Lateral cord
e. Medial cord
c. The posterior cord

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150. The following statements are true of the Tunnel of Guyon, EXCEPT:
a. Site for compression injuries
b. A fibro-osseous tunnel on the depression between the pisiform and the hook of the hamate converted by the pisohamate ligament
c. Clinically significant because it contains the ulnar nerve and artery
d. The area is usually tender if there is pathology present
e. The ulnar nerve and artery are distinctly palpable under the layer of soft tissue covering the tunnel
151. The following statements are true of the brachialis, EXCEPT:
a. It is an elbow flexor
b. It is innervated by Musculocutaneous nerve
c. When the forearm is supinated, the brachialis flexes the elbow with little participation from the biceps.
d. It is proximal attachment is halfway up the shaft of the humerus
152. Injury to the spinal accessory nerve results in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Downward and outward rotation of the upper part of the scapula
b. Weakness in rotating the head to the opposite side
c. Sagging and weakness in shrugging the shoulder
d. The tongue deviates to the paralyzed side
153. The following statements are true of the Trigeminal Nerve, EXCEPT
a. It branches into three major divisions: Opthalmic, Maxillary and the Mandibular
b. It s the sensory nerve of the face, mouth, teeth and nose
c. This is also the Sixth cranial nerve
d. It is the motor nerve to the four muscles of mastication
154. The elicitation of a motor response means that the arc is intact and conducting impulses. The absence of a response does not have the
converse meaning, since normal or abnormal neural influences may suppress the reflex:
a. First sentence is true, the second sentence is false
b. Both sentence are true
c. First sentence is false, the second sentence is true
d. Both sentence are false
155. Which of the following characterize of the Golgi Tendon Organs:
a. They reside within muscle tendons near the point of attachment of the muscle fiber to the tendon
b. All of these
c. Small bundle of muscle fibers produce tension that stimulate these organs
d. These organs discharge nerve impulses that are transmitted over large, rapidly conducting afferent axons to the spinal cord and
cerebellum
156. A fracture with cord transaction at the C6 level will produce the following, EXCEPT:
a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends
b. Breathing is diaphragmatic
c. There is complete sensory loss below the C6 or C7 dermatome
d. An immediate flaccid paralysis of the trunk and extremities sparing some shoulder movement and flexion at the elbows
e. At a later stage, reflexes in this zone will be reduced or absent, whereas those mediated through intact cord segment below will be
hyperreflexic
157. Capillary networks surrounded by cuboidal or columnar epithelium that forms the cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Choroid plexuses
c. Cerebral aqueduct
b. Foramina of Luschka
d. Interventricular foramina
158. The following statements are true of the Trigeminal Nerve, EXCEPT
a. If you are able to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is flexed, the soleus muscle is the limiting factor. If the gastric is
responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is flexed
b. If you are able to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is flexed, the gastrocs muscle is the limiting factor. If the soleus is
responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is extended
c. If you are able to achieve ankle, dorsiflexion when the knee is the limiting factor. If the soleus is responsible for the limited motion,
the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is flexed.
d. If you are ale to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is extended, the gastro muscle is the limiting factor. If the slues is
responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is extended
e. If you are able to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is extended, the gastro muscle is the limiting factor. If the soleus is
responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not knee is flexed
159. Example of ATP use by the cell:
a. All of these
b. Supply energy for the transport of Na through the cell membrane
c. Supply the energy needed during muscle contraction
d. Promote proteins synthesis by the ribosomes
160. The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on:
a. Extrinsic muscles of the hand
c. Ligaments
b. Capsule
d. Intrinsic muscles of the hand
161. Injury to the Median Nerve at the level of the elbow results in the following condition, EXCEPT:
a. The ring and little fingers extend
b. Making a fist results in the index and middle finger tending to remain straight
c. Thenar eminence i8s flattened and due to paralysis and wasting
d. Paralysis of the pronator muscles of the forearm and the long muscles of the wrist and fingers, except the flexor carpi ulnaris and
medial half of the flexor digitorum
162. The following statements are true of balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT:
a. A hammock or splint, such as a Thomas splint with Pearson attachment is an example of this type of Traction
b. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the counter traction being applied

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c. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction pull
d. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone fragments
e. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the back of the patients leg.
163. The following is true of the Brachioradialis, EXCEPT:
a. It is inserted by a long tendon on the base of the styloid process of the radius
b. The nerve supply is via the radial nerve, a terminal branch of the brachial plexus
c. It devotes itself entirely to the elbow
d. It is a strong flexor of the elbow only with light loads or during slow flexion
164. The following are true of muscle contracting efficiency, EXCEPT:
a. Less than 20-25 per cent of input energy to the muscle can be converted into muscle work
b. Minimal efficiency is achieved when velocity contraction is about 30% of maximum
c. Large amount of maintenance heat are released even though the muscle performed little or not work
d. Low efficiency is because about half of nutrient is lost in the formation of ATP
165. The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine the following landmarks, EXCEPT:
a. C3-level with hyoid bone
b. T4-height of the manubrium and body of sternum
c. C4 and C5-level with thyroid cartilage
d. All of these
166. The lateral arm and axillary nerve are supplied by neurologic level:
a. C6
d. T1
b. C5
e. C7
c. C8
167. An abnormal contraction occurring in denervated muscle fibers after motor neurons have been destroyed, in which individual muscle
flutter but no effective movement.
a. Tetanic contraction
d. Fibrillation
b. Convulsion
e. Twitch
c. Fasciculation
168. External fixation is considered as an alternative for the following reason:
a. Internal fixation might increase soft tissue damage because of the surgical procedure involved
b. All of these
c. Casting probably wont provide adequate visualization of an open would or access for treatment of an open fracture
d. Bone fragments in comminuted fractures wont provide adequate anchoring for a pin or plate
e. Traction would reduce and immobilize the area securely, but would place the patient at great risk of immobility complications.
169. The following statements apply to the femoral nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Proximal lesions will result in weakness of thigh extension but most prominently loss of knee flexion
b. Sensory distribution include the anteromedial thigh and the anteromedial leg to the foot
c. Most common syndrome involving this nerve is a painful mononeuritis which occurs in diabetics
d. The quadriceps muscle atrophies quickly, the knee jerk is lost early
e. Arises from L1 to L4 spinal roots, and innervates the iliopsoas, Sartorius and quadriceps femoris muscle.
170. Deep somatic pan is transmitted by:
a. C fibers
c. B fibers
b. D fibers
d. A fibers
171. The following statements are true of the ulnar styloid process, EXCEPT:
a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation
b. It does not extend as far distally and it is more prominent and thicker than its radial counterpart
c. The external carpi ulnaris tendon runs through its groove
d. In the anatomic position, it is both medially and posteriorly located in the wrist
e. It is most easily palpated when the hand is radially deviated and the tendon is contracted
172. Upon inspection of the lumbar spine from the side, which of the following observations is not TRUE?
a. If the spine exhibits an exaggerated curve, the anterior abdominal muscles may be weaken
b. Increased lumbar lordosis may also be caused by a fixed flexion deformity of the hip
c. An absence of the normal lordosis may suggest paravertebral muscle spasms
d. Pelvis obliquity is evident when the two dimples overlying the posterior iliac spine directly above the buttocks lie along the same
horizontal plane
e. Excessive lordosis occasionally substitutes for true hip extension
173. At the atlanto-occipital joint, the head is balanced by the pull of neck extensor muscles. This is an example of:
a. First Class Lever
c. Third Class Lever
b. Second Class Lever
d. Fourth Class Lever
174. An example of a synovial pivot joint:
a. Glenohumeral joint
b. Juncture between the thumbs metacarpal bone and the wrists trapezium
c. Joint between the atlas and axis
d. Juncture between the radius and carpal bone of the wrist
175. Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint:
a. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint
b. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence
c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the ankle moves backwards
d. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger.
176. Mean arterial pressure is expected to increase if:
a. None of these
d. Calcium-channel blockers are administered
b. Stroke volume increases
e. There is generalized vasodilatation
c. Cardiac output decreases

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177. Accurate diagnosis forms the cornerstone for any discussion of ligamentous knee problems. The pertinent tests for anteromedial
rotatory instability are the:
a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
b. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
e. None of these
178. The following statements apply to the median nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Sensory loss involves the palmar surface of the hand and fingers
b. These is conspicuous atrophy of the thenar eminence with flattening of the pal
c. Partial injuries are often painful and paresthetic and causalgia may occur
d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of wrist flexion with median deviation
e. Carries fibers from the C6, C7, C8 & T1 roots
179. The following characterizes straight anterior knee instability, EXCEPT:
a. Injury is sustained while twisting, decelerating of changing direction
b. May involve external rotation of the tibia with knee flexed
c. May involve forced rotation of the tibia with knee extended or slightly flexed
d. Subject usually hears a pop at the time of injury but still able to continue the activity
e. Gross swelling develops within 12 hours
180. The following statements describe the medial tubercle of the foot, EXCEPT:
a. Gives attachment to the abductor hallucis muscle medially and to the flexor digitorum brevis muscle and the plantar aponeurosis
anteriorly
b. It lies on the medial plantar surface of the calcaneus
c. Heel strike may altogether be avoided during gait when there is pain of the oscalcis
d. Unlike the lateral tubercle which is weight bearing the medial tubercle of the calcaneus is not
e. A heel spur can cause it to become tender to palpation
181. When a muscle is the principal agent in producing a desired movement, it is said to be a:
a. Antagonist
b. Fixators
c. Prime mover
d. Synergist
182. If the neck-shaft angle of the femur is less than 125 degrees, this deviation results in decreases leg length and muscle strength due to
torque changes from changes in muscle lever arms and length-tension relationships.
a. Retroversion
c. Coxa vara
b. Anteversion
d. Coxa valga
183. They function in the synthesis of protein cells and are composed of a mixture of ribonucleic acid and proteins:
a. Peroxisomes
c. Glycoproteins
b. Ribosomes
d. Lysosomes
184. Sensory perception of pain, may occur in amputated limb as part of a patients attempts to cope with loss of his limb:
a. Phantom Pain
c. Superficial Pain
b. Acute Pain
d. Chronic Pain
185. The following statements describe care of meniscal injuries, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects with horizontal cleavage tears of the menisci often remain asymptomatic
b. Flexion-extension exercises strengthen the quadriceps femoris mechanism
c. Subjects with vertical tears of the menisci do not heal, but increased strength and flexibility around the knee may allow continued
activities until the appropriate surgical procedure is performed.
d. Short-arc (terminal extension) or straight-leg-raise exercises cannot be substituted if full-arc exercises cause pain
186. The following statements describe a biceps reflex response, EXCEPT:
a. A deep tendon reflex transmitted to the cord as far as the anterior horn cell and returning to the muscle via the peripheral nerve
b. A slight response suggests the neurologic level deficient in its innervations of the biceps
c. A decreases response may be caused by a lower motor neuron lesion, e.g. PNI secondary to an herniated cervical disc
d. If there is no perceptible response after several attempts, there may be a lesion on the neurologic level anywhere from the root to
the innervations of the biceps
e. An excessive response may be a result of an upper motor neuron lesion, e.g., CVA
187. A common developmental abnormality, it is a partial or complete failure of the posterior neuropore:
a. Ependyma
c. Spina bifida
b. Neural folds
d. Neural groove
188. This articulation in the elbow joint permits pronation and supination:
a. Proximal Radioulnar Joint
c. Ulnohumeral Joint
b. Radiohumeral Joint
d. None of these
189. The following statements apply to the 7th cranial nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Innervates the musculature of the face and the platysma
b. The platysma is tested by pulling down the corners of the subjects mouth
c. Minor degrees of unilateral weakness are often best seen at rest or during expressional changes during conversation and in
blinking
d. This nerves via its division called the chords tympani conveys the taste from the posterior tongue
e. The strength of the frontalis can be estimated by smoothing the wrinkles with the fingers
190. The following statements apply to the sciatic nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Innervates the hamstrings muscles, the adductor magnus and all the musculature below the knee
b. There are two principal division, the posterior tibial and the common peroneal

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c.
d.

Carries fibers form the L4, L5 S1 and S2 roots

Interruption of the nerve will weaken the extension and adduction of the thigh and paralyze flexion of the knee and all movement
below the knee
e. Ankle jerk is lost and sensory loss involves and dorsal aspect of the leg and the lateral dorsum and sole of the foot
191. The following positions describe the examination the reflexes, EXCEPT:
a. With the subject standing, the hands are placed on hips with arms akimbo, tests for the triceps reflex
b. With the subject kneeling, the triceps surae stretch reflex is tested with one hand positioned on the ball of the foot stretching the
muscle slightly and tapping quickly and gently
c. With the subjects feet flat on the floor, hold one hand on the distal thigh and strike the tendon just below patella to test for
quadriceps stretch reflex
d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole
e. Striking the examiners thumb on the biceps tendon with the elbow flexed at varied degrees for best response is assumed for biceps
stretch reflex
192. The following mechanisms occur in a platelet plug, EXCEPT:
a. Platelets begin to swell when they com in contact with a damaged vascular surface
b. By itself, it can stop blood flow even of the hole in a vessels is large
c. Assume irregular forms
d. They stick to the collagen fibers
193. The spinal portion of the cranial nerve innervates the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles
a. Accessory nerve
c. Vagus nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve
194. The following is true in a nonunion fracture complication, EXCEPT:
a. To improve circulation, holes may be drilled near the fracture site and bone grafting may be performed to supply bone tissue
b. A pseudarthrosis may form at the fracture site, causing excessive joint mobility
c. There may be increased joint motion proximal and distal to the fracture site
d. May be treated with an orthotic device in combination with increased activity to improve blood supply to the site
e. There may be gradual muscle atrophy, and pain with weight bearing
195. The following statements are true in Reduction Click, EXCEPT:
a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg until the
meniscus slips back and a characteristic click is hear
b. This is similar to the McMurray test in that it can also unlock the knee joint and produce the reduction click
c. Applicable to those patients having a locked knee due to a torn, dislocated, or heaped up meniscus
d. The test will unlock the knee caused by a torn meniscus and permit full extension
e. The object of the procedure is to reduce the displaced or torn portion of the meniscus by clicking it back into place
196. This test is used to detect pathology in the hip and sacro-iliac joint. Inguinal pain is a general indication that there is pathology in the hip
joint or surrounding muscles.
a. Hoover Test
d. Gaeslans Sign
b. Beevors Sign
e. Naffziger Test
c. Fabere Test
197. The following statements are true when functional deficits are exclusively below a horizontal line at right angle to the spinal neuraxis,
EXCEPT:
a. Diffuse tract disease may give no clear level
b. Suspicion of spinal cord dysfunction is appropriate
c. Multiple focal lesions of the cord may give multiple levels
d. Diffuse cerebral disease of midline cerebellar (vermis) lesions may produce predominantly sensory dysfunction and ataxia in the
lower extremities
e. Signs of neuropathy or motor neuron disease can be limited largely to the legs
198. The following are type of end feel (according to Cyriax), EXCEPT:
a. Capsular feel
c. Springy block
b. Spasm
d. Bone of muscle
199. A movement disorder resulting from disease of the basal striatum and characterized by rapid, irregular flow of motions and grimacing
movements of the face:
a. Athetosis
c. None of these
b. Chorea
d. Parkinsons Disease
200. The following describes the medial meniscus, EXCEPT:
a. Situated on top of the tibia on the medial plateau
b. Its anterior end attaches to the nonarticular portion of the top of the tibia, in feat of the anterior cruciate ligament
c. Normally there is no specific sulcus between the margin of the meniscus and the joint capsule anywhere along the medial joint line
d. Has a firm attachment to the top of the tibia and a less firm one to the femur through the coronary ligament
e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.

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